DDA MTS (17 December 2025): Memory Based Test (Previous Year Paper)

Shortcut Trick

Discount = Marked Price − Selling Price = 352 − 326 = 26.

Discount Percentage = (Discount ÷ Marked Price) × 100.

Discount % = (26 ÷ 352) × 100 = 2600 ÷ 352.

On simplifying, 2600 ÷ 352 ≈ 7.386%.

Rounding to one decimal place, we get 7.4%.

∴ The correct answer is 7.4%.

Alternate Method

Given → Marked Price (MP) = Rs. 352, Selling Price (SP) = Rs. 326. Formulas: Discount = MP − SP | Discount% = (Discount ÷ MP) × 100

⇒ Discount = 352 − 326 = Rs. 26 ⇒ Discount% = (26 ÷ 352) × 100 ⇒ Discount% = 1300 ÷ 176 = 325 ÷ 44 ⇒ Discount% = 7.38636...% ⇒ Discount% ≈ 7.4% (up to one decimal place)

∴ The correct answer is 7.4%.

Additional Information

Marked Price & Discount

The Marked Price is the price printed on the label. Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price unless stated otherwise.

Successive Discount

If two discounts of a% and b% are given, the net discount is calculated as (a + b − ab ÷ 100)%.

Given:

Patels' monthly income first gets increased by 20% in the month of August followed by 10% increase in the month of September. 

Formula used:

There are two successive increase in the income.

Overall increase = a + b + (\frac{ab}{100})

Calculation:

According to the question,

a = 20, b = 10

Now, substitute the respective values of the variable in the respective formula.

⇒ Overall increase = a + b + (\frac{ab}{100})

⇒ Overall increase = 20 + 10 + (\frac{20 \times 10}{100}) = 32%

Therefore, "32%" is the required answer.

Shortcut Trick Use the multiplier method where SP = CP × (100 + P%) ÷ 100. SP = 1525 × (112 ÷ 100) = 1525 × 1.12. Calculation: 1525 × 1.12 = 1708. ∴ The correct answer is Rs. 1,708.

Alternate Method Given: Cost Price (CP) = Rs. 1,525, Profit Percentage = 12%. Formulas: Profit = (Profit% ÷ 100) × CP | SP = CP + Profit.

⇒ Profit = (12 ÷ 100) × 1525 ⇒ Profit = 0.12 × 1525 = 183 ⇒ SP = CP + Profit = 1525 + 183 ⇒ SP = 1708 ∴ The correct answer is Rs. 1,708.

Additional Information Cost Price & Selling Price The Cost Price (CP) is the price at which an item is purchased, and the Selling Price (SP) is the price at which it is sold. Profit occurs when SP > CP. Profit Percentage Profit % is always calculated on the Cost Price unless stated otherwise. Formula: Profit% = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100.

Shortcut Trick

Total share = ₹ 800 for 3 days of work by all together.

C's daily share = 800 ÷ 24 = ₹ 100/3. For 3 days = ₹ 100.

B's daily share = 800 ÷ 8 = ₹ 100. For 3 days = ₹ 300.

A's share = Total share − (B's share + C's share) = 800 − (300 + 100) = ₹ 400.

∴ The correct answer is ₹ 400.

Alternate Method

Given: Total amount = ₹ 800, C = 24 days, B = 8 days, A+B+C = 3 days.

Formula: Total Work = LCM of individual days; Wage share ∝ Efficiency.

⇒ Efficiency of A = (Efficiency of A + B + C) − (Efficiency of B + Efficiency of C)

⇒ Efficiency of A = 8 − (3 + 1) = 4 units/day

⇒ Ratio of efficiencies (C : B : A) = 1 : 3 : 4

⇒ Total efficiency parts = 1 + 3 + 4 = 8 units

⇒ A's share = (A's efficiency ÷ Total efficiency) × Total Amount

⇒ A's share = (4 ÷ 8) × 800 = 1/2 × 800 = ₹ 400

∴ The correct answer is ₹ 400.

Additional Information

Work and Wages Principle

Wages are distributed in direct proportion to the work done by each person. If they work for the same duration, wages are proportional to their efficiencies.

Efficiency Formula

Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time Taken. Higher the efficiency, more the share of the total payment.

Combined Work Formula

For three people working together, 1/T_total = 1/T_A + 1/T_B + 1/T_C.

Shortcut Trick

The relationship between Volume (V), Radius (r), and Curved Surface Area (CSA) of a cylinder is: CSA = 2V ÷ r.

⇒ CSA = (2 × 1792π) ÷ 16

⇒ CSA = 3584π ÷ 16

⇒ CSA = 224π cm²

∴ The correct answer is 224π cm².

Alternate Method

Given:

Volume (V) = 1792π cm³

Radius (r) = 16 cm

Formula Used:

Volume of Cylinder = πr²h

Curved Surface Area (CSA) = 2πrh

Step 1: Find the height (h)

⇒ 1792π = π × (16)² × h

⇒ 1792 = 256 × h

⇒ h = 1792 ÷ 256

⇒ h = 7 cm

Step 2: Find the Curved Surface Area (CSA)

⇒ CSA = 2 × π × r × h

⇒ CSA = 2 × π × 16 × 7

⇒ CSA = 32 × 7 × π

⇒ CSA = 224π cm²

∴ The correct answer is 224π cm².

Additional Information

Total Surface Area (TSA) of Cylinder

The Total Surface Area includes the curved area and the area of the two circular bases: TSA = 2πrh + 2πr² = 2πr(h + r).

Volume of a Cylinder

The Volume represents the space occupied: Volume = Area of Base × Height = πr²h.

Base Area and Perimeter

The Area of the base is πr² and the Circumference (perimeter of the base) is 2πr.

Given:

Principal amount = ₹40,000

Rate of interest = 20%

Time = 2 years

Concept used:

Compound interest, CI = P(1 + R/100)ⁿ - P

where

P = Principal amount

R = Rate of interest per year

N = Time in years

Calculation:

According to the concept,

The incurred compound interest

⇒ 40000(1 + 20/100)² - 40000

⇒ 57600 - 40000

⇒ ₹17,600

∴ The compound interest that Kiran will receive after 2 years is ₹17,600.

Shortcut Trick Relative Speed (Opposite Direction) = Sum of Speeds = 36 + 54 = 90 km/hr. Convert Speed to m/s = 90 × (5/18) = 25 m/s. Meeting Time = Total Distance ÷ Relative Speed = 250 ÷ 25 = 10 seconds. ∴ The correct answer is 10 seconds. Alternate Method Given: Distance between Vinay and Mahesh = 250 m Speed of Vinay (S1) = 36 km/hr Speed of Mahesh (S2) = 54 km/hr Formula Used: Relative Speed (Opposite Direction) = S1 + S2 Time = Distance ÷ Relative Speed

Calculations: ⇒ Total Speed in km/hr = 36 + 54 = 90 km/hr ⇒ Conversion to m/s: Speed × (5/18) ⇒ Relative Speed (Srel) = 90 × (5/18) = 5 × 5 = 25 m/s ⇒ Time (T) = Distance (D) ÷ Srel ⇒ T = 250 ÷ 25 ⇒ T = 10 seconds ∴ The correct answer is 10 seconds. Additional Information Relative Speed Cases When moving in opposite directions, relative speed = S1 + S2. When moving in the same direction, relative speed = S1 − S2 (where S1 > S2). Unit Conversion To convert km/hr to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18/5. Meeting Time Formula Time = Distance ÷ Relative Speed. This is applicable whether objects move towards each other or one chases another.

Shortcut Trick

Interest for 1 year = 15% of ₹ 4,800 = ₹ 720

Total Interest given = ₹ 2,160

Value of n = Total Interest ÷ Yearly Interest

n = 2,160 ÷ 720 = 3 years

∴ The correct answer is 3 years.

Alternate Method

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹ 4,800

Rate (R) = 15% per annum

Simple Interest (SI) = ₹ 2,160

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × n) ÷ 100

Calculations:

⇒ 2,160 = (4,800 × 15 × n) ÷ 100

⇒ 2,160 = 48 × 15 × n

⇒ 2,160 = 720 × n

⇒ n = 2,160 ÷ 720

⇒ n = 3

∴ The correct answer is 3 years.

Additional Information

Total Amount Formula

The total amount (A) at the end of the period is the sum of the Principal and the Interest: A = P + SI.

Effective Rate of Interest

In Simple Interest, the interest remains constant every year because it is always calculated on the original Principal.

Difference between SI and CI

For the first year, Simple Interest and Compound Interest (compounded annually) are always equal on the same principal and rate.

Given:

<br>

(43 × 9 × 43 × 9) ÷ ((2(\sqrt{81\div 2})^2)) 

Concept used:

Calculation:

<br>

⇒ (43 × 9 × 43 × 9) ÷ ((2(\sqrt{81\div 2})^2))

⇒ (43 × 9 × 43 × 9) ÷ (2 × 81/2)

⇒ (43 × 9 × 43 × 9) ÷ (81)

⇒ 43 × 43

⇒ 1849

∴ Option 3 is the correct answer.

Given:

A cube of side 3 cm is formed by melting the cuboid of a length of 9 cm, breadth of 6 cm, and height of 6 cm

Formula Used:

Volume of cube = (a^3)

Volume of cuboid = (l\times b\times h)

Calculation:

Volume of cuboid = (l\times b\times h=9\times6\times6=324cm^3)

Volume of Cube = (a^3=3\times3\times3=27cm^3)

Cuboid is melted to form Cube, then

⇒ n x Volume of cube = Volume of cuboid

⇒ n x 27 = 324

⇒ n = 12

⇒ Hence, The cube of side 3cm can be formed by melting cuboid is 12.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Father to Son = 7 : 4

Product of ratios = 7 × 4 = 28 units²

28 units² = 6300 ⇒ 1 unit² = 6300 ÷ 28 = 225

1 unit = √225 = 15

Age of Son = 4 units = 4 × 15 = 60 years

∴ The correct answer is 60 years.

Alternate Method

Given: Ratio of ages = 7 : 4, Product = 6300

Let the age of the Father be 7x and the age of the Son be 4x.

⇒ 7x × 4x = 6300

⇒ 28x² = 6300

⇒ x² = 6300 ÷ 28

⇒ x² = 225

⇒ x = √225 = 15

⇒ Age of Son = 4x = 4 × 15 = 60 years

∴ The correct answer is 60 years.

Additional Information

Ratio and Multiplier

When the product of two quantities in ratio a : b is given as P, the common multiplier x is calculated as x = √(P ÷ (a × b)).

Ratio and Sum

If the sum of ages is S and ratio is a : b, then common multiplier x = S ÷ (a + b).

Ratio and Difference

If the difference of ages is D and ratio is a : b, then common multiplier x = D ÷ (a − b).

Given:

Number of players (n) = 11

The average weight of the players before coach joined (A) = 97 kg

Increase in average weight (ΔA) = 1 kg

Concept:

We can use the concept of averages to find the weight of the coach.

Formula used:

(Average = \frac{\text{ Sum of Observations}}{\text{Total Numbers of Observations}})

Calculation:

Total weight before coach joins = Average weight before × Number of players

⇒ 97 kg × 11 = 1067 kg

Total weight of the team after coach joins = (Average weight of the team after coach joins) × (Number of players + 1)

⇒ (97+1)×(11+1)

⇒ 98 × 12 = 1176 kg

Now, 

Weight of the coach = Total weight after - Total weight before

= 1176 - 1067 = 109 kg

∴ The weight of the coach is 109 kg.

Shortcut Trick

Convert the investment ratio to integers by multiplying with the LCM of denominators (2, 3, 4) = 12.

Ratio = 6 : 4 : 3. Total parts = 6 + 4 + 3 = 13 units.

Unitary method: 13 units = Rs. 15600 ⇒ 1 unit = Rs. 1200.

Largest share (6 units) = 6 × 1200 = Rs. 7200.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 7200.

Alternate Method

Given: Investment ratio = 1/2 : 1/3 : 1/4 and Total Profit = Rs. 15600.

Formulas: Profit Share ∝ Investment × Time | Total Profit = Sum of individual shares.

⇒ Ratio of profit = (1/2 × 12) : (1/3 × 12) : (1/4 × 12) = 6 : 4 : 3.

⇒ Let the shares be 6x, 4x, and 3x. Sum = 13x.

⇒ 13x = 15600 ⇒ x = 15600 ÷ 13 = 1200.

⇒ Largest share = 6x = 6 × 1200 = 7200.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 7200.

Additional Information

Partnership Principles

When the time period of investment is the same for all partners, the profit is distributed directly in the ratio of their capital investments.

Ratio Simplification

To simplify a fractional ratio, multiply each term by the Least Common Multiple (LCM) of all the denominators to maintain the proportion in whole numbers.

Given:

Total votes = 1200,

Independent candidate votes = 28% of total

Concept:

Rest of the votes were equally divided among the three candidates

Calculation:

Calculate the votes polled by the independent candidate.

⇒ Votes by independent candidate = 28% of total votes = 28/100 × 1200 votes = 336 votes

Calculate the votes left for the national parties.

⇒ Votes left for national parties = Total votes - Votes by independent candidate

⇒ 1200 votes - 336 votes = 864 votes

As the votes were equally divided among the candidates of three national parties,

Calculate the votes each national party candidate got.

⇒ Votes per national party candidate = Votes left for national parties ÷ 3

⇒ 864 votes ÷ 3 = 288 votes

Hence, each candidate of the national party got 288 votes.

Shortcut Trick

Identify the numbers: The first number is 3.

The next two prime numbers after 3 are 5 and 7.

Since 3, 5, and 7 are co-prime, the smallest whole number divisible by them is their product.

Required Number = 3 × 5 × 7 = 105.

∴ The correct answer is 105.

Alternate Method

Given:

First divisor = 3

Next two prime numbers after 3 are 5 and 7.

Formula Used:

The smallest number divisible by a set of numbers is their Least Common Multiple (LCM).

Calculations:

⇒ Divisors = 3, 5, 7

⇒ Since all these numbers are prime numbers, they have no common factors other than 1.

⇒ LCM(3, 5, 7) = 3 × 5 × 7

⇒ LCM = 15 × 7

⇒ LCM = 105

∴ The correct answer is 105.

Additional Information

Prime Numbers

Numbers greater than 1 that have only two factors: 1 and themselves. Examples: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13...

LCM of Prime Numbers

The LCM of any set of prime numbers is always equal to their product.

Divisibility Rule of 3

A number is divisible by 3 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 3.

Given:

Perimeter of the rectangle = 21000 m

Length : Breadth = 7 : 3

Formula used:

Perimeter of a rectangle = 2 × (l + b)

Calculations:

Let the numbers be 7x and 3x

According to the question,

2 × (l + b) = 21000 m

⇒ 2 × (7x + 3x) = 21000 m

⇒ 2 × (10x) = 21000 m

⇒ 20x = 21000 m

⇒ x = 21000/20

⇒ x = 1050 m

⇒ Length = 7 × 1050 = 7350 m

⇒ Breadth = 3 × 1050 = 3150 m 

Now the difference in length and breadth,

⇒ L - B = 7350 - 3150 = 4200 m.

∴ The difference in length and breadth is 4200 m.

Given:

Time taken by A = 40 days

Time taken by B = 60 days

Calculation:

Let the total work be = 1 

One day work done by A  = 1/40 

One day work done by B = 1/60 

One day work done by both A and B = 1/40 + 1/60 

Remaining work done by A in 10 days = 10 × 1/40 = 1/4

⇒ Part of the work done by A and B together = 1 - 1/4 = 3/4

Efficiency × No of days = Total work 

(1/40 + 1/60) × No of days = 3/4 

⇒ No of days = 3/4 ÷ (1/40 + 1/60) 

⇒ No of days = 3/4 ÷ 5/120 

⇒ 3/4 × 120/5 

⇒ 18 

∴ The no of days B worked for is 18. 

Alternate MethodBy LCM Method

Total work = No of days × Efficiency 

Let the total work be the common multiple of 40 and 60, that is 120. 

Part of the work completed by A in 10 days = 3 × 10 = 30 

Part of the work completed by A and B together = 120 - 30 = 90

∴ No of days taken by A and B = 90/(3 + 2) = 90/5 

⇒ 18

Given:

-261 + (-380) – (-521) + 821 – (-121)

Calculation:

⇒  -261 – 380 + 521 + 821 + 121

⇒ 1463 - 641 = 822

Shortcut Trick

Product of numbers = HCF × LCM

Other number = (24 × 456) ÷ 96

Other number = 456 ÷ 4 = 114

∴ The correct answer is 114.

Alternate Method

Given:

HCF = 24

LCM = 456

First Number (a) = 96

Formula Used:

First Number (a) × Second Number (b) = HCF × LCM

Calculations:

⇒ 96 × b = 24 × 456

⇒ b = (24 × 456) ÷ 96

⇒ b = 10944 ÷ 96

⇒ b = 114

∴ The correct answer is 114.

Additional Information

Fundamental Property of HCF and LCM

For any two positive integers a and b, HCF(a, b) × LCM(a, b) = a × b.

HCF of Fractions

HCF = HCF of Numerators ÷ LCM of Denominators.

LCM of Fractions

LCM = LCM of Numerators ÷ HCF of Denominators.

Given:

Number = 350

Increase = 20%

Decrease = 25%

Formula:

Percentage increase/decrease = (Increased or decreased value/original value) × 100

Solution:

First, we increase the number by 20%.

350 × (120/100) = 420

Then, we decrease the new number by 25%.

420 × (75/100) = 315

Therefore, the new number is 315.

Given:

The average weight of A, B, C, and D = 56 kg

The average weight of A, B, and C = 52 kg

The average weight of C and D = 48 kg

Formula used:

Average weight = Total weight/No of persons 

Calculation:

Total weight of A, B, C, & D = 56 kg × 4 = 224 kg     (1)

Total weight of A, B, & C = 52 kg × 3 = 156 kg         (2)

Total weight of C and D = 48 kg × 2 = 96 kg             (3)

By (2) + (3) - (1) 

⇒ (A + B + C) + (C + D) - (A + B + C + D) = 156 kg + 96 kg - 224 kg

⇒ A + B + 2C + D - A - B - C - D = 28 kg 

⇒ C = 28 kg 

∴ The weight of C is 28 kg.

Given:

Average age of boys = 16 years

Average age of girls = 13 years

Ratio of the number of boys and girls = 2 : 3.

Concept used:

Total = Average × Number of entities

Calculation:

Let, there be 2k and 3k boys and girls respectively.

Total age of all boys = 16 × 2k = 32k years

Total age of all girls = 13 × 3k = 39k years

Now, the average age of all participants 

⇒ (39 + 32)k ÷ (2k + 3k)

⇒ 14.2 years

∴ The average age of all participants is 14.2 years.

Shortcut Trick

Total work equating: (5m + 6w) × 6 = (3m + 5w) × 9

⇒ 30m + 36w = 27m + 45w ⇒ 3m = 9w ⇒ 1m = 3w

Total Work in terms of women = (5 × 3 + 6) × 6 = 21 × 6 = 126 units

Required Efficiency (3m + 2w) = (3 × 3 + 2) = 11 units

Days = 126 ÷ 11 = 11 5/11 days

∴ The correct answer is 11 5/11 days.

Alternate Method

Given: 5 men (M) and 6 women (W) finish in 6 days; 3 M and 5 W finish in 9 days.

Formula Used: Total Work = Efficiency × Time

⇒ 5M + 6W = 3 --- (i)

⇒ 3M + 5W = 2 --- (ii)

⇒ Multiplying (i) by 3 and (ii) by 5:

⇒ 15M + 18W = 9

⇒ 15M + 25W = 10

⇒ Subtracting: 7W = 1 ⇒ W = 1/7

⇒ 3M + 5(1/7) = 2 ⇒ 3M = 2 − 5/7 ⇒ 3M = 9/7 ⇒ M = 3/7

⇒ Total Work = (5 × 3/7 + 6 × 1/7) × 6 = (21/7) × 6 = 3 × 6 = 18 units

⇒ Efficiency of (3M + 2W) = 3(3/7) + 2(1/7) = 11/7

⇒ Required Days = 18 ÷ (11/7) = 126/11 = 11 5/11 days

∴ The correct answer is 11 5/11 days.

Additional Information

Work Equating Principle

M₁D₁H₁/W₁ = M₂D₂H₂/W₂. This rule is used to compare the work done by different groups of people.

Efficiency Ratio

Efficiency is inversely proportional to time taken. If the ratio of time is a:b, the ratio of efficiency is b:a.

Combined Work

When multiple types of workers (men, women, children) work together, their individual efficiencies are added to calculate the total group efficiency.

P = Rs. 7,400, r = 8% and t = 5 years.

As we know,

SI = (Prt/100)

⇒ SI = (7400 × 8 × 5)/100

⇒ SI = Rs. 2960

Total amount = 7400 + 2960 = Rs. 10360

∴ Remaining amount after investing in stock market = 10360/2 = Rs. 5180

Shortcut Trick

Total Cost Price (CP) = 650 + 50 = ₹700

To earn 20% Profit, the Selling Price (SP) must be 120% of the CP.

SP = 700 × 1.2 = 840

∴ The correct answer is ₹840.

Alternate Method

Given:

Purchase price of television set = ₹650

Overhead expenses (Transportation) = ₹50

Required Profit = 20%

Formula Used:

Total Cost Price (CP) = Purchase Price + Overhead Expenses

Selling Price (SP) = CP × (100 + Profit%)/100

Calculations:

⇒ Total Cost Price = 650 + 50 = ₹700

⇒ Profit amount = 20% of 700 = (20/100) × 700 = ₹140

⇒ Selling Price = Total Cost Price + Profit amount

⇒ Selling Price = 700 + 140 = ₹840

∴ The correct answer is ₹840.

Additional Information

Overhead Charges

Any extra expenditure incurred on transportation, repairs, or labor after buying an article is added to the Original Cost Price to find the Total Cost Price.

Profit and Loss Percentage

Profit % = (Profit / CP) × 100 and Loss % = (Loss / CP) × 100. Both are always calculated on the Cost Price (CP).

Marked Price and Discount

Selling Price (SP) = Marked Price − Discount. Discounts are always calculated on the Marked Price (MP).

Given:

Number of floors: 6 (The lowermost floor of the building is numbered 1 so on till the topmost floor is numbered 6.)

Number of friends:6

Name of friends: Amit, Ben, Ram, Mukul, Manjot and Ajay

Explanation:

1) Ajay lives on floor number 3.

2) Manjot lives at an odd numbered floor above Ajay.

3) Amit lives above ben who doesn't live at the bottom. 

4) Ram lives below Ajay and Ben.

5. Ram does not live on a prime numbered floor. 

6) Mukul lives above Ram and below Ben - As in case -(1) and (2) there is possible possible position for Mukul, therefore these cases are eliminated. 

So, according to the final arrangement Mukul lives on the second floor.

Hence, "Second floor" is the correct answer.

Let us first decode the given symbols and then draw a family tree.

 

‘D % O # U & B @ L & E’ means D is wife of O, O is son of U, U is husband of B, B is daughter of L, L is husband of E.

Now draw family tree using following notations:

 

Hence, there are three female members in the family.

Explanation :

‘NATIVE’ is written as ‘IEVNTA’

‘PALACE’ is written as ‘AECPLA’.

‘RELATE’ is written as 'AETRLE'

Hence, Option 1) is the correct answer.

Hence, SQN is the final term.

(1) Q sits second to the right of L. 

(2) Three people sit between O and P.

(3) P is neither adjacent to Q nor L.

(4) K and J are immediate neighbors.

(5) K sits opposite M who is not an immediate neighbor of L.

Thus, the final arrangement is as follows:

Hence, Q sits opposite J.

The pattern followed here is:

5 × 2 + 3 =13

13 × 2 + 3 = 29

29 × 2 + 3 = 61

61 × 2 + 3 = 125

125 × 2 + 3 = 253

 Hence, the next term in the series is 253.

According to the given information, we get the following figure,

Shortest distance between P and Q = √ (15² + 20²) = √ (225+400) = √625 = 25

Hence, ‘25m’ is the correct answer.

7 people - A, D, G, J, M, P and R

1. Neither R nor A is sitting at any of the extreme ends.

2. R is sitting fourth to the right of M who is an immediate neighbour of A.

3. Three people are sitting between G and P.

4. G is sitting second to the left of D.

Thus, case II gets eliminated and we have the final arrangement as follows:

So, J is sitting exactly in the middle of a row.

Hence, J is the correct answer.

Answer: Option 2 is correct.

Solution: Rainwater harvesting is helpful in increasing the underground water level. It collects the rainwater and sends it underground so that the water is stored during all seasons. From the statement, we can conclude that if construction is done before the monsoons arrive, it will help in collecting water whenever it rains. Conclusion I doesn't follow since it states that only during summer construction should be done. This conclusion cannot be accepted since at any season construction can be done, but while it’s raining the construction process will be difficult to complete. And from conclusion II we can understand that this rainwater harvesting method is a good method which will benefit everybody. Hence conclusion II alone follows.

The mirror image of the given figure is shown below:

Hence, the figure in option 4 is the correct answer.

Hawa Mahal, Jantar Mantar, Amber fort are famous places of Jaipur, Rajasthan.

Whereas, 'Qutub Minar is a famous place in Delhi.

Hence, 'Qutub Minar is the odd one.

Confusion Points

• The monument was completed in 1734. It features the world's largest stone sundial, and is a UNESCO World Heritage site in Jaipur.Situated in the heart of the city of Jaipur, Jantar Mantar is considered as the one of the oldest astronomical observatories in the world.
• Jantar Mantar is a huge observatory in Jaipur. It was completed in 1724 by Maharaja Jai Singh II of Jaipur, who was fascinated by the movement of celestial bodies. The Maharaja designed four similar observatories in Jaipur, Ujjain, Mathura and Varanasi to help and improve upon the studies of space and time.

The position of the letters according to the English alphabet series:

The logic followed here is:

Adding all the positional values according to the English alphabetical series and then multiplying them with the numbers of letters given.

• STOOL → 19 + 20 + 15 +15 +12 = 81. The number of letters is 5.

                           Therefore, 81 x 5 = 405

• SKY → 19 + 11 + 25 = 55. The number of letters is 3.

                        Therefore, 55 x 3 = 165

• TABLE → 20 + 1 + 2 + 12 + 5 = 40. The number of letters is 5.

                            Therefore, 40 x 5 = 200.

Hence, the correct answer is 200.

1) R is 3rd to the left of Q and T is 4th to the right of Q.

2. A and B are not immediate neighbors of Q, but B is 3rd to the right of A.

3) X is not an immediate neighbor of Q. V is 2nd to the right of S. 

Hence, X is sitting between the A and V.

Use of the word "Who" / "AND". 

Suppose for an example 

1. In a circular seating arrangement facing the center, P is fourth to the left of Q, (WHILE / AND / BUT) 2nd to the left of R.

Here, P is 4th to the left of Q and P is 2nd to the left of R.

Given equation: 3 × 36 ÷ 10 + 49 - 7 = 105

Let's check each option,

1. Interchanging × and - 

Equation will become 3 - 36 ÷ 10 + 49 × 7 = 105

= 3 - 3.6 + 49 × 7

= 3 - 3.6 + 343

=342.4 ≠ 105

2. Interchanging - and + 

Equation will become 3 × 36 ÷ 10 - 49 + 7 = 105

= 3 × 3.6 - 49 + 7 

= 10.8 - 49 + 7

= 31.2 ≠ 105

3. Interchanging + and ÷

Equation will become 3 × 36 + 10 ÷ 49 - 7 = 105

= 3 × 36 + 0.204 - 7

= 108 + 0.204 - 7

=101.204 ≠ 105

4. Interchanging - and ÷

Equation will become 3 × 36 - 10 + 49 ÷ 7 = 105

= 3 × 36 - 10 + 7

= 108 -10 + 7

=105

Thus interchanging - and ÷, we get the correct answer.

Changing the symbols as per the format,

Given: 100 A 20 C 80 D 90 F 10 

Substituting the meanings of symbols:

100 ÷ 20 × 80 + 90 - 10

Solution through BODMAS:

100 ÷ 20 × 80 + 90 -10

5 × 80 + 90 -10

400 +90 -10

480

Hence, '480' is the correct answer.

Answer: 4. All of the above follow.

Solution: The air pollution index rises because of vehicles; hence controlling its number and improving its standard will be beneficial. So, action I follows. If there are better public transport systems available, people will use them instead of individual cars, which will reduce the overall traffic. Hence, action II follows. Promoting electric vehicles will also help in reducing the pollution index, therefore action III also follows. Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

In Solar Eclipse Moon is between Sun and Earth.

Similarly;

In Lunar Eclipse Earth is between Sun and Moon.

Hence, "Earth" is the correct answer.

The given word is BEDAZZLEMENTS.

Checking the given options:-

1. EMBEZZLED → can be formed

The letters of EMBEZZLED are in the given word as shown:

BEDAZZLEMENTS

2. AMENDABLE → cannot be formed

BEDAZZLEMENTS → As there is only single A in BEDAZZLEMENTS.

3. MENTALESE→ can be formed

The letters of MENTALESE are in the given word as shown:

BEDAZZLEMENTS

4. BEDAZZLES → can be formed

The letters of BEDAZZLES are in the given word as shown:

BEDAZZLEMENTS

Hence, the correct answer is "​AMENDABLE".

Concept:

1. We have to check the conclusions are 100% match with the statement. If the conclusion is 100% match with the given statement then the conclusion is true. If there is a 1% chance of not following the statement then the conclusion is considered to be false.

2. The possibility case can be considered to be "false" in "definite case".

3. In Possibility case, either "can" or "possible" word must be present.

Explanation

 

Additional Information

The least possible diagram for the given statements is as follows,

Conclusion:

I. No stick is an amphibian → False

It is possible but not definite. As there is no condition in the given statements that prevents “No stick is an amphibian”. Also, there is no condition in the given statements that ensure that “Some sticks are amphibians” and “All sticks are amphibians”. Hence, “No stick is an amphibian”, “Some sticks are amphibians” and “All sticks are amphibians” cases are possible.

Possibility of “No stick is an amphibian”, where all given statements are satisfied.

Possibility of “All sticks are amphibians”, where all given statements are satisfied.

Possibility of “Some sticks are amphibians”, where all given statements are satisfied.

When the conclusion case is only a possibility but not definite, we consider such conclusion as False

II. Some insects being stick is a possibility → False

“All sticks are plants” and “No plant is an insect”. So, “Definitely no insect is a stick”

Hence, given conclusion is not true.

Hence, neither (I) nor (II) follow is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:-

Odd positions letters of given word STANZA are given opposite alphabet and Even position letters of given word are opposite alphabet +1. 

• Odd position ⇔ opposite alphabet
• Even Position ⇔ opposite alphabet + 1

STANZA : HHZNAA

Similarly,

Code : Odd positions letters of given word TEMPLATE are given opposite alphabet and Even position letters of given word are opposite alphabet +1.

TEMPLE : GWNLOW 

Thus, the correct answer is "GWNLOW".

The logic followed here is :-

First number = Second number2 + 6

Third number = Fourth number2 + 6

Fifth number = Sixth number2 + 6

150 : 12 → 122 + 6 = 144 + 6 = 150

and 

367 : 19 → 192 + 6 = 361 + 6 = 367

Similarly,

 ? : 21 → 212 + 6 = 441 + 6 = 447

∴ The relation so formed is : 127 : 11 :: 262 : 16 :: 367 : 19

Hence, the correct answer is "447".

Given :

• Six boxes of different electrical appliances - juicer, toaster, blender, computer, laptop and headphones.
• Kept one above the other

​Explanation :

1) Blender box is at the top.

2) Computer box is immediate below the blender box.

3) There are two boxes between the toaster box and laptop box - There are two possibilities for the position of toaster box and laptop box.

4)  There is maximum two box gap between blender box and juicer box which is not either immediate above or immediate below toaster box 

As in case -(1) the possible position of juicer box immediate below toaster box, therefore this case is eliminated.

Also after positioning juicer box only one position is vacant which will be occupied by the only box left i.e headphones box.

So, according to the final arrangement Juicer box is kept immediate above headphone box.

Hence, "Juicer box" is the correct answer.

According to the given information,

Total number of people = 27

7 people know Both Hindi and English typing.

12 people know only English typing.

Number of people who know only Hindi typing = 27 – (12 + 7) = 8

Drawing the Venn diagram,

Number of people who know Hindi typing = 7 + 8 = 15

Hence, “15” is the correct answer.

Mistake Points Here, the question has asked the count of people who knows Hindi typing which means all those people who know Hindi typing, this includes 7 + 8 = 15

If they ask the only people who knows Hindi typing then we will include only Hindi typing member i.e 8.

The logic is:

1) 97 - 386 → (9³ - 7³) = (729 - 343) = 386

2. 63 - 189 → (6³ - 3³) = (216 - 27) =189

3. 86 - 296 → (8³ - 6³) = (512 - 216) =296

4) 75 - 118 → (7³ - 5³) = (343 - 125) = 218 ≠ 118

Hence, '75 - 118' is the odd one.

The pattern followed here is:

5 × 3 + 1 =16

16 × 3 + 3 = 51

51 × 3 + 5 = 158

158 × 3 + 7 = 481

481 × 3 + 9 = 1452

 Hence, the next term in the series is 1452.

The correct answer is Balasya Mulam Vigyanam.

Key Points

Defence Research and Development Organisation(DRDO) -

• DRDO was formed in 1958 from the amalgamation of the then already functioning Technical Development Establishment (TDEs) of the Indian Army and the Directorate of Technical Development & Production (DTDP) with the Defence Science Organisation (DSO).
• Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO) is an agency under the Ministry of Defence.
• Headquartered of DRDO in New Delhi,
• DRDO is India's largest research organisation.
• DRDO's pursuit of self-reliance and successful indigenous development and production of strategic systems and platforms such as -
• Agni and Prithvi series of missiles;
• light combat aircraft, Tejas;
• multi-barrel rocket launcher, Pinaka;
• air defence system, Akash;
• a wide range of radars and electronic warfare systems have given quantum jump to India's military might, generating effective deterrence and providing crucial leverage.
• "Balasya Mulam Vigyanam"— the source of strength is science-drives the nation in peace and war. This is the Motto of DRDO. Hence option 3 is correct.
• DRDO has a firm determination to make the nation strong and self-reliant in terms of science and technology, especially in the field of military technologies.

The correct answer is Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.

In News

• The Government of India is implementing the ASPIRE scheme to promote entrepreneurship and livelihood opportunities in rural areas through the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.

Key Points

• The Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises is the nodal ministry implementing the ASPIRE scheme.
• ASPIRE aims to build an enabling ecosystem for job creation in rural areas.
• The scheme supports skill development, incubation, and promotion of micro enterprises.
• As of now, 109 Livelihood Business Incubators have been sanctioned across the country.

Additional Information

• ASPIRE Scheme
• Full form is Scheme for Promotion of Innovation, Rural Industry and Entrepreneurship.
• Focuses on rural entrepreneurship and livelihood generation.
• Promotes innovation through incubation and skill development support.
• Ministry of MSME
• Responsible for policy formulation and implementation for MSME development.
• Implements schemes for women, SC and ST entrepreneurs.
• Plays a key role in employment generation and industrial growth.
• Livelihood Business Incubators
• Support rural entrepreneurs through training and mentoring.
• Help convert ideas into sustainable micro enterprises.
• Contribute to self-employment and local economic development.

CONCEPT:

Role of Sodium Hydroxide in Soap Production

• Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) is a strong alkali commonly used in the process of saponification, which is the chemical reaction that produces soap.
• Saponification involves the reaction of fats or oils (triglycerides) with sodium hydroxide to form soap and glycerol.
• The general equation for saponification is:

Fat/Oil + NaOH → Soap + Glycerol

EXPLANATION:

• In soap production:
• Sodium hydroxide reacts with fats and oils (which are composed of fatty acids and glycerides).
• The hydroxide ions from NaOH break the ester bonds in the triglycerides, releasing fatty acid salts (soap) and glycerol.
• This reaction is the core chemical process of soap production.

Additional Information

• Sodium hydroxide is not primarily used to remove impurities.
• Sodium hydroxide does not act as a solvent in this process.
• Sodium hydroxide is not a catalyst; it actively participates in the reaction.

Therefore, the correct answer is Sodium hydroxide reacts with fats and oils to produce soap.

The correct answer is Right to Property ceased to be a Fundamental Right.

Key Points

• The right to property was no longer fundamental freedom as a result of the Constitution (Forty-Fourth Amendment) Act of 1978, but it remained one under Article 300 A of the Constitution and a human right in a welfare state.
• Only legal authorities have the power to take away someone's property, according to Article 300 A.
• The State cannot seize a citizen's property unless it follows the right legal procedures.
• Even if it isn't stated explicitly in Article 300 A, the responsibility to pay compensation is implied by that Article.

Additional Information

• Until a change was made to the Indian Constitution in 1978, the right to property was considered a fundamental right.
• Article 31 and Article 19(1)(f) of Part III of the Constitution's Fundamental Rights were totally abolished as part of this amendment, the 44^th to the Constitution.
• This amendment was made because the government was unable to move forward with reforms and projects involving public infrastructure because citizens began petitioning the courts to stop the purchase of private land.

Concept:

• Food chain: A food chain shows the feeding relationship between different organisms in a particular environment and/or habitat. A food chain shows how energy is passed from the sun to producers, from producers to consumers, and from consumers to decomposers such as fungi. They also show how animals depend on other organisms for food.
• Tropic level: Based on the source of their nutrition or food, organisms occupy a specific place in the food chain that is known as their trophic level.

Producers belong to the first trophic level, herbivores (primary consumer) to the second, and carnivores (secondary consumer) to the third. The important point to note is that the amount of energy decreases at successive trophic levels.

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Explanation:

• Hawks are considered to be secondary or tertiary consumers in a food chain. This means they eat primary consumers and other secondary consumers.

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Green plants are producers, rabbits and Deer are the primary consumer and Hawks eat Rabbits.

So, Hawks is a tertiary consumer in the food chain.

Key Points

1st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1951:

• Article 31B and Ninth Schedule were added by the 1st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1951.
• The Ninth Schedule contains a list of central and state laws that cannot be challenged in courts.
• It was added by the 1st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951. 
• The first Amendment added 13 laws to the Schedule.
• The number of protected laws to 284 currently.
• It was created by the new Article 31B.
• Article 31A and 31B were brought in by the government to protect laws related to agrarian reform and for abolishing the Zamindari system.
• Article 31A extends protection to ‘classes’ of laws.
• Article 31B shields specific laws or enactments.
• While most of the laws protected under the Schedule concern agriculture/land issues, the list includes other subjects like Reservation.
• Article 31B was enforced retrospectively, which means that if laws are inserted in the Ninth Schedule after they are declared unconstitutional, they are considered to have been in the Schedule since their commencement, and thus valid.

Important Points 

• Although Article 31B excludes judicial review, the Supreme Court has said in the past judgments that even laws under the Ninth Schedule would be open to scrutiny if they violated Fundamental Rights or the basic structure of the Constitution.
• In Practice, they are subject to Judicial Review.

Thus, Article 31B was added by the 1st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1951.

The correct answer is Directive Principles of State Policy.

Key Points

• The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution from Articles 36 to 51.
• The framers of the Constitution borrowed this idea from the Irish Constitution of 1937, which had copied it from the Spanish Constitution.
• Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described these principles as ‘novel features’ of the Indian Constitution.
• The Directive Principles along with the Fundamental Rights contain the philosophy of the Constitution and are the soul of the Constitution.
• Granville Austin has described the Directive Principles and the Fundamental Rights as the ‘Conscience of the Constitution.

Important Points

• Directive Principles of State Policy as mentioned in the constitution:

The correct answer is To prevent the mixing of oxygen-rich blood with carbon dioxide-rich blood.

Key Points

• The human heart has four chambers: two atria (upper chambers) and two ventricles (lower chambers). This structural arrangement is crucial for maintaining the separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.
• The right atrium and right ventricle of the heart receive and pump deoxygenated blood to the lungs for oxygenation, while the left atrium and left ventricle receive and pump oxygenated blood to the rest of the body.
• This separation of chambers ensures the prevention of mixing between oxygen-rich (from the lungs) and carbon dioxide-rich blood (from the body tissues), which is essential for efficient oxygen delivery to tissues and organs.
• Efficient oxygenation is vital for cellular respiration, which is the process by which cells generate energy. Proper separation of blood types maximizes the efficiency of this process.
• In organisms with a four-chambered heart, such as humans, this system supports the higher metabolic rates required by endothermic (warm-blooded) animals. This adaptation is crucial for maintaining a constant body temperature and supporting high energy needs.

Additional Information

• The Structure of the Heart:
• The human heart is a muscular organ located slightly left of the center in the chest cavity. It is about the size of a clenched fist and functions as a pump to circulate blood.
• The four chambers include the right atrium, right ventricle, left atrium, and left ventricle, separated by valves and septa.
• The septum is a wall of tissue dividing the right and left sides of the heart, preventing the mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.
• Function of Heart Chambers:
• The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the body through veins like the superior and inferior vena cava.
• The right ventricle pumps this deoxygenated blood to the lungs for oxygenation through the pulmonary artery.
• The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs via the pulmonary veins.
• The left ventricle pumps oxygen-rich blood to the entire body through the aorta, the largest artery in the body.
• Importance of Preventing Blood Mixing:
• Mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood would reduce the efficiency of oxygen delivery to body tissues, affecting cellular energy production.
• Conditions such as congenital heart defects (e.g., septal defects) can cause mixing of blood and lead to reduced oxygen levels in the blood, resulting in fatigue and other health complications.
• Comparison with Other Organisms:
• Organisms like amphibians and reptiles typically have a three-chambered heart, where some mixing of blood occurs. This limits their metabolic rate compared to mammals and birds.
• Mammals and birds, with their four-chambered hearts, have higher metabolic rates, supporting complex behaviors and activities.
• Applications in Medicine:
• Understanding the heart's function helps in diagnosing and treating heart conditions like heart valve diseases, arrhythmias, and congenital defects.
• Medical advances like pacemakers, heart transplants, and artificial valves are based on the detailed understanding of heart structure and function.

Ranthambore was the first state invaded by Alauddin Khilji.

Important Points

• Alauddin Khalji was one of the most powerful rulers from the Khalji dynasty and became the Sultan of Delhi in 1296 AD.
• He murdered his father-in-law and consolidated his power in Delhi.
• During his reign, Alauddin defended his kingdom against the Mongol invasions, at Jaran-Manjur, Sivistan, Kili, Delhi, and Amroha.
• Later, he also raided and annexed Hindu kingdoms such as Gujarat, Ranthambore, Chittor, Malwa, Siwana, and Jalore.
• Alauddin Khilji invaded Ranthambore in 1301 AD.
• Allaudin Khilji led a siege to the fort of Ranthambore after its king Raja Hammir had given shelter to Muhammad Shah.
• After initial failures, Alauddin treacherously captured the fort with the help of Rajput traitor Ranmal.
• Hammir dev along with Muhammad Shah was killed in the battle.

Hence, the correct answer is - Ranthambore.

The correct answer is Alauddin Khalji.

Key Points

• Alauddin Khalji was appointed as Amir-i-Tuzuk (Master of Ceremonies) and Ariz-i-Mumalik (Minister of Law) by Jalaluddin Khalji.
• Alauddin Khalji (1296-1316 CE) 
• A separate department called Diwani Riyasat was created under an officer called Naib-i-Riyasat.
• Every merchant was registered under the Market Department.
• The sale of liquor and intoxicants was prohibited and gambling too was banned.
• He was the first sultan who separated religion from politics. He proclaimed “Kingship knows no kinship”.
• He Patronized poets like Amir Khusrau and Mir Hasan Dehlvi.
• He adopted the title of Sikander-i-Azam and gave Amir Khusrau the title of Tuti-i-Hind (Parrot of India).
• He defeated the Mongols in the battles of Jalandhar (1298), Kili (1299), Amroha (1305), and Ravi (1306).
• Malik Kafur was his slave – general. he led a series of expeditions in the southern part of India, against the Yadavas (1308), Kakatiyas (1310), Hoysalas (1311),  etc.

Additional Information

• Jalaluddin Khalji
• Jalaluddin Khalji ruled only for a brief period of six years.
• He tried to mitigate some of the harsh aspects of Balban’s rule.
• He was the first ruler of the Delhi Sultanate to clearly put forward the view that the state should be based on the willing support of the governed, and that since the large majority of the people in India were Hindus, the state in India could not be a truly Islamic state.
• The Khaljis who were of a mixed Turkish-Afghan origin did not exclude the Turks from high offices, but the rise of the Khalji to power ended the Turkish monopoly of high offices

The correct answer is Assam.

Key Points

• ‘Ankiya Nats’ are one-act plays distinct to the culture of Assam.
• Ankia Naats are a class of one act plays performed in Assam, India.
• The invention of the Ankia Naat is usually attributed to the medieval saint and social reformer Srimanta Sankardeva.

Additional Information

• Assam is the meeting ground of diverse cultures.
• The people of the enchanting state of Assam are an intermixture of various racial stocks such as Mongoloid, Indo-Burmese, Indo-Iranian and Aryan.
• Assam is known for Assam tea and Assam silk.
• The state was the first site for oil drilling in Asia.
• Assam is home to the one-horned Indian rhinoceros, along with the wild water buffalo, pygmy hog, tiger and various species of Asiatic birds, and provides one of the last wild habitats for the Asian elephant.

The correct answer is Guwahati.

Key Points

• The Sattriya Centre has been established in Guwahati, Assam, under the auspices of the Sangeet Natak Akademi to promote and preserve Sattriya dance.
• Sattriya is one of the eight classical dance forms of India and has its roots in the Vaishnavite monasteries of Assam, known as Sattras.
• The Centre is dedicated to propagating the rich cultural heritage of Sattriya through workshops, performances, and training programs.
• It plays a vital role in safeguarding the tradition while encouraging innovation and creativity within the framework of classical Sattriya art.
• The Sattriya Centre collaborates with various cultural organizations and experts to ensure the authenticity and continuity of this unique dance form.

Additional Information

• Imphal:
• Imphal is the capital city of the northeastern Indian state of Manipur.
• The city is known for its rich cultural heritage and is home to the famous Manipuri dance, one of the eight classical dance forms of India.
• It also hosts the renowned Kangla Fort and the historic Ima Keithel (Women’s Market).
• Kolkata:
• Kolkata, the capital of West Bengal, is often referred to as the cultural capital of India.
• It is famous for its contributions to art, literature, theatre, and classical music, as well as its association with icons like Rabindranath Tagore and Satyajit Ray.
• Kolkata is also home to several prestigious cultural institutions, including the Indian Museum and the Academy of Fine Arts.
• Dispur:
• Dispur is the capital of Assam and serves as the political and administrative hub of the state.
• Although it is not a major cultural center like Guwahati, Dispur plays a crucial role in the governance of Assam.
• It is located close to Guwahati, which is considered the cultural and economic heart of the state.
• Main Theme: Sattriya Dance:
• Sattriya dance was introduced in the 15th century by the Vaishnavite saint-scholar Srimanta Sankardev as a medium of religious expression and storytelling.
• The dance form is characterized by its spiritual essence, intricate hand gestures (mudras), rhythmic footwork, and devotion-centric performances.
• In 2000, Sattriya was recognized as one of the classical dance forms of India by the Sangeet Natak Akademi.

The correct answer is 9.

In News

• India finished the U20 World Wrestling Championships 2025 in Samokov, Bulgaria, with a total of nine medals across men’s freestyle, women’s freestyle, and Greco-Roman categories.

Key Points

• India’s medal tally stood at two gold, four silver, and three bronze medals.
• Tapasya Gahlawat (57kg) and Kajal (72kg) won gold in women’s freestyle categories.
• Sumit Malik won silver in men’s 57kg freestyle, while Priya Malik, Srishti, and Reena secured silver in women’s events.
• Saarika, Shruti, and Suraj Vashisht brought home bronze medals for India.

Additional Information

• 2024 U20 World Championships (Spain)
• India won seven medals – one gold, one silver, and five bronze.
• Jyoti Berwal bagged the gold in women’s 76kg category.
• 2025 Participation
• The 2025 edition attracted over 650 wrestlers from across the globe.
• 233 in men’s freestyle, 231 in Greco-Roman, and 186 in women’s freestyle.

The Correct Answer is ​Priyambada Jayakumar.

In News

• M.S. Swaminathan : The Man Who Fed India - Released by Priyambada Jayakumar.

Key Points

• A new biography, M.S. Swaminathan: The Man Who Fed India by Priyambada Jayakumar, highlights his extraordinary contributions and enduring lessons for India’s agricultural future.
• 2025 marks the birth centenary of M.S. Swaminathan, known as the “Father of India’s Green Revolution”.
• Swaminathan's leadership in adapting high-yielding wheat varieties helped India overcome food shortages in the 1960s and achieve self-sufficiency in food grains.
• In the 1960s, India relied on U.S. wheat imports and faced acute food insecurity under Public Law 480.
• The Bengal famine of 1943 highlighted the critical link between food security and national security.
• Swaminathan’s collaboration with Norman Borlaug led to the import and adaptation of Norin 10, a high-yielding wheat variety.
• The Green Revolution reduced India’s dependence on U.S. wheat, increased food production, and lifted millions out of hunger.
• Swaminathan emphasized adaptation and collaboration for self-reliance but also warned of environmental consequences such as soil degradation and excessive fertilizer use.
• Key lessons from Swaminathan’s journey include the need for science-policy collaboration, decisive leadership, and scientific autonomy in research institutions.

The Correct Answer is Local Youth Actions for the SDGs and Beyond.

In News

• International Youth Day: 12 August.

Key Points

• International Youth Day is celebrated on August 12 every year.
• Established by the United Nations in 1999.
• First observed in the year 2000.
• Aims to recognise and empower young voices on global issues.
• 2025 theme: Local Youth Actions for the SDGs and Beyond.

The correct answer is Narmada.

• The Sardar Sarovar Dam is built on the Narmada river in Kevadiya near Navagam, Gujarat in India.
• It is the largest dam to have been built under the 'Narmada Valley Project'.
• It has power facilities of up to 200 MW and provides relief to drought-prone areas of Kutch and Saurashtra.
• The Source of the Narmada river is Amarkantak and the mouth is the Arabian Sea, Gulf of Khambhat.
• It traverses Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Gujarat and meets the Gulf of Cambay.

Important Points

Additional Information

• Bhakra Dam - Himachal Pradesh is a gravity dam across the Sutlej River and features prominently on top of the largest dams in India.
• Its reservoir is known as the 'Gobind Sagar Lake' and is the 2nd largest in India.

The correct answer is Calcutta High Court.

Key Points

• The Calcutta High Court is the oldest in India.
• It has jurisdiction over the state of West Bengal and the Union Territory of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
• The High Court building's design is based on the Cloth Hall, Ypres, in Belgium.
• The court has a sanctioned judge strength of 72

Important Points

 

Additional Information

• Calcutta High Court was established as the High Court of Judicature at Fort William on July 1, 1862, under the High Courts Act, 1861.
• Barnes Peacock was the first Chief Justice of the High Court.
• The current Chief justice of Calcutta high court is JJustice T. S. Sivagnanam
• Manjula Chellur is the first woman chief justice of the Kolkata High Court.

The correct answer is Regur Soil.

Key Points

• Black Soils are commonly referred to as regur but are widely known as “black cotton soils,” as cotton has been the most common conventional crop in areas where they are found.
• This type of soil is typical found in the Deccan Trap (Basalt) region which spreads over northwest Deccan plateau and is made from lava flows.
• The Black soil or Regur is found on the plateaus of Maharashtra, Saurashtra, Malwa, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and stretch in the Southeast direction along the Godavari and the Krishna Valleys.
• The properties of such soils include the following: high compressibility, low bearing capacity, and low shearing strength.
• The Black soils are made up of clayey materials and are widely known for their capacity to hold moisture.
• The Black soils are highly prosperous in calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash, and lime.

The correct answer is Because it has the highest energy output per kilogram.

Key Points

• Hydrogen is widely used as a fuel in cryogenic engines because it has the highest energy output per kilogram. This makes it an extremely efficient fuel source, especially for applications like space exploration where energy density is crucial.
• With a specific energy of approximately 142 MJ/kg, hydrogen far exceeds the energy output of conventional fuels like gasoline or kerosene.
• In cryogenic engines, hydrogen is used in its liquid form (liquid hydrogen or LH2), which requires extremely low temperatures (-253°C) to remain in a liquid state. This enhances its energy density and usability in such applications.
• Other properties of hydrogen, such as its low molecular weight and ability to produce only water as a by-product when burned with oxygen, make it an environmentally friendly and efficient option for cryogenic engines.
• The use of hydrogen as a fuel is particularly significant in the aerospace industry, where it powers rockets like the Space Shuttle Main Engine (SSME) and other advanced propulsion systems.

Additional Information

• Hydrogen as a Fuel:
• Hydrogen is the lightest and most abundant element in the universe. It is an excellent fuel source because it has a high energy-to-weight ratio, making it ideal for applications like rockets and spacecraft.
• When burned with oxygen, hydrogen produces only water vapor, making it a clean and environmentally friendly fuel.
• Hydrogen fuel is stored in a liquid state at cryogenic temperatures to maximize energy density and minimize storage volume.
• Cryogenic Engines:
• A cryogenic engine is a type of rocket engine that uses cryogenic fuels such as liquid hydrogen (LH2) and liquid oxygen (LOX) as propellants.
• These engines operate at extremely low temperatures to ensure the fuels remain in their liquid state, as this is required for efficient combustion and energy output.
• Examples of vehicles using cryogenic engines include the Saturn V rocket and the GSLV Mk III developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
• Comparison with Other Fuels:
• Unlike conventional fuels like kerosene or methane, hydrogen has significantly higher energy output per kilogram, making it more suitable for applications where minimizing weight is critical.
• While kerosene and methane are easier to handle and store at higher temperatures, their energy density is lower, leading to the need for larger storage tanks.
• Challenges of Using Hydrogen:
• Hydrogen is difficult to store and transport due to its extremely low boiling point and the need for cryogenic temperatures.
• It is also highly flammable, requiring advanced safety measures for handling and usage.

Important Points

• Applications of Cryogenic Engines:
• Cryogenic engines are used in space exploration and satellite launches, where high energy and thrust are required to escape Earth's gravity.
• They are a key component of launch vehicles like the Space Shuttle and Ariane rockets.
• Environmental Impact:
• Hydrogen is a clean fuel with no harmful by-products, making it a sustainable choice for future energy needs.
• Efforts are underway to produce hydrogen through green methods, such as electrolysis powered by renewable energy sources.

The correct answer is The Rowlatt Act.

Key Points

• The Rowlatt Act (Black Act) was passed on March 10, 1919, authorizing the government to imprison or confine, without a trial, any person associated with seditious activities.
• This led to nationwide unrest. Gandhi initiated Satyagraha to protest against the Rowlatt Act.
• Under the command of Colonel Reginald Dyer, soldiers opened fire on a large number of people gathered at Jallianwala Bagh on 13 April 1919.
• It was estimated that over 1,000 people lost their lives and another 1,500 people were injured in the firing.
• Apart from the main entrance, there was no way for the crowd to escape the garden as the area was surrounded by buildings. This is a major reason for the high number of casualties.

Important Points

• Jallianwala Bagh Massacre is also called the Massacre of Amritsar.
• Tagore was awarded the knighthood by King George v in1915, but he repudiated it in 1919 as a protest against the Amritsar (Jallianwala Bagh) Massacre.
• He is sometimes referred to as “the Bard of Bengal”.
• After this massacre, Gandhi began his first large-scale and sustained nonviolent protest (satyagraha) campaign, the Non-Cooperation Movement (1920–22).

Additional Information

• Lord Lytton passed the Vernacular Press Act in 1878.
• By this act, the magistrates of the districts were empowered, without the prior permission of the Government, to call upon a printer and publisher of any kind to enter into a Bond, undertaking not to publish anything which might “rouse” feelings of disaffection against the government.
• The Arms Act, 1959 that deals with the regulation of arms in India.
• The Act defines arms to include firearms, swords, and anti-aircraft missiles.

The correct answer is Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

Key Points

• Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel is honoured by having his name on the National Police Academy in Hyderabad.
• Officers of the Indian Police Service who have been chosen through an All India-based Civil Services Examination are trained at the Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Police Academy (SVPNPA).
• The trained officers will be assigned to states as Assistant Superintendents of Police (ASP).
• Then they will supervise the other sub-ranks of police personnel.
• It is at the discretion of each state's Director General of Police to hire sub-ranks like Constables, Sub-Inspectors, and Deputy Superintendents of Police.

Important Points

• The Home Ministry of the Indian Government controls the IPS cadre.
• The officer of this service can only be appointed or removed by an order from the President of India.
• The Academy's main goal is to develop leaders for the Indian Police who will take charge of the organisation with courage, integrity, commitment, and a strong sense of duty to the populace.
• The academy will make an effort to insist on the morals and values that will enable them to better serve the populace.
• It will specifically work to insist on the highest levels of integrity, sensitivity to people's aspirations in a rapidly changing social and economic environment, respect for human rights, a broad liberal view of law and justice, a high standard of professionalism, physical fitness, and mental alertness.

The correct answer is Canada.

Key Points

• BRICS is the acronym coined to associate five major emerging national economies: Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa.
• BRICS Tower headquarters in Shanghai.
• The first BRIC Summit took place in 2009 in the Russian Federation and focused on issues such as reform of the global financial architecture.
• South Africa was invited to join BRIC in December 2010, after which the group adopted the acronym BRICS.
• South Africa subsequently attended the Third BRICS Summit in Sanya, China, in March 2011.

Important Points

• At the Fourth BRICS Summit in New Delhi (2012) the possibility of setting up a new Development Bank was considered to mobilize resources for infrastructure and sustainable development projects in BRICS and other emerging economies, as well as in developing countries.
• The New Development Bank (NDB), formerly referred to as the BRICS Development Bank.
• President of BRICS is Marcos Prado Troyjo.

Additional Information

• The 12th BRICS summit (21 Jul 2020 – 23 Jul 2020) was hosted by Russia.
• The 13th BRICS summit will be hosted by India in 2021.
• India hosted two summits 4th (2012) and 8th (2016).

The correct answer is 60 minutes

 

Key Points

• The total time allocated for Zero hours has no maximum limit on the number of matters that can be raised on any given day.
• The session would be completed before 1 pm.
• The Zero Hour starts immediately after the question hour and lasts until the agenda for the day (ie, regular business of the House) is taken up.
• In other words, the time gap between the question hour** and the agenda is known as zero hours.**
• As the 9th Lok Sabha Speaker, Rabi Ray introduced certain changes in the proceedings of the House to create more opportunities for the members to raise matters of urgent public importance.
• The Zero hour starts immediately after the question hour and lasts until the agenda for the day is taken up.
• In other words, the time gap between the question hour and the agenda is known as Zero hours.
• Zero hour usually starts at 12 noon, whereby MPs can raise their questions about issues of urgent public importance.
• Zero hours is not mentioned in the rules of procedure.
• It is an Indian innovation in the field of parliamentary procedures and has been in existence since 1962.
• It is an informal device available to the members of the parliament to raise matters without any prior notice.

The correct solution is Radon.

Key Points

• In the Earth's atmosphere is composed of about 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0.9 % argon, and 0.1 % other gases. Trace amounts of carbon dioxide, methane, water vapor, and neon are some of the other gases that make up the remaining 0.1 %.
• Trace amounts of neon, helium, methane, krypton, and hydrogen, as well as water vapor.
• Radon is a naturally-occurring radioactive gas that can cause lung cancer.
• Radon gas is inert, colorless, and odorless.
• Radon is the second leading cause of lung cancer in the United States.

Additional Information 

• The six naturally occurring noble gases are helium (He), neon (Ne), argon (Ar), krypton (Kr), xenon (Xe), and the radioactive radon (Rn).

The correct answer is Insulin.

Key Points

• Insulin is a hormone that plays a central role in regulating blood sugar levels in the human body by facilitating the uptake of glucose into cells.
• It is secreted by the beta cells of the Islets of Langerhans in the pancreas, a gland located behind the stomach.
• Insulin helps in storing excess glucose as glycogen in the liver and muscles, thus preventing hyperglycemia (high blood sugar levels).
• A deficiency or resistance to insulin leads to diabetes mellitus, a condition characterized by increased blood glucose levels.
• Insulin is crucial for maintaining glucose homeostasis, and its role is vital in converting glucose into energy required for cellular functions.

Additional Information

• Functions of Insulin:
• Insulin promotes the uptake of glucose by cells, especially in the liver, muscle, and fat tissues.
• It inhibits the breakdown of stored glycogen (glycogenolysis) and the production of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources (gluconeogenesis).
• It enhances the synthesis of fatty acids in adipose tissues and protein synthesis in muscles.
• Other Hormones Involved in Blood Sugar Regulation:
• Glucagon: Secreted by the alpha cells of the pancreas, glucagon increases blood sugar levels by promoting glycogen breakdown and gluconeogenesis.
• Adrenaline: A hormone released by the adrenal glands, it raises blood glucose levels during stress or emergencies by stimulating glycogenolysis.
• Cortisol: A stress hormone secreted by the adrenal cortex, it increases blood sugar levels by promoting gluconeogenesis.
• Conditions Associated with Insulin:
• Type 1 Diabetes: Caused by the destruction of beta cells, leading to insufficient production of insulin.
• Type 2 Diabetes: Characterized by insulin resistance, where cells fail to respond to insulin effectively.
• Hyperinsulinemia: Excessive insulin levels, often associated with conditions like insulin resistance and obesity.
• Functions of Other Hormones Mentioned in the Options:
• Thymus: The thymus gland is involved in the immune system and does not regulate blood sugar levels. Its function is to produce T-lymphocytes.
• Adrenaline: This hormone is secreted by the adrenal glands and raises blood sugar levels during stress but does not regulate it continuously like insulin.
• Testosterone: A male sex hormone, it is responsible for secondary sexual characteristics and has no role in blood sugar regulation.

The correct answer is '1' i.e. completed .

Key Points

• The given sentence contains a grammatical error in the segment "completed".
• The verb "completed" is incorrect in this context because the sentence uses the phrase "the team is determined to", which requires the base form of the verb (infinitive without "to").
• The correct form should be "complete" instead of "completed".
• The correct structure is "to + base form of the verb", which aligns with the grammatical rule for verbs following "determined to".

Correct sentence: Despite the challenges, the team is determined to complete the project on time and within budget.

Additional Information

• Common error in verb usage:
• When a verb follows phrases like "determined to", "want to", or "need to", always use the base form of the verb.
• Example: She is determined to win the competition (not "winning" or "won").
• How to identify such errors:
• Look for auxiliary verbs like "is", "was", "determined to", and check if the following verb is in its correct base form.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The verb "sacrifice" should be followed by the infinitive form "to guard" and not the gerund form "to guarding."
• The correct construction is: "sacrifice their lives to guard the nation..."
• Using "to guarding" is incorrect because "to" here functions as part of the infinitive marker, not a preposition.
• Hence, the grammatical error lies in segment 3.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "The soldiers sacrifice their lives to guard the nation and its boundaries."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "The soldiers" – Grammatically correct subject of the sentence.
• Option 2: "the nation and its boundaries" – This is a correct prepositional phrase acting as the object of the verb.
• Option 4: "sacrifice their lives" – This is a correct verb phrase with a clear meaning.

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• The phrase "unpardonably lately" is incorrect because "lately" refers to a recent time in the past and is not suitable in the context of waking up at a specific (late) time.
• The correct word should be "late," which indicates tardiness or delay in action — suitable for time-based events like waking up late.
• "Unpardonably late" accurately conveys the idea of being so late that it is almost unforgivable.
• Therefore, the adverb "lately" must be replaced with the adjective "late" to correctly complete the phrase.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4: unpardonably lately in the morning.

 

Correct Sentence: "He missed the college bus because he woke up unpardonably late in the morning."

 

Additional Information

• Lately means “recently” and is used for actions that happened in the near past (e.g., "I have seen him lately").
• Late refers to being delayed or not on time and is appropriate for specific moments or schedules (e.g., "He arrived late to class").

The correct answer is '1' i.e. They was .

Key Points

• The given sentence contains a grammatical error in the first segment, "They was".
• The subject "They" is plural, and therefore, the correct verb form is "were", not "was".
• Correct grammar usage would be: "They were".
• The other segments of the sentence are grammatically correct.

Correct sentence: They were celebrating their Silver wedding anniversary next month in Dubai.

Additional Information

• The use of "next month" indicates a future event, but in this case, the verb tense remains in the past progressive (were celebrating) to describe an intention or plan in informal usage.
• Subject-verb agreement: Always match the verb form to the subject in terms of number (singular or plural).

The correct answer is 'Start.'

Key Points

• The given word 'Commence' means to start or begin. (आरंभ होना)
• Example: The wedding can't commence until the bride's father arrives.
• ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
• 'Start' means to begin doing something. (कुछ करना आरंभ करना)
• Example: Failure shows you have reasons to start again.
• 'Shoot' means to fire a gun or another weapon. (बंदूक़ या कोई दूसरा अस्‍त्र चलाना)
• Example: The police rarely shoot to kill.
• 'Stand' means to be on your feet, not sitting or lying down; to be upright. (खड़ा होना न कि बैठा या लेटा होना; सीधा खड़ा रहना)
• Example: The teacher told the children to stand in a row.
• 'Stop' means to finish moving or make something finish moving. (रुकना या किसी को रोकना)
• Example: The express train does not stop at this station.
  

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

<br>

Additional Information

• The synonyms of the word 'Commence' are "start, begin, initiate".
• The antonyms of the word 'Commence' are "stop, end, finish".

The correct answer is "Harmless".

Key Points 

• Precarious means 'not safe or certain; dangerous (असुरक्षित या अनिश्चित; खतरनाक)**'.**​
• ​Example: A soldier leads a very precarious life.
• Marked option 'Harmless' means 'not able or not likely to cause damage or injury; safe (अहानिकर; सुरक्षित)'.
• ​Example: The bank provides harmless custody for valuables.
• It is clear that Precarious and 'Harmless' are opposite in meaning.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information 

• Dangerous means likely to cause injury or damage (खतरनाक, भयंकर).
• Grievous means something bad; very severe or serious (नाजुक, घोर, गंभीर).
• Hazardous means risky; dangerous (खतरनाक, जोखिमभरा, संकटजनक).

The correct answer is Diminish.

Key Points 

• The meaning of the words:
• Augment: to make it larger, more effective by adding something to it. (इसमें कुछ जोड़कर इसे बड़ा, अधिक प्रभावी बनाना)
• For example, Reading regularly will augment your vocabulary skills.
• Diminish: to become less in size. (घटाना)
• For example, I don't want to diminish her achievements.
• It is clear from the above-meaning words that the correct answer is Diminish.
• Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Additional Information

• Let's look at the meaning of the other words given in options:-
• Extend - cause to cover a wider area; make larger. (विस्तार)
• Expand - become or make larger or more extensive. (विस्तार)
• Spread - extend over a large or increasing area. (फैलाना)

The correct answer is 'Heavenly'.

Key Points

• The most appropriate antonym of the given word 'Mundane' is 'Heavenly'.
• Mundane: ordinary; not interesting or exciting. (साधारण, मामूली; रोचक या उत्तेजक नहीं)
• Example: a mundane job...
• Heavenly: very pleasant; wonderful. (बहुत आनंदप्रद; आश्‍चर्यजनक)
• Example: It was a heavenly day.
  

Correct Answer: Heavenly.

Additional Information

• Let's look at the meaning of other words:
• Ordinary: normal; not unusual or different from others. (साधारण; अन्‍यों से असामान्‍य या अलग नहीं, अन्‍यों के समान)
• Superb: extremely good, excellent. (बहुत बढ़िया, उत्‍कृष्‍ट)
• Excellent: very good; of high quality. (बहुत बढ़िया; उच्‍च स्‍तर का, उत्‍कृष्‍ट)

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. unrefined.

Key Points

• Let's consider the usage of all the words given in the options.
  

 

The meaning of sophisticated is 'Developed to a high degree of complexity'

Example:- "I was glad to see it was a highly sophisticated hospital"

Thus the antonym  of sophisticated is:  Unrefined

The correct answer is 'a.'

Key Points  

• The only articles in English are ‘the’ and ‘a/an’.
• Use the article "a or an" to indicate any non-specified member of a group or category.
• If a word begins with a vowel sound, then the correct article is 'an'; otherwise, if it begins with a consonantal sound, the correct article is 'a'.
• The definite article 'the' is used before a noun to indicate that the identity of the noun is known to the reader. 
• Example: 
• We are looking for an apartment.
• I own a cat and two dogs.
• I love to visit the building.
• Here, we are talking about the non-specific "significant increase" and it starts with a consonant sound.
• So we must use "a" in the blank.
• Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.
  

​

​Correct sentence: There has been a significant increase in the number of women students in recent years.

The correct answer is 'the.'

Key Points

• In this context, "Heart of India" is used as a title**.**
• The general rule is that we look at whether the word/phrase is being used as a noun or an adjective.
• Here, the title is being used as a noun, so we must use the article "the."
• Example: He is known as the spine of this organization.
• Hence, the article "the" must be used in the blank.
  

​

​Correct sentence: Madhya Pradesh is known as the heart of India.

Mistake Points

• The official answer does not have 'as' written in the sentence.
• This makes the sentence grammatically incorrect.
• Therefore, we have added 'as' in the given sentence.

Additional Information 

• The 'U' in universe is pronounced with a long 'u' sound which sounds like 'yew' and is written as j in the phonetic alphabet.
• So, although the letter is a vowel, it is not pronounced like one in 'universe' because it does not have a vowel sound.
• We, therefore, say 'a universe'.

The correct answer is 'an.'

Key Points

• The only articles in English are ‘the’ and ‘a/an’.
• Use the article "a or an" to indicate any non-specified member of a group or category.
• If a word begins with a vowel sound, then the correct article is 'an', if it begins with a consonantal sound, the correct article is 'a'.
• The definite article 'the' is used before a noun to indicate that the identity of the noun is known to the reader. 
• Example: 
• We are looking for an apartment.
• I own a cat and two dogs.
• I love to visit the building.
• Thus, the correct answer is Option 3 because the word "amazing" is pronounced with a vowel sound "-a."

​Correct sentence: I bought an amazing Bluetooth speaker yesterday.

The correct answer is 'Persistent'.

<br>

Key Points

• 'Enduring' in the context refers to the monarch migration's ability to last over time, implying it is long-lasting or durable.
• The word 'persistent' shares a similar meaning, indicating something that continues to exist or endure over a prolonged period.
• The migration's description as one of the "most enduring mysteries" suggests its continuity and resilience against time, matching the definition of 'persistent'.
• 'Enduring', in this usage, connotes the migration's capacity to withstand various challenges while remaining a significant natural phenomenon.
• The emphasis on the migration being enduring underlines its importance and the awe it inspires across generations.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The correct answer is 'Admiring'.

Key Points

• The passage expresses a deep sense of admiration and wonder towards the monarch butterflies' migration.
• Words like "breathtaking," "awe-inspiring," and "formidable navigators" indicate a positive and admiring tone.
• The author marvels at the complexity of the migration and the butterflies' ability to navigate over thousands of miles with precision.
• The recognition of the ecological importance and beauty of this phenomenon reinforces the admiring tone.
• The passage’s emphasis on conservation efforts further shows respect and appreciation for the migration and its significance to the natural world.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 Additional Information

• 'Indifferent' (Option 1) suggests a lack of interest, which does not match the passage's tone.
• 'Skeptical' (Option 2) implies doubt, which is not present in the text.
• 'Critical' (Option 4) would indicate finding fault, which contradicts the passage's adoring perspective.

The correct answer is 'To explain how monarch butterflies navigate'.

Key Points

• This sentence provides specific insight into the mechanisms monarch butterflies use to navigate during their migration.
• It introduces the concept of the "sophisticated internal compass," which is key to understanding the butterflies' remarkable navigational abilities.
• The sentence shifts the passage’s focus from the migration process to the biological and environmental cues butterflies follow.
• It underscores the complexity and intelligence of the butterflies’ migratory behavior.
• This explanation serves to deepen the reader's appreciation for the butterflies’ journey, linking their physical capabilities to the broader narrative of migration.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The correct answer is 'Human activities like deforestation and climate change'.

Key Points

• The passage explicitly mentions deforestation, urban development, and agricultural practices, alongside climate change, as threats to the migration.
• These human activities directly impact the monarchs’ habitats and food sources, thus jeopardizing their migratory routes and survival.
• Climate change is noted to alter migratory patterns and habitats, adding uncertainty to the butterflies’ migration and ability to find winter sanctuaries.
• The acknowledgment of these threats underlines the urgency and importance of conservation efforts aimed at protecting the monarch migration.
• Highlighting the negative impact of human activities stimulates awareness and advocacy for policy changes and public education initiatives to safeguard the monarchs.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The correct answer is 'Present simple'.

Key Points

• This sentence describes the monarch butterflies' current qualities using the present simple tense.
• Present simple is used to express general truths, habits, or characteristics, fitting this description of the butterflies.
• The use of "are formidable navigators" indicates an ongoing trait of the monarch butterflies, relevant at any time.
• The tense aligns with the aim of describing a consistent attribute of the butterflies, emphasizing their enduring navigational skills.
• Present simple tense portrays the butterflies' abilities as a permanent and notable aspect of their behavior.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The correct answer is "Extremely happy". 

Key Points

• The idiom 'Be in the seventh heaven' means **to be extremely happy. (**अत्यंत प्रसन्न होना)
• For example: Since they got married, they've been in seventh heaven.
• From the above meaning of the idiom it can be concluded that the correct answer is "Option 1".

Additional Information

• Other idioms related to the meaning of happiness are as follows: 
• On cloud nine means extremely happy when something wonderful happens.
• For example: She's been on cloud nine since she found out she is pregnant.
• Music to your ears :This idiom is used to describe the situation when the information you come to know of makes you very happy.
• For example: The financial team’s annual presentation was music to the ears of the CEO.

The correct answer is 'Refuse to change your opinion'.

Key Points

• The idiom "stand your ground" typically means to maintain one's position or opinion in the face of opposition, to refuse to compromise or be persuaded.
• Therefore, the most appropriate meaning from the given options is: Refuse to change your opinion.
• It's often used in situations where an individual is under pressure to change their opinion or decision but remains steadfast.

The correct answer is "Take on a project that you cannot finish"

Key Points

• An idiom or a phrase is the meaning of a group of combined words that have individual meanings.
• Take on a project that you cannot finish means taking a huge responsibility but now being unable to handle or control it.
• Example: The boss ordered the novice batch don't bite off than you can chew.

Additional Information

• To be too greedy means excessively gluttonous or ravening.
• Example: His daughter turned into gold because of his greediness.
• A heavy eater on occasion means eating large amounts of food in one go consuming an unusually large amount of food and being unable to stop it. 
• Example: A heavy eater on occasion might be mentally depressed.
• Accomplish targets on time means completing the task on time.
• Example: The product launched in the market because the target was accomplished on time.

The correct word is Agglomerations.

Key Points

• One word substitution is the use of one word in place of a phrase in order to make the sentence structure clearer. 
• The meaning, with the replacement of the phrase remains identical while the sentence becomes shorter.
• Agglomerations: a large group of many different things collected or brought together / Collection of various things.
• Example: She chose as her case study the high tech commercial agglomeration in Salt Lake City with its distinctive Mormon culture.
• From the above explanation, it can be concluded that Agglomerations is the correct word to substitute for the given description.

Hence, the correct choice is option 4.

Let's refer to all the other given options:

• ​Unilateral: done or made by one person who is involved in something without the agreement of the other person or people.
  
• Dispersal: the process of spreading something over a wide area.
• Specialized: having or needing deep or special knowledge of a particular subject.
  

The correct answer is- '​Pacifist'

 

Key Points  

• Let us see the meanings of the given options:
• Infiltrator: a person who secretly becomes part of a group in order to get information or to influence the way the group thinks or behaves. (एक व्यक्ति जो गुप्त रूप से जानकारी प्राप्त करने या समूह के सोचने या व्यवहार करने के तरीके को प्रभावित करने के लिए समूह का हिस्सा बन जाता है)
• Warmonger: a person, especially a politician or a leader, who wants to start a war or encourages people to start a war. (युद्घलोलुप या जंगख़ोर व्‍यक्ति (विशेषतः राजनीतिकर्मी या नेता))
• Minimalist: a person who advocates or practises minimalism. (एक व्यक्ति जो अतिसूक्ष्मवाद की वकालत या अभ्यास करता है)
• Pacifist: a person who opposes war or violence as a means of settling disputes. (कोई व्यक्ति जो विवादों को निपटाने के साधन के रूप में युद्ध या हिंसा का विरोध करता है)
• Example: The pacifist movement is gaining increasing support among young people.
• Therefore, a person who is against war and violence is called a "Pacifist."
  

Additional Information

• Let us explore the synonyms of the given options:
• Infiltrator: Counterspy
• Warmonger: Aggressor

The correct answer is: Fund.

Key Points

• The word "Collection" means the action or process of gathering or collecting something. (संग्रह)
• Example: The museum's collection of ancient artifacts is impressive.
• "Fund" refers to a sum of money saved or made available for a particular purpose. (निधि)
• Example: The charity event was organized to raise a fund for cancer research.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Fund.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Collection (संग्रह): The action or process of gathering or collecting something.
• Example: She has a vast collection of vintage postcards.
• Deposit (जमा): A sum of money placed or kept in a bank account, usually to gain interest.
• Example: He made a large deposit into his savings account.
• Savings (बचत): Money that one has saved, especially through a bank or official scheme.
• Example: She has significant savings for her retirement.

The correct answer is Option (3) i.e. SRQP

Key Points

• The sentence begins with "financing for gender equality," which identifies the main topic and is correctly indicated by part (S).
• Following the main topic, "is central to mitigate gender inequalities and" (R) continues the logical sequence, explaining the importance of financing for gender equality.
• The next part, "gender budgeting is a critical strategy" (Q) adds more detail to how financing can help in this context.
• Ending with, "in this endeavour" (P) completes the sentence by referring back to the overall goal of the strategy mentioned.

**Therefore, the correct answer is **SRQP.

Additional Information

• Option 1 (QPRS): This option starts with "gender budgeting is a critical strategy," which does not immediately introduce the main topic and makes the sentence less cohesive.
• Option 2 (QRPS): This option starts with "is central to mitigate gender inequalities," creating a fragment that does not properly introduce the main topic.
• Option 4 (SPRQ): This option starts with "in this endeavour," making the sentence structure awkward and the meaning unclear.

The correct answer is "RQPS"

Key Points

• The sentence is describing the role of Thor in Norse mythology.
• "In Norse mythology" is an adverbial phrase modifying the verb "was," "Thor" is the subject of the sentence, and "the god of thunder and the protector of mankind" is the verb phrase.
• The adverbial phrase goes before the verb and the subject goes before the verb phrase, so the order should be adverbial phrase-subject-verb phrase.

Thus, option 2 is the correct answer.

Correct sentence: R in Norse mythology, Q Thor was the god of thunder P and the protector S of mankind

The correct answer is Video Display Unit.

Key Points 

• An output device is any piece of computer hardware equipment that converts information into human-readable form. 
• It can be text, graphics, tactile, audio, and video.
• Some of the output devices are Visual Display Units i.e. a Monitor, Printer graphic Output devices, Plotters, Speakers, Video Display Units.
• An output device is any hardware device used to send data from a computer to another device or user.

Additional Information 

• An input device is a piece of equipment used to provide data and control signals to an information processing system such as a computer or information appliance.
• Examples of input devices include keyboards, mouse, trackballs, lightpen, scanners, cameras, touch screen joysticks, and microphones.
• Language and memory, Data and instructions, Text and graphics, Storage and commandsFeedbackCorrect.
• These are the two categories of input.
• Data can be unprocessed text or numbers, images, etc.

The correct answer is SPAM mail.

Key Points

• Anti-virus packages are designed to detect and remove malicious software, such as viruses, worms, and Trojan horses.
• They can also protect against spyware, ransomware, and other types of malware.
• However, anti-virus packages cannot remove SPAM mail.
• SPAM mail is unsolicited commercial email, also known as junk mail.
• It is often sent in bulk to a wide list of recipients who have not consented to receive it. SPAM mail can be annoying and time-consuming to deal with, but it is not malicious software.

Additional Information

• EXE files: EXE files are executable files, which means that they can be run on a computer. Anti-virus packages can scan EXE files for malware and prevent them from being executed.
• Word files: Word files are documents created with Microsoft Word or other word processing software. Anti-virus packages can scan Word files for malware and remove it if it is found.
• PDF files: PDF files are portable document files, which means that they can be opened on any computer with a PDF reader. Anti-virus packages can scan PDF files for malware and remove it if it is found.

The correct answer is Spreadsheet

Important Points

• Spreadsheet software is defined as a type of computer program that helps a user perform numerical functions and analyze numbers through a computerized version of an accounting worksheet. Eg. Microsoft Excel is a Microsoft Office software that is used for analyzing, organizing, storing, and processing data in tabular form. It provides a digital form of paper accounting in the form of Spreadsheets.
• Microsoft Paint is a simple graphics creator and editor software.
• Microsoft Word is a word processor with options of various types of formatting.
• Note Pad tool is a text editor, dealing only with text and nothing else.

The correct answer is Ctrl + Home.

Key Points

• The Ctrl + Home keystroke is used to move the cursor to the top of the document in most word processing software and text editors.
• This shortcut is particularly useful for quickly navigating lengthy documents.

Additional Information

• Ctrl + End: This keystroke moves the cursor to the end of the document. It is the opposite of Ctrl + Home.
• Top: This is not a valid keystroke for navigation in documents. It seems to be a misleading option.
• Escape (Esc): This key is generally used to cancel an ongoing task or close a dialog box, not for navigation within a document.

The correct answer is Abacus.

• The earliest calculating device is Abacus.

Key Points

• There is a long history detailing the invention of computing and calculating machines.
• The earliest recorded calculating device is the abacus.
• Used as a simple computing device for performing arithmetic, the abacus most likely appeared first in Babylonia (now Iraq) over 5000 years ago.
• An adapted abacus used by the blind, invented by Tim Cranmer, also called a Cranmer abacus, is still commonly used by blind individuals.
• A piece of soft fabric or rubber is placed behind the beads so that they do not move inadvertently.

Important Points

• May not answer this directly, but Tim Cranmer invented the Cranmer abacus.
• The oldest surviving counting board is the Salamis tablet (originally thought to be a gaming board), used by the Babylonians circa 300 B.C., discovered in 1846 on the island of Salamis.

The correct answer is Wide Area Network.

Key Points

• WAN: 
• A wide area network (WAN) is a large computer network that connects groups of computers over large distances.
• WANs are often used by large businesses to connect their office networks; each office typically has its own local area network or LAN, and these are  LANs connected via a WAN. These long connections may be formed in several different ways, including leased lines, VPNs, or IP tunnels.
• The Internet itself is considered a WAN.

Additional Information 

• LAN:
• It stands for Local Area Network.
• A local area network (LAN) consists of a series of computers linked together to form a network in a circumscribed location.
• The computers in a LAN connection to each other via TCP/IP ethernet or Wi-Fi.
• A LAN is normally exclusive to an organization, such as a school, office, association, or church.
• MAN:
• It stands for metropolitan area network.
• The word MAN refers to merging several local area networks (LANs) in a city into a single, more extensive network that may connect to a vast area network efficiently.
• A MAN is larger than a LAN but smaller than a WAN.

The correct answer is Visual Basic.

Key Points

• Visual Basic (VB):
• It is an event-driven programming language and environment.
• It is from Microsoft and provides a graphical user interface (GUI).
• It allows programmers to modify code by simply dragging and dropping objects and defining their behavior and appearance.

Additional Information

• Disk Clean-up:
• It is a computer maintenance utility included in Microsoft Windows designed to free up disk space on a computer's hard drive.
• Microsoft Windows:
• It is a group of several proprietary graphical operating system families developed and marketed by Microsoft.

The correct answer is Status Bar.

Key Points

• The Status Bar in MS Word provides information about the current state of what you are viewing in the window, such as the page number, section number, and line number.
• It displays the word count, language, and layout options of the document you are working on.
• The Status Bar can be customized to show additional information like character count, zoom level, and document insights.
• It helps users quickly access essential details about their document without navigating away from their work area.

Additional Information

• Ruler Bar
• The Ruler Bar in MS Word helps in setting margins, indents, and tab stops for the document.
• It is found at the top and left side of the document window.
• Users can drag the markers on the ruler to adjust the layout of the document manually.
• Scroll Bar
• The Scroll Bar allows users to navigate through the document vertically or horizontally.
• It is located on the right side (vertical scroll bar) and bottom (horizontal scroll bar) of the document window.
• It provides a quick way to move to different parts of the document.
• Quick Access Toolbar
• The Quick Access Toolbar is a customizable toolbar that contains a set of commands independent of the tab currently displayed.
• Common commands include save, undo, redo, and print.
• Users can add or remove commands based on their preferences to streamline their workflow.

The correct answer is Binary.

Key Points

• The computer is a digital computing system designed to perform all kinds of arithmetic and logical operation.
• The computer receives input either from the user or the data stored in the memory, processes it and produces the desired output. Keyboard, mouse, touch-pen, scanner etc. are examples of input devices.
• This processing of data is done by the CPU or Central Processing Unit. It is known as the brain of the computer. It will process the data and sends it to the output devices. The CPU is also responsible for storing the data in binary format as the computer does not understand any other letters or numbers except 0 and 1.
• The output of the processed data is displayed at the respective output devices. Such as monitors, printers, projector screens and so on.

Thus the correct answer is Binary.

Additional Information

• The word computer is derived from the word compute. In the year 1833, English mechanical engineer Charles Babbage designed the first analytical engine. He is known as the father of the computer.
• In the beginning, computers are used for calculating large numbers and can only store a small amount of data.
• The software and the hardware parts of the computers are running together to execute the operations smoothly.

The correct answer is Open Source

Key Points

• Open-source software (OSS) is software that is distributed with its source code, making it publicly accessible.
• Anyone can look at, improve upon, or change the source code, extending the freedom to use the software for any purpose.
• One of the main aspects of open-source software is its development process.
• The software is usually developed in a public, collaborative manner, allowing programmers from all over the world to contribute to its development.
• Open-source software encourages free distribution, meaning that not only can users obtain the software for free, but they can also distribute it to others.
• This aspect aids in improving accessibility to the software, leading to broader usage and more opportunities for development and improvement.

The Correct answer is Shift + Enter

Key PointsShort cut to Insert special characters

The correct answer is URL.

Key Points

• The full form of the URL is Uniform Resource Locator. A Uniform Resource Locator could be a variety of uniform resource symbols and is the address of a resource on the World Wide Web; the protocol won’t access it. It is to indicate the placement of an Internet resource to access the web pages.

Thus the correct answer is URL.

Additional Information

• The URL holds several pieces of information. These are given below:
• The protocols for transmitting the data.
• The file location of the server.
• The port number of the server is also stored in the URL.

The correct answer is System software.

Key Points

• The system software of the computer works as a platform for other software.
• The system builds the communication between the hardware and the software.
• The system software is responsible for working with end users, application software and computer hardware to handle the majority of technical details.
• Operating system is the best example of system software.

Thus the correct answer is System software.

Additional Information

• Application software: Application software is a type pe of software which builds communication between the users and the computer system. It performs many tasks like processing text, spreadsheets, email, etc. The size of the application software is varying. The application software is easy to design and understand. Application software is using a high-level language. MS Word, MS Excel, VLC and so on are examples of application software.
• Utility software: Utility software is a type of application software. The main job of the utility software is to maintain the hardware parts from any malware.

The correct answer is A system of representing information using only two digits: 0 and 1.

Key Points

• Binary code is a fundamental concept in computer science and digital electronics.
• It uses only two digits, 0 and 1, to represent all types of data.
• Each digit in a binary number is referred to as a bit.
• Binary code is the basis for all binary number systems, including binary-coded decimal and other forms of binary encoding.
• It is essential for the functioning of computers, which use binary code to process instructions and data.

Additional Information

• Bit: A bit is the smallest unit of data in a computer and can have a value of either 0 or 1.
• Byte: A byte is a group of eight bits, and it is a standard unit for measuring data.
• Machine Code: Machine code is a set of instructions executed directly by a computer's central processing unit (CPU) and it is typically written in binary.
• Boolean Algebra: Boolean algebra is a branch of mathematics that deals with true or false values and is used in the design of digital circuits.
• Hexadecimal System: The hexadecimal system is a base-16 numbering system often used in computing as a more human-friendly representation of binary-coded values.

The correct answer is Digitizer.

Key Points

• A digitizer is a device that converts handwritten impressions into digital data that can be recognized by a computer.
• It typically consists of a flat surface, such as a tablet, and a stylus or pen that is used to write on the surface.
• The digitizer tracks the position and pressure of the stylus as it moves across the surface, and this information is used to create a digital representation of the handwriting.

Additional Information 

• Keyboard is a device that is used to input text by pressing keys.
• Mouse is a pointing device that is used to control the cursor on a computer screen.
• Printer is a device that is used to print text or images onto paper.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• A worm is a type of malware that replicates itself in order to spread to other computers.
• A worm can spread without any human intervention by exploiting vulnerabilities in network protocols.
• Unlike viruses, worms do not need to attach themselves to a host program or software to propagate.
• Once a worm infects a system, it can cause unexpected or damaging behavior, such as consuming system resources or stealing sensitive data.
• Prominent examples of worms include Sobig, Code Red, and Mydoom.

Additional Information

• Worms are often spread through network connections, email attachments, or by exploiting security vulnerabilities in software.
• Because worms can replicate and spread quickly, they can cause widespread damage and disruption to computer networks.
• Network administrators and users should ensure that their systems are regularly updated with security patches to protect against worm infections.
• Using firewalls, antivirus software, and intrusion detection systems can help mitigate the risk of worm infections.