DSSSB (Court/Room/Security Attendant): (1st June 2026) Memory-Based Paper (Previous Year Paper)

'अंग अंग खिल उठना' मुहावरे का अर्थ- 'प्रसन्न होना'।

वाक्य प्रयोग- इन्टरमीडिएट परीक्षा प्रथम श्रेणी से उत्तीर्ण करने पर रामनारायण का 'अंग अंग खिल उठा'।

Key Pointsमुहावरा- अपने साधारण अर्थ को छोड़ कर विशेष अर्थ को व्यक्त करने वाले वाक्य के अंश को मुहावरा कहते हैं।

• उदाहरण- 'मन खिल उठना' अर्थ- 'मन उत्फुल्ल होना'।
• वाक्य प्रयोग- प्रतियोगिता में प्रथम आने पर उसका  'मन खिल उठा'।

अन्य विकल्प- 

Additional Informationअन्य महत्वपूर्ण मुहावरे- 

'बेंत' का तत्सम रूप है- 'वेत्र'।

• 'बेंत' तद्भव शब्द है।

Key Points तत्सम शब्द:

• तत्सम (तत् + सम = उसके समान) आधुनिक भारतीय भाषाओं में प्रयुक्त ऐसे शब्द जिनको संस्कृत से बिना कोई रूप बदले ले लिया गया है।
• उदाहरण: आम्र, अग्नि, अमूल्य, क्षेत्र, अज्ञान, अन्धकार आदि।

तद्भव शब्द:

• तद्भव शब्द दो शब्दों तत् + भव से मिलकर बना है। जिसका अर्थ है – उससे उत्पन्न। संस्कृत भाषा के वे शब्द जो कुछ परिवर्तन के साथ हिंदी शब्दावली में आ गए हैं, उसे तद्भव शब्द कहा जाता है।
• उदाहरण: अकाज, कचौड़ी, काजल, चाम, चमड़ा, चितेरा, कौड़ी, गहरा आदि।

Important Pointsतत्सम-तद्भव शब्द- 

'मीरा जोर से हँसी।' यह वाक्य अकर्मक क्रिया का समुचित उदाहरण है।

Key Points

• इस वाक्य में "हँसी" क्रिया है। यह क्रिया बिना किसी कर्म के पूरी होती है, अर्थात इसमें कर्म का अभाव है और क्रिया का फल कर्ता (मीरा) पर ही रहता है। इसलिए, यह वाक्य अकर्मक क्रिया का उदाहरण है।

Important Pointsप्रेरणार्थक क्रिया-

• प्रेरणार्थक क्रिया वह होती है जिसमें कर्ता खुद क्रिया नहीं करता बल्कि किसी अन्य से कराता है।

उदाहरण:

• उसने खाना बनवाया।
• माँ ने उसे दुकान भेजा।
• इन उदाहरणों में, "बनवाया" और "भेजा" प्रेरणार्थक क्रियाएँ हैं क्योंकि कर्ता खुद क्रिया नहीं करता बल्कि अन्य से कराता है।

द्विकर्मक क्रिया -

• द्विकर्मक क्रिया वह होती है जिसमें दो कर्म (प्रत्यक्ष और परोक्ष कर्म) होते हैं।

उदाहरण:

• उसने मुझे एक किताब दी।
• मैंने उसे पत्र भेजा।
• यहाँ, "किताब" और "पत्र" प्रत्यक्ष कर्म हैं जबकि "मुझे" और "उसे" परोक्ष कर्म हैं, जिससे "दी" और "भेजा" द्विकर्मक क्रियाएँ हैं।

सकर्मक क्रिया -

• सकर्मक क्रिया वह होती है जिसमें क्रिया के लिए एक प्रत्यक्ष कर्म की आवश्यक होती है।

उदाहरण:

• उसने किताब पढ़ी।
• राजू ने खाना खाया।
• इन वाक्यों में, "किताब" और "खाना" प्रत्यक्ष कर्म हैं, जिनके बिना "पढ़ी" और "खाया" क्रियाओं का अर्थ अधूरा रहता है। इसलिए, ये सकर्मक क्रियाएँ हैं।

"उसने मेरी पूरी संपत्ति हथिया ली।" इस वाक्‍य में नामधातु क्र‍िया का प्रयोग हुआ है। 

Key Points

• नामधातु क्र‍िया युक्‍त वाक्‍य- उसने मेरी पूरी संपत्ति हथिया ली।
• उपर्युक्त वाक्य में हाथ (संज्ञा) है,  हथिया (नामधातु) है,  हथियाना (क्रिया) है।
• अतः वाक्य नामधातु क्रिया का उदाहरण है।

Important Pointsअन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प- 

​अर्थ अनेकार्थी शब्द है। 

Key Points

• अर्थ​- धन, अभिप्राय आदि।
• अनुरोध का सही अर्थ निवेदन

Additional Information

Important Points

सही उत्तर है - दनुज। 

 Key Points

• 'दनुज' असुर का पर्यायवाची है।
• 'असुर' के अन्य पर्यायवाची हैं - दैत्य, दानव, निशाचर, राक्षस आदि।

Additional Information

'यह गाय अधिक दूध देती है l ' उक्त वाक्य में 'अधिक' विशेषण दूध की विशेषता बता रहा है l 

Key Points

Additional Information 

Important Points 

मनिषि शब्द की वर्तनी सही नहीं है।

अत: विकल्प 2 सही उत्तर है, अन्य सभी विकल्प की वर्तनी शुद्ध है।

Key Points

• मनीषी शुद्ध वर्तनी होगी।
• मनीषी एक विशेषण है, जिसका अर्थ होता है- ज्ञानी, विद्वान या विचारशील।
• अन्य विकल्प:-
• 1. पूँजीपति- धनी व्यक्ति। 2.वाल्मीकि- महर्षि वाल्मीकि मे रामायण लिखी थी। 3.निर्झरिणी- सरिता या झरने के लिए प्रयोग में लिया जाता है।
• वर्तनी:- हिंदी में शब्दों के शुद्ध रूप को वर्तनी कहा जाता है। हिंदी में लिखे गए शुद्ध शब्द की मात्राओं को शुद्ध वर्तनी कहते है।
• अर्थात उच्चारित होने वाले शब्द के लेखन में प्रयोग होने वाले लिपि चिह्नों के व्यवस्थित रूप को वर्तनी कहा जाता है।
• शब्दों को इस प्रकार लिखना जिससे शब्द में सार्थकता आए यह भी वर्तनी का भाग होता है।
• जैसे:- मतस्य की शुद्ध वर्तनी शब्द - मत्स्य होगा।

Additional Informationअन्य शुद्ध - अशुद्ध वर्तनी के कुछ उदाहरण:-

'हिमालय' में संज्ञा है - 'व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा' है।

अत: विकल्प 4 सही उत्तर है, अन्य विकल्प असंगत है।

Key Points

• यहाँ पर 'हिमालय' शब्द एक विशेष स्थान का बोध कराता है, अतः हिमालय शब्द व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा है।
• व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा- किसी भी विशेष व्यक्ति, वस्तु या स्थान के नाम का बोध कराने वाली संज्ञा ही व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा कहलाती हैं। 
• ​जैसे - महात्मा गाँधी, भगत सिंह, रमेश, कुरान, बाइबल,  मुंबई, लखनऊ आदि।
• अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Information

'कनक' का अर्थ है- "खजूर"।

कनक के अन्य अर्थ- गेंहू, सोना, धतूरा आदि।

Key Points

अन्य शब्दार्थ-

1. काला- कलुषित, श्याम, श्याह।
2. चतुर- कुशल, चालाक, खैरियत।
3. किरण- रश्मि, अंश, हिस्सा।
4. पानी- इज्ज़त, जल, चमक।

Important Points

अर्थ के आधार पर शब्द- 4 प्रकार के होते है।

1. एकार्थी शब्द - एक अर्थ वाले, व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा के शब्द इसी श्रेणी में आते है। जैसे- गंगा, पटना।
2. अनेकार्थी शब्द- अनेक अर्थ वाले शब्द। जैसे- कनक, पानी।
3. समानार्थी शब्द- समान अर्थ देने वाले शब्द। जैसे- बादल; 'मेघ,जलद,वारिद'।
4. विलोम शब्द- विपरीत अर्थ देने वाले शब्द। जैसे- पाप-पुण्य।

Confusion Points "कनक" शब्द अनेकार्थी शब्द है।

• कनक के अर्थ- धतूरा, सोना,गेंहू, खजूर आदि।
• कनक का अर्थ किरण, चतुर, या काला नहीं होगा।

क्रिया के प्रयोग की दृष्टि से अशुद्ध वाक्य होगा - पढ़ाई करते समय इधर-उधर की बात चीत नहीं करनी सकती।

Key Points

• अशुद्ध वाक्य - पढ़ाई करते समय इधर-उधर की बात चीत नहीं करनी सकती।
• दिए गये वाक्य में क्रिया प्रयोग की त्रुटि है,
• ​यहाँ 'करनी सकती।' सार्थक शब्द नहीं है और इससे सही अर्थ प्रकट नहीं हो रहा।
• ​अत: सार्थक शब्द 'कर सकती।' होना चाहिए।
• शुद्ध वाक्य - पढ़ाई करते समय इधर-उधर की बात चीत नहीं कर सकती।

Additional Informationक्रिया संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ - 

पंडित का समानार्थी शब्द 'सुधी' है।

Key Points

• पंडित के पर्यायवाची - धीर, मनीषी, प्राज्ञ, सुधी, विचक्षण, विद्वान, कोविद, बुध आदि।
• महीप के पर्यायवाची - भूपति, भूप, नरेश, महीपति, अवनीश, नरपति, नरेन्द्र, महिपाल, राजा।
• शम्भु के पर्यायवाची - रुद्र, शंकर, अंतक, अकंप, अमृतेश्वर, ईशान, उमेश, अज्ञेय, महादेव, कैलाशनाथ, शंभू
• आदित्य के पर्यायवाची - रवि, दिनकर, सूरज, भास्कर, मार्तंड, मरीची, प्रभाकर, सविता, पतंग, दिवाकर, हंस, आदित्य, भानु, अंशुमाली।

'भ्रमर' का पर्यायवाची नहीं है- शलम

Key Points

भ्रमर के पर्यायवाची शब्दों की तालिका:

Important Points

• भ्रमर के अन्य पर्यायवाची शब्द: – भँवरा, तीर, अनाड़ी, लड़ाई, संग्राम, मूर्ख, बाण,युद्ध।

Additional Information

• जो विभिन्न शब्द एक ही अर्थ का बोध कराएं, उन्हें पर्यायवाची शब्द कहते हैं। सामान्य भाषा में इनको समानार्थक शब्द भी कहते हैं।
• कुछ महत्वपूर्ण पर्यायवाची शब्द:

कवीद्र शब्द में वर्तनी संबंधी अशुद्धि है।

अत: विकल्प 2 सही उत्तर है, अन्य सभी विकल्प असंगत है।

Key Points

• कवीद्र की वर्तनी अशुद्ध है, शुद्ध वर्तनी होगी कवींद्र।
• कवींद्र का अर्थ होता है:- सर्वश्रेष्ठ कवि।
• अन्य विकल्प:-

• किसी शब्द में आये हुए अक्षरों को मात्राओ सहित कहने या लिखने की रीति को वर्तनी कहते हैं।
• वर्तनी का सम्बन्ध का सीधा सम्बन्ध उच्चारण से होता है ।
• यदि उच्चारण शुद्ध होगा तो वर्तनी शुद्ध होगी और यदि उच्चारण अशुद्ध होगा तो वर्तनी भी अशुद्ध होगी।

Additional Information

• अन्य वर्तनी के उदाहरण:-

इसका सही उत्तर "परिमाणवाचक विशेषण" है। 

Key Pointsपरिमाणवाचक विशेषण:

• "किंचित्" वाक्य में प्रयोग होने पर परिमाणवाचक विशेषण के रूप में कार्य करता है।
• परिमाणवाचक विशेषण वह होता है जो किसी वस्तु के परिमाण, मात्रा, आकार, वजन इत्यादि को बताता है।
• "किंचित्" शब्द का अर्थ होता है "थोड़ा सा", जो किसी वस्तु की मात्रा के बारे में जानकारी देता है, इसीलिए इसे परिमाणवाचक विशेषण माना जाता है।

Additional Informationअन्य विकल्प:

अनिश्चित संख्यावाचक विशेषण:

• ये विशेषण वस्तुओं की संख्या को निश्चित रूप से नहीं बताते हैं।
• उदाहरण के लिए, "कुछ", "अनेक", "सभी" आदि। ये वस्तुओं की संख्या को सटीक रूप से नहीं, बल्कि सामान्यतः व्यक्त करते हैं।

अपूर्णांक बोधक विशेषण:

• यह ऑप्शन हमारे प्रदत्त जानकारी में उल्लिखित नहीं है और सामान्यतः हिंदी व्याकरण में प्रचलित विशेषणों में नहीं आता है।

गणनावाचक विशेषण:

• ये विशेषण वस्तुओं की संख्या को सटीक रूप से बताते हैं,
• जैसे "एक", "दो", "तीन" आदि। यह वस्तुओं की गणना करके उनकी सटीक संख्या को प्रदान करते हैं।

'ऊँट के गले में बिल्ली' - इस लोकोक्ति का अर्थ है- बेमेल संबंध

Key Points

• 'ऊँट के गले में बिल्ली' का अर्थ - बेमेल संबंध।
• वाक्य प्रयोग- अगर कोई व्यक्ति कोई ऐसा काम करने की कोशिश करता है जो उसे पता है कि वह मुश्किल या खतरनाक है, तो आप कह सकते हैं कि वह "ऊँट के गले में बिल्ली" बांध रहा है।
• लोकोक्ति - जब कोई पूरा कथन किसी प्रसंग विशेष में उद्धत किया जाता है, लोकोक्ति कहलाता है। इसी को कहावत कहते है।
• जैसे -'न रहेगी बाँस न बजेगी बाँसुरी' का अर्थ - मूल कारण को जड़ से नष्ट करना।
• वाक्य प्रयोग- देवांग के लिए खतों को स्तुति ने जलाकर राख कर दिया, अब "न रहेगा बाँस न बजेगी बाँसुरी"।

Additional Information

जिजीविषा सही वर्तनी शब्द है।

अत: विकल्प 2 सही उत्तर है, अन्य विकल्प असंगत है।

Key Points

• जिजीविषा शुद्ध वर्तनी है।
• जिजीविषा का अर्थ होता है:- जीने की चाह।
• अन्य विकल्प इसके अनुचित उत्तर हैं, क्योंकि उनमें वर्तनीगत अशुद्धियाँ हैं।
• किसी शब्द में आए हुए अक्षरों को मात्राओं सहित कहने या लिखने की रीति को 'वर्तनी' या 'अक्षरी' कहते हैं।
• वर्तनी का सम्बन्ध उच्चारण से होता है।
• जैसे:- पाक्षि-पक्षी, अरपन - अर्पण,  तिथी - तिथि आदि।

Additional Information वर्तनी के अन्य उदाहरण:-

सही उत्तर है - 'चंद्रमा'

• नागर - चतुर, नागरमोथा, नागरिक, सोंठ, पौर, सभ्य व्यक्ति, नारंगी।
• अब्ज - कपूर, अरब की संख्या, कमल, चन्द्रमा, शंख।

Key Points

• अनेकार्थी का अर्थ है - एक से अधिक अर्थ देने वाला।
• जिन शब्दों के एक से अधिक अर्थ होते हैं, उन्हें अनेकार्थी शब्द कहते है।

Important Pointsकुछ अन्य महत्वपूर्ण अनेकार्थी शब्द:-

• अंक - भाग्य, गिनती के अंक, गोद, नाटक के अंक, चिन्ह संख्या।
• खग - पक्षी, वाण, गन्धर्व, सूर्य, ग्रह, चन्द्रमा, देवता, वायु।
• घन - हथौड़ा, बादल, बड़ा, मेघ, समूह, विस्तार, अभ्रक।
• जड़ - मूल, मूर्ख, हठी, अचेतन, स्तब्ध, चेष्टाहीन, मूक, गूंगा।
• तीर - बाण, नदी का किनारा, किनारा, तट, समीप।
• फल - परिणाम, लाभ, सन्तान, खाने वाला फल, हल।
• नाग - सर्प, हाथी, बादल, नागवल्ली, एक पर्वत।

वाक्य विन्यास की दृष्टि से शुद्ध वाक्य है- अकरम ने घर में संदूक़ से श्याम के लिए चादर निकाली।

Key Points

• शुद्ध वाक्य - अकरम ने घर में संदूक़ से श्याम के लिए चादर निकाली।
• वाक्य में लिंग, वचन, पुरुष, काल, कारक आदि का क्रिया के साथ ठीक-ठीक मेल हो उसे शुद्ध वाक्य कहते है।
• किसी वाक्यांश या वाक्य में शब्दों का सही क्रम वाक्य विन्यास कहलाता है।
• अन्य सभी विकल्प वाक्य विन्यास की दृष्टि से अशुद्ध है।

Additional Information वाक्य विन्यास या पदक्रम संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ - 

"सीता यहाँ आ रही है।" यह वाक्‍य क्रिया-व‍िशेषण का है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

• क्रिया-व‍िशेषण वाक्‍य- सीता यहाँ आ रही है।
• इस वाक्य में आना क्रिया है। यहाँ शब्द हमें क्रिया कि विशेषता बता रहा है कि वह यहाँ आ रही है।
• इस वाक्‍य में स्‍थानवाचक क्रि‍या-व‍िशेषण है।
• जो अविकारी शब्द किसी क्रिया के संपादित होने के स्थान का बोध कराते हैं, उन्हें स्थानवाचक क्रिया विशेषण कहते हैं।

संस्कृति की सकारात्मकता देशवासियों के निपुणता गुणों पर निर्भर करती है।

• गद्यांश के अनुसार:-
• ​संस्कृति की सकारात्मकता देश के लोगों की निपुणता, नेतृत्व, संयम उत्कंठा पर निर्भर करती है।

Key Points

• निपुण + ता  = निपुणता
• 'निपुण' मूलशब्द और 'ता' प्रत्यय
• अर्थ: निपुण होने की अवस्था, कुशलता, प्रवीणता, दक्षता, चतुराई।
• विलोम शब्द- 'अनिपुणता'

Additional Informationआज्ञाकारिता:-

• अर्थ: आज्ञाकारी होने की अवस्था या भाव।

सौजन्यता:-

• सौजन्य + ता = सौजन्यता
• 'सौजन्य' मूलशब्द और 'ता' प्रत्यय
• अर्थ: सुजन का भाव, उदारता, अनुकंपा, करुणा, मित्रता।

सदृश्यता:-

• सदृश्य + ता = सदृश्यता
• 'सदृश्य' मूलशब्द और 'ता' प्रत्यय
• अर्थ: सदृश्य या समान होने की अवस्था, गुण या भाव,एकरूपता, तुल्यता, बराबरी।
• विलोम शब्द-'असदृशता'

भारत के पश्चिम का भू-भाग है- रेतीला

• गद्यांश के अनुसार:-
• भारत के पश्चिम भू-भाग रेतीला है क्योंकि वहां थार का रेगिस्तान स्थति है।

Key Points

• रेतीला- जिसमें बालू मिला हुआ हो, रेतयुक्त
• विशेषण शब्द

Additional Informationतटीय:-

• तटीय क्षेत्र एक का हिस्सा है समुद्र , झील , या नदी के करीब है कि किनारे।
• तटीय वातावरण में, तटीय क्षेत्र उच्च जल चिह्न से फैला हुआ है।

उपजाऊ:-

• अर्थ: उर्वर, कृषि के लिए उपयुक्त, अधिक अनाज पैदा करने वाली ज़मीन।
• विलोम शब्द- 'बंजर , अनुपजाऊ'

अतिवृष्टि:-

• अति + वृष्टि = अतिवृष्टि
• 'अति' (अधिक) उपसर्ग और 'वृष्टि' (वर्षा) मूलशब्द
• अर्थ: अत्यधिक वर्षा, धन-जन की हानि करने वाली भीषण बारिश।
• विलोम शब्द-'अनावृष्टि'

उत्तर दिशा के पर्वतीय भू-भाग की सीमा पूर्व में ब्रह्मपुत्र और पश्चिम में सिन्धु नदी तक विस्तृत है।

• गद्यांश के अनुसार:-
• भारत जैसे विशाल देश में उत्तर का पर्वतीय भू-भाग है, जिसकी सीमा पूर्व में ब्रह्मपुत्र और पश्चिम में सिन्धु नदियों तक विस्तृत है।​

Key Pointsब्रह्मपुत्र:-

• यह नदी मानसरोवर झील के पास स्थित चीमायुंगदुंग हिमानी (तिब्बत) से निकलती है।
• नामचा बरबा पर्वत के निकट अरुणाचल प्रदेश में प्रवेश करती है तब इसका नाम दिहांग होता है
• इसके बाद देबांग और लोहित नदी मिलकर ब्रह्मपुत्र नदी बनकर असम में प्रवेश करती है।

सिन्धु:-

• सिन्धु नदी एशिया की सबसे लंबी नदियों में से एक है।
• यह पाकिस्तान, भारत (लद्दाख) और चीन (पश्चिमी तिब्बत) के माध्यम से बहती है।
• सिन्धु नदी का उद्गम स्थल, तिब्बत के मानसरोवर के निकट सिन-का-बाब नामक जलधारा माना जाता है।
• यहां से यह नदी तिब्बत और कश्मीर के बीच बहती है।
• नंगा पर्वत के उत्तरी भाग से घूम कर यह दक्षिण पश्चिम में पाकिस्तान के बीच से गुजरती है और फिर जाकर अरब सागर में मिलती है।

Additional Informationनदी:-

• अर्थ: सरिता, तटिनी, वाहिनी, तरंगिणी, निर्झरिणी, शैलजा, जलमाला, नद, शैवालिनी, प्रवाहिनी।

अतिवृष्टि:-

• अति + वृष्टि = अतिवृष्टि
• 'अति' (अधिक) उपसर्ग और 'वृष्टि' (वर्षा) मूलशब्द
• अर्थ: अत्यधिक वर्षा, धन-जन की हानि करने वाली भीषण बारिश।
• विलोम शब्द-'अनावृष्टि'

सतलुज:-

• सतलुज उत्तरी भारत में बहनेवाली एक सदानीरा नदी है। इसका पौराणिक नाम शतुर्दि है।
• जिसकी लम्बाई पंजाब में बहने वाली पाँचों नदियों में सबसे अधिक है। यह पाकिस्तान में होकर बहती है।
• इसका उद्गम मानसरोवर के निकट राक्षस ताल से है, जहां इसका स्थानीय नाम लोगचेन खम्बाव है।

"मेघालय" शब्द का संधि विच्छेद है - मेघ + आलय

• मेघ + आलय = मेघालय (अ + आ = आ)
• मेघालय में दीर्घ संधि है
• अर्थ: मेघों का आलय यानी बादलों का घर

Key Pointsदीर्घ संधि:-

• जब दो शब्दों की संधि करते समय (अ, आ) के साथ (अ, आ) हो तो ‘आ‘ बनता है,
• जब (इ, ई) के साथ (इ, ई) हो तो ‘ई‘ बनता है, जब (उ, ऊ) के साथ (उ, ऊ) हो तो ‘ऊ‘ बनता है, उसे दीर्घ संधि कहते है।

जैसे:-

• विद्या + अभ्यास = विद्याभ्यास (आ + अ = आ)
• परम + अर्थ = परमार्थ (अ + अ = आ)
• स्व + आधीन = स्वाधीन (अ + आ = आ)
• कवि + ईश्वर = कवीश्वर (इ + ई = ई)
• वधु + उत्सव = वधूत्सव (उ + उ = ऊ)

गद्यांश में प्रकार की विभिन्��ता की बात नहीं की गयी है- बौद्धिक

• गद्यांश के अनुसार:-
• भारत में भौगोलिक विभिन्नता के अतिरिक्त इस देश में आर्थिक और सामाजिक भिन्नता भी पर्याप्त रूप से विद्यमान है। ​
• अर्थात गद्यांश में बौद्धिक विभिन्नता की बात नहीं की गयी है।

Key Points

• बौद्धिक = बुद्धि + इक
• 'बुद्धि' मूलशब्द और 'इक' प्रत्यय
• अर्थ: पढ़ने-लिखने से संबंधित, बुद्धि संबंधी।
• विशेषण शब्द

Additional Informationआर्थिक:-

• अर्थ + इक = आर्थिक
• 'अर्थ' मूलशब्द और 'इक' प्रत्यय
• अर्थ: धन संबंधी, अर्थ से संबंध रखनेवाला।
• विशेषण शब्द

सामाजिक:- 

• समाज + इक = सामाजिक
• 'समाज' मूलशब्द और 'इक' प्रत्यय
• अर्थ: समाज से संबंधित
• विलोम शब्द- 'असामाजिक'
• विशेषण शब्द

भौगोलिक:- 

• भूगोल + इक = भौगोलिक
• 'भूगोल' मूलशब्द और 'इक' प्रत्यय
• अर्थ: भूगोल संबंधी, भूगोल का।
• विशेषण शब्द

The correct answer is 'inappropriate'.

Key Points

• The word "incongruous" means not in harmony or keeping with the surroundings or other aspects of something. In this sentence, the author is saying that traditional methods seem out of place or inappropriate in our technical age.
• The most appropriate option that is nearest in meaning to "incongruous" is "inappropriate".
• The other options - "unswerving," "constant," and "unvarying" - do not accurately convey the meaning of "incongruous".
• They all refer to something that is consistent or unchanging, which is not the same as being out of place or inappropriate.
• Therefore, the best answer is "inappropriate", as it captures the sense of something being unsuitable or not fitting in with its surroundings or context.

The correct answer is: Frivolous

Key Points

• Grave often refers to something serious, solemn, or giving cause for concern. (गंभीर)
• Example: The news about the pandemic had a grave impact on the community.
• Marked option Frivolous describes something lacking in seriousness or importance, often characterized by a lack of depth or relevance. (तुच्छ)
• Example: While discussing important issues, she dismissed the conversation as frivolous and unimportant.
• So, the most appropriate antonym for 'Grave' is 'Frivolous'.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

Additional Information

• Native refers to something or someone that is originally from a particular place or region. (देशी)
• Foreign describes something or someone that is not from one's own country or locality; it is of external origin. (विदेशी)
• Serious describes something that is earnest, important, or not to be taken lightly. (महत्वपूर्ण)

The correct answer is 'To face the risk' (Option 1).

 Key Points

• "To bell the cat" is an idiom that originated from an old fable. It means to face or undertake a dangerous or risky task.
• According to the fable, the mice decided to put a bell on a cat, so they would know when it was coming. However, one wise mouse asked who would put the bell on the cat. So the phrase has come to signify a significant and risky, but necessary task.
• The other options - "Conflict", "Make friendship", and "Facing enemy" - do not accurately capture the meaning of this phrase.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 Additional Information

• The phrase "to bell the cat" highlights how often times it's easy to propose solutions, but executing them, especially when risks are involved, is much more challenging.

The correct answer is 'Option 4, Regicide'.

Key Points

• The expression "the murder of the king" describes an act of killing a king. In English, this act is referred to as 'Regicide'. In Hindi, it is referred to as 'Rajyahan' (राज्यहन).
• Example: The monarch's reign ended with regicide.
• 'Regicide' refers to the act of killing a king. In Hindi, it's called 'Rajyahan' (राज्यहन).
• Example: The history book covered the infamous regicide that plunged the country into chaos.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4, Regicide'.

Additional Information

• 'Suicide' (आत्महत्या) is the act of intentionally causing one's own death.
• 'Fratricide' (भाईवध) refers to the act of killing one's brother.
• 'Homicide' (नरहत्या) is the act of one human killing another.

The erroneous spelling is "premitivism".

Key Points

• Let's look at the correct spelling and meaning of the word:
• Primitivism: a belief in the value of what is simple and unsophisticated, expressed as a philosophy of life or through art or literature.
• ​Example: Primitivism was a key inspiration for a lot of painting schools such as cubism, fauvism and post-impressionism.

​Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Additional Information

• Let's look at the meaning of the other words.
• ​radicalism: the beliefs or actions of people who advocate thorough or complete political or social reform.
• raged: feel or express violent uncontrollable anger.
• debates: an argument about a particular subject, especially one in which many people are involved.
• ​All the other words are spelled correctly.​

The correct answer is "hung".

Key Points

• The most appropriate option to fill in the blank is 'hung.'
• Hung: past tense of hang; suspend or be suspended from above with the lower part dangling free.
• Example: I hung my coat in the hall closet.
• The sentence implies that a faint mist suspended over the valley.
• Thus, the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct sentence:  A faint mist hung over the valley.​

Additional Information

• Let's understand the meaning and usage of other options.

 Hinglish

Hung - लटकायाSwung - झूला

Swayed - डगमगाया

Dangled - लटकाया

Mist- धुंध

The correct answer is 'CDAB'.

Key Points

• The given question is an example of a Para Jumble.
• We know that the first statement of a para jumbled question is usually an independent general statement, a noun, a universal fact, starting of an incident, or it starts with 'most' or 'once'. 
• Sentence C will be the first sentence because it is the introductory sentence telling us about the cheetah.
• Sentence D will be used afterward because it is connected with the previous sentence telling us about the speed of a cheetah.
• Sentence A will be the next sentence because it further tells us about the features of a cheetah.
• Lastly, Sentence B will be used.
• Thus, the correct sequence is:
• C: The cheetah is a large cat native to Africa and central Iran.
• D: It is the fastest land animal, capable of running at 80 to 128 km per hour.
• A: Cheetahs typically reach 67–94 cm at the shoulder, and the head-and-body length is between 1.1 and 1.5 m.
• B: Adults typically weigh between 20 and 65 kg.
  

Correct Sequence: The cheetah is a large cat native to Africa and central Iran. It is the fastest land animal, capable of running at 80 to 128 km per hour. Cheetahs typically reach 67–94 cm at the shoulder, and the head-and-body length is between 1.1 and 1.5 m. Adults typically weigh between 20 and 65 kg.

Here, the erroneous part is 'tell you.'

Key Points 

• The given sentence is a conditional sentence (Third conditional as it is describing a regret.).
• A conditional sentence is based on the word ‘if’.
• There are always two parts to a conditional sentence – one part beginning with ‘if’ to describe a possible situation, and the second part which describes the consequence.
• We use the third conditional to talk about impossible situations, as in the second conditional, in the past.
• We often use the third conditional to describe regrets.
• Structure: First part (If + past perfect), Second part (would have/could have + past participle)
• Example: If we had left earlier, we would have arrived on time.
• ​So we have to replace "tell you" with "have told you" to make the sentence grammatically c​orrect.
• ​Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.
  

​

Correct sentence: If you had spoken to my mother, she would have told you where I was.

The correct answer is "a". 

Key Points

• The reason is that although the word "unique" begins with a vowel letter what really counts is that it begins with a consonant sound (yu), which is what determines between using the articles A or AN.
• So the rule to knowing whether to use A or AN is to go by the beginning sound of the word and not the letter.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 1". 

Additional Information

• In English, we use ‘an’ before words that start with a vowel sound.
• ‘one’: This is used to emphasize one single unit or thing.
• For example, ‘one day’, ‘one apple’. It is not suitable here because we are not emphasizing the number, but the uniqueness of the situation.
• ‘the’: This is used before something that has already been mentioned, when it is clear which person or thing is being referred to.
• For example, ‘the book’, ‘the apple’. It is not suitable here because the situation has not been mentioned before.

The correct answer is 'The reason I (came) late to the office yesterday (was) that my car (had broken) down near the city bypass earlier.'

Key Points

• We can see that the sentence speaks of a single completed event (came) on the same day the speaker talks about, and it was the result of another event (the car broke down) which is also in past from the perspective of the speaker.
• The cause will have Past perfect tense (because this completed action has an important effect at the later past time) and the outcome will have Simple past tense. The main be verb in that sentence will take simple past tense.
• For example: 'We didn't feel like playing Snake-Ladder because we had just finished a long game of Ludo.'
• So, the required verbs will be as follows: come, was and had broken.
• Correct sentence: The reason I came late to the office yesterday was that my car had broken down near the city bypass earlier.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

The correct answer is 'Option 4' i.e. 'Mysterious'.

Key Points

• The word "Enigmatic" means difficult to interpret or understand(रहस्यमयी)
• The word that means the same as "Enigmatic" is option 4: "Mysterious".
• "Mysterious" means difficult or impossible to understand, explain, or identify.(रहस्यमयी)

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'Mysterious'.

Additional Information

• Now, let's consider the other options:
• "Literate" means able to read and write.(साक्षर)
• "Grumpy" means bad-tempered or sulky.(चिड़चिड़ा)
• "Illiterate" means unable to read or write.(अनपढ़)

The correct answer is "Unlike."

Key Points

• Let us understand the meaning of the given and the marked words:
• "Similar" means having a resemblance or likeness.(समान)
• ​Example: Both the dresses look so similar.
• Unlike means not similar or in contrast to or different from.(भिन्न)
• Example: Unlike her brother, she is a well mannered kid.
• Thus, it is clear that the word "unlike" is the opposite of "similar."

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information

• Option 1 - Bizarre means very strange or unusual. It is not the opposite of similar. (विचित्र)
• Option 2 - Resemblant is not a commonly used word. It means resembling or similar in appearance.(सदृश)
• Option 4 - Secretive means not willing to share information or be open. It is not the opposite of similar.(गुप्त)

The correct answer is 'Someone who never stays in one place for long'

 Key Points

• The idiom "A bird of passage" refers to someone who moves from place to place without settling down permanently.
• It captures the essence of transience, much like migratory birds that move according to seasons.
• The idiom emphasizes the nomadic nature of someone who doesn't have a permanent home or place to stay.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3

The correct answer is 'Option 1' i.e. 'Versatile'.

Key Points

• The given group of words "One who adapts oneself readily to various situations" refers to a person who is able to adjust or adapt to new situations, tasks, or environments easily and quickly.
• The correct answer is "Versatile".
• Versatile refers to someone or something that is capable of or adapted for turning easily from one to another of various tasks, fields of endeavor, etc.(बहुमुखी)

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'Versatile'.

Additional Information

• Let's explain all the given words with their Hindi and English meanings:
• "Orthodox" refers to conforming to established doctrine especially in religion, traditional or conventional.(परंपरागत)
• "Fastidious" refers to someone who pays great attention to detail because they want everything to be just right, or has high standards.(सूक्ष्मदर्शी)
• "Ardent" means enthusiastic or passionate about something. (उत्साही)

The correct answer is Succour.

Key Points

• The correctly spelled word is Succour.
• It means to help or sympathy given to somebody who is suffering or has problems (परेशान व्यक्ति की सहायता या उनके प्रति सहानुभूति; राहत; सहायता).
• Example: To give succour to the flood victims

Hence, the correct choice is option 2.

The correct answer is "nothing".

Key Points

• Determiners appear in front of nouns and give additional specific information relating to the noun.
• Now, let's consider the context of the sentence - the sentence suggests that he ate the whole cake. Implying that there isn't anything left of the cake.
• To communicate this absence, we would need a word that denotes the complete lack of something, or, in other words, nullity.
• Let's examine the options:
• "Nothing": This word signifies the absence of something. In the context of the sentence, this is the most fitting choice as it directly communicates that there isn't any cake left.
• "Something": This indicates the presence or existence of a thing. It's not suitable here since we're trying to communicate the absence of the cake.
• "Anything": This word also indicates presence or existence of any amount of a thing, however small. It, too, isn't correct in this context as we're asserting the absence of the cake.
• "Much": This word indicates a large amount. It doesn't fit in this context, because we're trying to say there is no cake left, not a large amount of it.
• Therefore, the correct sentence is: "He ate the whole cake and there was nothing left". Here, "nothing" accurately represents the fact that no cake remained after he ate it all.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The correct answer is "RQSP"

Key Points

• Sentence S1 states that even in his earliest days, man had government in its simplest form, which was the family.
• Sentence R explains that man had authority over his wife and children in the family.
• Sentence Q says that as man stepped outside, he joined with other men to form a hunting tribe that learned to work together.
• Sentence S states that when the leader grew old and dull, another leader took his place.
• Sentence P mentions that probably the hunter with the right combination of strength and cleverness became the leader of the tribe.
• Sentence S6 confirms that as the number of men multiplied, hunting bands grew larger, divided and formed independent groups.
• When the sentences are put in this order, they form a coherent and logical paragraph about the evolution of government and leadership in early human societies.

Thus, option 2 is the correct answer.

Correct paragraph: S1 Even in his earliest days, man had government. ​R Its simplest form was the family, where man had authority over his wife and children. Q As he stepped outside, he joined with other men to form a hunting tribe that learned to work together. S Probably the hunter with the right combination of strength and cleverness became the leader of the tribe. P When he grew old and dull, another leader took his place. S6 As the number of men multiplied, hunting bands grew larger, divided and formed independent groups.

The correct answer is "a lot by". 

Key Points

• The segment "Kids learn" is grammatically correct. It correctly identifies the subject (Kids) and the action they perform (learn), setting the stage for what follows.
• The portion that contains the error is "a lot by". The error lies in the prepositional choice. In the context of the original sentence, the aim is to convey the source or means through which kids learn. The use of "by" suggests a method or agent of an action, which doesn't suitably link the children’s learning to their participatory involvement in school activities and homework.
• The correction involves replacing "by" with "from". This change is necessary to accurately describe the origin of the learning. Kids gain knowledge "from" their experiences and engagement, not "by" them in this context. Thus, changing "by" to "from" aligns the sentence with the intended meaning.
• The correct version of the sentence should read: "Kids learn a lot from their school activities and homework." This sentence now properly communicates that the process of learning for kids stems from their involvement in activities and homework related to school, utilizing the correct preposition to convey participation and source of learning.
• The sentence "Kids learn a lot from their school activities and homework" suggests that children gain valuable knowledge and skills not only from classroom lessons but also through participating in various school-related activities and completing homework, highlighting the importance of experiential learning and personal effort in their educational development.
• Therefore, the corrected point is:

The solution involves changing this segment to "a lot from" to correctly elucidate that the learning children experience is derived from their participation in school activities and homework, making "from" the appropriate preposition for this context.

1. a lot by

The correct answer is "the". 

Key Points

• Definite article 'the' implies we are talking about a specific artist that is already known to the reader or listener.
• The use of 'the' tells us that this is not just any artist, but an artist that has presumably been discussed or is understood in the context.
• If there is no prior mention or understanding, 'an' would be used to represent a non-specific artist.
• So the complete sentence reads: Soon after the visitor left, the artist came to his studio.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 4."

The correct answer is "requires a lot."

 Key Points

• According to Subject-Verb agreement, the singular subject takes a singular verb and the plural subject takes a plural verb.
• The verb 'training' requires a singular subject, which is 'your dog'.
• The present tense form of the verb 'require' that matches with the singular subject 'your dog' is 'requires'.
• So, the correct answer is option 2.
  

Correct sentence: Training your dog requires a lot of patience.

The correct answer is 'To address concerns regarding global trade uncertainty and shared regional vulnerabilities'.

Key Points

• The correct answer is Option 3. To address concerns regarding global trade uncertainty and shared regional vulnerabilities.
• The line from the passage supporting this is: "Mr. Modi’s presence at the annual ASEAN-India summit was an opportunity to cement traditional ties with the neighbouring Asian economies at a time of heightened global trade uncertainty."
• The passage highlights India's aim to strengthen its engagement with ASEAN members due to global trade uncertainties, as indicated by the Prime Minister's participation in the ASEAN-India summit.
• The joint statement emphasizing food security and nutrition in response to crises reflects shared concerns about global food insecurity, intensified by various factors like the war in Ukraine, climate change, and inflation.
• India's need to address the widening trade deficit and concerns about Chinese goods entering its market under the FTA further underscores the necessity of fortifying ties with ASEAN members in the face of global trade uncertainty and shared vulnerabilities.

The correct answer is 'Global trade uncertainty and issues like climate change and geopolitical tensions are affecting food security.'

Key Points

• The correct answer is Option 1. Global trade uncertainty and issues like climate change and geopolitical tensions are affecting food security.
• The line from the passage supporting this is: "Against this backdrop, the joint leaders’ statement on ‘Strengthening Food Security and Nutrition in Response to Crises’ at the ASEAN-India summit underscores the shared vulnerability the region perceives in the face of the ongoing heightened global food insecurity, which has been exacerbated by the war in Ukraine, climate change and national policy responses to inflationary pressures."
• This section of the passage explicitly states that global food insecurity has been worsened by various factors such as the war in Ukraine, climate change, and national policy responses to inflation.
• It suggests a correlation between global trade uncertainty, geopolitical tensions, climate change, and the worsening condition of food security, emphasizing their impact on the current global situation.

The correct answer is 'China's goods are taking advantage of lower tariffs under the FTA to enter the Indian market.'

Key Points

• The correct answer is Option 3. China's goods are taking advantage of lower tariffs under the FTA to enter the Indian market.
• The line from the passage supporting this is: "The widening trade deficit and the perception that Chinese goods are taking advantage of lower tariffs under the FTA to find their way into the Indian market..."
• This section of the passage points out concerns regarding the widening trade deficit and the perception that Chinese goods are utilizing the lower tariffs provided by the Free Trade Agreement (FTA) to gain entry into the Indian market.
• It highlights the issue of Chinese goods possibly exploiting the tariff advantages offered by the FTA, contributing to the trade imbalance between India and ASEAN nations.

The correct answer is 'Informative'.

Key Points

• The correct answer is Option 1. Informative.
• The passage provides factual information about Prime Minister Narendra Modi's visit to Jakarta, emphasizing India's engagement with ASEAN nations, concerns about global trade uncertainty, food security, and trade issues.
• It delivers information regarding the purpose of the visit, India's role in the ASEAN-India summit, challenges in trade relations, and geopolitical tensions, maintaining an objective and factual tone throughout.
• There is no evident use of emotionally charged language or satirical elements.
• The passage primarily aims to inform the reader about diplomatic engagements and trade concerns, evident in the factual and informative approach maintained throughout.

The correct answer is 'Whistle-stop summit sojourn'.

Key Points

• The correct answer is Option 4. "Whistle-stop summit sojourn."
• In the passage, the term "whistle-stop summit sojourn" refers to Prime Minister Narendra Modi's brief yet purposeful visit to the Indonesian capital of Jakarta.
• This idiom is commonly used to depict a short and concentrated trip, especially for official or political purposes, often involving various engagements or meetings within a limited time frame.
• Prime Minister Modi's visit, described as a "whistle-stop summit sojourn," reflects a focused and purpose-driven diplomatic endeavor, making it the most suitable idiom in the context of intense diplomatic activity within a short period.

The correct answer is Yumnam Khemchand Singh.

Key Points

• Yumnam Khemchand Singh was sworn in as the Chief Minister of Manipur in February 2026 following a period of President's Rule in the state.
• President's Rule in Manipur was imposed due to political instability, marking a significant shift in governance for the state.
• Yumnam Khemchand Singh is a prominent leader and a former Speaker of the Manipur Legislative Assembly, showcasing his political experience.
• His appointment aimed to restore political stability and ensure effective governance in Manipur.
• The transition from President's Rule to the formation of a new government under Yumnam Khemchand Singh was viewed as a critical step toward normalizing the state's political landscape.

Additional Information

• President's Rule in India:
• President's Rule is imposed under Article 356 of the Indian Constitution when a state is unable to function according to the constitutional provisions.
• During this period, the state legislature is suspended, and governance is directly taken over by the central government.
• President's Rule is often imposed due to political instability, breakdown of law and order, or failure of the state government to function effectively.
• Role of the Chief Minister:
• The Chief Minister is the executive head of a state government in India.
• He/she plays a crucial role in framing policies, implementing laws, and ensuring smooth administration of the state.
• The Chief Minister also acts as the chief advisor to the Governor of the state.
• Yumnam Khemchand Singh:
• Yumnam Khemchand Singh is a seasoned politician from Manipur and has served as the Speaker of the Manipur Legislative Assembly.
• He is known for his leadership skills and efforts to address various socio-political issues in the state.
• His tenure as the Chief Minister is expected to focus on development, stability, and inclusive governance.
• Governance in Manipur:
• Manipur is a northeastern state in India, with significant cultural and ethnic diversity.
• Governance in the state has often faced challenges due to its geographical location, ethnic issues, and political dynamics.
• Efforts to strengthen governance in Manipur include focusing on infrastructure development, education, and healthcare.

Important Points

• Article 356:
• This article allows the President of India to assume control of a state's administration if the state government fails to function according to constitutional norms.
• It requires parliamentary approval and can be extended for a maximum period of three years under certain conditions.
• Manipur Legislative Assembly:
• The legislative assembly is the law-making body of the state, consisting of elected representatives.
• It plays a critical role in governance, policy-making, and addressing state-specific issues.
• Restoration of Governance:
• The appointment of a new Chief Minister after President's Rule is aimed at restoring democratic governance in the state.
• This process involves forming a government with majority support in the legislative assembly.

The correct answer is Promoting cottage industries in rural areas.

Key Points

• Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are enumerated in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, spanning from Article 36 to 51. These principles are classified into Socialistic, Gandhian, and Liberal-Intellectual categories based on their ideology.
• Article 43 of the Constitution directs the State to endeavor to promote cottage industries on an individual or co-operative basis in rural areas. This reflects Mahatma Gandhi’s vision of self-sufficient village economies and rural upliftment. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Raising the standard of living and public health is mentioned under Article 47. While it aligns with the overall welfare state, it is primarily categorized as a Socialistic Principle rather than a specific Gandhian ideal in the classification of the Constitution. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Securing suitable employment for all is part of the "Right to Work" under Article 41. This directive is a Socialistic Principle aimed at ensuring economic security for citizens. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Safeguarding children against exploitation and providing them with opportunities for healthy development is covered under Article 39(f). This is classified as a Socialistic Principle added or emphasized to ensure social justice. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Gandhian Principles in DPSP: These principles are based on the ideology of Mahatma Gandhi and represent the program of reconstruction enunciated by him during the National Movement.
• Article 40: To organize village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government.
• Article 43B: To promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control, and professional management of co-operative societies (Added by the 97th Amendment Act, 2011).
• Article 46: To promote the educational and economic interests of Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs), and other weaker sections of the society and to protect them from social injustice and all forms of exploitation.
• Article 47: To prohibit the consumption of intoxicating drinks and drugs that are injurious to health.
• Article 48: To prohibit the slaughter of cows, calves, and other milch and draught cattle and to improve their breeds.
• Socialistic Principles: These aim at establishing social and economic justice and paving the way for a welfare state. Examples include Article 38 (promoting social order), Article 39 (equitable distribution of resources), and Article 42 (humane conditions of work and maternity relief).
• Liberal-Intellectual Principles: These reflect the ideology of liberalism. Examples include Article 44 (Uniform Civil Code), Article 50 (Separation of judiciary from executive), and Article 51 (Promotion of international peace and security).

Important Points

• The DPSP are borrowed from the Irish Constitution of 1937, which had copied them from the Spanish Constitution.
• Unlike Fundamental Rights, DPSPs are non-justiciable in nature, meaning they are not legally enforceable by the courts for their violation (as per Article 37). However, they are fundamental in the governance of the country.
• The Sapru Committee in 1945 suggested two categories of individual rights: one being justiciable (Fundamental Rights) and the other being non-justiciable (Directive Principles).
• In the Minerva Mills Case (1980), the Supreme Court held that the Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of the balance between Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles.

The correct answer is Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar.

Key Points

• The Drafting Committee was the most significant among all the committees of the Constituent Assembly, established on 29 August 1947.
• The primary responsibility of this committee was to scrutinize the draft of the Constitution of India prepared by the Constitutional Adviser, Sir B.N. Rau, and to prepare a formal draft for consideration.
• Dr. B.R. Ambedkar served as the Chairman of the Drafting Committee. He is widely recognized as the Chief Architect or the Father of the Indian Constitution due to his profound influence on its legal and social provisions.
• The committee consisted of seven members: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (Chairman), N. Gopalaswami Ayyangar, Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar, Dr. K.M. Munshi, Syed Mohammad Saadulla, N. Madhava Rau (who replaced B.L. Mitter), and T.T. Krishnamachari (who replaced D.P. Khaitan).
• The first draft was published in February 1948, and the people of India were given eight months to discuss the draft and suggest amendments. After considering the feedback, a second draft was published in October 1948.

Additional Information

• Jawaharlal Nehru: He was not the chairman of the drafting committee but headed several other crucial committees, including the Union Powers Committee, the Union Constitution Committee, and the States Committee. He famously moved the Objectives Resolution on 13 December 1946, which laid the foundation for the Preamble.
• Dr. Rajendra Prasad: He was the President of the Constituent Assembly. He also chaired the Rules of Procedure Committee and the Steering Committee. He was later elected as the first President of independent India on 24 January 1950.
• Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel: He chaired the Provincial Constitution Committee and the Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas. His leadership was vital in the political integration of India by merging over 500 princely states.
• Constituent Assembly: The assembly held its first meeting on 9 December 1946. It took 2 years, 11 months, and 18 days to complete the Constitution of India.

Important Points

• The Constitution of India was formally adopted on 26 November 1949. This day is now celebrated annually as Constitution Day or Samvidhan Diwas in India.
• The final document originally contained a Preamble, 395 Articles (divided into 22 Parts), and 8 Schedules. As of current data, the number of articles and schedules has increased through various Constitutional Amendments.
• The Drafting Committee sat for a total of 141 days to finalize the draft. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar ensured that the Constitution provided social justice and legal safeguards for the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and other marginalized sections of society.
• The Constitution came into force on 26 January 1950, a date chosen to commemorate the Purna Swaraj declaration of 1930. This date marks the transformation of India into a Sovereign Democratic Republic.

The correct answer is Civil Disobedience Movement.

Key Points

• The Dandi March, also referred to as the Salt Satyagraha, was a direct action campaign of tax resistance and nonviolent protest against the British salt monopoly in colonial India.
• The march began on March 12, 1930, from Sabarmati Ashram near Ahmedabad and concluded on April 6, 1930, at the coastal village of Dandi in the Navsari district of Gujarat.
• Mahatma Gandhi led a group of 78 designated satyagrahis on a 24-day journey covering a distance of approximately 240 miles (roughly 385 kilometers).
• By symbolically picking up a handful of salt from the shores of Dandi, Gandhi broke the Salt Act of 1882, which prohibited Indians from collecting or selling salt and mandated a high government tax on a basic necessity.
• This symbolic act served as the official launch of the Civil Disobedience Movement, a nationwide struggle that saw millions of Indians boycotting foreign goods, refusing to pay taxes, and resigning from government services.

 Additional Information

• Non-Cooperation Movement:
• Launched in 1920 following the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre, this movement aimed to grant Swaraj or self-rule. It was called off by Gandhi in February 1922 after the violent Chauri Chaura incident.
• Quit India Movement:
• Also known as the August Kranti, it was launched on August 8, 1942, during World War II at the Gowalia Tank Maidan in Bombay, where Gandhi gave the famous call of Do or Die.
• Swadeshi Movement:
• Started in 1905 as a reaction against the Partition of Bengal announced by Lord Curzon. It emphasized the use of indigenous products and the boycott of British-made cloth and sugar.

The correct answer is Recording 400 career Grand Slam singles victories.

In News

• Novak Djokovic became the first player in history to register 400 career Grand Slam singles wins at the Australian Open.

Key Points

• Novak Djokovic achieved 400 Grand Slam singles victories, a first in men’s tennis history.
• He surpassed legends like Roger Federer (369 wins) and Rafael Nadal (314 wins).
• The milestone was reached after defeating Botic van de Zandschulp at the Australian Open.
• This win was also Djokovic’s 102nd victory at the Australian Open, equalling Federer’s record in Melbourne.

Additional Information

• Grand Slam Tournaments
• The four Grand Slams are the Australian Open, French Open, Wimbledon, and US Open.
• They are the most prestigious events in professional tennis.
• Australian Open
• Held annually in Melbourne, Australia.
• Djokovic holds the record for most men’s singles titles and match wins at this tournament.
• Novak Djokovic
• Nationality – Serbian
• Known for consistency, longevity, and dominance across all Grand Slam surfaces.

The correct answer is Fold mountain.

Key Points

• The Himalayan mountain range is classified as a Fold Mountain, formed as a result of the collision between the Indian Plate and the Eurasian Plate.
• Fold mountains are created through the process of continental plate convergence, leading to the folding and uplifting of sedimentary rock layers.
• The Himalayas are considered young fold mountains as they are geologically new, formed approximately 40-50 million years ago.
• This mountain range consists of three parallel ranges—the Greater Himalayas, Lesser Himalayas, and Shivalik Hills, exhibiting diverse geological features.
• Fold mountains, including the Himalayas, are characterized by lofty peaks, steep slopes, deep valleys, and fertile basins.

Additional Information

• Rock Mountain:
• This term is not commonly used in geological classifications; it can broadly refer to mountains made of solid rock formations.
• Mountains predominantly made of igneous, sedimentary, or metamorphic rocks are examples, but the term lacks specificity in scientific contexts.
• The Himalayas are not classified as "rock mountains" as their formation is linked to tectonic activity and folding processes.
• Block Mountain:
• Block mountains are formed due to faulting and fracturing in the Earth's crust caused by tensional forces.
• These mountains are characterized by the uplift of large blocks of Earth's crust, while adjacent blocks sink to form rift valleys.
• Examples include the Vosges Mountains in Europe and the Sierra Nevada in the USA. The Himalayas are not block mountains as their origin is linked to folding rather than faulting.
• Volcanic Mountain:
• Volcanic mountains are formed due to the accumulation of lava, ash, and other volcanic materials emitted during volcanic eruptions.
• These mountains are typically conical in shape and include peaks such as Mount Fuji in Japan and Mount Kilimanjaro in Tanzania.
• The Himalayas are not volcanic mountains, as they were formed by tectonic plate collision rather than volcanic activity.
• The Formation of Himalayan Mountains:
• The Himalayas are the result of the ongoing collision between the Indian Plate and the Eurasian Plate.
• This collision caused the sedimentary rocks in the Tethys Ocean to fold and uplift, giving rise to the Himalayan range.
• The Himalayas continue to rise due to tectonic activity, making them one of the youngest and most dynamic mountain ranges in the world.

The correct answer is 1943.

Key Points

• The Indian National Army (INA), also known as the Azad Hind Fauj, was significantly reorganized and revived in 1943 under the leadership of Subhash Chandra Bose.
• On July 4, 1943, Subhash Chandra Bose (popularly known as Netaji) arrived in Singapore and took over the leadership of the Indian Independence League from Rash Behari Bose.
• On October 21, 1943, Netaji announced the formation of the Provisional Government of Free India (Arzi Hukumat-e-Azad Hind) in Singapore, which marked the formal operational commencement of the INA in its most potent form.
• The army aimed to liberate India from British colonial rule with the assistance of the Axis Powers (primarily Japan) during World War II.
• Under Bose's leadership, the INA was structured into various brigades, named after prominent leaders like Gandhi, Nehru, and Azad, and included a special women's unit.

Additional Information

• Initial Formation (1942): The first phase of the INA was originally conceptualized and formed in September 1942 by Captain Mohan Singh, an officer of the British Indian Army, with the support of Japanese Major Iwaichi Fujiwara. However, due to disagreements with the Japanese leadership, this first version was disbanded in December 1942.
• Role of Rash Behari Bose: He was a veteran revolutionary who played a foundational role in the Ghadar Conspiracy of 1915. He fled to Japan and later established the Indian Independence League, providing the political framework for the INA before handing it over to Subhash Chandra Bose.
• The Rani of Jhansi Regiment: One of the most distinctive features of the INA was the creation of an all-female combat unit in 1943, named after Rani Lakshmibai. It was led by Captain Lakshmi Sahgal and demonstrated the inclusive nature of the Indian freedom struggle.
• Motto and Slogan: The INA operated under the motto Unity (Ittehad), Faith (Etmad), and Sacrifice (Kurbani). Subhash Chandra Bose also gave the famous call, "Give me blood, and I shall give you freedom!" and the greeting "Jai Hind".
• Post-War Impact: Although the INA failed to militarily defeat the British in the battles of Imphal and Kohima in 1944, the subsequent Red Fort Trials of 1945 against INA officers (P.K. Sehgal, Shah Nawaz Khan, and G.S. Dhillon) triggered massive nationalist unrest and played a key role in accelerating Indian independence.

The correct answer is Udai.

In News

• UIDAI launched the Aadhaar mascot named Udai (उदय) as a resident-facing communication companion to simplify Aadhaar services.

Key Points

• The Aadhaar mascot launched by UIDAI is named Udai (उदय).
• Udai will act as a people-friendly communication companion for Aadhaar-related services.
• The mascot aims to simplify information on Aadhaar updates, authentication, offline verification and selective data sharing.
• Aadhaar Mascot Initiative
• Designed to make Aadhaar services more relatable
• Supports awareness of responsible Aadhaar usage
• Helps communicate adoption of new Aadhaar technologies

Additional Information

• Selection Process
• Chosen through national design and naming competitions on MyGov
• 875 entries received from across India
• Winner announced as Arun Gokul from Kerala
• Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI)
• Statutory authority under the Government of India
• Responsible for issuing and managing Aadhaar
• Focuses on secure, inclusive and people-centric digital identity
• Significance
• Enhances citizen engagement with Aadhaar ecosystem
• Promotes clarity, trust and ease of access to services
• Reflects participatory governance through public involvement

The correct answer is Expansionary monetary policy.

Key Points

• Expansionary monetary policy is a macroeconomic strategy used by a central bank (like the Reserve Bank of India or the Federal Reserve) to stimulate the economy by increasing the money supply. This is primarily achieved by reducing interest rates, which makes borrowing cheaper for consumers and businesses. Hence, the correct answer is Expansionary monetary policy.
• When the central bank lowers the policy rates (such as the Repo Rate), commercial banks typically lower their lending rates. This encourages investment and consumption, leading to higher aggregate demand and economic growth.
• Contractionary monetary policy is the opposite of expansionary policy. It involves increasing interest rates to reduce the money supply and slow down economic activity, usually to combat high inflation. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Fiscal stimulus refers to measures taken by the government, such as increasing public spending or reducing taxes, to boost the economy. While it aims for growth, it is a tool of fiscal policy, not monetary policy managed by a central bank. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Quantitative easing is an unconventional monetary policy where a central bank purchases government bonds or other financial assets from the market to inject liquidity directly into the economy. While it is expansionary in nature, the specific action of reducing interest rates is the standard definition of expansionary monetary policy. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Monetary Policy Committee (MPC): In India, the MPC is responsible for fixing the benchmark interest rate (Repo Rate). It consists of 6 members, including the Governor of the RBI, and meets at least 4 times a year.
• Repo Rate: This is the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India lends money to commercial banks in the event of any shortfall of funds. It is a key tool used to control inflation and liquidity.
• Reverse Repo Rate: This is the rate at which the RBI borrows money from commercial banks within the country. It helps the central bank to absorb excess liquidity from the banking system.
• Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR): This is a specific share of Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL) that banks must keep with the RBI in the form of cash. Increasing the CRR is a contractionary measure, while decreasing it is expansionary.
• Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR): This is the minimum percentage of deposits that a commercial bank has to maintain in the form of liquid cash, gold, or other securities before providing credit to customers.

Important Points

• The primary objective of monetary policy in India is to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth. The RBI Act, 1934 was amended in 2016 to provide a statutory basis for the implementation of the flexible inflation targeting framework.
• The current inflation target set by the Government of India is 4% with a tolerance band of +/- 2% (i.e., a range of 2% to 6%).
• Open Market Operations (OMO): These involve the simultaneous purchase and sale of government securities by the RBI to regulate the money supply in the economy over the long term.
• Bank Rate: It is the rate at which the RBI is ready to buy or rediscount bills of exchange or other commercial papers. It is also known as the Discount Rate.

The correct answer is Central Bank of India.

Key Points

• The Central Bank of India, established in 1911, was the first Indian commercial bank that was wholly owned and managed by Indians.
• The bank was founded by Sorabji Pochkhanawala, with the vision of creating a financial institution that would be completely managed by Indians.
• The Central Bank of India was established in the pre-Independence era, during the British colonial period, when most banks in India were managed by British entities or foreign stakeholders.
• This bank played a crucial role in the development of the Indian banking sector and served as an example of self-reliance for other Indian entrepreneurs.
• It continues to be one of the oldest and most prominent public sector banks in India, with its headquarters in Mumbai.

Additional Information

• Punjab National Bank (PNB):
• PNB was established in 1894 in Lahore (now in Pakistan).
• It was the first Indian bank to be owned and managed by Indians but was not entirely commercial in its operations during its early years.
• Though significant, it was not the first wholly Indian-owned commercial bank.
• Oudh Commercial Bank:
• Founded in 1881 in Faizabad, it was one of the earliest banks established in India.
• However, it ceased operations in 1958 and was not as commercially successful as the Central Bank of India.
• State Bank of India (SBI):
• SBI traces its origins to the establishment of the Bank of Calcutta in 1806, later renamed the Imperial Bank of India in 1921, and finally became SBI in 1955.
• It was not initially owned or managed by Indians and became a public sector entity much later in independent India.
• Significance of Indian Commercial Banks:
• These banks played a vital role in promoting economic self-reliance and reducing dependency on British banking institutions during colonial rule.
• They also supported Indian entrepreneurs and businesses, contributing to economic development.

Important Points

• The Central Bank of India is known as the "first Indian bank" due to its wholly Indian ownership and management from inception.
• It was among the pioneering banks to introduce credit cards in India and played a significant role in financial literacy and rural banking.
• It is a public sector bank and continues to be a part of India's financial ecosystem, with a widespread network of branches across the country.

The correct answer is option 1, i.e. Article 21 A

• Article 21 A was added by the 86^th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002.
• This article declares that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such a manner as the State may determine.
• Article 51 A was added by the 42^nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976.
• This article specifies a code of 11 Fundamental Duties.
• Originally, article 51 A contained 10 Fundamental Duties.
• Fundamental duty to provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of 6 and 14 years was added by the 86^th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002.
• Article 31 B was added by the 1^st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1951.
• This article was introduced to protect the laws mentioned under the Ninth schedule from judicial scrutiny on the ground of violation of Fundamental Rights.
• In 2007, the Supreme Court ruled that the laws included in the Ninth schedule after 24 April 1973 are now open to judicial review.
• Article 243 G was added by the 73^rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992.
• It specifies powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats.

The Correct answer is Gajendra Singh Shekhawat.

Key Points

• Gajendra Singh Shekhawat is an Indian politician affiliated with the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP).
• He represents the Jodhpur constituency in Rajasthan in the Lok Sabha (lower house of Parliament).
• He has been actively involved in politics and governance and is known for his work in the field of water resource management and rural development.
• Before being appointed as the Union Minister of Culture, Gajendra Singh Shekhawat held the portfolio of Union Minister of Jal Shakti, where he spearheaded initiatives like the Jal Jeevan Mission.
• His appointment as the Union Minister of Culture in June 2024 is significant as he is expected to focus on preserving and promoting India’s rich cultural heritage and traditions.
• His leadership in the Ministry of Culture aligns with India's vision to strengthen its soft power globally by showcasing its historical landmarks, art, music, literature, and cultural diversity.

Additional Information

• Jual Oram
• Jual Oram is an Indian politician from Odisha and a member of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP).
• He has served as the Union Minister of Tribal Affairs in the past, focusing on the welfare of tribal communities in India.
• He represents the Sundargarh constituency in Odisha in the Lok Sabha.
• Giriraj Singh
• Giriraj Singh is an Indian politician and a member of the BJP.
• He has served as the Union Minister of Rural Development and Panchayati Raj.
• He is known for his work in implementing policies for grassroots-level governance and rural development in India.
• Kinjarapu Rammohan Naidu
• Kinjarapu Rammohan Naidu is an Indian politician affiliated with the Telugu Desam Party (TDP).
• He represents the Srikakulam constituency in Andhra Pradesh in the Lok Sabha.
• He is one of the youngest parliamentarians and is recognized for his active participation in parliamentary debates and youth-centric initiatives.

The correct answer is L.M. Singhvi Committee.

Key Points

• The L.M. Singhvi Committee was appointed in 1986 by the Government of India to revitalize Panchayati Raj institutions for democracy and development.
• The committee recommended the inclusion of a separate chapter on Panchayats in the Constitution, leading to the establishment of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992.
• The key recommendation was to provide constitutional status to Panchayati Raj institutions to ensure their continuity, stability, and autonomy.
• The committee emphasized the need for regular elections to Panchayati Raj institutions and the establishment of a State Finance Commission to allocate funds to these bodies.

Additional Information

• 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992
• This Act added Part IX to the Constitution titled "The Panchayats" and the Eleventh Schedule covering 29 subjects under the Panchayati Raj institutions.
• It mandates the establishment of Panchayats at the village, intermediate, and district levels.
• The Act ensures that Panchayats operate as units of self-government and hold regular elections every five years.
• It provides for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and women in Panchayati Raj institutions.
• State Finance Commission
• It is constituted every five years to review the financial position of the Panchayats and make recommendations to the Governor regarding the distribution of financial resources.
• The commission ensures that Panchayats receive adequate funds for their functions and development activities.
• Gram Sabha
• It is a body consisting of persons registered in the electoral rolls of a village within the area of the Panchayat at the village level.
• The Gram Sabha is a forum for direct democracy where citizens can participate in decision-making and hold the Panchayat accountable.
• Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
• Appointed in 1957, it recommended the establishment of the three-tier Panchayati Raj system in India.
• The committee's report led to the establishment of Panchayati Raj institutions in various states during the 1960s.

The correct answer is Bharatmuni.

• Bharatmuni was an ancient Indian theatrologist and musicologist who wrote the Natyashastra.

Key Points

• Bharata is considered the father of Indian theatrical art forms.
• Natyashastra contains six chapters on music.
• The text consists of 36 chapters.

The correct answer is Mithali Raj.

Key Points

• Mithali became the first Indian cricketer to score 2000 runs in IT20 cricket.
• She also became the first woman cricketer from the country and the only second overall world after Charlotte Edwards to score 10,000 international runs.
• She achieved this feat against the Sri Lankan women's team in the women's Asia Cup 2018 held at Kaula Lumpur.
• Charlotte Edwards was the first international cricketer to score 2000 runs in IT20 cricket.
• Virat Kohli is the fastest to score 2000 runs in IT20 cricket and become the first male cricketer to score 3000 runs in IT20 cricket.

The correct answer is 1919.

Key Points

• The Rowlatt Act, officially known as the Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act of 1919, was passed by the British colonial government in March 1919.
• It authorized the government to detain individuals without trial, suppress political activities, and imprison suspects indefinitely without any legal recourse.
• The act was primarily aimed at curbing the rising nationalist movements and revolutionary activities against British rule in India.
• The act led to widespread protests across India, including the infamous Jallianwala Bagh massacre on April 13, 1919, when British troops opened fire on unarmed protesters in Amritsar.
• Indian leaders, including Mahatma Gandhi, strongly opposed the act, and the protests against it marked a significant turning point in India's struggle for independence.

Additional Information

• Key Impacts of the Rowlatt Act:
• Erosion of Civil Liberties: The Act allowed imprisonment without trial for suspected political dissenters, suspended habeas corpus, and imposed strict censorship, effectively removing basic rights.
• Widespread Protests: It triggered a strong backlash, with Mahatma Gandhi calling for nationwide hartals (strikes) and demonstrations in cities like Delhi, Lahore, and Bombay.
• Catalyst for Mass Movements: The Act united various groups against British rule, becoming a crucial moment that led to Gandhi's Non-Cooperation Movement and transformed Indian nationalism into a mass movement.
• Increased Resentment: It exposed the hollowness of British promises of democracy, fueling anger and demonstrating the repressive nature of colonial rule.
• Repression & Violence: British authorities responded with force, culminating in the tragic Jallianwala Bagh Massacre in Amritsar, further intensifying anti-colonial sentiment.

The correct answer is 'Bay of Bengal.'

Key Points

• Influence of the Bay of Bengal:
• The northeastern states of India receive heavy rainfall due to the moisture-laden monsoon winds that originate from the Bay of Bengal.
• These winds travel northeastward, hitting the Himalayan ranges and causing orographic rainfall in the region.
• The Bay of Bengal monsoon is a key factor in maintaining the humid subtropical climate of northeastern India, characterized by significant rainfall during the monsoon season.

Additional Information

• Influence of the Arabian Sea:
• The Arabian Sea influences the monsoon primarily in western and southern parts of India, such as the Konkan coast, Gujarat, and Kerala.
• It does not significantly impact the climate of the northeastern states since these regions are predominantly affected by the Bay of Bengal monsoon system.
• Influence of the Indian Ocean:
• The Indian Ocean contributes to the overall monsoon system by providing moisture to the southwest monsoon winds.
• However, its direct impact on the northeastern states is limited compared to the Bay of Bengal and the Himalayan mountains.

Important Points

• The northeastern states, including Assam, Meghalaya, and Arunachal Pradesh, are among the wettest regions in India due to their proximity to the Bay of Bengal and the presence of the Himalayas.
• Mawsynram and Cherrapunji in Meghalaya are famous for receiving some of the highest rainfall in the world, primarily due to the influence of the Bay of Bengal and the Himalayan orography.
• The region experiences a mix of tropical and subtropical climatic conditions, influenced by elevation and distance from the sea.

The correct answer is 118th

Key Points

• In the World Happiness Report 2025, India has been ranked 118th among 143 countries surveyed globally.
• India showed an improvement of 8 positions compared to the previous year, where it was ranked 126th in the 2024 report.
• The report is an annual publication of the United Nations Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN) and is released to mark the International Day of Happiness on March 20th.
• The rankings are determined based on self-reported life evaluations from the Gallup World Poll, averaged over a three-year period (2022-2024 for the 2025 report).
• The report considers six primary factors to explain the variation in happiness levels: GDP per capita, social support, healthy life expectancy, freedom to make life choices, generosity, and perception of corruption.

Additional Information

• Finland has secured the 1st rank for the 8th consecutive year, maintaining its status as the happiest country in the world.
• The top five happiest nations in the 2025 list include Finland, Denmark, Iceland, Sweden, and Israel.
• Afghanistan continues to be ranked at the bottom of the index (143rd), followed by Lebanon and Lesotho.
• The 2025 report also focused on the well-being of different age groups, noting that happiness levels among the youth have seen a decline in several Western nations.
• Among India's neighbors, countries like Nepal, China, and Bhutan typically rank higher than India in this index.

The correct answer is Governor

Key Points

• The power to prorogue the House or either House of the State Legislature from time to time is vested in the Governor.
• This power is part of the Governor's broader role in the legislative process, which includes summoning and dissolving the state legislative assembly.
• The Governor acts on the advice of the state's Chief Minister and the Council of Ministers but retains certain discretionary powers.
• The ability to prorogue the legislature helps in managing the legislative calendar and addressing situations where the House may need to be temporarily suspended.
• Proroguing the House effectively ends a session but does not dissolve the legislative assembly, allowing for the continuation of the legislative process in the future.

Additional Information

• The Governor is appointed by the President of India and acts as the central government's representative in the state.
• The Governor's role is outlined in the Constitution of India, particularly in Articles 153 to 167.
• The Governor has both executive and legislative powers, including giving assent to bills passed by the state legislature, issuing ordinances, and making recommendations for President's Rule in the state.
• In addition to proroguing the House, the Governor can also dissolve the legislative assembly, usually upon the advice of the Chief Minister.
• The Governor plays a crucial role in maintaining the constitutional framework and ensuring the smooth functioning of the state government.

• The President of India is the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces of the country.
• The charge of these forces is otherwise held by their respective chiefs.
• Chief of the Army Staff-General Bipin Rawat
• Chief of the Naval Staff-Karambir Singh
• Supreme Commander of Armed Forces- President of India(Draupadi Murmu)
• Defence Minister of India-Rajnath Singh
• Air Chief Marshal RKS Bhadauria.

The correct answer is the Godavari.

Key Points

• After Ganga, Godavari is India’s second-longest river.
• Triambaeswar in Maharashtra is the source of the Godavari River.
• The Godavari River drains in the states of Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Chattisgarh, Odisha, and Maharashtra.
• Out of these states, the Maharashtra state has the largest share of the water of the Godavari River.
• The River finally drains into the Bay of Bengal.

Important Points

• One of the largest River basins in the Indian subcontinent is formed by the Godavari.
• The largest river in peninsular India is the Godavari, in terms of the catchment area and discharge.
• Dakshin Ganga is another name of Godavari due to its huge catchment area.

As of 2019, Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest area.

• With regard to the state, Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover in the India, followed by Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Maharashtra.
• As far as forest cover is concerned, the top five states are Mizoram (85.41 per cent), Arunachal Pradesh (79.63 per cent), Meghalaya (76.33 per cent), Manipur (75.46 per cent) and Nagaland (75.31 per cent).
• According to ISFR 2019, the top five states are Karnataka (1,025 sq. km.), Andhra Pradesh (990 sq. km.), Kerala (823 sq. km.), Jammu & Kashmir (371 sq. km.) and Himachal Pradesh (334 sq. km.) in terms of the rise in forest cover.
• The forest cover in the hilly districts of India is 284.006 sq. Km, which is 40.30 per cent of the overall geographical region of these districts, and according to ISFR 2019 there is an expansion of 544 square kilometers. km. km. km. In 140 hilly districts of the country.

The correct answer is Punjab.

Key Points

• Originating in the districts of Ludhiana and Amritsar in Punjab, India, in 1849, the Kuka movement, also known as Namdharis, emerged as a religious and political response to the British political establishment of the time.
• Central to the movement was a desire to purify the Sikh religion, with followers known for their devout recitation of the guru's name.
• The Kuka movement played a notable role within the broader context of India's historic Non-cooperation Movement.
• Led by Baba Ram Singh, a revered religious figure, the movement made significant contributions to the country's struggle for independence.

Important Points

• Kuka movement appeared inevitable that a confrontation would arise between the Kukas and the British Government.
• This clash unfolded in 1871 and reached its peak during the Kuka raid on Malerkotla on January 15, 1872.
• The events of the Kuka outbreak of 1872 resulted in severe reprisals, marked by brutality rarely seen in our history. Many Kuka prisoners were tragically killed by cannons, while their leader, Baba Ram Singh, was exiled to Rangoon.
• In 1920, the Kukas initiated the publication of the newspaper 'Satyug', followed by the launch of the daily 'Kuka' in 1922. When Mahatma Gandhi initiated the Non-Cooperation Movement, the Kukas joined forces in solidarity.

• After the break-up and disintegration of the Brahmo Samaj, the ordinary Brahmo Samaj was founded in 1870 by Anand Mohan Bose, Ravindra Nath Tagore's father Devendra Nath Tagore was actively associated with this society. The ordinary Brahmo Samaj believed that rebirth after death is a natural action.
• Atmaram Pandurang founded the Prarthana Samaj on 31 March 1867. Atmaram Pandurang was also a scholar, historian and philanthropist. He was also the co-founder of the Bombay Natural History Society
• MG Ranade's full name was Mahadev Govind Ranade. He was a philanthropist inspired by the Brahmo Samaj. He is known for the religious reform movement in Maharashtra.
• In 1920, Lala Lajpat Rai founded the All India Trade Union Congress.

The correct answer is Kol Tribe.

Key Points

• The Parghauni dance is a significant folk dance traditionally performed by the Kol tribe, primarily during the occasion of marriage ceremonies.
• The term Parghauni refers to the ritualistic welcome of the Barat (the groom's wedding procession), where the dance serves as a gesture of joy and hospitality.
• The Kol tribe is one of the ancient and prominent tribal communities residing in the Vindhya region, specifically across districts like Rewa, Satna, and Sidhi in Madhya Pradesh.
• This dance is characterized by energetic rhythmic movements accompanied by traditional musical instruments such as the Dholak, Nagada, and Timki.
• The performance is not merely entertainment but a cultural rite that strengthens social bonds and preserves the ancestral heritage of the community.

 Additional Information

• Gond Tribe:
• One of the largest tribal groups in India, predominantly found in the Gondwana region.
• Famous for folk dances like Karma, Saila, and Sua, which often depict nature and harvest.
• Baiga Tribe:
• Recognized as a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) in Central India.
• They are well-known for the Dadariya and Bilma dances, and while they also have wedding rituals, the Parghauni is a distinct nomenclature often highlighted within the Kol community's cultural context.
• Kol Tribe Context:
• Historically mentioned in the Rigveda and Ramayana, the Kol people have a rich oral tradition and are known for their distinct Kol-Dahaka dance.
• They primarily speak the Kolian language or dialects influenced by Hindi and Chhattisgarhi.

Shortcut Trick

Overall average of 12 numbers = 40

Deviation of first 7 numbers from average = 30 − 40 = −10

Total deviation to be balanced = 7 × (−10) = −70

Deviation for remaining 5 numbers = +70

Average of remaining numbers = 40 + (70 ÷ 5) = 40 + 14 = 54

∴ The correct answer is 54.

Alternate Method

Given:

Average of 12 numbers = 40

Average of first 7 numbers = 30

Number of remaining numbers = 12 − 7 = 5

Formula used: Sum = Average × Count

Total: 12 Numbers (Average = 40) First 7 Numbers Average = 30 Remaining 5 Average = ?

Total Sum = 12 × 40 = 480

Calculations:

⇒ Total sum of 12 numbers = 12 × 40 = 480

⇒ Sum of first 7 numbers = 7 × 30 = 210

⇒ Sum of remaining 5 numbers = 480 − 210 = 270

⇒ Average of remaining 5 numbers = 270 ÷ 5 = 54

∴ The correct answer is 54.

Additional Information

Average Formula

Average = (Sum of all observations) ÷ (Total number of observations).

Weighted Average

When two groups with averages A₁ and A₂ and sizes n₁ and n₂ are combined, the combined average = (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂).

Effect of Operations on Average

If every number in a data set is increased or decreased by a constant k, the average of the set also increases or decreases by k.

Shortcut Trick

Side of square = √121 = 11 cm.

Perimeter of square = 4 × 11 = 44 cm.

Circumference of circle = Perimeter = 44 cm.

Memory trick: For a circle, if Circumference = 44 cm, then Radius = 7 cm and Area = 154 sq. cm.

∴ The correct answer is 154 sq. cm.

Alternate Method

Given: Area of square = 121 sq. cm.

Formula: Area of square = side²; Perimeter = 4 × side; Circumference = 2πr; Area of circle = πr².

Square (Area = 121)side = 11 cmr = 7Circle (Circum = 44)Area = 154 sq. cm

⇒ Side of square = √121 = 11 cm

⇒ Perimeter of square = 4 × 11 = 44 cm

⇒ Circumference of circle = 2 × (22/7) × r = 44

⇒ r = (44 × 7) ÷ 44 = 7 cm

⇒ Area of circle = (22/7) × 7 × 7 = 154 sq. cm.

∴ The correct answer is 154 sq. cm.

Additional Information

Circle Formulas

Area = πr² and Circumference = 2πr. When r = 7, Area = 154 and Circumference = 44.

Square Formulas

Area = side² and Perimeter = 4 × side. The diagonal of a square is side√2.

Perimeter-Area Comparison

For a given perimeter, a circle has the maximum area compared to any other polygon like a square or rectangle.

Shortcut Trick

For two entities, if (A+B) takes X days and A takes Y days, then B takes (X × Y) ÷ (Y − X) days.

Here, X = 20 days and Y = 24 days.

Days for B = (20 × 24) ÷ (24 − 20)

Days for B = 480 ÷ 4 = 120 days.

∴ The correct answer is 120 days.

Alternate Method

Given: A and B together take 20 days. A alone takes 24 days.

Formula: Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Days

⇒ Total Work = LCM of 20 and 24 = 120 units.

⇒ Efficiency of (A + B) = 120 ÷ 20 = 6 units/day.

⇒ Efficiency of A = 120 ÷ 24 = 5 units/day.

⇒ Efficiency of B = Efficiency of (A + B) − Efficiency of A = 6 − 5 = 1 unit/day.

⇒ Time taken by B = Total Work ÷ Efficiency of B

⇒ Time taken by B = 120 ÷ 1 = 120 days.

∴ The correct answer is 120 days.

Additional Information

Work and Wages

Wages are distributed in the ratio of the efficiency of the workers when they work for the same amount of time.

Pipes and Cisterns

Similar to time and work, but inlet pipes have positive efficiency and outlet (leak) pipes have negative efficiency.

Alternate Day Work

Calculate the work done in one cycle (e.g., 2 days if A and B work alternately) and then find the total cycles needed.

Shortcut Trick

The net equivalent discount for two successive discounts of x% and y% is given by the formula: [x + y − (x × y) ÷ 100]%

Here, the given discounts are x = 30 and y = 40

⇒ Net Discount = [30 + 40 − (30 × 40) ÷ 100]%

⇒ Net Discount = (70 − 12)% = 58%

∴ The correct answer is 58%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Successive discounts = 30% and 40%

Calculations:

⇒ Let the Marked Price (MP) be 100.

⇒ Price after the first discount of 30% = 100 − (30 ÷ 100 × 100) = 100 − 30 = 70

⇒ Price after the second discount of 40% = 70 − (40 ÷ 100 × 70) = 70 − 28 = 42

⇒ Final Selling Price (SP) = 42

⇒ Total Discount given = MP − SP = 100 − 42 = 58

⇒ Net Discount Percentage = (58 ÷ 100) × 100% = 58%

∴ The correct answer is 58%.

Additional Information

Successive Discount

When two or more discounts are applied one after the other on the Marked Price. For two discounts a% and b%, the combined discount is (a + b − ab ÷ 100)%.

Marked Price (MP) & Selling Price (SP)

Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price (label price). The Selling Price is derived as: SP = MP × (100 − Discount%) ÷ 100.

Multiplier Method for Successive Discounts

To calculate the final SP after multiple successive discounts directly, use: Net SP = MP × (100 − d₁)÷100 × (100 − d₂)÷100 × (100 − d₃)÷100.

Shortcut Trick

Total Ratio parts = 3 + 3 + 7 = 13 units

Total Gain (13 units) = ₹39000

Value of 1 unit = 39000 ÷ 13 = ₹3000

Share of C = 7 units = 7 × 3000 = ₹21000

∴ The correct answer is ₹21000.

Alternate Method

Given: Ratio of profit A : B : C = 3 : 3 : 7. Total gain = ₹39000.

Formula Used: Share of a partner = (Partner ratio ÷ Sum of ratios) × Total profit.

A (3) B (3) C (7) Total Parts = 13

Total Profit = ₹39000

Share C = 7/13 × 39000

⇒ Sum of ratios = 3 + 3 + 7 = 13

⇒ Total gain = ₹39000

⇒ Share of C = (7 ÷ 13) × 39000

⇒ Share of C = 7 × 3000

⇒ Share of C = ₹21000

∴ The correct answer is ₹21000.

Additional Information

Partnership Profit Ratio

Profit is distributed in the ratio of (Investment × Time). If time is same, profit ratio = investment ratio.

Ratio to Value Conversion

To find the value of a part: Value = (Specific Ratio ÷ Sum of all Ratios) × Total Value.

Types of Partners

Active partners manage the business and may receive salary; Sleeping partners only invest capital and share profit.

Shortcut Trick

When two trains of equal length cross the same platform, the total distance (Train + Platform) is constant for both.

If distance is constant, Speed is inversely proportional to the Time taken.

Ratio of Speeds (A  ∶ B) = Inverse Ratio of Times (B  ∶ A) = 20  ∶ 24.

Dividing both by 4, we get the simplified ratio: 5  ∶ 6.

∴ The correct answer is 5 ∶ 6.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by Train A (T_A) = 24 seconds

Time taken by Train B (T_B) = 20 seconds

Length of Train A = Length of Train B = L

Length of the platform = P

Formula Used:

Speed = Distance ÷ Time

Train (L)

Platform (P)

Total Distance (D) = L + P (Same for both Train A and Train B)

Calculations:

⇒ Total distance covered to cross the platform (D) = L + P ⇒ Speed of Train A (S_A) = D ÷ 24 ⇒ Speed of Train B (S_B) = D ÷ 20 ⇒ Ratio of speeds = S_A  ∶ S_B ⇒ S_A  ∶ S_B = (D ÷ 24)  ∶ (D ÷ 20) ⇒ S_A  ∶ S_B = 1/24  ∶ 1/20 ⇒ S_A  ∶ S_B = 20  ∶ 24 ⇒ S_A  ∶ S_B = 5  ∶ 6

∴ The correct answer is 5 ∶ 6.

Additional Information

Train Crossing a Point Object

When a train crosses a pole or a stationary man, the distance covered is exactly equal to the length of the train (D = L).

Relative Speed

If two objects move in the same direction, relative speed = |S₁ − S₂|. If they move in opposite directions, relative speed = S₁ + S₂.

Unit Conversion

To convert speed from km/hr to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18/5.

Shortcut Trick

Initial Ratio M : W = 3 : 2 (Total = 5 units = 60 L ⇒ 1 unit = 12 L)

New Ratio M : W = 1 : 5 (Milk remains constant, so multiply by 3) → 3 : 15

Water increase = 15 − 2 = 13 units

Quantity of water added = 13 units × 12 L/unit = 156 L

∴ The correct answer is 156 L.

Alternate Method

Given: Total Volume = 60 L, Initial Ratio = 3 : 2, Final Ratio = 1 : 5.

Formula: Quantity = [Ratio Part ÷ Total Parts] × Total Volume

Initial (60 L) Milk: 36 L Water: 24 L

• Water (x)

Final Ratio 1 : 5 Milk: 36 L (1 unit) Water: 180 L (5 units) x = 180 − 24 = 156 L

⇒ Initial Milk = (3/5) × 60 = 36 L

⇒ Initial Water = (2/5) × 60 = 24 L

⇒ Let x be the amount of water added.

⇒ New Ratio = Milk / (Water + x) = 1 / 5

⇒ 36 / (24 + x) = 1 / 5

⇒ 36 × 5 = 24 + x

⇒ 180 = 24 + x

⇒ x = 180 − 24 = 156 L

∴ The correct answer is 156 L.

Additional Information

Constant Part Concept

When one component is added or removed from a mixture, the quantity of the other component remains constant. Equating the constant part in both ratios simplifies the calculation.

Alligation Method

For adding pure water to a mixture, the concentration of water in the added part is 100%. Alligation cross-difference helps find the ratio of initial mixture to added water.

Percentage Base Change

Initial % of milk × Initial Volume = Final % of milk × Final Volume. This formula works efficiently when only one component changes.

Shortcut Trick

If Income and Expenditure both increase by the same percentage (x%), then Savings will also increase by the same percentage (x%).

Given increase in Income = 10%

Given increase in Expenditure = 10%

Since both parts of the income equation increase by 10%, the balancing part (Savings) must also change by 10%.

∴ The correct answer is 10% increase.

Alternate Method

Given: Initial Income = 100%, Expenditure = 80%, Income & Spending increase = 10%.

Formula Used: Income = Expenditure + Savings; % Change = (Change ÷ Original) × 100

Initial State Exp: 80 Sav: 20 New State (+10%) Exp: 88 Sav: 22 Savings: 20 → 22 (10% Increase)

⇒ Let Initial Income = 100

⇒ Initial Expenditure = 80% of 100 = 80

⇒ Initial Savings = 100 − 80 = 20

⇒ New Income = 100 + (10% of 100) = 110

⇒ New Expenditure = 80 + (10% of 80) = 88

⇒ New Savings = 110 − 88 = 22

⇒ Increase in Savings = 22 − 20 = 2

⇒ % Change in Savings = (2 ÷ 20) × 100 = 10%

∴ The correct answer is 10% increase.

Additional Information

Income-Expenditure Relationship

The fundamental relation is Income = Expenditure + Savings. Any change in one part must be balanced by others to maintain the equality.

Percentage Change Formula

Percentage Change = [(Final Value − Initial Value) ÷ Initial Value] × 100. This determines the relative growth or decline.

Weighted Average Concept

If income changes by I%, expenditure by E%, and savings by S%, then Income × I% = Expenditure × E% + Savings × S%.

Concept used:

Calculation:

Our equation 29 – [13 + {12 ÷ (8 – 2)}] × 5 ÷ 3

⇒ 29 – [13 + {12 ÷ 6}] × 5 ÷ 3

⇒ 29 – [13 + 2] × 5 ÷ 3

⇒ 29 – 15 × 5 ÷ 3

⇒ 29 – 15 × 5 × 1/3

⇒ 29 – 25 = 4

∴ The correct answer is 4

Shortcut Trick

Net deviation = Correct value − Incorrect value = 46 − 53 = −7

Correction in average = Net deviation ÷ Number of items = −7 ÷ 10 = −0.7

Correct Average = Old Average + Correction = 46 − 0.7 = 45.3

∴ The correct answer is 45.3.

Alternate Method

Given:

Number of observations (n) = 10

Incorrect Average = 46

Incorrect value recorded = 53

Correct value to be recorded = 46

Formula Used:

Average = Sum of observations ÷ Total number of observations

Incorrect Sum (10 × 46) = 460

Wrong: 53 Correct: 46

Difference = −7 Correct Sum = 460 − 7 = 453

⇒ Incorrect Sum = 10 × 46 = 460

⇒ Correct Sum = Incorrect Sum − Incorrect Value + Correct Value

⇒ Correct Sum = 460 − 53 + 46 = 453

⇒ Correct Average = Correct Sum ÷ n

⇒ Correct Average = 453 ÷ 10 = 45.3

∴ The correct answer is 45.3.

Additional Information

Correction of Average

Correct Average = Incorrect Average + [(Sum of Correct values − Sum of Incorrect values) ÷ n].

Change in Observations

If every observation is increased or decreased by a constant 'k', the new average also increases or decreases by 'k'.

Weighted Average

When two groups with averages A₁ and A₂ and sizes n₁ and n₂ are combined, the new average = (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂).

Shortcut Trick

Average of ratio parts (7, 9, 11) = (7 + 9 + 11) ÷ 3 = 9 units.

Given average price = Rs. 14,265.

9 units = Rs. 14,265 ⇒ 1 unit = Rs. 1,585.

Price of the costliest item (11 units) = 11 × 1,585 = Rs. 17,435.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 17,435.

Alternate Method

Given: Average price of 3 items = Rs. 14,265; Ratio of prices = 7 : 9 : 11.

Formula Used: Sum of values = Average × Number of values.

7x 9x 11x Total Ratio Parts = 27x Average (9x) = Rs. 14,265 Costliest Item

⇒ Total Sum of prices = 14,265 × 3 = 42,795

⇒ Let the prices be 7x, 9x, and 11x.

⇒ 7x + 9x + 11x = 42,795

⇒ 27x = 42,795

⇒ x = 42,795 ÷ 27 = 1,585

⇒ Price of costliest item = 11x = 11 × 1,585 = 17,435

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 17,435.

Additional Information

General Average Formula

Average = (Sum of all observations) ÷ (Total number of observations).

Ratio Distribution

To find a specific share in ratio a:b:c, use Share = [Total Sum × specific part] ÷ (a + b + c).

Arithmetic Progression Average

For terms in AP (like our ratio parts 7, 9, 11 with difference 2), the average is always the middle term.

Shortcut Trick

Step 1: Find the LCM of 12, 15, and 20, which is 60.

Step 2: Prime factorisation of 60 is 2² × 3 × 5.

Step 3: To make it a perfect square, multiply by the missing unpaired factors (3 × 5 = 15).

Step 4: The required smallest perfect square is 60 × 15 = 900.

∴ The correct answer is 900.

Alternate Method

Given:

The numbers are 12, 15, and 20.

Concept Used:

The smallest number exactly divisible by a set of numbers is their LCM. A perfect square must have exclusively even powers in its prime factorisation.

Calculations:

⇒ Prime factorisation of 12 = 2² × 3

⇒ Prime factorisation of 15 = 3 × 5

⇒ Prime factorisation of 20 = 2² × 5

⇒ LCM(12, 15, 20) = 2² × 3 × 5 = 60

⇒ In the LCM, the prime factors 3 and 5 have an odd power of 1.

⇒ To convert the LCM into a perfect square, we must multiply it by 3 and 5.

⇒ Required number = 60 × 3 × 5

⇒ Required number = 900

∴ The correct answer is 900.

Additional Information

LCM (Least Common Multiple)

The smallest non-zero common number which is a multiple of all the given numbers. Finding the LCM is the first step in solving simultaneous divisibility problems.

Perfect Squares

A number is considered a perfect square when its prime factorisation consists exclusively of even powers. Example: 36 = 2² × 3².

Divisibility Rules

A number is divisible by 12 if it is divisible by both 3 and 4. Similarly, a number is divisible by 15 if it is divisible by both 3 and 5.

Shortcut Trick

The extra time taken to cross the tunnel compared to the pole is used to cover the tunnel length.

Time difference = 20 s − 5 s = 15 s

Tunnel Length = Speed × Time difference = 90 × 15 = 1350 m.

∴ The correct answer is 1350 m.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed of the train = 90 m/s

Time taken to cross a pole (t₁) = 5 s

Time taken to cross the tunnel (t₂) = 20 s

Formula Used:

Distance = Speed × Time

When crossing a pole, Distance = Length of Train (L_T)

When crossing a tunnel, Distance = Length of Train (L_T) + Length of Tunnel (L_Tunnel)

Train

Pole

Tunnel

t1 = 5s

t2 - t1 = 15s Speed = 90 m/s

Calculations:

⇒ L_T = 90 × 5 = 450 m

⇒ L_T + L_Tunnel = 90 × 20

⇒ 450 + L_Tunnel = 1800

⇒ L_Tunnel = 1800 − 450

⇒ L_Tunnel = 1350 m

∴ The correct answer is 1350 m.

Additional Information

Train Crossing Stationary Objects

When a train crosses a pole or a standing person, it covers a distance equal to its own length. When it crosses a platform or tunnel, it covers Distance = Length of Train + Length of Object.

Unit Conversion

To convert speed from km/hr to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18/5.

Relative Speed

If two trains of lengths L₁ and L₂ cross each other, the total distance covered is always L₁ + L₂. Relative speed is S₁ + S₂ in opposite directions and |S₁ − S₂| in the same direction.

Shortcut Trick

Use the constant ratio formula: SP₁ / (Qty₁ × %Value₁) = SP₂ / (Qty₂ × %Value₂)

Here, %Value = (100 − Loss%) or (100 + Gain%)

60 / (50 × 90) = 20 / (n × 120)

1 / 75 = 1 / 6n

6n = 75 ⇒ n = 12.5

∴ The correct answer is 12.5.

Alternate Method

Given: SP₁ = ₹60, Qty₁ = 50 lemons, Loss = 10%, Target Profit = 20%, Target SP₂ = ₹20.

Formula: CP = SP × 100 / (100 − Loss%) | New SP = CP × (100 + Gain%) / 100

CP (100%) Loss 10% SP1 = 90% CP Gain 20% SP2 = 120% CP Quantity ∝ 1/Price (for same total SP)

⇒ SP of 1 lemon (Case 1) = 60 ÷ 50 = ₹1.2

⇒ CP of 1 lemon = 1.2 × 100 ÷ 90 = 120 ÷ 90 = ₹4/3

⇒ Required SP per lemon for 20% gain = (4/3) × 120 ÷ 100 = 4 × 1.2 ÷ 3 = ₹1.6

⇒ Total lemons to be sold for ₹20 = Total Amount ÷ SP per lemon

⇒ Number of lemons = 20 ÷ 1.6 = 200 ÷ 16 = 12.5

∴ The correct answer is 12.5.

Additional Information

Unitary Method for Quantity

When the total expenditure remains constant, the ratio of quantities is inversely proportional to the ratio of price per unit.

Profit/Loss on Selling Price

CP = (SP × 100) ÷ (100 ± P/L%). If SP and CP are known, Profit% = (SP − CP) ÷ CP × 100.

Successive Percentage for Profit

If an item is sold at a loss and then a profit is desired, the total change factor is (1 ± r₁/100) × (1 ± r₂/100).

Shortcut Trick

Time taken to cover Bridge length only = Total time − Time to cross board

Time for 204 m = 52 s − 18 s = 34 s

Speed of train = 204 ÷ 34 = 6 m/s

Length of train = Speed × Time taken to cross board

Length = 6 × 18 = 108 m

∴ The correct answer is 108 m.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length of bridge = 204 m

Time to cross bridge (t₁) = 52 s

Time to cross board (t₂) = 18 s

Formula Used:

Speed = Distance ÷ Time

Train (L)

Board (Point) Case 1: Crossing Board (18 s)

Train (L) Bridge (204 m) Case 2: Crossing Bridge (52 s)

Let the length of the train be L meters and speed be v m/s.

⇒ When crossing a board (point object): Speed (v) = L ÷ 18

⇒ When crossing a bridge: Speed (v) = (L + 204) ÷ 52

⇒ Since speed is constant: L ÷ 18 = (L + 204) ÷ 52

⇒ 52 × L = 18 × (L + 204)

⇒ 52L = 18L + 3672

⇒ 52L − 18L = 3672

⇒ 34L = 3672

⇒ L = 3672 ÷ 34

⇒ L = 108 m

∴ The correct answer is 108 m.

Additional Information

Crossing Point Objects

When a train crosses a pole, person, or board, the distance covered equals the length of the train (L).

Crossing Stationary Objects with Length

When a train crosses a bridge, platform, or tunnel, the total distance covered = length of train (L) + length of object (B).

Unit Conversion

To convert km/hr to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18/5.

Shortcut Trick

Total ratio parts = 4 + 3 = 7 units.

Given, 7 units = 28 years ⇒ 1 unit = 4 years.

Since we need the ratio after 4 years, and 4 years = 1 unit, simply add 1 unit to each part.

New ratio = (4 + 1) : (3 + 1) = 5 : 4.

∴ The correct answer is 5 : 4.

Alternate Method

Given: Ratio Namrata (N) : Divya (D) = 4 : 3 and Sum of ages = 28.

Formula Used: Age = (Ratio part ÷ Total parts) × Total Sum

Namrata

Present: 16 yrs

+4 yrs Divya

Present: 12 yrs

+4 yrs

Ratio after 4 yrs: 20 : 16 = 5 : 4

⇒ Let current ages be 4x and 3x.

⇒ 4x + 3x = 28

⇒ 7x = 28 ⇒ x = 4

⇒ Namrata age = 4 × 4 = 16 years

⇒ Divya age = 3 × 4 = 12 years

⇒ Age after 4 years: Namrata = 16 + 4 = 20, Divya = 12 + 4 = 16

⇒ New ratio = 20 : 16 = 5 : 4

∴ The correct answer is 5 : 4.

Additional Information

Constant Age Difference

The difference between the ages of two people always remains the same, regardless of how many years pass.

Ratio Scaling

To find actual values from a ratio a : b when the sum S is known, multiply the total sum by a/(a+b) and b/(a+b).

Age Problems with Two Ratios

When two different ratios for two different time periods are given, use the cross-product method to find the multiplier 'x' quickly.

Shortcut Trick

Total capacity of bucket = LCM(4, 5) = 20 units.

Filling efficiency = 20 ÷ 4 = 5 units/min.

Net efficiency (Fill − Hole) = 20 ÷ 5 = 4 units/min.

Hole efficiency = 5 − 4 = 1 unit/min.

Time to empty = 20 ÷ 1 = 20 min.

∴ The correct answer is 20 min.

Alternate Method

Given: Time taken to fill = 4 min, Time taken with hole = 5 min.

Formula Used: Total Work = Efficiency × Time | Efficiency of Hole = Pipe efficiency − Net efficiency.

⇒ Let the total capacity of the bucket be the LCM of 4 and 5.

⇒ Total Capacity = 20 units.

⇒ Efficiency of the filling pipe = 20 ÷ 4 = 5 units/min.

⇒ Combined efficiency of pipe and hole = 20 ÷ 5 = 4 units/min.

⇒ Efficiency of the hole = 5 − 4 = 1 unit/min (Outflow).

⇒ Time required by the hole to empty the full bucket = Total Capacity ÷ Hole Efficiency

⇒ Time = 20 ÷ 1 = 20 min.

∴ The correct answer is 20 min.

Additional Information

Inlet and Outlet Pipes

Inlet pipes add water (positive efficiency) and outlet pipes (leaks/holes) remove water (negative efficiency).

Direct Formula for Leakage

If a pipe fills in X hours and with a leak it takes Y hours, the leak empties the tank in (X × Y) ÷ (Y − X) hours.

Work and Time Relation

Efficiency is inversely proportional to time taken when the total work (tank capacity) remains constant.

Shortcut Trick

Efficiency Ratio of A : B = 100 : 150 = 2 : 3

Since Time is inversely proportional to Efficiency, Time Ratio A : B = 3 : 2

A takes 15 days ⇒ 3 units = 15 days ⇒ 1 unit = 5 days

Time taken by B = 2 units = 2 × 5 = 10 days

∴ The correct answer is 10 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by A = 15 days

B is 50% faster than A.

Formula Used:

Total Work = Days × Efficiency

Calculations:

⇒ Let efficiency of A = 2 units/day

⇒ Efficiency of B = 2 + (50% of 2) = 2 + 1 = 3 units/day

⇒ Total Work = Days of A × Efficiency of A

⇒ Total Work = 15 × 2 = 30 units

⇒ Days taken by B alone = Total Work ÷ Efficiency of B

⇒ Days = 30 ÷ 3 = 10 days

∴ The correct answer is 10 days.

Additional Information

Pipes & Cisterns

This follows the same logic as Time & Work, where inlet pipes have positive efficiency and outlet (leakage) pipes have negative efficiency.

Work & Wages

Total wages are distributed among workers in the ratio of the total work they have individually performed (Efficiency × Time).

Alternate Day Work

When workers work on alternate days, the work is calculated in cycles of 2 or more days based on the number of workers.

Given:

240 ÷ 40 ÷ 2 × 5 + 4 = ?

Concept used:

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below,

Calculations:

240 ÷ 40 ÷ 2 × 5 + 4 = ?

⇒ 6 ÷ 2 × 5 + 4 = ?

⇒ 3 × 5  + 4 = ?

⇒ 15 + 4 = ?

⇒ 19 = ?

∴ The value of ? is 19.

Shortcut Trick

Rate % = [(n − 1) × 100] ÷ Time

Given: n = 2 (sum doubles) and Time = 10 years

Rate % = [(2 − 1) × 100] ÷ 10 = 10%

In decimal form: 10 ÷ 100 = 0.1

∴ The correct answer is 0.1.

Alternate Method

Given: Time (T) = 10 years, Amount (A) = 2 × Principal (P)

Formula Used: SI = (P × R × T) ÷ 100; where R is rate per year

Principal (P) Amount (2P)

SI = 2P − P = P Time = 10 Years Simple Interest Growth

⇒ SI = A − P

⇒ SI = 2P − P = P

⇒ P = (P × R × 10) ÷ 100

⇒ 1 = (R × 10) ÷ 100

⇒ 1 = R ÷ 10

⇒ R = 10%

⇒ Decimal representation = 10 ÷ 100 = 0.1

∴ The correct answer is 0.1.

Additional Information

SI Multiplier Rule

If a sum becomes n times at simple interest in T years, the rate R is given by R = [(n − 1) ÷ T] × 100.

Finding Time (T)

Similarly, if the rate R is given, the time taken to become n times is T = [(n − 1) ÷ R] × 100.

SI vs CI Difference

For the first year, SI and CI on the same principal and rate are equal. The difference for 2 years is P(R ÷ 100)².

Shortcut Trick

Loss 20% → Selling Price (SP₁) is 80% of Cost Price (CP).

₹612 represents 80%.

New SP (₹918) represents (80 ÷ 612) × 918.

⇒ (80 ÷ 2) × 3 = 120%.

Profit = 120% − 100% = 20% or 0.2.

∴ The correct answer is 0.2.

Alternate Method

Given: SP₁ = ₹612, Loss = 20%, SP₂ = ₹918

Formula: CP = SP × 100 ÷ (100 − Loss%)

SP1: ₹612

CP: ₹765

SP2: ₹918

20% Loss

Profit %?

⇒ CP = 612 × 100 ÷ (100 − 20)

⇒ CP = 612 × 100 ÷ 80 = 612 × 1.25 = ₹765

⇒ Profit = SP₂ − CP = 918 − 765 = ₹153

⇒ Profit % = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100 = (153 ÷ 765) × 100

⇒ Profit % = 1/5 × 100 = 20%

⇒ In decimal form, 20% = 0.2

∴ The correct answer is 0.2.

Additional Information

Profit and Loss Formulas

Profit % = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100 and Loss % = (Loss ÷ CP) × 100. Profit or Loss is always calculated on the Cost Price unless specified.

Decimal Representation of Percentages

To convert percentage to decimal, divide by 100 (e.g., 20% = 20/100 = 0.2). To convert decimal to percentage, multiply by 100.

Marked Price and Discount

SP = MP − Discount. Discount % = (Discount ÷ MP) × 100. Marked Price is the price listed on the product.

Shortcut Trick

Sum of Length and Breadth = Semi-perimeter = 90 ÷ 2 = 45 m.

Ratio sum (5 + 4) = 9 units.

9 units = 45 m → 1 unit = 5 m.

Breadth = 4 units = 4 × 5 = 20 m.

∴ The correct answer is 20 m.

Alternate Method

Given:

Ratio of Length (L) to Breadth (B) = 5 : 4

Perimeter of the rectangular field = 90 m

Formula Used:

Perimeter of a rectangle = 2 × (Length + Breadth)

Length (L) = 5x Breadth (B) = 4x Perimeter = 90 m Breadth = 4 × 5 = 20 m

Calculations:

⇒ Let Length = 5x and Breadth = 4x

⇒ 2 × (5x + 4x) = 90

⇒ 2 × 9x = 90

⇒ 18x = 90

⇒ x = 90 ÷ 18 = 5

⇒ Breadth = 4x = 4 × 5 = 20 m

∴ The correct answer is 20 m.

Additional Information

Area of Rectangle

The total space occupied by the rectangle is calculated as Area = Length × Breadth.

Diagonal of Rectangle

The distance between opposite corners is given by the Pythagorean theorem: Diagonal = √(Length² + Breadth²).

Perimeter of a Square

If the length and breadth are equal (side a), the perimeter is given by P = 4 × a.

Shortcut Trick

Assumed average of 30 girls = 13 years.

Deviation for 18 girls = (15 − 13) = +2 years each.

Total surplus age = 18 × 2 = +36 years.

This surplus must be balanced by the remaining 12 girls: −36 ÷ 12 = −3 years per girl.

Average age of 12 girls = 13 − 3 = 10 years.

∴ The correct answer is 10 years.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total girls (n_total) = 30, Total Average (A_total) = 13

Group 1 (n₁) = 18, Average 1 (A₁) = 15

Remaining (n₂) = 30 − 18 = 12

Formula Used: Total Sum = Number of girls × Average age

18 Girls (15 yrs) 12 Girls (?)

Total: 30 Girls (Avg = 13 yrs) Sum = 30 × 13 = 390 years

⇒ Total age of 30 girls = 30 × 13 = 390 years

⇒ Total age of 18 girls = 18 × 15 = 270 years

⇒ Total age of remaining 12 girls = 390 − 270 = 120 years

⇒ Average age of remaining 12 girls = 120 ÷ 12 = 10 years

∴ The correct answer is 10 years.

Additional Information

Weighted Average Formula

When a group is divided into two parts, the combined average is given by A = (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂).

Net Deviation Rule

The sum of deviations of all observations from their arithmetic mean is always zero. This is used for faster balancing in grouping problems.

Effect of Change in Values

If each observation is increased, decreased, multiplied, or divided by a constant 'k', the average also changes by the same operation 'k'.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of A : B = 80 : 100 = 4 : 5

B as a percentage of A = (B / A) × 100

Required percentage = (5 / 4) × 100 = 125%

∴ The correct answer is 125%.

Alternate Method

Given:

A’s salary = 80% of B’s salary

Formula Used:

Percentage = (Value / Base Value) × 100

B's Salary (100 units)

A's Salary (80 units)

B/A × 100 = (100/80) × 100 = 125%

Calculations:

⇒ Let B’s salary = ₹100

⇒ A’s salary = 80% of 100 = ₹80

⇒ Required Percentage = (B’s Salary / A’s Salary) × 100

⇒ Required Percentage = (100 / 80) × 100

⇒ Required Percentage = (5 / 4) × 100

⇒ Required Percentage = 125%

∴ The correct answer is 125%.

Additional Information

Percentage to Fraction Conversion

To convert a percentage to a fraction, divide by 100. Example: 80% = 80/100 = 4/5. 125% = 125/100 = 5/4.

Reciprocal Percentages

If A is x% of B, then B is (100 × 100 / x)% of A. Here, 10000 / 80 = 125%.

Percentage Change

Percentage Increase/Decrease = (Difference / Original Value) × 100. Useful when comparing salary hikes or reductions.

Shortcut Trick Profit = 20% = 1/5 (Ratio of Profit to CP) Ratio of CP : SP = 5 : (5 + 1) = 5 : 6 6 units = ₹540 1 unit = 540 ÷ 6 = 90 5 units = 5 × 90 = 450 ∴ The correct answer is ₹450. Alternate Method Given: Selling Price (SP) = ₹540, Profit Percentage = 20% Formula: CP = [SP ÷ (100 + Profit%)] × 100

Cost Price (100%) +20%

Sale Price = ₹540 (120%)

Base CP Value

⇒ CP = [540 ÷ (100 + 20)] × 100 ⇒ CP = [540 ÷ 120] × 100 ⇒ CP = 4.5 × 100 ⇒ CP = ₹450 ∴ The correct answer is ₹450. Additional Information Profit and Loss Basics Profit occurs when SP > CP. Profit = SP − CP. Profit% is always calculated on the CP: (Profit ÷ CP) × 100. Loss Percentage Formula When SP < CP, Loss = CP − SP. Loss% = (Loss ÷ CP) × 100. Similarly, CP = [SP ÷ (100 − Loss%)] × 100. Successive Discounts If two discounts d1 and d2 are given, the effective discount = d1 + d2 − (d1 × d2) ÷ 100.