Bihar Jeevika (Area Coordinator) : (26 Nov 2025) MBT (Previous Year Paper)

The Correct Answer is Maharashtra.

In News

• Khelo India Youth Games 2025 to conclude with colourful ceremony in Patna.

Key Points

• The games started on 4th May 2025.
• It will be held at Pataliputra Sports Complex, Kankarbagh, Patna, Bihar.
• Maharashtra is the overall champion.
• 158 medals (58 gold, 47 silver, and 53 bronze)
• Haryana finished in second place.
• 117 medals
• Rajasthan came in third place.
• 60 medals
• The closing ceremony will have colorful performances and entertainment.

The correct answer is Victoria Shi

In News

• Ukraine has made history by deploying the world's first AI diplomat, named Victoria Shi, created to read out official statements written by humans on behalf of the Ministry of Foreign Affairs.

Key Points

• Victoria Shi, the AI spokeswoman, is designed to save time and resources for Ukrainian diplomats, delivering pre-prepared official statements using a visual avatar generated by AI.
• The AI diplomat's appearance and voice are modeled after Rosalie Nombre, a Ukrainian singer and TV celebrity, with Nombre's participation reportedly provided free of charge.
• To address concerns like deepfake, each of Victoria's statements will include a unique QR code linking to the official text version on the Ministry's website, ensuring authenticity and transparency in communication.

The Correct Answer is ​Bahrain.

In News

• India qualifies for FIBA Men’s Asia Cup 2025.

Key Points

• India qualified for the FIBA Men’s Asia Cup 2025 after defeating Bahrain 81-77.
• The match was held at Khalifa Sports City in Manama, Bahrain.
• India’s win over Bahrain marked their first victory against them since 2013.
• The 2025 FIBA Asia Cup will be the 31st edition of the FIBA Asia Cup, the continental basketball championship in Asia.
• The tournament will be organised by FIBA Asia.
• Saudi Arabia will the host for second time after staging the 1997 edition.

The Correct Answer is Ahmedabad.

In News

• India to host 11th Asian Swimming C’ship in Gujarat.

Key Points

• The 11th Asian Swimming Championship will be hosted in Ahmedabad, India, at the Naranpura Sports Complex.
• The event will take place from October 1 to 15 and will feature swimming, diving, artistic swimming, and water polo.
• Japan and South Korea are expected to compete in this continental meet.
• This will be the first-ever edition of the event held in India.
• The 10th Asian Age Group Championships in 2019 was the last international swimming event hosted by India.

The Correct Answer is Unnat Bihar, Viksit Bihar.

In News

• Bihar Diwas 2025: Celebrating 113 Years Of Statehood.

Key Points

• Bihar Diwas on March 22, 2025 will mark the 113th Establishment Day of Bihar.
• The event will be inaugurated by Chief Minister Nitish Kumar at Gandhi Maidan, Patna.
• The theme for Bihar Diwas 2025 is ‘Unnat Bihar, Viksit Bihar’, meaning ‘Developed Bihar’.
• Bihar Diwas commemorates the 1912 separation of Bihar from the Bengal Presidency, making it a distinct province.
• The celebration will highlight Bihar's cultural heritage and its aspirations for future development.

The correct answer is V K Singh

In News

• Gen (Retd) VK Singh, former Army Chief, was sworn in as the 25th Governor of Mizoram on Thursday, succeeding Hari Babu Kambhampati, now appointed as Odisha Governor.

Key Points

• The oath of office and secrecy was administered by Gauhati High Court Chief Justice Vijay Bishnoi at Raj Bhawan, Aizawl.
• The ceremony was attended by dignitaries, including Mizoram Chief Minister Lalduhoma, former CMs Zoramthanga and Lal Thanhawla, and Assembly Speaker Lalbiakzama.
• Singh served as the 24th Chief of the Army Staff (COAS) from 2010 to 2012 and was the first Indian Army Chief to take legal action against the Centre over a dispute on his date of birth.
• Post-retirement, he joined the BJP in 2014, became a Member of Parliament from Ghaziabad, and held ministerial roles, including Minister of State for Road Transport and Highways and Minister of State for External Affairs.
• Mizoram shares 722 kilometers of international borders with Bangladesh (west) and Myanmar (east and south) and has inter-state borders with Assam, Manipur, and Tripura.

The correct answer is - Muhammad Tughlaq

Key Points

• Vijayanagar Kingdom establishment
• The Vijayanagar Kingdom was founded in 1336 CE during the reign of the Delhi Sultan Muhammad Tughlaq.
• Two brothers, Harihara and Bukka, established the kingdom after rebelling against the Sultan's authority in the southern regions.
• The kingdom became a major center for Hindu culture, art, and architecture during its rule.
• Political context under Muhammad Tughlaq
• Muhammad Tughlaq faced widespread rebellions due to his ambitious but poorly executed policies, including shifting the capital and introducing token currency.
• The weakening of the Delhi Sultanate's control in the south allowed regional powers like the Vijayanagar Kingdom to rise.

Additional Information

• Delhi Sultanate during Muhammad Tughlaq's reign
• Muhammad Tughlaq ruled from 1325 CE to 1351 CE and is known for his innovative but often impractical policies.
• His administrative experiments, such as moving the capital from Delhi to Daulatabad, strained his resources and alienated his subjects.
• The failure of his policies led to a decline in the Sultanate's authority, particularly in the southern parts of India.
• Rise of the Vijayanagar Kingdom
• The Vijayanagar Kingdom emerged as a strong Hindu kingdom in the Deccan, marking a shift in power dynamics in the region.
• It became renowned for its contributions to art, literature, and architecture, including iconic structures such as the temples in Hampi.
• The kingdom played a pivotal role in resisting the expansion of Islamic rulers in southern India.
• Legacy of the Vijayanagar Kingdom
• The kingdom lasted until the late 16th century, with the Battle of Talikota (1565 CE) leading to its decline.
• Its rulers were known for their patronage of art and culture, which left a lasting impact on South Indian history.

The correct answer is Thermal Power Plant.

• Fly ash is produced due to the combustion of coal and other industrial boilers.
• It is usually produced from coal-based power plants.
• It is one of the major sources of water and air pollution.
• It is having the potential to get airborne because of its small size and lightweight.
• It consists of a high amount of toxic and heavy metals which is reducing the recharging of groundwater.

The correct answer is Lallianzuala Chhangte and Indumathi Kathiresan

In News

• The All India Football Federation (AIFF) held its annual awards ceremony on July 20, 2024, to recognize exceptional achievements in Indian football for the 2023-24 season.

Key Points

• Lallianzuala Chhangte, a 27-year-old winger from Mumbai City FC, won the AIFF Men’s Player of the Year award for the second consecutive year, making him the fifth player to achieve this multiple times. He scored 11 goals and provided 7 assists, was the highest-scoring Indian in the ISL, and scored in a FIFA World Cup Qualifier against Qatar.
• Indumathi Kathiresan, a 30-year-old midfielder, won the AIFF Women’s Player of the Year award, becoming the first Tamil Nadu player to receive this honor. She helped Odisha FC win the 2023-24 Indian Women’s League title, scored 5 goals, and was named Best Midfielder.
• David Lalhlansanga, a 22-year-old striker from Mohammedan Sporting, was named the AIFF Promising Men’s Player of the Year. He scored 34 goals in various competitions and contributed to Mohammedan Sporting’s I-League and Calcutta Football League titles.
• Neha, an 18-year-old winger, won the AIFF Promising Women’s Player of the Year award for her performances, including scoring 2 goals in the SAFF U19 Women’s Championship and contributing 3 goals in the Senior Women’s National Football Championship final.
• Khalid Jamil (Jamshedpur FC) was awarded Men’s Coach of the Year, while Sukla Dutta (India U-19 team and Sreebhumi FC) received the Women’s Coach of the Year award.
• The Referee of the Year was Ramachandran Venkatesh, and the Assistant Referee of the Year was Ujjal Halder.

The Correct Answer is ​Samir Yadav and Bharti.

In News

• India bags four medals including two gold at Special Olympics World Winter on Day 1.

Key Points

• The 12th Special Olympics World Winter 2025 is taking place in Turin, Italy.
• India has won a total of 4 medals, including 2 gold and 2 silver, on the first day.
• Samir Yadav and Bharti won gold medals in Snowboarding (Novice Giant Slalom).
• Hem Chand and Harshita Thakur won silver medals in their respective divisions in Snowboarding.
• India has sent a 49-member contingent, comprising 30 athletes and 19 support staff.

The Correct Answer is Hepatitis D.

In News

• WHO declares Hepatitis D virus carcinogenic to humans.

Key Points

• WHO & IARC have reclassified Hepatitis D virus (HDV) as carcinogenic to humans.
• Joins HBV & HCV as known causes of liver cancer.
• HDV infects only HBV carriers — co-infection increases liver cancer risk 2–6x.
• Up to 75% of chronic HDV cases develop liver cirrhosis within 15 years.
• No separate vaccine for HDV — HBV vaccination is the only prevention method.
• Global burden:
• 300+ million affected by HBV, HCV, HDV.
• 1.3 million deaths annually (mostly liver cirrhosis/cancer).
• HDV infects ~12 million (≈5% of chronic HBV patients).
• High-risk groups:
• Regions: Asia, Africa, Amazon Basin.
• People who inject drugs, haemodialysis patients.
• Transmission: Blood, sex, unsafe injections, perinatal.
• Symptoms: Fatigue, jaundice, dark urine, nausea, abdominal pain.
• Treatment:
• HBV: Lifelong antivirals.
• HDV: Europe-approved bulevirtide + pegylated interferon.

The correct answer is Vitamin A.

Key Points

• A blocked bile duct impairs the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins, which include Vitamins A, D, E, and K.
• Vitamin A deficiency is more likely as it is a fat-soluble vitamin requiring bile for proper absorption.
• Vitamin A plays a crucial role in maintaining healthy vision, immune function, and skin integrity.
• A lack of bile prevents the emulsification of dietary fats, thereby reducing the bioavailability of fat-soluble vitamins like Vitamin A.
• Symptoms of Vitamin A deficiency include night blindness, dry eyes (xerophthalmia), and increased susceptibility to infections.

Additional Information

• Bile Duct Function: The bile duct transports bile, which is essential for the digestion and absorption of dietary fats and fat-soluble vitamins.
• Fat-Soluble Vitamins: These include Vitamins A, D, E, and K, which are stored in the liver and fatty tissues and are absorbed along with dietary fats.
• Vitamin A Sources: Dietary sources include liver, fish oils, dairy products, and colorful fruits and vegetables (e.g., carrots, spinach, and sweet potatoes).
• Other Fat-Soluble Vitamin Deficiencies: A blocked bile duct can also lead to deficiencies in Vitamins D (affecting bone health), E (antioxidant function), and K (blood clotting).
• Clinical Management: Patients with bile duct obstruction may require supplementation of fat-soluble vitamins in water-soluble forms to prevent deficiencies.

The Correct Answer is Kagaznagar forest division.

In News

• Blue Pinkgill Mushroom Sighted in Telangana's Kagaznagar Forest Division.

Key Points

• Blue Pinkgill mushroom (Entoloma hochstetteri) spotted in Kagaznagar forest division, Telangana.
• The Blue Pinkgill is native to New Zealand and is recognized for its striking sky-blue color.
• The mushroom contains rare azulene pigments, making it one of the most visually distinctive fungi globally.
• The shuttlecock mushroom (Clathrus delicatus) was recorded for the first time in the Eastern Ghats within Kawal Tiger Reserve.
• The vivid blue hue of the Blue Pinkgill is due to the presence of azulene pigments, rare in fungi.

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. the Brahmaputra

• 'Majuli' is the largest river island in the world.
• Majuli island is a large river island located in the middle of the 'Brahmaputra River' in Assam.
• This island was formed due to a change in direction of the 'Brahmaputra River' and its tributaries.
• The Brahmaputra river origin from the Manasarovar Lake in Tibet and flow through Tibet, India, and Bangladesh.
• The Godavari is the longest river of South India it is known as "Dakshin Ganga".
• The Kaveri river origin on the Brahmagiri range in the Western Ghats, of Kodagu district of the state of Karnataka.

The correct answer is "Wildlife Conservation Finance: Investing in People and Planet."

In News

• United Nations World Wildlife Day (WWD) is observed annually on March 3rd to celebrate wild animals and plants.
• WWD 2025 theme: "Wildlife Conservation Finance: Investing in People and Planet."

Key Points

• The United Nations General Assembly established World Wildlife Day in 2013.
• It aligns with the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), adopted in 1973.
• Recognizes the crucial role of wildlife in supporting ecosystems and human well-being.
• The 2025 theme emphasizes the importance of financing wildlife conservation to ensure sustainability.

Additional Information

• Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES)
• Adopted in 1973 to regulate international trade in endangered species.
• Aims to ensure that trade does not threaten wildlife survival.
• Importance of Wildlife Conservation Finance
• Funds projects aimed at protecting endangered species and habitats.
• Encourages sustainable economic models that integrate wildlife protection.
• Promotes biodiversity and ecological balance.
• Previous Themes
• 2024: "Connecting People and Planet: Exploring Digital Innovation in Wildlife Conservation."
• 2023: "Partnerships for Wildlife Conservation."

The correct answer is Akbar.

 Key Points

• The Mahabharata was translated into Persian at Akbar’s orders, by Faizi and `Abd al-Qadir Bada’uni (c. 1540 – 1615) and named Razmnameh.
• Akbar
• Akbar was the third Mughal emperor, who reigned from 1556 to 1605.
• Akbar succeeded his father, Humayun.
• Jahangir was his son.
• His abolition of Jajiya, his new religion Din-i-Ilahi, his land revenue policy, administrative policy etc. were such that his half century rule proved to be one of the brightest chapters in Indian History

Additional Information

• Jahangir
• Jahangir was a great patron of art and literature he spent lavishly in building splendid buildings and gardens and mausoleums.
• He was easily impressed by poets and writers especially those who wrote verses in his praise.
• Under his rule, he got constructed the Akbar's tomb, Idmaat ud Daulas tomb, and the famous Jahangir Fort.
• Aurangzeb
• Aurangzeb was the last important Mughal ruler and after him, the Mughal empire rapidly decayed and was finally put to an end by the British.
• This King reigned for half a century and died in 1707 leaving behind a war of succession.
• Humayun
• Humayun was the second emperor of the Mughal Empire, who ruled over territory in what is now Afghanistan, Pakistan, Northern India, and Bangladesh from 1530 to 1540 and again from 1555 to 1556.

The Correct Answer is Paris St Germain.

In News

• PSG Beat Tottenham 4-3 on Penalties to Win UEFA Super Cup.

Key Points

• Paris St Germain (PSG) came from 2-0 down to beat Tottenham Hotspur on penalties.
• Tottenham led 2-0 via Micky van de Ven and Cristian Romero in the first half.
• Kang-in Lee scored in the 84th minute, followed by Goncalo Ramos’ stoppage-time header from Ousmane Dembele’s cross to equalize.
• Penalty shootout:
• Spurs: Dominic Solanke and Rodrigo Bentancur scored; Micky van de Ven saved; Mathys Tel missed.
• PSG: Nuno Mendes converted decisive kick.
• The defeat ends Spurs’ pre-season on a low note ahead of Premier League opener vs Burnley.

Shortcut Trick

Net Multiplier = (Markup Factor) × (Discount Factor) × (Weight Factor)

Net Multiplier = (130 / 100) × (90 / 100) × (1000 / 870)

Net Multiplier = 1.3 × 0.9 × (100 / 87) = 1.17 × (100 / 87) = 117 / 87 = 39 / 29

Profit % = [(39 − 29) / 29] × 100 = (10 / 29) × 100 ≈ 34.48%

∴ The correct answer is 34.48%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Markup = 30%, Discount = 10%, Faulty weight = 870 g instead of 1000 g.

Formula Used:

Net Profit % = [(Total SP / Total CP) − 1] × 100

Let the Cost Price (CP) of 1 g of goods be ₹1.

⇒ Actual CP for the shopkeeper (for 870 g) = 870 × 1 = ₹870.

⇒ Marked Price (MP) for 1000 g = 1000 + 30% of 1000 = ₹1300.

⇒ Selling Price (SP) after 10% discount on MP = 1300 − (10 / 100) × 1300.

⇒ SP = 1300 − 130 = ₹1170.

⇒ Net Profit = SP − CP = 1170 − 870 = ₹300.

⇒ Net Profit % = (300 / 870) × 100.

⇒ Net Profit % = (30 / 87) × 100 = (10 / 29) × 100 ≈ 34.48%.

∴ The correct answer is 34.48%.

Additional Information

Dishonest Dealer Concept

Profit % due to weight fraud = [True Value − False Value] / False Value × 100. In this case, (1000 − 870) / 870 × 100.

Marked Price and Discount

Relationship: SP = CP × (1 + Markup %) × (1 − Discount %). This represents the price multiplier effect.

Successive Percentage Change

The effective percentage change for two successive changes x% and y% is [x + y + (xy / 100)]%.

Shortcut Trick

We know the direct ratio formula between Cost Price (CP) and Printed Price (MP):

CP : MP = (100 − Discount%) : (100 + Profit%)

⇒ CP : MP = (100 − 10) : (100 + 12)

⇒ CP : MP = 90 : 112

⇒ CP : MP = 45 : 56

∴ The correct answer is 45 : 56.

Alternate Method

Given:

Profit = 12%

Discount = 10%

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = CP × (100 + Profit%) ÷ 100

Selling Price (SP) = MP × (100 − Discount%) ÷ 100

Calculations:

Let the Cost Price (CP) be 100.

⇒ SP = 100 × (100 + 12) ÷ 100 = 112

Since the discount given is 10% on the Printed Price (MP),

⇒ SP = MP × (100 − 10) ÷ 100

⇒ 112 = MP × 90 ÷ 100

⇒ MP = 112 × 100 ÷ 90 = 1120 ÷ 9

Now, we find the ratio of CP to MP:

⇒ CP : MP = 100 : (1120 ÷ 9)

⇒ CP : MP = 900 : 1120

⇒ CP : MP = 45 : 56

∴ The correct answer is 45 : 56.

Additional Information

Relation between CP and MP

When Profit percentage (P%) and Discount percentage (D%) are given, the direct ratio is CP : MP = (100 − D) : (100 + P).

Marked Price & Discount

Discount is always calculated on the Printed or Marked Price. Selling Price (SP) = MP − Discount.

Profit & Loss

Profit and Loss are always calculated on the Cost Price (unless specifically stated). Profit = SP − CP.

Shortcut Trick

If a sum becomes n₁ times in t₁ years and n₂ times in t₂ years at SI:

(n₁ − 1) / t₁ = (n₂ − 1) / t₂

(2 − 1) / 4 = (16 − 1) / t₂

1 / 4 = 15 / t₂

t₂ = 15 × 4 = 60 years.

∴ The correct answer is 60.

Alternate Method

Given:

Amount 1 (A₁) = 2P, Time (T₁) = 4 years

Amount 2 (A₂) = 16P, Time (T₂) = ?

Formula used: SI = (P × R × T) / 100; Amount = P + SI

 Start (P) 4 Years (2P) T Years (16P)  SI = 1P  Total SI = 15P Simple Interest Timeline

⇒ In Case 1: SI₁ = A₁ − P = 2P − P = P

⇒ P = (P × R × 4) / 100

⇒ 1 = R / 25 → R = 25%

⇒ In Case 2: SI₂ = A₂ − P = 16P − P = 15P

⇒ 15P = (P × 25 × T₂) / 100

⇒ 15 = T₂ / 4

⇒ T₂ = 15 × 4 = 60 years.

∴ The correct answer is 60.

Additional Information

Simple Interest Proportion

In Simple Interest, the interest earned is directly proportional to time. If interest becomes 'k' times, the time taken also becomes 'k' times.

Sum Doubling Period

To double a sum (n=2) at SI, the time taken is always T = 100/R, where R is the annual rate percentage.

SI vs CI Difference

The difference between Compound Interest and Simple Interest for 2 years is given by D = P × (R/100)².

Shortcut Trick

Total population increase = 8680 − 8000 = 680.

If all 8000 were males, increase = 8% of 8000 = 640.

Excess increase = 680 − 640 = 40.

This 40 represents the extra 4% (12% − 8%) of the females.

4% of females = 40 ⇒ Total females = (40 ÷ 4) × 100 = 1000.

∴ The correct answer is 1000.

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial population = 8000

Final population = 8680

Male growth rate = 8%

Female growth rate = 12%

Formula Used:

Total Increase = (Growth % of Males × Males) + (Growth % of Females × Females)

Calculations:

⇒ Total increase = 8680 − 8000 = 680

⇒ Overall increase percentage = (680 ÷ 8000) × 100 = 8.5%

⇒ Using alligation method:

⇒ Ratio of Males to Females = (12 − 8.5) : (8.5 − 8)

⇒ Ratio = 3.5 : 0.5 = 7 : 1

⇒ Total ratio parts = 7 + 1 = 8 units

⇒ 8 units = 8000

⇒ 1 unit = 1000

⇒ Number of females = 1 unit = 1000

∴ The correct answer is 1000.

Additional Information

Rule of Alligation

It is a shortcut to find the ratio in which two components are mixed to get a mean value: Ratio = (Higher Value − Mean) : (Mean − Lower Value).

Percentage Change

The percentage change is calculated as: (Final Value − Initial Value) ÷ Initial Value × 100.

Weighted Average

The net change in a population can be seen as a weighted average of the changes in its subgroups (males and females).

Shortcut Trick

Identify the total extra income earned through overtime: 6000 × 3 = ₹18,000.

Since the question asks for the correct monthly income (average), spread this extra income over all 12 months.

Extra increase per month = 18000 ÷ 12 = ₹1,500.

New Average = Old Average + Monthly Increase = 62000 + 1500 = ₹63,500.

∴ The correct answer is ₹63500.

Alternate Method

Given:

Average Monthly Salary = ₹62,000

Overtime earnings = ₹6,000 per month (for 3 months)

Formula Used:

Average = (Total Sum of Observations) ÷ (Total Number of Observations)

Calculations:

⇒ Total Base Salary for the year = 62000 × 12 = ₹7,44,000

⇒ Total Overtime Income = 6000 × 3 = ₹18,000

⇒ Total Annual Income = 7,44,000 + 18,000 = ₹7,62,000

⇒ Correct Monthly Income = 7,62,000 ÷ 12 = ₹63,500

∴ The correct answer is ₹63500.

Additional Information

Average Concept

The arithmetic mean or average is calculated as Σx ÷ n, where Σx is the sum of all values and n is the count.

Net Change in Average

If a total sum increases by 'k', the average of 'n' items increases by k ÷ n. This deviation method saves time in exams.

Weighted Average

When different groups have different averages, the combined average is (n₁a₁ + n₂a₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂).

Given:

The total income = 1080

The expenditure on clothes = 50° 

Concept:

A circle or pie chart has a total degree = 360° 

Calculation:

Let the expenditure on clothes be X

According to the question,

⇒ X = ({{50\over 360}\ \times 1080}\ =\ 150)

∴ The required result will be Rs. 150.

CALCULATION:

Average exports = (500 + 750 + 1000 + 1200 + 1100 + 900 + 1300)/7

∴ Average Exports from years Y1 to Y7 = 6750/7 = 964.28

Face value = 480 Rs

Discount = 25% 

So, Selling price = 360 Rs

Loss = 40 Rs

Cost Price = 400 Rs

Loss percent = 40/400 * 100 = 10%

Shortcut Trick

Difference in bridge lengths = 1300 − 1000 = 300 m.

Difference in time taken = 19 − 15 = 4 seconds.

Speed of train = 300 ÷ 4 = 75 m/s.

Total distance in 15 seconds = 75 × 15 = 1125 m.

Length of train = Total distance − Bridge length = 1125 − 1000 = 125 m.

∴ The correct answer is 125 metres.

Alternate Method

Given: Bridge₁ = 1000 m, T₁ = 15 s; Bridge₂ = 1300 m, T₂ = 19 s.

Formula Used: Speed = (Length of Train + Length of Bridge) ÷ Time

⇒ Let length of Train be L.

⇒ Speed = (L + 1000) ÷ 15 = (L + 1300) ÷ 19

⇒ 19 × (L + 1000) = 15 × (L + 1300)

⇒ 19L + 19000 = 15L + 19500

⇒ 19L − 15L = 19500 − 19000

⇒ 4L = 500

⇒ L = 125 m

∴ The correct answer is 125 metres.

Additional Information

Train crossing a stationary object with length

When a train crosses a bridge, platform, or tunnel, the total distance covered is the sum of the length of the train and the length of the object.

Train crossing a point object

When a train crosses a pole, man, or tree, the distance covered is equal to the length of the train itself (L = Speed × Time).

Unit Conversion

To convert km/h to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/h, multiply by 18/5.

Shortcut Trick

Let Income = 100 units ⇒ Expenditure = 80, Savings = 20.

Change in Income = +12% of 100 = +12.

Change in Savings = −10% of 20 = −2.

Change in Expenditure = Income Change − Savings Change = 12 − (−2) = 14.

% Increase in Expenditure = (14 ÷ 80) × 100 = 17.5%.

∴ The correct answer is 17.5%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Expenditure = 80% of Income

Income increase = 12%

Savings decrease = 10%

Formula Used:

Income = Expenditure + Savings

Percentage Increase = (Change ÷ Original Value) × 100

⇒ Let original Income = ₹100.

⇒ Original Expenditure = 80% of 100 = ₹80.

⇒ Original Savings = 100 − 80 = ₹20.

⇒ New Income = 100 + 12% of 100 = ₹112.

⇒ New Savings = 20 − 10% of 20 = 20 − 2 = ₹18.

⇒ New Expenditure = New Income − New Savings = 112 − 18 = ₹94.

⇒ Increase in Expenditure = 94 − 80 = ₹14.

⇒ Percentage increase in Expenditure = (14 ÷ 80) × 100

⇒ Percentage increase = (7 ÷ 40) × 100 = 17.5%.

∴ The correct answer is 17.5%.

Additional Information

Income Expenditure Identity

Income is always the sum of Expenditure and Savings. Change in Income (ΔI) = Change in Expenditure (ΔE) + Change in Savings (ΔS).

Percentage Change Formula

% Change = [(Final Value − Initial Value) ÷ Initial Value] × 100. Always use the original value as the base for calculations.

Alligation Method

These problems can be solved using alligation where the ratio of Expenditure to Savings acts as weights for their respective percentage changes to find the net income change.

Given:

Investment of A = Rs. 13,750

Investment of B = Rs. 16,250

Investment of C = Rs. 18,750

B's share in profit = Rs. 5200

Calculation:

Ratio of investment 

A ∶ B ∶ C = 13,750 ∶ 16,250 ∶ 18,750

⇒ A ∶ B ∶ C = 11 ∶ 13 ∶ 15

Ratio of their profit will be same as ratio of their investment

Let profit of A be 11x, B be 13x and C be 15x

As, B's share = 5200

⇒ 13x = 5200

⇒ x = 5200/13 = 400

Total profit = 11x + 13x + 15x = 39x

⇒ Total profit = Rs. (39 × 400)

⇒ Rs. 15,600

∴ Total profit is Rs. 15,600

Given:

Average weight of 8 persons = 40 kg

Average weight of 7 persons = 38 kg

Concept:

Average weight = (Total weight/Number of persons)

Solution:

Total weight of 8 persons = Average weight × Number of persons

⇒ 40 kg × 8 = 320 kg

Total weight of 7 persons = Average weight × Number of persons

⇒ 38 kg × 7 = 266 kg

Weight of the removed person = Total weight of 8 persons - Total weight of 7 persons

⇒ 320 kg - 266 kg = 54 kg

Therefore, the weight of the removed person is 54 kg.

According to the English alphabets & their positional values:

The pattern followed is:

     First alphabet is increased by 1 at odd steps & by 2 at even steps.

     Second alphabet is increased by the difference of 2 at odd steps & decrease by the difference of 2 at even steps.

Hence the correct answer is option 3.

Alternate Method 

Hence the correct answer is option 3.

4913, 4096, 9261 are perfect cubes.

4913 is 17³, 4096 is 16³, 9261 is 21³.

Whereas, 2195 is not a perfect cube number.

Hence, '2195' is an odd one.

Let’s check each option:

1. 234165 → ULYOAT

2. 123654 → OULATY

3. 315246 → LOTUYA

4) 364125 → LAYOUT

Hence, ‘364125’ represents a meaningful word ‘LAYOUT’.

The logic followed is:

Decoding the information, 

Given the equation: 41 ÷ 18 – 7 + 322 × 23 = ?

After replacing the signs from left to right and using the BODMAS rule,

= 41 + 18 × 7 - 322 ÷ 23 

= 41 + 18 × 7 - 14

= 41 + 126 - 14

= 167 - 14

= 153

Hence, the correct answer is "153".

The logic is:

First number × 13 = Second number

1. 8 : 104 → 8 × 13 = 104
2. 12 : 146 → 12 × 13 = 156 ≠ 146
3. 5 : 65  → 5 × 13 = 65
4. 11 : 143 → 11 × 13 = 143

Hence, ‘12 : 146’ is the odd one out.

The logic followed here is,

Logic: Addition of consecutive prime numbers in the first letter and addition of consecutive natural numbers in the second letter.

Here, 'GT' is the next term.

Hence, the correct answer is "GT".

The correct answer is option(3)

Here, the following logic is used

Therefore, '?' will be replaced by '744'.

Hence, the correct answer is option(3).

Given equation: 114 C 85 A 5 B 4 D 33 = ?

Decoding the given information :

Now, replacing the sign from left to right and using BODMAS rule, we get :

New equation : 114 + 85 ÷ 5 × 4 - 33 = ?

Calculation :

⇒ 114 + 85 ÷ 5 × 4 - 33 = ?

⇒ 114 + 17 × 4 - 33 = ?

⇒ 114 + 68 - 33 = ?

⇒ 182 - 33 = 149.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Seven houses: M, N, O, P, Q, R, S

1. S is third from the left.

2. O is at the left end.

3. M is second from the right end.

4. P is not at any end and R is to the immediate right of P.

There is only one consecutive vacant place for P and R.

5. N is not beside O.

The final arrangement will be as follows:

Q is located second from left end.

Hence, the correct answer is "Second from the left".

According to the given information:

• Only two teachers have classes before Mukesh.
• Only three teachers have classes between Fatima and Eshani. ​

• The class of only Eshani is after the class of Kamal.
• The class of Nilesh does not lie between the classes of Kamal and Mukesh.
• Here case 2 gets eliminated.

Hence, the correct answer is "Thursday".

Hence, the correct answer is FOG : ULT.

The correct answer is Application software.

Key Points

• Spreadsheets, photo editing, PowerPoint, word documents, etc, are examples of Application software.
• Application software, or app for short, is software that performs specific tasks for an end-user.
• Effectively, if the user is interacting directly with a piece of software it is application software.
• For example, Microsoft Word or Excel is application software, as are common web browsers such as Firefox or Google Chrome.
• It also includes the category of mobile apps, including communication apps such as WhatsApp or games such as Candy Crush Saga.

Additional Information

• System Software
• System software is a type of computer program that is designed to run a computer's hardware and application programs.
• If we think of the computer system as a layered model, the system software is the interface between the hardware and user applications.
• The operating system is the best-known example of system software.
• The OS manages all the other programs on a computer.
• System software is used to manage the computer itself.
• It runs in the background, maintaining the computer's basic functions so users can run higher-level application software to perform certain tasks.
• Essentially, system software provides a platform for application software to be run on top of.
• System software generally includes the following features:
• High speed
• System software must be as efficient as possible to provide an effective platform for higher-level software in the computer system.
• Hard to manipulate
• It often requires the use of a programming language, which is more difficult to use than a more intuitive user interface (UI).
• Written in a low-level computer language
• System software must be written in a computer language the central processing unit (CPU) and other computer hardware can read.
• Close to the system
• It connects directly to the hardware that enables the computer to run.
• Versatile
• System software must communicate with both the specialized hardware it runs on and the higher-level application software that is usually hardware-agnostic and often has no direct connection to the hardware it runs on.
• The platform is hardware and software architecture that acts as a foundation or base upon which other applications, processes, or technologies are developed.
• In computing, platform refers to basic hardware i.e., computer system, and software i.e., the operating system on which software applications are often run.

The correct answer is Insert Picture

Key Points

• Insert Picture: PowerPoint does allow users to add images, charts, shapes, and more to slides. However, this option does not typically present itself in the text formatting options when you select text. Instead, you usually find this option in the menu bar at the top of the program interface, under the "Insert" tab. Thus, it is not directly associated with the Text Format options as it does not format the selected text but inserts a new element, a picture in this case, into your slide.
• 

When you select a piece of text in PowerPoint 365, Microsoft's application presents several formatting options that are directly applicable to text. Here is a general description of the options you mentioned:

• Numbering or Bullets: This option lets you add bullets or numbers before each item in a list. It helps organize information in a clean and legible way, especially when listing key points.
• Font Color: This option changes the color of the text. You can choose from present colors or customize your own to emphasize or distinguish parts of your text.
• Align Text: This option adjusts alignment of your text: left, centered, right, or justifying.

The correct answer is The cell will switch to editing mode so that its content can be modified.

Key Points

• Function Keys in Excel are the faster way of doing certain tasks by using the keyboard instead of a mouse.
• The F2 key will edit the active cell and put the insertion point at the end of its contents.
• Using the "F2" Key users can edit the contents of a cell in excel.
• Turn off Allow editing directly in cells and pressing F2 will move the insertion point to the formula bar.
• If you press "F2" for an empty cell then it simply allows you to type in the empty cell.

 Additional Information

• Pressing the “Alt + F2” keys together will open the “Save As” dialog box.
• Pressing CTRL + F2 keys will open Print options.
• Pressing Shift + F2 keys together will insert a comment in the active cell.
• Pressing "Alt + Shift + F2” will save the active workbook.
• Delete or Backspace key on the keyboard will delete the content in the cell.
• Alt+H+H is the keyboard shortcut to open the Fill Color menu on the ribbon.

The correct answer is Right click on the desktop and selects the option 'Personalize'.

Key Points

• After the completion of the booting process, the first screen which appears on the monitor in a Windows system is known as a desktop. On the desktop, different icons of the applications can be seen.
• There are some steps used for changing the desktop background. 
• First, select the 'start'.
• Then select 'Settings' and open it.
• Then click on 'Personalization' and select the option called 'Background'.
  

or,

• Right-click on the desktop and selects the option 'Personalize'.
• The Personalize option helps the user to change the background or select Picture of the desktop.
  

The correct answer is Restarting computer.

Key Points

• The process of starting a computer is known as booting.
• It can be triggered by either hardware, such as a button press, or software, such as a command.
• The central processing unit (CPU) of a computer has no software in its main memory when it is turned on, thus some processes must load software into memory before it can be run.
• This can be done by the CPU's hardware or firmware, or by a separate processor in the system.
• Rebooting a computer is another term for restarting a computer. Rebooting can be "hard," such as when the power to the CPU is switched from off to on, or "soft," when the power is not cut.

The correct answer is One-Time Password.

Key Points

• OTP stands for One-Time Password.
• KYC stands for Know Your Customer.
• A one-time password (OTP), also known as a one-time PIN or dynamic password, is a password that is valid for only one login session or transaction, on a computer system or other digital device.
• The know your customer or know your client guidelines in financial services require that professionals make an effort to verify the identity, suitability, and risks involved with maintaining a business relationship.

The correct answer is Shift + Tab.

Key Points

• Shift + Tab is a keyboard shortcut used in MS-Word 2010 to move the cursor to the previous cell in a table row.
• This shortcut helps users navigate tables more efficiently without using a mouse.
• It contrasts with the Tab key, which moves the cursor to the next cell in the table.
• Keyboard shortcuts like Shift + Tab enhance productivity by allowing quick and easy navigation within documents.

Additional Information

• Windows + Tab
• This shortcut is used to open the Task View interface in Windows operating systems.
• It allows users to view all open windows and virtual desktops, making multitasking easier.
• Alt + Tab
• This is a commonly used shortcut to switch between open applications in Windows.
• Pressing and holding the Alt key while tapping the Tab key will cycle through the open applications.
• Ctrl + Tab
• This shortcut is used to switch between open tabs in web browsers or different sections in certain applications.
• For example, in a web browser, it can be used to move to the next tab.
• Tab
• In MS-Word tables, pressing the Tab key moves the cursor to the next cell in the row.
• This is the default behavior and is useful for quickly filling out tables.

Slide sorter view in Microsoft PowerPoint 2016 displays thumbnails of all the slides in the presentation so we can easily rearrange them

Key PointsSlide sorter view

• In the Slide Sorter view, we see a miniature of each slide.
• The Slide Sorter view not only gives a great view of your presentation as a whole, but it also lets to rearrange and hide the slides.
• Click the Slide Sorter button on the right side of the status bar.
• Select the View tab on the Ribbon and then click the Slide Sorter button in the Presentation Views group.

Additional Information

• You can modify all slides at once in PowerPoint's Slide Master view. To achieve a consistent appearance, use the Slide Master PowerPoint tool.
• When creating your slides, you'll spend the most time editing in normal view.
• View in Outline: Shows a left-side outline of the presentation's content. Without pictures, it is simple to concentrate on your content.

The correct answer is Ethical Hackers

Key Points

• Ethical Hackers are professionals who use their expertise to protect systems from cyber threats.
• They identify vulnerabilities in computer systems, networks, and software to prevent cyber crimes.
• Ethical hackers work to strengthen security measures and help law enforcement agencies by providing insights into the methods used by malicious hackers.
• They play a crucial role in maintaining the integrity and confidentiality of data in various organizations.

Additional Information

• Ethical hackers often obtain certifications such as CEH (Certified Ethical Hacker) to validate their skills.
• They are also known as white-hat hackers, distinguishing them from malicious black-hat hackers.
• The field of ethical hacking is growing, given the increasing number of cyber attacks and the need for robust security measures.
• Organizations across various sectors, including finance, healthcare, and government, employ ethical hackers to safeguard their digital assets.

The correct answer is option 3.

 Key Points

• The part of the computer used for calculating and comparing is the Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU).
• The ALU performs arithmetic operations (addition, subtraction, multiplication, division) and logical operations (AND, OR, NOT) on data.
• The ALU is a component of the CPU (Central Processing Unit). • The ALU operates on binary data.

 Additional Information

• Disk unit: The disk unit is used for storage of data and programs. It is not involved in calculating or comparing data.
• Control unit: The control unit is responsible for coordinating and controlling the operations of the CPU. It does not directly perform calculations or comparisons.
• Modem: A modem is a device that enables communication between computers over a network. It is not involved in calculating or comparing data.

The correct answer is Implement decisions of the Panchayat Samiti

Key Points

• The role of the Executive Officer in the Panchayat Samiti includes implementing the decisions made by the Panchayat Samiti.
• They are responsible for ensuring that the resolutions passed by the Panchayat Samiti are carried out effectively.
• The Executive Officer acts as a link between the Panchayat Samiti and the administrative machinery, ensuring smooth functioning and execution of policies.
• They also assist in the planning and development activities of the Panchayat Samiti.

Additional Information

• Panchayat Samiti is the intermediate tier of the Panchayati Raj system in India, functioning at the block level.
• It coordinates and consolidates the activities of the Gram Panchayats within its jurisdiction.
• The Panchayat Samiti is responsible for the implementation of schemes for agricultural development, primary education, health, and sanitation, among others.
• The members of the Panchayat Samiti are elected representatives from the Gram Panchayats, and it also includes members from the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and women.
• The Executive Officer is usually a government-appointed official who ensures the administrative functions of the Panchayat Samiti are carried out efficiently.

The correct answer is Gir cow of Gujarat.

• Gir cow of Gujarat is an Indian breed of cow that gives more milk.
• This breed of cow is generally found in Gir forests of Gujarat.
• The primary use of this breed is to produce milk, it is also used in beef production in other countries.

The correct answer is rural population.

Key Points

• Rural development primarily aims to improve the quality of life and economic well-being of people living in rural areas.
• The focus areas include agriculture, education, healthcare, infrastructure, and employment opportunities for rural communities.
• It targets marginalized groups such as small farmers, landless laborers, tribal populations, and women.
• Government schemes like MGNREGA (Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act) and PMAY-G (Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana - Gramin) are examples of rural development initiatives.
• Rural development is crucial for reducing poverty, rural-urban migration, and regional disparities in India.

Additional Information

• MGNREGA (Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act):
• MGNREGA provides a legal guarantee of 100 days of wage employment in a financial year to rural households.
• It focuses on creating durable assets like roads, canals, and water conservation structures in rural areas.
• This scheme aims to reduce rural poverty and promote livelihood security.
• PMAY-G (Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana - Gramin):
• It aims to provide affordable housing to rural poor families with basic amenities.
• Financial assistance is given to beneficiaries to construct pucca houses.
• The scheme promotes women's ownership of houses and social inclusiveness.
• National Rural Health Mission (NRHM):
• NRHM focuses on improving healthcare facilities and reducing maternal and infant mortality in rural areas.
• It addresses health disparities by strengthening primary healthcare systems.
• Programs like ASHA workers (Accredited Social Health Activists) are key components of NRHM.
• Key Challenges in Rural Development:
• Lack of infrastructure like roads, electricity, and water supply.
• Low literacy rates and inadequate healthcare services.
• Dependence on agriculture and vulnerability to climate change.
• Social issues such as caste discrimination and gender inequality.

The correct answer is Mukhiya.

From option (a) Hallikar, Amritmahal, Khillari, Bargur belong to indigenous draught breeds of cattle.

From option (b) Ongole, Kangrej, Deoni, Krishna Valley belong to indigenous dual - purpose breeds of cattle.

From option (b) Guernsey, Red Dane, Ayrshire, Jersey belong to exotic dairy breeds of cattle.

From option (d) Jaffrabadi, Surti, Murrah, Mehsana belong to indigenous buffalo breed.

From option (e) Gir, Sahiwal, Red Sindhi, Tharparkar belong to milch breeds of cattle.

All are cattle breeds except option (d), thus option (d) is the correct answer.

The correct answer is the Department of Rural Development and the Department of Land Resources.

• The Ministry of Rural Development has two departments namely
• Department of Rural Development and
• Department of Land Resource.
• In October 1974, the Department of Rural Development came into existence as a part of the Ministry of Food and Agriculture.
• After a few changes and conversions again, in 1999 Ministry of Rural Areas and Employment was renamed the Ministry of Rural Development.
• This Ministry has been effecting the change in rural areas through the implementation of a wide spectrum of programs that are aimed at poverty alleviation, employment generation, infrastructure development, and social security.
• The main objective of the Ministry:
• To alleviate rural poverty and ensure improved quality of life for the rural population especially those below the poverty line.

Roughage is a bulky feed containing mostly less digestible material like crude fiber and has low total digestible nutrient value. Roughages are mostly built up with high content of cell wall material with variable amounts of hemicelluloses, pectin, silica, polyuronides and other elements. Roughages also has a reduced amount of readily-available carbohydrate as compared to cereal grains. The presence of lignin in roughages greatly affects the digestibility and it acts as a physical barrier and inhibits fiber digestibility.

The correct answer is Self-Government.

Key Points

• Panchayati Raj Institution (PRI)
• It is a system of rural local self-government in India. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• Local Self Government is the management of local affairs by such local bodies that have been elected by the local people.
• PRIwas constitutionalized through the 73^rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 to build democracy at the grassroots level and was entrusted with the task of rural development in the country.
• In its present form and structure, PRI has completed 26 years of existence. However, a lot remains to be done to further decentralization and strengthen democracy at the grass-root level.
• After the Constitution came into force, Article 40 made a mention of panchayats and Article 246 empowers the state legislature to legislate concerning any subject relating to local self-government.

Important Points

• 73rd Amendment Act (1992)
• Local governments were provided constitutional sanction through the 73rd Amendment Act of 1992 which was enforced on 24th April 1993.
• The 11th schedule was added to the constitution through this amendment which contained 29 subject matters of the Panchayats.
• This act also added Part IX to the Constitution which contained provisions from Articles 243 to 243O.
• This amendment brought the state governments under constitutional obligation to adopt the new system of Panchayati Raj by the provisions of the act.

Additional Information

• Popular Government
• Democracy is the most popular system of government at present in the world.
• A federal government
• It is a system of dividing up power between a central national government and local state governments that are connected by the national government.
• Some areas of public life are under the control of the national government, and some areas are under the control of the local governments.
• Quasi-Government
• It is supported by the government but managed privately by a quasi-governmental healthcare agency.

The correct answer is Buffalo

Key Points

• More than 50 % of India’s milk production originates from water buffalo milk.
• The water buffaloes are preferred by some farmers due to the higher fat content in their milk as milk prices are determined by fat and solids-not-fat (SNF) content.
• The water buffaloes can also be sold for slaughter, unlike cattle, the slaughter of which is banned in most Indian states.

Additional Information Average composition of milk of different mammals (in %) 

Important Points

1. Highest Fat: Sheep
2. Highest Protein: Sheep
3. Highest SNF: Sheep
4. Highest Lactose: Mare
5. Highest Water: Mare

The correct answer is 535.78 million

Key Points

• Department of Animal Husbandry & Dairying, Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying released the 20^th Livestock Census in 2019.

The following are the key results of the 20th Livestock Census:

• The total Livestock population is 535.78 million in the country showing an increase of 4.6% over Livestock Consus 2012
• The total Bovine population (Cattle, Buffalo, Mithun, and Yak) is 302.79 million in 2019 which shows an increase of about 1% over the previous census.
• The total number of cattle in the country in 2019 is 192.49 million showing an increase of 0.8% over the previous Census.
• The Female Cattle (cows population) is 145.12 million, an increase of 18.0% over the previous census (2012).

The correct answer is 2006.

MAHATMA GANDHI NATIONAL RURAL EMPLOYMENT GUARANTEE ACT (MGNREGA) 2005:

• It was launched on 2nd February 2006.
• MGNREGA aims to provide 100 days of assured employment every year to every rural household.
• One-third of the jobs created would be reserved for women.
• If an applicant doesn’t get a job within 15 days of application he shall be given a daily unemployment allowance.
• National and State level Employment Guarantee Funds will be set up for the implementation of this scheme.

The correct answer is 2) District Magistrate

Key Points

• Under the Bihar Panchayati Raj Act, 2006, the authority to remove a Mukhiya from office is vested in the District Magistrate.
• The District Magistrate has the power to remove a Mukhiya for reasons such as misconduct, abuse of power, or incapacity to perform duties.
• The removal process involves a thorough investigation and the opportunity for the Mukhiya to present their case.
• This provision ensures accountability and integrity within the Panchayati Raj system.

Additional Information

• The Bihar Panchayati Raj Act, 2006, was enacted to establish a decentralized form of governance at the grassroots level.
• The Act outlines the roles, responsibilities, and powers of various Panchayati Raj institutions, including Gram Panchayats, Panchayat Samitis, and Zila Parishads.
• It aims to promote democratic decision-making and local self-governance in rural areas of Bihar.
• The Act also provides for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and women to ensure inclusive representation.
• The Panchayati Raj system plays a crucial role in rural development and the implementation of various government schemes and programs.

The correct answer is Implement district-level development programs

Key Points

• The main function of the Zila Parishad in Bihar is to implement district-level development programs.
• The Zila Parishad acts as an intermediary between the state government and the village-level Panchayats, ensuring that development initiatives are effectively carried out.
• It oversees the execution of various schemes related to agriculture, health, education, and infrastructure within the district.
• The Zila Parishad also coordinates with various government departments to ensure the successful implementation of development projects.

Additional Information

• The Zila Parishad is part of the Panchayati Raj system, which is a decentralized form of governance in India.
• It consists of elected members from the district, including representatives from various Panchayats and municipalities.
• The President of the Zila Parishad is elected from among its members and plays a key role in guiding the development activities.
• Funding for Zila Parishad activities comes from both state government allocations and central government grants.
• The Zila Parishad works in close coordination with the Block Development Officers (BDOs) and village Panchayats to ensure grassroots-level participation in development.

The department of Animal Husbandry with Dairying and Fisheries and Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare would be launching a pilot scheme for the sole development of ornamental fisheries with a total cost of about Rs. 61.89 crore. It also aims at creating job opportunities for rural and semi-urban population. All the above features are correct, and this pilot project will be implemented in a total of eight potential states through the Fisheries department of the states.

Thus, correct answer is (e).

The correct answer is 6.

• The Bihar Panchayat Strengthening Project is being implemented in 1304 Gram Panchayats of 91 Blocks in 6 districts of Bihar.
• These districts are:-
• Patna
• Nalanda
• Bhojpur
• Saharsa
• Supaul
• Madhepura
• This project implemented to make three-tier Panchayati Raj Institutions inclusive, responsive, and accountable.

Important Points

• It is being supported by the World Bank.

The Correct Answer is August 19, 2025.

In News

• Adi Karmayogi Abhiyan: World’s Largest Tribal Leadership Programme for Responsive Governance Launched.

Key Points

• Adi Karmayogi Abhiyan launched by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs on August 19, 2025.
• It is the world’s largest tribal leadership programme, aimed at mobilizing 20 lakh change leaders in 1 lakh tribal-dominated villages.
• The initiative supports inclusive development and aligns with the vision of Viksit Bharat by 2047.
• The core philosophy is based on Sewa (Service), Sankalp (Resolve), and Samarpan (Dedication).
• The initiative supports the Government’s motto “Sabka Saath, Sabka Vikas, Sabka Prayas, Sabka Vishwas” for tribal upliftment.
• Part of the Janjatiya Gaurav Varsh, celebrating the legacy of tribal communities in India.

The correct answer is Hyderabad.

Key Points

• The National Institute for Rural Development (NIRD) is situated in Hyderabad.
• The National Institute for Rural Development (NIRD) was founded in 2006.
• The National Institute of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj is the apex body for undertaking training, research, and action research, and consultancy assignments in the rural development sector in India.
• The mission of NIRD & PR is to facilitate rural development vigorously through governmental and non-governmental initiatives.

Additional Information

The Correct answer is Improving the quality of life and economic well-being of people living in rural areas.

Key Points

• Rural development refers to the process of improving the quality of life and economic well-being of people living in rural areas.
• It involves multiple dimensions such as social, economic, and infrastructural development.
• The focus is on enhancing access to basic services such as healthcare, education, sanitation, and housing.
• It aims to create employment opportunities through skill development, agriculture, and non-agricultural activities.
• Rural development also emphasizes sustainable farming practices to increase agricultural productivity and improve food security.
• Government initiatives like the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) and Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana are examples of efforts to promote rural development in India.
• Rural development projects often include the creation of infrastructure such as roads, irrigation systems, and energy supply to facilitate economic activities.
• It also focuses on encouraging community participation and empowering rural populations, especially women and marginalized groups.
• Rural development aligns with global goals like the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), particularly Goal 1 (No Poverty) and Goal 2 (Zero Hunger).

 Additional Information

• Industrialisation of rural areas
• Industrialisation refers to the establishment of industries and factories, but it is not a comprehensive approach to rural development.
• This option may focus solely on economic growth but neglect aspects like education, healthcare, and infrastructure.
• While industrialization can create jobs, it might lead to environmental degradation and displacement of rural populations.
• Development of urban infrastructure
• Urban infrastructure development pertains to cities and towns, not rural areas.
• This includes improving transportation networks, housing, and urban facilities, which does not address rural challenges.
• It is unrelated to rural development as the focus and beneficiaries differ.
• Shifting rural people to urban areas
• This option refers to urban migration, which is not a solution for rural development.
• Mass migration can lead to overcrowding in cities, pressure on urban resources, and neglect of rural regions.
• Instead, rural development seeks to improve conditions so people can thrive in rural areas without needing to migrate.

The correct answer is Three-tier.

Key Points

• Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was appointed to examine the working of the community development program and the national extension service.
• Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was appointed in 1957.
• Balwant Rai Mehta was the chairman of this committee.
• The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee recommended establishing a three-tier Panchayati Raj structure.
• The Balwant Rai Mehta committee suggested that the structure of the Panchayati Raj should consist of the village, the block, and the district level.
• Gram Panchayat at the village level.
• Panchayat Samiti at the block level.
• Zila Parishad at the district level.
• The National Development Council approved the committee's recommendations in 1958.

Additional Information

• Other committees related to Panchayati raj:
• Ashok Mehta Committee:
• In December 1977, the Janata Government appointed a committee on Panchayati raj institutions under the chairmanship of Ashok Mehta.
• It submitted its report in August 1978 and made 132 recommendations to revive and strengthen the declining Panchayati raj system in the country.
• Due to the collapse of the Janata Government before the completion of its term, no action could be taken on the recommendations of the Ashok Mehta committee at the central level.
• However, the three states of Karnataka, West Bengal and Andhra Pradesh took steps to revitalise the Panchayati raj, keeping in view some of the recommendations of the Ashok Mehta Committee.
• L. M. Singhvi Committee-
• In 1986, the Rajiv Gandhi government appointed a committee to prepare a concept paper on ‘Revitalisation of Panchayati Raj Institutions for Democracy and Development’ under the chairmanship of L M Singhvi.
• G. V. K. Rao Committee:
• The Committee to review the existing Administrative Arrangements for Rural Development and Poverty Alleviation Programmes under the chairmanship of G.V.K. Rao was appointed by the Planning Commission in 1985.

The correct answer is JEEVIKA.

Key Points

• JEEVIKA, also known as the Bihar Rural Livelihoods Project (BRLP), is an initiative launched by the Bihar government to enhance rural development and poverty alleviation.
• This program was initiated with the support of the World Bank to empower women and promote sustainable livelihoods.
• Under JEEVIKA, Self-Help Groups (SHGs) are formed to enable women to access credit, savings, and livelihood opportunities.
• The initiative aims to strengthen rural institutions and enhance the socio-economic conditions of households in Bihar.
• JEEVIKA has significantly contributed to improving financial inclusion, agricultural productivity, and skill development in rural areas.

Additional Information

• Self-Help Groups (SHGs):
• SHGs are small, informal groups of women formed to promote savings and credit among members and to foster collective decision-making.
• These groups are critical in empowering women economically and socially in rural areas.
• World Bank Support:
• The World Bank has provided financial and technical assistance to the JEEVIKA project to ensure its effective implementation.
• This collaboration has contributed to expanding the program across multiple districts in Bihar.
• Key Focus Areas of JEEVIKA:
• Promoting financial inclusion through access to credit and savings facilities.
• Enhancing livelihood opportunities in agriculture, livestock, and small-scale enterprises.
• Capacity building and skill development for rural communities.
• Impact of JEEVIKA:
• Improved household incomes and reduced poverty in rural Bihar.
• Strengthened women's participation in community decision-making.
• Enhanced access to health, education, and other essential services.