APPSC Group 4 GS 2012 Official Paper 1 (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is Lord Lawerence.

Key Points 

• High courts were established at Calcutta, Bombay and Madras in 1865 during the time of Lord John Lawrence.

Additional Information

• The Indian High Court Act of 1861, vested in Queen of England to issue letters patent to erect and establish High Courts of Calcutta, Madras and Bombay.
• The Indian High Court Act of 1861 created the High Courts of Calcutta, Madras and Bombay.
• The objective of this act was to effect a fusion of the Supreme Courts and the Sadar Adalats in the three Presidencies.
• The jurisdiction and powers exercised by these courts were to be assumed by the High Courts.
• The Charter of High Court of Calcutta was issued on 14^th May 1862.
• The Charter of High Courts of Madras and Bombay was issued on June 26, 1862.
• Lord John Lawrence
• He was the Viceroy of India from 1864 to 1869.
• During his tenure, the three high courts in Calcutta, Bombay and Madras were established in 1865.
• Lord Canning
• Government of India Act 1858 changed the name of the post of Governor-General of India to Viceroy of India.
• Lord Canning was the first Viceroy of India.
• He was the Viceroy from 1858 to 1864.
• Lord Mayo
• He was the Viceroy from 1869 to 1872.
• Lord Ripon
• He was the Viceroy of India from 1880 to 1884.
• Lord Mountbatten was the last viceroy of India.
• India got independence during his time.

The correct answer is Bombay.

Key Points

• The first session of the Indian National Congress was held in Bombay.

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Additional Information

• The Indian National Congress
• It was founded on 28 December 1885 in Bombay.
• On 28 December 1885, 72 social reformers, journalists and lawyers congregated for the first session of the Indian National Union at Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College, Bombay; the conference was renamed as the Indian National Congress.
• It was founded by A.O. Hume.
• The first session was presided by W.C. Banerjee.
• The Indian National Congress dominated the Indian movement for independence against Britain.

The correct answer is 1907.

Key Points

• The Indian National Congress was split into two groups in 1907.

Additional Information

• Surat Split
• The Indian National Congress was split into two groups in 1907 at Surat.
• The years from 1885-1905 was known as the period of the moderates because they dominated the Indian National Congress.
• The moderates were the leaders of INC who used petitions, prayers, meetings, leaflets, pamphlets, memorandum and delegations to present their demands to the British government.
• Gradually, dissatisfaction arose among people due to the lack of any achievements by the Moderates.
• The Extremists wanted to go against the British violently as the peaceful manners have not yielded any results.
• In the 1907 session of Surat, the Extremists were led by Lal Bal Pal i.e. Lala Lajpat Rai, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, and Bipin Chandra Pal.
• The Moderates were led by Gopal Krishna Gokhale.
• This session was presided by Rash Bihari Ghosh who at first was opposed by the Extremists but later they accepted his presidency.
• The session was suspended and the congress was split into two parts.
• This event in Indian history is known as Surat Split.
• In 1916, they reunited with the Congress in the Lucknow session.
• This session was presided by A.C. Majmudar.

The correct answer is Sunga.

Key Points

• Pushyamitra founded the Sunga dynasty around 185 B.C.

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Additional Information

• Pushyamitra assassinated Brihadratha, the last Mauryan ruler, at a military parade and assumed royal power.
• The Sunga dynasty replaced the Mauryan dynasty which was founded by Chandragupta Maurya.
• Pushyamitra was a Brahman.
• Pushyamitra is supposed to have ruled over the cities of Pataliputra, Ayodhya, and Vidisha and perhaps over Jalandhara and Shakala as well.
• He was succeded by Agnimitra.
• The Shunga history after Pushyamitra is largely uncertain.
• The Chola Empire was founded by Vijayalaya.
• He took over the Tanjore kingdom in the 8^th century and led to the rise of the mighty Cholas by defeating the Pallavas.
• Their reign began in the 9^th century when they defeated the Pallavas to come into power.
• This rule stretched over for over five long centuries until the 13th century.
• Uthiyan Cheralathan is considered the founder of the Chera dynasty.
• He was popularly known as Vanavaramban.
• The Cheras were also known as ‘Keralaputras’ in history.
• The Chera kingdom occupied the region of a narrow strip between the sea and the mountains of the Konkan range.

The correct answer is Kachi.

Key Points

• The capital of the Pallavas was Kanchi or Kanchipuram.

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Additional Information

• The Pallavas were the emperors of the Dravidian country and rapidly adopted Tamil ways.
• Simhavishnu is considered the founder of the Pallava dynasty.
• Earlier Pallava kings ruled from the 4^th century but it was Simhavishnu who revived the dynasty.
• Mahendravarman I (ruled 600 AD – 630 AD)
• He was the son of Simhavishnu.
• He was a great poet and composed Vichitrachita and Mahavilasa Prahasana.
• Mahendravarman died in battle with the Chalukyas.
• Narasimhavarman I ( ruled 630 AD – 668 AD) son and successor of Mahendravarman sent a naval expedition to Sri Lanka and reinstated the Sinhalese Prince Manivarma.
• He is considered to be the greatest ruler of the Pallavas.
• He also founded the city of Mamallapuram or Mahabalipuram which is named after him.
• He defeated and killed Pulakesin II (Chalukya King) in 642 AD.
• He took over Vatapi, the Chalukya capital and assumed the title ‘Vatapikonda’.
• Hiuen Tsang visited the Pallava kingdom during his reign in about 640 AD and he describes the people living in his kingdom as happy.
• Their territories extend from the northern part of Andhra Pradesh to River Kaveri in the South.
• The last ruler of the Pallava dynasty was Aparajitavarman who was killed in battle with the Cholas.

The correct answer is 5.

Key Points

The Delhi Sultanate was ruled over by **five dynasties.**​

• These five dynasties were: the Slave dynasty (1206-90), Khilji dynasty (1290-1320), Tughlaq dynasty (1320-1413), Sayyid dynasty (1414-51), and Lodhi dynasty (1451-1526).

Additional Information

• The Slave Dynasty
• The Slave Dynasty ruled the Sub-continent for about 84 years.
• It was the first Muslim dynasty that ruled India.
• Qutub-ud-din Aibak, a slave of Muhammad Ghori, who became the ruler after the death of his master, founded the Slave Dynasty.
• He built Qutub Minar in Delhi.
• The next important king of the Slave dynasty was Shams-ud-din Iltutmush, who himself was a slave of Qutub-ud-din Aibak.
• Razia Begum, the capable daughter of Iltutmush, was the first and the only Muslim lady who ever adorned the throne of Delhi.
• Finally, the youngest son of Iltutmush, Nasir-ud-din Mahmud became Sultan in 1245.
• During his reign, the main power remained in the hands of Balban, his Prime Minister.
• On the death of Mahmud, Balban directly took over the throne and ruled Delhi.
• The Khilji Dynasty
• After the death of Balban, the sultanate became weak and there were several revolts.
• The nobles placed Jalal-ud-din Khilji on the throne.
• The rule of the Khilji dynasty started in 1290 A.D.
• Ala-ud-din Khilji, a nephew of Jalal-ud-din Khilji hatched a conspiracy and killed Sultan Jalal-ud-din and proclaimed himself as the Sultan in 1296.
• Ala-ud-din Khilji was the first Muslim ruler whose empire covered almost the whole of India up to its extreme south.
• Ala-ud-din died in 1316 A.D., and with his death, the Khilji dynasty came to an end.
• The Tughlaq Dynasty
• Ghyasuddin Tughlaq, who was the Governor of Punjab during the reign of Ala-ud-din Khilji, ascended the throne in 1320 A.D. and founded the Tughlaq dynasty.
• Feroz Tughlaq succeeded Muhammad-Bin-Tughlaq.
• After he died in 1388, the Tughlaq dynasty came virtually to an end.
• Although the Tughlaqs continued to reign till 1412, the invasion of Delhi by Timur in 1398 may be said to mark the end of the Tughlaq empire.
• Sayyid Dynasty
• The Sayyid dynasty was founded by Khizar Khan.
• The Sayyids ruled from about 1414 A.D. to 1450 A.D.
• Lodhi Dynasty
• Bahlul Lodi was the first king and the founder of the Lodhi dynasty.
• Bahlul extended the effective boundaries of his empire to the borders of Bengal.
• Sikandar Lodhi (reigned 1489–1517), continued his father’s expansion policy.
• He gained control of Bihar and founded the modern city of Agra on the site known as Sikandarabad.
• Ibrahim Lodhi ascended the throne in 1517 after the death of Sikandar Lodhi.
• Ibrahim Lodhi was killed at Panipat in 1526 A.D. by Babar.
• This marked the beginning of the Mughal Sultanate.

The correct answer is Khizar Khan.

Key Points

• The Sayyid dynasty was founded by Khizar Khan.

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Additional Information

• The Sayyids ruled the Delhi Sultanate from about 1414 A.D. to 1450 A.D.
• They were the successors of the Tughluq dynasty.
• The first Sayyid ruler of Delhi was Khizr Khan (reigned 1414–21), who was earlier the governor of Punjab.
• Mubarak Shah succeeded Khizr Khan and ruled till his assassination in 1434.
• Muḥammad Shah and Alam Shah the next two successors of Mubarak Shah proved incapable.
• Alam Shah abandoned Delhi for Badaun in 1448, and three years later Bahlul Lodi, ruler of Punjab, seized Delhi and inaugurated the Lodi dynasty.

The correct answer is Ramanuja

Key Points

• Ramanuja is considered the earliest exponent of the Bhakti Movement.

Additional Information 

• The development of the Bhakti movement took place in Tamil Nadu between the seventh and twelfth centuries.
• The Bhakti movement was responsible for many rites and rituals associated with the worship of God by Hindus, Muslims and Sikhs of the Indian subcontinent.
• The wave of the Bhakti movement started in South India.
• It was a socio-religious reform movement in medieval India.
• It was led by the Alvars who were the devotees of Lord Vishnu and the Nayanars who were devotees of Lord Shiva.
• They travelled to various places singing hymns in Tamil in praise of their gods.
• It declined around the 10th century but it was revived as an ideological and philosophical movement by Acharyas.
• Sri Ramanuja Acharya was an Indian philosopher and is recognized as the most important saint of Sri Vaishnavism.
• Sant Ramanuja Acharya systematized and propounded the Vishishtadvaita philosophy.
• Vishishtadvaita philosophy
• It means Qualified Non-dualism or Non-dualism of the Qualified.
• It grew out of the Vaishnava (worship of the God Vishnu) movement.
• Ramanuja was the first to make the cornerstone of his system the identification of a personal God with the brahman, or Absolute Reality.
• As a personal God, brahman possesses all the good qualities to a perfect degree.
• For him, the relation between the infinite and the finite is like that between the soul and the body. Hence, non-duality is maintained.
• Brahman (Supreme Reality) is regarded as personal and compassionate.
• Revelation, consequently, is viewed as the gracious self-manifestation of the divine to those who open themselves in loving contemplation.

The correct answer is Vijaylakshmi Pandit.

Key Points

• In 1953 Vijaylakshmi Pandit became the first woman to be elected president of the UN General Assembly. ​

Additional Information

• Vijaylakshmi Pandit was the daughter of Motilal Nehru.
• The eighth session of the United Nations General Assembly elected Madam Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit, of India, as its President.

Important Points

• The United Nations (UN)
• It was founded in 1945.
• Members- 193
• The Charter of the United Nations is the founding document of the United Nations.
• It was signed on 26 June 1945, in San Francisco, US.
• Purposes of UN:
• To maintain international peace and security,
• To develop friendly relations among nations,
• To achieve international co-operation in solving international problems,
• To be a centre for harmonizing the actions of nations in the attainment of these common ends.
• Secretary-General- António Guterres
• Secretariat- New York City, USA
• United Nations General Assembly (UNGA)
• It was established in 1945 under the Charter of the United Nations.
• The General Assembly occupies a central position as the chief deliberative, policymaking and representative organ of the United Nations.
• It provides a unique forum for multilateral discussion of the full spectrum of international issues covered by the Charter.
• It also plays a significant role in the process of standard-setting and the codification of international law.
• The Assembly meets from September to December each year (main part), and thereafter, from January to September (resumed part), as required.
• During the resumed part of the session, the Assembly considers current issues of critical importance to the international community in the form of high-level thematic debates organized by the President of the General Assembly, in consultation with the membership.
• Functions and powers
• The Assembly is empowered to make recommendations to States on international issues within its competence.
• It has also initiated actions political, economic, humanitarian, social and legal which have benefitted the lives of millions of people throughout the world.
• According to the Charter of the United Nations, the General Assembly may:
• Consider and approve the United Nations budget and establish the financial assessments of Member States
• Elect the non-permanent members of the Security Council and the members of other United Nations councils and organs and, on the recommendation of the Security Council, appoint the Secretary-General
• Consider and make recommendations on the general principles of cooperation for maintaining international peace and security, including disarmament
• Discuss any question relating to international peace and security and, except where a dispute or situation is currently being discussed by the Security Council, make recommendations on it
• Discuss, with the same exception, and make recommendations on any questions within the scope of the Charter or affecting the powers and functions of any organ of the United Nations
• Initiate studies and make recommendations to promote international political cooperation, the development and codification of international law, the realization of human rights and fundamental freedoms, and international collaboration in the economic, social, humanitarian, cultural, educational and health fields
• Make recommendations for the peaceful settlement of any situation that might impair friendly relations among countries
• Consider reports from the Security Council and other United Nations organs
• The Assembly may also take action in cases of a threat to the peace, breach of peace or act of aggression when the Security Council has failed to act owing to the negative vote of a permanent member.
• Under its rules of procedure, the President, Vice-Presidents and Chairs of the Main Committees are elected at least three months in advance of the start of the new session.
• The Assembly elected His Excellency Volkan Bozkir of Turkey as its President for the 75th session.
• Honourable Abdulla Shahid was elected as President of the 76th session of the General Assembly.

Source:- https://www.un.org/en/ga/about/background.shtml

The correct answer is 1954.

Key Points

• Prime Minister of India and China signed Panchasheel in 1954.

Additional Information

• The Panchsheel Agreement is a set of principles that govern relations between states.
• It is also known as the Five Principles of Coexistence.
• It was first codified during an agreement between Indian and China in 1954.
• It served as the foundation for India-China relations.
• The Five Principles of the Panchsheel Agreement are:-
• Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty
• Mutual non-aggression
• Mutual non-interference in each other’s internal affairs
• Equality and mutual benefit
• Peaceful co-existence

The correct answer is 1962.

Key Points

• The India- China war took place in 1962.​

Additional Information

• India was attacked on October 20, 1962, in what famously came to be known as the Sino-India war of 1962.
• The war continued for about a month and ended on November 21, after China declared a ceasefire.
• When China announced that it would be occupying Tibet, India sent a letter of protest proposing negotiations on the Tibet issue.
• China was more active in deploying troops on the Aksai Chin border.
• India was so concerned about its relations with China that it did not even attend a conference for the conclusion of a peace treaty with Japan because China was not invited.
• In 1954, China and India concluded the Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence i.e. Panchsheel principles.
• Under this agreement, India acknowledged Chinese rule in Tibet.
• Chinese maps showed some 120,000 square kilometres of Indian territory as Chinese.
• China felt humiliated by the reception Dalai Lama obtained in India when he fled there in March 1959.
• Tensions increased between the two nations when Mao stated that the Lhasa rebellion in Tibet was caused by Indians.
• China's perception of India as a threat to its rule of Tibet became one of the most prominent reasons for the Sino-Indian War.
• On October 20, 1962, China's People's Liberation Army invaded India in Ladakh, and across the McMahon Line in the then North-East Frontier Agency.
• The Chinese also cut Indian telephone lines, preventing the defenders from making contact with their headquarters.
• India, thinking that war would not take place, did not prepare itself for the war.
• The war ended on November 21, after China declared a ceasefire.
• According to China's official military history, the war achieved China's policy objectives of securing borders in its western sector.

The correct answer is Bangladesh.

Key Points

• In 1971, India won the war against Pakistan that resulted in the birth of Bangladesh.

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Additional Information

• Throughout 1970-71, Pakistan faced a civil war, where the country’s populous eastern part was controlled by civil and defence personnel from the western region officials who had no regard for the Bangla language, customs and heritage.  
• The failure of Urdu- and Punjabi-speaking West Pakistanis to understand Bengali nationalist aspirations was the result of a sense of superiority and arrogance.
• The Bengali resentment over injustice and humiliation was not just cultural it was also a result of the economic marginalisation of East Pakistan.
• Foreign exchange earned from the export of East Pakistani jute was used to import equipment for the industrialisation of West Pakistan.
• The foreign aid was diverted to West Pakistan projects.
• In 1970, the Awami League (East Pakistan) under Sheikh Mujibur Rahman won 169 out of 313 Parliamentary seats in Pakistan, but he was denied the office of prime minister.
• Mujib had a clear overall majority in the House to become the Prime Minister.
• Pakistan’s military dictator General Yahya Khan arrested Mujib and imposed martial law on East Pakistan.
• At 11.30 pm on March 25, Operation Searchlight began simultaneously across the whole of East Pakistan.
• At least 26,000 people were killed, according to Pakistan’s Hamoodur Rahman Commission; Bangladesh, however, claims that as many as 3,000,000 were killed by Pakistani soldiers in a brutal campaign of rape, murder and pillage.
• Some 10 million refugees fled to India.
• India declared support for the Awami League, opened the East Pakistan border, and BSF offered limited aid to the Bengali resistance.
• The Indian leadership decided not to directly intervene but chose to get involved.
• The Army’s Eastern command took over responsibility for East Pakistan operations on April 29 and, on May 15, launched Operation Jackpot, a full-fledged operation to recruit, train, arm, equip, supply and advise Mukti Bahini fighters engaged in guerrilla warfare against the Pakistan military.
• India also launched a global diplomatic offensive to help create Bangladesh.
• The Pakistan Air Force launched pre-emptive strikes on airfields in Western India on December 3, 1971, India responded by formally declaring war in the wee hours of December 4.
• By 16 December, 13 days after the war broke out, Pakistan’s commander General Amir Abdullah Khan Niazi surrendered Dacca to Indian Lieutenant-General J.S. Aurora.
• Post victory, Indira Gandhi, the then Prime Minister of India, was quick to announce a ceasefire.
• She made it clear to the world that India’s ambitions were not territorial, nor revengeful or expansionist.

The correct answer is the League of Nations.

Key Points

• The predecessor of the United Nations was the League of Nations.

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Additional Information

• The League of Nations was established in 1919 after World War I, under the Treaty of Versailles.
• Its objective was to promote international cooperation and to achieve peace and security.
• It was supposed to be a way to solve disputes between countries before they erupted into open warfare.
• The League of Nations has its origins in the Fourteen Points speech of President Woodrow Wilson, part of a presentation given in January 1918 outlining his ideas for peace after the carnage of World War I.
• Despite some early successes, the League of Nations was not able to prevent World War II.
• As of 20 April 1946, the League of Nations ceased to exist, having handed over all of its assets to the United Nations, and having granted the new UN Secretariat full control of its Library and archives.

Important Points

• United Nations (UN)
• It was founded in 1945.
• Members- 193
• The Charter of the United Nations is the founding document of the United Nations.
• It was signed on 26 June 1945, in San Francisco, US.
• Purposes of UN:
• To maintain international peace and security,
• To develop friendly relations among nations,
• To achieve international co-operation in solving international problems,
• To be a centre for harmonizing the actions of nations in the attainment of these common ends.
• Secretary-General- António Guterres
• Secretariat- New York City, USA
• ASEAN 
• ASEAN stands for Association of South-East Asian Nations.
• It was established on 8 August 1967 in Bangkok, Thailand.
• It was established by the ASEAN Declaration (Bangkok Declaration).
• Founding Fathers of ASEAN- Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore and Thailand.
• Members of ASEAN- Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, Brunei Darussalam, Viet Nam, Lao PDR, Myanmar, Cambodia.
• Secretariat- Jakarta, Indonesia
• Chairmanship of ASEAN rotates annually, based on the alphabetical order of the English names of Member States.
• 2021 chair- Brunei Darussalam
• SAARC
• It stands for the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation.
• It was established in Dhaka on 8 December 1985.
• Afghanistan joined the organization in 2007.
• Its objectives are:
• to promote the welfare of the peoples of South Asia and to improve their quality of life,
• to accelerate economic growth, social progress and cultural development in the region,
• to provide all individuals with the opportunity to live in dignity and to realize their full potentials,
• to promote and strengthen collective self-reliance among the countries of South Asia,
• to contribute to mutual trust, understanding and appreciation of one another's problems,
• to promote active collaboration and mutual assistance in the economic, social, cultural, technical and scientific fields,
• to strengthen cooperation with other developing countries,
• to strengthen cooperation among themselves in international forums on matters of common interests,
• to cooperate with international and regional organizations with similar aims and purposes.
• The Headquarters and Secretariat of the Association are in Kathmandu, Nepal.
• Members of SAARC are Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, Sri Lanka and Afghanistan.
• Secretary-General- Esala Ruwan Weerakoon
• Arab League
• It is a loose alliance of nearly two dozen Arab countries that have pledged to cooperate on economic and military affairs, among other matters.
• It was founded in 1945.
• The League makes decisions on a majority basis, but there is no mechanism to compel members to comply with resolutions.
• It has been criticized for its internal conflicts and collective inaction on important international issues.
• Headquarters- Cairo, Egypt

The correct answer is H.J. Kania.

Key Points

• The first Chief Justice of India was H.J. Kania.
• The Current (50^th) Chief Justice of India is D.Y. Chandrachud.

​

Additional Information

• The Chief Justice of India (CJI) is someone who is the senior-most or chief Judge of the Supreme Court.
• CJI is the highest-ranking officer of the Indian federal judiciary.
• The Chief Justice of India and the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President under clause (2) of Article 124 of the Constitution.
• Appointment to the office of the Chief Justice of India should be of the seniormost Judge of the Supreme Court considered fit to hold the office.
• The Union Minister of Law at the appropriate time, seek the recommendation of the outgoing Chief Justice of India for the appointment of the next Chief Justice of India.
• Whenever there is any doubt about the fitness of the seniormost Judge to hold the office of the Chief Justice of India, consultation with other Judges as envisaged in Article 124 (2) of the Constitution would be made for the appointment of the next Chief Justice of India.
• After receipt of the recommendation of the Chief Justice of India, the Union Minister of Law will put up the recommendation to the Prime Minister who will advise the President in the matter of appointment.
• Powers of the CJI
• The President has to consult the CJI when appointing judges.
• The CJI is the head of the collegium that decides the appointment of judges.
• He is responsible for allocating the cases and appointing constitutional benches.
• He is known as the master of the roster.
• He swears in the President of India.
• In case the office of President and Vice President are both vacant, the CJI acts as the President of the country.
• The Constitution of India has given the power to the Parliament to decide the salaries, allowances, privileges, leave and pension of the judges of the Supreme Court as well as the CJI.
• However, this cannot be altered to their disadvantage after they have been appointed.
• It can be altered only when there is a financial emergency.
• The Supreme Court of India comprises the Chief Justice and not more than 30 other Judges appointed by the President of India.
• Supreme Court Judges retire upon attaining the age of 65 years.
• To be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court, a person must be:
• A citizen of India and must have been, for at least five years,
• A Judge of a High Court or two or more such Courts in succession for at least 10 years,
• Or an advocate of a High Court or two or more such Courts in succession for at least 10 years
• or he must be, in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist.
• A Judge of the Supreme Court cannot be removed from office except by an order of the President passed after an address in each House of Parliament supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of members present and voting.
• This address must be presented to the President in the same Session for such removal on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
• Source:-https://doj.gov.in/sites/default/files/memosc.pdf
• Source:- https://legalaffairs.gov.in/sites/default/files/chapter%207.pdf

The correct answer is M.C. Mahajan.

Key Points

• The third Chief Justice of India was M.C. Mahajan.

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Additional Information

• The first Chief Justice of India was H.J. Kania.
• Dhananjaya Y. Chandrachud has been appointed as the new Chief Justice of India on 9th November 2022.
• Justice Chandrachud is the 50th CJI and has taken over the post from Justice U.U Lalit who served a brief term as India's 49th Chief Justice.

Important Points

• The Chief Justice of India (CJI) is someone who is the senior-most or Chief Judge of the Supreme Court.
• CJI is the highest-ranking officer of the Indian federal judiciary.
• The Chief Justice of India and the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President under clause (2) of Article 124 of the Constitution.
• Appointment to the office of the Chief Justice of India should be of the seniormost Judge of the Supreme Court considered fit to hold the office.
• The Union Minister of Law at the appropriate time, seek the recommendation of the outgoing Chief Justice of India for the appointment of the next Chief Justice of India.
• Whenever there is any doubt about the fitness of the seniormost Judge to hold the office of the Chief Justice of India, consultation with other Judges as envisaged in Article 124 (2) of the Constitution would be made for the appointment of the next Chief Justice of India.
• After receipt of the recommendation of the Chief Justice of India, the Union Minister of Law will put up the recommendation to the Prime Minister who will advise the President in the matter of appointment.
• Powers of the CJI
• The President has to consult the CJI when appointing judges.
• The CJI is the head of the collegium that decides the appointment of judges.
• He is responsible for allocating the cases and appointing constitutional benches.
• He is known as the master of the roster.
• He swears in the President of India.
• In case the office of the President and Vice President are both vacant, the CJI acts as the President of the country.
• The Constitution of India has given the power to the Parliament to decide the salaries, allowances, privileges, leave and pension of the judges of the Supreme Court as well as the CJI.
• However, this cannot be altered to their disadvantage after they have been appointed.
• It can be altered only when there is a financial emergency.
• The Supreme Court of India comprises the Chief Justice and not more than 30 other Judges appointed by the President of India.
• Supreme Court Judges retire upon attaining the age of 65 years.
• To be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court, a person must be:
• A citizen of India and must have been, for at least five years,
• A Judge of a High Court or two or more such Courts in succession for at least 10 years,
• Or an advocate of a High Court or two or more such Courts in succession for at least 10 years
• or he must be, in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist.
• A Judge of the Supreme Court cannot be removed from office except by an order of the President passed after an address in each House of Parliament supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of members present and voting.
• This address must be presented to the President in the same Session for such removal on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
• Source:- https://doj.gov.in/sites/default/files/memosc.pdf
• Source:- https://legalaffairs.gov.in/sites/default/files/chapter%207.pdf

The correct answer is Woodrow Wilson.

Key Points

• Woodrow Wilson was the main architect of the League of Nations.

​

Additional Information

• The League of Nations was an international organization created after the First World War to provide a forum for resolving international disputes.
• It was first proposed by American President Woodrow Wilson as part of his Fourteen Points plan for equitable peace.
• The League of Nations has its origins in the Fourteen Points speech of President Woodrow Wilson, part of a presentation given in January 1918 outlining his ideas for peace after the carnage of World War I.
• The idea of the League was grounded in the broad, international revulsion against the unprecedented destruction of the First World War and the contemporary understanding of its origins.
• The League of Nations was established in 1919 after World War I, under the Treaty of Versailles.
• Its objective was to promote international cooperation and to achieve peace and security.
• It was supposed to be a way to solve disputes between countries before they erupted into open warfare.
• Despite some early successes, the League of Nations was not able to prevent World War II.
• As of 20 April 1946, the League of Nations ceased to exist, having handed over all of its assets to the United Nations, and having granted the new UN Secretariat full control of its Library and archives.

Important Points

• United Nations (UN)
• It was founded in 1945.
• Members- 193
• The Charter of the United Nations is the founding document of the United Nations.
• It was signed on 26 June 1945, in San Francisco, US.
• Purposes of UN:
• To maintain international peace and security,
• To develop friendly relations among nations,
• To achieve international co-operation in solving international problems,
• To be a centre for harmonizing the actions of nations in the attainment of these common ends.
• Secretary-General- António Guterres
• Secretariat- New York City, USA

The correct answer is Roosevelt.

Key Points

• The New Deal was a set of domestic policies enacted under President Franklin D. Roosevelt.

​

Additional Information

• The New Deal was a series of programs and projects instituted during the Great Depression (1929) by President Franklin D. Roosevelt.
• It aimed to restore prosperity to Americans.
• It was a program of administration between 1933 and 1939 to bring about immediate economic relief as well as reforms in industry, agriculture, finance, waterpower, labour, and housing, vastly increasing the scope of the federal government’s activities.
• The New Deal generally embraced the concept of a government-regulated economy aimed at achieving a balance between conflicting economic interests.
• Programs under New Deal:
• The Agricultural Adjustment Administration (AAA) brought relief to farmers by paying them to curtail production, reducing surpluses, and raising prices for agricultural products.
• The Public Works Administration (PWA) reduced unemployment by hiring the unemployed to build new public buildings, roads, bridges, and subways.
• The Civilian Conservation Corps (CCC) employed hundreds of thousands of young men in reforestation and flood-control work.
• The National Recovery Administration (NRA) established codes to eliminate unfair practices, establish minimum wages and maximum hours, and guarantee the right of collective bargaining.
• The Tennessee Valley Authority (TVA) brought cheap electricity to people in seven states.
• The Home Owners’ Refinancing Act provided mortgage relief to the unemployed.
• The Securities Act of 1933 provided government oversight of stock trading.
• The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) protected depositors’ bank accounts.
• The New Deal established federal responsibility for the welfare of the U.S. economy and the American people.
• The New Deal restored the faith of people in American democracy.

The correct answer is 5.

Key Points

• The Bahamani kingdom disintegrated into five independent sultanates in 1526.

Additional Information

• The Bahmani kingdom was established in south India by Hasan Gangu by revolting against the Delhi Sultanate in 1347. 
• His kingdom stretched from the Arabian Sea to the Bay of Bengal, included the whole of Deccan up to the river Krishna with its capital at Gulbarga.
• The Bahmani kingdom reached its peak under the guidance of Mahmud Gawan, who served with a great distinction as Prime Minister of three Bahamni Sultans for about twenty-three years from 1458 to 1481 AD.
• After the death of Muhammad Shah III in 1482 the Bahamani kingdom became weak.
• By the year 1526, the Bahmani kingdom had disintegrated into five independent sultanates.
• They were Ahmadnagar, Bijapur, Berar, Golkonda and Bidar:
• Out of the fragments of the Bahamani kingdom, five independent Muhammadan kingdoms in the Deccan were formed.
• They were:
• The Adil Shahi dynasty, with its capital at Bijapur, founded in 1489 by a son of Amurath Il, Sultan of the Ottomans.
• It was annexed by Aurangzeb in 1686-1688.
• The Kutab Shahi dynasty, with its capital at Golconda, founded in 1512 by a Turkomdn adventurer.
• It was annexed by Aurangzeb in 1687-1688.
• The Nizam Shahi dynasty, with its capital at Ahmednagar, founded in 1490 by a Brahman renegade from the Vijayanagar Court.
• The Imad Shahi dynasty of Berar, with its capital at Ellichpur, founded in 1484 also by a Hindu from Vijayanagar.
• It was annexed by Ahmednagar.
• The Barid Shahi dynasty, with its capital at Bidar, founded 1492-1498 by a Turk or Georgian slave.

The correct answer is Muhammad Quli Qutub Shah.

Key Points

• Mohammed Quli Qutb Shah of the Qutb Shahi dynasty founded the city of Hyderabad.

​

Additional Information

• The Bahmanis sent Quli Qutb-ul-Malik to the Deccan in 1463, to quell some anarchy.
• He succeeded, and the Bahmani Sultan of that time made him the head of the area, in a decision he would rue for all time.
• This Quli Qutb-ul-Malik is the founder of the Quli Qutb Shah dynasty.
• Mohammed Quli Qutb Shah of this Qutb Shahi dynasty founded the city of Hyderabad in 1589-94 south of the Musi River, 8km from the Golconda Fort, and built a bridge over the river to connect the fort to the city (it is now called Purana Pul).
• The city was originally called Bhagyanagar after Mohammed Quli Qutb Shah's wife Bhagyamati.
• It became popular as a hub of diamond and pearl trading, and lore has it that pearls would be sold spread out on the streets.
• Mohammed Quli Qutb Shah also constructed Charminar in 1591 reportedly as a tribute to divine help in avoiding an epidemic.
• Hyderabad in present-day is the capital city of the Indian State of Telangana.
• Governor of Telangana- Tamilisai Soundararajan
• Chief Minister of Telangana- K. Chandrashekar Rao

Source:-https://hmda.gov.in/hyderabad-history.php

The correct answer is T.V. Rajeswar.

Key Points

• T.V. Rajeswar was awarded the Padma Vibhushan and not Padma Shri in 2012.
• He was awarded in the discipline of Civil service.

Additional Information

• The Padma Awards are one of the highest civilian honours of India announced annually on the eve of Republic Day.
• The awards are given in three categories:-
• Padma Vibhushan (for exceptional and distinguished service)
• Padma Bhushan (distinguished service of higher-order)
• Padma Shri (distinguished service).
• The awards recognize achievements in all fields of activities or disciplines where an element of public service is involved.
• The Padma Awards are conferred on the recommendations made by the Padma Awards Committee, which is constituted by the Prime Minister every year.
• The Padma awards for the year 2012 were announced on the eve of India’s 63rd Republic Day.
• The President approved 109 awards including one duo case (counted as one) and 14 in the category of Foreigners/ NRIs/ PIOs/ Posthumous.
• The Padma Awards 2012 comprise 5 Padma Vibhushan, 27 Padma Bhushan and 77 Padma Shri Awards.
• Ms Laila Tyebji was awarded the Padma Shri in Arts-Handicrafts discipline.
• Shri Syed Mohammed Arif was awarded the Padma Shri for his contribution to Badminton.
• Smt. Jhulan Goswami was awarded the Padma Shri for her contribution to women's cricket.
• For 2021, The Ministry of Home Affairs announced the awardees of the Padma Awards on January 25, 2021.
• A total of 119 Padma Awards are announced for this year.
• They include- 7 Padma Vibhushan awardees, 10 Padma Bhushan awardees & 102 Padma Shri awardees.

The correct answer is India.

Key Points

• Nancy Powell was appointed as the envoy of the U.S.A to India in 2011.

Additional Information

• The Obama administration appointed Nancy J Powell as the ambassador to India in December 2011.
• She is a diplomat who has held several postings in South Asia including Nepal and Pakistan.
• Eric Garcetti has been nominated as the U.S.A's new ambassador to India on 9^th July 2021.
• Taranjit Singh Sandhu is the incumbent ambassador of India to the U.S.A.

The correct answer is India.

Key Points

• Salman Bashir was appointed as the high commissioner of Pakistan to India in April 2012.

​

Additional Information

• Aftab Hasan Khan is the current high commissioner of Pakistan to India.
• Dr M. Suresh Kumar is the incumbent deputy high commissioner of India to Pakistan.
• As of July 14, 2021, the office of the High commissioner of India to Pakistan is Vacant.

Source:-https://pakhcnewdelhi.org.pk/our-team/

Source:- https://www.india.org.pk/pages.php?id=12

Additional Information As of 2022:

The correct answer is From 12 - 2 - 1993 to 24 - 10 - 1994.

Key Points

• M.N. Venkatachaliah was Chief Justice of India from 12 - 2 - 1993 to 24 - 10 - 1994.

Additional Information

• M.N. Venkatachaliah was appointed Permanent Judge of the High Court of Karnataka w.e.f. 6.11.1975.
• He was appointed Judge of the Supreme Court of India w.e.f. 5.10.1987.
• He was appointed Chief Justice of India w.e.f. 12.2.1993 and he retired on 24.10.1994.
• The Current (48th) Chief Justice of India is N.V. Ramana.

Source:-https://main.sci.gov.in/chief-justice-judges

Important Points

• The Chief Justice of India (CJI) is someone who is the senior-most or chief Judge of the Supreme Court.
• CJI is the highest-ranking officer of the Indian federal judiciary.
• The Chief Justice of India and the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President under clause (2) of Article 124 of the Constitution.
• Appointment to the office of the Chief Justice of India should be of the seniormost Judge of the Supreme Court considered fit to hold the office.
• The Union Minister of Law at the appropriate time, seek the recommendation of the outgoing Chief Justice of India for the appointment of the next Chief Justice of India.
• Whenever there is any doubt about the fitness of the seniormost Judge to hold the office of the Chief Justice of India, consultation with other Judges as envisaged in Article 124 (2) of the Constitution would be made for the appointment of the next Chief Justice of India.
• After receipt of the recommendation of the Chief Justice of India, the Union Minister of Law will put up the recommendation to the Prime Minister who will advise the President in the matter of appointment.
• Powers of the CJI
• The President has to consult the CJI when appointing judges.
• The CJI is the head of the collegium that decides the appointment of judges.
• He is responsible for allocating the cases and appointing constitutional benches.
• He is known as the master of the roster.
• He swears in the President of India.
• In case the office of President and Vice President are both vacant, the CJI acts as the President of the country.
• The Constitution of India has given the power to the Parliament to decide the salaries, allowances, privileges, leave and pension of the judges of the Supreme Court as well as the CJI.
• However, this cannot be altered to their disadvantage after they have been appointed.
• It can be altered only when there is a financial emergency.
• The Supreme Court of India comprises the Chief Justice and not more than 30 other Judges appointed by the President of India.
• Supreme Court Judges retire upon attaining the age of 65 years.
• To be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court, a person must be:
• A citizen of India and must have been, for at least five years,
• A Judge of a High Court or two or more such Courts in succession for at least 10 years,
• Or an advocate of a High Court or two or more such Courts in succession for at least 10 years
• or he must be, in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist.
• A Judge of the Supreme Court cannot be removed from office except by an order of the President passed after an address in each House of Parliament supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of members present and voting.
• This address must be presented to the President in the same Session for such removal on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.

Source:-https://doj.gov.in/sites/default/files/memosc.pdf

Source:-https://legalaffairs.gov.in/sites/default/files/chapter%207.pdf

The correct answer is 65 years.

Key Points

• As per the Indian constitution Chief Justice of India holds office till the age of 65 years.

Additional Information

• The Chief Justice of India (CJI) is someone who is the senior-most or chief Judge of the Supreme Court.
• CJI is the highest-ranking officer of the Indian federal judiciary.
• The Chief Justice of India and the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President under clause (2) of Article 124 of the Constitution.
• Appointment to the office of the Chief Justice of India should be of the seniormost Judge of the Supreme Court considered fit to hold the office.
• The Union Minister of Law at the appropriate time, seek the recommendation of the outgoing Chief Justice of India for the appointment of the next Chief Justice of India.
• Whenever there is any doubt about the fitness of the seniormost Judge to hold the office of the Chief Justice of India, consultation with other Judges as envisaged in Article 124 (2) of the Constitution would be made for the appointment of the next Chief Justice of India.
• After receipt of the recommendation of the Chief Justice of India, the Union Minister of Law will put up the recommendation to the Prime Minister who will advise the President in the matter of appointment.
• Powers of the CJI
• The President has to consult the CJI when appointing judges.
• The CJI is the head of the collegium that decides the appointment of judges.
• He is responsible for allocating the cases and appointing constitutional benches.
• He is known as the master of the roster.
• He swears in the President of India.
• In case the office of President and Vice President are both vacant, the CJI acts as the President of the country.
• The Constitution of India has given the power to the Parliament to decide the salaries, allowances, privileges, leave and pension of the judges of the Supreme Court as well as the CJI.
• However, this cannot be altered to their disadvantage after they have been appointed.
• It can be altered only when there is a financial emergency.
• The Supreme Court of India comprises the Chief Justice and not more than 30 other Judges appointed by the President of India.
• Supreme Court Judges retire upon attaining the age of 65 years.
• To be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court, a person must be:
• A citizen of India and must have been, for at least five years,
• A Judge of a High Court or two or more such Courts in succession for at least 10 years,
• Or an advocate of a High Court or two or more such Courts in succession for at least 10 years
• or he must be, in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist.
• A Judge of the Supreme Court cannot be removed from office except by an order of the President passed after an address in each House of Parliament supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of members present and voting.
• This address must be presented to the President in the same Session for such removal on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.

Source:- https://doj.gov.in/sites/default/files/memosc.pdf

Source:- https://legalaffairs.gov.in/sites/default/files/chapter%207.pdf

Important Points

• The first Chief Justice of India was H.J. Kania.
• The Current (48th) Chief Justice of India is N.V. Ramana.

The correct answer is Cotton.

Key Points

• Black soil is favourable for the cultivation of cotton.

​

Additional Information 

• Black Soil
• These soils are also known as the ‘Regur Soil’ or the ‘Black Cotton Soil’.
• The black soils are generally clayey, deep and impermeable.
• They swell and become sticky when wet and shrink when dried.
• So, during the dry season, this soil develops wide cracks. Thus, there occurs a kind of ‘self ploughing’.
• Because of this character of slow absorption and loss of moisture, the black soil retains the moisture for a very long time, which helps the crops, especially, the rain-fed ones, to sustain even during the dry season.
• The black soils are rich in lime, iron, magnesia and alumina. They also contain potash.
• They lack phosphorous, nitrogen and organic matter.
• The colour of the soil ranges from deep black to grey.
• Black soil covers most of the Deccan Plateau which includes parts of Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh and some parts of Tamil Nadu.
• Along with cotton, the soil is suitable for the cultivation of crops like groundnut, tobacco, chillies, and Jowar.

The correct answer is 12.

Key Points

• In 2012, India was in its 12^th five-year plan.

​

Additional Information

• The first five-year plan in India was launched in 1951.
• Until 2015, when the five-year plans were stopped by the Modi government India has had 12 five year plans.
• The 12^th five-year plan is considered the last five-year plan of India.
• The five years plans were formulated by the erstwhile Planning commission which has now been replaced by NITI Aayog.
• The Planning Commission was formed on 15^th March 1950 and dissolved on 17^th August 2014.

 ​

Important Points

• NITI Aayog plays the role of the erstwhile planning commission.
• National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog) is an advisory think tank of the government of India.
• It was established on 1^st January 2015.

The correct answer is 1686.

Key Points

• Madanna and Akkanna were murdered on the streets of Golkonda in 1686.

​

Additional Information

• Akkanna and Madanna were two brothers, who were strong and loyal supporters of the Qutub Shahi dynasty of Golconda.
• Akkanna was the commander-in-chief of the Golconda army.
• Madanna became the prime minister of the Qutb Shahi kingdom in 1674 AD during the rule of Abul Hasan, the last ruler of the Qutub Shahi dynasty.
• Madanna was a brilliant leader.
• He also made a good relationship with Shivaji, the Maratha ruler by entering into a sort of treaty of friendship with him.
• Akkanna and Madanna streamlined the army of the Qutb Shahi kings and they made sure that regular drills were conducted.
• They brought strict discipline in the army to fight against the strong Mughal force, the new fighting strategies such as guerilla tactics were introduced.
• In 1677 AD, the Golconda army faced the Mughal soldiers and they defeated the Mughals for the time.
• They were also responsible for bringing out new developments in the civil administration to provide better governance to the Qutb Shahi kingdom.
• They were distinguished and the kingdom greatly prospered under their guidance.
• The Mughals after their defeat realised that it was not possible to win Golconda until both these brothers were protecting it.
• The Mughals hatched a conspiracy with the people who were jealous of these brothers in Golconda fort.
• The plan was successful and both the brothers were beheaded by a mob as they came out of their palace one night.
• The Golconda lost its most intelligent and capable minister and the kingdom soon fell to the Mughals.

The correct answer is Kuwaiti Dinar.

Key Points

• In terms of Indian currency, the most valuable foreign currency is Kuwaiti Dinar.
• 1 Kuwaiti Dinar is exchanged for somewhat around 245 INR.

​

Additional Information

• The Highest Currency is based on the high value of that currency when exchanged with another currency like Indian Rupee.
• An exchange rate is the value of a country's currency vs. that of another country or economic zone.
• Most exchange rates are free-floating and will rise or fall based on supply and demand in the market.
• A free-floating exchange rate rises and falls due to changes in the foreign exchange market.
• While some currencies are not free-floating and have restrictions.
• A restricted currency can have its value set by the government.
• In terms of Indian currency, Kuwaiti Dinar is the most expensive currency.
• 1 Kuwaiti dinar is exchanged for somewhat around 245 INR.
• Whereas 1 US Dollar is exchanged for 74 INR.
• US Dollar is the most frequently and widely used foreign currency.
• These exchange rates keep on changing according to the market forces as India have a free-floating currency.

The correct answer is Gina Rinehart.

Key Points

• According to the report of Business review Weekly in 2012, Gina Rinehart was the world's wealthiest woman.

Additional Information

• A preview of the respected BRW Rich 200 list put Gina Rinehart's personal fortune at Aus$29.17 billion (US$28.48 billion) in 2012.
• She replaced Walmart's heiress Christy Walton as the world's wealthiest woman.
• Gina Rinehart is an Australian mining tycoon.
• Business review Weekly was an Australian business magazine published by the Fairfax Media group.
• The headquarters of the magazine was situated in Melbourne.
• BRW provided news and commentary on the economy, business and investment in Australia.
• On 4 March 2016, Fairfax announced the closure of the BRW website, with staff and the BRW website to be redirected to a new section of The Australian Financial Review.
• According to Forbes, Françoise Bettencourt Meyers is the richest woman in the world as of March 2021.
• Her personal fortune is around $73.6 Billion.
• Her source of wealth is cosmetics giant L’Oréal.
• As of March 2021, Gina Rinehart is the world's ninth richest woman in the world as per Forbes.
• Jeff Bezos the founder of retail giant Amazon is the richest man in the world.

The correct answer is 155 countries.

Key Points

• Amnesty International's "The State of the World's Human Right's 2012 Report" documented the state of human rights in 155 countries.

Additional Information

• The Amnesty International Report 2020/21 documents the human rights situation in 149 countries in 2020, as well as providing global and regional analysis. 
• It presents Amnesty international's concerns and calls for action to governments and others.
• In 2020, the world was rocked by COVID-19.
• The pandemic and measures taken to tackle it impacted everyone, but also threw into stark relief, and sometimes aggravated, existing inequalities and patterns of abuse. 
• The  Amnesty International Report 2020/21 on India:
• Freedom of expression was guaranteed selectively, and dissent was repressed through unlawful restrictions on peaceful protests and by silencing critics.
• Human rights defenders, including students, academics, journalists and artists, were arbitrarily arrested, often without charge or trial.
• Despite a Supreme Court ruling to reduce prison overcrowding to curb the spread of COVID-19, the authorities continued to incarcerate many who were critical of the government.
• The authorities failed to adequately investigate or punish perpetrators of violence based on caste, sex and gender and carried out reprisals against those who reported rape and caste-based crimes.
• There was widespread impunity and a lack of accountability for murders and attacks carried out by vigilante mobs and police officers against religious minorities.
• Some restrictions to curb the pandemic also threatened the right to privacy.
• For the full report on India - https://www.amnesty.org/en/countries/asia-and-the-pacific/india/report-india/
• For the full report on all countries - https://www.amnesty.org/download/Documents/POL1032022021ENGLISH.PDF
• Amnesty International is a global movement of more than 10 million people who take injustice personally.
• It campaigns for a world where human rights are enjoyed by all.
• It is independent of any political ideology, economic interest or religion.
• It investigates and exposes the facts, whenever and wherever abuses happen.
• It lobbies governments and other powerful groups such as companies. Making sure they keep their promises and respect international law.
• Amnesty has grown from seeking the release of political prisoners to upholding the whole spectrum of human rights.
• Their work protects and empowers people - from abolishing the death penalty to protecting sexual and reproductive rights, and from combatting discrimination to defending refugees and migrants’ rights.
• Amnesty International is headquartered in London, England.

Source:-https://www.amnesty.org/en/who-we-are/

The correct answer is Silver.

Key Points

• Silver is the best conductor of electricity out of the given options.

​

Additional Information

• Electrical conductors are materials that allow electricity to flow through them easily.
• An electrical conductor allows the electric charges to flow through it easily.
• The property of conductors to conduct electricity is called conductivity.
• Conducting materials allow easy transfer of charge because of the free movement of electrons through them.
• Electrical conductivity is a property of materials that determines how well a given material will conduct electricity.
• Electrical conductivity can be defined as how much voltage is required to get an amount of electric current to flow.
• This is largely determined by the number of electrons in the outermost shell; these electrons determine the ease with which mobile electrons are generated.
• Electric conductivity may be represented by the Greek letter σ (sigma), κ (kappa), or γ (gamma).
• The unit of electrical conductivity is S/m (siemens per meter) in SI units.

 

The correct answer is Nuclear Fission.

Key Points

• Atom Bomb is based on the principle of Nuclear Fission.

​

Additional Information

• Nuclear fission is an atomic reaction where an unstable atom disintegrates into smaller atoms.
• In nuclear fission, the nucleus of an atom breaks up into two lighter nuclei.
• The process may take place spontaneously in some cases or may be induced by the excitation of the nucleus with a variety of particles (e.g., neutrons, protons, deuterons, or alpha particles) or with electromagnetic radiation in the form of gamma rays.
• In the fission process, a large quantity of energy is released, radioactive products are formed, and several neutrons are emitted.
• These neutrons can induce fission in a nearby nucleus of fissionable material and release more neutrons that can repeat the sequence, causing a chain reaction in which a large number of nuclei undergo fission and an enormous amount of energy is released.
• If controlled in a nuclear reactor, such a chain reaction can provide power for society’s benefit.
• If uncontrolled, as in the case of the atomic bomb, it can lead to an explosion of awesome destructive force.
• That is why the atom bomb uses this principle.
• In a fusion reaction, two light nuclei merge to form a single heavier nucleus.
• The process releases energy because the total mass of the resulting single nucleus is less than the mass of the two original nuclei.
• The leftover mass becomes energy.
• The photoelectric effect is a phenomenon in which electrically charged particles are released from or within a material when it absorbs electromagnetic radiation.
• The effect is often defined as the ejection of electrons from a metal plate when light falls on it.
• A chemical reaction is a process in which one or more reactants are converted to one or more different products.

The correct answer is About 12%.

Key Points

• An area over 40 million hectares (12 per cent of land) is prone to floods.

Additional Information

• The total area of India is around 3.287 million km².
• 1 square Km is equal to 100 hectares.
• About 58.6 per cent of the landmass of India is prone to earthquakes of moderate to very high intensity.
• An area over 40 million hectares (12 per cent of land) is prone to floods.
• Out of the 7516 km, a long coastline close to 5,700 km is prone to cyclones and tsunamis.
• About 68 per cent of cultivable land is vulnerable to drought.
• About 15 per cent of our country covering over 0.49 million square kilometres is prone to landslides.
• The Himalayan and TransHimalayan mountains are susceptible to avalanches.

Source:- https://www.mha.gov.in/MHA1/Par2017/pdfs/par2015-pdfs/ls-030315/1238.pdf

The correct answer is Santalum Album.

Key Points

• The botanical name for Sandalwood is Santalum Album.

Additional Information 

• A botanical name is a scientific name given to a particular plant species.
• A botanical name is essential so that a plant species would have a particular name that is acceptable worldwide.
• The botanical name of a plant species may be comprised of one, two, or three parts.
• In two parts (binomen), it is comprised of the genus name and the specific epithet.
• The genus name is the botanical name of a plant species in the first part whereas the specific epithet is the second part.
• Shorea Robusta is the botanical name of the Sal tree.
• Cedrus Deodara is commonly known as Deodar cedar.
• Pinus Roxburghii is commonly known as Chir Pine.

The correct answer is ​All the above.

Key Points

• Disaster Management can be defined as the organization and management of resources and responsibilities for dealing with all humanitarian aspects of emergencies, in particular preparedness, response and recovery to lessen the impact of disasters.
• It includes prevention, preparedness, mitigation, response, recovery, reconstruction and rehabilitation.

Additional Information

• A  disaster is a sudden accident or a natural catastrophe that causes great damage or loss of life.
• A disaster can be either a natural or man-made event and can include pandemics, technological disasters or environmental cataclysms.
• Disaster management is about organizing and directing resources to cope with a disaster and coordinating the roles and responsibilities of responders, private sector organizations, public sector agencies.
• The first people to respond to a disaster are those living in the local community.
• They are the first to start rescue and relief operations.
• The 5 Stages of the Disaster-Management Cycle:
• Prevention
• It means identifying potential hazards and devising safeguards to mitigate their impact.
• This stage in the cycle involves putting permanent measures into place that can help minimize disaster risk.
• It’s important to acknowledge that disasters can’t always be prevented.
• Mitigation
• Mitigation aims to minimize the loss of human life that would result from a disaster.
• Both structural and nonstructural measures may be taken.
• A structural measure means changing the physical characteristics of a building or an environment to curb the effects of a disaster.
• Nonstructural measures involve adopting or amending building codes to optimize safety for all future building construction.
• Preparedness
• Preparedness is an ongoing process in which individuals, communities, businesses and organizations can plan and train for what they’ll do in the event of a disaster.
• It is defined by ensuring the highest level of readiness.
• Fire drills, active-shooter drills and evacuation rehearsals are all good examples of the preparedness stage.
• Response
• The response is what happens after the disaster occurs.
• It involves both short- and long-term responses.
• During the response stage, any ongoing hazards are removed from the area.
• The disaster-management leader will coordinate the use of resources to help restore personal and environmental safety, as well as to minimize the risk of any additional property damage.
• Recovery
• Recovery can take a long time, sometimes years or decades.
• It involves stabilizing the area and restoring all essential community functions.
• Recovery requires prioritization: first, essential services like food, clean water, utilities, transportation and healthcare will be restored, with less-essential services being prioritized later.
• It is about helping individuals, communities, businesses and organizations return to normal or a new normal depending on the impact of the disaster.

The correct answer is 2005.

Key Points

• The disaster management act in India was enacted in 2005.

Additional Information

• The disaster management act 2005
• It was passed to manage disasters, including preparation of mitigation strategies, capacity-building and more.
• It defines a disaster as a catastrophe, mishap, calamity or grave occurrence in any area, arising from natural or man-made causes.
• The Act designates the Ministry of Home Affairs as the nodal ministry for steering the overall national disaster management.
• It puts into place a systematic structure of institutions at the national, state and district levels.
• It puts in place the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA).
• The NDMA is tasked with laying down disaster management policies and ensuring timely and effective response mechanisms.
• It also provides for the National Executive Committee (NEC).
• The NEC is responsible for the preparation of the National Disaster Management Plan for the whole country and to ensure that it is “reviewed and updated annually.
• It makes provision for a National Disaster Response Force (NDRF).
• The NDRF refers to trained professional units that are called upon for specialized response to disasters.
• The act contains the provisions for financial mechanisms such as the creation of funds for emergency response, the National Disaster Response Fund and similar funds at the state and district levels.
• The Act also devotes several sections to various civil and criminal liabilities resulting from a violation of provisions of the act.
• Anyone refusing to comply with orders is liable for punishment with imprisonment up to one year, or fine, or both.
• In case this refusal leads to the death of people, the person liable shall be punished with imprisonment up to two years.
• Disaster Management can be defined as the organization and management of resources and responsibilities for dealing with all humanitarian aspects of emergencies, in particular preparedness, response and recovery to lessen the impact of disasters.
• It includes prevention, preparedness, mitigation, response, recovery, reconstruction and rehabilitation.

The correct answer is All the above.

Key Points

• Disaster Management Team should include
• Search and Rescue Team to rescue those who are still trapped in a disaster.
• Medical or first aid team to provide emergency treatment to the injured.
• An awareness generation team to spread the awareness and stop the panic.
• A communication team to establish the communication as soon as possible.
• An administrative team to effectively direct the resources and responsibilities.
• Any additional mission-critical units within the organization.

Additional Information

• Disaster Management can be defined as the organization and management of resources and responsibilities for dealing with all humanitarian aspects of emergencies, in particular preparedness, response and recovery to lessen the impact of disasters.
• It includes prevention, preparedness, mitigation, response, recovery, reconstruction and rehabilitation.
• Disaster management is about organizing and directing resources to cope with a disaster and coordinating the roles and responsibilities of responders, private sector organizations, public sector agencies.
• The first people to respond to a disaster are those living in the local community.
• They are the first to start rescue and relief operations.
• The 5 Stages of the Disaster-Management Cycle:
• Prevention
• It means identifying potential hazards and devising safeguards to mitigate their impact.
• This stage in the cycle involves putting permanent measures into place that can help minimize disaster risk.
• It’s important to acknowledge that disasters can’t always be prevented.
• Mitigation
• Mitigation aims to minimize the loss of human life that would result from a disaster.
• Both structural and nonstructural measures may be taken.
• A structural measure means changing the physical characteristics of a building or an environment to curb the effects of a disaster.
• Nonstructural measures involve adopting or amending building codes to optimize safety for all future building construction.
• Preparedness
• Preparedness is an ongoing process in which individuals, communities, businesses and organizations can plan and train for what they’ll do in the event of a disaster.
• It is defined by ensuring the highest level of readiness.
• Fire drills, active-shooter drills and evacuation rehearsals are all good examples of the preparedness stage.
• Response
• The response is what happens after the disaster occurs.
• It involves both short- and long-term responses.
• During the response stage, any ongoing hazards are removed from the area.
• The disaster-management leader will coordinate the use of resources to help restore personal and environmental safety, as well as to minimize the risk of any additional property damage.
• Recovery
• Recovery can take a long time, sometimes years or decades.
• It involves stabilizing the area and restoring all essential community functions.
• Recovery requires prioritization: first, essential services like food, clean water, utilities, transportation and healthcare will be restored, with less-essential services being prioritized later.
• It is about helping individuals, communities, businesses and organizations return to normal or a new normal depending on the impact of the disaster.

The correct answer is Karl Benz.

Key Points

• Karl Benz is normally credited as the inventor of the petrol motor car.

Additional Information

• In the autumn of 1885, Karl Benz's three-wheeled vehicle became the first successful petrol-engine car.
• He was awarded a patent for it on 29 January 1886 and became the first motor manufacturer in 1888 with his Modell 3 Benz.
• In 1886, Gottlieb Daimler and his protégé Wilhelm Maybach built the first successful four-wheeled petrol-driven car at Bad Cannstatt.
• On 1 July 1926 Benz and Daimler merged to become Daimler-Benz AG and its products Mercedes-Benz.
• Rudolf Diesel is credited with the invention of the diesel engine.

The correct answer is All the above.

Key Points

• A virus is a small parasite that cannot reproduce by itself.
• Once it infects a susceptible cell, however, a virus can direct the cell machinery to produce more viruses.
• Most viruses have either RNA or DNA as their genetic material.
• Smallpox was a serious viral disease caused by the Variola virus.
• It was contagious.
• Smallpox was eradicated.
• Naturally occurring smallpox was destroyed worldwide by 1980.
• There's no treatment or cure for smallpox.
• A vaccine can prevent it.
• Dengue
• It is a mosquito-borne viral disease.
• Symptoms of dengue include high fever, headache, rash and muscle and joint pain.
• The virus responsible for causing dengue is called dengue virus (DENV).
• There are four DENV serotypes, meaning that it is possible to be infected four times.
• Dengue prevention and control depends on effective vector control measures.
• AIDS
• Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a chronic, potentially life-threatening condition caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
• HIV damages the immune system of the affected person making him prone to life-threatening diseases.
• HIV is a sexually transmitted infection (STI).
• It can also be spread by contact with infected blood or from mother to child during pregnancy, childbirth or breastfeeding.
• It may take years before HIV weakens your immune system to the point that you have AIDS.
• There's no cure for HIV/AIDS, but strict adherence to antiretroviral regimens (ARVs) can dramatically slow the disease's progress as well as prevent secondary infections and complications.
• Untreated, HIV typically turns into AIDS in about 8 to 10 years.

The correct answer is The Skin.

Key Points

• The largest organ in the human body is the skin.​

Additional Information

• The skin is the largest organ of the body, with a total area of about 20 square feet.
• The skin protects us from microbes and helps regulate body temperature and permits the sensations of touch, heat, and cold.
• There are three layers of the skin:
• The outermost layer of skin is the epidermis.
• It provides a waterproof barrier and creates our skin tone.
• The skin’s colour is created by special cells called melanocytes, which produce the pigment melanin.
• Melanocytes are located in the epidermis.
• The layer beneath the epidermis is the dermis.
• It contains tough connective tissue, hair follicles, and sweat glands.
• The deeper subcutaneous tissue is the hypodermis.

Important Points

• The human brain controls nearly every aspect of the human body ranging from physiological functions to cognitive abilities.
• The brain receives and sends signals via neurons to different parts of the body.
• The brain of an adult weighs between 1.0 kg – 1.5 kg.
• The brain, along with the spinal cord, constitutes the central nervous system.
• It is responsible for thoughts, interpretation and origin of control for body movements.
• The brain can be divided into three basic units: the forebrain, the midbrain, and the hindbrain.
• The forebrain is the largest part of the brain.
• The forebrain includes Cerebrum, Hypothalamus, Thalamus.
• The forebrain controls the reproductive functions, body temperature, emotions, hunger and sleep.
• The cerebrum is the largest part of the forebrain.
• The uppermost part of the brainstem is the midbrain, which controls some reflex actions and is part of the circuit involved in the control of eye movements and other voluntary movements.
• The midbrain consists of Tectum, Tegmentum.
• The hindbrain is the lower part of the brain.
• The hindbrain is composed of Cerebellum, Medulla, Pons.
• The three regions of the hindbrain coordinate all processes necessary for survival.
• These include breathing, heartbeat, sleep, wakefulness and motor learning.
• The Human heart is a muscular organ with four chambers. 
• The heart is the size of about a clenched fist.
• It is located between the lungs in the thoracic cavity, slightly towards the left of the sternum (breastbone).
• Functions of the heart:
• To pump blood throughout the body.
• To ensure that adequate blood pressure is maintained in the body.
• Pulmonary circulation is a portion of circulation responsible for carrying deoxygenated blood away from the heart, to the lungs and then brings oxygenated blood back to the heart.
• Systemic circulation is another portion of circulation where the oxygenated blood is pumped from the heart to every organ and tissue in the body, and deoxygenated blood comes back again to the heart.
• Coronary circulation is an essential portion of the circulation, where oxygenated blood is supplied to the heart.
• The human heart is divided into four chambers viz. two ventricles and two atria.
• The ventricles are the chambers that pump blood and the atrium are the chambers that receive blood.

The correct answer is Japan.

Key Points

• An earthquake struck the Pacific Ocean off the northeast coast of Japan on March 11, 2011.
• 11-03-2012 marked the first anniversary of this earthquake and tsunami.

Additional Information

• The earthquake was of 9.0 magnitude which hit the Tōhoku region of Japan’s Honshu island.
• The Japanese government termed this earthquake the Great East Japan Earthquake.
• The earthquake resulted in a massive tsunami that flooded more than 200 square miles of coastal land.
• The estimated height of the waves was as high as 38 meters.
• An estimated 20,000 people were dead or missing and close to 500,000 people were forced to evacuate.
• In addition, a nuclear power plant meltdown triggered a nuclear emergency.
• The Fukushima Daiichi Nuclear Power Plant cooling system was damaged.
• The direct economic loss from the earthquake, tsunami and nuclear disaster was estimated at $360 billion.
• The Tōhoku earthquake was of magnitude 9.0, the most powerful earthquake recorded in Japan since 1900 when seismic recording devices were first used, and it is the fourth most powerful ever detected worldwide.
• The Tōhoku earthquake shifted the earth on its axis, according to the U.S. Geological Service.

The correct answer is 25.

Key Points

• As of 2012, 25 states and union territories out of 35 were disaster-prone.

​

Additional Information

• A  disaster is a sudden accident or a natural catastrophe that causes great damage or loss of life.
• The Indian subcontinent is highly vulnerable to cyclones, droughts, earthquakes, floods, tsunamis, avalanches, forest fire and landslides.
• In 2012 there were only 35 states and union territories in India.
• Out of these 35, 25 were prone to disasters.
• The state of Telangana was formed in 2014 and the state of Jammu and Kashmir was bifurcated into two union territories in 2019.
• As of 2021, there are a total of 28 states and 8 union territories.
• Out of these 36 states and union territories, 28 are prone to disasters.
• About 58.6 per cent of the landmass of India is prone to earthquakes of moderate to very high intensity.
• An area over 40 million hectares (12 per cent of land) is prone to floods.
• Out of the 7516 km, a long coastline close to 5,700 km is prone to cyclones and tsunamis.
• About 68 per cent of cultivable land is vulnerable to drought.
• About 15 per cent of our country covering over 0.49 million square kilometres is prone to landslides.
• The Himalayan and TransHimalayan mountains are susceptible to avalanches.

The correct answer is Tokyo.

Key Points

• As of 2021, the population of Tokyo is 37.93 million.
• Tokyo, Japan is currently the world's most populated city.
• Tokyo is the most populous city in the world by 2025. (2021)

​

Additional Information

• Delhi is the world's second most populated city.
• Delhi's population is around 31 million and is expected to grow rapidly.
• Delhi will take over Tokyo as the world's most populated city by 2030.
• Mumbai, with a population of around 20 million, is the world's ninth most populated city.
• Kolkata with 14.9 million is in 15th place.

The correct answer is 5700 km.

Key Points

• Out of the 7516 km, a long coastline close to 5,700 km is prone to cyclones and tsunamis.

​

Additional Information

• The total area of India is around 3.287 million km2.
• 1 square Km is equal to 100 hectares.
• About 58.6 percent of the landmass of India is prone to earthquakes of moderate to very high intensity.
• An area over 40 million hectares (12 percent of land) is prone to floods.
• About 68 percent of cultivable land is vulnerable to drought.
• About 15 percent of our country covering over 0.49 million square kilometers is prone to landslides.
• The Himalayan and TransHimalayan mountains are susceptible to avalanches.

 Source:- https://www.mha.gov.in/MHA1/Par2017/pdfs/par2015-pdfs/ls-030315/1238.pdf

The correct answer is Health and Family Welfare.

Key Points

• Ghulam Nabi Azad was the Union Minister for Health and Family Welfare in 2012.
• He belongs to the Indian National Congress.

Additional Information 

• The Modi-led NDA government shuffled its cabinet recently in July 2021.
• Minister of Health and Family welfare
• Minister- Shri Mansukh Mandaviya
• Minister of State- Dr. Bharati Pravin Pawar
• Secretary- Shri. Rajesh Bhushan
• Ministry of Heavy Industries
• Minister- Dr Mahendra Nath Pandey
• Minister of State- Shri Krishan Pal
• Secretary- Shri Arun Goel
• Ministry of Tourism
• Minister- Shri G. Kishan Reddy
• Minister of State- Shri Shripad Yesso Naik
• Secretary- Mr. Arvind Singh
• Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas
• Minister- Shri Hardeep S Puri
• Minister of State- Shri Rameswar Teli
• Secretary- Shri Tarun Kapoor

The correct answer is Director-General, UNESCO.

Key Points

• Ms. Irina Bokova was the Director-General, UNESCO from 2009 to 2017.
• She is a Bulgarian politician.

Important Points

• UNESCO
• It stands for United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization.
• It seeks to build peace through international cooperation in Education, Sciences, and Culture.
• UNESCO develops educational tools to help people live as global citizens free of hate and intolerance.
• It was established in 1945.
• Headquarters- Paris, France
• Director-General- Ms. Audrey Azoulay (as of 2021)
• Source:- https://en.unesco.org/

The correct answer is 21-5-2012.

Key Points

• The UPA government completed three years in office in its second term on 21 May 2012.

​

Additional Information

• The United Progressive Alliance 
• This is a coalition of center-left parties of India.
• It was formed after the 2004 general election.
• The first term of the UPA government was from 2004 to 2009 while the second term was from 2009 to 2014.
• The UPA government in both terms was led by Dr. Manmohan Singh, who served as the Prime Minister of India from 2004 to 2014.
• As of 2021, this is the second consecutive term of the NDA (National Democratic Alliance) led by Narendra Modi.

The correct answer is All the above.

Key Points

• The 12^th Five Year Plan included all the above three missions viz. National Food Security Mission, National Agricultural Extension Mission, National Oil Seeds Mission, in the farm sector.

Additional Information

• The planned economic development in India began in 1951 with the inception of the First Five Year Plan.
• Five-Year Plans (FYPs) were centralized and integrated national economic programs.
• The first five-year plan in India was launched in 1951.
• Until 2015, when the five-year plans were stopped by the Modi government, India had 12 five-year plans.
• The 12th five-year plan is considered the last five-year plan of India.
• The five-year plans were formulated by the erstwhile Planning Commission, which has now been replaced by NITI Aayog.
• The Planning Commission was formed on 15th March 1950 and dissolved on 17th August 2014.

Source:-http://mospi.nic.in/sites/default/files/Statistical_year_book_india_chapters/Five%20Year%20Plan%20writeup_0.pdf

Important Points

• NITI Aayog plays the role of the erstwhile planning commission.
• National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog) is an advisory think tank of the government of India.
• It was established on 1st January 2015.

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh, Chief Minister.

Key Points

• In May 2012, Bill Gates met with the then Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh Mr. Akhilesh Yadav to discuss and support health care issues.

​

Additional Information

The correct answer is the rise in petrol cost.

Key Points

• Non- Congress Parties called for a Bharat bandh on May 31, 2012, to protest against the hike in the price of petrol.

Additional Information

• The BJP-led National Democratic Alliance (NDA) has called for a Bharat bandh on 31 May  2012.
• It was to protest the rise in the prices of petrol.
• At that time the petrol price in Mumbai (Rs. 78.57) was among the steepest in the country.
• Ironically the prices of Petrol and Diesel in the Modi led NDA government has touched an all-time high.
• As of 16 July 2021, the price of petrol in Jaipur, Rajasthan is around Rs 108 per litre and that of Diesel is around Rs. 99 per litre.
• These prices in Mumbai are around Rs 107 per litre and Rs 97.5 per litre respectively.
• Delhi- Diesel ( Rs 89.87) and Petrol (Rs 101.54)

The correct answer is Germany.

Key Points

• Joachim Gauck became the president of Germany on 18 March 2012.

​

Additional Information

The correct answer is National Telecom Policy.

Key Points

• The cabinet on 31 May 2012 adopted the National Telecom Policy.

Additional Information

• National Telecom Policy
• It aims to provide a single license framework, unbundled spectrum from licenses, and liberalized spectrum.
• It aims to achieve higher connectivity and quality of telecommunication services.
• It targets simplification of licensing framework by establishing a unified license for all telecom services and conversion to a single-license system for the entire country.
• It also seeks to remove roaming charges.
• It seeks to liberalize the spectrum.
• The spectrum would be delinked from all future licenses.
• It aims at making 300 MHz of additional spectrum available for mobile telecom services by the year 2017 and another 200 MHz by 2020.
• It aims to increase rural teledensity from the current level of approximately 39% to 70% by 2017, and 100% by 2020.
• It seeks to incentivize and give preference to domestic telecom products in procurements that have security implications for India or are for the government’s own use.
• It also seeks to establish a Telecom Finance Corporation to mobilize and channelize finances for telecom projects.
• The policy seeks to review the TRAI Act to remove impediments to the effective functioning of TRAI.

Source:- https://www.prsindia.org/theprsblog/national-telecom-policy-2012

The correct answer is Britain.

Key Points

• Britain on 31 May 2012, opened a consulate in Hyderabad to be headed by a deputy high commissioner.

​

Additional Information

• Alex Ellis is the high commissioner of Britain to India. (July 2021)
• Gaitri Issar Kumar is the high commissioner of India to Britain.

The correct answer is 631.

Key Points

• As per the study conducted by the Association of Indian Universities, 631 foreign education providers were operating in our country in 2010.

Additional Information

• As per a study conducted by the Association of Indian Universities (AIU), 631 foreign education providers were operating in the country in 2010.
• Of these, 440 were functioning from their home campuses, 5 opened their own campuses in India, 60 had a programmatic collaboration with local institutions, 49 were operating under twinning arrangements and 77 had arrangements other than twinning or programmatic collaboration.
• A twinning program is one whereby students enrolled with a foreign education provider complete their study partly in India and partly in any other educational institution situated outside India.
• Out of the 440 foreign universities reported to be operating from their home campuses, 158 were from the UK, followed by 80 from Canada, 44 from the US, and 43 from Australia, among others.

Source:- https://www.prsindia.org/uploads/media/Foreign%20Educational%20Institutions%20Regulation/Foreign%20Universities%20Bill%20_SCR.pdf

The correct answer is the 5th  time.

Key Points

• Vishwanathan Anand won the World Chess Championship for the 5^th  time in May 2012.

Additional Information

• He defeated Israel's Boris Gelfand to gain the world championship title for the fifth time in 2012.
• He is an Indian chess master.
• He won the world championship in 2000, 2007, 2008, 2010, and 2012.
• At age of 15, he became the youngest Indian to earn the international master title.
• He earned the international grandmaster title in 1988.
• He earned the nickname of the “Lightning Kid” in India for his quick tactical calculations.
• In 1998 Anand published a collection of his games, Vishy Anand: My Best Games of Chess, which he expanded with new games in 2001.

The correct answer is T. Pattabhi Rama Rao.

Key Points

• Andhra Pradesh High Court Chief Justice Madan B Lokur has suspended CBI Judge T Pattabhi Ramarao on corruption charges on 31 May 2012.

​

Additional Information

• Ramarao allegedly received Rs 5 crore for granting bail to former Karnataka minister Gali Janardhan Reddy, the key accused in the OMC illegal mining case.
• Ramarao allegedly granted bail to Reddy on May 12, the day after a huge sum was deposited in a bank account opened in a Benami name.
• Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
• It is the premier investigating police agency in India.
• It functions under the superintendence of the Deptt. of Personnel, Ministry of Personnel, Pension & Public Grievances, Government of India.
• However for investigations of offenses under the Prevention of Corruption Act, its superintendence vests with the Central Vigilance Commission.
• It is the nodal agency to conduct and coordinate investigations with Interpol.
• It can investigate cases under the Prevention of Corruption Act against Public officials and the employees of Central Government, Public Sector Undertakings, Corporations, or Bodies owned or controlled by the Government of India.
• It can investigate cases of major financial scams and serious economic frauds.
• It also investigates serious and organized crimes under the Indian Penal Code and other laws on the requests of State Governments or the orders of the Supreme Court and High Courts.
• CBI can Suo-moto take up investigation of offenses only in the Union Territories.
• The Central Government can authorize CBI to investigate a crime in a State but only with the consent of the concerned State Government.
• The Supreme Court and High Courts, however, can order CBI to investigate a crime anywhere in the country without the consent of the State.
• In 2014, the Lokpal Act provided a committee for the appointment of CBI Director which will :
• be headed by Prime Minister
• include Leader of Opposition/ Leader of the single largest opposition party, Chief Justice of India/ a Supreme Court Judge.
• The Director of CBI has been provided security of two-year tenure, by the CVC Act, 2003.
• Subodh Kumar Jaiswal is the incumbent director of CBI.

The correct answer is the U.S.A.

Key Points

• Nancy Powell, the then ambassador of the US to India visited Hyderabad on May 31, 2012, and met N Kiran Kumar Reddy, the then Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh, and E. S. L. Narasimhan,  the then Governor of Andhra Pradesh.

Additional Information

• Eric Garcetti has been nominated as the U.S.A's new ambassador to India on 9th July 2021.
• Taranjit Singh Sandhu is the incumbent ambassador of India to the U.S.A.
• Andhra Pradesh (As of 16 July 2021)
• Capital- Visakhapatnam, Kurnool, Amaravati
• Chief Minister- YS Jagan Mohan Reddy
• Governor- Biswabhusan Harichandan

The correct answer is Mandela.

Key Points

• Nelson Mandela is the author of the book " The struggle of my life."

Additional Information 

• The struggle of my life is the autobiography of Nelson Mandela.
• Nelson Mandela was the former president of South Africa from 1994 to 1999.
• He was the country's first black head of state and the first elected in a fully representative democratic election.
• He was an anti-apartheid revolutionary.
• He is known as the Gandhi of South Africa.
• Cyril Ramaphosa is the incumbent President of South Africa.

The correct answer is Arabic.

Key Points

• The word 'Monsoon' is derived from the Arabic word " mausim."

​

Additional Information 

• Mausim in Arabic means weather.
• Owing to the yearly appearance of torrential rain, indicating a marked shift in weather, mausim gradually became monsoon.
• Indian monsoon occupies two divisions viz. the southwest monsoon season (between June and September) and the retreating monsoon season (October and November).
• The Indian summer monsoon typically lasts from June-September.
• Most areas of western and central India receiving more than 90% of their total annual precipitation during the period, and southern and northwestern India receiving 50%-75% of their total annual rainfall.
• The climate of India is described as the ‘monsoon’ type.
• Generally, the monsoon arrives at the southern tip of the Indian peninsular by the first week of June.

The correct answer is Krishna.

Key Points

• The Himalayan rivers are the ones that originate or drain the areas of the Himalayas.
• The Krishna River is a river of south-central India.
• It rises in Mahabaleshwar, Maharashtra.
• It mainly flows in Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh.
• So, the Krishna is not a Himalayan river.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

• Maharashtra has the highest urban population.
• In terms of the absolute number of persons living in urban areas, Maharashtra continues to lead with 50.8 million persons which comprise 13.5 percent of the total urban population of the country.
• Uttar Pradesh accounts for about 44.4 million, followed by Tamil Nadu at 34.9 million.

Additional Information

• Among all the States and Union territories, the National Capital Territory of Delhi and the Union Territory of Chandigarh are most urbanized with 97.5 percent and 97.25 percent urban population respectively.
• They are followed by Daman and Diu (75.2 percent) and Puducherry (68.3 percent).
• Among States, Goa is now the most urbanized State with a 62.2 percent urban population.
• Among the North-Eastern States, Mizoram is most urbanized with 51.5 percent urban population
• The proportion of the urban population continues to be the lowest in Himachal Pradesh with 10.0 percent followed by Bihar with 11.3 percent, Assam (14.1 percent), and Orissa (16.7 percent).
• For statewide ranks of states and the Union Territories:- https://censusindia.gov.in/2011-prov-results/paper2-vol2/data_files/Meghalaya/CHAPTER_IV.pdf
• Source:- http://mohua.gov.in/cms/level-of-urbanisation.php#:~:text=Similarly%20Sikkim%2C%20which%20was%20just,upstaging%20Maharashtra%20(45.2%20percent).

The correct answer is Siddhartha Varadarajan.

Key Points

• Siddhartha Varadarajan was the editor of the Hindu in 2012.

​

Additional Information

• The Hindu-
• It was started as a weekly in 1878.
• It became a daily in 1889.
• It is printed in seventeen centers including the Main Edition at Chennai (Madras) where the Corporate Office is based.
• Suresh Nambath is the present chief editor of the Hindu.

The correct answer is Allam Narayana.

Key Points

• in 2012, Allam Narayana was the chief editor of Namasthe Telangana.
• He was the first chief editor of this newspaper.

Additional Information

• Namasthe Telangana is a Telugu-language daily newspaper.
• It is published in Hyderabad, Telangana.
• It was launched on 6 June 2011.
• The current editor of the Namsthe Telangana is Thigulla Krishna Murthy.

 

The correct answer is Margaret Alva.

Key Points

• Margaret Alva was the governor of Rajasthan in 2012.
• Her tenure as the governor of Rajasthan ended in 2014.

​

Additional Information 

• Kalraj Mishra is the incumbent governor of Rajasthan.

The correct answer is 993.

Key Points

• As per the 2011 Census, females per every 1000 males in Andhra Pradesh are 993.

Additional Information

• The sex ratio is defined as the number of females per thousand males.
• It is an important social indicator to measure the extent of prevailing equality between males and females in a society at a given point in time.
• According to the census 2011, the sex ratio of India is 940 females per 1000 males.
• As per Census 2011, the top five states/Union territories which have the highest sex ratio are Kerela (1,084) followed by Puducherry (1,038), Tamil Nadu (995), Andhra Pradesh (993), and Chhattisgarh (991).
• Five states which have the lowest sex ratio are Daman & Diu (618), Dadra & Nagar Haveli (775), Chandigarh (818), NCT of Delhi (866), and Andaman & Nicobar Islands (878).

Source:- https://censusindia.gov.in/2011-prov-results/data_files/mp/06Gender%20Composition.pdf

The correct answer is Stainless Steel.

Key Points

• Stainless Steel is an alloy of Iron, Nickel, and Chromium.

Additional Information

• Alloy is a substance formed from the combination of two or more metals.
• Alloys can also be formed from combinations of metals and other elements.
• The properties exhibited by alloys are often quite different from the properties of their individual components.
• Alloys tend to have greater strength and hardness when compared to pure metals.
• Alloys can also be called solid solutions of metallic elements.
• Steel is primarily an alloy of iron and carbon.
• However, different types of steel are known to contain varying amounts of carbon, along with other elements (such as chromium, manganese, sulfur, phosphorus, nickel, copper, and molybdenum).
• The composition of stainless steel is:
• Approximately 85-88% iron (Fe)
• At least 10.5% chromium (Cr)
• Less than 1.2% carbon (C)
• Bronze is an alloy of copper (75%) and tin ( up to 12%).
• Brass is a metal alloy primarily composed of copper and zinc.
• However, other metals—such as iron, aluminum, silicon, and manganese—are also mixed in to produce different properties and color variations.
• Lead on the other hand is a chemical element.
• Symbol- Pb
• Atomic no.- 82

The correct answer is Brass.

Key Points

• Brass is an alloy of copper and zinc.

​

Additional Information 

• Alloy is a substance formed from the combination of two or more metals.
• Alloys can also be formed from combinations of metals and other elements.
• The properties exhibited by alloys are often quite different from the properties of their individual components.
• Alloys tend to have greater strength and hardness when compared to pure metals.
• Alloys can also be called solid solutions of metallic elements.
• Steel is primarily an alloy of iron and carbon.
• However, different types of steel are known to contain varying amounts of carbon, along with other elements (such as chromium, manganese, sulfur, phosphorus, nickel, copper, and molybdenum).
• The composition of stainless steel is:
• Approximately 85-88% iron (Fe)
• At least 10.5% chromium (Cr)
• Less than 1.2% carbon (C)
• Bronze is an alloy of copper (75%) and tin ( up to 12%).
• Lead on the other hand is a chemical element.
• Symbol- Pb
• Atomic no.- 82

the correct answer is J. Priestley.

Key Points

• Joseph Priestly discovered Oxygen in 1774.

​

Additional Information

• Oxygen is a chemical element.
• Symbol- O
• Atomic no.- 8
• Atomic mass- 16u
• Melting point- −218.4 °C (−361.1 °F)
• Boiling point- −183.0 °C (−297.4 °F)
• Oxygen is a colorless, odorless, tasteless gas essential for living organisms.

The correct answer is Hyderabad.

Key Points

• The Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology is located in Hyderabad.

​

Additional Information 

• Centre for Cellular & Molecular Biology (CCMB)
• It is a premier research organization in frontier areas of modern biology.
• The objectives of the Centre are to conduct high-quality basic research and training in frontier areas of modern biology and promote centralized national facilities for new and modern techniques in the inter-disciplinary areas of biology.
• CCMB was set up initially as a semi-autonomous Centre on April 1, 1977, with the Biochemistry Division of the then Regional Research Laboratory (presently, Indian Institute of Chemical Technology, IICT).
• During 1981-82,  CCMB was accorded the status of a full-fledged national laboratory with its own Executive Committee and Scientific Advisory Council.
• The Director of the Centre for Cellular & Molecular Biology is Dr Vinay K Nandicoori.

Source:-https://www.ccmb.res.in/About-CCMB/Profile

The correct answer is 10.21%.

Key Points

• As per the 2011 Census, the population in the age group of 0 - 6 years constitutes 10.21% of the total population in Andhra Pradesh.

Additional Information

• Some facts about Andhra Pradesh as per census 2011
• Total Population- 84665533
• Males- 42509881
• Females- 42155652
• Sex ratio- 992
• Population between 0-6 years- 8642686

Source:-https://censusindia.gov.in/2011-prov-results/data_files/andhra_pradesh/DCOAP-PAPER-1-BROCHURE.pdf

The correct answer is Sukumar Sen.

Key Points

• The first chief election commissioner of India was Sukumar Sen.

​

Additional Information

• Part XV of the Indian constitution deals with elections and establishes a commission for these matters.
• According to article 324, the superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of the electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to Parliament and the Legislature of every State and of elections to the offices of President and Vice President shall be vested in the Election Commission.
• Article 324 to 329 of the constitution deals with powers, function, tenure, eligibility, etc of the commission and the member.
• The commission consists of one Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners.
• The secretariat of the commission is located in New Delhi.
• The President appoints Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners.
• They have a fixed tenure of six years, or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
• They enjoy the same status and receive salary and perks as available to Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
• The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only through a process of removal similar to that of a Supreme Court judge for by Parliament.
• Chief Election Commissioner- Sushil Chandra
• Election Commissioner- Rajiv Kumar
• Election Commissioner- Anup Chandra Pandey

Source:- https://eci.gov.in/

The correct answer is All the above.

Key Points

• The Central government has accorded the classical language status to all three of the above languages i.e. Tamil, Telugu, and Sanskrit.

​

Additional Information

• The Government of India in 2004 declared that languages to meet certain requirements could be accorded the status of a 'Classical Languages in India'.
• The Ministry of Culture provides the guidelines regarding Classical languages.
• Criteria for being a classical language:
• High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years.
• A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers.
• The literary tradition is original and not borrowed from another speech community.
• The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.
• The government provides certain benefits to promote a classical language:
• Two major annual international awards for scholars of eminence in classical Indian languages
• A Centre of Excellence for Studies in Classical Languages is set up
• The University Grants Commission is requested to create, to start with at least in the Central Universities, a certain number of Professional Chairs for the Classical Languages so declared.
• Currently, six languages enjoy the Classical status in India:
• Tamil (declared in 2004),
• Sanskrit (2005),
• Kannada (2008),
• Telugu (2008),
• Malayalam (2013),
• Odia (2014).

The correct answer is K.C. Niyogi.

Key Points

• K.C. Niyogi was the first chairman of the Finance Commission of India.

​

Additional Information

• The Finance Commission (FC)
• It is a constitutional body, that determines the method and formula for distributing the tax proceeds between the Centre and states, and among the states as per the constitutional arrangement and present requirements.
• Under Article 280 of the Constitution, the President of India is required to constitute a Finance Commission at an interval of five years or earlier.
• Article 280
• The President shall, within two years from the commencement of this Constitution and thereafter at the expiration of every fifth year or at such earlier time as the President considers necessary, by order constitute a Finance Commission which shall consist of a Chairman and four other members to be appointed by the President.
• Parliament may by law determine the qualifications which shall be requisite for appointment as members of the Commission and how they shall be selected.
• The Commission shall determine their procedure and shall have such powers in the performance of their functions as Parliament may by law confer on them.
• Article 281, the President shall cause every recommendation made by the Finance Commission under the provisions of this Constitution together with an explanatory memorandum as to the action taken thereon to be laid before each House of Parliament.
• The 15^th Finance Commission was constituted by the President of India in November 2017, under the chairmanship of NK Singh.
• Its recommendations will cover a period of five years from the year 2021-22 to 2025-26.

Source:-https://fincomindia.nic.in/

The correct answer is 29.6**%**.

Key Points

• As per the Census 2011, the percentage of the Urban population in Andhra Pradesh was 29.6**%**.

​

Additional Information

• Some facts from Census 2011
• Among all the States and Union territories, the National Capital Territory of Delhi and the Union Territory of Chandigarh are most urbanized with 97.5 percent and 97.25 percent urban population respectively.
• They are followed by Daman and Diu (75.2 percent) and Puducherry (68.3 percent).
• Among States, Goa is now the most urbanized State with a 62.2 percent urban population.
• Among the North-Eastern States, Mizoram is most urbanized with 51.5 percent urban population
• The proportion of the urban population continues to be the lowest in Himachal Pradesh with 10.0 percent followed by Bihar with 11.3 percent, Assam (14.1 percent), and Orissa (16.7 percent).
• In terms of the absolute number of persons living in urban areas, Maharashtra continues to lead with 50.8 million persons which comprise 13.5 percent of the total urban population of the country.
• Uttar Pradesh accounts for about 44.4 million, followed by Tamil Nadu at 34.9 million.
• Some facts about Andhra Pradesh as per census 2011
• Total Population- 84665533
• Males- 42509881
• Females- 42155652
• Sex ratio- 992
• Population between 0-6 years- 8642686.

Source:- https://censusindia.gov.in/2011-prov-results/paper2/data_files/india/paper2_1.pdf

Source:- https://censusindia.gov.in/2011-prov-results/data_files/andhra_pradesh/DCOAP-PAPER-1-BROCHURE.pdf

The correct answer is 84,665,533.

Key Points

• As per the Census 2011, the population of Andhra Pradesh is 84,665,533.

​

Additional Information

• Some facts about Andhra Pradesh as per census 2011
• Total Population- 84665533
• Males- 42509881
• Females- 42155652
• Sex ratio- 992
• Population between 0-6 years- 8642686.

Source:- https://censusindia.gov.in/2011-prov-results/data_files/andhra_pradesh/DCOAP-PAPER-1-BROCHURE.pdf

The correct answer is V. Narahari Rao.

​

Key Points

• Comptroller and Auditor General of India
• Article 148 provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG).
• The Comptroller and Auditor General is appointed by the President of India and can be removed from office only in the manner and on the grounds that a Judge of the Supreme Court is removed.
• He is appointed for a period of 6 years or until attaining the age of 65 years whichever is earlier.
• He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department.
• He acts as a guardian of the public purse and controls the entire financial system of the country at both the Centre and the state levels.
• He primarily works to uphold the Constitution of India and the laws of Parliament in the terms of financial administration.
• Current Comptroller and Auditor-General of India: Girish Chandra Murmu
• V. Narahari Rao
• He was an Indian civil servant who served the Indian Audit and Accounts Service in post-independence India.
• He served as the first Comptroller and Auditor General of India from 1948 to 1954.
• The Government of India awarded him the third highest civilian honor of the Padma Bhushan in 1954 for his contributions to civil service.

The correct answer is All the above.

Key Points

• State Legislative Assembly
• Chapter III of Part VI of the Constitution is concerned with the State Legislature.
• It comprises state legislature and executive.
• The Legislative Assembly is the elected chamber and is the real center of power in the State.
• The maximum strength of an assembly must not exceed 500 or its minimum strength fall below 60.
• But some of the States have been allowed to have smaller Legislative Assemblies i.e. Sikkim, Mizoram, Goa, and the union territory Puducherry.

The correct answer is Cornu.

Key Points

• Paul Cornu
• Paul Cornu was a French engineer who designed and built the first helicopter to perform a manned free flight.
• He made history by designing the world's first successful manned rotary-wing aircraft.
• Cornu’s twin-rotor craft, powered by a 24-horsepower engine, flew on Nov. 13, 1907, at Coquainvilliers, near Lisieux.
• Helicopter
• A helicopter is a type of rotorcraft in which lift and thrust are supplied by horizontally spinning rotors.
• This allows the helicopter to take off and land vertically, hover, and fly forward, backward, and laterally.

The correct answer is Raphia Regalis.

Key Points

• Raphia Regalis
• The largest leaves in the world is Raphia Regalis, a species of Raffia Palm belonging to the palm tree family.
• It is native to Angola, Congo, Gabon, Cameroon, and Nigeria.
• It can be found in the most lowland forest of the tropics and sub-tropics.
• The leaves are divided and are made up of around 180 separate leaflets arranged on either side of the central stem of the leaf.

Additional Information

• Rafflesia Arnoldi
• It is a species of flowering plant, noted for producing the largest individual flower on earth.
• It has a strong and unpleasant odor of decaying flesh.
• It is native to the rainforests of Sumatra and Borneo.
• Victoria Amazonica
• It is a species of flowering plant, the largest of the water lily family.
• It is the national flower of Guyana.
• Its native regions are Guyana and tropical South America.

The correct answer is Asia Pacific Region.

Key Points

• World Disaster Report 2010
• The World Disasters Report is about people and disasters.
• It is about those vulnerable people who are most likely to be affected by disasters and the local institutions which provide the mainstay of disaster prevention, preparedness, and relief.
• The first edition was published in 1993.
• World Disaster Report 2010 was published by the International Federation of Red Cross and Red Crescent Societies( IFRC) during the period 2000 to 2009.
• As many as 85% of the people affected by disasters belonged to the Asia Pacific Region.
• Asia Pacific Region
• The Asia-Pacific(APAC) is a geopolitical region comprising the part of the world in or near the Western Pacific Ocean.
• It generally includes most of South Asia and East Asia, as well as all of Southeast Asia and Oceania.

Additional Information

• International Day for Disaster Risk Reduction: 13 October

The correct answer is 8%.

Key Points

• In World disasters, 8% is accounted for Earthquakes and Tsunamis.
• Earthquakes
• An earthquake is shaking or trembling of the earth's surface, caused by the seismic waves or earthquake waves that are generated due to sudden movement in the earth's crust or upper mantle.
• The point within the earth's crust where an earthquake originates is called the focus or hypocenter or seismic focus.
• The point vertically above the focus on the earth's surface is called the epicenter.
• Tsunami
• A tsunami is a series of waves caused by earthquakes or undersea volcanic eruptions.
• These are also called seismic sea waves and are one of the most powerful and destructive natural forces.
• Most tsunamis are caused by large earthquakes. Though, not all earthquakes cause tsunamis.

The correct answer is Vedam.

Key Points

• Nandi Award
• The Nandi Awards are the awards that recognize the excellence in Telugu cinema, Telugu theatre, and Telugu television, and Lifetime achievements in Indian Cinema.
• These awards were presented from 1964 onwards.
• These awards are presented annually by the Government of Andhra Pradesh.
• Nandi Awards are presented in four categories: Gold, Silver, Bronze, and Copper.
• Vedam, the Telugu film directed by Radhakrishna Jagarlamudi received Nandi Award for the best film in  2010.
• These awards were presented for the last time in 2016.
• A variant, the Nandi Natakotsayam Awards for Theatre, is also given every year by the government for social, mythological, and poetic dramas.

The correct answer is P.V. Narsimha Rao.

Key Points

• P.V. Narsimha Rao
• He was a lawyer and politician who served as the 9th Prime Minister of India from 1991 to 1996.
• He was the first Prime Minister from the non-Hindi belt and the first person from a southern state to adorn the post.
• His tenure as PM is most remembered for the major economic reforms that were undertaken.
• He became the Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh in 1971 and remained in office till 1973.
• His CM tenure was marked by a stringent implementation of the land ceilings act in the Telangana region.

Additional Information 

• N. Sanjiva Reddy
• Neelam Sanjiva Reddy was the Sixth President of India from 1977 to 1982.
• He was the first chief minister of Andhra Pradesh state formed by incorporating Telangana with the Andhra State.
• He was elected unopposed as President of India and the youngest -ever Indian president.
• J. Vengala Rao
• Jalagam Vengala Rao was the fifth Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh from 1973 to 1978.
• D. Sanjeevaiah
• Damodaram Sanjeevaiah was the Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh from 1960 to 1962.
• He was the first Dalit Chief Minister of an Indian state.

The correct answer is any number of terms.

Key Points

• Governor
• Article 153 states that there shall be a Governor for each state.
• One person can be appointed as Governor for two or more states.
• A Governor is appointed by the President and he/she is a nominee of the Central Government.
• He is the constitutional head of the state and bound by the advice of his council of ministers.
• Articles 157 and 158 specify eligibility requirements for the post of governor.
• Governor appoints the Chief Minister and other Ministers of the respective state( Article 164).
• Since the Governor holds the office under the pleasure of the President, his office has no fixed term.
• The Governors of the states of India have similar powers and functions at the state level as those of the President of India.
• A person can be appointed as a Governor for any number of terms.

The correct answer is M.V.R. Sastry.

Key Points

• Andhra Bhoomi
• Andhra Bhoomi is a Telugu-language daily newspaper founded in 1960.
• The newspaper is one of the oldest running Telugu language daily newspapers.
• It covers the whole of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana with editions from Hyderabad, Vijayawada, Anantapur, etc.
• It is owned by Deccan Chronicle Holdings Limited.
• It also comes with a monthly magazine named Andhra Bhoomi Sachitra Vaara Patrika.
• M.V.R. Sastry
• He is the editor of Andhra Bhoomi since 1994.

The correct answer is Vitamin-K.

Key Points

• Vitamins K plays a key role in helping the blood clot, preventing excessive bleeding.
• Vitamins
• Vitamins are chemical compounds that are required in small amounts for growth and good health and are obtained from our food.
• The vitamins are not synthesized in the body that's why they must be supplied through the diet.

Additional Information

• ​Fat-Soluble Vitamins: Vitamins K, E, D, A.
• Water Soluble Vitamins: Vitamins B, C.