TS Panchayat Secretary Previous Year Paper I (Held on : 2018)

The correct answer is B and C only.

Key Points

• Telangana Chief Minister K Chandrasekhar Rao had laid the foundation stone for the Gattu irrigation project in the Jogulamba Gadwal district on June 29, 2018. Hence the statement A is not correct.
• The project will provide water to 33,000 acres in four mandals in the district.
• With the Gattu lift irrigation project about 2.8 TMC of water would be supplied to 41 tanks, assuring water to 33,000 acres in the four mandals.
• Chanaka-Korata barrage is being built on the Penganga river. Hence the statement B is correct.
• This barrage with 213-meter height and 0.85 TMC storage and 80 per cent of its command area will be in Telangana and 20 per cent in Maharashtra.
• The Government of Telangana has shouldered the task of constructing the headworks of the project at its own cost.
• The Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) and UNESCO’s Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission (IOC-UNESCO) signed an agreement for the setting up of the International Training Centre for Operational Oceanography (ITCOO) in Hyderabad, India, during the 27th session of the IOC Assembly, on 4 July 2013. Hence the statement C is correct.

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Additional Information

• https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/telangana-cm-lays-stone-for-554-crore-gattu-project/article24294210.ece
• https://telanganatoday.com/channakha-korata-inter-state-project-on-fast-track
• https://en.unesco.org/news/towards-international-training-centre-operational-oceanography-india-1

The correct answer is 11 years.

Key Points

• Hyderabad twin blasts (Gokul Chat and Lumbini Park) case 2007
• ​On August 25, 2007, a blast at a popular eatery, Gokul Chat, killed 32 people, while 10 more died at the open-air theatre at Lumbini Park, a few metres from the state secretariat.
• The Telangana Counter Intelligence (CI) cell, which was probing the blast, had named seven persons as accused in three separate charge sheets during the course of the investigation.
• Nearly 170 witnesses were examined and cross-examined during the trial.
• In August 2013, the Metropolitan Sessions Judges (MSJ) court had framed charges against Anique Shafiq Syed, Mohammed Sadiq, Akbar Ismail Choudhary, and Ansar Ahmed Badshah Sheikh - all alleged Indian Mujahideen operatives.
• They were charged under Section 302 (murder) and other relevant provisions of the IPC and sections of Explosive Substances Act and also with regard to recovery of an unexploded bomb found under a foot overbridge at Dilsuknagar area.

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Additional Information

• https://www.indiatoday.in/india/story/after-11-years-court-to-deliver-verdict-in-hyderabad-twin-blasts-case-1323615-2018-08-27

The correct answer is A, B, & D only.

Key Points

• Dr. G. Satheesh Reddy was born in Mahimalaru village, Nellore District, Andhra Pradesh.
• He graduated in Electronics and Communication Engineering from JNTU, Anantapur, and received his M.S & PhD from JNTU Hyderabad. Hence statement C is not correct.
• He joined Defence Research and Development Laboratory (DRDL), Hyderabad in the year 1986.
• He was appointed as Scientific Adviser to Defence Minister in May 2015.
• He was made Secretary of Department of Defence R&D and Chairman of DRDO in Aug 2018. Hence statement A is correct.
• Contributions in DRDO
• Many navigation technologies and systems which form the core of defence assets have been designed and developed by him.
• India’s maiden successful test of Anti-Satellite (ASAT) missile Mission Shakti was successfully executed under his watch.
• His contribution has enabled the development of Air defence systems BVRAM Astra, Akash, MRSAM, LRSAM, QRSAM.
• The world’s longest-range gun ATAGS, anti-radiation missile, smart airfield weapons, smart bombs, and missile assisted torpedo release systems to owe their success to Dr Reddy’s vision. Hence statement B is correct.
• Awards received by Dr Reddy
• American Institute of Aeronautics and Astronautics (AIAA) Missile Systems Award
• Aeronautical Prize
• National Systems Gold Medal
• National Design Award
• IEI-IEEE (USA) Award for Engineering Excellence
• Homi J Bhabha Memorial Gold Medal by Indian Science Congress Association. Hence statement D is correct.
• Current Chairman of DRDO: Samir Kamat (Appointed on 25th Aug 2022)

The correct answer is The movie deals with the victory of the Indian hockey team in the 1948 Olympic Games.

Key Points

• Gold is a fictional movie, inspired by true events and people, of India’s first gold medal win as an independent nation at the 1948 Olympics in London.
• Tapan Das (Akshay Kumar), the team manager, leads the charge to assemble the country’s first all-Indian hockey team.
• His aim was to beat the Britishers at their own game, on their own turf.
• It was release on15 August 2018.
• It was directed by Reema Kagti.
• It was the first Bollywood movie to release in Saudi Arabia.

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Additional Information

• https://m.economictimes.com/magazines/panache/akshay-kumars-gold-creates-history-becomes-first-bollywood-film-to-release-in-saudi-arabia/articleshow/65616774.cms

The correct answer is ii and iii only.

Key Points

• Millets
• Millets are known for their nutrients.
• They are tolerant to drought, are photo insensitive and are resistant to climate change.
• The cultivation of millets requires less water than the cultivation of rice and wheat.
• They are cultivated in low-fertile land, mountainous, tribal and rain-fed areas. Hence Statement III is correct.
• These areas include Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Haryana, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Uttar Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and Telangana.
• In the pre-Green Revolution era, in 1965-66, millets were cultivated in 36.90 million hectares.
• In 2016-17, the area under millet cultivation declined to 14.72 million hectares (60% less coverage area) due to change in consumption pattern, dietary habits, unavailability of millets, low yield, less demand and conversion of irrigated area for cultivation of rice and wheat. Hence Statement II is correct.
• On the basis of the recommendations of NITI Aayog, it has been decided to create a sub mission on Nutri cereals instead of the existing NFSM-Coarse Cereals.
• National Food Security Mission (NFSM) -Coarse Cereals are divided into two components: NFSM (Makka and Jau) and Sub Mission on Nutri-Cereals covering Jowar, Bajra, Ragi and little Millets like Kutki, Kodo, Sawa, Kangni and Cheena.
• The Government declared 2018 as “National Year of Millets”. Hence Statement I is not correct.
• In order to promote millets, their prescribed purchases in MSP and inclusion in Mid-day Meal are being done.

Additional Information

• https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1525965

The correct answer is A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii.

Key Points

• Banwarilal Purohit
• He is the current and 14th Governor of Tamil Nadu.
• He was appointed as the Governor of Tamil Nadu on 30 September 2017, he assumed office on October 6, 2017.
• He belongs to Bhartiya Janata Party.
• Satya Pal Malik
• He was the 13th Governor of Jammu and Kashmir.
• He held the office from 23 August 2018 to 30 October 2019.
• He belongs to Bhartiya Janata Party.
• Lalji Tandon
• He was the 28th Governor of Bihar.
• He held the office from 23 August 2018 to 28 July 2019.
• He belongs to Bhartiya Janata Party.
• Draupadi Murmu
• She is the ninth and current Governor of Jharkhand since May 2015.
• She is the first woman Governor of Jharkhand.
• She is the first woman and tribal leader from Odisha to be appointed as a governor in an Indian state.

The correct answer is A - 4, B - 3, C - 1.

Key Points

• Global Gender Gap Report (2017)
• The Global Gender Gap Index was first introduced by the World Economic Forum in 2006 as a framework for capturing the magnitude of gender-based disparities and tracking their progress over time.
• This year’s edition of the Report benchmarks 144 countries on their progress towards gender parity on a scale from 0 (imparity) to 1 (parity) across four thematic dimensions—Economic Participation and Opportunity, Educational Attainment, Health and Survival, and Political Empowerment— and provides country rankings that allow for effective comparisons across regions and income groups.
• The rankings are designed to create global awareness of the challenges posed by gender gaps and the opportunities created by reducing them. The methodology and quantitative analysis behind the rankings are intended to serve as a basis for designing effective measures for reducing gender gaps.
• India ranked 108 out of 144 countries.
• Press Freedom Index (2018)
• The degree of freedom available to journalists in 180 countries is determined by pooling the responses of experts to a questionnaire devised by RSF.
• This qualitative analysis is combined with quantitative data on abuses and acts of violence against journalists during the period evaluated.
• The criteria evaluated in the questionnaire are pluralism, media independence, media environment and self-censorship, legislative framework, transparency, and the quality of the infrastructure that supports the production of news and information.
• India ranked 138 among the 180 countries.
• Per capita GDP (2017-18)
• Per capita gross domestic product (GDP) is a metric that breaks down a country's economic output per person and is calculated by dividing the GDP of a country by its population.
• India ranked 139th in per capita GDP (nominal) with $2,134 and 122nd in per capita GDP (PPP) with$7,783 as of 2018 (World Bank data).

The correct answer is A & C only.

Key Points

• 2018 Asian Games
• It was held from 18 August to 2 September 2018 in Jakarta and Palembang in Indonesia. Hence the statement D is not correct.
• The Motto of the games was Energy of Asia.
• 45 Nations participated in this game.
• China led the medal tally for the tenth consecutive time.
• Japan's young swimmer Rikako Ikee was named the Most Valuable Player (MVP) in the 2018 Asian Games. Hence the statement A is correct.
• She won six gold and two silver medals. Hence the statement B is not correct.
• She won the 50m and 100m freestyle, 50m and 100m butterfly as well as the 4x100m freestyle and medley relays.
• She became the first female athlete to win the MVP title in the Asian Games. Hence the statement C is correct.

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Additional Information

• Asian Games
• ​The Asian Games, also known as Asiad, is a continental multi-sport event held every four years among athletes from all over Asia.
• In 1951, the first Asian Games were held in New Delhi, India.
• India has hosted Asian Games two times 1951 and 1982.
• The Games are recognized by the International Olympic Committee (IOC) and are described as the second-largest multi-sport event after the Olympic Games.

The correct answer is Mauritius. 

Key Points

• A Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is an investment made by a firm or individual in one country into business interests located in another country.
• FDI takes place when an investor establishes foreign business operations or acquires foreign business assets in a foreign company.
• FDIs are actively utilized in open markets rather than closed markets for investors.
• Horizontal, vertical, and conglomerate are types of FDI’s. Horizontal is establishing the same type of business in another country, while vertical is related but different, and conglomerate is an unrelated business venture.
• Examples of foreign direct investments include mergers, acquisitions, retail, services, logistics, and manufacturing, among others.
• FDI from Mauritius totalled USD 13.41 billion becoming the top source of FDI to India.
• In the year 2017, it was USD 13.38 billion.

​

Additional Information

• The second top source of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) into India in 2017-18 was Singapore.

The correct answer is Organizing and strengthening family farmer's cooperatives to attain the Sustainable Development Goals - 1 and 2 in South Asia.

Key Points

• South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC)
• SAARC is a regional intergovernmental organization and geopolitical union of nations in South Asia.
• The SAARC was founded on 8 December 1985 in Dhaka.
• Its member states include Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Maldives, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka.
• Its headquarters is in Kathmandu, Nepal.
• SAARC Agri Cooperative Business Forum
• It was co-organized by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations and Asian Farmers’ Association with the support from International Fund for Agricultural Development.
• It provided a platform to bring together representatives both from government and non-governmental entities from member states of SAARC as well as from regional and international organizations.
• This forum was held in Kathmandu, Nepal.
• The theme of this forum was ‘Organizing and Strengthening Family Farmers’ Cooperatives to attain the Sustainable-Development-Goals-1 and 2 in South Asia’.

The correct answer is Paris Peace Conference.

Key Points

• The First World War took place from 28 July 1914 to 11 November 1918.
• It was a global war fought between the Allies (the French Empire, the British Empire, the Russian Empire, the United States of America and others) and the Central Powers (the German Empire, Austro-Hungarian Empire and the Ottoman Empire).
• After the Paris Peace Conference of 1919, the signing of the Treaty of Versailles on 28 June 1919, between Germany on the one side and France, Italy, Britain and other minor allied powers on the other, officially ended the war between those countries.
• Treaty of Versailles
• It was the primary treaty produced by the Paris Peace Conference at the end of World War I. It was signed on June 28, 1919, by the Allied and associated powers and by Germany.
• The treaty included the Covenant of the League of Nations, in which members guaranteed each other’s independence and territorial integrity. Economic sanctions would be applied against any member who resorted to war.
• The league was to supervise mandated territories, the occupied Saar Basin, and Danzig and to formulate plans for reducing armaments. The treaty also established the Permanent Court of International Justice and the International Labour Organization.

Additional Information

• International Labour Organization (ILO)
• It is a specialized UN agency, tripartite in nature with governments, employers, and workers as members. It was established in 1919 by the Treaty of Versailles.
• At present, the ILO has 185 Members and its headquarters is in Geneva, Switzerland.
• India is one of the founding members of the International Labour Organization which came into existence in 1919 and has been a permanent member of the ILO Governing Body since 1922.
• The principal function of the ILO is to take care of the interests of the workers by means of setting up the international labour standards in the form of Conventions and Recommendations.
• The ILO has so far adopted 189 Conventions and 202 Recommendations.

The correct answer is India and Mongolia.

Key Points

• The 14th edition of Nomadic Elephant was conducted from 05 Oct 20119 to 18 Oct 20119 at Bakloh, Mongolia.
• It is a joint military exercise between India and Mongolia.
• The Mongolian Army was represented by officers and troops of the elite 084 Air Borne Special Task Battalion while the Indian Army was represented by a contingent of a battalion of Rajputana Rifles.
• A Military Exercise is when the Military uses its resources in training and exploring the effects of warfare or testing strategies to prepare for actual combat.
• As India is the 4th most powerful country in terms of Military strength, it is important for our country to keep our position strong by maintaining coordination in all the three military forces (Army, Navy, Airforce) and train them for any situation.

Additional Information

            Different Famous Military Exercices

The correct answer is Indira Gandhi and Zulfikar Ali Bhutto.

Key Points

• On the day of 02 July 1972, Shimla Agreement was signed between Indira Gandhi and Zulfiqar Ali Bhutto at Shimla of Himachal Pradesh.
• It was a peace treaty signed after the Bangladesh Liberation War in 1971.
• It was signed 8 months after the Indo-Pakistani war of 1971, which led to the splitting of Pakistan and the consequent creation of Bangladesh had ended.
• Any differences shall be settled by peaceful means and through bilateral negotiations.
• Both countries shall respect the territorial integrity of each other and not interfere in the internal matters of each other.
• The treaty also had some other terms like renewing communications, telegraph, postal, airline relations, etc. It also talked about having exchanges in the field of culture and science.
• India released 93000 Pakistani prisoners of war (POWs) who were captured after the Bangladesh war.

Additional Information

• Indo-Pak war 1971 was the part of Bangladesh Liberation war.
• This war started on December 3, 1971, and ended on December 16, 1971.
• It is one of the shortest wars in history that lasted for 13 days.
• Vijay Diwas is observed on 16th December every year to mark India's victory over Pakistan in the 1971 war.
• On 16th December 1971, the chief of the Pakistani forces with 93,000 soldiers had surrendered unconditionally to the allied forces consisting of the Indian Army and Mukti Bahini in Dhaka.

The correct answer is Kalapani.

Key Points

• Kalapani
• It is located at an altitude of 3600m on the Kailash Manasarovar route.
• It borders Uttarakhand in India and Sudurpashchim Pradesh in Nepal.
• Since the Indo-China war of 1962, Kalapani is controlled by India’s Indo-Tibetan Border Police.
• The dispute is over the kali river, Nepal claims that the river present on the west of Kalapani is the main kali river so it belongs to Nepal and India claims that the river present on the east of Kalapani is the main kali river so it belongs to India.

Additional Information

• Treaty of Sugauli:
• Signed between Nepal and the British East India Company in 1816.
• According to the Treaty, the Kali River was located as Nepal’s western boundary with India.
• It made no mention of a ridgeline and subsequent maps of the areas drawn by British surveyors showed the source of the Kali river at different places.
• This discrepancy has led to the boundary disputes between India and Nepal, with each country producing maps including the territory in their area to support their claims.
• The exact size of the Kalapani territory also varies in different sources.

The correct answer is i & iii.

Key Points

• The Neemrana dialogue, one of the oldest Track-II initiatives between India and Pakistan. Hence the statement 1 is correct.
• It was held in Islamabad, Pakistan from April 28 - 30, 2018.
• The delegation was headed by former Ministry of Economics Affairs (MEA) secretary and Pakistan expert Vivek Katju, JS Rajput, former National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) head, was also a part of the delegation. Hence the statement 4 is not correct.
• Pakistan’s delegation was represented by former Foreign Minister of Pakistan Inam-Ul-Haq and former governor of the State Bank of Pakistan Dr Ishrat Husain.
• The Government of India described the revival of Neemrana dialogue, track II diplomacy as just a normal process which entails people-to-people exchanges between India and Pakistan. Hence the statement 3 is correct.

 

Additional Information

• Neemrana dialogue
• The bilateral dialogue gets its name from the Neemrana Fort,Rajasthan where it was first held in 1991-1992.
• It was reported that the two sides discussed issues related to Kashmir, Siachen, terrorism, cross-border firing and also Sir Creek.

The correct answer is ​i, ii, iii & iv only.

Key Points

• The size of the whole universe is unknown, and it might be infinite in extent.
• According to the Big Bang theory, the very early Universe was an extremely hot and dense state about 13.8 billion years ago which rapidly expanded.
• About 380,000 years later the Universe had cooled sufficiently to allow protons and electrons to combine and form hydrogen—the so-called recombination epoch.
• When this happened, matter and energy became decoupled, allowing photons to travel freely through the continually expanding space.
• The matter that remained following the initial expansion has since undergone gravitational collapse to create stars, galaxies, and other astronomical objects, leaving behind a deep vacuum that forms what is now called outer space.
• Outer space is not completely empty—it is a hard vacuum containing a low density of particles, predominantly a plasma of hydrogen and helium, as well as electromagnetic radiation, magnetic fields, neutrinos, dust, and cosmic rays.

Additional Information

• The final boundary between the Earth and the outer space (magnetosphere) is called the magnetopause.
• The magnetopause is a region of the Earth’s Magnetosphere.
• The boundary between the Earth and outer space dominated by the planet's magnetic field.

The correct answer is Ascorbic Acid.

Key Points

• Vitamin C also known as ascorbic acid is a water-soluble vitamin that is naturally present in some foods, added to others, and available as a dietary supplement.
• The Vitamin B complex refers to all of the known essential water-soluble vitamins except for vitamin C.
• The Essential water-soluble vitamins include.
• Thiamine (vitamin B1)
• Riboflavin (vitamin B2)
• Niacin (Vitamin B3)
• Pantothenic acid (vitamin B5)
• Pyridoxine (vitamin B6), biotin, folic acid, and the cobalamins (vitamin B12)

Additional Information

• Vitamin B plays a vital role in maintaining good health and well-being. As the building blocks of a healthy body, B vitamins have a direct impact on your energy levels, brain function, and cell metabolism.
• Vitamin B are especially important for women who are pregnant and breastfeeding. These vitamins aid in fetal brain development as well as reduce the risk of birth defects.
• And for expectant mothers, B vitamins may boost energy levels, ease nausea, and lower the risk of developing preeclampsia.
• Vitamin B are thought to increase testosterone levels in men, which naturally decrease with age. They may also help men build muscle and increase strength. However, human studies confirming these claims are lacking.
• Each member of the B-complex has a unique structure and performs unique functions in the human body.
• Vitamins B1, B2, B3, and biotin participate in different aspects of energy production, vitamin B6 is essential for amino acid metabolism, and vitamin B12 and folic acid facilitate steps required for cell division.

The correct answer is John McCarthy.

Key Points

• The Father of Artificial Intelligence is John McCarthy.
• John McCarthy (September 4, 1927 – October 24, 2011) was an American computer scientist and cognitive scientist.
• McCarthy was one of the founders of the discipline of artificial intelligence.
• He co-authored the document that coined the term "artificial intelligence" (AI), developed the Lisp programming language family, significantly influenced the design of the ALGOL programming language, popularized time-sharing, invented garbage collection, and was very influential in the early development of AI.

 

Additional Information

• Father of Computer - Charles Babbage
• Father of Radio - Lee De Forest
• Inventor of Electronic Numerical Integrator and Computer - J.P. Eckert

The correct answer is A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii.

Key Points

• Alan Turning
• He is known as the “Father of Modern Computing”
• He was the first to suggest that machines can be made to solve complex problems.
• He paved the way for the creation of calculating machines which were later known as computers.
• Antoine-Laurent de Lavoisier
• He is considered the “Father of modern chemistry”.
• He was the first to establish that sulfur was an element, not a compound.
• In 1778, he named oxygen and in 1783 he named hydrogen.
• He discovered the law of conservation of mass. i.e The law of conservation of mass states that mass in an isolated system is neither created nor destroyed by chemical reactions or physical transformations.
• Isaac Newton
• He is known as the "Father of Physics".
• He is well known for his discoveries in optics (white light composition) and mathematics (calculus)
• He formulated the three laws of motion—the basic principles of modern physics.
• His formulation of the laws of motion resulted in the law of universal gravitation.
• Gregor Mendel
• He is known as the "Father of Genetics".
• He proposed the law of heredity through his work on pea plants and discovered the fundamental laws of inheritance.
• The Laws of Inheritance:
• Law of dominance and uniformity
• Law of segregation
• Law of independent assortment

The correct answer is Geotropism.

Key Points

• Geotropism is the growth of the parts of plants in response to the force of gravity.
• The root of a plant growing down into the ground is an example of geotropism.
• The upward growth of plant parts, against gravity, is called negative geotropism.
• The downward growth of roots is called positive geotropism.

Additional Information

• Phototropism is the growth of a plant in response to a light stimulus.
• If the plant grows towards the light source, it is called positive phototropism.
• If the plant grows away from the light source, it is called negative phototropism.
• Hydrotropism - Growth of the parts of plants towards the water or moisture.
• Magnetotropism is the movement or plant growth in response to the stimulus provided by the magnetic field in plants (specifically agricultural plants) around the world.

The correct answer is Sucrose.

Key Points

• Sucrose is a natural sweetener.
• Sucrose is crystallized white sugar produced by the sugar cane plant and can be found in households and foods worldwide.
  

It is a disaccharide made up of 50% glucose and 50% fructose and is broken down rapidly into its constituent parts.

• The formulae for ;sucrose is C12H22O11.
• The carbohydrates obtained from fruits, plants, seeds, roots, and nuts are natural sweeteners.
• Honey, molasses, maple syrup, cocoa sugar, agave nectar, date sugar, and xylitol are widely used natural sweeteners.

Additional Information

• Aspartame​
• Aspartame is an artificial non-saccharide sweetener.
• It is 200 times sweeter than sugar, commonly used as a sugar substitute in foods and beverages.
• Sucralose​
• It is a zero-calorie artificial sweetener.
• Splenda is the most common sucralose-based product.
• It is made by sugar in a multistep chemical process in which three hydrogen-oxygen groups are replaced with chlorine atoms
• Saccharin​
• It is an artificial sweetener.
• It has effectively no food energy.
• It is about 300 to 400 times as sweet as sucrose but it has a bitter or metallic aftertaste, especially at very high concentrations.
• It is used to sweeten products such as drinks, candies, cookies, and medicines.

The correct answer is a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1.

Key Points

• Soot
• It contributes to the warming of the atmosphere.
• Black carbon is a form of particulate air pollutant.
• It is produced from incomplete combustion.
• It consists of pure carbon in several linked forms.
• The source of the black carbon includes biomass burning, cooking with solid fuels and diesel exhaust, etc.
• Haze
• It is traditionally an atmospheric phenomenon in which dust, smoke, and other dry particulates obscure the clarity of the sky.
• It is the main cause of air pollution.
• Dense haze is known as Smog.
• Mist
• It is a phenomenon caused by small droplets of water suspended in the air.
• Mist often forms when warmer air over water suddenly encounters the cooler surface of the land.
• Mist is thinner and more transparent.
• Fumes
• It refers to vapors (gases), dust, and/or smoke given off by a substance as a result of a chemical transformation such as reaction, heating, explosion, or detonation.
• Inhalation of fumes causes symptoms of cough, shortness of breath, eye, nose, and throat irritation, and upper chest pain.

The correct answer is The Western Ghats region is spread into 9 states.

Key Points

• The Western Ghats are internationally recognized as a region of immense global importance for the conservation of biological diversity, besides containing areas of high geological, cultural, and aesthetic values.
• A chain of mountains running parallel to India’s western coast, approximately 30-50 km inland, the Ghats traverse the States of Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra, and Gujarat. Hence the statement 1 is not correct.
• These mountains cover an area of around 140,000 km² in a 1,600 km long stretch that is interrupted only by the 30 km Palghat Gap at around 11°N.
• The Western Ghats is one of the world’s biodiversity hotspots with over 5,000 flowering plants, 139 mammals, 508 birds, and 179 amphibian species.
• At 2695m, Mt Anamudi in Kerala, India is the highest peak in the Western Ghats.
• The Western Ghats are being considered as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
• Bengal Tiger, Indian Leopard, Black Panther, Indian Wild Dog, Indian Elephants, Indian Bison, Lion Tailed Macaque, Indian Giant Squirrel are some of the famous animals found in the Western Ghats.
• The Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel (WGEEP), also known as the Gadgil Commission after its chairman Madhav Gadgil, was an environmental research commission appointed by the Ministry of Environment and Forests of India.

Additional Information

• A biodiversity hotspot is a biogeographic region with significant levels of biodiversity that is threatened by human habitation.
• To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot a region must meet two strict criteria:
• It must contain at least 0.5% or 1,500 species of vascular plants as endemic., and
• It has to have lost at least 75% of its primary vegetation.
• Biodiversity hotspots in India are the-
• Sundarbans
• Western ghats
• Eastern Himalayas
• Indo-Burma region

The correct answer is b a c d.

Key Points

• Stockholm Conference 1972
• In 1972, the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment (UNCHE) was convened to address issues concerning the environment and sustainable development.
• UNCHE, also known as the Stockholm Conference, linked environmental protection with sustainable development.
• The Conference was held on 5 June 1972.
• The participants adopted a series of principles for sound management of the environment including the Stockholm Declaration and Action Plan for the Human Environment and several resolutions.
• The Stockholm Declaration, which contained 26 principles, placed environmental issues at the forefront of international concerns and marked the start of a dialogue between industrialized and developing countries on the link between economic growth, the pollution of the air, water, and oceans, and the well-being of people around the world.
• The Action Plan contained three main categories: 

1. Global Environmental Assessment Program (watch plan)
2. Environmental management activities;
3. International measures to support assessment and management activities carried out at the national and international levels.

• One of the major results of the Stockholm conference was the creation of the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
• The Brundtland Commission 1987
• Formally called:  Our Common Future: Report of the World Commission on Environment and Development issued in 1987 which give the concept of Sustainable Development.
• The Brundtland Commission’s characterization of ‘sustainable development is the development that satisfies the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
• Gro Harlem Brundtland, the former Prime Minister of Norway and was chosen as the head of the commission.
• The Brundtland Commission officially dissolved in December 1987 after releasing Our Common Future, also known as the Brundtland Report, in October 1987.
• UN Decade of Education for Sustainable Development
• The United Nations Decade of Education for Sustainable Development (2005-2014) sought to mobilize the educational resources of the world to help create a more sustainable future.
• Many paths to sustainability (e.g. sustainable agriculture and forestry, research and technology transfer, finance, sustainable production, and consumption) exist and are mentioned in the 40 chapters of Agenda 21, the official document of the 1992 Earth Summit.
• Education is one of these paths. Education alone cannot achieve a more sustainable future; however, without education and learning for sustainable development, we will not be able to reach that goal.
• The overall goal of the UN Decade of Education for Sustainable Development (DESD) was to integrate the principles, values, and practices of sustainable development into all aspects of education and learning.
• Functions
• ​catalyze new partnerships with the private sector, with youth, and with media groups
• encourage monitoring and evaluation
• encourage the development of a research agenda and serve as a forum for relevant research on Education for Sustainable Development
• share good ESD practices
• link Member States that have put in place ESD curricula, policies, research, etc. with those Member States that are requesting help
• Rio+20 or Rio Earth Summit
• The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development - or Rio+20 - took place in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil on 20-22 June 2012.
• It resulted in a focused political outcome document that contains clear and practical measures for implementing sustainable development.
• In Rio, Member States decided to launch a process to develop a set of Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), which will build upon the Millennium Development Goals and converge with the post-2015 development agenda.
• The Conference also adopted ground-breaking guidelines on green economy policies.
• The conference focused on two themes:

1. a green economy in the context of sustainable development poverty eradication
2. the institutional framework for sustainable development.

The correct answer is Home Affairs.

Key Points

• The National Disaster Response Force (NDRF), constituted under Section 46 of the Disaster Management Act, 2005​.
• The National Disaster Response Force is administered by the Ministry of Home Affairs. Which is the apex decision-making body before, during, and after a disaster.
• It is managed by the Central Government of India to control the expenses for emergency response, relief, and rehabilitation due to any threatening disaster situation or disaster in the country.
• This fund helps the State Disaster Response Force, in case of a disaster of severe nature, provided adequate funds are not available in SDRF.
• The Centre contributes 75% of the SDRF allocation for general category States and Union Territories and 90% for some special hilly states of India.
• This fund is financed through the levy of a cess on certain items, chargeable to excise and customs duty, and approved annually through the Finance Bill.
• The monitoring of this fund is under the various ministry which are : 
• Department of Agriculture and Cooperation under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmer Welfare monitors relief activities for calamities associated with drought, hailstorms, pest attacks, and cold waves.
• The rest of the natural calamities are monitored by the Ministry of Home Affairs of India.

The correct answer is It advocates expansion of agriculture.

Key Points

• As per IISD, Sustainable development is a kind of development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
• Sustainable Development is the blueprint to achieve a better and more sustainable future for all.
• They address the global challenges we face, including poverty, inequality, climate change, environmental degradation, peace, and justice.
• It advocates the concept of Reduce, Reuse & Recycle.
• The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) or Global Goals are a collection of 17 interlinked goals.
• The SDGs were set in 2015 by the United Nations General Assembly and are intended to be achieved by the year 2030.
• They are included in a UN Resolution called the Agenda 2030.
• The 17 SDGs are:

1. No Poverty.
2. Zero Hunger.
3. Good Health and Well-being.
4. Quality Education.
5. Gender Equality.
6. Clean Water and Sanitation.
7. Affordable and Clean Energy.
8. Decent Work and Economic Growth.
9. Industry, Innovation, and Infrastructure.
10. Reducing Inequality.
11. Sustainable Cities and Communities.
12. Responsible Consumption and Production.
13. Climate Action.
14. Life Below Water.
15. Life On Land.
16. Peace, Justice, and Strong Institutions.
17. Partnerships for the Goals.

The correct answer is Phytoremediation.

Key Points

• Phytoremediation is a bioremediation process that uses various types of plants to remove, transfer, stabilize, and/or destroy contaminants in the soil and groundwater.
• There are several different types of phytoremediation mechanisms:
• Rhizosphere biodegradation - In this process, the plant releases natural substances through its roots, supplying nutrients to microorganisms in the soil.
• Phyto-stabilization - In this process, chemical compounds produced by the plant immobilize contaminants, rather than degrade them.
• Phyto-accumulation - In this process, plant roots sorb the contaminants along with other nutrients and water.
• Rhizofiltration - It is similar to Phyto-accumulation, but the plants used for cleanup are raised in greenhouses with their roots in water
• Phyto-volatilization - In this process, plants take up water containing organic contaminants and release the contaminants into the air through their leaves.
• Phyto-degradation - In this process, plants actually metabolize and destroy contaminants within plant tissues.
• Hydraulic Control - In this process, trees indirectly remediate by controlling groundwater movement.

Additional Information

• Bioremediation is a process used to treat contaminated media, including water, soil, and subsurface material, by altering environmental conditions to stimulate the growth of microorganisms and degrade the target pollutants.

The correct answer is Tropical Deciduous Forests.

Key Points

• Tropical Deciduous Forests
• These are the most widespread forests in India.
• They are also called the monsoon forests because the trees in these forests shed their leaves during the dry season and re-grow during the monsoon. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• They spread over regions that receive rainfall between 70-200 cm.
• The average temperature of Tropical Deciduous forests is 30oC. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• The humidity in these forests lies in the range of 80-90 per cent.
• The prime feature of these forests as trees shed their leaves in the dry season and grow back leaf in rainy seasons.
• Major states where tropical deciduous forests are found:
• Madhya Pradesh
• Uttar Pradesh
• Chhattisgarh
• Jharkhand
• Odisha
• Maharashtra
• Some parts of Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
• On the basis of the availability of water, these forests are further divided into
• Moist Deciduous
• Dry Deciduous
• Moist Deciduous forests
• They spread over regions that receive rainfall between 100-200 cm.
• These forests are found in the northeastern states along the foothills of the Himalayas, eastern slopes of the Western Ghats, and Odisha.
• Teak, Sal, Shisham, Hurra, Mahua, Amla, Semul, Kusum, and Sandalwood, etc. are the main species of these forests. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.​
• Dry Deciduous forests
• They spread over regions that receive rainfall between 70-100 cm.
• These forests are found in the rainy areas of Peninsular India, Plains of Uttar Pradesh, and Bihar.
• In the higher rainfall regions of the Peninsular plateau and the northern Indian plain, these forests have a parkland landscape with open stretches in which teak and other trees interspersed with patches of grass are common.
• As the dry season begins, the trees shed their leaves completely and the forest appears like a vast grassland with naked trees all around.
• Tendu, Palas, Amaltas, Bel, Khair, Axlewood, etc. are the common trees of these forests.

Additional Information

• Tropical Thorn Forests
• Tropical Thorn Forests are found in areas having less than 50cm of Rainfall.
• A variety of Grasses and Shrubs are found in these thorn forests.
• They are present in dry and semi-dry areas of south-west Punjab, Haryana, Gujarat,
• Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, and Uttar Pradesh.
• In Tropical Thorn Forest, Trees remain leafless for the most part of the year
• Tussocky Grass grows up to 2m in these areas.
• ​Montane Forests​
• Evergreen type of vegetation is prevalent in montane forests.
• Generally, they are conical in shape so that it is easy for the snow to slide down.
• Montane Forest is an ecosystem found in mountains.
• These forests can be found in the higher hilly areas of Kerala and Tamil Nadu, also in the region of Eastern Himalayas to the east of 88°E longitude including the hills of Assam, West Bengal, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, and Nagaland.
• Some significant trees of the montane temperate forest are rhododendrons, ferns, oak, maple, juniper, deodar, chilgoza, etc.
• Tropical Evergreen Forests
• ​Tropical evergreen forests are dense, multi-layered, and harbor many types of plants and animals.
• These forests are found in the areas receiving heavy rainfall (more than 200 cm annual rainfall).
• Therefore, these forests always appear green and are known as evergreen forests.
• The greatest single area of tropical evergreen forest is the Amazon Basin, in the northern half of South America.
• In India, evergreen forests are found in the western slopes of the Western Ghats in States such as Kerala and Karnataka. They are also found in the hills of Jaintia and Khasi.
• Evergreen forests are found in the Assam Valley, the foothills of the eastern Himalayas, and the lower parts of the Naga Hills, Meghalaya, Mizoram, and Manipur.
• Ebony, mahogany, rosewood, rubber, and cinchona are some of the commercially important trees that grow in the tropical evergreen forests.

The correct answer is a, b & c only.

Key Points

• Bhakra Nangal Dam is the biggest and the major multipurpose project undertaking named after the two dams Bhakra and Nangal on the Sutlej River.
• The Bhakra-Nangal Dam is the second tallest dam in Asia and located on the border of Punjab and Himachal Pradesh.
• The dam is 226 meters high and 518 meters in length with its greatest width at the base as 362 meters.
• It is a joint venture of the states like Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan intended to tackle the valuable water of the Sutlej to serve the concerned states.
• The dam forms the Gobind Sagar reservoir.

Additional Information

• Sutlej River
• It is the longest of the five tributaries of the Indus River that give Punjab (meaning “Five Rivers”) its name.
• It rises on the north slope of the Himalayas in Lake Langa in southwestern Tibet, at an elevation above 15,000 feet (4,600 meters).
• It is located north of the Vindhya Range, south of the Hindu Kush segment of the Himalayas, and east of the Central Sulaiman Range in Pakistan.
• The Sutlej is sometimes known as the Red River.
• It is the easternmost tributary of the Indus River.
• Its source is Lake Rakshastal in Tibet.

The correct answer is Mulugu.

Key Points

• Lakhnavaram Lake, located in Govindaraopet Mandal in Mulugu district, Telangana.
• The lake is spread over an area of 10,000 acres and holds about 2.135 tmcft of water.
• It irrigates over 3,500 acres of land.
• The lake was formed by closing down three narrow valleys. Each valley is replaced with a short bund, and hills act as their natural barrier.
• The lake has been constructed by the rulers of the Kakatiya dynasty in the 13th Century A.D.
• The wooden air-conditioned cottages at the resorts of the lake have bagged the most innovative product at the travel and tourism fair held at Kolkata.

Additional Information

• Famous lakes in Telangana
• Nagarjuna Sagar - Nalgonda district
• Singur Dam - Medak district
• Sriram Sagar Dam - Nizamabad district
• Ramappa Lake - Warangal district
• Kinnersani Lake - Khammam district

The correct answer is Siddipet. 

Key Points

• Based on climatic parameters i.e. Rainfall, Soils, and cropping pattern, etc., the State is divided into 3 Agro-climatic zones.
• The agricultural planning for each zone is supported with the research and recommendations of Regional Agricultural Research Stations of PJTSAU setup within each zone.

The correct answer is A, B & C only.

Key Points

• The NITI Aayog  (National Institution for Transforming India) which was formed on January 01, 2015, is a policy think tank of the Government of India.
• The institution was established with the aim to achieve sustainable development goals keeping the spirit of cooperative federalism intact.
• NITI Aayog uses the bottom-up approach. Its objectives include a "15-year road map", "7-year vision, strategy, and action plan",
• NITI Aayog was established in 2015, by the NDA government, it replaced the earlier Planning Commission. Hence the statement A is correct.
• The Prime Minister as its Chairman comprises Chief Ministers of all States and Lt. Governors of Union Territories (UTs).
• Objectives of NITI Aayog
• To evolve a shared vision of national development priorities, sectors and strategies with the active involvement of States. Hence the statement B is correct.
• To foster cooperative federalism through structured support initiatives and mechanisms with the States on a continuous basis, recognizing that strong States make a strong nation.
• To pay special attention to the sections of our society that may be at risk of not benefiting adequately from economic progress.
• To design strategic and long term policy and programme frameworks and initiatives, and monitor their progress and their efficacy. The lessons learnt through monitoring and feedback will be used for making innovative improvements, including necessary mid-course corrections.
• To create a knowledge, innovation and entrepreneurial support system through a collaborative community of national and international experts, practitioners and other partners. Hence the statement C is correct.
• To maintain a state-of-the-art Resource Centre, be a repository of research on good governance and best practices in sustainable and equitable development as well as help their dissemination to stakeholders.
• To actively monitor and evaluate the implementation of programmes and initiatives, including the identification of the needed resources so as to strengthen the probability of success and scope of delivery.
• Functions of NITI Aayog
• Design Policy & Programme Framework
• Foster Cooperative Federalism
• Monitoring & Evaluation
• Think Tank and Knowledge & Innovation Hub

Additional Information

• Composition: (as of Feb 2021)
• ​Chairperson: Shri Narendra Modi, Hon'ble Prime Minister
• Vice-Chairperson: Dr Rajiv Kumar Hence the statement D is not correct.
• Full-Time Members: Shri V.K. Saraswat, Prof. Ramesh Chand, Dr. V. K. Paul
• CEO: Shri Amitabh Kant
• Ex-officio Members: Shri Raj Nath Singh (Minister of Defence) Shri Amit Shah (Minister of Home Affairs) Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman (Minister of Finance and Minister of Corporate Affairs) Shri Narendra Singh Tomar (Minister of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare; Minister of Rural Development; Minister of Panchayati Raj
• Special Invitees​

Important Points

• As of 2022:
• Chairman - Narendra Modi
• Vice-Chairman -  Suman Bery
• CEO - Parameswaran Iyer

The correct answer is ​B & C only.

Key Points

• Kishori Shakti Yojana (KSY)
• It seeks to empower adolescent girls, so as to enable them to take charge of their lives. It is viewed as a holistic initiative for the development of adolescent girls in the age group of 11 - 18 years.
• The program through its interventions aims at bringing about a difference in the lives of adolescent girls. It seeks to provide them with an opportunity to realize their full potential.
• This scheme is a redesign of the already existing Adolescent Girls (AG) Scheme being implemented as a component under the centrally sponsored Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) Scheme.
• The new scheme dramatically extends the coverage of the earlier scheme with significant content enrichment, strengthens the training component, particularly in skill development, aspects aimed at empowerment, and enhanced self-perception.
• It also fosters convergence with other sectoral programs, addressing the interrelated needs of adolescent girls and women.
• Main Objectives of this Scheme:
• The broad objectives of the Scheme are to improve the nutritional, health, and development status of adolescent girls
• Promote awareness of health, hygiene, nutrition, and family care, link them to opportunities for learning life skills, going back to school, help them gain a better understanding of their social environment and take initiatives to become productive members of the society.

The correct answer is A only.

Key Points

• Telangana state has now got a total of 23 national highways after formation of the state.
• The national highways in Telangana will cover about 4,983 square kilometres
• As of 2021-22, Telangana has a total road density of 97.49 km for 100 sq km.

Important Points

• Among the districts, Hyderabad has the highest with a road density of 1332.7 km per 100 sq km.
• Medchal Malkajgiri and Rangareddy are the districts with the second and third highest road densities at 386 km per 100 square km and 157.6 per 100 square km respectively
• NH 44 is the longest highway in India. It starts from Srinagar in the north and ends in Kanyakumari in the south.
• NH 44 is 3,745 km long and covers the North-South Corridor of NHDP.
• NH 118 along with NH 548 are the shortest national highway in India.
• NH 3 (Leh-Manali Highway) is the world’s second highest-altitude motor highway that connects Shimla in Himachal Pradesh to Leh in Ladakh.

Additional Information

National Highways

• The National highways in India are a network of trunk roads that are owned by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.
• It is constructed and managed by the National Highway Authority of India (NHAI), the National Highways and Infrastructure Development Corporation (NHIDCL), and the public works departments (PWD) of state governments.
• Indian national highways connect every major city of India from north to south to east to west.
• India has 151,019 km (93,839 miles) of National Highways as of March 2021.
• Under the new numbering system, North-South highways are even-numbered, and East-West highways are odd-numbered.
• India has the second-largest road network in the world,
• There are over 200 national highways and their cumulative length adds up to 101,011 km.
• The main highway is of a 2-digit number and all the highways that are numbered in three digits are technically branches to the main highway.
• NH 118 connects the towns Asanbani and Jamshedpur in the state of Jharkhand, running for a distance of only about 5 km.
• The NH 548 traverses the state of Maharashtra for about 5 km in length.
• India has Golden Quadrilateral (GQ).
• GQ is a national highway network that connects the major industrial, agricultural, and cultural centers of India. It forms a quadrilateral connecting the four major metro cities of India, viz., Delhi (North), Kolkata (East), Mumbai (West), and Chennai (South).
• Colors in National Highways:
• Yellow and white color is for national highways.
• Green and white for state highways
• Black and white for city highways

Telangana

• Foundation Day: 2nd June 2014 (carved out from Andhra Pradesh on this date and became the 29th state of the Republic of India).
• Capital: Hyderabad.
• Chief Minister: K. Chandrashekar Rao. (Feb 2023)
• Governor: Tamilisai Soundararajan. (Feb 2023)
• State Animal: Jinka Deer.
• State Bird: Indian Roller.
• State Tree: Jammi.
• State Flower: Tangedu.
• Hyderabad and Secunderabad are known as the 'Twin Cities of Telangana'.
• Ramgundam is known as the 'Energy City of India'.
• Indian Air Force Academy and National Police Academy are in Hyderabad.
• Telangana is the first Indian state to start Gender education at Degree Level.​

The correct answer is I, II and III.

Key Points

• Though the major part of the Constitution came into force on January 26, 1950, the provisions relating to Citizenship, Elections, Provisional Parliament, and temporary and transitional provision came into force with immediate effect from November 26, 1949.
• The provision of Fundamental Rights and other remaining provisions came into force on January 26, 1950.
• Important facts regarding the Constitution of India
• The Constitution of India was enacted by a Constituent Assembly set up under the Cabinet Mission Plan, in 1946.
• On December 11, 1946, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected by the Assembly as its permanent Chairman.
• The Draft of the Constitution was prepared by a Drafting Committee consisting of 7 members, under the Chairmanship of Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar.
• It was adopted by the Constituent Assembly of India on 26th November 1949 and became effective on 26th January 1950.
• The 389 member assembly (reduced to 299 after the partition of India) took almost three years to draft the constitution holding eleven sessions over 165 days.
• The Constitution replaced the Government of India Act 1935 Dominion of Indiaas the country’s fundamental governing document and the  became the Republic of India.

Additional Information

• Fundamental Rights
• Right to equality (Articles 14–18)
• Right to freedom (Articles 19–22)
• Right against exploitation (Articles 23–24)
• Right to freedom of religion (Articles 25–28)
• Cultural and educational rights (Articles 29–30)
• Right to constitutional remedies (Article 32)
• The Right to Property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978.

The correct answer is A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4.

Key Points

• The Constitution of India was framed by a Constitution Assembly set up under the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946.
• The Cabinet Mission came to India to discuss the transfer of power from the British Government to the Indian leadership with a view to preserving the peace and democracy of India.
• The constituent assembly was set up on 6^th December 1946.
• The first official meeting of the constituent assembly was held on  9th December 1946.
• Sachidanand Sinha was appointed as the temporary chairman during its first meeting.
• Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the permanent president of the constituent assembly on 11^th December 1946.
• The Constituent Assembly also appointed H C Mukherjee as its Vice president.
• The Constitutional Advisor to the constituent assembly was B. N Rao.

Important Points

• Important Committees of the Constituent Assembly-
• Drafting Committee – B. R. Ambedkar
• Union Constitution Committee – Jawaharlal Nehru
• Provincial Constitution Committee – Vallabhbhai Patel
• Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas – Vallabhbhai Patel
• National Flag and HOC Committee – Rajendra Prasad
• States Committee (Committee for negotiating with states) - Jawaharlal Nehru
• Committee for the function of the Constitution Assembly - G V Mavlankar
• Language Committee - Moturi Satyanarayana

The correct answer is Freedom of press.

Key Points

• Freedom of the press is implicit under Article 19(1)(a) of the Indian Constitution, which provides for the freedom of speech and expression under Part III (Fundamental Rights).
• Article 19(1) says All citizens shall have the right to:
• to freedom of speech and expression;
• to assemble peaceably and without arms;
• to form associations or unions;
• to move freely throughout the territory of India;
• to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India; and
• omitted
• to practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business

Additional Information

• Fundamental Rights

1. Right to Equality (Article 14-18)
2. Right to Freedom (Article 19-22)
3. Right against Exploitation (Article 23-24)
4. Right to Freedom of Religion (Article 25-28)
5. Cultural and Educational Rights (Article 29-30)
6. Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32)

The correct answer is (b) only.

Key Points

• Articles 36-51 under Part-IV of the Indian Constitution deal with Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).
• They are borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland.
• The Sapru Committee in 1945 suggested two categories of individual rights. One being justiciable and the other being non-justiciable rights.
• The justiciable rights, as we know, are Fundamental rights, whereas the non-justiciable ones are the Directive Principles of State Policy.
• There are various definitions to Directive Principles of State which are given below-
• They are an ‘instrument of instructions’ which are enumerated in the Government of India Act, 1935.
• They seek to establish economic and social democracy in the country.
• DPSPs are ideals that are not legally enforceable by the courts for their violation.
• Indian Constitution has not originally classified DPSPs but on the basis of their content and direction, they are usually classified into three types-
• Socialistic Principles
• Gandhian Principles
• Liberal-Intellectual Principles
• Article 47 of the DPSP deals with Prohibition of the consumption except for medical purposes of intoxicating drinks and of other drugs which are injurious to health.
• Article 23 of the Fundamental Rights deals with the Prohibition of Traffic in human beings and forced labour.
• Article 16 of the Fundamental Rights deals with equality of opportunity in matters of public employment and prevents the State from any sort of discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence, or any of them.

The correct answer is (a), (b) and (c).

Key Points

• Quo-Warranto in its literal sense means "by what authority".
• It is used by the court to enquire into the legality of the claim of a person to a public office.
• The writ can be used only in case of a substantive public office of a permanent character.
• It cannot be used in the case of ministerial office.
• The conditions necessary for the issue of a writ of Quo Warranto are:
• The office must be public and it must be created by a statute or by the constitution itself.
• The office must be a substantive one and not merely the function or employment of a servant at the will and during the pleasure of another.
• There has been a contravention of the Constitution or a statute or statutory instrument, in appointing such person to that office.
• Writs are issued under Article 32 and 226 by the Supreme Court and High Court respectively.

Additional Information

• Other writs-
• Certiorari in its literal sense means 'to be certified'.
• Mandamus in its literal meaning is 'we command'.
• Habeas Corpus is a Latin word that literally means 'to have a body of'.
• Prohibition means 'to forbid'.

The correct answer is Supreme Court can hear from any court tribunals as well as from court-martial.

Key Points

• The Supreme Court was established on 26th January 1950.
• Article 124 of the Indian Constitution defines the Supreme Court of India.
• The Supreme Court of India is the country’s highest judicial court.
• It is the final court of appeal in the country.
• Functions of the Supreme Court-
• It takes up appeals against the verdicts of the High Courts, other courts and tribunals.
• It settles disputes between various government authorities, between state governments, and between the centre and any state government.
• It also hears matters which the President refers to it, in its advisory role.
• The SC can also take up cases suo moto (on its own).
• The law that SC declares is binding on all the courts in India and on the Union as well as the state governments.
• Features of the Supreme Court-
• Its original jurisdiction is confined to federal cases.
• Its appellate jurisdiction covers constitutional, civil, and criminal cases.
• It has a very wide discretion to grant special leave to appeal in any matter against the judgment of any court or tribunal (except military).
• It has advisory jurisdiction.
• It defends the rights of the citizen according to the ‘procedure established by law’.
• Its jurisdiction and powers can be enlarged by Parliament.
• It has the power of judicial superintendence and control over state high courts due to the integrated judicial system.

The correct answer is The Indian Councils Act, 1909.

Important Points

• The Indian Councils Act,1909 commonly known as the “Morley- Minto reforms” was passed by the British Parliament in an attempt to widen the scope of the legislative councils, increase the participation of Indians in governance, and formally introduced the principle of elections in India for the very first time.

Key Points

• The Indian Councils Act, 1909 
• The act was formulated by John Morley, secretary of state for India (1905–10).
• Lord Minto was the then Viceroy of India at that time.
• It considerably increased the size of the legislative councils, both Central and provincial.
• It retained an official majority in the Central Legislative Council but allowed the provincial legislative councils to have a non-official majority.
• It provided for the first time for the association of Indians with the executive councils of the Viceroy and Governors.
• It introduced a system of communal representation for Muslims by accepting the concept of a separate electorate.
• Some constituencies were earmarked for Muslims and only Muslims could vote their representatives.

Additional Information

• Government of India Act of 1919 
• It was the codified version of the Montagu-Chelmsford reforms – named after Edwin Charles Montague and Lord Chelmsford.
• It demarcated and separated the central and provincial subjects.
• It introduced dyarchy by dividing the provincial subjects into two parts—transferred and reserved.
• It introduced, for the first time, bicameralism in the central legislature and direct elections in the country.
• The Government of India Act 1935
• It was passed by British Parliament in August 1935.
• With 321 sections and 10 schedules, this was the longest act passed by British Parliament so far.
• This act was passed after the Third Round Table Conference.
• This act ended the system of dyarchy introduced by the GOI Act 1919 and provided for the establishment of a Federation of India to be made up of provinces of British India and some or all of the Princely states.
• The Indian Independence Act. 1947
• The act was implemented on 15 August 1947.
• The act provided two dominion status i.e India and Pakistan.
• The authority of the British crown over princely states ceased to exist and they were free to join either of the dominions.

The correct answer is Value of votes of members of all the states legislative assemblies and the elected members of the Houses of the Parliament.

Key Points

• The Indian President is the head of the state.
• He is the first citizen of India and is a symbol of solidarity, unity, and integrity of the nation.
• He is a part of the Union Executive along with the Vice-President, Prime Minister, Council of Ministers, and Attorney-General of India.
• There is no direct election for the Indian President. An electoral college elects him.
• The electoral college responsible for President’s elections comprises elected members of:
• Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
• Legislative Assemblies of the states
• Legislative Assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry
• The following group of people is not involved in electing the President of India:
• Nominated Members of Lok Sabha (2) and Rajya Sabha (12)
• Nominated Members of State Legislative Assemblies
• Members of Legislative Councils (Both elected and nominated) in bicameral legislatures
• Nominated Members of union territories of Delhi and Puducherry
• The President holds office for five years.

Additional Information

• Qualifications to become President in India
• He should be an Indian Citizen.
• His age should be a minimum of 35 years.
• He should qualify the conditions to be elected as a member of the Lok Sabha.
• He should not hold any office of profit under the central government, state government, or any public authority.

The correct answer is Governor.

Key Points

• The Contingency Fund of India established under Article 267 (1) of the Constitution is the money maintained for a specific purpose which is placed at the disposal of the President to enable him/her to make advances to meet urgent unforeseen expenditure, pending authorization by the Parliament.
• It was added into the Indian Constitution through the Contingency Fund of India Act, 1950 Contingency fund refers to a fund that is set aside for emergencies and economic crises.
• The fund is held by the Finance Secretary on behalf of the President.
• In 2005, it was raised from 50 Cr to 500 Cr and requires the approval of the Parliament to withdraw the money out of the Contingency Fund of India.
• The Contingency Fund of each State Government is established under Article 267(2) of the Constitution.
• The Contingency Fund of State fund shall be placed at the disposal of the Governor of the State to enable advances to be made by him out of such Fund for the purposes of meeting unforeseen expenditure pending authorization of such expenditure by the Legislature of the State by law under Article 205 or Article 206 Distribution of Revenues between the Union and the States

Additional Information

• Other funds of the Indian government are
• Consolidated Fund of India
• Public Accounts of India
• Consolidated Fund of India is the most important among them.
• The government needs parliamentary approval to withdraw money from this fund.

The correct answer is President or Governor of a State.

Key Points

• Article 361 is an exception to Article 14 (Right to Equality) of the Indian Constitution.
• Exceptions under Equality Before Law in the Indian Constitution
• President or Governor of the state is not answerable to the court of law for exercising their executive powers.
• No criminal proceeding against the President or Governor of state can be instituted or continued during their tenure in office.
• No civil proceeding in which there is a claim of compensation can be instituted against the President or Governor of the state except after the expiry of 2-month notice issued against them.
• No process for the arrest or imprisonment of the President, or the Governor of a State, shall issue from any court during his term of office.

Additional Information

• The Right to Equality is mentioned in Articles 14 to18.
• Article 14: The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India, on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
• Article 15: The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.
• Article 16: There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State.
• Article 17: Abolition of untouchability.
• Article 18: Abolition of all titles except military and academic.

The correct answer is A, B, D, C.

Key Points

• The Battle of Plassey
• The Battle of Plassey was fought in the year 1757.
• It was fought between Siraj-Ud-Daulah (Nawab of Bengal) and East India Company lead by Robert Clive.
• The Battle of Plassey become famous because it was the first major victory the Company won in India.
• Another reason for the defeat was that Clive had managed to secure the support of Mir Jafar by promising to make him the Nawab after crushing Siraj-Ud-Daulah.
• The Third Battle of Panipat
• The Third Battle of Panipat was fought between The Maratha Empire and The Afghan Army took place on 14 January 1761 at Panipat.
• The Battle was fought between Sadashiv Rao Bhau(The Maratha Empire) and Ahmad Shah Durrani (The Afghan Army).
• In this Battle, Three Indian allies were supported by The Afgan Army, The Rohilla of (Najib-Ud-Daulah), the Afghans of (Doab Region), and Shuja-Ud-Daula (The Nawab of Awadh).
• It is considered one of the largest and most fiercely fought battles in the 18th century.
• The Third Anglo-Mysore War
• The third Anglo- Mysore War was fought between Tipu Sultan and the then Governor-General of Bengal Lord Cornwallis from 1790 to 1792.
• Treaty of Seringapatnam was signed by Tipu in 1792 through which he surrendered half the territory of his kingdom to the allies.
• The Third Anglo-Maratha War
• The Third Anglo-Maratha War ended in 1818 with the surrender of the Marathas to the British.
• The Third Anglo-Maratha War took place in Maharashtra and its neighbouring areas from 1817 to 1818.
• The main reasons for the loss of Marathas were lack of unity among the Maratha chiefs themselves, lack of good relations with other Indian princes and ruling dynasties, and failure to understand the British political and diplomatic strengths.
• Lord Hastings was the Governor-General of Bengal during The Third Anglo-Maratha war.

The correct answer is A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii.

Key Points

• ​Poona Sarvajanik Sabha:
• It was founded on April 2, 1870, by S. H. Chiplunkar, Ganesh Vasudeo Joshi, and Mahadev Govind Ranade in Pune.
• It was formed to represent the rights of peasants.
• It is a precursor to the Indian National Congress.
• Bhawanrao Shriniwasrao Pant Pratinidhi, the ruler of Aundh State was the first president. He held the post till 1897.
• Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Gopal Hari Deshmukh also served as presidents.
• Indian Association:
• Surendranath Banerjee and Ananda Bose founded the Indian association.
• The objectives of this Association were "promoting by every legitimate means the political, intellectual and material advancement of the people".
• The Association attracted educated Indians and civic leaders from all parts of the country and became an important forum for India's aspirations for independence.
• It later merged with the Indian National Congress.
• Madras Mahajana Sabha:
• It was established by M. Veeraraghavachariar, S. Ramaswami Mudaliar, and P. Anandacharlu.
• The Madras Mahajan Sabha was formed in May 1884 to coordinate the activities of the local association and to ‘provide a focus for the non-official intelligence spread up through the Presidency’.
• It held its first conference between 29 December 1884 and 2 January 1885.
• Palavai Rangaiah Naidu and R. Balaji Rao were elected as President and Secretary in their inception.
• Bombay Presidency Association:
• It was established by Pherozshah Mehta, K.T Telang, and Badruddin Tyabji.
• It was founded in 1885.
• The reactionary policies of Lytton and the Ilbert Bill controversy led to the formation of The Bombay Presidency Association.
• The Association championed Indian interests and hosted the first meeting of the Indian National Congress in Bombay at the end of 1885.
• Pherozshah Mehta was knighted by the British Government in India for his service to the law.

The correct answer is A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii.

Key Points

• Satyarth Prakash (The Light of Meaning of the Truth or The Light of Truth)
• It is written by Dayanand Saraswati in 1875.
• It is considered one of his major scholarly works.
• The book was originally written in Hindi and subsequently revised by Swami Dayanand Saraswati in 1882.
• This book is now translated into more than 20 languages including Sanskrit and several foreign languages like English, French, German, Swahili, Arabic, and Chinese.
• The major portion of the book is dedicated to laying down the reformist advocacy of Swami Dayanand with the last three chapters making a case for the comparative study of different religious faiths.
• Kapalkundala
• It is a painful love story, full of intrigue and suspense, penned by one of the most iconic Bengali writers, Bankim Chandra Chatterjee.
• Our National Song Vande Matram was written by him.
• Other notable works of Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyaya:
• Durgesh Nandini, Komalakanter Doptor, Mrinalini, Krishnakanter Will, Bishbrikhsha, Rajsingho, Sitaram, Devi Chaudhurani.
• The wants and means of India
• It throws light on the Drain theory Put forward by Dadabhai Naoroji. British government exploited India in every way the could from 1757 to 1947.
• Dadabhai Nauroji raised his voice against the drain of wealth from India to Britain in 1870 and ensured that British rule will not last long in India.
• Major writings of Dada Bhai Naroji were as follows:
• Poverty and Unbritish rule in India
• The manners and customs of the Parsees
• Condition of India
• Admission of educated natives into the ICS
• The wants and means of India
• Gita Rahasya
• ​It was written by Bal Gangadhar Tilak.
• He wrote it when he was in prison at Mandalay in Burma.
• He is known as the "father of Indian Unrest”.
• He also earned the title “Lokamanya” which means 'the person who is respected by people and favourite of all.

Given:

(A) : The Indian Freedom struggle gained mass during the Non-co-operation Movement in 1920 → True

(R) : A large number of peasants and workers participated in the movement led by Gandhiji → True (This is the reason that abundant people were present in the non-co-operation movement)

Thus, Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Hence, Option 1 is correct.

The correct answer is Enlarged the Central and Provincial Legislative Councils.

Key Points

• The Indian Councils Act of 1909 introduced reforms that are commonly known as Morley-Minto reforms after the Secretary of State for India John Morley and the Viceroy of India, Lord Minto.
• Provisions of the Act:
• The legislative councils at the Centre and the provinces increased in size. Hence the Statement 4 is correct.
• Central Legislative Council – from 16 to 60 members
• Legislative Councils of Bengal, Madras, Bombay, and United Provinces – 50 members each
• Legislative Councils of Punjab, Burma, and Assam – 30 members each
• The legislative councils at the Centre and the provinces were to have four categories of members as follows:
• Ex officio members: Governor-General and members of the executive council.
• Nominated official members: Government officials who were nominated by the Governor-General.
• Nominated non-official members: nominated by the Governor-General but were not government officials.
• Elected members: elected by different categories of Indians.
• The elected members were from the local bodies, the chambers of commerce, landlords, universities, traders’ communities, and Muslims.
• Indians were given membership to the Imperial Legislative Council for the first time.
• It introduced separate electorates for the Muslims. Some constituencies were earmarked for Muslims and only Muslims could vote their representatives.
• The members could discuss the budget and move resolutions. They could also discuss matters of public interest.
• Lord Minto appointed Satyendra P Sinha as the first Indian member of the Viceroy’s Executive Council.

The correct answer is v, ii, iii, i, iv.

Key Points

• Lord Reading
• He was the Viceroy of India from 1921-1926.
• Major Incidents took place in India under him:
• The incidence of Chauri -Chaura took place during his time.
• Swaraj Party was formed at his time.
• In 1921, the Ahmedabad session of INC was being held
• Lord Irwin
• He was the Viceroy of India from 1926-1931.
• Major Incidents took place in India under him:
• In 1928, Simon's commission came to India.
• The incidence of Dandi took in 1930.
• The Civil Disobedience movement was started in 1930.
• Gandhi signed the Irwin pact. In 1931, First Round Table Conference was held.
• Lord Willingdon
• He was the Viceroy of India from 1931-1936.
• Major Incidents took place in India under him:
• In his reign, Poona Pact was signed.
• During his time, the Second and Third Round Table Conference was held.
• British Prime Minister Ramsay MacDonald started Communal Award.
• Government of India Act (1935) was passed.
• Lord Linlithgow
• He was the Viceroy of India from 1936-1944.
• Major Incidents took place in India under him:
• In provinces, the Government of India Act 1935 was enforced.
• In 1942, Cripps Mission visited India.
• In 1942, the Quit India movement was started.
• In 1939, the Second World war took place.
• Lord Wavell
• He was the Viceroy of India from 1944-1947.
• Major Incidents took place in India under him:
• Shimla Conference between Muslim League and Indian National Congress failed which was held on June 25, 1945.
• In 1946, Cabinet Mission Plan was launched.
• The first meeting of the Constituent Assembly was held on December 09, 1946.

The correct answer is A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv.

Additional Information

Raymond - Gunfoundry

• The Gunfoundry also known as Top ka Sancha (1786 AD) was a cannonball factory set up by the second Nizam of Hyderabad, Nawab Mir Nizam Ali Khan at Fateh Maidan in Hyderabad, India. The historic Aliya High School for Boys
• The Gunfoundry was one of the several cannon and cannonball factories set up in 1786 AD by French general Michel Raymond who was in the service of Nawab Mir Nizam Ali Khan, the second Nizam of the Hyderabad.
• This is the only surviving gun foundry established in the 18th century, in the Hyderabad State.

Salarjung I - Hali-Sikka Currency

• Sir Mir Turab Ali Khan (21 January 1829 – 8 February 1883), known simply as Salar Jung I, was an Indian nobleman who served as Prime Minister of Hyderabad State between 1853 until his death in 1883.
• He also served as regent for the sixth Nizam, Asaf Jah VI between 1869 and 1883.
• His tenure is known for administrative reforms, which included a reorganization of the revenue and judicial systems, the division of Hyderabad State into districts, the institution of a postal service, the establishment of the first modern educational institutions, and the construction of the first rail and telegraph networks.
• The important reform introduced by Salar Jung was the stabilization of currency.
• A central mint was established at Hyderabad and the district mints were abolished.
• He issued Hali Sikka rupees and this became the standard currency for all monetary transactions

Mir Mahaboob Ali Khan - Qunooncha-i-Mubarak

• Sir Mir Mahboob Ali Khan Siddiqi Bayafandi Asaf Jah VI (18 August 1866 – 29 August 1911) was the 6th Nizam of Hyderabad.
• He ruled Hyderabad state, one of the Princely states in India between 1869 and 1911.
• Mahboob Ali Khan was known for his life of extravagance.
• With real power clipped by the British, he used court protocol to offer a luxurious form of resistance.

Mir Osman Ali Khan - Kachiguda Railway Station

• Mir Osman Ali Khan, Asaf Jah VII  (6 April 1886 – 24 February 1967), was the last Nizam ruler of the Princely State of Hyderabad, the largest princely state in British India.
• He was styled as His Exalted Highness the Nizam of Hyderabad and was one of the wealthiest individuals of all time.
• On February 22, 1937, Time featured him on its cover as the world's richest person.
• He was known as the "Architect of modern Hyderabad" and is credited with establishing many public institutions in the city of Hyderabad, including among others: Osmania University, Osmania General Hospital, State Bank of Hyderabad, Begumpet Airport, and the Hyderabad High Court.
• Two reservoirs, Osman Sagar and Himayat Sagar were built during his reign, to prevent another great flood in the city.
• The Kacheguda railway station was built in 1916 during the reign of the last Nizam of Hyderabad, Mir Osman Ali Khan.
• Kacheguda railway station in Hyderabad has become India's first Energy-Efficient A1 Category Railway Station.
• It is operated by the South Central Railway (SCR) zone of Indian Railways.

Important Points

Telangana

• Foundation Day: 2nd June 2014 (carved out from Andhra Pradesh on this date and became the 29th state of the Republic of India).
• Capital: Hyderabad.
• Chief Minister: K. Chandrashekar Rao. (April 2021)
• Governor: Tamilisai Soundararajan. (April 2021)
• State Animal: Jinka Deer.
• State Bird: Indian Roller.
• State Tree: Jammi.
• State Flower: Tangedu.
• Hyderabad and Secunderabad are known as the 'Twin Cities of Telangana'.
• Ramgundam is known as the 'Energy City of India'.
• Indian Air Force Academy and National Police Academy are in Hyderabad.
• Ramoji Film City is the largest film studio is in Hyderabad.
• Hyderabad is known as the City of Luck and Hi-Tech City.
• India's first e-Court is situated in Hyderabad.
• Golconda fort and Warrangal Fort are situated in Telangana.
• Telangana is the first Indian state to start Gender education at Degree Level.

Given: 

(A) : The Andhra Mahasabha was established in 1930 → True

(R) : It worked for the all-round development of Telugu People → True (For the development of Telugu people, the Andhra Mahasabha was established)

Thus, Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Hence, Option 1 is correct.

The correct answer is ​Hyderabad State Bank was established by Mir Osman Ali Khan.

Key Points

• State Bank of Hyderabad was the regional bank in Hyderabad.
• It was founded by the 7th Nizam of Hyderabad Mir Osman Ali Khan.
• State Bank of Hyderabad was merged with the State Bank of India on 31 March 2017.
• Mir Osman Ali Khan
• He was the last Nizam of the Princely State of Hyderabad.
• He ascended the throne on 29 August 1911, at the age of 25.
• He ruled the Kingdom of Hyderabad between 1911 to 1948 until India annexed it in 1948.

 

Additional Information

• Deshoddaraka Granthamala was started by Vattikota Alwar Swamy.
• Bhagya Reddy Varma was an Indian political leader, social reformer, and activist. He fought against untouchability in Hyderabad State. He is not called the Ambedkar of Hyderabad.
• Hussain Shah Wali built the Hussain Sagar Tank in Hyderabad.

The Correct answer is Sangam Laxime Bai.

Key Points

• Sangam Laxime Bai**:**
• She was a famous social worker and parliamentarian.
• She was born in Telangana in 1911.
• She entered politics by boycotting the Simon commission.
• She took an active part in salt satyagraha and imprisoned for one year.
• She written the book Na Jailu Gnapakalu - Anubhavalu.
• This book mainly deals with the Indian Independence movement.
• She died in 1979.​

 

Additional Information

• Eshwari Bai​:
• Former Member of Legislative Assembly from Andhra Pradesh
• She was the president of the Republican Party of India.
• She worked for the upliftment of backward classes and fought against caste discrimination.
• ​T. Sadalaxmi:
• First Dalit woman legislator of Telangana.
• Sadalaxmi was a member of Vidhan Parishad between 1974 and 1980.
• She supported the movement for a separate state of Telangana.
• ​Arutla Kamala Devi:
• She was a prominent figure and activist of the Telangana Armed Rebellion.
• She along with her partner Arutla Ramachandra Reddy were pioneers and led the movement based in the Aleru region of Nalgonda.
• Arutla Kamala Devi was conscious of and stood against the dictatorial regime of Nizam that was prevalent in Hyderabad.
• She fought for the rights of women in the Hyderabad state.
• She was considered as first female opposition leader in India.
• She was the prominent leader of the Communist Party of India.
• Arutla Kamala Devi got elected as a member of the Legislative Assembly of Hyderabad state in 1952.

The correct answer is Nationalization of Lands owned by Landlords.

Key Points Warangal declaration (28th, 29th December, 1997):

• All India people’s Resistance forum (AIPRF) organized a public meeting on 28th, 29th December, 1997 in Hanumakonda with a name “Prajasvamika Telangana Akanksha” (the aspiration for democratic Telangana).
• President for this meeting – Prof. Sai Baba.
• Previously on 1st June, 1997 central committee of C.P.I (M.L) peoples war have released a bulletin in support of Telangana movement with a title “Separate Telangana movement – Telangana Development – Our Program”.
• In the opinion of Police, AIPRF is affiliated organization to people’s war party, hence police-imposed restrictions on public for attending the Warangal meeting.
• Although restrictions were imposed & detentions took place, the AIPRF meeting became success and this gave new inspiration to people & Telangana supporters.
• In Warangal meeting, Prof. Saibaba proposed Warangal declaration with 50 demands and it was approved by the conference.

Additional Information 

• Important Points of Warangal declaration: 
• Separate Democratic Telangana state should be formed keeping in view of the Democratic aspirations of the people.
• Rationally amend land reform act and prepare comprehensive land reform methods and it should be implemented.
• Tenancy (Kauldhar) act should be implemented (the act which tells land to the titler).
• In agency areas, 1/70 act should be implemented unconditionally.
• The agency land present in the hands of non-tribes should be given to tribals.
• On Godavari river, only Ichchampally project should be constructed. Pulichintala project should be stopped.
• The Polavaram project which will inundate the lands of Telangana region should be stopped and small small projects should be constructed.
• The resources in Telangana region should be re-distributed rationally among the districts.
• The migrations from Mahabubnagar district were increasing should be prevented.
• The authority of self-governance to Adivasis should be identified according to the constitution and implemented.
• The Culture and language of the tribals should be preserved.
• Complete ban on alcohol should be implemented with the support of public.

The correct answer is Scandinavian Countries.

Key Points

• The basic idea of the Lok Pal is borrowed from the office of ombudsman in Scandinavian (Sweden, Denmark, Finland, Norway) countries.
• The Lokpal Bill is an anti-corruption bill drafted to control corruption by ministers and high-level officials.
• It is the Administrative Reforms Commission of India (1966- 1970) that recommended the establishment of Lokpal and Lokayukta in order to solve the grievances of citizens.
• The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act (2013) came into force on 16 January 2014.
• The jurisdiction of Lokpal consist of:
• Prime Minister
• ministers
• MPs
• Group A, B, C, and D officials of the Central government.
• The Lokayukta is established at the level of the State.

Additional Information

• Scandinavia Countries comprises of 5 countries in total are as follows:
• Iceland
• Norway
• Sweden
• Finland
• Denmark
• Scandinavia is a traditional and cultural-linguistic region, it includes the three kingdoms of Norway, and Sweden, on the Scandinavian Peninsula, and Denmark, the country located on the Jutland peninsula and its main islands of Sea land and Funen north of Germany, west of Sweden, between the North Sea and the Baltic Sea.
• The word Scandinavia assigned originally to Scandia (Skane), an area formerly Danish, now Swedish.
• In a more general sense, the name Scandinavia is also used to suggest to the Nordic countries including Finland and the island nation of Iceland as well.

The correct answer is Proved misbehavior or incapacity.

Key Points

• A Judge of the Supreme Court (and also the High Court) can be removed from his position by President only on the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity.
• The power for investigation and proof of such misbehavior or incapacity is vested in the Parliament.
• Each house, in order to remove the judge, will have to pass a resolution which is supported by 2/3rd of members present and voting and the majority of the total membership of the house.
• The Judges Enquiry Act, 1968 regulates the procedure relating to the removal of a judge of the Supreme Court by the process of Impeachment.
• No judges of the Supreme Court have been impeached so far.
• Impeachment motions of Justice V Ramaswami (1991-1993) and Justice Dipak Mishra (2017-2018) were defeated in the Parliament.

Additional Information

• Supreme Court is mentioned in Article 124 of the Indian Constitution.
• Judges of the Supreme Court and High Court are appointed by the President of India.
• Provisions of High courts are mentioned in Articles 214-231 of the Indian Constitution.
• Salary and allowances of judges of the Supreme Court and High Court are determined by the President of India according to Article 125 and Article 221 respectively.

The correct answer is Million March.

Additional Information

Sagara Haram

• Telangana March or Sagara Haram was organized on 30^th September 2012.
• The state government permitted the Telangana march called "Sagara Haaram" only at Necklace Road and the police allowed the protestors to enter the road from the Secunderabad side.
• The closure of all other roads and the refusal of various organizations to take out smaller processions towards the venue of the march created a lot of anger among the people leading to clashes.
• The protestors clashed with the police near the Telugu Talli statue before Tank Bund and also in front of the Prasad I-Max theatre as they were stopped by the police from moving forward.
• The Telangana Joint Action Committee, the main organizer of the program, alleged that after granting permission to the march, the government and the police were now trying to sabotage it by triggering violence.

Sadak Bandh

• The Telangana Rashtra Samiti (TRS) and Telangana Joint Action Committee were determined to go ahead with their call for ‘Sadak bandh’ on Hyderabad–Kurnool National Highway.
• The TRS and JAC had identified seven points of major convergence by their supporters along the highway to block traffic.
• They were Shamshabad in Ranga Reddy district and Shadnagar, Jadcherla, Bhootpur, Addakula, Kothakota, and Alampur in Mahabubnagar.
• The JAC chairman M. Kodandaram told reporters at Pebbair in Mahabubnagar that the bandh would be observed even if a lakh police personnel were deployed.

Million March

• Million March was organized on Tank Bund.
• On 10th March 2011The ‘Million March’ program, fashioned after the Egyptian protests, had become a prestigious issue for the agitators.
• Lakhs of people staged a dharna in heavy rain on Necklace Road demanding a separate Telangana State.

Sansad Yatra

• Sansad Yatra was organized ​on 27^th April 2013.
• The special train leaving for Delhi was named Telangana Express and TJAC leaders waved the flag marking the beginning of Samsad Yatra – Chalo Delhi.
• The Telangana issue once again echoed in the national capital, with the two-day Sansad Yatra of Telangana Joint Action Committee (TJAC) commencing at Jantar Mantar in Delhi with a ‘Satyagraha Deeksha’
• The main objective of the Sansad Yatra was to bring more pressure on the Congress-led UPA government to concede the demand for the Telangana state.

Important Points

Telangana

• Foundation Day: 2nd June 2014 (carved out from Andhra Pradesh on this date and became the 29th state of the Republic of India).
• Capital: Hyderabad.
• Chief Minister: K. Chandrashekar Rao. (April 2021)
• Governor: Tamilisai Soundararajan. (April 2021)
• State Animal: Jinka Deer.
• State Bird: Indian Roller.
• State Tree: Jammi.
• State Flower: Tangedu.
• Hyderabad and Secunderabad are known as the 'Twin Cities of Telangana'.
• Ramgundam is known as the 'Energy City of India'.
• Indian Air Force Academy and National Police Academy are in Hyderabad.
• Ramoji Film City is the largest film studio is in Hyderabad.
• Hyderabad is known as the City of Luck and Hi-Tech City.
• India's first e-Court is situated in Hyderabad.
• Golconda fort and Warrangal Fort are situated in Telangana.
• Telangana is the first Indian state to start Gender education at Degree Level.

The correct answer is A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv.

Additional Information

• Srikrishna Committee Report
• Srikrishna Committee on Telangana or the Committee for Consultations on the Situation in Andhra Pradesh (CCSAP) is a committee headed by former chief justice B. N. Srikrishna to look into the demand for separate statehood for Telangana or keep the State united in the present form, Andhra Pradesh.
• The committee was constituted by the Government of India on 3^rd February 2010 and submitted its report on 30^th December 2010 to the Ministry of Home Affairs.
• The report was released to the public on the internet on 6^th January 2011.
• Antony Committee
• The A K Antony Committee has been constituted by the Congress high command to look into the situation arising out of the decision to form a separate Telangana state after bifurcating the existing state of Andhra Pradesh.
• The protests continued over the Telangana decision, Congress was making attempts to pacify the leaders from the Seemandhra region of Andhra Pradesh by setting up a high-level committee headed by India's Defence minister A K Antony to talk to them.
• Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014
• The Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014, commonly known as the Telangana Act, is an Act of the Indian Parliament that bifurcated the state of Andhra Pradesh into Telangana.
• On 18th February 2014, the Lok Sabha passed the bill with a voice vote.
• The bill was passed by Rajya Sabha on 20th February 2014.
• The bill was assent by the President of India, Pranab Mukherjee on 1st March 2014.
• On 2nd June 2014, Telangana was created.
• Initially, there were only 10 districts, but Telangana now has 33 districts.
• The residuary Andhra Pradesh state, as an outcome of the Telangana movement.
• The Telangana movement refers to a movement for the creation of a new state, Telangana, from the pre-existing state of Andhra Pradesh in India.
• The new state corresponds to the Telugu-speaking portions of the erstwhile princely state of Hyderabad.
• After several years of protest and agitation, the central government, under the United Progressive Alliance, decided to bifurcate the existing Andhra Pradesh state and on 7th February 2014, the Union Cabinet unilaterally cleared the bill for the creation of Telangana.

The Correct answer is A and C.

Key Points

• Bayyaram Tank inscription 1219 A.D.:
• Bayyaram Tank inscription or Bayyaram Cheruvu inscription was issued by Mailamba, sister of Ganapathi Deva.
• This inscription is giving information about digging a tank in Bayyaram village, Illendu Mandal, Khammam district, Telangana by Mailamba.
• ​Panditaradhya Charitra: 
• It was written by Palkuriki Somanatha, a great scholar from Telangana.
• It is an elegy on the life of Mallikarjuna Panditaradhya, Scholar.
• It deals with the emergence of bhakti-centered Saivism in the 12th century and the contribution of Mallikarjuna Panditaradhya to society.

Additional Information

• Motupalli inscription 1244 A.D.
• Also known as Motupalli Abhaya Varthaka Shaasanam.
• Motupalli inscription was issued by Ganapathi Deva.
• This is giving information regarding the remissions to the foreign merchants.
• ​Purushartha Saram:
• It was written by Sivadevayya.

The correct answer is Palanativecra Charitra.

Additional Information

Amukta Malyada

• Amuktamalyada is a Telugu epic poem composed by Krishnadevaraya, the Vijayanagara Emperor in the early 16th century.
• Amuktamalyada translates to one who offered the garland after wearing it themselves.
• Amuktamalyada describes the story of the wedding of the Hindu Lord Ranganayaka an avatar of Vishnu and Goda Devi also known as Andal the Tamil Alvar poet and daughter of Periyalvar, at Srirangam.

Important Points

Telangana

• Foundation Day: 2nd June 2014 (carved out from Andhra Pradesh on this date and became the 29th state of the Republic of India).
• Capital: Hyderabad.
• Chief Minister: Anumula Revanth Reddy, (December 2024)
• Governor: Jishnu Dev Varma (December 2024)
• State Animal: Jinka Deer.
• State Bird: Indian Roller.
• State Tree: Jammi.
• State Flower: Tangedu.
• Hyderabad and Secunderabad are known as the 'Twin Cities of Telangana'.
• Ramgundam is known as the 'Energy City of India'.
• Indian Air Force Academy and National Police Academy are in Hyderabad.
• Ramoji Film City is the largest film studio is in Hyderabad.
• Hyderabad is known as the City of Luck and Hi-Tech City.
• India's first e-Court is situated in Hyderabad.
• Golconda fort and Warrangal Fort are situated in Telangana.
• Telangana is the first Indian state to start Gender education at Degree Level.

The Correct answer is A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii.

Key Points

• Dommarata:
• Dommarata is a historic folk dance, involving both men and women who perform dance together as a group.
• Women dance in rhythm with special steps, while men balance wooden sticks made of Bamboo or other wood forms, on their shoulder.
• Other men slowly climb the wooden sticks and balance themselves, in tune with the rhythm.
• This dance is prevalent in Andhra Pradesh.
• ​Yakshagana:
• One of the most important folk theatres of Karnataka and Kasaragod .yakhaganam has carved a unique niche for these two places in the cultural map of India.
• The name Yakshagana suggests the music of celestial beings.
• Yakshagana is a musical dance drama. Singing and drumming merge with dancing, and words with gestural interpretation and players clad in costumes of striking colour and contours are parts of the dance form.
• In Yakshagana music and speech go hand in hand and both could reach a good distance without our modern sound system.
• ​Kati Papalu:
• It means cremation ground keepers.
• Religious art form prevalent in Telangana.
• The  Kati  Kaparlu or  Kati  Papalu earn their livelihood by performing jugglery in the villages and collecting toll at the cremation grounds when the dead bodies are brought for cremation.
• When the bodies are brought to the cremation ground/graveyard they play musical instruments while dancing,  and eulogising the departed soul and demand the toll.
• ​Kolattam:
• This is a stick dance and a very popular dance in Andhra Pradesh.
• The dance form was originated in the Seventh century.
• This dance form has various names, in various regions of India. In Andhra Pradesh, this dance called as KolKollannalu, Kolattam and Kolannalu.
• In the early days, the dance was performed by women only, gradually the changes occurred in this dance and now the dance was performed by both male and female.
• The dance is the combination of rhythmic movements, songs, and music.
• The dance is performed by 8 to 40 artists as a group and every two artists grouped as a pair.
• Each one holds the two sticks and moves the sticks according to their leader movements. ​

The correct answer is A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii.

Key Points

• Nilagiri Patrika
• It was edited by Shabnaveesu Venkatarama Narasimha rao.
• It was published for 5 years.
• In the beginning, it was printed at the Vijnana Pracharini printing press of Inugurty. Hanumakonda in 1925.
• Hitabodhini
• The first Telugu independent full-fledged magazine published in the Telangana region was the 'Hitabodhini'.
• It was edited by Srinivas Sharma.
• It published articles on patriotism, health, social reforms, and some other subjects.
• Andhra Abhyudayam was edited by Kokala Seetharama Sharma.
• The Rayyat was edited by KV Ranga Reddy and Mandumula NarsingRao.

The correct answer is Baindlas.

Key Points

• Jamidika is a stringed and percussion instrument made of wood and metal.
• This rare instrument is found in Andhra Pradesh.
• In the Jamidika, the string inside is plucked to play a sequence of jatis-bols.
• Off and on, the player also taps the wall of the instrument on the inside.
• This instrument is used as an accompaniment in the recital of Telugu ballads like Valaraju Katha - the story of a Yadava king.

The correct answer is Bhavanakurthy.

Key Points

• Dhulikatta 
• The Buddhist Mahastupa or the great stupa and vihar in Dhulikatta village, Pedapalli district were established at the end of the 2nd century BC, which is more than 2000 years ago.
• The village is only 25 kilometers away from Karimnagar city, Telangana.
• According to many historians, the description of this fortified town which is situated on the banks of a river that has been conceptualized by the Greek emissary Megasthenes matches with that of this town.
• The remains and ruins of this ancient stupa that has been built on an elevated place are still discernible.
• Nelakondapalli
• It is a town and a Mandal headquarters in Khammam district, Telangana.
• It is a historic site, which includes a mud fortification wall that covers 100 acres.
• Excavations by archaeologists have unearthed the foundations of viharas, cisterns, wells, one Maha Stupa, terracotta idols, a bronze idol of Lord Buddha, and a miniature stupa carved in limestone, and other historic materials from the 3rd and 4th centuries.
• Phanigiri 
• It is a Buddhist site in Suryapet District, Telangana.
• The excavations conducted here have yielded a Maha Stupa, a stone pillared congregation hall, three Viharas, two Apsidal Chaityagruhas, Sculptured panels including Jataka stories, Brahmi label inscriptions belonging to Satavahana and Ikshavaku dynasties, coins belonging to Mahatalavarasa, Satavahana, and Ikshavaku Kings besides early historic cultural materials dateable to 1st Century B.C. to 3rd Century A.D.

The correct answer is Bakrid - Id-ul Ajah.

Key Points

• Bakrid is known as Id-ul-Zuha.
• Id-ul-Zuha (Bakr-Id), is a festival of great rejoice, special prayers, and exchange of greetings and gifts mark this festival of Muslims.
• Id-ul-Zuha, the festival of sacrifice is celebrated with traditional fervor and gaiety in India and the world.
• It is called Id-ul-Adha in Arabic and Bakr-Id in the Indian subcontinent, because of the tradition of sacrificing a goat or 'bakr' in Urdu.

Additional Information

• Eid al-Fitr marks the end of Ramzan, the Muslim holy month of fasting, and is celebrated during the first three days of Shawwal, the 10th month of the Islamic calendar
• Muharram is celebrated as the advent of the Islamic New Year by participating Muslims around the globe. It is regarded as a pious and important festival by the community.
• Shab-e-Miraj or The Night of Ascent is one of the most celebrated dates of the Islamic calendar.

The correct answer is A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3.

Key Points

• Aasara Pension
• ‘Aasara’ pension scheme is meant to protect the most vulnerable sections of society in particular the old and infirm, people with HIV-AIDS, widows, incapacitated weavers, and toddy tappers, who have lost their means of livelihood with growing age, in order to support their day to day minimum needs requiring to lead a life of dignity and social security.
• The pension scheme was started on 8 November 2014 by the Chief Minister of Telangana, Kalvakuntla Chandrashekhar Rao in Kothur in Mahboobnagar district.
• The government is spending ₹5,500 crores every year on the scheme.
• From 2020-21 the government is providing an Aasara pension of Rs. 2,016 to senior citizens, widows, beedi workers, filaria victims, single women, handloom weavers, toddy tappers and AIDS victims, and Rs. 3,016 for disabled pensions.
• Haritha Haram
• It is a flagship programme of the Telangana Government envisages increasing the present 24% tree cover in the State to 33% of the total geographical area of the State.
• It was launched on 3 July 2015.
• The thrust areas to achieve the above are two-fold; one, initiatives in notified forest areas, and the other, initiatives in areas outside the notified forest areas.
• Kanti Velugu
• The Programme launched on 15th August 2018.
• The Telangana Government has embarked on a Noble Project of achieving “avoidable blindness-free” status by conducting a Comprehensive and Universal Eye Screening for the entire population of the State.
• Mission Bhagiratha
• It is a project for safe drinking water for every village and city household in Telangana State.
• It aims to provide piped water to 2.32 crore people in 20 lakh households in urban and 60 lakhs in rural areas of Telangana.
• It was launched on 6 August 2016.

The correct answer is Only A is correct

Key Points

• Telangana State Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Special Development Fund (Planning, Allocation, and Utilization of Financial Resources) Act, 2017
• The Act is aimed to ensure accelerated development of SCs and STs with emphasis on achieving equality, focussing on economic, educational, and human development along with security and social dignity, and promoting equity among SCs and STs.
• For schemes exclusively benefitting Scheduled Tribe individuals or Scheduled Tribe households, 100% of scheme cost shall be allocated and accounted for under Scheduled Tribes Special Development Fund. Hence the statement A is correct.
• Land distribution Scheme
• Another significant welfare scheme of the government that provides 3 acres of agricultural land to landless SC women, along with the provision for the creation of irrigation facilities, land development, and other agricultural inputs for their sustained livelihood. Hence the statement B is incorrect.
• It was launched in 2015.
• The government distributed 2,524 acres of land to 959 Dalits spending Rs 94 crore in the first year.

 

Additional Information

• Telangana became the 29th state of India.
• Telangana was separated from the state of Andhra Pradesh on 2 June 2014.
• The capital of Telangana is Hyderabad.

The correct answer is A and B only.

Key Points

• Digital Telangana Program was launched in Telangana on 1st July 2015.
• The main objectives of the programme are:
• The digital literacy program, under which one member of each household will be taught to become digitally literate
• School computer literacy program: To teach every child from Class 6 onwards the basics of computers
• Expansion of Mee-Seva services
• Converting as many Mee-Seva services as possible on the mobile platform and make mobile governance a reality in Digital Telangana
• Identifying technology solutions for all government agencies to provide better services to the citizens
• The government of Telangana in the last 6 months has been working on making the vision of Digital Telangana a reality by providing
• 4G services in major cities
• enabling WiFi facilities at Tank Bund, Necklace Road, Charminar, Public Gardens, Railway Station, etc
• expanding Mee-Seva services and working towards the goal of One-Stop-Shop (OSS) kiosks at each Gram Panchayat

Given: 

(A) : The fine rice scheme was launched by the Telangana government in 2015 → True

(R) : It benefitted 32.7 lakh students so far → True (The given fact is true but it nowhere shows the reason for implementing the scheme)

Therefore, Both (A) and (R) true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Hence, Option 2 is correct.

The correct answer is 89%.

Key Points

• The National Sample Survey (NSS) is a national socioeconomic survey conducted in annual rounds with a cycle of rotating topics.
• It is the largest organization conducting socio-economic surveys in India.
• NSSO functions under the Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation.
• Its nation-wide surveys on various socio-economic aspects include:
• Follow-up enterprise surveys of the Economic Census.
• Fieldwork relating to the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI).
• Supervision of area enumeration, crop estimation surveys conducted by state agencies under the Improvement of Crop Statistics scheme.
• Urban Frame Survey with a view to preparing a frame of compact units of urban areas as the first stage sampling units (FSUs),
• Organizing methodological studies and pilot surveys on important subjects and collection of price data from rural and urban sectors.
• Situation Assessment Survey of Agricultural Households in India was based on a countrywide survey of nearly 35,000 households by NSSO (70th round) for which data was collected on the agricultural year spanning July 2012 to June 2013.
• Nearly 52% of agricultural households in India were indebted.
• Levels of debt were highest at 93% in Andhra Pradesh and 89% in Telangana.

The following diagram shows the direction of Mahesh.

Let the start point be A and endpoint be B. And, we assume that Mahesh moves equal distance while moving in every direction.

Thus, he is facing East at the end i.e. Point B.

Hence, East is correct.

Logic: letters of the word are reversed and incremented by three. 

Given: EULP - SOXH

Similarly, 

GIRL - OULJ

Hence, OULJ is correct.

Logic: Alternate number are increased by 5 and 10.

Given series: 2, 7, 17, 22, 32, ? ,47, ?

Pattern: 

2 + 5 = 7

7 + 10 = 17

17 + 5 = 22

22 + 10 = 32

32 + 5 = 37

37 + 10 = 47

47 + 5 = 52

The two missing numbers are 37 and 52.

= 37  × 52 = 1924

Thus, the product of the two missing numbers is 1924.

Hence, 1924 is correct.

Mistake Points 

Please go through the question carefully. We have to find the multiplication of missing numbers.

In this given series, two numbers are missing: 37 and 52. To find the multiplication of these missing numbers, we calculate 37 multiplied by 52, which equals 1924.

So multiplication of numbers is 37 × 52 = 1924.

Given statements: 

1)The book Q is below M and N is below Q. 

2)The book O lies above P.

3)M lies below P.

Thus, book N is at the bottom.

Hence, N is correct.

Logic: Position of letter is added and sum of digit is taken of total.

R → 18, A → 1, T → 20 

18 + 1 + 20 = 39 → 3 + 9 = 12

R → 18, A → 1, N → 14

18 + 1 + 14 = 33 → 3 + 3 = 6

code for RAG will be 

R → 18, A → 1, G → 7

18 + 1 + 7 = 26 → 2 + 6 = 8

Hence 8 is correct answer.

Given statements: 

There are two mothers, two daughters and two males.

The grandfather of D is husband of A. (D and A are in the third and first generations respectively)

E is the husband of mother of a singer and the singer is the youngest of all the family members. (Singer is in the third generation and she has to be D, a female)

If C is the daughter of B. (E, a male is the husband of C, a female and B is in the first generation)

Thus, the two mothers are A and C, the two daughters are C and D and the two males are B and E.

The following diagram shows the relationship among the members of a family.

Therefore, B is the father-in-law of E.

Hence, Father-in-law is correct.

1. A, B, C, D, E and F sit in a row. Three of them are females. All the males never sit together.

2. F is on the right to D and D is on the right to B. A is a female and sits at the left end.

3. Only E is in between B and C.

4. Persons of same-gender sit at both the ends and the four persons sitting from the left end are of alternate genders.

The three persons at 2, 3 and 5 places from the right end are B, C, D.

Hence B, C, D is correct answer.

Given codes:

 

Given expression: (\left( {2;\rho ;6} \right);\alpha 5;\beta 7;\gamma 4;\delta 2 = )

(2 ^ 6) + 5 - 7 × 4 ÷ 2

64 + 5 - 7 × 4 ÷ 2

64 + 5 - 7 × 2

64 + 5 - 14

69 - 14

55

Now let us check the options:

1. 5 γ 11

5 × 11 

55 → Correct 

2. 2 ρ (-3)

2 ^ (-3)

0.125 → InCorrect 

3. 15 δ 7

15 ÷ 7

2.14 → InCorrect 

4. 3 β 25

3 - 25

-23 → InCorrect 

Hence, 5 γ 11 is correct.

The correct answer is 'brackish'.

Key Points

• Delightful means giving great pleasure or delight; highly pleasing. (आनंदप्रद
• The Antonyms for Delightful are- unpleasant, disagreeable, unattractive, unappealing.
• The most appropriate antonym for delightful is- Brackish
• Brackish means- (used about water) containing some salt but not as much as seawater, Unpleasant, distasteful
  

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

• ​Let us look at the meaning of the other options:

• Synonyms of Delightful- lovely, enjoyable, entertaining, gratifying.

The correct answer is 'He has better experiences with men than with books.'

Key Points

• The author explains to us readers, that whatever life taught him, life gave him experiences, was through people around him at his various stages of life.  As time flew, the author gained different experiences, he learnt a lot of things that books could never teach him. He does come across delightful books at this stage in his life, but none can offer him the experience, he got from people than he got from any books.
• Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

The correct answer is option 2. 

Key Points

• Let us first learn the meaning of the word Metaphor- A metaphor is a figure of speech that describes an object or action in a way that isn't literally true, but helps explain an idea or make a comparison.
• Example- 
• I'm drowning in a sea of grief.
• Let's look at the meaning of Meadow, which means - A meadow is an open habitat, or field, vegetated by grass, herbs, and other non-woody plants. Meadows may be sparsely covered with trees or shrubs, as long as they maintain an open character. They may be naturally occurring or artificially created from cleared shrubs or woodland.
• Here meadow is compared to life, which has all types of shrubs and grass. Here, shrubs and grasses are the people in life. As a meadow is vast so is life, which consists of all types of people who give us different experiences and which makes our life meaningful and valuable.
• Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

The correct answer is 'It is the experience with other human beings that nourishes one's life more than good books'.

Key Points

• The entire passage has been a topic about reading books and men.
• The author is trying to convey to the readers that reading books is good, but the different experiences life teaches you through different people (men), cannot be taught by a book.
• When the author was young she used to prefer books to men. Delightful books even come to her at a later part of her life, but what different men have taught the author, cannot be done by any kind of book. These are the people in life that you come across, and leave us with valuable lessons or experiences.
• Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

The correct answer is a pause in the creative process.

Key Points

• Writer's block actually means 'a condition, primarily associated with writing, in which an author is unable to produce new work or experiences a creative slowdown.'
• In the passage, it means a temporary stoppage or a pause in the creative writing process.
• In the second paragraph, we can see in the lines- "However, in the process of creative writing one can sometimes experience writer's block: this is just a temporary lull in the creative process."
• Lull means- a short period of quiet between times of activity (गतिविधि के विभिन्‍न चरणों में संक्षिप्‍त विराम की सि्‍थति; शांति, मंदी)
• Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

The correct answer is "A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-v, E-iii"

Key Points

• Let us look at the meanings of the given words in List-I.

• | WORD | MEANING | HINDI MEANING | | --- | --- | --- | | Unique | not like anything else; being the only one of its type; very special or unusual | जिसके समान दूसरा नहीं, अनन्‍य, अद्वितीय, बेजोड़; अपनी तरह का अकेला, एकल | | Impressive | causing a feeling of admiration and respect because of the importance, size, quality, etc. of something; deserving attention | किसी वस्‍तु के महत्व, आकार, गुणवत्ता के कारण उसके प्रति प्रशंसा और सम्‍मान से युक्त; प्रभावशाली, असरदार | | Zooming | to move or go somewhere very fast; moving quickly | बहुत तेज़ी से जाना या गुज़रना | | Idol | a person who is admired or loved; greatly loved person | समादृत, प्रशंसित या चहेता व्‍यक्ति आराध्य | | Lull | to make somebody relaxed and calm; to cause to sleep or rest | किसी को शांत करना |

• Let us look at some examples from the words of list-1:

• Unique-  Some humans are born with unique, supernatural talents.

• Impressive- His funeral was a simple but impressive public pageant.

• Zooming- The motor provides very rapid zooming compared to other cameras.

• Idol- He was the idol of his soldiers, a good tactician, but not a great strategist.

• Lull- The death of the emperor Aurangzeb brought a temporary lull: the guru assisted Aurangzeb's successor, Bahadur Shah, and was himself not long after assassinated at Nander in the Deccan.

• Hence, according to the word- meanings option 1 is the most appropriate answer.

Additional Information

• Let's look at the Antonyms of the words:
• Unique- Common and ordinary.
• Impressive- unimpressive, ordinary, mediocre.
• Zooming- amble, stroll.
• Idol- Devil, beast, fiend.
• Lull- waken, agitate.

The correct answer is "An expression that can be understood from the words given in it."

Key Points

• 'Idiomatic use' means- using language that contains expressions; language that contains idioms.
• Idioms means an expression whose meaning is different from the meanings of the individual words in it (मुहावरा, एक ऐसी अभिव्‍यक्ति जिसका अपना अर्थ उसके शब्‍दों के अर्थों के कुलयोग से भिन्‍न हो)
• Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

​​​

Additional Information

• Let's look at some examples of idioms:
• I think I'll stay home today. It's raining cats and dogs and I don't want to drive.
• The show is excellent, but the tickets cost an arm and a leg.
• Samantha was rather nervous taking her final exam, but she passed with flying colours!
• ​​Let's look at the meanings of the following idioms:
• It's raining cats and dogs- something that you say when it is raining heavily
• Cost an arm and a leg- to be very expensive
• With flying colours- If you do something such as pass an exam with flying colors, you do it very successfully.

Here the correct answer is S1-F, S2-D, S3-E, S4-A, S5-G, S6-I, S7-H, S8-C, S9-B.

Key Points:-

• All the options contain F as the first sentence. Therefore, we need not waste time searching for the opening sentence.
• The first sentence of the paragraph is F.
• D is the second sentence, therefore, we need not waste time searching for the second sentence.
• Now, after looking at all the options we find that there are two sentences which can be placed after the second sentence i.e. E and A.
• Sentence E will follow sentence D because it tells about the fact that one of the old men had his bed by the window, and everyday he spent hours telling his friend on the other side of the room what he could see through the window.
• Sentence A further describes what the old man saw by the window. Thus, it will come after sentence E because it describes what was told in sentence E.
• Now, we need to again look at the options.
• Thus, we can see that only sentence G and A are in the options.
• Since sentence A had already been used.
• Thus, G will follow sentence A.
• For the sixth sentence, we have sentence I and H to choose between.
• Since sentence G talks about the desires of the old man and sentence I will follow it because it contains the growing jealousy because of his desires.
• Now after observing all the options we get to know only option A comprises of this combination i.e. F,D,E,A,G,I.
• Thus, option A will be the correct answer.

<br>

Therefore, the correct sequence of the passage is Two old men shared a room on the fourth floor of an old people's home in the city centre. Both men were very old and very ill, and they spent 24 hours a day in bed in the room. Fortunately, one of the old men had his bed by the window, and every day he spent hours telling his friend on the other side of the room what he could see through the window. He told him about the traffic going by, the children playing in the park opposite, and the birds flying in the trees. How nice it would be, he thought, if he had the bed by the window and could see everything for himself, instead of just hearing about it. The old man on the inside wall got a lot of pleasure from hearing about the world outside but after a time, he began to get rather jealous. One night, the man by the window called to his friend, "Quick ! Pull the alarm by your bed I don't think I am going to last the night. But his friend, imagining an empty bed over by the window, did nothing - he just closed his eyes and went back to sleep. Sure enough, the next morning, the nurse found the man dead in his bed by the window.

Here the correct answer is One against the wall the other near the window.

Key Points:-

• Let's look at the correct sequence of the passage:-
• Two old men shared a room on the fourth floor of an old people's home in the city centre. Both men were very old and very ill, and they spent 24 hours a day in bod in the room. Fortunately, one of the old men had his bed by the window, and every day he spent hours telling his friend on the other side of the room what he could see through the window. He told him about the traffic going by, the children playing in the pack opposite, and the birds flying in the trees. How nice it would be, he thought, if he had the bed by the window and could see everything for himself, instead of just hearing about it. The old man on the inside wall got a lot of pleasure from hearing about the world outside but after a time, he began to get rather jealous. One night, the man by the window called to his friend, "Quick ! Pull the alarm by your bed I don't think I am going to last the night. But his friend, imagining an empty bed over by the window, did nothing - he just closed his eyes and went back to sleep. Sure enough, the next morning, the nurse found the man dead in his bed by the window.
• From the bold sentences of the above passage we get to know that one of the old man had his bed by the windows and the other had it against the wall which made him jealous of the former.
• Thus, the most appropriate answer is Option 3.
  

Therefore, the correct answer is One against the wall the other near the window.

Here the correct answer is I might die before morning.

Key Points:-

• Let's look at the correct sequence of the passage:-
• Two old men shared a room on the fourth floor of an old people's home in the city centre. Both men were very old and Very ill, and they spent 24 hours a day in bod in the room. Fortunately, one of the old men had his bed by the window, and every day he spent hours telling his friend on the other side of the room what he could see through the window. He told him about the traffic going by, the children playing in the pack opposite, and the birds flying in the trees. How nice it would be, he thought, if he had the bed by the window and could see everything for himself, instead of just hearing about it. The old man on the inside wall got a lot of pleasure from hearing about the world outside but after a time, he began to get rather jealous. One night, the man by the window called to his friend, "Quick! Pull the alarm by your bed I don't think I am going to last the night. But his friend, imagining an empty bed over by the window, did nothing - he just closed his eyes and went back to sleep. Sure enough, the next morning, the nurse found the man dead in his bed by the window.
• The old man who had his bed by the window was not feeling well as he was old and very ill and therefore called out his friend to pull the alarm (otherwise he will die due to his failing health) which was present by his bed but due to the desire of getting the bed by the window, the other old man did not pull the alarm and therefore, the old man died.
• Thus, the correct answer is option 4.

<br>

Therefore, the correct answer is I might die before morning.

Here the correct answer is He wished the man near the window to vacate the bed.

Key Points:-

• Let's look at the correct sequence of the passage:-
• Two old men shared a room on the fourth floor of an old people's home in the city centre. Both men were very old and Very ill, and they spent 24 hours a day in bod in the room. Fortunately, one of the old men had his bed by the window, and everyday he spent hours telling his friend on the other side of the room what he could see through the window. He told him about the traffic going by, the children playing in the pack opposite, and the birds flying in the trees. How nice it would be, he thought, if he had the bed by the window and could see everything for himself, instead of just hearing about it. The old man on the inside wall got a lot of pleasure from hearing about the world outside but after a time, he began to get rather jealous. One night, the man by the window called to his friend, "Quick! Pull the alarm by your bed I don't think I am going to last the night. But his friend, imagining an empty bed over by the window, did nothing - he just closed his eyes and went back to sleep. Sure enough, the next morning, the nurse found the man dead in his bed by the window.
• The old man who had his bed against the wall was jealous of the other old man and therefore, he did not pull the alarm.
• Vacate*(verb)* - to leave a room, building, chair, etc. so that it is available for other people.
• For Example - Hotel guests are requested to vacate their rooms by noon.
• Thus, we get to know that he wanted the bed by the window so he just closed his eyes and went back to sleep.
• Thus, the correct answer is option 1.

 

Therefore, the correct answer is He wished the man near the window to vacate the bed.

Here the correct answer is Continued to sleep.

Key Points:-

• Let's look at the correct sequence of the passage:-
• Two old men shared a room on the fourth floor of an old people's home in the city centre. Both men were very old and Very ill, and they spent 24 hours a day in bod in the room. Fortunately, one of the old men had his bed by the window, and everyday he spent hours telling his friend on the other side of the room what he could see through the window. He told him about the traffic going by, the children playing in the pack opposite, and the birds flying in the trees. How nice it would be, he thought, if he had the bed by the window and could see everything for himself, instead of just hearing about it. The old man on the inside wall not a lot of pleasure from hearing about the world outside but after a time, he began to get rather jealous. One night, the man by the window called to his friend, "Quick ! Pull the alarm by your bed I don't think I am going to last the night.  But his friend, imagining an empty bed over by the window, did nothing - he just closed his eyes and went back to sleep. Sure enough, the next morning, the nurse found the man dead in his bed by the window.
• According to the passage, after hearing the cry of his roommate, the old man just closed his eyes and continued to sleep.
• He did this because he wanted the bed by the window to be vacated.
• Thus, the correct answer is option 1.

<br>

Therefore, the correct answer is Continued to sleep.

Here the correct answer is A bed overlooking the window.

Key Points:-

• Let's look at the correct sequence of the passage:-
• Two old men shared a room on the fourth floor of an old people's home in the city centre. Both men were very old and Very ill, and they spent 24 hours a day in bod in the room. Fortunately, one of the old men had his bed by the window, and everyday he spent hours telling his friend on the other side of the room what he could see through the window. He told him about the traffic going by, the children playing in the pack opposite, and the birds flying in the trees. How nice it would be, he thought, if he had the bed by the window and could see everything for himself, instead of just hearing about it. The old man on the inside wall not a lot of pleasure from hearing about the world outside but after a time, he began to get rather jealous. One night, the man by the window called to his friend, "Quick ! Pull the alarm by your bed I don't think I am going to last the night.  But his friend, imagining an empty bed over by the window, did nothing - he just closed his eyes and went back to sleep. Sure enough, the next morning, the nurse found the man dead in his bed by the window.
• According to the passage, a bed by the window means a bed which has a view of the outside world through the window.
• Overlook*(verb)* - have a view of from above.
• For Example - The chateau overlooks fields of corn and olive trees.
• Thus, the correct answer is option 4.
  

Therefore, the correct answer is A bed overlooking the window.

Here the correct answer is The bed by the window.

Key Points:-

• Let's look at the correct sequence of the passage:-
• Two old men shared a room on the fourth floor of an old people's home in the city centre. Both men were very old and Very ill, and they spent 24 hours a day in bod in the room. Fortunately, one of the old men had his bed by the window, and everyday he spent hours telling his friend on the other side of the room what he could see through the window. He told him about the traffic going by, the children playing in the pack opposite, and the birds flying in the trees. How nice it would be, he thought, if he had the bed by the window and could see everything for himself, instead of just hearing about it. The old man on the inside wall not a lot of pleasure from hearing about the world outside but after a time, he began to get rather jealous. One night, the man by the window called to his friend, "Quick ! Pull the alarm by your bed I don't think I am going to last the night.  But his friend, imagining an empty bed over by the window, did nothing - he just closed his eyes and went back to sleep. Sure enough, the next morning, the nurse found the man dead in his bed by the window.
• The passage is based on the subject 'bed by the window' and how an old man gets jealous of the other to get the bed by the window.
• The passage revolves around the subject 'the bed by the window'.
• The subject of the passage cannot be 'Old people's happy home' because the home wasn't happy as jealousy(due to the bed by the window) eroded the bond of the two old man.
• The subject of the passage cannot be 'Non-ringing of the alarm' bell because it was just an action done in the passage and the story didn't revolve around this idea or phrase.
• The subject of the passage cannot be 'Two happy old men' because the old man who had his bed against the wall was not happy and was jealous of the man who had his bed by the window.
• Thus, the correct answer is option 3.

<br>

Therefore, the correct answer is The bed by the window.

Given:

Total number of students 3000

30% failed in mathematics, 25% failed in English,

20% failed in both the subjects

Formula Used:

n(AUB) = n(A) + n(B) – n(AnB),

where,

n(A) is number of A, 

n(B) is number of B,

n(AnB) is number of A intersection of B,

n(AUB) is number of A union B

Calculation:

Out of 100%, 30% failed in mathematics,

⇒ 100 – 30% = 70% passed in mathematics,

Out of 100%, 25% failed in english,

⇒ 100 – 25% = 75% passed in english,

Out of 100%, 20% failed in both the subjects,

⇒ 100 – 20% = 80% passed in both the subjects

Using the formula,

⇒ n(AUB) = 70 + 75 – 80

⇒ n(AUB) = 65%

65% passed in both subjects,

Number of students passed in both subjects,

⇒ 65% of 3,000

⇒ 65\100 × 3,000

⇒ 65 × 30

⇒ 1,950

Number of students passed in mathematics,

⇒ 70% of 3,000

⇒ 70/100 × 3,000

⇒ 2,100

Number of students passed in English,

⇒ 75% of 3,000

⇒ 75/100 ×  3,000

⇒ 2,250

Number of students only passed in Mathematics,

⇒ 2,100 – 1,950 = 150 

Number of students only passed in English,

⇒ 2,250 – 1,950 = 300

Total number of students passed in either of the subjects,

⇒ 150 + 300 = 450

∴ Total number of students is 450.

Given:

He sold 16 articles for the price of 15 articles

He gains 35% profit on 16 articles

Discount is 10%

Formula Used:

Selling price = (100 – D)% of Marked price

Calculation:

Let the Marked price be Rs. 100

⇒ Selling price = D% of Marked price

⇒ Selling price = 90/100 × 100

⇒ Selling price = Rs. 90

He sold 15 articles for Rs. 90

⇒ Total Selling price he got = 15 × 90

⇒ Total Selling price he got = Rs. 1,350

He gained 35% on the whole 16 articles,

⇒ Cost price of 16 articles = 1,350/(100 + 35) × 100

⇒ Cost price of 16 articles = 1,350/135 × 100

⇒ Cost price of 16 articles = 1,000

⇒ Cost price of 1 article = 1,000/16

⇒ Cost price of 1 article = 125/2

Difference between Marked price and Cost price of 1 article,

⇒ 100 – 125/2

⇒ 75/2

Percentage difference,

⇒ {(75/2)/125/2} × 100

⇒ 3/5 × 100

⇒ 60%

∴ The difference between Marked and Cost price is 60%.

Given:

The mixture is of 120 liters

Alcohol ∶ Water = 2 ∶ 1

Calculation:

Let initial quantity of alcohol and water be 2x and 1x.

⇒ 2x + 1x = 120

⇒ 3x = 120

⇒ x = 40

Initial quantity of alcohol = 2x

⇒ 80 litres

Initial quantity of water = 1x

⇒ 40 litres

Let the water to be added be x litres.

80/(40 + x) = 2/3

⇒ 240 = 80 + 2x

⇒ x = 80

Quantity of water in the newly made mixture = 40 + 80 = 120

∴ Required answer is 120 liters

Given:

24 men complete a work in 16 days.

32 women complete work in 24 days.

Formula Used:.

M1.D1.T1.E1W1.C1=M2.D2.T2.E2W2. Where,

(\frac{{M1.D1.T1.E1}}{{W1.C1}} = ;\frac{{M2.D2.T2.E2}}{{W2.C2}})

M is the number of working men

D is the total number of days

T is total hours of working days

E is the efficiency of working men

W is total work

C is the consumption of working men

Calculation:

Now by using the formula,

24 men × 16 = 32 women × 24

⇒ m = 2w

m = 2 and w = 1      ---- (efficiency)

Total work,

24 men × 16

⇒ 24 × 2 × 16

⇒ 768 units

Now 16 men and 8 women worked for 12 days,

⇒ {16(2) + 8(1)} × 12

⇒ 40 × 12

⇒ 480 units completed by them.

Remaining work,

⇒ 768 – 480

⇒ 288 units 

This unit needs to be completed in 4 days,

Now using the formula,

Let the working men be x

{x(2) + 8(1)} × 4 = 288

⇒ (2x + 8) = 72

⇒ 2x = 64

⇒ x = 32

32 men required to complete the remaining work in 4 days.

The increased number of men are 32 – 16 = 16

∴ The number of men required more is 16.

Given:

Total number of cards is 113

The number of Birthday cards is equal to the sum of all the others except the marriage anniversary card.

The number of New year's cards is double the number of Diwali cards.

The number of Diwali's cards is double the number of Christmas cards.

Calculation:

Let the number of Christmas card be x

⇒ Total number of Diwali cards = 2x

⇒ Total number of New year's cards  = 4x

Total number of Birthday cards,

⇒ x + 2x + 4x

⇒ 7x

According to the question,

⇒ Birthday cards ∶ Christmas card = 7x ∶ x

⇒ Birthday cards ∶ Christmas card = 7 ∶ 1

∴ The ratio is 7 ∶ 1.

2004 is a leap year, thus it will have 2 odd days.

Day on 8 January 2005 would be: Thursday + 2 odd days i.e. Saturday

Day on 11 January 2005 would be: Saturday + 3 days i.e. Tuesday

Hence, Tuesday is correct.

Clock loses 16 minutes a day i.e. 16 minutes in 24 hours.

Total time between 5 a.m. on first day and 10 p.m. on the fourth day = 24 hours + 24 hours + 24 hours + 17 hours = 89 hours.

Now, 23 hours 44 minutes of this clock = 24 hours of the correct clock.

356/15 hours of this clock = 24 hours of the correct clock.

Thus, 89 hours of this clock = (24 × 31556 × 89) or 90 hours of the correct clock.

Therefore, the correct time would be 5 a.m. p.m. + 90 hours i.e. 11 p.m.

Hence, 11 p.m. is correct.