SSC CHSL Tier-1 2022: Official Paper (Held On: 09 March, 2023 Shift 4) (Previous Year Paper)

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1st number × 2) = 2nd number,

2nd number + 3 = 3rd number.

Now,

For, (39, 78, 81)

→ 39 × 2 = 78,

→ 78 + 3 = 81,

For, (42, 84, 87)

→ 42 × 2 = 84,

→ 84 + 3 = 87,

Similarly, for (84, 168, 171)

→ 84 × 2 = 168,

→ 168 + 3 = 171,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Family Chart:

Given: Pointing towards a photo of a lady, Priya said, “She is my brother’s only son’s mother”.

The lady in the photo is "my brother’s only son’s mother", which means she is the mother of Priya's nephew.

Since the lady in the photo is the mother of Priya's nephew, she must be Priya's sister-in-law.

So, the lady in the photo is Priya's "Brother’s wife".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1st number × 4) - 3 = 2nd number,

(2nd number × 4) + 3 = 3rd number.

For, 

(18, 69, 279)

⇒ (18 × 4) - 3 = 72 - 3 = 69.

⇒ (69 × 4) + 3 = 276 + 3 = 279.

(12, 45, 183)

⇒ (12 × 4) - 3 = 48 - 3 = 45.

⇒ (45 × 4) + 3 = 180 + 3 = 183.

Similarly, for (32, 125, 503)

⇒ (32 × 4) - 3 = 128 - 3 = 125.

⇒ (125 × 4) + 3 = 500 + 3 = 503.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

‘BOWLER’ is coded as ‘TFNXQC’

Similarly, the word of code 'BOWMAN' is:

So, 'BOWMAN' will be coded as 'PBOXQC'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

From the given open Dice:

A and L is the opposite sides.

B and Y is the opposite sides.

N and X is the opposite sides.

And, two opposite sides can not be the adjacent surfaces, so it can't be shows in a dice.

Now,

Option 1) 

→ Can not be made, because A and L are the opposite surfaces.

Option 2) 

→ Can be made.

Option 3) 

→ Can be made.

Option 4) 

→ Can be made.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1st number × 2) + 2 = 2nd number.

For, 38 ∶ 78

→ (38 × 2) + 2

⇒ 76 + 2 = 78.

For, 46 ∶ 94

→ (46 × 2) + 2

⇒ 92 + 2 = 94.

Similarly, for 102 ∶ ?

→ (102 × 2) + 2

⇒ 204 + 2 = 206.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Capital : Country.

Here,

Nairobi ∶ Kenya → Nairobi is the capital city of Kenya.

Similarly, 

Oslo ∶ Norway → Oslo is the capital city of Norway.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) Pencil – Stationery → A pencil is a type of stationery.

Option 2) Animal – Cat → it should be "Cat – Animal" to maintain the same relationship as the other pairs, where Cat is a type of Animal.

Option 3) Circle – Figure → A circle is a type of figure.

Option 4) Truck – Vehicle → A truck is a type of vehicle.

So, 'Option 2' odd among the given option.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

According to the given Venn diagram:

The shaded area shows "Total number of Pens".

Total Pens are: 12 + 4 + 9 = 25.

So, there are 25 pens.

Hence, the correct answer is "25".

The logical and meaningful order of the given words would be as follows:

1. Illness: An illness is a medical condition that affects the normal functioning of the body.
2. Doctor: The first step in seeking medical treatment for an illness is to consult a doctor.
3. Consultation: Once a doctor is consulted, the next step is to have a consultation. A consultation is a meeting with a doctor to discuss an illness or medical issue.
4. Dispensary: A dispensary is a place where medicines are dispensed or distributed. It can be a part of a hospital or a separate facility.
5. Medicine: After the consultation, the doctor may prescribe medicine to treat the illness.

Thus once we get an illness, we visit the doctor and take consultation, then go to the dispensary to get the medicine prescribed by the doctor.

Therefore, the logical and meaningful order of the given words would be: Illness, Doctor, Consultation, Dispensary and Medicine.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Number of letters in 1st word × Number of letters in the 2nd word = Number.

For, 

‘FAMILY * LONG’ is coded as ‘24’,

Number of letters in word 'FAMILY' = 6,

Number of letters in word 'LONG' = 4,

⇒ 6 × 4 = 24.

For,

‘COUPLE * THE’ is coded as ‘18’.

Number of letters in word 'COUPLE' = 6,

Number of letters in word 'THE' = 3,

⇒ 6 × 3 = 18.

Similarly, for ‘OVER * HOSPITAL’

Number of letters in word 'OVER' = 4,

Number of letters in word 'HOSPITAL' = 8,

⇒ 4 × 8 = 32.

So, ‘OVER * HOSPITAL’ is coded as ‘32’.

Hence, the correct answer is "32".

The logic followed here is:

Consider '#' = '+'

Now,

8 # 6 = 28

→ 8 + 6 = 14; 14 × 2 = 28.

7 # 4 = 22

→ 7 + 4 = 11; 11 × 2 = 22.

Similarly, for 9 # 3 = ?

→ 9 + 3 = 12; 12 × 2 = 24.

Hence, the correct answer is "24".

The image embedded in given figure is as shown below:

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The quadrilaterals are:

So, there are '20' quadrilaterals are there in the given figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "20".

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) PQOR

Option 2) FGEH

Option 3) UVTX

Option 4) ZAYB

Here, 'UVTX' is odd among the given options.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Wall ∶ Brick → The wall is made up of bricks.

Similarly, 

Sack ∶ Jute → The sack is commonly made of jute.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

So, '77' will complete the series.

Hence, the correct answer is "77".

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation I. 11 – 16 × 3 ÷ 4 + 12 = 11.

Now, if '+ and –' are interchanged, then:

⇒ 11 + 16 × 3 ÷ 4 - 12 = 11

⇒ 11 + 12 - 12 = 11

⇒ 23 - 12 = 11

= 11 = 11.

LHS = RHS.

Given equation II: 15 × 3 – 45 ÷ 5 + 30 = 28.

Now, if '+ and –' are interchanged, then:

⇒ 15 × 3 + 45 ÷ 5 - 30 = 28

⇒ 15 × 3 + 9 - 30 = 28

⇒ 45 + 9 - 30 = 28

⇒ 54 - 30 = 28

= 24 ≠ 28

LHS ≠ RHS.

Here, Only equation I are the correct after interchanging the given symbol.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Statement:

I. Some F are T.

II. Some T are P.

The least possible diagram for the given statements is as follows:

Conclusions:

I. Some P are T - True (Some T are P so Some P are also T).

II. No F is T - False (Because, Some F are T).

III. No P is F - False (Because, no definite relation given between P and F, so it can be possible only)

Here, Only conclusion I follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) 14 – 12 → The difference between the numbers is 14 - 12 = 2.

Option 2) 15 – 13 → The difference between the numbers is 15 - 13 = 2.

Option 3) 20 – 18 → The difference between the numbers is 20 - 18 = 2.

Option 4) 25 – 19 → The difference between the numbers is 25 - 19 = 6.

So, the pair 4) 25 – 19 does not follow the same pattern as the other pairs and is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

For find the opposite surface of '4', we need to compare the common surface in the given dices,

Now,

From Dice 1 and Dice 2,

→ M is the common surface, 'R' is the opposite surface of '5' and '9' is the opposite surface of '6'.

From Dice 2 and Dice 3,

→ 6 is the common surface, 'M' is the opposite surface of '4' and '5' is the opposite surface of 'R'.

From Dice 1 and Dice 3,

→ R is the common surface, 'M' is the opposite surface of '4' and '9' is the opposite surface of '6'.

So, the opposite surfaces are:

'M' is the opposite surface of '4'.

'9' is the opposite surface of '6'.

'5' is the opposite surface of 'R'.

Here, 'M' is opposite to the face containing '4'.

Hence, the correct answer is "M".

The logic followed here is:

So, 'NEXO' will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "NEXO".

The logic followed here is:

Step I: Letter 'R' has shifting a place in anticlockwise direction in next images, and lastly changed with C.

Step II: The rectangle has changed to square in next box, and shifted one place in anticlockwise direction in each images.

Step III: The triangle has shifting one place in anticlockwise direction in next images, and changed to pentagon from 3rd images.

So, 'Option 2' will replace the question mark.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Currency : Country.

Here,

Yen : Japan → Yen is the currency of Japan.

Similarly, 

Lira : Turkey → Lira is the currency of Turkey.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The image embedded in given figure is as shown below:

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The correct answer is Option 3. 

Key Points

• International Tiger Day is observed on July 29th every year.
• This day is also known as Global Tiger Day and was first created in 2010 at the St. Petersburg Tiger Summit, which was held to raise awareness about the declining population of wild tigers.
• The goal of International Tiger Day is to promote the protection and conservation of tigers and their natural habitats, as well as to raise awareness about the threats that tigers face, such as habitat loss, poaching, and climate change.

The correct answer is Option 4. 

Key Points

• To underline the contents of a cell in MS Excel 365 using a keyboard shortcut, you can use the following steps:
• Select the cell(s) that you want to underline.
• Press the following keys together: "Ctrl" + "U".
• The selected cell(s) will now be underlined.
• Alternatively, you can also use the "Home" tab on the Excel ribbon to underline the cell contents by clicking on the "Underline" button in the "Font" group.
• The keyboard shortcut method is quicker and can save you some time if you need to format multiple cells at once.

The Correct answer is Option 4. 

Key Points

• NCRB stands for National Crime Records Bureau.
• It is a government agency in India that is responsible for collecting and analyzing crime data as well as providing support to law enforcement agencies across the country.
• The NCRB was established in 1986 under the Ministry of Home Affairs and is headquartered in New Delhi.

The correct answer is Option 2. 

Key Points

• The first statement is generally true.
• Banks and financial institutions keep a certain percentage of their deposits as reserves to ensure that they have enough liquidity to meet their obligations.
• These reserves can be kept in the form of cash or financial instruments such as government securities, treasury bills, and other approved securities.
• The second statement is also true.
• Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is the percentage of deposits that commercial banks are required to maintain as reserves with the RBI.
• The purpose of CRR is to control the amount of money that banks can lend to borrowers.
• When the RBI increases the CRR, banks have less money available to lend, which can help to control inflation.
• Conversely, when the RBI decreases the CRR, banks have more money available to lend, which can stimulate economic growth.

The correct answer is Option 4. 

Key Points

• In star topology, 'n-1' lines are required for connecting 'n' nodes.
• Star topology is a network topology in which all nodes (computers, servers, peripherals, and other devices) are connected to a central hub or switch.
• The central hub acts as a mediator to transmit data between nodes and manages the communication between them.
• In a star topology, each node has a dedicated point-to-point connection to the central hub, which eliminates the need for nodes to pass data through other nodes to reach the intended destination.
• The central hub serves as a communication channel for the connected nodes, and it is responsible for directing data traffic from one node to another.

Additional Information

• In the context of computer networking, topology refers to the physical or logical arrangement of nodes (devices such as computers, servers, and other network devices) and the connections between them in a network.There are several types of network topologies, including:
• Bus topology: In this topology, all devices are connected to a single communication line, called a bus. Data is transmitted from one device to another over the bus.
• Star topology: In this topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch. Data is transmitted from one device to another via the hub.
• Ring topology: In this topology, all devices are connected in a closed loop. Data is transmitted in one direction around the loop, from one device to another.
• Mesh topology: In this topology, every device is connected to every other device in the network. This creates multiple paths for data to travel, which can increase network redundancy and resilience.
• Tree topology: In this topology, devices are arranged in a hierarchical structure, resembling a tree. Devices are connected to parent nodes, which are connected to other parent nodes, and so on, until the root node is reached.
• The choice of topology depends on the specific needs and requirements of the network, including factors such as cost, scalability, fault tolerance, and performance.

The correct answer is The Panchayats.

Key Points

• Part IX to the Indian Constitution
• The idea of the Panchayati Raj system in India signifies the system of rural local self-government.
• The 73rd amendment act added a new part IX and article 243 to 243 O to the Indian constitution.
• The 73rd amendment act of the Indian constitution gave constitutional status to the Panchayati raj system.
• The term Panchayati raj was coined by Jawahar Lal Nehru.
• The Panchayati Raj Act came into force on 24th April 1993.
• April 24th is observed as the national Panchayati raj day since 2011.
• Important committees constituted for recommendations regarding Panchayati raj in India:
• Balwant Rai Mehta committee.
• V.T. Krishnammachari committee.
• Ashok Mehta Committee.
• G.V.K. Rao Committee.
• L.M. Singhvi Committee.
• P.K. Thungon Committee

Mistake Points

• The original Indian Constitution had 22 parts and 395 articles.
• Later 3 parts were added to it as amendments making the tally 25.
• An overview of the Indian Constitution Parts and Articles is provided in this short post.

Additional InformationParts Of the Indian Constitution

The correct answer is Admission or establishment of new states.

Key Points

• Article 2 of the Indian Constitution
• This article provides the Parliament of India the authority to admit into the Union of India, or establish, new states on such terms and conditions as it thinks fit.
• It is not necessary to pass such a law by a special majority or obtain the ratification of the states.

Mistake Points

• Article 3
• The Parliament can by law form a new state, increase the area of any state, diminish the area of any state, alter the boundaries of any state, or alter the name of any state.

Additional Information

Article 1: Names and Territory of the Union

Article 3: Formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries, or names of existing state

The correct answer is Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

Key Points

• Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
• Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, born on October 31, 1875, was a key leader in the Indian National Congress during the Indian independence movement.
• After India gained independence, Patel was appointed as the first Deputy Prime Minister and Minister of Home Affairs.
• As the "Bismarck of India," Sardar Patel's most significant contribution was the integration of over 550 princely states into the Indian Union.
• Due to his strong leadership and decisive actions, he is often referred to as the "Iron Man of India".

Additional Information

• Mahatma Gandhi-
• Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi, better known as Mahatma Gandhi, was born on October 2, 1869.
• Mahatma Gandhi is popularly known as the "Father of the Nation" in India.
• He led several nationwide campaigns against British rule, such as the Non-Cooperation Movement, the Civil Disobedience Movement, and the Quit India Movement.
• He is known worldwide for his philosophy of nonviolent resistance, or Satyagraha.
• He was assassinated on January 30, 1948, but his ideas and principles continue to inspire people worldwide.
• Lal Bahadur Shastri:
• Lal Bahadur Shastri was born on October 2, 1904.
• After India's independence, he held several ministerial positions and eventually became the second Prime Minister of India in 1964 after the death of Jawaharlal Nehru.
• He is best known for his slogan "Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan" during the Indo-Pakistan War of 1965, which highlighted the importance of the armed forces and farmers in ensuring India's security and prosperity.
• Shastri G passed away on January 11, 1966.
• Jawaharlal Nehru:
• Jawaharlal Nehru was born on November 14, 1889.
• After India gained independence, Nehru became the country's first Prime Minister, serving from 1947 until his death in 1964.
• His vision for a modern, secular, and democratic India laid the foundation for the nation's development. Nehru implemented numerous economic and social policies, such as the Five-Year Plans, aimed at industrialization, agricultural growth, and poverty reduction.
• He also played a crucial role in shaping India's foreign policy, advocating for non-alignment and peaceful coexistence among nations.

The correct answer is India.

Key Points

• India defeated Sri Lanka by 8 wickets in the finals of the Women’s Asia Cup 2022.
• India has bagged the position for the 7th time.
• Sri Lanka won the toss and opted to bat first.
• Sri Lanka made 65 runs in 20 overs losing 10 wickets. India chased the target in 8.3 overs making 71 runs with a loss of only 2 wickets.
• Smriti Mandhana made 51 runs not out in 25 balls.
• Renuka Singh Thakur claimed three wickets against Sri Lanka while Rajeshwari Gayakwad and Sneh Rana claimed two wickets each.
• The final match of India vs Sri Lanka Asia Cup 2022 took place in Sylhet International Cricket Stadium, Sylhet.

Additional Information

• The International Cricket Council (ICC), the international governing body of Cricket founded in 1909 by representatives from England, Australia, and South Africa, was initially known as Imperial Cricket Conference.
• In 1965, it was renamed as International Cricket Conference and in 1965, it was renamed the International Cricket Council (ICC) in 1989.
• This council organizes various world championships and tournaments.
• ODI World Cup and T-20 World Cup are world-famous.
• There are 104 member nations.
• Headquarters of ICC - Dubai, UAE
• Motto - Cricket for good
• Chairman - Greg Barclay

The correct answer is 6371 kilometres.

Key Points

• The interior of the earth can be divided into 3 different layers-
• Crust
• Mantle
• Core
• The crust is the outermost layer of the earth, and the core is the innermost layer of the earth, located at a depth of 2900 km.
• The distance to the centre of the Earth is 6,371 kilometres (3,958 mi), the crust is 35 kilometres (21 mi) thick, the mantle is 2855 km (1774 mi) thick.

The correct answer is Pivotal joint.

Key Points

• pivot joint
• The pivot joint is the joint that is present in the area where the neck joins the head.
• Pivot joints, also known as rotary joints,
• Pivot joints permit axial rotation.
• The moving bone rotates within a ring formed by the concave surface of a second bone and an adjoining ligament.​

Additional Information

• Ball and socket joint
• The ball and socket joint or spheroid joint can be defined as a synovial joint in which the ball-shaped surface of one rounded bone fits with the cup-like depression of another bone in the body.
• There are only two ball and socket joints in human body – one in the shoulder and the other in the hip
• The hinge joint is commonly referred to as the knee.
• Hinge Joint is a joint in the human body that serves motion in one plane.
• It is a common class of synovial joint that includes the:-
• Ankle
• Knee
• Finger Joints
• Toe Joints​
• Fixed Joint:
• There are some bones in our head that are joined together at some joints. The bones cannot move at these joints. Such joints are called fixed joints.
• For example - The joint between the head and upper jaw, cannot be moved.

the correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• Vitamin A 
• Vitamin A also stimulates the production and activity of white blood cells, participates in bone remodeling, helps maintain healthy endothelial cells (which line the internal surfaces of the body), and cells necessary for reproduction. Regulates growth and division.
• Vitamin A is an essential fat-soluble vitamin. It can be stored in the body as fat. Its lack reduces visibility and leads to night blindness. It is usually present in fat and red colored plant-based foods such as Mango, Papaya, Squash, Carrot.
• Carrots are a plant source rich in vitamin A.

Iron:

• Iron is important in making red blood cells, which carry oxygen around the body.
• A lack of iron can lead to iron-deficiency anemia.
• Good sources of iron include:
• liver
• red meat
• beans, such as red kidney beans, edamame beans and chickpeas
• nuts, dried fruit – such as dried apricots
• fortified breakfast cereals
• soy products
• amla, spinach, jaggery, lentils

The correct answer is Rafael Nadal.

Key Points

• Spain's Rafael Nadal defeated Russia's Daniil Medvedev 2-6, 6-7 (5), 6-4, 6-4, 7-5 in the Australian Open Men's Singles final and clinched a record 21st Grand Slam title, on 30 Jan 2022.
• The match was held at Rod Laver Arena in Melbourne.
• With this victory, Rafael has become the first man to win 21 Grand Slam titles.
• He overtook Roger Federer and Novak Djokovic by winning this title.​

Additional Information

• In tennis, Aslan Karatsev won the men’s singles title at the Sydney Tennis Classic final, to claim his third ATP Tour title.
• World number six Rafael Nadal won the men’s singles tennis title at 2022 Melbourne Summer Set 1.
• French tennis player Gael Monfils has won the men’s singles event of the 2022 Adelaide International 1 to claim the 11th ATP title of his career.
• The Davis Cup 2021 was won by the Russian Tennis Federation by a 2-0 lead over Croatia in the Davis Cup final in Madrid.
• Alexander “Sascha” Zverev has won the fifth ATP title of the season (2021) and 18th overall at the Vienna Open 2021.

The correct answer is 1.64 percent.

Key Points

• The annual population growth rate of India according to Census 2011 is 1.64 percent.
• Growth of population is the change in the number of people living in a particular area between two points of time. Its rate is expressed in percentage.
• The Census was first started under British Viceroy Lord Mayo in 1872. It helped in framing new policies, government programs to uplift areas of improvement in the community.
• First synchronized census in India took place in 1881. Since 1901, it has been taking place after every decade.
• Census 2011 is the 15th Census, and 7th after Independence.
• The slogan of census 2011 is “Our Census, Our Future”.
• According to the Census 2011, there are 53 (million-plus) cities in India as compared to 35 on census 2001.
• The 15th Census of India was conducted in 2011.​

Additional Information

• KEY POINT OF CENSUS OF INDIA 2011 
• Total Population of India – 1,21,08,54,977
• Sex Ratio (females per 1000 males) – 943
• Density – 382 persons per sq. km
• Infant Mortality Rate (2006) – 57 per 1000 live births
• Maternal Mortality Rate – 407 per lakh live births
• Literacy Rate of the country – 74.04%
• Highest literacy – Kerala (94%)
• Lowest literacy – Bihar ( 61.8%)
• Highest female literacy – Kerala (92.1 %)
• Lowest female literacy – Rajasthan (57.6%)
• Highest Population – Uttar Pradesh (19,98,12,341)
• Lowest Population – Sikkim ( 6,10,577)
• Highest Population Density – Bihar (1106)
• Lowest Population Density – Arunachal Pradesh (17)
• Highest Sex Ratio – Kerala (1084)
• State having lowest Sex Ratio – Haryana (879)
• Life Expectancy at Birth – 66.1 years, Male – 64.6 years and Female – 67.7 years.
• Decadal growth rate in Population – 17.7%
• Highest SC population is in UP.
• Highest ST population is in Madhya Pradesh.

The correct answer is Fusion style of dance.

Key Points

• Fusing European theatrical techniques with India's very own classical and folk dance forms, Uday Shankar came up with his own style of dance.
• After having named the new dance form 'Hi-dance', he later rechristened it and called it 'Creative dance'.
• Uday Shankar (8 December 1900 – 26 September 1977) was an Indian dancer and choreographer, best known for creating a fusion style of dance.
• Uday Shankar was the first to bring the concept of modern dance to India with his novel approach and works.

Additional Information

• The Hindu god Shiva, known as Nataraja, Lord of the Dance, is portrayed as a many-armed being balanced on one leg.
• In Hindu mythology, dance is thought to have been conceived by Brahma. Brahma motivated the sage Bharata Muni to write the Natya Shastra, a treatise on performing arts, from which a codified practice of dance and drama come out.
• The classical dance form originated from the Natya Shastra. There are 8 classical dance forms in India as per the source and scholar

The correct answer is Neither I nor II.

Key Points

• Basketball:
• A game of Basketball is played with two teams, with 5 players from each team on the court at one time (that means 10 playing at one time).
• The maximum number of players on the bench differs by the league you’re playing in.
• In international play, a maximum of 7 players is allowed on the bench, resulting in a roster of 12 players.
• International Basketball Federation was set up in 1932.
• The basketball Federation of India was formed in 1950.
• Volleyball Team. 
• The number of players in each volleyball team is six
• ​Before the start of the game 3 players from each team stand in their court just behind the attack line and the remaining three at the back.
• Each team tries to score points by grounding a ball on the other team's court under organized rules.
• It has been a part of the official program of the Summer Olympic Games since Tokyo 1964.

The correct answer is Western Rajasthan.

Key Points

• The loose material or the upper layer of the mantle rock consisting mainly of very small particles and humus which can support the growth of plants is known as “soil”
• Soil is formed under specific natural conditions and each of the elements of the natural environment contributes to this complex process of soil formation known as “pedogenesis”.
• Arid Soils
• These are derived from the disintegration of adjacent rocks and are largely blown from coastal regions and the Indus valley.
• Arid soils are characteristically developed in western Rajasthan, which exhibits characteristic arid topography.
• Arid soils range from red to brown in colour.
• They are generally sandy to gravelly in texture and have a high percentage of soluble salts.
• These are saline in nature. In some areas, the salt content is so high that common salt is obtained by evaporating the saline water. Hence Option 4 is correct.
• Due to the dry climate, high temperature and accelerated evaporation, they lack moisture and humus.
• These soils are deficient in nitrogen and humus. The phosphate and iron content is normal. These soils are rich in minerals but the main limitation is the lack of water.
• These soils are mainly devoted to bajra, pulses, guar, fodder and less water-requiring crops.

The correct answer is 1206 – 1210.

Key Points

• Qutub-ud-din Aibak was the founder of the Slave dynasty.
• He assumed the title of 'Sultan' for the first time in the history of India.
• He made Lahore the capital and later Delhi.
• He was also known as 'Lakh Baksh' or giver of lakhs for his magnanimity, as he gave a lot of liberal donations.
• He started the construction of the Qutub Minar in the memory of Khawaja Qutubuddin Bhaktiyar Kaki but could complete only the first story.
• Aibak is known for having commissioned the Qutb Minar in Delhi, and the Adhai Din Ka Jhopra in Ajmer.
• Note:
• Qutub-ud-din Aibak laid the foundation of Qutub Minar which was later completed by Iltutmish.
• The Quwwat-al-Islam mosque was also commissioned by him.

Additional Information

• The Tughlaq Dynasty:
• ​The founder of the Tughlaq dynasty was Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq.
• The Tughlaq dynasty was founded in 1320 by Ghazi Malik assuming the title of Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq.
• He founded Tughlaqabad City and constructed the Tughlaqabad Fort.
• He made reforms in the field of the judiciary, irrigation, and agriculture.
• He died in 1325 by collapsing a building during a celebration of his victory.
• Khilji Dynasty:
• It was the second ruling family of the Delhi Sultanate, a Muslim kingdom in north India.
• The Khilji dynasty ruled from 1290 to 1320.
• It was founded by Jalal ud din Firuz Khilji and came to power in a revolution that signified the transfer of authority from Turkic nobility to Afghans.
• Alauddin Khilji made serious efforts to re-assess the land revenue and unify the taxes not only in rural areas but also in urban areas.
• He established a centralized administrative system of revenue collection.
• Muqtis were appointed for revenue collection.
• Alauddin made sure that their offices were not hereditary.
• He kept proper control over them.
• The Lodi dynasty:
• Founder - Bahlol Lodi (1451-88 AD)
• Last king - Ibrahim Lodi (1517-26 AD)
• The city of Agra was founded by Sikandar Lodi (1489-1517)
• Daulat Khan Lodi was the governor of Punjab who invited the Babur.

The correct answer is Himachal Pradesh.

Key Points

• Kye Gompa
• Key Gompa is a Tibetan Buddhist monastery located on a picturesque hilltop at an altitude of 4,166 m above sea level, close to the Spiti River, in the Spiti Valley of Himachal Pradesh.
• The monastery has the distinction of being the oldest and the biggest in the Lahaul and Spiti district of Himachal Pradesh and a religious training centre for lamas.
• Key Monastery is home to around 300 lamas who receive their religious education here.

Additional Information

• Some interesting facts that you must know about Himachal Pradesh:
• Himachal was named by Acharya Diwakar Datt Sharma who was one of the greatest Sanskrit scholar Hima means 'snow' in Sanskrit.
• The word 'Himachal' literally translates to 'In the lap of Himalayas'
• Himachal Pradesh dates back to the period of Indus Valley Civilization, which flourished 4,000 years ago.
• The first Chief Minister of Himachal Pradesh was Yashwant Singh Parmar.
• Himachal Pradesh has achieved 100 per cent hygiene, and according to reports, every single house has a toilet.
• Himachal Pradesh is the second least corrupt state of India after Kerala.
• Himachal Pradesh hosted the first Paragliding World Cup in India, in October 2015.
• Shimla consists of the only natural ice skating rink in Asia.

The correct answer is Qualitative – Moral Suasion.

Key Points

• Monetary policy refers to the policy of the central bank with regard to the use of monetary instruments under its control to achieve the goals specified in the Act.
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is vested with the responsibility of conducting monetary policy. This responsibility is explicitly mandated under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
• Instruments of Monetary Policy :
• Repo Rate: The (fixed) interest rate at which the Reserve Bank provides overnight liquidity to banks against the collateral of government and other approved securities under the liquidity adjustment facility (LAF).
• Reverse Repo Rate: The (fixed) interest rate at which the Reserve Bank absorbs liquidity, on an overnight basis, from banks against the collateral of eligible government securities under the LAF.
• Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) :
• The LAF consists of overnight as well as term repo auctions.
• The aim of the term repo is to help develop the inter-bank term money market, which in turn can set market-based benchmarks for pricing of loans and deposits, and hence improve the transmission of monetary policy. The Reserve Bank also conducts variable interest rate reverse repo auctions, as necessitated under the market conditions.
• Marginal Standing Facility (MSF):
• A facility under which scheduled commercial banks can borrow an additional amount of overnight money from the Reserve Bank by dipping into their Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) portfolio up to a limit at a penal rate of interest.
• This provides a safety valve against unanticipated liquidity shocks to the banking system.
• Bank Rate :
• It is the rate at which the Reserve Bank is ready to buy or rediscount bills of exchange or other commercial papers.
• This rate has been aligned to the MSF rate and, therefore, changes automatically as and when the MSF rate changes alongside policy repo rate changes.
• Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR): The average daily balance that a bank is required to maintain with the Reserve Bank as a share of such percentage of its Net demand and time liabilities (NDTL).
• Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) :
• The share of NDTL that a bank is required to maintain in safe and liquid assets, such as - government securities, cash, and gold.
• Changes in SLR often influence the availability of resources in the banking system for lending to the private sector.
• Open Market Operations (OMOs): These include both, outright purchase and sale of government securities, for injection and absorption of durable liquidity, respectively.
• Market Stabilisation Scheme (MSS) :
• This instrument for monetary management was introduced in 2004.
• Surplus liquidity of a more enduring nature arising from large capital inflows is absorbed through the sale of short-dated government securities and treasury bills.
• The cash so mobilized is held in a separate government account with the Reserve Bank.

The correct answer is Charles Cornwallis.

Key Points

• Lord Cornwallis 
• Lord Cornwallis was the Governor-General of Bengal when the Permanent Settlement was introduced there in 1793.
• The permanent settlement is also known as the Permanent Settlement of Bengal.
• It was an agreement between the British East India Company and the Landlords of Bengal to fix the land revenue.
• Land revenue was the major source of income for the British in India.
• Permanent Settlement was one such land revenue system.
• It was first introduced in Bengal and Bihar and later it was introduced in Madras and Varanasi.
• This system was also known as the Zamindari system.
• He is known as the 'Father of Civil Services in India'.
• He created the post of District Judge.
• he was the first person to codify laws in 1793.

Additional Information 

• Warren Hastings
• First Governor-General of Bengal.
• He abolished the dual system of administration.
• Regulating Act of 1773 and Pitt’s India Act of 1784.
• Rohilla war in 1774.
• He established Supreme Court in Calcutta.
• He founded the Asiatic Society of Bengal.
• First Anglo-Maratha War (1775-1782) ended with the Treaty of Salbai.
• The second Anglo-Mysore war (1780-1784) ended with the Treaty of Mangalore.
• Sir John Macpherson
• Sir John Macpherson was a British administrator in India.
• He was the acting Governor-General of Bengal from 1785 to 1786.
• Sir John Shore
• He introduced the first Charter act of 1793.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• I. The atomic number of an element is indeed equal to the number of protons in an atom of that element.

Hence correct.

• II. The mass number of an atom is defined as the total number of protons and neutrons (collectively known as nucleons) in an atom.

Hence correct.

Additional Information

• In this example, Carbon has an atomic number of 6, which means it has 6 protons in the nucleus of each of its atoms.
• This atomic number defines the element
• In other words, any atom with 6 protons is a Carbon atom.
• The mass number of Carbon is 12, indicating that the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus is 12.
• Since we know there are 6 protons (from the atomic number), this means there must also be 6 neutrons (because 12 total nucleons - 6 protons = 6 neutrons).
• The atomic number and mass number are crucial in defining an atom's identity and properties.
• The atomic number determines the element and its place in the periodic table, while the mass number helps to identify isotopes (varieties of the same element with different numbers of neutrons).

The correct answer is Kamala Harris.

Key Points

• Kamala Harris has made history by becoming the first woman vice president of the United States.
• Harris is the former Attorney general of California and now the first Black woman and African American elected as the vice president.
• As her mother is from India, she has also become the first person of Indian descent to hold the national office in the United States.

Additional Information

• USA:
• Capital - Washington, D.C.
• Currency - US Dollar.
• President- Joe Biden.

The correct answer is Nicobar pigeon.

Key Points

• Endemic species are those species of plants and animals that are found exclusively in a particular area or specific habitat.
• They are not naturally found anywhere else. A particular type of animal or plant may be endemic to a zone, a state, or a country.
• The destruction of their habitat, increasing population, and introduction of new species may affect the natural habitat of endemic species and endanger their existence.
• Examples - Sal and wild mango are endemic flora of the while Bison, Indian giant squirrel, Nicobar pigeon, and flying squirrel are endemic fauna.

Additional Information

Some of the important Endemic species of India are:

• Asiatic Lion in Gir Forest.
• Nilgiri Tahr in Nilgiri Hills.
• Sangai Deer in Loktak Lake.
• Purple Frog in the Western Ghats.
• Kashmir Stag in Kashmir Valley.
• Lion-Tailed Macaque in the Western Ghats.
• Pygmy Hog in Assam.
• Malabar Civet in the Western Ghats.

The correct answer is Khushi Patel.

Key Points

• Khushi Patel, a biomedical student from the United Kingdom, has been declared the winner of Miss India Worldwide 2022.
• Vaidehi Dongre from the US was declared the first runner up while Shrutika Mane was adjudged the second runner-up.
• It is the longest-running Indian pageant outside of India and is organised by India Festival Committee (IFC).
• It was the 29th edition of the pageant.

Additional Information 

• ​Femina Miss India 2022 is going to organise the 58th edition of the Femina Miss India beauty pageant.
• Manasa Varanasi of Telangana will crown her successor at the end of the event.
• The winner will represent India at Miss World 2022.
• Out of all the applications submitted from the 28 states, Delhi, Jammu and Kashmir, and other union territories.
• A group of top 3-19 candidates are chosen as state finalists and are publicised on the Femina Miss India Organization's official social media accounts.

Given:

The total surface area of a cube is 384  cm2

Formula used:

The total surface area of a cube = 6a​2

The volume of a cube = a³

Calculation:

Total surface area of a cube = 6a​2 = 384  cm2

Divide both sides by 6: a² = 64  cm2

Take the square root of both sides: a = 8 cm

Volume of the cube = a³ = 8³  cm3 = 512  cm3

Therefore, the volume of the cube is 512 cm3.

Calculation:

To find J1, we need to calculate the total number of books sold by S1 and

S2 in all 5 months:

Total number of books sold by S1 = 50 + 40 + 20 + 15 + 5 = 130

Total number of books sold by S2 = 5 + 10 + 60 + 30 + 25 = 130

Therefore, J1 = 130 + 130 = 260

To find J2, we need to calculate the difference between the total number of

books sold by S1 in all 5 months and the total number of books sold by S2

in all 5 months:

J2 = 130 - 130 = 0

So, (J1 + J2) = 260 + 0 = 260

Hence, the value of (J1 + J2) is 260.

∴ Option 4 is the correct answer.

Calculation:

Total number of players participating in game D = 92 + 78 + 66 + 88 + 54 = 378

Total number of players participating in game E = 146 + 102 + 82 + 104 + 96 = 530

Percentage = (Number of players participating in game D from all schools /Total number of players participating in game E from all schools) x 100

Percentage = (378/530) x 100

Percentage = 71.3%

Therefore, the total number of players participating in game D from all schools is 71.3% of the total number of players participating in game E from all schools.

∴ Option 1 is the correct answer.

Given:

Mohit alone can do that work in 10 days.

Rohit alone can do the same work in 15 days. 

Formula:

Work done (W) is W = (rate of work) x (time)

Calculation:

LCM of 10, 15 = 30

Efficiency of Mohit = 30/10 = 3

Efficiency of Rohit = 30/15 = 2

The ratio in which money is divided is the same as the ratio of efficiency.

3 : 2

Let the ratio be 3x, 2x

According to the question:

5x = 4400

x = 880

The difference = 3x - 2x = x  = 880

Therefore, the difference in the amounts they receive is Rs. 880.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Original CP to Original SP (10% loss) = 10 : 9.

Let CP = 10u and SP = 9u.

Ratio of New CP to New SP (10% profit) = 10 : 11.

According to the question: (10u − 5) ÷ (9u + 8) = 10 ÷ 11.

⇒ 110u − 55 = 90u + 80 ⇒ 20u = 135 ⇒ u = 6.75.

Original Selling Price = 9u = 9 × 6.75 = 60.75.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 60.75.

Alternate Method

Given:

Original Loss = 10%

Reduction in Cost Price (CP) = Rs. 5

Increase in Selling Price (SP) = Rs. 8

New Profit = 10%

Calculations:

Let the original CP of the article be x.

⇒ Original SP = x − 10% of x = 0.9x

⇒ New CP = x − 5

⇒ New SP = 0.9x + 8

⇒ New Profit is 10%, so New SP = 1.1 × New CP

⇒ 0.9x + 8 = 1.1 × (x − 5)

⇒ 0.9x + 8 = 1.1x − 5.5

⇒ 1.1x − 0.9x = 8 + 5.5

⇒ 0.2x = 13.5

⇒ x = 13.5 ÷ 0.2 = 67.5

⇒ Original Selling Price = 0.9 × 67.5 = 60.75

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 60.75.

Additional Information

Profit and Loss Percentages

Profit % = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100 and Loss % = (Loss ÷ CP) × 100. Profit or loss is always calculated on the Cost Price unless stated otherwise.

Selling Price Formula

SP = CP × (100 + Profit%)/100 for profit, and SP = CP × (100 − Loss%)/100 for loss.

Ratio Method

A profit of 10% means the ratio of CP : SP is 100 : 110 or 10 : 11. Similarly, a loss of 10% means a ratio of 10 : 9.

Calculation:

The production of refrigerator by A = 300

The production of refrigerator by E = 60

Percent of the production of refrigerator by A to The production of

refrigerator by E = 300/60 × 100 = 500 %

∴ Option 2 is the correct answer.

Given:

sin B - cos A = 0

Calculation:

We know that sin 45° = cos 45°, so we can write:

sin B = cos A = sin 45°

Since both sin B and cos A are positive, we can conclude that B = 45° and A = 45°.

Therefore, A + B = 45° + 45° = 90°.

So, the value of A + B is 90 degrees.

Given:

 $A = \frac{36\div 18\times 5}{36 \div(3\times 4)}$ and  $B=\frac{5\div 15\times 5+6\times 2-5}{15\div 5\times25-2\times3+6}$

Concept used:

Follow the BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below,

Calculation:

$A = \frac{36\div 18\times 5}{36 \div(3\times 4)}$

$A = \frac{2\times 5}{36\div12}$

$A = \frac{10}{3}$

$B=\frac{5\div 15\times 5+6\times 2-5}{15\div 5\times25-2\times3+6}$

$B=\frac{\frac{5}{3}+12-5}{75-+6+6}$

$B=\frac{\frac{5+36-15}{3}}{75}$

$B=\frac{26}{225}$

⇒ A + B

⇒ 10/3 + 26/225

⇒ (750 + 26)/225

⇒ 776/225

∴ Option 1 is the correct answer.

Given:

The average of 9 consecutive odd numbers is 27.

Calculation:

Let's assume that the first odd number in the sequence is x. Then the next 8 consecutive odd numbers would be x+2, x+4, x+6, x+8, x+10, x+12, x+14, and x+16.

We can use this information to write an equation for the sum of the 9 odd numbers:

x + (x+2) + (x+4) + (x+6) + (x+8) + (x+10) + (x+12) + (x+14) + (x+16) = 9 × 27

Simplifying this equation, we get:

9x + 72 = 243

Subtracting 72 from both sides, we get:

9x = 171

Dividing both sides by 9, we get:

x = 19

So the first odd number in the sequence is 19, and the 9 consecutive odd numbers are:

19, 21, 23, 25, 27, 29, 31, 33, 35

To find the sum of these 9 numbers, we can add them up:

19 + 21 + 23 + 25 + 27 + 29 + 31 + 33 + 35 = 243

Now we need to include the previous and next odd numbers to these 9 odd numbers. The previous odd number to 19 is 17 and the next odd number to 35 is 37. So the 11 odd numbers are:

17, 19, 21, 23, 25, 27, 29, 31, 33, 35, 37

To find the sum of these 11 numbers, we can add them up:

17 + 19 + 21 + 23 + 25 + 27 + 29 + 31 + 33 + 35 + 37 = 297

Finally, we can find the new average by dividing the sum of the 11 numbers by 11:

297/11 = 27

Therefore, the new average of the 11 odd numbers is 27.

Given:

The radii of the two concentric circles are x cm and 26 cm.

PQRS is a straight line and QR = 40 cm and PS = 48 cm, where  P and S are the points on a larger circle and Q and R are points on a smaller circle.

Concept Used:

The perpendicular drawn from the center of the circle to the chord bisects the chord into two equal parts.

Calculation:

Construct a perpendicular OT from the center to the straight line PQRS.

In a bigger circle, PS is the chord with a length of 48 cm.

OT is perpendicular to PS 

SO, PT = ST = 24 cm

In △OTP,

OP = 26 cm   (Radius)

PT = 24 cm

Using Pythagoras' theorem,

OT² = OP² - PT²

⇒ OT² = 26²- 24²

⇒ OT2 = 676 - 576

⇒ OT2 = 100

⇒ OT = 10 cm

In a smaller circle, QR is the chord with a length of 40 cm.

OT is perpendicular to QR

SO, QT = RT = 20 cm

In △OTQ,

OQ = x cm   (Radius)

QT = 20 cm

OT = 10 cm

Using Pythagoras' theorem,

OQ2 = OT2 + QT2

⇒ OQ2 = 20² + 102

⇒ OQ2 = 400 + 100

⇒ OQ2 = 500

⇒ OQ = 10√ 5 cm

∴ Option 2 is the correct answer.

Calculation:

To find L1, we need to calculate the total sales of A and B in all 5 years:

Total sales of A = 350 + 550 + 750 + 650 + 450 = 2750

Total sales of B = 1150 + 850 + 950 + 350 + 250 = 3550

Therefore, L1 = |2750 - 3550| = 800

To find L2, we need to calculate the average sales of A in all 5 years:

Average sales of A = (350 + 550 + 750 + 650 + 450) / 5 = 550

Therefore, L2 = 550

So, (L1:L2) = 800:550 = 16:11

Hence, the value of (L1 ∶ L2) is 16∶11.

∴ Option 3 is the correct answer.

Given:

The average weight of girls = 30 kg

The average weight of boys = 36 kg

Number of girls = 2 × Number of boys

Formula:

Average = (Sum of observations)/Number of observations

Calculation:

Let the number of boys be 'b'. Then, the number of girls will be 2b.

The total weight of all the girls can be expressed as 30 × 2b = 60b.

The total weight of all the boys can be expressed as 36 × b = 36b.

Total weight of all the students = 60b + 36b = 96b

Total number of students = b + 2b = 3b

Average = (96b)/(3b) = 32 kg

Therefore, the average weight of all the students in the school is 32 kg.

Given:

tan θ = 15/8

Formula used:

tan θ = P/B

sin θ = P/H

cos θ = B/H

Pythagoras Theorem:

tan θ = 15/8, tan θ = P/B, so P = 15 and B = 8

H = $\sqrt{P^2+B^2}$

H = $\sqrt{15^2+8^2}$ = $\sqrt{289}$ = 17

Calculation:

Then cos θ = B/H = 8/17

Similarly, sin θ = P/H = 15/17

sin θ  + cos θ =  15/17 + 8/17 = 23/17

∴ Option 3 is the correct answer.

Given:

Time (t) = 2 years

Rate of interest (r) = 20% per annum

Compound interest (CI) for 2 years = Rs. 4180

Formula used:

Compound interest (CI) = P[(1 + r/100)^t - 1], where P is the principal amount

Solution:

Let the principal amount be P.

Using the formula for compound interest, we have:

CI = P[(1 + r/100)^t - 1]

4180 = P[(1 + 20/100)² - 1]

Simplifying the right-hand side:

4180 = P[(1.20)² - 1]

4180 = P[0.44]

Dividing both sides by 0.44:

P = 4180/0.44

P = 9500

Therefore, the sum is Rs. 9500.

Given:

The angle subtended by a chord XY on the center of a circle is 180 degrees.

The length of the radius = 14 cm.

Concept used:

1. Only the diameter of a circle can subtend an angle of 180° at the center of the circle.
2. Radius × 2 = Diameter
3. Diameter is the largest chord of any circle.

Calculation: 

According to the concept,

XY has to be the diameter of the circle.

Now, the Diameter of the circle = 14 × 2 = 28 cm

∴ The length of the chord XY is 28 cm.

Given:

Triangle XYZ with a right angle at Y

YN is perpendicular to XZ

XY = 30 cm

XZ = 34 cm

To find: YN

Formula:

In a right triangle with legs a and b and hypotenuse c, the Pythagorean theorem states that $a^2 + b^2 = c^2.$

Solution:

In triangle XYZ, we have a right angle at Y. Therefore, using the Pythagorean theorem, we have:

$XY^2 + YZ^2 = XZ^2$

Substituting the given values, we get:

$30^2 + YZ^2 = 34^2$

$900 + YZ^2 = 1156$

Subtracting 900 from both sides, we get:

$YZ^2 = 256$

Taking the square root of both sides, we get:

YZ = 16

Using the area of the right-angle triangle.

1/2× 16 × 30 = 1/2× YN × 34

YN = (240/17) cm

∴ Option 4 is the correct answer.

Shortcut Trick

Divisibility rule of 9: Sum of digits must be a multiple of 9.

Sum of digits in 572X41 = 5 + 7 + 2 + X + 4 + 1 = 19 + X.

The smallest multiple of 9 greater than 19 is 27.

19 + X = 27 ⇒ X = 8.

∴ The correct option is D.

Alternate Method

Given: The number 572X41 is divisible by 9.

Formula Used: A number is divisible by 9 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 9.

5

7

2

X

4

1 Sum = (19 + X) must be divisible by 9

⇒ Sum of digits of 572X41 = 5 + 7 + 2 + X + 4 + 1

⇒ Sum = 19 + X

⇒ Since the number is divisible by 9, the sum (19 + X) must be equal to a multiple of 9.

⇒ Multiples of 9 are 9, 18, 27, 36, ...

⇒ As X is a single digit (0 ≤ X ≤ 9), the sum (19 + X) must be 27.

⇒ 19 + X = 27

⇒ X = 27 − 19

⇒ X = 8

∴ The correct option is D.

Additional Information

Divisibility by 3

A number is divisible by 3 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 3.

Divisibility by 11

A number is divisible by 11 if the difference between the sum of digits at odd places and the sum of digits at even places is either 0 or a multiple of 11.

Divisibility by 4

A number is divisible by 4 if the last two digits of the number are divisible by 4.

Divisibility by 8

A number is divisible by 8 if the last three digits of the number are divisible by 8.

Given:

Three numbers are in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 5.

The sum of the largest and the smallest number is 9800.

Calculation:

Let the numbers be 2x, 3x and 5x (as they are in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 5)

Given, the sum of the largest and smallest number is 9800.

So, 5x + 2x = 9800

Simplifying, we get:

7x = 9800

x = 1400

Therefore, the numbers are:

Smallest number = 2x = 2 × 1400 = 2800

Middle number = 3x = 3 × 1400 = 4200

Largest number = 5x = 5 × 1400 = 7000

The difference between the largest and the smallest number is 7000 - 2800 = 4200.

Hence, the difference between the largest and smallest number is 4200.

Shortcut Trick

Assume the initial number is 100.

Required Correct Value = 100 × 1.20 × 1.30 = 156 units.

Actual Resultant Value = 100 − 22% of 100 = 78 units.

Required percentage = (Resultant ÷ Correct) × 100 = (78 ÷ 156) × 100 = 50%.

∴ The correct answer is 50 percent.

Alternate Method

Given:

Successive increases: 20% and 30%

Error decrease: 22%

Formula Used:

Net change for successive percentage a% and b% = [a + b + (a × b) / 100]%

Percentage relative value = (Value₁ / Value₂) × 100

Calculations:

⇒ Let the initial number be x = 100.

⇒ Net successive increase = 20 + 30 + (20 × 30) / 100 = 50 + 6 = 56%.

⇒ Required correct value = 100 + 56% of 100 = 156.

⇒ Resultant value (after 22% decrease) = 100 − 22% of 100 = 78.

⇒ Percentage of correct value = (Resultant Value / Correct Value) × 100

⇒ Required percentage = (78 / 156) × 100

⇒ Required percentage = (1 / 2) × 100 = 50%.

∴ The correct answer is 50 percent.

Additional Information

Successive Percentage Change

For two successive changes of x% and y%, the effective change is given by the formula (x + y + xy/100)%. Use positive for increase and negative for decrease.

Multiplying Factor Method

An increase of r% is equivalent to multiplying the base by (1 + r/100), while a decrease of r% is equivalent to multiplying by (1 − r/100).

Percentage Comparison

To calculate what percent A is of B, use the formula (A ÷ B) × 100. Ensure both quantities are in the same units.

Given:

Selling price of the book = 8/15 of the marked price

Loss incurred = 20%

Formula used:

Selling price = Cost price - Loss

Loss percent = (Loss/Cost price) x 100

Calculation:

Let the marked price of the book be M and the cost price be C.

Given that the book is sold at 8/15 of the marked price. So, selling price (S) of the book is:

S = (8/15)M

It is given that there is a loss of 20% when the book is sold. So, loss incurred is:

Loss = 20% of C = (20/100)C = 0.2C

Using the formula for selling price, we get:

S = C - Loss

Substituting the values of S and Loss, we get:

(8/15)M = C - 0.2C

Simplifying this equation, we get:

M/C = 15/8 * 0.8 = 1.5

Therefore, the ratio of the marked price to the cost price of the book is 3:2.

Answer: 3:2

Shortcut TrickLet, MP = 15a, and SP = 8a

Suffered 20% loss, then CP = 100 × 8a/(100 - 20) = 10a

Now, MP : CP = 15a : 10a = 3 : 2

Given:

In a ΔRST, Z is a point on side ST and SZ = ZT.

∠RZS = 90

RS = 10 cm

Calculation:

In ΔRZS and ΔRZT,

∠RZS = ∠RZT = 90

SZ = ZT                        (Given)

RZ = RZ                       (Common)

By using SAS criteria of similarity,

ΔRZS ≅ ΔRZT

∴ RT = 10 cm

∴ Option 2 is the correct answer.

Shortcut Trick

By trial and error, find values of x and y that satisfy both x² + y² = 29 and x − y = 3.

For x = 5 and y = 2: 5² + 2² = 25 + 4 = 29.

Checking the second condition: 5 − 2 = 3. Both conditions are satisfied.

Substitute these values into the target expression: 4xy = 4 × 5 × 2 = 40.

∴ The correct answer is 40.

Alternate Method

Given:

x² + y² = 29

x − y = 3

Formula used:

Standard algebraic identity: (a − b)² = a² + b² − 2ab

Calculations:

⇒ (x − y)² = 3²

⇒ x² + y² − 2xy = 9

⇒ 29 − 2xy = 9

⇒ 2xy = 29 − 9

⇒ 2xy = 20

⇒ 4xy = 2 × 20

⇒ 4xy = 40

∴ The correct answer is 40.

Additional Information

Square of a Sum

The identity for the square of a sum is (x + y)² = x² + y² + 2xy.

Difference of Squares

The difference of two squares is factored as x² − y² = (x − y)(x + y).

Product-Sum Relationship

The relationship between the square of the sum and the square of the difference is (x + y)² − (x − y)² = 4xy.

Shortcut Trick

Total distance = Sum of train lengths = 125 + 375 = 500 m.

Relative Speed (Opposite) = 81 + 63 = 144 km/hr.

Convert Speed to m/s: 144 × (5/18) = 40 m/s.

Required Time = Total Distance ÷ Relative Speed = 500 ÷ 40 = 12.5 sec.

∴ The correct answer is 12.5 sec.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length of Train 1 (L₁) = 125 m

Length of Train 2 (L₂) = 375 m

Speed of Train 1 (S₁) = 81 km/hr

Speed of Train 2 (S₂) = 63 km/hr

Formula Used:

Time = (L₁ + L₂) ÷ (Relative Speed)

Relative Speed (Opposite Direction) = S₁ + S₂

Calculations:

⇒ Total Length = 125 + 375 = 500 m

⇒ Sum of Speeds = 81 + 63 = 144 km/hr

⇒ Relative Speed in m/s = 144 × (5 ÷ 18)

⇒ Relative Speed = 8 × 5 = 40 m/s

⇒ Time taken = 500 ÷ 40

⇒ Time taken = 12.5 sec

∴ The correct answer is 12.5 sec.

Additional Information

Relative Speed Rules

For two objects moving in the opposite direction, Relative Speed = S₁ + S₂. For same direction, Relative Speed = |S₁ − S₂|.

Unit Conversion

To convert speed from km/hr to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert from m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18/5.

Crossing Distance

When a train crosses a pole or point object, distance = length of the train. When it crosses a platform or another train, distance = sum of both lengths.

Given:

$a^4 + \frac{1}{a^4} = 194$

Identity used:

(a + b)2 = a2 + b2 + 2ab

If (x + 1/x) = p then (x3 + 1/x3) = p3 - 3p

Calculation:

a4 + 1/a4 = 194

Adding 2 on both sides we'll get

⇒ a4 + 1/a4 + 2 = 194 + 2 = (a2 + 1/a2)2

Then, (a2 + 1/a2) = √196 = 14

Again adding 2 on both sides, we'll get

⇒ a2 + 1/a2 + 2 = 14 + 2 = (a + 1/a)2

Then, (a + 1/a) = √16 = 4

⇒ a3 + 1/a3 = (a + 1/a)3 - 3 × (a + 1/a) = 43 - 3 × 4 

⇒ a3 + 1/a³ = 52

⇒ (a⁶ + 1)/a³ = 52

∴ Option 3 is the correct answer.

Given:

ΔPQR is right-angled at Q

⇒ Cot P = 5/12

Calculation:

Cot P = Adjacent/Opposite = QP/RQ = 5/12

Tan R = PQ/QR = 5/12

cot P - tan R = 5/12 - 5/12 = 0

∴ The correct answer is 0.

The correct answer is 'practising its'.

Key Points

• "It’s" is a contraction of "it is" or "it has", but "its" (without an apostrophe) is needed here as we're indicating possession.
• 'Practising its' maintains the correct tense and uses the correct possessive form.
• 'Practised it’s' has a contraction error and an incorrect tense.
• 'Practise its' is incorrect due to the incorrect verb tense.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3 ('practising its').

Hinglish 

• "It’s" एक संक्षिप्त रूप (contraction) है "it is" या "it has" का, लेकिन यहाँ "its" (अपॉस्ट्रोफी के बिना) की आवश्यकता है क्योंकि हम स्वामित्व (possession) दर्शा रहे हैं।
• 'Practising its' में सही tense और सही possessive form का प्रयोग हुआ है।
• 'Practised it’s' में contraction error और incorrect tense है।
• 'Practise its' सही नहीं है क्योंकि यहाँ verb tense गलत है।

इसलिए, सही उत्तर है Option 3 ('practising its').

The incorrectly spelled word is option 3, "Agravate." The correct spelling is "Aggravate."

 Key Points

• The word "aggravate" means to make a problem or situation worse.
• Option 1, "Cramp," is spelled correctly. It refers to a sudden, painful contraction of a muscle.
• Option 2, "Damp," is also spelled correctly. It means slightly wet or moist.
• Option 4, "Stamp," is spelled correctly. It can refer to a mark made by pressing or hitting something, or to a small piece of paper with a design on it that is used to show payment or approval.

The correct answer is "Derision".

Key Points

• Ridicule means to mock or make fun of someone or something in a contemptuous or sarcastic manner. (उपहास करना)
• Pathology refers to the study of diseases and their effects on the body. (रोग-विज्ञान, विकृति विज्ञान)
• Resolute means determined and unwavering in purpose or opinion. (दृढ़, कृतसंकल्प, अटल)
• Derision means contemptuous ridicule or mockery. (उपहास,हास्यास्पद)
• Derivation refers to the process of obtaining something from a source or origin. (व्युत्पत्ति, उत्पत्ति)
• From the meanings of all the words, it is clear that "Derision" is the most appropriate synonym for "ridicule".
• Hence, option 3 is correct.

The opposite of "nadir" is "climax".

Explanation:

• Nadir means the lowest point or the bottom of something.
• Climax means the highest point or the peak of something.

Option 2: Base - This word is not the opposite of nadir. Base means the foundation or the starting point of something.

Option 3: Bottom - This word is synonymous with nadir, so it is not the opposite.

Option 4: Docile - This word is unrelated to nadir and means submissive or easily managed.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1: Climax.

The erroneous part is: option 4.

Key Points

• Prepositions collocate with certain adjectives, verbs, or nouns and form a set phrase or combination.
• The correct form of the phrase is "good at something" and not "good on something" when referring to abilities or skills.
• Here "good at" is in collocation with "predicting," which indicates proficiency or skill in doing an activity.
• The preposition "at" is often used when indicating that someone is skilled or unskilled at doing something.

Therefore, the correct sentence should be: No doubt, human minds are good at predicting the worst.

The correct answer is option 2: "lead broke."

Explanation: The sentence is in the past tense, so the verb "broke" should also be in the past tense. "Lead breaking" (option 3) and "led break" (option 4) are not grammatically correct. "No improvement" (option 1) is not applicable as there is an error in the sentence. Therefore, the correct answer is option 2: "lead broke."

The correct sentence with no spelling error is option 3: "I take this issue very seriously."

Option 1 has a spelling error with "serisly" instead of "seriously." Option 2 has a spelling error with "vary" instead of "very" and "seriusly" instead of "seriously." Option 4 has a spelling error with "isue" instead of "issue."

Therefore, option 3 is the correct sentence with no spelling error.

The correct passive form of the given sentence is: "The windows are washed every week by the maid."

In the passive voice, the subject of the sentence becomes the receiver of the action, while the doer of the action is either omitted or introduced with the preposition "by".

Here, "the windows" is the subject of the sentence, and "are washed" is the passive form of the verb "wash". The doer of the action is "the maid", which is introduced with the preposition "by".

Option 1 is incorrect because it uses the wrong verb form ("wash" instead of "washed") and the wrong subject-verb agreement ("windows are" instead of "windows were").

Option 2 is incorrect because it uses the wrong verb tense ("were washed" instead of "are washed").

Option 4 is incorrect because it uses the wrong verb form ("was washed" instead of "are washed") and the wrong subject-verb agreement ("windows was" instead of "windows are").

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3: "The windows are washed every week by the maid."

The correct sequence is: Nurses, unlike physicians, have been slow to adopt these technologies and the reasons for this may relate to the status of both these professions within the hospital setting. Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

The correct answer is option 4: "was known."

Explanation: The sentence is in the past tense, so the verb "knew" should be changed to its past participle form "known." Also, the subject "medieval knight" is singular, so the verb should be in the singular form "was." Therefore, the correct sentence is "The medieval knight was known for his horsemanship."

The correct answer is option 2: He said that he would never hurt me.

Explanation: When we change a direct speech sentence into indirect speech, we need to make some changes to the sentence structure and verb tense. In this case, we need to change the verb "will" to "would" to reflect the past tense of the original statement. We also need to add the conjunction "that" to introduce the indirect statement.

Option 1: He said he should never hurt me. This option is incorrect because "should" implies obligation or duty, which is not the same as the original statement's intention of a promise or assurance.

Option 3: He says that he will never hurt me. This option is incorrect because it is still in the present tense, whereas the original statement was in the past tense.

Option 4: He said that he will never hurt me. This option is incorrect because it uses the present tense "will" instead of the past tense "would."

Overall, it is important to pay attention to the verb tense and structure when changing direct speech into indirect speech.

The correct answer is option 1) A person out of accustomed environment.

The idiom "a fish out of water" refers to a person who is in an unfamiliar or uncomfortable situation, just like a fish that is taken out of water and placed on land. This person may feel awkward, out of place, or unable to adapt to their new surroundings.

Option 2) "To kill somebody" is not related to the idiom "a fish out of water" and is incorrect.

Option 3) "To criticize someone" is also not related to the idiom and is incorrect.

Option 4) "A dead person" is not related to the idiom and is incorrect.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1) A person out of accustomed environment.

The opposite of knack is inability.

Key Points

• Knack means a natural skill or talent for doing something.
• Inability means the lack of ability or skill to do something.
• Therefore, inability is the opposite of knack.

Additional Information

• Vile means extremely unpleasant or disgusting, which is not related to knack.
• Process means a series of actions or steps taken to achieve a particular end, which is not opposite to knack.
• Lesson means a period of learning or teaching, which is not opposite to knack.

Important Points

• It is important to note that the opposite of a word depends on the context in which it is used.
• In this case, the opposite of knack is inability because it refers to the ability or skill to do something.
• However, in a different context, the opposite of knack could be a different word.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

• The error is in "marine microbes that produces a chemical scent".
• The subject "marine microbes" is plural, but the verb "produces" is singular. It should be "produce" to agree with the subject.
• Option 1 ("coated with algae and other") is grammatically correct.
• Option 3 ("Plastic debris in the ocean can become") is also grammatically correct.
• Option 4 ("No error") is not the correct answer in this case, as there is an error in the sentence.
• Therefore, option 2 is correct.

Correct sentence: Plastic debris in the ocean can become coated with algae and other marine microbes that produce a chemical scent.

Additional Information

• The sentence is discussing how plastic debris in the ocean can absorb and retain a chemical scent due to the growth of algae and other marine microbes on its surface. This can attract marine animals, leading to ingestion of the plastic and potential harm to the animals.

The correct answer is option 3: "you sit on it and control its movements."

 Key Points

• The original sentence is grammatically incorrect because it uses the past tense "sat" instead of the present tense "sit.

 Additional Information

• The phrase "and control it movements" is missing the possessive pronoun "its" to indicate that the rider is controlling the movements of the horse, not their own movements.
• Option 1, "you sit on it and afterwards control it," is also grammatically correct and conveys the same meaning as option 3. However, the word "afterwards" is unnecessary and makes the sentence slightly wordy.
• Option 2, "you seated on it and control it," is incorrect because "seated" is not the correct past participle form of "sit." It should be "sat" or "have sat."
• Option 4, "No improvement," is incorrect because the original sentence is grammatically incorrect and needs improvement.
• Overall, option 3 is the best choice because it is concise, grammatically correct, and conveys the intended meaning clearly.