The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• Article 32
• It is one of the fundamental rights listed in the Constitution that each citizen is entitled.
• Article 32 deals with the ‘Right to Constitutional Remedies’, or affirms the right to move the Supreme Court by appropriate proceedings for the enforcement of the rights conferred in Part III of the Constitution.
• It states that the Supreme Court “shall have the power to issue directions or orders or writs, including writs like habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto, and certiorari, whichever may be appropriate, for the enforcement of any of the rights conferred by this Part”.
• The right guaranteed by this Article “shall not be suspended except as otherwise provided for by this Constitution”.
• The article is included in Part III of the Constitution with other fundamental rights including Equality, Freedom of Speech and Expression, Life and Personal Liberty, and Freedom of Religion. Hence, Statement 4 is correct.
• Only if any of these fundamental rights are violated can a person can approach the Supreme Court directly under Article 32. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• Equal pay for equal work for both men and women is a part of the Directive Principles of State Policy of India under Article 39. Since it is not a fundamental right, Supreme Court can deny relief under article 32. Hence Statement 2 is not correct.
• The right to property is not a fundamental right. It was removed by the 44th Constitutional amendment act. It is a legal right and comes under article 300A. Therefore, the Supreme court of India Can deny issuing the writ.
• Since the right guaranteed by Article 32 (ie, the right to move the SC where a fundamental right is infringed) is in itself a fundamental right, the availability of alternate remedy is no bar to relief under Article 32.
• However, the SC has ruled that where relief through the high court is available under Article 226, the aggrieved party should first move the high court.
• People have the right to move the Court by appropriate proceedings for the enforcement of their rights granted by part III of the Indian Constitution. In other words one can move to enforce his/her right to the apex court in way of proper proceedings is assured. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• In the Chandra Kumar case (1997), the SC ruled that the writ jurisdiction of both the high court and the Supreme Court constitute a part of the basic structure of the Constitution.
• Both the High Courts and the Supreme Court can be approached for violation or enactment of fundamental rights through five kinds of writs:
• Habeas corpus (related to personal liberty in cases of illegal detentions and wrongful arrests)
• Mandamus — directing public officials, governments, courts to perform a statutory duty;
• Quo warranto — to show by what a warrant is a person holding public office;
• Prohibition — directing judicial or quasi-judicial authorities to stop proceedings which it has no jurisdiction for; and
• Certiorari — a re-examination of an order given by judicial, quasi-judicial, or administrative authorities.
• In civil or criminal matters, the first remedy available to an aggrieved person is that of trial courts, followed by an appeal in the High Court and then the Supreme Court. When it comes to the violation of fundamental rights, an individual can approach the High Court under Article 226 of the Supreme Court directly under Article 32. Article 226, however, is not a fundamental right like Article 32.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• The National Green Tribunal (NGT) is formed in 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act as a statutory body to deal with cases related to environmental issues and the speedy implementation of decisions relating to it.
• The Tribunal has the mandate to dispose of applications and petitions within a period of six months.
• The National Green Tribunal is responsible for giving many prominent decisions**, such as declaring the plying of diesel** vehicles over fifteen years old on the roads of Delhi as illegal in efforts to prevent air pollution.
• The tribunal in a separate order canceled the clearance of coal blocks in the forests of Hasdeo-Arand situated in Chhattisgarh state.
• The Kolkata bench of the National Green Tribunal banned construction activities and solid waste and noise pollution in the Sunderban area, being an eco-sensitive region to protect wildlife, in November 2016.

Additional Information Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)

• The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), the statutory organization, was constituted in September 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. Further, CPCB was entrusted with the powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
• It serves as a field formation and also provides technical services to the Ministry of Environment and Forests of the provisions of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Principal Functions of the CPCB, as spelled out in the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution**) Act, 1974,** and the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981,
• (i) to promote the cleanliness of streams and wells in different areas of the States by prevention, control, and abatement of water pollution, and
• (ii) to improve the quality of air and to prevent, control or abate air pollution in the country.

The Harappan civilization is the oldest civilization of Indian history. The discovery of this civilization marked the beginning of the dawn of a new era in Indian History. It is called Harappan civilization because the relics of this civilization were first discovered in 1921 at Harappa.

Important Points

The most famous building to be found in the Harappan excavation was the Great Bath at Mohenjodaro.

• Mohenjodaro is the second most important town of the Harappan civilization.
• It is located in the Larkana district in Sind (present-day Pakistan).
• The word Mohenjodaro means the mound of the dead.
• Great Bath is 12m long, 7m wide and 3m deep.
• There were side rooms for changing clothes.
• It is believed that the Great Bath served some sort of ritual bathing.

From the above, we can conclude that Great Bath was found at Mohenjodaro.

Additional Information

Findings in the Harappan sites:

• Mohenjodaro- Pashupati seal, a Bronze image of a dancing girl, three cylindrical seals and steatite image of a bearded man, Clay figures of the mother goddess, dice, Idol of a Yogi and Granary
• Kalibangan- Black bangles, hearths, lime plastered storage pits, Saddle querns
• Chanhudaro- Metalworks, shell, ornaments
• Banawali- pottery similar to Kalibangan, Copper objects, large hoards of jewellery, cubical chert blade, beads of gold and semi-precious stones, stone blades

The correct answer is Mahatma Gandhi.

Key Points

• Khilafat Movement:
• Muslims were especially upset about the future of the Islamic places of worship after the allied powers had partitioned the Turkish Empire.
• In India Maulana Mohammad Ali Jauhar and his brother Maulana Shaukat Ali along with some other Muslim leaders such as Dr. Mukhtar Ahmed Ansari. Raees-ul-Muhajireen Barrister Jan Muhammad Junejo, Hasrat Mohani, Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, and Dr. Hakim Ajmal Khan joined hands a created an All India Khilafat Committee, at Lucknow.
• It had two main demands, which were never accepted:
• Caliph Sultan must retain sufficient territories so that he can defend the Islamic Faith.
• The places which are called Jazirat-ul-Arab, including Arabia, Syria, Iraq, and Palestine must remain under Muslim suzerainty.
• The Ali brothers were arrested during the course of the war only to be released from jail after the war was over.
• This movement reached a crescendo in Bengal, North-West Frontier Province, and Punjab. October 17, 1919, was observed as Khilafat Day.
• The Hindus also joined hands with the Muslims and a strike was called for.
• On November 23, 1919, the All India Khilafat Conference was organized at New Delhi and later a Khilafat Manifesto was published which called upon the British to protect the Caliphate.
• Mahatma Gandhi was elected as the President of All India Khilafat Conference met at Delhi in 1919. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• The leaders of the Khilafat Movement joined hands with Indian National Congress for the upcoming Non-cooperation Movement. Again March 19 1920 was observed as Khilafat Day and following that there was an all-party conference in June 1920 at Allahabad.

Additional Information

• Motilal Nehru:
• He was an Indian lawyer, activist, and politician belonging to the Indian National Congress.
• He also served as the Congress President twice, 1919–1920 and 1928–1929.
• He was a member of the Nehru-Gandhi family and the father of Jawaharlal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India
• Muhammad Ali Jinnah:
• He was a barrister, politician, and the founder of Pakistan.
• Jinnah served as the leader of the All-India Muslim League from 1913 until the inception of Pakistan on 14 August 1947, and then as the Dominion of Pakistan's first Governor-General until his death.
• Maulana Shaukat Ali: 
• He was an Indian Muslim leader of the Khilafat Movement.
• He was the elder brother of the renowned political leader Mohammad Ali Jouhar.

The correct answer is The sanction behind the Directive Principles is legal.

 Key Points

• Directive Principles of State Policy:
• Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution from Articles 36 to 51.
• The phrase ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ denotes the ideals that the State should keep in mind while formulating policies and enacting laws.
• The Directive Principles resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ enumerated in the Government of India Act of 1935.
• The Directive Principles constitute a very comprehensive economic, social and political programme for a modern democratic State.
• The Directive Principles are non-justiciable in nature, that is, they are not legally enforceable by the courts for their violation. Hence, option 3 is not correct.
• The Directive Principles, though non-justiciable in nature, help the courts in examining and determining the constitutional validity of a law.
• The Directive Principles constitute certain ideals for social justice.
• Article 38: To promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order permeated by justice–social, economic and political and to minimise inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities. Hence, option 1 is correct.
• ​It aims to fulfil the objective of socio-economic justice.​
• Article 39 A: To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor. Hence, option 4 is correct.
• ​​Directive Principles outside Part IV:
• ​Claims of SCS and STS to Services: The claims of the members of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes shall be taken into consideration, consistently with the maintenance of the efficiency of administration, in the making of appointments to services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or a State (Article 335 in Part XVI).
• Instruction in mother tongue: It shall be the endeavour of every state and every local authority within the state to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups (Article 350-A in Part XVII).
• Development of the Hindi Language: It shall be the duty of the Union to promote the spread of the Hindi language and to develop it so that it may serve as a medium of expression for all the elements of the composite culture of India (Article 351 in Part XVII).

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh

Key Points

• Malwa Plateau is primarily located in the state of Madhya Pradesh.
• The plateau is bounded by the Aravalli Range to the northwest, the Vindhya Range to the south, and the Bundelkhand region to the east.
• It is known for its rich history and was a significant part of the ancient Avanti Mahajanapada.
• The region is also notable for its black cotton soil, known as Regur, which is highly suitable for cotton cultivation.
• Malwa Plateau is rich in mineral resources and has significant deposits of coal and limestone.

Additional Information

• The region plays a crucial role in India's agriculture and economy, contributing significantly to the production of crops like wheat, soybeans, and pulses.
• Indore, the largest city in Madhya Pradesh, is located on the southern edge of the Malwa Plateau and serves as a major commercial and educational hub.
• The historical city of Ujjain, located on the eastern side of the plateau, is one of the seven sacred cities (Sapta Puri) in Hinduism and hosts the famous Kumbh Mela every 12 years.
• Malwa Plateau has a rich cultural heritage with numerous forts, palaces, and temples that attract tourists from all over the world.
• The region has also contributed significantly to Indian classical music, particularly the Malwa School of Dhrupad.

World Water Day is an annual event celebrated on March 22. The day focuses attention on the importance of freshwater and advocates for the sustainable management of freshwater resources. This year’s theme of World Water Day is ‘Water and Jobs.’

The correct answer is Assam.

Key Points 

• Satriya Nritya is the classical dance form of Assam which represents the Satriya culture, the basis of the religious and cultural fabric of Assam.
• It is a dance-drama performance art with origins in the Krishna-centered Vaishnavism monasteries of Assam and attributed to the 15th-century Bhakti movement scholar and saint Mahapurush Srimanta Sankardev.
• Dance historian Dr. Sunil Kothari has recently been bestowed with the Madhabdev Award by the Government of Assam for popularising Sattriya dance.
• Sattriya was given the status of classical dance in the year 2000 by the Sangeet Natak Akademi.

Important Points 

• Other classical dances of India are:
• Bharatnatyam (Tamil Nadu), Kathakali (Kerala), Kuchipudi (Andhra Pradesh), Kathak (North India), Mohiniyattam (Kerala), Manipuri (Manipur) and Odissi (Odisha).

Additional Information 

• Chhau:
• Chhau is a folk dance of the Rarh region.
• The Chhau dance is mainly performed during festivals in the region of Jharkhand, West Bengal, and Odisha, especially the spring festival of Chaitra Parva and in which the whole community participates.
• The Purulia Chhau dance is celebrated during the Sun festival.
• Rouf:
• Rouf dance is a traditional and rhythmic folk dance of Jammu and Kashmir.
• Amidst the beauty of Kashmir, amidst the rows of blossoming tulips, you will find women wearing colourful dresses rhythmically celebrating spring.
• The celebration is grand and includes this charismatic tradition.
• Gotipua:
• Gotipua is a traditional dance form in the state of Odisha, India, and the precursor of Odissi classical dance.
• It has been performed in Orissa for centuries by young boys, who dress as women to praise Jagannath and Krishna.

The correct answer is Article 74.

Key Points

• Article 74 of the Indian Constitution states that there shall be a Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister to aid and advise the President.
• The President is bound to act in accordance with the advice provided by the Council of Ministers as per this Article.
• This provision ensures that the executive authority of the President is exercised in alignment with the elected government, upholding the parliamentary system.
• The advice tendered by the Council of Ministers to the President is not subject to judicial review, ensuring confidentiality and political stability.
• The Prime Minister plays a pivotal role as the head of the Council of Ministers, orchestrating the functioning of the executive branch of the government.

Additional Information

• Parliamentary System of Government:
• India follows the parliamentary system of government where the real executive powers rest with the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.
• The President acts as the nominal executive head of the state.
• Council of Ministers:
• It consists of the Prime Minister, Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State, and Deputy Ministers.
• The Council of Ministers collectively holds accountability to the Lok Sabha.
• Prime Minister:
• The Prime Minister is appointed by the President and is usually the leader of the majority party or coalition in the Lok Sabha.
• The Prime Minister acts as the chief advisor to the President and leads the executive branch of the government.
• Judicial Review:
• While Article 74 excludes the advice tendered by the Council of Ministers from judicial review, other executive actions based on this advice can be reviewed by courts.
• This ensures a balance between confidentiality and accountability in governance.

Cotopaxi in the Andes Mountains, is the active stratovolcano which is located in Ecuador, South America. It is one of the highest volcanic mountains of the world. Till date, it has erupted 50 times since 1738.

The correct answer is Privatization of public sector units.

Key Points

• The New Economic Policy (NEP) was launched in July 1991 to pull the Indian economy out of a severe Balance of Payments (BoP) crisis and high Inflation. The policy categorized reforms into two groups: Stabilization Measures and Structural Reform Measures.
• Structural Reform Measures are long-term policies aimed at improving the efficiency of the economy and increasing international competitiveness by removing rigidities in various sectors. Privatization of public sector units is a core structural reform that involves reducing the role of the government in business and encouraging private ownership. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Devaluation of the rupee was a short-term Stabilization Measure undertaken in 1991 (specifically on July 1 and July 3) to boost exports and discourage imports, thereby improving the Foreign Exchange Reserves. It is not classified as a structural reform. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• A Cut in subsidies is a part of Fiscal Policy stabilization aimed at reducing the Fiscal Deficit. While it was a necessary step during the 1991 crisis to achieve macroeconomic stability, it falls under stabilization measures rather than long-term structural changes. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• The 1991 policy actually focused on the removal or reduction of export duties and import tariffs to promote trade Liberalization. The imposition of export duty would contradict the goals of Globalization and trade expansion. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Liberalization: This structural reform involved the abolition of Industrial Licensing for most industries, except for a strategic few like Defense equipment, Industrial explosives, and Hazardous chemicals. It also included Financial Sector Reforms where the role of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) shifted from a regulator to a facilitator.
• Privatization: It refers to the withdrawal of the state from ownership or management of Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs). This was achieved through Disinvestment (selling a part of the equity of PSUs to the public) and Strategic Sale (transfer of management control).
• Globalization: This involves the integration of the national economy with the global economy. Key steps included the reduction of Customs Duties, removal of Quantitative Restrictions (QRs) on imports, and allowing Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in various sectors.
• Economic Context of 1991: The reforms were initiated under the leadership of Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao and then Finance Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh. The crisis was so severe that India had to mortgage its Gold reserves to the Bank of England and the Union Bank of Switzerland to secure loans from the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank.

Important Points

• LPG Model: The 1991 reforms are popularly known as the LPG Model (Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization). This model marked a shift from the Nehruvian Socialist model to a Market-oriented economy.
• Tax Reforms: As part of the structural reforms, Direct Tax rates (Income tax and Corporate tax) were reduced to encourage voluntary compliance and increase revenue. Indirect Tax structures were also simplified, eventually leading towards the Goods and Services Tax (GST) framework years later.
• Foreign Exchange Reforms: To resolve the BoP crisis, the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA), 1973 was eventually replaced by the more liberal Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999.
• Navratnas and Maharatnas: To improve the performance of PSUs, the government granted greater administrative and financial autonomy to certain profit-making companies, categorizing them as Maharatnas, Navratnas, and Miniratnas.

The correct answer is 1906.

Key Points

• The All India Muslim League was founded on 30th December 1906 in Dacca (now Dhaka, Bangladesh).
• The foundation meeting took place at the Shahbagh Palace under the leadership of Nawab Khwaja Salimullah.
• The primary objective of the Muslim League was to protect the political and religious rights of Muslims in British India.
• The Simla Deputation of 1906, led by Aga Khan III, played a significant role in the formation of the league.
• The first honorary president of the All India Muslim League was Nawab Viqar-ul-Mulk, with Nawab Mohsin-ul-Mulk as one of its founding members.

Additional Information

• Simla Deputation (1906):
• It was a delegation of prominent Muslim leaders led by Aga Khan III that met Lord Minto, the Viceroy of India, at Simla in 1906.
• The deputation demanded separate electorates for Muslims to ensure their political representation.
• This deputation laid the foundation for the formation of the All India Muslim League.
• Partition of Bengal (1905):
• Introduced by Lord Curzon, the partition divided Bengal into Hindu-majority and Muslim-majority regions.
• This move intensified communal sentiments and highlighted the need for a political platform for Muslims.
• Objectives of the Muslim League:
• To promote loyalty to the British government among Muslims.
• To safeguard the political and religious rights of Muslims.
• To prevent hostility between Muslims and other communities in India.
• Significance of the Muslim League:
• The Muslim League became the primary platform for articulating Muslim political aspirations in British India.
• It played a pivotal role in the demand for a separate Muslim state, which ultimately led to the creation of Pakistan in 1947.

The correct answer is Western Ghats and Arabian Sea.

Key Points

• The Western Coastal Plains of India are situated between the Western Ghats and the Arabian Sea.
• They are narrower compared to the Eastern Coastal Plains, with an average width ranging from 50 to 100 km.
• The plains extend from Gujarat in the north to Kerala in the south, covering the states of Maharashtra, Goa, and Karnataka in between.
• These plains are divided into three distinct sections: the Konkan Coast (Maharashtra and Goa), the Kanara Coast (Karnataka), and the Malabar Coast (Kerala).
• The region is known for its fertile soil, lagoons, backwaters, and estuaries, which support agriculture, fishing, and tourism.

Additional Information

• Western Ghats:
• A UNESCO World Heritage Site and one of the eight "hottest hotspots" of biological diversity globally.
• It is a continuous mountain range running parallel to the western coast of India.
• The Western Ghats play a crucial role in influencing the monsoon climate in India.
• Arabian Sea:
• Part of the northern Indian Ocean, bounded by India to the east, Pakistan and Iran to the north, and the Arabian Peninsula to the west.
• It is a major route for maritime trade and has significant economic importance.
• Backwaters of Kerala:
• A network of interconnected lakes, rivers, and canals along the Malabar Coast.
• Famous for houseboat tourism and traditional fishing practices.
• Economic Significance:
• The Western Coastal Plains are important for agriculture, with crops like rice and coconut grown extensively.
• Fishing is a major occupation along the coast due to the proximity to the Arabian Sea.
• The region also supports industries like shipbuilding and tourism.

The correct answer is 1921.

Key Points

• The Harappa site, one of the key settlements of the Indus Valley Civilisation, was discovered in 1921 during an archaeological survey.
• It is located in present-day Punjab, Pakistan, near the Ravi River.
• The discovery was led by Rai Bahadur Daya Ram Sahni, under the supervision of Sir John Marshall, Director-General of the Archaeological Survey of India.
• Harappa was one of the major urban centers of the Indus Valley Civilisation, along with Mohenjo-Daro, Dholavira, and others.
• The site revealed extensive evidence of advanced urban planning, including grid layouts, drainage systems, and fortified structures.

Additional Information

• Indus Valley Civilisation:
• It flourished approximately between 3300 BCE and 1300 BCE in the northwestern regions of South Asia.
• It is considered one of the world's earliest urban civilisations, alongside Mesopotamia and Ancient Egypt.
• Key sites include Harappa, Mohenjo-Daro, Dholavira, Kalibangan, and Lothal.
• Urban Planning and Architecture:
• Harappa showcased advanced urban planning with well-laid streets, brick houses, and efficient drainage systems.
• Granaries and storage facilities were discovered, indicating a well-organized economic system.
• Artifacts and Writing:
• Artifacts such as seals, pottery, ornaments, and tools were unearthed during excavations.
• The Indus script remains undeciphered, adding a layer of mystery to the civilisation.
• Contributions to Archaeology:
• The discovery of Harappa in 1921 marked the beginning of modern archaeological studies of the Indus Valley Civilisation.
• Subsequent discoveries enriched our understanding of early urban societies in South Asia.

The correct answer is Liberalization of the economy.

Key Points

• The New Economic Policy (NEP) was launched in 1991 under the leadership of Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao and Finance Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh to address a severe Balance of Payments (BoP) crisis.
• Liberalization refers to the removal of government-imposed restrictions on social, political, or economic policies to allow private players to operate more freely.
• A core component was the abolition of the License Raj, which required businesses to obtain numerous licenses and clearances before starting or expanding operations.
• The reforms encouraged Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) by allowing foreign companies to invest in various sectors of the Indian economy, thereby increasing global competitiveness.
• Economic liberalization led to a significant increase in the GDP growth rate, shifting it from the so-called 'Hindu Rate of Growth' to over 7-8 percent in subsequent decades.
• It facilitated the growth of the Service Sector, especially in Information Technology (IT) and Business Process Outsourcing (BPO), making India a global hub for services.

 Additional Information

• LPG Framework:
• Privatization: Involves the transfer of ownership, management, or control of Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) to the private sector to improve efficiency.
• Globalization: Refers to the integration of the domestic economy with the world economy through trade, capital flows, and the movement of people.
• Goods and Services Tax (GST):
• Implemented on July 1, 2017, this is a comprehensive indirect tax intended to create a One Nation, One Tax system, but it is a much later reform compared to the 1991 shifts.
• Infrastructure Development:
• The expansion of metro rail networks and the establishment of new ports (e.g., through the Sagarmala Project) are sectoral physical developments rather than broad systemic economic reforms.

The correct answer is Odissi

Key Points

• Odissi, also known as Orissi, is one of the eight classical dance forms of India.
• It originates from the state of Odisha, in eastern India.
• Odissi dance pays great importance to Lord Jagannath who is considered to be the god of the universe and is worshipped by the people of Orissa.

Additional Information

Manipuri :

• Manipuri is an ancient classical dance form that originated in the northeastern state of Manipur in India.
• Performed as a dance drama, its central themes are the love stories of Krishna and Radha.
• The chief instruments used are the drum and the flute.

Sattriya :

• Sattriya originated in Sattra, a monastery, as a part of the neo-Vaishnavite movement started by Srimanta Sankardev in Assam, in the 15th Century.
• Sattriya was given the status of classical dance in the year 2000 by the Sangeet Natak Akademi.
• Guru Jatin Goswami and Sharodi Saikia are prominent performers of this dance form.

Mohiniyattam :

• Mohiniattam or Mohiniyattam is an Indian classical dance form that evolved in the state of Kerala.
• Mohiniyattam's roots, like all classical Indian dances, are in the Natya Shastra.
• The Mohiniyattam Dance Dress is an off-white plain saree, embellished with a gold-laced or bright golden-colored brocade, embroidered on the borders.

Positive outcomes of Swadeshi Movement:

• The social base of the movement expanded to include certain sections of the zamindari, the students, the women, and the lower middle classes in cities and towns. Hence, option A is correct.
• In this national Movement, diverse ideas became visible. Eg.
• From conservative moderation to political extremism.
• From revolutionary activities to incipient socialism.
• From petitions and prayers to passive resistance and non-cooperation emerged during the Swadeshi Movement.
• Hence, option B is correct.
• The richness of the movement was not confined to the political sphere, but it also encompassed art, literature, science, and industry. Hence, option C is correct. Eg. Rabindranath Tagore’s Geetanjali novel got the Nobel Prize in literature. Hence, option C is correct.
• People now had learned to take bold political positions and participate in new forms of political work.
• The swadeshi campaign undermined the hegemony of colonial ideas and institutions.
• The future struggles got help from this experience gained.
• However, the Swadeshi Movement failed to create an effective organization or a party structure. It was the limitation of this movement. Because there were a lot of skirmishes on the internal matters of the party. Eg. The Surat split of 1907 was an ill effect of it. Hence, option D is not correct.

The Correct answer is Sixth Schedule.

Key Points

• The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains provisions for the administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
• This schedule provides for the formation of Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) and Regional Councils to safeguard the rights and culture of the tribal communities.
• The councils have the power to make laws, regulate land, and manage resources in the tribal areas.
• Under the Sixth Schedule, the tribal areas are categorized as ‘autonomous districts’ that function under the jurisdiction of the respective state governments but enjoy a degree of autonomy.
• The councils are empowered to establish courts for administration of justice in tribal areas.
• The Sixth Schedule aims to protect the distinct identity and traditions of tribal communities while promoting their development.
• It provides for the appointment of a Governor as the authority to oversee the implementation of the provisions in the tribal areas.
• This schedule is considered a significant constitutional mechanism for safeguarding the interests of tribal populations.

Additional Information

• Fourth Schedule
• The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) to the states and union territories.
• The distribution of seats is based on the population of each state or union territory.
• First Schedule
• The First Schedule of the Indian Constitution lists the names of the States and Union Territories along with their respective territorial extent.
• It provides the details of the geographical boundaries of states and union territories.
• Third Schedule
• The Third Schedule contains the Forms of Oaths and Affirmations for various constitutional posts such as the President, Vice President, Ministers, Members of Parliament, Judges, etc.
• It ensures adherence to constitutional responsibilities by individuals holding key positions.

The correct answer is Dadabhai Naoroji.

Key Points

• Dadabhai Naoroji is popularly referred to as the "Grand Old Man of India" for his significant contributions to India's independence movement and his role as a political leader.
• He was the first Indian to be elected to the British Parliament in 1892 as a Member of Parliament (MP) for Finsbury Central, where he advocated for Indian rights and reforms.
• Naoroji is known for his pioneering work on the "Drain Theory," where he highlighted how British policies were draining India's wealth to Britain.
• He was one of the founding members of the Indian National Congress (INC) in 1885 and served as its president three times (1886, 1893, and 1906).
• He authored the book "Poverty and Un-British Rule in India," which detailed the economic exploitation of India by the British.

Additional Information

• Anandha Charlu
• Anandha Charlu was a prominent freedom fighter and a founding member of the Indian National Congress.
• He played a significant role in promoting the Swadeshi movement and nationalistic ideals during the early phase of India's independence struggle.
• However, he is not referred to as the "Grand Old Man of India."
• EV Ramsamy
• EV Ramsamy, also known as Periyar, was a prominent social reformer from Tamil Nadu.
• He is known for his strong stance against caste discrimination and his efforts to promote social equality and rational thinking.
• Periyar is not associated with the title of "Grand Old Man of India."
• Badruddin Tyabji
• Badruddin Tyabji was the first Muslim president of the Indian National Congress, serving in 1887.
• He was a lawyer and a social reformer, known for his efforts to promote Hindu-Muslim unity during the freedom struggle.
• Although he made significant contributions, the title "Grand Old Man of India" is not attributed to him.
• Main Theme: The Title "Grand Old Man of India"
• The title "Grand Old Man of India" is bestowed upon individuals who have made remarkable contributions to India's political, social, or economic progress.
• Dadabhai Naoroji earned this title due to his pivotal role in shaping India's independence movement and advocating for its economic and political rights on an international stage.

Mainly 60.2% of the area of the Rajasthan state has an inland drainage system. Classification of Drainage System of Rajasthan:

• Rivers of Bay of Bengal Drainage System
• Rivers of Arabian Sea Drainage System
• Rivers of Inland Drainage System

Important Points

Rivers of Arabian Sea Drainage System are as follows:

• Sabarmati River originates near Padrara near Kumbhalgarh.
• Tributaries- Hathmati, Meshwa, Betrak, Majam, Baval
• Mahi River originates from the Hills of Ammoru near Mhow (M.P.).
• Tributaries- Som, Jakham, Anas, Erau

Thus, we can conclude that the river Sabarmati drains in the Arabian Sea.

Additional Information

• Rivers that drain into the Bay of Bengal
• Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri on the west and the Ganga and Brahmaputra on the north.
• The Gambhir River is an ephemeral (seasonal) river in India that originates in Rajasthan state and confluences with the Yamuna in Uttar Pradesh state. Important tributaries of the Gambhir are Banganga, Sesa, Kher, and Parbati.
• Banganga River Basin extends over parts of Alwar, Jaipur, Dausa, Sawai Madhopur, and Bharatpur Districts.
• It originates in the Aravali hills, near Arnasar and Bairath in Jaipur District. It flows towards the south up to the village of Ghat, then east through partly hilly and partly plain terrain.
• The total length of the river is 240 km.
• The main tributaries are Gumti Nalla and Suri River, joining the river on its right bank, and Sanwan and Palasan Rivers, meeting the river on its left bank.
• It has an internal drainage system.
• The Kothari River rises from the Aravalli hills near Devgarh in the Rajsamand district. It flows through the tehsils (districts) of Raipur, Mandal, Bhilwara, and Kotri and ultimately joins the river Banas at Nandrai in Kotri tehsil.

The correct answer is Sania Mirza.

In News

• Vaishnavi Adkar made history by becoming the first Indian woman since Sania Mirza in 2009 to reach the singles final at an ITF W100 tennis event.

Key Points

• Adkar reached the final of the ITF Women’s W100 Bengaluru Open in February 2026.
• She became the first Indian woman in 17 years to reach an ITF W100 singles final.
• The last Indian woman to achieve this feat was Sania Mirza in 2009.
• This milestone highlights a significant achievement for Indian women’s tennis on the international circuit.

Additional Information

• Sania Mirza
• One of India’s most successful tennis players and former world No. 1 in doubles.
• Achieved numerous singles and doubles titles and was a trailblazer for Indian women’s tennis.
• Reached the final of high-level ITF and WTA events, setting benchmarks for future generations.
• ITF Women’s W100 Events
• Part of the International Tennis Federation’s professional women’s circuit with $100,000 prize money level.
• Offers significant ranking points and competition just below top WTA tiers.
• Vaishnavi Adkar
• A 21-year-old Indian tennis player from Pune who made a historic run to the W100 final.
• Her performance boosted her global ranking and spotlighted Indian women’s tennis.

The correct answer is Manali and Keylong.

Key Points

• Atal Tunnel, named after former Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee, is a highway tunnel.
• It has been built under the Rohtang Pass in the eastern Pir Panjal range of the Himalayas on the Leh-Manali Highway in Himachal Pradesh.
• It has officially been certified by World Book of Records, as the 'World's Longest Highway Tunnel above 10,000 Feet'.

Additional Information

• Manali is a high-altitude Himalayan resort town in India’s northern Himachal Pradesh .
• Kyelang is a town and the administrative centre of the Lahaul and Spiti districts in the Indian state of Himachal Pradesh.
• Shimla is the capital of the northern Indian state of Himachal Pradesh.
• Kalka is a town in the Panchkula district of Haryana.
• Leh is the joint capital and largest city of Ladakh.
• Ladakh is a region administered by India as a union territory which constitutes a part of the larger Kashmir region.

The correct answer is Glycerol.

Key Points

• Dynamite is an explosive material primarily composed of nitroglycerin, which is stabilized with an absorbent substance like diatomaceous earth or sawdust.
• Glycerol is a key raw material in the production of nitroglycerin. Through a chemical reaction called nitration, glycerol reacts with concentrated nitric acid and sulfuric acid to form nitroglycerin.
• Nitroglycerin is a highly volatile and sensitive compound, but its explosive power is harnessed in dynamite by stabilizing it with inert materials.
• The invention of dynamite by Alfred Nobel in 1867 revolutionized the mining and construction industries by providing a safe way to handle and use nitroglycerin.
• Other substances like ethyl alcohol, methyl alcohol, and glycol are not used in the preparation of dynamite, as they do not contribute to the formation of nitroglycerin.

Additional Information

• Glycerol:
• It is a colorless, odorless, and viscous liquid commonly used in the pharmaceutical, food, and chemical industries.
• In the production of explosives, glycerol is nitrated to produce nitroglycerin, a key explosive compound.
• Glycerol can be derived from natural sources like animal fats and vegetable oils or synthesized from petrochemical sources.
• Nitroglycerin:
• It is a highly sensitive liquid explosive used in the production of dynamite and other explosives.
• In its pure form, nitroglycerin is unstable and can detonate from shock or heat, but stabilizers like diatomaceous earth make it safer to handle.
• Aside from explosives, nitroglycerin is also used in medicine to treat heart conditions like angina pectoris.
• Dynamite:
• Invented by Alfred Nobel in 1867, dynamite is a safer alternative to pure nitroglycerin.
• It consists of nitroglycerin absorbed in an inert material, reducing its sensitivity to shock and friction.
• Dynamite has been widely used in mining, construction, and demolition industries.
• Other Options:
• Ethyl Alcohol: Commonly known as ethanol, this compound is used in alcoholic beverages, solvents, and fuel but is not used in dynamite production.
• Methyl Alcohol: Also known as methanol, it is used as a solvent, antifreeze, and fuel but is not involved in nitroglycerin or dynamite production.
• Glycol: A compound often used in antifreeze and hydraulic fluids, it has no role in dynamite production.

Important Points

• Alfred Nobel: The Swedish chemist and inventor of dynamite, Nobel was awarded numerous patents for his innovations and established the Nobel Prizes with his fortune.
• Stabilization of Nitroglycerin: The use of diatomaceous earth or clay in dynamite reduces the sensitivity of nitroglycerin, making it safer to store and handle.
• Applications of Dynamite: Dynamite is widely used in construction for tunneling, demolishing structures, and mining operations.
• Safety Concerns: Despite its stabilization, dynamite remains a hazardous material and requires careful handling and storage to prevent accidental detonation.

The correct answer is 23.

In News

• Indian Army emerged as the undisputed champion of the 2026 edition of KIWG.

Key Points

• The Indian Army won a total of 23 medals, including 9 Gold, 6 Silver, and 8 Bronze.
• They finished well ahead of the second-placed Himachal Pradesh, which had 14 medals in total.
• The Army's dominance was most evident in Gulmarg, where they won 8 out of their 9 gold medals in snow disciplines.
• The 2026 games saw participation from over 900 athletes, reflecting a steady increase in winter sports interest in India.

Additional Information

• Khelo India Winter Games (KIWG)
• A part of the larger Khelo India initiative aimed at promoting a sporting culture and identifying talent at the grassroots level.
• Leh Phase
• Focused on Ice Hockey and Ice Skating (both speed skating and figure skating).
• Gulmarg Phase
• Focused on high-altitude snow sports including Alpine and Nordic skiing.

CONCEPT:

First Aid for Chemical Burns

• When acid splashes on the skin, it can cause chemical burns, which may lead to severe tissue damage if not treated immediately.
• The primary goal is to neutralize the acid's effect by diluting it and removing it from the skin as quickly as possible.
• Water is universally effective as a first aid measure to flush out the acid and minimize damage.

EXPLANATION:

• If acid splashes on the skin, the correct immediate action is to:
• Wash the affected area immediately with plenty of water.
• This helps to:
• Dilute the acid and reduce its concentration.
• Flush away the chemical from the skin surface to prevent further penetration and damage.

Key Points

• Wiping it with tissue (e.g., dry materials) can spread the acid and worsen the damage.
• Ignoring it allows the acid to continue burning the skin, which can lead to severe injuries.
• Applying oil is not recommended because it does not neutralize the acid and can trap the chemical against the skin.

Therefore, the correct immediate action is to wash the affected area with plenty of water.

The correct answer is India Semiconductor Mission 2.0.

In News

• The Union Budget 2026-27 announced the launch of India Semiconductor Mission 2.0 to strengthen domestic semiconductor capabilities.

Key Points

• India Semiconductor Mission 2.0 aims to produce semiconductor equipment and materials domestically.
• The mission focuses on designing full-stack Indian intellectual property in semiconductors.
• It seeks to fortify semiconductor supply chains to reduce import dependence.
• Industry-led research and training centres will be established to develop advanced technology and skilled workforce.

Additional Information

• Semiconductor Supply Chain
• It includes design, manufacturing, packaging, testing and distribution of semiconductor chips.
• A resilient supply chain is critical for electronics, defence, automobiles and digital infrastructure.
• Full-Stack Indian IP
• Refers to end-to-end ownership of semiconductor design and technology.
• It reduces reliance on foreign intellectual property and enhances technological sovereignty.
• Industry-led Research
• Research initiatives driven by industry participation to ensure practical and market-ready innovations.
• Helps align skill development with actual industry requirements.
• Strategic Importance of Semiconductors
• Semiconductors are essential for modern electronics, communication systems and emerging technologies.
• Domestic capability enhances national security and economic resilience.

The correct answer is Rajkishore Parhi.

Key Points

• The Sahitya Akademi announced the prestigious Bal Sahitya Puraskar for the year 2025 in June 2025, recognizing outstanding contributions to children's literature across multiple Indian languages.
• Rajkishore Parhi was named the winner in the Odia language category for his notable work titled "Kete Phula Phutichhi". Hence, the correct answer is Rajkishore Parhi.
• The book "Kete Phula Phutichhi" is a creative collection of children's poetry designed to engage young readers with rhythmic verses and imaginative themes.
• The selection was made by a three-member jury following a rigorous evaluation process of books published between 2019 and 2023.
• The award ceremony includes the presentation of a copper plaque and a financial prize of Rs. 50,000 to the author for their literary excellence.

Additional Information

• Sahitya Akademi Bal Sahitya Puraskar:
• This annual award was instituted in 2010 to promote and honor high-quality literature specifically written for children.
• It covers works in 24 languages, including those listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India, along with English and Rajasthani.
• Other Winners of 2025:
• Mayur Khavdu: Won the award for the Gujarati language for the book "Gharu".
• Fagu Baskey: Recognized in the Santali category for the work "Sabaid".
• Subrat Senapati: While a prominent figure in literary circles, he was a nominee/contemporary in the selection process for Odia literature.
• Significance of the Award:
• The Sahitya Akademi aims to encourage authors to produce original and creative content in regional languages to preserve cultural heritage.
• The awards are traditionally announced alongside the Yuva Puraskar, which targets authors under the age of 35.

Important Points

• Selection Criteria: A book is eligible only if it is an original work by an Indian author and published for the first time during the five years preceding the award year.
• Odia Literature: The state of Odisha has a rich tradition of children's literature, and the win for Rajkishore Parhi marks another milestone in the global recognition of Odia poetry.
• Institution Profile: The Sahitya Akademi was inaugurated on March 12, 1954, and functions as an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India.
• Award Impact: Winning the Bal Sahitya Puraskar often leads to the translation of the work into other Indian languages, broadening the reach of the author's message to children nationwide.

The Correct answer is javelin throw.

Key Points

• Neeraj Chopra made history at the Tokyo 2020 Olympics by winning the gold medal in the javelin throw event.
• This victory marked India's first-ever athletics gold medal at the Olympics, showcasing Chopra's exceptional talent and dedication.
• His winning throw was an impressive 87.58 meters, securing his place at the top of the podium.
• The achievement was celebrated across India and brought attention to the sport of javelin throw in the country.
• Neeraj Chopra's victory is a source of inspiration for young athletes and has significantly contributed to the growth of athletics in India.

 Additional Information

• Hammer Throw
• The hammer throw is an athletics throwing event where the objective is to throw a heavy metal ball attached to a wire and grip as far as possible.
• It is one of the four throwing events in track and field, alongside discus, javelin, and shot put.
• Discus Throw
• In the discus throw, athletes attempt to throw a heavy disc, known as a discus, as far as they can into a designated sector.
• The discus throw is an ancient sport, depicted in many ancient Greek sculptures and writings.
• Shot Put
• The shot put is a track and field event involving "putting" (pushing rather than throwing) a heavy spherical object called a shot as far as possible.
• The shot put has roots in Scottish Highland games and has been a modern Olympic sport since 1896 for men and 1948 for women.

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh

In News

• The Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY) has completed 11 years of driving financial inclusion and micro-enterprise growth in India as of April 2026.

Key Points

• According to the performance metrics for FY 2024-25, Uttar Pradesh emerged as the leading state in terms of credit outreach, recording the highest loan disbursement at ₹58,111 crore.
• The state of Bihar followed in the second position with a disbursement of ₹54,064 crore.
• Maharashtra ranked third among all states, recording a total disbursement of ₹50,762 crore during the same period.
• These figures highlight the significant role of the scheme in strengthening grassroots entrepreneurship and local economies in these regions.

Additional Information

• Launch Date: PMMY was launched on 8 April 2015 with the vision of "Funding the Unfunded".
• Loan Categories: The scheme offers collateral-free loans in four categories: Shishu (up to ₹50,000), Kishor (above ₹50,000 to ₹5 lakh), Tarun (above ₹5 lakh to ₹10 lakh), and Tarun Plus (above ₹10 lakh to ₹20 lakh).
• Total Disbursement: As of 27 March 2026, the scheme has disbursed loans worth ₹40.07 lakh crore across 57 crore+ accounts.
• Women Empowerment: Women borrowers accounted for 59.81% of the total number of loan accounts in FY 2024-25.

Important Points

• MUDRA Ltd. reported its highest-ever profit of over ₹827 crore in FY 2024-2025.
• The Tarun Plus category was introduced in 2024 to support borrowers who have successfully repaid previous Tarun loans and seek higher expansion up to ₹20 lakh.
• The JanSamarth portal provides digital access to 14 credit-linked government schemes, including PMMY, enhancing transparency and ease of access.

The correct answer is To provide interest subvention and collateral support to strengthen MSME exports.

In News

• NIRYAT PROTSAHAN, a sub-scheme under the Export Promotion Mission, aims to strengthen MSME exports by providing interest subvention and collateral support on export credit.

Key Points

• Provides interest subvention of 2.75% on pre- and post-shipment export credit to reduce cost of credit and ease working-capital constraints.
• Additional incentives offered for exports to under-represented or emerging markets.
• Collateral support is provided in partnership with CGTMSE: guarantee coverage up to 85% for Micro & Small exporters and 65% for Medium exporters.
• Maximum outstanding guaranteed exposure is ₹10 crore per exporter per financial year, applicable only for exports in the notified positive list at HS six-digit level.

Additional Information

• Scheme Objective
• Reduce cost of credit for MSME exporters.
• Ease working capital constraints to promote higher export activity.
• Interest Subvention
• Base interest subvention of 2.75% on eligible export credit.
• Additional incentives for exports to emerging or under-represented markets.
• Collateral Support
• Provided through CGTMSE partnership for risk mitigation.
• Guarantee coverage: up to 85% for Micro & Small enterprises; up to 65% for Medium enterprises.
• Maximum exposure per exporter: ₹10 crore per financial year.
• Eligibility & Scope
• Applicable only for exports listed in the notified positive list at HS six-digit level.
• Focused on MSME sector to boost competitiveness in global markets.

The correct answer is Thyroxin hormone.

Key Points

• Thyroxin hormone is crucial for regulating the body’s metabolic processes, including carbohydrate, protein, and fat metabolism.
• Iodine is essential for the synthesis of thyroxin, and its deficiency can lead to thyroid-related disorders.
• The thyroid gland absorbs iodine from the bloodstream to produce thyroxin.
• Thyroxin, also known as T4, plays a critical role in growth, development, and metabolic activities.
• A balanced level of thyroxin is necessary for maintaining overall health and homeostasis.

Additional Information

• Thyroid Gland
• The thyroid gland is located in the neck and is responsible for producing hormones that regulate metabolism.
• It produces two primary hormones: thyroxin (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3).
• The secretion of thyroid hormones is regulated by the Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) produced by the pituitary gland.
• Iodine
• Iodine is a trace element that is crucial for the synthesis of thyroid hormones.
• It is commonly obtained from dietary sources such as iodized salt, seafood, and dairy products.
• Iodine deficiency can lead to goiter and hypothyroidism.
• Metabolism
• Metabolism refers to the chemical processes that occur within a living organism to maintain life.
• It includes catabolic processes that break down molecules to produce energy and anabolic processes that build up molecules.
• Thyroid hormones play a pivotal role in regulating basal metabolic rate (BMR).
• Hypothyroidism and Hyperthyroidism
• Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormones, leading to symptoms such as fatigue, weight gain, and depression.
• Hyperthyroidism is the overproduction of thyroid hormones, resulting in symptoms like weight loss, rapid heartbeat, and anxiety.
• Both conditions require medical intervention to restore hormonal balance.

According to the Section- 3 under Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Rules, 2020, both central and state governments are responsible for the awareness generation and capacity building about POCSO.

Key PointsThe Central and State Government shall take all suitable measures to spread awareness about possible risks and vulnerabilities, signs of abuse, information about rights of children under the Act along with access to support and services available for children.

The Central Government, or as the case may be, the State Government shall prepare age-appropriate educational material and curriculum for children, informing them about various aspects of personal safety, including––

• measures to protect their physical, and virtual identity; and to safeguard their emotional and mental wellbeing;
• prevention and protection from sexual offences;
• reporting mechanisms, including Child helpline-1098 services;
• inculcating gender sensitivity, gender equality and gender equity for effective prevention of offences under the Act.

Hence, we can conclude that both central and state governments are responsible for the awareness generation and capacity building about POCSO.

The correct answer is Mizoram.

Key Points

Mizoram- Khuang

• Khuang is a Mizo indigenous instrument that has an important value in the Mizo society both socially as well as religiously.
• Khuang is made up of a Hollow tree wrapped with animal skin on both sides.

Additional Information

Assam- Gogona

• Gogona is a popular Assamese musical instrument.
• It is made up of Bamboo.

Jharkhand- Singa

• Singa is a traditional wind instrument from Jharkhand.
• Singa is made up of Bamboo and Buffalo Horn.

West Bengal- Dotara

• The dotara is one of the most important instruments used in various genres of folk music in Bengal and Assam.
• It is made up of hardwood like neem etc.

The correct answer is Mizoram.

Key Points

• As per the census 2011, Mizoram has the highest proportion of Scheduled Tribes in its population.
• The Indian Census is the most credible source of information on Demography (Population characteristics), Economic Activity, Literacy and Education, Housing Household Amenities, Urbanisation, Fertility and Mortality, etc.
• Census 2011 was the 15^th National Census of the Country.
• Census was introduced in India during the era of Lord Mayo in the year 1872. It came into force in 1881.
• This census was conducted under the guidance of Mr. C. Chandramouli.
• The slogan of census 2011 was ‘Our Census, Our future’.
• The population of the nation as per the provisional figures of Census 2011 was 1210.19 million of which 623.7 million (51.54%) were males and 586.46 million (48.46%) were females.

Additional Information

• According to the 2011 census, Uttar Pradesh had the lowest proportion of Scheduled Tribes (STs) in its population, with only 0.6% of its total population being STs.
• The states with the next lowest proportion of STs were: Tamil Nadu (1.1%), Bihar (1.3%), Kerala (1.5%), and Uttarakhand (2.9%).
• Punjab, Haryana, Chandigarh, Delhi, and Puducherry had no ST population in 2011.

The correct answer is It was designed and built by Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL).

In News

• ‘Malwan’, the second of eight ASW SWC ships, was delivered by Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL) to the Indian Navy on March 31, 2026.

Key Points

• The ship is named after the coastal town of Malwan in Maharashtra, honoring the naval heritage of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj.
• It was built by Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL), Kochi.
• The vessel features over 80% indigenous content, supporting the Aatmanirbharta in Defence initiative.
• Specifications & Capabilities
• Displacement - 1,100 tons (Shallow Water Craft, not a deep-sea destroyer).
• Propulsion - High-efficiency Waterjets for maneuverability.
• Roles - Anti-Submarine Warfare, Mine Warfare, and Low Intensity Maritime Operations (LIMO).

Additional Information

• INS Malwan Legacy
• The new craft carries forward the name of a former Indian Naval Minesweeper that served until 2003.
• ASW SWC Project
• Objective - To replace the Abhay-class ASW corvettes and provide effective sub-surface surveillance in coastal waters.
• Armament
• Equipped with torpedoes, anti-submarine rockets, and advanced hull-mounted sonar.

The correct answer is Manipur.

• The Famous 'Sangai Festival' is an annual cultural festival organized by Manipur state of North-East India.

​

Key Points 

• Sangai festival is an annual cultural festival organized by the Manipur Tourism Department every year from 21 to 30 November.
• The festival is named after the state animal 'Sangai' the brown antlered deer.
• Many folk dance performances like Bamboo dance, Maibi dance are performed.
• 'Ras Leela' is an important form of dance performance at the festival.

Additional Information

Important Points

All the major festivals celebrated in India:

The correct answer is the reverse repo rate.

• The rate at which the Reserve Bank of India takes loans from other banks is called the reverse repo rate.

Key Points

• Reverse Repo Rate:
• It is the rate, at which banks park short-term excess liquidity with the RBI.
• The current reverse repo rate is 3.35%

Additional Information

• Bank Rate:
• It is also called the rediscount rate.
• It is the rate, at which the RBI gives finance to commercial banks.
• Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR):
• The RBI (Amendment) Bill, 2006, empowers RBI to prescribe CRR–Cash that banks deposit with the RBI without any floor rate or ceiling rate.
• The current CRR rate is 4.5%.
• Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR):
• It is the ratio of liquid assets, which all commercial banks have to keep in the form of cash, gold, and unencumbered approved securities equal to not more than 40% of their total demand and time deposit liabilities (ranges is 25‑40%).
• The current SLR is 18.00%.
• ​Repo Rate:
• It is the rate, at which RBI lends short-term money to the bank against securities.
• Open Market Operations (OMOs):
• Under OMOs, the RBI sells G-securities in the market.

The correct answer is Lord Wavell.

Key Points

• Lord Wavell (1943-1947) served as the Viceroy of India during a crucial period of World War II and the lead-up to Indian independence, including the Bengal famine and the Quit India Movement.
• In 1945, Lord Wavell introduced the "Wavell Plan," proposing a reorganization of the Indian government to include more Indian representatives.
• The Shimla Conference was convened by Lord Wavell in an attempt to discuss India's political future and the formation of a new executive council that would include more Indian members.
• It was a key event in India's path to independence but ended unsuccessfully due to disagreements between the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League.

Additional Information

The Mission Indradhanush(an initiative of Govt. of India) is associated with immunisation.

• In December 2014, the Government of India initiated "Mission Indradhanush" to improve and reinvigorate the system and achieve full immunization coverage for both children and pregnant women at a rapid pace.
• On 8 October 2017, Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi launched the Enhanced Mission Indradhanush.
• ​In 1978, the Indian Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India, launched the immunization system in India as 'Expanded Immunization Programme' (EPI).
• The program was updated in 1985 as the 'Universal Immunization Programme' (UIP) to be introduced in a staggered manner by 1989-90 to include all districts in the country with one of the world's largest health programs.
• In the first year of their existence, UIP was able to completely immunize only 65% of Children.

The correct answer is Option A.

Key Points

• The Biopharma SHAKTI initiative announced in the Union Budget 2026–27 aims to strengthen India’s biopharmaceutical ecosystem, especially in biologics, biosimilars, research, and manufacturing.
• The initiative aims to strengthen India’s ecosystem for biopharmaceutical innovation, research, and manufacturing, including the production of biologics and biosimilars. Hence, Statement I is correct.
• The programme promotes advanced biopharmaceutical development such as vaccines, biologics, biosimilars, and clinical research infrastructure, supported by institutional and industry collaboration. Hence, Statement II is correct.
• The initiative does not focus on traditional herbal medicines or AYUSH exports. Instead, it focuses on modern biopharmaceutical technologies such as biologics, biosimilars, and advanced therapies. Hence, Statement III is incorrect.

Thus, Statements I and II are correct → Option A.

Additional Information

• Biopharma SHAKTI stands for BioPharma Strategy for Health Advancement through Knowledge, Technology and Innovation.
• The programme has an outlay of ₹10,000 crore over five years.
• It aims to make India a global hub for biologics and biosimilars manufacturing.
• The initiative includes strengthening research infrastructure, clinical trials, and pharmaceutical innovation ecosystems.

The dictionary sequence is:

Stylish → Subject → Subtle → Suburban → Sudden.

Thus, 1,2,4,5,3 will be the correct sequence.

Among apple, pear, orange, guava and melon, orange is a citrus fruit.

But,

Orange is called guava.

Hence, “Guava” is the correct answer.

The pattern followed is

1³ + 4 = 5

2³ + 4 = 12

3³ + 4 = 31

4³ + 4 = 68

5³ + 4 = 129

6³ + 4 = 220

Hence, “220” is the correct answer.

Given: Mohit is the father-in-law of Rani's mother.

Here, Mohit is the paternal grandfather or father's father of Rani.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is :-

1) DKR

2) GAH

3) VCJ

4) MTA

∴ Here, "GAH" is different from other three alternatives.

Hence, the correct answer is "GAH".

The logic followed here is : 

1. First letter - Shifted to the third position.
2. Second letter - Shifted to first position.
3. Third letter - Shifted to second position.
4. Fourth and fifth letter - No change
5. Sixth and seventh letter - Interchange position with each other.
6. Eighth and ninth letter - Interchange position with each other.

So,

• ‘HYPOCRISY’ is written as ‘YPHOCIRYS’

​

And,

• ‘IMPORTANT’ is written as ‘MPIORATTN’

​

​Similarly,

• ‘INTEGRITY’ is written as :

​

​Hence, "NTIEGIRYT" is the correct answer.

The logic is followed here:

Sum of all numbers = Multiplication of first two numbers

First row: 5,6,19

⇒ 5 × 6 = 5 + 6 + 19 

⇒ 30 = 30

Second row: 7,7,35

⇒ 7 × 7= 7 + 7 + 35

⇒ 49 = 49 

Third row: 8,9,?

⇒  8 × 9 = 8 + 9 + ?

⇒ 72 = 17 + ?

⇒ ? = 55

Here, the correct answer is 55.

Alternate Method The applied logic is:

In a given row the first two numbers are multiplied and subtracted with the third number which will give the obtained number thus as we go on to the next row the obtained value increases by three in each case, thus following the same logic, 

First row: 5,6,19

5 × 6 - 19 = 11

30 - 19 = 11

Second row:7,7,35

7 × 7 - 35 = 14

49 - 35 = 14

That is (11+3=14, FROM FIRST ROW)

Third row:8,9,?

8 × 9 - ?= (14 + 3)

72 - ? = 17

55 = Answer

Hence the correct answer is option 4)

Given:

Rakesh ranks 15th from top

Rajesh's rank from top = 42 - 8 = 34^th. 

The total number of students between Rakesh and Rajesh is 34 - 15 - 1 = 18

Drawing the diagram,

There are ‘18’ students are there between Rakesh and Rajesh.

Hence, “18” is the correct answer.

Mistake Points There are 8 students below Rajesh rank - it means the rank of Rajesh is 9th from the bottom.

According to the given information,

1) U sits third to the left of R.

2) U sits second to the left of Q.

3) S sits third to the right of Q. 

4) T is not the immediate neighbour of U.

Here, we can see that P is sitting second from the extreme left end.

Hence, the correct answer is "Second from the extreme left end".

According to the English alphabets and their positional values:

The pattern followed in the given series is:

  First alphabet is decreased to 7 positional values.

  Second alphabet is decreased to 5 positional values.

  Third alphabet is decreased to 3 positional values.

  Fourth alphabet is decreased to 1 positional values.

Hence the correct answer is option 1)

Statements:

All apples are oranges.

Some oranges are bananas.

All bananas are kiwis.

The Venn diagram as per the given statements:

Conclusions:

I. Some oranges are kiwis. → True (Because some oranges are bananas and all bananas are kiwis, which means some oranges are kiwis is definitely true)

II. Some oranges are apples. → True (Because all apples are oranges, which means some oranges are apples is definitely true)

III. Some apples are bananas. → False (There is no direct relation between apples and bananas, so it can be possible but not definitely true)

Hence, the correct answer is "Only conclusions I and II follow".

According to the given information:

The number of persons who can drive all the three vehicles = 6

Persons who can drive any two of these vehicles = 8 + 7 + 12 = 27

Thus, the difference between the number of persons who can drive all the three vehicles and that of persons who can drive any two of these vehicles = 27 - 6 = 21

Hence, the correct answer is "21".

The pattern followed is,

Similarly,

Hence, “FIY” is the correct answer.

Logic:

In rows, the number at the end is obtained by adding all the three numbers and the resultant is multiplied by 3.

First row:

(2 + 3 + 5) × 3

10 × 3 = 30

Second row:

(3 + 5 + 7) × 3

15 × 3 = 45

Similarly;

(7 + 2 + 3) × 3

12 × 3 = 36

Hence, the missing number is 36.

Family Chart:

Decoding the Symbols:

Given: W × V # T – R + P

It means: W is the wife of V, V is the son of T, T is the brother of R and R is the mother of P.

So, W is the 'Mother’s brother’s son’s wife' of P.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, SVX is the correct answer.

Given:

• CHERRY' is coded as '6-16-10-36-36-50'.
• 'GRAPES' is coded as '14-36-2-32-10-38'
• 

To find: Code for 'LITCHI'.

Explanation:

Using the above information, code for LITCHI will be 24-18-40-6-16-18.

 24-18-40-6-16-18 is the correct answer .

Given:

• Position of P from left end = 17
• Position of P from right end = 23
• Q is in the middle of the row.

To find: Position of Q from left end.

Explanation:

• Total number of students = Position of P from left end+Position of P from right end - 1
• ( 17 + 23 - 1 = 39)
• So, the position of Q from left end = ((total number of students + 1) / 2 = (39 + 1) / 2 = 20th)

Hence, 20th is the correct answer.

• Total number of people = 80
• Position of Angelina from right = 13
• Position of Margareta from left =18
• Number of people between Margareta and Angelina = 80 - (18 + 13) = 49

Hence, 49 is the correct answer.

Given: Number of members in a family = 7, namely A, B, C, D, E, F, G.

Explanation:

• D is the mother of F.
• D is G's father's mother.
• F is the only son of E.
• G is the brother of A and C.

• E is the father's father of C.

Hence, Father's father is the correct answer.

Explanation:

The pattern followed here is n³ - 1.

1³ - 1 = 0

2³ - 1 = 7

3³ - 1 = 26

4³ - 1 = 63

5³ - 1 = 124

6³ - 1 = 215

Hence, 124 is the correct answer.

Explanation:

• Option1: (19)² + 14 = 361 + 14 = 375
• Option 2: (17)² + 14 = 289 + 14 = 303
• Option 3: (8)² + 14 = 64 + 14 = 78, and not 82
• Option 4: (24)² ​+ 14 = 576 + 14 = 590

So, (8, 82) does not belong to the group.

Hence, 8, 82 is the correct answer.

Given:× stands for subtraction, ÷ stands for addition, + stands for division, and - stands for multiplication.

Explanation:

• Option1:
• 45 - 15 ÷ 15 × 60 + 16 = 42 will be written as
• 45 × 15 + 15 - 60 ÷ 16 = 42
• 675 + 15 -15/4 = 42
• As this contains a fractional value, so the option is discarded.
• Option 2:
• 25 + 5 × 20 ÷ 5 - 16 = 6 will be written as
• 25 ÷ 5 - 20 + 5 × 16 = 6
• 5 - 20 + 80 = 16
• 65 = 16 (false)
• Option 3:
• 9 ÷ 28 - 10 × 15 + 9 = 10 will be written as
• 9 + 28 × 10 - 15 ÷ 9 = 10
• 9 + 280 - 5/3 = 10
• As this contains a fractional value, so the option is discarded.
• Option 4:
• 16 ÷ 20 - 6 + 10 × 12 = 16
• 16 + 20 × 6 ÷ 10 - 12 = 16
• 16 + 12 - 12 = 16
• 16 = 16 (both sides are equal)

Hence, 16 ÷ 20 - 6 + 10 × 12 = 16 is the correct answer.

Given sequence: a_ bca _ _ ca _ b _ _ abc

1. aaacba → aabc - aaac - acbb - aabc
2. bacaaa → abbc - aacc -aaba - aabc
3. abacaa → aabc - abac - acba - aabc
4. aabaca → aabc - aabc - aabc - aabc

• Here, aabc is repeated

Hence, ‘aabaca’ is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

And

Similarly,

Hence, ‘GQNTE’ is the correct answer.

Four students - Ravindra, Shiva, Triveni and Nagesh, who want to be selected in the basketball team.

1. Nagesh is shorter than Ravindra but taller than Triveni.

Ravindra > Nagesh > Triveni

2. Shiva is shorter than Nagesh but taller than Triveni.

Nagesh > Shiva > Triveni

From 1 and 2, we get:

Ravindra > Nagesh > Shiva > Triveni

If the coach wants to select the tallest student among them, then Ravindra will be selected.

Hence, ‘Ravindra’ is the correct answer.

Given:

Number of friends = 6

Name of friends = A, B, C, D, E and F

Solution:

• B is sitting second to the right of A

• Only two people sit between D and A.

• C is not an immediate neighbour A.

​

• B and E are not immediate neighbours of each other. So, B and F are neighbours of each other.

​

So, F is third to the right to C.

Hence, "Third to the right of C" is the correct answer.

Table show alphabet serial number –

The pattern followed is,

All follow the same pattern, except 'NTD’.

Hence, “NTD” is the odd one.

Given Equation: 18 E 27 D 3 A 2 G 5 = ?

BODMAS Rule:

Decoding the given information:

Now replacing the sign from left to right using BODMAS Rule, we get:

⇒ 18 + 27 ÷ 3 - 2 × 5

⇒ 18 + 9 - 2 × 5

⇒ 18 + 9 - 10

⇒ 27 - 10 = 17.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 2".

Logic:

We have to find the number of words between the letters as per English alphabets in both forward and backward directions.

For, forward direction:

Total letters in the forward direction are Five.

For Backward direction:

Total letters in backward direction are four

As the total number of 9 letters are there.

Hence, the correct answer should be "9".

The logic followed here is,

Logic**: code = total number of letters + 7**

For  'TEDI' is coded as '11'

Number of letters in TEDI = 4

Code = 4 + 7 = 11

Also for  'SUCBVO' is coded as '13'

Number of letters in SUCBVO = 6

Code = 6 + 7 = 13.

Similarly, 'YXJIAZL' is coded as 

Number of letters in YXJIAZL = 7

Code = 7 + 7 = 14.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

I. Some mouses are scanners → Follow (As some scanners are mouses. As some part of scanners is common with mouses, therefore it is true.)

II. No keyboard is a printer → Does not follow (As no printer is a scanner, some scanners are mouses and some mouses are keyboards. As no direct relation is given between printer and keyboard, therefore it is false.)

III. No keyboard is a mouse → Does not follow (As some mouses are keyboards. some part of mouses is common with keyboard, therefore it is false.)

Thus, only conclusion II and III do not follow.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is :- (2) is multiplied with the position value according to English alphabetic series.

​So,

• = CAJ , % = XHV ⇒ CAJ : FTB :: LDK : XHV

​

⇒Here, no similar pattern can be seen.

• = CJA , % = XHV ⇒ CJA : FTB :: LDK : XHV

​

⇒Here, similar pattern can be seen.

• = JCA , % = XVH ⇒ JCA : FTB :: LDK : XVH

​

⇒Here, no similar pattern can be seen.

• = CJA , % = HXV ⇒ CJA : FTB :: LDK : HXV​

​

⇒ Here, no similar pattern can be seen.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option - (2)".

The pattern followed here is:

Logic: (First number + Second number) × 11 = Third number.

(27, 5, 352)

⇒ (27 + 5) × 11 = 32 × 11 = 352 Third number.

And,

(51, 2, 583)

⇒ (51 + 2) × 11 = 53 × 11 = 583 Third number.

Similarly,

(9, 41, 550)

⇒ (9 + 41) × 11 = 50 × 11 = 550 Third number.

Hence, the correct answer is "(9, 41, 550)".

The positional value table is as follows:

The pattern followed here is:

• In NEUTSE ∶ EFPVXZ​ 
• Arrange NEUTSE in Alphabetical order → E E N S T U
• 
• In ZWURST ∶ ? ​
• Arrange ZWURST in Alphabetical order → R S T U W Z
• 

​Hence, "RTVXAE" is the correct answer.

The position and positional values or English Alphabets are:

The logic followed here is:

For LONDON is written as MPOEPO

Similarly, the letter is written as CPNCBZ?

So, ‘BOMBAY’ will be coded as 'CPNCBZ'

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

Preparing the family tree using the following symbols,

We can draw the following Family Tree from the information given above:

1. Surendar is the son of Revant.

2. Pranavi is the wife of Revant.

3. Yugal is the brother of Revant.

4. Kundana is the daughter of Pranavi.

5. Janardan is the brother of Pranavi.

Hence, Pranavi have "2" children.

The correct option is Option 4 i.e. "Continuing your relationship and trying to understand your friend's feelings"

Choosing option 4 means you decide to continue your relationship while attempting to understand and empathize with your friend's perspective. This path involves patience and kindness, aiming to address underlying issues and potentially improve the relationship through dialogue and understanding. However, it's important to also protect your own emotional well-being in the process.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given statement: The food-grain production in India during 2014-15 is 252.68 million tonnes (MT) as compared to 265.04 MT during 2013-14.

From the given conclusions: The conclusion I will not follow as they have mentioned the food grain production for only two consecutive years. We did not have any information about the remaining years. 

Also, we cannot see anything said related to the farmers in the statement and so conclusion II does not follow. 

Thus, neither (I) nor (II) follows.

Hence, the correct answer is 'option 3'.

The correct water image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Concept Used:

Follow the BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below:

Now,

Calculations:

Considering the question

⇒ 3 + 4 – 6 × 12 × 15 ÷ 5

⇒ 3 + 4 – 6 × 180 ÷ 5

⇒ 7 – 6 × 36

⇒ 7 – 216

⇒ – 209

Given:

Principal of Ram = Rs. 8000

Rate of interest (For Ram) = 12%

Principal of Sham = Rs. 9100 

Rate of interest (For Sham) = 10%

Amount of Ram and Sham are equal

Formula used:

SI (= \frac{{{\rm{P;}} \times {\rm{;R;}} \times {\rm{;T}}}}{{100}})

Amount = P + S.I.

Calculation:

Let the required time be y years.

Amount of Ram = Amount of Sham

8000 + [8000 × (12/100) × y] = 9100 + [9100 × (10/100) × y]

⇒ 8000 + 960 y = 9100 + 910 y

⇒ 960 y - 910 y = 9100 - 8000

⇒ 50 y = 1100

⇒ y = 22 years

∴ The time taken to debt become equal is 22 years

Shortcut Trick

Use the weighted average formula to find the overall pass percentage directly.

Total Pass % = (Boys % × Boys Pass Rate + Girls % × Girls Pass Rate) ÷ 100

Total Pass % = (40 × 40 + 60 × 60) ÷ 100

Total Pass % = (1600 + 3600) ÷ 100 = 5200 ÷ 100 = 52%

∴ The correct answer is 52%.

Alternate Method

Given:

⇒ Boys in class = 40%

⇒ Girls in class = 100% − 40% = 60%

⇒ Pass rate among boys = 40%

⇒ Pass rate among girls = 60%

Formula Used:

Number of Passed Students = (Pass % × Total Students) ÷ 100

Calculations:

Let the total number of students in the class be 100.

⇒ Total Boys = 40

⇒ Total Girls = 60

⇒ Boys who passed = 40% of 40 = (40 × 40) ÷ 100 = 16

⇒ Girls who passed = 60% of 60 = (60 × 60) ÷ 100 = 36

⇒ Total students passed = 16 + 36 = 52

⇒ Passed percentage = (52 ÷ 100) × 100 = 52%

∴ The correct answer is 52%.

Additional Information

Weighted Average

When groups of different sizes have different averages, the combined average is calculated as (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂).

Percentage Basics

x% of y is calculated as (x × y) ÷ 100. It is always helpful to assume the total base as 100 for easy calculation.

Ratio Method

The ratio of boys to girls here is 40:60 or 2:3. Total pass percentage = (2 × 40 + 3 × 60) ÷ (2 + 3) = (80 + 180) ÷ 5 = 260 ÷ 5 = 52%.

Given:

Cost of 25 notebooks and 10 books = 425

Calculation:

Let the cost of book is Rs. x

According to question:

Cost of 25 notebooks + cost of 10 book = 425

25(15) + 10x = 425

⇒ 10x = 425 – 375

⇒ 10x = 50

⇒ x = 5

∴ Cost of 1 book is Rs. 5

Concept used:

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculation:

(\frac{3}{5} \times 2\frac{3}{5} \div ;\frac{{13}}{{15}};of;1\frac{1}{4} + ;\frac{2}{{11}} \times 4\frac{2}{5} \div ;\frac{5}{7};of;3\frac{2}{3})

⇒ (\frac{3}{5} \times \frac{13}{5} \div ;\frac{{13}}{{15}};of ;\frac{5}{4} + ;\frac{2}{{11}} \times \frac{22}{5} \div ;\frac{5}{7};of ;\frac{11}{3})

⇒ (\frac{3}{5} \times \frac{13}{5} \div ;(\frac{{13}}{{15}};\times ;\frac{5}{4}) + ;\frac{2}{{11}} \times \frac{22}{5} \div ;(\frac{5}{7};\times ;\frac{11}{3}))

⇒ ( \frac{3}{5} \times \frac{13}{5} \times ;\frac{{15}}{{13}};\times ;\frac{4}{5} + ;\frac{2}{{11}} \times \frac{22}{5} \times ;\frac{7}{5};\times ;\frac{3}{11})

⇒ (\frac{36}{25} \ + \ \frac{84}{275})

⇒(\frac{396 \ + \ 84}{275} )

⇒ (\frac{480}{275} )

⇒ (\frac{96}{55} )

∴ 96/55

Given:

Ratio of milk and water in mixture = 3 : 2 

The initial quantity of mixture = 13 L

Quantity of mixture replaced = 3 L

Concept used:

While removing some quantity of mixture from a mixture,

The ratio of things present in the mixture remains same.

Calculation:

Mixture remaining after removal of 3 L = 13 - 3 = 10 L

So, quantity of milk = 3/5 × 10 = 6 L

And, quantity of water = 2/5 × 10 = 4 L

Now, quantity of milk after adding 3 L milk = 6 + 3 = 9 L

⇒ Milk :  Water = 9 : 4

∴ Ratio of Milk and water in newly formed mixture is 9 : 4

Given:

(\sqrt {10 + \sqrt {27 + \sqrt {65 + \sqrt {256} } } })

Calculation:

(\sqrt {10 + \sqrt {27 + \sqrt {65 + \sqrt {256} } } })

⇒ (\sqrt {10 + \sqrt {27 + \sqrt {65 + 16} } } )

⇒ (\sqrt {10 + \sqrt {27 + \sqrt {81} } } )

⇒ (\sqrt {10 + \sqrt {27 + 9} })

⇒ (\sqrt {10 + \sqrt {36} })

⇒ (\sqrt {10 + 6})

⇒ √16

⇒ 4

Given:

Total amount which is divided among A, B and C = Rs. 6,300

X : Y = 7 : 5 and Y : Z = 4 : 3

Calculation:

X : Y = 7 : 5     ----(1)

Y : Z = 4 : 3     ----(2)

Multiply by 4 in equation (1) and multiply by 5 in equation (2)

X : Y : Z = 28 : 20 : 15

Ratio of X : Y : Z = 28x : 20x : 15x

According to the question

28x + 20x + 15x = 6,300

⇒ 63x = 6,300

⇒ x = 6,300/63

⇒ x = 100

∴ Share of Y = 20 × 100 = Rs. 2,000

Given:

Principal = Rs. 40,000

The rate of interest for 3 years = 5%, 8% and 10%

Time = 3 years

Calculation:

According to the question, we have

5% = 1/20

8% = 2/25

10% = 1/10

Now,

5000 units = Rs. 40000

⇒ 1 unit = Rs. 8

6237 units = 8 × 6237

⇒ Rs. 49896

∴ The amount after three years is Rs. 49896.

Traditional Method:

Formula Used:

When rates are different for different years, R₁%, R₂% and R₃% for first years, second year and third year respectively.

Amount = P × {1 + (R₁/100)} × {1 + (R₂/100)} × {1 + (R₃/100)}

Where,

P =Principal

R1%, R2% and R3% = Rate of interest for three years

Calculation:

According to the question, we have

Amount = 40000 × {1 + (5/100)} × {1 + (8/100)} × {1 + (10/100)}

⇒ 40000 × (21/20) × (27/25) × (11/10)

⇒ (40000 × 21 × 27 × 11)/(20 × 25 × 10)

⇒ 8 × 21 × 27 × 11

⇒ 49896

∴ The amount after three years is Rs. 49896.

Let the side of the bigger cube be 2 cm (or as you wish answer will be same in given condition)

Volume of the bigger cube = 2 × 2 × 2 = 8 cm

Let the side of smaller cube be x.

According to the question

⇒ x × 8 = 8

⇒ x = 1 cm

∴ Side of smaller cube be 1 cm.

As we know

Total surface area of the cube = 6 a²

Total surface area of the bigger cube = 6 × 2² = 6 × 4 = 24 cm²

Total surface area of the smaller cube = 6 × 1² = 6

Sum of the surface area of three of the smaller cubes = 3 × 6 = 18

∴ Required ratio = 24 : 18 = 4 : 3

Concept used:

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below

Calculation:

Our equation 55 – [13 + {12 ÷ (8 – 2)}] × 10 ÷ 3

⇒ 55 – [13 + {12 ÷ 6}] × 10 ÷ 3

⇒ 55 – [13 + 2] × 10 ÷ 3

⇒ 55 – 15 × 10 ÷ 3

⇒ 55 – 15 × 10 × 1/3

⇒ 55 – 50 = 5

∴ The correct answer is 5

Calculation:

Value of the total stock = 25 × 15000 + 80 × 16000 + 54 × 55000 + 41 × 27000 + 64 × 24000

375000 + 1280000 + 2970000 + 1107000 + 1536000

7268000 = 72.68 lakh

∴ Option 3 is the correct answer.

Given:

Present population of village = 28000

Rate at which population increases = 5%

Time period = 2 years

Formula used:

({P_n} = P{\left( {1 + \frac{R}{{100}}} \right)^n})

Where, P_n = Population after n years

P = Present population

R = Rate of growth of population

n = time period (in years)

Calculations:

Population after 2 years,

( \Rightarrow {P_2} = 28000{\left( {1 + \frac{5}{{100}}} \right)^2})

( \Rightarrow {P_2} = 28000{\left( {\frac{{21}}{{20}}} \right)^2})

( \Rightarrow {P_2} = 28000\left( {\frac{{441}}{{400}}} \right))

⇒ P₂ = 70 × 441

⇒ P₂ = 30870

∴ The population after 2 years will be 30870

Given:

If 24 is subtracted from a number then it reduces by 40%.

Calculation:

Let the number be x

On subtracting 24 the number reduces by 40%

⇒ 40% of x = 24

⇒ x = (24 × 100)/40

⇒ x = 60

∴ required number is 60.

Tip: We can find the answer quickly by going through the options.

ALTERNATE METHOD:

Let the number be x

If is substracted from a number then it reduces by 40%

⇒ x - 24 = 60x/100

⇒ x - 24 = 3x/5

⇒ 5x - 120 = 3x

⇒ 2x = 120

⇒ x = 60

∴ required number is 60.

Shortcut Trick

Identify the highest powers of prime factors across all numbers.

Numbers: 45 = 9 × 5 = 3² × 5¹

25 = 5²

35 = 5 × 7

LCM = 3² × 5² × 7 = 9 × 25 × 7 = 1575.

∴ The correct answer is 1575.

Alternate Method

Given: Three numbers 45, 25, and 35.

Formula Used: LCM (Least Common Multiple) is the smallest number which is exactly divisible by each of the given numbers.

⇒ Prime factorization of 45 = 3 × 3 × 5 = 3² × 5

⇒ Prime factorization of 25 = 5 × 5 = 5²

⇒ Prime factorization of 35 = 5 × 7

⇒ LCM = 3² × 5² × 7

⇒ LCM = 9 × 25 × 7

⇒ LCM = 225 × 7 = 1575

∴ The correct answer is 1575.

Additional Information

HCF and LCM Relation

For two numbers a and b, the product of the numbers is equal to the product of their HCF and LCM: a × b = HCF(a, b) × LCM(a, b).

LCM of Fractions

LCM of fractions = (LCM of Numerators) ÷ (HCF of Denominators).

HCF of Fractions

HCF of fractions = (HCF of Numerators) ÷ (LCM of Denominators).

Given:

P can finish the work in 15 days and Q can finish the work in 20 days.

Concept used:

If time taken finish the work = x days

∴ Part of work completed in one day = 1/x

Calculation:

P can finish the work in 15 days.

∴ One day work of P = 1/15

 And, Q can finish the work in 20 days.

∴ One day work of Q = 1/20

Let P and Q together complete the work in x days.

∴ One day work of P and Q = 1/20 + 1/15 = 1/x

⇒ 1/x = 7/60

So, 5 days work of P and Q will be = 5 × 7/60 = 7/12

Now, remaining work = 1 – 7/12 = 5/12

∴ Number of days required by Q to finish the work = (5/12)/(1/20) = (8\frac{1}{3}) days

Given:

Marker Price (MP) = Rs.1280

Profit % = 12

Discount % = 30

Formulas used:

Discount % = Discount/MP × 100

Profit % = Profit/Cost Price × 100

Selling Price = Marked Price - Discount

Profit = Selling Price - Cost Price

Cost Price = (Selling price × 100)/(100 + profit)

Calculation:

Discount % = Discount/1280 × 100 

⇒ 30 = Discount/1280 × 100

⇒ Discount = 128 × 3 = Rs.384

Selling Price = 1280 - 384 =  Rs.896

Cost Price = (Selling price × 100)/(100 + profit)

⇒ (896 × 100)/(100 + 12)

∴ CP = 89600/112 = Rs.800 

Alternate Method

Cost Price = MP × (100 - D)/100 × 100/(100 + P)

⇒ Rs.1280 × 70/100 × 100/112 = Rs.800

Shortcut Trick

For two pipes P and Q filling a tank in x and y hours respectively, time taken together = (x × y) ÷ (x + y).

Time taken = (7 × 13) ÷ (7 + 13) = 91 ÷ 20 hours.

⇒ 91 ÷ 20 = 4.55 hours = 4 hours + (0.55 × 60) minutes.

⇒ 4 hours 33 minutes.

∴ The correct answer is 4 hr 33 min.

Alternate Method

Given: Time for Pipe P = 7 hours, Time for Pipe Q = 13 hours.

Formula Used: Total Work = LCM of individual times; Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time.

⇒ Combined Efficiency of P + Q = 13 + 7 = 20 units/hour.

⇒ Total Time taken = Total Work ÷ Combined Efficiency = 91 ÷ 20 hours.

⇒ 91 ÷ 20 = 4 (11/20) hours.

⇒ Convert fraction to minutes: (11 ÷ 20) × 60 = 33 minutes.

⇒ Total Time = 4 hours 33 minutes.

∴ The correct answer is 4 hr 33 min.

Additional Information

Inlet and Outlet Pipes

Inlet pipes have positive efficiency (fill tank), while outlet/leakage pipes have negative efficiency (empty tank).

Net Work Done

If pipe A fills in x hours and pipe B empties in y hours, net work in 1 hour = (1/x) − (1/y).

Alternate Day/Hour Work

If pipes operate alternately, calculate the combined work for one full cycle (e.g., 2 hours) before finding total time.

Spend on food = 10%

⇒ Spend on fuel = (100 – 10) × 20% = 18%

⇒ Remaining salary of man = 100% – (10 + 18)% = 72%

⇒ 72% → Rs. 4680

⇒ 100% → Rs. 6500

∴ His salary is Rs. 6500.

Shortcut Trick

When a solid object is melted to form another, the total volume remains conserved.

⇒ Volume of Sphere = Volume of Cone

⇒ (4/3) × π × (3)³ = (1/3) × π × r² × (r / 2)

⇒ 4 × 27 = r³ / 2

⇒ r³ = 216 ⇒ r = 6 cm

∴ The correct answer is 6 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Radius of the sphere (R) = 3 cm

Let the radius of the cone be r cm.

Height of the cone (h) = r / 2

Formula Used:

Volume of Sphere = (4/3) × π × R³

Volume of Cone = (1/3) × π × r² × h

Calculations:

⇒ Volume of Cone = Volume of Sphere

⇒ (1/3) × π × r² × h = (4/3) × π × R³

Substituting the given values into the equation:

⇒ (1/3) × π × r² × (r / 2) = (4/3) × π × 3³

Canceling out (π / 3) from both sides of the equation:

⇒ r³ / 2 = 4 × 27

⇒ r³ / 2 = 108

⇒ r³ = 216

⇒ r = (216)^1/3

⇒ r = 6 cm

∴ The correct answer is 6 cm.

Additional Information

Principle of Melting and Recasting

Whenever a 3D solid figure is melted and converted into another solid, the initial volume is exactly equal to the final volume regardless of the shape.

Total Surface Area of Cone

The total surface area of a cone involves the curved area plus the circular base area: TSA = π × r × l + π × r², where l is the slant height.

Surface Area of Sphere

A complete sphere has a continuous curved surface with an area given by the formula: SA = 4 × π × R².

Given:

A man travels from A to B at a speed of 36 km/hr in 74 minutes and he travels a distance from B to C with a speed of 45 km/hr in 111 minutes. 

Formula used:

Average speed = Total distance/Total time taken

Calculation:

Time taken = 74 min : 111 min   [given]

Ratio of Time taken = 2 : 3

Average Speed = (\frac{{36\ \times\ 2\ +\ 45\ \times\ 3}}{{2\ +\ 3}})

Average Speed = 207/5

Average Speed = 41.4 km/hr

∴ The average speed of whole journey is 41.4 km/h

Given:

The area of the circle = 154 m²

The perimeter of the square is equal to the circumference of the circle.

Formula Used:

The area of the circle = πr²

The circumference of the circle = 2πr

The perimeter of the square = 4 × a

Where, a = side of the square, and r = radius of the circle 

Calculation:

The area of the circle = 154 m²

⇒ πr² = 154

⇒ (22/7) × r² = 154

⇒ r² = (154 × 7)/22

⇒ r = √49

⇒ r = 7 m

The circumference of the circle = 2πr

⇒ 2 × (22/7) × 7

⇒ 44

The perimeter of the square = The circumference of the circle

⇒ 4 × a = 44

⇒ a = 44/4

⇒ a = 11 m

∴ The side of the square is 11 m.

Shortcut Trick

Present ratio of Ram and Ramesh = 3 : 5 (Difference = 2 units).

Ratio after 7 years = 4 : 5 (Difference = 1 unit).

To equate differences, multiply the future ratio by 2: (4 : 5) × 2 = 8 : 10.

Change in Ramesh’s age units = 10 − 5 = 5 units.

Given that 5 units = 7 years, then Ramesh’s present age (5 units) is 7 years.

∴ The correct answer is 7 years.

Alternate Method

Given:

Present age ratio of Ram and Ramesh = 3 : 5

Ratio after 7 years = 4 : 5

Calculations:

⇒ Let the present ages of Ram and Ramesh be 3x and 5x respectively.

⇒ After 7 years, their ages will be (3x + 7) and (5x + 7).

⇒ According to the problem: (3x + 7) ÷ (5x + 7) = 4 ÷ 5

⇒ 5 × (3x + 7) = 4 × (5x + 7)

⇒ 15x + 35 = 20x + 28

⇒ 20x − 15x = 35 − 28

⇒ 5x = 7

⇒ Ramesh’s present age = 5x = 7 years.

∴ The correct answer is 7 years.

Additional Information

Age Difference Consistency

The difference between the ages of two individuals remains constant throughout their lives. If the difference is 'd' now, it will remain 'd' after any number of years.

Ratio Adjustment Method

When the time gap is the same for both people, adjust the ratios such that the numerical difference between the terms of each ratio is identical.

Cross-Multiplication in Ratios

For a ratio a : b changing to c : d after 'n' years, the value of one part x = [n × (d − c)] ÷ [ad − bc].

Let the speed of boat in still water be x km/hr

Speed of stream = y km/hr

Speed upstream = (x - y) km/hr

(x - y) = 35/7 = 5      ----(1)

Speed downstream = (x + y) km/hr

(x + y) = 35/5 = 7       ----(2)

From (1) and (2), we get x = 6 km/hr

Speed of boat in still water = 6 km/hr

Given:

Coins = 480 

Conis of 1 Rupee, 50 Paise & 25 Paise

Value ration = 2 : 3 : 4

Calculation:

Ratio  =  1 Rs : 50 p : 25 p

Value =     2 : 3 : 4

Coin   =     2 : 6 : 16

⇒ 1 : 3 : 8

Total coins are 12x

⇒ 12x = 480

⇒ x = 480/12

⇒ x = 40

⇒ 1 : 3 : 8

⇒ 40 : 120 : 320

Coin of 1 Rupee = 40 

Coin of 50 Paise = 120

Coin of 25 Paise = 320

The value of 40 coins of 1 rupee is Rs.40

The value of 120 coins of 50 paise is Rs.60

The value of 320 coins of 25 paise is Rs.80

Total Value is (40 + 60 + 80) = 180

∴ The answer is Rs.180.

Alternate Method Let the value of 1 Rupee, 50 Paise, and 25 Paise coins be 2x, 3x, and 4x respectively.

Number of coins = Total value/value of each coin

Therefore,

Number of 1 Rupees coins = 2x/1 = 2x 

Number of 50 paise coins = 3x/(1/2) = = (3x) × 2 = 6x 

Number of 25 paise coins = 4x/(1/4) = = (4x) × 4 = 16x  

Since total number of coins = 480

2x + 6x + 16x = 480

24x = 480

x = 20

Therefore, the total amount 

⇒ 2x + 3x + 4x = 9x 

⇒ 9 × 20 = 180 Rs.

Shortcut Trick  

Total value of all coins together = Rs. (40 + 60 + 80) = Rs. 180

Calculation:

⇒ 100% = 2500

⇒ 1% = 25

Laptops sold by company A = 40% = 40 × 25 = 1000

Laptops sold by company C = 8% = 8 × 25 = 200

Difference between the sale of laptops of company A and C = 1000 - 200 = 800

∴ The correct answer is 800.

Given:

The length of the train is 300 m

The length of the bridge is 500 m

Concept:

Speed = Distance/Time

Calculation:

Let be assume the speed of the train is S

⇒ S = (300 + 500)/8 = 800/8 = 100 m/s

⇒ Now, time is taken by train to cross 600m long bridge = (300 + 600)/100 = 900/100 = 9 seconds

∴ The required result will be 9 seconds.

Sum of age of 11 members of a family = 22 × 11 = 242

Before 2 year the sum of ages of all family members = 242 – 22 = 220 (before 2 years, ages of all family members will be less than 2 years. Hence, overall reduction in age = 11 × 2 = 22)

Now, there are only 10 members in the family, hence average age = 220/10 = 22

Given:

SP for each phone = ₹ 18,000

Loss on the first phone = 10%

Profit on the second phone = 20%

Concept Used:

Profit = SP – CP

Loss = CP – SP

Profit% or Loss% = [(Profit or Loss)/CP] × 100

CP = (100 × SP)/(100 - loss%)

CP = (100 × SP)/(100 + profit%)

Calculation:

Net SP = ₹ 18,000 + 18,000 = ₹ 36,000

Net CP = ₹ 20,000 + 15,000 = ₹ 35,000

Here, SP > CP

So, Profit = 36,000 – 35,000 = ₹ 1000

GIVEN:

Four bells ring simultaneously at starting and an interval of 6 sec, 12 sec, 15 sec and 20 sec respectively.

CONCEPT:

LCM: It is a number which is a multiple of two or more numbers.

CALCULATION:

LCM of (6, 12, 15, 20) = 60

All 4 bells ring together again after every 60 seconds

Now,

In 2 Hours, they ring together = [(2 × 60 × 60)/60] times + 1 (at the starting) = 121 times

∴ In 2 hours they ring together for 121 times

Mistake Points

In these type of question we assume that we have started counting the time after first ringing. Due to this when we calculate the LCM it gives us the ringing at 2nd time not the first time. So, we needed to add 1.

Shortcut Trick

Total Volume = Volume of Cylinder + Volume of Hemisphere.

Total Volume = πr²h + (2/3)πr³ = πr²(h + 2r/3)

Substituting r = 7 and h = 3: Volume = (22/7) × 49 × (3 + 14/3) = 154 × (23/3)

Using 23/3 ≈ 7.67 ⇒ 154 × 7.67 = 1181.18 cm³.

∴ The correct answer is 1181.18 cubic. cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Radius of Hemisphere (r) = 7 cm

Radius of Cylindrical base (r) = 7 cm

Height of Cylindrical base (h) = 3 cm

Formula Used:

Volume of Cylinder = πr²h

Volume of Hemisphere = (2/3)πr³

Calculations:

⇒ Volume of Cylindrical base = (22/7) × 7 × 7 × 3

⇒ Volume of Cylindrical base = 22 × 7 × 3 = 154 × 3 = 462 cm³

⇒ Volume of Hemispherical top = (2/3) × (22/7) × 7 × 7 × 7

⇒ Volume of Hemispherical top = (2/3) × 22 × 49 = 2156 ÷ 3 ≈ 719.18 cm³

⇒ Total Volume of the toy = 462 + 719.18

⇒ Total Volume = 1181.18 cm³

∴ The correct answer is 1181.18 cubic. cm.

Additional Information

Total Surface Area of Toy

The surface area consists of the Curved Surface Area of the hemisphere (2πr²) and the Curved Surface Area of the cylinder (2πrh) plus the base area (πr²).

Volume of a Sphere

A hemisphere is exactly half of a sphere. Volume of sphere = (4/3)πr³.

Units Conversion

1 cubic cm (cm³) is equivalent to 1 millilitre (ml). 1000 cm³ = 1 Litre.

Given:

A sum of money on compound interest amount to Rs. 9680 in 2 years and Rs.10648 in 3 years.

Concept used:

In case of compound interest,

Rate of interest per annum = {Amount of (n + 1)^th year/Amount of (n)th year} × 100 - 100

Calculations:

Rate of interest per annum = {Amount of (n + 1)th year/Amount of (n)th year} × 100 - 100

⇒ (10648/9680) × 100 - 100

⇒ (11/10) × 100 - 100

⇒ 10

∴ The rate of interest per annum is 10%.

Given:

The income ratio of A and B is 5:7

Expenditure ratio is 1:1

A saves Rs. 2000

B saves Rs. 4000

Calculation:

Let's assume the common factor of their incomes is x:

A's income = 5x

B's income = 7x

Since the expenditure ratio is 1:1, and

A and B save Rs. 2000 and Rs. 4000 respectively:

A's expenditure = 5x - 2000

B's expenditure = 7x - 4000

Since the expenditures are equal:

5x - 2000 = 7x - 4000

Now, we'll solve for x:

7x - 5x = 4000 - 2000

2x = 2000

x = 2000 / 2 = 1000

Now, A's income:

A's income = 5 multiplied by 1000 = 5000

So, the income of A is Rs. 5000.

Given:

A person bought a shirt at 10% discount and sold it to his friend at a loss of 10%

His friend paid him Rs. 729 for the shirt

Concept used:

We are calculated discount on marked price and

profit or loss on cost price.

Calculation:

Let undiscounted price = 100x

Cost price(discounted price) = 90x

Selling price = 90x × (9/10) = 81x

according to the question,

Selling price = 81x → 729

⇒ x = 9

∴ The undiscounted price of the shirt is 100x is 900.

Shortcut Trick

Side (a) = 15 cm

Diagonal d₁ = 15 + 60% of 15 = 15 + 9 = 24 cm

Using the property 4a² = d₁² + d₂²

4 × 15² = 24² + d₂² ⇒ 900 − 576 = d₂² ⇒ d₂ = √324 = 18 cm

∴ The correct answer is 18 cm.

Alternate Method

Given: Side of rhombus = 15 cm; Diagonal₁ (d₁) = 160% of side.

Formula Used: In a rhombus, diagonals bisect each other at 90°. (Side)² = (d₁/2)² + (d₂/2)².

⇒ Diagonal₁ (d₁) = 15 × (160/100) = 24 cm

⇒ Half of d₁ = 24 ÷ 2 = 12 cm

⇒ Let half of d₂ be x. In the right-angled triangle formed by the intersection:

⇒ 15² = 12² + x²

⇒ 225 = 144 + x²

⇒ x² = 225 − 144 = 81

⇒ x = √81 = 9 cm

⇒ Full Diagonal₂ (d₂) = 2 × 9 = 18 cm

∴ The correct answer is 18 cm.

Additional Information

Area of Rhombus

The area of a rhombus is calculated as Area = 1/2 × d₁ × d₂, where d₁ and d₂ are the lengths of the diagonals.

Perimeter of Rhombus

Since all sides of a rhombus are equal, the perimeter is P = 4 × side.

Diagonal Property

The sum of the squares of the diagonals is equal to four times the square of the side: d₁² + d₂² = 4a².

Given

A and B can do job in 5 days.

B and C can do job in 6 days.

C and A can do job in 7.5 days.

Formula used

Total work = Efficiency × Time taken

Calculation

Let total work be 30 units (LCM of 5, 6 and 7.5).

Now, efficiency of A + B = 30/5 = 6 unit/day      ---- (1)

And, efficiency of B + C = 30/6 = 5 units/day      ---- (2)

And, efficiency of A + C = 30/7.5 = 4 units/day      ---- (3)

Adding 1, 2 and 3, we get

2(A + B + C) = 15 units/day

⇒ A + B + C = 15/2 = 7.5 units/day

∴ Time taken by A, B and C to complete the work = 30/7.5 = 4 days