Official Paper

BSPHCL Clerk & Store Assistant Memory Based Paper (Held on: 20 June 2025, Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

100 questions · 90 minutes · with answers · free

Test (100 questions)

1

What will come in the place of '?' in the following equation, if '+' and ‘-' are interchanged?

47 + 10 × 3 - 32 ÷ 8 = ?

  1. ((a))

    19

  2. ((b))

    31

  3. ((c))

    21

  4. ((d))

    27

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

21

Given : 47 + 10 × 3 - 32 ÷ 8 = ? 

According to the question, after replacing the signs :

‘+’ and ‘-’ are interchanged 

So,​​

47 - 10 × 3 + 32 ÷ 8 = ?

47 - 10 × 3 + 4 = ?

47 + 4 - 30 = ?

51 - 30 = ?

21 = ?

Hence, "21" is the correct answer.

2

Select the option that is related to the third letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first letter-cluster.

TNG : RLD :: LAC : ?

  1. ((a))

    JYA

  2. ((b))

    JXZ

  3. ((c))

    JYZ

  4. ((d))

    JXA

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

JYZ

The logic followed here is:

For, TNG : RLD

Similarly, for LAC:

So, 'LAC' will be coded as 'JYZ'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

3

If P means '+', Q means '×', R means '÷' and K means '-' then

the value of 42 K 1 R 14 Q 30 R 12 Q 28 P 110 will be

A. 105

B. 110

C. 147

D. 115

  1. ((a))

    D

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    A

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

C

Given equation:

42 K 1 R 14 Q 30 R 12 Q 28 P 110

Decoding the given information

LetterDenotes
P+
Q×
R÷
K-

 

Substituting the letters with the operations:

42 - 1 ÷14 × 30 ÷ 12 × 28 + 110

BODMAS Rule:

Solving the equation using BODMAS rule

42 - 1 ÷14 × 30 ÷ 12 × 28 + 110

= 42 - 0.0714 × 30 ÷ 12 × 28 + 110

= 42 - 0.0714 × 2.5 × 28 + 110

= 42 - 0.1785 × 28 + 110

= 42 - 5 + 110

= 152 - 5

= 147

Hence, the correct answer is "147".

4

Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following number series?

86, 74, 84, 76, ?, 78, 80

  1. ((a))

    84

  2. ((b))

    78

  3. ((c))

    80

  4. ((d))

    82

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

82

The logic follows here is :-

Thus the correct answer is "82".

5

If 2 is added to each odd digit and 1 is subtracted from each even digit in the number 2586473, which of the following digits will be third from the left in the new number thus formed? 

  1. ((a))

    9

  2. ((b))

    5

  3. ((c))

    7

  4. ((d))

    1

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

7

Given number: '2586473'

After applying the given conditions:

If 2 is added to each odd digit and 1 is subtracted from each even digit in the number:

Number2586473
New number1775395

 

New number : 1 7 7 5 3 9 5

Third digit from the left in the new number: '7'

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

6

Five bottles named P, Q, R, S, T, of different sizes are kept in a row. Bottle S is larger than two bottles as well as smaller than two bottles. Bottle R is larger than only one bottle. Bottle Q is smaller than P but larger than S.

How many bottles are larger than Bottle T?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Two

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    Four

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Four

Five bottles – P, Q, R, S, T

  1. Bottle S is larger than two bottles as well as smaller than two bottles.

….. > ….. > S > ….. > …...

  1. Bottle R is larger than only one bottle.

….. > ….. > S > R > …...

  1. Bottle Q is smaller than P but larger than S.

P > Q > S > R > …...

Thus bottle T is the smallest.

P > Q > S > R > T

Hence, four bottles are larger than bottle T.

7

Refer to the given number and symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only.

<br>

(Left) 2 & % 4 6 @ & 3 Ω 9 # 1 * 8 £ 6 1 7 # (Right)

<br>

How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an even number and also immediately followed by an even number?

  1. ((a))

    None

  2. ((b))

    One

  3. ((c))

    Two

  4. ((d))

    More than two

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

One

Given: (Left) 2 & % 4 6 @ & 3 Ω 9 # 1 * 8 £ 6 1 7 # (Right)

Here, We need to find the numbers that are immediately preceded by a symbol and also immediately followed by a symbol.

Required pattern: Even Number - Symbol - Even Number

(Left) 2 & % 4 6 @ & 3 Ω 9 # 1 * 8 £ 6 1 7 # (Right)

So, there is only one such pair in the series '8 £ 6'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

8

Vikas ranks 18th in a class of 49 students. What is his rank from the last ?

  1. ((a))

    19

  2. ((b))

    31

  3. ((c))

    32

  4. ((d))

    33

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

32

Vikas's rank from first = 18

Total number of students = Position from first + position from last - 1

49 = 18 + position from last - 1

49 = 17 + position from last 

49 - 17 = position from last

Position from last = 32

So, vikas's rank from last is 32

Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

9

If each vowel in the word MAJORITY is changed to the letter following it in the English alphabetical order and each consonant is changed to the letter preceding it in the English alphabetical order, then how many letters are common between the original word and the group of letters thus formed?

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    2

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

2

Given word: 'FRIENDLY'

After applying the specified transformations:

AlphabetsMAJORITY
Change Into- 1+ 1- 1+ 1- 1+ 1- 1- 1
Transformed AlphabetsLBIPQJSX

So, common letter is: I and J

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

10

Six people O, P, Q, R, S, and T sitting around a circular table facing outside. S sits second to the left of R. T sits 2nd to the right of O. R is not a neighbor of T. Only one person sit between P and O. Then what is the position of Q with respect to P?

  1. ((a))

    Third left

  2. ((b))

    Second right

  3. ((c))

    Immediate left

  4. ((d))

    Second left

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Third left

  1. T sits 2nd to the right of O.

  2. Only one person sit between P and O.

  1. R is not a neighbor of T.

  2. S sits second to the left of R.

Clearly, Q sits third to the left with respect to P.

11

The present age of a mother and daughter is in the ratio of 8 : 3. After 12 years, the ratio of their ages will be 2 : 1. What is the sum of the present age of the mother and the daughter?

  1. ((a))

    74 years

  2. ((b))

    69 years

  3. ((c))

    66 years

  4. ((d))

    71 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

66 years

The equation will be as follows,

Let assume the age of mother and daughter are 8x and 3x respectively.

8x + 12 = 6x + 24

2x = 12

X = 6

Sum of the ages = 8x + 3x

11 (3) = 66

Hence 66 is correct answer.

12

A certain sum of money was distributed among Darshana, Swati and Nivriti. Nivriti has Rs. 539 with her. If the ratio of the money distributed among Darshana, Swati and Nivriti is 5 : 6 : 7, what is the total sum of money that was distributed?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 1,341

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 1,422

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 1,386

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 1,356

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Rs. 1,386

Given,

The ratio of the money distributed among Darshana, Swati and Nivriti is 5 : 6 : 7

Darshna : Swati : Nivriti → 5 : 6 : 7

But Nivriti has Rs. 539 with her.

Then,

7 → 539 

1 → 77

The total sum of money = 5 + 6 + 7 = 18

The total sum of money was distributed = 18 x 77 = 1386

Hence, the correct answer is "1386".

13

Seven children K, L, P, R, T, X and Y are sitting on a straight bench facing towards North. X is sitting immediately left of "Y". 'T' is the immediate neighbour of 'R' and 'P. Neither 'X' nor Y are the immediate neighbours of 'L'. 'P is sitting second to the left of 'L'.

Who is sitting at the second position from the right end?

  1. ((a))

    R

  2. ((b))

    T

  3. ((c))

    K

  4. ((d))

    P

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

K

The logic follows here is:

Seven children K, L, P, R, T, X and Y are sitting on a straight bench facing towards North.

  • 'P is sitting second to the left of 'L'.
  • 'T' is the immediate neighbour of 'R' and 'P.

  • X is sitting immediately left of "Y".
  • Neither 'X' nor Y are the immediate neighbours of 'L'.

Therefore, the final arrangement will be:

Clearly, 'K' is sitting second from the right end.

Hence, the correct answer is "K".

14

Two different positions of the same dice are shown having numbers 1 to 6 represented as dots. Find the number on the face opposite the face showing '1'.

  1. ((a))

    6

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

6

As '2' and '4' dots are common faces on both the dice, clearly the remaining faces are opposite to each other.

Therefore, '6' will be the number on the face opposite the face showing '1'.

Hence, '6' is the correct answer.

15

The average age of 30 students is 15 years. If the teacher’s age is also included then the average age increases by 1 year. The age of the teacher is?

  1. ((a))

    56

  2. ((b))

    46

  3. ((c))

    35

  4. ((d))

    45

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

46

No. of students = 30

Average age = 15 years

⇒ Total age of 30 students = Average Age × No. of students = 15 × 30 = 450 years

Let the teacher’s age be ‘x’

⇒ New total age = 450 + x

New no. of persons = 31

⇒ New average = 15 + 1

⇒ (450+x)/31 = 16

⇒ 450 + x = 496

⇒ x = 46

Hence, teacher is 46 years old.

16

Four-letter clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the one that is different.

  1. ((a))

    TVZB

  2. ((b))

    OPRS

  3. ((c))

    GIMO

  4. ((d))

    JLPR

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

OPRS

The logic followed here is:

Logic: First letter + 2 = Second letter; Second letter + 4 = Third letter; Third letter + 2 = Fourth letter

  1. TVZB → T + 2 = V; V + 4 = Z; Z + 2 = B
  2. OPRS → O + 1 = P; P + 2 = R; R + 1 = S
  3. GIMO → G + 2 = I; I + 4 = M; M + 2 = O
  4. JLPR → J + 2 = L; L + 4 = P; P + 2 = R

Hence, 'OPRS' is the correct answer.

17

In the following number sequence, how many times an odd number is immediately followed by an even number?

7 8 3 6 8 9 2 4 7 6 9 8 9 3 6 2 8 3 5 6 1 6 8 3 2 6 9

  1. ((a))

    8

  2. ((b))

    10

  3. ((c))

    7

  4. ((d))

    9

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

9

Given sequence of number

7 8 3 6 8 9 2 4 7 6 9 8 9 3 6 2 8 3 5 6 1 6 8 3 2 6 9

There are total 9 times an odd number is immediately followed by an even number.

Hence, "9" is the correct answer.

18

If

P + Q means 'P is son of Q'

P - Q means 'P is father of Q'

P × Q means 'P is daughter of Q'

P ÷ Q means 'P is husband of Q'

Which of the following is true for A - C + D × E ÷ K?

  1. ((a))

    E is uncle of A

  2. ((b))

    A is son in law of D

  3. ((c))

    K is mother in law of A

  4. ((d))

    D is father of A

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

K is mother in law of A

Using the following symbols:

<br>

Given:

A - C = D × E ÷ K

we have the family tree as,

<br>

Hence, K is the mother-in-law of A.

19

A man is 24 years older than his son. In two years, his age will be twice the age of his son. The present age of his son is

  1. ((a))

    18 years

  2. ((b))

    14 years

  3. ((c))

    22 years

  4. ((d))

    20 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

22 years

Let the current age of the son be x years.

Thus the current age of the father is x + 24 years

Thus after two years,

x + 24 + 2 = 2(x + 2)

x + 26 = 2x + 4

x = 22

Thus the present age of his son is 22 years.

20

In a family of eight persons, there are two couples, each having two children. B and D are brothers, and each has two children. E is the aunt of A, who is the cousin brother of C. C is the sister of H, who is the cousin brother of G. F is the wife of B. How is H related to F?

  1. ((a))

    Son-in-law

  2. ((b))

    Nephew

  3. ((c))

    Brother-in-law

  4. ((d))

    Son

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Nephew

Tree diagram:

Hence, His the nephew of F.

21

'हथियार डाल देना' - मुहावरे का सही अर्थ बताइए।

  1. ((a))

    मात्र कल्पना करते रहना

  2. ((b))

    हथियार गिरा देना

  3. ((c))

    हथियार उठा लेना

  4. ((d))

    हार मान लेना

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

हार मान लेना

सही उत्तर है हार मान लेना। 

Key Points

  • मुहावरा का शाब्दिक अर्थ ‘अभ्यास’ है।
  • मुहावरा शब्द अरबी भाषा का शब्द है।
  • हिंदी में ऐसे वाक्यांशों को मुहावरा कहा जाता है, जो अपने साधारण अर्थ को छोड़कर विशेष अर्थ को व्यक्त करते हैं।

कुछ महत्वपूर्ण मुहावरे:

हथेली पर दही जमानाकाम हेतु जल्दी मचाना
सिर नीचा कर देनालज्जित कर देना
फिसल पड़नामुग्ध हो जाना
ख़याली पुलाओ पकानामात्र कल्पना करते रहना
22

'तालाब' का पर्यायवाची है-

  1. ((a))

    भास्‍कर

  2. ((b))

    प्रभाकर

  3. ((c))

    पद्माकर

  4. ((d))

    सुधाकर

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

पद्माकर

'तालाब' का पर्यायवाची शब्द 'पद्माकर' है। 

Key Points

  • तालाब के पर्यायवाची - सर,सरोवर,पुष्कर,जलाशय,तडाग,सरसी आदि

अन्य विकल्प: 

  • विकल्प में आये हुए शब्दों का विश्लेषण:
शब्दपर्यायवाची शब्द
भास्करदिनकर,दिवाकर,रवि,भानु,अर्क,आदित्य,सविता,हंस,अन्शुमाली,मार्तंड
प्रभाकरदिनकर,दिवाकर,रवि,भानु,अर्क,आदित्य,सविता,हंस,अन्शुमाली,मार्तंड
पद्माकरसर,सरोवर,पुष्कर,जलाशय,तडाग,सरसी
सुधाकरसोम,सुधांशु,राकेश,मयंक,शशि,इंदु,मृगांक,निशाकर

 

Hinglish

  • तालाब - pond
23

विपरीतार्थक शब्द बताएँ :

उत्कर्ष

  1. ((a))

    संघर्ष

  2. ((b))

    परामर्श

  3. ((c))

    अपकर्ष

  4. ((d))

    अउत्कर्ष

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

अपकर्ष

"उत्कर्ष" का उचित विलोम 'अपकर्ष' है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

  • उत्कर्ष का विलोम अपकर्ष है।
  • उत्कर्ष का अर्थ- उन्नति
  • अपकर्ष का अर्थ- अवनति

Important Points कुछ अन्‍य व‍िलोम शब्‍द- 

शब्‍दविलोम
जड़चेतन
वक्‍ताश्रोता
उन्‍मूलनरोपण
आघातप्रतिघात
अनिवार्यऐच्छिक
आवृत्तअनावृत्त
विज्ञअज्ञ
आलोकतिमिर
कृत्रिमप्राकृतिक
24

मोहन किताब पढ़ता है। इस वाक्य में क्रिया का कौन-सा प्रकार है?  

  1. ((a))

    पूर्वकालिक क्रिया  

  2. ((b))

    सकर्मक क्रिया

  3. ((c))

    अनेकार्थक 

  4. ((d))

    अकर्मक क्रिया

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

सकर्मक क्रिया

मोहन किताब पढ़ता है। इस वाक्य में क्रिया का प्रकार है- सकर्मक क्रिया

Key Points

  • वाक्य - मोहन किताब पढ़ता है। 
  • (वाक्य में 'पढ़ता है।' क्रिया का प्रभाव 'मोहन' (कर्ता) पर न पड़कर 'किताब' पर पड़ रहा है।
  • यहाँ पर 'किताब' कर्म हैं, अत: यह सकर्मक क्रिया के उदाहरण है।)
  • जिन क्रियाओं के कार्य का फल कर्ता को छोड़कर कर्म पर पड़ता है उन्हे सकर्मक क्रिया कहते है।
  • सकर्मक क्रिया कर्म के बिना अपना भाव पूर्ण रूप से प्रकट नहीं कर पाती। 
  • उदाहरण - रमेश दूध पीता है।

Important Points क्रिया के भेद -

  • कर्म के आधार पर क्रिया के दो भेद होते हैं।
  1. सकर्मक क्रिया
  2. अकर्मक क्रिया

Additional Information पूर्वकालिक क्रिया-

  • जब कर्ता एक कार्य को समाप्त करके तुरंत दूसरे काम में लग जाता है,
  • तब जो क्रिया पहले ही समाप्त हो जाती है, उसे पूर्वकालिक क्रिया कहते हैं।
  • क्रिया भेद का पूर्वकालिक रूप बनाने के लिए मूल धातु के साथ 'कर' या 'करके' जोड़ दिया जाता है।
  • उदाहरण -
  • सोनू बाजार जाकर सब्जी लाया।
  • अंकिता गाना गाकर नाचने लगी।

अनेकार्थक शब्द-

  • जिन शब्दों के एक से अधिक अर्थ होते हैं, उन्हें 'अनेकार्थी शब्द' कहते है।
  • उदाहरण -
  • ​अंक - गिनती के अंक, नाटक के अंक, गिन्ह, संख्या।
  • गुरू - शिक्षक, श्रेष्ठ, बड़ा, भारी, दो मात्राएँ (छंद में)।

अकर्मक क्रिया-

  • जिस क्रिया में कार्य का फल कर्ता पर ही पड़े, उसे अकर्मक क्रिया कहते हैं। अकर्मक क्रिया में कर्म नहीं पाया जाता है।
  • ​उदाहरण - ​राम सो रहा है।
25

तमिल भाषा में किस महाकवि ने 'रामायण' की रचना की?

  1. ((a))

    कृत्तिवास 

  2. ((b))

    पंप

  3. ((c))

    कम्ब

  4. ((d))

    नेमचंद्र

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

कम्ब

सही उत्तर 'कम्ब' हैं।

Key Points

  • इस रामायण का नाम रामावतरम् या कंब रामायण है।
  • इसके रचियता कम्ब या कंबन है जिसे की कविचक्रवती की उपाधि से प्रसिद्ध है।
  • खोज के अनुसार माना जाता है इसका प्रकाशन 1175 ई. के असपास हुआ है।
  • वी. वी. एस अय्यर के अनुसार कंब रामायण विश्वसाहित्य में उत्तम कृति है।

कम्ब रामायण के छः काण्ड है-

  • बालकाण्डम्
  • अयोध्या काण्डम्
  • अरण्यकाण्डम्
  • किष्किन्धा काण्डम्
  • सुन्दर काण्डम्
  • युद्ध काण्डम्

कम्ब ने उत्तर काण्ड के विषय में कुछ नहीं लिखा है राम के राज्यभिषेक पर समाप्त कर दिया है।

  • इसका अधार ग्रंथ वाल्मीकि रामायण है।

Additional Information

  • कृत्तिवास कवि द्वारा लिखित ग्रंथ कृत्तिवास रामायण (15वी शती) है।

Mistake Points

  • नेमचंद्र किसी कवि का नाम नही है। बल्कि नेमिचंद्र जैन (जन्म 1919ई.) है।
  • जो तारसप्तक में सम्मलित है।
  • इनकी प्रमुख रचनाएँ- तारसप्तक (1944), एकांत (1973), आधूरे साक्षातकार (1966), रंगदर्शन (1967ई.)अदि।

निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़े और प्रश्न के उत्तर दीजिये:

आकाश के तारों में शुक्र का कोई जोड़ नहीं। शुक्र चंद्र का साथी माना गया है। उसकी आभा-प्रभा का वर्णन करने में संसार के कवि थके नहीं। फिर भी नक्षत्र मंडल में कलगी -  रूप इस तेजस्वी तारे को दुनिया या तो ऐन शाम के समय, बड़े सवेरे घंटे- दो घंटे से अधिक देख नहीं पाती। इसी तरह भाई महादेव जी आधुनिक भारत की स्वतंत्रता के उषाकाल में अपनी वैसी ही आभा से हमारे आकाश को जगमगाकर, देश और दुनिया को मुग्ध करके, शुक्र तारे की तरह ही अचानक अस्त हो गए। सेवाधर्म का पालन करने के लिए इस धरती पर जनमे स्वर्गीय महादेव देसाई गांधीजी के मंत्री थे। मित्रों के बीच विनोद में अपने को गांधीजी का 'हम्माल' कहने में और कभी - कभी अपना परिचय उनके 'पीर - बावर्ची भिश्ती खर' के रूप में देने में वे गौरव का अनुभव किया करते थे।

26

शुक्र को किसका साथी माना गया है?

  1. ((a))

    चंद्र का

  2. ((b))

    तारों का

  3. ((c))

    नक्षत्र का

  4. ((d))

    आकाश का

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

चंद्र का

सही उत्तर है, 'चंद्र का'

Key Points

  • गद्य की प्रथम पंक्ति इस उत्तर की पुष्टि करती है, "आकाश के तारों में शुक्र का कोई जोड़ नहीं। शुक्र चंद्र का साथी माना गया है।"
  • शुक्र पृथ्वी के समान एक ग्रह है,जो सूर्य के चक्कर लगाता है।
  • चंद्र पृथ्वी का एक प्राकृतिक उपग्रह है, जो पृथ्वी के चक्कर लगाता है।
27

देश और दुनिया को मुग्ध करके' का भाव है -

  1. ((a))

    सभी को भूल जाना

  2. ((b))

    सभी का प्यार पाना

  3. ((c))

    सभी को परेशान करना

  4. ((d))

    सभी को गुस्सा दिलाना

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

सभी का प्यार पाना

सही उत्तर 'सभी का प्यार पाना' है।

Key Points

  • मुग्ध होने का अर्थ है आकर्षित होना, खो जाना।
  • 'देश और दुनिया को मुग्ध करके' का भाव है, "सभी का प्यार पाना"।
  • मुग्ध
  • विशेषण
  • मोहित, आसक्त।
28

हम बड़े सवेरे घंटे - दो घंटे से अधिक किसे नहीं देख पाते हैं?

  1. ((a))

    सामान्य तारे को

  2. ((b))

    शुक्र तारे को

  3. ((c))

    आकाश को

  4. ((d))

    चाँद को

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

शुक्र तारे को

सही उत्तर है 'शुक्र तारे को'

Key Points

  • शुक्र सूर्योदय से पहले या सूर्यास्त के बाद केवल थोड़ी देर के लिए ही अपनी आभा (अधिकतम चमक) पहुँचता है।
  • इसिलिए इसे सुबह का तारा या शाम का तारा के रूप में संदर्भित किया गया है।
29

'गौरव' का पर्यायवाची शब्द है -

  1. ((a))

    स्वाभिमान

  2. ((b))

    वीरता

  3. ((c))

    उच्च

  4. ((d))

    सफेद

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

स्वाभिमान

सही उत्तर है - ‘स्वाभिमान​’

  • गौरव का अर्थ : स्वाभिमान

Key Points 

  • गौरव शब्द का पर्यायवाची 'स्वाभिमान' है।
  • इसी प्रकार गौरव शब्द के अन्य पर्यायवाची - सम्मान, भारीपन, आदर, महिमा आदि होते हैं।

 

Additional Information 

  • वीरता - शक्ति, बल, शक्ति, बहादुरी, पराक्रम आदि।
  • उच्च - उदात्त, ऊंचा, लंबा, बढ़ते, प्रमुख आदि।
  • सफेद - धवल- श्वेत, उज्ज्वल आदि।
30

महादेव देसाई का जन्म किस धर्म का पालन करने के लिए हुआ?

  1. ((a))

    सेवा धर्म

  2. ((b))

    दान धर्म

  3. ((c))

    मित्र धर्म

  4. ((d))

    राज धर्म

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

सेवा धर्म

सही उत्तर 'सेवा धर्म' है।

Key Points

  • इस उत्तर की पुष्टि निम्न पंक्ति से होती है, 'सेवाधर्म का पालन करने के लिए इस धरती पर जनमे स्वर्गीय महादेव देसाई गांधीजी के मंत्री थे।'
  • दूसरों के मुश्किल समय में उनका साथ देना सेवा है।
  • उत्कृष्टता और उदारता का समन्वय सेवा धर्म में निहित है।
31

Riya could not decide between discount of 30% or two successive discounts of 25% and 5%, both given on shopping of ₹3,840. What is the difference between both the discounts?

  1. ((a))

    ₹44

  2. ((b))

    ₹48

  3. ((c))

    ₹42

  4. ((d))

    ₹46

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

₹48

Shortcut Trick

The difference between a single discount of (a + b)% and two successive discounts of a% and b% is always (ab ÷ 100)% of the Marked Price.

Here, a = 25 and b = 5. Note that 25 + 5 = 30, which matches the single discount.

Difference % = (25 × 5) ÷ 100 = 1.25%.

Difference in value = 1.25% of ₹3,840 = (1.25 ÷ 100) × 3,840 = 3,840 ÷ 80 = ₹48.

∴ The correct answer is ₹48.

Alternate Method

Given: Shopping amount (MP) = ₹3,840, Case 1 Discount = 30%, Case 2 Successive Discounts = 25% and 5%. Formulas: Net Discount = a + b − (ab ÷ 100) | Value = (Discount% ÷ 100) × MP.

Case 1 Discount: 30% of 3,840 = (30 ÷ 100) × 3,840 = ₹1,152. ⇒ Case 2 Net Discount%: 25 + 5 − (25 × 5 ÷ 100) = 30 − 1.25 = 28.75%. ⇒ Case 2 Discount Value: (28.75 ÷ 100) × 3,840 = ₹1,104. ⇒ Difference: 1,152 − 1,104 = ₹48.

∴ The correct answer is ₹48.

Additional Information

Successive Discounts

When two discounts d1 and d2 are given, the effective discount is always less than the sum of the individual discounts because the second discount is applied to the reduced price.

Difference between Single and Successive

If D = a + b, the difference between a single discount of D% and successive discounts of a% and b% is simply ab/100 % of the Marked Price.

32

What is the single percentage discount equivalent to two successive discounts of 15% and 5%?

  1. ((a))

    19.00% 

  2. ((b))

    19.25%

  3. ((c))

    18.00%

  4. ((d))

    18.25%

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

19.25%

Given:

The successive discounts are 15% and 5%.

Formula used:

Successive discount = X + Y - (XY)/100

Where,

X = First discount

Y = Second discount

Calculation:

Successive discount = X + Y - (XY)/100

X = 15%, Y = 15%

⇒ 15 + 5 - 75/100

⇒ 19.25%

∴ The single equivalent discount is 19.25%

33

The cost price of a car was Rs. 150000. Raju sold it to Montoo at a profit of 5%, and later Montoo sold it back to Raju at 2% loss. Find The total profit or loss in the entire transaction.

  1. ((a))

    Raju's gain Rs. 4,500

  2. ((b))

    Raju's loss Rs. 4,350

  3. ((c))

    Raju's gain Rs. 3,150

  4. ((d))

    Raju's gain Rs. 4,350

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Raju's gain Rs. 3,150

Shortcut Trick

When an original owner repurchases an item, their net financial gain is exactly equal to the second person's cash loss.

Montoo's Cost Price = 150000 × (100 + 5) ÷ 100 = Rs. 157500.

Montoo's Loss = 2% of 157500 = Rs. 3150.

This loss amount represents Raju's exact net profit.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 3150.

Alternate Method

Given:

Original CP of the car for Raju = Rs. 150000

Raju's profit percentage = 5%

Montoo's loss percentage = 2%

Calculations:

⇒ Selling Price (SP) of Raju = CP × (100 + Profit%) ÷ 100

⇒ SP of Raju = 150000 × (100 + 5) ÷ 100 = 150000 × 105 ÷ 100 = Rs. 157500

⇒ This SP becomes the Cost Price for Montoo.

⇒ SP of Montoo = 157500 × (100 − 2) ÷ 100 = 157500 × 98 ÷ 100 = Rs. 154350

⇒ Raju initially made a profit of: 157500 − 150000 = Rs. 7500

⇒ To repurchase the car, Raju paid an extra amount over the original CP: 154350 − 150000 = Rs. 4350

⇒ Raju's net financial gain = Initial Profit − Extra amount paid

⇒ Net gain = 7500 − 4350 = Rs. 3150

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 3150.

Additional Information

Closed Loop Repurchase

If person A sells an item to person B and later buys it back, A's net physical assets are restored. Their net financial gain exactly equals B's net cash loss.

Successive Transactions

When an item changes hands sequentially, the final price is determined by chaining the percentage changes: Final Price = Initial Price × (1 ± P1/100) × (1 ± P2/100).

Profit and Loss Basics

Profit occurs when Selling Price > Cost Price (Profit = SP − CP). Loss occurs when Cost Price > Selling Price (Loss = CP − SP). Both are fundamentally calculated based on the Cost Price.

34

In a college there are total 250 students. Average weight of boys is 50 and average weight of girls is 45. Also it is known that the overall average is 48. What is the number of boys in the college?

  1. ((a))

    150

  2. ((b))

    100

  3. ((c))

    125

  4. ((d))

    200

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

150

Given:

Total students in the college = 250

The average weight of boys = 50

The average weight of girls = 45

Average of total students = 48

Concept used:

Average = Total sum of observations/Total number of observations

Calculation:

We can use allegation method to solve this problem as -

The ratio of boys to girls = 3 ∶ 2

So, the number of boys = (3/5) × 250 = 150

∴ The number of boys in the college is 150.

35

The average weight of the first 14 persons out of 15 persons is 75 kg. The weight of the 15th person is 28 kg more than the average weight of all the 15 persons. The weight of 15th person is:

  1. ((a))

    102 kg

  2. ((b))

    105 kg

  3. ((c))

    93 kg

  4. ((d))

    108.75 kg

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

105 kg

Given:

The average weight of the first 14 persons out of 15 persons is 75 kg.

The weight of the 15th person is 28 kg more than the average weight of all the 15 persons.

Formula used:

Average = Sum of observation/Number of observation

Calculation:

Let the average weight of all the 15 persons be x kg,

As given, the weight of 15th person will be (x + 28) kg

⇒ Average weight of 15 persons = (The sum of the weight of all the 15 persons)/15

⇒ x = {(14 × 75) + (x + 28)}/15

⇒ 15x = 1050 + x + 28

⇒ 14x = 1078

⇒ x = 77

∴ The weight of 15th person = 77 + 28 is 105 kg.

36

If the average of 9 numbers is 16, and average of last two numbers is 18, then find the average of first 7 numbers.

  1. ((a))

    16

  2. ((b))

    49

  3. ((c))

    21

  4. ((d))

    (\frac{108}{7})

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

(\frac{108}{7})

Given:

The average of 9 numbers = 16

Average of last two numbers = 18

Formula used:

Average of n numbers = (Sum of n numbers) ÷ n

Calculation:

According to the question,

The average of 9 numbers = 16

The sum of 9 numbers = 16 × 9 = 144

The average of the last two numbers = 18

The sum of the last two numbers = 18 × 2 = 36

The sum of first 7 numbers = 144 - 36 = 108

The average of the first 7 numbers = (\frac{108}{7})

Therefore, '(\frac{108}{7})' is the required answer.

37

Average of five numbers is 12. But the average of three of these is 10. The average of the rest two numbers is

  1. ((a))

    15

  2. ((b))

    20

  3. ((c))

    17

  4. ((d))

    18

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

15

Given:

Average of 5 numbers (A1) = 12

Average of 3 of these numbers (A2) = 10

Formulae: Sum = Average × Number of items Average = Sum / Number of items

Calculation:

Sum1 = A1 × 5 = 12 × 5 = 60

Sum2 = A2 × 3 = 10 × 3 = 30

Sum3 = Sum1 - Sum2 = 60 - 30 = 30

A3 = Sum3 / 2 = 30 / 2 = 15

So, the average of the other two numbers is 15.

38

What is the value of 7 ÷ 2 – [3 of 7 ÷ 4 ÷ {(2 ÷ 5) × (25 ÷ 8) ÷ (5 ÷ 2)}]?

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    -8

  3. ((c))

    -7

  4. ((d))

    -7/4

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

-7

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given

.

⇒ 7 ÷ 2 – [3 of 7 ÷ 4 ÷ {(2 ÷ 5) × (25 ÷ 8) ÷ (5 ÷ 2)}]

⇒ 7 ÷ 2 – [21 ÷ 4 ÷ {2/5 × 25/8 ÷ 5/2}]

⇒ 7 ÷ 2 – [21 ÷ 4 ÷ {2/5 × 5/4}]

⇒ 7 ÷ 2 – [21 ÷ 4 ÷ 1/2]

⇒ 7 ÷ 2 – [21 × 1/4 × 2]

⇒ 7 × 1/2 - 21/2

⇒ 7/2 – 21/2 = -14/2 = -7

39

A shopkeeper sells his goods by allowing 18% discount and still earns 30% profit. If he sells his goods by allowing 12% discount on the marked price, then what will be his profit percentage (correct to 2 decimal places)?

  1. ((a))

    42.62%

  2. ((b))

    35.45%

  3. ((c))

    40.35%

  4. ((d))

    39.51%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

39.51%

Concept used:

CP/MP = (100 - Discount%) / (100 + Profit%)

Calculation:

According to the given concept,

CP/MP = (100 - 18)/(100 + 30) = 82/130 = 41/65

So, CP = 41 unit and MP = 65 unit

Now, he sells his goods at 12% discount, SP = 65 × 88/100 = 57.2

So profit% = (57.2 - 41)/41 × 100 = 39.51%

∴ The correct answer is 39.51%

40

Simplify: 

250 - [90 - (120 ÷ 10 - (30 - 60 ÷ 3) ÷ 10)]

  1. ((a))

    143

  2. ((b))

    171

  3. ((c))

    134

  4. ((d))

    166

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

171

Given:

250 - [90 - (120 ÷ 10 - (30 - 60 ÷ 3) ÷ 10)]

Concept used:

Calculation:

250 - [90 - (120 ÷ 10 - (30 - 60 ÷ 3) ÷ 10)]

⇒  250 - [90 - (12 - (30 - 20) ÷ 10)]

⇒  250 - [90 - 11]

⇒ 250 - 79

⇒ 171

∴ Option 2 is the correct answer.

41

Sunita scored 66% which is 50 marks more to secure pass marks. Gita score 38% and failed by 6 marks. If Vinay scored 17.5%, then find the score of Vinay.

  1. ((a))

    35

  2. ((b))

    45

  3. ((c))

    70

  4. ((d))

    175

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

35

Given:

Sunita scored 66% which is 50 marks more to secure pass marks. Gita score 38% and failed by 6 marks.

Calculation:

Let x be the total marks scored by Sunita.

According to the question,

Passing marks in the first case:

Passing marks = 66% of x - 50

Passing marks in the second case:

Passing marks = 38% of x + 6

Now, on equating the passing marks we get,

⇒ 66% of x - 50 = 38% of x + 6

⇒ 66% of x - 38% of x = 50 + 6

⇒ 28% of x = 56

⇒ x = 200

Again according to the question,

⇒ The marks scored by Vinay = 17.5% of 200 = 35

Therefore, '35' is the required answer.

Shortcut TrickLet full marks be 100%

⇒ 66% - 50 = 38% + 6

⇒ 28% = 56 marks

⇒ 1% = 2 marks

⇒ 17.5% = 35 marks

∴  The marks scored by Vinay = 35 marks

42

By melting 2 solid spheres of diameter 2 cm and 12 cm, a hollow sphere of external radius with 9 cm is made. Find the thickness of hollow sphere.

  1. ((a))

    3 cm

  2. ((b))

    4 cm

  3. ((c))

    1 cm

  4. ((d))

    2 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1 cm

Given:

Diameter of spheres = 2 cm and 12 cm

External radius of hollow sphere = 9 cm

Formula Used:

Volume of sphere = (4/3) × π × r3

Volume of hollow sphere = (4/3) × π × (R13 – R23)

Thickness of hollow sphere = R1 – R2

Where,

r → Radius of sphere

R1 → External Radius of sphere

R2 → Internal Radius of sphere

Calculation:

Total volume of melted sphere = (4/3) × π × 13 + (4/3) × π × 63

⇒ (4/3) × π × (1 + 216)

⇒ (4/3) × π × (217)

Let the internal radius of hollow sphere be x

Volume of hollow sphere = (4/3) × π × (R13 – R23)

⇒ (4/3) × π × 217 = (4/3) × π × (93 – x3)

⇒ 217 = 729 – x3

⇒ x3 = 729 – 217

⇒ x3 = 512

⇒ x = 8 cm

Thickness of hollow sphere = R1 – R2

⇒ 9 – 8

⇒ 1 cm

∴ The thickness of hollow sphere is 1 cm.

43

Find the compound interest on Rs. 12,000 in 3 years at a rate of 10% per annum, compounded annually. 

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 3972

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 3672

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 3872

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 3772

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 3972

Shortcut Trick

For a 3-year period at 10%, the Effective Percentage Rate of Compound Interest is 33.1%.

Compound Interest = Principal × 33.1%

⇒ 12,000 × 0.331 = 3,972

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 3972.

Alternate Method

Given: Principal (P) = Rs. 12,000, Time (n) = 3 years, Rate (R) = 10% p.a.

Formula Used: Amount (A) = P(1 + R/100)n and Compound Interest (CI) = A − P

⇒ A = 12000 × (1 + 10/100)3

⇒ A = 12000 × (11/10) × (11/10) × (11/10)

⇒ A = 12 × 11 × 11 × 11

⇒ A = 12 × 1331 = 15,972

⇒ CI = 15,972 − 12,000

⇒ CI = 3,972

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 3972.

Additional Information

Effective Rate of Interest

For 2 years, effective rate = x + y + (xy/100). For 3 years at 10%, it is 33.1%.

Difference between CI and SI

For 3 years, Difference = P(R/100)2 × (3 + R/100).

Compound Interest Formula

CI = P[(1 + R/100)n − 1] where P is principal, R is rate, and n is time.

44

A father is thrice his son's age. Three years ago the age of the father was three less than four times his son's age then. Find the average of the father's and son's current age in years.

  1. ((a))

    23

  2. ((b))

    25

  3. ((c))

    24

  4. ((d))

    26

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

24

Formula Used:

Average = Sum of observations / No. of observations

Calculation:

Let, the present age of Son = S

And, the present age of Father = F

We have, F = 3 × S     -----(1)

Three years ago, F - 3 = {(S - 3) × 4} - 3

⇒ F - 3 = 4 × S - 15     -----(2)

Put the value of eq(1) in eq(2)

⇒ 4 × S - 3 × S = 12

⇒ S = 12 & F = 36

Average = (12 + 36) / 2 = 24

Hence, average of Father's and Son's current age is 24 years.

45

The current ages of Sudhir and Ashish are in the ratio 5 ∶ 7. Twelve years ago, the ratio of their ages was 1 ∶ 2. What will be the age of Sudhir after five years from now? 

  1. ((a))

    20 years

  2. ((b))

    25 years

  3. ((c))

    33 years

  4. ((d))

    28 years  

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

25 years

Shortcut Trick

Current Ratio (diff 2) = 5 : 7 | 12 years ago Ratio (diff 1) = 1 : 2

Make differences equal: 12 years ago Ratio = 2 : 4 (multiplied by 2)

Unit change for Sudhir = 5 − 2 = 3 units → 12 years

1 unit = 4 years ∴ Sudhir current age = 5 × 4 = 20 years

Sudhir age after 5 years = 20 + 5 = 25 years

∴ The correct answer is 25 years.

Alternate Method

Given: Current age ratio of Sudhir and Ashish is 5 : 7. Twelve years ago, the ratio was 1 : 2.

Let the current ages of Sudhir and Ashish be 5x and 7x respectively.

According to the question, 12 years ago:

⇒ (5x − 12) / (7x − 12) = 1 / 2

⇒ 2 × (5x − 12) = 1 × (7x − 12)

⇒ 10x − 24 = 7x − 12

⇒ 10x − 7x = 24 − 12

⇒ 3x = 12

⇒ x = 12 ÷ 3 = 4

⇒ Current age of Sudhir = 5x = 5 × 4 = 20 years

⇒ Age of Sudhir after 5 years = 20 + 5 = 25 years

∴ The correct answer is 25 years.

Additional Information

Constant Age Difference

The difference between the ages of two individuals always remains the same, regardless of how many years pass.

Ratio Balancing Method

To solve age problems quickly, multiply ratio terms so that the numerical difference between the ratios of both people becomes identical.

Future and Past Ages

If current age is 'A', age 'n' years ago was (A − n) and age 'n' years later will be (A + n).

46

A boy walking at the speed of 3 km/hr covers a certain distance in 3 hours 40 minutes. If he covers the same distance by cycle in 11 hours, then what is the speed (in km/hr) of cycle?

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1

Given:

Speed of boy = 3 km/hr

Time to cover the distance = 3 h 40 minutes

Calculation:

Speed of walking = 3 km/hr

Time taken by walking = 3 hours 40 min = 3 + (40/60) = 3 + (2/3) = 11/3 hours

Distance covered by walking = speed × time = 3 × (11/3) = 11 km

Time taken by cycle = 11 hours

Speed of cycle = distance/time = 11/11 = 1 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 1 km/hr.

Shortcut TrickConcept used:

If the distance is constant, then

Speed ∝ (1/time)

Calculation:

According to the question:

Total Time taken to cover the distance while walking = 3 hr 60 = 11/3 hrs

Now 

WalkingCycling
Time11/311
Speed1111/3

So, 

11 units = 3 km/hr

1 unit = 3 /11

11/3 units = 3/11 × 11/3 = 1 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 1 km/hr.

47

First pipe can fill a tank in 12 hours. Second pipe can fill the same tank in 6 hours. Third pipe in 4 hours. How long will it take if all the 3 pipes are opened simultaneously?

  1. ((a))

    2 hrs.

  2. ((b))

    3 hrs.

  3. ((c))

    4 hrs.

  4. ((d))

    12 hrs.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2 hrs.

Given:

The first pipe can fill the tank =12 hours

The second pipe can fill the pipe = 6 hours

The third pipe can fill the pipe = 4 hours

Formula used:

W = E × T     Where, W = Work, E = Efficiency, and T = Time

Calculation:

Let all three pipes together can fill the tank in X hours

The efficiency of the first pipe = ({1\over 12})

The efficiency of the second pipe = ({1\over 6})

The efficiency of the third pipe = ({1\over 4})

All three can complete the work in one hour = ({1\over 12}\ +\ {1\over 6}\ +\ {1\over 4}\ =\ {1\ +\ 2\ +\ 3\over 12}\ =\ {6\over 12}\ =\ {1\over 2})

They can complete the work all three together = 2 hours

∴ The required result will be 2 hours.

Shortcut TrickLet A, B ad C be the three pipes that fill the tank in 12, 6, and 4 hour respectively

LCM of 12, 6, and 4 = 12 units be the total quantity to be filled.

Combined Efficiency of A, B, and C = 6 units/hour

Total time taken by all three pipes to fill tank = 12/6 = 2 hours

48

The birth rate of the city is 10% and the death rate is 20%. The current population of the city is 40000 then what will be the approximate population of the city after 2 years.

  1. ((a))

    30976

  2. ((b))

    30000

  3. ((c))

    28964

  4. ((d))

    31000

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30976

Given:

The birth rate = 10%

The death rate = 20%

The current population = 40000

Calculation:

The population of the city after 2 years = 40000 × (({110\over100})^2) × (({80\over100})^2)

⇒ 40000 × (1.1)2 × (0.8)2

⇒ 30976

∴ The population of the city after 2 years will be 30976.

49

[([6\frac{3}{4} + (10\frac{5}{6} - 8\frac{1}{3})] \div (7\frac{7}{8} \div \frac{27}{32}))

  1. ((a))

    75/2

  2. ((b))

    111/112

  3. ((c))

    34/7

  4. ((d))

    783/8

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

111/112

Calculation:  

 ([6\frac{3}{4} + (10\frac{5}{6} - 8\frac{1}{3})] \div (7\frac{7}{8} \div \frac{27}{32}))   

(⇒ [\frac{27}{4} + (\frac{65}{6} - \frac{25}{3})] \div (\frac{63}{8} \div \frac{27}{32}))

(⇒ [\frac{27}{4} + (\frac{65 - 50}{6})] \div (\frac{63}{8} \div \frac{27}{32}))

(⇒ [\frac{27}{4} + \frac{15}{6}] \div (\frac{63}{8} \div \frac{27}{32}))

(⇒ [\frac{81 + 30}{12}] \div (\frac{63}{8} \times \frac{32}{27}))

(⇒ \frac{111}{12} \times \frac{3}{28})

(⇒ \frac{111}{112})

(∴ [6\frac{3}{4} + (10\frac{5}{6} - 8\frac{1}{3})] \div (7\frac{7}{8} \div \frac{27}{32}) =\frac{111}{112})

The correct option is 2 i.e. (\frac{111}{112})

50

A, B and C can alone do a work in 6 days, 12 days and 24 days respectively. Working together In how much time they will complete the whole work?

  1. ((a))

    24/5 days

  2. ((b))

    24/7 days

  3. ((c))

    48/5 days

  4. ((d))

    48/7 days

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

24/7 days

Shortcut Trick

Combine efficiencies based on LCM of 6, 12, and 24 which is 24.

Efficiency of A = 24 ÷ 6 = 4

Efficiency of B = 24 ÷ 12 = 2

Efficiency of C = 24 ÷ 24 = 1

Total efficiency = 4 + 2 + 1 = 7

Total time = Total Work ÷ Total Efficiency = 24 ÷ 7

∴ The correct answer is 24/7 days.

Alternate Method

Given: A = 6 days, B = 12 days, C = 24 days.

Formula Used: Total Work = LCM of individual days; Time = Total Work ÷ Efficiency.

PersonDaysTotal WorkEfficiency
A6244
B122
C241

Total efficiency of A + B + C = 4 + 2 + 1 = 7 units/day.

Total work to be completed = 24 units.

Time taken together = 24 ÷ 7 days.

∴ The correct answer is 24/7 days.

Additional Information

Total Work Concept

When multiple people work together, their combined efficiency is the sum of their individual efficiencies (Work/Day).

Reciprocal Method

1/Ttotal = 1/T1 + 1/T2 + 1/T3. For this case: 1/6 + 1/12 + 1/24 = (4+2+1)/24 = 7/24.

Work and Wages

Wages are always distributed in the ratio of efficiencies if all persons work for the same duration of time.

51

Which country has officially become a full member of BRICS as announced by Brazil in January 2025?

  1. ((a))

    United Arab Emirates

  2. ((b))

    Egypt

  3. ((c))

    Iran

  4. ((d))

    Indonesia

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Indonesia

The correct answer is Indonesia.

In News

  • Indonesia has officially joined BRICS as a full member, confirmed by Brazil's government.

Key Points

  • Indonesia is the world’s fourth most populous country and has expressed long-standing interest in joining BRICS.
  • The BRICS group now includes Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa, and Indonesia.
  • Indonesia's BRICS membership was approved at the 2023 BRICS summit in Johannesburg and finalized post-2024 presidential election.
  • Indonesia’s inclusion is seen as a step to strengthen alliances among emerging nations and promote the goals of the Global South.

Additional Information

  • BRICS
  • BRICS is a group of major emerging economies, including Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa, and now Indonesia, that aim to reform global governance and strengthen cooperation among developing nations.
  • Current Members: Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa, Egypt, Ethiopia, Indonesia, Iran and UAE.
  • Iran, Egypt, Ethiopia, and UAE attended their first summit as member states at 2024 summit in Russia.
  • It was founded in 16 June 2009.
  • Global South
  • The Global South refers to countries in Africa, Latin America, Asia, and Oceania that share common challenges related to development, inequality, and global governance reform.
52

The only Annual Session of the Congress presided over by Mahatma Gandhi was :

  1. ((a))

    Kakinada 1923

  2. ((b))

    Belgaum, 1924

  3. ((c))

    Karachi, 1931

  4. ((d))

    Guwahati, 1926

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Belgaum, 1924

The correct answer is Belgaum, 1924.

Key Points

  • In 1924, Mahatma Gandhi presided over the Belgaum session of the Indian National Congress.
  • The Belgaum session was the only Congress session presided over by Mahatma Gandhi.

Additional Information

  • Annie Besant was President of Congress session at Calcutta in 1917.
  • She was the first woman to become Congress President.
  • In 1925, Sarojini Naidu was President of the Kanpur session of Congress.
  • She was the first Indian woman to become Congress President.
  • The 1923 Kakinada session of Congress was presided by Maulana Mohammad Ali and soon after this session, he split from the Congress citing the communal riots.
  • Guwahati, Assam hosted the Indian National Congress session for the first time in the year 1926.
  • It was presided over by S. Srinivasa Iyengar.
  • Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was President of the INC session held in Karachi in 1931.
53

Who represented the Congress in the second round table conference held in London?

  1. ((a))

    Mahatma Gandhi

  2. ((b))

    Lal Bahadur Shastri

  3. ((c))

    Vallabhbhai Patel

  4. ((d))

    Jawaharlal Nehru

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mahatma Gandhi

The correct answer is Mahatma Gandhi.

Key Points

  • Second Round Table Conference (September 1931- December 1931)
  • The Second Round Table Conference was held in London from 7 September 1931 to 1 December 1931 with the participation of Gandhi and the Indian National Congress.
  • Participants of the Second Round table conference
  • British delegates belonging to various political parties including the British Prime
  • Minister, James Ramsay Macdonald.
  • Indian princely states are represented by Maharajas, princes, and divans.
  • British Indians represented by:
  • Indian National Congress (INC) – Mahatma Gandhi, Rangaswami Iyengar, Madan
  • Mohan Malaviya
  • Muslims – Md. Ali Jinnah, Aga Khan III, Muhammad Iqbal, etc.
  • Hindus – M R Jayakar, etc.
  • Depressed classes – Dr B R Ambedkar
  • Women – Sarojini Naidu, etc.
  • Liberals, Justice Party, Sikhs, Indian Christians, Parsis, Europeans, Anglo-Indians,
  • industry, labour, landlords, Burma, Sindh, and other provinces

Additional Information

  • The first Session by presided by W.C. Bannerjee in December 1885 at Bombay.
  • The Second Session by presided by Dadabhai Naoroji was held at Calcutta in 1886.
  • Mahatma Gandhi presided over the 39th Session in 1924 In Belgaum, Karnataka.
  • 1925: Kanpur. President: Sarojini Naidu, First Indian Woman President.
  • 1927: Madras. President: Dr. M.A. Ansari.
  • 1931: Karachi. President: Vallabhbhai Patel.
  • The early leadership – Dadabhai Naoroji, Pherozeshah Mehta, Badruddin Tyabji, W.C. Bonnerji, Surendranath Banerji, Romesh Chandra Dutt, S. Subramania Iyer, among others was largely from Bombay and Calcutta.
  • The formation of the Indian National Congress was an effort in the direction of promoting the process of nation-building.
54

When was the First Round Table Conference started?

  1. ((a))

    August 1932

  2. ((b))

    October 1929

  3. ((c))

    September 1931

  4. ((d))

    November 1930

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

November 1930

The correct answer is November 1930.

Key Points

  • The First Round Table Conference was started in November 1930.
  • The three Round Table Conferences of 1930–1932 were a series of peace conferences organized by the British Government and Indian political personalities to discuss constitutional reforms in India.

Additional Information

  • First Round Table Conference (November 1930-January 1931)
  • The First Round Table Conference was inaugurated by George V on November 12, 1930, in the Royal Gallery House of Lords in London.
  • It was chaired by the British Prime Minister, Ramsay MacDonald.
  • It was to discuss the Simon Commission but it was totally boycotted by the Indian National Congress.
  • Total 74 delegates attended the First Round Table Conference from India.
  • The Indian National Congress had decided not to participate in the conference because many Congress leaders were imprisoned at that time because of participation in Civil Disobedience Movements.
  • There were fifty-eight political leaders from British India and sixteen delegates from the princely states.
  • In the absence of the Indian National Congress, it was difficult for progress to be made but some advances were made.
  • The conference was adjourned to 2 January 1931.
55

The first Tirthankar of Jain religion was

  1. ((a))

    Mahavir

  2. ((b))

    Parshwanath

  3. ((c))

    Rishabhdev

  4. ((d))

    Neminath

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Rishabhdev

The correct answer is Rishabhdev.

  • The first Tirthankara was Rishabnatha or Rishabhadev.
  • ​He was considered the founder of Jainism.

Key Points

  • According to  Jain texts, there is a tradition of 24 Tirthankars.
  • Mahavir Swami was the 24th Tirthankar.
  • He is considered the real founder of Jainism.
  • Parshvanath (Parasnath) was the 23rd Tirthankara of Jainism.
  • The discussion of Rishabhdev and Arishtanemi (22nd Tirthankara) is found in Rigveda.
  • The apex ascetics of Jainism were revered as 'Tirthankars'.​

Additional Information

  • Ajitnath was the second Jain Tirthankara.
  • Parshwanath was the 23rd Jain Tirthankara.
  • Neminath was the 22nd Jain Tirthankara.
56

In which year was the Konkan Railway constructed?  

  1. ((a))

    2008 

  2. ((b))

    1988

  3. ((c))

    1998 

  4. ((d))

    1978

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1998 

The correct answer is 1998

Key Points

  • 1998 is the year when the Konkan Railway was constructed.
  • The Konkan Railway is one of the most significant railway projects in India, connecting the western coast of India with the rest of the country.
  • It covers the regions of Maharashtra, Goa, and Karnataka, providing a crucial link for transportation and trade.
  • The construction of the Konkan Railway involved numerous engineering challenges, including the construction of numerous tunnels and bridges.

Additional Information

  • The Konkan Railway project was initiated to reduce the travel time between Mumbai and Mangalore.
  • It is considered a marvel of modern engineering due to the difficult terrain and the extensive use of tunnels and viaducts.
  • The railway line significantly boosted the economy of the Konkan region by improving connectivity and transportation of goods and passengers.
  • The Konkan Railway Corporation Limited (KRCL) was established in 1990 to oversee the construction and operation of the railway line.
57

The Battle of Buxar was fought between the forces under the command of the British East India Company led by Hector Munro, and the combined armies of ______.

  1. ((a))

    Mir jafar, Siraj-ud-Daulah and Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II

  2. ((b))

    Mir Qasim, Mughal Emperor Shah Alam-II & Shuja-ud-daulah of Awadh

  3. ((c))

    Mir Jafar, Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah II, Shuja-ud-Daulah

  4. ((d))

    Siraj-ud-Daulah, Shuja-ud-Daulah, Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Mir Qasim, Mughal Emperor Shah Alam-II & Shuja-ud-daulah of Awadh

The correct answer is Mir Qasim, Mughal Emperor Shah Alam & Shuja-ud-daulah of Awadh.

Key Points

  • The battle of Buxar was fought on 22nd October 1764. This battle was crucial for the Britishers since it provided them with full control of Bengal and Bihar.
  • It was fought between Hector Munro and the combined forces of Mir Qasim, Mughal Emperor Shah Alam-II & Shuja-ud-daulah of Awadh.
  • In this battle, the combined force of Mir Qasim was defeated.
  • The Treaty of Allahabad was signed on 12 August 1765 between Robert Clive and Shah Alam II (Mughal emperor).
  • Shah Alam II was forced to pay a fine of five million rupees.​

Additional Information

  • The battle of Buxar was the outcome of the misuse of Farman and Dastak, and also the trade expansionist aspiration of the English.
  • The seeds of the Battle of Buxar were sown after the Battle of Plassey when Mir Qasim became the Nawab of Bengal.
  • In the Mughal force, there were 40,000 men in the battle of Buxar, while the English East India Company's Hector Munro's forces included 10,000 men.
  • With the defeat of Mir Qasim, the rule of Nawabs came to an end.
58

Article 40 of the Indian constitution is related with ______.

  1. ((a))

    Protection of life

  2. ((b))

    Organisation of village panchayats

  3. ((c))

    Uniform civil code for the citizens

  4. ((d))

    Freedom to manage religious affairs

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Organisation of village panchayats

The correct answer is Organisation of village panchayats.

Key Points

  • Article 40 of the Indian constitution is related to the organization of village panchayats.
  • This article directs the state to take steps to organize village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government.
  • The main objective of this article is to promote local self-governance and decentralization of power.
  • The village panchayats are responsible for the economic and social development of the village community.

Additional Information

  • Protection of life is covered under Article 21 of the Indian constitution, which guarantees the right to life and personal liberty.
  • Uniform Civil Code is not explicitly mentioned in the Indian constitution, although there is a directive principle (Article 44) that states that the state shall endeavor to secure for the citizens a Uniform Civil Code throughout the territory of India.
  • Freedom to manage religious affairs is covered under Article 26 of the Indian constitution, which guarantees the freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice and propagate religion.
59

Which pair has recently(January.2024) won the men's doubles title of the Australian open tennis tournament? 

  1. ((a))

    Simone Bolelli and Andrea Vavasori 

  2. ((b))

    Rohan Bopanna and Matthew Ebden 

  3. ((c))

    Wesley Kohloff and Nikola Mektic 

  4. ((d))

    Tomas Maahak and Zhizhen 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Rohan Bopanna and Matthew Ebden 

The correct answer is Rohan Bopanna and Matthew Ebden.

Key Points

  • Rohan Bopanna and Matthew Ebden won the men's doubles title at the Australian Open in January 2024.
  • This victory marked Rohan Bopanna's first Grand Slam title in men's doubles.
  • Matthew Ebden, an Australian player, secured his second Grand Slam men's doubles title with this win.
  • The pair showcased an exceptional synergy and skill throughout the tournament, culminating in their victory.

Additional Information

  • Australian Open
  • It is one of the four Grand Slam tennis tournaments held annually in Melbourne, Australia.
  • The tournament is played on hard courts and is the first Grand Slam event of the year.
  • It features men's and women's singles, men's, women's, and mixed doubles, and junior's championships.
  • The Australian Open is known for its high attendance and is a key event in the tennis calendar.
  • Rohan Bopanna
  • An Indian professional tennis player specializing in doubles.
  • He has been a consistent performer on the ATP Tour and has represented India in various international competitions.
  • Bopanna has also been a part of India's Davis Cup team for many years.
  • Matthew Ebden
  • An Australian professional tennis player with expertise in both singles and doubles.
  • He has won multiple titles on the ATP Tour and has represented Australia in the Davis Cup.
  • Ebden has a reputation for his strong serve and volley game.
  • Grand Slam Titles
  • There are four Grand Slam tournaments: Australian Open, French Open, Wimbledon, and US Open.
  • Winning a Grand Slam title is considered one of the highest achievements in tennis.
  • These tournaments offer the most ranking points, prize money, and media attention.
60

The headwaters of the river Ganga is called ______.

  1. ((a))

    Mandakini

  2. ((b))

    Alaknanda

  3. ((c))

    Bhagirathi

  4. ((d))

    Sursari

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Bhagirathi

The correct answer is Bhagirathi.

Key Points

  • The Gangotri Glacier feeds the "Bhagirathi," Ganga's headwaters.
  • At Devaprayag in Uttarakhand, the Alaknanda joins it.
  • The Ganga leaves the mountains and enters the plains in Haridwar.
  • A number of significant rivers, including the Yamuna, the Ghaghara, the Gandak, and the Kosi, join the Ganga from the Himalayas.
  • The Ganges is thought to have its origins in the Bhagirathi in Hindu mythology and culture.

Additional Information

  • Mandakini
  • ​In the Indian state of Uttarakhand, the Mandakini River is a tributary of the Alaknanda River.
  • The river emerges from the Chorabari Glacier and flows for around 81 kilometres (50 miles) between the Rudraprayag and Sonprayag regions.
  • The river passes past the Hindu shrine Madhyamaheshwar at Ukhimath before joining the river Songanga at Sonprayag.
  • Alaknanda
  • ​The Alaknanda is one of the two headstreams of the Ganges, the principal river of Northern India and the holy river of Hinduism.
  • It originates in the Himalayas and flows through the Indian state of Uttarakhand.
  • Due to its longer length and flow, the Alaknanda is regarded as the Ganges' source stream in hydrology; yet, in Hindu tradition and culture, the Bhagirathi, the other headstream, is regarded as the source stream.
61

Which Amendment Act introduced the Right to Education under the Fundamental Rights?

  1. ((a))

    69th Amendment Act

  2. ((b))

    44th Amendment Act

  3. ((c))

    42nd Amendment Act

  4. ((d))

    86th Amendment Act

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

86th Amendment Act

The correct answer is 86th Amendment Act.

Key Points

  • The 86th amendment to the Constitution of India in 2002 provided the right to education as a fundamental right.
  • A new article 21A was added which made the right to education a fundamental right for children between  6-14 years.
  • Changes in Article 45 of the Directive Principle of State Policies were made.
  • It made education for all children below 6 years a Directive Principle of State Policies(DPSP).
  • It made the opportunities for education to the child a Fundamental Duty of parents of children.

Additional Information

  • Article 51A of the constitution deals with Fundamental Duties.
  • Fundamental Duties are takes from the constitution of Russia.
  • Article 36-51 deals with the Directive Principle of State policy.
  • The Directive Principle of State policy is taken from the Irish Constitution.
62

The hill station Mount Abu is located in which of the following mountain chains?

  1. ((a))

    Vindhya

  2. ((b))

    Satpura

  3. ((c))

    Maikal

  4. ((d))

    Aravalli

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Aravalli

The correct answer is Aravalli.

Key Points 

  • Aravalli is the oldest mountain range in the Indian subcontinent.
  • The Aravali Hills lies on the western and northwestern margins of the peninsular plateau.
  • Mount Abu is the famous hill station located in the Aravalli range.
  • Dilwara temple is the famous Jain pilgrim center at the Aravalli range.
  • Ajmer is a famous town located in the valley of Aravalli.
  • The Haldighat pass is located in the Aravalli range.
  • Mount Gurusikhar is the highest peak in the Aravalli range

Additional Information 

  • Vindhya Range is the oldest mountain range of Madhya Pradesh.
  • Kaimur hills are the easternmost hill of the Vindhya Range.
  • Kakrabardi hills are the westernmost hill of the Vindhya Range.
  • Satpura is the mountain located parallel to Vindhya.
  • Satpura is a series of seven mountains.
  • The highest peak in the Satpura range is Dhupgarh.
  • The Maikal Hills is a mountain range in the state of Chhattisgarh, India.
  • The Maikal Hills are located in the eastern part of Satpuras, in the Kawardha district of Chhattisgarh, overlooking the scenic town of Kawardha.
63

Under whose presidency was the 11th BRICS Labour & Employment Ministers’ Meeting 2025 held?

  1. ((a))

    Bangladesh

  2. ((b))

    Brazil

  3. ((c))

    South Africa

  4. ((d))

    Russia

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Brazil

The correct answer is Brazil.

In News

  • The 11th BRICS Labour & Employment Ministers' Meeting 2025 was held under Brazil’s presidency in Brasília.

Key Points

  • The meeting focused on two major themes: AI and the Future of Work, and the Impacts of Climate Change on Work.
  • India's contributions were praised for promoting ethical AI adoption, workforce upskilling, and green job creation.
  • The meeting concluded with the adoption of a declaration committing to inclusive AI policies, fair climate transitions, and strengthened South-South cooperation.
  • Brazil's presidency played a central role in facilitating discussions on these key global labour challenges.

Additional Information

  • India's National Strategy for AI
  • Focuses on ethical AI adoption, workforce upskilling, and applications in agriculture, healthcare, and education.
  • Initiatives like FutureSkills Prime aim to create tech-enabled livelihoods, especially for rural women and youth.
  • Mission LiFE (Lifestyle for Environment)
  • India’s initiative to promote sustainable living and eco-friendly practices, contributing to green job creation.
  • Green Jobs and SSCGJ
  • Sector Skill Council for Green Jobs (SSCGJ) focuses on upskilling workers in green industries.
  • BRICS Labour & Employment Ministers’ Declaration
  • The declaration promotes inclusive AI policies, fair climate transitions, and strengthened cooperation for green job creation.
64

After the Battle of Buxar, the treaty of Allahabad was signed in 1765 between:

  1. ((a))

    Warren hastings and Mir Jafar 

  2. ((b))

    Robert Clive and Shah Alam II

  3. ((c))

    Warren hastings and Siraj-Ud-Daulah 

  4. ((d))

    Robert Clive and Akbar II

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Robert Clive and Shah Alam II

The correct answer is Robert Clive and Shah Alam II

Key Points

  • The Treaty marked the political and constitutional involvement and the beginning of British rule in India.
  • Moreover, the two signed an alliance by which the company promised to support the Nawab against outside attacks provided he paid for the services of the troops sent to his aid.

Additional Information 

  1. The Treaty of Allahabad was signed on 16 August 1765. It was signed between the Mughal emperor Shah Alam II and Lord Clive of the British East India Company. Shah Alam and his allies, the Nawabs of Awadh and Bengal were defeated by the British in the battle of Buxar.
  2. Based on the terms of the agreement, Alam granted the East India Company Diwani rights, or the right to collect taxes on behalf of the Emperor from the eastern province of Bengal-Bihar-Orissa.
  3. These rights allowed the company to collect revenue directly from the people of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa. In return, the Company paid an annual tribute of twenty-six lakhs of rupees.

Hence, The treaty of Allahabad was signed between Shah Alam II and Robert Clive.

65

Which among the following is the capital of South Korea?

  1. ((a))

    Kigali

  2. ((b))

    Bucharest

  3. ((c))

    Seoul

  4. ((d))

    Sofia

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Seoul

Seoul is the capital of South Korea.

CountrySouth Korea
CapitalSeoul
PresidentYoon Suk-yeol
Prime MinisterHan Duck-soo
CurrencySouth Korean won
66

Which Amendment Act of Indian Constitution extended the reservation for ten years to SCs and STs in Lok Sabha and State Assemblies besides doing away with reservation for Anglo-Indian Communities?

  1. ((a))

    104th Amendment Act, 2020

  2. ((b))

    105th Amendment Act, 2021

  3. ((c))

    103rd Amendment Act, 2019

  4. ((d))

    102nd Amendment Act, 2018

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

104th Amendment Act, 2020

The correct answer is 104th Amendment Act, 2020.

Key Points

  • 104th Amendment Act, 2020
  • It extends reservation for ten years for Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes to Lok Sabha and State Assemblies.
  • It also removed the reserved seats for the Anglo-Indian community in the Lok Sabha and state assemblies.

Additional Information

  • 105th Amendment Act, 2021
  • It restores the power of State Governments to identify and specify Socially and Economically Backward Classes (SEBCs).
  • 103rd Amendment Act, 2019
  • It introduces 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) of society for admission to Central Government-run educational institutions and private educational institutions (except for minority educational institutions), and for employment in Central Government jobs.
  • 102nd Amendment Act, 2018
  • It inserted articles 338B, which deals with the structure, duties and powers of the National Commission for Backward Classes, and 342A that deals with the powers of the president to notify a particular caste as an SEBC and the power of Parliament to change the list.
67

Watt is the S.I. unit of ________.

  1. ((a))

    Current

  2. ((b))

    Voltage

  3. ((c))

    Power

  4. ((d))

    Resistance

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Power

Watt (W) is the S.I. unit of power.

Volt (V) is the S.I. unit of Voltage.

Ampere (A) is the S.I. unit of current.

Ohm (Ω) is the S.I. unit of resistance.

68

Who was the winner of Wimbledon 2024 men's singles final ?

  1. ((a))

    Casper Ruud

  2. ((b))

    Novak Djokovi

  3. ((c))

    Carlos Alcaraz

  4. ((d))

    Alexander Zverev

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Carlos Alcaraz

The correct answer is Carlos Alcaraz.

Key Points

  • Carlos Alcaraz, a rising star in the tennis world, won the Wimbledon 2024 men's singles title.
  • He defeated one of the greatest players of all time, Novak Djokovic, in the final to claim the championship.
  • The match was held at the iconic All England Lawn Tennis and Croquet Club in London, UK.
  • Alcaraz's victory marked his second Grand Slam title, showcasing his dominance on both grass and other surfaces.
  • His aggressive baseline play and remarkable mental strength were key factors in securing the historic win.

Additional Information

  • Wimbledon Championships:
  • Wimbledon is the oldest and most prestigious tennis tournament in the world, first held in 1877.
  • It is one of the four Grand Slam tournaments, alongside the Australian Open, French Open, and US Open.
  • Wimbledon is played on grass courts, which is unique among the Grand Slams.
  • The tournament is known for its traditions, including a strict dress code for players and the serving of strawberries and cream.
  • Carlos Alcaraz's Career:
  • Carlos Alcaraz is a young Spanish tennis player who has quickly risen to prominence in the sport.
  • He is known for his versatility, athleticism, and ability to perform under pressure.
  • His first Grand Slam victory came at the US Open 2022, making him the youngest world No. 1 in ATP history.
  • Novak Djokovic's Legacy:
  • Djokovic is widely regarded as one of the greatest tennis players of all time, with a record number of Grand Slam titles.
  • He has been particularly dominant at Wimbledon, winning multiple championships over the years.
  • Despite his loss in the 2024 final, Djokovic remains a formidable force in tennis.
  • Grass Court Tennis:
  • Grass courts are the fastest surface in tennis, favoring players with strong serve-and-volley techniques.
  • Matches on grass often feature shorter rallies and require excellent footwork and adaptability.
  • Wimbledon is the only Grand Slam tournament still played on grass, maintaining its traditional charm.
69

The capital of Cambodia is ________.

  1. ((a))

    Gaborone

  2. ((b))

    Santiago

  3. ((c))

    Phnom Penh

  4. ((d))

    Prague 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Phnom Penh

The correct answer is Phnom Penh.

In News

  • Phnom Penh is the capital and largest city of Cambodia.

Key Points

  • Phnom Penh has been the national capital since French colonization of Cambodia, and has grown to become the nation's economic, industrial, and cultural center.
  • The city is located at the confluence of three rivers, the Mekong, the Bassac and the Tonle Sap.
  • Phnom Penh
  • Population - Approximately 2.1 million (2021)
  • Area - 678.46 km²
  • Official Language - Khmer

Important Points

  • Cambodia is a country in mainland Southeast Asia, covering an area of approximately 181,035 square kilometers (69,898 square miles).
  • It is situated entirely within the tropics between latitudes 10° and 15°N, and longitudes 102° and 108°E.
  • The country borders Thailand to the west and northwest, Laos to the northeast, Vietnam to the east and southeast, and has a coastline of about 443 kilometers (275 miles) along the Gulf of Thailand.

Additional Information

  • Gaborone
  • Capital of Botswana
  • Located in the southern part of Botswana
  • Population - Approximately 231,626 (2011 census)
  • Santiago
  • Capital and largest city of Chile
  • Located in the central valley of Chile
  • Population - Approximately 6.8 million (2021)
  • Prague
  • Capital and largest city of the Czech Republic
  • Located on the Vltava river
  • Population - Approximately 1.3 million (2021)
70

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Gigantic

  1. ((a))

    Idle

  2. ((b))

    Small

  3. ((c))

    Tiny

  4. ((d))

    Huge

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Huge

The correct answer is 'Option 4' i.e. 'Huge'.

Key Points

  • The given word is 'Gigantic'. It means extremely large in size, extent, or amount. ('विशाल')
  • For example, "The gigantic mountain cast a long shadow over the village."
  • The correct synonym for 'Gigantic' is 'Huge'. 'Huge' means very big, especially in quantity, degree, or extent. ('बहुत बड़ा')
  • For example, "He has a huge collection of antique coins."

Therefore, the correct answer is- 'Huge'.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: 'Idle' means not active or in use. In Hindi, it’s called 'खाली' (Khali).
  • Option 2: 'Small' means of a size that is less than normal or usual. In Hindi, it is called 'छोटा' (Chota).
  • Option 3: 'Tiny' means very small in English. In Hindi, it's called 'नन्हा' (Nanha).
71

Select the antonym of the given word.

CROOKED

  1. ((a))

    Winding

  2. ((b))

    bent

  3. ((c))

    curved

  4. ((d))

    straight

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

straight

The correct answer is 'straight'.

Key Points  

  • Straight means properly positioned so as to be level, upright, or symmetrical.( सीधा, खड़ा)
  • For example:- She has long, straight hair.
  • Crooked means bent or twisted out of shape or out of place.(मुँड़ा हुआ,  टेढ़ा मेढ़ा)
  • For example:-  His front teeth are crooked.
  • From the above points, it is clear that straight is opposite in  meaning to the word crooked.

Therefore, correct answer is Option 4. 

Additional Information 

  • The meaning of the other given words are as follows:-
  • Winding- a twisting movement or course.(घुमावदार)
  • Bent- sharply curved or having an angle.( टेढ़ा)
  • Curved- having the form of a curve; bent.( वक्रित)
72

Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.

A group of wolves

  1. ((a))

    Pack

  2. ((b))

    Flock

  3. ((c))

    Troop

  4. ((d))

    Tribe

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pack

The Correct answer is "Pack"

Key Points

  • Let's see the meaning of other words.
  • Pack :- A group of wolves is called as Pack
  • Flock :- A group of birds is called as Flock
  • Troop :- A group of soldiers is called as Troop.
  • Tribe :- A group of people related by blood or marriage is called as Tribe.
  • Hence, according to the meaning of the given words the correct answer will be "Pack" i.e Option no 1.
73

In the following question, the given sentence has four parts marked P, Q, R and S. Choose the part of sentence with the error and mark as your answer. If there is no error, mark 'No error (S)' as your answer.

Among the three brothers, (P)/ Ram is richer (Q)/ of all. (R)/ No error (S)

  1. ((a))

    P

  2. ((b))

    S

  3. ((c))

    R

  4. ((d))

    Q

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Q

The correct answer is "Q."

Key Points

  • In the given sentence, there is an error in the second part of the sentence.
  • The correct form of the sentence should be "Ram is the richest of all the three brothers."
  • "Richer" is a comparative form of the word "rich" and it needs a reference to be compared with.
  • In this sentence, "richer" needs to be compared with the other two brothers, therefore the correct word would be "richest".
  • The superlative form of "rich" is "the richest."

Hence, the correct sentence is "Among the three brothers, Ram is the richest of all."

Additional Information

  • The superlative form is used to describe the highest degree or the best example of something among a group of things.
  • It is typically formed by adding the suffix "-est" to an adjective or using the word "most" before it. 
  • For example: "tallest" or "most tall." In some cases, the word "very" can also be used to form the superlative form, such as "very tall."
  • Superlative form: Most/Least + Adjective/Adverb
  • Examples:
  • The most beautiful flower I have ever seen was in my friend's garden.
  • My least favourite movie is the one with the talking animals.
  • She sings with the most powerful voice I have ever heard.
74

Select the correct meaning of the given idiom-

To pull one's punches

  1. ((a))

    be less forceful

  2. ((b))

    pull someone's punches

  3. ((c))

    throw the punches

  4. ((d))

    having strong power

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

be less forceful

The correct answer is "be less forceful"

Key Points

  • The meaning of the given idiom "To pull one's punches" is "be less forceful, severe, or violent than one could be."
  • Let's see an example-
  • I want your honest opinion of my story don't pull your punches!
  • Hence, the correct answer is Option 1 i.e. "be less forceful"

Direction: Read the passage and answer the following questions.

Renewable energy is rapidly becoming a cornerstone in the quest for a cleaner, more sustainable future. In the vast and diverse landscapes of India, where traditional energy sources have long reigned, a significant shift towards renewables is now taking shape. This movement is driven by the pressing need to reduce carbon emissions and combat climate change, along with the desire to achieve energy self-reliance. As a result, sources like solar, wind, and hydro are increasingly harnessed to meet the country's burgeoning energy demands. The adoption of such green technologies not only helps in mitigating environmental pollution but also sets a progressive example for the global community.

Looking ahead, the prospects for renewable energy in India shine brightly. This optimistic future is largely due to the cause-and-effect relationship between the growing environmental awareness among the population and the government's supportive policies. As more individuals and organizations recognize the importance of sustainability, there's a surge in investments in renewable energy projects. This momentum is expected to accelerate, transforming India into a leading power in the realm of green energy. The focus on renewables not only promises to safeguard the environment but also paves the way for economic prosperity, highlighting their critical role in shaping a better world for future generations.

75

What is contributing to the significant shift towards renewable energy in India?

  1. ((a))

    The scarcity of traditional energy sources

  2. ((b))

    The need to reduce carbon emissions and combat climate change

  3. ((c))

    The high cost of importing fossil fuels

  4. ((d))

    A decrease in agricultural production

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The need to reduce carbon emissions and combat climate change

The correct answer is Option (2).

Key Points

  • The passage mentions the necessity to reduce carbon emissions and combat climate change as driving forces for the shift towards renewable energy.
  • This is noted as a primary reason for India's movement towards renewable sources like solar, wind, and hydro. (Paragraph 1)

Therefore, the correct answer is "The need to reduce carbon emissions and combat climate change".

Additional Information

  • Option (1) "The scarcity of traditional energy sources" is not mentioned as a driving force in the passage.
  • Option (3) "The high cost of importing fossil fuels" is not stated in the passage as a reason for the shift towards renewable energy.
  • Option (4) "A decrease in agricultural production" is unrelated to the topic of renewable energy and its drivers as discussed in the passage.
  • Cornerstone: आधारशिला (Adharshila) - It refers to something essential or fundamental to the structure or function of something else.
  • Combat: संघर्ष (Sangharsh) or लड़ाई (Ladaai)
  • Sustainable: (स्थायी) - Capable of being maintained or continued over the long term without harming the environment or depleting resources.
76

Which of the following renewable energy sources is mentioned in the passage as being harnessed in India?

  1. ((a))

    Solar

  2. ((b))

    Nuclear

  3. ((c))

    Geothermal

  4. ((d))

    Biomass

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Solar

The correct answer is Option (1).

Key Points

  • Solar energy is expressly listed among the renewable energy sources being pursued in India. (Paragraph 1)
  • The passage discusses India's harnessing of solar alongside wind and hydro energy to meet energy demands. (Paragraph 1)

Therefore, the correct answer is "Solar".

Additional Information

  • Option (2) "Nuclear" is not classified as a renewable energy source in the context of this passage.
  • Option (3) "Geothermal" energy is not mentioned as a focus of India's renewable energy efforts in the passage.
  • Option (4) "Biomass" is not listed among the renewable energy sources being pursued as per the passage.
  • Harnessed: (उपयोग में लाया गया) - Effectively brought under control and utilized.
77

What effect does the adoption of renewable energy have on environmental pollution according to the passage?

  1. ((a))

    Increases it slightly before reducing it

  2. ((b))

    Has no significant effect

  3. ((c))

    Helps in mitigating it

  4. ((d))

    Worsens it due to the manufacturing processes

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Helps in mitigating it

The correct answer is Option (3).

Key Points

  • The passage clearly states that adopting renewable energy helps in mitigating (शमन करना) environmental pollution. (Paragraph 2)
  • Mitigation of pollution is emphasized as a significant benefit of transitioning toward renewable energy sources. (Paragraph 2)

Therefore, the correct answer is "Helps in mitigating it".

Additional Information

  • Option (1) "Increases it slightly before reducing it" is not mentioned or implied in the passage.
  • Option (2) "Has no significant effect" contradicts the passage's assertion about the positive impact of renewables on pollution.
  • Option (4) "Worsens it due to the manufacturing processes" is not a point discussed or implied within the passage.
  • Mitigate: (शमन करना)- To make something less severe, serious, or painful; to lessen the negative effects of something.
78

The word 'burgeoning' in the context of the passage most closely means:

  1. ((a))

    Decreasing

  2. ((b))

    Stabilizing

  3. ((c))

    Expanding

  4. ((d))

    Oscillating

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Expanding

The correct answer is Option (3). "Expanding"

Key Points

  • The word 'burgeoning' in the context of the passage refers to the expanding demand for energy in India. (Paragraph 1)
  • Burgeoning: (तेजी से बढ़ते हुए) - Experiencing rapid growth or increase; flourishing.
  • Expanding: (विस्तार होना) - Increasing in size, volume, quantity, or scope; spreading outwards.
  • It suggests a rapid increase or growth, which aligns with the meaning of 'expanding'. (Paragraph 1)

Therefore, the correct answer is "Expanding".

Additional Information

  • Decreasing: (घटता हुआ) - Becoming less in size, amount, number, or degree; diminishing.
  • Stabilizing: (स्थिर करना) - Making or becoming stable; reducing fluctuations or variations.
  • Oscillating: (दोलन करना) - Moving or swinging back and forth in a regular rhythm; fluctuating between states.
79

Based on the passage, what thematic aspect does renewable energy support in India?

  1. ((a))

    Technological retardation

  2. ((b))

    Economic prosperity and environmental safeguarding

  3. ((c))

    Increasing dependency on imported technology

  4. ((d))

    Reduction in population growth

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Economic prosperity and environmental safeguarding

The correct answer is Option (2).

Key Points

  • Renewable energy supports economic prosperity and environmental safeguarding according to the passage.
  • The focus on renewables is highlighted as a means to secure a better future for upcoming generations through both economic and environmental channels.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Economic prosperity and environmental safeguarding".

Additional Information

  • Option (1) "Technological retardation" is not discussed or implied as an aspect of renewable energy in the passage.
  • Option (3) "Increasing dependency on imported technology" is not a theme explored in the passage.
  • Option (4) "Reduction in population growth" is unrelated to the benefits or goals of renewable energy as discussed in the passage.
  • Accelerate: (गति बढ़ाना)- To increase the speed or rate of; to speed up.
  • Paves the way: (मार्ग प्रशस्त करना)- To make it easier for something to happen or for someone to do something in the future.​
  • Retardation: (मंदन) - The act of slowing down or causing to move or develop more slowly.
80

Match the following:

List – AList – B
(i) First generation computers(a) EDVAC
(ii) Second generation computers(b) PDP-11
(iii) Third generation computers(c) IBM 7030
  1. ((a))

    (i) - (b), (ii) - (a), (iii) - (c)

  2. ((b))

    (i) - (c), (ii) - (b), (iii) - (a)

  3. ((c))

    (i) - (c), (ii) - (a), (iii) - (b)

  4. ((d))

    (i) - (a), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (b)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

(i) - (a), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (b)

The correct answer is (i) - (a), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (b)

Key Points

  • First-generation computers - First-generation computers used thermionic valves (vacuum tubes) and machine language was used for giving instruction. Ex. ENIAC, EDVAC, EDSAC etc.
  • Second-generation computers - Second-generation computers used transistors that were highly reliable compared to tubes. For example, IBM 7030, IBM 1401, CDC 3600 etc**.**
  • Third-generation computers - Third-generation computers replace transistors with 'Integrated Circuits' known popularly as chips. For example, IBM-360 series, PDP-11, Apple-8, etc.
  • Fourth-generation computers – Fourth-generation computers used VLSI (Very Large Scale Integrated) Circuit built on one chip called microprocessors. For example, IBM PC, STAR 1000, APPLE II, etc.
  • Fifth-generation computers – It is primarily based on Artificial intelligence (AI) software. Artificial intelligence describes the medium and manner of creating computer systems like people, the manner human thinks, the manner people act, etc. and that is a rising department and has all of the scopes for studies work too. For example, PARAM 10000, IBM notebooks, etc.

Additional Information

GENERATION  PERIODPERIODTECHNOLOGY USED
1st Gen.1940-1956Vacuum Tubes
2nd Gen.1956-1963Transistors
3rd Gen.1964-1971Integrated Circuits (IC)
4th Gen.1971-1980Very Large-scale integrated circuits Microprocessors (LSI)
5th Gen.1980-presentArtificial intelligence (AI)
81

What is the full form of ULSI?

  1. ((a))

    Unique-Large-Scale Integration

  2. ((b))

    Ultra-Large-Scale Integration

  3. ((c))

    Ultra-Light-Scale Integration

  4. ((d))

    Unique-Light-Scale Integration

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Ultra-Large-Scale Integration

The correct option is (2)

Ultra-Large-Scale Integration

Key Points

  • An earlier method of measuring the density of transistors on a device is ULSI. More than a million transistors were used in ULSI, which is now standard. Check out SSI, MSI, LSI, and VLSI.
  • Furthermore, ULSI stands for ultra-large-scale integration (ULSI). Millions of transistors are inserted into an integrated circuit during this operation.
  • The ULSI microprocessor was created especially to get the most computational power out of the tiniest microchip. Moreover, this microprocessor includes logic gates and transistors.
  • A technology or IC with numerous components on one chip is known as very large-scale integration (VLSI). Of course, the definition of "many" is a key consideration.
  • The phrase, which is determined by the number of transistors or gates in an integrated circuit (IC), was coined in the 1970s along with "SSI" (small-scale integration), "LSI" (large-scale), and a few others.
  • A vague term for packing more than one million circuit elements onto a single chip. Short for ultra large-scale integration. For instance, ULSI technology is used in the Intel 486 and Pentium microprocessors.
82

What is the full form of CMOS?

  1. ((a))

    (complex metal-oxide semiconductor)

  2. ((b))

    (complementary metal-oxide semiprocessor)

  3. ((c))

    (complementary metal-oxide semiconductor)

  4. ((d))

    (complex metal-oxide semiprocessor)

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(complementary metal-oxide semiconductor)

The correct answer is (complementary metal-oxide-semiconductor).

  • The full form of CMOS (complementary metal-oxide-semiconductor).

Key Points

  • complementary metal-oxide-semiconductor (CMOS):
  • It consists of a pair of semiconductors connected to a common secondary voltage and is an integrated circuit design on a printed circuit board (PCB) that uses semiconductor technology such that they operate in an opposite (complementary) way.
  • Thus, when one transistor is turned on, the other is turned off, and vice versa.
83

Which is the correct order for the data preprocessing technique?

  1. ((a))

    Storage-> Collection->Preparation->Input->  Processing-> Output

  2. ((b))

    Collection->Preparation->Input->  Processing-> Storage -> Output

  3. ((c))

    Storage-> Collection->Preparation->Input-> Output->  Processing

  4. ((d))

    Collection->Preparation->Input->  Processing-> Output-> Storage

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Collection->Preparation->Input->  Processing-> Output-> Storage

The correct answer is option 4.

Concept:

Data Processing:

The data processing cycle is made up of many phases in which raw data (input) is fed into a process (CPU) to generate actionable insights (output). Each stage is performed in a specified order, although the entire process is repeated cyclically.

The data processing cycle has Collection->Preparation->Input->  Processing-> Output-> Storage.

Collection:

The raw data obtained has a significant influence on the result produced. As a result, raw data should be collected from defined and accurate sources in order for future conclusions to be legitimate and useable.

Preparation:

Data preparation, also known as data cleaning, is the act of sorting and filtering raw data to remove the unneeded and erroneous information. Raw data is reviewed for mistakes, duplication, miscalculations, or missing data before being translated into a suitable format for further analysis and processing.

Input:

The raw data is transformed into machine-readable form and sent into the processing unit in this phase.

Processing:

To produce a desirable outcome, the raw data is processed to different data processing methods that employ machine learning and artificial intelligence algorithms. This phase may differ differently from one procedure to the next based on the data source being processed and the intended application of the result.

Output:

Finally, the data is sent to the user in a comprehensible format, such as graphs, tables, vector files, audio, video, and papers. In the following data processing cycle, this output can be saved and subsequently processed.

Storage:

The final phase in the data processing cycle is storage, which involves storing data and information for later use. This provides for easy access to and retrieval of data whenever it is needed, as well as immediate usage as input in the next data processing cycle.

Hence the correct answer is Collection->Preparation->Input->  Processing-> Output-> Storage.

84

Cache memory is a small amount of extremely fast static _____ and is located close to the ______.

  1. ((a))

    RAM, CPU

  2. ((b))

    ROM, Motherboard

  3. ((c))

    RAM, Hard disk

  4. ((d))

    ROM, CPU

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

RAM, CPU

The correct answer is RAM, CPU

Key Points

  • Cache memory:-
  • It is a high-speed storage area for temporary storage.
  • It is the smaller and fastest memory component in the computer.
  • It is used during the reading and writing processes from the disk.
  • It acts as a buffer between RAM and the CPU.

Additional Information

  • ROM: Read-Only Memory
  • It refers to computer memory chips containing permanent or semi-permanent data.
  • It is non-volatile.
  • The data remains intact even when the power is switched off.
  • It contains the programming needed to start a PC, which is essential for boot-up.
  • It performs major input/output tasks and holds programs or software instructions.
  • It is the permanent memory built into your computer.
  • CPU: Central Processing Unit
  • It is the electronic circuitry within a computer that carries out the instructions of a computer program by performing the basic arithmetic, logical, control, and input/output operations specified by the instructions.
  • It processes all instructions received by software running on the PC and by other hardware components and acts as a powerful calculator.
  • RAM: Random Access Memory
  • It is a hardware device that allows information to be stored and retrieved on a computer.
  • It is volatile.
  • The data is erased even when the power is switched off.
  • The programs and data that the CPU requires during the execution of a program are stored in this memory.
85

IMAP is a standard email protocol that stores email messages on a mail server and allows the end user to view and manipulate the messages. IMAP stands for?

  1. ((a))

    Internet Mail Application Protocol

  2. ((b))

    Internet Message Application Protocol

  3. ((c))

    Internet Message Access Protocol

  4. ((d))

    Internet Mail Access Protocol

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Internet Message Access Protocol

The correct answer is Internet Message Access Protocol.

Key Points

  • IMAP stands for Internet Message Access Protocol.
  • In computing, the Internet Message Access Protocol is an Internet standard protocol used by email clients to retrieve email messages from a mail server over a TCP/IP connection.
  • IMAP is defined by RFC 3501.
  • It is the most commonly used protocol like POP3 for retrieving emails.
  • It also follows the client/server model.

Additional Information

Some important abbreviations used in Computer:

  • BIOS - Basic Input Output System
  • CAD - Computer-Aided Design
  • EDVAC - Electronic Discrete Variable Automatic Calculator
  • EPROM - Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory
  • FORTRAN - FORmula TRANslation.
  • GPRS - General Packet Radio Service.
86

What is the main purpose of the 'BCC' field in email composition? 

  1. ((a))

    To include multiple main recipients in a single field.

  2. ((b))

    To indicate the importance of the email.

  3. ((c))

    To send copies of the email without revealing the other recipients' addresses.

  4. ((d))

    To attach files to the email.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

To send copies of the email without revealing the other recipients' addresses.

The correct answer is Option 3

Key Points

  • The 'BCC' field in email composition is used to send copies of the email without revealing the other recipients' addresses.
  • BCC stands for Blind Carbon Copy.
  • When you include an email address in the BCC field, the primary recipient and other BCC recipients will not see that email address.
  • This feature is useful for maintaining privacy among recipients.
  • It helps in preventing an email recipient from seeing the addresses of other recipients, which is particularly useful in business communications.

Additional Information

  • Other fields in email composition include 'To', 'CC', and 'Subject'.
  • The 'To' field is used for the main recipients of the email.
  • The 'CC' (Carbon Copy) field is used to send a copy of the email to additional recipients, whose email addresses are visible to all other recipients.
  • Using BCC can help to reduce the chances of recipients' email addresses being harvested for spam.
87

BIOS is a part of which of the following?

  1. ((a))

    LAN

  2. ((b))

    ROM

  3. ((c))

    WAN

  4. ((d))

    RAM

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

ROM

The correct option is (2)

ROM

Key Points

  • The basic input/output system, or BIOS, is the software that a computer's microprocessor runs when it is turned on.
  • The terms ROM BIOS, PC BIOS, and System BIOS are also used to refer to BIOS.
  • When you turn on your computer, the first program that launches is BIOS, which runs a preliminary set of diagnostic checks (known as POSTs, or Power On Self-Tests) to check for hardware problems. The initial stage in your hardware's boot cycle is called POST.
  • The basic input/output system (BIOS) of a computer is a firmware program that is kept in nonvolatile memory such as read-only memory (ROM) or flash memory.

Additional InformationRAM:- One of the key factors affecting the performance of your system is computer random access memory (RAM). RAM provides apps with a place to temporarily store and access data. It saves the data that your computer is now utilizing so that it can be readily accessible.

LAN:- A group of devices connected to one another in a single physical location, such as a building, office, or home, is known as a local area network (LAN).

WAN:- The technology that links your offices, data centers, cloud apps, and cloud storage is known as a wide-area network (WAN). It is known as a wide-area network because it includes numerous locations distributed across a particular geographic area, or perhaps the entire world, rather than just a single building or huge campus.

88

What do you mean by SQL?

  1. ((a))

    Superior Questions Lot

  2. ((b))

    Standard Query Lot

  3. ((c))

    Statistical Query Language

  4. ((d))

    Structured Query Language

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Structured Query Language

The correct answer is Structured Query Language.

  • SQL means Structured Query Language.
  • SQL (Structured Query Language) is a standardized programming language that's used to manage relational databases and perform various operations on the data in them.
  • SQL became the de facto standard programming language for relational databases after it emerged in the late 1970s and early 1980s.
  • SQL is regularly used not only by database administrators but also by developers writing data integration scripts and data analysts looking to set up and run analytical queries.
  • The uses of SQL include modifying database table and index structures; adding, updating, and deleting rows of data; and retrieving subsets of information from within a database for transaction processing and analytics applications.
89

The central part of the UNIX Operating System is:

  1. ((a))

    Command Shell

  2. ((b))

    Kernel

  3. ((c))

    Directories and Program

  4. ((d))

    Files

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Kernel

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key PointsUNIX Kernel:

  • Definition: The kernel is the core component of the UNIX operating system, responsible for managing system resources and communication between hardware and software.
  • Functions:
  • Process Management: Handles the creation, scheduling, and termination of processes.
  • Memory Management: Manages the allocation and deallocation of memory space for processes.
  • File System Management: Manages the reading, writing, and organization of files on storage devices.
  • Device Management: Controls and interfaces with hardware devices like disks, printers, and network interfaces.
  • System Calls: Provides an interface for user applications to interact with the hardware and services provided by the kernel.
  • Security: Implements security policies and access controls to protect system resources and data.
  • Multitasking: Supports the execution of multiple processes simultaneously, enabling efficient utilization of system resources.
  • Portability: Designed to be portable across different hardware platforms, making UNIX a versatile operating system.
  • Reliability: Known for its stability and reliability, making it a preferred choice for servers and critical systems.
90

What does PCB stand for?

  1. ((a))

    Processor Control Board 

  2. ((b))

    Printed Circuit Board

  3. ((c))

    Primary Circuit Board

  4. ((d))

    Power Control Board

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Printed Circuit Board

Explanation:

Printed Circuit Board (PCB)

Definition: A Printed Circuit Board (PCB) is a board used in electronics to mount and connect various electronic components. It is made from a non-conductive substrate material, usually fiberglass, with layers of conductive copper tracks etched on its surface. These tracks form the electrical connections between the components mounted on the board.

Components and Structure: A PCB typically consists of several layers, including:

  • Substrate: This is the base material of the PCB, often made of fiberglass (FR4) or other insulating materials. It provides mechanical support and insulation for the conductive layers.
  • Copper Layer: This layer is made of thin copper foil and is etched to create the desired circuit patterns. PCBs can have multiple copper layers, allowing for more complex circuits.
  • Solder Mask: This is a protective layer applied over the copper traces to prevent short circuits and solder bridges during component soldering. It is typically green but can come in other colors.
  • Silkscreen: This layer contains printed information, such as component labels, part numbers, and symbols, to aid in assembly and troubleshooting.

Working Principle: The conductive copper tracks on a PCB create electrical connections between various components, such as resistors, capacitors, transistors, and integrated circuits. These connections form the circuit that allows the electronic device to function as intended. Components are typically soldered onto the PCB, ensuring a stable and reliable connection.

Advantages:

  • Compact and Lightweight: PCBs allow for the miniaturization of electronic devices by densely packing components and connections onto a single board.
  • Reliability: PCBs provide reliable and consistent connections between components, reducing the risk of loose connections and signal interference.
  • Ease of Assembly: The standardized design of PCBs simplifies the assembly process, making it easier to mass-produce electronic devices.
  • Cost-Effective: PCBs are relatively inexpensive to manufacture in large quantities, making them a cost-effective solution for electronic circuit design.

Disadvantages:

  • Complexity in Design: Designing a PCB can be complex, especially for multilayer boards with intricate circuit patterns.
  • Repair Challenges: Repairing a damaged PCB can be difficult and time-consuming, often requiring specialized equipment and skills.
  • Limited Flexibility: Once a PCB is manufactured, it is not easily reconfigurable, which can be a limitation in prototyping and development stages.

Applications: PCBs are used in virtually all electronic devices, including computers, smartphones, televisions, medical equipment, automotive electronics, industrial machinery, and more. Their versatility and reliability make them a fundamental component in modern electronics.

The correct option is: Printed Circuit Board

91

In Power Point Ellipse Motion is a predefined ______.

  1. ((a))

    Color Scheme

  2. ((b))

    Design Template

  3. ((c))

    Animation Scheme

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Animation Scheme

The correct answer is Animation Scheme

Key Points

In PowerPoint, the term "Ellipse Motion" refers to a type of animation scheme. Animation schemes are predefined sets of animations that can be applied to text, shapes, pictures, and other elements in your PowerPoint slides.

  • Ellipse Motion is suggestive of this animation taking a circular or elliptical path. The element you apply this animation scheme to, could move in an elliptical path across your slide.
  • This can be used to bring a dynamic, flowing element to your presentations, drawing viewers' attention to certain points or just bringing a bit of movement and life to a otherwise static slideshow.
  • This animation can be customized with options such as the duration, delay, direction and other properties available under the animations tab in PowerPoint.

Color Schemes and Design Templates, on the other hand, impact the visual aesthetic of the slide as a whole, influencing things like background color, font color and style.

92

In MS Access, which of the following creates a drop down list of values to choose from? 

  1. ((a))

    OLE Object

  2. ((b))

    Lookup Wizard

  3. ((c))

    Memo

  4. ((d))

    Hyperlink

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Lookup Wizard

The correct answer is Lookup Wizard

Key Points

  • Lookup Wizard:
  • The Lookup Wizard in Access is used to create a drop-down list.
  • When you want a field to present a user with a series of predefined options, you can use the Lookup Wizard.
  • The Wizard provides an intuitive interface to create these lists.
  • It can pull data from another table or a custom list of values you provide.

Additional Information 

  • OLE Object: OLE (Object Linking and Embedding) allows you to insert and manage objects created in other programs such as Excel or Word. These objects can be linked or embedded in Access databases.
  • Memo: (This field type is also known as "Long Text" in Access 2016 and later). Memo fields are used to store large amounts of text. Unlike Text fields, which hold up to 255 characters, Memo fields can hold up to about a gigabyte of data (with the size of the database being the only real limit).
  • Hyperlink: A Hyperlink field in Access is used to store hyperlinks that can link to documents, web pages, etc. A hyperlink field displays the URL for hypertext navigation to a location on the Internet or an intranet.
93

Identify which of the following statements are true or false:

i) In MS-Word 365, you can use the 'Track Changes' feature to keep track of edits made to a document.

ii) The 'Track Changes' feature is found under the 'Review' tab.

  1. ((a))

    i - False, ii - True

  2. ((b))

    i - True, ii - False

  3. ((c))

    i - True, ii - True

  4. ((d))

    i - False, ii - False

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

i - True, ii - True

The correct answer is i - True, ii - True

Key Points

  • Statement i: This is true. In MS-Word 365, you can use the 'Track Changes' feature to keep track of edits made to a document.
  • Statement ii: This is true. The 'Track Changes' feature is found under the 'Review' tab in MS-Word 365.

So, the statements are: i - True ii - True

94

To get the logo of the organization appearing automatically in the same position for all the slides in a presentation, insert the logo in ______.

  1. ((a))

    Handout Master

  2. ((b))

    Chart Master

  3. ((c))

    Slide Master

  4. ((d))

    Notes Master

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Slide Master

The correct answer is Slide Master.

Key Points

  • To have the logo of an organization appearing automatically in the same position for all slides in a presentation, you need to insert the logo in the Slide Master.
  • The Slide Master is a feature in presentation software like Microsoft PowerPoint that allows you to make universal changes to your slides, ensuring consistency across the entire presentation.
  • By inserting the logo in the Slide Master, it will appear on all slides that use that master layout, eliminating the need to manually add the logo to each slide.

Additional Information

  • Handout Master: This is used to customize the layout and format of handouts that accompany your presentation. It does not affect the slides themselves.
  • Chart Master: This option does not exist in most presentation software. Charts are usually formatted individually or by using the Slide Master.
  • Notes Master: This is used to customize the format of speaker notes. Changes here do not affect the slides themselves.
95

Which function key displays the Print Preview window in Microsoft Office?

  1. ((a))

    Alt + Ctrl + F2

  2. ((b))

    Alt + F2

  3. ((c))

    Shift + F2

  4. ((d))

    Ctrl + F2

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Ctrl + F2

The correct answer is Ctrl + F2.

  • Ctrl + F2 function key displays the Print Preview window in Microsoft Office.

Key Points

  • Print Preview function lets users see the pages that are about to print and allows the users to see exactly how the pages will look when they are printed.
  • This feature allows you to see exactly how your pages will look when they are printed.
  • We can print directly from the Print Preview page by clicking on the print button 

 or printer icon 

.

Additional Information

ShortcutFunction
Ctrl + Btoggle the Bold attribute
Ctrl + Itoggle the Italic attribute
Ctrl + Utoggle the Underline attribute
Ctrl + Qremove paragraph formatting
Ctrl + Ccopy selected text to the clipboard
Ctrl + Xcut selected text to the clipboard
Ctrl + Vto paste text from clipboard
Ctrl + Zto undo the last action
Ctrl + Yto redo the last action
Ctrl + Shift + <to decrease font size one point
Ctrl + Shift + >to increase font size one point
Ctrl + spaceto remove character formatting
Ctrl + Endgo to the end of the document
96

To permanently delete a file or folder from the computer, we use

  1. ((a))

    Enter + Delete

  2. ((b))

    Ctrl + Delete

  3. ((c))

    Shift + Delete

  4. ((d))

    Alt + Delete

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Shift + Delete

The correct answer is Shift + Delete

Key Points 

  • The correct answer is: Shift + Delete
  • When you press the 'Shift' key and 'Delete' key together, it permanently deletes the selected file or files from your system.
  • This operation bypasses the Recycle Bin, effectively removing the file from your computer without any intermediate step.
  • Under normal circumstances, when you delete a file using just the 'Delete' key, the file is moved to the Recycle Bin and can be recovered if needed.
  • Using 'Shift + Delete', there's no such backup; the file is completely gone unless you use some kind of file recovery program.
  • Using the 'Shift + Delete' command can be helpful when you want to immediately free up space on your hard drive, as files deleted with this command don't temporarily take up storage in the Recycle Bin.
  • However, it should be used with caution due to the permanence of the deletion.
97

The shortcut key to invoke (start) the 'Run command' window in Windows operating system is ________.

  1. ((a))

    Ctrl + R

  2. ((b))

    Window + R

  3. ((c))

    Window + W

  4. ((d))

    Ctrl + W

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Window + R

The correct answer is 'Window + R'

Key Points

  • Window + R:
  • Pressing the Windows key and the R key simultaneously invokes the Run command window in Windows operating systems.
  • This shortcut is a quick way to open the Run dialog box, which allows users to launch programs, open files, and access system resources by typing in commands.
  • It's a useful tool for advanced users who prefer keyboard shortcuts over navigating through menus.

Additional Information

  • Ctrl + R:
  • This shortcut is commonly used to refresh the current window in many applications, including web browsers, but it does not invoke the Run command window in Windows.
  • Window + W:
  • This shortcut is not a standard Windows operating system shortcut for opening the Run dialog box. It may be used in certain versions of Windows for opening Windows Ink Workspace or other features.
  • Ctrl + W:
  • This shortcut is typically used to close the current window in many applications, such as web browsers and document editors, but it does not open the Run command window.
98

Which of the following groups of devices are only input devices?

  1. ((a))

    Keyboard, Monitor, Joystick

  2. ((b))

    Keyboard, Printer, Light pen

  3. ((c))

    Mouse, Scanner, Joystick

  4. ((d))

    Mouse, Microphone, Speaker

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Mouse, Scanner, Joystick

The correct answer is option 3: Mouse, Scanner, Joystick

Key Points

Input devices are used to provide data and control signals to a computer. The devices listed in Option 3 are all input devices:

  • Mouse: Used to point, click, and interact with the computer.
  • Scanner: Captures images or text and inputs them into the computer.
  • Joystick: Used for input in gaming and controlling cursor movement.

Explanation of options:

  • Option 1 – Keyboard, Monitor, Joystick: ❌ Monitor is an output device.
  • Option 2 – Keyboard, Printer, Light pen: ❌ Printer is an output device.
  • Option 3 – Mouse, Scanner, Joystick: ✅ All are input devices.
  • Option 4 – Mouse, Microphone, Speaker: ❌ Speaker is an output device.

Hence, the correct answer is: option 3: Mouse, Scanner, Joystick

99

Which of the following is widely used for implementing main memory?

  1. ((a))

    Magnetic drum memory

  2. ((b))

    Magnetic core memory

  3. ((c))

    Static RAM

  4. ((d))

    Dynamic RAM

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Dynamic RAM

The correct answer is Dynamic RAM

Key Points

  • Main memory, also known as primary memory or RAM (Random Access Memory), is typically implemented using either Static RAM (SRAM) or Dynamic RAM (DRAM).
  • Between the two, Dynamic RAM (Option 4) is more widely used for main memory in computers because it is cheaper and has a smaller size per bit compared to SRAM. On the downside, it requires constant refreshing to maintain data.
  • Magnetic drum memory and Magnetic core memory (Options 1 and 2) are historically significant types of memory, but they are not used for implementing main memory in modern computer systems as they have been surpassed by semiconductor memory technologies such as SRAM and DRAM.

Additional InformationComputer memory is typically divided into two main types: primary memory (also known as main memory) and secondary memory (also known as storage).

  • Primary Memory: This is the memory directly accessible by the CPU for read and write operations. Primary memory is often faster than secondary memory but has a smaller capacity. It is further divided into two main types:
  • RAM (Random Access Memory): This can store and retrieve data as long as the system is on, but loses its data once the system is turned off (volatile memory). There are two types of RAM:
  • DRAM (Dynamic Random Access Memory): This is less expensive and slower than SRAM. It must be refreshed regularly to keep its data.
  • SRAM (Static Random Access Memory): This is faster and more expensive than DRAM. It does not need to be refreshed like DRAM.
  • ROM (Read-Only Memory): This is non-volatile memory, which means it retains data even when the system is turned off. Data 'written' to ROM is done so during the manufacturing process and it cannot be altered or erased by normal computer operations. ROM is used for firmware updates and to bootstrap the system when initially powered on.
  • Secondary Memory: This memory is used for storage and isn't directly accessible by the CPU. The primary advantages are increased storage space and data permanence. It is slower than primary memory. Common types include:
  • Hard Disk Drives (HDD): These store data on magnetic surfaces. They offer large storage capacity but slower access times compared to primary memory or SSDs.
  • Solid State Drives (SSD): These store data on interconnected flash memory chips. SSDs are faster and less prone to mechanical failure than HDDs but are more expensive per GB.
  • Optical Discs: This includes CD-ROM, DVD-ROM, and Blu-ray discs. They store data optically and are often used for data distribution, movie and music distribution, and data backups.
  • Cache Memory: This is a type of memory used by the CPU to reduce the average time to access data from the main memory. The cache is a smaller, faster memory which stores copies of the data from frequently used main memory locations.
  • Virtual Memory: This is a memory management technique that provides an "as if" larger main memory by using a section of the hard disk as an extension of the main memory, swapping data between the hard disk and main memory as needed.
100

Directive principles of State Policy are described as "Life - giving provisions of the constitution" by __________.

  1. ((a))

    L.M. Singhvi

  2. ((b))

    Ambedkar

  3. ((c))

    Rajendra Prasad

  4. ((d))

    Radha Krishnan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

L.M. Singhvi

The Correct answer is L.M. Singhvi.

Key Points

Directive Principles of State Policy

  • Articles 36-51 under Part-IV of the Indian Constitution deal with Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).
  • They are borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland, which had copied it from the Spanish Constitution.
  • It refers to the ideals that the State should keep in mind while formulating policies and enacting laws. e.g. the Government should try to ensure equal pay for equal work for men and women etc.
  • Non-justiciable nature on recommendations of Tej Bahadur committee Report
  • Positive Connotation – Establishes social and economic democracy.
  • Promote the concept of a Welfare State and Inclusive Growth.
  • Precursors of Panchayat Raj Institution (Art. 40- Village Panchayat)
  • Fundamental in governance and apply in policy makings – Art. 37
  • Novel features and Soul of the constitution – B.R Ambedkar
  • DPSP is the Conscience of the constitution – Granville Austin
  • Constitutional instructions to – Legislature, executive, and administration of the state.
  • Enabling in nature – Enables government for a comprehensive program of social and economic justice, unlike FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS.
  • Non-justiciable, Non-self-executory, non-enforceable by a court of law.
  • Government can implement provisions of DPSP by legislative actions.

Significance of DPSP

  • Helps courts as Guiding Light in determining and examining the constitutional validity of acts/rules/regulations.
  • Symbolizes the idea of a welfare state and amplifies social and economic justice as entailed in the Preamble.
  • They impose a moral obligation on the state authorities for their application, however, public opinion is the real force behind them.
  • Serves as moral precepts for – Legislature, executive, and administration of state
  • They serve as a Common Minimum Programme for every government irrespective of their manifestos and political ideologies.
  • The Directives are the life-giving provisions of the Constitution. They constitute the stuff of the Constitution and its philosophy of social justice. – L. M Singhvi. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
  • Directives lay down that the goal of Indian polity is ‘economic democracy’ as distinguished from ‘political democracy’ (Fundamental rights) – R. Ambedkar
  • Supplements and complements Fundamental Rights (Part III).
  • Serves as benchmarks and yardstick for people to gauge the performance of govt.
  • DPSPs are intended to be a guidefriends, and philosophers of the ruling party in legislative and executive acts.
  • Serves as an important tool for opposition parties to ensure accountability of the executive and exercise influence and control over the government.

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