SSC CHSL Previous Paper 21 (Held On: 10 Jul 2019 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is CDBA.

Key Points

• The answer begins with sentence C because it is an introductory sentence which is talking about his fondness for toy cars and that his father couldn't afford them.
• D will be the second sentence as it says his father himself made him a cycle as he couldn't afford the toys.
• Sentence D will be continued by sentence B as it is talking about him riding the cycle after it was made by his father.
• Sentence A has the conclusive part as it is saying today his father has reached a popular stage after all those impoverish days.
• Therefore, this sequence is followed in option 1 CDBA.

• The correct answer is Option 3 'Commemorate'.
• The meaning of the word commemorate means 'To honour the memory of someone or something with a ceremony or object'.

• The correct answer is Option 3.
• In the underlined phrase there is an error in the wrong usage of the preposition 'to' which is used to indicate the place, person, or thing that someone or something moves toward, or the direction of something.
• The correct preposition to be used is 'of' which is used for belonging to, relating to, or connected with. In the given sentence it means her responsibility is related to marketing.
• Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3 'with the responsibility of marketing'.

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e Namesake

Explanation:

• Let's look at the meaning of the given options. 
• Relative: Connected to or depending on something else; comparative.
• Pseudonym: A fictitious name as those used by writers and movie stars.
• Successor: The next heir in order or succession.
• Namesake: One who is named after another or for whom another is named.
• Hence from the given meanings, we find that the correct answer is Option 4 i.e Namesake.

• The correct answer is Option 4.
• The meaning of the given idiom 'put your best foot forward' means 'To try to make the best possible impression or to act or appear at one's best'
• Therefore, out of given options, Option 4 'try as hard as one can' gives the similar meaning as the given idiom.

• The correct answer is Option 4.
• The meaning of the given options:
• Enforcement: The act of bringing into effect something, not necessarily by force.
• Entrenchment: To establish a substantial position in business, politics, etc.
• Enchantment: To attract and delight.
• Enhancement: improvement.
• Therefore, out of given alternatives, the word 'enhancement' fits in the blank because the investment limits can be improved, they cannot be enforced as they are not acts, they cannot be entrenched or enchanted.

The correct answer is 'The policeman ordered them not to park there.'

Key Points

• When converting a direct sentence to its indirect form, if what the speaker is saying is imperative, then 'said to' changes to 'ordered'.
• Also, 'here' will change to 'there'.

Therefore, the only option that satisfies the rules is option 1.

The correct answer is Option 1) i.e. Specific

Explanation: The meaning of the given words:

• Random: An undefined, undistinguished.
• Specific: Explicit or definite.
• Casual: Designed for informal or every day.
• Formal: Official.
• Irregular: without symmetry or regularity

Therefore, out of given alternatives, the word 'specific' is the antonym of the given word.

The correct answer is option 4) i.e. more.

• the word after the blank is 'than', which shows that a comparison is being made.
• among the given options 'more' is the only one that is used to make a comparison using 'than' with it.
• hence, the most appropriate word to fill in the blank is 'more'.

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. have.

• The given sentence is in passive form.
• And the subject in the sentence is plural i.e. species
• Hence, 'have been' is the most appropriate phrase to be used here.
• So, the most appropriate word to fill in the blank is 'have'.

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. places.

• 'one of' takes plural subject after it.
• from the given options only option 3) i.e. 'places' is the plural.
• hence, 'places' is the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

The correct answer is option 4) i.e. visit.

• 'to' takes infinitive with it.
• among the given options only option 4) can be used with 'to'
• hence, the most appropriate word to fill in the blank is visit.

The correct answer is option 1) i.e. around.

• When the exact number of something is not known,  around is used to show the approximate number.
• The given sentence talks about the approximate number of species.
• Hence, around is the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

The correct answer is 'I'm afraid I must leave now'.

Key Points

• Here, we need to use bare infinitive 'leave' instead of the past form 'left'.
• Modals are always followed by bare infinitives. 
• I can go there myself.
• Infinitives are the base form of the verb used in conjugation with 'to'.
• When they are used without 'to', they are called 'bare infinitives'.

Hence, the correct sentence is - "I'm afraid I must leave now," said the guest after the inaugural function was over.

Key Points

• The meaning of the given idiom 'At snail's pace' is- emphasizing that they are doing it very slowly.
• Example: Have you been trying to lose weight but find it comes off at a snail's pace?

​

Additional Information

• Origin: The slowness of snails was pointed out about 200 b.c. by the Roman poet Plautus and the term “snail's pace” in English goes back to about 1400.

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. do something very slowly.

The correct answer is Even Sharat tried his best.

Key Points

• As we have two sentences here we need a conjunction to connect both these sentence.
• Even is an adverb we have to replace it with a conjunction to make the sentence grammatically correct.
• As one sentence is positive and another is negative, so we need to use contradictory conjunction.
• Although is one such type of conjunction and will make the sentence grammatically correct.
• We can also use 'Even though'.

The correct sentence will be - Although Sharat tried his best, he could not clear all the examination papers in one attempt. OR Even though Sharat tried his best, he could not clear all the examination papers in one attempt.

The correct answer is Versatile.

Key Points

• Let's look at the meanings of the given words. 
• Surrogate - a substitute, especially a person deputizing for another in a specific role or office.
• Expert - a person who is very knowledgeable about or skilful in a particular area.
• Versatile - able to adapt or be adapted to many different functions or activities.
• Deputy - a person who is appointed to undertake the duties of a superior in the superior's absence.

Hence, from these meanings, we find that the correct answer is Option 3 i.e Versatile.

The correct answer is 'He was given a note for his teacher by his mother.'

Key Points

• The sentence is in the past indefinite tense.
• The structure is Subject + V2  + Object.
• Such sentences are converted into passive in the following way:
• Object + was/were+ V3 + by + subject.
• Here, there are two objects - 'a note' and 'him'.
• 'A note' is the direct object and 'him' is the indirect object.
• The sentence will start with the direct object.

This rule is followed by only option 1, so this is the correct choice.

The correct answer is Dedication.

Key Points

Let's look at the meanings of the words.

• Concern - relate to; be about.
• Dedication - the quality of being dedicated or committed to a task or purpose.
• Creation - the action or process of bringing something into existence.
• Anxiety - a feeling of worry, nervousness, or unease about something with an uncertain outcome.
• Also, 'make up for' means compensate for something lost, missed, or deficient.

Contextually, option 2 fits the sentence as 'dedication' makes up for the lack of proper equipment.

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. deep.

Explanation:

SHALLOW means of little depth.

• narrow- of small width in relation to length.
• slight- small in degree; inconsiderable.
• crooked-bent or twisted out of shape or out of place.
• deep- extending far down from the top or surface.

The chosen option shows the opposite meaning of the given word.

The correct answer is: pack few things he had.

Key Points

• We need to change few with the few for making the sentence correct.
• Few means almost nothing and has a negative sense.
• But since there is something definite in the room to vacate, we need to use either 'the few'.
• 'The few' means not many but all. 
• Ex. The few words that she spoke are deeply ingrained in my head.

The correct sentence will be - Deepak said that he would pack the few things he had and vacate the hostel room the next day.

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. sparkle.

Explanation:

RADIANCE- light or heat as emitted or reflected by something.

• Dryness- absence or lack of moisture or liquid.
• Redness- the quality or state of being red or reddish.
• Sparkle- shine brightly with flashes of light.
• Depth- the distance from the top or surface to the bottom of something.

The chosen option expresses the meaning of the given word.

The correct answer is Summary.

Key Points

Let's look at the meanings of the given words.

• Recapitulation - an act or instance of summarizing and restating the main points of something.
• Prominence - the state of being important, famous, or noticeable.
• Movement - an act of moving.
• Summary- a brief statement or account of the main points of something.
• Readiness - the state of being fully prepared for something.

Thus, option 3 expresses the meaning of the given word.

The correct answer is Bureaucrecy.

Key Points

The correct word will be -

• Bureaucracy - a system of government in which most of the important decisions are taken by state officials rather than by elected representatives.

Additional Information

The meanings of other words:

• Horizontal: parallel to the plane of the horizon; at right angles to the vertical.
• Plateau: an area of relatively level high ground.
• Fomentation: the action of instigating or stirring up undesirable sentiment or actions.

The correct answer is 3 i.e. CBAD.

Key Points

As B follows C because of the series connection of Intelligence word we need to keep B after C.

And C introduces this idea it must be the starter.

Now it is clear that Only option 3 can be the answer because this contains this arrangement.

The correct sequence according to English dictionary is

2. Jacket
3. Jacklight
4. Jade
5. Jampacked
6. Joker

Hence, the correct sequence is 2, 1, 3, 5, 4.

The pattern followed here is:

Bees give us honey.

Similarly,

Birds lay eggs.

Hence, BIRD is the correct answer.

Code for the days:

Given,

1 January 2017 is Sunday.

1 January 2017 (Sunday) + 364 days (Because 2017 is not a leap year) = 31 December 2017.

364 Days = 0 odd days.

So, 1 January 2017 (Sunday) + 364 days (0 odd days) = Sunday.

Therefore, 31 December 2017 = Sunday.

hence, the correct answer is "Sunday".

Additional Information

Year - One year has 365 days or 366 days on this basis the year is divided into two parts:

• Normal year - It has 365 days.
• Leap year - It has 366 days and is completely divisible by 4.

Century leap year - The year which is exactly divisible by 400. Example - 1200, 1600, 2000 etc.

Counting of Odd days

Ordinary Year: 365 days (52 weeks + 1 days)

= 1 Odd days

Leap Year: 366 days (52 weeks + 2 days)

= 2 Odd days

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, JG is the missing term.

The pattern followed here is:

8 : 72 → 8 × 9 = 72

Similarly,

11 : 132 → 11 × 12 = 132

Hence, 11 : 132 is the correct answer.

Roses are flowers and some roses can be yellow and some flowers also can be yellow.

Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

The pattern followed here is:

1) 2 + 5 + 9 = 16

2)1 + 8 + 9 = 18

3. 6 + 3 + 9 = 18

4. 4 + 5 + 9 = 18

Hence, 259 is the odd one among the given options.

The pattern followed here is:

 Similarly, 

Hence, DRIVER will be written as REVDRI.

The question figure is embedded in the below figure:

Hernce,  the correct answer is option 1.

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, 112 is the next term in the series.

The least possible Venn diagram is as follows:

Conclusions:

I. All hens are lions → True (All hens are eggs and all eggs are lions)

II. Some lions are hens → True (All hens are eggs and all eggs are lions)

III. No eggs are birds → True. (No birds are eggs.)

Hence, all the conclusions follow.

The mirror image of the question figure is as follows:

Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

35 + 7 - 5 × 2 ÷ 25 = 20

After interchanging + and ÷

35 ÷ 7 - 5 × 2 + 25 (according to BODMAS rule)

= 5 - 5 × 2 + 25

= 5 – 10 +25

= 30 - 10

= 20

Hence, the correct answer is '+ and ÷'.

The pattern followed here is:

(Number of letters) × (Sum of the positional value of all the letters in the word)

EAST = 5 + 1 + 19 + 20 = 45 and 45 × 4 = 180

NORTH = 14 + 15 + 18 + 20 + 8 = 75 and 75 × 5 = 375

Similarly,

SOUTH = 19 + 15 + 21 + 20 + 8 = 83 and 83 × 5 = 415

Hence, the correct answer is 415.

The pattern followed here is:

(15, 49, 151) → 15 × 3 + 4 = 49 and 49 × 3 + 4 = 151

Similarly,

(5, 19, 61) → 5 × 3 + 4 = 19 and 19 × 3 + 4 = 61

Hence, the correct answer is (5, 19, 61).

Blackboard, Duster, and Chalk are different types of stationery items.

Hence, the correct answer is stationery.

From the second and the third positions of the dice, we can see that 2, 3, 4, and 5 are the numbers on the faces adjacent to the face having 6.

The only number left is 1.

Hence, the number on the face opposite to 6 is 1.

The squares in the figure are:

ABCD, OPQR, DNGL, NLMK, MKCH, GEIL, LIJK, KJFH, EASI, ISTJ, JTBF, GKTA, HLSB, DMJE, NCFI.

Hence, there are 15 squares in the given figure.

The pattern followed here is:

Similarly,

Hence, TV is related to PQ.

Using the below table of symbols we can draw the family tree:

The family tree is as shown below:

Hence, A is a sister of S.

In the given series, the figure is rotating in an anti-clockwise direction and the number of dots embedded in it is reducing by in each step.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, DGL is the correct answer.

The pattern followed here is:

16 × 4 = 64 and 64 × 5 = 320

Similarly,

10 × 4 = 40 and 40 × 5 = 200

Hence, the correct answer is (10, 40, 200).

Mumbai is Capital of Maharashtra.

Similarly,

Yen is currency of Japan.

Hence, Yen : Currency is the correct answer.

When unfolded, the paper will look like the following figure:

Hence the correct answer is option1.

Calculation:

According to the question,

AB = BC = x

By Pythagoras' theorem,

AC = √(AB² + BC²)

AC = √(x² + x²) 

AC = x√2

As ACD and ABE are an equilateral triangle, then,

AC = AD = DC = x√2      ----(1)

AB = BE = AE = x      ----(2)

Area of triangle ABE = A = (x)²√3​/4

Area of triangle ACD = H = (x√2)²√3/4

∴ A/H = 1/2

NOTE:

Area of an equilateral triangle with side "a" = (a)2√3​/4.

We know that a + b+ c = 0 then a³ + b³ + c³ = 3abc

a^1/3 + b^1/3+ c^1/3 = 0 then (a^1/3)³ + (b^1/3)³ + (c^1/3)³ = 3a^1/3 b ^1/3c^1/3

⇒ (a + b + c)³ = 27 abc

⇒ (a + b + c)⁶ = 729 a²b²c²

It is given that,

⇒ sec2θ + 4tan2θ = 6

⇒ sec2θ - tan2θ + 5tan2θ = 6        -------(1)

According to Pythagorean Identities,

⇒ sec2θ - tan2θ = 1

Hence Equation 1 becomes,

⇒ 1 + 5tan2θ = 6

⇒ 5tan2θ = 5

⇒ tan2θ = 1

We know that, tanθ = 1, when the value of θ is 45º.

Hence, the answer is θ = 45° 

Shortcut Method

Put the value of θ = 45°

sec²θ + 4tan²θ = 6

⇒ 2 + 4 = 6

⇒ 6 = 6

By option 4 -

624624 is divisible by 11, 13 and 7.

a + 1/a = 3

⇒ a³ + 1/a³ = 27 - 9 = 18

⇒ (a³ + 1/a³)² = 324

⇒ (a⁶ + 1/a⁶) = 324 - 2 = 322

Formula used:

Length of a common tangent to the circles = √[d2 - (r₁ - r₂)²]

where d = distance between the centres of the circle

and r₁ and r₂ are the radius of the circle

Calculation:

r₁ = 1 cm

r₂ = 5.6/2 = 2.8

Length of a common tangent to the circles = √[d2 - (r1 - r2)2] = √(8.2)2 - (1.8)2 = √(8.2 + 1.8)(8.2 - 1.8) = √(10 × 6.4) = 8 cm

Number of copies sold in India in 2014 and 2015 = 3.5 + 5 = 8.5 × 100 = 850

Number of copies sold in abroad in 2014 and 2015 = 4.5 + 5.5 = 10 × 100 = 1000

Selling amount in India = 850 × 800 = 680000

Selling amount in abroad = 1000 × 1000 = 1000000

Royalty received in India = 850 × 800 = 680000 × 10/100 = 68000

Royalty received in abroad = 1000000 × 16/100 = 160000

Total royalty = 68000 + 160000 = 228000

The royalty amount is distributed among X and Y in the ratio = 5 : 3

8 unit = 228000

⇒ 2 unit = 57000

Difference between the royalties earned by x and Y = Rs. 57000

The total number of the copies of the book A sold in India during 2012-2015 = 250 + 300 + 350 + 500 = 1400

Ratio of time = 0.6 : 1 = 3 : 5

Length is equal

so, ratio of speed = 5 : 3

3 unit = 96

5 unit = 96 × 5/3 = 160 km/hr

Perimeter of triangle = 12 cm

So, P + B + H = 12

By triplet-

H = 5

B = 4

H = 3

Area = ½ × B × H = 4 × 3 × ½ = 6 cm²

Sin²19° + (cos³19°/sin 71°) + sin²60 + sin71° -  (1/cosec 71°) + sin⁴ 45°  

⇒ Sin²19° + (cos³19°/cos 19°) + sin²60 + sin71° -  sin 71°+ sin⁴ 45°

⇒ Sin²19° + cos²19°+ sin²60 + sin⁴ 45°

⇒ 1 + 3/4 + 1/4

⇒ 8/4 = 2

∴ required answer is 2.

Loss = 28%

72% of the article = 144

86% of the article = 144 × 86/72 = 172

From MDH rule-

49 × 12 × 8 = m × 4 × 24

⇒ m = 49 men

Number of copies sold in India in 2012, 2013 and 2016 = 2.5 + 3 + 4 = 9.5 × 100 = 950

Number of copies sold in abroad in 2012, 2013 and 2016 = 4 + 5 + 6 = 15 × 100 = 1500

Selling amount in India = 950 × 800 = 760000

Selling amount in abroad = 1500 × 1000 = 1500000

Royalty received in India = 760000 × 10/100 = 76000

Royalty received in abroad = 1500000 × 16/100 = 240000

Total royalty = 76000 + 240000 = 316000

ABCDEFGH is a regular octagon so, all side of octagon is equal.

∠AOB = 360/8 = 45°

In triangle AOB, OA = OB

SO, ∠OAB = ∠OBA

⇒ 2 × ∠OAB + ∠AOB = 180

⇒ ∠OAB = 135/2

The ratio of ∠OAB to ∠AOB = 135/2 : 45 = 3 : 2

Sale of books in India in 2013 and 2014 = 3 + 3.5 = 6.5 × 100 = 650

Selling amount in India = 650 × 800 = 520000

Royalty received in India = 520000 × 10/100 = 52000

Sale of books abroad in 2015 and 2016 = 6 + 5.5 = 11.5 × 100 = 1150

Selling amount in India = 1150 × 1000 = 1150000

Royalty received in India = 1150000 × 16/100 = 184000

Required ratio = 52000 : 184000 = 13 : 46

According to the question,

25% - 4% - (25 × 4/100)% = x%

⇒ x% = 20%

⇒ x = 20

(a + b - c)² = 12²

⇒ a² + b² + c² + 2ab - 2bc - 2ac = 144

⇒ 2ab - 2bc - 2ac = 34

⇒ ab - bc - ac = 17

By option 1-

1, 3, 5, ----

Average of first 101 odd terms = (1/2)(a + l) = (1/2)(1 + 201) = 101

Average of first 101 even terms = (1/2)(2 + 202) = 102

Given:

Discount percent on the marked price = 10%

Discount percent in the first case = 50% of 10  

Discount percent in the second case = 40% of the first case

Calculation:

Let the marked price be Rs 100

⇒ Discount = 10% = 1/10 = (10 - 1)/10 = 9/10

S.P = 9/10 × 100 = 90

Now, Discount percent in the first case = 50% of 10 

⇒ 50/100 × 10 = 5%

And, Discount percent in the second case = 40% of the first case

⇒ 40/100 × 5 = 2%

Now the selling price in season is, 

⇒ 90 × (100 - 5)/100 × (100 - 2)/100

⇒ 90 × 95/100 × 98/100 

⇒ 83.79

Hence the actual discount is, 

⇒ 100 - 83.79 = 16.21

∴ The percentage rate of the equivalent single discount 16.21%

1/2 of 8/5 ÷ {11/5 - (5/16 + 3/5 x 15/8 ÷ 2/3)}

⇒ 4/5 ÷ {11/5 - (5/16 + 3/5 x 45/16)}

⇒ 4/5 ÷ {11/5 - (2)}

⇒ 4/5 × 5 = 4

We know that,

A = (r × s)

A = Area of triangle

r = Inradius of triangle

s = semi perimeter of triangle

s = P/2

⇒ A = r × (P/2)

⇒ A : P = r : 2

Principal = 2000

Time = 6/12 = 1/2 years

Rate = 8%

Interest = (2000 × 8 × 1)/2 × 100 = 80

Amount = 2000 + 80 = Rs. 2080

Shortcut Trick

Evaluate the standard trigonometric values for each option:

1. tan 30° × tan 60° = (1/√3) × √3 = 1 (Rational)

2. sin 30° = 1/2 = 0.5 (Rational)

3. tan 45° = 1 (Rational)

4. cos 30° = √3/2 ≈ 0.866... Since √3 is a non-perfect square root, it is an irrational quantity.

∴ The correct answer is cos 30°.

Alternate Method

Given: Four trigonometric quantities to identify the irrational one.

Formula Used: cos θ = Adjacent / Hypotenuse | tan θ = Opposite / Adjacent | sin θ = Opposite / Hypotenuse

Calculations:

⇒ Option 1: tan 30° × tan 60° = (1/√3) × (√3/1) = 1. Since 1 is an integer, it is rational.

⇒ Option 2: sin 30° = 1 / 2 = 0.5. Since it can be written as a fraction p/q, it is rational.

⇒ Option 3: tan 45° = 1. This is a whole number, hence rational.

⇒ Option 4: cos 30° = Adjacent / Hypotenuse = √3 / 2.

⇒ Since √3 is an irrational number (approx. 1.73205...), dividing it by a rational number (2) results in an irrational quantity.

∴ The correct answer is cos 30°.

Additional Information

Irrational Numbers

Real numbers that cannot be expressed as a simple fraction p/q. Their decimal expansion is non-terminating and non-recurring (e.g., π, √2, √7).

Trigonometric Ratios of 30°

Values for 30° are: sin 30° = 1/2, cos 30° = √3/2, tan 30° = 1/√3. Only sin 30° results in a purely rational value among these primary ratios.

Square Roots Property

The square root of any prime number or any number that is not a perfect square is always an irrational number.

Ratio of the amount of helper to laborer = 2 × 5 : 1 × 6 = 5 : 3

Ratio of the amount of craftsman to laborer = 3 × 3 : 1 × 6 = 3 : 2

Ratio of the amount of helper, laborer and craftsman = 10 : 6 : 9

Amount received by craftsman = 10000 × 9/25 = Rs. 3600

The correct answer is option 4, i.e. Shram Yogi Maan-Dhan Yojana.

• Interim Budget 2019-20 the Union Minister for Finance, Corporate Affairs, Railways and Coal, Shri Piyush Goyal proposed a mega pension yojana namely 'Pradhan Mantri Shram-Yogi Maandhan' for the unorganised sector workers with monthly income up to Rs. 15,000.
• It provides a monthly pension of Rs. 3,000 from the age of 60 years on a monthly contribution of a small affordable amount during their working age.
• An unorganised sector worker joining pension yojana at the age of 29 years will have to contribute only Rs. 100 per month until the age of 60 years.
• A worker joining the pension yojana at 18 years, will have to contribute as little as Rs. 55 per month only.
• A sum of Rs. 500 crore has been allocated for the Scheme

The correct answer is option 3, i.e. Navin Chawla.

• Former Chief Election Commissioner, Shri Navin Chawla released his book ‘Every Vote Counts: The Story of India’s Elections’ in the city today.
• The book is published by HarperCollins India.
• Every Vote Counts is a fascinating, informative account that gives us a kaleidoscopic view of how the electoral machinery works in the world's largest democracy.
• Sunil Arora is the 23rd Chief Election Commissioner and the two Election Commissioners are Ashok Lavasa and Sushil Chandra.

Additional Information

• Rajiv Kumar is the current (2022) Chief Election Commissioner of the Election Commission of India (ECI).

The correct answer is option 2, i.e. Speaker, Lok Sabha.

• If any question arises as to whether a member of a House has become subject to disqualification under this 10th Schedule, the question shall be referred for the decision of the Chairman or, as the case may be, the Speaker of such House and his decision shall be final.
• The Tenth Schedule was inserted in the Constitution in 1985 by the 52nd Amendment Act.
• It lays down the process by which legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection by the Presiding Officer of a legislature based on a petition by any other member of the House.
• The law applies to both Parliament and state assemblies.

The correct answer is option 2, i.e. Axis Bank.

• Axis Bank was incorporated in the year 1993 with the name UTI Bank Ltd.
• The bank was promoted in 1993 jointly by Specified Undertaking of Unit Trust of India (SUUTI) (then known as Unit Trust of India) Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC), General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC), National Insurance Company Ltd., The New India Assurance Company Ltd., The Oriental Insurance Company Ltd. and United India Insurance Company Ltd.
• The Bank changed its name from UTI Bank Ltd to Axis Bank Ltd with effect from July 30, 2007.
• The Bank has five wholly-owned subsidiaries namely Axis Securities and Sales Ltd, Axis Private Equity Ltd, Axis Trustee Services Ltd, Axis Asset Management Company Ltd and Axis Mutual Fund Trustee Ltd.

The correct answer is option 2, i.e. Coorg.

Key Points

• Coorg oranges from Karnataka got GI tag.
• About GI tags:
• Approved by the Geneva-headquartered World Trade Organization, a GI tag recognizes the place of origin of a product and the specific qualities or means of production associated with it.
• Acting as a certification, it is a way of ensuring that similar products from elsewhere cannot be sold under this name.
• The tag is valid for a decade, after which it can be renewed for another 10 years.
• In India, the GI tag is governed by the Geographical Indication of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act which came into being in 1999.

• List of some commodities which got GI tags till date from Karnataka:
• Kasuti Embroidery
• Coorg Orange
• Nanjanagud Banana
• Ilkal Sarees
• Coorg Green Cardamom
• Bangalore Blue Grapes
• Mysore Silk (Logo)
• Coorg Arabica Coffee
• Sirsi Supari
• Gulbarga Tur Dal

The correct answer Mongolia.

Key Points

• Mongolia:-
• ​It is a landlocked country in eastern Asia between Russia to the north and China to the south, east of Kazakhstan with an area of 1,564,100 km².
• Landlocked country:-
• It is a sovereign state that has no connected territory with the World Ocean.
• Of all the countries in the world, 49 of them are landlocked.
• Depending on the degree of growth, language barriers and other factors, the economic drawbacks of being landlocked can be alleviated.
• Nine of the twelve countries with the lowest HDI(Human Development Index) are landlocked.

Additional Information

• Eritrea:-​
• It is a country in Eastern Africa, with its capital in Asmara.
• It is bordered by Ethiopia in the south, Sudan in the west, and Djibouti in the southeast.
• The northeastern and eastern parts of Eritrea have an extensive coastline along the Red Sea.
• The nation has a total area of approximately 117,600 square Kilometres and includes the Dahlak Archipelago and several of the Hanish Islands.
• **Turkey:-**​
• Turkey is situated at the crossroads of the Balkans, Caucasus, Middle East, and eastern Mediterranean.
• It has the Black Sea in the north and the Mediterranean Sea in the west.
• Bordering Countries: On the northeast by Georgia and Armenia, on the east by Azerbaijan and Iran, on the southeast by Iraq and Syria, and on the northwest by Greece and Bulgaria.
• Syria:-​
• Syria, officially the Syrian Arab Republic, is a country in Western Asia.
• Syria has shared its border with Turkey to the north, Iraq to the east, Jordan to the south, and Israel to the southwest. Its capital and largest city are Damascus.
• Since approximately 10,000 BC, Syria was one of the centers of Neolithic culture (known as Pre-Pottery Neolithic A) where agriculture and cattle breeding appeared for the first time in the world.

The correct answer is Abu Dhabi. 

Key Points

• The Special Olympics World Games was held in the Middle East for the first time in Abu Dhabi, United Arab Emirates (UAE).
• The host UAE had introduced the term “people of determination” as part of a new National Strategy for Empowering People with Disabilities.
• India finished the Special Olympics World Games with a rich haul of 368 medals, which included 85 gold, 154 silver and 129 bronze.
• The Special Olympics are held every two years and alternates between summer and winter.
• Previous Special Olympics were held in Austria (2017) and the next Special Olympics will be held in Sweden (2021).

The correct answer is option 1, i.e. 2030.

• The National Viral Hepatitis Control Program has been launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India on World Hepatitis Day, 28th July 2018.
• It is an integrated initiative for the prevention and control of viral hepatitis in India to achieve Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) 3.3 which aims to end viral hepatitis by 2030.
• Aim of this program:
• Combat hepatitis and achieve countrywide elimination of Hepatitis C by 2030
• Achieve significant reduction in the infected population, morbidity and mortality associated with Hepatitis B and C viz. Cirrhosis and Hepatocellular carcinoma (liver cancer)
• Reduce the risk, morbidity and mortality due to Hepatitis A and E.

The correct answer is option 2, i.e. Barren Island.

• Barren Island, in South Asia and India’s only active volcano, lies around 135 km northeast of Port Blair, the capital of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
• The first massive eruption in the volcano took place in 1787.
• In 1991, it erupted again after remaining dormant for about 150 years. Since then, the volcano has shown intermittent activity.
• The most recent episode was reported in January 2017 by visiting scientists.
• South Asia is of eight Asian countries. The 8 nations are India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Nepal, Afghanistan, Bhutan, and the Maldives are part of the region of South Asia.
• The entire region covers an area of about 2,015,875 square miles.

CONCEPT:

Presbyopia:

• In this defect, both near and far objects are not clearly visible.
• It is an old age disease and it is due to the loosing power of accommodation.
• It can be removed by using a bifocal lens. In bifocal lense

EXPLANATION:

• Presbyopia is caused as part of the natural aging process of the eye.
• Presbyopia can be corrected by using bifocal lenses. Therefore option 2 is correct.
• The upper half of each lens is diverging and corrects myopia when the wearer is looking ahead at distant objects.
• The lower half of each lens is convex and corrects the defect when the wearer looks through this part while reading.

The correct answer is option 3, i.e. football.

• The ESPN Multi-Sport Awards recognised achievements across 11 categories, of which winners across 10 categories were selected by an independent 14-member jury.
• The Winners are:
• Sportsperson of the Year (Male) – Neeraj Chopra (Athletics)
• Sportsperson of the Year (Female) – P V Sindhu (Badminton)
• The comeback of the Year – Saina Nehwal (Badminton)
• Coach of the Year – Jaspal Rana (Shooting)
• Emerging Sportsperson of the Year – Saurabh Chaudhary (Shooting)
• Team of the Year – Women’s team (Table tennis)
• Match of the Year – Amit Panghal vs Hasanboy Dusmatov (Boxing)
• Differently-abled athlete of the Year – Ekta Bhyan (Para-athletics)
• Moment of the Year – Women’s 4x400m relay
• Lifetime Achievement Award – Pradip Kumar Banerjee (Football).

The correct answer is rainfed farming. 

Key Points

• The term ‘barani’ refers to the agricultural area that depends on rainfall for cultivation.
• The word ‘barani’ comes from the Persian word ‘baran’ meaning ‘rain’.
• The rainfed areas, commonly known as the Barani tract, account for about one-quarter of the total cropped area of Punjab.

Additional Information irrigated farming

• Irrigated farming is practised in the areas where average rainfall is between 80 and 200cms which is insufficient for the crops like sugarcane, wheat and rice.
• Such a system of farming is practised only in that region of the country where the source of water is from underground or surface water bodies like rivers, tanks and lakes are sufficient throughout the year.

dry farming

• Dry agriculture is the cultivation done in dry and semi-dry areas where the average annual rainfall is about 75 cm.
• Dryland farming or rainfed farming is the technique of doing agriculture without irrigation.
• Crops are grown without irrigation by accumulating the limited moisture available under them.
• Due to the lack of rainfall, constant efforts are made to maintain and increase the moisture content of the soil.
• Features of dry agriculture are that it is cultivated in those areas where there is a lack of moisture for about 8 months in a year.

mixed farming

• Mixed farming is an agricultural system in which a farmer conducts different agricultural practices, such as cash crops and livestock, together.
• The aim is to increase income through different sources and to complement land and labour demands across the year.
• In an ideal case, the ratio of enterprise Crops to livestock should be ~ 50%-50%.

The correct answer is option 1, i.e. higher than 20 kHz.

 Concept:

Frequency: The number of waves that pass a fixed point in unit time.

The unit of frequency is Hertz (Hz).

• Infrasonic sounds have the frequency of less than 20 Hz and these are generally produced by sources of a bigger size such as earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, etc.
• Sound waves with frequencies below the audible range are called infrasonic.
• Audible sounds have the frequency of 20-20000 Hz since these are sensitive to the human ears
• And if the frequency is greater or less then audible frequency, human ear won't be able to sense it
• Ultrasonic sounds have a frequency greater than 20000 Hz and certain creatures such as dog, cat, a bat can hear this kind of sound.

Explanation:

• The term "ultrasonic" is applied to sound referring to anything above the frequencies of audible sound, and nominally includes anything over 20,000 Hz.​.

 Hence option 1 is correct among all

The correct answer is option 2, i.e. The Mughal court chronicles describe them as the descendants of a legendary Iranian king Afrasiyab.

• Babur, the founder of the largest dynasty India has ever seen, was born on February 14, 1483.
• He was the eldest son of Umar Sheikh Mirza, a direct descendant of Turk-Mongol conqueror Timur, also known as Tamurlane. His mother was a direct descendant of Asia's conqueror Genghis Khan.
• He ascended the throne of Farghana (now in Uzbekistan) in 1495, at the age of 12.
• In 1504, he conquered Kabul, which was an important citadel in Central Asia.

The correct answer is option 2, i.e. six.

Key Points

• Nine-time Olympic champion Usain Bolt has won the IAAF male Athlete of the Year award for a record sixth time.
• Ethiopia's Almaz Ayana, who broke the 10,000m world record by over 14 seconds in winning Olympic gold in Rio this summer, won the female award.
• He had won it in 2008, 2009, 2011, 2012, 2013 and 2016.

The correct answer is option 3, i.e. Guru Ghasidas.

• ​The most-important Satnami group was founded in 1820 in the Chattisgarh region of middle India by Ghasidas, a farm servant and member of the Chamar caste.
• His Satnam Panth (“Path of the True Name”) succeeded in providing a religious and social identity for large numbers of Chattisgarhi Chamars.
• Ghasidas is remembered for having thrown images of Hindu gods onto a rubbish heap.
• He preached a code of ethical and dietary self-restraint and social equality.

The correct answer is option 1, i.e. Article 280.

Key Points

• Finance Commission:-
• The Finance Commission is appointed by the President under Article 280 of the Constitution.
• As per the provisions contained in the Finance Commission [Miscellaneous Provisions] Act, 1951
• The Finance Commission gives its recommendations on the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States and among the States themselves.
• It involves in redressing the vertical imbalances between the taxation powers and expenditure responsibilities of the centre and the States respectively and equalization of all public services across the States.

Additional Information

• Article 320::-
• It deals with the functions of the public service commission.
• Article 290:-
• It States about the Adjustment in respect of certain expenses and pensions.
• Article 300:-
• ​This article of the Indian constitution confirmed that suits and proceedings can be done against the Union of India and the government of the state.

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. Alcohol.

• A thermometer is a device used for measuring temperature.
• It has a temperature-sensitive bulb filled with liquid and a scale showing the measured temperature.
• Temperatures are measured in Celsius, Fahrenheit, Kelvin
• Alcohol thermometer uses alcohol as the liquid to measure the temperature variations. Alcohol expands when it absorbs temperature and contract in colder temperatures.
• Alcohol is non-toxic, alcohol thermometers are much safer to use than the mercury thermometers.
• Alcohol thermometers can be used to measure very low temperatures.
• Mercury has a higher boiling point than alcohol, mercury thermometer can be used to measure high temperatures.

The correct answer is option 4, i.e. Khajurao.

• Kandariya Mahadev Temple is the largest and the most magnificent temple in Khajuraho.
• It is one of the UNESCO World Heritage Sites in India.
• The Khajuraho group of temples were built during the rule of the Rajput Chandela dynasty.
• Most temples were constructed between 950 and 1050 AD during the reigns of Hindu Kings Yasovarman and Dhanga.

The correct answer is option 4, i.e. APJ Abdul kalam.

• Target 3 Billion: Innovative Solutions Towards Sustainable Development is a book by late APJ Abdul Kalam and Srijan Pal Singh.
• The book explains how India can eradicate poverty.
• He also pioneered India Vision 2020, a road map for transforming India.
• The President of India between 2002 and 2007.
• Dr Kalam was awarded honorary doctorates the Padma Bhushan (1981), Padma Vibhushan (1990) and Bharat Ratna(1997).
• Dr Kalam passed away in July 2015.

The correct answer is option 2, i.e. the space left on one side for stitching and binding.

• The gutter margin is a typographical term used to designate an additional margin added to a page layout to compensate for the part of the paper made unusable by the binding process.
• When creating a document in Microsoft Word for print binding, you must allow for added margin space in the area of the page that falls within the spine of the finished product.
• The word calls this area the gutter and allows you to customize the size based on your binding needs.
• Word also offers options for binding with facing, double-printed pages and centre-folded, booklet-style printing where you have two pages per sheet of paper.
• In single-sheet layouts, the gutter margin is typically the area where you might three-hole punch your paper.

The correct answer is option 1, i.e. Delhi.

• The 4th Global Digital Health Partnership Summit in February 2019 was inaugurated by Union Minister of Health and Family Welfare, Union IT Minister
• The global intergovernmental meeting on digital health is being hosted by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare in collaboration with the World Health Organization (WHO) and the Global Digital Health Partnership (GDHP).
• The Delhi Declaration on digital health for sustainable development was adopted at the concluding session.
• The declaration marks India’s commitment to maximize the digital health investments to ensure Universal Health Coverage (UHC) and realize Ayushman Bharat.

The correct answer is option 2, i.e. Lakshadweep.

• Top five states and UTs, where literacy rate is the highest, are Kerala (94 per cent), Lakshadweep (91.8 per cent), Mizoram (91.3 per cent), Goa (88.7 per cent) and Tripura (87.2).
• The bottom five states and UTs are Bihar (61.8 per cent), Arunachal Pradesh (65.4 per cent), Rajasthan (66.1 per cent), Jharkhand (66.4 per cent) and Andhra Pradesh (67 per cent).
• The first synchronous Census in India was done in 1881.
• Census 2011 is the 15th Census in this continuous series from 1872 and the 7th since Independence.
• Literacy rate of India has gone up to 74.04% per cent (2011) from the previous figure of 64.83 per cent (2001).

The correct answer is option 2, i.e. Australia.

• A web domain name is a sequence of letters and/or numbers/hyphens separated by one or more periods (".")which is a pointer to a unique numerical address (IP) on a computer network such as the Internet. T
• A web domain name always ends with an extension of 2 or 3 characters.
• Two-letter domains established for geographical locations; for example; .au stands for Australia.
• .com.au registrants must still be Australians or have registered business interests in Australia.

The correct answer is option 1, i.e Abu Dhabi.

• Abu Dhabi has included Hindi as the third official language used in its courts, alongside Arabic and English, as part of a move designed to improve access to justice.
• This is aimed at helping Hindi speakers to learn about litigation procedures, their rights and duties without a language barrier, in addition to facilitating registration procedures via unified forms available through the  Abu Dhabi Judicial Department (ADJD) website.
• According to official figures, the UAE population is estimated to be around nine million of which 2/3rd are immigrants from foreign countries.
• The Indian community in the UAE, numbering 2.6 million, constitutes 30 per cent of the total population and is the largest expatriate community in the country.