Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Previous Paper (Held On: 8 August 2017 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2017

100 questions60 minutes
With answers
Free

Paper last updated:

Practise under exam conditions

Take this paper as a timed mock test. Review your answers after you submit.

Attempt timed test

Questions & answers

Read the paper at your pace. Open an explanation when you need it.

General Intelligence and Reasoning (25 questions)

Question 1

In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Goitre : Iodine : : Anaemia : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Vitamin D

  2. BOption (b)

    Iron

  3. COption (c)

    Vitamin E

  4. DOption (d)

    Calcium

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Iron

Why this answer is correct

Goitre is caused due to the deficiency of Iodine. Similarly, Anaemia is caused due to the deficiency of Iron.

Hence, Iron is the correct ans.

Question 2

In the following question, select the related letter from the given alternatives.

DE : O : : AF : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    H

  2. BOption (b)

    K

  3. COption (c)

    J

  4. DOption (d)

    T

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

K

Why this answer is correct

Consider the position of letters of the English Alphabet

(1 2 3 4  5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26)

 A B C D E F G H I  J  K   L  M  N  O  P  Q  R  S  T  U  V  W X  Y  Z

DE : O can be written as

4 + 5 = 9 × 2 = 18 – 3 = 15 = O

Similarly, AF will be written as

1 + 6 = 7 × 2 = 14 – 3 = 11 = K

Hence, K is the correct ans.

Question 3

In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

56 : 41 : : 94 : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    49

  2. BOption (b)

    53

  3. COption (c)

    60

  4. DOption (d)

    89

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

49

Why this answer is correct

56 : 41 can be written as

(5 + 6) + (5 × 6) = 11 + 30 = 41

Similarly,

(9 + 4) + (9 × 4) = 13 + 36 = 49.

Hence, 49 is the correct ans.

Question 4

In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

  1. AOption (a)

    Beneath

  2. BOption (b)

    On top

  3. COption (c)

    Huge

  4. DOption (d)

    Above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Huge

Why this answer is correct

Beneath, On top and Above are prepositions whereas Huge is an adjective.

Hence, Huge is the odd word from the given alternatives.

Question 5

In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

  1. AOption (a)

    MN

  2. BOption (b)

    NM

  3. COption (c)

    OL

  4. DOption (d)

    ET

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

ET

Why this answer is correct

Consider the position of letters of the English Alphabet

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

In MN, NM and OL, the number of letters before the first letter is equal to the number of letters after the second letter except in ET where the letters before and after are not equal.

Hence, ET is the odd letter pair from the given alternatives.

Question 6

In the following question, select the odd number from the given alternatives.

  1. AOption (a)

    253

  2. BOption (b)

    473

  3. COption (c)

    143

  4. DOption (d)

    633

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

633

Why this answer is correct

253, 473 and 143 are divisible by 11 whereas 633 is not divisible by 11.

Hence, 633 is the odd number from the given alternatives.

Question 7

Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

  1. Flinching
  2. Flintlock
  3. Flinpites
  4. Flintlocks
  5. Flinchers
  1. AOption (a)

    15243

  2. BOption (b)

    51243

  3. COption (c)

    51324

  4. DOption (d)

    51342

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

51324

Why this answer is correct

  1. Flinchers
  2. Flinching
  3. Flinpites
  4. Flintlock
  5. Flintlocks

Hence, the correct dictionary order would be 51324.

Question 8

In the following question, which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?

_ yzaa _ y _ xy _ aazy _

  1. AOption (a)

    xxzzx

  2. BOption (b)

    xxaza

  3. COption (c)

    xzxzx

  4. DOption (d)

    aazzx

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

xzxzx

Why this answer is correct

  1. xxzzx ⇒ xyzaaxyzxyzaazyx

  2. xxaza ⇒ xyzaaxyaxyzaazya

  3. xzxzx ⇒ xyzaazyxxyzaazyx  (repeated pattern of xyzaazyx)

  4. aazzx ⇒ ayzaaayzxyzaazyx

Hence, xzxzx is the correct ans.

Question 9

In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

19, 38, ?, 228, 684, 1368

  1. AOption (a)

    108

  2. BOption (b)

    113

  3. COption (c)

    114

  4. DOption (d)

    138

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

114

Why this answer is correct

The pattern of the above sequence is as follows:

19 × 2 = 38

38 × 3 = 114

114 × 2 = 228

228 × 3 = 684

684 × 2 = 1368

Hence, 114 is the correct answer.

Question 10

There are five students - P, Q, R, S and T having different heights in a class. P's height is more than only one student. Q's height is more than S and P but not more than R. S's height is more than P. R is not the smallest. Who is having the maximum height in the class?

  1. AOption (a)

    Q

  2. BOption (b)

    R

  3. COption (c)

    S

  4. DOption (d)

    T

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

R

Why this answer is correct

From statement I: (Height)

_ > _ > _ > P > _

From statement II:

Q > S and P

R > Q

From statement III:

S > P

On combining I, II and III we get:

R > Q > S > P > T (Final order)

Clearly, R is of maximum height.

Question 11

In a row of 74 girls, Shweta is 27th from left end. Palak is 7th to the right of Shweta. What is Palak's position from the right end of the row?

  1. AOption (a)

    40

  2. BOption (b)

    41

  3. COption (c)

    42

  4. DOption (d)

    44

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

41

Why this answer is correct

Palak's position from the right end of the row = Total no. of students – Palak’s position from the left end + 1

= 74 – 34 + 1

= 41.

Hence, 41 is the correct ans.

Question 12

In the following question, from the given alternative words, select the word which can be formed using the letters of the given word.

CAPITULATE

  1. AOption (a)

    CAPABLE

  2. BOption (b)

    LUPIN

  3. COption (c)

    PITTY

  4. DOption (d)

    TALE

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

TALE

Why this answer is correct

1)  CAPABLE: 'B' is not present in given word  'CAPITULATE', hence, it cannot be formed.

2) LUPIN: 'N' is not present in given word 'CAPITULATE', hence, it cannot be formed.

3) PITTY: 'Y' is not present in given word 'CAPITULATE', hence, it cannot be formed.

4) TALE: 'CAPITULATE', as all letters are present, hence, it can be formed.

Hence, TALE can be formed from the given word CAPITULATE.

Question 13

In a certain code language, "BIOLOGY" is written as "YRLOLTB". How is "PHYSICS" written in that code language?

  1. AOption (a)

    KSXRBHH

  2. BOption (b)

    KSBHRXH

  3. COption (c)

    XHRHBSK

  4. DOption (d)

    KSBHXRH

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

KSBHRXH

Why this answer is correct

The corresponding word to ‘BIOLOGY’ is written in this way:

Total number of letters in the English Alphabet – No. of position of the letter + 1

So, BIOLOGY can be written as

B can be written as = 26 – 2 + 1 = 25 = Y

I = R, O = L, L = O, O = L, G = T, Y

Similarly, PHYSICS can be written as

Hence, KSBHRXH is the correct ans.

Question 14

In the following question, correct the equation by interchanging two signs.

6 + 8 ÷ 4 – 4 = 8

  1. AOption (a)

    ÷ and =

  2. BOption (b)

    ÷ and +

  3. COption (c)

    ÷ and –

  4. DOption (d)
    • and –
View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.
  • and –

Why this answer is correct

On interchanging the equation with + and – we get,

6 – 8 ÷ 4 + 4 = 8

Hence, 4) + and – is the correct answer.

Question 15

If 4 × 9 × 3 = 4 and 5 × 3 × 1 = 3, then

9 × 9 × 7 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    5

  2. BOption (b)

    6

  3. COption (c)

    7

  4. DOption (d)

    9

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

5

Why this answer is correct

4 × 9 × 3 = 4 can be written as

4 + 9 + 3 = 16 = 42

5 × 3 × 1 = 3 can be written as

5 + 3 + 1 = 9 = 32

Similarly, 9 × 9 × 7 can be written as

9 + 9 + 7 = 25 = 52

Hence, 5 is the correct ans.

Question 16

In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

  1. AOption (a)

    108

  2. BOption (b)

    112

  3. COption (c)

    118

  4. DOption (d)

    120

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

120

Why this answer is correct

The 1st diagram can be written as

(4 + 7) × (3 + 5) = 11 × 8 = 88

The 2nd diagram can be written as

(2 + 6) × (5 + 8) = 8 × 13 = 104

Similarly, the 3rd diagram can be written as

 (7 + 8) × (5 + 3) = 15 × 8 = 120

Hence, 120 is the correct ans.

Question 17

How many rectangles are there in the given figure?

  1. AOption (a)

    9

  2. BOption (b)

    10

  3. COption (c)

    11

  4. DOption (d)

    12

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

11

Why this answer is correct

Square is a special case of the rectangle.

Hence, there are 11 rectangles.

Question 18

In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements.

Statements:

I. All cups are plates.

II. Some cups are glass.

Conclusions:

I. Some glasses are plates.

II. All glasses are plates.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only conclusion (I) follows.

  2. BOption (b)

    Only conclusion (II) follows.

  3. COption (c)

    Neither conclusion (I) nor conclusion (II) follow.

  4. DOption (d)

    Both conclusions follow.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only conclusion (I) follows.

Why this answer is correct

We can draw the least possible Venn diagram:

Conclusions:

I. Some glasses are plates → It’s true.

II. All glasses are plates → It’s possible but not definite. Hence, false.

Question 19

From the given options, which figure can be formed by folding the figure given in the question?

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

After folding the squares, B and E will face opposite to each other.

Similarly, D and O will face A and N respectively.

Thus, D and E and N and O will not be adjacent sides.

The only possible case is figure 2).

Hence, is the correct ans.

Question 20

Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the given classes.

Real number, Integer, Natural number

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

All Natural numbers are Integers and all integers are included in Real number.

Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

Question 21

Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

The missing figure will comprise of a straight line from the uppermost right corner to the lowermost left corner with its midpoint intersected by two sides of a square.

Figure 1) fulfils this condition.

Hence is the correct ans.

Question 22

From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

The question figure is embedded in this figure.

Hence, "Option (2)" is the correct answer.

Question 23

A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

After folding the paper twice and being cut at the right side with a semicircle and the left side with a rectangle, we will see 4 cut rectangles at four sides and two circles along the central line.

Hence, is the correct ans.

Question 24

If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figure is the right image of the given figure?

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

Hence, Figure 1)  is the correct ans.

Question 25

A word is represented by only set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example, ‘H’ can be represented by 34, 41, etc., and ‘T’ can be represented by 59, 97, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word “STRAW”.

Matrix-IMatrix-II
0123456789
0SRGHW5AFLCT
1HWSRG6CTAFL
2RGHWS7FLCTA
3WSRGH8TAFLC
4GHWSR9LCTAF
  1. AOption (a)

    00, 78, 13, 67, 23

  2. BOption (b)

    12, 59, 01, 55, 10

  3. COption (c)

    24, 97, 20, 86, 31

  4. DOption (d)

    43, 66, 44, 98, 43

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

00, 78, 13, 67, 23

Why this answer is correct

  1. 00, 78, 13, 67, 23 ⇒ S, T, R, A, W

  2. 12, 59, 01, 55, 10 ⇒ S, T, R, A, H

  3. 24, 97, 20, 86, 31 ⇒ S, T, R, A, S

  4. 43, 66, 44, 98, 43 ⇒ S, T, R, A, S

Hence, the set of number which represents word “STRAW” is “00, 78, 13, 67, 23”.

General Awareness (25 questions)

Question 26

'Neo-Malthusian Theory' is associated with which of the following?

  1. AOption (a)

    Employment

  2. BOption (b)

    Poverty

  3. COption (c)

    Resource scarcity

  4. DOption (d)

    Income

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Resource scarcity

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

  • Neo-Malthusianism is the advocacy of population control programs, to ensure resources for current and future populations.
  • This theory believes earth's resources can only support a finite population and that limited resources keep the population in check and reduce economic growth, therefore, growth should be controlled.

Additional Information

Definition of Inflation: 

Inflation refers to the general rise in the price level in an economy.

  • An increase in inflation leads to a fall in the purchasing power of a currency as the commodities and prices get higher.
  • In simple words, we would be able to purchase only fewer items for the same amount of money.

Question 27

SectorExample
1. Primarya. Consultancy
2. Secondaryb. Apiculture
3. Tertiaryc. Shoe Factory

 

Match the following:

  1. AOption (a)

    1-b, 2-c, 3-a

  2. BOption (b)

    1-c, 2-a, 3-b

  3. COption (c)

    1-a, 2-c, 3-b

  4. DOption (d)

    1-c, 2-b, 3-a

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1-b, 2-c, 3-a

Why this answer is correct

Economic activities are broadly grouped into primary, secondary and tertiary activities:-

Primary sector: Primary activities are directly dependent on environment as these refer to utilisation of earth’s resources. It, thus includes, hunting and gathering, pastoral activities, fishing, apiculture etc.

Secondary sector: Secondary activities add value to natural resources by transforming raw materials into valuable products. Therefore, are concerned with manufacturing, processing and construction industries. For eg: Shoe factory.

Tertiary sector: Tertiary activities include both production and exchange. The production involves the ‘provision’ of services that are consumed. Exchange, involves trade, transport and communication facilities that are used to overcome distance. For eg: Consultancy.

Question 28

How many Fundamental Duties are mentioned in Indian constitution?

  1. AOption (a)

    Five

  2. BOption (b)

    Seven

  3. COption (c)

    Nine

  4. DOption (d)

    Eleven

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Eleven

Why this answer is correct

Option 4 is correct, i.e. Eleven.

There are 11 fundamental duties, they are:

  • Abide by the Constitution and respect national flag & National Anthem.
  • Follow ideals of the freedom struggle.
  • Protect sovereignty & integrity of India.
  • Defend the country and render national services when called upon.
  • Sprit of a common brotherhood.
  • Preserve composite culture.
  • Preserve the natural environment.
  • Develop a scientific temper.
  • Safeguard public property.
  • Strive for excellence.
  • Duty fo all parents/guardians to send their children in the age group of 6-14 years to school.

Extra facts:

  • The Swaran Singh Committee is related to the Fundamental Duties in India.
  • On the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee, 11 Fundamental Duties were added to the Indian Constitution.
  • Article 51A deals with the Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution.
  • The Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act 1976.
  • The concept of fundamental duties of the Indian constitution was borrowed from the USSR(Union of Soviet Socialist Republics).

Question 29

Part IV of constitution of India deals with which of the following?

  1. AOption (a)

    The Union

  2. BOption (b)

    The States

  3. COption (c)

    Fundamental Rights

  4. DOption (d)

    Directive Principles of State Policy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Directive Principles of State Policy

Why this answer is correct

Option 4 is correct, i.e. Directive Principles of State Policy.

Key Points

  • Part IV of the Indian Constitution deals with the directive principles of state policy from article 36 to article 51.
  • These are the directions provided by the Constitution for the state to consider while making laws.

Extra facts:

PartsSubject MatterArticles
Part IThe Union and its territory1 to 4
Part IICitizenship5 to 11
Part IIIFundamental Rights12 to 35
Part IVDirective Principles of State Policy36 to 51

Question 30

Who gave the slogan 'Back to the Vedas'?

  1. AOption (a)

    Guru Nanank Dev Ji

  2. BOption (b)

    Dayanand Saraswati

  3. COption (c)

    Swami Vivekananda

  4. DOption (d)

    Raja Ram Mohan Roy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Dayanand Saraswati

Why this answer is correct

Option 2 is correct, i.e. Dayanand Saraswati.

  • Dayanand Saraswati gave the slogan 'Back to the Vedas'.
  • Mool Shankar was the paternal name of Swami Dayanand Saraswati.
  • Swami Dayanand Saraswati was the founder of Arya Samaj and a religious leader of India.
  • He was born in Tankara, Gujarat on 12 February 1824.
  • He founded the Arya Samaj on 10 April 1875 in Bombay.

Extra facts:

Swami Vivekanand:

  • He was born on 12 January 1863.
  • Swami Vivekananda’s real name was Narendranath Dutt.
  • He founded Ramakrishna Math and Ramakrishna Mission.

Raja Ram Mohan Roy:

  • Akbar II gave the title Raja to Raja Ram Mohan Roy.
  • He brought out a newspaper in Persian called 'Miratul-Akbar' (the Mirror of News) and a Bengali weekly called 'Sambad Kaumudi' (the Moon of Intelligence).
  • He is sometimes called the father of modern India.
  • He was popularly known as the Father of the Indian Renaissance.
  • He founded an organization called 'Brahmo Samaj'

Question 31

Todar mal was the finance minister of which Mughal ruler?

  1. AOption (a)

    Shah Jahan

  2. BOption (b)

    Bahadur Shah Jafar

  3. COption (c)

    Akbar

  4. DOption (d)

    Aurangzeb

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Akbar

Why this answer is correct

Raja Todar Mal was the Finance Minister of the Mughal empire during Akbar's reign.

Raja Todar Mal:-

  • He was one of the Navaratna's in Akbar's 'darbar'
  • Raja Todar Mal introduced standard weights and measures, a land survey and settlement system, revenue districts and officers.
  • He introduced a new system of revenue known as zabt and a system of taxation called dahshala.
  • The Kashi Vishwanath Temple was rebuilt in 1585 by Todar Mal.
  • The navratnas of Akbar were as follows: Raja Birbal, Tansen, Abul Fazal, Faizi, Raja Man Singh, Raja Todar Mal, Mullah Do Piaza, Fakir Aziao-Din, Abdul Rahim Khan-I-Khana.

Question 32

Gravitational force is maximum at which of the following place?

  1. AOption (a)

    At equator

  2. BOption (b)

    At tropic of cancer

  3. COption (c)

    At tropic of Capricorn

  4. DOption (d)

    At poles

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

At poles

Why this answer is correct

  • The gravitational force is highest at the two poles of the earth i.e. the North Pole and the South Pole.
  • This is because centrifugal forces are absent at poles and are maximum at equator and they act against gravitation, also the Earth is not a perfect sphere and the distance to Earth is shorter at poles.

Question 33

Which of the following device is used to measure humidity?

  1. AOption (a)

    Hydrometer

  2. BOption (b)

    Hygrometer

  3. COption (c)

    Psycho Meter

  4. DOption (d)

    Anemometer

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Hygrometer

Why this answer is correct

DeviceUse
Hydrometeran instrument for measuring the density of liquids.
Hygrometerused for measuring the amount of humidity and water vapor in the atmosphere, in the soil, or in confined spaces.
Psycho-Metermeasures the relative humidity in the atmosphere through the use of two thermometers.
Anemometerused for measuring wind

Question 34

Which of the following disease is caused by female Anopheles mosquito?

  1. AOption (a)

    Chicken Pox

  2. BOption (b)

    Malaria

  3. COption (c)

    Black Fever

  4. DOption (d)

    Cholera

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Malaria

Why this answer is correct

Malaria is an infectious disease caused by parasitic protozoans and is spread by vectors such as the female Anopheles mosquito. Malaria causes symptoms that typically include fever, tiredness, vomiting, and headaches.

Question 35

Which part of the plant gives us saffron?

  1. AOption (a)

    Roots

  2. BOption (b)

    Petals

  3. COption (c)

    Stem

  4. DOption (d)

    Stigma

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Stigma

Why this answer is correct

Saffron is extracted from the stigma and styles of the plant, it is a spice that is used in Indian delicacies and is considered as one of the costliest spice in the world. It is widely found in Jammu and Kashmir in India.

Question 36

Which of the following transports water from the roots of the plant to its leaves?

  1. AOption (a)

    Xylem

  2. BOption (b)

    Phloem

  3. COption (c)

    Both xylem and phloem

  4. DOption (d)

    Cortex

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Xylem

Why this answer is correct

Xylem is a transport tissue in vascular plants. Its basic function is to transport water from roots to shoots and leaves. It sometimes also helps in transporting certain minerals to various parts of the plant.

Question 37

Which of the following is not a vector quantity?

  1. AOption (a)

    Momentum

  2. BOption (b)

    Displacement

  3. COption (c)

    Torque

  4. DOption (d)

    Speed

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Speed

Why this answer is correct

Speed is not a vector quantity because speed is the distance travelled in a unit time and a vector has to have magnitude as well as direction.

Question 38

At what temperature (in Fahrenheit) pure water freezes?

  1. AOption (a)

    32

  2. BOption (b)

    0

  3. COption (c)

    48

  4. DOption (d)

    37

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

32

Why this answer is correct

Pure water freezes at 32o Fahrenheit and 0o Celsius and 273.15 Kelvin. The boiling point of the pure water is 212o Fahrenheit.

Question 39

In which graphics, digital photos and scanned images are typically stored with extensions such as .bmp, .png, .jpg, .tif or.gif?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bitmap

  2. BOption (b)

    Pixels

  3. COption (c)

    Plane

  4. DOption (d)

    Both Bitmap and Pixels

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Bitmap

Why this answer is correct

Bitmap is the format in which an image is shown and stored digitally. It comprises of various dots which together form the image. Such dots are called pixels, therefore, as the number of dots in an image increases the clarity of the image increases.

Question 40

Process of gaining electrons is known as _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    oxidation

  2. BOption (b)

    reduction

  3. COption (c)

    radiation

  4. DOption (d)

    both oxidation and reduction

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

reduction

Why this answer is correct

Reduction is the chemical process of gaining electrons from other elements.

Question 41

Which of the following metal (shown by its symbol) is generally used for making filaments of bulb?

  1. AOption (a)

    Fe 

  2. BOption (b)

    An 

  3. COption (c)

    Ag 

  4. DOption (d)

    W

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

W

Why this answer is correct

Tungsten is the element from which filaments of the light bulbs are made; this is because of their hardness and high density. Its symbol is ‘W’ because of its scientific name ‘Wolfram’.

Question 42

Which of the following trees shed their leaves once in a year?

  1. AOption (a)

    Deciduous trees

  2. BOption (b)

    Coniferous trees

  3. COption (c)

    Evergreen trees

  4. DOption (d)

    Both deciduous and coniferous trees

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Deciduous trees

Why this answer is correct

Deciduous trees shed their leaves once in a year in winters to save water and to survive harsh weather. The trees that never shed leaves are called the Evergreen trees.

Question 43

The Entrepreneurship Development Scheme (EDS) has been launched under New Economy Development Policy (NEDP) on January 19, 2017 at ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    New Delhi

  2. BOption (b)

    Mizoram

  3. COption (c)

    Gujrat

  4. DOption (d)

    Uttar Pradesh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Mizoram

Why this answer is correct

NEDP is the economic policy rolled out by the Mizoram state government in 2016 to boost the agriculture in the state. Under this scheme EDS was launched in 2017 on January 19 in Aizawl.

Question 44

Who invented Dynamite?

  1. AOption (a)

    J B Dunlop

  2. BOption (b)

    Alfred Nobel

  3. COption (c)

    James Simons

  4. DOption (d)

    Peter Hargreaves

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Alfred Nobel

Why this answer is correct

  • Alfred Nobel was a Swedish inventor and businessman who invented dynamite that is used for explosions.
  • He also established five Nobel Prizes in the field of peace, literature, physics, chemistry, and medicine to mark the contribution to mankind by people.

Question 45

'Rovers cup' is associated with which of the following sport?

  1. AOption (a)

    Football

  2. BOption (b)

    Hockey

  3. COption (c)

    Golf

  4. DOption (d)

    Basketball

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Football

Why this answer is correct

Rovers Cup was the annual football tournament held in India till 2001 after which it was discontinued. The last football club to win that tournament was Mohun Bagan AC. 

Question 46

Dandia is a form of dance associated with which of the following states?

  1. AOption (a)

    Haryana

  2. BOption (b)

    Punjab

  3. COption (c)

    Gujarat

  4. DOption (d)

    Rajasthan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Gujarat

Why this answer is correct

Dandiya or Dandiya Raas is the traditional folk dance of Gujarat which is performed with two sticks in the hands of two people. It is generally performed on the evenings of Navratri.

Question 47

Who among the following was awarded with Dhronacharya Award 2016 in the field of 'Swimming (Lifetime)'?

  1. AOption (a)

    ​Shri Raj Kumar Sharma

  2. BOption (b)

    Shri Sagar Mal Dhayal

  3. COption (c)

    Shri S. Pradeep Kumar

  4. DOption (d)

    Shri Nagapuri Ramesh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Shri S. Pradeep Kumar

Why this answer is correct

Shri S. Pradeep Kumar is the head coach of India’s best swimming school in Bangalore and had produced more than 8000 swimmers out of which 4000 have won medals in national and international arena. He was awarded the Dronacharya Award (awarded to coaches of various sports in India) in 2016. 

Question 48

'Ace against Odds' is an autobiography of which sports person?

  1. AOption (a)

    Vishwanathan Anand

  2. BOption (b)

    Sania Mirza

  3. COption (c)

    Abhinav Bindra

  4. DOption (d)

    Anjali Bhagwat

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Sania Mirza

Why this answer is correct

‘Ace against odds’ is the autobiography of the Sania Mirza who is considered as the best female tennis player of India. Her autobiography was published in 2016. She was also ranked number 1 in doubles by WTA in 2015 for some time.

Question 49

Under the framework of the new partnership with which country, Victoria University will help India to Establish a National Sports University?

  1. AOption (a)

    Portugal

  2. BOption (b)

    Australia

  3. COption (c)

    Vietnam

  4. DOption (d)

    USA

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Australia

Why this answer is correct

Victoria University of Australia will help India establish a National Sports University in Manipur. National Sports University Bill, 2017 has been proposed for this purpose.

Question 50

With which country India exchanged its border enclaves?

  1. AOption (a)

    China

  2. BOption (b)

    Sri Lanka

  3. COption (c)

    Pakistan

  4. DOption (d)

    Bangladesh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Bangladesh

Why this answer is correct

India and Bangladesh exchanged border enclaves that were disputed in 2015 by passing Land Boundary Agreement in May 2015. A total number of 111 enclaves were exchanged.

Quantitative Aptitude (25 questions)

Question 51

What least value should be added to 1812 to make it divisible by 7, 11 and 14?

  1. AOption (a)

    12

  2. BOption (b)

    36

  3. COption (c)

    72

  4. DOption (d)

    154

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

36

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Number, a = 1812

Calculation:

To check the divisibility, first we have to check the LCM of 7, 11 and 14

⇒ LCM = 7 x 2 x 11 = 154

Now, Divide a by 154

⇒ Quotient = 11

⇒ Remainder = 118

∴ Least value that should be added = 154 – 118 = 36

Question 52

A is 1.5 times efficient as B therefore takes 8 days less than B to complete a work. If A and B work on alternate days and A works on first day, then in how many days the work will be completed?

  1. AOption (a)

    17

  2. BOption (b)

    19

  3. COption (c)

    19.5

  4. DOption (d)

    21

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

19

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A is 1.5 times efficient as B.

A is therefore takes 8 days less than B to complete a work.

A and B work on alternate days and A works on the first day.

Formula used:

W = E × T     Where, W = Work, E = Efficiency, and T = Time

Calculation:

Let the days taken by B to complete the work = c days

So, days taken by A to complete the work = c - 8 days 

Now, it is given that A is 1.5 times efficient as B

⇒ c = 1.5 x (c – 8)

⇒ 0.5c = 12

⇒ c = 24

Work done by B in 1 day = 1/24

Work done by A in 1 day = 1/16

Hence, the series becomes: 1/16 + 1/24 + 1/16 + ……. = 1

⇒ Work done in 2 consecutive days = 1/24 + 1/16

⇒ 5/48

⇒ 1/9.6

Work done in 18 consecutive days = 9/9.6

Work left after 18 days = 1 – (9/9.6)

⇒ 0.6/9.6

⇒ 1/16

Since A will work on the 19th day and will complete 1/16 of the work

Total days = 18 + 1

⇒ 19

∴ The work will be completed in 19 days.

Question 53

One of the diagonal of a rhombus is 70% of the other diagonal. What is the ratio of area of rhombus to the square of the length of the larger diagonal?

  1. AOption (a)

    3 : 10

  2. BOption (b)

    3 : 20

  3. COption (c)

    7 : 20

  4. DOption (d)

    7 : 10

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

7 : 20

Why this answer is correct

Area of rhombus = (p × q)/2

where p and q are length of the diagonals

Let the length of the larger diagonal be 1 unit

⇒ Length of the smaller diagonal = (70/100) × 1 = 0.7 units

⇒ Area of rhombus = (1 × 0.7)/2 = 0.35 unit2

⇒ Square of length of larger diagonal = 1 × 1 unit2

∴ required ratio = 0.35/1 = 7/20

Question 54

A shopkeeper sells a table at a discount of 20% and earns a profit of 60%. If he sells the same table at 40% discount, then what will be his new profit percent?

  1. AOption (a)

    20

  2. BOption (b)

    30

  3. COption (c)

    35

  4. DOption (d)

    40

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

20

Why this answer is correct

Let the Cost price of the table be a

Since he gains a profit of 60%, the selling price = a + (60/100) x a = 1.6a

Let the Marked price of the table be b

⇒ b – (20/100) x b = 1.6a

⇒ b = 2a

Now, if he sells the table at 40% discount

⇒ New selling price will be = 2a – (2a) x (40/100)

⇒ New selling price = 1.2a

∴ New profit percent = [(1.2a – a)/a] x 100 = 20%

Question 55

If A/3 = B/2 = C/5, then what is the value of ratio (C + A)2 : (A + B)2 : (B + C)2?

  1. AOption (a)

    9 : 4 : 25

  2. BOption (b)

    25 : 4 : 9

  3. COption (c)

    64 : 25 : 49

  4. DOption (d)

    49 : 25 : 64

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

64 : 25 : 49

Why this answer is correct

Given: A/3 = B/2 = C/5

⇒ B = 2A/3

⇒ C = 5A/3

To find: ratio (C + A)2 : (A + B)2 : (B + C)2

⇒ (5A/3 + A)2 : (A + 2A/3)2 : (2A/3 + 5A/3)2

⇒ (8A/3)2 : (5A/3)2 : (7A/3)2

⇒ (8A)2 : (5A)2 : (7A)2

∴ 64 : 25 : 49

Question 56

5 years ago the average age of a family which includes father, mother and a son was 35 years. 3 years ago the average age of father and mother was 46 years. What is the present age (in years) of the son?

  1. AOption (a)

    20

  2. BOption (b)

    24

  3. COption (c)

    26

  4. DOption (d)

    22

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

22

Why this answer is correct

Let the ages of father, mother and Son 5 years ago be a, b, c

Since, average age of family 5 years ago = 35

⇒ (a + b + c) / 3 = 35

⇒ a + b + c = 105       ….(i)

Now, 3 years ago the average age of father and mother = 35

⇒ (a + 2 + b + 2) / 2 = 46

⇒ a + b = 88        ….(ii)

So, by (i) and (ii)

 ⇒ Age of son 5 years ago = 105 – 88 = 17

∴ Present age of son = 17 + 5 = 22

Question 57

The cost price of 60 articles is same as the selling price of x articles. If there is a profit of 20%, then what is the value of x ?

  1. AOption (a)

    15

  2. BOption (b)

    30

  3. COption (c)

    50

  4. DOption (d)

    80

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

50

Why this answer is correct

Let the cost price of 1 article be a

Since the profit percent is 20, selling price of 1 article = a + (20/100)a = 1.2a

Given: cost price of 60 articles = selling price of x articles

⇒ 60 × a = x (1.2a)

⇒ x = 60/1.2

∴ x = 50

Question 58

A person scores 45% of the total marks in the exam and still fails by 40 marks. The passing percentage of the exam is 55%. What is the maximum marks of the exam?

  1. AOption (a)

    300

  2. BOption (b)

    350

  3. COption (c)

    400

  4. DOption (d)

    500

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

400

Why this answer is correct

Let the maximum marks be a

Given: Passing Marks – Acquired Marks = 40

Passing marks = 55a/100

Acquired marks = 45a/100

⇒ 55a/100 – 45a/100 = 40

⇒ 10a/100 = 40

⇒ a = 400

∴ Maximum marks of the e x am = 400

Question 59

A man starts running from point P at 11 : 00 a.m. with a speed of 10 km/hr. He runs for 2 hours and then takes a 1 hour rest. He continues this till he is caught by another man who starts at 2 : 00 p.m. from point P and runs non-stop at a speed of 15 km/hr towards the first man. At what time (in p.m.) will the first man be caught?

  1. AOption (a)

    6 : 20

  2. BOption (b)

    4 : 40

  3. COption (c)

    6 : 00

  4. DOption (d)

    5 : 30

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

4 : 40

Why this answer is correct

Formula used:

Distance = Speed × Time 

Calculation:

Let the first and second person be A & B.

⇒ A starts running at 11 am with a speed = 10 km/hr 

According to the question,

⇒ He runs for 2 hours and rests for 1 hour and this alternative running and resting loop repeated.

Then, Distance covered by A in the first 3 hours i.e. till 2 pm

= 10 × 2 = 20 km

Now, the distance covered by A in next 3 hours i.e. till 5 pm

= 10 × 2 = 20 km.

Hence, the time is taken by B to cover 40 km = 40/15 = 2 hours 40 minutes.

∴ At 4:40, A will be caught by B.

The A after traveling 2 hours from 2 pm to 4 pm. he will be in rest for 1-hour i,e 4 to 5 pm, he will be caught in that time

Mistake Points

Relative speed can be calculated only when both the objects in motion for the continuous-time period  in  either the same or opposite direction 

Here relative speed cannot be calculated because both A and B are not in relative motion for a continuous period, since A takes rest for 1 hour after every 2 hours of travel but B travels continuously

Question 60

The difference of compound interest and simple interest for 3 years and for 2 years are in ratio 23 : 7 respectively. What is rate of interest per annum (in %)?

  1. AOption (a)

    200/7

  2. BOption (b)

    100/7

  3. COption (c)

    300/7

  4. DOption (d)

    400/7

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

200/7

Why this answer is correct

⇒ (CI – SI)3/(CI – SI)2 = [P(R/100)2 × (300 + R)/100]/ P(R/100)2 = 23/7

⇒ (CI – SI)3/(CI – SI)2 = (300 + R)/100 = 23/7

⇒ (CI – SI)3/(CI – SI)2 = 2100 + 7R = 2300

⇒ 7R = 200

∴ R = 200/7

Concept used:

Difference between C.I. and S.I. for two years = P(R/100)2

Difference between C.I. and S.I. for three years  = P(R/100)2(300 + R)/100

Where,

P → Principal

R → Rate of interest 

Calculations: 

According to question 

Difference of compound interest and simple interest for 3 years and for 2 years are in ratio 23 : 7 

⇒P(R100)2(300+R100)P(R100)2=237⇒ {P({R \over 100})^2({300 + R \over 100})\over P({R \over 100})^2} = {23\over7}

⇒ (300 + R)/100 = 23/7 

⇒ 2100 + 7R = 2300

⇒ R = 200/7 

∴ The required rate of interest is (200/7)%

Question 61

If (x2/yz) + (y2/zx) + (z2/ xy) = 3, then what is the value of (x + y + z)3?

  1. AOption (a)

    0

  2. BOption (b)

    4

  3. COption (c)

    2

  4. DOption (d)

    8

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

0

Why this answer is correct

(x2/yz) + (y2/zx) + (z2/xy) = 3

x3 + y3 + z3 = 3xyz

So, x + y + z = 0

∴ The value of ( x + y + z)3 = 0

Alternate Method We know that,

If x + y + z = 0, then 

x3 + y3 + z3 = 3xyz

According to the question,

Given, x3 + y3 + z3 = 3xyz

So, ( x + y + z)3 = (0)3 = 0

∴ The value of ( x + y + z)3 = 0.

Question 62

If x1/4 + x-1/4 = 2, then what is the value of x81 + (1/ x81)?

  1. AOption (a)

    –2

  2. BOption (b)

    0

  3. COption (c)

    1

  4. DOption (d)

    2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

2

Why this answer is correct

Given: x1/4 + 1/(x1/4) = 2

⇒ (x1/8 – (1/x1/8))2 = 0

⇒ x1/8 – (1/ x1/8) = 0

⇒ x1/8 = 1/x1/8

⇒ x1/4 = 1

⇒ x = 1

∴ x81 + (1/x81) = 181 + 1/181 = 2

Question 63

If a(a + b + c) = 45, b(a + b + c) = 75 and c(a + b + c) = 105, then what is the value of (a2 + b2 + c2)?

  1. AOption (a)

    75

  2. BOption (b)

    83

  3. COption (c)

    217

  4. DOption (d)

    225

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

83

Why this answer is correct

Given:

(a(a + b + c) = 45)

(b(a + b + c) = 75)

(c(a + b + c) = 105)

Formula Used:

a2+b2+c2=(a+b+c)2−2(ab+bc+ca)a^2 + b^2 + c^2 = (a+b+c)^2 - 2(ab+bc+ca)

Calculation:

Let S = a + b + c and P = ab + bc + ca.

⇒ aS = 45

⇒ bS = 75

⇒ cS = 105

Summing all, aS + bS + cS = 225

⇒ S2 = 225

⇒ S = 15 (since S is positive)

Using a + b + c = 15 and aS = 45, bS = 75, cS = 105,

⇒ a = 45 / 15 = 3

⇒ b = 75 / 15 = 5

⇒ c = 105 / 15 = 7

Now, a2 + b2 + c2 = 32 + 52 + 72

⇒ a2 + b2 + c2 = 9 + 25 + 49

⇒ a2 + b2 + c2 = 83

∴ The value of a2 + b2 + c2 is 83.

Question 64

In the given figure, PQRS is a trapezium in which PM || SN, NR = 9 cm, PS = 12 cm, QM = NR and NR = SN. What is the area (in cm2) of trapezium?

  1. AOption (a)

    170

  2. BOption (b)

    182

  3. COption (c)

    189

  4. DOption (d)

    191

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

189

Why this answer is correct

Given:

PS = 12 cm

NR = 9 cm

QM = NR and NR = SN

Formula Used:

Area of Trapezium = (1/2) × (Sum of Parallel Sides) × Height

Calculation:

According to the question,

QM = NR and NR = SN

⇒ QM = NR = SN = 9 cm

Again according to the question,

PM || SN

⇒ PS = MN = 12 cm

In trapezium PQRS,

QR = QM + MN + NR

⇒ QR = 9 + 12 + 9 = 30 cm

Height = SN = 9 cm

Area of Trapezium = (1/2) × (PS + QR) × SN

⇒ Area of Trapezium = (1/2) × (12 + 30) × 9

⇒ Area of Trapezium = (1/2) × (12 + 30) × 9

⇒ Area of Trapezium = 189 cm2

Question 65

In the given figure, PQR is an equilateral triangle and diameter PS is the angle bisector of ∠P. What is the value of RT : RQ?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 : 2

  2. BOption (b)

    1 : 1

  3. COption (c)

    2 : 1

  4. DOption (d)

    1 : 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1 : 1

Why this answer is correct

All the angles of an equilateral triangle are of 60°

⇒ ∠PQS = 90° (angle in a semi-circle)

⇒ So, ∠PTQ = 180° - 90° - 60°

⇒ ∠PTQ = 30°

Applying sine rule in triangle PTQ

⇒ sin30° / PQ = sin90° / PT

⇒ (1/2) / PQ = 1 / PT

⇒ 2PQ = PT

⇒ 2PQ = PR + RT

⇒ 2PQ = PQ + RT (sides of an equilateral triangle)

⇒ RT = PQ = RQ

∴ the required ratio is 1 : 1

Question 66

Two chords of length 20 cm and 24 cm are drawn perpendicular to each other in a circle of radius is 15 cm. What is the distance between the Points of intersection of these chords (in cm) from the centre of the circle?

  1. AOption (a)

    √114

  2. BOption (b)

    √182

  3. COption (c)

    √206

  4. DOption (d)

    √218

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

√206

Why this answer is correct

Let QR be the shorter chord with length = 20cm, Let its middle point be K

And ST be the longer chord with length = 24cm, Let its middle point be L

Let the centre of the circle be O and the point of intersection of the chords be M

Now, triangle OLT is a right angled triangle

⇒ OL2 + LT2 = OT2

⇒ OL2 = 152 – 122 = 81

⇒ OL = 9

Similarly in triangle QOK

⇒ OQ2 = OK2 + KQ2

⇒ 152 = OK2 + 102

⇒ OK = √125

Now, OL = KM = 9 cm

So, in triangle OKM

We have, OK2 + KM2 = OM2

⇒ OM2 = 125 + 81

⇒ OM = √206

∴ required length is √206 cm

Question 67

If x2 + (1/x2) = 1 then what is the value of x48 + x42 + x36 + x30 + x24 + x18 + x12 + x6 + 1 ?

  1. AOption (a)

    -9

  2. BOption (b)

    0

  3. COption (c)

    1

  4. DOption (d)

    9

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1

Why this answer is correct

Given: x2 + (1/x2) = 1

Adding 2 on both sides

x2 + (1/x2) + 2 = 1 + 2

x2 + (1/x2) + 2(x)(1/x) = 1 + 2

(x + 1/x)2 = 3

(x + 1/x) = √3

Cubing both sides

(x + 1/x)3 = (√3)3

x3 + 1/x3 + 3(x)(1/x)(x + 1/x) = 3√3

x3 + 1/x3 = 0

x3 = -1/x3

x6 = -1

Putting values of x6 = -1 in x48 + x42 + x36 + x30 + x24 + x18 + x12 + x6 + 1

Answer = 1 - 1 + 1 - 1 + 1 - 1 + 1 - 1 + 1 = 1

Question 68

In the given figure, QRTS is a cyclic quadrilateral. If PT = 5cm, SQ = 4cm, PS = 6cm and ∠PQR = 63°, then what is the value (in cm) of TR?

  1. AOption (a)

    3

  2. BOption (b)

    7

  3. COption (c)

    9

  4. DOption (d)

    15

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

7

Why this answer is correct

Given: QSTR is a cyclic quadrilateral

Sum of the opposite angles = 180

So, ∠STR = 117°

Also, ∠PTS = 180° - ∠STR 

⇒ ∠PTS = 63°

And, ∠PST = ∠TRQ       (∵ ∠PST + ∠TSQ = ∠TRQ + ∠TSQ = 180°)

So, PTS and PQR are similar triangles

Hence, PT/PQ = PS/PR

⇒ 5/10 = 6/PR

⇒ PR = 12 cm

⇒ PT + TR = 12 cm

∴ TR = 12 – 5 = 7

Question 69

What is the simplified value of sin2(90 – θ) – [{sin(90 – θ)sin θ}/tanθ]?

  1. AOption (a)

    1

  2. BOption (b)

    cosec θ

  3. COption (c)

    0

  4. DOption (d)

    cos θ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

0

Why this answer is correct

We know that: sin(90 – θ) = cosθ

So, sin2(90 – θ) – [{sin(90 – θ)sinθ}/tanθ] = cos2θ – [(cosθ sinθ)/(sinθ/cosθ)]

⇒ cos2θ – cos2θ

∴ 0

Question 70

What is the simplified value of [cos2θ1;+;sin⁡θ−sin2θ1;+;cos⁡θ]2{\left[ {\frac{{co{s^2}\theta }}{{1; + ;\sin \theta }} - \frac{{si{n^2}\theta }}{{1; + ;\cos \theta }}} \right]^2}?

  1. AOption (a)

    sinθ

  2. BOption (b)

    1 – sin2θ

  3. COption (c)

    1 + sin2θ

  4. DOption (d)

    1 – sinθ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1 – sin2θ

Why this answer is correct

Since all the options have sinθ in them, we can conclude by seeing that they all give different values.

Putting θ = 45°

We get the values of options as :

(1) 1/√2

(2) 0

(3) 2

(4) (√2 – 1)/√2

Value asked in question = [(1/2)/(1 + (1/√2)) – (1/2)/(1 + (1/√2))]2 = 0

∴ the answer is (2)

Question 71

If 5 secθ – 3 tanθ = 5, then what is the value of 5 tanθ – 3 secθ?

  1. AOption (a)

    1

  2. BOption (b)

    2

  3. COption (c)

    3

  4. DOption (d)

    4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

3

Why this answer is correct

5 sec θ - 3tan θ = 5

⇒ 5 √(tan² θ + 1) = 5 + 3tanθ

⇒ 25(tan² θ + 1) = 25 + 9tan² θ + 30 tanθ

⇒ 25 tan² θ – 9tan² θ = 30 tanθ

⇒ 16 tan² θ - 30 tanθ = 0

⇒ 2tanθ (8 tanθ – 15) = 0

⇒ tanθ = 0 or tanθ = 15/8

If tan θ = 0     

5 sec θ - 3 tan θ = 5

⇒ 5sec θ – 3 × 0 = 5

⇒ sec θ = 1     

If tan θ = 15/8     

5sec θ – 3 × 15/8 = 5

⇒ 5 sec θ = 5 + 45/8

⇒ 5 secθ = 85 /8

⇒ sec θ = 17/8     

So, 5 tanθ – 3 sec θ = 5 × 0 – 3 × 1 = -3

Or, 5 × 15/8 – 3 × 17/8 = 75/8 - 51/8 = 24/8 = 3

Directions: The table below shows the distribution of number of people living in 8 different countries and the per capita income of each of the countries. The total population of these countries taken together is 200 crores.

Per capita income = total GDP of country/population of the country

CountryDistribution of number of peoplePer capita income (in crore dollars)
Country 112%11850
Country 224%5350
Country 315%9900
Country 417%4840
Country 57%2260
Country 66%6920
Country 711%3190
Country 88%10410

Question 72

What is the difference (in crores) in population of the most and the least populated country?

  1. AOption (a)

    18

  2. BOption (b)

    32

  3. COption (c)

    34

  4. DOption (d)

    36

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

36

Why this answer is correct

Given: Total population = 200 crores

⇒ Difference will be calculated between country 2 and country 6.

⇒ Required Difference = 200 x [(24/100) – (6/100)]

∴ 200 x 18/100 = 36

Question 73

What is the total GDP (in crore dollars) of country 5?

  1. AOption (a)

    27120

  2. BOption (b)

    31640

  3. COption (c)

    38280

  4. DOption (d)

    44660

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

31640

Why this answer is correct

Number of people in Country 5

⇒ (7/100) x (200) = 14 Crore

GDP (in crore dollars) of country 5 = 14 x 2260

 ∴ 31640

Question 74

What is the total GDP (in crore dollars) for the country with the third lowest per capita income?

  1. AOption (a)

    181900

  2. BOption (b)

    108460

  3. COption (c)

    145200

  4. DOption (d)

    164560

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

164560

Why this answer is correct

Country with third lowest per capita income is Country 4

Required GDP = 200 x (17/100) x 4840

∴ 164560

Question 75

Which country has the highest total GDP?

  1. AOption (a)

    Country 1

  2. BOption (b)

    Country 2

  3. COption (c)

    Country 3

  4. DOption (d)

    Country 8

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Country 3

Why this answer is correct

Here, we have to check all the

⇒ Country 1 = 200 x (12/100) x 11850 = 284400

⇒ Country 2 = 200 x (24/100) x 5350 = 256800

⇒ Country 3 = 200 x (15/100) x 9900 = 297000

⇒ Country 8 = 200 x (8/100) x 10410 = 166560

∴ Country 3 has the highest total GDP

English Comprehension (25 questions)

Question 76

In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No error'.

Hardly had I reached the (1)/ exhibition where I learnt (2)/ about the major robbery. (3)/ No Error (4)

  1. AOption (a)

    1

  2. BOption (b)

    2

  3. COption (c)

    3

  4. DOption (d)

    4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2

Why this answer is correct

The error lies in the part 2, in which ‘where’ has been incorrectly used. The correct word to be used here is ‘when’. The first part of the sentence mentions of the time or time-frame when the narrator had just reached, therefore, the use of ‘when’ must follow.

The correct sentence is – Hardly had I reached the exhibition when I learnt about the major robbery.

Question 77

In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No error'.

No sooner (1) had I walked in through the (2) door than the phone rang. (3)

  1. AOption (a)

    1

  2. BOption (b)

    2

  3. COption (c)

    3

  4. DOption (d)

    No error

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

No error

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4.

'No sooner' in a sentence is followed by the past participle form of a verb, accompanied by 'than' followed by the another verb in the simple past form.

Question 78

In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

He _____ to the problem of air pollution in his speech.

  1. AOption (a)

    averted

  2. BOption (b)

    adverted

  3. COption (c)

    exclaimed

  4. DOption (d)

    mentioned

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

adverted

Why this answer is correct

The word ‘adverted’ means ‘taking reference of something while speaking or mentioning of something’. In the given blank, the speaker is ‘adverting’ of the problem of air pollution in his speech.

‘Averted’ means turning something away. ‘Exclaimed’ means a sudden cry or outburst of emotion, and ‘mentioned’ means giving reference. Out of all the given words, ‘adverted’ is the most appropriate.

Question 79

In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

Rohan is so magnanimous that everyone is always _____ to help him in his project.

  1. AOption (a)

    eager

  2. BOption (b)

    enthusiastic

  3. COption (c)

    reluctant

  4. DOption (d)

    ignorant

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

eager

Why this answer is correct

The word ‘eager’ fits the blank perfectly as it represents a strong wanting to do something. On the other hand, ‘enthusiastic’ meaning passionate is a stronger word, which disturbs the meaning of the sentence. ‘Reluctant’ means unwilling and ‘ignorant’ represents someone not knowing about something, and none of these fit the blank.

Question 80

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given.

Succulent

  1. AOption (a)

    Sucking

  2. BOption (b)

    Soft

  3. COption (c)

    Juicy

  4. DOption (d)

    Pale

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Juicy

Why this answer is correct

‘Succulent’ represents something that is tender and juicy, therefore, directly relates to the option 3, i.e. juicy. The other words like ‘sucking’ meaning drawing into mouth, ‘soft’ meaning delicate and ‘pale’ meaning yellowish do not make a similar meaning to Succulent.

Question 81

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given.

Congregation

  1. AOption (a)

    Discussion

  2. BOption (b)

    Attention

  3. COption (c)

    Contraction

  4. DOption (d)

    Assembly

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Assembly

Why this answer is correct

‘Congregation’ means a group of people gathered to discuss religious or other similar topics. Out of the given word, the word ‘discussion’ does not represent a group of people but a set of information shared, ‘contraction’ means an act of reduction and revival, and ‘attention’ means giving focus to something. The only word matching ‘Congregation’ is Assembly, which means a group of people.

Question 82

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given.

Evanescent

  1. AOption (a)

    Permanent

  2. BOption (b)

    Fleeting

  3. COption (c)

    Erratic

  4. DOption (d)

    Elusive

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Permanent

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Permanent.

Key Points

  • The word "Evanescent" means something that is quickly fading or disappearing; it is often used to describe something transient or fleeting. (क्षणिक)
  • Example: The beauty of a sunset is evanescent, lasting only for a few moments.
  • "Permanent" refers to something that is lasting or intended to last or remain unchanged indefinitely. (स्थायी)
  • Example: Nature is a permanent source of beauty and inspiration.
  • Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'Evanescent' is 'Permanent'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Permanent.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Fleeting (क्षणिक): Lasting for a very short time.
  • Example: The happiness from winning the lottery was fleeting.
  • Erratic (अनियमित): Not even or regular in pattern or movement; unpredictable.
  • Example: His erratic behavior made it difficult to predict what he would do next.
  • Elusive (पकड़ में न आने वाला): Difficult to find, catch, or achieve.
  • Example: The elusive thief was finally caught by the police.

Question 83

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given.

Panegyric

  1. AOption (a)

    Noxious

  2. BOption (b)

    Criticism

  3. COption (c)

    Fantasy

  4. DOption (d)

    Grandeur

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Criticism

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Criticism.

Key Points

  • The word "Panegyric" means a public speech or published text in praise of someone or something. (प्रशंसा)
  • Example: The author wrote a panegyric on the life and achievements of the Nobel laureate.
  • "Criticism" refers to the expression of disapproval of someone or something based on perceived faults or mistakes. (आलोचना)
  • Example: The movie received a lot of criticism for its weak plot and poor character development.
  • Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'Panegyric' is 'Criticism'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Criticism.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Noxious (हानिकारक): Harmful, poisonous, or very unpleasant.
  • Example: The factory was fined for releasing noxious chemicals into the river.
  • Fantasy (काल्पनिक): The faculty or activity of imagining things, especially things that are impossible or improbable.
  • Example: The book is a perfect blend of reality and fantasy.
  • Grandeur (वैभव): Splendor and impressiveness, especially of appearance or style.
  • Example: The grandeur of the palace left the visitors in awe.

Question 84

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/Phrase.

To put a spoke in one's wheel

  1. AOption (a)

    To be advantageous at the time of difficulty

  2. BOption (b)

    To maintain under all circumstances

  3. COption (c)

    To blame the other party

  4. DOption (d)

    To put a difficulty in the way of progress

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

To put a difficulty in the way of progress

Why this answer is correct

‘To put a spoke in one's wheel’ is an idiom used to express an act of foil or disrupt in order to cause problem in someone’s way. Clearly, option 4 makes the closest answer in meaning.

Question 85

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/Phrase.

At loggerheads

  1. AOption (a)

    To suffer

  2. BOption (b)

    In conflict with someone

  3. COption (c)

    To face tough competition

  4. DOption (d)

    To be in do or die situation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

In conflict with someone

Why this answer is correct

‘At loggerheads’ represents a strong disagreement with someone. Out of the given options, option 2 makes the closest in meaning.

Question 86

Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

She is (the best and wisest) girl in the class.

  1. AOption (a)

    a best and wisest

  2. BOption (b)

    a best and a wisest

  3. COption (c)

    the best and a wisest

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

No improvement

Why this answer is correct

The sentence is grammatically correct. Hence, option 4 is correct.

Question 87

Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

The people of Japan are (wiser than America).

  1. AOption (a)

    wiser than that of America

  2. BOption (b)

    wiser than those of America

  3. COption (c)

    wiser to that of America

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

wiser than those of America

Why this answer is correct

The correct sentence is ‘The people of Japan are wiser than those of America. The reason is that when we say ‘the people of Japan are wiser than America’, it means that the people are compared with America, which is a country. However, the people of Japan can only be compared with the people of America.

Question 88

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.

One skilled in telling stories

  1. AOption (a)

    Ventral

  2. BOption (b)

    Fantastic

  3. COption (c)

    Raconteur

  4. DOption (d)

    Tyro

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Raconteur

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3)

Explanation:

  • 'Raconteur' represents a person who is highly skillful in telling stories.
  • ‘Ventral’ means abdominal
  • ‘Fantastic’ means exceptional
  • ‘Tyro’ means a beginner.

​Thus, the correct answer is Raconteur

Question 89

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.

Fear of Fire

  1. AOption (a)

    Pyrophobia

  2. BOption (b)

    Astraphobia

  3. COption (c)

    Astrophobia

  4. DOption (d)

    Arrhenphobia

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Pyrophobia

Why this answer is correct

‘Pyrophobia ’ is the correct answer representing the fear of fire. ‘Astraphobia’ is the fear of thunder, ‘Astrophobia’ is the fear of celestial objects, and ‘Arrhenphobia’ means the fear of men.

Question 90

In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is incorrectly spelt. Find the incorrectly spelt word.

  1. AOption (a)

    Hygeine

  2. BOption (b)

    Fascist

  3. COption (c)

    Career

  4. DOption (d)

    Apparel

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Hygeine

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. "Hygeine".

Key Points

  • The word "Hygeine" is incorrectly spelt. The correct spelling is "Hygiene".
  • Meaning: The practice of maintaining health and preventing disease, especially through cleanliness. (स्वच्छता)
  • Example: Good personal hygiene is essential to prevent the spread of illness.
  • "Hygiene" refers to conditions or practices conducive to maintaining health and preventing disease. (स्वच्छता)
  • Example: Proper hand hygiene can significantly reduce the transmission of infectious diseases.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. "Hygiene".

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Fascist (फासीवादी): A person who supports or believes in a system of government characterized by dictatorial power.
  • Example: The fascist regime suppressed any form of dissent.
  • Career (व्यवसाय): An occupation undertaken for a significant period of a person's life, usually with opportunities for progress.
  • Example: She had a distinguished career in medicine.
  • Apparel (वस्त्र): Clothing.
  • Example: The store specializes in women's apparel.

Question 91

In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is incorrectly spelt. Find the incorrectly spelt word.

  1. AOption (a)

    Reside

  2. BOption (b)

    Revise

  3. COption (c)

    Advise

  4. DOption (d)

    Demice

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Demice

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 4.

Key Points

  • The word "Demice" is incorrectly spelt. The correct spelling is "Demise". (मृत्यु)
  • Example: The sudden demise of the leader shocked everyone.
  • "Demise" means the end or failure of an enterprise or institution, or death. (मृत्यु)
  • Example: The company's demise was inevitable after the scandal.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Reside (निवास करना): To live in a particular place.
  • Example: Many people reside in urban areas for better job opportunities.
  • Revise (पुनरीक्षण करना): To go over something again in order to correct or improve it.
  • Example: She decided to revise her notes before the exam.
  • Advise (सलाह देना): To offer suggestions about the best course of action to someone.
  • Example: The doctor advised him to take a week off work.

Question 92

The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph.

P: He raised his voice against idol-worship.

Q: People are generally very open and accept social changes with a positive attitude.

R: Swami Dayanand Saraswati is remembered with reverence and affection among the social reformers of the nineteenth century.

S: India is a country which respects spiritualism much more than materialism.

  1. AOption (a)

    QRSP

  2. BOption (b)

    PRSQ

  3. COption (c)

    RSPQ

  4. DOption (d)

    SQRP

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

SQRP

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is SQRP

Key Points

  • The given sentence is an example of a Sentence Jumble.
  • The first statement of a sentence jumbled question is usually an independent general statement, a noun, a universal fact, the starting of an incident.
  • Part S will be the first sentence because the sentence is an independent statement and introduces the subject 'spiritualism'.
  • Part Q will be the next sentence because it supports the statement S by stating how 'spiritualism' is respected in India.
  • Part R will be the next sentence because it tells us about Swami Dayanand Saraswati being one of the social reformers.
  • Lastly, Part P will be used because it tells us more about Swami Dayanand Saraswati.
<br>

Correct Answer: India is a country which respects spiritualism much more than materialism. People are generally very open and accept social changes with a positive attitude. Swami Dayanand Saraswati is remembered with reverence and affection among the social reformers of the nineteenth century. He raised his voice against idol-worship.

Question 93

The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph.

P: For that we need people who possess not only high skills but high values as well.

Q: So the need of the hour is not only skill-based education but also value-inspired and value-based education.

R: When we talk of investing in education, a question arises as to what kind of education needs to be given to the youngster.

S: Our aim is to evolve not only an affluent society, but an egalitarian, just, humane and compassionate society.

  1. AOption (a)

    SPRQ

  2. BOption (b)

    PRQS

  3. COption (c)

    RQSP

  4. DOption (d)

    RSPQ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

RSPQ

Why this answer is correct

R introduces our need for an appropriate education system for the betterment of the young generation. Therefore, the 1st sentence is R.

S introduces our aim, which appropriately follows the need for education, as opened in the 1st sentence, therefore, follows R.

P clearly mentions of ‘for that’, which represents the achieving of the aim of finding an apt education system, therefore making the 3rd sentence. So, the correct sequence is RSPQ.

Question 94

In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active voice.

Please guide me.

  1. AOption (a)

    You are requested to guide me.

  2. BOption (b)

    You have been requested to guide me.

  3. COption (c)

    You were requested to guide me.

  4. DOption (d)

    You are being requested to guide me.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

You are requested to guide me.

Why this answer is correct

The sentence ‘please guide me’ does not showcase the presence of any present, past or future, ‘you have been’ and ‘you were’ are ruled out. The sentence ‘you are requested to guide me’ is the most correct passive form of the given question.

Question 95

In the following question, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct speech.

The teacher said, "The Earth revolves around the sun."

  1. AOption (a)

    The teacher said that the Earth is being revolving around the sun.

  2. BOption (b)

    The teacher said that the Earth revolves around the sun.

  3. COption (c)

    The teacher said that the Earth revolved around the sun.

  4. DOption (d)

    The teacher said that the Earth had been revolving around the sun.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The teacher said that the Earth revolves around the sun.

Why this answer is correct

In general rules of direct to indirect conversion, the word ‘revolves’ could have been converted to ‘revolved’, however, as the revolution of Earth around the Sun is a universal truth, the word ‘revolves’ would remain unchanged.

In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

The _____ of energy in India are met from both commercial and non commercial sources. The most _____ sources of energy today are coal and natural gas, hydro electricity and nuclear power. On the other hand, firewood, cow-dung cakes and vegetable waste etc. _____ non commercial forms of energy. While non commercial forms of energy _____ demand, coal is the _____ source of commercial energy in India.

Question 96

The _____ of energy in India are met from both commercial

  1. AOption (a)

    requirements

  2. BOption (b)

    sources

  3. COption (c)

    availability

  4. DOption (d)

    lessen

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

requirements

Why this answer is correct

With the word ‘met’ some need or requirement needs to be fulfilled, therefore, the correct word for the blank is ‘requirements’.

Question 97

and non commercial sources. The most _____ sources of energy today are coal and natural gas

  1. AOption (a)

    Start

  2. BOption (b)

    insignificant

  3. COption (c)

    important

  4. DOption (d)

    expensive

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

important

Why this answer is correct

Out of the given words, the most meaningful words to fill with ‘sources of energy’ would be ‘vital’ and ‘important’. ‘Important’ makes a better fit as we can hardly have any vital sources of energy.

Question 98

On the other hand, firewood, cow-dung cakes and vegetable waste etc. _____ non commercial forms of energy.

  1. AOption (a)

    constitutes

  2. BOption (b)

    combines

  3. COption (c)

    mixes

  4. DOption (d)

    collaborates

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

constitutes

Why this answer is correct

Constitutes means making or forming, which makes the sentence apt. On the other hand, the mentioned sources of energy cannot combine, mix or collaborate to form non-commercial forms of energy because ‘combine’ and mix’ would mean absolute merging, which is impossible, while ‘collaborates’ is only used for the living forms.

Question 99

While non commercial forms of energy _____ demand,

  1. AOption (a)

    need

  2. BOption (b)

    meet

  3. COption (c)

    shed

  4. DOption (d)

    rests

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

meet

Why this answer is correct

‘Need the demand’, ‘shed the demand’ and ‘rests the demand’ make no meaning with reference to the given sentence. The appropriate word here is ‘meet’ as the demand is ‘met’.

Question 100

coal is the _____ source of commercial energy in India.

  1. AOption (a)

    smallest

  2. BOption (b)

    hardest

  3. COption (c)

    largest

  4. DOption (d)

    heaviest

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

largest

Why this answer is correct

In India, coal is the widest used source of energy, therefore, from the given words in the options, ‘smallest’, ‘heaviest’ and hardest’ get ruled out. The appropriate fit is ‘largest’.

100 questions in the full paper