SSC CHSL Previous Paper 3 (Held On: 5 March 2018 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is percolation.

Key Points

• Correct spelling is P-E-R-C-O-L-A-T-I-O-N.
• Percolation - the process of a liquid slowly passing through a filter.
• Ex. The percolation of rainwater through the soil.

Hence, the correct answer is 'percolation.'

The correct answer is ACB.

Key Points

• 'A' is the first part as the subject 'team-building skills' (introduction of another subject) fits correctly after 'and.'
• 'C' follows 'A' as it states what deepened (a sense of value).
• 'B' completes the sentence by conveying 'a sense of value for what' (for relationships).
  

**Correct sentence: 'Leadership and team-building skills deepened a sense of value for relationships.'

The correct answer is No improvement.

Key Points

• The sentence is structured in simple present tense thus the verbs 'comes running' fit here correctly.
• 'Come running' is an idiom that means 'to run to someone'.
• Ex. The dog came running when she called it.
• We need to change the main verb 'come' as per the sentence we use. In the simple present, we use 's' or 'es' to the root word.
• Hence, the use of 'comes running' is correct in the given sentence.
• The tense forms in the options are not correct and they are grammatically wrong. 
  

**Correct sentence: '**My daughter (comes running) as fast as her little feet can take her while her eyes sparkle vivaciously.'

The correct answer is were activated. 

Key Points

• In the given sentence from the verbs tried and slowed we can say the sentence is structured in the past tense.
• Therefore after 'his senses' we need to put in a past tense verb that is activated.
• 'Senses' is a plural noun we should use were instead of was.
  

**Correct sentence: 'As he tried harder, his steps slowed, his senses were activated.'

The correct answer is Conceivable.

Key Points

• Let's see the meanings of the given words:
• Dazzling - extremely impressive or attractive.
• Ex. The sunlight was dazzling
• Conceivable - That which can be perceived, imaginable, grasped mentally.
• Ex. His speech was conceivable
• Stunning - Extremely impressive or attractive.
• Ex. That car was looking stunning.
• Spectacular - Amazing
• Ex. What a spectacular view.
• Hence, the word 'conceivable' is the appropriate substitute for the sentence given.

The correct answer is Transcendent​.

Key Points

• Let's see the meanings of the given words:
• Mundane - Monotonous; dull. (रुचि या उत्तेजना की कमी; उदासीन)
• Ex. The work I am doing is mundane.
• Transcendent  - Surpassing the ordinary; exceptional, beyond or above the range of normal or physical human experience. (साधारण से बढ़कर; असाधारण, सामान्य या भौतिक मानव अनुभव की सीमा से परे या ऊपर।)
• Ex. Her transcendent beauty.
• Ribald - Referring to sexual matters in an amusingly rude or irreverent way.
• Ex. Such a ribald comment.
• Coarse - Rough or harsh in texture, rude, vulgar (तरीके या भाषण में असभ्य या आक्रामक ।)
• Ex. His speech was coarse in nature.
• Hence, the word 'Transcendent' is the appropriate substitute for the sentence given.

The correct answer is Madly in love.

Key Points

• The phrase 'head over heels' means 'madly in love.'
• ​Ex. I immediately fell head over heels for her.
  

Additional Information

• Other idioms related to heels.
• Cool Your Heels - Be kept waiting.
• Hot on the Heels - arriving or happening very close behind someone or something.
• Achilles’ heel - An Achilles heel is a weakness in spite of overall strength, which can lead to downfall.

The correct answer is A criminal escaped or not yet captured.

Key Points

• The idiom 'At large' means to be free; not in custody, imprisoned, or otherwise confined**,** a criminal escaped or not yet captured.
• ​Ex. That notorious criminal was still at large
• 'At large' can also be used to say generally. 
• Ex. Society at large will benefit from this.

The correct answer is observation.

Key Points

• Parallel structure refers to the same word pattern within a sentence by repeating a chosen grammatical form. It emphasizes the same level of importance of multiple ideas or information given in the same sentence, usually connected by coordinating conjunctions. 
• Ex*. He was speaking fluently and clearly.*
• In the given sentence 'introspection' is a noun, Hence, the noun 'observation' should be used in the given space.
  

Correct sentence: 'The problems suggested for observation and introspection will, if mastered, do much to render practical help to find the truths of psychology.'

The correct answer is with.

Key Points

• Since the sentence talks about correlating that is 'linking and matching', the correct preposition here is 'with.'
• 'With' means 'in relation to' in the given context.
• Hence 'with' should be used in the given space. 
  

Correct sentence: 'Prospective teachers should constantly correlate the lessons of the book with the observation of children at work in the school.'

Additional Information

• Until - up to (the point in time or the event mentioned)
• Ex. I will wait for you until someone comes.
• From - Indicating a point in space, separation, prevention, a cause, starting point, source. 
• Ex. A p**aint made from a natural resin.
• Upon - the more formal term for on, especially in abstract senses.
• ​Ex. It was based upon a true story.

The correct answer is by.

Key Points

• The correct preposition here is 'by' as something is verified 'by' a particular method.
• By - Identifying the agent performing an action. indicating the means of achieving something.
• Ex. He was hit by a car.
• Hence 'by' should be used in the given space. 
  

Correct sentence: *'*While the text should be thoroughly mastered, its statements should always be verified by reference to one's own experience, and observation of others.'

Additional Information

• To - 
• Expressing motion in the direction of (a particular location).
• Ex. Down to the shops.
• Approaching or reaching (a particular condition).
• Ex. It turned out to be amazement to joy
• Identifying the person or thing affected by or receiving something. 
• Ex. You were rude to him
• Identifying a particular relationship between one person and another. 
• Ex. He is married to her.
• At - Indicating Location, time and state. 
• Ex. I was at his house.
• For - Indicate the purpose, as being, because of. 
• ​Ex. He was waiting for a good opportunity.

The correct answer is found.

Key Points

• The verb “To be” most frequently works in conjunction with another verb, Occasionally, though, the verb will stand by itself, alone, in a sentence.
• The construction to be + the past participle is a passive infinitive.
• An infinitive construction in which the agent (or performer of the action) either appears in a prepositional phrase following the verb or is not identified at all.
• The passive infinitive is made up of the marker to + be + a past participle (also known as the -en form):
• Ex. The case is to be decided by a judge.
• Hence 'Found' should be used in the given space.
  

Correct sentence: 'The laboratory material is to be found ourselves.'

The correct answer is not.

Key Points

• The author is trying to say that psychology is not a text book subject but essentially a laboratory science, which means psychology should be used practically.
• Here we are supposed to say that psychology is not a text-book subject.
• Hence, 'not' should be used in the given space.
• 'Neither and nor' is used together while indicating two of the given options are not valid.
• Ex. He is neither gonna ask me nor gonna ask anyone.
  

**Correct sentence: 'One should always keep in mind that psychology is essentially a laboratory science, and not a text-book subject.'

The correct answer is Bizarre.

Key Points

• The spelling of the word is B-I-Z-A-R-R-E.
• Bizarre - Strange or unusual 
• Ex. He wore a bizarre outfit.

The correct answer is Ram said that he had cleared the clutter.

Key Points

• The given sentence is in the direct speech we need to convert it into Indirect speech.
• In the indirect speech the correct pronoun and the correct tense need to be used.
• The present perfect tense in direct speech becomes past perfect in indirect speech.
• The word 'said' does not need a change and option 3 is the correct answer.
  

Hence, the correct answer is 'Ram said that he had cleared the clutter.'

The correct answer is By whom was this done?

Key Points

• In the passive voice, the structure should be: Object + verb + Subject
• Thus, 'whom' should be written before 'this'.
• The correct tense is simple past as 'did' has been used in the sentence.
  

​

Hence, the correct answer 'By whom was this done?'

The correct answer is RQP.

Key Points

• The given sentence is talking about gender inequality and its effect on economic growth.
• R is the first part of the sentence as it states what 'gender equality' has.
• Q follows R as it states on what the impact lies.
• P completes the sentence, as it supports the previous statement about how development goals are affected because of the reduced economic growth.  
  

Correct sentence:  'Gender inequality has an adverse impact on​ development goals as it reduces economic growth.'

The correct answer is Fun.

Key Points

• The word 'banter' means 'the playful and friendly exchange of teasing remarks.' 
• For e.g.- I missed my Dad a lot in the Philippines, especially our playful banter.
• Thus 'fun'- enjoyment, amusement, or light-hearted pleasure. . 
• Ex. We had great fun at the beach.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Fun'.

Additional Information

• Angry - Feeling or showing strong annoyance.
• Ex. He was angry with me
• Whisper - Speak very softly using one's breath rather than one's throat.
• Ex. She whispered in my ears.
• Strict - Demanding that rules concerning behaviour are obeyed and observed.
• ​Ex. The teacher was strict.

The correct answer is Conquer.

Key Points

• The word 'forgo' means sacrifice or let go.
• Ex. He wanted to forgo tea
• Synonyms - Renounce, surrender, relinquish
• Antonyms - Keep, retain, hold on, conquer
• Conquer - Overcome and take control of (a place or people).
• Hence the opposite of 'forgo' is 'Conquer'.
  

Additional Information

• Forfeit- A fine or penalty for wrongdoing.
• Ex. the loser must pay a forfeit
• Neglect - Fail to care for properly.
• Ex. She neglected her health
• Pass - Move or cause to move, die. 
• ​Ex. He passed through the mountains.

The correct answer is Irritate.

Key Points

• The word 'Chafe' means a state of annoyance.
• Ex**.** Into what an unprofitable chafe you have put yourself!
• Synonyms - Annoy, to feel impatient, irritate.
  

Hence, the correct answer is 'Irritate'.

Additional Information

• Chain - fasten or secure with a chain. 
• Ex. He chained his bicycle with railing
• Safe - Protected from or not exposed to danger or risk; not likely to be harmed or lost.
• Ex. The baby is safe in my hands.
• Joy- A feeling of great pleasure and happiness.
• ​Ex. The joy of achieving something is always amazing.

The correct answer is Bliss.

Key Points

• The word 'felicity' means intense happiness.
• Synonyms - Bliss, happy, joyous
• Other options are synonyms of sadness. 
  

Hence, the correct answer is 'Bliss'.

Additional Information

• Misery - A state or feeling of great physical or mental distress or discomfort. 
• Ex. He was going through such misery.
• Grief - Intense sorrow, sadness.
• Ex. She was grieving because of the tragedy
• Trouble - Disturbance
• ​Ex. The trouble of getting into such a situation.

The correct answer is Acknowledgement​.

Key Points

• The word acknowledgement means acceptance of the truth or existence of something.
• The given sentence talks about the qualities of nature that bring joy and peace.
• Here we are trying to accept the truth of laws of nature.
• Hence, the word acknowledgement best suits in the given space.
  

Hence, the correct answer is 'Acknowledgement​.'

Additional Information

• Dissent - Disagreement
• Ex. Her dissent to the fact was acceptable.
• Refusal -  Denial
• Ex. She refused to go to the hall.
• Sustenance  - Means maintaining of someone or something in life or existence. 
• ​Ex. Anil is getting his sustenance allowance.

The correct answer is Await.

Key Points

• The word 'Await' means wait for (an event).
• Ex. we await the results with impatience
• In the given sentence Meera is waiting for the exam results.
• Hence, 'Await' should be used in the given space.

**Correct sentence: 'Meera cannot await the exam's results.'

Additional Information

• Depict - Portray; describe
• Ex. The depiction of her novel.
• Envision - Imagine as a future possibility; visualize.
• Ex. She envisioned the admiring glances of her friends.
• Observe - Watch 
• ​Ex. She was observing her baby.

The correct answer is 2.

Key Points

• The error lies in part 2 of the sentence as the preposition 'for' is incorrect here.
• 'for' should be replaced with 'between.'
• One discriminates 'between' things which means 'to distinguish and be biased towards a particular thing.'
  

**Correct sentence: '**Internet Service Providers (ISPs) should provide us with open networks and should not block or discriminate between any application or content that rides over those networks.'

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• The phrase "She picked on" is incorrect in the context of this sentence.
• The correct phrase should be "She picked up" to indicate that she resumed or continued the trail.
• The error is located in part 2 of the sentence.
• The remaining parts of the sentence are grammatically correct and do not require changes.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Correct Sentence: "She picked up the trail soon after."

The logic here is as follows:

‘Pascal’ is the S.I. unit of ‘Pressure’.

Hectare : Volume → 'Liter' is the S.I. unit of 'Volume'

Speed : Temperature → 'Celsius' is the S.I. unit of 'Temperature'

Joule : Work → 'Joule' is the S.I. unit of 'Work'.

Time : Seconds → 

So, the ‘Joule’ is the S.I. unit of ‘Work’.

Hence,  is the correct answer is "Joule : Work".

The left hand side follows the following pattern : 563 : 635

(Diagram of number shifting)

Hence, the correct answer is "948".

The pattern followed here is;

M - 2 = K

O - 3 = L

K - 4 = G

Similarly, checking all the options:

1. FIM : DFI → F - 2 = D, I - 3 = F,  M - 4 = I

2. TMA : UNB → T - 2 = R, M - 3 = J, A - 4 = W

3) KCN : JBM → K - 2 = I, C - 3 = Z, N - 4 = J

4) FSA : IVD → F - 2 = D, S - 3 = P,  A - 4 = W

Hence, correct answer is "FIM : DFI".

The logic here as follows:

All options except ‘Rectangle - Three’ shows the correct number of sides of the given polygon figures.

1. A Square has four sides.

2. A Pentagon has five sides

3. A Rectangle has four sides.

4. A Triangle has three sides.

Hence, the correct answer is "Rectangle - Three".

Here logic is as follows:

All the options except ‘3 - 39’ are the pairs of numbers and their respective squares.

 1) 7² = 49

 2) 2² = 4

 3)  5² = 25

 4) 3² = 9

Hence, the correct answer is "3 - 39".

The logic here is as follows :

Alphabet + 2 = Next letter

RTV → R + 2 = T; T + 2 = V

HJL → H + 2 = J; J + 2 = L

KMP → K + 2 = M; M + 3 = P

BDF → B + 2 = D; D + 2 = F

Hence, the correct answer is "KMP".

As per the dictionary order :

1. Soften
2. Status
3. Sterile
4. Sterilize
5. Stick

Hence, the correct dictionary order is "15423".

The pattern followed here is:

23 + 5 = 28;

28 + 6 = 34;

34 + 7 = 41;

41 + 8 = 49;

49 + 9 = 58.

Hence, the correct answer is "58".

The pattern followed here is:-

Hence, the correct answer is "OVL".

The following arrangement is as follows:

Position of Panjab from the right end = 19

Position of Raftaar from the right end = (19 + 23) = 42

Raftaar is at the exact center of the row, which means there are 41 buses to the left of Raftaar bus and 41 buses to the right of Raftaar bus.

r

Therefore, buses ae between Raftaar bus and bus standing at the left end = (41 - 1) = 40.

Hence, the correct answer is "40".

Given word → Government

1. Got → Government (so, word 'Got' can be formed)

2. Over → Government (so, word 'Over' can be formed)

3. Need → as letter 'D' is not present in the word 'Government' so, word 'Need' cannot be formed.

4. Norm → Government (so, word 'NORM' can be formed)

Hence, the correct answer is "Need".

The logic followed here is :

F - 1 = E

R - 1 = Q

I - 1 = H

E - 1 = D

D - 1 = C

Similarly,

R - 1 = Q

U - 1 = T

S - 1 = R

T - 1 = S

Y - 1 = X

Hence, the correct answer is "QTRSX".

Given → 19 ÷ 2 - 35 + 10 × 6 = ?

After replacing the symbols with their meaning, we get:-

New equation → 19 + 2 × 35 ÷ 10 - 6

Now, after applying BODMAS Rule, we get:-

19 + 2 × 35 ÷ 10 - 6

19 + 2 × 3.5 - 6

19 + 7 - 6

26 - 6 = 20

Hence, the correct answer is "20".

Given equation:-

15 × 18 - 6 ÷ 20 + 4 = 29

Checking options one by one by interchanging signs

1) + and x

After interchanging, new equation → 15 × 18 + 6 ÷ 20 - 4 = 29

By solving the equation using BODMAS rule, we get:-

15 × 18 + 6 ÷ 20 - 4 = 29

15 × 18 + 0.3 - 4 = 29

270 + 0.3 - 4 = 29

273.3 - 4 = 29

269.3 ≠ 29

Left hand side is not equal to right hand side.

2) ÷ and -

After interchanging, new equation → 15 × 18 ÷ 6 - 20 + 4 = 29

By solving the equation using BODMAS rule, we get:-

15 × 18 ÷ 6 - 20 + 4 = 29

15 × 3 - 20 + 4 = 29

45 + 4 - 20 = 29

49 - 20 = 29

29 = 29

Left hand side is equal to right hand side.

3) + and ÷

After interchanging, new equation → 15 × 18 - 6 + 20 ÷ 4 = 29

By solving the equation using BODMAS rule, we get:-

15 × 18 - 6 + 20 ÷ 4 = 29

15 × 18 - 6 + 5 = 29

270 + 5 - 6 = 29

275 - 6 = 29

269 ≠ 29

Left hand side is not equal to right hand side

4) - and +

After interchanging, new equation → 15 × 18 + 6 ÷ 20 - 4 = 29

By solving the equation using BODMAS rule, we get:-

15 × 18 + 6 ÷ 20 - 4 = 29

15 × 18 + 0.3 - 4 = 29

270 + 0.3 - 4 = 29

270.3 - 4 = 29

266.3 ≠ 29

Left hand side is not equal to right hand side.

Hence, the correct answer is "÷ and -".

The logic/rule followed here is :

40@8 = -5 → -(40 ÷ 8) = -5

30@3 = -10 → -(30 ÷ 3) = -10

20@5 = -4 → -(20 ÷ 5) = -4

Similarly,

60@3 → -(60 ÷ 3) = -20

Hence, the correct answer is "-20".

The pattern followed here is:-

A pair of lower case letters is changed to upper case letters and a pair of upper case letters is changed to lower case letters while moving from left end to right end.

Table showing the pattern:-

Hence, the correct answer is "ABabABAB".

Alternate Method ab / AB / AB / AB

AB / ab / AB / AB

AB / AB / ab / AB

AB / AB / AB / ab

ab / AB / AB / AB

AB / ab / AB / AB

Hence, the correct answer is "ABabABAB".

Hence, the correct answer is ‘5 km North’.

Conclusion I: No notebooks are diaries → Follows (as no books are notebooks and all diaries are books.)

Conclusion II: All diaries are notebooks → Doesn't Follows (as no books are notebooks and all diaries are books.)

Hence, the correct answer is "only conclusion I follows".

In the figure above:

 Rectangle represents Film critics,

 Circle represents Bakers,

 Triangle represents Divers,

 Square represents Football players.

So, the set of letters represents Football players who are not Divers is ED.

Hence, the correct answer is "ED".

The pattern/logic followed here is :

H - 2 = F; F - 2 = D; D - 2 = B; B - 2 = Z

P - 3 = M; M - 3 = J; J - 3 = G; G - 3 = D

A - 1 = Z; Z - 1 = Y; Y - 1 = X; X - 1 = W

Hence, the correct answer is "ZDW".

The pattern/logic followed here is :

Given series : 672, 666, 660, 654, ?

672 - 6 = 666;

666 - 6 = 660;

660 - 6 = 654;

654 - 6 = 648.

Hence, the correct answer is "648".

The pattern followed here is :

1. In (61, 64, 71) → 61 + 3 = 64; 64 + 7 = 71

2. In (57, 60, 69) → 57 + 3 = 60; 60 + 9 = 69

3. In (75, 78, 85) → 75 + 3 = 78; 78 + 7 = 85

4. In (89, 92, 99) → 89 + 3 = 92; 92 + 7 = 99

Hence, the correct answer is "(57, 60, 69)".

The mirror image of the given image is,

Hence, correct answer is "Option 1".

Hence, the correct answer is ‘image 3’.

Checking by solving the options:

1. 22, 78, 34, 69 → A, X, K, P

2. 22, 67, 34, 59 → A, N, K, W

3. 14, 69, 24, 75 → H, P, F, Q

4. 85, 67, 13, 57 → U, N, I, T

Hence, the correct answer is "85, 67, 13, 57".

We can write,

69120 = 8³ × 3³ × 5

To make it a perfect cube, it should be multiplied by 5²,

∴ 25 is the least number that can be multiplied to 69120 to make a perfect cube

Let he is on tour for ‘x’ days

His initial expenditure per day = 360/x

Now, if he exceeds his tour by 4 days,

His daily expenditure = 360/x – 3

Hence, his total expenditure,

⇒ (x + 4)(360/x – 3) = 360

⇒ 360 – 3x + 1440/x – 12 = 360

⇒ 3x² + 12x – 1440 = 0

⇒ x² + 4x – 480 = 0

⇒ x² + 24x – 20x – 480 = 0

⇒ x(x + 24) – 20(x + 24) = 0

⇒ (x + 24)(x – 20) = 0

⇒ x = -24, 20

∵ x cannot be negative

∴ Mr. Ankit is on tour for 20 days

We know that, (a + b)³ = a³ + b³ + 3ab(a + b)

So, we can write,

⇒ (r + s)³ = r³ + s³ + 3rs(r + s)

Substituting values,

⇒ 6³ = 0 + 3rs × 6

⇒ 216 = 18rs

⇒ rs = 216/18 = 12

Now,

⇒ (1/r + 1/s) = (r + s)/rs

∴ (1/r + 1/s) = 6/12 = 0.5

Given:

Our given equation is 59x + 14y – 112 = 0

Concept used:

In y-intercept, the value of the x is zero

Calculation:

Given equation, 59x + 14y – 112 = 0

Putting x = 0,

⇒ 59(0) + 14y – 112 = 0

⇒ y = 112/14

⇒ y = 8

∴ y-intercept of the equation is 8

When two circles touch each other externally, the distance between their centres is equal to the sum of their radiuses,

⇒ Distance = 12 = 7 + Radius of other circle

⇒ Radius of other circle = 12 – 7 = 5

∴ Diameter of other circle = 2(5) = 10 cm

Given:

Sides of triangle is = 9,12,15

Formula used:

For a triangle with sides a, b and c,

Length of radius of circumcircle = abc/√[(a + b + c)(a + b – c)(b + c – a)(a + c – b)]

Calculation:

Let a = 9 cm, b = 12 cm and c = 15 cm

⇒ Length of radius of circumference

= (9 × 12 × 15)/√(36 × 6 × 12 × 18)

= 1620/√46656

= 1620/216

= 7.5 cm

∴ Length of radius of circumference of triangle = 7.5 cm

Given:

X = 600 and Y = 800

Calculation:

According to the question

Difference = 800 – 600 = 200

Percentage = 200/800 × 100 = 25%

∴ X is 25% less than Y

∴ Option 2 is the correct answer.

Given:

The ratio of the three numbers is 2 : 3 : 5.

the sum of the three numbers is 275.

Calculation:

Let the three numbers be ‘2x’, ‘3x’ and ‘5x’ respectively

Sum of numbers = 2x + 3x + 5x = 10x

⇒ 10x = 275

⇒ x = 275/10 =27.5

Now, 5x = 5 × 27.5 = 137.5

∴ Largest number is 137.5.

Let S invested Rs. ‘3x’ for ‘a’ units of time

⇒ S’s total investment = 3ax

Let T invested Rs. ‘4x’ for ‘b’ units of time

⇒ T’s total investment = 4bx

Let U invested Rs. ‘6x’ for ‘c’ units of time

⇒ U’s total investment = 6cx

Now, ratio of investments = ratio of profits

⇒ 3ax ∶ 4bx ∶ 6cx = 1 ∶ 2 ∶ 3

Taking first two,

⇒ 3a/4b = 1/2

⇒ a/b = 2/3       ----(1)

Taking first and third,

⇒ 3a/6c = 1/3

⇒ a/c = 2/3       ----(2)

From (1) and (2), we get,

⇒ a ∶ b ∶ c = 2 ∶ 3 ∶ 3

∴ Ratio of time periods = 2 ∶ 3 ∶ 3

Profit = Investment × time

Profit ratio = 1: 2: 3

Investment Ratio = 3: 4: 6

Time = Profit/Investemnt

⇒ Time ratio = 1/3 : 2/4 : 3/6 = (1/3 : 1/2 : 1/2) 

LCM of 3, 2 and 2 = 6, So multiply each ratio by 6

(1/3 : 1/2 : 1/2) × 6

∴ Ratio of time = 2: 3: 3

Sum of first seven multiples of 7 = 7(1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 6 + 7) = 7(28) = 196

∴ Required average = 196/7 = 28

Let the two parts be ‘x’ and ‘(8000 – x)’

∵ Simple interest = (Principal × Rate × Time)/100

⇒ Simple interest on first part = (x × 21 × 1)/100 = 21x/100

⇒ Simple interest on second part = [(8000 – x) × 35 × 1]/100 = 2800 – 35x/100

But, the interest is equal in both cases,

⇒ 21x/100 = 2800 – 35x/100

⇒ 21x/100 + 35x/100 = 2800

⇒ 56x/100 = 2800

⇒ x = 100/56 × 2800 = Rs. 5000

∴ Interest on each part = 21x/100 = 21/100 × 5000 = Rs. 1050

Given:

Selling price of a glass = 1965

Loss percentage = 25%

Formula used:

∵ Selling price = Cost price – loss

Calculation:

⇒ 1965 = CP – 25% of CP

⇒ 1965 = CP – 1/4 × CP

⇒ 1965 = 3/4 × CP

⇒ CP = 1965 × 4/3 = Rs. 2620

Now, when selling price = Rs. 3013

Profit = 3013 – 2620 = Rs. 393

∴ Profit percentage = 393/2620 × 100 = 15%

Short trick∶

Required price = 6000 × 0.8/1.6 = Rs. 3000

Detailed solution∶

Let the cost price of the article be Rs. ‘x’

Profit = 60%

∵ Selling price = Cost price + profit

⇒ Selling price = x + 60% of x = x + 0.6x = 1.6x

Now,

Marked price = Rs. 6000

Discount = 20% of 6000 = 1/5 × 6000 = Rs. 1200

⇒ Selling price = Marked price – Discount = 6000 – 1200 = Rs. 4800

Hence,

⇒ 1.6x = 4800

⇒ x = 4800/1.6 = Rs. 3000

∴ Cost price of article = Rs. 3000

We know, √729 = 27

⇒ √7.29 = √(729/100) = 27/10 = 2.7 (Multiply numerator and denominator by 100)

⇒ √72.9 = √(7.29 × 10) = 2.7 × √10 = 2.7 × 3.16 = 8.53

∴ √729 + √72.9 + √7.29 = 27 + 8.53 + 2.7 = 38.23 

Approximation method:

√729 = 27

∴ √72.9 = 27/√10 ≈ 8.5

Similarily, √7.29 = √(729/100) = 27/10 = 2.7

√729 + √72.9 + √7.29 = 27 + 8.5 + 2.7 ≈ 38 

38 is closest to the option (4) i.e. 38.23

Rohan’s 1 day work + Mohit’s 1 day work = 1/8      ----(1)

Mohit’s 1 day work + Vikas’ 1 day work = 1/10       ----(2)

Vikas’ 1 day work + Rohan’s 1 day work = 1/12       ----(3)

Adding the three equations,

⇒ 2(Rohan’s 1 day work + Mohit’s 1 day work + Vikas’ 1 day work) = 1/8 + 1/10 + 1/12

⇒ 2(Rohan’s 1 day work + Mohit’s 1 day work + Vikas’ 1 day work) = 37/120

⇒ Rohan’s 1 day work + Mohit’s 1 day work + Vikas’ 1 day work = 1/2 × 37/120

⇒ Rohan’s 1 day work + Mohit’s 1 day work + Vikas’ 1 day work = 37/240

∴ Together, they will complete the wall in 240/37 days

Let the distance between the school and his house be ‘x’ km

Time taken on first day = Distance/speed = x/5 hrs.

His speed on next day = 5 + 4 = 9 km/hr.

Time taken on next day = x/9 hrs.

Now,

∵ He reached 3 min. late on the first day and reached 3 min. early the next day, this means that the difference between the time taken on the 2 days = 3 + 3 = 6 min. = 6/60 = 1/10 hrs.

⇒ x/5 – x/9 = 1/10

⇒ (9x – 5x)/45 = 1/10

⇒ 4x/45 = 1/10

⇒ x = 45/4 × 1/10

⇒ x = 1.125 km

∴ Distance between the school and his house is 1.125 km

No. of students who passed in 2015 = 10000

No. of students who passed in 2014 = 6500

∵ No. of students who passed in 2015 > No. of students who passed in 2014

∴ The answer is 2015

No. of students who passed in 2013 = 6500

No. of students who passed in 2016 = 7000

∴ Required difference = 7000 – 6500 = 500 mango com

No. of students who passed in 2016 = 7000

No. of students who passed in 2017 = 3500

∴ Required percentage = [(7000 – 3500)/3500] × 100 = 3500/3500 × 100 = 100%

No. of students who passed in 2015 = 10000

No. of students who passed in 2016 = 7000

No. of students who passed in 2017 = 3500

∴ Total no. of certificates awarded in last three years = 10000 + 7000 + 3500 = 20500

Given:

Length of one diagonal = 7 cm

Area of rhombus = 84 cm²

Formula used:

∵ Area of rhombus = 1/2 × Product of its diagonals

Calculation:

⇒ 84 = 1/2 × 7 × Other diagonal

∴ Length of other diagonal = 84 × 2/7 = 24 cm

Radius of semi-circle, r = 28 cm

Perimeter of semi-circle = 2r + πr

∴ Perimeter of given semi-circle = 2(28) + 22/7 × 28 = 56 + 88 = 144 cm

Radius of hemisphere, r = 28/2 = 14 cm

Curved surface area of hemisphere = 2πr²

∴ Curved surface area of given hemisphere = 2 × 22/7 × 14 × 14 = 1232 cm²

Concept used:

Calculation:

sin 60° + 2/√3             

= √3/2 + 2/√3                            [∵ sin 60° = √3/2]

= (3 + 4)/2√3

= 7/2√3

In the given ∆XYZ,

cos X = base/hypotenuse

⇒ XY/XZ = 3/5      ----(1)

Now, cosec Z = 1/sin Z = hypotenuse/perpendicular

⇒ cosec Z = XZ/XY

Substituting from (1)

∴ cosec Z = 5/3

The correct answer is Increase in per capita income

Key Points

• It is observed that people who earn less, tend to produce more children due to the notion that more children will contribute to the economy of the house.
• Moreover, they are not so educated and do not use contraceptives often. So, if a sudden decrease in the birth rate is found, it may lead to an increase in per capita income.

The correct answer is Telecommunications.

Key Points

• The service sector has contributed the highest foreign direct investment inflows into India.
• Since telecommunications is part of the Service sector, so this is the correct answer.

(As of 2018)

Important Points 

• According to a research report published on 28 December 2022 by the India Ratings & Research (Ind-Ra), the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in India was maximum in the service sectors.
• The share of the services sector and computer software & hardware in the FDI between April 2014 and March 2022 was as high as 41.3% and 19.6%, respectively, while manufacturing accounted for just 25.4%.
• Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) Equity Inflows:
• Commerce and Industry Ministry said, FDI inflows in the last seven financial years is over 440 billion dollar, which is nearly 58 percent of the total FDI inflow in last 21 financial years.
• The top five countries from where FDI Equity Inflows were received during 2014 to 2021 are Singapore, Mauritius, the USA, Netherlands and Japan.
• The Computer Software and Hardware sector attracted the largest share of FDI inflows, followed by Service, Trading and Telecommunications.

The correct answer is Navsari Copperplate Inscription.

Key Points

• The copper plate inscription at Nausasi (Navsari) tells us about Harsha's successful mission against Vallabhi.
• According to the inscription, Harsha beat Dhruvasena II, the monarch of Vallabh, who had agreed to become a feudatory vassal, in battle.
• Through a marriage arrangement, his hostilities with the Vallabhi kingdom were put to a stop.

Additional Information

• Aihole Pillar Inscription:
• At the Meguti Jain temple in Aihole, Karnataka, India, there is a nineteen-line Sanskrit inscription known as the "Aihole Pillar Inscription."
• Junagadh Inscription:
• Rudradaman I, the monarch of the Western Satraps, carved a Sanskrit text on a rock and called it the Junagadh Inscription.
• It is close to Girnar Hill, which is close to Junagadh, Gujarat, India.
• Damodarpur copper plate Inscription:
• Details about the selling of land are provided in the Damodarpur copper plate inscription from the Gupta era.

The correct answer is Hindukush.

Key Points

• Akbar was the third Mughal Emperor, who reigned from 1556 to 1605.
• The northwestern border of the Mughal Empire during the reign of Akbar reached Hindukush.
• The southern border extended till Godavari, eastern to Bengal and western to Hindukush.

​

Additional Information

• Akbar was one of the most successful emperors during the Mughal Era.
• He was born on October 1542 and died on 27th October 1605.
• Akbar was the third Mughal Emperor, his reign was between 1556-1605 AD.
• In 1555, Humayan died just months after retaking Delhi. Akbar ascended the Mughal throne at the age of 13 and became Shahanshah ("King of Kings").
• His regent was Bayram Khan, his childhood guardian, and an outstanding warrior/statesman.
• Mughal emperor Akbar was an appreciator of art and literature and many poets adored his court during his reign.
• In his court, there were nine jewels known as Navratan they were:
• Birbal: Administrator
• Abul Fazal: Scholar and statesman
• Faizi: Scholar and Statesman
• Todarmal: Finance minister
• Bhagwandas: Mansabdar
• Man Singh: Mansabdar
• Tansen: Musician
• Abdul Rahim khan-i-khana: Statesman
• Mulla do Pyaza

The correct answer is Perihelion

Key Points

• Perihelion is the point in the orbit of the planet that is closest to the sun and Aphelion is the point in the orbit of the planet that is farthest from the sun.
• Perigee is that point in the orbit of the moon that is closest to the Earth and apogee is that point in the orbit of the moon that is farthest from the Earth.

Additional Information Aphelion

• the Earth is farthest away from the Sun, at the Aphelion point, 2 weeks after the June Solstice, when the Northern Hemisphere is enjoying warm summer months.

​Apogee

• The point of the orbit where the satellite is farthest from the Earth is called apogee.
• The maximum distance of the moon from the earth (4,06,000 km) is called apogee.

Perigee

• The minimum distance of the moon from the earth (3,64,000) is called perigee.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 3.

Key PointsIndira Point:

• Indira Point is the southernmost point of the Indian Territory.
• It is a village in the Nicobar district at Great Nicobar Island of Andaman and Nicobar Islands in India.
• Rondo Island, Indonesia’s northernmost island in the Sabang district of Aceh province of Sumatra, lies 163 km south of Little Andaman Island and 145 km or 80 nautical miles from Indira point.
• The point was formerly known as Pygmalion Point and Parsons Point.
• It was renamed in honour of Indira Gandhi during the mid-1980s.
• Galathea National Park and Lighthouse are the major attractions here.

The correct answer is Narendranath Dutt.

Key Points

• Swami Vivekananda
• Swami Vivekananda was born on 12th January 1863.
• His birthday is celebrated as national youth day in India.
• Narendranath Datta is the original name of Swami Vivekananda.
• He is considered the patriotic saint of India.
• "Go back to Gita" is a famous slogan raised by Swami Vivekananda.
• He attended the parliament of religions held in Chicago on 11th September 1893.
• He died on 4th July 1902 at the age of 39.

Additional Information

• Ramakrishna Mission was founded by Swami Vivekananda in 1897.
• The headquarters of Ramakrishna Mission is located at Belur Math in West Bengal.
• The mission is named after and inspired by the Indian saint Ramakrishna Paramahamsa.
• Ramakrishna Paramahamsa was the guru (teacher) of Swami Vivekananda.
• "Atmano mokshartham Jagat Hitaya cha" is the motto of Ramakrishna Mission.
• Ramakrishna Mission helps with the installation of photovoltaic (PV) lighting systems in the Sundarbans region of West Bengal.

The correct answer is India and Kazakhstan.

Key Points

• A 14-day combined military exercise between India and Kazakhstan is called Prabal Dostyk.
• It indicates that the war game is being played by at least two nations.
• The exercise was held at Chelyabinsk (Russia) and Saryshagan (Kazakhstan).
• It began in 2016, but since then, it has continued on a regular basis.
• In order to conduct counterterrorism operations at a high altitude, the Indian Army initially conducted this exercise in 2016.
• This exercise's second iteration was placed in Madhya Pradesh, India, in 2017.

Additional Information

• The third iteration of the EX-DUSTLIK joint training exercise between the armies of India and Uzbekistan took place at Yangiarik, Uzbekistan, from March 22 to March 31, 2022.

The correct answer is Sardar Singh.

Key Points

• For the year 2017, the "Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award" was awarded to Sardar Singh for hockey and Devendra Jhajharia for Para-Athletics.
• For the year 2018, the "Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award" is awarded to Virat Kohli, incumbent captain of the Indian Cricket team and Saikhom Mirabai Chanu for weightlifting.
• Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award is the highest sports honour in India and is awarded annually by the **Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.**​

Additional Information

• Major Dhyan Chand Sport Jewel Award, formerly known as the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award in Sports and Games, is the highest sporting honour in India.
• The award is named after Rajiv Gandhi, former Prime Minister of India who served the office from 1984 to 1989.
• It is awarded annually by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
• The recipient(s) is/are selected by a committee constituted by the Ministry and are honoured for their "spectacular and most outstanding performance in the field of sports over a period of four years" at the international level.
• As of 2020, the award comprises a medallion, a certificate, and a cash prize of ₹25 lakh.
• The award was instituted in the year 1991- 92 and was awarded by the Government of India.
• Vishwanathan Anand was the first person to receive the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna award.

The correct answer is Srilanka.

Key Points

• Vedda is the indigenous minority tribe of Srilanka.
• The Vedda are a minority indigenous group of people in Sri Lanka who, among other sub-communities such as Coast Veddas, Anuradhapura Veddas and Bintenne Veddas, are accorded indigenous status.
• The Vedda minority in Sri Lanka may become completely assimilated.
• Most speak Sinhala instead of their indigenous languages, which are nearing extinction.
• It has been hypothesized that the Vedda were probably the earliest inhabitants of Sri Lanka and have lived on the island since before the arrival of other ethnic groups in India.

Additional Information

• The largest tribe of Bangladesh is the Chakma tribe.
• Other important tribes of Bangladesh are Marmas, Tripuri, Tanchangya, Mrus, Santals, etc.

The Correct answer is Silk.

Explanation:

• Silk is a natural fibre whereas rayon, nylon and polyester are artificial fibres.
• The fibres which are produced naturally, i.e. by plants, animals or geological processes are called natural fibres.

The correct answer is Oxides of non-metals are acidic.

Explanation:

• Most of the oxides of non-metals are acidic and oxides of metals are basic.
• But, not all oxides of non-metals are acidic e.g. Carbon monoxide is not acidic and the same is the case with bases.

 Additional Information

• Oxides are compounds formed by the reaction of metals, and non-metals with oxygen.
• The types of oxides are:
• Basic oxide: It is a complex chemical substance oxide, which forms a salt with a chemical reaction with acids or acidic oxides and does not react with bases or basic oxides.
• E.g. Copper oxide (Cu2O), Magnesium oxide (MgO)
• Acidic oxide: It is a complex chemical substance oxide, which forms a salt with chemical reactions with bases or basic oxides and does not react with acidic oxides.
• E.g. Carbon dioxide (CO2), Silicon dioxide (SiO2)
• Amphoteric oxide: It is a complex chemical substance, also oxide, which forms a salt with chemical reactions with acids (or acid oxides) and with bases (or basic oxides).

The correct answer is Finance Commission.

Key Points

• Finance Commission is a constitutional body mentioned in Article 280 and is responsible to define financial relations between the central Govt. and the state Govt. Recently, in 2017, the 15^th Finance Commission was constituted, chaired by N.K. Singh.
• NITI Aayog is neither statuary nor Constitutional in nature. It is the Govt. think tank. National Human Rights Commission and Central Vigilance Commission are the statuary bodies.

Additional Information

• National Human Rights Commission
• In 1993, the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) was founded.
• In accordance with the guidelines of the 1993 Protection of Human Rights Act, it is a statutory autonomous authority.
• It was amended in 2006.
• The National Human Rights Commission is currently presided over by Shri Justice Arun Kumar Mishra.
• He assumed on June 2, 2021.
• The NHRC examines a person's rights to life, dignity, liberty, and equality as those terms are specified in Section 2(1) of the PHR Act.​
• NITI Aayog:
• NITI Aayog or National Institution for Transforming India Aayog is the replacement for the Planning Commission of India.
• National Institution for Transforming India (NITI) Aayog was created by Prime Minister, Narendra Modi on 15 August 2014.
• Prime Minister is the Chairperson.
• Central Vigilance Commission
• The Central Vigilance Commission was set up by the Government in February 1964 on the recommendations of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption, headed by Shri K. Santhanam, to advise and guide Central Government agencies in the field of vigilance.
• CVC is conceived to be the apex vigilance institution, free of control from any executive authority, monitoring all vigilance activity under the Central Government and advising various authorities in Central Government organizations in planning, executing, reviewing and reforming their vigilant work.
• Consequent upon promulgation of an Ordinance by the President, the Central Vigilance Commission has been made a multi-member Commission with "statutory status" with effect from 25th August 1998.

The correct answer is Part IX A.

Key Points

• Part IX-A of the Indian constitution deals with municipalities.
• It was added by the 74th amendment act of the Indian constitution.
• The 74th amendment act was introduced in 1992.
• It came into force on 1st June 1993.
• Part IX-A of the Indian constitution covers Articles 243 P to 243 ZG.
• The act added a new twelfth schedule to the Indian constitution.
• The first municipal corporation in India was set up in Madras in 1688.
• The Municipal Corporation of Bombay and Calcutta was set up in 1726.

Additional Information

The correct answer is enzymes.

Key Points

• Enzymes
• Enzymes are proteins made from amino acids.
• It is made up of hundreds and thousands of amino acids stringed together in a very specific and unique order.
• Any chemical reaction inside a cell or any work that goes on inside a cell is the handiwork of enzymes inside the cell.
• The word enzyme was coined in 1878 by German Scientist Wilhelm Kuhne.
• Enzymes act as biological catalysts (biocatalysts).
• Catalysts accelerate chemical reactions.​

Additional Information

• Hormones​
• Hormones are non-nutrient chemicals.
• A physical change occurs in the body through certain chemical substances called hormones.
• The hormone is secreted by the endocrine glands into the blood.

• Vitamins 
• Vitamins are organic compounds that are present in minute amounts in natural foodstuffs.
• Most vitamins come from food because the body either does not produce them or produces very little.
• Vitamins are of two types.
• Fat-soluble vitamins- Vitamins A, D, E, K
• Water-soluble vitamins- Vitamin C and all the B vitamins.

The correct answer is Pyruvate.

Key Points

• One molecule of glucose is converted into two molecules of pyruvate, two hydrogen ions, and two molecules of water. Through this process, the high energy molecules of ATP and NADH are synthesized.
• The overall process is called Glycolysis.
• Glycolysis can be considered as a two-part process. Firstly, energy is consumed to generate high energy intermediates, which then go on to release their energy during the second phase:
• The energy investment phase – requires two ADP molecules to produce high energy intermediates.
• The energy pay-out phase – The intermediate is metabolized, producing four ATP molecules and two NADH molecules.
• The overall reaction of glycolysis which occurs in the cytoplasm is represented simply as:
• C6H12O6 + 2 NAD+ + 2 ADP + 2 P → 2 (CH3(C=O)COOH)+ 2 ATP + 2 NADH + 2 H+ ; where
• C6H12O6 = Glucose
• NAD = Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide
• ADP = Adenosine Diphosphate
• Pyruvic acid = CH3(C=O)COOH
• ATP = Adenosine Triphosphate
• NADH = Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide Hydride

The correct answer is Electricity connections.

Key Points

• Saubhagya Scheme:
• Saubhagya Scheme aims to achieve universal household electrification in all parts of the country.
• The scheme primarily benefits rural areas, which have a vast majority of households without power connections.
• The beneficiaries of free electricity connection would be identified using Socio-Economic and Caste Census (SECC) 2011 data.
• Expected outcomes:
• Environmental upgradation by substitution of Kerosene for lighting purposes.
• Improvement of education services.
• Better health services.
• Enhanced connectivity through radio, television, mobiles, etc.
• Increased economic activities and jobs.
• Improved quality of life especially for women.

Important Points

• ​SAUBHAGYA completes four years of successful implementation.
• 2.82 crore households have been electrified since the launch of SAUBHAGYA.
• A dedicated toll-free helpline is in place to identify and provide electricity connections to remaining unelectrified households.​

Additional Information

Jal Jeevan Mission

• ​JJM envisages a supply of 55 litres of water per person per day to every rural household through Functional Household Tap Connections (FHTC) by 2024.
• It is under the Ministry of Jal Shakti.
• The fund-sharing pattern between the Centre and states is 90:10 for Himalayan and North-Eastern States, 50:50 for other states, and 100% for Union Territories.
• The total allocation to the scheme is over Rs. 3 lakh crore.
• It also encompasses prioritizing the provision of FHTCs in quality-affected areas, villages in drought-prone and desert areas, Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAGY) villages, etc.

​Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala yojna:

• The PMUY was launched on May 1st, 2016 in Ballia, Uttar Pradesh.
• It was to provide a free LPG connection to women belonging to BPL.
• It is one of the best ways to create smokeless cooking and to make women's life healthy.

The correct answer is Rotavac.

Key Points

• Former Vice President of India- Shri Venkaiah Naidu launched ROTAVAC 5D which is oral rotavirus, considered the world’s lowest dose-volume vaccine.
• It is developed by Indian manufacturer Bharat Biotech.
• It became the first indigenously developed vaccine from India to be pre-qualified by World Health Organization.
• The Rotavac vaccine is similar to the oral polio drop.
• It is given under the age same regimen of 6, 10 and 14 weeks.
• ROTAVAC 5D prevents rotavirus diarrhoea in young children.
• ​It required a much lower temperature for storage which was difficult to attain and in higher doses for full efficiency.
• It is to be stored at 2-8 °C.
• 3.3 lakh annual deaths in India were attributable to diarrhoeal diseases as per WHO.

The correct answer is Rs 25,000.

Key Points

• By capping client liability at Rs 25,000 if they report unauthorized transactions within seven working days, RBI has taken a significant step toward protecting customers from significant financial losses as a result of fraud.
• If clients tell the bank within three working days of the transaction, they cannot be held at all accountable.
• When a third party commits a breach, these regulations will apply because the problem isn't with the bank or the consumer, but rather somewhere else in the system.

Additional Information

• Limited liability of a customer:
• In the following circumstances, a customer is responsible for any loss brought on by unauthorized transactions:
• Customers will be responsible for the whole loss up until they notify the bank of the unauthorized transaction in circumstances where the loss was caused by their negligence, such as when they disclosed their payment credentials.
• The bank will be responsible for covering any losses that arise after the unlawful transaction has been reported.

The correct answer is Motor Vehicles Act, 1988.

Key Points

• In order to address issues including third-party insurance, regulating cab aggregators, and road safety, the Bill changes the Motor Vehicles Act of 1988.
• The third-party insurer has unlimited liability under the Act for motor vehicle incidents.
• The Bill limits third-party insurance's maximum responsibility in the event of a motor vehicle accident to Rs. 10 lakh in cases of death and Rs. 5 lakh in cases of serious injury.
• The bill calls for the establishment of a Motor Vehicle Accident Fund, which would mandate insurance coverage for specific sorts of incidents for all Indian road users.
• The Bill establishes the definition of cab aggregators, whose rules will be set by the national government.

Additional Information

• Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Bill, 2019 :
• Mr. Nitin Gadkari, the Minister of Road Transport and Highways, introduced the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Bill, 2019 in the Lok Sabha.
• The Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 is being amended by the bill to include provisions for traffic safety.
• The Act establishes requirements for motor vehicles, the issuance of licenses and permits relating to motor vehicles, and sanctions for violations of these laws.

The correct answer is 12.

Calculation:

If two resistances, R₁ and R₂ are connected in parallel, then effective resistance, R is:

1/R = 1/R₁ + 1/R₂,

Here, R₁=20 Ω and R₂ =30 Ω

So, 1/R = 1/20 + 1/30, or, R = 600/50 = 12 Ω.