DSSSB LDC Official Paper 1 (Held on : 18 Aug 2019 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

Given:

 

Among the teams given in the question, it is clear that CAKE is the only thing we can eat. 

But,

It is clearly mentioned that 'CAKE' is called 'TABLE'.

Hence, the correct answer is "TABLE".

The positions of the letters according to the English alphabet series:

The pattern for this code is as follows

Therefore, the wrong term in the series is RBIQ, as the correct term should be SBIQ.

Hence, the correct answer is "RBIQ".

Given:

Seven friends: S1, S2, S3, S4, S5, S6, and S7.

1. S6 is taller than S5 but shorter than S4

⇒ S4 > S6 > S5

2. S5 is shorter than S3 but taller than S2

⇒ S3 > S5 > S2

3. S7 is shorter than S5.

⇒ S3 > S5 > S7 > S2

4. S3 and S2 are shorter than S1. 5. S2 is the shortest among them.

⇒ S1 > S3 > S5 > S7 > S2

Therefore, the final arrangement we get after combining all,

S4 > S6 > S1 > S3 > S5 > S7 > S2.

Therefore, the total number of persons taller than S5 is "4".

Hence, the correct answer is "4".

The Logic here is as follows:

Option 1: GDB

B + 2 = D

D + 3 = G

Option 2: RPN

N + 2 = P

P + 2 = R

Option 3: WUS

S + 2 = U

U + 2 = W

Option 4: MKI

I + 2 = K

K + 2 = M

Therefore, All other options follow a pattern except GDB.

Hence, the correct answer is **"**GDB".

The Logic here is as follows:

‘TABLES’ is written as ‘SELBAT’

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is "SRIAHC".

Given:

Six persons: P, Q, R, S, T, and U

1. P is third from U

2. R is to the immediate left of Q.

3. Only U is between S and Q.

Therefore, the final arrangement is:

Statements:

I. T is sitting to the immediate left of S → False ( As T is sitting to the immediate right of S)

II. Q is not sitting to the immediate left of U → False (As Q is sitting to the immediate left of U)

III. R is sitting to the immediate left of P → False (As R is sitting to the immediate right of P)

IV. P is not sitting to the immediate left of T → True (As P is sitting to the immediate right of T)

Hence, the correct answer is "Only IV".

Logic here is as follows:

CAKE → C(3) + A(1) + K(11) + E(5) = 20

⇒ 20 × 5 = 100

GLOW → G(7) + L(12) + O(15) + W(23) = 57

⇒ 57 × 5 = 285

Similarly,

BACK → B(2) + A(1) + C(3) + K(11) = 17

⇒ 17 × 5 = 85

Hence, the correct answer is "85".

Logic follow here is

Option 1 : ABCD – FGHI

Option 2 : IJKL – NOPQ

Option 3 : NPRT – SUVY

Option 4 : RSTU – WXYZ

Here, All the options follow a pattern except option 3.

Hence, "NPRT – SUVY" is the correct answer.

Given 

1. Only F is between B and D. 2. C is to the immediate right of B.
2. Only E is between C and A.

From the above arrangement, D is the neighbor of both A and F.

Hence, "D" is the correct answer.

The Logic here is as follows:

 

Football, Cricket, and Hockey are outdoor games, While, Chess is an indoor game.

Hence, "Chess" is the correct answer.

The logic follows here is

The Clock is used to measure Time.

Similarly,

The thermometer is used to measure the Temperature.

Hence, "Temperature" is the correct answer.

BODMAS Rule:

By decoding given information:

 

 

 

 

Given Equation: 12 A 4 B 8 D 2 B 27 A 9 = ?

Replace the above signs in place of codes, to get;

⇒ 12 ÷ 4 × 8 - 2 × 27 ÷ 9

Using BODMAS rule,

⇒ 3 × 8 - 2 × 3

⇒ 24 - 6

⇒ = 18

Hence, the correct answer is "18".

According to the given statement,

The least possible Venn diagram for the statement is as follows:

Conclusion:

I. Some pencils are pens → True (As a Some pens are cups, All cups are pencils, therefore some pencils are pens. So, it is true)

II. All pencils are chairs → False (As there is no direct relation given between the pencils and chairs. So, it is possible but not definite)

III. All chairs are cups → False (As there is no direct relation given between chairs and cups. So, it is possible but not definite)

Hence, "Only conclusion I follow" is the answer.

The Logic here is as follows:

The Pencil marks on the paper can be Erase by using the Rubber.

Similarly,

To Eat anything from the Plate by using the Spoon.

Hence, "Eat : Spoon" is the correct answer.

The pattern followed is:

Hence, the correct answer is "MNO".

Given: Five Girls - Komal, Lisa, Rohini, Veena, and Priya

1. Komal is the shortest while Lisa is the tallest.

Lisa > _ > _ > _ > Komal

2. Priya is the second shortest person girl in the group

Lisa > _ > _ > Priya > Komal

3. Rohini is taller than Komal but shorter than Veena.

Veena > Rohini > Komal

By combining all the above statements, we get:

Lisa > Veena > Rohini > Priya > Komal

From the above arrangement, Veena is the second tallest girl in the group.

Hence, "Veena" is the correct answer.

According to given information, we have the possible arrangements as follows:

1). P is shorter than Q but taller than R

Q > P > R

2). S is shorter than P but taller than R

P > S > R

3). T is shorter than Q but taller than P.

4). U is taller than the Q and height of U and V are equal.

U = V > Q > T > P

After combining all the arrangements, we get:

U = V > Q > T > P > S > R

Here, there are total 4 boys that are taller than P, are U, V, Q and T.

Hence, "4" is the correct answer.

According to statements,

The Least possible Venn Diagram as follows:

Conclusion:

I. All tables are pens → False (As, Some tables are pens So, all tables are pens is possible but not definite. Hence, false).

II. Some pens are the chairs → False (As, there is no direct relation given between pens and chairs and it is possible but not definite. Hence, false).

Hence, "Neither Conclusion follows" is the correct answer.

Arrangements of the given words in dictionary order as follows:

5. Decorate
6. Demanding 4. Demarcate 2. Democracy
7. Demystify

The correct order of the given arrangements according to dictionary as follows:

5. Decorate 1. Demanding 4. Demarcate 2. Democracy 3. Decorate.

Hence, "51423" is the correct answer.

Pattern: Letters increased by +5.

Similarly,

Hence, "GLQV" is the correct answer.

The pattern followed here is:

64² + 1 → 4096 + 1 → 4097

38² + 1 → 1444 + 1 → 1445

26² + 1 → 676 + 1 → 677

52² + 1 → 2704 + 1 → 2705 ≠ 2707

All the given option follows a pattern except 2707.

Hence, "2707" is the correct answer.

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, "72" is the correct answer.

According to given words, the possible Venn Diagram as follows:

As Retina is a part of Eye and Eye is a part of the Body.

And, Eye and retina both are the parts of the body.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The pattern followed here is:

A * B = (A + B)(A - B)

A = 12 and B = 7

= (12 + 7)(12 - 7)

= 19 × 5

A * B = 95

Similarly,

A * B = (A + B)(A - B)

A = 11 & B = 8

= (11 + 8)(11 - 8)

A * B = 19 × 3

= 57

The value of (12 * 7) * (11 * 8) is

A * B = (A + B)(A - B)

A = 12 * 7 = 95 & B = 11 * 8 = 57

= (95 + 57)(95 - 57)

= 152 × 38

= 5776

Hence, "5776" is the correct answer

The Logic here is as follows:

⇒ The figure inside the box is rotating at a 45º anti-clockwise direction to form a series.

Therefore, the figure 

in the series is the wrong figure and should be replaced by 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given:

Doctor → Triangle

Player → Square

Musician → Circle

Dancer → Rectangle

The letters that represents doctors who are musician and players but not dancers lies in the interaction of triangle, square and circle, is as shown below:

Hence, the correct answer is "h".

The Pattern follows here is:

As we can see that Figure in option (1) is fitting perfectly in the given question figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1" i.e 

The Logic here is as follows:

Number : (Sum of digits of the number)³ = Next Number

134 : 512

⇒ 134 : (1 + 3 + 4)³ = 8³ = 512.

Similarly,

247 : ?

⇒ 247 : (2 + 4 + 7)3 = 133 = 2197.

Hence, the correct answer is "2197".

The Logic here is as follows:

1. The triangle in the given image series is decreasing by 1 and becomes bold and hallow alternatively.

2. The number of vertical lines in the given image series is increasing by 1. 

3. The circle in the given series becomes square and vise versa along with the number of figures increasing by 1.

Therefore, combining all the above series we get the final series as,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The Logic here is as follows:

In figure 1:

⇒ 4 + 8 = 12

⇒ 12 x 10 = 120

In figure 2:

⇒ 25 + 16 = 41

⇒ 41 x 6 = 246

Similarly,

In figure 3:

⇒ 40 + 12 = 52

⇒ 52  x  15 = 780

Hence, the correct answer is "780".

The Pattern follows here is:

As we can see that Figure in option (3) is fitting perfectly in the given question figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3" i.e 

The pattern followed is:

Option 1: 12 – 1728

12 – 12³ = 1728

Option 2: 36 – 46656

36 – 36³ = 46656

Opton 3: 21 – 9461

21 – 21³ = 9261 ≠ 9461

Option 4: 27 – 19683

27 – 27³ = 19683 

Therefore, 21 – 9461 is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is "21 – 9461".

BODMAS table:

Given Codes:

<br>

Given equation 17 Q 3 R 48 S 16 P 12 Q 18 = ?

Replace the signs in place of the above symbols to get

⇒ 17 - 3 × 48 ÷ 16 + 12 - 18

By BODMAS rule

⇒ 17 - 3 × 3 + 12 - 18

⇒ 17 - 9 + 12 - 18

⇒ 29 - 9 - 18

⇒ 29 - 27

⇒ 2

Hence, "2" is the correct answer.

Given sequence is 4, 10, 33, 136, ?

The Logic here is as follows:

Hence, the correct answer is "685".

The logic follow here is:

The bolded portion in the above figure is the hidden image of the given 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Confusion Points Generally rotation is not allowed but here rotation is allowed.

In figure 3 it seems that the question figure may be present if figure is rotated but on rotation as shown below the same figure cannot be located.

Similarly, in figure 4 also it seems that the question figure may be present if figure is rotated but on rotation as shown below the same figure cannot be located.

Given information

1. Sunil goes 12 km towards east and then he goes 10 km towards north.
2. He again goes 12 km towards east. 

By using above information, we get the following figure,

The straight line distance between final point and initial point is √{(12 + 12)² + (5 + 5)²}

⇒ √(24)² + (10)²

⇒ √(576 + 100)

⇒ √(676)

⇒ 26 Km

Hence, the correct answer is "26 km".

Alternate Method

The straight line distance between final point and initial point is,  AC + CE

The distance AC is

(AC)² = (AB)² + (BC)²   

(AC)² = (12)² + (5)² 

(AC)² = 144 + 25

(AC)² = 169 

AC = √169 

AC = 13 Km 

 The distance is CE is

(CE)² = (DE)² + (DC)²

(EC)² = (12)² + (5)² 

(EC)² =  144 + 25

( EC )² = 169 

EC = √169 

EC = 13 Km 

The straight line distance between final point and initial point is AC + CE

⇒ 13 Km + 13 Km = 26 Km

Hence, the correct answer is "26 km".

Given information is 

1. Shashwat goes 15 metres towards south from a point P and then after turning to left he goes 8 metres.
2. He again turns left and goes 30 metres.

By using above information

The shortest distance between the starting point to ending point = √ [(8)2 + 152]

= √ (64 + 225) 

= √(289) 

= 17 metres

Shashwat is 'North - East' direction with respect to starting point

Hence, the correct answer is "17 metres, North-east​".

Given

426 : 576 :: 378 : ?

Here, the logic is;

Second number = (Sum of digits of first number) x (Product of digits of the first number)

426 : 576 

⇒ (4 + 2 + 6) × (4 × 2 × 6)

⇒ (12) × (48)

⇒ = 576

Similarly,

378 : ?

⇒ (3 + 7 + 8) × (3 × 7 × 8)

⇒ (18) × (168)

⇒ = 3024

Hence, "3024" is the correct answer.

The Logic here is as follows:

1. The dots in the given image series is decreasing by 1.

2. The number of straight lines in the given image series is increasing by 1. 

3. The small circle in the given series increasing by 1.

Therefore, combining all the above series we get the final series as,

 

Hence, the correct answer "Option 2".

The given figure embedded in the options figure is;

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct answer is the known quantity with respect to which something is measured.

• Unit is the known quantity with respect to which something is measured.

Key Points

• Unit is the chosen standard used for measuring a physical quantity is called unit.
• System of Units:
• Units depend on the choice of system.
• Each choice of units leads to a new system (set) of units.
• The internationally accepted systems are:
• CGS system
• EPS System
• FPS System;
• SI Units.

Additional Information

Shiv Kumar Sharma – Bansuri is NOT correct.

Key Points

• Shiv Kumar Sharma is a maestro of santoor.
• He belongs to the UT of Jammu and Kashmir.
• He won the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in 2011.

• Santoor:
• It is a stringed instrument of a trapezoid-shaped hammered dulcimer.
• In ancient Sanskrit texts, it was called Shatha Tantri Veena.

Additional Information

• Bismillah khan is the maestro of Shehnai.
• Zakir Hussain is the maestro of Tabla.
• Ravi Shankar is the maestro of SItar.

The correct answer is receipts more than expenditure.

Key Points

• Fiscal policy refers to the use of government spending and tax policies to influence economic conditions, especially macroeconomic conditions, including aggregate demand for goods and services, employment, inflation, and economic growth.
• A budget surplus occurs when receipts exceed expenditures.
• The term often refers to a government's financial state, as individuals have "savings" rather than a "budget surplus".
• A surplus is an indication that a government's finances are being effectively managed.
• A surplus implies the government has extra funds.
• Advantages of a budget surplus:
• These funds can be allocated toward public debt, which reduces interest rates and helps the economy.
• A budget surplus can be used to reduce taxes, start new programs, or fund existing programs such as Social Security or Medicare.
• The government might use a budget surplus to cut taxes to stimulate the supply-side of the economy

The correct answer is Bank Rate.

• Bank Rate is the rate of interest commercial banks have to pay to RBI if they borrow money from it in case of a shortage of reserves.

Key Points

• Bank Rate is the rate of interest offered by the central bank to commercial banks.
• It is also called the rediscount rate.
• It is always greater than the repo rate.

Additional Information

• Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR):
• It is the ratio of liquid assets, which all commercial banks have to keep in the form of cash, gold and unencumbered approved securities.
• It is equal to or not more than 40% of their total demand and time deposit liabilities.
• The current SLR is 18%.
• Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR):
• It is the percentage of cash that needs to be kept in reserves with RBi without any floor rate or ceiling rate.
• The current CRR is 4.00%.

Important Points

• Reserve Bank of India (RBI):
• RBI was set up on the basis of the Hilton Young Commission recommendation in April 1935, with the enactment of the RBI Act, 1934.
• The headquarters of RBI is in Mumbai.
• Current Governor is Shaktikanta Das

The correct answer is Blue**-green algae**.

• Blue-green algae have a prokaryotic cell.

Key Points

• Blue-green algae:
• Blue-green alga is a large heterogeneous group of prokaryotic and photosynthetic organisms.
• ​It is also called cyanobacteria.
• They lack a membrane-bound nucleus, mitochondria, Golgi apparatus, chloroplasts, and endoplasmic reticulum.
• They are not true algae, but bacteria.
• Prokaryotic Cells:
• These are primitive cells that lack a nucleus and most of the other cell organelles.

Additional Information

• Virus:
• The virus was discovered by Russian scientist Ivanovsky.
• They become active inside living cells.
• Nucleic acids replicate themselves and
• they reproduce rapidly.
• Rhizopus is a saprophytic fungus.
• Monoecious (protozoa) have both male and female reproductive organs.

Himalaya is NOT correct.

• The Himalayas is not a residual mountain.

Key Points

• Fold Mountains:
• It is formed due to the compressive forces generated by endogenetic forces (earthquake, landslide, etc.).
• Examples of fold mountains are the Himalayas, Alps, Andes, Rockies, Atlas, etc.
• ​Block Mountains:
• These are formed when a great block of the earth’s crust may be raised or lowered due to tectonic activities.
• When the earth’s crust cracks due to tension or compression, faulting takes place.
• Examples of Block Mountain: Satpura and Vindhya, Nilgiris.
• ​Residual or Dissected Mountains:
• They are formed as a result of erosion of plateaus and high plains by various agents of erosion.
• Examples: Aravalli.

The correct answer is humus.

• A layer of soil that is almost parallel to the surface and has the characteristic properties of soil is known as humus.
• Humus consists of decomposed and partly decomposed organic matter in the soil.
• It is a parallel layer to that of the surface and has all the characteristics properties of soil.

Additional Information

• Bedrock is the hard, solid rock beneath the surface materials of soil.
• Exfoliation is a process that changes rocks rapidly that can expand or crack rocks.

The correct answer is Only II.

• Endocrine glands are ductless glands.

Key Points

• ​Endocrine System
• Exocrine glands:
• Glands which have duct are called exocrine glands.
• Secretion of enzymes passes through it.
• Example: Lactic gland, Sweat gland.
• Endocrine glands:
• These are ductless glands.
• Hormones are secreted by these glands.
• Hormones are sent to the different parts of the body through blood plasma.
• Example; Pituitary gland, Thyroid gland.

The correct answer is Kerala.

• Hill Palace Museum is located in Kerala.

Key Points

• Hill Palace Museum:
• It is located in the Ernakulam district of Kerala.
• It was opened in the year 1865.
• It was built by the Maharaja Of Cochin.
• It is the largest archaeological museum in Kerala.

Additional Information

• Museums in India come under the Ministry of Culture.
• Indian Museum Kolkata is the largest museum in India.

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.

• Uttar Pradesh shares its border with Nepal.

Key Points

• Uttar Pradesh:
• Capital: Lucknow
• Governor: Anandiben Patel
• Chief Minister: Yogi Adityanath (Ajay Bisht)
• It shares its borders with the states of Rajasthan, Haryana, Delhi, Madhya Pradesh, Chattisgarh, Bihar, Jharkhand, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh.
• It shares its international border with Nepal.

Additional Information

• Gujarat shares its borders with Madhya Pradesh,  Maharashtra, and Rajasthan.
• It shares its international border with Pakistan.
• Telangana shares its borders with Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Chhattisgarh.
• Tripura shares its borders with Mizoram and Assam.
• It shares its international border with Bangladesh.

The correct answer is I, III and IV.

Key Points

• Rayon: 
• It is a fibre made of natural sources of regenerated cellulose.
• Its feel and touch are similar to those of silk and are called artificial silk. Hence, statement I is correct.
• It was invented by Georges Audemars.
• Nylon:
• Nylon is a fibre man-made of heavy molecules built up of short, continually repeating sections of atoms.
• Hence, statement III and IV is correct.

The correct answer is citric.

• Orange juice contains citric acid due to which tastes sour.

Key Points

• Fruits that contain citric acid are called citrus fruits.
• Citrus fruits are lemon, lime, orange, Grapefruit, etc.
• The formula of citric acid is C₆H₈O₇.

Additional Information

• Oxalic acid is found in tomato.
• Its formula is C₂H₂O₄.
• Formic acid is found in the sting of ants and bees.
• Its formula is CH₂O₂.
• Acetic acid is found in vinegar.
• Its formula is id CH₃COOH.

The correct answer is Stainless steel.

• Stainless steel is formed by mixing iron with carbon, nickel and zinc.

Key Points

• Stainless steel is an iron alloy and is made of mixing iron with metals like chromium, carbon, nickel, molybdenum, and manganese in appropriate proportions.
• Stainless Steel was invented by Harry Brearley.
• In India, the first Iron and steel plant was set up at Jamshedpur. 
• It was called named Tata Iron and Steel Company Limited (TISCO).

 

• Differences between Steel and Stainless steel 
• Steel is made by adding iron to carbon which hardens the iron
• Stainless steel has a high chromium content
• The chromium forms an invisible layer on the surface of the steel to prevent it from staining.
• Steel is somewhat stronger than stainless steel

 

Additional Information

• German Silver is made of mixing Copper (60%), Zinc (20%) & Nickel (20%).
• Bronze is made of mixing Copper (90%) & Tin (10%).

The correct answer is Emulsion.

• An emulsion is a solution in which the suspended particles are liquid droplets and the continuous phase is also a liquid. (The two phases are immiscible).

Key Points

• An emulsion is a mixture of two or more liquids in which one is present as droplets, of microscopic or ultramicroscopic size and is distributed throughout the other.
• These two liquids do not normally mix together.
• Examples of emulsions are paints, hair cream, butter and jellies, etc.

 

Additional Information

• A gel is a colloid in a more solid form than a solution.
• Aerosols are extremely small solid particles or liquid droplets that are suspended in the atmosphere.

The correct answer is Immigrants.

• Migrants who move into a new place are called Immigrants.

Key Points

• Immigrants are the people who come to a new place or country to live there permanently.

 

Additional Information

• Emigrants are the people who has gone to live in another country.
• Sheltered people are the ones who acquire shelter given either by the government or native people.
• These people are displaced due to various reasons like natural calamities and war.
• Displaced people are the ones who move from their native place to another place due to some circumstances.

 

 

• People who are displaced can also be called sheltered after their settlements.

The correct answer is Assam.

• Ambubachi Mela is a festival of Assam.

Key Points

• Ambubachi Mela:
• It is celebrated at Kamakhya Temple in the month of June.
• It is one of the biggest congregations in eastern India.
• It is the belief that Kamakhya embodies the mother cult, the Shakti.
• The meaning of Ambubachi is spoken with water.
• Other fairs and festival of Assam: Bihu Festival, Me-Dum-Me-Phi, Majuli Festival, Dehing Patkai Festival, Kaziranga Elephant Festival and Ali Ai Ligang Festival.

 

Additional Information

• Festivals of Mizoram are Chapchar Kut Festival, Mim Kut Festival and Pawl Kut Festival.
• Festivals of Sikkim are Saga Dawa, Pang Lhabsol, Losoong or the Sonam Losar.
• Festivals and fairs of Gujarat are Modhera Dance Festival, Navratri, Madhavrai Fair, Ravechi Fair and Vautha Mela.

The correct answer is vegetative propagation.

• Bryophyllum reproduces by vegetative propagation.

Key Points

• Bryophyllum:
• They reproduce asexually, through the vegetative propagation of leaves.
• They are also called air plants.
• The leaves of bryophyllum are broad, having notches at their margins, these are the locations from which buds arise.
• Vegetative propagation is a reproduction method where new plants are produced by vegetative parts of a plant called propagules.

Additional Information

• In fragmentation, the cell splits into two parts and makes new bodies.
• It takes place in planaria.

• Budding is a form of asexual reproduction in which a new individual develops from a generative anatomical point of the parent organism. 
• It takes place in hydra.

• Spore Formation is a method in asexual reproduction.
• In this, a new individual is formed without fusion with another reproductive cell.

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

• Jawara dance is related to Madhya Pradesh state.

Key Points

• Jawara Dance:
• It is a folk dance of Madhya Pradesh.
• It is mainly performed in the Bundelkhand region among the peasant community.
• It is also known as harvest dance.
• Both male and female participate in the Jawara dance.
• 
• Other folk dances of Madhya Pradesh are Matki, Aada, Khada Nach, Phulpati, Grida Dance, Selalarki, Selabhadoni, Maanch.

 

Additional Information

The correct answer is Angel Tax.

• In Union Budget 2019, the government eased Angel Tax to encourage start-ups in the country.

Key Points

• Angel tax is the tax that unlisted companies (startups) are liable to pay on the capital they raise through the issue of shares.
• Article 112 deals with the Annual financial statement (Budget).

The correct answer is Shifting Cultivation.

• Shifting Cultivation is also called ‘Slash and Burn’ agriculture.

Key Points

• Shifting Cultivation:
• Shifting cultivation is a model of farming which consists of slash and burn technique.
• In this, the farmers would cut the native vegetation and burn it, then plant crops in the exposed, ash-fertilized soil for two or three seasons.
• In India, it is called Jhum Kheti.

Additional Information

• In plantation agriculture, a single crop is grown for the entire year.
• It is a type of commercial farming.
• In intensive subsistence agriculture, the farmer cultivates a small plot of land using simple tools and more labour.
• The crops grown in this agriculture are consumed by the farmer and his family.
• In Primitive subsistence agriculture, primitive techniques are used to cultivate crops.
• This agriculture is self-sufficient and farmers only grow food for themselves and their families.

The correct answer is 1st July.

Key Points

• India celebrates National Doctor's Day on July 1 each year, in honor of the birth and death anniversary of the great physician and the second Chief Minister of West Bengal, Dr. Bidhan Chandra Roy
• He was born on July 1, 1882, and died on the same date in 1962, aged 80 years.​
• The British Medical Journal, in its obituary of Roy, called him the “first medical consultant in the subcontinent of India, who towered over his contemporaries in several fields”.
• ​National Doctors' Day is a day celebrated to recognize the contributions of physicians to individual lives and communities.
• The day is observed on different dates across the world. In the United States, Doctor’s Day is observed on March 30, in Cuba on December 3, and in Iran on August 23.
• The theme of International Mother Language Day 2020 is "Languages without borders".

Additional Information

The correct answer is Anupam Kher.

Key Points

• **'**Lessons Life Taught Me Unknowingly' is an autobiography of Anupam Kher.
• About ‘Lessons Life Taught Me, Unknowingly’:
• The autobiography of Padma Bhushan awardee gives a detailed account of his failures, rejections, and lessons learned in his life and in a career spanning 500 films.
• The autobiography shares the events in Kher's life that shaped his career and is an exciting account as it does not talk about his successes.
• The book was released in India on 5 August and will be released in the US on 15 October 2019.

Additional Information

• Anupam Kher (born 7 March 1955) is an Indian actor and the former Chairman of the Film and Television Institute of India.
• He has appeared in over 500 films predominantly in the Hindi language, and many plays.
• He is a recipient of two National Film Awards and eight Filmfare Awards.
• He won the Filmfare Award for Best Actor for his performance in Saaransh (1984).
• He holds the record for winning the Filmfare Award for Best Comedian five times in total for Ram Lakhan (1989), Lamhe (1991), Khel (1992), Darr (1993), and Dilwale Dulhaniya Le Jayenge (1995).
• He won the National Film Award for Special Mention twice for his performances in Daddy (1989) and Maine Gandhi Ko Nahin Mara (2005).
• For his performance in the film Vijay (1988), he won the Filmfare Award for Best Supporting Actor.
• Besides working in Hindi films, he has also appeared in international films such as the Golden Globe-nominated Bend It Like Beckham (2002), Ang Lee's Golden Lion-winning Lust, Caution (2007), and David O. Russell's Oscar-winning Silver Linings Playbook (2012).
• He received a BAFTA nomination for his supporting role in the British television sitcom The Boy With The Topknot (2018).
• He has held the post of chairman of the Central Board of Film Certification and the National School of Drama in India.
• The Government of India honored him with the Padma Shri in 2004 and the Padma Bhushan in 2016 for his contribution in the field of cinema and arts.

The correct answer is Prithviraj Chauhan.

Key Points

• The First Battle of Tarain was fought in 1191 between the Muhammad Ghori and Prithiviraj Chauhan and their allies, near Tarain.
• Mohammad Ghori captured Bathinda and this brought him to the Northwestern frontier kingdom of Prithiviraj Chauhan.
• All Hindu Kings of north India formed a confederacy under the command of Prithiviraj Chauhan.
• Prithviraj's army lead by Govind Tai marched on to Bathinda and fought with the Ghori army at Tarain.
• Ghori was wounded in a personal battle with Govind Tai and the Ghori army retreated and given the victory to Prithviraj Chauhan.

Additional Information

• The Second Battle of Tarain (located in the present-day Haryana state) was fought in the year 1192.
• In 1192, Ghori returned and defeated and killed Prithviraj, who was betrayed by Jai Chand, on the same field.
• Delhi was occupied in 1192–93, and the whole of north India fell into Muslim rulers within 20 years.
• The Turkish rule was the beginning of the Muslim rule in India which continued for more than 7 centuries.

The correct answer is David Malpass.

 

• David R. Malpass was selected as 13th President of the World Bank Group by its Board of Executive Directors on April 5, 2019.
• Mr. Malpass previously served as Under Secretary of the Treasury for International Affairs for the United States.

Key Points

• World Bank was established in July 1944.
• The World Bank consists of two institutions:-
• International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD).
• International Development Association (IDA).
• The motto of the World Bank is working for a world free of poverty.
• The headquarters of the World Bank is in Washington D.C.
• The current President of the World Bank is Ajay Banga

         World Bank Logo

The correct answer is Fourth.

  

• The Fourth Schedule contains provisions as to the allocation of seats in the Council of States.

​

Key Points 

Schedules of the constitution:

• The First Schedule contains the list of states and union territories and their territories.
• The Second Schedule contains provisions of the President, Governors of States, Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the House of the People and the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Council of States and the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly and the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Legislative Council of a State, the Judges of the Supreme Court and of the High Courts and the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.
• The Third Schedule contains the Forms of Oaths or Affirmations.
• The Fourth Schedule contains provisions as to the allocation of seats in the Council of States.
• The Fifth Schedule contains provisions as to the Administration and Control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes.
• The Sixth Schedule contains provisions as to the Administration of Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
• The Seventh Schedule contains the Union list, State list, and the concurrent list.
• The Eighth Schedule contains the list of recognized languages.
• The Ninth Schedule contains provisions as to the validation of certain Acts and Regulations.
• The Tenth Schedule contains provisions as to disqualification on the ground of defection.
• The Eleventh Schedule contains the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Panchayats.
• The Twelfth Schedule contains the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Municipalities.

The correct answer is 66.

Key Points

• In the 2018 Commonwealth Games, India won a total of 66 medals.
• Gold - 26
• Silver - 20
• Bronze - 20
• Australia topped the medal table rank with 80 gold, second England with 45 gold, and third India with 26 gold.

Additional Information

• 2018 Commonwealth Games:
• The 2018 Commonwealth Games, officially known as the XXI Commonwealth Games and commonly known as Gold Coast 2018.
• It was held on the Gold Coast, Queensland, Australia, between 4 and 15 April 2018.
• It was India's 18th appearance at the Commonwealth Games. With 26 Gold medals and a total of 66 medals.
• India finished 3rd in the tournament.
• The first time a major multi-sport event achieved gender equality by having an equal number of events for male and female athletes.
• Shooter Heena Sidhu clinched the gold medal in the women's 25m pistol event at the 21st Commonwealth Games (CWG) in Australia.
• Indian sprinter Mohammad Anas qualified for the finals of the men’s 400m event.
• Shooter Shreyasi Singh clinched the gold medal in the women's double trap event.
• Shooter Jitu Rai won gold in the men's 10m air pistol event.
• India’s teen shooter Manu Bhaker grabbed the gold medal in the women’s 10m air pistol.
• Punam Yadav won India's fifth gold medal in the women's 69kg weightlifting event.
• The first Paralympic medal with Para powerlifter Sachin Chaudhary bagging bronze in the heavyweight category.
• The 15-year-old Indian shooter, Anish Bhanwala, has created history by becoming the country’s youngest ever gold medal winner in the Commonwealth Games.
• Indian wrestler Bajrang Punia has won gold in the men's freestyle 65 kg category.
• Neeraj Chopra became the first Indian javelin thrower to claim a gold medal at the Commonwealth Games.
• New Delhi hosted the Commonwealth Games in 2010.

The correct answer is Part XVIII.

Key Points

• Emergency Provisions are contained in Part Eighteen of the Constitution of India.
• The President of India has the power to impose emergency rule in any or all the Indian states if the security of part or all of India is threatened by "war or external aggression or armed rebellion".
• The Constitution stipulates three types of emergencies:
• National Emergency
• Constitutional Emergency
• Financial Emergency

Additional Information

• Article 352 says that the President can impose an emergency if he agrees that a grave security threat exists whereby the security of India, or of any part of her territory is threatened whether by war, external aggression, or armed rebellion, he/she can declare emergency rule in the whole of India or on any part of the Indian Territory.
• This is also called a ‘National Emergency’.
• It can apply to the entire country or part.
• It can be declared even before an actual occurrence if the president is satisfied with an imminent threat.
• The president can declare this only after the written recommendation of the entire cabinet.
• A proclamation can be subject to judicial review.​

The correct answer is Terracotta.

Key Points

• **Harappans created sculptures, seals, pottery, and jewelry from materials, such as terracotta, metal, and stone.**​
• The history of India begins with the birth of the Indus Valley Civilization (IVC), also known as the Harappan Civilization.
• It flourished around 2,500 BC, in the western part of South Asia, in contemporary Pakistan and Western India.
• Harappan civilization occupied about 8,00,000 sq. km.
• ​It is called Harappan because this civilization was first discovered in 1921 by Dayaram Sahni at the modern site of Harappa situated in the province of West Punjab in Pakistan.
• The Indus Valley was home to the largest of the four ancient urban civilizations of Egypt, Mesopotamia, India, and China.
• In the 1920s, the Archaeological Department of India carried out excavations in the Indus valley wherein the ruins of the two old cities, viz. Mohenjodaro and Harappa were unearthed.
• In 1924, John Marshall, Director-General of the ASI, announced the discovery of a new civilization in the Indus valley to the world.

​

Additional Information

• Phases of IVC(Indus Valley Civilization):
• Three phases of IVC are:
• the Early Harappan Phase from 3300 to 2600 BCE,
• the Mature Harappan Phase from 2600 to 1900 BCE, and
• the Late Harappan Phase from 1900 to 1300 BCE.
• The Early Harappan Phase is related to the Hakra Phase, identified in the Ghaggar-Hakra River Valley.
• The earliest examples of the Indus script date back to 3000 BC.
• This phase stands characterized by a centralized authority and increasingly urban quality of life.
• Trade networks had been established and there are also pieces of evidence of the cultivation of crops. Peas, sesame seeds, dates, cotton, etc, were grown during that time.
• Kot Diji represents the phase leading up to the Mature Harappan Phase.
• By 2600 BC, the Indus Valley Civilization had entered into a mature stage.
• The early Harappan communities were turned into large urban centers, like Harappa and Mohenjodaro in Pakistan and Lothal in India.

The correct answer is Provisions for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief.

Key Points

• Article 42 insists that the State should ensure just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief.
• Article 42 of the Constitution is a non-government organization operating in the sphere of protection of human rights facilitating the protection of civic and political rights and freedoms, as well as protection of other fundamental rights recognized by international law.
• Harmonization of state policy and national legislation with international standards.
• Improvement of public legal awareness through efficient legal proceedings, strengthening of target groups and participating in civic monitoring, surveys, analysis, and lawmaking initiatives.

Additional Information

• Article 21:
• The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for the establishment of Article 21 of the Indian Constitution, which declares that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.
• Article 21 is a fundamental right and is included in Part-III of the Indian Constitution.
• This right is available to all citizens as well as non-citizens alike.
• Supreme Court has described this right as the “heart of fundamental rights”.
• Article 21 secures two rights:
• The right to life and the Right to personal liberty.
• Article 21 cannot be suspended during an emergency.
• Article 12 to 35:
• The Constitution offers all citizens, individually and collectively, some basic freedoms.
• These are guaranteed in the Constitution in the form of six broad categories of Fundamental Rights, which are justiciable.
• Article 12 to 35 contained in Part III of the Constitution deal with Fundamental Rights.
• These are:
• Right to equality, including equality before the law, prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth, and equality of opportunity in matters of employment.
• Right to freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association or union, movement, residence, and right to practice any profession or occupation (some of these rights are subject to security of the State, friendly relations with foreign countries, public order, decency, or morality).
• Right against exploitation, prohibiting all forms of forced labor, child labor, and traffic in human beings.
• Right to freedom of conscience and free profession, practice, and propagation of religion.
• Right of any section of citizens to conserve their culture, language, or script, and right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice and
• Right to constitutional remedies for enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
• Article 44:
• Uniform Civil Code is a proposal in India to formulate and implement personal laws of citizens which apply to all citizens equally regardless of their religion. Currently, the personal laws of various communities are governed by their religious scriptures.
• They cover areas like- Marriage, divorce, maintenance, inheritance, adoption, and succession of the property. It is based on the premise that there is no connection between religion and law in modern civilization.
• The objective of Article 44 of the Directive Principles in the Indian Constitution was to address the discrimination against vulnerable groups and harmonize diverse cultural groups across the country.
• The code will simplify the complex laws around marriage ceremonies, inheritance, succession, adoptions making them one for all.

The correct answer is Hussamuddin Mohammed – Hockey.

Key Points

• Mohammad Hussamuddin is an Indian boxer.
• He won a bronze medal in the first India International Open boxing championship in New Delhi.
• He competes in the 56-kg category.
• Mohammad Hussamuddin won a Bronze at the 2018 Commonwealth Games held at Gold Coast in Queensland, Australia.

Additional Information

• Saina Nehwal is an Indian professional badminton player.
• A former world no. 1, she has won over 24 international titles, which includes eleven Superseries titles.
• Although she reached the world's 2nd in 2009, it was only in 2015 that she was able to attain the world no. 1 ranking, thereby becoming the only female player from India and overall the second Indian player after Prakash Padukone to achieve this feat.
• She has represented India three times in the Olympics, winning a bronze medal in her second appearance.
• Vikas Krishan Yadav is one of the boxing gems of India who hails from the Bhiwani district in Haryana, the hub of India's biggest boxing stars.
• He won a gold medal in the 2010 Asian Games in the Lightweight category and a gold medal in the 75kg weight category at the 2018 Commonwealth Games.
• He is the second Indian boxer after Olympian Vijender Singh to qualify Olympics for the third time.
• Sharath Kamal is a professional table tennis player from Tamil Nadu, India.
• He is the first Indian table tennis player ever to become nine times Senior National Champion hence breaking the record of eight times National Champion Kamlesh Mehta.
• In 2019, he was awarded the Padma Shri, India's fourth-highest civilian award.
• His ITTF world ranking is 32 as of May 2021.

The correct answer is Narendra Modi.

Key Points

• Russia has awarded Narendra Modi with the "Order of St Andrew the Apostle".
• Prime Minister Modi was conferred the highest order of the Russian Federation on April 12, 2019.
• He was honored with the order recognizing his efforts in strengthening the special and strategic partnership between the two countries.
• Bahrain Order of First Class, Zayed Medal (UAE), Philip Kotler Presidential Award (Georgia), Grand Collar of Palestine (Palestine), Seoul Peace Prize are the awards conferred on Mr. Narendra Modi by foreign states.

Additional Information

• "Order of St Andrew the Apostle":
• Order of St Andrew the Apostle was established in 1698 by Tsar Peter the Great in the honor of Saint Andrew.
• It is awarded to the prominent public figures of Russia and foreign heads of state.
• The order was abolished in 1918 and reinstated in 1998.
• Xi Jinping (China), Nursultan Nazarbayev (Kazakhstan), and Geydar Aliev (Azerbaijan) are the other recipients of this order.

The correct answer is Karnataka.

Key Points

• The Hoysala Empire was a Kannadiga power originating from the Indian subcontinent that ruled most of what is now Karnataka, India between the 10th and the 14th centuries.
• Hoysala Dynasty:
• Hoysala literature in the Kannada language began to proliferate under the patronage of Vishnuvardhana.
• The capital of the Hoysalas was initially located at Belur but was later moved to Halebidu.
• Vishnuvardhana took the first steps in creating an independent Hoysala Empire in South India through a series of battles against his overlord, the Western Chalukya King Vikramaditya VI, and the Chola Empire to the south.
• He recovered parts of Gangavadi province from the hegemony of the Cholas in the Battle of Talakad, and parts of Nolambavdi.
• Hoysala architecture and sculpture, especially ornate and intricate, are best seen at Halebid, Belur, and Somnathpur. The family liberally patronized Kannada and Sanskrit literary artists.

The correct answer is Anna Burns.

Key Points

• Milkman is the third novel written by the Irish author Anna Burns.
• It won the 2018 Man Booker Prize for Fiction, marking the first time a Northern Irish writer has been awarded the prize.
• The novel also won the 2018 National Book Critics Circle Award for fiction.
• Milkman is an experimental novel set during The Troubles military conflict in the 1970s, in which the narrator is an unnamed 18-year-old girl known as "middle sister" who was stalked by an older paramilitary figure, Milkman.
• Other than Milkman the other novels of Anna Burns are:  
• No Bones
• Little Constructions

Additional Information

• Arundhati Roy:
• Arundhati Roy is an Indian author
• Her novel The God of Small Things won the Man Booker Prize for Fiction in 1997 and became the best-selling book by a non-expatriate Indian author.
• Kiran Desai:
• Kiran Desai is an Indian author. Her novel The Inheritance of Loss won the 2006 Man Booker Prize and the National Book Critics Circle Fiction Award.
• Hilary Mantel:
• Hilary Mantel is an English writer whose work includes historical fiction, personal memoirs, and short stories.
• The other books written by her are The mirror and the light, Bring up the bodies, etc.

The correct answer is Mahatma Gandhi.

Key Points

• The slogan 'do or die' is associated with Mahatma Gandhi.
• This slogan came into existence during the Quit India Movement initiated by Gandhiji.
• The slogan was officially launched by the Indian National Congress (INC) led by Mahatma Gandhi on 9 August 1942.
• The movement gave the slogans 'Quit India' or 'Bharat Chodo'.

Additional Information 

• Bal Gangadhar Tilak was born on 23rd July 1856 in Ratnagiri, Maharashtra.
• Freedom fighter and lawyer, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, is also known as Lokmanya Tilak.
• Slogan: “Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it!”
• Bhagat Singh was an Indian socialist revolutionary whose two acts of dramatic violence against the British in India and execution at age 23 made him a folk hero of the Indian independence movement.
• Bhagat Singh coined the powerful slogan 'Inquilab Zindabad' which became the slogan of India's armed struggle.
• ​Subhas Chandra Bose was an Indian nationalist whose defiant patriotism made him a hero in India, but whose attempts during World War II to rid India of British rule with the help of Nazi Germany and Imperial Japan left a troubled legacy.
• “Give me blood and I will give you freedom!” One of Bose's most quoted lines is from a speech that Bose delivered to the soldiers of the Indian National Army that he commanded along with Mohan Singh.

The correct answer is Annie Beasant.

Key Points

• Annie Besant launched the Home Rule League in September 1916 at Madras.
• They had the common objective of achieving self-government in India.
• She wanted to bring all sections of the Indians into one fold.
• There was an informal understanding between both the leagues wherein Tilak's league worked in Maharashtra (except Bombay), Karnataka, Berar, and the Central Provinces.
• Tilak’s league had its headquarters in Pune.
• It had 6 branches. Besant’s league had 200 branches and was a looser organization compared to Tilak’s.
• The two leagues worked closely with one another.
• However, they did not merge to avoid friction between both leaders.

Additional Information

• Annie Basant's contribution to the Indian Freedom Movement:
• Women's Education and Empowerment:
• She was a tireless worker for the upliftment of women and repeatedly pleaded for radical changes in social status.
• She fought for the freedom of thought, women's rights, secularism, birth control, workers' rights.
• In this way, a large number of women were inspired to realize their self-esteem and participated in the freedom movement.
• Central Hindu University:
• He established a new school for boys in Varanasi which later came to be known as Banaras Hindu University.
• The aim of the school was to build a new leadership for India.
• Indian Scout Movement:
• It was discovered by Besant in 1918 by boys wearing Indian turbans.
• This movement also helped in building the self-confidence and personality of the youth.
• Theosophical society:
• She became the second president of the Theosophical Society.
• It played an important political role.
• Theosophy became an integral part of the wider.

The correct answer is Buddhist.

Key Points

• ‘Harmika’, a balcony-like structure that represented the abode of God was part of Buddhist architecture.
• The Harmika is inspired by a square railing or fence that surrounded the mound of dirt, marking it as a sacred burial site.
• The Great Stupa at Sanchi, in central India, is one of the earliest stupas, it served as an architectural prototype for all others that followed.
• The world-famous stupa first constructed by the 3rd-century-BCE Mauryan ruler Ashoka in brick (the same material as those of Sri Lanka) was later expanded to twice its original size in stone.

Additional Information

• The Sanchi Stupa was built in the second century BCE and was discovered in 1888.
• It is one of the most important stupas in India. Its structural features are explained below:
• The stupa (a Sanskrit word meaning a heap) originated as a simple semi-circular mound of earth, later called the anda.
• Above the anda, was a harmika which was a balcony-like structure that represented the Abode of the Gods.
• Arising from the harmika, was a mast called yashti.
• It was surrounded by an umbrella.
• Around the mound, there was a railing that separated the sacred space from the outer world.
• There were stone railings and the gateways which had richly card and installed at the four cardinal points.
• The elevation of it provided a vertical perspective.

The correct answer is Amitabh Bachchan.

Key Points

• The country’s highest film honor, the Dadasaheb Phalke award, conferred for “outstanding contribution for the growth and development of Indian cinema” was presented to Amitabh Bachchan in 2018.
• Amitabh Bachchan was given the Dada Saheb Phalke award for the year 2018 for his contribution to the Indian film industry.​
• The Dadasaheb Phalke Award is India's highest award in cinema.
• It is presented annually at the ceremony by the Directorate of Film Festivals, an organization set up by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
• The recipient is honored for their "outstanding contribution to the growth and development of Indian cinema".
• The first recipient of the award was actor Abhishek Sakkarwal, who was honored at the 17th National Film Awards.
• As of 2018, there have been 50 awardees.
• Prithviraj Kapoor (1971) and actor Vinod Khanna (2017) are the only posthumous recipients.

The correct answer is England.

Key Points

• Birmingham City, England has been chosen to host the 2022 Commonwealth Games.
• The 2022 Commonwealth Games, officially known as the XXII Commonwealth Games and commonly known as Birmingham 2022.
• It is an international multi-sport event for members of the Commonwealth that is scheduled to be held in Birmingham, England.
• This is to be the third time England has hosted the Games after London in 1934 and Manchester in 2002.
• The Games are expected to take place between 28 July and 8 August 2022.
• The city was announced as the host by the Commonwealth Games Federation (GCF) at a press conference at the Arena Academy in Birmingham on 21 December 2017.

Additional Information

• Her Majesty Queen Elizabeth II is Head of the Commonwealth.
• The headquarters of GCF is located in London, England.
• 2026 Commonwealth Games:
• The 2026 Commonwealth Games, officially known as the XXIII Commonwealth Games.
• It is a multi-sport event for members of the Commonwealth to be organized in a city designated by the Commonwealth Games Federation.
• The host city was initially intended to be selected at the 2019 GCF General Assembly in Kigali, Rwanda.
• 2018 Commonwealth Games:
• The 2018 Commonwealth Games, officially known as the XXI Commonwealth Games and commonly known as Gold Coast 2018.
• It was held on the Gold Coast, Queensland, Australia, between 4 and 15 April 2018.
• It was India's 18th appearance at the Commonwealth Games. With 26 Gold medals and a total of 66 medals.
• India finished 3rd in the event.
• The first time a major multi-sport event achieved gender equality by having an equal number of events for male and female athletes.

The correct answer is 74th Amendment Act, 1992.

Key Points

• Through 74th Amendment Act, 1992 municipalities were introduced in India.​
• The 74th constitutional amendment act mandated the setting up and devolution of powers to Urban local bodies (ULBs) or city governments as the lowest unit of governance in cities and towns.
• Urban local bodies are known as municipal corporations**, municipal councils, and Nagar panchayat based on population**.
• The Nagar Panchayat is for traditional areas, the municipal council or municipalities are for smaller urban areas and municipal corporations are for larger urban areas.
• It is constituted for a time period of 5 years.
• 1/3rd seats are reserved for women.
• These bodies have been given the power to legislate and implement schemes for economic development and social justice.
• The legislature of a state can assign specific taxes, duties, tolls, etc. for the functioning of urban local bodies.

Additional Information

• Some of the voluntary provisions which are not binding, but are expected to be observed by the States are:
• Giving representation to members of the Union and State Legislatures in these bodies;
• Providing reservation for backward classes;
• Giving financial powers in relation to taxes, duties, tolls, and fees, etc;
• Making the municipal bodies autonomous and devolution of powers to these bodies to perform some or all of the functions enumerated in the Twelfth Schedule added to the Constitution through this Act and/or to prepare plans for economic development.

The correct answer is I, II, and III.

Key Points

• The movement of organisms in large numbers from one place to another place is termed migration.
• The push and pull factors operate together for a person to migrate.
• The push factors make the place of origin less attractive and compel a person to migrate because of unemployment, poverty, violence, political strife, etc.
• The pull factors make the place of destination seem more attractive such as better living conditions, educational and cultural development, regular work, high wages, etc.
• Adults are more likely to migrate than any other age group.
• Rural to urban migration is far the major portion of migration. It is because of growing urbanization.
• The migration affects the overall population of the region.
• Migration can be of various types:
• Temporary
• Permanent
• Voluntary
• Permanent
• Main factors affecting migration in India:
• Work/Employment
• Business
• Education
• Marriage
• Poverty
• Health care

Given:

Statement I. (3/11) > 0.3

Statement II. (7/8) > 0.86

Calculation:

From statement I we take L.H.S

3/11 = 0. 27

Since, 0.27 < 0.3

⇒ 3/11 < 0.3 

⇒ statement I is incorrect

From statement II we take L.H.S

7/8 = 0.87

Since, 0.87 > 0.86

⇒ 7/8 > 0.86

⇒ statement II is correct

∴ Only II statement is correct (option 3)

Given:

(X = \dfrac{1}{3}+\dfrac{1}{15}+\dfrac{1}{35}+\dfrac{1}{63}:and:Y:=\dfrac{1}{2}+\dfrac{1}{6}+\dfrac{1}{12}+\dfrac{1}{20})

Calculation:

We need to find (Y - X)

 ⇒ ((\dfrac{1}{2}+\dfrac{1}{6}+\dfrac{1}{12}+\dfrac{1}{20})-(\dfrac{1}{3}+\dfrac{1}{15}+\dfrac{1}{35}+\dfrac{1}{63}))

⇒ ((\frac{1}{6}-\frac{1}{3}) + (\frac{1}{20}-\frac{1}{15}) + (\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{12})-(\frac{1}{35}+\frac{1}{63}) )

⇒ (-\frac{1}{6}-\frac{1}{60}+\frac{7}{12}-\frac{2}{45})

⇒ (-\frac{11}{60}+\frac{7}{12}-\frac{2}{45})

⇒ (\frac{6}{15}-\frac{2}{45})

⇒ (\frac{16}{45})

∴ The value of (Y - X) is 16/45.

Given:

The number is J 

First increased by 40% and then decreased by 30% 

Formula used:

Net change = [a + b + (ab/100)]%

Where a and b are the rate of change 

Calculation:

According to the question,

a = 40% and b = -30%

⇒ Net change = [40% - 30% - {(40 × 30)/100]

⇒ Net change = -2% 

⇒ Finally the value of J decreased by 2%

⇒ Final value of J = (100 - 2)% of J

⇒ Final value of J = 98% of J

∴ The final value of J is 98% of initial value of J

Given:

(4.7 + 2.1)2 - (4.7 - 2.1)2

Formula Used:

(a + b)² - (a - b)² = 4ab

Calculation:

Let a = 4.7

& b = 2.1

Now, we know,

(a + b)2 - (a - b)2 = 4ab

⇒ (4.7 + 2.1)2 - (4.7 - 2.1)² = 4 × 4.7 × 2.1 

⇒ 4 × 9.87

⇒ 39.48

∴ The value of (4.7 + 2.1)2 - (4.7 - 2.1)2 is 39.48.

Given:

B1 = 75% of B2

Calculation:

According to the question,

B1 = 75% of B2

⇒ B1 = (75/100) × B2

⇒ B2 = (100/75) × B1

⇒ B2 = (4/3) × B1 

⇒ B2 = 1.3333 × B1

⇒ B2 = (133.33/100) × B1

⇒ B2 = 133.33% of B1

∴ B2 is 133.33% percent of B1.

Given:

Numbers are 32, 33, 34, ................,333

Concept used:

When a and b are factors of a number then the LCM of a and b will also be a factor of that number.

Formula used:

Number of terms = [(b - a)/d] + 1

Where, b = Last Term, a = First Term, d = Common Difference

Calculation:

LCM of 3 and 4 = 12

Factors of 12 from 32 to 333 = 36, 48, 60,................,324.

Total number of factors of 12 = [(324 - 36)/12] + 1

⇒ Total number of factors of 12 = (288/12) + 1

⇒ Total number of factors of 12 = 25

Now,

LCM of 12 and 5 = 60

Factors of 60 from 32 to 333 = 60, 120, 180, 240, 300

⇒ Factors of 60 from 32 to 333 = 5

Required number of factors = 25 - 5

⇒ Required number of factors = 20

∴ Total numbers from 32 to 333 which are divisible by 3 and 4 but not by 5 are 20.

Given:

(\dfrac{(5.17-2.19)^2-(5.17+2.19)^2}{11.3223})

Formula used:

(a - b)² - (a + b)² = -4ab

Calculation:

(\dfrac{(5.17-2.19)^2-(5.17+2.19)^2}{11.3223})

⇒ [(-4) × 5.17 × 2.19]/11.3233

⇒ (-4 × 11.3233)/(11.3233)

⇒ -4

∴ The value of (\dfrac{(5.17-2.19)^2-(5.17+2.19)^2}{11.3223}) is -4.

Given:

(\dfrac{\sqrt81+\sqrt[3]{0.027}+\sqrt[4]{0.0081}}{\sqrt9+\sqrt[3]{0.729}+\sqrt[4]{0.6561}})

Calculation:

(\dfrac{\sqrt81+\sqrt[3]{0.027}+\sqrt[4]{0.0081}}{\sqrt9+\sqrt[3]{0.729}+\sqrt[4]{0.6561}})

⇒ (\dfrac{9+{0.3}+{0.3}}{3+{0.9}+{0.9}})

⇒ (\dfrac{9.6}{4.8})

⇒ 2

∴ The value of (\dfrac{9+{0.3}+{0.3}}{3+{0.9}+{0.9}}) is 2.

Given:

A = (3.1)2 - (2.2)2 

B = (2.2)2 - (3.1)2

Calculation:

A - B = [(3.1)2 - (2.2)2] - [(2.2)2 - (3.1)²]

⇒ (3.1)2 - (2.2)2 - (2.2)2 + (3.1)2

⇒ 2 × (3.1)2 - 2 × (2.2)2 

⇒ 2 × [(3.1)2 - (2.2)2]

⇒ 2 × [9.61 - 4.84]

⇒ 2 × 4.77

⇒ 9.54

∴ The value of A - B is 9.54.

Given:

M1 = M2 + 30% of M2

M2 = M3 + 50% of M3

M3 = M3 - 40% of M₄ 

Concept used:

30% = 3/10

50% = 1/2

40% = 2/5

Calculation:

Let M₁ be x% of M₄.

M1 = M2 + (3/10) of M₂

⇒ M1 = (13/10)M2

⇒ M1/M2 = 13/10

M2 = M3 + (1/2) of M₃

⇒ M2 = (3/2)M3 

⇒ M2/M3 = 3/2

M3 = M4 - (2/5) of M4 

⇒ M3 = (3/5)M4 

⇒ M3/M4 = 3/5

Step 1:

<br>

Step 2:

 

M1 : M2 : M3 : M4 = (13 × 3 × 3) : (10 × 3 × 3) : (10 × 2 × 3) : (10 × 2 × 5)

⇒ 117 : 90 : 60 : 100

Required percentage = (M₁/M₄) × 100%

⇒ (117/100) × 100%

⇒ 117%

∴ M1 is 117% percentage of M4.

Given:

The expression is (\dfrac{(0.73)^3+(0.31)^3}{(0.73)^2-0.73\times0.31+(0.31)^2})

Formula Used:

(a³ + b³) = (a + b)(a² - ab + b²)

Calculation:

According to the question, we have

The given expression is

(\dfrac{(0.73)^3+(0.31)^3}{(0.73)^2-0.73\times0.31+(0.31)^2})        ----(1)

In the formula used

(a3 + b3) = (a + b)(a2 - ab + b2)

⇒ (a3 + b3)/(a2 - ab + b2) = (a + b)        ----(2)

Now, comparison between equation (1) and equation (2)

a = 0.73

b = 0.31

⇒ (a + b) = (0.73 + 0.31)

⇒ (a + b) = 1.04

∴ The value of given expression is 1.04.

Given:

Loss = 35%

If Anil sold the pen at Rs. 240 more he would Loss 20%

Formula Used:

S.P = C.P × {(100 - L%)/100}

S.P = C.P × {(100 + P%)/100}

S.P = Selling Price, C.P = Cost Price

L = Loss, P = Profit

Calculation:

Let the C.P of the pen be 100x

According to the question, we have

S.P = 100x × (100 - 35/100)

⇒ S.P = 65x

Now, he sold Rs. 240 more, then 20% loss

100x × (100 - 20/100) = 65x + 240

⇒ 80x = 65x + 240

⇒ 80x - 65x = 240

⇒ 15x = 240

⇒ x = 16

C.P = 100 × 16

⇒ 1600

Now, he gains 40%

S.P = 1600 × (100  + 40)/100

⇒ 1600 × (140/100)

⇒ 2240

∴ The selling price of the pen is Rs. 2240.

Formula Used:

The sum of first n natural numbers = {n × (n + 1)}/2

where, n = number of natural numbers

Average = The sum of the observations/The number of the observations

Calculation:

According to the question, we have

The sum of the first 19 natural numbers = {19 × (19 + 1)}/2

⇒ 19 × 10

⇒ 190

Average of the first 19 natural numbers = 190/19

⇒ 10

The first 6 positive odd numbers are 1, 3, 5, 7, 9 and 11

The sum of first 6 positive odd numbers = 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 9 + 11

⇒ 36

The average of the first 6 positive odd numbers = 36/6

⇒ 6

Now,

The sum of the average = 10 + 6

⇒ 16

∴ The sum of the average of first 19 natural numbers and the average of first 6 positive odd numbers is 16.

Given:

(A=\dfrac{1}{30}+\dfrac{1}{20}+\dfrac{1}{42}:)

(Y=\dfrac{1}{56}+\dfrac{1}{72}+\dfrac{1}{90})

Calculation:

A = (1/30) + (1/20) + (1/42)

⇒ A = (14 + 21 + 10)/420

⇒ A = 45/420 = 3/28

B = (1/56) + (1/72) + (1/90)

⇒ B = (45 + 35 + 28)/2520

⇒ B = 108/2520 = 3/70

Now, 

A + B = (3/28) + (3/70)

⇒ A + B = 21/140

∴ The value of A + B is 21/140.

Given:

C.P/M.P = 5/6

Discount = 30%

Formula used:

Discount = [(D%)/100] × M.P

S.P = M.P - Discount

Loss = C.P - S.P

Calculation:

Let C.P and M.P be 500 and 600

Discount = 30%

Discount = [(D%)/100] × M.P

Discount = (30/100) × 600

⇒ Discount = 180

So, S.P = M.P - Discount

S.P = 600 - 180

⇒ S.P = 420

Loss = C.P - S.P

Loss = 500 - 420 = 80

Loss% = (80/500) × 100 = 16%

∴ The profit percentage is 16%.

Given:

MP : SP = 5 : 2

Where, MP = Marked Price, SP = Selling Price

Formula used:

Discount% = {(MP - SP)/MP} × 100

Calculation:

Let MP and SP be 5x and 2x

According to the formula used,

Discount% = {(MP - SP)/MP} × 100

⇒ Discount% = {(5x - 2x)/5x} × 100

⇒ Discount% = (3x/5x) × 100 = 60

∴ The discount percentage is 60%

Given:

Selling Price = Rs. 960

Profit earned = 50%

Formula used:

S.P = {(100 + Profit%)/100} × C.P

Where, S.P = Selling Price, C.P = Cost Price

Calculation:

According to the formula used,

S.P = {(100 + Profit%)/100} × C.P

⇒ 960 = {(100 + 50)/100} × C.P

⇒ 960 × (2/3) = C.P

⇒ C.P = 640

According to the question,

The new profit percentage is 30%

S.P = {(100 + Profit%)/100} × C.P

⇒ S.P = {(100 + Profit%)/100} × C.P

⇒ S.P = {(100 + 30)/100} × 640 = 832

∴ The new selling price of the article is Rs. 832

Given:

The ratio of age of A and B is 3 : 4

The Sum of their ages is 56

Calculation:

Let the ages of A and B is 3x and 4x

According to the given question,

⇒ 3x + 4x = 56

⇒ 7x = 56

⇒ x = 56/7

⇒ x = 8

The age of B = 4x = 4 × 8

⇒ 32

∴ The age of B is 32 years.

Given:

Selling price = Rs. 960

Profit = Rs. 160

Formula used:

Profit % = (P/C.P.) × 100

Profit = S.P. - C.P.

Where, Cost price = C.P, Selling price = S.P, Profit = P

Calculation:

Profit = S.P. - C.P.

⇒ 160 = 960 - C.P.

⇒ C.P. = Rs. 800      ----(1)

Profit % = (P/C.P.) × 100

⇒ P % = (160/800) × 100

⇒ P % = 20

∴ The total profit is 20%.

Given:

A = (5\frac{1}{2} + 7\frac{3}{4} - 2\frac{1}{4})

B = (11\frac{1}{4} - 3\frac{1}{2} - 5\frac{3}{4})

Calculation:

A = (5\frac{1}{2} + 7\frac{3}{4} - 2\frac{1}{4})

⇒ A = (11/2) + (31/4) - (9/4)

⇒ A = {(22 + 31 - 9)/4}

⇒ A = 44/4

⇒ A = 11      ----(1)

B = (11\frac{1}{4} - 3\frac{1}{2} - 5\frac{3}{4})

⇒ B = (45/4) - (7/2) - (23/4)

⇒ B = {(45 - 14 - 23)/4}

⇒ B = (8/4)

⇒ B = 2      ----(2)

Now, 

⇒ A² + B² 

From equation (1) and equation (2)

⇒ (11)² + (2)²

⇒ 125

∴ The value of A² + B² is 125.

Given:

Principal = Rs. 6000 

Amount = Rs. 8340 

Rate = 13% 

Time = K

Formula used:

S.I = PRT/100

Where P → principal, R → rate, T → time 

Simple interest = Amount - Principal

Calculation:

According to the question,

Simple interest = 8340 - 6000 = 2340 

By using formula, we get 

Simple interest = (6000 × 13 × K)100

⇒ 2340 = 780 × K 

⇒ 3 = K 

∴ The value of K is 3 years.

Given:

Total number of movies = 200

W4 = 20% of total movies 

W1 = 12% of total movies

Calculation:

According to the question,

100% → 200 movies

⇒ 1% → 2 movies 

Number of movies released in W4 = 20%

⇒ 20 × 2 = 40

Number of movies released in W1 = 12%

⇒ 12 × 2 = 24

Required difference = 40 - 24

⇒ 16

∴ In week 'W4' 16 more movies released as compared to 'W1'.

Given:

Total distance =  250 km

Total time = 30 h

Car covered 1/5 part of the journey in 1/6 time.

Formula Used:

Speed = Distance/Time

Calculation:

According to the question,

Distance travelled by car = (1/5) × 250

⇒ 50 km

Time taken to travel this distance = (1/6) × 30

⇒ 5 hours

So, Remaining distance to be travelled by car = 250 - 50

⇒ 200 km

&, Remaining time to travel this distance = 30 - 5

⇒ 25 hours

Now, Speed of the car for the remaining journey = (Remaining distance)/(Remaining time)

⇒ 200/25

⇒ 8 km/hr

∴ The speed of the car to cover the remaining journey on time is 8 km/hr.

Given:

Two cubes combined to form a single cuboid

Edge of cube = 24 cm

Formula used:

Volume of a cuboid = L × B × H,

where,

L = Length, B = Breadth, H = Height of the cuboid

Calculation:

According to the question,

Two cubes each of edge 24 cm are combined to form a single cuboid.

Observe the following diagram for better understanding.

So, After combining the cubes,

Length of the cuboid = 24 + 24 

⇒ 48 cm

Breadth of the cuboid = 24 cm

& Height of the cuboid = 24 cm

So, Volume of the cuboid = L × B × H

⇒ 48 × 24 × 24 

⇒ 27648 cm³

∴ The volume of the new cuboid is 27648 cm3.

Given:

Rotis made on D5 = 1296

Rotis made on D1 = 1024

Calculation:

According to the question,

Required percentage = [(Rotis made on D5 - Rotis made on D1)/(Rotis made on D1)] × 100%

⇒ [(1296 - 1024)/1024] × 100%

⇒ (272/1024) × 100%

⇒ (17/64) × 100%

⇒ 26.56%

∴ The rotis made on D5 is 26.56% percent more than the rotis made on D1.

Given:

Amount in 3 years = Rs. 39930

Amount in 2 years = Rs. 36300

Formula used:

A = P(1 + r/100)ⁿ

Where, A = Amount, r = Rate of interest, n = Time in year

Calculation:

According to the question,

39930 = P(1 + r/100)³      ----(1)

36300 = P(1 + r/100)²      ----(2)

Dividing equation (1) by equation (2), we get

(39930/36300) = [(1 + r/100)³/(1 + r/100)²]

⇒ 11/10 = 1 + r/100

⇒ r/100 = 1/10

⇒ r = 10%

From equation (2),

36300 = P[1 + (10/100)]²

⇒ 36300 = P(11/10)²

⇒ P = 36300 × (100/121)

⇒ P = 30000

∴ The sum is Rs. 30000.

Shortcut Trick

Percentage increase = 36300 - 39930 = 3630

⇒ (3630 / 36300) × 100 = 10%

let the principal be x

⇒ x + (10/100)² × x = 36300

⇒ 1.21x = 36300

⇒ x = 36300 / 1.21 = Rs.30000

 ∴ The sum is Rs. 30000.

Given:

A completes the work = 8 days

B completes the work = 12  days

C completes the work = 16 days

Total wages = Rs. 12000

Concept used:

The total work will be LCM of individual time taken by A and B and C. 

Efficiency α Share

Calculation:

Total work = LCM of (8, 12, 16)

⇒ Total work = 48

Efficiency of A = 48/8 = 6

Efficiency of B = 48/12 = 4

Efficiency of C = 48/16 = 3

⇒ The total efficiency of A , B and C = 13

Total efficiency of A, B, C and D = (48/3) = 16

Efficiency of D = 16 - 13

⇒ The efficiency of D = 3

The share will be distributed in the ratio of 6 ∶ 4 ∶ 3 ∶ 3.

Let the share of A, B, C and D be 6x, 4x, 3x and 3x

According to the question, 

Total share = Rs. 12000

⇒ 6x + 4x + 3x + 3x = 12000

⇒ x = 12000/16

⇒ x = 750

Share of D = 3 × 750

⇒ Share of D = Rs. 2250.

∴ The share of D is Rs. 2250.

Given:

The number of questions in set 1 = 54

The number of questions in set 4 = 62

Calculation:

Let the number of questions in set 1 be x less than the number of questions in set 4.

According to the question, 

x = 62 - 54

⇒ 8

Now, Required percentage = (8/62) × 100%

⇒ (400/31)%

⇒ 12.903%

∴ The number of questions in set 1 is approximately 12.9% less than the number of questions in set 4.

Given:

Number of days taken by 100 men to make 60 chairs working 2 hours a day = 4 days

Chairs to be made in 10 days working 4 hours a day = 120

Formula used:

(M1 × D1 × H1)/W1 = (M2 × D2 × H2)/W2

Where, M1, M2 = Number of men D1, D2 = Number of days, H1, H2 = Number of hours, W1, W2 = Work Done

We will use only the terms that are given in the question

Calculation:

According to the question,

M1 = 100, D1 = 4 days, H1 = 2 hours and W1 = 60 chairs

D2 = 10 days, H2 = 4 hours and W2 = 120 chairs

(M1 × D1 × H1)/W1 = (M2 × D2 × H2)/W2         

⇒ (100 × 4 × 2)/60 = (M2 × 10 × 4)/120

⇒ 100 × 8 × 120 = M2 × 40 × 60

⇒ M2 = 40

∴ 40 men are required to make 120 chairs in 10 days working 4 hours a day.

Given:

The length of the cuboid = 12 cm

The breadth of the cuboid = 9 cm

The height of the cuboid = 8 cm

Formula used:

D = √(l² + b² + h²)

where, D = The longest diagonal of a cuboid, l = The length of a cuboid

b = The breadth of a cuboid, h = The height of a cuboid

Calculation:

According to the question, 

D = √(122 + 92 + 82)

⇒ √(144 + 81 + 64)

⇒ √289

⇒ 17 cm

∴ The longest diagonal of the cuboid is 17 cm.

Given:

Total principal = Rs. 20,000

Rate = 8% and 15%

Time = 3 years

S.I = Rs. 6480

Formula Used:

S.I = PRT/100

Where,

S.I = Simple interest, P = Principal,

R = Rate of interest, T = Time duration

Calculation:

Let the principal at the rate of 8% and 15% be x and (20000 - x) respectively

According to the question, we have

(x × 8 × 3)/100 + {(20000 - x) × 15 × 3}/100 = 6480

⇒ 24x + 900000 - 45x = 648000

⇒ 45x - 24x = 900000 - 648000

⇒ 21x = 252000

⇒ x = 12000

and,

(20000 - x) = (20000 - 12000)

⇒ 8000

∴ The value of the first and second part is Rs. 12000 and Rs. 8000.

Alternate Method

Total interest = Rs. 6480

Total interest rate = (6480/20000) × 100 = 32.4

Interest per annum = 32.4/3 = 10.8%

 

Part invested at 8% interest = [3/(3 + 2)] × 20,000 = 12,000

Part invested at 15% = 20,000 - 12,000 = 8,000

∴ The value of the first and second part is Rs. 12000 and Rs. 8000.

Given:

The ratio of salaries of P, Q and R = 3 ∶ 5 ∶ 8

The salaries increment in P, Q and R = 20%, 20% and 5%

Calculation:

According to the question, we have

P ∶ Q ∶ R = 3 ∶ 5 ∶ 8

⇒ Let P ∶ Q ∶ R be 300 ∶ 500 ∶ 800

Now, the salaries increased by 20%, 20% and 5%

P ∶ Q ∶ R = 300(120/100) ∶ 500(120/100) ∶ 800(105/100)

⇒ P ∶ Q ∶ R = 360 ∶ 600 ∶ 840

⇒ P ∶ Q ∶ R = 3 ∶ 5 ∶ 7

∴ The ratio of increased salaries of P, Q and R are 3 ∶ 5 ∶ 7.

Given:

C7 female employees = 108

C5 female employees = 92

Calculation:

No. of female employees more than in C7 to C5 = 108 - 92 = 16

Required percentage = (16/92) × 100 = 17.39

∴ Required percentage is 17.39%.

Given:

(The efficiency of Vikram)/(The efficiency of Kushal) = 300/100 = 3/1

Number of hours required to complete a piece of work by Vikram = 100 hours

Formula used:

Total work = (Efficiency) × (Number of days required to complete the work)

Calculation:

Sum of efficiency of Vikram and Kushal = 4

The efficiency of Vikram = 3

Total work = 3 × 100 = 300

Number of hours to complete the whole work done by Vikram and Kushal = 300/4

⇒ 75 hours

∴ 75 hours to complete the whole work done by Vikram and Kushal.

Given:

Percentage of T1 = 12%

Percentage of T3 = 28%

Formula Used:

Central angle of sector = (Given % of sector/100) × 360° 

Calculation:

Difference between sector T1 and T3 = 28% - 12% = 16%

100% = 360°

⇒ 1% = 360°/100

⇒ 16% = (360°/100) × 16 

⇒ 57.6°

∴ The difference between central angle of sector T1 and T3 is 57.6°.

Given:

Speed of a boat in still water = 18 km/hr

Speed of stream = 4 km/hr

Distance = 44 km

Formula used:

Speed of downstream = (u + v)

Time = Distance/Speed

Where u = The speed of a boat still water,

v = The speed of the stream 

Calculation:

Speed of downstream = (u + v)

⇒ Speed of downstream = (18 + 4) = 22 km/hr

Time taken to travel 44 km downstream = Distance/Speed

⇒ 44/22

⇒ 2 hours

∴ Time taken to travel 44 km downstream is 2 hours.

Formula used:

Average = Sum of the marks/Numbers of Subject

Calculation:

Average marks = Sum of the marks/Numbers of Subject

⇒ Average marks = (80 + 90 + 70 + 84 + 86 + 92 + 88 + 81 + 99 + 97)/10

⇒ Average marks = 867/10 = 86.7

∴ The average marks obtained by students per subject is 86.7

Given:

Area of the passage = 128 m²

Width of passage = 4 m

Formula used:

Area of square = a²

Where, a = Side of the square

Calculation:

Area of the Room = a²      ----(1)

Area of the room with passage = (a + 8)²      ----(2)

Area of the passage = Area of the room with passage - Area of the room 

⇒ 128 = (a + 8)² - a²

⇒ 128 = (a + 8 + a ) × (a + 8 - a)

⇒ 128 = (2a + 8) × 8

⇒ 16 = 2a + 8

⇒ a = 4

From equation (1)

Area of the room = a²

⇒ (4)²

⇒ 16 m²

∴ The area of the square is 16 m².

Given:

Total amount = Rs. 420

Available coins are 5 rupees, 2 rupees, and 1 rupee.

The ratio of the coins = 2 ∶ 3 ∶ 5

Calculation:

Let the ratio of 5 rupees, 2 rupees and 1 rupee coins be 2x, 3x and 5x respectively.

⇒ The total coins = 2x + 3x + 5x

⇒ The total coins = 10x      ----(1)

Then the amount of 5 rupees, 2 rupees, and 1 rupee coins be 10x, 6x, and 5x respectively.

⇒ The total amount = 10x + 6x + 5x

⇒ The total amount = 21x

According to the question,

⇒ 21x = Rs. 420

⇒ x = Rs. 20

From equation (1)

The total coins = 10x

⇒ The total coins = 200

∴ The total number of coins in the bag is 200.

Given:

Speed of bus = 81 km/h

Distance = 9/2 km

Formula used:

S = D/T

Where, S = Speed, D = Distance, T = Time

Calculation:

S = D/T

⇒ 81 = (9/2)/(T)

⇒ T = (1/18) hour

⇒ T = (3600/18) second

⇒ T = 200 sec

∴ The bus will take 200 seconds to cover the distance.

Additional Information

 1 hour = 3600 seconds

The correct answer is '3' i.e. this part of the sentence has an error.

<br>

Key Points

• In the given sentence, the use of the pronoun ''ours'' is incorrect.
• The pronoun 'ours' means the one or ones belonging to us. (वह जो हमारा है, हमारे वाला)
• The given sentence is talking about the speaker telling some boys to do their duty.
• Therefore, the pronoun 'their' should be used in place of the pronoun 'ours'.
• The pronoun 'their' means belonging to or associated with the people or things previously mentioned or easily identified or of or belonging to them. (उनका, उनसे संबंधित या उनके स्‍वामित्‍व वाला)
  

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Correct sentence: I told the boys that they should do their duty.

The correct answer is 'such.'

Key Points

• Let us explore the given options:
• 'Such' is used for referring to somebody or something that you mentioned earlier of this or that type. (पूर्व निर्दिष्ट व्‍यक्ति या वस्‍तु का संकेत करने के लिए प्रयुक्त ऐसा, वैसा, इस या उस प्रकार का)
• 'Each' means every individual person or thing. (प्रत्‍येक व्‍यक्ति या वस्‍तु)
• 'All' is used to refer to the whole quantity or extent of a particular group or thing. (समस्‍त, समूचा, सारा)
• 'Every' means all of the people or things in a group of three or more. (तीन या अधिक व्‍यक्तियों या वस्‍तुओं के समूह में सभी; प्रत्‍येक)
  

Conclusion: The speaker hates some kind of thing.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Complete Sentence: I hate such things.

The correct answer is '3' i.e. this part of the sentence has an error.

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Key Points

• In the given sentence, the use of the present plural form of the verb 'are' is incorrect.
• The auxiliary verb ''did'' in the sentence is marked for past tense.
• The given sentence is in the simple past tense as the simple past tense indicates an action that is completed at a definite time in the past.
• Therefore, the past plural form of the verb 'were' should be used in place of the present plural form of the verb ''are'.
  

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Correct sentence: She did not tell me what her plans were.

Mistake Points

• The negative form of the simple past tense is formed as Subject (She) + did not + V1  (tell) + object.
• 'Did' is an auxiliary verb that is followed by the main verb. The auxiliary verb (did) is marked for past tense, but the main verb is not. It appears in its base form.

The correct answer is 'any.'

Key Points

• Let us explore the given options:
• 'Several' means more than two but not very many; a few. (दो से कुछ अधिक, बहुत अधिक नहीं, अनेक; कुछ)
• 'Must' is used for saying that it is necessary that something happens. (किसी बात के घटित होने की आवश्‍यकता बताने के लिए प्रयुक्त)
• 'Any' is used instead of 'some' in negative sentences and questions i.e. an unspecified amount or number. (एक अनिर्दिष्ट राशि या संख्या)
• 'No' means not any; not a. (कोई नहीं; नहीं, एक भी नहीं)
  

Conclusion: The speaker didn't eat even some rice.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Complete Sentence: He did not eat any rice.

The correct answer is 'QPSR'.

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Key Points

• Sentence Q will be the first sentence of the sequence because it tells about something, right for some reason.
• Sentence P will come after Q because it mentions what's been rightly said.
• Sentence S will come after P because it is explaining things are made or done in a careful or decorative way by prayer.
• The sentence 'R' is the concluding part because it is concluding the comparison between prayer and dreams.
• Hence, 'R' makes the last part.
  

Correct Sentence: It is rightly said that more things are wrought by prayer than the world of dreams.

Important Points

• Important Rules to Solve the Sentence Jumbles:
• Read the sentences attentively and try to comprehend the idea or theme of the sentences.
• Try to identify the opening and closing sentences.
• Try to identify the mandatory pairs. Two sentences can be connected through various connectors and other determinants.