DDA MTS (16 December 2025): Memory Based Test (Previous Year Paper)

Given:

Mohan sold an item for Rs 8400 and incurred a loss of 25%.

Formula used:

SP = CP × (\dfrac{\text{100}}{100-L})

Or, SP = CP × (\dfrac{100+P}{100})

Calculation:

Mohan sold an item for Rs 8400 and incurred a loss of 25%.

SP = 8400 × (\dfrac{\text{100}}{100-25})

⇒ 8400 × (\dfrac{\text{100}}{75}) = Rs. 11200

For 40% profit,

SP = CP × (\dfrac{100+P}{100}) 

⇒ 11200 × (\dfrac{100+40}{100})

⇒ 11200 × (\dfrac{\text{140}}{100}) = Rs. 15680

Shortcut Trick

When a larger sphere is melted to form smaller identical spheres, the Number of balls (n) is simply the ratio of their radii cubed.

n = (Radius of larger ball / Radius of smaller ball)³

n = (21 / 7)³

n = (3)³ = 27

∴ The correct answer is 27.

Alternate Method

Given: Radius of the iron ball (R) = 21 cm, Radius of each recast ball (r) = 7 cm.

Formula Used: Volume of a sphere = (4/3) × π × r³

⇒ Volume of the large iron ball = (4/3) × π × (21)³ cm³

⇒ Volume of one small spherical ball = (4/3) × π × (7)³ cm³

⇒ Let n be the number of small balls.

⇒ Total volume of n small balls = Volume of the large iron ball

⇒ n × (4/3) × π × (7)³ = (4/3) × π × (21)³

⇒ n × 7 × 7 × 7 = 21 × 21 × 21

⇒ n = (21 × 21 × 21) ÷ (7 × 7 × 7)

⇒ n = 3 × 3 × 3

⇒ n = 27

∴ The correct answer is 27.

Additional Information

Law of Conservation of Volume

When a solid object is melted and recast into new shapes, the total volume remains the same (Initial Volume = Final Volume).

Properties of a Sphere

The Surface Area of a sphere is 4 π r². For a hemisphere, the Total Surface Area is 3 π r² and the Volume is (2/3) π r³.

Ratio Shortcut for Solids

If the ratio of radii of two similar solids is a:b, then the ratio of their Surface Areas is a²:b² and the ratio of their Volumes is a³:b³.

Shortcut Trick

Let the number of pens bought and sold be the L.C.M. of 5 and 4, which is 20.

C.P. of 20 pens = (20 ÷ 5) × 1 = Rs. 4.

S.P. of 20 pens = (20 ÷ 4) × 1 = Rs. 5.

Profit = 5 − 4 = Rs. 1.

Profit% = (1 ÷ 4) × 100 = 25%.

∴ The correct answer is 25%.

Alternate Method

Given: C.P. of 5 pens = Rs. 1 | S.P. of 4 pens = Rs. 1. Formulas: Profit = S.P. − C.P. | Profit% = (Profit ÷ C.P.) × 100.

⇒ Cost Price of 1 pen = 1 ÷ 5 = Rs. 0.20. ⇒ Selling Price of 1 pen = 1 ÷ 4 = Rs. 0.25. ⇒ Profit per pen = 0.25 − 0.20 = Rs. 0.05. ⇒ Gain% = (0.05 ÷ 0.20) × 100. ⇒ Gain% = (1 ÷ 4) × 100 = 25%.

∴ The correct answer is 25%.

Additional Information

Unitary Method in Profit and Loss

Calculating the price of a single unit makes it easier to compare the buying and selling rates to find the gain or loss.

Cross-Multiplication Method

For questions like 'x articles for Rs. y', the Profit% can be found using the formula: [(Initial Quantity − Final Quantity) ÷ Final Quantity] × 100 when the price remains constant.

Shortcut Trick

Assume Total Work (cistern capacity) = 48 units (LCM of 48 and 6).

Combined efficiency of M + N = 48 ÷ (48/13) = 13 units/min.

Efficiency of N alone = 48 ÷ 6 = 8 units/min.

Efficiency of M alone = 13 − 8 = 5 units/min.

Time taken by M = 48 ÷ 5 = 9.6 min.

∴ The correct answer is 9.6 min.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by Tap M and N together = 48/13 min

Time taken by Tap N alone = 6 min

Formula Used:

Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time

Time taken by M alone = Total Work ÷ Efficiency of M

Calculations:

⇒ Efficiency of M + N = 48 ÷ (48/13) = 48 × (13/48) = 13 units/min

⇒ Efficiency of N = 48 ÷ 6 = 8 units/min

⇒ Efficiency of M = Efficiency of (M + N) − Efficiency of N

⇒ Efficiency of M = 13 − 8 = 5 units/min

⇒ Time taken by Tap M alone = 48 ÷ 5

⇒ Time taken by Tap M = 9.6 min

∴ The correct answer is 9.6 min.

Additional Information

LCM of Fractions

To find the LCM of fractions, use the formula: LCM of Numerators ÷ HCF of Denominators.

Pipes and Cisterns Logic

The rate of work (efficiency) of multiple taps working together is the algebraic sum of their individual efficiencies.

Combined Work Formula

If two taps A and B take 'a' and 'b' minutes respectively, the time taken together is (a × b) ÷ (a + b).

Given:

Side of Equilateral Triangle = 132 cm

Concept:

(Hypotenuse)² = (Base)² + (Perpendicular)²

Area of Triangle = (1/2) × Base × Altitude

Calculation:

Using Pythagoras Theorem,

⇒ Altitude of ΔABC = (√{(132)^2 - (66)^2})

⇒ Altitude of ΔABC = (√{17424 - 4356})

⇒ Altitude of ΔABC = √13068

⇒ Altitude of ΔABC = 66√3 cm

⇒ Area of the triangle = (1/2) × 132 × 66√3

⇒ Area of the triangle = 4356√3 cm²

∴ The correct answer is Option 1).

Shortcut Trick

Successive change % = a + b + (ab/100)

Net change = −20 + 15 + [(−20 × 15) / 100] = −5 − 3 = −8%

A decrease of 8% is equal to 64 units.

8% → 64

100% → (64 ÷ 8) × 100 = 800

∴ The correct answer is 800.

Alternate Method

Given:

First decrease = 20%

Second increase = 15%

Difference from original = 64

Formula Used:

Final Value = Initial Value × (100 − d%)/100 × (100 + i%)/100

100% Original

−20%

80%

+15%

92% Final

Difference = 8% = 64

Let the original number be x.

⇒ Number after 20% decrease = x × (80/100) = 0.8x

⇒ Number after 15% increase = 0.8x × (115/100)

⇒ Final number = 0.8x × 1.15 = 0.92x

⇒ Given: x − 0.92x = 64

⇒ 0.08x = 64

⇒ x = 64 ÷ 0.08

⇒ x = 6400 ÷ 8 = 800

∴ The correct answer is 800.

Additional Information

Successive Percentage Change

When a value is changed by a% and then by b%, the effective change is (a + b + ab/100)%. Use positive for increase and negative for decrease.

Fraction Method

Percentages can be converted to fractions: 20% decrease means 4/5 of value, and 15% increase means 23/20 of value. Multiply these fractions for the net effect.

Base Value Rule

In successive changes, the second percentage change is always applied to the value obtained after the first change, not the original value.

Shortcut Trick

Side of cube (a) = √³(Volume) = √³(512) = 8 cm.

Main Diagonal of cube = a√3.

Diagonal = 8√3 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 8√3 cm.

Alternate Method

Given: Volume of cube = 512 cm³.

Formula Used: Volume = a³ | Main Diagonal = a√3 (where a is the side).

⇒ a³ = 512

⇒ a = √³(8 × 8 × 8)

⇒ Side (a) = 8 cm

⇒ Main Diagonal = a × √3

⇒ Diagonal = 8√3 cm

∴ The correct answer is 8√3 cm.

Additional Information

Surface Area of Cube

The Total Surface Area (TSA) of a cube is 6a² and the Lateral Surface Area (LSA) is 4a².

Face Diagonal

The diagonal of any single square face of the cube is given by a√2.

In-radius and Circum-radius

The In-radius (r) is a/2 and the Circum-radius (R) of the cube is (a√3)/2.

Shortcut Trick

Wages are distributed in the inverse ratio of time taken when persons work together.

Time ratio of A : B = 20 : 50 = 2 : 5

Efficiency (wage) ratio of A : B = 5 : 2

Share of B = (2 ÷ 7) × 3500 = 1000

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 1000.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by A = 20 days

Time taken by B = 50 days

Total wages = Rs. 3500

Formula Used:

Wages are distributed in the ratio of efficiencies when working together.

Total Work = LCM of days taken.

Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Days

Calculations:

⇒ Efficiency ratio of A : B = 5 : 2

⇒ Total efficiency parts = 5 + 2 = 7

⇒ Share of B = (Efficiency of B ÷ Total efficiency) × Total wages

⇒ Share of B = (2 ÷ 7) × 3500

⇒ Share of B = 2 × 500 = 1000

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 1000.

Additional Information

Work and Wages

Wages are always distributed in proportion to the total work done. If multiple people work together for the exact same duration, their total wages are directly divided in the ratio of their individual efficiencies.

Efficiency vs Time

Efficiency is inversely proportional to time. If the ratio of time taken by A and B to complete a piece of work is a : b, then the ratio of their individual efficiencies will be b : a.

Pipes & Cisterns

Concepts of time and work apply identically to pipes and cisterns problems. The only key difference is that an outlet or emptying pipe is assigned a negative efficiency.

Shortcut Trick

For any set of numbers, the product of HCF and LCM is NOT simply the product of the numbers if there are more than two numbers.

HCF of (4, 20, 28) → 4 is the largest number dividing all.

LCM of (4, 20, 28) → 4 × 5 × 7 = 140.

Product = 4 × 140 = 560.

∴ The correct answer is 560.

Alternate Method

Given: Numbers are 4, 20, and 28.

Prime Factorization:

⇒ 4 = 2²

⇒ 20 = 2² × 5¹

⇒ 28 = 2² × 7¹

Calculations:

⇒ HCF (Highest Common Factor) = 2² = 4

⇒ LCM (Least Common Multiple) = 2² × 5¹ × 7¹ = 4 × 5 × 7 = 140

⇒ Product of HCF and LCM = 4 × 140

⇒ Product = 560

∴ The correct answer is 560.

Additional Information

HCF and LCM Property for Two Numbers

For any two numbers A and B, HCF(A, B) × LCM(A, B) = A × B. This property does not necessarily apply to three or more numbers.

Definition of HCF

The Highest Common Factor is the product of the lowest powers of all common prime factors.

Definition of LCM

The Least Common Multiple is the product of the highest powers of all prime factors involved in the numbers.

Shortcut Trick

Efficiency of 1 Man = 1/20 and 1 Woman = 1/30.

Required Efficiency for 2 Men and 3 Women = (2 × 1/20) + (3 × 1/30).

⇒ 1/10 + 1/10 = 2/10 = 1/5.

Total Time taken = Reciprocal of combined efficiency = 5 days.

∴ The correct answer is 5 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by one man = 20 days

Time taken by one woman = 30 days

Formula Used:

Total Work = Efficiency × Time

Calculations:

⇒ Total Work = LCM(20, 30) = 60 units.

⇒ Efficiency of 1 man = 60 ÷ 20 = 3 units/day.

⇒ Efficiency of 1 woman = 60 ÷ 30 = 2 units/day.

⇒ Efficiency of 2 men = 2 × 3 = 6 units/day.

⇒ Efficiency of 3 women = 3 × 2 = 6 units/day.

⇒ Combined Efficiency (2 men + 3 women) = 6 + 6 = 12 units/day.

⇒ Time required = Total Work ÷ Total Efficiency

⇒ Time = 60 ÷ 12 = 5 days.

∴ The correct answer is 5 days.

Additional Information

Work and Efficiency Relationship

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken to complete a task. Efficiency = 1 ÷ Time.

Combined Work Formula

If A takes 'x' days and B takes 'y' days, together they take (x × y) ÷ (x + y) days to finish the work.

Wages and Efficiency

In Time and Work, wages are always distributed in the ratio of the work done or the ratio of efficiencies of the workers.

Given Data:

Elected candidate gets 64% of the votes

Majority votes = 4340

Concept:

Majority votes are the difference between votes polled by the winner and loser. We need to find the total number of votes polled.

Calculation:

If the winner gets 64% votes, the loser gets 36% votes.

⇒ So, 64% - 36% = 28% of total votes equals 4340.

⇒ Therefore, total votes polled = 4340 / 0.28 = 15500 votes.

Therefore, the total number of votes polled is 15500.

Shortcut Trick

Let the Cost Price (CP) be 100%.

First Selling Price (SP₁) = 100% − 34% = 66%.

Given, 66% = Rs. 7,260.

Target Selling Price (SP₂) = 100% + 5% = 105%.

Required SP = (7,260 ÷ 66) × 105 = 110 × 105 = Rs. 11,550.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 11,550.

Alternate Method

Given → SP₁ = Rs. 7,260 | Loss = 34% | Desired Profit = 5% Formulas: CP = SP × 100 ÷ (100 − Loss%) | SP = CP × (100 + Profit%) ÷ 100

⇒ First, calculate CP: CP = 7,260 × 100 ÷ (100 − 34) = 7,260 × 100 ÷ 66. ⇒ CP = 110 × 100 = Rs. 11,000. ⇒ Now, calculate required SP for 5% profit: SP = 11,000 × (100 + 5) ÷ 100. ⇒ SP = 11,000 × 105 ÷ 100 = 110 × 105. ⇒ SP = Rs. 11,550.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 11,550.

Additional Information

Cost Price and Selling Price

The price at which an article is purchased is called its Cost Price (CP), and the price at which it is sold is called its Selling Price (SP).

Profit and Loss Percent

Profit and Loss percentages are always calculated on the Cost Price unless otherwise specified in the problem.

Let the distance covered by 50kmph be x km

Given that if the speed is increased by 10 kmph, then the distance covered is (x + 20) km

Also given that time is same for both the cases

⇒ x/50 = (x + 20)/60

⇒ 50x + 1000 = 60x

⇒ 1000 = 10x

⇒ x = 1000/10 = 100 km

∴ Actual distance covered = 100 km

Given:

The average of two numbers A and B is 20, that of B and C is 19 and C and A is 21. 

Concept Used:

Average = Sum of Observation/Tota number of Observation

Calculation:

Average of two number A and B is 20

Sum of two number = 20 × 2 = 40      ---- 1

Average of two number B and C is 19

Sum of two number = 19 × 2 = 38      ---- 2

Average of two number C and A is 21

Sum of two number = 21 × 2 = 42      ---- 3

Add equation 1, 2 and 3

⇒ 2(A + B + C) = 40 + 38 + 42

⇒ A + B + C = 60      ---- 4

According to the question,

The Value of A 

Subtract equation 2 from equation 4

⇒ A = 60 - 38

⇒ 22

∴ The value of A is 22.

Given:

47 + {7 + [61 − (21 ÷ 3)] ÷ 9}

Concept Used:

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculation:

47 + {7 + [61 − (21 ÷ 3)] ÷ 9}

= 47 + {7 + [61 − 7] ÷ 9}

= 47 + {7 + 54 ÷ 9}

= 47 + {7 + 6}

= 47 + 13

= 60

Hence, the required value is 60.

Shortcut Trick

Priyal's deficit in 12 exams = 12 × (25 − 23) = 24 marks.

This deficit of 24 marks must be recovered in the remaining 4 exams.

Extra marks needed per exam = 24 ÷ 4 = 6 marks.

Required average marks for Priyal = Target Average + Extra = 25 + 6 = 31.

∴ The correct answer is 31 marks.

Alternate Method

Given:

Sneha's average in 16 exams = 25 marks

Priyal's average in 12 exams = 23 marks

Formula Used:

Total Marks = Average × Number of Exams

Calculations:

⇒ Total marks obtained by Sneha = 16 × 25 = 400 marks

⇒ Current total marks of Priyal = 12 × 23 = 276 marks

⇒ Marks required by Priyal to equal Sneha = 400 − 276 = 124 marks

⇒ Number of remaining examinations for Priyal = 16 − 12 = 4

⇒ Required average for remaining exams = 124 ÷ 4 = 31 marks

∴ The correct answer is 31 marks.

Additional Information

Weighted Average Formula

Used when two groups are combined: Average_total = (n₁x₁ + n₂x₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂).

Sum of Observations

Total Sum = Average × Number of items. If the average increases, the new item added must be greater than the original average.

Net Deviation Concept

The sum of deviations from the average is always zero. Total Deficit = Total Surplus relative to the mean.

Given:

Time taken to cross the bridge = 59 s

Length of the platform = 204 m

Concept used:

Speed = Distance/time

Distance = length of the train + length of the bridge

Calculation:

Let the length of the train be x.

⇒ (x + 204)/59 = x/25

⇒ 25x + 5100 = 59x

⇒ 59x – 25x = 5100

⇒ 34x = 5100

⇒ x = 5100/34

⇒ x = 150 m

∴ Length of the train is 150 m.

GIVEN:

Ratio of two numbers = 2:3 

Product of LCM and HCF = 9600

FORMULA USED:

L.C.M × H.C.F = Product of two numbers 

CALCULATION:

Let us take the numbers to be 2x and 3x 

Since, L.C.M × H.C.F = product of two numbers 

Now, L.C.M × H.C.F  = 2x × 3x

 So, 9600 =  6x² 

⇒ x² = 1600

⇒ x = 40

Now, the numbers are 2x  = 2 × 40 = 80 and 3x = 3 × 40 = 120

Now, sum of the numbers  = ( 80 +120) = 200.

Hence, sum of the numbers are 200.

Given:

Successive discounts of 15% and 35%

Calculation:

⇒ Equivalent discount = 1 - (1 - 15/100) × (1 - 35/100) = 0.4475 or 44.75%

Therefore, successive discounts of 15% and 35% is equivalent to a single discount of 0.4475 or 44.75%.

Given: 

Rate of interest = 60%

Time (n) = 2 years

Interest = ₹11,700

Concept used:

Compound interest, CI = P(1 + R/100)ⁿ - P

where

P = Principal amount

R = Rate of interest per year

N = Time in years

Calculation:

Let the initial investment (Principal amount) be P.

According to the question,

P(1 + 60/100)² - P= 11700

⇒ P × 1.6² - P = 11700

⇒ P × 2.56 - P = 11700

⇒ P (2.56 - 1) = 11700

⇒ P × 1.56 = 11700

⇒ P = 11700/1.56

⇒ P = 7500

∴ He initially invested ₹7,500.

Given that profit was divided between them in the ratio 3 : 1

Let us consider Sohan joined the business after x months

⇒ (1,00,000 × 12)/ (40,000 × (12 - x)) = 3/1

⇒ 12,00,000 = 3 (4,80,000 - 40,000x)

⇒ 12,00,000 = 1440000 - 1,20,000x

⇒ 1,20,000x = 14,40,000 - 12,00,000

⇒ 1,20,000x = 2,40,000

⇒ x = 2,40,000/1,20,000 = 2

∴ After 2 months Sohan join the business

Shortcut Trick

Effective Simple Interest rate = Rate × Time = 12% × 1.5 years = 18%

Total Amount percentage = 100% (Principal) + 18% (Interest) = 118%

Given that 118% → Rs. 295

Principal (100%) = (295 ÷ 118) × 100 = 2.5 × 100 = Rs. 250

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 250.

Alternate Method

Given:

Rate (R) = 12% per annum

Time (T) = 1¹/₂ years = 1.5 years

Amount (A) = Rs. 295

Formula Used:

Amount (A) = Principal (P) + Simple Interest (SI)

SI = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Calculations:

⇒ 295 = P + (P × 12 × 1.5) ÷ 100

⇒ 295 = P + (P × 18) ÷ 100

⇒ 295 = P + 0.18P

⇒ 295 = 1.18P

⇒ P = 295 ÷ 1.18

⇒ P = 29500 ÷ 118

⇒ P = Rs. 250

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 250.

Additional Information

Simple Interest vs Compound Interest

In Simple Interest, the interest is calculated only on the principal amount, whereas in Compound Interest, interest is calculated on the principal plus the accumulated interest.

Amount Formula

The total amount (A) is always the sum of the Principal (P) and the Interest (I) earned over the period: A = P + I.

Difference for 2 Years

The difference between CI and SI for 2 years is given by the formula: D = P × (R ÷ 100)².

Shortcut Trick

Income ratio (A : B) = 4 : 3

Expenditure ratio (A : B) = 3 : 2

Since the difference between income and expenditure parts is the same for both (4 − 3 = 1 and 3 − 2 = 1), this 1 unit represents the savings.

Given: 1 unit = ₹600

Monthly income of B = 3 units = 3 × 600 = ₹1800

∴ The correct answer is ₹1800.

Alternate Method

Given: Income Ratio A : B = 4 : 3, Expenditure Ratio A : B = 3 : 2, Savings = ₹600 each.

Formula Used: Income − Savings = Expenditure

Income A (4 units)

Income B (3 units)

1 Unit = ₹600 Difference (Income − Exp) for A: 4 − 3 = 1 Unit Difference (Income − Exp) for B: 3 − 2 = 1 Unit B's Income = 3 Units → 3 × 600 = ₹1800

⇒ Let the monthly incomes of A and B be 4x and 3x respectively.

⇒ According to the question: Expenditure = Income − Savings

⇒ Expenditure of A = 4x − 600

⇒ Expenditure of B = 3x − 600

⇒ Ratio of their expenditures = (4x − 600) ÷ (3x − 600) = 3 ÷ 2

⇒ 2 × (4x − 600) = 3 × (3x − 600)

⇒ 8x − 1200 = 9x − 1800

⇒ 9x − 8x = 1800 − 1200

⇒ x = 600

⇒ Monthly income of B = 3x = 3 × 600 = ₹1800

∴ The correct answer is ₹1800.

Additional Information

Income and Expenditure Relation

Income = Expenditure + Savings. If two individuals have the same savings, the difference between their income and expenditure parts in a ratio must be equalized.

Cross-Multiplication Method

For unequal savings S₁ and S₂: (I₁ × E₂ − I₂ × E₁) units = (S₁ × E₂ − S₂ × E₁), where I and E are ratio coefficients.

Ratio Equalization

If the difference in parts is not equal, multiply the first ratio by the difference of the second ratio and vice versa to make the gap consistent.

Shortcut Trick

Present ratio Shinjan : Aamya = 3 : 4 (Difference = 1 unit)

Ratio after 10 years = 5 : 6 (Difference = 1 unit)

Increase in units for both = 5 − 3 = 6 − 4 = 2 units

Given, 2 units = 10 years ⇒ 1 unit = 5 years

Present age of Aamya = 4 units = 4 × 5 = 20 years

∴ The correct answer is 20 years.

Alternate Method

Let the present ages of Shinjan and Aamya be 3x and 4x respectively.

⇒ After 10 years, Shinjan age = 3x + 10

⇒ After 10 years, Aamya age = 4x + 10

⇒ (3x + 10) / (4x + 10) = 5 / 6

⇒ 6(3x + 10) = 5(4x + 10)

⇒ 18x + 60 = 20x + 50

⇒ 20x − 18x = 60 − 50

⇒ 2x = 10 ⇒ x = 5

⇒ Present age of Aamya = 4x = 4 × 5 = 20 years

∴ The correct answer is 20 years.

Additional Information

Ratio Difference Balancing

If the difference between ratio terms is not equal, multiply the ratios by the difference of the other ratio to balance the age gap.

Age Constant Concept

The difference between the ages of two people always remains constant regardless of the number of years passed.

Given:

The population of a village 2 years ago = 15,000

The population of a village decreases at the rate of 40% per annum

Formula used:

Present population = previous population × (1 ± R%)ⁿ

Calculation:

Present population = previous population × (1 - R%)n

⇒ 15000 × (1 - 40%)²

⇒ 15000 × (60/100)²

⇒ 15000 × (9/25) = 5400

∴ The correct answer is 5400.

The seating arrangement is as follows:

Pancy and Uno are sitting at the extreme ends.

 

Sia is sitting second to the right of Pancy and is the neighbour of Tim and Ron. Case 2 is incorrect. But again there are two cases.

 

 

Quta is the neighbour of Uno and Veer.

 

 

Ron is sitting immediate left of Veer.

Hence Case 1.2 is incorrect.

Hence, Ron sits in the middle.

From the given information:

<br>

Given expression: 96 ÷ 360 × 15 + 9 - 10

On changing the symbols with their meaning and using BODMAS rule, we get:

96 + 360 ÷ 15 - 9 × 10

= 96 + 24 - 9 × 10

= 96 + 24 - 90

= 120 - 90

= 30

Hence, "30" is the correct answer.

Given:

Boxes : 1 (lowermost) to 7 (Topmost)

Explanation: 

1) Box of pencils is not being numbered as an even number. (Either the box of pencils is kept on 1st, 3rd, 5th or 7th position from the bottom.)

2) At least two boxes are above and two boxes are below where the box of pencils is kept. (Thus, Box of pencils is neither at 1st  position nor at 7th position)  So case 1 and 4 are eliminated.

3)  There are at least two boxes between the box of pencils and the box of Erasers which is kept on the topmost position. (So Box of pencils is not at 5th position) So case 2 is also eliminated.

So, Box of pencils is at third position from the bottom.

Hence, 'Option 1' is the correct answer.

The least possible venn diagram for the given statements is as follows:

For conclusions:

I. Some Covers are Idols → False (There is no direct relation given between Covers and Idols. Therefore, we can not surely say that some Covers are Idols)

II. Some Rings are Maps → False (There is no direct relation given between Rings and Maps. Therefore, we can not surely say that some Rings are Maps)

III. Some Covers are Maps → False (There is no direct relation given between Covers and Maps. Therefore, we can not surely say that some Covers are Maps)

Hence, None of the conclusions follows is correct.

Additional Information

From the information above, we can easily conclude that the intention behind the Government to launch a campaign named “Know your Constitution” in schools is to focus on increasing the awareness among the kids about their Constitution.

Therefore, conclusion I follows.

But the information above is not sufficient for us to conclude the consequence of this campaign, especially regarding the improvement in the conditions of school.

Therefore, conclusion II does not follow.

Hence, Only conclusion I follows.

The logic followed here is :-

1. First three letters → Arranged in descending order according to English alphabetic series.
2. Last three letters → Arranged in ascending order according to English alphabetic series.
3. Fourth letter → No change.

​So,

• IMPROVE : PMIREOV

​

Similarly,

• LOGICAL :

 

Hence, the correct answer is "OLGIACL".

From the statement above, we can understand that Mathematics is the most scoring section of SSC CGL exam, so it can be easily concluded that this section is comparatively easier than other sections.

Therefore, conclusion II follows.

But it cannot be concluded from the information given above that we need to exactly focus on Geometry only.

Therefore, conclusion I does not follow.

Hence, Only conclusion II follows.

The logic follows here is:-

Thus, the correct answer is 'option 1'.

The difference between the first alphabets of the series is of 5 alphabets.

The difference between the second alphabets of the series is of 5 alphabets.

The difference between the third alphabets of the series is of 5 alphabets.

Thus, QRB is the correct answer.

Logic: The addition of a letter is equal to 28

'FIGHT' is written as 'VSUTH'

And,

'ENTRY' is written as 'WNHJC'

Similarly,

'FOCUS' be written as '?'

Hence, the correct answer is "VMYGI".

Fish, termite and peacock are not related to each other.

The correct Venn diagram representation is,

Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is :-

1. Vowels → No change
2. Consonants → Opposite letter according to English alphabetic series is written.
3. All the letters are arranged in ascending order at last.

​So,

• ANXIOUS : ACHIMOU​

Similarly,

• BETWEEN :

 

Hence, the correct answer is "DEEEGMY".

Here, A ^ B means A is daughter of B.

B @ C means B is wife of C.

C * D means C is son of D.

D $ E means D is husband of E.

The diagram for the same is as follows:

Hence, E is grandmother of A.

M is second to the left of T and third to the right of P

R is third to the left of N, who is to the immediate left of T.

L is second to the right of P

Q is not the neighbour of P or R.

1. Q is to the immediate right of S → False (Q is to the immediate left of S)

2. M is between N and Q → False (M is between N and L)

3. R is to the immediate right of P → True

4. R is between P and S → False (R is between P and L)

Hence, ‘R is to the immediate right of P’ is the correct answer.

Out of the four triads three triads follow a pattern

1) (723, 456, 189)

723 = 7 + 2 + 3 = 12

456 = 4 + 5 + 6 = 15

189 = 1 + 8 + 9 = 18

2) (219, 483, 675)

219 = 2 + 1 + 9 = 12

483 = 4 + 8 + 3 = 15 

675 = 6 + 7 + 5 = 18

3) (623, 456, 189)

623 = 6 + 2 + 3 = 11

456 = 4 + 5 + 6 = 15

189 = 1 + 8 + 9 = 18

4) (192, 384, 576)

192 = 1 + 9 + 2 = 12

384 = 3 + 8 + 4 = 15

576 = 5 + 7 + 6 = 18

sum of digits of first number in triad is 12

sum of digits of second number in triad is 15

and, sum of digits of third number in triad is 18

on checking, option 3

the first number 326 = 3 + 2 + 6 = 11

654 = 6 + 5 + 4 = 15

981 = 9 + 8 + 1 = 18

Hence, option 3  is different from the given number triads.

The pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is 25.

The logic is :

 

Hence, 'Canberra' is the correct answer.

Let’s check each option,

1. AIRLINE → can be formed as MILLIONAIRE.

2. MARLINE → can be formed as MILLIONAIRE.

3. MINERAL → can be formed as MILLIONAIRE.

4. SALIENT → cannot be formed as there is no ‘S’ and ‘T’ in MILLIONAIRE.

Hence, SALIENT can’t be formed from word MILLIONAIRE.

check all the options,

1. • and ​÷ 

→ 9.5 – 5.5 × 5 ÷ 6.9 + 1.9 = 3.81

After interchanging, we get

= 9.5 – 5.5 × 5 + 6.9 ÷ 1.9

= 9.5 – 5.5 × 5 + 3.63

=  9.5 – 27.5 + 3.63

= 13.13 – 27.5

= -14.37 ≠ 3.81

2) × and ​- 

→ 9.5 – 5.5 × 5 ÷ 6.9 + 1.9 = 3.81

After interchanging, we get

= 9.5 × 5.5 - 5 ÷ 6.9 + 1.9

= 9.5 × 5.5 – 0.72 + 1.9

= 52.52 – 0.72 + 1.9

= 54.15 – 0.72

= 53.43 ≠ 3.81

3. ÷ and ×

→ 9.5 – 5.5 × 5 ÷ 6.9 + 1.9 = 3.81

After interchanging, we get

= 9.5 – 5.5 ÷ 5 × 6.9 + 1.9

= 9.5 – 1.1 × 6.9 + 1.9

= 9.5 – 7.59 + 1.9

= 11.4 – 7.59

= 3.81 = 3.81

4) - and ​+ 

→ 9.5 – 5.5 × 5 ÷ 6.9 + 1.9 = 3.81

After interchanging, we get

= 9.5 + 5.5 × 5 ÷ 6.9 – 1.9

= 9.5 + 5.5 × 0.72 – 1.9

= 9.5 + 3.96 – 1.9

= 13.46 – 1.9

= 11.56 ≠ 3.81

Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

Seven persons : A, B, C, D, E, F and G.

i) Four people live between F and E.

ii) F does not live on top floor or ground floor.

iii)G lives immediately above or below the floor on which F lives.

iv) Three persons live between A and G.

v) G lives on a floor below D.

This eliminates case 2.

vi) D and C are immediate neighbours.

vii) More than two persons live between E and D.

1. C lives on floor no. 3. → False

2. Only two persons live above B. → False

3. As many persons live above A as many person live below C. → False

4. Three persons live between A and G. → True

Hence, 'Three persons live between A and G.' can be drawn from the given information.

The pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is 688.

The logic follows here is :-

Graph of Direction :

Direction for given question :

Thus, the correct answer is 'North-West'.

Logic: 

1) Vowels are replaced with the next consonant.

2) Consonants are multiplied by × 2.

'FIELD' is written as 'LJFXH'

And,

'JUDGE' is written as 'TVHNF'

Similarly,

'BLOCK' be written '?'

Hence, the correct answer is "DXPFV".

The positional value of the alphabet is shown below:

The logic followed here is:

All letter clusters except option(2) followed the same decrease and increase in positional value as shown above.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option(2)".

1. Six friends Madav, Arjun, Shankar, Sanvi, Ramya and Shruthi went on a vacation to a hill station.
2. They are to be accommodated in a row of nine cottages, each in one cottage. Madav, Sanvi and Shruthi do not want to stay at the end of the row.

<br>

3. Sanvi is to be in the cottage next to the cottage at the beginning.

<br>

4. There shall be only one empty cottage between Madav’s and Shruthi’s.
5. Arjun’s cottage is adjacent to both Ramya’s and Shruthi’s.

<br>

6. Shankar and Madav must not have anybody adjacent to their cottages.

If we put Shankar at any of the positions in Case I, the above statement will be violated.

So, it is eliminated.

<br>

So, the maximum number of consecutive cottages that are occupied is 4.

Hence, ‘4’ is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 11.

Key Points

• India has recognized 11 languages as classical languages as of 31 October 2024.
• The languages recognized as classical are: Tamil (2004), Sanskrit (2005), Kannada (2008), Telugu (2008), Malayalam (2013), and Odia (2014). These were the initial six languages that attained classical status.
• Later, additional languages such as Assamese, Marathi, Bengali, Punjabi, and Gujarati achieved classical language status, bringing the total to 11.
• Criteria for classical language recognition: The language must have a long history of literature and a cultural heritage spanning over 1500-2000 years.
• Classical languages receive special support for the promotion and preservation of their rich heritage, including the establishment of a center for excellence and financial assistance for research and development.

Additional Information

• Tamil:
• Recognized in 2004, Tamil is one of the oldest languages in the world and has a rich literary tradition dating back over 2,000 years.
• It has contributed significantly to Indian culture, philosophy, and literature.
• It is widely spoken in Tamil Nadu, Sri Lanka, and among Tamil diaspora communities worldwide.
• Sanskrit:
• Recognized in 2005, Sanskrit is considered the mother of most Indian languages and has been central to ancient Indian philosophy and religious texts.
• It is still used in Hindu rituals and is highly regarded for its grammatical precision.
• Kannada:
• Recognized in 2008, Kannada has a literary history spanning over 1,500 years.
• Its rich heritage includes works by poets like Pampa, Ranna, and Kuvempu.
• Kannada is primarily spoken in Karnataka.
• Telugu:
• Recognized in 2008, Telugu is known for its classical poetry and literary contributions.
• It is primarily spoken in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
• Malayalam:
• Recognized in 2013, Malayalam has a literary tradition rich in poetry, drama, and prose.
• It is the official language of Kerala.
• Odia:
• Recognized in 2014, Odia has a rich classical literature tradition dating back over 1,500 years.
• It is the official language of Odisha.
• Other Recognized Classical Languages:
• Languages like Assamese, Marathi, Bengali, Punjabi, and Gujarati have also contributed significantly to India’s cultural and literary heritage.
• These languages have longstanding literary traditions and are widely spoken across India.

Important Points

• Recognition Process: The Indian government evaluates languages based on their historical significance, literary tradition, and cultural heritage before granting classical status.
• Benefits of Classical Status: Languages with classical status receive government support for research, preservation, and promotion.
• Language Development: Establishing academic and research centers dedicated to these languages ensures their continued relevance and development.
• Promotion: Financial aid is offered to scholars and institutions to study, preserve, and promote classical languages.
• Global Recognition: India's classical languages are a source of pride and highlight the country’s rich linguistic and cultural heritage on the global stage.

The correct answer is Bombay

Key Points

• The First Session of the Indian National Congress was held in Bombay in December 1885.
• The session was attended by 72 delegates from various parts of India.
• The Indian National Congress was founded by A.O. Hume, a retired British civil servant, along with Indian leaders like Dadabhai Naoroji and Dinshaw Wacha.
• The main objective of the first session was to create a platform for civil and political dialogue among educated Indians.
• This session laid the foundation for the Indian National Congress to become a significant political force in the Indian independence movement.

Additional Information

• The Indian National Congress played a crucial role in the struggle for India's independence from British rule.
• Over the years, the Congress evolved from a platform for debate and dialogue to a mass movement advocating for self-rule and later complete independence.
• Prominent leaders associated with the Congress include Mahatma Gandhi, Jawaharlal Nehru, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, and Subhas Chandra Bose, among others.
• The Congress adopted various methods of protest, including non-cooperation, civil disobedience, and the Quit India Movement, to challenge British authority.
• The Indian National Congress continues to be a major political party in India, playing a significant role in the country's political landscape post-independence.

The correct answer is Both mass and velocity of the particle.

Key Points

• Kinetic Energy is the energy possessed by a particle due to its motion. It is mathematically defined as K.E. = 1/2 mv², where m is the mass of the particle and v is its velocity.
• The formula clearly shows that kinetic energy depends on both the mass and the velocity of the particle. Hence, the correct answer is related to these two parameters.
• If the mass of the particle increases, the kinetic energy increases proportionally. For example, doubling the mass doubles the kinetic energy.
• The velocity of the particle has a more significant impact because kinetic energy is directly proportional to the square of velocity (v²). For instance, doubling the velocity increases the kinetic energy by four times.
• Other factors such as acceleration or force are not directly involved in determining the kinetic energy of a particle, as kinetic energy is solely a function of mass and velocity.

Additional Information

• Mass:
• The mass of an object is a measure of its inertia, representing the amount of matter it contains. In the context of kinetic energy, larger mass results in greater energy for the same velocity.
• For instance, a truck moving at a certain velocity has significantly more kinetic energy than a bicycle moving at the same velocity due to its larger mass.
• Velocity:
• Velocity is the speed of an object in a specific direction. Kinetic energy depends heavily on velocity as it is proportional to the square of velocity (v²).
• For example, increasing the velocity of a car from 20 m/s to 40 m/s quadruples its kinetic energy.
• Applications of Kinetic Energy:
• Kinetic energy is a fundamental concept in physics and engineering. It is utilized in designing vehicles, machinery, and energy systems.
• Examples include wind turbines where the kinetic energy of moving air is converted into electrical energy.
• Important Points:
• Kinetic energy does not depend on acceleration or force directly. These factors influence velocity, which in turn impacts kinetic energy.
• It is a scalar quantity, meaning it has magnitude but no direction.

Rusting of iron is an example of an oxidation reaction.

Key Points

• Oxidation is the loss of electrons, gain of oxygen or loss of hydrogen.
• The iron reacts with water and oxygen to form hydrated iron(III) oxide, which we see as rust.
• Iron + water + oxygen → hydrated iron(III) oxide
• Galvanizing is a method of rust prevention
• The iron or steel object is coated in a thin layer of zinc.
• This stops oxygen and water reaching the metal underneath and prevents its corrosion.

The Correct Answer is Assistance in Deploying Energy Efficient Technologies in Industries & Establishments.

In News

• ADEETIE Scheme Launched to Promote Energy Efficiency in MSMEs.

Key Points

• The ADEETIE scheme stands for Assistance in Deploying Energy Efficient Technologies in Industries & Establishments.
• Officially launched at Arya (P.G.) College, Panipat, Haryana.
• It is an initiative of the Ministry of Power, implemented by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE).
• The scheme has a budgetary outlay of ₹1000 crore.
• Offers end-to-end support through:
• Interest subvention,
• Investment Grade Energy Audits (IGEA),
• Detailed Project Reports (DPRs),
• Monitoring & Verification (M&V) after implementation.
• Covers 14 energy-intensive sectors, including:
  

Brass, Bricks, Ceramics, Chemicals, Fishery, Food Processing, Forging, Foundry, Glass, Leather, Paper, Pharma, Steel Re-rolling, and Textiles.

• Provides 5% interest subvention for Micro and Small Enterprises, and 3% for Medium Enterprises.
• Aims to make energy-efficient technologies affordable and accessible for MSMEs.
• Supports India’s transition to a low-carbon economy.

The correct answer is Subsidies.

Key Points

• Subsidies are classified as revenue expenditure and not capital expenditure.
• Capital expenditure is incurred to acquire or create assets that provide long-term benefits, such as land, buildings, machinery, etc.
• Subsidies involve financial support provided by the government to individuals or entities to reduce the cost of products or services, and they do not result in the creation of tangible assets.
• Examples of subsidies include agricultural subsidies, fuel subsidies, and food subsidies provided to support specific sectors or groups in the economy.

Additional Information

• Capital Expenditure: Refers to spending that leads to the creation of assets or infrastructure, contributing to the long-term growth of the economy.
• Revenue Expenditure: Refers to spending incurred for the day-to-day operations of the government, including salaries, interest payments, and subsidies.
• Examples of Capital Expenditure: Acquisition of land, construction of buildings, investment in machinery, and loans to state governments for asset creation.
• Budget Classification: Government budgets classify expenditures into capital and revenue expenditures to ensure proper allocation and economic planning.
• Impact of Subsidies: While subsidies provide immediate relief to beneficiaries, excessive reliance on them can strain government finances and reduce funds available for capital expenditure projects.

The Correct answer is Excise Duty.

Key Points

• Excise Duty is an indirect tax imposed on the manufacture and production of goods in India.
• It is levied on goods produced within the country and not on income or wealth, making it distinct from direct taxes.
• This tax is collected by the government from manufacturers or producers, who then pass it on to consumers as part of the price of goods.
• Excise duty is categorized under indirect taxation because the tax burden is transferred to the end consumer.
• It was previously governed by the Central Excise Act, 1944, but post-GST implementation, excise duty is primarily applicable to certain products like petroleum and alcohol.
• Unlike direct taxes such as income tax, excise duty does not directly target an individual's earnings or wealth.

Additional Information

• Income Tax
• Income Tax is a direct tax imposed on the earnings of individuals and entities.
• It is governed by the Income Tax Act, 1961 in India.
• This tax is progressive in nature, meaning higher income earners pay higher tax rates.
• Income tax contributes significantly to the government revenue and is used for public welfare projects.
• Wealth Tax
• Wealth Tax was a direct tax levied on the net wealth of individuals, Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs), and companies.
• It was abolished in India in 2015 and replaced with a surcharge on the super-rich.
• Its aim was to tax the assets and properties owned, rather than income earned.
• Corporation Tax
• Corporation Tax is a direct tax imposed on the profits of companies.
• It is governed by the Income Tax Act, 1961 under the section specifically designed for businesses.
• This tax is levied on both domestic and foreign companies operating in India.
• Corporation tax rates vary based on the type of company and its revenue.

The Chola Emperor Rajraja had the name Arumolivarman.

Key Points

• Rajaraja I (985 – 1014 CE) born as Arumolivarman was the most powerful ruler of Chola empire.
• According to the Thiruvalangadu copper-plate inscription, Rajaraja's original name was Arumolivarman.
• He established Chola authority over large parts of South India.
• His much-acclaimed naval expeditions led to the expansion of Cholas into the West Coast and Sri Lanka.
• He built the famous Rajarajeswaram (Brihadeshwara) Temple in Thanjavur.
• Rajaraja I encouraged Sailendra ruler of Srivijaya to build a Buddhist Vihara at Nagapattinam.
• He was also known as Ulakalanada Perumal because he standarised the collection of taxes.

Hence, we can conclude that the Chola Emperor Rajraja had the name Arumolivarman.

Additional Information

• Parantaka:
• ​He defeated the Pandyas and the ruler of Ceylon at the famous Battle of Vellur.
• He suffered a defeat at the hands of the Rashtrakuta king Krishna III in the famous Battle of Takkolam.
• Parantaka I was a great builder of temples.
• He also provided the vimana of the famous Nataraja temple at Chidambaram with a golden roof.
• Rajendra:
• ​He was the son of Rajaraj I.
• He continued his father’s policy of aggressive conquests and expansion.
• During his reign, the whole of Sri Lanka was made part of the Chola empire.
• He reasserted the Chola authority over the Chera and Pandya countries.
• To commemorate this successful north India campaign, Rajendra  I founded the city of Gangaikondacholapuram and constructed the famous Rajesvaram temple in that city.
• Rajadhiraja:
• ​He was called Jayamkonda Chola (the victorious Chola king), as he fought with his men on the front.
• He destroyed the Chalukyan cities such as Kalyani and planted a Jaystambha at Yadgir.
• He was killed on the battlefield while fighting in the Battle of Koppam against Someshwar – western Chalukyan king.
• He earned the title of Yanai-mel-thunjina Devar (the king who died on the back of an elephant).

The correct answer is Reduction of inequalities in income and status among individuals and groups.

Key Points

• The Change: It added Article 38(2) to the Constitution.
• The Goal: It tells the government to reduce the gap between the rich and the poor.
• Beyond Money: It’s not just about income; the government must also work to give everyone equal status, better facilities, and fair opportunities.
• It focuses on helping both individuals and groups (like people in different jobs or different regions).

Additional Information

• Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP): The DPSPs are guidelines for the state to frame policies and laws aimed at establishing social and economic democracy in the country.
• 44th Amendment Act, 1978: In addition to adding Article 38(2), this amendment also made significant changes, such as restoring the right to property as a legal right rather than a fundamental right.
• Article 39: It provides for the principles of policy that aim to ensure adequate means of livelihood, equal pay for equal work, and protection against economic exploitation.
• Legal Aid System in India: The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) was set up under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, to provide free legal aid to marginalized sections of society.
• Fundamental Rights vs Directive Principles: While Fundamental Rights are enforceable by the courts, DPSPs are non-justiciable but act as guiding principles for governance.

The correct answer is Article 300A.

Key Points

• Article 300A of the Indian Constitution deals with the Right to Property. This article states that no person shall be deprived of their property except by the authority of law.
• The Right to Property was initially a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31, but it was removed from the fundamental rights category by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978.
• After the amendment, the Right to Property became a legal right, meaning it is no longer enforceable as a fundamental right but can be protected through legal remedies.
• This change was introduced to balance individual rights and the state's need to acquire land for public purposes, ensuring a fair legal process.
• Article 300A applies to the entire Indian territory and ensures that property can only be taken away through a legal process and adequate compensation.

Additional Information

• History of Right to Property in India:
• Initially, the Right to Property was a fundamental right under Articles 19(1)(f) and 31. It guaranteed citizens the freedom to acquire, hold, and dispose of property.
• The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978, shifted the Right to Property from fundamental rights to a constitutional legal right under Article 300A.
• This change was made to enable the government to acquire private property for public purposes without being challenged on fundamental rights grounds.
• Key Features of Article 300A:
• It is a constitutional legal right enforceable through courts, but it does not hold the status of a fundamental right.
• Property can only be acquired by the state using a legal process, and fair compensation must be provided.
• Citizens can challenge unlawful confiscation of property under Article 300A in a court of law.
• Comparison with Fundamental Rights:
• Fundamental Rights such as those under Articles 14-32 are protected against arbitrary state actions and can be enforced directly through the courts.
• Legal rights like Article 300A require legal procedures to be followed and do not offer direct protection against state actions unless challenged legally.
• Examples of State Actions Related to Property:
• Land acquisition for public infrastructure like highways, railways, and urban development projects is undertaken under laws like the Land Acquisition Act, 2013.
• The government ensures that property acquisition is done fairly and compensates owners adequately, aligning with Article 300A.

Important Points

• The transition of the Right to Property from a fundamental right to a legal right reflects the government's intent to balance individual ownership rights with societal needs.
• The 44th Amendment Act is a landmark amendment that significantly impacted land acquisition, urban planning, and infrastructure development processes in India.
• Citizens must understand their rights under Article 300A to ensure they receive adequate compensation if their property is acquired legally by the state.

The correct answer is Article 17.

• Abolition of Untouchability comes under Article 17.

Key Points

• Article 17 of the Indian Constitution ensures the Abolition of untouchability.
• Untouchability” is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden.
• The enforcement of any disability arising out of “Untouchability” shall be an offence punishable in accordance with the law.

Additional Information

• Article 15:
• Prohibition of discrimination on the ground of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
• Article 20:
• It is related to protection with respect to the conviction for offences
• ​Article 10:
• It deals with Continuance of the rights of citizenship

The Correct Answer is Colombo.

In News

• ISA to Host Asia-Pacific Solar Meet in Colombo to Boost Regional Action

Key Points

• The International Solar Alliance (ISA) will hold its 7th Regional Committee Meeting for Asia and the Pacific in Colombo over three days starting tomorrow.
• Focus: Advancing solar energy deployment, cross-border solar interconnections, and emerging clean technologies.
• Key agenda items:
• Investment-ready solar solutions
• Green hydrogen, energy storage, and e-mobility
• Cross-border collaboration
• Digital capability building and policy innovation
• Signing of Country Partnership Frameworks and global cooperation agreements expected.
• Will further operationalise the SIDS (Small Island Developing States) Solar Platform.
• Plans to expand STAR Centres (for training and R&D), and digital learning platforms to address regional skill gaps.
• The ISA–ADB (Asian Development Bank) joint project on ecosystem readiness for green hydrogen will feed into discussions.
• The ISA was co-founded by India and France in 2015, headquartered in Gurugram, India.
• India continues to provide strategic, institutional, and financial leadership to the alliance.

The correct answer is Raja Raja Chola

Key Points

• Raja Raja Chola built the famous Brihadeshwara temple at Tanjore.
• The temple, also known as Peruvudaiyar Kovil, is one of the largest temples in India and is an exemplary example of Dravidian architecture.
• Construction of the temple was completed in 1010 AD during the reign of Raja Raja Chola I.
• The Brihadeshwara temple is a part of the UNESCO World Heritage Site known as the "Great Living Chola Temples."
• The temple is dedicated to Lord Shiva and features a massive central dome and intricately detailed sculptures and frescoes.

Additional Information

• Raja Raja Chola I was one of the greatest rulers of the Chola dynasty in South India.
• His reign marked the height of Chola power, with extensive territorial expansion and significant contributions to art, architecture, and culture.
• The Brihadeshwara temple is a testament to the engineering and artistic prowess of the Chola period.
• The temple complex includes additional shrines, a massive courtyard, and a towering entrance gateway called the Gopuram.
• The inscriptions on the walls of the temple provide valuable historical information about the Chola empire.

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

• Carnatic music is a classical music form originating in South India, primarily flourishing in states such as Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Kerala.
• The state of Tamil Nadu has been a significant hub for Carnatic music, with its rich cultural heritage and numerous iconic composers such as Tyagaraja, Muthuswami Dikshitar, and Shyama Sastri.
• Chennai, the capital of Tamil Nadu, hosts the renowned December Music Season, a month-long festival dedicated to Carnatic music where artists from across the globe perform.
• Carnatic music emphasizes vocal performance, with instruments such as the veena, mridangam, ghatam, flute, and violin accompanying the vocalists.
• The compositions in Carnatic music are primarily devotional, with many works dedicated to Hindu deities like Lord Krishna, Lord Rama, and Goddess Saraswati.

Additional Information

• Key Characteristics of Carnatic Music:
• Raga: Carnatic music is based on the concept of raga, which is a melodic framework for improvisation and composition.
• Tala: Rhythm in Carnatic music is defined by tala, which refers to cyclic rhythmic patterns.
• Krithis: Compositions in Carnatic music are called krithis, often written in languages like Sanskrit, Telugu, Tamil, and Kannada.
• Famous Carnatic music compositions include "Endaro Mahanubhavulu" by Tyagaraja and "Vatapi Ganapathim" by Muthuswami Dikshitar.
• Comparison with Hindustani Music:
• Carnatic music is more focused on kriti-based compositions, whereas Hindustani music emphasizes improvisation.
• Carnatic music primarily originates from South India, while Hindustani music is prevalent in North India.
• Other States and Music Forms:
• Maharashtra: Known for its folk music forms like Lavani and devotional music such as Abhangas.
• Odisha: Famous for the classical dance form Odissi, accompanied by Odissi music.
• West Bengal: Renowned for Rabindra Sangeet, the music composed by Nobel laureate Rabindranath Tagore.
• Famous Carnatic Artists:
• M.S. Subbulakshmi: A legendary Carnatic vocalist and Bharat Ratna awardee.
• Lalgudi Jayaraman: Renowned violinist known for his mastery in Carnatic music.
• Semmangudi Srinivasa Iyer: One of the greatest Carnatic vocalists of the 20th century.

The correct answer is 'River Bhagirathi'

Key Points

• Tehri Dam:
• Tehri Dam is one of the tallest dams in the world, standing at a height of 260.5 meters. It is located in the state of Uttarakhand, India.
• The dam is constructed on the River Bhagirathi, which is one of the primary tributaries of the River Ganga.
• The purpose of the dam includes hydroelectric power generation, irrigation, and water supply.
• It has a storage capacity of 2.6 million acre-feet and generates 1,000 MW of hydroelectricity, with an additional 1,000 MW from pumped storage.
• Tehri Dam plays a critical role in supplying electricity to northern India and providing water for agricultural purposes.
• The dam is also a part of the Tehri Hydro Development Corporation (THDC) project, which aims to utilize the water resources of the Bhagirathi River.

Additional Information

• River Hindon:
• River Hindon is a tributary of the Yamuna River, flowing through Uttar Pradesh. It is not a site for major dam construction like Tehri Dam.
• The river is primarily known for its proximity to urban areas and pollution issues rather than hydropower or irrigation projects.
• River Yamuna:
• River Yamuna is one of the major rivers of northern India and a tributary of the Ganga. While several projects exist on the Yamuna, Tehri Dam is not constructed on this river.
• The Yamuna is significant for water supply to cities like Delhi and Agra, but it does not host large dams like Tehri.
• River Narmada:
• River Narmada flows through central India and is known for large dam projects such as the Sardar Sarovar Dam and Indira Sagar Dam.
• Tehri Dam, however, is not constructed on the Narmada River. These dams on Narmada are part of separate hydropower and irrigation initiatives.

The correct answer is Aluminium Industry.

Bauxite is a significant raw material of primary significance for the aluminum industry.

Key Points

Use of Bauxite:

• Bauxite is formed by surface weathering of clay rocks around the tropical region and composer of aluminum oxide Al(OH)3.
• It contains 15%–25% aluminum and only ore used for commercial extraction for aluminum.
• The bauxite occurs in near-surface layers and is usually mixed with clay minerals, iron oxide, and titanium dioxide.
• Bauxite is the primary source of aluminum to make cement that is used for construction.
• Aluminum is used for transport carriers, consumer durables, packaging, electrical, machinery equipment, refractory bricks, and abrasives.
• The principal uses of bauxite are multipurpose covering metallurgy, chemical industries, as raw material in building and road aggregates.
• Bauxite is the best and only material for making aluminum metal.
• Bauxite is used in the chemical industry, refractory brocks, abrasive, cement, steel, and petroleum.
• Lateritic bauxite is often used as a building material.
• The calcined bauxite, produced by sintering of high-alumina in rotary, round, or shaft kilns at high temperature, is used as an anti-skid road aggregate which is used in selected areas to prevent road accidents.

The correct answer is Uttarakhand.

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Key Points 

• It is celebrated in the Garhwal and Kumaun regions of Uttarakhand every year in the flowering season (March-April) for about a month.
• Known as the harvest festival of Uttarakhand, Phool Dei is an auspicious folk festival which welcomes the spring season in the state.
• The festival is celebrated on the 1st day of the Hindu month, Chaitra.
• The term 'Dei' refers to a ceremonial pudding which is the key food in this festival that is made from jaggery.

The correct answer is Vidhan Parishad.

Key Points 

• A State Legislature that has two houses include
• Lower House - State Legislative Assembly or Vidhan Sabha.
• Upper House - State Council or Vidhan Parishad.
• State Legislative Council or Vidhan Parishad
• ​Article 169 has the provisions of creating legislative councils in states.
• Under Article 171 of the Constitution, the Legislative Council of a state shall not have more than one-third of the total strength of the State Assembly, and not less than 40 members.
• Members of Vidhan Parishad
• ​1/3 - Elected by MLAs
• 1/3 - Comprising sitting members of local governments such as municipalities and district boards.
• 1/12 - Teachers
• 1/12 - Graduates
• 1/6 - Nominated by governor from fields of literature, science, art cooperative movement, and social service.

The correct answer is Option 1. 

Key Points

• The National Population Policy (NPP) of India, which was the central government's second population policy, was formulated in the year 2000.
• The NPP 2000 aimed to address various population-related issues in India, including fertility rates, family planning, maternal and child health, and gender equality.
• It emphasized the need for voluntary and informed choice in family planning, as well as the empowerment of women through education and healthcare.
• The policy aimed to achieve a stable population by 2045.

Additional Information

• Population policies can vary significantly between countries and regions, reflecting their unique demographic challenges, cultural norms, and development priorities.
• These policies are often developed through a combination of research, consultation with experts and stakeholders, and consideration of national and international development goals.

The correct answer is 1855.

Key Points

• Santhal Rebellion: 
• The Santhal Revolt started in 1855-56.
• Due to the introduction of the Permanent Land Settlement of 1793 the British people snatched lands that the Santhals had been cultivating for centuries from them.
• The zamindars, moneylenders, Europeans and therefore the British government officials raised the property tax and exploited farmers.
• On 30th June 1855, two Santhal brothers Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu organised 10,000 Santhals and proclaimed a rebellion against the British.
• About 15000 Santhal villagers including the Murmu brothers were killed and their villages destroyed.
• Martial law was declared on 10th November 1855 and it lasted till 3rd January 1856.
• The British Official passed the Santhal Parganas Tenancy Act in 1876 which offered some protection for the tribals against exploitation.

The Correct Answer is India.

In News

• India launches world’s first AI-powered Traditional Knowledge Library.

Key Points

• India is the first country to launch a Traditional Knowledge Digital Library (TKDL).
• The platform protects Ayurveda, Unani, Siddha, Sowa Rigpa, and Homoeopathy knowledge.
• Uses Artificial Intelligence (AI) to digitize, organize, and interpret ancient texts.
• Aims to prevent misuse of traditional medicine and promote scientific research.
• Helps develop new medicines by combining ancient remedies with modern science.
• WHO praised India’s use of AI as a major step in healthcare innovation.
• WHO’s report titled "Mapping the Application of AI in Traditional Medicine" highlights India’s leadership.
• AI is being applied in pulse reading, tongue analysis, and Prakriti assessment using machine learning.
• Ayurgenomics combines Ayurveda and genomics to offer personalized health advice.
• AI tools are also used to discover new uses for herbal medicines in treating modern diseases.
• TKDL makes centuries-old knowledge accessible for modern applications.

The correct answer is green.

Key Points

• Chloroplasts are plastids that contain chlorophyll pigment, which is responsible for the green color in plants.
• Chlorophyll is essential for photosynthesis, the process by which plants convert light energy into chemical energy.
• Chloroplasts are the site of photosynthesis in plant cells and are crucial for the survival of plants.

Additional Information

Chlorophyll:

• Chlorophyll is a green pigment that absorbs light energy and converts it into chemical energy.
• This green pigment can also be found in chloroplasts of algae and plants.
• Chlorophyll is essential in the photosynthesis process because it allows plants to absorb energy from the sun's light.
• Chlorophyll contains magnesium as its metallic constituent.
• Magnesium is located at the center of this pigment.
• Magnesium promotes the proper functioning of pigments and also stimulates the activity of some enzymes.
• It is also responsible for the green color of leaves.
• Chlorophyll is divided into five types: chlorophyll a, b, c, d, and e, which are found in the chloroplasts of higher plants.
• Chlorophylls are Magnesium ion complexes with four porphyrin rings
• Chlorophyll has the following structure:

The correct answer is Option 3. 

Key Points

• Vitamin B1:
• Vitamin B1 is also known as Thiamin, as mentioned earlier.
• It is an essential vitamin that is necessary for the metabolism of carbohydrates into energy.
• Thiamin also plays a crucial role in nerve function, muscle function, and the proper functioning of the heart.
• It is important for maintaining a healthy nervous system and overall energy production in the body.

Additional Information

• Vitamin B2:
• Vitamin B2 is also known as Riboflavin.
• It is an essential vitamin that plays a crucial role in energy production, metabolism of fats, carbohydrates, and proteins, and maintenance of healthy skin, eyes, and nervous system.
• It is involved in the conversion of food into energy and acts as an antioxidant in the body.
• Vitamin B3:
• Vitamin B3 is also known as Niacin.
• It is an important nutrient that helps the body convert food into energy, metabolize fats and proteins, and maintain healthy skin, nerves, and digestive system.
• Niacin is also known for its role in cholesterol regulation and is often used to treat high cholesterol levels.
• Vitamin B12:
• Vitamin B12, also known as Cobalamin, is a water-soluble vitamin that is essential for the formation of red blood cells, neurological function, and DNA synthesis.
• It is primarily found in animal-based foods, and deficiency in B12 can lead to anemia and neurological problems.
• Vitamin B12 is important for maintaining healthy blood cells and supporting the proper functioning of the nervous system.

The correct answer is Kanishka.

Key Points

• Ashvaghosha was a philosopher and poet who is considered India’s greatest poet before Kalidasa (5th century) and the father of Sanskrit drama.
• He popularized the style of Sanskrit poetry known as kavya.
• Ashvaghosha adorned the court of Kanishka.
• He was born in Saketa in northern India.
• Though Pali language literature was popular in Buddhism, Ashvaghosha wrote in Classical Sanskrit.
• Ashvaghosha spoke at length on Mahayana (Greater Vehicle) Buddhist doctrine at the fourth Buddhist council, which he helped organize.
• Buddhacharita wrote by Ashvaghosha is an epic on the life of the Buddha.
• He also wrote Saundarananda, with the theme of conversion of Nanda, Buddha's half-brother, so that he might reach salvation.
• He is also thought to be the author of the Sutralankara.

The Correct Answer is Meerut.

In News

• India’s first globally recognised equine disease-free compartment set up in Meerut.

Key Points

• India’s first Equine Disease-Free Compartment (EDFC) has been established at the RVC Centre & College, Meerut Cantonment, Uttar Pradesh.
• It was officially recognised by the World Organisation for Animal Health (WOAH).
• EDFC enables Indian sport horses to compete internationally by meeting global biosecurity standards.
• It was developed by the Department of Animal Husbandry, Ministry of Defence, Equestrian Federation of India (EFI), and Govt of Uttar Pradesh.
• It meets WOAH's guidelines for compartmentalisation: includes strong biosecurity, veterinary surveillance, and disease exclusion.
• The compartment is certified free of major equine diseases:
• Equine Infectious Anemia
• Equine Influenza
• Equine Piroplasmosis
• Glanders
• Surra
• India is also free from African Horse Sickness since 2014.
• The EDFC supports India's goals in international equestrian sports, equine trade, and breeding.
• India is also working to develop HPAI-Free Compartments for safe poultry exports.
• This step enhances India’s standing in animal health systems and science-based export readiness.

The correct answer is "QSPR"

Key Points

• The sentence is providing information about Jupiter's role in Roman mythology.
• "In Roman mythology" is an independent clause that functions as a modifier for "Jupiter was the king of the gods and the god of thunder and lightning," which is an independent clause that functions as the main clause of the sentence.
• The modifying clause should come before the main clause, so the order should be modifier-main clause.

Thus, option 2 is the correct answer.

Correct sentence: Q in Roman mythology, S Jupiter was the king P of the gods R and the god of thunder and lightning

The correct answer is "SQRP"

Key Points

• The sentence is describing the latest smartphone and its features.
• "The latest smartphone" is the subject of the sentence and "has advanced features that make it stand out from the competition" is the verb phrase.
• There are no modifying phrases in this sentence, so the order should be subject-verb.

Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

Correct sentence: S the latest smartphone Q has advanced features R that make it stand out P from the competition

The correct answer is "QPRS"

Key Points

• The sentence is discussing the development of computers and its effects on society.
• "The development of the computer in the 20th century" is the subject of the sentence, and "has transformed the way we work and access information and has had a profound impact on society" is the verb phrase.
• There are no modifying phrases in this sentence, so the order should be subject-verb.

Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

Correct sentence: Q the development of the computer P in the 20th century R has transformed the way we work and access information S and has had a profound impact on society

The correct answer is 'Lavish'.

Key Points

• ​The word Miser(noun) means- "someone who has a strong wish to have money and hates to spend it". (जिस किसी के पास पैसा और उसे खर्च करने के लिए नफरत करने की तीव्र इच्छा है)    
• E.g: On en*vironmental spending, the president is a miser.*​
• ​The antonyms of the given word Miser are-  'Lavish', 'spender', 'prodigal', 'profligate', 'waster, etc.
• From the antonyms of the given word, we can say that the word 'Lavish' is the opposite in meaning.
• The word Lavish(adjective) means- "large in quantity and expensive or impressive". (बड़ी मात्रा में और महंगा या प्रभावशाली)
• *The lavish production makes this musical truly memorable.*​
• ​Hence, the correct option is Option 2).
• Let's have a look at the meaning of other given options:
• Hastily(adverb)- "with excessive speed or urgency; hurriedly". (अत्यधिक गति या तात्कालिकता के साथ; हड़बड़ी)
• Wild(adjective)- "uncontrolled, violent, or extreme". (अनियंत्रित, हिंसक या अतिवादी)
• Pity(noun)- "a feeling of sadness or sympathy for someone else's unhappiness or difficult situation". (किसी और की अस्वस्थता या कठिन परिस्थिति के लिए दुख या सहानुभूति की भावना)

Additional Information

• The synonyms of the given word Miser are- 'Niggard', 'penny-pincher', 'skinflint', 'churl, etc.
• Example of 'Miser' in a sentence: 
• A typical miser, he hid his money in the house in various places.

The correct answer is 'Option 3' i.e. 'Associate'.

Key Points

• The word "Buddy" refers to a close friend or a companion.
• It's a casual term often used in American English to denote friendship.
• Associate: An associate can refer to a partner or colleague in business or at work, or more generally, a person one knows slightly, but who is not a close friend.(सहयोगी)
• While not as close as a buddy typically would be, "associate" is the closest synonym in this list.

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'Associate'.

Additional Information

• Looking at the provided options:
• Stylist: A stylist is a person whose job is to arrange and coordinate food, clothes, etc. in a stylish and attractive way, especially for photographs or films.(स्टाइलिस्ट)
• Foe: A foe is an enemy or a person who is opposed to someone.(शत्रु)
• Enemy: An enemy is a person who is actively opposed or hostile to someone.(दुश्मन)

The correct answer is 'Timid'.

Key Points

• ​The word Brave(adjective) means- "ready to face and endure danger or pain; showing courage". (खतरे या दर्द का सामना करने और सहन करने के लिए तैयार; साहस दिखा रहा है)    
• E.g: *She was very brave to learn to ski at 50.*​
• ​The antonyms of the given word Brave are-  'Timid', 'afraid', 'coward', 'diffident', 'nervous, etc.
• From the antonyms of the given word, we can say that the word 'Timid' is the opposite in meaning.
• The word Timid(adjective) means- "shy and nervous; without much confidence; easily frightened". (शर्मीली और घबराई हुई; बहुत आत्मविश्वास के बिना; आसानी से भयभीत)
• E.g: *My dog is a little timid - especially around other dogs.*​
• ​Hence, the correct option is Option 1).
• Let's have a look at the meaning of other given options:
• Frank(adjective)- "open, honest, and direct in speech or writing, especially when dealing with unpalatable matters". (खुला, ईमानदार, और भाषण या लेखन में प्रत्यक्ष, खासकर जब अनपेक्षित मामलों से निपटने के लिए)
• Boisterous(adjective)- "noisy, energetic, and rough". (शोर, ऊर्जावान, और मोटा)
• Copy(verb)- "to produce something so that it is the same as an original piece of work". (कुछ का उत्पादन करने के लिए ताकि यह काम के मूल टुकड़े के समान हो)

Additional Information

• The synonyms of the given word Brave are- 'Bold', 'courageous', 'gallant', 'fearless', etc.
• Example of 'Brave' in a sentence: 
• It was a brave decision to quit her job and start her own business.

The correct answer is Option 2)

Key Points

• The word "mundane" means something that is ordinary, commonplace, or lacking excitement; it often refers to the routine aspects of life. (साधारण)
• Example: She longed for an adventure to escape her mundane existence.
• "Ordinary" refers to something that is normal and not special or different in any way; it is often used to describe everyday things. (साधारण)
• Example: He led an ordinary life, with a regular job and a happy family.
• Hence, we can infer that the synonym of 'mundane' is 'ordinary'.

Therefore, the correct synonym of Mundane is Ordinary.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Abnormal (असामान्य): Something that deviates from what is standard, usual, or expected.
• Example: His behavior was considered abnormal by his peers.
• Wonderful (शानदार): Inspiring delight, pleasure, or admiration; extremely good.
• Example: We had a wonderful time at the beach.
• Exciting (रोमांचक): Causing great enthusiasm and eagerness.
• Example: The movie was so exciting that I couldn't take my eyes off the screen.

The correct answer is ‘I was promised a present by him when I graduated.’

Key Points

• The given sentence is in active voice. As per the question we have to change it into passive voice.
• The structure of the given sentence is as follows:
• Subject + past tense + Object (Active voice)
• Subject (objective case) + was/were + past participle + Object (subjective case) (Passive voice)
• Example: 
• She built a big house. (Active voice)
• A big house was built by her. (Passive voice)
• The subject of the given sentence is ‘He’.
• The object of the given subject is ‘me’.
• The subject will be put in place of the object and the object will be put in place of the subject.
• Since the subject and object are pronouns, they are changed to I and him.
• promised will be changed to was promised.

Correct sentence - I was promised a present by him when I graduated.

Additional Information 

• When converting active to passive voice, it is important to keep in mind that was is added to the simple past tense.

The correct answer is 'Deepika told me that the kid I had met at the school was her daughter.'

Key Points

• The given sentence is in Simple Past Tense.
• The rule for changing Direct Speech to Indirect Speech:
• The tense of reported speech is changed only when the reporting verb is in the past tense.
• Simple Past Tense Changes to Past Perfect Tense.
• The reporting verb said will remain the same.
• Here the 1st person will change into the 3rd person as per the subject.
• Remove the inverted comma’s from the direct speech and replace them with an appropriate conjunction.
• The second person of direct speech changes as per the object of reporting speech.
• Structure: (Subject+ V2+object) (Direct Speech)
  

                  (Subject+ had + V3 + object) (Indirect Speech)

• ​Example: She said " Reena came to see me." (Direct Speech)

                                                She said that Reena had come to see her. (Indirect Speech)

Additional Information  

• If the reporting verb is given in Past tense then the tense of the verb of Reported Speech will change into the corresponding Past tense.
• Example:  Direct: The teacher said, “I am suffering from a fever.”
  

                  Indirect: The teacher said that she was suffering from a fever.

Hinglish 

• दिया गया वाक्य Simple Past Tense में है।
• Direct Speech को Indirect Speech में बदलने के नियम:
• रिपोर्ट किए गए speech का tense तभी बदला जाता है जब reporting verb, past tense में हो।
• Simple Past Tense, Past Perfect Tense में परिवर्तित हो जाता है।
• रिपोर्टिंग क्रिया 'said' ही रहेगी।
• यहां, 1st person , विषय के अनुसार 3rd person में बदल जाएगा।
• Inverted comma को Direct Speech से हटा दें और उन्हें उचित conjunction के साथ बदलें।
• Reported speech का second person, reported speech के object के अनुसार बदलता है।​
• Structure: (Subject+ V2+object) (Direct Speech)
  

                  (Subject+ had + V3 + object) (Indirect Speech)

• ​Example: She says, " Reena came to see me." (Direct Speech)

                                               S**he says that Reena had come to see her. (Indirect Speech)

The correct answer is- 'Hasn’t the air travel bridge to the Maldives been established by India?' 

Key Points 

• The given sentence is an interrogative sentence and it is in the present perfect tense.
• So the structure for conversion is
• has/have + subject + been + verb (3rd form) + object ?
• Example: 
• Has he (subject) packed (verb) the clothes in the cupboard? (active)
• Have the clothes (subject) been packed (verb) in the cupboard by him? (passive)

Thus option 1 is the correct answer. 

Additional Information 

• Let's understand how the sentence structure changes in present tense while converting from active to passive voice:
• Simple present - subject + is/am/are + verb (3rd form) + object
• ​Example: Football is played by him.
• Present continuous - subject + is/am/are + being + verb (3rd form) + object
• ​Example: The car is being driven by him.
• Present perfect - subject + has/have + been + verb (3rd form) + object
• ​Example: The car has been driven by him.​​​

The correct answer is: although.

Key Points

• Although means in spite of the fact that. It shows contrast between two phrases or sentences.
• Ex. Although she was not well, she attended the meeting.
• The context of the sentence tells that the person tried to stop them at every step, but they finished the work.
• So, the most suitable conjunction that fits the blank is 'although'.

​Hence, the correct sentence is: We finished the work although he tried to obstruct us at every step.

Additional Information

• Nevertheless means in spite of. It is used to show that something took place even though there were some barriers to it.
• Ex. The Physics test was very hard, nevertheless, I scored good marks.
• Despite means notwithstanding; regardless of. It is used to join two contrasting phrases or sentences.
• Ex. Despite being a rich person, he never does charity.
• However means regardless of; in whatever way. It is also used to show contrast. 
• Ex. The boy wanted to pursue higher studies, however, due to financial issues he could not study further.

The correct answer is 'want'.

Key Points ​​​

• When two subjects are joined by as well as, the verb agrees with the first subject.
• Here, the first subject The coaches is plural so the verb must be plural.
• Examples :
• My friends, as well as I, are going to Mumbai.
• He, as well as his classmates, is making a noise in the class.
• From the given options the plural verb in 'want'
• The correct sentence is:  The coaches, as well as the management, want to win.

​Therefore the correct answer is Option 1.

The correct answer is - "will"

Key Points

• Here, 'be going' shows that the given sentence is in Future Continuous Tense.
• Future Continuous Tense structure of Interrogative sentence starts with wh- words is - 
• Wh-word + will/shall + subject + be + verb (ing form) + object ?
• Eg. When will we be going to market?
• Option 1 and 2 are in Present Tense.
• Option 4 is for Past tense.
• In this way, "will" is appropriate.
• Thus, Option 2 is correct answer.

The correct answer is "is feeding."

Key Points

• "Subject verb agreement" means that a singular subject (she, Raj, star) takes a singular verb (is, goes, shines), whereas a plural subject takes a plural verb.
• In the given sentence, we will use a modal auxiliary verb as a helping verb with the main verb.
• When two subjects are joined by as well as, the verb agrees in number and person with the first one. 
• Example: The employees of the organization, as well as the CEO, have an interest in the project’s success.
• In the given sentence, the subject i.e. "the cow" is singular.
• Thus, we will use singular verb for the respective subject.
• Thus, the correct verb to use in the blank is "is feeding."
• The correct sentence: The cow, as well as the horse, is feeding on the grass in the field.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

The correct answer is: Option 2.

Key Points

• The idiom "A bad patch" means a period of time when a person faces lots of troubles. (कठिन समय)
• Example: After losing his job, John went through a bad patch where nothing seemed to go right.
• Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: A path that is unravelled (एक रास्ता जो खुल गया है)
• Example: The hiker found himself on an unravelled path in the dense forest.
• Option 3: A person who takes a difficult path (एक व्यक्ति जो कठिन रास्ता अपनाता है)
• Example: She is known as someone who always takes the difficult path to achieve her goals.
• Option 4: A dangerous road to walk on (चलने के लिए एक खतरनाक सड़क)
• Example: The old bridge has become a dangerous road to walk on due to years of neglect.

The correct answer is "totally and completely".

Key Points

• The idiom 'neck and crop' mean totally and completely.
• Example: She turned his neck and cropped out of the house.
• So this idiom means completely and is used to refer to something which happens totally and completely.

Additional Information

• Let us see some idioms with the word 'neck' in them:

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. 'To disclose'.

Key Points

• The word "To bring to light" means to reveal or disclose something that was previously unknown or hidden. (प्रकाश में लाना)
• Example: The investigation brought to light several facts that were previously unknown.
• "To disclose" refers to making something known or public; it is the act of revealing information. (प्रकट करना)
• Example: The company disclosed its financial results for the year.
• Hence, we can infer that the meaning of 'To bring to light' is 'To disclose'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. 'To disclose'.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• To engage in conversation (बातचीत में शामिल होना): To start or participate in a dialogue.
• Example: She loves to engage in conversation with people from different cultures.
• To lighten (हल्का करना): To make something less heavy or intense.
• Example: He tried to lighten the mood by telling a joke.
• To disengage (अलग करना): To separate or release from something to which it is attached or connected.
• Example: She managed to disengage herself from the conversation without being rude.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The passage discusses both the advantages and challenges of renewable energy sources like solar and wind power.
• The title that best reflects the content of the passage is 'The Advantages and Challenges of Renewable Energy,' as it directly addresses the main themes explored.
• Option 1 focuses on non-renewable energy, which is not the main focus of the passage.
• Option 3 and Option 4 are unrelated to the passage's focus on renewable energy.

Therefore, the correct answer is 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "The topic of renewable energy is becoming increasingly important as concerns about climate change and the depletion of non-renewable resources continue to grow."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: The Environmental Impact of Non-Renewable Energy Sources – This focuses more on non-renewable energy rather than the passage's emphasis on renewable energy.
• Option 3: The Role of Technology in Energy Production – While technology is discussed, the passage is more about renewable energy sources and their challenges.
• Option 4: The Future of Nuclear Energy – Nuclear energy is not mentioned in the passage, making this option irrelevant.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• The passage presents facts about renewable energy and discusses its advantages and challenges without showing any emotional bias or humor.
• It is focused on providing information in a clear and neutral tone.
• The tone is objective, aiming to inform the reader about renewable energy without exaggeration or sarcasm.

Therefore, the correct answer is 1.

 

Correct Sentence: "The topic of renewable energy is becoming increasingly important as concerns about climate change and the depletion of non-renewable resources continue to grow."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: Satirical – The tone is not mocking or humorous, so this option is incorrect.
• Option 3: Subjective – The passage is not presenting a personal opinion, so this option is incorrect.
• Option 4: Sarcastic – The passage does not use sarcasm, so this option is also incorrect.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Impracticable.

Key Points

• The word "Viable" means something that is capable of working successfully; feasible. (संभव)
• Example: With the new funding, the project is now financially viable.
• "Impracticable" refers to something that is not capable of being carried out or put into practice; not feasible. (अव्यवहारिक)
• Example: The plan to build a bridge in just one month is impracticable given the current resources.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'Viable' is 'Impracticable'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Impracticable.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Inaccurate (अशुद्ध): Not accurate; incorrect or untrue.
• Example: The report was filled with inaccurate information.
• Indignant (क्रोधित): Feeling or showing anger or annoyance at what is perceived as unfair treatment.
• Example: She was indignant at the way she had been treated by her boss.
• Irresolvable (असमाधेय): Not able to be resolved or settled.
• Example: The conflict between the two countries seemed irresolvable.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• Renewable energy sources, such as solar and wind power, are not limited by the same supply constraints as fossil fuels.
• Unlike fossil fuels, which are finite resources that will eventually run out, renewable energy sources will never be depleted.
• Additionally, renewable energy does not produce greenhouse gases that contribute to climate change, making it more environmentally friendly.
• Thus, the main advantage of renewable energy over fossil fuels is its unlimited availability.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: Incorrect. The passage mentions that the cost of renewable energy is currently higher than fossil fuels.
• Option 2: Incorrect. Renewable energy does not produce greenhouse gases; rather, it helps reduce them.
• Option 4: Incorrect. Renewable energy sources will never run out, unlike fossil fuels.

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• One of the main challenges facing the adoption of renewable energy is its higher cost compared to traditional fossil fuels.
• Although renewable energy has clear environmental benefits, the initial investment and infrastructure costs are significant.
• As technology advances and economies of scale are achieved, the cost of renewable energy is expected to decrease.
• Reliable and efficient energy storage solutions are also required for the widespread adoption of renewable energy.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: Incorrect - The lack of skilled labor is not a primary challenge for renewable energy adoption.
• Option 2: Incorrect - While fossil fuels are still abundant, their environmental impact makes renewable energy necessary.
• Option 3: Incorrect - There is a growing demand for renewable energy due to environmental concerns.

The correct answer is '2' i.e. consequency, we had .

Key Points

• The word "consequency" is incorrect in the given sentence. The correct word should be "consequently."
• "Consequently" is an adverb used to mean "as a result" or "therefore," and fits the intended meaning of the sentence.
• The rest of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not contain any errors.

Correct sentence: The project was delayed because of unforeseen issues; consequently, we had to adjust our timeline.

Additional Information

• Usage of Adverbs:
• Adverbs like "consequently," "therefore," and "thus" are used to show cause-and-effect relationships.
• Correct placement of adverbs ensures clarity and coherence in sentences.
• Common Errors:
• Misspelling or incorrect usage of words can change the meaning or make the sentence grammatically incorrect.
• Always cross-check the spelling and meaning of words in formal writing.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The error lies in the phrase "the book everywhere." The word "everywhere" is incorrectly used here. The correct structure should be "find the book anywhere," as "anywhere" is used to express the idea of a location in a negative context, which fits the meaning of the sentence.
• The correct phrase should be "I cannot find the book anywhere in the house," which makes the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful.
• Other parts of the sentence are grammatically correct and do not need any changes.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "I cannot find the book anywhere in the house; it seems to have disappeared."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "in the house;" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not need any changes.
• Option 2: "it seems to have disappeared." – This part is correct and appropriately expresses the idea of the book disappearing.
• Option 4: "I cannot find" – This part is grammatically correct and does not need any changes.

The correct answer is '3' i.e. articulating her ideas clear .

Key Points

• The segment (B) contains the grammatical error.
• The phrase "articulating her ideas clear" should be "articulating her ideas clearly."
• "Clearly" is the correct adverb form to describe how she articulated her ideas.

Correct sentence: She confidently presented her findings to the committee, articulating her ideas clearly and impressing everyone with her extensive research and knowledge.

Additional Information

• Adverbs:
• Usage: Adverbs modify verbs, adjectives, or other adverbs and often end in "-ly".
• Example: She spoke softly. ("Softly" modifies the verb "spoke".)
• Adjectives:
• Usage: Adjectives modify nouns or pronouns.
• Example: The clear sky. ("Clear" modifies the noun "sky".)

Cache Memory:

• It is an extremely fast memory type that acts as a buffer between RAM and the CPU.
• It holds frequently requested data and instructions so that they are immediately available to the CPU when needed.
• It is a memory unit placed between the CPU and main memory M and is used to store instructions, data, or both.
• It is used to reduce the average time to access data from the Main memory.
• Cache memory is sometimes used to increase the speed of processing by making current programs and data available to the CPU at a rapid rate.

 

The correct answer is View.

Key Points

• In MS Word 2010, the zoom in and zoom out buttons are located in the "View" tab of the ribbon menu.
• The "View" tab allows users to adjust the document's view, including zooming in or out to change the scale of the document for better readability or editing.
• The zoom functionality can also be accessed from the bottom-right corner of the MS Word window, where a slider is available for quick adjustments.
• Additional features in the "View" tab include options for switching between document views, enabling ruler or gridlines, and splitting the window.

Additional Information

• Layout Tab: The "Layout" tab is primarily used for adjusting page and paragraph settings, including margins, orientation, and indentation. It does not include zoom controls.
• Design Tab: The "Design" tab allows users to apply document themes, colors, and styles. It is unrelated to zoom functionality.
• Insert Tab: The "Insert" tab is used for adding elements to the document, such as tables, pictures, charts, and headers. It does not include zoom options.
• The zoom feature in the "View" tab helps users customize how the document appears on the screen without altering the document's content.

Trojan:

A Trojan horse, or Trojan, is a type of malicious code or software, or virus that looks legitimate but can take control of the computer.

It is designed to damage, disrupt, steal, or in general inflict some other harmful action on data or network.

t acts as a bona fide application or file to trick you. It seeks to deceive you into loading and executing the malware on the device.

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Important Points

Anti-Viruses are the code or software that protects the computer from viruses.

Kaspersky, Norton, and Quick heal are the Anti-viruses.

The correct answer is Terabyte.

Key Points

• 1 Bit = Binary Digit
• 8 Bits = 1 Byte
• 1024 Bytes = 1 Kilobyte
• 1024 Kilobytes = 1 Megabyte
• 1024 Megabytes = 1 Gigabyte
• 1024 Gigabytes = 1 Terabyte
• 1024 Terabytes = 1 Petabyte
• 1024 Petabytes = 1 Exabyte
• 1024 Exabytes = 1 Zettabyte
• 1024 Zettabytes = 1 Yottabyte
• 1024 Yottabytes = 1 Brontobyte
• 1024 Brontobytes = 1 Geopbyte**.**

Important Points

• A group of 4 bits is called a nibble.
• A group of 8 bits is called byte.
• A byte is the smallest unit, which can represent a data item or a character.
• Bits are the basic building blocks of not only data storage but all computers.
• Computers work in binary digits, combining 0’s and 1’s in countless patterns.
• These binary digits are known as bits and are the smallest possible unit for data storage.
• When 8 bits are combined, you get a byte. Bytes are used to store a single character; whether’s it a letter, number, or punctuation.
• All memory storage is expressed in terms of bytes, so although bits might be the foundation upon which data storage is built, bytes are the building blocks that truly denote the usability of any one storage solution.

The correct answer is Plotter.

Key Points

• An output device is any piece of computer hardware equipment that converts information into human-readable form. 
• It can be text, graphics, tactile, audio, and video.
• Some of the output devices are Visual Display Units i.e. a Monitor, Printer graphic Output devices, Plotters, Speakers.
• An output device is any hardware device used to send data from a computer to another device or user.

Additional Information

• An input device is a piece of equipment used to provide data and control signals to an information processing system such as a computer or information appliance.
• Examples of input devices include keyboards, mouse, trackballs, lightpen, scanners, cameras, touch screen joysticks, and microphones.
• Language and memory, Data and instructions, Text and graphics, Storage and commandsFeedbackCorrect.
• These are the two categories of input.
• Data can be unprocessed text or numbers, images, etc.

The correct answer is Horizontal Scroll Bar.

Key Points

• The Horizontal Scroll Bar helps to navigate left and right in the worksheet.
• It is located at the bottom of the worksheet window in most spreadsheet applications such as Microsoft Excel, Google Sheets, and others.
• By dragging the horizontal scroll bar, users can view columns that are not visible within the current window size.
• The Vertical Scroll Bar, on the other hand, is used to navigate up and down the worksheet.

Additional Information

• Vertical Scroll Bar: The vertical scroll bar is used to navigate up and down the worksheet to access rows that are not currently visible.
• Docking Toolbars: Docking toolbars are customizable toolbars that can be placed at specific positions within the application window, but they are not used for navigation within the worksheet.
• Status Bar: The status bar is located at the bottom of the application window and displays information about the current state of the application, such as the selected cell, sum of selected values, and other data, but it does not assist in navigating the worksheet.

The correct answer is Universal Serial Bus.

Key Points

• Universal Serial Bus (USB) is an industry-standard that establishes specifications for cables and connectors and protocols for connection, communication, and power supply (interfacing) between computers, peripherals, and other computers.
• A broad variety of USB hardware exists, including eleven different connectors, of which USB-C is the most recent.
• Released in 1996, the USB standard is maintained by the USB Implementers Forum (USB-IF).
• There have been four generations of USB specifications: USB 1.x, USB 2.0, USB 3.x, and USB4.

Additional Information

• Some important abbreviations used in Computer:
• BIOS - Basic Input Output System
• CAD - Computer-Aided Design
• EDVAC - Electronic Discrete Variable Automatic Computer.
• EPROM - Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory
• FORTRAN - Formula Translation
• GPRS - General Packet Radio Service

The correct answer is RAM.

Key Points

• RAM (Random Access Memory) is a type of volatile memory, meaning it loses all stored data when the power is turned off. This is because RAM is designed to store data temporarily for immediate access by the processor.
• RAM is used to store data and instructions that are actively being used or processed by the computer. Once the system is powered down, all data stored in RAM is erased.Hence, RAM loses data when power is turned off.
• ROM (Read-Only Memory), in contrast, is a type of non-volatile memory, meaning data stored within ROM remains intact even when the system is powered off. Hence, ROM does not lose data when power is turned off.
• USB flash drives and hard disk drives are also examples of non-volatile storage devices. They retain data regardless of the power state of the device.Hence, neither USB flash drives nor hard disk drives lose data when power is turned off.

Additional Information

• Characteristics of RAM:
• Volatile Memory: RAM requires continuous power to maintain its data. When the power supply is interrupted, all data stored in RAM is lost.
• Speed: RAM is significantly faster than other types of storage like hard drives or SSDs, making it ideal for temporary storage of active processes.
• Types: Common types of RAM include DRAM (Dynamic RAM) and SRAM (Static RAM). DRAM is widely used for main memory, while SRAM is used for cache memory due to its faster speed.
• Characteristics of ROM:
• Non-Volatile Memory: ROM retains its data even when the system is powered off. It is used to store critical data such as firmware.
• Usage: ROM is commonly used in embedded systems and devices to store software that needs to persist across power cycles, such as the BIOS in computers.
• USB Flash Drive:
• Portable Storage: USB flash drives are non-volatile storage devices used to transfer data between systems or store files externally.
• Durability: Data remains intact even after the device is removed or the power is turned off.
• Hard Disk Drive (HDD):
• Non-Volatile Memory: HDDs are used for long-term storage of data. Data remains intact even when the computer is powered off.
• Storage Capacity: HDDs provide large storage capacity for personal and enterprise use compared to RAM.

Important Points

• Comparison of RAM and ROM:
• RAM: Volatile memory used for temporary storage of active processes. Data is lost when power is turned off.
• ROM: Non-volatile memory used for permanent storage of critical data. Data is retained even when power is turned off.
• Applications of RAM and ROM:
• RAM: Used in computers, laptops, and smartphones to manage active processes and tasks.
• ROM: Used in embedded systems, firmware storage, and devices requiring persistent software.
• Evolution of Storage Devices:
• USB Flash Drives: Portable non-volatile storage devices introduced in the early 2000s.
• HDD: Mechanical storage devices that have been widely used since the mid-20th century for long-term data storage.

The correct answer is Bing.

Key Points

• Microsoft Bing is a web search engine owned and operated by Microsoft. The service has its origins in Microsoft's previous search engines: MSN Search, Windows Live Search and later Live Search. Bing provides a variety of search services, including web, video, image and map search products.

Confusion Points

• A browser is a piece of software that retrieves and displays web pages; a search engine is a website that helps people find web pages from other websites.

Additional Information

• A search engine is a software system that allows users to look up information on the World Wide Web in a systematic way for particular information specified in a textual web search query.
• The most common search engines are Google, Bing, Yahoo etc.
• Safari - Safari is a graphical web browser developed by Apple.
• Opera - Opera is a multi-platform web browser developed by its namesake company Opera.
• Netscape - The Netscape web browser is the general name for a series of web browsers formerly produced by Netscape Communications Corporation, which eventually became a subsidiary of AOL.

The correct answer is CSV.

Key Points