SSC CHSL Tier-1 2022: Official Paper (Held On: 10 March, 2023 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The logic followed here is:

‘INCH’ is coded as ‘CXID’,

 

Similarly, for 'HUGE'

'HUGE' is coded as 'ZBPC'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Consider C = Subtraction, D = Addition.

Now,

34 C 59 D 16 = -9

⇒ 34 - 59 + 16

⇒ 50 - 59 = -9.

61 C 32 D 14 = 43

⇒ 61 - 32 + 14

⇒ 75 - 32 = 43.

Similarly, 58 C 7 D 11 = ?

⇒ 58 - 7 + 11

⇒ 69 - 7 = 62.

Hence, the correct answer is "62".

The logic followed here is:

Step I: The shaded triangle is placed as it is in each alternate images.

Step II: The empty triangle is moved three places in clockwise direction in each alternate images. 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) Rodent – Lizard → "Rodent" is a category of mammals, "Lizard" is a category of reptiles.

Option 2) Amphibian – Frog → "Frog" is a type of Amphibian.

Option 3) Insect – Butterfly → A "butterfly" is an insect.

Option 4) Crockery – Cup → A "cup" is a type of crockery.

Here, 'Rodent – Lizard' is odd among the options.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

So, '111096' will complete the series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1^st number + 3^rd number) ÷ 2 = 2^nd number.

Now,

For (32, 39, 46)

→ (32 + 46) ÷ 2

→ 78 ÷ 2 = 39.

For (54, 51, 48)

→ (54 + 48) ÷ 2

→ 102 ÷ 2 = 51.

Similarly, for (48, 30, 12)

→ (48 + 12) ÷ 2

→ 60 ÷ 2 = 30.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Family Chart:

Given: 

W is the brother of X.

V is the father of W.

X is the husband of Z.

Z is the sister of A.

So, V is the father-in-law of Z.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The triangles are:

So, there are '21' triangles in the given figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "21".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The first word is a type of the second word.

Here,

For, Truck : Vehicle

→ A truck is a type of vehicle.

For, Burger : Food

→ A burger is a type of food.

Similarly, Cup : ?

→ A cup is a type of Crockery.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given Statements:

I. No E is F.

II. All F are D.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. No E is D - False (Because, there is no definite relation given between E and D, so it can be possible only).

II. Some D are F - True (Because all F are D, so some D are also F).

III. No F is E - True (Because No E is F).

So, Both conclusions II and III follows 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

NK : JG

14 (N) - 4 = 10 (J)

11 (K) - 4 = 7 (G)

Similarly, for SF : ?

19 (S) - 4 = 15 (O)

6 (F) - 4 = 2 (B)

So, 'SF : OB' would be the related letters.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1^st number - 2^nd number) × 2 = 3^rd number.

Now,

For (17, 12, 10)

→ (17 - 12) × 2

→ 5 × 2 = 10.

For (25, 23, 4)

→ (25 - 23) × 2

→ 2 × 2 = 4.

Similarly, for (31, 27, 8)

→ (31 - 27) × 2

→ 4 × 2 = 8.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

When we unfold the paper step by step we get the following image:

     

Hence the correct answer is option 3)

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The first word measures or indicates the second word.

Here,

Odometer : Distance Travelled by a Vehicle

→ An odometer measures or indicates the distance travelled by a vehicle.

Barometer: Atmospheric Pressure

→ A barometer measures or indicates atmospheric pressure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

 

Option 1) PLH → P - 4 = L; L - 4 = H.

 

Option 2) KGC → K - 4 = G; G - 4 = C.

 

Option 3) ZVR → Z - 4 = V; V - 4 = R.

 

Option 4) TPK → T - 4 = P; P - 4 = L ≠ K.

 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: 1^st number + 2^nd number = 3^rd number.

Now,

For (136, 48, 184)

→ 136 + 48 = 184.

For (189, 37, 226)

→ 189 + 37 = 226.

Similarly, for (116, 62, 178)

→ 116 + 62 = 178.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

For find the opposite face of '1', we need to compare the common surface in the given dices,

Now,

From Dice 1 and Dice 4,

Here, 5 and 3 is the common surfaces in the both Dices, and 1 and 2 are opposite sides of the given dice..

So, '2 is the opposite face of 1'. 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Sum of the place value of 1^st letter - Sum of the place value of 2^nd letter = Number.

Now,

‘BR-EW’ is coded as ‘8’,

[2(B) + 18(R)] - [5(E) + 23(W)]

⇒ 20 - 28 = -8.

‘CA-LF’ is coded as ‘14’

[3(C) + 1(A)] - [12(L) + 6(F)]

⇒ 4 - 18 = -14.

Similarly, for '

So, 'DA-WN' is coded as ‘8’.

[4(D) + 1(A)] - [23(W) + 14(N)]

⇒ 5 - 37 = -32.

Hence, the correct answer is "32".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: 1^st number × 4 = 2^nd number.

Now,

123 : 492

→ 123 × 4 = 492.

32 : 128

→ 32 × 4 = 128.

Similarly, for ? : 312

→ 78 × 4 = 312.

Hence, the correct answer is "78".

The logic followed here is: 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

When we unfold the paper step by step we get the following image:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

According to the given Venn diagram:

The shaded area shows the "total number of glass are both phone and pen".

So, the total number of 'glass are both phone and pen' = 11.

Hence, the correct answer is "11".

BODMAS Table: 

Given Equation I: 6 ÷ 2 × 8 + 3 - 1 = 17

 

If we swap the numbers 3 and 8, we get: 6 ÷ 2 × 3 + 8 - 1 = 17

 

Solving by BODMAS rule (Bracket, Orders, Division and Multiplication, Addition and Subtraction):

→ 6 ÷ 2 × 3 + 8 - 1

→ 3 × 3 + 8 - 1

→ 9 + 8 - 1

→ 17 - 1

→ 16 ≠ 17

 

The equation I is incorrect after the interchange of 3 and 8.

 

Given Equation II: 9 + 3 - 6 ÷ 2 × 8 = 6

 

After replacing 3 and 8, we my hands: 9 + 8 - 6 ÷ 2 × 3 = 6

 

Using the BODMAS rule:

→ 9 + 8 - 6 ÷ 2 × 3

→ 9 + 8 - 3 × 3

→ 9 + 8 - 9

→ 17 - 9

→ 8 ≠ 6

 

Equation II is also incorrect after the interchange of 3 and 8.

 

Therefore, both Equation I and II are incorrect after interchanging the numbers 3 and 8.

Hence the correct answer is "Option 1".

The correct order of words according to the English alphabet is:

3. May
4. Maybe
5. Mayfly
6. Mayor
7. Mayst

The sequence will be '3, 2, 5, 1, 4'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The paper when unfolded will appear as shown below:

Hence, 'Option 1' is the correct answer.

The correct answer is Northern India.

Key Points

• Kathak is a classical Indian dance form that originated in northern India and has a rich history that dates back several centuries.
• It is known for its graceful movements, intricate footwork, expressive gestures, and rhythmic patterns.
• Kathak dancers often perform storytelling through dance, depicting mythological tales, historical events, and emotions.
• Birju Maharaj, Sitara Devi, Uma Sharma etc are the famous personalities associated with this dance form.

Additional Information Eight classical dances of India and States:

The correct answer is Prof. Sharad Pagare.

Key Points

• Professor Sharad Pagare, a distinguished Hindi writer, was awarded the Vyas Samman 2020 for his novel "Patliputra ki Samragi."
• He is recognized for his notable contributions to Hindi literature and has also received the Bharat Bhushan Samman and Madhya Pradesh Sahitya Akademi awards.
• Apart from being an accomplished writer, Prof. Sharad Pagare is a renowned researcher, professor, and scholar with expertise in the study of historical narratives.
• The Vyas Samman, instituted in 1991 by the KK Birla Foundation, is specifically awarded to notable Hindi writers.
• Eligible works for the award must be published within the past 10 years and written in the Hindi language.
• Recipients of the Vyas Samman are honored with a cash prize of INR 4,00,000, along with a plaque and a citation.

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Additional Information

Other Important Awards on India in the field of literature.

• Sahitya Akademi Award:
• The Sahitya Akademi Award is one of the most prestigious literary honours in India, presented by the Sahitya Akademi, India's national academy of Letters.
• It is awarded annually to outstanding works in various Indian languages, including novels, short stories, poetry, essays, plays, and literary criticism.
• The award aims to recognize and promote literary excellence, cultural diversity, and the rich literary heritage of India.
• The recipients of the Sahitya Akademi Award receive a cash prize, a copper plaque, and a shawl.
• Jnanpith Award:
• The Jnanpith Award is considered the highest literary award in India, bestowed upon exceptional writers for their significant contribution to Indian literature.
• Instituted in 1961, the award is presented by the Bharatiya Jnanpith, a literary and research organization.
• It recognizes works written in any of the 22 officially recognized languages of India.
• Saraswati Samman:
• The Saraswati Samman is a prestigious literary award presented annually by the K.K. Birla Foundation.
• Instituted in 1991, the award recognizes outstanding literary works written in any of the 22 officially recognized Indian languages.
• The award aims to honour and promote Indian literature, cultural diversity, and the creative contributions of writers.
• The recipient of the Saraswati Samman receives a cash prize, a citation, and a plaque.

The correct answer is Pollination.

Key Points

• Pollination is the transfer of pollen from the male to the female part of a flower, enabling fertilization and seed production.
• Hence it is not an asexual form of reproduction.
• It is vital for the reproduction and survival of flowering plants, resulting in the formation of fruits and seeds.
• Pollination occurs through agents like wind, water, insects, birds, and animals, depending on the plant's specific mechanisms and pollinator attraction.
• Pollinators, such as bees, butterflies, birds, and mammals, inadvertently transfer pollen while visiting flowers, facilitating the pollination process.

Additional Information

• Vegetative Propagation
• Vegetative propagation is a method of plant reproduction in which new individuals are formed from vegetative parts such as stems, leaves, or roots, without the involvement of seeds.
• It is an asexual mode of reproduction that allows plants to reproduce genetically identical offspring, maintaining the characteristics of the parent plant.
• Vegetative propagation can occur naturally, such as through the growth of plant runners, rhizomes, or bulbs, or it can be artificially induced through techniques like cutting, grafting, or tissue culture.
• This method of reproduction is commonly used in horticulture and agriculture to propagate desirable plant traits, maintain consistency in cultivated varieties, and rapidly multiply plants with desired characteristics.
• Spore formation
• Spore formation is a method of reproduction used by certain organisms, including fungi, bacteria, algae, and some plants, to produce offspring.
• Spores are tiny, specialized structures that contain genetic material and are capable of developing into new individuals under favourable conditions.
• The process of spore formation typically involves the formation and release of spores from the parent organism, which can then disperse through various means such as wind, water, or animal transport.
• Spore formation allows organisms to reproduce and spread in environments where other forms of reproduction, such as sexual reproduction or seed formation, may be challenging or less efficient.
• Budding
• Budding is a form of asexual reproduction where a new organism develops as an outgrowth or bud from the parent organism.
• The process of budding involves the formation of a small bulge or bud on the parent organism, which eventually grows and develops into a genetically identical individual.
• As the bud grows, it receives nourishment and genetic material from the parent organism until it reaches a certain size or maturity and detaches, becoming an independent organism.
• Budding is a common method of reproduction observed in various organisms, including yeast, hydra, some plants, and even certain animals, allowing for efficient and rapid population growth.

The correct answer is 1861.

Key Points

• Ahmedabad's first cotton textile mill, the Ahmedabad Cotton Mill, started production on May 30^th, 1861.
• It was founded by Rao Bahadur Ranchhodlal Chhotalal, an entrepreneur in Ahmedabad.
• It was a spinning factory with 2,500 spindles and employed 63 workers.
• It catered to the local handloom weavers' yarn requirements.

Additional Information

• The first cotton textile mill in India was established at Fort Glastor near Kolkata in 1818.
• Large-scale production of cotton started in Mumbai in 1854.
• India's first successful mechanized textile mill was instituted in the city of Mumbai, then known as Bombay, in the year 1854.
• There were several factors that led to the rapid expansion of the industry in the region, the region had a warm, moist climate that was suitable for the industry.

The correct answer is Intoxicating liquors.

Key Points

• The seventh schedule of the Indian constitution deals with the division of powers between the central government and the state governments through three lists: the Union List, the State List, and the Concurrent List.
• The Union List consists of subjects on which the central government has exclusive legislative authority.
• This means that only the Parliament of India can make laws regarding the items mentioned in the Union List.
• The Union List includes subjects of national importance or those that require uniform laws throughout the country.
• It encompasses areas such as defense, foreign affairs, atomic energy, railways, communication, and more.
• In this way, all the other options lie on the union list except intoxicating liquors.

​

Additional Information

• Union List:
• The Union List consists of around 100 items over which the central government has exclusive legislative authority, including defence, foreign affairs, atomic energy, banking, and telecommunications.
• The central government has the power to make laws, regulate, and govern the subjects mentioned in the Union List uniformly across all states and union territories in India.
• Items in the Union List ensure the central government's authority in critical areas such as national security, inter-state trade and commerce, currency, copyright, air and water pollution, and more.
• Any amendment to the Union List requires the approval of the Parliament through a prescribed legislative process, ensuring that changes to these subjects are made at the national level.
• State List:
• The State List consists of subjects over which state governments have exclusive legislative authority, including public order, police, public health, local government, agriculture, state taxation, and more.
• State governments exercise their legislative and executive powers to make laws, regulate, and govern the subjects mentioned in the State List within their respective states.
• Subjects in the State List allow state governments to address regional and local concerns, implement policies specific to their states, and ensure effective governance at the state level.
• Any amendment to the State List requires the approval of the state legislature concerned and does not require the consent of the Parliament, providing states with autonomy in making changes to these subjects.
• Concurrent List:
• The Concurrent List consists of subjects on which both the central government and state governments have the power to legislate, such as criminal law, marriage and divorce, bankruptcy and insolvency, education, forests, and more.
• Both the central and state governments can make laws, regulate, and govern the subjects mentioned in the Concurrent List simultaneously, subject to certain limitations and guidelines.
• In case of a conflict between central and state laws on Concurrent List subjects, the law made by the central government prevails, provided it receives the President's assent.
• Any amendment to the Concurrent List requires the approval of the Parliament, and state legislatures can also make laws on these subjects unless they conflict with existing central laws.

The correct answer is Blue.

Key Points

• The outer zone of complete combustion in a candle flame is characterized by blue colour.
• This is due to the presence of hot, oxygen-rich air that allows for efficient burning of the candle's fuel.
• The blue colour indicates that the outer zone of the flame is at a high temperature.
• The complete combustion process in this zone ensures that the maximum amount of fuel is oxidized, resulting in the production of heat and light.
• The blue outer zone signifies that the combustion process is producing minimal soot. Soot is a black carbonaceous substance that is a byproduct of incomplete combustion

 Additional Information

• Yellow flame
• The yellow flame is a result of incomplete combustion, where the fuel does not burn completely due to a limited oxygen supply.
• This incomplete combustion produces a yellow colour, indicating the presence of unburned carbon particles or other impurities in the flame.
• Compared to a blue flame, a yellow flame is typically cooler.
• The incomplete combustion process in the yellow flame generates less heat and light because not all of the fuel is being efficiently burned.
• Orange flame
• The orange flame is typically observed in the intermediate zone of a candle flame, which is between the blue outer zone of complete combustion and the yellow inner zone of incomplete combustion.
• The orange colour of the flame indicates partial combustion of the fuel.
• It occurs when there is a limited supply of oxygen, resulting in the production of carbon monoxide and other partially burned fuel particles.
• The orange flame is relatively cooler compared to the blue outer zone.
• The orange flame emits a moderate amount of light, but it is not as bright as the blue flame.

The correct answer is Narmada.

Key Points

• Jabalpur is a city in the central Indian state of Madhya Pradesh.
• It is situated on the northern bank of the Narmada River and is surrounded by the Satpura Range of mountains.
• It has witnessed the rule of various dynasties, including the Gond, Maratha, and British empires.
• Jabalpur is famous for the Marble Rocks, a stunning gorge on the Narmada River that features tall marble cliffs.

Additional Information

• Godavari River:
• The Godavari River is the second longest river in India, stretching over a length of approximately 1,465 kilometres.
• It flows primarily through the states of Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, and Odisha before emptying into the Bay of Bengal.
• The Godavari River has numerous tributaries, including the Pranhita, Indravati, Manjira, and Wardha Rivers.
• The confluence of the Godavari and Pranhita rivers at a place called Pranahita Pushkaralu is considered highly auspicious.
• Narmada River:
• The Narmada River is often referred to as the lifeline of the central Indian state of Madhya Pradesh.
• It originates from the Amarkantak plateau and flows westward through the states of Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat before emptying into the Arabian Sea.
• One of the key attractions along the Narmada River is the Marble Rocks in Bhedaghat, near Jabalpur.
• The Narmada River is harnessed for irrigation and hydropower generation through the Sardar Sarovar Dam, one of the largest dams in India.
• Ganga River:
• The Ganga is the longest river in India, stretching approximately 2,525 kilometres.
• It originates from the Gangotri Glacier in the Himalayas and flows through several northern Indian states, including Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, and West Bengal, before merging with the Bay of Bengal.
• The Ganga is home to the endangered Gangetic River dolphins, also known as the Ganges dolphins.
• These dolphins are known for their unique appearance and are considered the national aquatic animal of India.
• Chambal River:
• It flows through the states of Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan, forming the Chambal Valley, which is renowned for its rugged cliffs, deep ravines, and diverse wildlife.
• The Chambal River is home to the National Chambal Sanctuary, a protected area that spans three states—Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh.
• The sanctuary provides a safe haven for various endangered species, including the critically endangered Gharial crocodile and the elusive Gangetic River dolphin.
• Due to its ecological significance and rich biodiversity, conservation initiatives have been undertaken to protect the Chambal River and its wildlife.

The correct answer is Orion.

Key Points

• Orion is named after a hunter from Greek mythology, known for his exceptional hunting skills and strength.
• According to the myth, Orion was eventually placed among the stars as a constellation after his death.
• It is known for its bright stars, including Betelgeuse and Rigel, which are among the brightest stars in the night sky.
• These stars contribute to the distinct shape and visibility of the constellation.
• One of the notable features of the constellation is the three aligned stars known as the "belt" of Orion. These stars, named Alnitak, Alnilam, and Mintaka, form a distinctive straight line and serve as a reference point for locating other celestial objects.

Additional Information

• Cassiopeia
• Cassiopeia is a prominent constellation in the northern hemisphere.
• It is easily recognizable due to its distinct "W" or "M" shape, depending on its position in the sky.
• It is named after the queen of Aethiopia in Greek mythology. According to the myth, she boasted about her beauty, leading to her punishment of being eternally bound to a chair in the sky.
• It contains several notable stars, including the bright stars Schedar, Caph, and Ruchbah.
• Ursa Major
• Ursa Major is also a well-known constellation in the northern hemisphere.
• It contains the famous asterism known as the Big Dipper, which is one of the most recognizable patterns in the night sky.
• The Big Dipper consists of seven bright stars that form the shape of a ladle or dipper.
• The two outer stars of the Big Dipper's bowl are called Dubhe and Merak. These stars serve as a guide to locate Polaris, the North Star, as they point directly to it.
• Leo Major
• Leo Major is often associated with the majestic lion.
• It represents the lion in various mythological and cultural contexts, symbolizing strength, courage, and leadership.
• It is easily recognizable due to its distinct backward question mark shape, known as the "Sickle," which forms the lion's head.
• Leo Major contains several bright stars, including Regulus, the brightest star in the constellation.
• It is one of the twelve zodiac constellations and represents the astrological sign of Leo.

The correct answer is Mumbai Indians.

Key Points

• Mumbai Indians did not qualify for the playoffs of the 15^th edition of the Indian Premier League.
• Teams that played in the playoffs were Gujarat Titans, Rajasthan Royals, Lucknow Super Giants and Royal Challengers Banglore.
• The 15^th edition of Indian Premier League - TATA IPL 2022 began on March 26, 2022.
• The Gujarat Titans won their maiden title in their first season of the championship by defeating Rajasthan Royals by 7 wickets.

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Additional Information

• IPL, or the Indian Premier League, was started in 2008 by the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI).
• The inaugural season of IPL took place from April to June 2008.
• It was the first professional cricket league in the world to introduce the franchise model.
• The Indian Premier League (IPL) 2022, was the 15^th edition of the professional Twenty20 cricket league.
• IPL 2022 Sponsorer was TATA. IPL 2022 Champion Title won by Gujarat Titans.
• The Orange Cap title winner is Jos Butler (Rajasthan Royals) with Total runs: 863 runs.
• The Purple Cap title winner is Yuzvendra Chahal (Rajasthan Royals) with total 27 Wickets.

The correct answer is Beti Bachao Beti Padao.

Key Points

• “Skilling of girls in non-traditional livelihood (NTL)” has been included in the Beti Bachao Beti Padao scheme.
• Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) is a government initiative launched in India in 2015.
• It aims to address the declining child sex ratio and promote the education and empowerment of girls.
• The key objectives of the initiative are to prevent gender-based sex-selective practices, child sex ratio and promote the education of the girl child, and promote her education and participation in society.
• The initiative employs strategies such as the strict implementation of the Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (PCPNDT) Act, promoting education and scholarship schemes for girls, creating awareness through media campaigns, and engaging with communities to change social norms and attitudes towards the girl child.

Additional Information

• POSHAN Abhiyaan
• POSHAN Abhiyaan, also known as the National Nutrition Mission, is a flagship program launched by the Government of India in 2018.
• The primary objective of POSHAN Abhiyaan is to address the issue of malnutrition in India by targeting maternal and child nutrition.
• It aims to reduce stunting, undernutrition, anaemia, and low birth weight.
• POSHAN Abhiyaan takes an integrated approach by converging various nutrition-related schemes and programs to achieve its goals. It focuses on improving the nutritional status of pregnant women, lactating mothers, and children up to the age of six years.
• Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY)
• It is also known as the Maternity Benefit Programme, which is a government scheme launched in India in 2017.
• The primary objective of PMMVY is to provide financial assistance to pregnant women and lactating mothers for their nutrition and health needs during pregnancy and childbirth. It aims to ensure proper care and nutrition for both the mother and the child.
• Under PMMVY, eligible women receive a cash benefit of ₹5,000 in three installments. The scheme covers the first living child of the pregnant woman and is available for women up to their first delivery.
• Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
• Rashtriya Mahila Kosh (RMK), also known as the National Credit Fund for Women, was established on 30^th April 1993 by the Government of India.
• The primary objective of Rashtriya Mahila Kosh is to provide microcredit and financial support to women from marginalized sections of society, including low-income women, single women, and women in distress. It aims to empower women by promoting entrepreneurship and economic self-reliance.
• RMK offers various financial products and services, including microcredit loans, income-generating loans, and skill development loans. It provides credit facilities to women to start or expand their small businesses, engage in income-generating activities, and enhance their livelihoods.

The correct answer is five.

Key Points

• The Union Ministry of Home Affairs in 2022 banned the Popular Front of India (PFI) and its associates for five years.
• The Union Ministry of Home Affairs declared the Popular Front of India (PFI) and its affiliates as an ‘Unlawful Association’ on September 28, 2022.
• The PFI and its associates or affiliates or fronts have been found to be involved in serious offences, including terrorism and its financing, targeted gruesome killings, disregarding the constitutional set up of the country, disturbing public order etc. which are prejudicial to the integrity, security and sovereignty of India.
• Popular Front of India (PFI) is a socio-political organization founded in India in 2006.
• PFI describes itself as a movement committed to the empowerment of marginalized sections of society and upholding justice, freedom, and communal harmony.

The correct answer is United States of America.

Key Points

• The 19^th edition of the FIBA Women’s Basketball World Cup was held in Sydney, Australia from September 22 to October 1^st, 2022.
• The tournament featured twelve nations competing for the championship title.
• The United States women’s national basketball team won the championship title after defeating Australia in the final match with a score of 74-68.

Additional Information

• The FIBA Basketball World Cup is the oldest international basketball tournament, first held in 1950 in Argentina.
• The tournament takes place every four years, similar to other major international sporting events like the FIFA World Cup.
• It features national teams from around the world, with 32 teams competing in recent editions.
• The United States has been the most successful nation in the tournament's history, winning the championship multiple times.
• The FIBA Basketball World Cup attracts significant attention and viewership worldwide, serving as a platform for cultural exchange and showcasing the talent and competitiveness of basketball on a global stage.

The correct answer is NHA.

Key Points

• The National Health Authority (NHA) is the implementing agency responsible for the "Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM)" in India.
• The NHA oversees the planning, development, and execution of the mission, which aims to digitize and transform healthcare delivery systems in the country.
• Through the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, the NHA aims to establish a robust digital health infrastructure, including the creation of a unique health ID for every citizen, seamless data exchange, and the implementation of digital health records to enhance healthcare accessibility and quality across India.
• The NHA plays a crucial role in driving the successful implementation of this transformative initiative.

Additional Information

• AIIMS
• All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) is a prestigious medical institute located in New Delhi, India.
• AIIMS was established in 1956.
• It was established by an Act of Parliament and is an autonomous institution funded by the Indian government.
• It offers undergraduate (MBBS), postgraduate, and doctoral programs in various medical disciplines.
• IMA
• IMA is a national voluntary organization representing doctors in India.
• It was founded in 1928 and has a long-standing history in advocating for the interests and welfare of the medical community.
• It strives to uphold high standards of medical ethics, promote professional competence, and work towards the overall advancement of healthcare.
• IMA actively advocates for the rights and welfare of doctors, engages in healthcare policy discussions, and seeks to bring about reforms in the healthcare system.
• NITI Ayog
• NITI Aayog, short for National Institution for Transforming India, is a policy think tank and a government institution in India.
• It was established on January 1, 2015, replacing the previous Planning Commission.
• It operates under the guidance and leadership of the Prime Minister of India.
• NITI Aayog has launched several important initiatives such as Atal Innovation Mission, Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) India Index, and National Health Stack, to name a few. These initiatives aim to promote innovation, sustainable development, and improve governance across various sectors.

The correct answer is Uniform Resource Locator.

Key Points

• The full form of the URL is Uniform Resource Locator.
• URL serves as a web address that identifies the location of a specific resource on the internet, such as a web page, image, or document.
• A URL consists of different components, including the protocol (such as "http://" or "https://"), the domain name, and the path to the specific resource.
• By using a URL, users can access and retrieve web content by entering the URL in a web browser, enabling seamless navigation and retrieval of information on the internet.

Additional Information

• Some other Important full forms are as follows:
• RAM: Random Access Memory
• ROM: Read-Only Memory
• CPU: Central Processing Unit
• GPU: Graphics Processing Unit
• BIOS: Basic Input/Output System
• LAN: Local Area Network
• WAN: Wide Area Network
• USB: Universal Serial Bus
• HDMI: High-Definition Multimedia Interface
• SSD: Solid State Drive

The correct answer is Ctrl + Left arrow key.

Key Points

• Ctrl + Left arrow key is the shortcut key that can be used to move the cursor one word to the left in MS Word 365.
• This shortcut key enables the cursor to jump from one word to another towards the left side of the current cursor position, facilitating easy editing and formatting.
• The Ctrl + Left Arrow shortcut key is a commonly used feature in various word processing applications, including MS Word 365, making it a valuable skill for improving productivity across different software platforms.
• In the same way, by using Ctrl + Right Arrow, you can swiftly move the cursor to the beginning of the next word on the right side of the current cursor position in your MS Word 365 document.

Additional Information

• Shift + Left arrow key
• By holding down the Shift key and pressing the Left Arrow key, you can extend the selection of text to the left of the current cursor position in your MS Word 365 document.
• This shortcut key allows for precise and efficient selection of text by word or character, depending on the number of times the "Left Arrow" key is pressed while holding down "Shift."
• Instead of manually clicking and dragging to select text, Shift + Left Arrow provides a faster way to highlight text, saving time and effort, especially when working with large amounts of text.
• Shift + PageUp
• By holding down the Shift key and pressing the PageUp key, you can extend the selection of text upward by one page from the current cursor position in your MS Word 365 document.
• This shortcut key allows for the efficient selection of larger portions of text spanning multiple pages, making it easier to edit, format, or copy and paste content.
• Shift + PageUp helps in navigating and selecting text rapidly, especially when you need to work with significant portions of text that are spread across multiple pages.
• Ctrl + PageUp
• By pressing Ctrl + PageUp, you can quickly switch to the previous tab or document page in your MS Word 365 application.
• This shortcut key is especially useful when working with multiple tabs or documents simultaneously, allowing you to easily navigate between them without the need for manual clicking or scrolling.
• It enhances productivity by providing a quick way to switch between different sections or content within your MS Word 365 application, improving your overall workflow and task management.

The correct answer is Madurai.

Key Points

• Pandyas:-
• The Pandya dynasty was a dynasty of ancient India.
• It ruled India from 560 to 1300 AD.
• His kingdom was spread over the districts of Mriduraramnad (Madurai in present) and Trinevali.
• Their capital was Madura, which in the Tamil language refers to Mathura.
• It is also said on the basis of legend that the Pandya rulers were the children of Kuruvanshi and the Pandavas of Mahabharata.
• The first mention of the Pandyas was made by Megasthenes in his work Indika.
• According to him, women ruled in the Pandya country.
• Madurai:-
• Madura, the later capital of Pandyas was the central seat of Tamil Sangam literature.
• Today, Madurai is one of the oldest continuously inhabited cities.
• Madurai was located on the banks of River Vaigai in Tamil Nadu.

Additional Information

• Puhar:-
• It is a town in the Nagapattinam district of Tamil Nadu.
• It was once a flourishing ancient port city known as Kaveri poompattinam.
• It is mentioned in the Periplus of the Erythraean Sea.
• Tamil and Buddhist literature also have references to Poompuhar, or Puhar, as being the port capital of the Chola dynasty.
• The ancient Tamil poem Manimekalai by the poet Seethalai Saathanar is set in the town of Kaveripattanam.
• Aihole:-
• Aihole in Karnataka was the first capital of Chalukyas where they built numerous temples dating back to the 6^th century CE.
• Many inscriptions found at Aihole, but the inscription found at Meguti Temple popularly known as Aihole inscription.
• The Aihole inscription was written by the Ravikirti, court poet of Chalukya King, Pulakeshi II who reigned from 610 to 642 CE.
• Kaveripattinam:​​-
• ​It is another name for the port city Puhar mentioned above.

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

• Mohiniyattam:-
• Mohiniyattam is one of the two classical dance forms that originated in Kerala, the other one being Kathakali.
• Mohiniyattam gets its name from the word ‘Mohini’, the feminine form of Lord Vishnu, the word means ‘dance of Mohini’.
• Dr. Sunanda Nair became the first in India to acquire a Master’s degree in Mohiniyattam.
• She completed her PhD thesis in Intrinsic Lyrical Feminism in Mohiniyattam from Mumbai University.
• Mohiniyattam is based on Natya Shastra’s lasya style.
• It has delicate movements and more feminine facial expressions.
• The movements are gentle and glide-like. They do not have terse rhythmic steps.
• More emphasis is on facial expressions and hand gestures.

Additional Information

• Other Dances of India are:-

The correct answer is The Pacific Ocean is perfectly oval in shape.

Key Points

• Ocean:-
• The ocean is the body of salt water that covers approximately 70.8% of the surface of Earth.
• It contains 97% of Earth's water.
• Pacific Ocean:-​
• It is the largest and deepest ocean in the world. (Hence statement III is correct)
• Most of the islands of this ocean are volcanic or of coral origin.
• Mariana Trench is the deepest trench of the world, lies in there. (Hence statement IV is correct)
• The depth of this trench is 11033 m.
• It is surrounded by Asia, Australia, North and South America**. (Hence statement I is correct)**
• It starts from the Arctic ocean in the North to the Southern Ocean in the South.
• It is spread over one-third of the earth.
• The Pacific Ocean is almost circular in shape. (Hence statement II is incorrect)
• The Arctic ocean is connected with the Pacific Ocean by a narrow stretch of shallow water known as Berring strait.

Additional Information

• Atlantic Ocean:
• The Atlantic Ocean is the second-largest ocean in the world.
• It is S-shaped.
• It is flanked by the North and South Americas on the western side, and Europe and Africa on the eastern side.
• The coastline of the Atlantic Ocean is highly indented.
• This irregular and indented coastline provide an ideal location for natural harbours and ports.
• From the point of view of commerce, it is the busiest Ocean.
• Indian Ocean:
• The Indian Ocean is the only ocean named after a country, that is, India.
• The shape of the ocean is almost triangular.
• In the north, it is bound by Asia, in the west by Africa and in the east by Australia.
• The Southern Ocean encircles the continent of Antarctica and extends northward to 60 degrees south latitude.
• Arctic Ocean:
• ​The Arctic Ocean is located within the Arctic Circle and surrounds the North Pole.
• It is connected with the Pacific Ocean by a narrow stretch of shallow water known as Berring strait.
• It is bound by the northern coasts of North America and Eurasia

The correct answer is Asiatic buffalo.

Key Points

• International Union for Conservation of Nature:
• IUCN is a membership Union uniquely composed of both government and civil society organizations.
• Created in 1948, it is the global authority on the status of the natural world and the measures needed to safeguard it.
• Julian Huxley is the founder of the International Union for Conservation of Nature.
• It is headquartered in Switzerland.
• The IUCN Red List of Threatened Species is the world's most comprehensive inventory of the global conservation status of plant and animal species.
• It uses a set of quantitative criteria to evaluate the extinction risk of species. These criteria are relevant to most species and all regions of the world.
• The IUCN Red List Categories define the extinction risk of species assessed. 
• Nine categories extend from NE (Not Evaluated) to EX (Extinct). Critically Endangered (CR), Endangered (EN), and Vulnerable (VU) species are considered to be threatened with extinction.
• It is recognized as the most authoritative guide to the status of biological diversity.
• The first international red data books were published in 1966.
• ​International Union for Conservation of Nature is founded on 5^th October 1948.
• Asiatic buffalo​
• The Asian buffalo, also known as the wild Asian buffalo and the Asiatic buffalo.
• It is a giant bovine that is indigenous to Southeast Asia and the Indian subcontinent.
• Asia's tropical and subtropical jungles are home to water buffalo.
• Since they spend most of their time in the water, their comment is perfect.

Additional Information

• Lion-tailed macaque  

• The Lion-tailed macaque (Macaca silenus) is recognized as endangered species in India.

• It is endemic to the Western Ghats of South India.

• The hair of the lion-tailed macaque is black.

• Blue sheep

• ​Blue sheep is also called Bhara.

• Despite their name, blue sheep are neither blue nor sheep.

• It's scientific name is Pseudois nayaur.

• Gangetic Dolphin:

• The Gangetic river dolphins can only live in freshwater, are blind and catch their prey in a unique manner, using ultrasonic sound waves.

• They are distributed across seven states in India: Assam, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal.

• Categorized as ‘Endangered’ on the International Union for the Conservation of Nature’s (IUCN) Red List.

The correct answer is the 10^th schedule.

Key Points​

• 10^th schedule:-​
• It includes provisions relating to the disqualification of the members of Parliament and State Legislatures on the ground of defection.
• This schedule was added by the 52^nd Amendment Act of 1985, also known as the Anti-defection Law.
• The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution is designed to prevent the evil or mischief of political defections motivated by the lure of office or material benefits or other similar considerations.
• It is intended to strengthen the fabric of Indian parliamentary democracy by curbing unprincipled and unethical political defections.
• Grounds for disqualification:-
• If an elected member gives up his membership in a political party voluntarily.
• If he votes or abstains from voting in the House, contrary to any direction issued by his political party.
• If any member who is independently elected joins any party.
• If any nominated member joins any political party after the end of 6 months.
• The decision on disqualification questions on the ground of defection is referred to the Speaker or the Chairman of the House, and his/her decision is final.
• All proceedings in relation to disqualification under this Schedule are considered to be proceedings in Parliament or the Legislature of a state as is the case.
• ​Exceptions Under the Anti-Defection Law:-
• In a situation where two-thirds of the legislators of a political party decide to merge into another party, neither the members who decide to join nor the ones who stay with the original party will face disqualification.
• Any person elected as chairman or speaker can resign from his party, and rejoin the party if he demits that post.
• Earlier, the law allowed parties to be split, but at present, this has been outlawed.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Shehbaz Sharif.

Key Points

• Shehbaz Sharif:-​
• Pakistan Opposition leader Shehbaz Sharif was elected unopposed as the new Prime Minister.
• He has become the 23^rd Prime Minister of the Country.
• He replaced Imran Khan, who could not even complete his term of five years.
• Shehbaz is the younger brother of Nawaz Sharif, who has been Pakistan's prime minister for three terms.
• He had also served as the Chief Minister of Punjab three times, making him the longest-serving Chief Minister of a province.
• He became the chief minister for the first time in 1997.​

Additional Information

• Nawaz Sharif:
• He is the former PM of Pakistan.
• He is also the longest-serving PM of Pakistan.
• Imran Khan:
• He is the former PM of Pakistan and chairman of the Pakistan Tehreek-e-Insaf.
• He was the former captain of the Pakistan National Cricket Team.
• Abbas Sharif:-
• He was a Pakistani politician and Tablighi Jamaat missionary who was a Member of the National Assembly of Pakistan from 1993 to 1997.
• He was the younger brother of Nawaz Sharif and Shehbaz Sharif.

The correct answer is  0 < MPC < 1.

Key Points

• Marginal propensity to consume:-
• It refers to the ratio of change in consumption expenditure to change in total income.
• MPC = Change in consumption (ΔC) / Change in Income (ΔY)
• The marginal propensity to consume lies between 0 to 1 as we know incremental income is either spent on consumption or saved for future use.
• If the entire income is consumed, i.e. ΔS = 0, then MPC = 1 and if entire additional income is saved, i.e. ΔC = 0, then MPC = 0.(Hence statement II is correct)

The correct answer is Wind.

Key Points

• Exogenic force:-​
• ​Exogenic forces, often known as external forces, are those that originate in the earth's atmosphere or get their energy from the outside of the planet.
• While pressure that arises from within the earth is referred to as endogenic forces, also known as internal forces.
• Denudation, which means to strip off or uncover, is a broad term used to describe all exogenic processes.
• Geomorphic agents are the parts of nature that can carry out these exogenic processes (or exogenic geomorphic agents). the waves, water, wind, etc. (Hence option 3 is correct)
• Wind:-
• The movement of air from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas is called wind.
• There are three kinds of winds including permanent, seasonal, and local winds.

Additional Information

• Landslide:-
• A landslide is the movement of rock, earth, or debris down a sloped section of land.
• Landslides are caused by rain, earthquakes, volcanoes, or other factors that make the slope unstable.
• Earthquake​:-​
• A sudden shaking of the ground causes greater destruction to human life and is termed an earthquake.
• Volcano:-  
• A Volcano is basically an opening in the Earth’s crust through which heated, materials usually in the form of magma are ejected out to the surface of Earth.

The correct answer is 137.

Key Points

• About Khelo India Programme:
• Khelo India was formed by merging three schemes: Rajiv Gandhi Khel Abhiyan, Urban Sports Infrastructure Scheme, and National Sports Talent Search Scheme.
• It works to promote "Sports for All" and "Sports for Excellence".
• Its aim is the mass participation of youth in annual sports competitions through a structured competition.
• Khelo India Youth Games 2021:-
• The 4^th edition of the Khelo India Youth Games were held in Haryana.
• The Games were be held in Panchkula.
• Gatka, Kalaripayattu, Thang-Ta, and Mallakhamba, four indigenous games were added in December 2020.
• This was announced by Sports Minister Kiren Rijiju and Haryana Chief Minister Manohar Lal Khattar.
• Usually, the Khelo India Youth Games take place in January every year.
• Haryana came second in both Khelo India Youth Games 2019 and 2020 editions (200 medals in 2020 and 159 medals in 2019).
• The Haryana government decided to organize the Khelo India Youth Games in February 2022, in view of the possible third wave of the Covid-19 pandemic.

Additional Information

• Fifth Edition of Khelo India Youth Games:-
• Khelo India Youth Games 2022 was organized in 8 cities of Madhya Pradesh from 31 January to 11 February 2023.
• These were organized in Madhya Pradesh's Bhopal, Balaghat, Mandla, Maheshwar, Jabalpur, Ujjain, Gwalior and Indore.
• There were a total of 28 sports in this game.
• This time, break dance and Malkhamb was also been included in the games.
• The Khelo India Youth Games were started on 31 January 2018 at the Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium in New Delhi.

The correct answer is inversely related to the price of the good.

Key Points

• The law of demand:-
• It is one of the most fundamental concepts in economics.
• It works with the law of supply to explain how market economies allocate resources and determine the prices of goods and services that we observe in everyday transactions.
• The law of demand states that the quantity purchased varies inversely with the price. (Hence option I is correct)
• In other words, the higher the price, the lower the quantity demanded. This occurs because of diminishing marginal utility. That is, consumers use the first units of an economic good they purchase to serve their most urgent needs first, and use each additional unit of the good to serve successively lower-valued ends.
• It is a fundamental principle of economics that states that at a higher price, consumers will demand a lower quantity of a good.

Shortcut Trick

Given 4 cot A = 5 ⇒ cot A = 5/4 = Base / Perpendicular.

Using Pythagoras Theorem, Hypotenuse = √(5² + 4²) = √41.

The expression is 6 × sec A × tan A = 6 × (Hypotenuse / Base) × (Perpendicular / Base).

Substituting values: 6 × (√41 / 5) × (4 / 5) = (24 × √41) / 25.

∴ The correct answer is 24√41 / 25.

Alternate Method

Given:

4 cot A = 5

Formula Used:

cot A = Base (B) / Perpendicular (P)

sec A = Hypotenuse (H) / Base (B)

tan A = Perpendicular (P) / Base (B)

H² = P² + B²

Calculations:

⇒ cot A = 5/4

⇒ Let Base (B) = 5 and Perpendicular (P) = 4

⇒ Hypotenuse (H) = √(5² + 4²)

⇒ H = √(25 + 16) = √41

⇒ sec A = H / B = √41 / 5

⇒ tan A = P / B = 4 / 5

⇒ Value = 6 × sec A × tan A

⇒ Value = 6 × (√41 / 5) × (4 / 5)

⇒ Value = (6 × 4 × √41) / (5 × 5)

⇒ Value = 24√41 / 25

∴ The correct answer is 24√41 / 25.

Additional Information

Reciprocal Relations

tan A = 1/cot A and sec A = 1/cos A. These are fundamental reciprocal identities in Trigonometry.

Pythagorean Identity

The relation between secant and tangent is given by: sec² A − tan² A = 1.

Trigonometric Ratios in a Right Triangle

For a right-angled triangle, sin A = P/H, cos A = B/H, tan A = P/B, and their reciprocals cosec A = H/P, sec A = H/B, cot A = B/P.

Calculation:

Average = (Expenditure in 2020 + Expenditure in 2021 + Expenditure in 2022) / Number of years

Average = (86000 + 96000 + 100000) / 3

Calculate the total:

Total = Rs. 282,000

Therefore, the average expenditure on interest on loans is:

Average = 282000/3 = Rs. 94,000

Hence, the average amount of expenses on interest on loans from 2020 to 2022 is Rs. 94,000.

Shortcut Trick

Use the property: 2(ab + bc + ca) = (a + b + c)² − (a² + b² + c²)

Substitute the given values: 2(ab + bc + ca) = 0² − 40 = −40

The required expression is 4ab + 4bc + 4ca = 2 × [2(ab + bc + ca)]

⇒ 2 × (−40) = −80

∴ The correct answer is −80.

Alternate Method

Given:

a + b + c = 0

a² + b² + c² = 40

Formula Used:

The standard algebraic identity for the square of a trinomial is:

(a + b + c)² = a² + b² + c² + 2(ab + bc + ca)

Calculations:

⇒ (0)² = 40 + 2(ab + bc + ca)

⇒ 0 = 40 + 2(ab + bc + ca)

⇒ 2(ab + bc + ca) = −40

⇒ ab + bc + ca = −40 ÷ 2

⇒ ab + bc + ca = −20

Now, we need to find the value of 4ab + 4bc + 4ca:

⇒ 4ab + 4bc + 4ca = 4(ab + bc + ca)

⇒ 4 × (−20) = −80

∴ The correct answer is −80.

Additional Information

Square of a Trinomial

The identity (a + b + c)² = a² + b² + c² + 2(ab + bc + ca) relates the sum, the sum of squares, and the sum of products taken two at a time.

Cubic Identity

If a + b + c = 0, then the identity a³ + b³ + c³ − 3abc = (a + b + c)(a² + b² + c² − ab − bc − ca) simplifies to a³ + b³ + c³ = 3abc.

Sum of Products

The term (ab + bc + ca) is often called the cyclic sum of products and is a symmetric polynomial in variables a, b, and c.

Shortcut Trick

Simplify the expression using algebraic identities before substituting values.

The expression (x³ − y³) / (x² − y²) reduces to (x² + xy + y²) / (x + y).

Subtracting 3xy / (x + y) gives (x² − 2xy + y²) / (x + y) = (x − y)² / (x + y).

Substitute x = 7 and y = 2: (7 − 2)² / (7 + 2) = 5² / 9 = 25/9.

∴ The correct answer is 25/9.

Alternate Method

Given: x = 7 and y = 2

Formula used: x³ − y³ = (x − y)(x² + xy + y²) and x² − y² = (x − y)(x + y)

⇒ Expression = [(x − y)(x² + xy + y²) / (x − y)(x + y)] − [3xy / (x + y)]

⇒ Expression = [(x² + xy + y²) / (x + y)] − [3xy / (x + y)]

⇒ Expression = (x² + xy + y² − 3xy) / (x + y)

⇒ Expression = (x² − 2xy + y²) / (x + y)

⇒ Expression = (x − y)² / (x + y)

⇒ Substituting values = (7 − 2)² / (7 + 2)

⇒ Value = 5² / 9 = 25/9

∴ The correct answer is 25/9.

Additional Information

Algebraic Identities

Standard identities like (a − b)² = a² − 2ab + b² and a² − b² = (a − b)(a + b) are essential for simplifying complex algebraic fractions.

Sum and Difference of Cubes

The identity for difference of cubes is a³ − b³ = (a − b)(a² + ab + b²), and for sum of cubes is a³ + b³ = (a + b)(a² − ab + b²).

Common Denominator Rule

When adding or subtracting algebraic fractions, always seek a common denominator (in this case, x + y) to combine the numerators directly.

Given:

In triangle ΔPQR:

PQ = 10 cm

QR = 12 cm

Semiperimeter = 17 cm

Formula used:

In a triangle, the semiperimeter (s) is half the sum of the lengths of its sides: s = (a + b + c)/2.

Solution:

The semiperimeter (s) of the triangle is given as 17 cm.

Using the formula for the semiperimeter, we can express the sum of the lengths of the sides as:

10 + QR + PR = 2 × 17

10 + 12 + PR = 34

22 + PR = 34

Now, let's solve for PR:

PR = 34 - 22

PR = 12 cm

Therefore, the length of PR is 12 cm.

Given:

tan A + sec A = k

Formula used:

tan A + sec A = a, then tan A - sec A = 1/a

Sec A = H/B

sin A = P/H

Calculation:

sec A + tan A = k, then sec A - tan A = 1/k

Using this sec A = 1/2(k + 1/k) = (k² +1)/2k

Sec A = H/B

H = (k2 +1)

B = 2k

Using Pythagorean theorem

H² = P² + B²

(k2 +1)² = P2 + (2k)2

P = k2 -1

sin A = P/H

sin A = k2 -1/k2 +1

∴ Option 3 is the correct answer.

Given:

D = 36 km

Time taken upstream = 9 hours

Time taken downstream = 3 hours

Formula used:

Speed = Distance/Time

Solution:

Let's denote the boat's speed in still water as B (km/h), and the speed of the current as C (km/h).

When the boat is rowing upstream:

Relative speed = B - C

Distance = 36 km

Time = 9 hours

Using the formula, we have:

B - C = Distance / Time

B - C = 36/9

B - C = 4 Equation 1

When the boat is rowing downstream:

Relative speed = B + C

Distance = 36 km

Time = 3 hours

Using the formula, we have:

B + C = Distance / Time

B + C = 36/3

B + C = 12 Equation 2

Now, let's solve the equations to find the values of B and C.

Adding Equation 1 and Equation 2, we get:

B - C + B + C = 4 + 12

2B = 16

B = 8

Therefore, the boat's speed in still water is 8 km/h.

Given:

Series -9, -6, -3, .....

Number of terms = 45

Concept Used:

Sum of series = n/2[2a + (n - 1)d]

where, n = number of terms

a = first term

d = common difference

Calculation:

Series -9, -6, -3, .....

Sum = 45

a = -9

d = -6 - (-9) = 3

Sum of series = n/2[2a + (n - 1)d]

45 = n/2 [2 × (-9) + (n - 1)(3)]

45 = n/2 [-18 + 3n - 3]

15 = n/2 [-6 + n - 1]

30 = -7n + n² 

n2 - 7n - 30 = 0

n2 - 10n + 3n - 30 = 0

n(n - 10) + 3(n - 10) = 0

(n - 10)(n + 3) = 0

n = 10 or -3

Number of terms cannot be negative.

So n = 10

∴ Option 3 is the correct answer.

Given:

(a - b)(b + a)(a2 + b2)(2b4 + 2a4)

Formula used:

(a - b)(b + a) = (a2 - b2)

Calculation:

(a - b)(b + a)(a2 + b2)(2b4 + 2a4)

​(a2 - b2)(a2 + b2)(2b4 + 2a4)

(b4 - a4)(2b4 + 2a4)

2(a8 - b8​)

∴ Option 4 is the correct answer.

Given:

Raj's work completion time = 20 days

Pratap's work completion time = 1/2 × Raj's time = 10 days

Part of the work to be completed together = 3/5

Formula used:

Time = Work / Combined work rate

Calculation:

LCM of 10, 20 is 20.

Raj's work rate = 20/20 = 1

Pratap's work rate =20/10 = 2

To calculate the number of days required to complete 3/5 of the total work

(20 × 3/5)/3

12/3

4

Therefore, both Raj and Pratap together will complete 3/5 of the total work in 4 days.

Calculation:

Let's assume the cost price of the item is 100.

The merchant wants to earn a profit of 20 percent. So, the selling price should be 120 percent of the cost price.

Selling price = Cost price + Profit

Selling price = 100 + 20% of 100

Selling price = 100 + 20

Selling price = 120

Now, the merchant offers a discount of 20 percent on the marked price. The selling price after the discount will be 80 percent of the marked price.

Selling price after discount = 80 percent of marked price

120 = 80 percent of marked price

To find the marked price, we can divide both sides of the equation by 80 percent.

120/0.8 = marked price

marked price = 150

CP = 100 and MP = 150

(150 - 100)/100 × 100 = 50%

Therefore, the marked price will be 50 percent more than the cost price.

Shortcut Trick

Identify that (50° + A) and (40° − A) are complementary angles because (50° + A) + (40° − A) = 90°.

By the complementary identity, cos(50° + A) = sin(90° − (50° + A)) = sin(40° − A).

The numerator simplifies to sin(40° − A) − sin(40° − A) = 0.

The denominator simplifies to cos 40° × sec 40° = 1.

∴ The correct answer is 0.

Alternate Method

Given: The expression is (cos(50° + A) − sin(40° − A)) / (cos 40° sec 40°).

Formula Used: cos θ = sin(90° − θ) and sec θ = 1 / cos θ.

⇒ Numerator = cos(50° + A) − sin(40° − A) ⇒ Numerator = sin(90° − (50° + A)) − sin(40° − A) ⇒ Numerator = sin(40° − A) − sin(40° − A) = 0 ⇒ Denominator = cos 40° × sec 40° ⇒ Denominator = cos 40° × (1 / cos 40°) = 1 ⇒ Value = 0 / 1 = 0

∴ The correct answer is 0.

Additional Information

Complementary Angle Identities

Trigonometric ratios of complementary angles (sum = 90°) satisfy sin θ = cos(90° − θ), tan θ = cot(90° − θ), and sec θ = cosec(90° − θ).

Reciprocal Relations

The product of reciprocal trigonometric ratios is always 1: sin θ × cosec θ = 1, cos θ × sec θ = 1, and tan θ × cot θ = 1.

Pythagorean Identities

Basic identities used for simplification include sin²θ + cos²θ = 1 and 1 + tan²θ = sec²θ.

Calculation:

The average selling price of M and N = (400 + 650)/2 = 525

The average cost price of P and Q = (600 + 900)/2 = 750

The ratio is:

525 : 750

7 : 10

∴ Option 3 is the correct answer.

Given:

The radius of a sphere decrease by 10%.

Concept used:

The volume of the sphere = $\frac{4}{3}\pi {r^3}$

Explanation:

Volume = $\frac{4}{3}\pi {r^3}$

If the radius decreases by 10%

r × 90% = 9r/10

New volume = $\frac{4}{3}\pi× {(9r/10)^3}$

(∵ $\frac{4}{3}\pi$ is constant in both volumes so we calculated only the difference of radius basis)

Initial volume = r3

New volume = 729r3/1000

⇒ difference = r3 - 729r3/1000 = 271r3/1000

⇒ % changes = $\frac{{271r3/1000}}{{{r^3}}} × 100$

⇒ 27.1%

∴ The percent decrease in volume is 27.1%.

Shortcut Trick

Initial Profit = 40%, so SP = 140% of CP_old.

Let CP_old = 100 units ⇒ SP = 140 units.

New CP_new = 100 + 30% = 130 units.

New Profit = SP − CP_new = 140 − 130 = 10 units.

New Profit% = (10 ÷ 130) × 100 = 100 ÷ 13 = 7.69%.

∴ The correct answer is 7.69 percent.

Alternate Method

Given: SP = Rs. 14, Profit = 40%, CP Increase = 30%. Formulas: CP = SP × 100 ÷ (100 + P%) | New Profit% = (SP − New CP) ÷ New CP × 100.

⇒ Initial CP = 14 × 100 ÷ 140 = Rs. 10 per dozen. ⇒ New CP = 10 + (30% of 10) = 10 + 3 = Rs. 13 per dozen. ⇒ New Profit = 14 − 13 = Rs. 1. ⇒ New Profit% = (1 ÷ 13) × 100 = 7.6923...%

∴ The correct answer is 7.69 percent.

Additional Information

Effect of CP Change

When Selling Price is constant, any increase in Cost Price directly reduces the Profit Margin. Profit% = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100.

Fractional Conversion

The fraction 1/13 is approximately equal to 7.69%, which is a common value in competitive exams.

Given:

Time(T) = 2 years

Simple interest(SI) = Rs. 1600

Compound interest(CI) = Rs. 1760

Formula used:

SI = $\dfrac{P \times R \times T}{100}$

P = Principal

Difference between SI and CI  for 2 years = Interest on SI of first year

Calculation:

SI for 1 year = 1600/2 = Rs. 800

Difference between SI and CI = 1760 - 1600 = Rs. 160

Rate of interest(R) = (160/800) × 100 = 20%

According to the question:

800 = $\dfrac{P \times 20 \times 1}{100}$

⇒ P = 4000

∴ Principal = Rs. 4000

∴ Option 3 is the correct answer.

Alternate Method Formula used:

CI/SI = 1 +r/200 ( This is formula used for only two year)

1760/1600 = 1 +r/200

r = 20%

SI for 1 year = 1600/2 = Rs. 800

800 = $\dfrac{P \times 20 \times 1}{100}$

⇒ P = 4000

Given:

1 + 5 + 6 + 10 + 11 + 15 + 16 + 20 + ......

N = 200 terms

Concept Used:

Sum of series in AP = N/2[2a + (N - 1)d]

Calculation:

1 + 5 + 6 + 10 + 11 + 15 + 16 + 20 + ......

It is the combination off two series with 100 terms each. So divide the series into two parts

(5 + 10 + 15 + 20 + ................. 100 terms) + (1 + 6 + 11 +16 + ................. 100 terms)

S₁ = (5 + 10 + 15 + 20 + ................. 100 terms)

S₂ = (1 + 6 + 11 +16 + ................. 100 terms)

Sum of the series = Sum of S₁ + Sum of S₂

Sum of the series = 100/2[2 × 5 + (100 - 1)5] + 100/2[2 × 1 + (100 - 1)5]

Sum of the series = 50[10 + 99 × 5] + 50[2 + 99 × 5]  

Sum of the series = 50[10 + 495] + 50[2 + 495]  

Sum of the series = 50[505] + 50[497]  

Sum of the series = 25250 + 24850 

Sum of the series = 50100 

∴ Option 3 is the correct answer.

Shortcut Trick

Since PQ || YZ, by the Basic Proportionality Theorem, ΔXPQ is similar to ΔXYZ.

The ratio of corresponding sides is equal: XP / XY = PQ / YZ

XP / XY = 3 / 8

Given XY = 88 cm (which corresponds to 8 units).

8 units = 88 cm ⇒ 1 unit = 11 cm.

XP = 3 units = 3 × 11 = 33 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 33 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

In ΔXYZ, PQ || YZ, XY = 88 cm, and PQ ÷ YZ = 3 ÷ 8.

Formula Used:

In two similar triangles, the ratio of corresponding sides is constant.

Calculations:

Since PQ || YZ, corresponding angles are equal:

∠XPQ = ∠XYZ and ∠XQP = ∠XZY

∴ ΔXPQ ∼ ΔXYZ (By AA similarity criterion)

⇒ XP / XY = PQ / YZ

⇒ XP / 88 = 3 / 8

⇒ XP = 88 × (3 / 8)

⇒ XP = 11 × 3

⇒ XP = 33 cm

∴ The correct answer is 33 cm.

Additional Information

Basic Proportionality Theorem (Thales's Theorem)

If a line is drawn parallel to one side of a triangle to intersect the other two sides in distinct points, the other two sides are divided in the same ratio: XP/PY = XQ/QZ.

Area Ratio of Similar Triangles

The ratio of the areas of two similar triangles is equal to the square of the ratio of their corresponding sides: Area(ΔXPQ)/Area(ΔXYZ) = (PQ/YZ)².

AA Similarity Criterion

If two angles of one triangle are respectively equal to two angles of another triangle, then the two triangles are similar.

Calculation:

T1 = The average expenditure of company A and B in year Y1.

(800 + 2000)/2 = 1400

T2 = The average expenditure of company A and B in year Y5.

(1600 + 400)/2 = 1000

(T1 - T2)

1400 - 1000

400

∴ Option 4 is the correct answer.

Shortcut Trick

For two identical circles of radius r passing through each other's centers, the length of the common chord is given by: L = r√3.

Given common chord L = 14√3 cm ⇒ r√3 = 14√3 ⇒ r = 14 cm.

Sum of circumferences = 2 × (2πr) = 4 × (22/7) × 14 = 176 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 176 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length of common chord = 14√3 cm

Radii of both circles are equal (r₁ = r₂ = r).

Each circle passes through the center of the other circle.

Calculations:

Let O₁ and O₂ be the centers of the two circles. Since each passes through the other center, O₁O₂ = radius (r).

Let AB be the common chord intersecting O₁O₂ at M. M is the midpoint of O₁O₂ and AB ⊥ O₁O₂.

⇒ O₁M = r/2

In right-angled triangle ΔO₁MA, by Pythagoras Theorem:

⇒ O₁A² = O₁M² + AM²

⇒ r² = (r/2)² + AM²

⇒ AM² = r² − r²/4 = 3r²/4

⇒ AM = (r√3)/2

Total length of common chord AB = 2 × AM = r√3

⇒ 14√3 = r√3

⇒ r = 14 cm

Circumference of one circle = 2πr = 2 × (22/7) × 14 = 88 cm

⇒ Sum of circumferences of two circles = 88 + 88 = 176 cm

∴ The correct answer is 176 cm.

Additional Information

Common Chord of Intersecting Circles

When two circles with radii R and r intersect with centers distance d apart, the common chord length is 2√(R² − x²) where x is the distance from a center to the chord.

Special Case: Centers on Circumference

If two equal circles pass through each other's centers, the distance between centers equals the radius (d = r), forming two back-to-back equilateral triangles.

Circle Circumference Formula

The boundary length of a circle is calculated as C = 2πr, where π is approximately 22/7 or 3.14159.

Given:

Ratio of volumes of two cylinders (V1 : V2) = 6 : 1

Ratio of their heights (H1 : H2) = 1 : 6

Formula used:

V = πr²h, where r is the radius and h is the height of the cylinder.

Calculation:

V1/V2 = (πr1²H1) / (πr2²H2) ---- (1)

As we are given the ratios V1 : V2 = 6 : 1 and H1 : H2 = 1 : 6, we can replace these values into equation (1):

6/1 = (r1² × 1) / (r2² × 6)

Solving this equation for r1/r2, we get:

r1/r2 = √((6 × 6) / 1)

r1/r2 = √(36)

r1/r2 = 6

Therefore, the ratio of the radii of the two cylinders is 6 : 1.

Given:

In a triangle XYZ, C is circumcentre of this triangle.

∠Y = 50 degree

∠Z = 70 degree

Concept Used:

If O is the circumcenter of the △ABC then the angle made at the circumcenter by joining any two vertices of the triangle is twice the angle at the third vertex of the triangle i.e.

the angle made at the circumference at the circle.

Angle Sum Property: Sum of all the angles in a triangle is 180° .

Calculation:

In triangle XYZ,

∠Y = 50° 

∠Z = 70° 

Apply angle sum property,

∠X = 180 - (50 + 70)

∠X = 60° 

Here C is the circumcentre

∠YCZ = 2 × ∠X

∠YCZ = 2 × 60

∠YCZ = 120° 

∴ Option 4 is the correct answer.

Given: 

The ratio of expenditure and savings of a person is 4 : 3.

The saving increases by 1/5 of the income and the income remains the same.

Formula Used:

Income = Expenditure + Saving

Calculation:

Let the expenditure be Rs. 4x and the Savings be Rs. 3x.

⇒ Income of person = 4x + 3x = 7x

New income of person = 7x

New saving of person = 3x + 1/5 of 7x = 3x + 7x/5 = 22x/5

New expenditure = 7x - 22x/5 = (35x - 22x)/5 = 13x/5

New ratio of his expenditure and savings = 13x/5 : 22x/5 = 13 : 22

∴ Option 1 is the correct answer.

Given:

The average height of 286 students = 50 units

The average height of the boys = 53

The average height of the girls = 31

Formula used:

Sum of N number = Average of N number × N

Calculation:

Total heights of 286 students = Average × Number of students

⇒ 286 × 50

Let the number of boys be y and the number of girls be (286 - y)

Total heights of boys = Average height of boys × Number of boys

⇒ 53 × y

The total height of girls = Average height of girls × Number of girls

⇒ 31 × (286 - y)

Now,

According to the question:

⇒ 53 × y + 31 × (286 - y) = 286 × 50

⇒ 53y - 31y = (286 × 50) - (286 × 31)

⇒ 22y = 286 × 19

⇒ y = 247

Total height of boys = 247 × 53 

Number of girls = (286 - 247) = 39

The total height of girls = 39 × 31 

Required ratio = 247 × 53 : 39 × 31 = 1007 : 93

∴ The correct answer is 1007 : 93.

Calculation:

Statement I:

The expenditure of company L in Y2 = 400

The expenditure of company M in Y3 = 600

Percentage of the expenditure of company L in Y2 to the expenditure of M in year Y3 = 400/600 × 100 = 66.66%

Statement I is wrong.

Statement II:

The expenditure of company M in year Y5 = 300

The expenditure of L in year Y4 = 300

Percentage of the expenditure of company M in Y5 to the expenditure of L in year Y4 = 300/300 × 100 = 100%

Statement II is correct.

∴ Option 4 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is option 1, "allocate."

Key Points

• To allocate means to distribute or assign something for a particular purpose.
• In the given sentence, the phrase "hold in trust" suggests that the subject is responsible for managing or distributing something that belongs to someone else. Therefore, the appropriate action would be to allocate or distribute it according to the owner's wishes.
• For example, a trustee may hold funds in trust for a beneficiary. The trustee's responsibility is to allocate or distribute the funds according to the terms of the trust agreement.
• Option 2, "appropriate," also means to assign or allocate something for a particular purpose. However, it can also mean to take something without permission or justification. In the given sentence, the context suggests that the subject is responsible for managing something that belongs to someone else, so "appropriate" would not be the correct choice.
• Option 3, "appellate," refers to a court that hears appeals from lower courts. This has no relevance to the given sentence.
• Option 4, "apply," means to put something into action or use. While this could be relevant in some contexts, it does not fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
• Thus, the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct Sentence: One may allocate what he only holds in trust; he shares what is his own.

Here the correct answer is Terrestrial.

Key Points

• Celestial means relating to the sky or the heavens, such as celestial bodies like stars and planets. (आकाश या स्‍वर्ग से संबंधित)
• For example: "The celestial bodies in the night sky were breathtaking."
• Terrestrial, on the other hand, means relating to the earth or its inhabitants. (भौमिक, स्‍थलीय)
• For example: "The terrestrial animals in the forest were diverse and fascinating."
• Hence the antonym of 'Celestial' is 'Terrestrial'.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (2) i.e. 'Terrestrial'.

Additional Information 

• Option 1, Heavenly, is a synonym of Celestial, meaning relating to heaven or the divine. (स्‍वर्ग, आकाश या अंतरिक्ष से संबंधित)
• For example: "The heavenly choir sang beautiful hymns.
• Option 3, Divine, is also a synonym of Celestial, meaning relating to God or the gods. (दिव्‍य, दैवी, ईश्‍वरीय)
• For example: "The divine intervention saved the village from disaster."
• Option 4, Stellar, is related to Celestial, meaning relating to stars or of exceptional quality. (तारों से संबंधित)
• For example: "The stellar performance of the actor won him an award."

The correct answer is option 4, Endorsement.

Key Points

• Objurgation means a harsh rebuke or criticism.
• For example, "The coach's objurgation of the team's poor performance was heard throughout the locker room."
• Option 1, Hamper, means to hinder or impede progress.
• For example, "The heavy rain hampered the construction workers' ability to finish the project on time."
• Option 2, Reproof, means a mild rebuke or criticism.
• For example, "The teacher's reproof of the student's behavior was met with a sincere apology."
• Option 3, Commination, means a threat of punishment or retribution.
• For example, "The company's commination of legal action against the competitor was taken seriously."
• Option 4, Endorsement, means approval or support.
• For example, "The celebrity's endorsement of the new product led to a significant increase in sales."
• Overall, the opposite of objurgation is endorsement, as one is a harsh criticism while the other is a positive approval.

The correct answer is option 2, "affect thousands."

Key Points

• The verb "affect" means to have an impact on or influence something.
• In this sentence, the snowstorm is having an impact on thousands of travelers.
• "Effect," on the other hand, means to bring about or cause something.
• While the snowstorm may be causing travel disruptions, it is more appropriate to use "affect" in this context.
• Additionally, "thousand" should be pluralized to "thousands" to match the subject-verb agreement.
• Thus, the correct answer is Option 2.

Therefore, the corrected sentence is: "The snowstorm will affect thousands of travelers."

Additional Information

• The words "affect" and "effect" are commonly confused due to their similar spellings and pronunciations. However, they have distinct meanings and usage:
• Affect (verb): "Affect" is typically used as a verb and relates to influencing, impacting, or producing a change in something. It refers to the action of having an effect on someone or something.
• Example: "The loud noise affected my concentration, making it difficult to focus."
• Effect (noun or verb): "Effect" can be used as both a noun and a verb, and it generally refers to the result, outcome, or consequence of an action or event.
• As a noun:
• Example: "The new policies had a positive effect on employee morale."
• As a verb:
• Example: "The company aimed to effect changes in its organizational structure."
• To summarize, "affect" is a verb used to describe the act of influencing or impacting something, while "effect" is a noun (or verb) that represents the result or consequence of an action.

Here the correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• The error is in the following part of the sentence: "extends" should be changed to "extend" to agree with the plural subject "bands."
• The correct sentence would be: "Atmospheric rivers are long, narrow bands of moisture in the atmosphere that extend from the tropics to higher latitudes."
• This is an example of subject-verb agreement, where the verb must agree in number with the subject.
• In this case, "bands" is plural, so the verb "extend" must also be plural.

The correct answer is option 1, "To be badly defeated in a contest."

Key Points

• The idiom "to meet one's Waterloo" comes from the famous battle of Waterloo in 1815, where Napoleon Bonaparte was defeated by the British and their allies.
• It refers to a decisive and final defeat or setback, often in a contest or struggle.
• For example, "The team thought they were unbeatable, but they met their Waterloo in the championship game and lost by a landslide."
• Thus, the correct answer is Option 1.

The correct answer is option 1: RPQS.

Key Points

• This is because the sentence follows the correct order of subject-verb-object and the adjectives and phrases are placed in the correct order.
• R - "we showed that people on low incomes with" - This is the subject of the sentence and introduces the main idea of the study.
• P - "little free time like a single parent nurse caring for" - This is the first adjective phrase that describes the specific group of people being studied.
• Q - "more than one child and working long hours are" - This is the second adjective phrase that further describes the challenges faced by the group being studied.
• S - "set to lose out most as energy prices rise" - This is the object of the sentence and explains the negative impact that rising energy prices will have on the group being studied.
• Thus, the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct Arrangement: In a recent study, we showed that people on low incomes with little free time like a single parent nurse caring for more than one child and working long hours are set to lose out most as energy prices rise.