Official Paper

DSSSB LDC (Jr. Assistant/Steno/LDC): (9 Oct 2025) Memory-Based Paper (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

General Awareness 1 (20 questions)

1

Which among the following Articles declares that 'all laws that are inconsistent with or in derogation of any of the Fundamental Rights, shall be void'?

  1. ((a))

    Article 32

  2. ((b))

    Article 19

  3. ((c))

    Article 13

  4. ((d))

    Article 17

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Article 13

The correct answer is Article 13.

Key Points

  • Article 13 of the Indian Constitution declares that all laws inconsistent with or in derogation of Fundamental Rights shall be void.
  • It ensures the supremacy of Fundamental Rights by invalidating laws that contradict or encroach upon them.
  • Under Article 13(1), pre-constitutional laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights shall be void to the extent of such inconsistency.
  • Article 13(2) prohibits the State from making any law that takes away or abridges the Fundamental Rights, and such laws shall be void if enacted.
  • This article is a key part of judicial review, empowering courts to strike down unconstitutional laws.

Additional Information

  • Judicial Review: A process under which the judiciary reviews the constitutionality of legislative acts and executive decisions. It derives its authority from Articles 13, 32, and 226 of the Indian Constitution.
  • Fundamental Rights: Enshrined in Part III of the Indian Constitution, these rights guarantee civil liberties, ensuring individuals can live with dignity and equality.
  • Doctrine of Severability: If a part of a law is inconsistent with Fundamental Rights, only the offending part is declared void, not the entire law.
  • Doctrine of Eclipse: Pre-constitutional laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights are not void ab initio; they are eclipsed and become unenforceable until the inconsistency is removed.
  • Article 32: Known as the "Right to Constitutional Remedies," it provides individuals the right to approach the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
2

When is 'Jan Aushadhi Diwas' celebrated every year?

  1. ((a))

    March 6th

  2. ((b))

    March 7th

  3. ((c))

    March 8th

  4. ((d))

    March 9th

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

March 7th

The Correct answer is March 7th.

In News

  • Jan Aushadhi Diwas 2025: Affordable Quality Medicines For A Healthier Future.

Key Points

  • Jan Aushadhi Diwas is celebrated annually on March 7th to promote the use of generic medicines and raise awareness about the Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP).
  • The celebration is part of a week-long event from March 1st to 7th.
  • The PMBJP was launched in November 2008 by the Department of Pharmaceuticals, Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers.
  • PMBJP aims to provide quality medicines at affordable prices through Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Kendras (PMBJK).
  • A significant initiative under PMBJP is the launch of Jan Aushadhi Suvidha Sanitary Napkins, priced at Rs. 1 per pad.
  • The Jan Aushadhi SUGAM mobile app, launched in August 2019, helps locate PMBJKs and compare the prices of generic vs branded medicines.
  • Jan Aushadhi medicines are 50%-80% cheaper than branded medicines available in the open market.
  • Medicines under the scheme are sourced from WHO-GMP certified manufacturers and undergo testing in NABL-accredited laboratories.
  • PMBJP offers incentives, including up to Rs. 20,000 per month for Kendras based on monthly purchases and a one-time incentive of Rs. 2 lakh for Kendras in specific areas, such as Northeastern States, Himalayan regions, and backward districts.
3

The “Double Dome” feature of Indo - Islamic architecture was introduced by which dynasty of Delhi Sultanate?

  1. ((a))

    Slave Dynasty

  2. ((b))

    Lodi Dynasty

  3. ((c))

    Khilji Dynasty

  4. ((d))

    Tughlaq Dynasty

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Lodi Dynasty

The correct answer is Lodi Dynasty.

Key Points

  • Double Dome:-
  • The double dome consists of two domes, one inner and one outer, with a space between them.
  • The inner dome is smaller and supports the weight of the outer dome. This design allows for taller and more slender domes, and it also creates a dramatic visual effect.
  • The Lodi dynasty introduced the "double dome" feature of Indo-Islamic architecture.
  • The first example of a double dome in Indo-Islamic architecture is the tomb of Sikandar Lodi (1517/18) in Delhi. Other notable examples include the tomb of Humayun (1572) in Delhi, the Taj Mahal (1648) in Agra, and the Jama Masjid (1656) in Delhi.
  • Lodi dynasty:-
  • It was the last dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate, ruling from 1451 to 1526.
  • During their reign, they made significant contributions to Indo-Islamic architecture, including the introduction of the double dome.
  • The Lodi style of architecture is characterized by its simplicity, elegance, and use of high-quality materials.

Additional Information

  • Slave Dynasty:-
  • It was the first dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate, which ruled over northern India from 1206 to 1290.
  • The dynasty was founded by Qutb-ud-din Aibak, who was a former slave of the Ghurid Sultan Muhammad of Ghor.
  • Khilji Dynasty:-
  • It was the second dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate, ruling over northern India from 1290 to 1320.
  • The dynasty was founded by Jalal-ud-din Firoz Khilji, who was a former slave of the Mamluk dynasty.
  • Jalal-ud-din was a skilled and ambitious general, and he quickly rose through the ranks of the Mamluk military.
  • In 1290, he assassinated the last Mamluk sultan and seized control of Delhi for himself.
  • Tughlaq Dynasty:-
  • It was the third dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate, ruling over northern India from 1320 to 1413.
  • The dynasty was founded by Ghazi Malik, who ascended the throne under the title of Ghiyath al-Din Tughluq.
  • The Tughlaq Dynasty was a period of great expansion and consolidation for the Delhi Sultanate.
4

Which of the following Governor Generals of British India abolished the Doctrine of Lapse?

  1. ((a))

    Lord William Bentinck

  2. ((b))

    Lord Canning

  3. ((c))

    Lord Hardinge

  4. ((d))

    Lord Ellenborough

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Lord Canning

The Correct answer is Lord Canning.

Key Points

  • Lord Canning was the last Governor-General and the first Viceroy of India.
  • The Doctrine of Lapse, introduced by Lord Dalhousie, allowed the British to annex states where the rulers died without a male heir.
  • It was widely criticized for being unjust and causing resentment among Indian princes and rulers.
  • After the Revolt of 1857, Lord Canning sought to adopt a conciliatory approach and abolished the Doctrine of Lapse to ensure loyalty among Indian rulers.
  • This abolition marked a shift in British policy, focusing on maintaining the support of princely states.
  • Lord Canning introduced the Indian Councils Act of 1861, which aimed to increase Indian participation in governance.
  • He also established the University of Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras, promoting education and modernization.

Additional Information

  • Lord William Bentinck
  • Lord William Bentinck served as Governor-General of India from 1828 to 1835.
  • He is known for his social reforms, including the abolition of Sati in 1829.
  • Bentinck introduced policies to improve education and administration, such as the promotion of English education.
  • He is often regarded as the first reformist Governor-General of India.
  • Lord Hardinge
  • Lord Hardinge served as Governor-General of India from 1844 to 1848.
  • He played a significant role in the First Anglo-Sikh War, resulting in the annexation of Punjab.
  • Lord Hardinge emphasized military reforms and improved infrastructure in India during his tenure.
  • Lord Ellenborough
  • Lord Ellenborough served as Governor-General of India from 1842 to 1844.
  • He is remembered for his role in the Afghan wars and the retrieval of the gates of Somnath temple.
  • His administration faced criticism for its lack of stability and abrupt policy changes.
5

Which of the following terms in the preamble of the Indian Constitution best describes the phrase "Sense of Brotherhood"?

  1. ((a))

    Fraternity

  2. ((b))

    Liberty

  3. ((c))

    Republic

  4. ((d))

    Democratic

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Fraternity

The correct answer is Fraternity.

Key Points

  • The term Fraternity in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution signifies a sense of brotherhood among all citizens of India.
  • It aims to promote the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation.
  • Fraternity ensures the feeling of mutual respect and compassion, transcending barriers of caste, religion, language, and region.
  • The concept of fraternity aligns with the fundamental duty of every citizen to promote harmony and brotherhood under Article 51A(e) of the Indian Constitution.
  • The framers of the Constitution were inspired by the ideals of the French Revolution, which emphasized Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity.

Additional Information

  • Preamble of the Indian Constitution:
  • The Preamble declares India to be a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, and Republic nation.
  • It guarantees Justice (social, economic, and political), Liberty (of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship), Equality (of status and opportunity), and Fraternity.
  • Fraternity and National Integration:
  • Fraternity helps in fostering national integration by eliminating prejudices and promoting inclusiveness.
  • It emphasizes the concept of "Unity in Diversity," which is a cornerstone of Indian culture and society.
  • French Revolution Influence:
  • The ideals of Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity originated during the French Revolution (1789-1799).
  • These principles have significantly influenced modern democratic constitutions, including India’s.
  • Article 51A of the Constitution:
  • It lays down Fundamental Duties for Indian citizens, including the duty to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood.
  • This article complements the spirit of fraternity mentioned in the Preamble.
6

Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts repealed the "Right to property" from Part III of Indian Constitution?

  1. ((a))

    The Constitution (Forty-Fourth Amendment) Act, 1978

  2. ((b))

    The Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976

  3. ((c))

    The Constitution (First  Amendment) Act, 1951

  4. ((d))

    The Constitution (Twenty-Fifth Amendment) Act, 1972

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The Constitution (Forty-Fourth Amendment) Act, 1978

The Correct answer is The Constitution (Forty-Fourth Amendment) Act, 1978.

Key Points

  • The Right to Property was originally enshrined as a Fundamental Right under Article 31 of the Indian Constitution.
  • However, the Constitution (Forty-Fourth Amendment) Act, 1978 repealed the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights and reclassified it as a legal right under Article 300A in Part XII of the Constitution.
  • This amendment was introduced during the tenure of the Janata Party government, headed by Prime Minister Morarji Desai.
  • The primary reason for this change was to prevent the judiciary from interfering with the government's land reform policies, especially regarding the abolition of zamindari and redistribution of land to the landless.
  • This amendment protects the citizens from being deprived of their property except by the authority of law, but it no longer enjoys the status of a Fundamental Right.
  • The reclassification of the Right to Property ensured that the government could implement socialist land reforms without facing constitutional challenges.
  • This change marked a significant shift in India's constitutional and political landscape, reflecting its commitment to socio-economic justice.

 Additional Information

  • The Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976
  • Known as the Mini Constitution, this amendment made significant changes to the Indian Constitution.
  • It added the words "Socialist," "Secular," and "Integrity" to the Preamble.
  • It also strengthened the position of the Directive Principles of State Policy over Fundamental Rights.
  • This amendment was enacted during the Emergency period (1975-1977) under the leadership of Indira Gandhi.
  • The Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951
  • This amendment introduced changes to restrict the misuse of Fundamental Rights, especially the Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression (Article 19).
  • It also added Articles 31A and 31B to safeguard agrarian reforms and protect laws included in the Ninth Schedule from judicial review.
  • This amendment was enacted to address judicial challenges to land reform legislation.
  • The Constitution (Twenty-Fifth Amendment) Act, 1972
  • This amendment was passed to ensure that the Directive Principles of State Policy could not be challenged on the grounds of inconsistency with Fundamental Rights.
  • It also amended Article 31 to enable the government to acquire property for public purposes without full compensation.
  • This was primarily aimed at facilitating land acquisition for developmental projects.
7

Who was the ruler of the Delhi Sultanate when it faced the Mongol onslaught?

  1. ((a))

    Alauddin Khalji

  2. ((b))

    Muhammad Tughluq

  3. ((c))

    Iltutmish

  4. ((d))

    Balban

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Alauddin Khalji

Alauddin Khalji  was the ruler of the Delhi Sultanate when it faced the Mongol onslaught.

Key Points

  • Alauddin Khalji was the ruler of the Delhi Sultanate from 1296 to 1316.
  • During his reign, he faced the Mongol onslaught, which was a series of invasions by the Mongols into the Indian subcontinent.
  • The Mongols were a powerful nomadic group from Central Asia who had conquered much of Asia in the 13th century.
  • They were feared for their military prowess and their ruthlessness.
  • Alauddin Khalji was a brilliant military strategist and a ruthless ruler.
  • He took a number of measures to defend the Delhi Sultanate from the Mongols, including:
  • ​Building a new capital city, Siri, which was heavily fortified.
  • Raising a large standing army.
  • Imposing strict economic controls to ensure that the state had the resources to fight the Mongols.
  • Using spies and informants to gather intelligence on the Mongols.
  • As a result of these measures, Alauddin Khalji was able to defeat the Mongols in a series of battles.
  • He also forced the Mongols to pay tribute to the Delhi Sultanate.
  • This effectively prevented the Mongols from conquering India.
  • Alauddin Khalji's victory over the Mongols was a major achievement.
  • It helped to ensure the survival of the Delhi Sultanate and it protected India from Mongol rule.

​Therefore the correct answer is Alauddin Khalji.

8

Which initiative has been launched to enhance parliamentary documentation and accessibility using AI and real-time translations?

  1. ((a))

    Digital Bharat Sabha

  2. ((b))

    AI Parliamentary Assist

  3. ((c))

    Lok Sabha Vaani

  4. ((d))

    Sansad Bhashini

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Sansad Bhashini

The correct answer is Sansad Bhashini.

In News

  • The Lok Sabha Secretariat and the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) signed an MoU to develop the Sansad Bhashini initiative.

Key Points

  • Sansad Bhashini aims to integrate AI-driven translation and speech-to-text conversion for parliamentary content.
  • The initiative supports real-time translation of debates, committee meetings, and agenda files into multiple languages.
  • An AI-powered chatbot will assist MPs and officials in retrieving parliamentary rules and procedural documents.
  • The project includes automatic summarization of lengthy debates for improved decision-making and record-keeping.

Additional Information

  • The initiative leverages Bhashini, a MeitY initiative, for advanced AI-based translation capabilities.
  • Sansad Bhashini will improve linguistic accessibility for MPs, researchers, and the general public.
  • It integrates noise reduction and customizable vocabulary for enhanced speech-to-text accuracy.
  • The initiative aligns with India’s push for technology-driven governance and inclusive policymaking.
9

Who was sworn in as the 24th Prime Minister of Canada in March 2025, succeeding Justin Trudeau?

  1. ((a))

    Pierre Poilievre

  2. ((b))

    Dominic LeBlanc

  3. ((c))

    Francois-Philippe Champagne

  4. ((d))

    Mark Carney

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Mark Carney

The correct answer is Mark Carney.

In News

  • Mark Carney was sworn in as the 24th Prime Minister of Canada, succeeding Justin Trudeau.
  • He emphasized a willingness to work with U.S. President Donald Trump despite past tensions.

Key Points

  • Mark Carney is a former Governor of the Bank of Canada (2008-2013) and Governor of the Bank of England (2013-2020).
  • He won the leadership of the ruling Liberal Party, replacing Trudeau after nine years in office.
  • Carney reshaped his cabinet, reducing ministerial positions and appointing Francois-Philippe Champagne as Finance Minister.
  • He signed an order eliminating the carbon tax in his first cabinet meeting.

Additional Information

  • Canada's Political Landscape:
  • Justin Trudeau led Canada for over nine years before stepping down.
  • Carney’s appointment comes amid uncertainty over Canada-U.S. relations and economic concerns.
  • The opposition Conservative Party remains a strong contender in upcoming elections.
  • Mark Carney’s Economic Expertise:
  • He managed economic crises during his tenure as a central banker in Canada and the UK.
  • His policies as Prime Minister focus on economic stabilization and diplomatic cooperation.
10

Which of the following Parts of the Indian Constitution contains the Chapter regarding "Subordinate Courts" in the States?

  1. ((a))

    Part VIII

  2. ((b))

    Part IV

  3. ((c))

    Part VI 

  4. ((d))

    Part VII 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Part VI 

The correct answer is Part VI.

Key Points

  • The provisions related to the "Subordinate Courts" in the States are mentioned in Part VI of the Indian Constitution.
  • It falls under Chapter VI (Articles 233 to 237), which deals with the structure, appointment, and jurisdiction of Subordinate Courts.
  • The Subordinate Courts include District and Sessions Courts, along with other lower courts such as Magistrate and Civil Judge Courts.
  • The High Court has supervisory authority over Subordinate Courts under its jurisdiction, ensuring proper administration of justice.
  • The provisions ensure the independence of the judiciary by laying down guidelines for the recruitment and conditions of service of judicial officers.

Additional Information

  • Subordinate Courts:
  • Subordinate Courts function under the supervision of the respective High Courts in their states.
  • They are primarily responsible for handling cases related to civil, criminal, and revenue matters at the district level and below.
  • The District Judge is the highest judicial authority in a district.
  • Articles 233 to 237:
  • Article 233: Deals with the appointment of District Judges.
  • Article 234: Relates to the recruitment of persons other than District Judges to the judicial service.
  • Article 235: Grants control over Subordinate Courts to the High Court.
  • Article 236: Defines the term "District Judge" and "Judicial Service".
  • Article 237: Provides for the application of these provisions to certain classes of Magistrates.
  • Independence of Judiciary:
  • The Constitution ensures the independence of Subordinate Courts by entrusting control over the judiciary to the High Courts.
  • Appointments, promotions, and disciplinary actions are supervised by the High Court to maintain impartiality and efficiency.
  • Hierarchy of Courts:
  • The Subordinate Courts are part of a judicial hierarchy, with the Supreme Court at the top, followed by High Courts, and then Subordinate Courts.
  • This hierarchy ensures the streamlined delivery of justice.
11

In the Modern Periodic Table, atomic size increases down the group because ____________.

  1. ((a))

    nuclear charge increases

  2. ((b))

    tendency to lose electrons decreases

  3. ((c))

    number of shells increases

  4. ((d))

    valency increases

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

number of shells increases

The correct answer is number of shells increases.

Key Points:

  • Atomic sizes drop as a period moves from left to right.
  • The same shell receives progressively more electrons.
  • As the atomic number rises, so does the nucleus's attraction to the valence b.
  • The atomic size grows as one descends the group, top to bottom.
  • This is so that more electron shells can be added when the atomic number rises.

Additional Information:

  • The chemical elements are arranged in rows and columns on what is known as the periodic table, or periodic table of the (chemical) elements.
  • It is frequently used in physics, chemistry, and other sciences and is frequently regarded as a symbol of chemistry.
  • It is a visual representation of the periodic law, which claims that the atomic numbers of chemical elements have a roughly periodic relationship with their attributes.
  • The table is divided into four blocks that are about rectangular in shape.
  • The table's columns are referred to as groups and its rows are known as periods.
  • The periodic table's elements in the same group have comparable chemical properties.
12

Bone cells are embedded in a hard matrix that is composed of ________________.

  1. ((a))

    phosphorus and potassium

  2. ((b))

    fluoride and calcium

  3. ((c))

    potassium and calcium

  4. ((d))

    calcium and phosphorus

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

calcium and phosphorus

The correct answer is calcium and phosphorus.

Key Points:

  • The structure that holds the body up is made of bone.
  • Additionally, it supports the body's major organs and anchors the muscles.
  • It is a solid, unyielding tissue.
  • A dense matrix made of calcium and phosphate molecules contains the bone cells.
  • A different kind of connective tissue called a ligament can join two bones together.
  • This tissue is extremely flexible.
  • Another form of connective tissue is the tendon, which links bones and muscles.

Additional Information:

  • Tendons are fibrous tissues with little flexibility and tremendous strength.
  • The cells of cartilage are widely spaced.
  • Sugars and proteins make up the solid matrix.
  • In addition to the nose, ear, trachea, and larynx, cartilage smoothes the surfaces of bones at joints.
  • Areolar connective tissue can be found in the bone marrow, around blood vessels and nerves, and between the skin and muscles.
  • It supports internal organs, fills empty space inside the organs, and aids in tissue restoration.
13

Which river originates from Amarkantak of Madhya Pradesh ?

  1. ((a))

    Tapti

  2. ((b))

    Mahi

  3. ((c))

    Narmada

  4. ((d))

    Tungabhadra

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Narmada

The correct answer is Narmada.

Key Points

  • River Narmada emerges from Amarkantak Hill of Maikal Range, Madhya Pradesh.
  • The mouth of this river is the Gulf of Khambhat (Arabian Sea), Gujarat.
  • The mighty Narmada River as well the Son, the Mahanadi, and Arnadoh which is a major tributary of the Godavari all arise in the Amarkantak plateau.
  • Major dams on the Narmada river are Sardar Sarovar Dam, Indira Sagar Dam, Omkareshwar Dam, Bargi Dam, etc.

Important Points

RiverSourceMouth
TaptiSatpura RangeThe Arabian Sea, Gulf of Khambhat
MahiVindhya RangeThe Arabian Sea, Gulf of Khambhat
TungabhadraVaraha Parvata, Western GhatsKrishna River
14

What does one study in Paleontology?

  1. ((a))

    Plant and Animal fossils

  2. ((b))

    Volcanoes

  3. ((c))

    Atmosphere

  4. ((d))

    Rocks

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Plant and Animal fossils

The correct answer is Plant and Animal fossils.

 

Important Points

  • Paleontology is the study of past life forms using fossils.
  • An example of paleontology is the branch of geology that studies dinosaurs.
  • The study of the forms of life existing in prehistoric or geologic times, as represented by the fossils of plantsanimals, and other organisms.

Additional Information

  • Volcanology, also spelled vulcanology, the discipline of the geologic sciences that is concerned with all aspects of volcanic phenomena.
  • Volcanology, A geologist uses a rock hammer to sample active pahoehoe lava for geochemical analysis on the Kilauea volcano, Hawaii.
  • Meteorology is the study of the atmosphereatmospheric phenomena, and atmospheric effects on our weather.
  • The atmosphere is the gaseous layer of the physical environment that surrounds a planet. ... Meteorology is a subdiscipline of the atmospheric sciences, a term that covers all studies of the atmosphere.
  • ​Petrology is the study of rocks - igneous, metamorphic, and sedimentary - and the processes that form and transform them.
  • Mineralogy is the study of the chemistry, crystal structure, and physical properties of the mineral constituents of rocks.
15

Match the following classical dance forms with States of India:-

a. Sattriya1. Tamil Nadu
b. Mohiniattam2. Kerala
c. Bharatnatyam3. Andhra Pradesh
d. Kuchipudi4. Assam
  1. ((a))

    a - 4, b - 2, c - 1, d - 3

  2. ((b))

    a - 1, b -3, c - 2, d - 4

  3. ((c))

    a - 1, b - 2, c - 3, d - 4

  4. ((d))

    a - 2, b - 1, c - 4, d - 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

a - 4, b - 2, c - 1, d - 3

The correct answer is a - 4, b - 2, c - 1, d - 3.

Important Points

Some Indian States and their dances:

STATEDANCES
Tamil NaduBharatanatyam, Mayil Attam, Karakattam.
Keralakathakali, Thirvathirakali, Kolkali.
Andhra PradeshKuchipudi.
KarnatakaKarga, Lambi, Yakshagan, Huttari.
PunjabBhangra, Giddha, Bhand, Daff, Dhaman.
Himachal PradeshJhali, Chharhi, Nati, Dangi, Jhora.
JharkhandMundari Dance, Sarhul, Barao, Karma Munda, Agni, Mardana Jhumar, Paika, Phagua, Jhitka, Danga.
AssamBihu, Satriya, Naga dance, Khel Gopal, Natpuja, Maharas, Canoe, Jhumura Hobjanai.
Madhya PradeshAada, Khada Nach, Selabhadoni, Maanch, Phulpati, Grida.
BiharBakho-Bakhain, Sama Chakwa, Bidesia, Jata-Jatin, Panwariya.
RajasthanGhumar, Chakri, Ganagor, Ghapal, Kalbeliya.
16

The ‘Dronacharya Award’ is given to __________

  1. ((a))

    Sports Editor

  2. ((b))

    Umpire

  3. ((c))

    Coach

  4. ((d))

    Sportsperson

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Coach

The correct answer is Coach.

Key Points

  • Dronacharya award is given by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India, for excellence in sports coaching.
  • The award is known as after Drona, often referred to as "Dronacharya" or "Guru Drona", a personality from the Sanskrit epic Mahabharata of ancient India.
  • The  Dronacharya award contains a medallion, a certificate, and a money prize of Rs 15 lakh(lifetime) and 10 Lakh (regular).

Additional Information

  • Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award:
  • It is that the highest sporting award given by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports for the spectacular and top performance within the field of sports by a sportsperson.
  • This, award contains a medallion, a certificate, and a money prize of Rs 25 lakh.
  • Arjuna Awards:
  • This award is given by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India to acknowledge outstanding action in National sports.
  • Instituted in 1961, the award carries a money prize of Rs 15 Lakh, a bronze sculpture of Arjuna, and a scroll.
17

Who wrote “The Argumentative Indian” ?

  1. ((a))

    Amartya Sen

  2. ((b))

    Chetan Bhagat

  3. ((c))

    Arundhati Roy

  4. ((d))

    N. C. Choudhury

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Amartya Sen

The correct answer is Amartya Sen.

Key Points

  • Amartya Sen was born into a Brahman family in Santiniketan, Bengal, in India.
  • In 1998, was awarded the Nobel Prize in Economics for his work in welfare economics.
  • Book by Amartya Sen is Development as Freedom, The Idea of Justice, The Argumentative Indian, Garibi Aur Akaal, Identity & Violence, Inequality Reexamined, The Country of First Boys: And Other Essays, etc.

Important Points

AUTHORBOOKS
Chetan BhagatFive Point Someone, The 3 Mistakes of My Life, 2 States: The Story of My Marriage, Revolution 2020, One Indian girl
Arundhati RoyThe God of Small Things, The Ministry of Utmost Happiness, AZADI: Freedom. Fascism. Fiction, Walking with the Comrades, My Seditious Heart: Collected Nonfiction.
N. C. ChoudhuryThe Autobiography of an Unknown Indian, A passage to England, The Continent of Circe, Thy Hand, Great Anarch!, Three horsemen of the new apocalypse, Scholar Extraordinary.
18

 The Income Tax in India is

  1. ((a))

    Indirect and Progressive

  2. ((b))

    Indirect and Proportional

  3. ((c))

    Direct and Proportional

  4. ((d))

    Direct and Progressive

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Direct and Progressive

The correct answer is Direct and Progressive. 

Important Points

  • Income tax is a Direct tax.
  • Direct taxes are progressive, because it is possible to help more people who do not earn as much, and at the same time, mobilize resources from those who earn well. This is what makes them progressive.
  • This is the tax that is levied on the annual income or the profits which are directly paid to the government.
  • Everyone who earns any kind of income is liable to pay income tax.
  • progressive tax imposes a higher rate on the rich than on the poor. It's based on the taxpayer's income or wealth. It's done to help lower-income families pay for basics like shelter, food, and transportation.
  • progressive tax allows them to spend a larger share of their incomes on the cost of living expenses.
  • Examples of progressive tax include investment income taxestax on interest earned, rental earnings, estate tax, and tax credits.
19

Who was the first to determine national income?

  1. ((a))

    V. K. R. V. Rao

  2. ((b))

    Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

  3. ((c))

    Dadabhai Naoroji

  4. ((d))

    Prashanta Chandra Mahalanobis

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Dadabhai Naoroji

The correct answer is Dadabhai Naoroji.

  • Dadabhai Naoroji was the first to determine national income.
  • He is also known as the grand old man of India.

Key Points

  • He was also an unofficial ambassador of India.
  • In the UK, he was a member of the house of Commons in 1892.
  • He was the first Indian to become a member of the British parliament.
  • He was born in Bombay.
  • He was the co-founder of the Indian National Congress.
  • He was an academician, politician, and trader.
  • He propounded the theory of wealth drain from India.
  • He was born in a Parsi family.
  • Maharaja of Baroda, Sayajirao Gayakwad patronised him.
  • The London society in 1865 was launched by him.
20

Which of the following is an example of social infrastructure?

  1. ((a))

    Hospitals

  2. ((b))

    Railways

  3. ((c))

    Airports

  4. ((d))

    Roads

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Hospitals

The correct answer is Hospitals.

Key Points

  • Social infrastructure refers to facilities and services that improve the quality of life and promote social well-being, such as healthcare, education, and housing.
  • Hospitals are a prime example of social infrastructure as they provide essential healthcare services to the population.
  • Social infrastructure ensures access to basic health services, contributing to the overall development and productivity of a nation.
  • Hospitals play a critical role in reducing mortality rates, managing diseases, and improving public health outcomes.
  • Other examples of social infrastructure include schools, libraries, community centers, and sanitation facilities.

Additional Information

  • Social Infrastructure vs. Physical Infrastructure:
  • Social infrastructure focuses on services and institutions that enhance human capital (e.g., hospitals, schools).
  • Physical infrastructure pertains to tangible assets like roads, railways, airports, and bridges.
  • Healthcare Infrastructure:
  • Healthcare facilities such as hospitals, clinics, and laboratories are vital components of social infrastructure.
  • Public healthcare systems aim to provide affordable and accessible medical services to all citizens.
  • Education Infrastructure:
  • Schools, colleges, and universities are examples of social infrastructure that foster education and skill development.
  • They contribute to economic growth by enhancing the knowledge base of a society.
  • Government Initiatives:
  • Programs like Ayushman Bharat aim to strengthen healthcare infrastructure in India.
  • Investments in social infrastructure are critical for achieving sustainable development goals (SDGs).

General Awareness 2 (15 questions)

21

What is the full form of NIDAR in the context of the recently launched drone innovation challenge by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology?

  1. ((a))

    New India Drone and Aviation Revolution

  2. ((b))

    National Initiative for Development and Advanced Robotics

  3. ((c))

    National Innovation Challenge for Drone Application and Research

  4. ((d))

    National Institute for Drone Analytics and Research

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

National Innovation Challenge for Drone Application and Research

The correct answer is National Innovation Challenge for Drone Application and Research.

In News

  • The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), in collaboration with Drone Federation India (DFI), has launched the National Innovation Challenge for Drone Application and Research (NIDAR) under the ‘SwaYaan’ initiative.

Key Points

  • NIDAR focuses on advancing drone technology for applications in agriculture, disaster management, logistics, and healthcare.
  • The challenge was inaugurated by S. Krishnan, Secretary of MeitY, at Electronics Niketan, MeitY.
  • It offers a prize pool of INR 40 Lakhs, incubation opportunities, cloud credits, and internships with leading drone companies.
  • The Drone Federation India (DFI), which represents over 550 drone companies and 5,500 certified drone pilots, will mentor participants.

Additional Information

  • The SwaYaan initiative aims to build human resource capacity in Unmanned Aircraft Systems (UAS).
  • The challenge is expected to attract over 100 student teams from institutions across India.
  • It encourages the development of autonomous drones for applications like precision agriculture and disaster response.
  • The initiative aligns with India’s vision of becoming a global drone hub by 2030.
22

Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the Governor to promulgate ordinances when the state legislature is not in session?

  1. ((a))

    Article 211

  2. ((b))

    Article 209

  3. ((c))

    Article 215

  4. ((d))

    Article 213

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Article 213

The correct answer is Article 213.

Key Points

  • Article 213 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Governor to promulgate ordinances when the state legislature is not in session.
  • The Governor can issue ordinances under Article 213 only when he/she is satisfied that circumstances require immediate action.
  • Ordinances issued under Article 213 have the same force and effect as laws enacted by the state legislature.
  • These ordinances must be approved by the state legislature within six weeks of its reassembly; otherwise, they cease to operate.
  • The provision ensures the Governor can address urgent matters when the legislature is not available, maintaining governance continuity.

Additional Information

  • Ordinance: It is a temporary law enacted by the executive authority (Governor or President) when the legislature is not in session.
  • Article 123: Similar to Article 213, it empowers the President to promulgate ordinances when Parliament is not in session.
  • Limitations: The ordinance-making power cannot be used to bypass the legislature or amend the Constitution.
  • Judicial Review: Ordinances are subject to judicial review to ensure compliance with constitutional provisions.
  • Historical Context: The ordinance-making power was introduced in India as part of the Government of India Act, 1935, and later incorporated into the Constitution of India.
23

Who among the following Kachhawa rulers was one of Akbar's "Navratnas"?

  1. ((a))

    Raja Sawai Jai Singh II

  2. ((b))

    Raja Bhagwant Das

  3. ((c))

    Raja Man Singh I

  4. ((d))

    Raja Bharmal

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Raja Man Singh I

The correct answer is - Raja Man Singh I

Key Points

  • Raja Man Singh I
  • Raja Man Singh I was one of the Navratnas (nine gems) in the court of the Mughal Emperor Akbar.
  • He was a trusted general and a close associate of Akbar.
  • He played a significant role in military campaigns and administration during Akbar's reign.
  • His loyalty and service earned him a prominent position among Akbar’s top advisors.

Additional Information

  • Navratnas
  • The Navratnas were a group of nine extraordinary men in the court of Emperor Akbar who were renowned for their talents and contributions in various fields.
  • They included notable figures like Birbal (known for his wisdom and wit) and Tansen (a legendary musician).
  • Raja Man Singh I
  • He was the Kachwaha Rajput ruler of Amber (modern-day Jaipur).
  • His contributions to the Mughal Empire included leading successful campaigns in regions like Bengal, Afghanistan, and Deccan.
  • He also played a pivotal role in securing alliances for Akbar through marital diplomacy, including his own marriage into the Mughal family.
  • Akbar’s Administration
  • Akbar's administration was noted for its inclusivity and merit-based appointments, which included talents from various regions and communities.
  • His policy of religious tolerance and strong administrative framework laid the foundations for a unified and prosperous empire.
24

Which gas is released when bleaching powder is added to water?

  1. ((a))

    Hydrogen

  2. ((b))

    Chlorine

  3. ((c))

    Carbon Monoxide

  4. ((d))

    Carbon Dioxide

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Chlorine

The correct answer is Chlorine.

Key Points

  • Bleaching powder is used as an oxidising agent in many chemical industries, for disinfecting drinking water.
  • It is called Calcium Hypochlorite and is represented as CaOCl2.
  • Bleaching powder is produced by the action of Chlorine on dry slaked lime (Ca(OH)2) and is soluble in water.
  • When bleaching powder reacts with water, it hydrolysis to hypochlorous acid (HCIO), which hydrolysis further into Hydrochloric acid (HCl), releasing a strong smell due to Chlorine (Cl).
  • In this reaction, we get the following chemical equation.
  • Ca(OCl)2+H2O→Ca(OH)2+Cl2 (gas).
  • So, when Bleaching powder reacts with water, Chlorine gas is released. Hence option 2 is correct.
  • Chlorine gas is used in the manufacturing of bleaching powder.
  • Bleaching powder is used for bleaching cotton and linen in the textile industry, and for bleaching wood pulp in paper factories.
  • Hypochlorous acid is a weak acid that forms when Chlorine dissolves in water.
  • The atomic number (Z) of Chlorine is 17 and it is a p-block element.

Additional Information

  • Hydrogen (the atomic number is 1), in elemental form, exists as a diatomic molecule (H2) and is called Dihydrogen.
  • There are three isotopes of Hydrogen: Protium, Deuterium and Tritium.
  • Carbon Monoxide (CO) is a colourless and odourless poisonous gas produced as a result of the incomplete combustion of carbon.
  • Carbon monoxide binds to haemoglobin and forms carboxyhaemoglobin which is about 300 times more stable than the oxygen-haemoglobin complex.
  • When this reaches about 3-4%, the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood is reduced.
  • Carbon dioxide (CO2) is a colourless and non-flammable gas at normal temperature and pressure.
  • It is released into the atmosphere by respiration, the burning of fossil fuels and by decomposition of limestone.
25

What is the minimum monthly pension provided by the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan (PM-SYM) scheme after the age of 60?

  1. ((a))

    ₹3,000

  2. ((b))

    ₹6,000

  3. ((c))

    ₹7,000

  4. ((d))

    ₹9,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

₹3,000

The Correct Answer is ₹3,000.

In News

  • Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan (PM-SYM), is a voluntary and contributory pension scheme launched by the Government of India to provide social security to unorganised workers.

Key Points

  • Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan (PM-SYM) is a voluntary and contributory pension scheme launched by the Government of India for unorganised workers.
  • The scheme guarantees a minimum monthly pension of ₹3,000 after the age of 60 for workers earning up to ₹15,000 per month.
  • PM-SYM was introduced in the Interim Budget 2019.
  • It is administered by the Ministry of Labour and Employment, in collaboration with Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) and Common Service Centres (CSCs).
  • LIC is responsible for pension pay-outs and acts as the Pension Fund Manager.
  • Enrolment in the scheme is facilitated through Common Service Centres (CSCs) across India.
  • Exit and Withdrawal Provisions:
  • Exit Before 10 Years: Refund of the contributed amount with savings bank interest rate.
  • Exit After 10 Years but Before 60 Years: Return of contributions with accumulated interest (either actual or savings bank interest rate, whichever is higher).
  • Death Before 60 Years: The spouse can either continue the scheme or withdraw the contributed amount with interest.
  • Death After 60 Years: The spouse receives 50% of the pension as a family pension.
  • After the death of both the subscriber and spouse, the entire corpus is credited back to the fund.
  • In case of default (non-payment of contributions): The subscriber can regularize their contribution by paying the outstanding dues and penalty charges, if any.
26

Who was the first President of the Indian National Congress?

  1. ((a))

    Dadabhai Naoroji

  2. ((b))

    Gopal Krishna Gokhale

  3. ((c))

    Firoz Shah Mehta 

  4. ((d))

    Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee

The correct answer is Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee.

Key Points

  • Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee was the first President of the Indian National Congress (INC), presiding over its inaugural session in 1885.
  • The first session of the INC was held in Bombay (now Mumbai) from 28–31 December 1885.
  • This historic session was attended by 72 delegates, marking the beginning of the Indian National Congress as a political platform.
  • Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee was a prominent lawyer and statesman, deeply involved in the Indian freedom struggle.
  • The INC was founded by A.O. Hume, a retired British civil servant, with the aim of providing a platform for civil and political dialogue among Indians.

Additional Information

  • Indian National Congress (INC):
  • Founded on 28 December 1885, the INC was one of the most significant political organizations in India's struggle for independence.
  • The founders included A.O. Hume, Dadabhai Naoroji, and Dinshaw Wacha.
  • The INC initially aimed at creating a dialogue with the British government for reforms but later evolved into a mass movement for complete independence.
  • Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee:
  • He was the first Indian to act as an Advocate-General of Bengal and the first Indian to contest elections for the British Parliament.
  • Bonnerjee played a pivotal role in the early years of the INC, helping shape its policies and direction.
  • Key Goals of Early INC:
  • The early INC worked towards greater representation of Indians in administrative roles, reduction of military expenditure, and promotion of Indian industries.
  • It sought constitutional reforms and civil rights for Indians under British rule.
  • Legacy of INC:
  • The INC played a central role in India's independence movement, with leaders like Mahatma Gandhi, Jawaharlal Nehru, and Sardar Patel emerging from its ranks.
  • It continues to be a major political party in India post-independence.
27

Prime Minister Narendra Modi attended Mauritius National Day as the chief guest on March 12. What is the capital of Mauritius?

  1. ((a))

    Seychelles

  2. ((b))

    Nairobi

  3. ((c))

    Addis Ababa

  4. ((d))

    Port Louis

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Port Louis

The Correct Answer is ​Port Louis.

In News

  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi to attend Mauritius National Day as chief guest on March 12.

Key Points

  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi was on a two-day state visit to Mauritius starting March 11, 2025.
  • He was invited as the Chief Guest for the National Day celebrations of Mauritius, which are held every year on March 12.
  • The National Day of Mauritius commemorates the country's independence from British rule on March 12, 1968.
  • Prime Minister Modi attended Mauritius' National Day celebrations as Chief Guest for the second time since 2015.
  • The visit saw participation from various Indian Defence Forces, including a contingent of Indian Defence Forces, an Indian Navy ship, and the Indian Air Force Akash Ganga sky diving contingent.
  • Mauritius is an island nation in the Indian Ocean, located about 2,000 kilometers off the southeastern coast of Africa. Its capital is Port Louis.
28

Which constitutional amendment is known as the "Mini Constitution"?

  1. ((a))

    52nd Amendment

  2. ((b))

    44th Amendment

  3. ((c))

    42th Amendment

  4. ((d))

    24th Amendment

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

42th Amendment

The correct answer is 42nd Amendment.

Key Points

  • The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 is popularly referred to as the "Mini Constitution" due to its vast and comprehensive changes to the Constitution of India.
  • It was enacted during the Emergency period under the leadership of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.
  • This amendment brought significant changes to the Preamble, Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties, and Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).
  • The words "Socialist," "Secular," and "Integrity" were added to the Preamble, redefining India's identity as a nation.
  • It also curtailed the powers of the judiciary, giving more authority to the Parliament.

Additional Information

  • Preamble Amendments: The terms "Socialist," "Secular," and "Integrity" were introduced to strengthen India's commitment to democracy and pluralism.
  • Fundamental Duties: The amendment introduced ten Fundamental Duties under Article 51A, emphasizing the moral obligations of citizens.
  • Judiciary vs. Legislature: It attempted to reduce the independence of the judiciary by limiting its power to review constitutional amendments.
  • Directive Principles: The amendment gave precedence to the Directive Principles of State Policy over Fundamental Rights, emphasizing socioeconomic justice.
  • Emergency Powers: It extended the duration of the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies during a National Emergency from five to six years.
29

Which article provides for the appointment of Governors in India?

  1. ((a))

    Article 170

  2. ((b))

    Article 154

  3. ((c))

    Article 155

  4. ((d))

    Article 168

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Article 155

The correct answer is Article 155.

Key Points

  • Article 155 of the Constitution of India provides for the appointment of Governors in Indian states.
  • The Governor of a state is appointed by the President of India by warrant under his hand and seal.
  • The appointment process ensures that the Governor serves as the representative of the Union Government in the state.
  • The term of office for a Governor is normally 5 years, but they serve at the pleasure of the President.
  • The Governor's role is primarily ceremonial, but they hold powers as per the provisions of the Constitution, including executive, legislative, and discretionary powers.

Additional Information

  • Article 154: It vests the executive power of the state in the Governor, to be exercised directly or through officers subordinate to them.
  • Article 156: It specifies the conditions of service and tenure of the Governor, stating they hold office at the pleasure of the President.
  • Federal Structure: The appointment of Governors reflects India’s quasi-federal structure, where the Union Government has oversight over states through the Governor.
  • Role of the Governor: The Governor acts as a constitutional head, ensuring the state government operates within the framework of the Constitution.
  • Discretionary Powers: In certain situations, such as the dissolution of the state assembly or during a constitutional crisis, the Governor can act independently of the Council of Ministers.
30

What is the primary aim of the Rashtriya Karmayogi Jan Seva Programme launched by the Ministry of Ayush?

  1. ((a))

    To improve health infrastructure in India

  2. ((b))

    To increase the participation of private sector employees in public service

  3. ((c))

    To promote traditional medicine systems

  4. ((d))

    To build a more accountable, compassionate, and citizen-centric workforce

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

To build a more accountable, compassionate, and citizen-centric workforce

The correct answer is To build a more accountable, compassionate, and citizen-centric workforce.

In News

  • Ministry of Ayush launches the Rashtriya Karmayogi Jan Seva Programme to build a citizen-centric workforce.

Key Points

  • The Rashtriya Karmayogi Jan Seva Programme aims to build a more accountable, compassionate, and citizen-centric workforce in the Ministry of Ayush.
  • The program emphasizes the spirit of “Seva Bhav” (service) and encourages public servants to use their roles to bring positive change to people's lives.
  • It focuses on both service and self-improvement, aiming to upskill employees and broaden their perspectives on their responsibilities.
  • Training involves hands-on activities like structured discussions, teamwork exercises, and problem-solving to engage employees and foster meaningful public service contributions.

Additional Information

  • Seva Bhav
  • “Seva Bhav” translates to the spirit of service and emphasizes the importance of public servants adopting a mindset of service to others.
  • Capacity Building Commission
  • The Capacity Building Commission is responsible for enhancing the skill sets of public servants and transforming the culture of public service in India.
  • Self-Improvement in Public Service
  • The program encourages personal growth and self-reflection, motivating employees to improve both in their professional and personal lives to better serve the public.
31

"Article 243A" of Indian Constitution deals with:

  1. ((a))

    Composition of panchayats

  2. ((b))

    Gram Sabha

  3. ((c))

    Constitution of panchayats

  4. ((d))

    Elections to the panchayats

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Gram Sabha

The Correct answer is Gram Sabha.

Key Points

  • Article 243A of the Indian Constitution specifically deals with the Gram Sabha.
  • The Gram Sabha consists of persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village within the area of a Panchayat at the village level.
  • It is considered the foundation of the Panchayati Raj system and functions as a direct democracy at the grassroots level.
  • The Gram Sabha enables the participation of people in decision-making, ensuring accountability and transparency in local governance.
  • It has the authority to discuss and decide on matters related to the developmental activities and welfare schemes in its jurisdiction.
  • Key roles include approving the village budget, auditing accounts, and monitoring the functioning of the Panchayats.
  • The Gram Sabha promotes social inclusion, allowing marginalized communities to express their concerns.

 Additional Information

  • Composition of Panchayats
  • The composition of Panchayats refers to the structure and members of the Panchayat institutions at different levels—village, intermediate, and district.
  • The members are elected by the people through direct elections, ensuring representation of every section of society.
  • Constitution of Panchayats
  • The constitution of Panchayats under Article 243B ensures the establishment of Panchayats at the village, intermediate, and district levels across India.
  • This provision aims to strengthen local governance and decentralize power.
  • Elections to Panchayats
  • Article 243K mandates the State Election Commission to oversee the conduct of elections for Panchayats.
  • Regular elections ensure the democratic functioning of Panchayats and uphold the principles of representation and accountability.
32

The hydrocarbons which have a double bond between two carbon atoms are called:

  1. ((a))

    inorganic compounds

  2. ((b))

    natural compounds

  3. ((c))

    saturated compounds

  4. ((d))

    unsaturated compounds

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

unsaturated compounds

The correct answer is unsaturated compounds.

Key Points

  • Unsaturated compounds
  • ​Organic compounds known as unsaturated hydrocarbons are characterized by the presence of a double or triple bond between two carbon atoms that are adjacent to one another and are entirely composed of hydrogen and carbon.
  • The position of the double or triple bond is either described by a number written before the compound's name in the IUPAC nomenclature of unsaturated hydrocarbons (as in 2,4 pentadiene) or by a number written before the suffix, such as "-ene" or "-yne," (as in pent-2-ene).
  • Alkenes and olefins are hydrocarbons that have at least one double bond between two adjacent carbon atoms.
  • Alkynes are hydrocarbons that have at least one triple bond between two carbon atoms that are right next to each other.

Additional Information

  • Saturated compounds
  • A saturated hydrocarbon is one in which every single carbon-carbon bond is present.
  • Carbon and hydrogen are the only components of an organic compound known as a hydrocarbon.
  • Saturated hydrocarbons, as the name suggests, are hydrocarbons in which all of the carbon atoms are bonded to four other atoms and are "saturated," indicating that these organic compounds lack multiple carbon-carbon bonds.
  • The carbon chains of alkanes can be either straight or branched.
  • These saturated hydrocarbons have sp3 hybridization on every carbon atom.
  • Cycloalkanes have sp3 hybridized carbon atoms arranged in a ring. Saturated hydrocarbons, on the other hand, have a ring that can form side chains.
33

 India’s coastline measures

  1. ((a))

    5516.6 Kms

  2. ((b))

     3316.6 Kms

  3. ((c))

    7516.6 Kms 

  4. ((d))

    4516.6 Kms

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

7516.6 Kms 

The correct answer is 7516.6 Kms.

 

Important Points

  • India is one of the oldest civilizations in the world with a kaleidoscopic variety and rich cultural heritage.
  • As the 7th largest country in the world, India stands apart from the rest of Asia, marked off as it is by mountains and the sea, which give the country a distinct geographical entity.
  • Bounded by the Great Himalayas in the north, it stretches southwards and at the Tropic of Cancer, tapers off into the Indian Ocean between the Bay of Bengal on the east and the Arabian Sea on the west.
  • Lying entirely in the northern hemisphere, the mainland extends between latitudes 8° 4' and 37° 6' north, longitudes 68° 7' and 97° 25' east and measures about 3,214 km from north to south between the extreme latitudes and about 2,933 km from east to west between the extreme longitudes.
  • It has a land frontier of about 15,200 km.
  • The total length of the coastline of the mainland, Lakshadweep Islands, and Andaman & Nicobar Islands are 7,516.6 km.
34

Black cotton soils are also known as

  1. ((a))

    Bhangar 

  2. ((b))

    Regur

  3. ((c))

    Bhabar

  4. ((d))

    Khadar

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Regur

The correct answer is Regur Soil.

Key Points

  • Black Soils are commonly referred to as regur but are widely known as “black cotton soils,” as cotton has been the most common conventional crop in areas where they are found.
  • This type of soil is typical found in the Deccan Trap (Basalt) region which spreads over northwest Deccan plateau and is made from lava flows.
  • The Black soil or Regur is found on the plateaus of Maharashtra, Saurashtra, Malwa, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and stretch in the Southeast direction along the Godavari and the Krishna Valleys.
  • The properties of such soils include the following: high compressibility, low bearing capacity, and low shearing strength.
  • The Black soils are made up of clayey materials and are widely known for their capacity to hold moisture.
  • The Black soils are highly prosperous in calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash, and lime.
35

Indian gets the largest share of GDP from which of the following sectors?

  1. ((a))

    Construction sector

  2. ((b))

    Service sector

  3. ((c))

    Agriculture sector

  4. ((d))

    Manufacturing sector

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Service sector

The correct answer is Service Sector.

 

Important Points

  • The service sector, also known as the tertiary sector, is the third tier in the three-sector economy.
  • Instead of product production, this sector produces services maintenance and repairs, training, or consulting.
  • Examples of service sector jobs include housekeeping, tours, nursing, and teaching.
  • The services sector is the largest sector in India.
  • The services sector accounts for 53.66% of the total India's GVA of Rs. 137.51 lakh crore.
  • The industrial sector is at the second spot and contributing around 31% of the Indian GDP.
  • The service sector makes an important contribution to GDP in most countries, providing jobs, inputs, and public services for the economy.
  • Trade-in services can improve economic performance and provide a range of traditional and new export opportunities.
  • The MSME sector is and regarded as the backbone of the Indian economy.
  • It churns out over 6000 products that are highly sought after across the global marketplaces.
  • It employs 40% of the country's workforce, next only to the agricultural sector.

 

Additional Information

  • The Agriculture sectors comprise establishments primarily engaged in growing crops, raising animals, and harvesting fish and other animals from a farm, ranch, or their natural habitats.
  • Agriculture is the most important sector of the Indian Economy.18 percent of India's gross domestic product (GDP) and provides employment to 50% of the countries workforce. India is the world's largest producer of pulses, rice, wheat, spices, and spice products.
  • The Manufacturing sector comprises establishments engaged in the mechanical, physical, or chemical transformation of materials, substances, or components into new products.

Mental Ability & Reasoning 1 (20 questions)

36

In the following question, find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.

Rook : Crow ∷ Lemur : ?

  1. ((a))

    Cow

  2. ((b))

    Owl

  3. ((c))

    Elephant

  4. ((d))

    Monkey

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Monkey

Rooks are the members of the Crow's Family.

Similarly, Lemurs are the members of the Monkey's Family.

Hence, Option (4) is correct.

37

In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

DRINK : ETLRP :: ANGLE: ?

  1. ((a))

    BJPPJ

  2. ((b))

    BPJPJ

  3. ((c))

    BJPJP

  4. ((d))

    BINPJ

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

BPJPJ

The pattern followed is:

Similarly,

Hence, “BPJPJ” is the correct answer.

38

Direction: In the question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II .You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements

No eraser is ball.

All balls are bats.

Conclusions

I. All erasers can be bats.

II. Some bats are not erasers.

  1. ((a))

    Only I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only II follows

  3. ((c))

    Both I and II follow

  4. ((d))

    None follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Both I and II follow

Least possible venn diagram is:

Conclusions

I. All erasers can be bats → True

There is no direct relation between erasers and bats and also, there is no restriction on their relationship so, all erasers being bats is a possibility.

II. Some bats are not erasers → True

The bats which are balls can never be erasers.

Hence, both the conclusions follow.

Additional Information

39

In a code language, if GARAGE is written as 101021101014 and MEDIA is written as 1614071810, then how will DIAGRAM be written in the same language?

  1. ((a))

    07181310211316

  2. ((b))

    07181212211016

  3. ((c))

    07201010211116

  4. ((d))

    07181010211016

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

07181010211016

The logic followed here is 

In each word, 3 is added to each consonant and 9 is added to each vowel.

The code for GARAGE is as follows:

LetterGARAGE
Code07 + 3 = 1001 + 9 = 1018 + 3 = 2101 + 9 = 1007 + 3 =  1005 + 9 = 14

 

The code for GARAGE is 101021101014.

Similarly,

The code for MEDIA is as follows:

LetterMEDIA
Code13 + 3 = 1605 + 9 = 1404 + 3 = 0709 + 9 = 1801 + 9 = 10

 

The code for MEDIA is 1614071810.

Similarly, the code for DIAGRAM is as follows:

LetterDIAGRAM
Code04 + 3 = 0709 + 9 = 1801 + 9 = 1007 + 3 = 1018 + 3 = 2101 + 9 = 1013 + 3 = 16

 

Hence, 'DIAGRAM' is coded as '07181010211016'.

40

B and H are the only siblings. H is the only son of P. R is the son-in-law of N. N is the paternal grandmother of G who is the daughter of D. D is the sister-in-law of B. Then how is R related to G?

  1. ((a))

    Cousin

  2. ((b))

    Uncle

  3. ((c))

    Father

  4. ((d))

    Either niece or nephew 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Uncle

According to given conditions,

1) B and H are the only siblings.

  1. H is the only son of P.

As H is the only son of P, therefore B is the daughter and sister of P and H respectively.

3) D is the sister-in-law of B.

4) N is the paternal grandmother of G who is the daughter of D.

5) R is the son-in-law of N.

Thus, according to the final family tree R is the uncle of G.

Hence, "Uncle" is the correct answer.

41

Select the letter-pair that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

DWX, FZB, HCF, JFJ, LIN, ?

  1. ((a))

    NLR

  2. ((b))

    IJK

  3. ((c))

    PQR

  4. ((d))

    ABC

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

NLR

The logic follows here is :-

According to the Alphabetic order the series follows here is :

Thus, the correct answer is 'NLR'.

42

What was the day of the week on 13th November 1997?

  1. ((a))

    Saturday

  2. ((b))

    Tuesday

  3. ((c))

    Thursday

  4. ((d))

    Sunday

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Thursday

The logic follows here is:-

No. of Odd daysSimple YearLeap Year
365/7 = 52 weeks + 1 odd day366/7 = 52 weeks + 2 odd day

 

YearsNo. of odd days
100 years5
200 years3
300 years1
400 years0
<br>

Note:- Multiple of 400 years i.e. 800, 1200, 1600, 2000 have 0 odd days.

Calculating leap year: For Finding the number of leap year (1 - 99) years, divide the number of years by 4 and the quotient will be the number of leap years.

Code of weekdays:

No. of odd daysDay
0Sunday
1Monday
2Tuesday
3Wednesday
4Thursday
5Friday
6Saturday

 

 

Total odd days = 0 + 1 + 1 + 2 = 4 odd day.

4 is the code for Thursday

Thus, the correct answer is "Thursday".

43

Four number - pairs are given out of which three are alike in a certain way and one is different. Select the number - pair that is different from the rest.

  1. ((a))

    (22, 89, 45)

  2. ((b))

    (15, 61, 31)

  3. ((c))

    (12, 49, 25)

  4. ((d))

    (13, 52, 27)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

(13, 52, 27)

The logic follows here:

(First Number × 4) + 1 = Second Number

(First Number × 2) + 1 = Third Number

1) (22, 89, 45) →

(22 × 4) + 1 = 89

(22 × 2) + 1 = 45

2) (15, 61, 31) →

(15 × 4) + 1 = 61

(15 × 2) + 1 = 31

3) (12, 49, 25) →

(12 × 4) + 1 = 49

(12 × 2) + 1 = 25

4) (13, 52, 27) →

(13 × 4) + 1 = 53 ≠ 52

(13 × 2) + 1 = 27

Hence, "(13, 52, 27)" is the correct answer.

Alternate Method

The logic follows here:

(First Number × 2) + Third Number = Second Number

1) (22, 89, 45) →

(22 × 2) + 45 

= 44 + 45

= 89

2) (15, 61, 31) →

(15 × 2) + 31

= 30 + 31

= 61

3) (12, 49, 25) →

(12 × 2) + 25

= 24 + 25

= 49

4) (13, 52, 27) →

(13 ×2) + 27

= 26 + 27

= 53 ≠ 52

Hence, "(13, 52, 27)" is the correct answer.

44

From the given options, which answer figure / figures can be formed by folding the figure given in the question?

  1. ((a))

    (a) and (d)

  2. ((b))

    (c) and (d)

  3. ((c))

    (b) and (c)

  4. ((d))

    (a) and (c)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(a) and (d)

When we fold a given figure then we get,

By solving the options:

a)

 → It can be formed because there is no opposite phase adjacent to each other.

b)

 → It cannot be formed because opposite phase are adjacent to each other.

c)

 → It cannot be formed because opposite phase are adjacent to each other.

d)

 → It can be formed because there is no opposite phase adjacent to each other.

Hence, (a) and (d) is the correct answer.

45

If all the letters in the word 'SIGNATURE',  are arranged according to English alphabetical order, the positions of how many letters will remain unchanged after rearrangement ?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Two

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    Four

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

One

Word is - S I G N A T U R E

Arranged according to English alphabetical order - A E G I N R S T U

Hence, only one letter i.e. G, will remain unchanged after rearrangement.

46

Thee statements are given followed by three conclusions I, II and III. You have to consider the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follows/follow from the given statements.

Statements:

All stones are rivers.

All rivers are cars.

Some cars are trains.

Conclusions:

I. Some train are stones.

II. Some cars are stones.

III. Some trains are rivers.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follows.

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows.

  3. ((c))

    Both conclusions I and II follows.

  4. ((d))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Only conclusion II follows.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as below:

Conclusions: 

1. Some train are stones → False (As there is no direct relation between stones and train given, it is possible but not definite). 2. Some cars are stones → True (As all the stones are rivers and all the rivers are cars thus we can say some cars will also be stones is a definite conclusion). 3. Some trains are rivers → False (As there is no direct relation between trains and river given, it is possible but not definite).

Hence, the correct answer is "Only conclusion II follows".

Additional Information

47

From the given alternative words select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

DEPASTURES

  1. ((a))

    Easter

  2. ((b))

    Sparse

  3. ((c))

    Sugar

  4. ((d))

    Teasers

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Sugar

The word ‘Sugar’ cannot be formed using the letters of the word ‘DEPASTURES’ because the letter ‘g’ is not present in ‘DEPASTURES’.

48

Vimal who is facing west takes a 120° turn in the anti-clockwise direction. Then he takes a clockwise turn of 90° and again takes a 135° turn in a clockwise direction. Which direction is he facing now?

  1. ((a))

    North-east

  2. ((b))

    North

  3. ((c))

    South-east

  4. ((d))

    East

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

North-east

From the given information:

Total clockwise rotation = 90° + 135° =225°

Total anti-clockwise rotation = 120°

Therefore, resultant rotation = 225° - 120° = 105° (clockwise)

Thus, Vimal was initially facing west and then he takes a 105° turn in a clockwise direction as shown in the diagram below:

Hence, Vimal is facing the northeast direction now.

49

Seven friends, J, K, L, M, N, O and P, are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre and at equal distance from each other (not necessarily in the same order). K sits fifth to the left of M. O sits second to the left of M. L is an immediate neighbour of M and sits fourth to the left of P. J is not an immediate neighbour of K. Which among the following pairs denotes the immediate neighbours of N?

  1. ((a))

    P, M

  2. ((b))

    K, L

  3. ((c))

    K, M

  4. ((d))

    L, P

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

K, M

  1. K sits fifth to the left of M.

  1. O sits second to the left of M.

  1. L is an immediate neighbour of M and sits fourth to the left of P.

  1. J is not an immediate neighbour of K.

K and M are immediate neighbours of N.

Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

50

Three of the following four words are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd word out.

  1. ((a))

    Joy stick

  2. ((b))

    Microphone

  3. ((c))

    Projector

  4. ((d))

    Trackball

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Projector

Joystick, Microphone and trackball is the input device and Projector is the output device.

Hence, Projector is the correct answer.

51

Directions: A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

K15Z, N24T, Q35N, T48H, ?

  1. ((a))

    W63B

  2. ((b))

    W64B

  3. ((c))

    V64C

  4. ((d))

    V63B

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

W63B

Given Series: K15Z, N24T, Q35N, T48H, ?

The logic followed for the first letter:

First letters are: K, N, Q, T,

The logic followed for the digit:

Digits are: 15, 24, 35, 48,

4 × 4 – 1 = 15

5 × 5 – 1 = 24

6 × 6 – 1 = 35

7 × 7 – 1 = 48

8 × 8 – 1 = 63

The logic followed for the second letter:

Second letters are: Z, T, N, H,

Hence, the next term will be W63B.

52

Direction: Select the related image from the given alternatives.

  1. ((a))

    (a)

  2. ((b))

    (b)

  3. ((c))

    (c)

  4. ((d))

    (d)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(a)

From the first figure to the second figure, the circle goes inside the triangle and the triangle, in turn, goes inside the square, which turns on to its base. And, from figure third to fourth, the square goes inside the diamond and the diamond, in turn, goes inside the Pentagon, which turns onto its base.

Hence, Figure (a) is the correct answer.

53

In a certain code language, "BRAVE" is written as "20", "COMMON" is written as "30". How will "KISHORE" be written as in that language?

  1. ((a))

    85

  2. ((b))

    42

  3. ((c))

    75

  4. ((d))

    40

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

42

The positions of the letters according to the English alphabet series:

The pattern for this code is as follows;

Number of letters × (Number of letters - 1)

In BRAVE →

In BRAVE there are 5 letters.

BRAVE = 5 × (5 - 1)

= 5 × 4 = 20

In COMMON →

In COMMON there are 6 letters.

COMMON = 6 × (6 - 1)

= 6 × 5 = 30

Similarly;

In KISHORE →

In KISHORE there are 7 letters.

KISHORE = 7 × (7 - 1)

= 7 × 6 = 42

Hence, "42" is the correct answer.

54

Among Zoya, Yash, Xenifer, William and Vihan each scoring different marks in a test. Xenifer scored more than William but not as much as Vihan. Vihan scored more than Zoya, who scored less than Yash. Who did score second highest marks? 

  1. ((a))

    Vihan

  2. ((b))

    Yash

  3. ((c))

    Zoya

  4. ((d))

    Either Vihan or Yash

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Either Vihan or Yash

Five students: Zoya, Yash, Xenifer, William, and Vihan

1) Xenifer scored more than William but not as much as Vihan

Vihan > Xenifer > William

2) Vihan scored more than Zoya, who scored less than Yash

Vihan > Zoya

Yash > Zoya

There is no direct relationship given between Vihan and Yash.

Hence, Either Vihan or Yash scored the second-highest marks.

55

Point P is 4 m north of point R. Point U is 10 m east of point V, which is 5 m south of point W. Point Q is north of point S, which is west of point T. Point U is 7 m north of point T. Point R is the middle of the point of Q and point W. Point Q is 6 m to the west of W.

What is the direction of point V with respect to point S?

  1. ((a))

    North East

  2. ((b))

    North West

  3. ((c))

    South West

  4. ((d))

    North

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

North East

Eight points P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W.

1) Point P is 4 m north of point R.

2) Point R is the middle of the point of Q and point W.

  1. Point Q is 6 m to the west of W.

4) Point U is 10 m east of point V, which is 5 m south of point W.

5)  Point Q is north of point S, which is west of point T.

Hence, point V is in North East of point S.

Mental Ability & Reasoning 2 (15 questions)

56

In a certain code language, "ACNE" is written as "3-7-29-11", "CLICK" is written as "7-25-19-7-23". How will "BOIL" be written as in that language?

  1. ((a))

    5-29-19-27

  2. ((b))

    5-29-19-29

  3. ((c))

    5-31-19-25

  4. ((d))

    5-31-21-25

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

5-31-19-25

The positions of the letters according to the English alphabet series:

The pattern for this code is as follows;

And;

Similarly;

Hence, "5-31-19-25" is the correct answer.

57

Direction: In the following question assuming the given statement to be true, find which of the conclusion among given conclusions is / are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.

Statement: 

X = F < R > H > K

Conclusions:

I. K < R 

II. R > X

III. H < X 

IV. X < K

  1. ((a))

    Only I and II are true

  2. ((b))

    Only I, II and III are true

  3. ((c))

    Only II, III and IV are true

  4. ((d))

    All I, II, III and IV are true 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I and II are true

Given statements: X = F < R > H > K

Conclusions:

I. K < R → True (R > H > K → R > K)

II. R > X → True (X = F < R → R > X)

III. H < X → False (X = F < R > H → clear relation between H and X cannot be determined)

IV. X < K → False (X = F < R > H > K → thus clear relation between X and K cannot be determined)

Only I and II are true.

58

In a certain code language, MALE is written as 2375 and CIRCULAR is written as 98496734 then how can CLAIM be written in that code language?

  1. ((a))

    87342

  2. ((b))

    97384

  3. ((c))

    97382

  4. ((d))

    67382

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

97382

According to the question:

MALE → 2375

⇒ M → 2; A → 3, L → 7; E → 5

CIRCULAR →  98496734

⇒ C → 9; I → 8; R → 4; U → 6; L → 7; A → 3; R → 4

Using the codes above, we can form the code for the word CLAIM i.e. 97382.

Hence, the code for the CLAIM is 97382.

59

From the given options complete the series. FJKP, ILMQ, LNOR, OPQS, (_)

  1. ((a))

    RQSs

  2. ((b))

    RTTU

  3. ((c))

    RRST

  4. ((d))

    RQTV

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

RRST

According to the English Alphabet series with positional value;

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, RRST will complete the series.

60

If the mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

If a mirror is placed along the AB line, then only the left and right sides of a given image will be interchanged in the mirror image while everything else will remain the same. Thus, we will get the following mirror image:

Hence, Option 3 is the correct answer.

61

In the following question, select the related letters/numbers from the given alternatives.

EIP : 223044

  1. ((a))

    NTR : 405244

  2. ((b))

    JRV : 324856

  3. ((c))

    PCR : 442048

  4. ((d))

    KCR : 341850

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

JRV : 324856

The logic follows here is :-

Given, EIP : 223044

Similarly,

Thus, the correct answer is "JRV : 324856".

62

Four letter clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Select the odd letter cluster.

  1. ((a))

    BCEH

  2. ((b))

    LMOR

  3. ((c))

    OPRU

  4. ((d))

    RSUY

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

RSUY

The pattern followed here is:

Therefore, “RSUY” is odd among them.

Hence, “RSUY” is the correct answer.

63

In a certain code language, "MOHAN" is written as "OOJAP". How will "SANDEEP" be written as in that language

  1. ((a))

    UAPDGER

  2. ((b))

    UADPGER

  3. ((c))

    UPADGRE

  4. ((d))

    UAPDPER

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

UAPDGER

The positions of the letters according to the English alphabet series:

The pattern for this code is as follows;

<br>

Similarly;

<br>

Hence, "UAPDGER" is the correct answer.

64

If the time on a clock is 9:35, what is the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand?

  1. ((a))

    77º

  2. ((b))

    85º

  3. ((c))

    77.5º

  4. ((d))

    85.5º

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

77.5º

The Formula used here is:

Angle = |(11/2) M - 30 H|

Where, M = minutes and H = hours

Here, M = 35 and H = 9

Therefore, we get the angle = |(11/2) M - 30 H|

Angle = |(11/2) × 35 - 30 × 9|

Angle = |192.5 - 270| = |-77.5|

Hence, the correct answer is "77.5⁰".

65

If ‘+’ means ‘-’, ‘-’ means ‘× ‘, ‘×’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘+’, then choose the correct expression from the following options.

  1. ((a))

    10 - 36 × 18 + 7 ÷ 6 = 20

  2. ((b))

    15 × 3 ÷ 7 - 4 + 9 = 25

  3. ((c))

    8 ÷ 9 – 7 + 52 × 13 = 67

  4. ((d))

    56 + 9 ÷ 8 - 39 × 13 = 70

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

8 ÷ 9 – 7 + 52 × 13 = 67

The pattern followed here is,

Symbol+-×÷
Meaning-×÷+
<br>

After replacing the symbol with their meaning, we get,

Option 1:

10 × 36 ÷ 18 - 7 + 6

= 10 × 2 - 7 + 6

= 20 - 7 + 6

= 26 - 7

= 19

Option 2:

15 ÷ 3 + 7 × 4 - 9

= 5 + 7 × 4 - 9

= 5 + 28 - 9

= 33 - 9

= 24

Option 3:

8 + 9 × 7 - 52 ÷ 13

= 8 + 9 × 7 - 4

= 8 + 63 - 4

= 71 - 4

= 67

Option 4:

56 - 9 + 8 × 39 ÷ 13

= 56 - 9 + 8 × 3

= 56 - 9 + 24

= 80 - 9

= 71

Hence, ‘8 ÷ 9 – 7 + 52 × 13 = 67’ is the correct answer.

66

Six persons like different colours and they were seated in a row facing north. Two persons were seated between the one who likes Black colour and the one who likes Pink colour and neither of them was seated at the end. The one who likes Black colour was seated second to the left of the one who likes Red colour. The one who likes Green colour was seated at the right end. The one who likes Yellow colour was seated to the left of the one who likes Blue colour. Who was seated second to the left of the one who likes Blue colour?

  1. ((a))

    Yellow

  2. ((b))

    Cannot be determined

  3. ((c))

    Green

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Yellow

Correct option - 1

  1. Two persons were seated between the one who likes Black colour and the one who likes Pink colour and neither of them was seated at the end. The one who likes Black colour was seated second to the left of the one who likes Red colour.

  1. The one who likes Green colour was seated at the right end. The one who likes Yellow colour was seated to the left of the one who likes Blue colour. 

The one who likes Yellow colour was seated second to the left of the one who likes Blue colour

Hence, option 1 is the correct answer

67

Select the figure that will come next in the following series.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The pattern followed is,

In each step, elements shift from left to right column-wise. For example, all the elements of column 1 shift to column 2, those of column 2 shift to column 3.

Then, the symbols in the first column rotate in a cyclic manner from top to bottom.

The figure which will come next is,

Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

68

In the following mixed series, one term is missing. Find out the missing term.

32H5, 16K10, 8O20, 4T40, ?

  1. ((a))

    2Y80

  2. ((b))

    2Z80

  3. ((c))

    1Z80

  4. ((d))

    1Y80

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

2Z80

Given Series: 32H5, 16K10, 8O20, 4T40, ?

The logic followed for first number is:

32 ÷ 2 = 16

16 ÷ 2 =   8

8 ÷ 2 =   4

4 ÷ 2 =   2

So, First digit will be 2.

The logic followed for the letters is:

Letters are: H, K, O, T

So, letter will be Z.

The logic followed for the number is:

Second numbers: 5, 10, 20, 40

5 × 2 = 10

10 × 2 = 20

20 × 2 = 40

40 × 2 = 80

Hence, the next term is 2Z80.

69

Find the wrong term in the following series:

11, 20, 57, 226, 1115

  1. ((a))

    20

  2. ((b))

    57

  3. ((c))

    226

  4. ((d))

    1115

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

226

The series is:

11

11 × 2 - 2 = 20

20 × 3 - 3 = 57

57 × 4 - 4 = 224

224 × 5 - 5 = 1115

Hence, wrong term is 226, Option (3) is correct.

70

Select the number that can replace the question mark ? In the following series.

30, 38, 52, ?, 98, 130

  1. ((a))

    70

  2. ((b))

    71

  3. ((c))

    72

  4. ((d))

    75

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

72

Given series: 30, 38, 52, ?, 98, 130

The logic is:

Hence, 72 is the correct answer.

Numerical Ability & Data Interpretation 1 (20 questions)

71

A shopkeeper marks up the price of an article 60% above the C.P. and gives 10% discount, Find the profit %.

  1. ((a))

    48

  2. ((b))

    24

  3. ((c))

    54

  4. ((d))

    44

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

44

Given: 

Mark up% = 60%

Discount = 10%

Concept used:

Marked price = C.P. + Markup % of C.P.

Selling Price = Marked price - Discount

Profit % = ({S.P. - C.P. \over C.P.}) ×  100%

Calculations:

 

Marked price = C.P. + Markup % of C.P.

Selling Price = Marked price - Discount

Profit % = ({S.P. - C.P. \over C.P.}) × 100%

Let the C.P. of the article = 100x

Marked price = 100x + 60% of 100x = 160x

Selling price = 160x - 10% of 160x = 144x

Profit % = ({144x - 100x\over 100x}) × 100 % = 44%

Let the C.P. of the article = 100x

Marked price = 100x + 60% of 100x 

 ⇒ Marked price = 160x

Selling price = 160x - 10% of 160x

 ⇒ Selling price = 160x - 16x

 ⇒ Selling price = 144x

Profit = ({144x - 100x\over 100x}) × 100 %

 ⇒ Profit = 44%

Hence option D is the correct answer.

Shortcut Trick⇒ M.P. = 160% of C.P

⇒ S.P. = 90% of M.P

⇒ (S.P.)/(C.P.) = (160/100) × (90/100) = 144/100

if, C.P. = 100, then S.P. = 144.

∴ Profit of Rs. 44 and P% of 44%, as we're calculating everything on 100.

72

P and Q starts a business with investment of Rs. 28000 and Rs. 42000 respectively. P invests for 8 months and Q invests for one year. If the total profit at the end of the year is Rs. 21125, then what is the share of P?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 12625

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 14625

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 6500

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 8750

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Rs. 6500

GIVEN:

Money invested by P is Rs. 28000 per month and he has invested for 8 months.

Money invested by Q is Rs. 42000 per month and he has invested for 12 months.

CONCEPT:

In this type of questions, the profit ratio among the persons is the same as that of the ratio of their capital investment. So we will find the ratio of capital investment, which will be the same as the profit ratio and since we know the total profit and profit ratio, we can find the individual profit.

FORMULA USED:

Profit made by A = (Amount of money invested by A × Total profit) / Total money invested by A and B together)

CALCULATION:

Total money invested by A = 28000 × 8 = 224000

Total money invested by A and B together = 28000 × 8 + 42000 × 12 = 728000

Profit made by A = (224000 × 21125) / 728000 = 6500

∴ The profit made by A is Rs. 6500.

73

Sunil purchased a fan at a 10% discount on the labelled price. If he had purchased it at a 15% discount, he would have saved ₹400. Find the labelled price of the fan.

  1. ((a))

    ₹8,400

  2. ((b))

    ₹7,500

  3. ((c))

    ₹800

  4. ((d))

    ₹8,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

₹8,000

Given:

Sunil purchased a fan at a 10% discount on the labeled price.

If he had purchased it at a 15% discount, he would have saved ₹400.

Concept used:

Cost price = Labelled price × (100 - discount)%

Calculation:

Let the labeled price of the fan be Rs. 100x

Now,

After the actual discount cost price of the fan for Sunil was = 100x × 90%

⇒ 90x

Now,

If he gets a 15% discount then,

Cost price = 100x × 85%

⇒ 85x

According to the question,

90x - 85x = 400

⇒ 5x = 400

⇒ x = 80

So, 100x = 8000

∴ The labeled price of the fan is ₹8,000.

Shortcut Trick

​A difference of 5% discount saved Rs.400

Then 100% → 400/5 × 100 = 8000 (Marked Price)

74

A sum of ₹3,596 is divided between A, B, and C in the ratio (\frac{1}{6},:,\frac{1}{8}:,\frac{1}{9}). What is the difference (in ₹) between the shares of A and C?

  1. ((a))

    434

  2. ((b))

    620

  3. ((c))

    496

  4. ((d))

    372

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

496

Shortcut Trick

LCM of the denominators 6, 8, and 9 is 72. Multiplying fractions by 72 gives integer ratio.

A : B : C = (1/6 × 72) : (1/8 × 72) : (1/9 × 72) = 12 : 9 : 8

Total units = 12 + 9 + 8 = 29 units → ₹3,596

1 unit = ₹3,596 ÷ 29 = ₹124

Difference between A and C = 12 − 8 = 4 units → 4 × 124 = 496

∴ The correct answer is ₹496.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total amount to be divided = ₹3,596

Initial ratio of shares of A, B, and C = 1/6 : 1/8 : 1/9

Calculations:

⇒ LCM of the denominators 6, 8, and 9 is 72.

⇒ Multiplying each fraction by 72 to get simple integer ratios:

⇒ Share of A = 1/6 × 72 = 12 units

⇒ Share of B = 1/8 × 72 = 9 units

⇒ Share of C = 1/9 × 72 = 8 units

⇒ Simplified ratio of shares A : B : C = 12 : 9 : 8

⇒ Total sum of ratio units = 12 + 9 + 8 = 29 units

⇒ We know, 29 units = ₹3,596

⇒ 1 unit = 3596 ÷ 29 = 124

⇒ Difference in ratio between A and C = 12 units − 8 units = 4 units

⇒ Total difference in amount = 4 × 124 = 496

∴ The correct answer is ₹496.

Additional Information

Ratio Simplification

To convert fractional ratios into simplest integer ratios, multiply each fraction by the Least Common Multiple (LCM) of all the denominators.

Proportion

When two ratios are equal, they are said to be in proportion (a/b = c/d). The core rule of proportion is that the product of the extremes equals the product of the means (a × d = b × c).

Distribution of Amount

If a total quantity T is to be divided among participants in the ratio a : b : c, the individual share can be calculated as Share = (Individual Ratio Unit ÷ Total Ratio Units) × T.

75

The boy-girl ratio of a class is 4 ∶ 3. The number of girls scoring above 60% and below 60% is in the ratio 5 ∶ 3. If the total strength of class is 56, how many girls score below 60%?

  1. ((a))

    6

  2. ((b))

    7

  3. ((c))

    8

  4. ((d))

    9

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

9

Total no. of students = 56

Boy-girl ratio = 4 ∶ 3

⇒ Total no. of girls = 3/7 × 56 = 24

Ratio of girls scoring above 60% and below 60% = 5 ∶ 3

∴ No of girls scoring below 60% = 3/8 × 24 = 9

76

The Difference between compound interest, compounding annually and simple interest on an amount of ₹500 for 2 years is ₹1.25. What is the rate of interest per annum?

  1. ((a))

    2%

  2. ((b))

    4%

  3. ((c))

    3%

  4. ((d))

    5%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

5%

Given data:

Principal (P) = ₹500

Time (T) = 2 years

Difference between compound interest and simple interest (CI - SI) = ₹1.25

Concept Used:

The difference between compound interest and simple interest for two years is

given by the formula CI - SI = P × (r/100)²,

where r is the rate of interest.

Calculation:

⇒ Rate of interest (r) = √((CI - SI) × 100² / P)

⇒ Rate of interest (r) = √((1.25 × 100²)/500) = 5%

Hence, the rate of interest per annum is 5%.

77

Simple interest on a sum for 5 years is equal to 20 percent of the principal. In how many years interest will be equal to the principal?

  1. ((a))

    12 years

  2. ((b))

    20 years

  3. ((c))

    25 years

  4. ((d))

    24 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

25 years

Given:

S.I. for 5 years = 20% of Principal

Formula used:

S.I. = (P × R × T)/100

where P → Principal

R → Rate of interest

T → Time period

Calculation:

Let the principle be Rs. P

According to the question,

⇒ (P × 5 × rate)/100 = 20% of P

⇒ rate = 4%

Now, let in t years the simple interest will be equal to the principal

⇒ Simple interest = (P × 4 × t)/100

⇒ P = (P × t)/25

∴ t = 25 years

Shortcut TrickRatio of Principal to S.I. in 5 years = 100 : 20

Let the Principal be 100, so we are required to make S.I. = 100

⇒ S.I. of 20 = 5  years

⇒ S.I. of 100 = 5/20 × 100 = 25 years

78

The length of a room is 5.5 m and the width is 3.75 m. Find the cost of paving the floor with slabs at the rate of Rs. 800 per sq. meter.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 15000

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 15550

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 15600

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 16500

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Rs. 16500

Shortcut Trick

Total Cost = Length × Width × Rate per m2

Cost = 5.5 × 3.75 × 800

Multiply 3.75 by 800 first: 3.75 × 800 = 3000

Cost = 5.5 × 3000 = 16500

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 16500.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length of the room (L) = 5.5 m

Width of the room (W) = 3.75 m

Rate of paving = Rs. 800 per m2

Formula Used:

Area of a rectangle = Length × Width

Total Cost = Area × Rate per unit area

Calculations:

⇒ Area of the floor = 5.5 m × 3.75 m

⇒ Area = 20.625 m2

⇒ Total Cost = 20.625 × 800

⇒ Total Cost = 16500

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 16500.

Additional Information

Area of Rectangle

The total space enclosed within the boundaries of a rectangle. Formula: Area = Length × Breadth.

Perimeter of Rectangle

The total length of the boundary of a rectangle. Formula: Perimeter = 2 × (Length + Breadth). This is used for finding the cost of fencing or placing borders.

Area of Square

A square is a special type of rectangle where all four sides are equal. Formula: Area = Side2.

79

At what rate of compound interest p.a. will Rs. 1250 amount to Rs. 1800 in two years ?

  1. ((a))

    15%

  2. ((b))

    18%

  3. ((c))

    20%

  4. ((d))

    22%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

20%

Given :

Principal(P) = Rs.1250

Amount after two yrs.(A) = Rs.1800

Time = 2 yrs.

Formula used :

(A = P\bigg(1+\dfrac{R}{100}\bigg)^2)

Calculation :

Let the rate of interest be R % .

(1800 = 1250\bigg(1+\dfrac{R}{100}\bigg)^2) , (\dfrac{1800}{1250} = \bigg(1+\dfrac{R}{100} \bigg)^2) or (\dfrac{6}{5} = \bigg(1+\dfrac{R}{100}\bigg)) 

So, R = 20%

∴ The answer is 20 % .

Shortcut Trick ⇒ Ratio of Principle and Amount = 1250/1800 = 25/36

⇒ In 2 yrs Principle has changed from, 25x to 36x

To find Rate of change per year we've to take square root on both the sides as it has change in 2 yrs.

⇒ Principle → Amount

⇒ √{25} → √{36} 

⇒ 5 → 6

∴ % Rate of change per year = {(6 - 5)/5} × 100 = 20%

80

What is the radius of the circle whose area is equal to the sum of the areas of two circles whose radii are 15 cm and 8 cm?

  1. ((a))

    13 cm

  2. ((b))

    15 cm

  3. ((c))

    17 cm

  4. ((d))

    14 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

17 cm

Shortcut Trick

If the area of a new circle is equal to the sum of the areas of two circles with radii r1 and r2, the radius R of the new circle is simply given by the Pythagorean relation: R = √(r12 + r22).

Given, r1 = 15 cm and r2 = 8 cm.

R = √(152 + 82)

R = √(225 + 64) = √289

R = 17 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 17 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Radius of the first circle (r1) = 15 cm

Radius of the second circle (r2) = 8 cm

Formula Used:

Area of a circle = πr2

Calculations:

Let the radius of the larger circle be R.

⇒ Area of new circle = Area of first circle + Area of second circle

⇒ πR2 = π(r1)2 + π(r2)2

⇒ πR2 = π × (152 + 82)

⇒ R2 = 225 + 64

⇒ R2 = 289

⇒ R = √289

⇒ R = 17 cm

∴ The correct answer is 17 cm.

Additional Information

Pythagorean Triplets

Three positive integers a, b, and c that satisfy a2 + b2 = c2 form a Pythagorean triplet. Common examples are (3, 4, 5), (5, 12, 13), (8, 15, 17), and (7, 24, 25). Spotting these saves calculation time.

Circumference Sum Relation

If the circumference of a circle equals the sum of the circumferences of two circles with radii r1 and r2, then the radius R of the new circle follows a direct linear addition: R = r1 + r2.

Area of Semicircle and Quadrant

Area of a Semicircle = ½ πr2 and its Perimeter = πr + 2r. Area of a Quadrant = ¼ πr2 and its Perimeter = πr/2 + 2r.

81

The curved surface area of a cylinder is 594 cm2 and its vol is 1336.5 cm3. What is the height (in cm) of the cylinder?

  1. ((a))

    114

  2. ((b))

    21

  3. ((c))

    24.5

  4. ((d))

    10.5

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

21

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Volume (V) to Curved Surface Area (CSA) = r / 2

r / 2 = 1336.5 / 594 = 2.25

⇒ Radius (r) = 4.5 cm

Height (h) = CSA ÷ (2 × π × r)

h = 594 ÷ (2 × 22/7 × 4.5) = 21 cm

∴ The correct answer is 21 cm.

Alternate Method

Given: Curved Surface Area (CSA) = 594 cm2, Volume (V) = 1336.5 cm3

Formula Used: CSA = 2πrh; Volume = πr2h

r

h CSA = 2πrh = 594 Vol = πr²h = 1336.5

⇒ Volume / CSA = (πr2h) / (2πrh) = 1336.5 / 594

⇒ r / 2 = 2.25

⇒ r = 4.5 cm

⇒ 2 × (22 / 7) × 4.5 × h = 594

⇒ (198 / 7) × h = 594

⇒ h = (594 × 7) / 198

⇒ h = 3 × 7 = 21 cm

∴ The correct answer is 21 cm.

Additional Information

Total Surface Area (TSA) of Cylinder

The total surface area includes the curved surface and the areas of the two circular bases: TSA = 2πrh + 2πr2 = 2πr(h + r).

Volume of a Hollow Cylinder

If R is the outer radius and r is the inner radius, the volume is V = πh(R2 − r2).

Diagonal of a Cylinder

The longest segment within a cylinder connects opposite points on the top and bottom circles, calculated as d = √(h2 + (2r)2).

82

If the curved surface area of a cone is 90% of the total surface area of the cone, then the volume of the cone is how much times the cube of the height of the cone?

  1. ((a))

    π/210

  2. ((b))

    π/240

  3. ((c))

    π/270

  4. ((d))

    π/300

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

π/240

Let the radius, height and slant height of cone be ‘r’, ‘h’ and ‘l’ units respectively

Given, curved surface area = 90% of Total surface area of cone

⇒ πrl = (9/10) × πr(l + r)

⇒ 10l = 9l + 9r

⇒ l = 9r

Also, l2 = h2 + r2

⇒ 81r2 = h2 + r2

⇒ h2 = 80r2

⇒ r2 = h2/80

Now,

Volume of cone = (1/3)πr2h

⇒ Volume of cone = π/3 × h2/80 × h

⇒ Volume of cone = (π/240) × h3

∴ The volume of cone is (π/240) times the cube of the height of the cone

83

A square is inscribed in the circle. If the diagonal of square is equal to diameter of circle and area of square is 72 cmthen find the area of circle.

  1. ((a))

    36π cm2

  2. ((b))

    48π cm2

  3. ((c))

    45π cm2

  4. ((d))

    None of these 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

36π cm2

Given 

Area of square = 72 cm2

Formula Used 

Area of square = side2

Area of circle = πR2

Calculation 

Area of square = side2

⇒ side = √72 = 6√2 cm 

Diagonal of square = side√2

⇒ 6√2 × √2 = 12 cm 

Radius of circle = diagonal/2

⇒ 12/2 = 6 cm 

Area of circle = π(6)2 

⇒ 36π cm2

∴ The area of circle is 36π cm2

84

A boat can go 3.6 km upstream and 5.4 km downstream in 54 minutes, while it can go 5.4 km upstream and 3.6 km downstream in 58.5 minutes. The time (in minutes) taken by the boat in going 10 km downstream is:

  1. ((a))

    54

  2. ((b))

    48

  3. ((c))

    50

  4. ((d))

    45

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

50

Short Trick:

U = upstream and D = downstream

3.6(U) + 5.4(D) = 54 and 5.4(U) + 3.6(D) = 58.5

Divide by 18

2U + 3D = 30 and 3U + 2D = 32.5

Now, Multiply by 3 in (1) and by 2 in (2), and then subtract (2) from (1), then

5D = 25 min

∴10D = 50 min

Detailed Method:

Let the speed of boat be x km/hr and speed of current be y km/hr

Upstream speed = (x – y) km/hr

Downstream speed = (x + y) km/hr

According to the question

3.6/(x – y) + 5.4/(x + y) = 54/60

5.4/(x – y) + 3.6/(x + y) = 58.5/60

Let 1/(x – y) = a and 1/(x + y) = b, then

3.6a + 5.4b = 54/60   ---(1)

5.4a + 3.6b = 58.5/60   ---(2)

Add equation (1) and equation (2)

9 (a + b) = 112.5/60

⇒a + b = 12.5/60

⇒a + b = 5/24   ---(3)

Subtract equation (2) from equation (1)

1.8 (b – a) = -4.5/60

⇒b – a = -2.5/60

⇒b – a = -1/24   ---(4)

Add equation (3) and equation (4)

2b = 4/24

⇒b = 1/12

⇒(x + y) = 12 km/hr

Downstream speed = 12 km/hr

∴Time taken to cover 10 km distance with downstream = 10/12 hr or (10/12) × 60 = 50 min

85

It took 138 people to build a house in 50 days. What part of the work can 207 men complete in 20 days?

  1. ((a))

    3/5

  2. ((b))

    2/3

  3. ((c))

    2/5

  4. ((d))

    4/15

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3/5

Shortcut Trick

Using the M1D1/W1 = M2D2/W2 chain rule.

Total work (W1) = 1 unit.

Work part (W2) = (M2 × D2) ÷ (M1 × D1)

W2 = (207 × 20) ÷ (138 × 50) = 4140 ÷ 6900 = 3/5

∴ The correct answer is 3/5.

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial Men (M1) = 138, Days (D1) = 50, Work (W1) = 1

Final Men (M2) = 207, Days (D2) = 20, Work (W2) = ?

Formula Used:

M1 × D1 × W2 = M2 × D2 × W1

Calculations:

⇒ 138 × 50 × W2 = 207 × 20 × 1

⇒ 6900 × W2 = 4140

⇒ W2 = 4140 ÷ 6900

⇒ W2 = 414 ÷ 690

⇒ W2 = (69 × 6) ÷ (69 × 10)

⇒ W2 = 6 ÷ 10 = 3/5

∴ The correct answer is 3/5.

Additional Information

The MDH Formula

Total work is proportional to Men × Days × Hours. The general formula is (M1D1H1)/W1 = (M2D2H2)/W2.

Efficiency and Work

If efficiencies (E) are different, the formula becomes M1D1E1/W1 = M2D2E2/W2.

Unitary Method

1 man 1 day work = 1 / (M1 × D1). Therefore, work by M2 in D2 = (M2 × D2) / (M1 × D1).

86

Pipe A usually fills a tank in 2 hours. On account of a leak at the bottom of the tank, it takes pipe A 30 more minutes to fill the tank. How long will the leak take to empty a full tank if pipe A is shut?

  1. ((a))

    4 hours

  2. ((b))

    6 hours

  3. ((c))

    8 hours

  4. ((d))

    10 hours

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

10 hours

Given 

Pipe A usually fills a tank = 2 hours.

Due to leakage tank fill in = 2.5 hours

Formula used 

Work = Time × Efficiency 

Calculation 

LCM of (2, 2.5) = 10 

Let the total work be 10 

A's efficiency = 10/2 = 5/hrs

(A + leakage)'s efficiency = 10/2.5 = 4/hrs

Leakage's efficiency = 1/hrs 

Leakage empty the tank in = 10/1 = 10 hours 

∴ The required answer is 10 hours

87

Abhinav leaves Mumbai at 6 am and reaches Bangalore at 10 am. Praveen leaves Bangalore at 8 am and reaches Mumbai at 11 : 30 am. At what time do they cross each other?

  1. ((a))

    10 am

  2. ((b))

    8 : 32 am

  3. ((c))

    8 : 56 am

  4. ((d))

    9 : 20 am

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

8 : 56 am

Shortcut Trick

Abhinav time = 4 hours | Praveen time = 3.5 hours (7/2 hours).

Assume Distance = LCM(4, 7) = 28 units.

Abhinav speed = 28 ÷ 4 = 7 units/hr | Praveen speed = 28 ÷ (7/2) = 8 units/hr.

At 8 am, Abhinav has covered 7 × 2 = 14 units. Remaining distance = 14 units.

Meeting time after 8 am = Remaining Distance ÷ Relative Speed = 14 ÷ (7 + 8) = 14/15 hours.

14/15 hours = 14/15 × 60 = 56 minutes. Time = 8 : 56 am.

∴ The correct answer is 8 : 56 am.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by Abhinav (TA) = 10 am − 6 am = 4 hours.

Time taken by Praveen (TP) = 11 : 30 am − 8 am = 3.5 hours = 7/2 hours.

Let the distance between Mumbai and Bangalore be D.

⇒ Speed of Abhinav (SA) = D/4

⇒ Speed of Praveen (SP) = D/(7/2) = 2D/7

⇒ Distance covered by Abhinav by 8 am (2 hours) = (D/4) × 2 = D/2

⇒ Remaining distance at 8 am = D − D/2 = D/2

⇒ Relative speed = SA + SP = D/4 + 2D/7 = (7D + 8D)/28 = 15D/28

⇒ Time to meet after 8 am = (D/2) ÷ (15D/28) = (D/2) × (28/15D) = 14/15 hours

⇒ 14/15 hours = (14/15) × 60 minutes = 56 minutes

⇒ Meeting time = 8 : 00 am + 56 minutes = 8 : 56 am

∴ The correct answer is 8 : 56 am.

Additional Information

Relative Speed

When two objects move in opposite directions, their relative speed is the sum of their individual speeds (S1 + S2).

Meeting Time Formula

Meeting Time = (Initial Distance between them at the same start time) ÷ (Relative Speed).

Time-Speed Relationship

For a constant distance, speed is inversely proportional to time (S ∝ 1/T).

88

A and B can complete a work alone in 20 days and 60 days respectively. They began the work together but A left the work after some days and B completed the remaining work in 12 days. After how many days from the beginning A left the work? 

  1. ((a))

    15 days

  2. ((b))

    10 days

  3. ((c))

    9 days

  4. ((d))

    12 days

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

12 days

Shortcut Trick

Total work = LCM(20, 60) = 60 units.

Efficiency: A = 60 ÷ 20 = 3 units/day, B = 60 ÷ 60 = 1 unit/day.

Work done by B alone in the last 12 days = 12 × 1 = 12 units.

Remaining work done by A and B together from the beginning = 60 − 12 = 48 units.

Days A and B worked together = 48 ÷ (3 + 1) = 12 days.

∴ The correct answer is 12 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by A alone to complete the work = 20 days

Time taken by B alone to complete the work = 60 days

Time taken by B to complete the remaining work = 12 days

Formula Used:

Total Work = Efficiency × Time Taken

PersonDaysTotal WorkEfficiency
A20603
B601

Calculations:

⇒ Work completed by B alone in the last 12 days = Efficiency of B × Days = 1 × 12 = 12 units

⇒ Remaining work to be completed by A and B together = Total Work − Work done by B

⇒ Remaining work = 60 − 12 = 48 units

⇒ Combined efficiency of A and B = 3 + 1 = 4 units/day

⇒ Number of days A and B worked together initially = Remaining work ÷ Combined efficiency

⇒ Days A and B worked together = 48 ÷ 4 = 12 days

This means A worked for 12 days from the beginning before leaving the work.

∴ The correct answer is 12 days.

Additional Information

Total Work & Efficiency Trick

Total work is universally taken as the Lowest Common Multiple (LCM) of individual completion times. Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken.

Alternate Days Working

When individuals work on alternate days, calculate the work done in a complete cycle (e.g., 2 days for 2 persons) and scale it up to reach the closest multiple near the total work.

Work & Wages Distribution

Wages are always distributed in proportion to the total units of work completed by each individual. If they work for the same duration, wages are directly distributed based on their efficiencies.

89

The salary of Neeta is first increased by 13% and then it is decreased by 13%. What is the change in her salary?

  1. ((a))

    Increase of 1.69%

  2. ((b))

    Increase of 16.9%

  3. ((c))

    Decrease of 16.9%

  4. ((d))

    Decrease of 1.69%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Decrease of 1.69%

Shortcut Trick

When a value is first increased by x% and then decreased by x%, there is always a net decrease.

Net Decrease % = (x2 ÷ 100)%

Given x = 13%, Net Decrease % = (13 × 13) ÷ 100 = 169 ÷ 100 = 1.69%

∴ The correct answer is Decrease of 1.69%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Increase in salary = 13%

Decrease in salary = 13%

Calculations:

⇒ Let the initial salary of Neeta be 100 units.

⇒ Salary after 13% increase = 100 + (13% of 100) = 113 units.

⇒ Salary after subsequent 13% decrease = 113 − (13% of 113)

⇒ Decrease amount = (13 ÷ 100) × 113 = 14.69 units.

⇒ Final salary = 113 − 14.69 = 98.31 units.

⇒ Net change = Final salary − Initial salary = 98.31 − 100 = −1.69 units.

⇒ Net percentage change = (−1.69 ÷ 100) × 100% = −1.69%

⇒ The negative sign indicates a decrease in the final value.

∴ The correct answer is Decrease of 1.69%.

Additional Information

Successive Percentage Change

When a value is subjected to two successive percentage changes of a% and b%, the effective net percentage change is given by: a + b + (a × b) ÷ 100. Use a negative sign for any decrease.

Equal Increase and Decrease

If a number is first increased by x% and then decreased by the same x%, the net change is always a decrease, calculated as: Net Loss % = (x2 ÷ 100)%.

Base Dependency

A fixed percentage increase followed by the same percentage decrease does not return the value to the original amount because the base for the decrease is larger than the original base.

90

Let x be the largest 4-digit number which is divisible by each of 16, 21, 24 and 28. The sum of the digits of X is:

  1. ((a))

    19

  2. ((b))

    21

  3. ((c))

    24

  4. ((d))

    16

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

24

Shortcut Trick

The LCM of 16, 21, 24, and 28 is 336.

Largest 4-digit number 9999 ÷ 336 leaves a remainder of 255.

Largest 4-digit multiple (x) = 9999 − 255 = 9744.

Sum of digits of 9744 = 9 + 7 + 4 + 4 = 24.

∴ The correct answer is 24.

Alternate Method

Given: Divisors are 16, 21, 24, and 28.

Formula Used: x = Largest 4-digit number − (Largest 4-digit number mod LCM of divisors).

⇒ Prime factorization of 16 = 24

⇒ Prime factorization of 21 = 3 × 7

⇒ Prime factorization of 24 = 23 × 3

⇒ Prime factorization of 28 = 22 × 7

LCM = 24 × 3 × 7 = 16 × 21 = 336

Largest 4-digit number = 9999

⇒ 9999 ÷ 336 ⇒ Quotient = 29, Remainder = 255

⇒ Required number x = 9999 − 255 = 9744

Sum of digits = 9 + 7 + 4 + 4 = 24

∴ The correct answer is 24.

Additional Information

Least Common Multiple (LCM)

The LCM is the smallest positive integer that is exactly divisible by each of the given numbers. It is calculated by taking the highest power of each prime factor involved.

Divisibility Rule of 3

A number is divisible by 3 if the sum of its digits is a multiple of 3. Since 9744 is a multiple of 21 and 24, it must be divisible by 3.

Division Algorithm

For any dividend and divisor: Dividend = (Divisor × Quotient) + Remainder. To find the largest multiple below a limit, subtract the remainder from that limit.

Numerical Ability & Data Interpretation 2 (15 questions)

91

An almirah is sold at a profit of 16%. If it was sold for ₹ 100 more, then the seller's profit would have been 20%. What is the cost price of the almirah?

  1. ((a))

    ₹ 1500 

  2. ((b))

    ₹ 2500

  3. ((c))

    ₹ 1800

  4. ((d))

    ₹ 2000

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

₹ 2500

Shortcut Trick

Difference in profit percentage = 20% − 16% = 4%

This 4% increase in profit corresponds to the increase in selling price of ₹ 100.

4% of CP = ₹ 100

1% of CP = 100 ÷ 4 = ₹ 25

100% of CP = 25 × 100 = ₹ 2500

∴ The correct answer is ₹ 2500.

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial Profit = 16%

Increased Selling Price = ₹ 100

New Profit = 20%

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = CP × (100 + Profit%) ÷ 100

Calculations:

Let the cost price (CP) of the almirah be ₹ x.

⇒ Initial Selling Price (SP1) = 116% of x = 1.16x

⇒ New Selling Price (SP2) = 120% of x = 1.20x

⇒ SP2 − SP1 = 100

⇒ 1.20x − 1.16x = 100

⇒ 0.04x = 100

⇒ x = 100 ÷ 0.04

⇒ x = 10000 ÷ 4

⇒ x = 2500

∴ The correct answer is ₹ 2500.

Additional Information

Profit and Loss Basics

Profit occurs when SP > CP, and Profit = SP − CP. Profit percentage is always calculated on the Cost Price unless stated otherwise.

Successive Percentage Method

When two profits/losses are compared for the same base (CP), the difference in their percentages is directly proportional to the difference in their absolute values.

Marked Price and Discount

Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price (MP). SP = MP × (100 − Discount%) ÷ 100.

92

If ((\sqrt{3}))5 × 92 = 3x × 3 (\sqrt{3}), then the value of x is :

  1. ((a))

    4

  2. ((b))

    5

  3. ((c))

    6

  4. ((d))

    7

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

5

Shortcut Trick

Convert all bases to 3 and compare the powers directly.

LHS: (√3)5 × 92 = 32.5 × 34 = 36.5

RHS: 3x × 3√3 = 3x × 31.5

Equate the powers: 6.5 = x + 1.5 ⇒ x = 5

∴ The correct answer is 5.

Alternate Method

Given:

(√3)5 × 92 = 3x × 3√3

Formula Used:

Law of Exponents: am × an = am+n and (am)n = am×n

Calculation:

Convert all terms to the common base of 3:

⇒ (√3)5 = (31/2)5 = 35/2

⇒ 92 = (32)2 = 34

⇒ 3√3 = 31 × 31/2 = 33/2

Now substitute these values back into the equation:

⇒ 35/2 × 34 = 3x × 33/2

Apply the multiplication rule of exponents on both sides:

⇒ 3(5/2 + 4) = 3(x + 3/2)

⇒ 313/2 = 3(x + 3/2)

Since the bases are the same, equate the exponents:

⇒ 13/2 = x + 3/2

⇒ x = 13/2 − 3/2

⇒ x = 10/2

⇒ x = 5

∴ The correct answer is 5.

Additional Information

Product Rule of Exponents

When multiplying terms with the same base, add their exponents: am × an = am+n.

Power of a Power Rule

When raising a power to another power, multiply the exponents: (am)n = am×n.

Fractional Exponents

Roots can be written as fractional powers: √a = a1/2 and n√a = a1/n.

Equality of Exponents

If two exponential expressions with the same base are equal, their exponents must be equal. If ax = ay, then x = y (provided a ≠ 0, 1, or −1).

93

A sum, when invested at 20% simple interest per annum, amounts to ₹3120 after 3 years. What is the simple interest (in ₹) on the same sum at the same rate in 1 year?

  1. ((a))

    195

  2. ((b))

    390

  3. ((c))

    1560

  4. ((d))

    780

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

390

Shortcut Trick

Total Interest for 3 years at 20% = 20% × 3 = 60%

Amount % = Principal % + Interest % = 100% + 60% = 160%

Given: 160% of Sum = ₹3120

Interest for 1 year = 20% of Sum

Required value = (3120 ÷ 160) × 20 = 3120 ÷ 8 = 390

∴ The correct answer is ₹390.

Alternate Method

Given:

Amount (A) = ₹3120, Rate (R) = 20%, Time (T) = 3 years

Formula used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) / 100

Amount (A) = P + SI = P × (1 + RT/100)

Year 0 (P) Year 1 Year 2 Year 3 (A=3120)

+20% SI

+20% SI

+20% SI Total Amount = 160% of P

Calculations:

⇒ 3120 = P × (1 + (20 × 3) / 100)

⇒ 3120 = P × (1 + 60/100)

⇒ 3120 = P × (160/100)

⇒ P = (3120 × 100) / 160

⇒ P = 3120 ÷ 1.6 = 1950

⇒ Simple Interest for 1 year = (1950 × 20 × 1) / 100

⇒ Simple Interest for 1 year = 1950 × 0.2 = 390

∴ The correct answer is ₹390.

Additional Information

Simple Interest Nature

Simple Interest remains constant for every year because it is always calculated on the original Principal amount.

Amount vs Interest

Total Amount = Principal + (Principal × Rate × Time) / 100. If R=20% and T=1, then SI = 0.2P.

Rate Calculation

The annual rate of interest can be found using R = (SI × 100) / (P × T).

94

Simplify the following expression.

(\rm \left(3\frac{2}{3}\ of\ \frac{3}{4}-\frac{1}{4}\ of\ \frac{4}{3}\right)\div\left(\frac{1}{4}\div\frac{3}{2}\right)+1\frac{1}{2})

  1. ((a))

    (\frac{32}{3})

  2. ((b))

    16

  3. ((c))

    (\frac{29}{2})

  4. ((d))

    (\frac{143}{18})

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

16

Given:

(\rm \left(3\frac{2}{3}\ of\ \frac{3}{4}-\frac{1}{4}\ of\ \frac{4}{3}\right)\div\left(\frac{1}{4}\div\frac{3}{2}\right)+1\frac{1}{2})

Concept used:

Calculation:

(\rm \left(3\frac{2}{3}\ of\ \frac{3}{4}-\frac{1}{4}\ of\ \frac{4}{3}\right)\div\left(\frac{1}{4}\div\frac{3}{2}\right)+1\frac{1}{2})

⇒ (\rm \left(\frac{11}{3}\ \times\ \frac{3}{4}-\frac{1}{4}\ \times\ \frac{4}{3}\right)\div\left(\frac{1}{4}\div\frac{3}{2}\right)+1\frac{1}{2})

⇒ (\rm \left(\frac{11}{4}\ -\frac{1}{3}\right)\div\left(\frac{1}{4}\div\frac{3}{2}\right)+1\frac{1}{2})

⇒ (\rm \left(\frac{33; -;4}{12}\right)\div\left(\frac{1}{4}\times\frac{2}{3}\right)+\frac{3}{2})

⇒ (\rm \left(\frac{29}{12}\right)\div\left(\frac{1}{6}\right)+\frac{3}{2})

⇒ (\rm \frac{29}{12}\times6+\frac{3}{2})

⇒ 29/2 + 3/2

⇒ 32/2

⇒ 16

∴ Required answer is 16

95

A trader bought two articles for Rs.490. He sold one at a loss of 20% and the other at a profit of 16%. If the selling price of both articles is same, then the cost price (in Rs.) of the article sold at 20% loss is:

  1. ((a))

    300

  2. ((b))

    280

  3. ((c))

    310

  4. ((d))

    290

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

290

Given:

Cost price of articles = Rs.490

Loss % = 20%

Profit % = 16%

Formula:

Loss % = (CP - SP)/CP × 100

Profit % = (SP - CP)/CP × 100

Calculation:

Let cost price of one article be Rs.a and cost price of two article be Rs.(490 - a).

Selling price of one article = a × 80/100 = Rs.4a/5

Selling price of other article = (490 - a) × 116/100 = Rs.(568.4 - 29a/25)

Then,

⇒ 4a/5 = 568.4 - 29a/25

⇒ 49a/25 = 568.4

⇒ a = 290

∴ Cost price of article which sold at loss of 20% is Rs.290.

Direction: The bar graph shows the debt of different countries. Study the diagram and answer the following questions.

96

If country F is paying 3% as interest on its debt per year, then how much interest (in $) does it pay per year?

  1. ((a))

    750000

  2. ((b))

    7500000

  3. ((c))

    1200000

  4. ((d))

    120000

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

7500000

Debt of country F = $250 million

Percentage interest = 3%

∴ Interest paid per year = 3% of 250 = 3/100 × 250 = 7.5million= 7.5 million = 7500000

97

What is the ratio of debt of country A to that of country F?

  1. ((a))

    12 : 5

  2. ((b))

    5 : 12

  3. ((c))

    6 : 5

  4. ((d))

    5 : 6

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12 : 5

Debt of country A = $600 million

Debt of country F = $250 million

∴ Required ratio = 600 : 250 = 12 : 5

98

Debt of country A is lesser than that of country B by _________.

  1. ((a))

    20%

  2. ((b))

    25%

  3. ((c))

    33.33%

  4. ((d))

    30%

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

25%

Debt of country A = $600 million

Debt of country B = $800 million

⇒ Difference in debt = 800 - 600 = 200

∴ Debt of country A is lesser than that of country B by = 200/800 × 100 = 25%

99

Which country has the second lowest debt?

  1. ((a))

    D

  2. ((b))

    A

  3. ((c))

    B

  4. ((d))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

D

The company F has the lowest debt of 250million,whilethesecondlowestiscompanyDof250 million, while the second lowest is company D of 500 million

∴ Company D has the second lowest debt

100

Simplify the following: 

(\rm \frac{3}{2}\times \frac{11}{5}\div \left(\frac{25}{44}\times \frac{11}{5}\right)\div \frac{33}{15}=?)

  1. ((a))

    (\frac{6}{5})

  2. ((b))

    (\frac{5}{6})

  3. ((c))

    (\frac{2}{3})

  4. ((d))

    (\frac{1}{2})

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(\frac{6}{5})

Given:

Simplify: (\frac{3}{2} \times \frac{11}{5} \div \left(\frac{25}{44} \times \frac{11}{5}\right) \div \frac{33}{15})

Calculation:

Step 1: Simplify the expression inside the parentheses:

(\frac{25}{44} \times \frac{11}{5} = \frac{25 \times 11}{44 \times 5} = \frac{275}{220} = \frac{5}{4})

Step 2: The expression now becomes:

(\frac{3}{2} \times \frac{11}{5} \div \frac{5}{4} \div \frac{33}{15})

Step 3: Simplify the division operations:

(\frac{11}{5} \div \frac{5}{4} = \frac{11}{5} \times \frac{4}{5} = \frac{44}{25})

Step 4: The expression now becomes:

(\frac{3}{2} \times \frac{44}{25} \div \frac{33}{15})

Step 5: Simplify the next division:

(\frac{44}{25} \div \frac{33}{15} = \frac{44}{25} \times \frac{15}{33} = \frac{44 \times 15}{25 \times 33} = \frac{660}{825} = \frac{4}{5})

Step 6: Final multiplication:

(\frac{3}{2} \times \frac{4}{5} = \frac{12}{10} = \frac{6}{5})

∴ The simplified value is (\frac{6}{5}).

101

A wire is bent to form a square of area 169 cm2.If the same wire is bent to form a circle, then what is its area (in cm2, to the nearest whole number)?

Take ([\pi = \frac{{22}}{7})]

  1. ((a))

    532

  2. ((b))

    531

  3. ((c))

    215

  4. ((d))

    227

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

215

Given:

Area of the square that is bent to form a circle = 169 cm2 

Formulas used:

The perimeter of the square with side a = 4a

Area of the square with side a = a2

The perimeter of the circle with radius r = 2πr

The area of the circle with radius r = πr2

Calculation:

Area of the square =  a2 

⇒  a2 = 169 

⇒ a = ± 13 

Side of the square = 13 cm 

When a wire is bent to form a square and then a circle, the perimeter of both the figures will be equal. 

4a = 2πr 

⇒ 4 × 13 = 2 × 22/7 × r 

⇒ r = (13 × 7)/ 11 

Area of the circle = πr2 

⇒ 22/7 × (13 × 7)/ 11 × (13 × 7)/ 11 

⇒ 2366/11 

⇒ 215.09 cm2

∴ Area of the circle = 215 cm2 (nearest to a whole number)

102

LCM of (\frac{2}{5}, \frac{3}{10}) and (\frac{4}{15}) is-

  1. ((a))

    (\frac{2}{5})

  2. ((b))

    (\frac{1}{15})

  3. ((c))

    (\frac{9}{5})

  4. ((d))

    (\frac{12}{5})

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

(\frac{12}{5})

Shortcut Trick

To find the LCM of fractions, calculate the LCM of the numerators divided by the HCF of the denominators.

Numerators: 2, 3, 4 → LCM = 12

Denominators: 5, 10, 15 → HCF = 5

Required LCM = 12/5

∴ The correct answer is 12/5.

Alternate Method

Given: Fractions are 2/5, 3/10, and 4/15.

Formula Used: LCM of (a/b, c/d, e/f) = LCM(a, c, e) ÷ HCF(b, d, f)

Step-by-step Calculation:

Numerators of the given fractions are 2, 3, and 4.

⇒ Find the Lowest Common Multiple (LCM) of 2, 3, and 4:

⇒ Multiples of 2: 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, ...

⇒ Multiples of 3: 3, 6, 9, 12, ...

⇒ Multiples of 4: 4, 8, 12, ...

LCM(2, 3, 4) = 12

Denominators of the given fractions are 5, 10, and 15.

⇒ Find the Highest Common Factor (HCF) of 5, 10, and 15:

⇒ Factors of 5: 1, 5

⇒ Factors of 10: 1, 2, 5, 10

⇒ Factors of 15: 1, 3, 5, 15

HCF(5, 10, 15) = 5

⇒ Therefore, LCM of fractions = 12/5

∴ The correct answer is 12/5.

Additional Information

HCF of Fractions

To find the HCF of fractions, use the formula: HCF of Numerators / LCM of Denominators.

Relation between Two Numbers

For any two positive integers a and b, the product of the numbers is equal to the product of their HCF and LCM: a × b = HCF(a, b) × LCM(a, b).

Co-prime Numbers

If two numbers are co-prime (their HCF is 1), then their LCM is simply the product of the two numbers.

103

94 is divided into two parts in such a way that the fifth part of the first and the eighth part of the second are in the ratio 3 : 4 The first part is:

  1. ((a))

    30

  2. ((b))

    36

  3. ((c))

    50

  4. ((d))

    64

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30

Shortcut Trick

Convert the given fractional relation directly to a ratio: (3 × 5) : (4 × 8) = 15 : 32.

Total ratio parts = 15 + 32 = 47.

47 parts → 94 ⇒ 1 part → 2.

First part = 15 parts × 2 = 30.

∴ The correct answer is 30.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total value to be divided = 94.

Let the two parts be A and B.

Logic / Formula Used:

If a number N is divided in the ratio m : n, then First Part = N × [m ÷ (m + n)].

Calculations:

⇒ According to the question, (A ÷ 5) ÷ (B ÷ 8) = 3 ÷ 4

⇒ (A ÷ 5) × (8 ÷ B) = 3 ÷ 4

⇒ 8A ÷ 5B = 3 ÷ 4

⇒ A ÷ B = (3 × 5) ÷ (4 × 8)

⇒ A ÷ B = 15 ÷ 32

⇒ Ratio of A : B = 15 : 32

⇒ Sum of ratio terms = 15 + 32 = 47

⇒ First part A = 94 × (15 ÷ 47)

⇒ First part A = 2 × 15 = 30

∴ The correct answer is 30.

Additional Information

Dividing a Quantity in a Given Ratio

To divide a quantity N in the ratio a : b, the first part is calculated as (a ÷ (a + b)) × N and the second part as (b ÷ (a + b)) × N.

Compound Ratio

The compound ratio of two ratios a : b and c : d is given by (a × c) : (b × d). It involves multiplying the antecedent and consequent terms respectively to form a single combined ratio.

Proportion

If four numbers a, b, c, and d are in proportion (a : b = c : d), then the product of extremes equals the product of means (a × d = b × c).

104

When a number is divided by 15, 20 or 35, each time the remainder is 8. Then the smallest number is

  1. ((a))

    427

  2. ((b))

    428

  3. ((c))

    443

  4. ((d))

    463

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

428

Shortcut Trick

Required smallest number = LCM of divisors + Remainder

LCM(15, 20, 35) = 420

Required smallest number = 420 + 8 = 428

∴ The correct answer is 428.

Alternate Method

Given:

Divisors = 15, 20, and 35

Remainder in each case = 8

Formula Used:

Smallest Number = LCM(a, b, c) + R

Calculation:

⇒ Prime factorization of 15 = 3 × 5

⇒ Prime factorization of 20 = 22 × 5

⇒ Prime factorization of 35 = 5 × 7

⇒ LCM(15, 20, 35) = 22 × 3 × 5 × 7 = 420

⇒ Smallest number = 420 + 8 = 428

∴ The correct answer is 428.

Additional Information

LCM with Different Remainders

If a number when divided by a, b, c leaves remainders p, q, r respectively and (a − p) = (b − q) = (c − r) = k, the smallest such number is LCM(a, b, c) − k.

Relation between HCF and LCM

For any two numbers, Product of numbers = HCF × LCM.

Co-prime Numbers

Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is 1. The LCM of two co-prime numbers is their product.

105

The curved surface area of a cylindrical object is 990 m2 and its volume is 4455 m3. Then what is the ratio of the height and diameter of this object?

  1. ((a))

    18 ∶ 35

  2. ((b))

    35 ∶ 36

  3. ((c))

    2 ∶ 1

  4. ((d))

    1 ∶ 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

35 ∶ 36

Given:

The curved surface area of a cylindrical object is 990 m2 and its volume is 4455 m3.

Formula used:

The curved surface area of the cylindrical = 2πrh

The volume of the cylindrical = πr2

Calculation:

The curved surface area of the cylindrical = 2πrh

⇒ 2πrh = 990

⇒ πrh = 495 →(1)

The volume of the cylindrical = πr2h 

⇒ r(πrh) = 4455

⇒ r = (\dfrac{4455}{495}) = 9 m 

From Eqn (1), We have

⇒ π× 9 × h = 495 

⇒ h = (\dfrac{495 \times7}{22 \times 9}) = 17.5 m

According to the question,

The ratio of the height and diameter = h : 2r

⇒ 17.5 : 18

⇒ 35 : 36

∴ The ratio of the height and diameter of this object is 35 : 36.

Hindi Language 1 (20 questions)

106

बहाना करना उसकी आदत है। वाक्य के रेखांकित अंश को प्रतिस्थापित करने के लिए सही मुहावरा कौन सा है?

  1. ((a))

    बात चलाना

  2. ((b))

    बात तक न पूछना

  3. ((c))

    बात बढ़ाना

  4. ((d))

    बात बनाना

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

बात बनाना

इसका सही उत्तर बात बनाना है। 

  • बहाना करना उसकी आदत है। वाक्य के रेखांकित अंश को प्रतिस्थापित करने के लिए सही मुहावरा हैः बात बनाना उसकी आदत है। 

Key Points

  • बात बनाना का अर्थ है, किसी झूठे बहाने से किसी स्थिति को संभालना या छुपाना।
  • मुहावरे - मुहावरा का शाब्दिक अर्थ ‘अभ्यास’ है। मुहावरा शब्द अरबी भाषा का शब्द है।
  • हिन्दी में ऐसे वाक्यांशों को मुहावरा कहा जाता है, जो अपने साधारण अर्थ को छोड़कर विशेष अर्थ को व्यक्त करते हैं।
  • उदाहरण - 1. अंडे सेना- घर में बेकार बैठना। वाक्य प्रयोग - इतनी उम्र होने पर भी आप अंडे सेना बने बैठे हो।
  • अन्य विकल्प-
पदअर्थ
बात चलानाकोई चर्चा शुरू करना।
बात तक न पूछनाकिसी की बिलकुल परवाह न करना।
बात बढ़ानाकिसी मुद्दे को बढ़ावा देना।

Additional Informationमुहावरों के अन्य उदाहरण -

मुहावरेअर्थ
गागर में सागरथोड़े में बहुत कहना।
गुड़ गोबर होनाअच्छे काम का बुरा हो जाना।
हवा खराब होनाबिगड़ना या अपशकुन होना।
आड़ी तिरछी बातें करनाअनुचित बातें करना।
आटे-दाल का भाव मालूम होनासच्चाई का सामना करना।
107

‘पुरातन' का विलोम शब्द है-

  1. ((a))

    प्राचीन

  2. ((b))

    पुराना

  3. ((c))

    नवीन

  4. ((d))

    प्राच्य

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

नवीन

‘पुरातन' का विलोम शब्द है- नवीन 

Key Points

  • ‘पुरातन' शब्द का विलोम शब्द 'नवीन' होगा।
  • ‘पुरातन' शब्द का अर्थ है - पुराना, प्राचीन।
  • 'नवीन' शब्द का अर्थ - नया, नूतन।
  • विलोम - जो शब्द किसी एक शब्द के विपरीत अर्थ को व्यक्त करते हैं, वे विलोम शब्द कहलाते हैं।

अन्य विकल्प-

शब्दविलोम
प्राचीनअर्वाचीन
पुरानानया
प्राच्यपाश्चात्य

Additional Information कुछ अन्‍य व‍िलोम शब्‍द- 

शब्‍दविलोम
आदरअनादर
इहलोकपरलोक
उद्यमीआलसी
एकतंत्रबहुतंत्र
कटुतामधुरता
गुणअवगुण
चेतनअचेतन
जाग्रतसुषुप्त
108

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा शब्द पुल्लिंग है? 

  1. ((a))

    व्यय

  2. ((b))

    लहर

  3. ((c))

    आय

  4. ((d))

    नहर

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

व्यय

पुल्लिंग ​शब्द है- व्यय

Key Points

  • पुल्लिंग ​शब्द है- 'व्यय' जैसे - हमें अपनी आवश्यकताओं के अनुसार ही व्यय करना चाहिए।
  • पुल्लिंग - शब्द के जिस रूप से पुरुष जाति का बोध होता है, उसे पुल्लिंग कहते हैं।
  • जैसे- बकरा, घोड़ा, लड़का, आदमी, शेर, बन्दर, बालक, शिशु, राजा, राजकुमार आदि।
  • स्त्रीलिंग - शब्द के जिस रूप से व्यक्ति या वस्तु की स्त्री जाति का बोध होता है, उसे स्त्रीलिंग कहते हैं।
  • जैसे - माता, लड़की, भेड़, गाय, बंदरिया, शेरनी, नारी, रानी, राजकुमारी, बहन आदि।

अन्य विकल्प -

  • स्त्रीलिंग शब्द - 'लहर, आय, नहर'​
  • जैसे - उसके दिमाग में नए विचारों की लहरें उठ रही थीं।
  • जैसे - कंपनी ने इस तिमाही में अच्छी आय दर्ज की है।
  • जैसे - नहरों की जगह सड़कें बना दी गई हैं।

Important Points 

  

पुल्लिंगस्त्रीलिंग
​आत्मजआत्मजा
कविकवयित्री
क्षत्रियक्षत्राणी
ठाकुरठाकुराइन
​तपस्वीतपस्विनी
नायकनायिका
भवदीयभवदीया
साधुसाध्वी

Additional Information 

  लिंग दो प्रकार के होते हैं-

  1. पुल्लिंग
  2. स्त्रीलिंग
109

'खूँटी' का बहुवचन शब्द निम्न में से क्या होगा?

  1. ((a))

    खूँटी

  2. ((b))

    खुंटियाँ

  3. ((c))

    खूँटियाँ

  4. ((d))

    खूँटिवर्ग

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

खूँटियाँ

"खूँटी" का सही बहुवचन खूँटियॉं है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

  • खूँटी’ का अर्थ है ‘कपड़े आदि टांगने की दीवार में लगी हुक'।
  • इसका बहुवचन रूप ‘खूँटियाँ’ होगा।

Additional Information

वचन - संज्ञा, सर्वनाम, विशेषण और क्रिया के जिस रूप से संख्या का बोध हो उसे वचन कहते हैं।
वचन के दो प्रकार हैं - 1. एकवचन, 2. बहुवचन
वचनपरिभाषाउदाहरण
एकवचनशब्द के जिस रूप से किसी व्यक्ति, वस्तु आदि के एक होने का बोध हो, उसे एकवचन कहते हैंस्त्री, घोड़ा, नदी, रुपया इत्यादि।
बहुवचनशब्द के जिस रूप से एक से अधिक व्यक्तियों या वस्तुओं आदि का बोध हो, उसे बहुवचन कहते हैं।स्त्रियाँ, घोड़े, नदियाँ, रुपये इत्यादि।
110

'याद आना' के अर्थ में निम्नलिखित में से किस मुहावरे का प्रयोग होगा।  

  1. ((a))

    चाँद खुजलाना 

  2. ((b))

    ज़बान काट कर देना  

  3. ((c))

    ज़बान पर चढ़ना 

  4. ((d))

    गाँठ में बाँधना 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

ज़बान पर चढ़ना 

इसका सही उत्तर 'ज़बान पर चढ़ना' है।

Key Points

  • 'याद आना' का अर्थ है - ज़बान पर चढ़ना
  • वाक्य प्रयोग :- यह गाना सुनते ही मुझे अपने बचपन की सारी बातें ज़बान पर चढ़ गईं।

Additional Information

  • ज़बान काट कर देना -स्वीकार करना, वादा करना, प्रतिज्ञा करना
  • वाक्य प्रयोग :- मीरा ने अपनी दोस्त से ज़बान काट कर दी कि वह उसके साथ हर मुश्किल में खड़ी रहेगी।
  • गाँठ में बाँधना - किसी बात या अनुभव को हमेशा याद रखना।
  • वाक्य प्रयोग :- तुम मेरी ये महत्वपूर्ण बातें गाँठ में बांध लो।

Important Points

  • मुहावरे की परिभाषा :-
  • किसी भाषा की अभिव्यंजना के विशिष्ट रूप को ‘मुहावरा’ कहते हैं। विशिष्ट शब्दों, विचित्र प्रयोगों एवं प्रयोग-सिद्ध विशिष्ट वाक्यांशों को ‘मुहावरा’ कहते हैं।
111

इनमें स्त्रीलिंग शब्द कौन-सा है?

  1. ((a))

    रचना

  2. ((b))

    सृजन

  3. ((c))

    संपादन

  4. ((d))

    समायोजन

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

रचना

इनमें स्त्रीलिंग शब्द है- रचना 

Key Points

  • स्त्रीलिंग शब्द है - 'रचना' जैसे - कवि ने अपनी नई रचना मंच पर सुनाई।
  • पुल्लिंग - शब्द के जिस रूप से पुरुष जाति का बोध होता है, उसे पुल्लिंग कहते हैं।
  • जैसे- छात्र, चाचा, बूढ़ा, नौकर, शेर, बंदर आदि।
  • स्त्रीलिंग - शब्द के जिस रूप से व्यक्ति या वस्तु की स्त्री जाति का बोध होता है, उसे स्त्रीलिंग कहते हैं।
  • जैसे - छात्रा, चाची, बुढ़िया, नौकरानी, घास आदि।

अन्य विकल्प-

शब्दवाक्य प्रयोगलिंग
सृजनकलाकार ने एक सुंदर पेंटिंग का सृजन किया।​पुल्लिंग
संपादनमहादेवी का कार्यक्षेत्र लेखन संपादन और अध्यापन रहा।​पुल्लिंग
समायोजनकंपनी ने मेरे वेतन में समायोजन किया।​पुल्लिंग

Additional Information लिंग दो प्रकार के होते हैं-

  1. पुल्लिंग
  2. स्त्रीलिंग
112

निम्न में से कौन-सा शब्द तद्भव है ?

  1. ((a))

    यौवन

  2. ((b))

    निर्झर

  3. ((c))

    जीभ

  4. ((d))

    स्थान

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

जीभ

तद्भव शब्द है - जीभ

Key Points

  • 'जीभ' एक तद्भव शब्द है, जबकि इसका तत्सम 'जिह्वा' शब्द होगा।
  • तत्सम - जिन शब्दों को संस्कृत से बिना किसी परिवर्तन के ले लिया जाता है, उन्हें तत्सम शब्द कहते हैं। 
  • जैसे- मार्ग, अक्षि, काक आदि।
  • तद्भव - जिन शब्दों में समय और परिस्थितियों के कारण कुछ परिवर्तन होने से जो शब्द बने हैं, उन्हें तद्भव कहते हैं। 
  • जैसे- पग, आँख, कौआ आदि।​

अन्य विकल्प-

तत्समतद्भव
यौवनजोबन
निर्झरझरना
स्थानजगह

Additional Information कुछ महत्वपूर्ण ​तत्सम और तद्भव शब्द -

तत्समतद्भव
अमूल्यअमोल
इष्टिकाईंट
उलूकउल्लू
कृषककिसान
ग्रन्थिगाँठ
चंद्रिकाचाँदनी
तड़ागतालाब
धरित्रीधरती
113

निम्नलिखित वाक्य की पूर्ति उचित कर्ताकारक चिह्न से करें। 

'सोहन ______ घर का सारा काम किया है।'

  1. ((a))

    ने

  2. ((b))

    पर

  3. ((c))

    में

  4. ((d))

    से

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ने

'सोहन ने घर का सारा काम किया है।' वाक्य की पूर्ति उचित कर्ताकारक चिह्न है। अन्य विकल्प असंगत है। 

Key Points

  • वाक्य- सोहन ने घर का सारा काम किया है।
परिभाषाउदाहरण
वह वाक्य जिसमें कार्य करने वाले का पता लगता है, उन्हें कर्ता कारक कहा जाता है। कर्ता कारक का विभक्ति चिन्ह ‘ने’ होता है।​विकास ने फुटबॉल खेली।

Important Points

कारकविभक्ति
कर्ताने
कर्मको
करणसे, द्वारा
सम्प्रदानको, के लिये, हेतु
अपादानसे (अलग होने के अर्थ में)
सम्बन्धका, की, के, रा, री, रे
अधिकरणमें, पर
सम्बोधनहे! अरे! ऐ! ओ! हाय!

Additional Information

करणकारक:- - वह साधन जिससे क्रिया होती है, वह करण कहलाता है। यानि, जिसकी सहायता से किसी काम को अंजाम दिया जाता वह करण कारक कहलाता है। - करण कारक के दो विभक्ति चिन्ह होते है- से और के द्वारा। उदाहरण - - बच्चे गाड़ियों से खेल रहे हैं। - सुनील ने अपनी पत्नी के द्वारा खाना बनवाया। अधिकरण कारक:- - अधिकरण का अर्थ होता है - आश्रय। - संज्ञा का वह रूप जिससे क्रिया के आधार का बोध हो उसे अधिकरण कारक कहते हैं। - इसकी विभक्ति में और पर होती है। भीतर, अंदर, ऊपर, बीच आदि शब्दों का प्रयोग इस कारक में किया जाता है। उदाहरण - - वह सड़क पर चल रहा है। - वीर सिपाही युद्धभूमि में मारा गया।
114

'भौंरा' शब्द का पर्यायवाची शब्द है -

  1. ((a))

    मधुप

  2. ((b))

    जलद

  3. ((c))

    भवानी

  4. ((d))

    राजराज

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

मधुप

'भौंरा' शब्द का पर्यायवाची शब्द है - मधुप अन्य विकल्प संगत है। 

Key Points 

  • 'भौंरा' शब्द का पर्यायवाची शब्द 'मधुप' होगा।
  • 'भौंरा' के सभी पर्यायवाची शब्द - भ्रमर, मधुप, मिलिंद, मधुकर, अलि, अलिंद, भृंग।

अन्य विकल्प-

शब्दपर्यायवाची शब्द
बादलजलद, वारिद, नीरद, पयोद, अम्बुद, धराधर, मेघ।
दुर्गाभवानी, जगदंबा, महागौरी, कालिका, अम्बिका, शैलपुत्री।
कुबेरधनद, यक्षराज, धनाधिप, यक्षपति, किन्नरेश,  राजराज, धनेश।

Additional Information कुछ महत्वपूर्ण पर्यायवाची शब्द:-

शब्दपर्यायवाची शब्द
चोरदस्यु, तस्कर, मोषक, रजनीचर, कुम्भिल, खनक।
घरगृह, आवास, अयन, निवास, बसेरा, डेरा, भवन।
शत्रुदुश्मन, अरि, रिपु, विपक्षी, अमित्र, अराति, बैरी।
सिंहसारंग, मृगराज, केसरी, शेर, महावीर, व्याघ्र, मृगेन्द्र।
पवनमृगवाहन, हवा, वायु, अनिल, बयार, मारुत, समीर।
पहाड़गिरि, मेरु, शैल, महीधर, धराधर, भूधर।
115

राम रमन को पीट रहा है। इसमें रेखाकिंत शब्द में कारक हैं-

  1. ((a))

    कर्म

  2. ((b))

    कर्ता

  3. ((c))

    अपादान

  4. ((d))

    संबंध

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

कर्म

‘राम रमन को पीट रहा है’ वाक्य में कर्म कारक का प्रयोग हुआ है। 

Key Points

  • ‘कर्म कारक’ अर्थात ‘वाक्य में क्रिया का फल जिस शब्द पर पड़े।
  • इसकी विभक्ति 'को' है’।
  • जैसे – माँ बच्चे को सुला रही है।
  • अतः सही विकल्प कर्म है।

Additional Information अन्य विकल्प

  • ‘संबंध कारक’ अर्थात ‘संज्ञा या सर्वनाम के जिस रूप से किसी अन्य शब्द के साथ संबंध का बोध हो, इसकी विभक्ति 'का', 'की', और 'के' है’।
  • जैसे – सीता का भाई आया है, राम की किताब।
  • ‘कर्ता कारक’ अर्थात ‘वाक्य में जो शब्द काम करने वाले के अर्थ में आता है, इसकी विभक्ति ‘ने’ है’।
  • जैसे – मनोज ने पत्र लिखा, मोहन खाता है।
  • ‘अपादान कारक’ अर्थात ‘जिससे किसी वस्तु के अलग होने का बोध हो, इसकी विभक्ति ‘से’ है’।
  • जैसे – दूल्हा घोड़े से गिर पड़ा, चूहा बिल से बाहर निकला।
116

प्रेम करना तलवार की नोंक पर चलना है।

उपरोक्त वाक्य में रेखांकित पद के बदले कौन सा विकल्प उपयुक्त है?

  1. ((a))

    धार

  2. ((b))

    तीक्ष्ण

  3. ((c))

    पार्श्व

  4. ((d))

    किनारे

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

धार

सही उत्तर है - धार

Key Points

  • अशुद्ध वाक्य - प्रेम करना तलवार की नोंक पर चलना है।
  • दिए गये वाक्य में शब्द-अर्थ प्रयोग की त्रुटि है,
  • ​यहाँ 'नोंक' सार्थक शब्द नहीं है और इससे सही अर्थ प्रकट नहीं हो रहा।
  • ​अत: सार्थक शब्द 'धार' होना चाहिए।
  • शुद्ध वाक्य - प्रेम करना तलवार की धार पर चलना है।

Additional Informationशब्द-अर्थ संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ - 

अशुद्ध वाक्यशुद्ध वाक्य
बाण बड़ा उपयोगी शस्त्र है।बाण बड़ा उपयोगी अस्त्र है।
​इस समय सीता की आयु सोलह वर्ष है।​इस समय सीता की उम्र सोलह वर्ष है।
​सीता ने गीत की दो-चार लड़ियाँ गायीं।​सीता ने गीत की दो-चार कड़ियाँ गायीं।
नगर की सारी जनसंख्या भूखी है।नगर की सारी जनता भूखी है।
117

दिए गए वाक्यांश के लिए सार्थक शब्द ज्ञात कीजिए ।

पीछे चलने वाला

  1. ((a))

    निर्गम

  2. ((b))

    पिछलग्गू

  3. ((c))

    अनुगत

  4. ((d))

    आगत

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

अनुगत

'पीछे चलने वाला' वाक्यांश के लिए उपयुक्त शब्द होगा - अनुगत

Key Points 

  • 'पीछे चलने वाला' वाक्यांश के लिए उपयुक्त शब्द - अनुगत
  • वाक्यांश के लिए उपयुक्त शब्द - अनेक शब्दों के लिए एक शब्द को प्रयुक्त करना ही वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द कहलाता है।

अन्य विकल्प -

वाक्यांशशब्द
वह मार्ग जिससे कोई वस्तु बाहर निकलती होनिर्गम
जो किसी का अंधानुयायी बन कर उसके पीछे चलता होपिछलग्गू
जिसने प्रवेश किया होआगत

Additional Information कुछ महत्वपूर्ण वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द -

वाक्यांशशब्द
जिसको भेदा न जा सकेअभेद्य
बाएँ हाथ से तीर चला सकने वालासव्यसाची
जो बहुत समय तक ठहर सकेचिरस्थायी
जो जल से उत्पन्न होता होजलज
जो किसी भी गुट में नहीं होतटस्थ
जो ईश्वर को मानता हो।आस्तिक
जिसका परिहार करना सम्भव न होअपरिहार्य
जीतने की इच्छा वालाजिगीषु
118

दिए गये वाक्य में रेखांकित शब्द को सही कीजिए ।

एक किसान खेत से सब्जियाँ तोड़ घर ले जाता है।

  1. ((a))

    उखाड़ 

  2. ((b))

    उखाड़ते

  3. ((c))

    तोड़कर

  4. ((d))

    तोड़ते

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

तोड़कर

सही उत्तर - तोड़कर।

Key Points

  • अशुद्ध वाक्य - एक किसान खेत से सब्जियाँ तोड़ घर ले जाता है।
  • शुद्ध वाक्य - एक किसान खेत से सब्जियाँ तोड़कर घर ले जाता है।
  • वाक्य में पूर्वकालिक क्रिया का प्रयोग करना उचित होगा।

Additional Informationक्रिया व वचन संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ - 

अशुद्ध वाक्यशुद्ध वाक्य
जूता निकाल दो।जूता उतार दो।
आप यह कंबल पहन लें।आप यह कंबल ओढ़ लें।
उसका दर्शन हो गए।उसके दर्शन हो गए।
वे विविध विषय से परिचित हैं।वे विविध विषयों से परिचित हैं।
119

दिए गए शब्द का उचित विलोम शब्द चुनिए-

उन्नत

  1. ((a))

    अवनत

  2. ((b))

    सवनत

  3. ((c))

    उन्नति

  4. ((d))

    पतन

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

अवनत

सही उत्तर है - अवनत

Key Points

  • 'उन्नत' शब्द का विलोम शब्द 'अवनत' होगा।
  • 'उन्नत' का अर्थ- ऊँचा, ऊपर उठा हुआ।
  • 'अवनत' का अर्थ- नीचा, झुका हुआ।
  • विलोम - जो शब्द किसी एक शब्द के विपरीत अर्थ को व्यक्त करते हैं, वे विलोम शब्द कहलाते हैं।

अन्य विकल्प-

शब्दविलोम
उन्नतिअवनति
पतनउत्थान

Additional Information 

 कुछ अन्य महत्वपूर्ण विलोम शब्द -

शब्दविलोम
दुत्कारस्वागत
तीक्ष्णकुंठित
सज्जनदुर्जन
प्रवृतिनिवृति
निरक्षरसाक्षर
बंधनमुक्ति
बीमारनिरोग
मौखिकलिखित
रहितसहित
120

निम्नलिखित वाक्य के किस खंड मे त्रुटि है?

'मुझे भारी दुःख हुआ।'

  1. ((a))

    हुआ

  2. ((b))

    दुःख

  3. ((c))

    मुझे

  4. ((d))

    भारी

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

भारी

'मुझे भारी दुःख हुआ।' वाक्य के खंड मे त्रुटि है- भारी अन्य सभी विकल्प असंगत है। 

Key Points

  • त्रुटिपूर्ण वाक्य- मुझे भारी दुःख हुआ। -
  • दिए गये वाक्य में 'शब्द-अर्थ प्रयोग' की त्रुटि है।
  • यहाँ 'भारी' सार्थक शब्द नही है और इससे सही अर्थ प्रकट नही हो रहा।
  • अत: सार्थक शब्द 'बहुत' होना चाहिए।
  • त्रुटिरहित वाक्य- मुझे बहुत दुःख हुआ।
  • 'बहुत' का अर्थ- जो गिनती में सामान्य से अधिक हो, अधिक, ज़्यादा।
  • 'भारी' का अर्थ- जिसका वज़न बहुत ज़्यादा हो।

Additional Informationशब्द-अर्थ प्रयोग की अशुद्धि:-

अशुद्ध वाक्यशुद्ध वाक्य
उसकी भाषा देवनागरी है।उसकी लिपि देवनागरी है।
यह विषय अत्यंत कठोर है।यह विषयअत्यंत कठिन है।
कोहिनूर एक अमूल्य हीरा है।कोहिनूर एक बहुमूल्य हीरा है।
स्कूल में व्याकरण की विद्या दी जाती है।स्कूल में व्याकरण की शिक्षा दी जाती है।
राष्ट्रपति ने पुरस्कार भेंट किए।राष्ट्रपति ने पुरस्कार प्रदान किए।
121

माँ_______बेटे को समझाया।

  1. ((a))

    पर

  2. ((b))

    की

  3. ((c))

    में

  4. ((d))

    ने

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

ने

माँ ने बेटे को समझाया।

कर्ता कारक:-

  • जो वाक्य में कार्य को करता है, वह कर्ता कहलाता है।
  • कर्ता वाक्य का वह रूप होता है जिसमे कार्य को करने वाले का पता चलता है।
  • कर्ता कारक का विभक्ति चिन्ह ‘ने’ होता है।

उदाहरण-

  • अमित ने पूरी किताब पढ़ ली।
  • अध्यापक ने विद्यार्थियों को डांटा।

Key Pointsहिन्दी में आठ कारक’ हैं -

कारकविभक्तियाँ
1. कर्ताने
2. कर्मको
3. करणसे, द्वारा
4. सम्प्रदानको, के लिये, हेतु
5. अपादानसे (अलग होने के अर्थ में)
6. सम्बन्धका, की, के, रा, री, रे
7. अधिकरणमें, पर
8. सम्बोधनहे! अरे! ऐ! ओ! हाय!

Important Points 

अधिकरण कारक:- - अधिकरण का अर्थ होता है – आश्रय। - संज्ञा का वह रूप जिससे क्रिया के आधार का बोध हो उसे अधिकरण कारक कहते हैं। - इसकी विभक्ति में और पर होती है। - भीतर, अंदर, ऊपर, बीच आदि शब्दों का प्रयोग इस कारक में किया जाता है। उदाहरण- - पुस्तक मेज पर है। - वीर सिपाही युद्धभूमि में मारा गया। सम्बन्ध कारक:- - संज्ञा या सर्वनाम का वह रूप जो हमें किन्हीं दो वस्तुओं के बीच संबंध का बोध कराता है, वह संबंध कारक कहलाता है। - सम्बन्ध कारक के विभक्ति चिन्ह का, के, की, ना, ने, नो, रा, रे, री आदि हैं। उदाहरण- - यह मानव का घर है। - राजा दशरथ के चार बेटे थे। - यह सुनील की किताब है।
122

निम्न में से 'दास' का पर्यायावाची शब्द क्या होगा ?

  1. ((a))

    देव

  2. ((b))

    राव

  3. ((c))

    चाकर

  4. ((d))

    उरग

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

चाकर

सही उत्तर है - चाकर। 

Key Points

  • दास का पर्यायवाची शब्द:- नौकर, चाकर, सेवक, परिचारक, अनुचर, भृत्य, किंकर।

Additional Informationपर्यायवाची शब्द :

  • वे शब्द जिनका अर्थ एक समान होता हैं पर्यायवाची शब्द कहलाते हैं।
  • पर्यायवाची शब्द को हम समानर्थी शब्द भी कहते है। ‘पर्याय’ का अर्थ है ‘समान’ तथा ‘वाची’ का अर्थ है ‘बोले जाने वाले’ अर्थात

समान बोले जाने वाले शब्दों को हम पर्यायवाची शब्द या समानार्थी शब्द कहते है।

पर्यायवाची शब्द के उदाहरण :

  • आश्रम = मठ, विहार, कुटी, स्तर, अखाड़ा, संघ।
  • चोर = तस्कर, दस्यु, रजनीचर, मोषक, कुंभिल, खन।
  • मुनि = यती, अवधूत, संन्यासी, वैरागी, तापस, संत, भिक्षु।
  • इज्जत = मान, प्रतिष्ठा, आदर, आबरू।
123

'गागर में सागर भरना' मुहावरे का अर्थ है:

  1. ((a))

    थोड़े शब्दों में अधिक कहना

  2. ((b))

    असंभव कार्य करना

  3. ((c))

    उत्साहित होना

  4. ((d))

    सिर्फ कल्पना करना

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

थोड़े शब्दों में अधिक कहना

सही उत्तर है - “थोड़े शब्दों में अधिक कहना​”

  • ‘गागर में सागर भरना’ मुहावरे का अर्थ है - थोड़े शब्दों में अधिक कहना।

Key Points

  • वाक्य प्रयोग -  उस व्यक्ति ने मंच पर आने के बाद तो मानो जैसे गागर में सागर ही भर दी।
  • अत: विकल्प “थोड़े शब्दों में अधिक कहना” सही है। अन्य विकल्प अनुचित है।

Additional Information अन्य उदाहरण:

  • पासा पलटना - स्थिति उलट जाना।

वाक्य प्रयोग - क्या करें पास ही पलट गया। सोचा कुछ था हो कुछ गया।

  • गला फाड़ना - जोर से चिल्लाना।
  • वाक्य प्रयोग - राजू कब से गला फाड़ रहा है कि चाय पिला दो, पर कोई सुनता ही नहीं।
124

निम्न में से "गणतन्त्र" का विलोम शब्द क्या होगा?

  1. ((a))

    अतन्त्र

  2. ((b))

    स्वतन्त्र

  3. ((c))

    परतन्त्र

  4. ((d))

    राजतन्त्र

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

राजतन्त्र

"गणतन्त्र" का विलोम शब्द होगा- राजतन्त्र

Key Points

  • 'गणतन्त्र' शब्द का विलोम शब्द 'राजतन्त्र' होगा।
  • 'गणतन्त्र' शब्द का अर्थ है - ऐसा राष्ट्र जिसकी सत्ता जनसाधारण में समाहित हो।
  • 'राजतन्त्र' शब्द का अर्थ - राजा का शासन, राजा द्वारा शासन।
  • विलोम - जो शब्द किसी एक शब्द के विपरीत अर्थ को व्यक्त करते हैं, वे विलोम शब्द कहलाते हैं।

अन्य विकल्प-

शब्दविलोम
​एकतंत्र​बहुतंत्र
स्वतन्त्रपरतन्त्र

Additional Information कुछ अन्‍य व‍िलोम शब्‍द- 

शब्‍दविलोम
आकांक्षीअनाकांक्षी
इकरारइनकार
उज्ज्वलधूमिल
एकमतमतभेद
कठोरकोमल
खिन्नताप्रसन्नता
गंधीलासुगन्धित
गुजारिशहिमाकत
125

दिए गए शब्द का पर्यायवाची ज्ञात कीजिए।

घर

  1. ((a))

    गौ

  2. ((b))

    वानर

  3. ((c))

    ईश्वर

  4. ((d))

    सदन

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

सदन

'घर' शब्द का पर्यायवाची होगा - सदन

Key Points

  • 'घर' का पर्यायवाची शब्द - 'सदन' होगा
  • 'घर' के अन्य पर्यायवाची शब्द - गृह, निकेतन, भवन, आलय, निवास, गेह, आगार, आयतन, आवास, निलय।
  • पर्यायवाची - जो शब्द समान अर्थ के कारण किसी दूसरे शब्द की जगह ले लेते हैं, उन्हें पर्यायवाची शब्द कहते हैं।

अन्य विकल्प -

शब्दपर्यायवाची शब्द
गौगाय, गौरी, धेनु,भद्रा, सुरभी, गोंवी, हिंदुमाता,पयस्विनी, गौंवत्री।
वानरबंदर, कपिन्द्र, मारुति, मर्कट, हनुमान, वानरराज, बजरंगबली, कपीश।
ईश्वरमहाप्रभु, स्वामी, परमपिता, जगदीश, जगदीश्वर, विधाता।

Additional Information कुछ अन्य महत्वपूर्ण पर्यायवाची शब्द:-

शब्दपर्यायवाची शब्द
तालाबसरोवर, जलाशय, पोखरा, ताल, तलैया, पुष्कर।
साँपसर्प, नाग, विषधर, व्याल, भुजंग, उरग, अहि पन्नग।
आकाशव्योम, शून्य, गगन, अम्बर, आसमान, अंतरिक्ष, नभ।
शरीर​देह, काया, तन, बदन, कलेवर, गात।
पवनहवा, वायु, वात, तान, अनिल, बयार, मारुत, समीर।
अश्वघोड़ा, हय, तुरंग, वाजी, घोटक, सैंधव।
समुद्रसागर,  उदधि , नदीश, जलधि, वारिधि, नीरनिधि।
सूर्यभानु, भास्कर, आदित्य, मार्तण्ड, पतंग, रवि, सूरज।

Hindi Language 2 (15 questions)

126

निम्नलिखित में से 'मृदु' शब्द का पर्यायवाची शब्द कौन सा नहीं है ?

  1. ((a))

    मसृण

  2. ((b))

    कोमल

  3. ((c))

    कूल

  4. ((d))

    मुलायम

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

कूल

इस प्रश्न का सही उत्तर कूल होगा।

अत: सही विकल्प 3 होगा।

Key Points

  • पर्यायवाची शब्द:- ऐसे शब्द जिनके अर्थ समान हों।
  • मृदु के पर्यायवाची है:- मसृण, कोमल , मुलायम आदि शब्द होते है।
  • अर्थात वो सभी चिजें जो ज्यादा कठोर न हो।

अन्य पर्यायवाची शब्द:-

शब्दपर्यायवाची शब्द
पानीजल, वारि, नीर, तोय, सलिल, अंबु,
आकाशव्योम, शून्य, गगन, अम्बर, आसमान, अंतरिक्ष, नभ,, धौ, अनंत
हवापवन, वायु, समीर, अनिल, वात, मरुत्, पवमान, बयार, प्रकंपन, समी
साँपसर्प, नाग, विषधर, व्याल, भुजंग, उरग, अहि पन्नग।
जंगलवन, कानन, बीहड़, विटप, विपिन
127

निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में, चार विकल्पों में से, उस विकल्प का चयन करें जो विलोम शब्द का सबसे अच्छा विकल्प है।

अनिवार्य

  1. ((a))

    अकुलीन

  2. ((b))

    विगत

  3. ((c))

    ऐच्छिक

  4. ((d))

    ससीम

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

ऐच्छिक

सही उत्तर है - ऐच्छिक 

Key Points

  • 'अनिवार्य' शब्द का विलोम शब्द 'ऐच्छिक' होगा।
  • 'अनिवार्य' शब्द का अर्थ - ​जिसका निवारण न हो सके।
  • 'ऐच्छिक' शब्द का अर्थ - जो अपनी इच्छा पसंद पर निर्भर हो।
  • विलोम - जो शब्द किसी एक शब्द के विपरीत अर्थ को व्यक्त करते हैं, वे विलोम शब्द कहलाते हैं।

अन्य विकल्प-

शब्दविलोम
अकुलीनकुलीन
विगत​आगामी
ससीम​असीम

Additional Information 

 कुछ अन्‍य व‍िलोम शब्‍द- 

शब्‍दविलोम
​अनातुरआतुर
​इच्छितअनिच्छित
​उद्यमीआलसी
विषादउल्लास
​ऋजुतावक्रता
उदारताकंजूसी
​एकतंत्रबहुतन्त्र
ओजस्वी​ओजहीन
करुणनिष्ठुर
उद्धतविनीत
128

'आँखों का तारा' मुहावरे का क्या अर्थ है?

  1. ((a))

    अति कमजोर

  2. ((b))

    अति प्रिय

  3. ((c))

    अति आलसी

  4. ((d))

    अति दुखी

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

अति प्रिय

'आँखों का तारा' मुहावरे का अर्थ अति प्रिय है।

अत: विकल्प 2 सही उत्तर है, अन्य विकल्प असंगत है।

Key Points

  • अति प्रिय मुहावरे का अर्थ होता है:- अति प्रिय, बहुत प्यारा आदि।
  • मुहावरे की परिभाषा:- मुहावरा एक ऐसा वाक्य होता है, जो वाक्य की रचना करने पर अपना एक अलग अर्थ या विशेष अर्थ प्रकट करता है।
  • इनका प्रयोग करने से भाषा,आकर्षक, प्रभावपूर्ण तथा रोचक बन जाती है।
  • ‘मुहावरा’ शब्द अरबी भाषा का है जिसका अर्थ है ‘अभ्यास होना’
  • मुहावरे वाक्यांशों का एक ऐसा समूह है जिसका अर्थ शाब्दिक अर्थ से भिन्न होता है।
  • कई लोगों को हम मुहावरे के रूप में अपनी बात कहते हुए देखते हैं तो इनका अर्थ समझ आता है।
  • मुहावरा एक वाक्यांश या अभिव्यक्ति भी है।
  • जैसे:-
मुहावराअर्थवाक्य
खून का प्यासाजानी दुश्मन होनाउसकी क्या बात कर रहे हो, वह तो मेरे खून का प्यासा हो गया है।

Additional Informationमुहावरों के उदाहरण:-

मुहावरेंअर्थवाक्य प्रयोग
करे कोई, भरे कोईअपराध कोई करे, दण्ड किसी और को मिले।चोरी रामू ने की और पकड़ा गया राजू। इसे कहते हैं – करे कोई, भरे कोई।
आपे से बाहर होनाक्रोध से अपने वश में न रहना।रमेश तुरंत आपे से बाहर हो जाता है।
गधे को बाप बनानाकाम निकालने के लिए मूर्ख की खुशामद करनाकार्तिक गधे को बाप बनाना अच्छी तरह जानता हैं।
गढ़ फतह करनाकठिन काम करनाआई.पी.एस पास करके दीक्षा ने सचमुच गढ़ फतह कर लिया।
खून ठण्डा होनाउत��साह से रहित होना या भयभीत होनाआतंकवादियों को देखकर मेरा तो खून ठण्डा पड़ गया।
129

दिए गए वाक्यांश के लिए सार्थक शब्द ज्ञात कीजिए।

जिसकी कोई उपमा न हो

  1. ((a))

    अतिशयोक्ति

  2. ((b))

    विशेष

  3. ((c))

    अनुपम

  4. ((d))

    अलौकिक

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

अनुपम

'जिसकी कोई उपमा न हो' वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द का विकल्प होगा - अनुपम

Key Points 

  • 'जिसकी कोई उपमा न हो' वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द का विकल्प होगा - अनुपम
  • वाक्यांश के लिए उपयुक्त शब्द - अनेक शब्दों के लिए एक शब्द को प्रयुक्त करना ही वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द कहलाता है।

अन्य विकल्प -

वाक्यांशशब्द
किसी बात को बढ़ा-चढ़ाकर कहनाअतिशयोक्ति
जिसमें औरों की अपेक्षा कुछ अधिकता होविशेष
जो इस लोक का न होअलौकिक

Additional Informationकुछ महत्वपूर्ण वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द -

वाक्यांशशब्द
जो धन को व्यर्थ खर्च करता होअपव्ययी
जो अच्छे कुल में उत्पन्न हुआ होकुलीन
किए गए उपकार को मानने वालाकृतज्ञ
जो चिरकाल से चला आय��� हैचिरंतन
जो किसी कार्य या चिन्तन में डूबा होतल्लीन
जो कठिनाई से समझ में आता हैदुर्बोध
जिसका उदय हाल ही में हुआ हैनवोदित
130

'का' किस कारक परसर्ग हैं?

  1. ((a))

    संबंध

  2. ((b))

    अधिकरण

  3. ((c))

    कर्म

  4. ((d))

    संप्रदान

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

संबंध

  • जिस शब्द से हमें किन्हीं दो वस्तुओं के बीच संबंध का बोध कराता है, वह संबंध कारक कहलाता है
  • सम्बन्ध कारक के विभक्ति चिन्ह का, के, की, ना, ने, नो, रा, रे, री आदि हैं। अतः विकल्प 1 सही है।

Additional Information

संज्ञा या सवर्नाम के जिस रूप से वाक्य के अन्य शब्दों के साथ उसके सम्बन्ध का बोध हो उसे  कारक कहते है।

कारकचिह्नवाक्य में प्रयोग
कर्त्तानेराजेश ने खीर खायी
कर्मकोमोहन ने रवि को पीटा।
करणसे के द्वाराहम बस से दिल्ली गए।
सम्प्रदानको के लिएपिता बच्चो के लिए फल लाये।
अपादानसेघोड़े से सवार गिर गया।
सम्बन्धका, के, की, ना, ने, नो, रा, रे, रीगंगा का जल पवित्र है।
अधिकरणमें परअलमारी में कपड़े रखे है।
131

निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में, चार विकल्पों में से, उस सही विकल्प का चयन करें जो वाक्यांशों के लिए एक शब्द का विकल्प हो।

सिर से पाँव तक

  1. ((a))

    आततायी

  2. ((b))

    आद्योपांत

  3. ((c))

    आपादमस्तक

  4. ((d))

    आचारपूत

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

आपादमस्तक

'सिर से पाँव तक' वाक्यांश के लिए उपयुक्त शब्द होगा - आपादमस्तक

Key Points 

  • 'सिर से पाँव तक' वाक्यांश के लिए उपयुक्त शब्द - आपादमस्तक
  • वाक्यांश के लिए उपयुक्त शब्द - अनेक शब्दों के लिए एक शब्द को प्रयुक्त करना ही वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द कहलाता है।

अन्य विकल्प -

वाक्यांशशब्द
जो अत्याचार करता होआततायी
आद‍ि से अन्‍त तकआद्योपांत
शुद्ध आचरण करनेवालाआचारपूत

Additional Information कुछ महत्वपूर्ण वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द -

वाक्यांशशब्द
आवश्यकता से अधिक बरसातअतिवृष्टि
जो ईश्वर को न मानता होनास्तिक
जो किये गए उपकारों को नहीं मानता हैकृतघ्न
ऊपर की ओर जाने वालीउर्ध्वगामी
कठिनता से प्राप्त होनेवालादुर्लभ
जिसमें कोई विवाद न होनिर्विवाद
दूसरों के दोष को खोजने वालाछिद्रान्वेषी
जो बहुत समय तक रहेचिरस्थायी
132

निर्देश : निम्नलिखित शब्द समूहों के लिए एक शब्द उनके दिए गए विकल्पों में से चुनें-

आशा से बहुत अधिक -

  1. ((a))

    आशातीत

  2. ((b))

    आशावान

  3. ((c))

    अप्रत्याशित

  4. ((d))

    प्रत्याशित

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

आशातीत

दिए गए विकल्पों में से आशा से बहुत अधिक "आशातीत" कहलाता है। 

Key Pointsअन्य विकल्प - 

वाक्‍यांशवाक्‍यांश के लिए एक शब्द
ज‍िसकी पहले से कोई आशा न होअप्रत्याशित
जिसकी आशा की गई होप्रत्याशित
आशा रखनेवाला।आशावान

Additional Informationवाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द के उदाहरण- 

वाक्‍यांशवाक्‍यांश के लिए एक शब्द
जिस पुस्तक में आठ अध्याय होअष्टाध्यायी
दूसरों की बातों में दखल देनाहस्तक्षेप
जो जल से उत्पन्न होता होजलज
जो किनारे से सटे हुए होतटवर्ती
जहां सैनिक निवास करते होछावनी
आकाश में विचरण करने वाले जंतुनभचर
जहां सिक्कों की ढलाई होती हैटकसाल
जो चोरी-छिपे माल लाता और ले जाता होतस्कर
जो परीक्षा में पास न होअनुत्तीर्ण
133

निम्नलिखित में से एकवचन शब्द का चयन कीजिए-

  1. ((a))

    घोड़े

  2. ((b))

    मनुष्य

  3. ((c))

    चश्मे

  4. ((d))

    कपड़े

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

मनुष्य

'मनुष्य’ शब्द एकवचन में प्रयुक्त किया जाता है। 

Key Points 

  • 'मनुष्य' शब्द एकवचन में प्रयुक्त होता है।
  • 'मनुष्य' में '' प्रत्यय लगाकर 'मनुष्यों' बहुवचन बनाया गया है।

अन्य विकल्प:

बहुवचनएकवचन
घोड़ेघोड़ा
चश्मेचश्मा
कपड़ेकपड़ा

Additional Information 

वचन- संज्ञा के जिस रूप से किसी व्यक्ति और वस्तु के एक या एक से अधिक होने का बोध होता है उसे वचन कहते हैं। जैसे-व्यक्ति-व्यक्तियों, वस्तु-वस्तुएं आदि। वचन दो प्रकार के होते है- 1. एकवचन और 2. बहुवचन।
एकवचनजिस शब्द से किसी वस्तु, व्यक्ति, पदार्थ आदि के एक होने का बोध हो उसे एकवचन कहते है।कमरा, घड़ी, कुत्ता आदि।
बहुवचनजिस शब्द से किसी वस्तु, व्यक्ति, पदार्थ आदि के एक से अधिक होने का बोध हो उसे बहुवचन कहते है।कमरे, घड़ियाँ, कुत्ते आदि।
134

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा शब्द तत्सम है ?

  1. ((a))

    आँख

  2. ((b))

    आग

  3. ((c))

    आज

  4. ((d))

    अग्र

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

अग्र

तत्सम शब्द है - अग्र

Key Points

  • 'अग्र' एक तत्सम शब्द है, जबकि इसका तद्भव शब्द 'आगे' होगा।
  • तत्सम - जिन शब्दों को संस्कृत से बिना किसी परिवर्तन के ले लिया जाता है, उन्हें तत्सम शब्द कहते हैं। 
  • जैसे - आम्र, गृह, मार्ग आदि।
  • तद्भव - जिन शब्दों में समय और परिस्थितियों के कारण कुछ परिवर्तन होने से जो शब्द बने हैं, उन्हें तद्भव कहते हैं। 
  • जैसे- आम्र, घर, पग आदि।​

अन्य विकल्प-

तत्समतद्भव
अग्निआग
अक्षिआँख
अद्यआज

Additional Information  कुछ महत्वपूर्ण ​तत्सम और तद्भव शब्द -

तत्समतद्भव
चटिकाचिड़िया
हरिद्राहल्दी
प्रस्तरपत्थर
इष्टिकाईंट
उज्ज्वलउजला
कुंभकारकुम्हार
सूचिकासुई
मौक्तिकमोती
कृषककिसान
अक्षोटअखरोट
135

दिए गए वाक्य में रेखांकित शब्दों के लिए सही शब्दों वाले विकल्प का चयन करें।

काव्य के क्षेत्र में अनेकों वाद चल चुके हैं।

  1. ((a))

    परिवर्तन की आवश्यकता नहीं है।

  2. ((b))

    काव्य के क्षेत्र में अनेके वाद चल चुके हैं।

  3. ((c))

    काव्य के क्षेत्र में अनेकी वाद चल चुका है।

  4. ((d))

    काव्य के क्षेत्र में अनेक वाद चल चुके हैं।

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

काव्य के क्षेत्र में अनेक वाद चल चुके हैं।

वाक्य में रेखांकित शब्दों के लिए सही विकल्प होगा - काव्य के क्षेत्र में अनेक वाद चल चुके हैं।

Key Points

  • अशुद्ध वाक्य - काव्य के क्षेत्र में अनेकों वाद चल चुके हैं।
  • दिए गये वाक्य में वचन प्रयोग की त्रुटि है,
  • ​यहाँ 'अनेकों' सार्थक शब्द नहीं है और इससे सही अर्थ प्रकट नहीं हो रहा।
  • ​अत: सार्थक शब्द 'अनेक' होना चाहिए। क्योंकि 'अनेक' एक बहुवचन शब्द हैं।
  • शुद्ध वाक्य - काव्य के क्षेत्र में अनेक वाद चल चुके हैं।

अन्य विकल्प-

  • काव्य के क्षेत्र में अनेके वाद चल चुके हैं। (वचन संबंधी अशुद्धि)
  • काव्य के क्षेत्र में अनेकी वाद चल चुका है। (वचन संबंधी अशुद्धि)

Additional Information वचन संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ - 

अशुद्ध वाक्यशुद्ध वाक्य
भारत में अनेकों राज्य हैं।भारत में अनेक राज्य हैं।
इस समय चार बजा है।इस समय चार बजे हैं।
प्रत्येक वृक्ष फल नहीं देते हैं।प्रत्येक वृक्ष फल नहीं देता है।
मैं तो आपका दर्शन करने आया हूँ।मैं तो आपके दर्शन करने आया हूँ।

निर्देश : निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के सही / सबसे उपयुक्त उत्तर वाले विकल्प को चुनिए।

जिसके पास धैर्य है, वह जो इच्छा करता है, प्राप्त कर लेता है। प्रकृति हमें धीरज धारण करने की सीख देती है। धैर्य जीवन में लक्ष्य प्राप्ति का द्वार खोलता है। जो लोग 'जल्दी करो, जल्दी करो' की रट लगाते हैं, वे वास्तव में, 'अधीर मन, गति कम की प्राचीन लोकोक्ति को चरितार्थ करते हैं। सफलता और सम्मान उन्हीं को प्राप्त होता है, जो धैर्यपूर्वक काम में लगे रहते हैं। शांत मन से किसी कार्य को करने में निश्चित रूप से कम समय लगता है। यदि कोई रोगी डॉक्टर से दवाई लेने के तुरंत पश्चात् पूर्णतया स्वस्थ होने की कामना करता है, तो यह उसकी नितांत मूर्खता है। वृक्ष को कितना भी पानी दो, परंतु फल प्राप्ति तो समय पर ही होगी।

136

कैसा व्यक्ति इच्छित वस्तु प्राप्त कर लेता है ?

  1. ((a))

    जो अधीर हो उठता है।

  2. ((b))

    जो धीरज रखता है

  3. ((c))

    जो जल्दबाज़ी करता है

  4. ((d))

    जो धीरे-धीरे काम करता है

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

जो धीरज रखता है

जो धीरज रखता है व्यक्ति इच्छित वस्तु प्राप्त कर लेता है।

Key Points

  • गद्यांश में दिया गया है कि धैर्य जीवन में लक्ष्य प्राप्ति का द्वार खोलता है।
  • उस व्यक्ति को जो इच्छित वस्तु प्राप्त करना चाहता है, वह धीरज रखने वाला होना चाहिए।
  • वह धीरे-धीरे अपने काम में लगे रहता है, शांत मन से कार्य करता है और अपने लक्ष्य की प्राप्ति के लिए समय देता है।
  • इसलिए, उत्तर के रूप में विकल्प 2) जो धीरज रखता है सही है।

Important Pointsगद्यांश के अनुसार-

  • "जिसके पास धैर्य है, वह जो इच्छा करता है, प्राप्त कर लेता है।"

Additional Information

  • विकल्प 1) जो अधीर हो उठता है -
  • यह उत्तर गद्यांश के विपरीत है। गद्यांश में कहा गया है कि धैर्य जीवन में लक्ष्य प्राप्ति का द्वार खोलता है, इसलिए अधीरता से वस्तु प्राप्त नहीं की जा सकती है।
  • विकल्प 3) जो जल्दबाज़ी करता है -
  • गद्यांश में कहा गया है कि "जल्दी करो, जल्दी करो" की रट लगाने वाले व्यक्ति वास्तव में "अधीर मन" को चरितार्थ करते हैं। इसलिए, यह विकल्प सही नहीं है।
  • विकल्प 4) जो धीरे-धीरे काम करता है -
  • यह विकल्प गद्यांश के अनुसार सही है। धैर्य से काम करने वाला व्यक्ति अपने लक्ष्य की प्राप्ति के लिए समय देता है और अच्छे गुणों का विकास करता है।
137

यदि मन शांत हो तो

  1. ((a))

    व्यक्ति संत बन जाता है।

  2. ((b))

    व्यक्ति के भीतर संतोष आ जाता है।

  3. ((c))

    कम समय में सभी कार्य पूर्ण हो जाते हैं

  4. ((d))

    कम समय में काम हो जाता है।

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

कम समय में सभी कार्य पूर्ण हो जाते हैं

यदि मन शांत हो तो कम समय में सभी कार्य पूर्ण हो जाते हैं

Key Points

  • गद्यांश में दिया गया है कि शांत मन से कार्य करने में निश्चित रूप से कम समय लगता है।
  • जब मन शांत होता है, तो मनुष्य कार्यों में उत्साह के साथ लगा रहता है और सामर्थ्यपूर्ण ढंग से कार्यों को पूरा करता है।
  • इसलिए, उत्तर के रूप में विकल्प 3) कम समय में सभी कार्य पूर्ण हो जाते हैं सही है।

Additional Information 

विकल्प 1) व्यक्ति संत बन जाता है -

  • यह विकल्प गद्यांश के अनुसार गलत है।
  • शांत मन वाला व्यक्ति संत नहीं बन जाता है, बल्कि वह अपने भीतर संतोष की अनुभूति करता है और सक्रिय रहता है।

विकल्प 2) व्यक्ति के भीतर संतोष आ जाता है -

  • यह विकल्प गद्यांश के अनुसार सही है।
  • शांत मन से काम करने से व्यक्ति अपने भीतर संतोष की अनुभूति करता है, जो उसके मानसिक स्थिरता और खुशहाली में सहायता करता है।

विकल्प 4) कम समय में काम हो जाता है -

  • यह विकल्प गद्यांश के अनुसार अधिक समय के बजाय निश्चित समय में काम करने का बोध कराता है।
  • शांत मन से कार्य करने में निश्चित रूप से कम समय लगता है।
138

धैर्य जीवन में

  1. ((a))

    ढेर सारी खुशियाँ लाता है।

  2. ((b))

    ढेर सारा संतोष लाता है।

  3. ((c))

    सफलता और सम्मान लाता है 

  4. ((d))

    सफलता और धन लाता है।

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

सफलता और सम्मान लाता है 

धैर्य जीवन में सफलता और सम्मान लाता है

Key Points

  • गद्यांश में दिया गया है कि धैर्य जीवन में लक्ष्य प्राप्ति का द्वार खोलता है।
  • धैर्य वाले लोग समय और सामर्थ्य के साथ अपने लक्ष्य की प्राप्ति के लिए काम करते हैं।
  • इसके परिणामस्वरूप, वे सफलता को हासिल करते हैं और समाज में सम्मान प्राप्त करते हैं।
  • धैर्य की मौजूदगी मनोवैज्ञानिक स्थिरता, सकारात्मकता, समर्पण और सामरिकता को प्रभावित करती है।

Additional Informationविकल्प 1) ढेर सारी खुशियाँ लाता है -

  • यह विकल्प गद्यांश के अनुसार गलत है। धैर्य से काम करने से खुशियाँ लाने की उल्लेख नहीं हुई है।

विकल्प 2) ढेर सारा संतोष लाता है -

  • यह विकल्प गद्यांश के अनुसार गलत है। धैर्य का सीधा संबंध संतोष के साथ नहीं होता है।

विकल्प 4) सफलता और धन लाता है -

  • यह विकल्प गद्यांश के अनुसार गलत है। गद्यांश में सफलता और सम्मान की चर्चा हुई है, धन का उल्लेख नहीं हुआ है।
139

'अधीर मन, गति कम' से आशय है कि अधीर व्यक्ति

  1. ((a))

    हमेशा धीरे कार्य करता है।

  2. ((b))

    एक काम को जल्दी करता है

  3. ((c))

    काम को करने में अधिक समय लगाता है। 

  4. ((d))

    जीवन में सफलता और सम्मान पाता है।

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

काम को करने में अधिक समय लगाता है। 

'अधीर मन, गति कम' से आशय है कि अधीर व्यक्ति काम को करने में अधिक समय लगाता है

Key Points

  • गद्यांश में कहा गया है, "'अधीर मन, गति कम' की प्राचीन लोकोक्ति को चरितार्थ करते हैं।"
  • इसका अर्थ होता है कि जब कोई व्यक्ति अधीर मन के साथ कार्य करता है, तो उसको काम को करने में अधिक समय लगता है।
  • वह काम को जल्दी नहीं कर पाता है और उसकी गति कम होती है।

Additional Informationविकल्प 1) हमेशा धीरे कार्य करता है -

  • यह विकल्प गद्यांश के अनुसार गलत है। गद्यांश में कहा गया है कि "अधीर मन, गति कम" की प्राचीन लोकोक्ति चरितार्थ करते हैं, जिससे यह स्पष्ट होता है कि अधीर मन वाला व्यक्ति हमेशा धीरे कार्य नहीं करता है।

विकल्प 2) एक काम को जल्दी करता है -

  • यह विकल्प गद्यांश के अनुसार गलत है। गद्यांश में दिया गया है कि "अधीर मन, गति कम" की प्राचीन लोकोक्ति को चरितार्थ करते हैं।
  • इसका अर्थ होता है कि अधीर मन वाला व्यक्ति अपने काम को जल्दी नहीं कर पाता है।

विकल्प 4) जीवन में सफलता और सम्मान पाता है -

  • यह विकल्प गद्यांश के अनुसार गलत है। गद्यांश में सफलता और सम्मान की चर्चा नहीं हुई है।
140

रोगी को डॉक्टर से यह अपेक्षा नहीं करनी चाहिए कि

  1. ((a))

    दवाई लेने पर वह तुरंत ठीक हो जाएगा

  2. ((b))

    वह उसका ठीक से इलाज करेगा

  3. ((c))

    उसकी दी हुई दवाई सस्ती होगी

  4. ((d))

    वह उसके बेहतर स्वास्थ्य की कामना करेगा

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

दवाई लेने पर वह तुरंत ठीक हो जाएगा

रोगी को डॉक्टर से यह अपेक्षा नहीं करनी चाहिए कि दवाई लेने पर वह तुरंत ठीक हो जाएगा

Key Points

  • गद्यांश में दिया गया है, "यदि कोई रोगी डॉक्टर से दवाई लेने के तुरंत पश्चात् पूर्णतया स्वस्थ होने की कामना करता है, तो यह उसकी नितांत मूर्खता है।"
  • इससे स्पष्ट होता है कि रोगी को अपेक्षा नहीं करनी चाहिए कि वह दवाई लेने पर तुरंत ठीक हो जाएगा।
  • इसके पीछे कारण है कि किसी रोग का इलाज सामान्यतः समय लगता है और दवाओं के प्रभाव को व्यक्ति के शरीर पर समय लगता है।
  • अतः रोगी को आपेक्षित परिणामों की तुरंत उम्मीद नहीं करनी चाहिए।

English Language 1 (20 questions)

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow by selecting the most appropriate option from the given alternatives.

Freedom of speech is a cornerstone of democratic societies, allowing individuals to express ideas, question authority, and promote change. However, in the digital world, this right encounters complex challenges. Social media platforms have become arenas where opinions can be voiced instantly-but also where hate speech, misinformation, and cyberbullying thrive. Balancing the right to speak freely with the responsibility to prevent harm is now a pressing debate. Should platforms censor harmful content, or would that violate freedom? While some argue that regulation is essential to protect vulnerable groups, others fear it might lead to suppression of dissent. The problem deepens when private companies-not elected bodies-decide what speech is allowed or banned. Striking the right balance requires thoughtful policies, digital literacy, and legal frameworks rooted in both human rights and public safety. In a world where words travel faster than thought, protecting free speech without enabling harm may be one of the defining tests of modern democracy.

141

What central conflict is explored in the passage?  

  1. ((a))

    Law vs. religion 

  2. ((b))

    Profit vs. loss 

  3. ((c))

    Freedom vs. online harm

  4. ((d))

    Privacy vs. piracy 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Freedom vs. online harm

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

  • The passage highlights the challenge of balancing freedom of speech with preventing harm online.
  • It discusses the rapid spread of content on social media, including hate speech, misinformation, and cyberbullying.
  • The conflict is between allowing individuals to express themselves freely and the responsibility to protect vulnerable users from online harm.
  • Other options like law vs. religion, profit vs. loss, or privacy vs. piracy do not capture the central theme of the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3: Freedom vs. online harm.

 

Additional Information

  • Law vs. religion (कानून बनाम धर्म): Not discussed; the passage does not explore religious conflicts.
  • Profit vs. loss (मुनाफा बनाम हानि): Irrelevant; financial aspects are not the focus.
  • Privacy vs. piracy (गोपनीयता बनाम समुद्री डकैती): Not mentioned; the passage focuses on speech and online harm.
142

Why is regulation of speech on social media controversial? 

  1. ((a))

    It is illegal in all democracies 

  2. ((b))

    It gives too much power to users 

  3. ((c))

    It may Suppress dissenting voice 

  4. ((d))

    It slows down communication 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

It may Suppress dissenting voice 

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

  • The passage highlights that regulating speech on social media involves controlling what is allowed or banned.
  • A major concern is that regulation by private companies might suppress dissenting voices or unpopular opinions.
  • This makes regulation controversial because it may unintentionally limit freedom of expression while aiming to prevent harm.
  • Other options like legality, power to users, or slowing communication do not capture the core ethical concern presented in the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: It is illegal in all democracies (सभी लोकतंत्रों में यह अवैध है): Incorrect, because freedom of speech exists in democracies; regulation is debated, not universally illegal.
  • Option 2: It gives too much power to users (उपयोगकर्ताओं को बहुत अधिक शक्ति देता है): Incorrect, the passage focuses on companies or platforms, not individual users.
  • Option 4: It slows down communication (यह संचार को धीमा कर देता है): Incorrect, speed of communication is not the ethical concern discussed in the passage.
143

What is the concern about private companies controlling speech? 

  1. ((a))

    They are too small to influence politics 

  2. ((b))

    It may have been moved, edited, or deleted. 

  3. ((c))

    They lack legal authority of accountability

  4. ((d))

    They promote academic debates  

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

They lack legal authority of accountability

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

  • Private companies are increasingly making decisions about what speech is allowed or banned on digital platforms.
  • Unlike elected government bodies, these companies do not hold legal accountability or democratic authority over speech.
  • This raises concerns about transparency, fairness, and potential suppression of dissent.
  • Therefore, the main issue is that they lack the legal authority of accountability.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: They are too small to influence politics (वे राजनीति को प्रभावित करने के लिए बहुत छोटे हैं) – Incorrect; the concern is not about size but accountability.
  • Option 2: It may have been moved, edited, or deleted (इसे स्थानांतरित, संपादित या हटाया जा सकता है) – Irrelevant in the context of ethical and legal authority.
  • Option 4: They promote academic debates (वे अकादमिक बहस को बढ़ावा देते हैं) – Incorrect; the passage does not discuss academic debates.
144

According to the author, what is required to resolve this conflict?  

  1. ((a))

    Removing all harmful users 

  2. ((b))

    Allowing complete freedom 

  3. ((c))

    Combining rights with safety through law and literacy

  4. ((d))

    Banning social media worldwide 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Combining rights with safety through law and literacy

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

  • The passage emphasizes the challenge of balancing freedom of speech with preventing harm online.
  • The author notes that thoughtful policies, digital literacy, and legal frameworks are necessary to protect rights while ensuring safety.
  • Option 3, "Combining rights with safety through law and literacy," directly addresses this requirement by linking freedom with responsibility.
  • Other options, such as removing users entirely, allowing complete freedom, or banning social media, do not reflect the nuanced solution suggested in the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: Removing all harmful users – unrealistic and does not address systemic solutions. (सब हानिकारक उपयोगकर्ताओं को हटाना)
  • Option 2: Allowing complete freedom – ignores the risk of harm; not a balanced approach. (पूर्ण स्वतंत्रता की अनुमति देना)
  • Option 4: Banning social media worldwide – extreme and impractical; does not solve the ethical challenges. (दुनिया भर में सोशल मीडिया प्रतिबंधित करना)
145

What tone does the author adopt in the passage? 

  1. ((a))

    Dismissive 

  2. ((b))

    Alarmist

  3. ((c))

    Balanced and reflective

  4. ((d))

    Aggressive 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Balanced and reflective

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

  • The passage discusses both the importance of freedom of speech and the challenges posed by digital platforms.
  • The author presents multiple perspectives, including the need to protect free expression and the risks of harm from hate speech or misinformation.
  • The tone is reflective because it carefully weighs pros and cons without exaggeration or dismissal.
  • It is balanced because it neither overstates the dangers nor ignores them, and it suggests thoughtful solutions like policy, literacy, and legal frameworks.

Therefore, the correct answer is Balanced and reflective.

 

Additional Information

  • Dismissive (उपेक्षापूर्ण): Ignores or downplays the importance of free speech; not applicable here.
  • Alarmist (अतिशयोक्तिपूर्ण): Exaggerates dangers to provoke fear; the passage does not exaggerate.
  • Aggressive (आक्रामक): Forceful or confrontational tone; the passage is analytical and measured, not aggressive.
146

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Broad

  1. ((a))

    Wide

  2. ((b))

    Particular

  3. ((c))

    Exact

  4. ((d))

    Small

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Wide

The correct answer is: Option 1.

Key Points

  • The word "Broad" means having an ample distance from side to side; wide. (चौड़ा)
  • Example: The road was broad enough to accommodate four lanes of traffic.
  • "Wide" refers to having a great extent from side to side. (विस्तृत)
  • Example: The river was too wide to cross without a bridge.
  • Hence, we can infer that the synonym of 'Broad' is 'Wide'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Particular (विशेष): Specific or distinct.
  • Example: She wanted that particular dress for her birthday.
  • Exact (सटीक): Precise, correct in all details.
  • Example: He gave the exact measurements for the project.
  • Small (छोटा): Of a size that is less than normal or usual.
  • Example: She lives in a small apartment in the city.
147

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Empty

  1. ((a))

    Vacant

  2. ((b))

    Common

  3. ((c))

    Busy

  4. ((d))

    Dear

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Vacant

The correct answer is: Vacant.

Key Points

  • The word "Empty" means containing nothing; not filled or occupied. (खाली)
  • Example: The glass was empty after he drank all the water.
  • "Vacant" refers to something that is not filled, used, or occupied; devoid of contents or occupants. (रिक्त)
  • Example: The hotel had several vacant rooms available for booking.
  • Hence, we can conclude that the most appropriate synonym for "Empty" is "Vacant."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Vacant.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Common (सामान्य): Occurring, found, or done often; widespread.
  • Example: It is common to see people enjoying street food in this city.
  • Busy (व्यस्त): Engaged in activity; not free or idle.
  • Example: She was too busy to attend the meeting.
  • Dear (प्रिय): Loved or valued highly; precious.
  • Example: My grandmother is very dear to me.
148

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Tramp

  1. ((a))

    Doctor

  2. ((b))

    Actor

  3. ((c))

    Wanderer

  4. ((d))

    Professor

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Wanderer

The correct answer is: Option 3.

Key Points

  • The word "Tramp" refers to a person who travels from place to place, often without a permanent home or job, and may live by begging. (भिखारी या घुमंतू व्यक्ति)
  • Example: The tramp wandered the streets, looking for a place to sleep.
  • "Wanderer" is a synonym for tramp, referring to someone who roams or travels aimlessly without a fixed destination. (यात्री या भटकने वाला व्यक्ति)
  • Example: He was a wanderer at heart, always seeking new adventures in distant lands.
  • Hence, we can conclude that the most appropriate synonym of 'Tramp' is 'Wanderer'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Doctor (डॉक्टर): A person licensed to practice medicine and treat illnesses.
  • Example: The doctor examined the patient carefully before prescribing medicine.
  • Actor (अभिनेता): A person who performs in plays, movies, or television shows.
  • Example: He is a talented actor known for his roles in dramatic films.
  • Professor (प्रोफेसर): A teacher of the highest rank in a college or university.
  • Example: The professor delivered an enlightening lecture on quantum mechanics.
149

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Baroque

  1. ((a))

    Florid 

  2. ((b))

    Plain 

  3. ((c))

    Ornate 

  4. ((d))

    Gilt

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Plain 

The correct answer is: Plain.

Key Points

  • The word "Baroque" refers to a style characterized by elaborate ornamentation and complexity, often associated with art, architecture, and music from the Baroque period. (बहुत अलंकृत)
  • Example: The baroque design of the cathedral featured intricate carvings and gold details.
  • "Plain" refers to something simple, without any elaborate decoration or ornamentation. It is the antonym of baroque. (सादा)
  • Example: The plain white walls of the room gave it a minimalist aesthetic.
  • Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'Baroque' is 'Plain'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Plain.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Florid (अत्यधिक अलंकृत): Excessively intricate or ornate.
  • Example: His florid writing style made the text difficult to follow.
  • Ornate (सजावटी): Decorated with complex patterns or elaborate details.
  • Example: The ornate mirror in the hallway caught everyone's attention.
  • Gilt (सोने का पानी चढ़ा हुआ): Covered with a thin layer of gold or resembling gold.
  • Example: The gilt frame added a luxurious touch to the painting.
150

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

An old head on young shoulders

  1. ((a))

    A young person who acts or speaks like an older person

  2. ((b))

    A young person who is lazy. 

  3. ((c))

    A person who is slow at understanding things.

  4. ((d))

    A young person who looks old.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A young person who acts or speaks like an older person

The correct answer is: Option 1.

Key Points

  • The idiom "An old head on young shoulders" means a young person who acts or speaks with the wisdom or maturity of an older person. (एक युवा व्यक्ति जो वृद्ध व्यक्ति की तरह व्यवहार करता है या बोलता है)
  • Example: Despite being only 16, John often provides advice with the wisdom of an old head on young shoulders.
  • Explanation: The idiom signifies a young individual who displays maturity and understanding beyond their years. (यह मुहावरा एक युवा व्यक्ति को दर्शाता है जो अपनी उम्र से अधिक परिपक्वता और समझ दिखाता है)
  • Example: Sarah's insightful comments during the meeting showed she had an old head on young shoulders.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Option 2: A young person who is lazy. (एक युवा व्यक्ति जो आलसी है)
  • Example: Tom is a young person who is lazy and prefers playing video games all day.
  • Option 3: A person who is slow at understanding things. (एक व्यक्ति जो चीजों को समझने में धीमा है)
  • Example: Mary is often slow at understanding things, so she needs extra time to complete her tasks.
  • Option 4: A young person who looks old. (एक युवा व्यक्ति जो बूढ़ा दिखता है)
  • Example: Due to his health condition, Jake is a young person who looks old.
151

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

To be at daggers drawn

  1. ((a))

    To be about to collapse

  2. ((b))

    Ready to fight

  3. ((c))

    Under suspicion

  4. ((d))

    To be under control

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Ready to fight

The correct answer is: Option 2.

Key Points

  • The idiom "To be at daggers drawn" means to be in a state of extreme hostility or ready to fight. (लड़ने को तैयार होना)
  • Example: After the heated argument, the two colleagues were at daggers drawn.
  • "Ready to fight" means being prepared to engage in a confrontation or combat. (लड़ने के लिए तैयार)
  • Example: The two nations were ready to fight after the diplomatic negotiations failed.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • To be about to collapse (ढहने वाला होना): Being on the verge of falling apart or failing.
  • Example: The old building was about to collapse after the earthquake.
  • Under suspicion (संदेह के तहत): Being suspected of wrongdoing.
  • Example: The employee was under suspicion for embezzling company funds.
  • To be under control (नियंत्रण में होना): Being managed or contained effectively.
  • Example: The fire was finally under control after hours of effort by the firefighters.
152

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Slip your mind

  1. ((a))

    Forget about something

  2. ((b))

    Immediately think of something

  3. ((c))

    Can’t think of anything to say

  4. ((d))

    Think about something for a short time

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Forget about something

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Forget about something.

Key Points

  • The idiom "Slip your mind" means to forget about something. (भूल जाना)
  • Example: I'm sorry I didn't call you back, it completely slipped my mind.
  • "Forget about something" refers to failing to remember something that one was supposed to do. (किसी चीज़ को भूल जाना)
  • Example: She forgot about the meeting and missed it entirely.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Forget about something.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Immediately think of something (तुरंत किसी चीज़ के बारे में सोचना):
  • Example: When I saw the picture, I immediately thought of our trip to Paris.
  • Can't think of anything to say (कहने के लिए कुछ भी नहीं सोच पाना):
  • Example: When he asked me that question, I couldn't think of anything to say.
  • Think about something for a short time (थोड़े समय के लिए किसी चीज़ के बारे में सोचना):
  • Example: I thought about the proposal for a short time before making a decision.
153

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Sell like hot cakes

  1. ((a))

    Not bothering about money

  2. ((b))

    Selling out quickly

  3. ((c))

    Extremely hot and humid 

  4. ((d))

    Become very famous

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Selling out quickly

The correct answer is "Option 2".

Key Points

  • The phrase "sell like hot cakes" means to sell out quickly and in large quantities.(अच्छी संख्या में बेचें)
  • Example- This year's festival tickets are selling like hot cakes.
154

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

  1. ((a))

    Camouflage

  2. ((b))

    Perseverence

  3. ((c))

    Exaggerate

  4. ((d))

    Connoisseur

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Perseverence

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'Perseverence'.

  • The correct spelling would be 'Perseverance'.
  • The word 'Perseverance' is a noun which means 'continued effort to do or achieve something despite difficulties, failure, or opposition'. (दृढ़ता)
  • For Example -
  • His perseverance in the face of adversity is admirable.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'Perseverence'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

  • Camouflage - the act of concealing the identity of something by modifying its appearance (छलावरण)
  • Exaggerate - represent (something) as being larger, better, or worse than it really is (बढ़ा-चढ़ाकर कहना)
  • Connoisseur - an expert judge in matters of taste (पारखी)
155

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

  1. ((a))

    Cage

  2. ((b))

    Squirral

  3. ((c))

    Cloakroom

  4. ((d))

    Casino

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Squirral

The correct answer is: Option 2.

Key Points

  • The word "Squirral" is incorrectly spelt.
  • The correct spelling is "Squirrel".
  • "Squirrel" refers to a small rodent with a bushy tail, often found in trees. (गिलहरी)
  • Example: The squirrel quickly climbed up the tree to escape the dog.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Cage (पिंजरा): A structure of bars or wires in which birds or other animals are confined.
  • Example: The parrot was kept in a large cage in the living room.
  • Cloakroom (कपड़े रखने का कमरा): A room in a public building where outdoor clothes or luggage may be left.
  • Example: She left her coat in the cloakroom before entering the auditorium.
  • Casino (जुआघर): A public room or building where gambling games are played.
  • Example: They spent the evening at the casino trying their luck at the slot machines.
156

Choose the incorrectly spelt word.

  1. ((a))

    Zeroth

  2. ((b))

    Zoom

  3. ((c))

    Zulogist

  4. ((d))

    Zenith

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Zulogist

The correct answer is "Zulogist". 

Key Points

  • The question asks to identify the incorrectly spelled word among the given options.
  • "Zeroth" is correctly spelled, indicating an ordinal position before the first.
  • "Zoom" is correctly spelled, often used to refer to camera functionality or fast movement.
  • "Zulogist" is incorrectly spelled.
  • The correct spelling should be "Zoologist," which refers to a person who studies animals.
  • "Zenith" is spelled correctly, signifying the highest point or peak of something.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".
157

Directions : This question consists of a sentence, parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled as P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences, namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly. 

of letters as the (P) / with the same number (Q) / 4 is the only number (R) / meaning of its name (S)

  1. ((a))

    RQPS

  2. ((b))

    RPSQ

  3. ((c))

    PSQR

  4. ((d))

    PRQS

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

RQPS

The correct answer is "RQPS"

Key Points

  • First in sequence will be R which describes 4 as the only number for (something)
  • Part Q joined with P reveal that something to be "the same number of letters" as (comparison)
  • Finally, Part S ends the sentence with revealing it to be "the meaning of its name"

The correct sentence is: R 4 is the only number Q with the same number P of letters as the S meaning of its name

158

Each of the following questions consists of a sentence, parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labeled as P, Q, R, and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences, namely (a), (b), (c), and (d). Rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

vital organ of(P)/   never stops working(Q)   the body which(R)/   the heart is a(S)

  1. ((a))

    SPRQ

  2. ((b))

    PQSR

  3. ((c))

    QSPR

  4. ((d))

    RQSP

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

SPRQ

The correct answer is: SPRQ

Key Points

  • Here, we have to form a meaningful sentence by rearranging the jumbled parts.
  • The first part of the sentence is S. It begins with the noun 'heart', which also is the subject of our sentence.
  • The second part must carry the idea of the first part. The second part is P since it mentions the characteristics of the heart.
  • The third part is R. It is the continuation of part P.
  • The last part is Q.
  • Thus, option 1 is correct here

The correct sentence is: The heart is a vital organ of the body that never stops working.

159

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error:

He sings good / among all the / contestants in / the singing competition.

  1. ((a))

    contestants in

  2. ((b))

    He sings good

  3. ((c))

    the singing competition

  4. ((d))

    among all the

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

He sings good

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • The error lies in the phrase "He sings good" in part B.
  • In English, "good" is an adjective, but here it should be an adverb modifying the verb "sings."
  • The correct word to use is "well," as it is the adverb form of "good."
  • Thus, the error is located in part B of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "He sings well among all the contestants in the singing competition."

 

Additional Information

  • A: "contestants in" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • C: "the singing competition" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • D: "among all the" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • No error – This would be the correct option if there were no mistakes in the sentence, but there is an error in part B.
160

Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
When I was studying Economics in Delhi University, Ritu was senior than me.

  1. ((a))

    senior than me

  2. ((b))

    in Delhi University

  3. ((c))

    When I was studying Economics

  4. ((d))

    Ritu was

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

senior than me

The correct answer is '1' i.e. senior than me .

Key Points

  • The phrase 'senior than me' is incorrect in the given sentence.
  • The correct usage is 'senior to me' because the word 'senior' is followed by the preposition 'to' when comparing.
  • The correct sentence should be 'When I was studying Economics in Delhi University, Ritu was senior to me.'

Correct sentence: When I was studying Economics in Delhi University, Ritu was senior to me.

Additional Information

  • In English, certain adjectives such as 'senior', 'junior', 'superior', 'inferior', 'preferable', etc., are followed by the preposition 'to' rather than 'than'.
  • Examples:
  • He is junior to me in the company.
  • Her skills are superior to his.

English Language 2 (15 questions)

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Algae are photosynthetic creatures that have pigments that aid in photosynthesis, such as chlorophyll. They do not, however, have the actual stems, roots or leaves found in vascular plants. While some of them have many cells, others are unicellular. They might establish colonies as well. The majority of algae are aquatic. Some are terrestrial, and they can be found on rocks, trees and moist soil. Certain algae species coexist well with other living things. For instance, lichens are a symbiotic relationship between green (and often bluegreen) algae and fungi. Algae are members of a multiphyletic group. This indicates that there is no common ancestor and that the species in this category are not necessarily closely related. They do not have other morphoanatomical characteristics typical of vascular plants, but they do have one thing in common: they are eukaryotes with the principal pigment being chlorophyll, which allows them to perform photosynthesis. Phycology is the scientific name for the study of algae. The blue-green algae is one example of a reference. But some sources do not classify them as algae because they are prokaryotes.

161

According to the passage, which is the main pigment in algae for photosynthesis?

  1. ((a))

    Chlorophyll

  2. ((b))

    Melanin

  3. ((c))

    Xanthophyll

  4. ((d))

    Carotenoid

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Chlorophyll

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

  • The passage describes algae as photosynthetic creatures that rely on specific pigments to capture light energy.
  • It explicitly identifies chlorophyll as the "principal pigment" that allows these organisms to perform photosynthesis.
  • The text states that even though algae are a diverse (multiphyletic) group, having chlorophyll is the "one thing in common" among them.
  • None of the other pigments listed (Melanin, Xanthophyll, or Carotenoid) are mentioned in the passage as the primary pigment for algae.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Correct Sentence from Text: "They [algae] are eukaryotes with the principal pigment being chlorophyll, which allows them to perform photosynthesis."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 2: Melanin – This is a pigment found in humans and animals responsible for skin and hair color; it is not involved in photosynthesis.
  • Option 3 & 4: Xanthophyll and Carotenoid – While these are indeed accessory pigments found in many types of algae in real-world biology, they are not mentioned in the provided text, which identifies chlorophyll as the primary one.
162

What is the central theme of the passage?

  1. ((a))

    The prokaryotic nature of blue-green algae

  2. ((b))

    The anatomy of vascular plants

  3. ((c))

    The symbiotic relationship between algae and fungi

  4. ((d))

    The diversity and characteristics of algae

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The diversity and characteristics of algae

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

  • The passage provides a broad overview of algae, covering their biological definition, structural variety, and habitat.
  • It highlights their diversity by mentioning they can be unicellular, multicellular, or colonial, and live in aquatic or terrestrial environments.
  • It describes their characteristics, such as being photosynthetic eukaryotes that use chlorophyll, while also distinguishing them from vascular plants by their lack of roots, stems, and leaves.
  • While the other options (lichens, vascular plants, prokaryotes) are mentioned, they serve as specific examples or points of comparison to explain the broader nature of algae.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Correct Summary: The passage serves as a general introduction to the diversity and biological characteristics of algae, touching upon their classification, structure, and ecological roles.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "The prokaryotic nature of blue-green algae" – This is a specific detail mentioned at the end to explain a classification conflict, not the central theme.
  • Option 2: "The anatomy of vascular plants" – Vascular plants are only mentioned to provide a contrast to the simpler structure of algae.
  • Option 3: "The symbiotic relationship between algae and fungi" – Lichens are used as an example of how algae coexist with other organisms, but it is not the focus of the whole text.
163

Which statement accurately describes vascular plants based on the information in the passage?

  1. ((a))

    Vascular plants lack stems, roots and leaves.

  2. ((b))

    Vascular plants are unicellular in structure.

  3. ((c))

    Vascular plants have true stems, roots and leaves, unlike algae.

  4. ((d))

    Algae and vascular plants share the same morphoanatomical characteristics.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Vascular plants have true stems, roots and leaves, unlike algae.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

  • The passage draws a clear structural distinction between algae and vascular plants. It states that algae "do not... have the actual stems, roots or leaves found in vascular plants."
  • By logic, this means that vascular plants possess true stems, roots, and leaves, which serves as a defining difference between the two groups.
  • The text also mentions that algae lack other "morphoanatomical characteristics typical of vascular plants," highlighting that vascular plants have a more complex anatomy.
  • Option 3 is the only choice that correctly identifies this contrast based on the text provided.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence from Text: "They [Algae] do not, however, have the actual stems, roots or leaves found in vascular plants."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: Incorrect. The passage explicitly states that these structures are "found in vascular plants."
  • Option 2: Incorrect. The passage mentions algae can be unicellular, but it does not attribute this trait to vascular plants.
  • Option 4: Incorrect. The passage states that algae "do not have" the morphoanatomical characteristics typical of vascular plants.
164

What does the term 'multiphyletic group' mean in the context of algae?

  1. ((a))

    Having a common ancestor

  2. ((b))

    Being closely related species

  3. ((c))

    No common ancestor, not closely related

  4. ((d))

    Having diverse morphoanatomical characteristics

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

No common ancestor, not closely related

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

  • The passage explicitly defines a multiphyletic group (more commonly known in biology as polyphyletic) regarding algae.
  • According to the text, this classification "indicates that there is no common ancestor and that the species in this category are not necessarily closely related."
  • The commonality among these organisms is functional (the presence of chlorophyll for photosynthesis) rather than ancestral or evolutionary.
  • Option 3 directly mirrors the definition provided in the middle of the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence from Text: "Algae are members of a multiphyletic group. This indicates that there is no common ancestor and that the species in this category are not necessarily closely related."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: Incorrect. Having a common ancestor would describe a monophyletic group, which the text explicitly says algae are not.
  • Option 2: Incorrect. The text states they are "not necessarily closely related," making this choice factually wrong based on the passage.
  • Option 4: Incorrect. While the passage mentions they lack vascular characteristics, this diverse anatomy is a result or a feature of the group, not the definition of the term "multiphyletic" as used in the context.
165

The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don't find any error, mark 'No error' as your answer.

<br>

Spanish person are well known worldwide / for their warm hospitality / and food.

  1. ((a))

    No error

  2. ((b))

    and food

  3. ((c))

    for their warm hospitality

  4. ((d))

    Spanish person are well known worldwide

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Spanish person are well known worldwide

The correct answer is Option 4 – "Spanish person are well known worldwide".

 

Key Points

  • The error lies in subject-verb agreement and noun number consistency.
  • The noun "person" is singular, but the verb "are" is plural, creating a mismatch.
  • To correct this, either the noun should be made plural (“people”) or the verb should be singular (“is”).
  • Since the statement refers to Spanish people in general, the correct subject should be plural: "Spanish people are well known worldwide."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Correct Sentence: "Spanish people are well known worldwide for their warm hospitality and food."

 

Additional Information

  • When referring to a group or nationality in general, use the plural form like "Spanish people," "French citizens," etc.
  • Ensure subject-verb agreement: plural subjects take plural verbs and vice versa.
166

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

<br>

She received / an award / for her work / in a engineering field.

  1. ((a))

    She received

  2. ((b))

    in a engineering field.

  3. ((c))

    an award

  4. ((d))

    for her work

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

in a engineering field.

The correct answer is '2' i.e. in a engineering field.

Key Points

  • The given sentence has been divided into four segments:
  • She received
  • an award
  • for her work
  • in a engineering field
  • Segment 2, "in a engineering field", contains a grammatical error.
  • The article "a" is incorrect because it precedes the word "engineering," which begins with a vowel sound. The correct article in this context is "an."
  • The correct phrase should be "in an engineering field."

Correct sentence: She received an award for her work in an engineering field.

Additional Information

  • Usage of Articles:
  • "A": Used before words that begin with a consonant sound. Example: a book, a car.
  • "An": Used before words that begin with a vowel sound. Example: an apple, an engineer.
  • Common Errors:
  • Using the wrong article before a noun can make the sentence grammatically incorrect.
  • It is important to focus on the sound of the word that follows the article, not just the spelling.
167

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains an error.

That question is / much difficult / but this one is / very easy.

  1. ((a))

    That question is

  2. ((b))

    very easy

  3. ((c))

    much difficult

  4. ((d))

    but this one is

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

much difficult

The correct answer is '3' i.e. much difficult .

Key Points

  • The error lies in the phrase "much difficult."
  • The word "difficult" is a qualitative adjective, and we use the word "very" to modify such adjectives, not "much."
  • The correct form should be "very difficult."

Correct sentence: That question is very difficult, but this one is very easy.

Additional Information

  • Use of "very":
  • "Very" is used to emphasize adjectives and adverbs.
  • Example: "She is very intelligent."
  • Use of "much":
  • "Much" is used to modify uncountable nouns or comparative adjectives.
  • Example: "He doesn’t have much time." / "This task is much harder."
168

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

<br>

Customary

  1. ((a))

    Fashion

  2. ((b))

    Protection

  3. ((c))

    Habitual

  4. ((d))

    Unusual

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Unusual

The correct answer is: Option 4.

Key Points

  • The word "Customary" means something that is according to the customs or usual practices; it implies being typical or expected. (रिवाज के अनुसार)
  • Example: It is customary to remove your shoes before entering a temple.
  • "Unusual" refers to something that is not common or typical; it is out of the ordinary. (असामान्य)
  • Example: Her choice of outfit was quite unusual for the formal event.
  • Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'Customary' is 'Unusual'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Fashion (फैशन): A popular trend, especially in styles of dress and ornament.
  • Example: She always keeps up with the latest fashion.
  • Protection (सुरक्षा): The action of protecting someone or something.
  • Example: Wearing a helmet provides protection during cycling.
  • Habitual (आदतन): Done or doing constantly or as a habit.
  • Example: He is a habitual latecomer to meetings.
169

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Autonomy

  1. ((a))

    Dependence

  2. ((b))

    Permanence

  3. ((c))

    Independence

  4. ((d))

    Economical

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dependence

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Dependence.

Key Points

  • The word "Autonomy" means the right or condition of self-government; independence. (स्वायत्तता)
  • Example: Many countries fought for autonomy from colonial rule.
  • "Dependence" refers to the state of relying on or being controlled by someone or something else. (निर्भरता)
  • Example: His dependence on technology for daily tasks is quite evident.
  • Hence, the antonym of 'autonomy' is 'dependence'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Dependence.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Permanence (स्थायित्व): The state or quality of lasting or remaining unchanged indefinitely.
  • Example: The permanence of the monument ensures that it will be seen by future generations.
  • Independence (स्वतंत्रता): The fact or state of being independent; self-sufficiency.
  • Example: India gained independence from British rule in 1947.
  • Economical (किफायती): Giving good value or service in relation to the amount of money, time, or effort spent.
  • Example: The new car is very economical on fuel.
170

Choose the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Go bananas

  1. ((a))

    To file a case

  2. ((b))

    To go crazy

  3. ((c))

    To crack bad jokes

  4. ((d))

    To go in speed

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

To go crazy

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. "To go crazy".

Key Points

  • The idiom "Go bananas" means to become extremely excited, enthusiastic, or crazy about something. (बहुत उत्साहित या पागल होना)
  • Example: The fans went bananas when their favorite team won the championship.
  • "Go crazy" refers to losing control emotionally or mentally, often due to overwhelming excitement, stress, or frustration. (पागल हो जाना)
  • Example: She went crazy with joy when she received the good news about her promotion.
  • Hence, the most appropriate meaning of the idiom "Go bananas" is "To go crazy."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • To file a case (मुकदमा दायर करना): The act of officially submitting a legal complaint or lawsuit in a court of law.
  • Example: She decided to file a case against her landlord for unfair eviction.
  • To crack bad jokes (बुरे चुटकुले सुनाना): To tell jokes that are not funny or are inappropriate.
  • Example: He often cracks bad jokes at family gatherings, making everyone uncomfortable.
  • To go in speed (तेज़ गति से जाना): To move or travel quickly.
  • Example: He had to go in speed to catch the last train home.
171

Choose the option from the following which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase:

Make hay while the sun shines.

  1. ((a))

    very clean and tidy

  2. ((b))

    do it slowly and carefully

  3. ((c))

    to make good use of an opportunity while it lasts

  4. ((d))

    Work better or leave

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

to make good use of an opportunity while it lasts

The correct answer is: Option 3.

Key Points

  • The phrase "Make hay while the sun shines" means to take advantage of a good situation or opportunity while it lasts. (अवसर का लाभ उठाना)
  • Example: She decided to make hay while the sun shines and took on additional projects during the peak season.
  • "To make good use of an opportunity while it lasts" means to utilize a favorable situation before it ends. (अवसर का सही उपयोग करना)
  • Example: He made good use of the opportunity while it lasted by investing in the stock market during the boom.

Therefore, the correct answer is: to make good use of an opportunity while it lasts.

172

Select the option that can be used as one-word substitute for the given group of words.

<br>

Detailed examination of something complex

  1. ((a))

    Dialysis

  2. ((b))

    Synthesis

  3. ((c))

    Symbiosis

  4. ((d))

    Analysis

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Analysis

The correct answer is: Option 4.

Key Points

  • The word "Analysis" means detailed examination of the elements or structure of something, typically as a basis for discussion or interpretation. (विश्लेषण)
  • Example: The analysis of the company's financial statements revealed a significant increase in revenue.
  • "Analysis" refers to the process of examining the details of something complex to understand its meaning or identify its essential features. (विश्लेषण)
  • Example: The scientist conducted an analysis of the chemical compound to determine its properties.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Dialysis (डायलिसिस): A medical process of removing waste and excess water from the blood, typically used for those with kidney failure.
  • Example: The patient undergoes dialysis three times a week.
  • Synthesis (संश्लेषण): The combination of ideas to form a theory or system.
  • Example: The synthesis of different musical styles resulted in a unique sound.
  • Symbiosis (सहजीविता): A mutually beneficial relationship between different people or groups.
  • Example: The symbiosis between the two companies led to increased market share.

Question: Select the option that can be used as one-word substitute for the given group of words.

The correct answer is: Option 4.

173

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A person who abstains from any sort of alcoholic drinks

  1. ((a))

    Termagant

  2. ((b))

    Veteran

  3. ((c))

    Teetotaller

  4. ((d))

    Samaritan

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Teetotaller

The correct answer is: Teetotaller.

Key Points

  • The word "Teetotaller" means a person who abstains from consuming any sort of alcoholic drinks. (शराब न पीने वाला व्यक्ति)
  • Example: Despite being at a party with plenty of alcohol, John remained a teetotaller and stuck to drinking soda.
  • "Termagant" refers to a harsh-tempered or overbearing woman. (बदमिजाज औरत)
  • Example: The old termagant next door always yells at the children playing in the street.
  • "Veteran" means a person who has had long experience in a particular field. (अनुभवी व्यक्ति)
  • Example: He is a veteran journalist who has worked with several renowned news agencies.
  • "Samaritan" refers to a charitable or helpful person. (सहायक व्यक्ति)
  • Example: She played the role of a good Samaritan by helping the stranded travelers find a place to stay.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Teetotaller.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Termagant (बदमिजाज औरत): A harsh-tempered or overbearing woman.
  • Example: The old termagant next door always yells at the children playing in the street.
  • Veteran (अनुभवी व्यक्ति ): A person who has had long experience in a particular field.
  • Example: He is a veteran journalist who has worked with several renowned news agencies.
  • Samaritan (सहायक व्यक्ति): A charitable or helpful person.
  • Example: She played the role of a good Samaritan by helping the stranded travelers find a place to stay.
174

Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

The area is full of quaint _________ villages.

  1. ((a))

    a little

  2. ((b))

    puny

  3. ((c))

    little

  4. ((d))

    short

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

little

The correct answer is: Option 3.

Key Points

  • The word "little" means small in size, amount, or degree. (छोटा)
  • Example: She has a little puppy that is very playful.
  • "Quaint" refers to something attractively unusual or old-fashioned. (पुराना पर आकर्षक)
  • Example: The town is known for its quaint cottages and charming streets.
  • Hence, the phrase "quaint little villages" makes perfect sense as it describes villages that are charmingly small and old-fashioned.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Option 1: a little (थोड़ा): Slight in amount.
  • Example: I need a little help with my homework.
  • Option 2: puny (कमज़ोर): Small and weak.
  • Example: He felt puny and insignificant compared to the towering athletes.
  • Option 4: short (छोटा): Having little length.
  • Example: He gave a short speech at the event.
175

Fill in the blank by using the correct appropriate word from the following given options:

Aren’t you going to ______ towards Palash’s leaving present?

  1. ((a))

    approve

  2. ((b))

    full

  3. ((c))

    contribute

  4. ((d))

    account

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

contribute

The correct answer is 'contribute'.

 

Key Points

  • The word "contribute" means to give something (such as money or effort) to help achieve a goal. (योगदान देना)
  • In the context of the sentence, it refers to giving or donating towards Palash's leaving present.
  • The other options: "approve," "full," and "account" do not fit the context as appropriately.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Complete Sentence: Aren’t you going to contribute towards Palash’s leaving present?

Additional Information

  • Approve (स्वीकृत करना): means officially agree to or accept something.
  • Full (पूर्ण): means filled to capacity or having no empty space.
  • Account (खाता): refers to a record or statement of financial transactions.

Computer 1 (20 questions)

176

Which of the following symbols/characters is used to enter formula in the cell of an MS-Excel worksheet?

  1. ((a))

    Dollar ($)

  2. ((b))

    Ampersand (&)

  3. ((c))

    Equal (=)

  4. ((d))

    Percent (%)

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Equal (=)

The correct answer is Equal (=)

Key Points

  • Equal (=): This is the correct symbol to start a formula in an Excel cell.
  • Any calculation or formula in Excel begins with this equal sign. For example, =A1+10 would add 10 to the value in cell A1.

Additional Information

  • Dollar ($) sign: In Excel, the dollar sign is used to create absolute references. For example, if you want to refer to cell A1 in a formula and you don't want that reference to change when you copy the formula to another cell, you would use AA1. However, the dollar sign doesn't signal the start of a formula.
  • Ampersand (&): The ampersand is not used to start a formula in Excel, but rather within formulas to concatenate (link together) different text strings or cell values. For example, the formula =A1&B1 would join together the contents of cells A1 and B1.
  • Percent (%): In Excel, a percent sign is neither used to start a formula nor within a formula typically. It's usually used to represent percentage values. While you can include this in a formula (e.g. =A1*20% to get 20% of the value in A1), it's not used to initiate a formula.
177

What does ‘ISP’ stand for in the context of internet access? 

  1. ((a))

    International Security Protocol

  2. ((b))

    Internet System Protocol 

  3. ((c))

    Internet Service Provider

  4. ((d))

    Internet Security Program

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Internet Service Provider

The Correct answer is Internet Service Provider.

Key Points

  • An Internet Service Provider (ISP) is a company or organization that provides individuals, businesses, or other entities with access to the internet.
  • ISPs can offer a variety of services, including broadband connections such as DSL, fiber optics, cable, and satellite internet.
  • ISPs often provide additional services such as email hosting, web hosting, domain registration, and internet security services.
  • They serve as the gateway for users to access content, browse websites, and use online services via the World Wide Web.
  • ISPs can operate at different levels, such as local, regional, national, or even international scales.
  • Some well-known ISPs include Comcast, AT&T, Verizon, BSNL, Airtel, Jio, and Vodafone.
  • The role of ISPs is critical in modern society, enabling functions such as remote work, education, e-commerce, and entertainment.
  • ISPs are also responsible for assigning IP addresses to their clients to facilitate connectivity.

 Additional Information

  • International Security Protocol
  • This option may refer to protocols or measures designed to ensure security in international data communications, but it is unrelated to internet access services.
  • Some widely used security protocols include SSL/TLS (Secure Sockets Layer/Transport Layer Security) for encrypted communication.
  • Internet System Protocol
  • This term is likely a confusion with Internet Protocol (IP), which is a set of rules governing how data is sent over the internet.
  • IP is a fundamental component of internet communication, but it does not represent the term ISP.
  • Internet Security Program
  • This term might refer to software or strategies for ensuring online safety, such as antivirus programs, firewalls, or anti-phishing tools.
  • While important, this is unrelated to the concept of an ISP, which provides internet access.
178

A loader is responsible for ______.

  1. ((a))

    Loading of program code from disk to memory for execution

  2. ((b))

    Editing the source file

  3. ((c))

    Loading object file

  4. ((d))

    loading header files

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Loading of program code from disk to memory for execution

The correct answer is Loading of program code from disk to memory for execution.

Key Points

  • A loader is a system software component that is responsible for loading program code from disk to memory for execution.
  • It ensures that the program is placed into memory correctly and is ready for the CPU to execute.
  • This is a crucial step in the execution of any program as it allows the CPU to access and run the program code.

Additional Information

  • Option 2: Editing the source file - This is typically done by a text editor or an Integrated Development Environment (IDE), not by a loader. The loader's function starts after the source code has been compiled into machine code.
  • Option 3: Loading object file - This might seem similar to the loader's job, but loading object files is usually part of the linkage process. The loader deals with the final executable code.
  • Option 4: Loading header files - Header files are included during the compilation process and are not handled by the loader. They are used to define structures, constants, and function prototypes.
179

A printed circuit board that can be installed to enhance a computer's capabilities, as by increasing memory or improving graphics is called

  1. ((a))

    Writing tablet

  2. ((b))

    Keyboard

  3. ((c))

    Expansion board

  4. ((d))

    NIC controller

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Expansion board

The Correct answer is Expansion board.

Key Points

  • An Expansion board, also referred to as an expansion card, is a printed circuit board that is used to enhance a computer's capabilities.
  • It is installed into the expansion slot of a computer's motherboard.
  • Common functions of expansion boards include increasing memory, improving graphics, enhancing audionetwork functionality.
  • Examples of expansion boards include graphics cards, sound cards, network interface cards (NICs), and storage controllers.
  • Expansion boards are essential for users who require specialized functionality, such as gamers who use advanced graphics processing units (GPUs) to improve gaming performance.
  • They are widely used in both consumer PCs and professional workstations, allowing users to customize their systems according to their needs.
  • Modern motherboards often come with multiple PCI Express slots, which support high-speed expansion boards.

 Additional Information

  • Writing tablet
  • A writing tablet is a device used for digital handwriting or drawing. It is commonly used by graphic designers and digital artists.
  • Writing tablets do not enhance a computer’s internal functionality like memory or graphics; instead, they serve as an input device.
  • Examples of writing tablets include Wacom tablets, which are widely used for illustration and animation.
  • Keyboard
  • A keyboard is a primary input device used to type text and execute commands in a computer.
  • While keyboards are essential for interaction with a computer, they do not directly enhance internal components such as memory or graphics.
  • Modern keyboards can include features like RGB lighting and programmable keys for specialized uses.
  • NIC controller
  • A Network Interface Controller (NIC) is a type of expansion board that enables computers to connect to a network.
  • NICs are specifically designed for network functionality, such as wired or wireless communication.
  • While NICs are a type of expansion board, they are not broadly categorized as expansion boards for general purposes like memory or graphics enhancement.
180

Which one is the first cell address of worksheet in Microsoft Excel 2010?

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    A

  3. ((c))

    1A

  4. ((d))

    A1

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

A1

The correct answer is A1.

Key Points

  • The first cell in EXCEL worksheet is labeled as A1.
  • Each cell has a name, or a cell address based on which column and row it intersects.
  • The cell address of a selected cell appears in the name box.
  • Cells are the basic building blocks of a worksheet.
  • They can contain a variety of content such as text, formatting attributes, formulas, and functions.
  • To work with cells, we'll need to know how to select them, insert content, and delete cells and cell content.

Show Classic Menus and Toolbars on Ribbon of Excel 2010, 2013, 2016, 2019  and 365

181

Where can you find the horizontal split bar on MS Word 2007 screen ?

  1. ((a))

    On the left of horizontal scroll bar

  2. ((b))

    On the right of horizontal scroll bar

  3. ((c))

    On the top of vertical scroll bar

  4. ((d))

    On the bottom of vertical scroll bar

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

On the top of vertical scroll bar

The correct answer is "On the top of the vertical scroll bar".

Key Points

  • In MS Word 2007, the horizontal split bar is found on the view tab at, the top of the vertical scroll bar.

  • The steps to find the horizontal split bar are given below:
  • Step 1: Click on the view tab.
  • Step 2: Click on the Split menu.
  • Step 3: It will print the current page horizontally. 

Thus the correct answer is "On the top of the vertical scroll bar".

182

In third generation, keyboards and ______ were used instead of punched cards and printouts.

  1. ((a))

    Scanner

  2. ((b))

    Monitors

  3. ((c))

    Memory card

  4. ((d))

    Modem

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Monitors

The correct answer is Monitors.

Key Points

  • The third generation of computers spanned from 1965 to 1971.
  • During this period, keyboards and monitors started replacing punched cards and printouts for data input and output.
  • This shift was facilitated by the development of more user-friendly interfaces and interactive computing.
  • Monitors allowed users to see immediate feedback on their inputs, making computing more efficient and accessible.
  • Monitors became an integral part of the computer system, paving the way for the graphical user interfaces (GUIs) we use today.

Additional Information

  • Third Generation Computers
  • These computers used integrated circuits (ICs) instead of transistors, leading to more compact and reliable machines.
  • They were characterized by their increased speed, efficiency, and storage capacity.
  • Examples include IBM 360 series and Honeywell 200 series.
  • This generation marked the beginning of multiprogramming and time-sharing systems.
  • Keyboards
  • Keyboards are input devices that allow users to enter data into a computer system by pressing keys.
  • The QWERTY layout, developed in the 19th century, became the standard keyboard layout for most computers.
  • Modern keyboards include additional function keys and shortcuts to enhance productivity.
  • Monitors
  • Monitors are output devices that display information in a visual form, making it easier for users to interact with the computer.
  • The first monitors were monochrome (black and white), but color monitors became standard in the 1980s.
  • Advancements in monitor technology have led to high-resolution displays, touchscreens, and flexible screens.
  • Graphical User Interfaces (GUIs)
  • GUIs use graphical icons, menus, and windows to interact with the computer, as opposed to text-based interfaces.
  • They were popularized by systems like the Apple Macintosh and Microsoft Windows in the 1980s and 1990s.
  • GUIs have made computing accessible to a broader audience, including those without technical expertise.
183

When you enter email addresses in the _______ field of an email, those addresses are invisible to email recipients.

  1. ((a))

    To

  2. ((b))

    Bcc

  3. ((c))

    Subject

  4. ((d))

    Cc

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Bcc

The correct answer is Bcc

Key Points

  • To: This field is where you put the email addresses of your primary recipients--the individuals to whom the email is directly addressed. Every recipient in this field will see the other recipients' email addresses.
  • Bcc: This stands for "blind carbon copy." When you put email addresses in this field, these recipients will receive the email, but other recipients (those in the To or Cc fields) will not see these addresses. This is useful when you want to send an email to multiple people without them knowing who else is receiving the email.
  • Subject: This field is where you summarize the content or purpose of your email. It doesn't include any email addresses—just a brief summary or title for your email.
  • Cc: Stands for "carbon copy". When you put email addresses in the Cc field, these people receive a copy of the email. Everyone who gets the email (including those in the To field) will be able to see who is in the Cc field. This is typically used to keep people in the loop, even if they're not the primary recipient of the email.

184

Which of the following is the correct explanation of the Microsoft Excel function COUNTA()?

  1. ((a))

    This counts the number of cells in a range that contain only special symbols.

  2. ((b))

    This counts the number of cells in a range that contain only numbers.

  3. ((c))

    This counts the number of cells in a range that are not empty.

  4. ((d))

    This counts the number of cells in a range that contain only letters.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

This counts the number of cells in a range that are not empty.

COUNTA()

  • The COUNTA function provides the number of cells that are not empty in the range of the given cells. Its syntax is COUNTA(value1, value2...).
  • If you have an array from A1 and A10, use the formula =COUNTA(A1:A10), and it returns the output as 0 because there are no empty cells.
  • You can also count the number of cells in the array that meets the criteria using the COUNTIF function.
  • Its syntax is =COUNTIF(A2:A10, "subject") counts the range of cells with the subject in cells A2 through A10.
185

Keyboard shortcut to create a line break in a Word document is:

  1. ((a))

    Ctrl + Enter

  2. ((b))

    Ctrl + Shift + Enter

  3. ((c))

    Shift + Enter

  4. ((d))

    Alt + Enter

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Shift + Enter

The correct answer is Shift + Enter.

Key Points

  • Keyboard shortcut to create a line break in a Word document is Shift + Enter.
  • Keyboard shortcuts in Word:
  • Alt + Enter: In Microsoft Word for spell checking quick-fixes
  • Ctrl + Enter: In a multi-line edit control, It inserts a carriage return into the edit control rather than executing the default button on the dialog box.
  • Space + Enter: It is not a shortcut in MS-word
  • Shift+Enter: Insert a line break
  • Ctrl+Enter: Insert a page break.
  • Ctrl+Shift+Enter: Insert a column break.
186

Which of the following is the default page setup orientation of the slide in PowerPoint?

  1. ((a))

    Portrait

  2. ((b))

    Vertical

  3. ((c))

    Landscape

  4. ((d))

    Square

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Landscape

The correct answer is Landscape.

Key Points

Key Points

  • The default page setup orientation in Microsoft PowerPoint is Landscape.
  • Landscape orientation is wider than it is tall, making it ideal for presentations and slideshows.
  • Most presentation screens and projectors are designed to display content in landscape mode, providing a better visual experience.
  • Landscape orientation allows for better distribution of text, images, and other multimedia elements across the slide.
  • Switching to portrait orientation is possible, but it is less common and typically used for specific purposes like posters or flyers.

Additional Information

Additional Information

  • To change the orientation of the slides in PowerPoint, go to the "Design" tab, click on "Slide Size," and choose between "Standard (4:3)" or "Widescreen (16:9)" in the Landscape orientation.
  • You can also select "Custom Slide Size" to manually set the slide dimensions and orientation.
  • PowerPoint supports both Landscape and Portrait orientations, giving users flexibility based on their presentation needs.
  • Most templates and themes in PowerPoint are designed for Landscape orientation by default.
187

If a new device is attached to a computer, such as printer or scanner, its ___________ must be installed before the device can be used.

  1. ((a))

    Buffer

  2. ((b))

    Pager

  3. ((c))

    Driver

  4. ((d))

    Server

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Driver

The correct answer is driver.

Key Points

  • When a new device, such as a printer or scanner, is attached to a computer, the corresponding driver must be installed before the device can be used.
  • A driver is a software component that allows the operating system to communicate and interact with the specific hardware device.
  • It provides the necessary instructions and functionality for the device to function properly with the computer.
  • Installing the correct driver ensures that the computer recognizes the device, understands its capabilities, and can effectively communicate with it.
  • Drivers are typically provided by the device manufacturer and can be installed from a CD or downloaded from the manufacturer's website.
  • It's important to use the appropriate driver version that is compatible with the operating system you are using.

Additional Information

  • Buffer: A buffer is a temporary storage area in a computer's memory that holds data while it is being processed or transferred between devices or programs. It helps to smooth out the flow of data and improve overall system performance. While buffers can be used in various contexts, they are not directly related to installing new devices.
  • Pager: A pager, also known as a beeper, is a small electronic device that receives and displays numeric or text messages. It is used for one-way communication and does not have a direct relationship with installing new devices on a computer.
  • Server: A server is a computer or system that provides resources, services, or data to other computers or devices in a network. While servers play a crucial role in managing network resources and providing services, they are not directly involved in the installation of individual devices such as printers or scanners.
188

Which of the following statements is incorrect? 

  1. ((a))

    Extension of a Word document is generally .doc or .docx.

  2. ((b))

    MS-Word is an application software.

  3. ((c))

    Press Ctrl+ A to select all contents of a Word document.

  4. ((d))

    A text cannot be both italic and bold in a Word document.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

A text cannot be both italic and bold in a Word document.

The correct answer is A text cannot be both italic and bold in a Word document.

Key Points

  • A text cannot be both italic and bold in a Word document, this statement is incorrect.
  • In Microsoft Word, the most popular font styles are Regular, Italic, Bold, and Bold Italic.
  • Regular, Bold, and Italic are examples of font styles. With thicker letters, a bold font weight maintains the same style as a regular font.
  • A left-to-right slanted version of your typeface's regular font is known as an Italic font.
  • An Italic version of your typeface that is bold is thicker and slanted.

Additional Information

  • MS Word is an application software.
  • The extension of a Word document is generally .doc or .docx.
  • Press Ctrl+ A to select all contents of a Word document.
189

Who invented the E-mail?

  1. ((a))

    Tim Berners-Lee

  2. ((b))

    Martin Cooper

  3. ((c))

    R. Samuel Tomlinson

  4. ((d))

    Charles Babbage

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

R. Samuel Tomlinson

The correct answer is R. Samuel Tomlinson.

  • R. Samuel Tomlinson invented the E-mail.

Key Points

  • R. Samuel Tomlinson invented the E-mail in 1971.
  • He implemented the first email program on the ARPANET system.
  • It was a precursor to the Internet in 1971.

Additional Information

  • Martin Cooper invented the mobile phone in the year 1973.
  • Tim Berners-Lee is a British computer scientist who invented the World Wide Web (WWW) in 1989.
  • Charles Babbage is known as the "Father of Computer".
190

A computer monitor is also called:

  1. ((a))

    VDU

  2. ((b))

    VDT

  3. ((c))

    CRT

  4. ((d))

    VDO

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

VDU

The correct answer is VDU.

Key Points

Monitor:

  • A monitor is a display device like a TV screen that interprets and displays the graphical output signal from your computer’s graphics card and displays it on the screen.
  • It is also called a Visual Display Unit.
  • This enables you to view the display interface to interact with the computer using various peripherals like a mouse or keyboard from output devices like graphics cards.
  • It is used to display images, text, video, and graphics information generated by a connected computer via a computer's video card.
191

_______ virus infects the first sector of disk.

  1. ((a))

    Chernobal sector 

  2. ((b))

    Logic bomb 

  3. ((c))

    Boot sector 

  4. ((d))

    Horse Trojan 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Boot sector 

The correct answer is Boot sector

Key Points

  • Boot sector viruses are a type of virus that infects the boot sector of floppy disks or the Master Boot Record (MBR) of hard disks.
  • These viruses are loaded into the computer’s memory when the system is booted up from an infected disk.
  • Once in memory, they can spread to other disks and systems.
  • Examples of boot sector viruses include the notorious "Michelangelo" and "Stone" viruses.

Additional Information

  • Chernobyl (CIH) Virus: A highly destructive virus that overwrites important data on infected systems, including the BIOS.
  • Logic bomb: A malicious piece of code that is triggered by a specific event or condition.
  • Trojan Horse: A type of malware disguised as legitimate software to deceive users into installing it.
192

Which of the following is not valid about an e-mail address?

  1. ((a))

    e-mail Address should have one @ symbol

  2. ((b))

    e-mail Address can have multiple dot (.) operator

  3. ((c))

    e-mail Address cannot have space in it

  4. ((d))

    e-mail Address can have any number of @ symbol

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

e-mail Address can have any number of @ symbol

The correct answer is option 4: e-mail Address can have any number of @ symbol

Key Points

An e-mail address is a unique identifier for an email account and follows a specific format, usually:

[email protected]

Rules for valid e-mail addresses:

  • ✅ It must contain exactly one '@' symbol.
  • ✅ It can have multiple dots (.) in the username or domain.
  • ✅ It cannot contain spaces.
  • ❌ It cannot contain more than one '@' symbol — doing so makes it invalid.

Explanation of options:

  • Option 1: Correct — One @ symbol is required ✅
  • Option 2: Correct — Multiple dots are allowed ✅
  • Option 3: Correct — Spaces are not allowed in email addresses ✅
  • Option 4: Incorrect — Email addresses cannot have more than one '@'

Hence, the correct answer is: option 4

193

Which of the following is NOT the main part of a search engine?

  1. ((a))

    Search algorithm

  2. ((b))

    Search index

  3. ((c))

    Crawler

  4. ((d))

    Kernel

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Kernel

The correct answer is Kernel

Key PointsA search engine typically consists of three primary components:

  • Search Algorithm: This is the set of rules and calculations that a search engine uses to determine the relevancy of web pages in relation to specific search queries.
  • Search Index: This is a massive database where all the information the search engine has gathered is stored. When a search is performed, the engine isn't searching the web in real-time, but its own index of the web.
  • Crawler (also known as a Spider or Bot): This is a program that automatically navigates the internet by following links from page to page. It "crawls" around the web collecting information to be indexed.

On the other hand, the Kernel is the core part of a computer's operating system with complete control over everything in the system. It's crucial for the OS function but is not specifically related or essential to the function of a search engine. Therefore, the Kernel is NOT a main part of a search engine.

Additional Information

  • User Interface: The search engine user interface often gets overlooked, but it's also an important component. This includes features such as the search box where you input your queries, the search results page, and the presentation of the information (like displaying a snippet of website content, image, or video previews). How easy it is for a user to interact with, and get useful information from a search engine, often comes down to the design of this interface.
194

In computing terms, what is a 'spider'?

  1. ((a))

    Apps for viewing websites

  2. ((b))

    Search Engine

  3. ((c))

    a hacker who breaks into a corporate computer system

  4. ((d))

    A program that creates a catalog of websites.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

A program that creates a catalog of websites.

The correct answer is A program that creates a catalogue of websites

Key Points

Spider

  • A spider is a software program that that creates a catalog of websites., locating and indexing websites for search engines.
  • All the major search engines, such as Google and Yahoo!, use spiders to build and update their indexes.
  • These programs constantly browse the Web, traveling from one hyperlink to another.

Additional Information

  • A search engine is a software system that provides a list of hyperlinks, images, and textual summaries in response to a user's query.
  • Users can input a query into a search engine through a web browser or mobile app.
  • Google
  • The most popular search engine in the world. As of June 2022, Google had a 91.88% global market share.
195

The output quality of a printer is measured by -

  1. ((a))

    Dot per sq. inch

  2. ((b))

    Dot per inch

  3. ((c))

    Dots printed per unit time

  4. ((d))

    All of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Dot per inch

The correct answer is Dot per inch.

Key Points

  • The output quality of a printer is measured by Dot per inch.
  • DPI represents a number of ink dots the printer can place in an area of one square inch**.**
  • It refers to the physical dot density of an image when it is reproduced as a real physical entity, for example, printed onto paper**.**
  • In printing, dots per inch (DPI) is the usual measure of printed image quality on the paper. The average personal computer printer today provides 300 dpi or 600 dpi.
  • The lesser the DPI the less sharp the image and vice versa.

Additional Information

  • DPI stands for Dots Per Inch which technically means printer dots per inch. Today it is a term often misused, usually to mean PPI, which stands for Pixels Per Inch.
  • So when someone says they want a photo that is 300 dpi they really mean that they want 300 PPI.
  • Each printer has its own capabilities of printing. With standard printers,
  • dot matrix is commonly the lowest quality printer**,**
  • inkjet printers are commonly average quality**, and**
  • laser printers are commonly the best quality.

Computer 2 (5 questions)

196

Which cyber security measure involves verifying the identity of users before granting access to a system or network? 

  1. ((a))

    Firewall configuration

  2. ((b))

    Multi-factor authentication 

  3. ((c))

    Regular software updates 

  4. ((d))

    Network encryption

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Multi-factor authentication 

The correct answer is Multi-factor authentication.

Key Points

  • Authentication protocols can go further than 2FA and use multiple factors to authenticate a person or system.
  • Authentication methods that use two or more factors are called multifactor authentication (MFA).
  • Authentication is the process of determining whether someone or something is who or what they say they are.
  • Authentication technology provides access control for systems by checking to see if a user's credentials match the credentials in a database of authorized users or a data authentication server.
  • There are several authentication types.
  • For user identity, users are typically identified with a user ID; authentication occurs when the user provides credentials, such as a password, that match their user ID.
  • The practice of requiring a user ID and password is known as single-factor authentication (SFA).
  • In recent years, organizations have strengthened authentication by asking for additional authentication factors.
  • These can be a unique code provided to a user over a mobile device when a sign-on is attempted or a biometric signature, such as a facial scan or thumbprint.
  • This is known as two-factor authentication (2FA).

Additional InformationFirewall configuration:

  • Firewall configuration is a crucial aspect of network security.
  • It involves adjusting the settings of a firewall to determine which data packets are allowed into a network and which ones are not.
  • This is done by manipulating factors such as domain names and Internet Protocol (IP) addresses to ensure optimal protection of a network.
  • A firewall can exist as a hardware device or software running on a third-party operating system.
  • Regardless of its form, it controls the flow of traffic across a network.

Regular software updates:

  • Regular software updates are fundamental to maintaining a smooth-running and secure software system.
  • These updates often include solutions to various issues that were present in the previous versions of the software, as well as offering improvements or additional features.
  • Software updates can include:
  • Bug Fixes:
  • Often updates include "bug fixes", or corrections for problems experienced in the software's performance.
  • An example of this would be a situation where an application crashes unexpectedly.
  • A software update could involve a bug fix that "improves the ability to switch apps, reducing unexpected software crashes".
  • Feature Enhancements: Some updates may come with improved features or new capabilities added to the software, which can enhance user experience.
  • Security Improvements:
  • In this evolving digital landscape, maintaining secure software is critical.
  • Regular updates often incorporate security patches or improvements to better protect against evolving cybersecurity threats.

Network encryption:

  • Network encryption is a crucial aspect of network security that helps safeguard information by converting understandable data into an unreadable format.
  • This conversion is done using an encryption algorithm and a randomly generated encryption key.
  • The scrambled data, known as ciphertext, is only readable when it's decrypted using the corresponding decryption key.
  • Purpose:
  • The primary purpose of network encryption is to ensure privacy and security.
  • Only the intended recipient or the rightful data owner can decipher encrypted communications or data, preventing parties such as attackers, ad networks, Internet service providers, and even governments from intercepting and reading the sensitive data.
  • This effectively protects user privacy.
  • Types of Network Encryption:
  • One of the encryption types is the Triple Data Encryption Standard (3DES), a version of the original DES encryption algorithm.
  • The 3DES encrypts data three times using three 64-bit keys, resulting in a key length of 192 bits.
  • Being a symmetric encryption, the encryption and decryption keys in 3DES are the same, and therefore, private.
  • Moreover, it encrypts data in 64-bit segments.
  • Importance:
  • Network encryption plays a crucial role in maintaining the confidentiality of data transported across networks.
  • It helps protect sensitive corporate and personal information during transmission, thus making a significant contribution to integrity and trust in digital communications.
197

What is the maximum zoom value in MS Word 2007 documents?

  1. ((a))

    100%

  2. ((b))

    250%

  3. ((c))

    500%

  4. ((d))

    300%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

500%

The correct answer is 500%.+

Key Points

  • The maximum limit of zoom available in MS Word is 500%.
  • The minimum limit of zoom available in MS Word is 10%.
  • Slide to the percentage zoom setting that you want. Click - or + to zoom in gradual increments.

Additional Information

  • MS Word supports font sizes from 1 point to 1638 points.
  • The maximum file size is limited to 32 MB for total document text only and does not include graphics, regardless of how the graphics image is inserted (link to file, save with document, or wrapping style) in the document.
198

The ______ asks you some questions during the process of presentation creation.

  1. ((a))

    slide panes

  2. ((b))

    notes column

  3. ((c))

    placeholder

  4. ((d))

    autocontent wizard

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

autocontent wizard

The correct answer is autocontent wizard.

Key Points

  • This wizard is useful for certain categories of presentations particularly business related presentations.Provides templates and ideas for a wide variety of different types of presentation.
  • PowerPoint will create a number of slides for you and will suggest content relevant to that specific type of presentation.
  • This wizard helps you determine the content and organisation of your presentation by using an outline.
  • The AutoContent Wizard leads you through a series of questions so you can choose the best layout for your presentation.
  • The Wizard supplies not only the design but also ideas, starter text, formatting and organisation.

PowerPoint 2003: Using the AutoContent Wizard

Additional Information

  • slide panes: Slide pane contains the current slide in your presentation. You can use the vertical scroll bar to view other slides in the presentation. Notes pane is located below the slide pane and is used to type reference notes. The notes can be printed, then referenced when making the presentation.
  • notes column: notes column is a graphic organizer that allows students to analyze and synthesize information from one or more sources.
  • placeholder: if we are working with a large worksheet that has a large number of graphics, we may have noticed that Excel slows down quite a bit when displaying the graphics. we can speed up the display of our worksheet by using placeholders. This results in Excel displaying boxes where our graphics would normally appear.
199

Which of the following option is not available in 'Proofing' group of 'Review' tab in MS-Word 2010?

  1. ((a))

    Comment

  2. ((b))

    Thesaurus

  3. ((c))

    Word Count

  4. ((d))

    Editor

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Editor

The correct answer is Editor.

Key Points 

  • The 'Proofing' group in the 'Review' tab of MS-Word 2010 typically includes features related to proofreading, language checking, and document statistics.
  • In MS-Word 2010, the 'Editor' option is not available in the 'Proofing' group of the 'Review' tab.
  • The Editor feature was introduced in later versions of MS-Word, such as MS-Word 2016 and MS-Word 365.
  • The Editor provides advanced grammar and writing style suggestions, helping users improve their writing by highlighting potential errors and offering suggestions for improvement.
  • Therefore, in MS-Word 2010, the 'Editor' option is not present in the 'Proofing' group of the 'Review' tab.

Additional Information

 

  • Comment:
  • This option allows users to insert comments within the document for collaboration and review purposes.
  • Comments can be added to specific sections of the document, allowing users to provide feedback or ask questions.
  • Thesaurus:
  • This option provides access to the built-in thesaurus in MS-Word.
  • It allows users to find synonyms and alternative words for selected text, helping in improving vocabulary and language usage.
  • Word Count:
  • This option allows users to check the word count, character count, and other statistical information about the document.
  • It helps in tracking the length and progress of the document and is useful in meeting specific word count requirements.
200

A popular protocol for sending e-mail is

  1. ((a))

    TCP

  2. ((b))

    UDP

  3. ((c))

    SMTP

  4. ((d))

    HTML

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

SMTP

The correct answer is SMTP.

Key Points

  • SMTP stands for Simple Mail Transfer Protocol.
  • It is a protocol used for sending emails over the Internet.
  • SMTP is an application layer protocol that works on port 25 by default.
  • It was first defined by RFC 821 in 1982 and later updated by RFC 5321.
  • SMTP is widely used in conjunction with other protocols like IMAP and POP3 for the retrieval and storage of emails.

Additional Information

  • IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol)
  • IMAP is used for retrieving messages from a mail server.
  • It allows users to view and manage their emails directly on the server.
  • IMAP works on port 143 or port 993 when encrypted.
  • It allows for multiple clients to access the same mailbox simultaneously.
  • POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3)
  • POP3 is another protocol used for retrieving emails from a server.
  • Emails are downloaded to the client and usually deleted from the server.
  • POP3 works on port 110 or port 995 when encrypted.
  • It is simpler than IMAP but does not support multiple clients accessing the same mailbox.
  • HTTP (HyperText Transfer Protocol)
  • HTTP is the foundation of data communication for the World Wide Web.
  • It is used for transmitting hypertext documents, such as HTML.
  • HTTP operates on port 80 by default.
  • It is a stateless protocol, meaning each request is executed independently.
  • TCP (Transmission Control Protocol)
  • TCP is a core protocol of the Internet Protocol Suite.
  • It provides reliable, ordered, and error-checked delivery of data.
  • TCP operates on various ports, with the most common being port 80 for HTTP and port 25 for SMTP.
  • It establishes a connection before transmitting data, ensuring data integrity.

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