Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL 2021 Tier-I (Held On : 19 April 2022 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2021

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General Intelligence and Reasoning (25 questions)

Question 1

Shweta starts walking from her office and walks 150 m towards the south, then she turns right and walks 80 m, and then she turns left and walks 60 m. She finally turns left and walks 280 m to reach a bank. What is the shortest distance between her office and the bank? 

  1. AOption (a)

    280 m 

  2. BOption (b)

    290 m 

  3. COption (c)

    410 m 

  4. DOption (d)

    370 m 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

290 m 

Why this answer is correct

According to given conditions,

  • Shweta starts walking from her office and walks 150 m towards the south.

  • Then she turns right and walks 80 m.

  • Then she turns left and walks 60 m.

  • She finally turns left and walks 280 m to reach a bank.

Now, the shortest distance between Shweta's office and bank can be calculated by the pythagoras theorem :-

⇒ Here, x stands for shortest distance.

So, (x)2 = (60 + 150)2 + (280 - 80)2

⇒ (x)2 = (210)2 + (200)2

⇒ (x)2 = 44100 + 40000

⇒ (x)2 = 84100

⇒ x = 290 M

Hence, "290 m" is the correct answer.

Question 2

Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary. 

  1. Speaking
  2. Standardize 
  3. Southern
  4. Stampede
  5. Spacious
  6. Sovereignty
  1. AOption (a)

    3, 4, 6, 5, 1, 2 

  2. BOption (b)

    3, 6, 5, 1, 4, 2

  3. COption (c)

    3, 6, 2, 4, 1, 5 

  4. DOption (d)

    3, 2, 6, 1, 4, 5 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

3, 6, 5, 1, 4, 2

Why this answer is correct

According to the sequence in the dictionary.

  1. Southern 6. Sovereignty 5. Spacious 1. Speaking
  2. Stampede 2. Standardize 

Hence, the correct Option is "3, 6, 5, 1, 4, 2".

Question 3

Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at 'PQ' as shown. 

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

The correct mirror image of the given combination when mirror is placed at PQ is as shown below:

Detailed Explanation:

  • The line PQ is the mirror
  • The word "Ewbaz4" the fourth letter is "a". So, the mirror image should be "

" ⇒ Option 2 is eliminated.

  • The word "Ewbaz4" the first letter is "E". So, the mirror image should be "

" ⇒ Option 3 is eliminated..

  • The word "Ewbaz4" the second letter is "w". So, the mirror image should be "W" ⇒ Option 4 is eliminated.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 4

If the father of Swati is the maternal grandfather of Divya, who is the daughter of Manya, then how is Manya's husband's father related to Divya?

  1. AOption (a)

    Maternal uncle 

  2. BOption (b)

    Paternal grandfather

  3. COption (c)

    Father 

  4. DOption (d)

    Paternal uncle 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Paternal grandfather

Why this answer is correct

Preparing the family tree using the following symbols,

  • Father of Swati is the maternal grandfather of Divya. So, there have two possibilities.

​Case(1): Swati can the mother of Divya.

Case(2):  Swati's sister can the mother of Divya.

  • Father of Swati is the maternal grandfather of Divya, who is the daughter of Manya. That means Divya is daughter of Manya. Manya is either father or mother of Divya.

Case(1):

Manya is the father of Divya i.e Manya is married to Swati.

Case(2a):  Manya is father of Divya i.e Manya is married to Swati's sister.

Case(2b):  Manya is mother of Divya i.e Manya is the sister of swati.

​

As it is asked in the question that how is Manya's husband's father related to Divya 

⇒ Here "Manya's husband" clarify that Manya is a female. So, both case(1) and case (2a) is eliminated.

So, according to the question asked the family tree is :-

Cleary, Manya's husband's father is the paternal grandfather of Divya.

Hence, the correct answer is "Paternal grandfather".

Question 5

If '@' means 'addition', '%' means 'multiplication', '$' means 'division' and '#' means 'subtraction', then find the value of the following expression. 

126 $ 7 % 3 @ 19 # 21

  1. AOption (a)

    52

  2. BOption (b)

    18

  3. COption (c)

    23

  4. DOption (d)

    4 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

52

Why this answer is correct

According to the question,

Symbol@%$#
Meaning+×÷-

Given that: 126 $ 7 % 3 @ 19 # 21

After replacing the symbols with their meanings, we get :-

126 ÷ 7 × 3 + 19 - 21

= 18 × 3 + 19 - 21 

= 54 + 19 - 21

= 73 - 21

= 52

Hence, the correct answer is "52".

Question 6

In a certain code language, 'GALLERY' is written as '1422424103650'. How will 'NOSTALGIA' be written in that language? 

  1. AOption (a)

    2830204222414184

  2. BOption (b)

    2832384222416182 

  3. COption (c)

    2830384022614362

  4. DOption (d)

    2830384022414182 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

2830384022414182 

Why this answer is correct

Logic: Multiplied each letter's position value by two. Like position value of 'G' is 7 , then 7 is multiplied by 2 and the code for 'G' is 14.

So,

  • 'GALLERY' is coded as :-

​

Similarly,

  • 'NOSTALGIA' is coded as :-

Hence, the correct answer is "2830384022414182".

Question 7

Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 

361, 323, 285, 247, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    215

  2. BOption (b)

    232

  3. COption (c)

    227

  4. DOption (d)

    209 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

209 

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is :-

Hence, the correct is "209".

Question 8

Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series will complete the series. 

P Q _ Q P P Q R _ P P Q R Q _ P Q R Q _

  1. AOption (a)

    Q R P P 

  2. BOption (b)

    R Q P P 

  3. COption (c)

    P Q R P 

  4. DOption (d)

    P P R Q 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

R Q P P 

Why this answer is correct

Given: P Q _ Q P P Q R _ P P Q R Q _ P Q R Q _

By checking options:-

  1. Q R P P → P Q Q Q P P Q R R P P Q R Q P P Q R Q P → (It doesn't Follows the pattern)
  2. R Q P P → P Q R Q P P Q R Q P P Q R Q P P Q R Q P → **(**It follows the pattern of : PQRQP - PQRQP - PQRQP - PQRQP)
  3. P Q R P → P Q P Q P P Q R Q P P Q R Q R P Q R Q P → (It doesn't Follows the pattern)
  4. P P R Q → P Q P Q P P Q R P P P Q R Q R P Q R Q Q → (It doesn't Follows the pattern)

Option (2) gives a pattern of P Q R Q P - P Q R Q P - P Q R Q P - P Q R Q P

Hence, the correct answer is "R Q P P".

Question 9

Raghav, Manpreet, Sunaina, Prakrit, Vedika and Arwa are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Raghav is second to the left of Prakrit. Manpreet is to the immediate left of Sunaina. Arwa is second to the right of Vedika. There are an equal number of persons between Raghav and Manpreet from both the ends. Who is sitting third to the left of Sunanina?

  1. AOption (a)

    Raghav

  2. BOption (b)

    Vedika

  3. COption (c)

    Arwa

  4. DOption (d)

    Prakrit 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Arwa

Why this answer is correct

Given: Six persons Raghav, Manpreet, Sunaina, Prakrit, Vedika and Arwa are sitting around a circular table facing the center.

1. Raghav is second to the left of Prakrit.

2. Manpreet is to the immediate left of Sunaina. So, there are two possibilities for the position of Sunaina and Manpreet.

  • Case(1):

  • Case(2):

3. There are an equal number of persons between Raghav and Manpreet from both the ends.

  • Case(1): There are an equal number of persons i.e two between Raghav and Manpreet from both the ends.
  • Case(2): There are an unequal number of persons between Raghav and Manpreet i.e one and three between Raghav and Manpreet from both the ends respectively.

⇒ Thus Case(2) will be eliminated.

4. Arwa is second to the right of Vedika.

  • Case(1):

Thus, from the final arrangement we can see that 'Arwa' is sitting third to the left of Sunaina.

Hence, the correct answer is "Arwa".

Question 10

In a certain code language, 'FIXED' is written as 'XIFED' and 'MOUSE' is written as 'USOME'. How will 'GAMBIT' be written in that language? 

  1. AOption (a)

    TGMIBA 

  2. BOption (b)

    TMGIBA

  3. COption (c)

    TMIGBA 

  4. DOption (d)

    TIMGAB 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

TMIGBA 

Why this answer is correct

Here, we use the table given below-

The logic followed here is-

  • All the letters are rearranged according to their position values in descending order.

So,

  • 'FIXED' is coded as :-

  • 'MOUSE' is coded as :-

Similarly, 

  • 'GAMBIT' is coded as:-

Here, 'GAMBIT' is written as  TMIGBA.

Hence, the correct answer is "TMIGBA".

Question 11

Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

The figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series is shown below:

Every symbol follows same rotation pattern.

1.  For

 →

2. For 

 →

  1. For 

 →

  1. For 

 →

  1. For 

 →

So, the final series is :-

Hence, "option(1)" is the correct answer.

Question 12

In the following Venn diagram, the pentagon stands for 'clerks', the triangle stands for 'coffee-lovers', the square stands for 'car-owners' and the circle stands for 'social workers'. The given letters represent the persons in that particular category. 

Which of the following categories of persons is represented by the letter 'D'?

  1. AOption (a)

    Coffee-lovers who are either car-owners or social workers 

  2. BOption (b)

    Coffee-lovers who are car-owners and social workers also 

  3. COption (c)

    Car-owners who are coffee-lovers but not social workers 

  4. DOption (d)

    Coffee-lovers who are car-owners, social workers and clerks also 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Coffee-lovers who are car-owners and social workers also 

Why this answer is correct

Refer to the diagram as shown below:

Here, D represents Coffee-lovers who are car-owners and social workers also.

Hence, 'option(2)' is the correct answer.

Question 13

Select the correct combination of mathematical signs that can sequentially replace the * signs to balance the following equation. 

22 * 66 * 33 * 11 * 44 * 0

  1. AOption (a)

    +, ÷, ×, -, =

  2. BOption (b)

    ×, ÷, +, -, = 

  3. COption (c)

    +, ÷, -, ×, = 

  4. DOption (d)

    ÷, +, ×, -, = 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

+, ÷, ×, -, =

Why this answer is correct

According to BODMAS rule : 

Given equation:  22 * 66 * 33 * 11 * 44 * 0 

  • Option (1) : Using the combination +, ÷, ×, -, =

22 + 66 ÷ 33 × 11 - 44 = 0

⇒ 22 + 2 × 11 - 44 = 0

⇒ 22 + 22 - 44 = 0

⇒ 44 - 44 = 0

⇒ 0 = 0 (LHS = RHS)

  • Option (2) : Using the combination ×, ÷, +, -, =

22 × 66 ÷ 33 + 11 - 44 = 0  

⇒ 22 × 2 + 11 - 44 = 0

⇒ 44 + 11 - 44 = 0

⇒ 55 - 44 = 0

⇒ 11 ≠ 0 (LHS ≠ RHS)

  • Option (3) : Using the combination +, ÷, -, ×, =

22 + 66 ÷ 33 - 11 × 44 = 0  

⇒ 22 + 2 - 11 × 44 = 0

⇒ 22 + 2 - 484 = 0

⇒ 24 - 484 = 0

⇒ - 460 ≠ 0 (LHS ≠ RHS)

  • Option (3) : Using the combination ÷, +, ×, -, =

22 ÷ 66 +33 × 11 - 44 = 0

⇒ 1/3 + 33 × 11 - 44 = 0

⇒ 1/3 + 363 - 44 = 0

⇒ 1090/3 - 44 = 0

⇒ 958/3  ≠ 0 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, the correct answer is **"**Option (1): +, ÷, ×, -, =".

Question 14

Select the option in which the two numbers are related in the same way as are the two numbers of the following number-pair. 

25 : 343

  1. AOption (a)

    24 : 216 

  2. BOption (b)

    29 : 121

  3. COption (c)

    34 : 510

  4. DOption (d)

    30 : 729

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

24 : 216 

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is :-

(sum of the digits of first number)3 = 2nd number

25 : 343

(2 + 5)3 = (7)3

(7 × 7 × 7) = 343 

343 = 343 (LHS = RHS)

Similarly,

  • Option(1) → 24 : 216 ​

(2 + 4)3 = (6)3

(6 × 6 × 6) = 216 

216 = 216 (LHS = RHS) 

  • Option(2) → 29 : 121 ​

(2 + 9)3 = (11)3

(11 × 11 × 11) = 1331

1331 ≠ 121 (LHS ≠  RHS)

  • Option(3) → 34 : 510

(3 + 4)3 = (7)3

(7 × 7 × 7) = 343

343 ≠ 510 (LHS ≠  RHS)

  • Option(4) → 30 : 729 ​

(3 + 0)3 = (3)3

(3 × 3 × 3) = 27

27 ≠ 729 (LHS ≠  RHS)

Therefore, Option(1) follows the logic. 

Hence, "24 : 216" is correct answer.

Question 15

Six letters, A, P, K, U, W and N, are written on different faces of a dice. Two positions of this dice are shown. Select the letter that will be on the face opposite to the one having N. 

  1. AOption (a)

    W

  2. BOption (b)

    P

  3. COption (c)

    U

  4. DOption (d)

    A 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

U

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :-

From the given two different cubes the adjacent sides are as shown below :

As K is common on both the dice, it is clear that U, W, A and N are adjacent to it and remaining number i.e., P will be opposite to it.

Opposite pairs:

N → U

A → W

K → P

So, the opposite side of "N" will be side "U".

Hence, the correct answer is "U".

Question 16

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed). 

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

Given:

  • The image must not to be rotated

Hence, the correct answer is "Option - 3".

Question 17

Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 

PGF, QJK, RMP, SPU, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    RTZ

  2. BOption (b)

    USX

  3. COption (c)

    TSZ

  4. DOption (d)

    STY 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

TSZ

Why this answer is correct

Logic : 

  1. First letter → Immediate succeeding letter or (+1)
  2. Second letter → 3rd succeeding letter or (+3)
  3. Third letter → 5th succeeding letter or (+5)

​

Hence, "TSZ" is the correct answer.

Question 18

A total amount of Rs. 2,95,000 is to be distributed between Vineet, Prateek and Mayank in such a way that Vineet gets half of the amount that Mayank gets and Prateek gets Rs. 25,000 less than Vineet. How much amount will Vineet get?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 80,000

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 55,000

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 70,000

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 85,000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Rs. 80,000

Why this answer is correct

Let,

Total amount Mayank get be = Rs. 2x

Total amount Vineet get be = Rs (2x/2) = Rs. x

Total amount Prateek get be = Rs. (x - 25,000)

Given :

Total amount distributed = Rs. 2,95,000

So,

As per the question, sum of amount to be distributed among Mayank, Vineet and Prateek should be equal to the total amount to be distributed.

Therefore;

⇒ 2x + x + (x - 25,000) = 2,95,000

⇒ 4x - 25,000 = 2,95,000

⇒ 4x = 3,20,000

⇒ x = 80,000

As 'x' is the total amount Vineet gets,

Hence, Vineet gets "Rs. 80,000".

Question 19

Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 

12, 38, 116, 350, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    1052 

  2. BOption (b)

    986

  3. COption (c)

    916

  4. DOption (d)

    1012 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1052 

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :

Hence, the correct answer is "1052".

Question 20

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. 

Statements:

Some schools are colleges.

All colleges are universities. 

Conclusions:

I. All universities are schools. 

II. Some universities are colleges.

  1. AOption (a)

    Either conclusion I or II follows. 

  2. BOption (b)

    Only conclusion I follows. 

  3. COption (c)

    Only conclusion II follows.

  4. DOption (d)

    Both the conclusions follow. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only conclusion II follows.

Why this answer is correct

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

I. All universities are schools → Does not follow (As some schools are colleges and all colleges are universities, all universities are schools is false.)

II. Some universities are colleges → Follow (As all colleges are universities so, some Universities are colleges is true.)

∴ Here, Conclusion II is true.

Hence, the correct answer is "Only conclusion II follow".

Question 21

Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the one that is different. 

  1. AOption (a)

    LQJ

  2. BOption (b)

    HLP

  3. COption (c)

    SXC

  4. DOption (d)

    FKP 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

HLP

Why this answer is correct

Logic : 

  1. First letter → (+5) ⇒ Second letter
  2. Second letter → opposite ⇒ Third letter

So,

  • LQJ

​

  • HLP

​

  • SXC

​

  • FKP

​

∴ Here, 'HLP' is different from other three alternatives.

Hence, the correct answer is "HLP".

Question 22

In a certain code, 'jig fig vic' means 'I love India' and 're dig fig lic vic' means 'I like culture of India'. Which of the following is the code for 'love'?

  1. AOption (a)

    vic

  2. BOption (b)

    lic

  3. COption (c)

    fig

  4. DOption (d)

    jig 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

jig 

Why this answer is correct

According to the given information,

As, the code for 'I' and 'India' are either 'Fig' or 'Vic', thus the code for 'love' is 'jig'.

Hence, "jig" is the correct answer.

Question 23

Study the given pattern carefully and select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in it. 

  1. AOption (a)

    20

  2. BOption (b)

    24

  3. COption (c)

    30

  4. DOption (d)

    18 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

24

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

At first, we should arrange the diagram in a suitable form. Then we can solve it.

​

Here, middle number = 7 × 4 = 28

And

Here, middle number = 4 × 5 = 20

Similarly,

Here, middle number(?) = 3 × 8 = 24

Hence, "24" is the correct answer.

Question 24

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

QUICKER : TGMEKWS:: REPORTS:?

  1. AOption (a)

    UVTQRGT

  2. BOption (b)

    VUTQRGS

  3. COption (c)

    USVQRGT

  4. DOption (d)

    UVTRRHT 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

UVTQRGT

Why this answer is correct

Logic: Next alternate or (+2) of each letter is written and then reversed.

So, 

  • QUICKER: TGMEKWS

​

⇒ Therefore, 'REPORTS' is written as :

​

Hence, "UVTQRGT" is the correct answer.

Question 25

The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown in the following figures. How would this paper look when unfolded? 

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

According to given figure:

The figure will appear when it is opened as follows:

Hence, the correct answer is "option (3)".

General Awareness (25 questions)

Question 26

Which of the following is a mountain between India and Nepal?

  1. AOption (a)

    Makalu 

  2. BOption (b)

    Manaslu 

  3. COption (c)

    Dhaulagiri 

  4. DOption (d)

    Kanchenjunga 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Kanchenjunga 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kanchenjunga.

Key Points

  • Kanchenjunga
  • It is the world's third-highest mountain that connects the borders of India and Nepal.
  • It rises with an elevation of 8,586 m in a section of the Himalayas called Kanchenjunga Himal delimited in the west by the Tamur River.
  • It lies between Nepal and Sikkim, India, with three of the five peaks directly on the border, and the remaining two in Nepal's Taplejung District of Province No 1.
  • Until 1852, Kanchenjunga was assumed to be the highest mountain in the world.
  • Kanchenjunga was first climbed on 25 May 1955 by Joe Brown and George Band.

Additional Information 

  • World's highest mountain- Great Himalayas.
  • Mount Everest is the world's highest peak at 8848.86 m, it is also known as Sagarmatha.
  • Kanchenjunga is India's highest peak that is in Sikkim.
  • Nanda Devi is India's second-highest peak in Uttarakhand.
  • The average height of the Great Himalayas is 6100m.
  • Important passes of Himalayas- Zojila, Burzil, Khar-dung-la, Bara-la-cha, Rohtang, etc.

Question 27

Who among the following Indian musicians was a part of a band named 'Planet Drum' along with Mickey Hart, Sikiru Adepoju, and Giovanni Hidalgo, whose first album received the 1992 Grammy Award for Best World Music Album, which was the first Grammy in this category?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bhimsen Joshi 

  2. BOption (b)

    Zakir Hussain 

  3. COption (c)

    Ravi Shankar 

  4. DOption (d)

    Hariprasad Chaurasia 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Zakir Hussain 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Zakir Hussain.

Important Points

  • On 8 February 2009 for the 51st Grammy Awards, Zakir Hussain won the Grammy in the Contemporary World Music Album category for his collaborative album "Global Drum Project" along with Mickey Hart, Sikiru Adepoju & Giovanni Hidalgo.
  • "Global Drum Project" is Hart and Hussain's second collaboration, following their compilation "Planet Drum," which won the first-ever Grammy Award in the World Music category in 1991.
  • The Grammy Award for Best Global Music Album is given to recording artists for globally influential music at the Grammy Awards, which were first held in 1958 and were originally known as the Gramophone Awards.
  • Ustad Zakir Hussain is a tabla master, composer, percussionist, music producer, and film actor from India.
  • President Ramaswamy Venkataraman honoured him with the Padma Shri in 1988 and the President  Abdul Kalam honoured him Padma Bhushan in 2002 from the Government of India.

Additional Information

  • Pt. Bhimsen Gururaj Joshi was a legendary Indian vocalist from Karnataka in the Hindustani classical tradition.
  • He is known for the khayal form of singing, as well as for his popular renditions of devotional music (bhajans and abhangs).
  • Pandit Ravi Shankar was an Indian sitar virtuoso and a composer. 
  • He became the world's best-known exponent of North Indian classical music, in the second half of the 20th century.
  • Shankar was awarded India's highest civilian honour, the Bharat Ratna, in 1999.
  • Pandit Hariprasad Chaurasia was a famous flute player in India.
  • Pandit Hariprasad was born on 1 July 1938 in Allahabad
  • In 2000, Pandit Hariprasad Chaurasia was awarded the Padma Vibhushan by the Government of India.

Question 28

According to the Union Budget 2020-2021, the bank credit growth as of January 1, 2021, stood at ____%

  1. AOption (a)

    5.9

  2. BOption (b)

    6.7

  3. COption (c)

    5.2

  4. DOption (d)

    7.1 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

6.7

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 6.7.

Key Points

  • According to the Union Budget 2020-2021, the bank credit growth as of January 1, 2021, stood at 6.7%
  • At present (June 2022), Bank credit grew 13.1 per cent year-on-year (YoY) in the fortnight ended June 3.
  • The highest in the past three years, the latest data released by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) shows.
  • Growth in bank credit in the previous year was 5.7 per cent.

Additional Information

  • About Budget 2022-23.
  • India’s economic growth is estimated at 9.2% to be the highest among all large economies.
  • 60 lakh new jobs are to be created under the productivity-linked incentive scheme in 14 sectors.
  • PLI Schemes have the potential to create an additional production of Rs 30 lakh crore.
  • Entering Amrit Kaal, the 25-year-long lead-up to India @100, the budget provides the impetus for growth along with four priorities:
  • PM GatiShakti
  • Inclusive Development
  • Productivity Enhancement & Investment,
  • Sunrise opportunities,
  • Energy Transition, and Climate Action.Financing of investments
  • National Highways Network to be expanded by 25000 Km in 2022-23.
  • Rs. 2.37 lakh crore direct payment to 1.63 crore farmers for procurement of wheat and paddy.
  • Rs. 48,000 crores allocated for completion of 80 lakh houses in 2022-23 under PM Awas Yojana.
  • Introduction of Digital Rupee by the Reserve Bank of India starting 2022-23.
  • ​Total expenditure in 2022-23 is estimated at Rs. 39.45 lakh crore.
  • Total receipts other than borrowings in 2022-23 are estimated at Rs. 22.84 lakh crore.
  • The fiscal deficit in 2022-23 is estimated at 6.4% of GDP.

Question 29

Which of the following is a characteristics of amorphous solids?

  1. AOption (a)

    A definite and characteristic enthalpy of fusion 

  2. BOption (b)

    Melting at a sharp and characteristic temperature 

  3. COption (c)

    A definite characteristic geometrical shape 

  4. DOption (d)

    Gradual softening over a range of temperatures 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Gradual softening over a range of temperatures 

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:-

Amorphous Solid:-

  • There is a lack of long-term planning.
  • The constituent particles of an amorphous solid do not have a long-range order of arrangement.
  • There is no distinct melting point. Amorphous solids do not have a distinct melting point and melt at a variety of temperatures.
  • Conversion from a liquid to a crystalline state.
  • Amorphous solids have two distinct characteristics.
  • When cleaved or split, they form pieces with irregular, typically curved surfaces, and when exposed to x-rays, their components are not ordered in a regular array, resulting in poorly defined patterns.
  • Glass is an amorphous, translucent substance.
  • Amorphous solids are solids that lack a distinct geometry, have identical characteristics along all axes, melt across a wide range, and shatter into curved or irregular shapes.
  • It's vital to remember that these phrases represent two opposite ends of a spectrum.
  • Short-range order exists in most amorphous substances.

Question 30

Which of the following techniques can be used for reducing the total dissolved solids (TDS) in water?

(1) Ion Exchange

(2) Distillation 

(3) Carding

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1 

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 3 

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Both 2 and 3 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

  • Ion-exchange method is also called the zeolite/permutit process.
  • In this method, the permanent hardness of water is removed by using resins.
  • Distillation is the process of separating the components or substances from a liquid mixture by using selective boiling and condensation.
  • Carding is a form of credit card fraud in which a stolen credit card is used to charge prepaid cards.
  • Both Ion exchange and distillation are used for reducing the TDS in water. 
  • Hence Both 1 and 2 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

  • Total Dissolved Solids (TDS):
  • Total solids mean all solids i.e suspended or dissolved solids.
  • It is measured by evaporating (at a temperature of 104°C ) the sample and measuring the residue.
  • It can also be measured by the electrical conductivity of water.
  • TDS = Suspended solids + Dissolved solids
  • The drinking water standard for TDS is less than 500 mg/litre

Question 31

The Constituent Assembly was recognised by Section ______ of the Indian Independence Act, 1947. 

  1. AOption (a)

    6(2)

  2. BOption (b)

    10(1)

  3. COption (c)

    12(2)

  4. DOption (d)

    8(1) 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

8(1) 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 8(1).

Key Points

  • The Constituent Assembly was recognised by Section 8(1) of the Indian Independence Act, 1947.
  • Under the Plan, the members of the 1946 Provincial Legislative Assemblies, who were elected by the limited franchise, would select the members of the Constituent Assembly through a single transferrable vote.

Additional Information

  • The Indian Independence Act, 1947:
  • It was based upon the Mountbatten Plan of 3rd June 1947 and was passed by the British parliament on July 5, 1947.
  • It received royal assent on July 18, 1947.
  • It declared India as an independent and sovereign state
  • It provided for the partition of India and the creation of two new dominions- India and Pakistan
  • It abolished the position of secretary of state for India
  • It abolished the office of the viceroy and provided for each dominion, a governor-general, who was to be appointed by the British King on the advice of the dominion cabinet
  • It empowered the constituent assemblies of the two dominions to frame and adopt any constitution for their respective nations and to repeal any act of the British parliament, including the independence act itself.
  • The constituent assemblies were empowered to legislate for their respective dominions till the new constitutions were drafted and enforced.
  • It granted the princely states the freedom to join either of the dominions or to remain independent.
  • Governance of each dominion was to be conducted based on the provisions of the GoI act, 1935
  • British monarchs could no longer ask for bills or veto them. However, this was reserved for Governor-General.
  • The Constitutional Assemblies of the two nations would enjoy their respective legislative authorities.
  • The British emperor would no longer be called the Emperor of India.
  • The Indian Independence Act, of 1947 was repealed by the Constitution of India.

Question 32

In India, the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, ______ is a comprehensive law to provide for the protection of children from the offences of sexual assault, sexual harassment and pornography, while safeguarding the interests of the child. 

  1. AOption (a)

    2012

  2. BOption (b)

    2006

  3. COption (c)

    2010

  4. DOption (d)

    2008 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

2012

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2012.

Key Points

  • To deal with child sexual abuse cases, the Government has brought in a special law, namely, The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012.
  • The Act has come into force with effect from 14th November 2012 along with the Rules framed thereunder.

Additional Information 

  • The POCSO Act, 2012 is a comprehensive law to provide for the protection of children from the offences of:
  • sexual assault
  • sexual harassment
  • pornography
  • While safeguarding the interests of the child at every stage of the judicial process by incorporating child-friendly mechanisms for reporting, recording of evidence, investigation and speedy trial of offences through designated Special Courts.

Question 33

Lalita is a form of folk music from _____. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Madhya Pradesh 

  2. BOption (b)

    Rajasthan 

  3. COption (c)

    Maharashtra 

  4. DOption (d)

    Gujarat 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Maharashtra 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Important Point

  • Lalita is a form of folk music from Maharashtra.
  • Other forms of folk music in Maharashtra.
  • Gondhal,
  • Lavani,
  • Povadas and
  • Tamasha

Additional Information

  • Folksongs found in Maharashtra
  • Bhajan,
  • Bharud,
  • Gondhal,
  • Kirtan,
  • Abhangas and
  • Tumbadi

Question 34

The 74th Amendment Act of 1992 added a new Part ______ to the Constitution of India. 

  1. AOption (a)

    X

  2. BOption (b)

    IX-A

  3. COption (c)

    IX

  4. DOption (d)

    VIII

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

IX-A

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is IX-A.

  • The 74th Amendment Act of 1992 added a new Part IX-A to the Constitution of India.
  • The 74th Amendment Act of 1992 provides a basic framework of decentralisation of powers and authorities to the Municipal bodies at different levels.  However, responsibility for giving it a practical shape rests with the States.
  • The term ‘Urban Local Government’ in India signifies the governance of an urban area by the people through their elected representatives. The jurisdiction of an urban local government is limited to a specific urban area, which is demarcated for this purpose by the state government.

Key Points

  • 74th Amendment act has introduced a new Part IXA in the Constitution.
  • It deals with Municipalities in an article 243 P to 243 ZG.
  • This amendment, also known as Nagarpalika Act, came into force on 1st June 1993.
AmendmentSubjectYear
70th Constitutional Amendment ActInclusion of legislative assembly of Delhi and Pudducherry to the selection of the president.1992
71st Constitutional Amendment ActInclusion of Konkani, Nepali, and Manipuri languages in the 8th schedule making a total of 18 languages.1992
73rd Constitutional Amendment ActRelating to the Village Panchayats1992
74th Constitutional Amendment ActRelating to the Municipalities1992

Question 35

With which of the following organisations was Lala Har Dayal associated?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ghadar Party 

  2. BOption (b)

    Indian Independence League 

  3. COption (c)

    Indian Home Rule Society 

  4. DOption (d)

    Swaraj Party 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Ghadar Party 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ghadar Party.

  • One of the co-founders of the Ghadar Party is Har Dayal.​

Key Points

  • The Ghadar Party was formed by a group of Indian revolutionaries that included migrant workers from Punjab and Bengali and Punjabi intellectuals and students.
  • Its main objective is to reflect the values ​​of independent India by overthrowing the British rule and adopting secularism and unity despite regional, religious and linguistic differences.
  • It was established in the year 1913.
  • The party was dissolved in 1948 after India gained independence.
  • Its founders were Hardayal, Sohan Singh Bhakna, Santokh Singh, Baba Jwala Singh, Vashakha Singh Dandekar.
  • The party launched its first newspaper 'Gadar' (Weekly) in November 1913.
  • The title of the newspaper is 'Angrezi Raj Ka Dushman' (Enemy of British Raj).

Additional Information 

NameDetails
Lala Lajpatrai- He was an Independence Indian activist. - He is known as Punjab Kesari(Lion of Punjab).
Gopal Krishan Gokhale- Gopal Krishan Gokhale was a social reformer and political leader during the Indian Independence movement. - He was the founder of Servants of Indian Society.
Dada Bhai Naroji- Dada Bhai Naroji was an Indian social-political leader. - He is known as the 'Grand old man of India' and 'Unofficial Ambassador of India'.

Question 36

In which Indian state is the 'Fatorpa Zatra' celebrated?

  1. AOption (a)

    Madhya Pradesh 

  2. BOption (b)

    Goa 

  3. COption (c)

    Kerala 

  4. DOption (d)

    Himachal Pradesh 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Goa 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Goa.

Important Points

  • Fatorpa Zatra is one of the most famous zatras of Goa and is celebrated at the temple of Shantadurga Kuncolienkarin at Fatorpa in Quepem taluka.
  • 'Kuncolienkarin' means 'from Cuncolim'.
  • During the festival, people from all over Goa, belonging to different religions, communities and castes come to worship the deity.
  • The zatra is held for five days during December or January, during paushya shuddha panchami upto dashmi of the Hindu calendar.
  • The highlight of this event is the chariot procession over four days.
  • The first day is called Hathi Ambari, which includes an elephant chariot.
  • The second day is the procession of the flower chariot, popularly known as Fulancho Rath.
  • The procession of the Vijayrath, a chariot of horses, is held on the third day.
  • The Maharath procession, which has the main chariot is held on the last day and is thronged by crowds of devotees, marking the finale of the zatra rituals.

Additional Information

  • Goa is a state in western India with coastlines stretching along the Arabian Sea. 
  • Its long history as a Portuguese colony prior to 1961 is evident in its preserved 17th-century churches and the area’s tropical spice plantations.
  • Goa is also known for its beaches, ranging from popular stretches at Baga and Palolem to those in laid-back fishing villages such as Agonda.
  • Land area: 3,702 km²
  • Capital: Panaji
  • Chief minister: Pramod Sawant
  • Population: 18.2 lakhs

Question 37

As per the Economic Survey 2021, in which of the following states did the proportion of households that had health insurance decrease by 12% from 2015-16 to 2019-20?

  1. AOption (a)

    West Bengal 

  2. BOption (b)

    Assam 

  3. COption (c)

    Bihar 

  4. DOption (d)

    Sikkim 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

West Bengal 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is West Bengal.

Important Points

  • The proportion of households that had health insurance increased in Bihar, Assam and Sikkim from 2015-16 to 2019-20 by 89% while it decreased by 12% over the same period in West Bengal.
  • From 2015-16 to 2019-20, infant mortality rates declined by 20% for West Bengal and by 28% for the three neighbouring states.
  • Modern methods of contraception, female sterilization and pill usage went up by 36%, 22% and 28% respectively in the three neighbouring states while the respective changes for West Bengal were negligible.
  • While West Bengal did not witness any significant decline in the unmet need for spacing between consecutive kids, the neighbouring three states recorded a 37% fall.

Additional Information

  • The economic survey is an annual report card of the economy.
  • It represents a day before the budget examines the performance of each and every sector and then suggests future moves.
  • The economic survey was de-linked from the Budget in 1964.
  • And unveiled in advance in order to provide a context of the latter.
  • Last year the theme was Saving Lives and Livelihoods.
  • The central theme of Economic Survey 2021-22 is the "Agile Approach".
  • Another theme highlighted in this Economic Survey relates to the art and science of policy-making under conditions of extreme uncertainty.

Question 38

Capsaicinoids, carotenoids, phenolics, and vitamins are dominant chemicals in which of the following foods?

  1. AOption (a)

    Carrot 

  2. BOption (b)

    Garlic 

  3. COption (c)

    Radish 

  4. DOption (d)

    Chilli 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Chilli 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Chilli.

Important Points

  • Capsaicinoids, carotenoids, phenolics, and vitamins are dominant chemicals in Chilli.
  • Capsaicinoids are a major spice-producing group of alkaloids present in chilli peppers.
  • Carotenoids are also called tetraterpenoids.
  • They are yellow, orange, and red organic pigments that are produced by plants and algae, as well as several bacteria and fungi.
  • Carotenoids give the characteristic colour to pumpkins, carrots, corn, tomatoes, canaries, fla mingos, salmon, lobster, shrimp, and daffodils.

Question 39

What is the atomic number of nitrogen? 

  1. AOption (a)

    6

  2. BOption (b)

    8

  3. COption (c)

    7 

  4. DOption (d)

    5 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

7 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 7.

Key Points

CONCEPT:

  • ATOMIC NUMBER: 
  • ​It is defined as the number of protons present in the nucleus.
  • It is denoted by the letter Z.
  • MASS NUMBER: 
  • ​The total number of protons and neutrons present in a nucleus is called the mass number of the element.
  • It is denoted by the letter A.
  • For neutral atom,
  • Number of protons in an atom = Z
  • Number of electrons in an atom = Z
  • Number of nucleons in an atom = A
  • Number of neutrons in an atom = N = A – Z

CALCULATION:

  • Given – A = 14 and Number of electrons in an atom (e)  = 7
  • As we know that the number of protons is equal to the number of electrons in an atom. Therefore, the number of protons is 7.
  • As we know that, Mass number (A) = Number of protons (p) + Number of neutrons (n)

∴ n = A – p

⇒ n = 14 – 7 = 7

Question 40

The Hundru Fall lies along the course of which of the following rivers?

  1. AOption (a)

    Damodar

  2. BOption (b)

    Sone

  3. COption (c)

    Mahanadi

  4. DOption (d)

    Subarnarekha

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Subarnarekha

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Subarnarekha River.

Key Points

  • Subarnarekha is a rain-fed river flowing in the eastern part of India.
  • It flows in the state of Jharkhand, West Bengal, and Orissa.
  • It originates near Nagri village in the Ranchi district.
  • It runs through some major industrial towns and cities:
  • Jamshedpur, Chaibasa, Ranchi, and Bhadrak before joining to the Bay of Bengal at Kirtania port in Orissa.
  • Hundru Falls Ranchi is created on the course of the Subarnarekha River, where it falls from a height of 320 feet.
  • It is the 34th highest waterfall in India
  • it falls from a height of 98 meters (322 ft) creating one of the highest waterfalls in the state.

Additional Information 

  • Some important mineral deposits of the Subarnarekha River basin are ores of copper, iron, uranium, chromium, gold, vanadium, kyanite, asbestos, barytes, apatite, and china clay, talc, limestone, dolomite, and building stones.
  • The Kanchi and Karkari rivers are their chief tributaries.
  • Getalsud reservoir is located across the Subernarekha

Important Points 

  • CM of Jharkhand: Hemant Soren.
  • Governor of Jharkhand: Santosh Gangwar.
  • Capital of Jharkhand: Ranchi

Question 41

Who among the following was nominated for the Saraswati Samman, 2020? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Manoj das 

  2. BOption (b)

    Sharankumar Limbale 

  3. COption (c)

    Pratibha Ray 

  4. DOption (d)

    Manishankar Mukherjee 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Sharankumar Limbale 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sharankumar Limbale.

Key Points

  • Dr Sharan Kumar Limbale has bagged the Saraswati Samman, the country's highest literary award, for year 2020 for his Marathi novel 'Sanaatan' published in 2018.
  • He is the former head of Nashik's Yashwantrao Chavan Open University and the author of 40 books.
  • He is the first Dalit writer to get the award.
  • The award carries a cash prize of Rs 15 lakh and a citation.

Additional Information

  • Noted poet and litterateur Prof Ramdarash Mishra was awarded the prestigious Saraswati Samman, 2021, for his collection of poems ‘Mein to Yahan Hun’.

Question 42

After the death of Shri Guru Gobind Singh, the Sikhs revolted against the _______ under the leadership of Banda Bahadur. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Gurkhas 

  2. BOption (b)

    Mughals 

  3. COption (c)

    British 

  4. DOption (d)

    Marathas 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Mughals 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mughals.

Key Points

  • After the death of Shri Guru Gobind Singh, the Sikhs revolted against the Mughals under the leadership of Banda Bahadur.
  • After Guru Gobind Singh's death, the institution of Guruship came to an end and the leadership of the Sikhs passed to his trusted disciple Banda Singh Bahadur.
  • Banda Singh Bahadur was a Sikh warrior & a commander of the Khalsa army.
  • Since creating his Khalsa rule in Punjab, Banda Singh Bahadur had abolished the zamindari regime & had given "property rights" to the land tiller.
  • Banda Singh had rallied together with the lower castes & peasants of Punjab from "Delhi to Lahore" and had undertaken a vigorous "unequal struggle" against the army of Mughals for almost 8  years.
  • However, in the year 1715, he was captured and put to death.
  • There are many reasons for his failure. One, the Mughal army was very strong, and second, the upper castes & classes of Punjab had joined forces against Banda Singh Bahadur because of his campaign for the rural poor & the lower castes.

Additional Information

  • Gurus of Sikh-
  1. Guru Nanak - founder of Sikhism
  2. Guru Angad
  3. Guru Amar Das
  4. Guru Ram Das
  5. Guru Arjan
  6. Guru Hargobind
  7. Guru Har Rai
  8. Guru Har Krishan
  9. Guru Tegh Bahadur
  10. Guru Gobind Singh - introduced Khalsa, 'five Ks', proclaimed Guru Granth Sahib as the future and final Guru

Question 43

Who among the following is the author of the book 'The Coalition Years'?

  1. AOption (a)

    Giani Zail Singh 

  2. BOption (b)

    APJ Abdul Kalam 

  3. COption (c)

    Pranab Mukherjee 

  4. DOption (d)

    KR Narayanan 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Pranab Mukherjee 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Pranab Mukharjee.

Key Points

  • Pranab Mukharjee :
  • Pranab Mukherjee is an Indian politician who served as the thirteenth president of India from 2012 to 2017.
  • He was awarded India's highest civilian honour, the Bharat Ratna, in 2019, by the President of India, Ram Nath Kovind.​
BooksAuthors
The Coalition YearsPranab Mukharjee
An Era of DarknessShashi Tharoor
Hit RefreshSatya Nadella
The Third PillarRaghuram Rajan

Additional Information 

  • Satya Nadella:
  • ​Satya Narayana Nadella is an Indian-American corporate executive.
  • He is the CEO of Microsoft.

Question 44

Who among the following won the All England Open Badminton Championship 2020 in the Men's Singles category?

  1. AOption (a)

    Viktor Axelsen 

  2. BOption (b)

    Kento Momota 

  3. COption (c)

    Anders Antonsen 

  4. DOption (d)

    Chou Tien-chen 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Viktor Axelsen 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Viktor Axelsen.

Key Points

  • Viktor Axelsen won the All England Open Badminton Championship Men’s Singles 2020 title.
  • The championship was held in Birmingham, England.
  • It was a part of the All England Open championships, which had been held since 1899.
  • In the women's category,  Tai Tzu-Ying won the championship.
  • Viktor Axelsen is a Danish badminton player.
  • He is the 2017 World champion and the 2020 Olympic champion.
  • He won the 2010 World Junior Championships, beating South Korea's Kang Ji-Wook in the final to become the first-ever European player to hold the title.

Additional Information 

  • Lee Zii Jia won the All England Open Badminton Championship 2021 in the men's category.
  • Nozomi Okuhara won the All England Open Badminton Championship 2021 in the women's category.
  • Lin Dan is a Chinese former professional badminton player.
  • He is a two-time Olympic champion, five-time World champion, as well as a six-time All-England champion.
  • Lee Chong Wei is a Malaysian former badminton player.
  • As a singles player, Lee was ranked first worldwide for 349 weeks, including a 199-week streak from 21 August 2008 to 14 June 2012.
  • Chou Tien-Chen is a badminton player from Taiwan.
  • He became the first local shuttler in 17 years to win the men's singles title of the Chinese Taipei Open in 2016 since Indonesian-born Fung Permadi won it in 1999.

Question 45

In which of the following years were the Mont-Ford Reforms report presented by the British colonial government in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    1907

  2. BOption (b)

    1918

  3. COption (c)

    1934

  4. DOption (d)

    1942 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1918

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1918.

Key Points

  • The reforms were outlined in the Montagu-Chelmsford Report, prepared in 1918, and formed the basis of the Government of India Act 1919.
  • These are related to constitutional reforms.
  • This act made the central legislature bicameral.
  • Establishment of Public Service Commission.
  • The act made a provision for the classification of the central and provincial subjects.
  • The provincial subjects were divided into two groups - reserved and transferred.

Additional Information

  • Government of India Act, 1919
  • Government of India Act, 1919 is popularly known as Montagu-Chelmsford Report.
  • The Act embodied the reforms recommended in the report of the Secretary of State for India, Edwin Montagu, and the Viceroy, Lord Chelmsford.
  • The Government of India Act 1919 was an Act of the Parliament of the United Kingdom.
  • It was passed to expand the participation of Indians in the government of India.
  • The Act received royal assent on 23 December 1919.
  • The act came into force in 1921.
  • The Act covered ten years, from 1919 to 1929.
  • It was set to be reviewed by the Simon Commission in 10 years.
  • This Act represented the end of benevolent despotism (the act of authorities enhancing themselves) and began the genesis of responsible government in India.

Question 46

Which of the following is the shallowest part of the ocean showing an average gradient of 1° or even less? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Oceanic deeps 

  2. BOption (b)

    Continental shelf 

  3. COption (c)

    Continental slope 

  4. DOption (d)

    Deep sea plain 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Continental shelf 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Continental shelf.

Important Points

  • The continental shelf is the extended margin of each continent occupied by relatively shallow seas and gulfs.
  • It is the shallowest part of the ocean showing an average gradient of 1° or even less.
  • The shelf typically ends at a very steep slope, called the shelf break.
  • The width and depth of the continental shelves vary from one ocean to another.
  • The continental shelves are covered with variable thicknesses of sediments brought down by rivers, glaciers, and wind, from the land and distributed by waves and currents.
  • Massive sedimentary deposits received over a long time by the continental shelves become the source of fossil fuels.​

Additional Information

  • The ocean floors can be divided into four major divisions:
  • the Continental Shelf
  • the Continental Slope
  • the Deep Sea Plain
  • the Oceanic Deeps
  • Besides, these divisions there are also major and minor relief features on the ocean floors like ridges, hills, seamounts, guyots, trenches, canyons, etc.

Question 47

Who among the following created a national record in the javelin throw event at the third Indian Grand Prix meet in March 2021? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Vipin Kasana 

  2. BOption (b)

    Devendra Jhajharia 

  3. COption (c)

    Shivpal Singh 

  4. DOption (d)

    Neeraj Chopra 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Neeraj Chopra 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Neeraj Chopra.

Key Points

  • Neeraj Chopra created a national record in the javelin throw event at the third Indian Grand Prix meet in March 2021.
  • He is a javelin thrower, and became only the second Indian to win an Olympic gold medal.
  • At the 2020 Tokyo Olympics, he earned a gold medal in the Javelin Throw event.
  • He became India's seventh medalist and first gold medalist in the Olympics, joining shooter Abhinav Bindra (2008 Beijing Games) as an individual gold medalist.
  • India won 1 Gold, 2 Silver, and 4 Bronze medals.

Additional Information

  • Vipin Kasana is an Indian athlete who competes in the Javelin throw.
  • Shivpal Singh is an Indian athlete who competes in the Javelin throw.
  • He is from Uttar Pradesh.
  • Devendra Jhajharia is associated with the Indian Paralympic javelin throw. 
  • He won his first gold in the javelin throw at the 2004 Summer Paralympics in Athens, becoming only the second gold medalist at the Paralympics for his country.

Question 48

Which of the following is a foreign bank operating in India as of 31st May 2021?

  1. AOption (a)

    Axis Bank Ltd

  2. BOption (b)

    HDFC Bank Ltd

  3. COption (c)

    BNP Paribas 

  4. DOption (d)

    ICICI Bank Ltd

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

BNP Paribas 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is BNP Paribas.

Important Points

  • BNP Paribas is a foreign bank operating in India as of 31st May 2021.
  • BNP Paribas is a French multinational bank and financial services company with global headquarters in Paris.
  • It is one of the largest banks in the world.
  • It appointed Sanjay Singh as CEO of India.
  • This is the first time an Indian has been appointed as BNP’s country chief since it set up its office here in 1860.
  • Based on 2012 information, BNP Paribas was ranked as the third-largest bank in the world, as measured by total assets, by Bloomberg and Forbes.
  • It was established on 27 January 1872.

Question 49

Which day has been declared by the World Health Organization as Hand Hygiene Day?

  1. AOption (a)

    5th May 

  2. BOption (b)

    18th August 

  3. COption (c)

    21st July 

  4. DOption (d)

    14th June 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

5th May 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 5th May.

Key Points

  • World Hand Hygiene Day is observed on May 5 every year, the theme for this year was SAVE LIVES: Clean your hands
  • The day is organized by the World Health Organization. The primary objective is to make everyone aware of how important it is to keep our hands clean which not only protects us but others too.
  • This theme is perfectly in sync with the current pandemic of COVID-19.
  • Everyone needs to keep their hands clean in order to save themselves from coronavirus.
  • WHO has suggested washing our hands for 20 seconds to thoroughly clean them.

Additional Information

  • Important Days Celebrated in India:-
DateDays
15th JanuaryNational Army Day.
28th FebruaryNational Science Day.
8th MarchInternational Women's Day.
22nd AprilEarth Day.
1st MayLabour Day.
24th AprilPanchayati Raj Day.
5th JuneWorld Environment Day.
11th JulyWorld Population Day.
29th AugustNational Sports Day (Birth Anniversary of Major Dyanchand).
15th SeptemberInternational Day of Democracy.
8th OctoberIndian Airforce Day.
16th NovemberInternational Day for Tolerance.
4th DecemberNavy day.

Question 50

Which of the following is a disease caused by drinking contaminated water?

  1. AOption (a)

    Scurvy 

  2. BOption (b)

    Cholera 

  3. COption (c)

    Rickets 

  4. DOption (d)

    Anaemia 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Cholera 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Cholera.

Key Points

Explanation:

  • Water-Borne diseases: 
  • These are conditions caused by pathogenic micro-organisms that are transmitted in water.
  • The disease can spread while bathing, washing or drinking water, or by eating food exposed to infected water and can cause severe, life-threatening diseases.
  • Examples are typhoid fever, cholera and Hepatitis A or E.
  • Other microorganisms induce less dangerous diseases such as diarrhoea.

Additional Information

  • Cholera: Cholera is a waterborne disease and is diarrhoeal in nature.
  • Typhoid: It is another disease that gets transmitted by drinking contaminated water that carries ‘Salmonellae Typhi bacteria’.
  • Diarrhoea: Diarrhoea is one of the most common waterborne diseases that mostly affects children under the age of 5.
  • Hepatitis A: Another type of waterborne disease is Hepatitis A and it is caused by the Hepatitis A virus, which affects the liver.
  • Some common communicable diseases are:
Name of DiseaseMode of Spread
CholeraFood and water
TyphoidFood and water
Hepatitis (Jaundice)Food and water
Influenza (Flu)Air to air
Tuberculosis (T.B)Air to air
MalariaMosquito
TetanusBite or wound exposed to dust or Iron
PolioFood and water
Swine FluAir to Air

Mistake Points

  • Polio is spread when the stool of an infected person is introduced into the mouth of another person through contaminated water or food (faecal-oral transmission).

Quantitative Aptitude (25 questions)

Question 51

The circumcentre of an equilateral triangle is at a distance of 3.2 cm from the base of the triangle. What is the length (in cm) of each of its altitudes?

  1. AOption (a)

    9.6

  2. BOption (b)

    7.2

  3. COption (c)

    6.4

  4. DOption (d)

    12.8

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

9.6

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

In an equilateral triangle, the circumcentre coincides with the centroid.

The centroid divides the altitude (median) in the ratio 2 : 1.

Distance from base to circumcentre = 1 unit = 3.2 cm.

Total altitude = 2 + 1 = 3 units.

⇒ Altitude = 3 × 3.2 = 9.6 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 9.6 cm.

Alternate Method

Given: Distance of circumcentre from the base = 3.2 cm.

Formula Used: In an equilateral triangle, the inradius (r) is the distance from the incentre/circumcentre to the base. Altitude (h) = 3 × r.

⇒ In an equilateral triangle, the circumcentre, orthocentre, incentre, and centroid are the same point.

⇒ The distance from the centroid to the base is 1/3 of the altitude.

⇒ Let the altitude be h.

⇒ 1/3 × h = 3.2 cm

⇒ h = 3.2 × 3

⇒ h = 9.6 cm

∴ The correct answer is 9.6 cm.

Additional Information

Inradius and Circumradius

For an equilateral triangle of side 'a', Inradius (r) = a / (2√3) and Circumradius (R) = a / √3. Note that R = 2r.

Altitude Formula

The altitude (h) of an equilateral triangle is given by (√3/2) × a. Also, h = R + r = 3r.

Centroid Property

The centroid divides each median (which is also the altitude in this case) in the ratio 2 : 1 from the vertex to the base.

Question 52

In ΔABC, ∠A = 66°, BD ⊥ AC and CE ⊥ AB. BD and EC intersect at P. The bisectors ∠PBC and ∠PCB meet at Q. What is the measure of ∠BQC?

  1. AOption (a)

    127° 

  2. BOption (b)

    132° 

  3. COption (c)

    143° 

  4. DOption (d)

    147° 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

147° 

Why this answer is correct

Given data:

∠A = 66º

Concept:

The angle formed by the internal bisectors of the angles of the triangle is equal to 90 degrees plus half the third angle. 

In Δ ABC,

∠BQC = 90º + ∠BPC2∠BPC\over 2

Calculations:

In the quadrilateral AEPD

∠EAD + ∠PEA + ∠EPD + ∠PDA = 360º

⇒ ∠EPD = 360º - (66º + 90º + 90º)

⇒ ∠EPD = 114º

From figure-

∠EPD = 114º = ∠BPC

∠BQC = 90º + ∠BPC2∠BPC\over 2

∠BQC = 90º + 114º2114º\over 2 = 90º + 57º = 147º (since ∠EPD and  ∠BPC are vertically opposite angles).

∴ , The value of ∠BQC is 147º.

Question 53

A circle is inscribed in ΔABC, touching AB, BC and AC at the points P, Q and R, respectively: If AB - BC = 4 cm, AB - AC = 2 cm and the perimeter of ΔABC = 32 cm, then BC2BC \over 2 (in cm) = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    20320 \over 3

  2. BOption (b)

    13313 \over 3

  3. COption (c)

    11311 \over 3

  4. DOption (d)

    10310 \over 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

13313 \over 3

Why this answer is correct

Given data:

AB - BC = 4 cm

AB - AC = 2 cm

Perimeter = 32 cm

Calculation:

According to the question-

BC = AB - 4 cm

AC = AB - 2 cm

AB + BC + AC = 32 cm

Substituting the value of BC and AC-

⇒ AB + (AB - 4) + (AB - 2) = 32 cm

⇒ 3AB - 6 = 32

⇒ AB = 38338\over 3 cm.

Substituting the value of AB in equation of BC-

BC = 38338\over 3 - 4 = 38−12338-12\over 3 = 26326\over 3 cm

∴ BC2BC\over 2 = 13313\over 3 cm.

The answer is 13313\over 3 cm.

Question 54

A is 120% of B and B is 65% of C. If the sum of A, B and C is 121.5, then the value of C - 2B + A is:

  1. AOption (a)

    14

  2. BOption (b)

    35

  3. COption (c)

    24

  4. DOption (d)

    39

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

24

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

Let c be "a".

B = 0.65a

A = 1.2 × 0.65a = 0.78a

According to the question-

⇒ 0.78a + 0.65a + a = 121.5

⇒ 2.43a = 121.5

⇒ a = 50       (∴ C = 50)

⇒ B = 0.65 × 50 = 32.5

⇒ A = 0.78 × 50 = 39.0

Substituting the value of A, B, and C in the expression-

⇒ (50 - 2 × 32.5 + 39) 

⇒ 24

The answer is 24.

Alternate MethodA = 120% of B, & B = 65% of C

⇒ A = 120/100 B & B = 65/100 C

⇒ A = 6/5 B & B = 13/20

⇒ A : B = 6 : 5 & B : C = 13 : 20 

⇒ A + B + C = 78 + 65 + 100 = 243

According to the question, 

⇒ 243 = 121.5

⇒ 1 = 121.5/243 = 1/2

C - 2B + A = 100 - 2(65) + 78 = 48

⇒ 48 × 1/2 = 24

The answer is 24.

Question 55

An article is sold at a profit of 131413\frac{1}{4}%. Had it been sold for Rs. 76.70 more, the profit would have been 161516\frac{1}{5}%. 50% of the cost price of the article (in Rs.) is:

  1. AOption (a)

    1,250 

  2. BOption (b)

    2,500

  3. COption (c)

    1,300

  4. DOption (d)

    1,500

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1,300

Why this answer is correct

Calculations:

Let the cost price be Rs 100.

SP for 13141\over 4% profit = Rs 100 + 13.25 = Rs 113.25

SP for 16151\over 5% profit = Rs 100 + 16.20 = Rs 116.20

Difference in profit = Rs 116.20 - Rs 113.25 = Rs 2.95

Difference                     Cost Price

Rs 2.95                             100

Rs 76.70                              x

⇒ x = 76.7×1002.9576.7\times 100 \over 2.95 = Rs 2600

∴ 50% of the cost price is Rs 1300.

Alternate Method

Difference of profit% of (161516\frac{1}{5} - 131413\frac{1}{4}) = (16.2 - 13.25) = 2.95% makes the difference of price of Rs. 76.70

So, 2.95% → 76.70, then 100% → (76.70/2.95 × 100) = Rs. 2600 (which is the CP)

Now, 50% of the cost price is = 2600/2 = Rs 1300.

Question 56

If a2 + b2 + 49c2 + 18 = 2(b + 28c - a), then the value of (2a - b + 7c) is:

  1. AOption (a)

    5

  2. BOption (b)

    -3

  3. COption (c)

    -4

  4. DOption (d)

    1 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1 

Why this answer is correct

Given data:

a2 + b2 + 49c2 + 18 = 2(b + 28c - a)

Formula Used:

1) (a + b)2 = a2 + b2 + 2ab

2) (a - b)2 = a2 + b2 - 2ab

Calculations:

According to question,

a2 + b2 + 49c2 + 18 = 2(b + 28c - a)

⇒ a2 + b2 + 49c2 + 18 = 2b + 56c -2a

⇒ a2 + b2  + 49c2 + 18 - 2b - 56c + 2a = 0

⇒ (a2 + 2a + 1 ) + (b2 - 2b + 1) + (7c)2 - 56c + 16 = 0

⇒ (a + 1)2 + (b - 1)2 + {(7c)2 - 56c + 42} = 0

⇒ (a + 1)2 + (b - 1)2  + (7c - 4)2 = 0      ----(1) (from formula 1 and 2)

Now In equation 1, In order it to be = 0 all the entities must be 0 

∴ (a + 1)2 = 0 

⇒ (a + 1) = 0

⇒ a = -1      ----(2)

Again,

(b - 1)2 = 0

⇒ (b - 1) = 0

⇒ b = 1      ----(3)

Again,

(7c - 4)2 = 0

⇒ (7c - 4) = 0

⇒ 7c = 4

 ⇒ c = 474\over7     ----(4)

As per question,

(2a - b + 7c) = (2 × -1) - 1 + 7 × 474\over7

⇒  -2 - 1 + 4

⇒ 1

∴ The value of (2a - b + 7c) is 1.

Question 57

If x2 - 5x - 1 = 0, what is the value of 

x6−x4+x2−1x3\frac{{{x^6} - {x^4} + {x^2} - 1}}{{{x^3}}}?

  1. AOption (a)

    145

  2. BOption (b)

    140

  3. COption (c)

    130

  4. DOption (d)

    135

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

135

Why this answer is correct

Calculations:

Dividing equation (x2 - 5x - 1), both sides by x

⇒ x - 5 - 1x1\over x= 0

⇒ x - 1x1\over x = 5

x3 x^3 - 1x31\over x^3 = (x - 1x1\over x)3 + 3 × x × 1x1\over x × (x - 1x1\over x)

⇒ 53 + 3 × 5 = 140

Seperating the fractions-

⇒ x6x3x^6\over x^3 - x4x3x^4\over x^3 + x2x3x^2\over x^3 - 1x31\over x^3

⇒ x3 x^3 - x + 1x1\over x - 1x31\over x^3

Rearranging the equation, we get-

⇒ (x3 x^3 - 1x31\over x^3) - (x - 1x1\over x)

Substituting the values, we get-

⇒ 140 - 5 = 135

∴ The answer of the expression is 135.

Question 58

Chords AB and CD of a circle intersect externally at P. If AB = 7 cm, CD = 1 cm and PD = 5 cm, then 50% of the length of PA (in cm) is:

  1. AOption (a)

    5

  2. BOption (b)

    10

  3. COption (c)

    8

  4. DOption (d)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

5

Why this answer is correct

Given data:

AB = 7 cm

CD = 1 cm

PD = 5 cm

Calculation:

From the basic proportionality theorem,

PB × PA = PD × PC

Substituting the values-

⇒ PB × (7 + PB) = 5 × (5 + 1)

⇒ PB × (7 + PB) = 5 × 6 = 30

⇒ PB2 + 7PB -30 = 0

⇒ PB2 + 10PB - 3PB -30 = 0

⇒ PB × (PB + 10) - 3 × (PB + 10) = 0

⇒ (PB - 3) × (PB + 10) = 0

Either PB = 3 or -10 (PB cannot be negative. Hence, PB = 3)

∴ PA = AB + BP = 7 + 3 = 10

Now,

⇒ 50% of PA = 50 × 10/100 = 5

∴ The value of 50% PA is 5 cm.

Shortcut Trick The equation PB × (7 + PB) = 30 could be solved by breaking 30 into appropriate factors to match the equation PB × (7 + PB).

⇒ 30 = 10 × 3 and 10 = 7 + 3

∴ 30 = 3 × (7 + 3)

⇒ PB × (7 + PB) = 3 × (7 + 3)

∴ PB = 3 cm and PA = 10 cm

⇒ 50% of PA = 50 × 10/100 = 5

∴ The value of 50% PA is 5 cm.

Question 59

Find a single discount percentage equivalent to successive discounts of 10%, 20% and 25%.

  1. AOption (a)

    55%

  2. BOption (b)

    46%

  3. COption (c)

    20%

  4. DOption (d)

    18.3%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

46%

Why this answer is correct

Given data:

Discount (d1) = 10%

Discount (d2) = 20%

Discount (d3) = 25%

Formula Used:

Effective discount = d1 + d2 - d1×d2100d_1 × d_2 \over 100

Where “d1” and “d2” are successive discounts offered.

Calculation:

Effective discount = 10 + 20 - 10×2010010 × 20 \over 100 = 30 - 2 = 28

Final discount = 28 + 25 - 25×2810025 × 28\over 100 = 53 - 7 = 46

∴ The final effective discount is 46%.

Alternate Method Let the initial price be 100.

Price after 1st discount = 100 - 10 = Rs 90

Price after 2nd discount = 90 - 2010020 \over 100 × 90 = 90 - 18 = 72

Price after 3rd discount = 72 - 2510025 \over 100 × 72 = 72 - 18 = 54

Effective discount = 100 - 54 = 46%

∴ The effective discount is 46%.

Question 60

What is the LCM of 3.6, 1.8 and 0.144? 

  1. AOption (a)

    3.6

  2. BOption (b)

    36

  3. COption (c)

    3600

  4. DOption (d)

    360 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

3.6

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Make the number of decimal places equal for all numbers: 3.600, 1.800, and 0.144.

Remove decimals and find LCM of 3600, 1800, and 144.

Since 3600 is a multiple of 1800 (1800 × 2) and 144 (144 × 25), the LCM is 3600.

Place the decimal back after 3 places: 3.600.

∴ The correct answer is 3.6.

Alternate Method

Given: Numbers are 3.6, 1.8, and 0.144.

Formula Used: LCM of fractions = LCM of Numerators ÷ HCF of Denominators

⇒ Convert decimals to fractions with common denominators:

⇒ 3.6 = 3600/1000

⇒ 1.8 = 1800/1000

⇒ 0.144 = 144/1000

⇒ LCM = LCM(3600, 1800, 144) ÷ 1000

⇒ 3600 = 144 × 25 and 3600 = 1800 × 2

⇒ LCM = 3600 ÷ 1000 = 3.6

∴ The correct answer is 3.6.

Additional Information

LCM of Decimals

Always equate the number of decimal places by adding zeros before finding the LCM of the resulting integers.

HCF of Fractions

HCF of fractions = HCF of Numerators ÷ LCM of Denominators.

Product Rule

For two numbers a and b, LCM(a, b) × HCF(a, b) = a × b.

Question 61

A car covers a distance of 90 km in 50 min. What is its speed (in m/s)?

  1. AOption (a)

    60

  2. BOption (b)

    90

  3. COption (c)

    108

  4. DOption (d)

    30 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

30 

Why this answer is correct

Used data:

Distance = 90 km

Time = 50 min

Calculation:

Time = 506050\over 60 hrs =  565\over 6 hr.

Speed in km/hr = 905690\over {5\over 6} = 108 km/hr

Speed in m/s = 108 × 5185\over 18 = 30 m/s

∴ The speed in m/s is 30 m/s.

Question 62

The compound interest on a certain sum of money at 21% p.a. for 2 years is Rs. 11,138.40 (interest compounded yearly). The total amount received (in Rs) after 2 years is:

  1. AOption (a)

    31,538.40

  2. BOption (b)

    24,000.50

  3. COption (c)

    35,138.40

  4. DOption (d)

    28,315.40

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

35,138.40

Why this answer is correct

Used data:

Rate = 21% p.a

Time = 2 years

CI = Rs 11,138.40

Formula used:

Effective rate for two years = r1 + r2 + r1×r2100r_1 × r_2 \over 100

Where “r1” and “r2” are successive rates offered in the two-year period.

A = P + CI

Where A is the Amount and P is the Principal.

Calculation:

Effective rate for two years = 21 + 21 + 21×2110021 × 21 \over 100 = 42 + 4.41 = 46.41%

∴ Principal = 11,138.40×10046.4111,138.40 × 100 \over 46.41 = Rs 24,000

⇒ Amount = 24,000 + 11,138.40 = Rs 35,138.40

∴ The total amount for the two-year period was Rs 35,138.40.

Question 63

A 20 m long ladder rests against a wall so that the angle between the ladder and the wall is 30°. How far (in m) is the base of the ladder from the wall? 

  1. AOption (a)

    10√3 

  2. BOption (b)

    20√3 

  3. COption (c)

    20

  4. DOption (d)

    10

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

10

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

In a 30°−60°−90° right-angled triangle, the side opposite the 30° angle is always half of the hypotenuse.

The ladder acts as the hypotenuse (20 m) and the distance from the wall is the side opposite to the 30° angle.

Required Distance = 20 m ÷ 2 = 10 m.

∴ The correct answer is 10 m.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length of the ladder (Hypotenuse) = 20 m

Angle between ladder and wall = 30°

Formula Used:

In a right-angled triangle, sin θ = Opposite Side ÷ Hypotenuse

Calculations:

Let the distance of the base of the ladder from the wall be x.

⇒ In right-angled triangle ABC, sin(30°) = BC ÷ AC

⇒ 1 ÷ 2 = x ÷ 20

⇒ x = 20 × (1 ÷ 2)

⇒ x = 10 m

∴ The correct answer is 10 m.

Additional Information

30°−60°−90° Triangle Rule

The sides of a 30°−60°−90° triangle follow the ratio 1 : √3 : 2. The side opposite 30° is x, the side opposite 60° is x√3, and the hypotenuse is 2x.

Trigonometric Ratios

Key values to remember: sin 30° = 1/2, cos 30° = √3/2, tan 30° = 1/√3. Use SOH CAH TOA as a mnemonic for ratios.

Complementary Angles

If the angle with the wall is 30°, the angle with the ground is 90° − 30° = 60°. Therefore, base distance = Ladder × cos(60°) = 10 m.

Question 64

A and B had a joint business in which A invested Rs. 60,000 in the business for one year. After 3 months B invested Rs. 80,000. At the beginning of the second year, A invested Rs. 30,000 more and B withdrew Rs. 5,000. At the end of two years, profit earned by A is Rs. 35,880. What is the profit (in Rs.) earned by B, if they distributed half of the total profit equally and rest in the capital ratio?

  1. AOption (a)

    69,920

  2. BOption (b)

    38,060

  3. COption (c)

    34,040

  4. DOption (d)

    58,940

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

34,040

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

Total capital invested by A = 60,000 × 12 + 90,000 × 12 = 720,000 + 1,080,000 = Rs 1,800,000

Total capital invested by B = 80,000 × 9 + 75,000 × 12 = 720,000 + 900,000 = Rs 1,620,000

Ratio = 1,800,000 : 1,620,000 = 10 : 9

Let the total profit earned is 4p

Now, out of 4p profit, 2p is equally divided between A and B.

A's profit-

⇒ p + 101910 \over 19 × 2p = 35,880

⇒ 39p = 35,880 × 19

⇒ p = 35,880 × 193919\over 39 = Rs 17,480

Now,Profit earned by B = p + 9199 \over 19 × 2p  = 37p1937p\over 19 = 371937\over 19 × 17,480

⇒ Profit of B = Rs 34,040.

∴ The profit of B is Rs 34,040.

Question 65

Study the given bar graph and answer the question that follows.

The bar graph shows the exports of cars of type A and B (in Rs. millions) from 2014 to 2018.

The total exports of cars of type B from 2015 to 2018 is what percentage more than the total exports of cars of type A from 2015 to 2018 (correct to one decimal place)?

  1. AOption (a)

    17.2%

  2. BOption (b)

    15.5%

  3. COption (c)

    14.9%

  4. DOption (d)

    16.7%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

16.7%

Why this answer is correct

Given data:

YearExport of car A (in millions)Export of car B (in millions)
2014200225
2015150250
2016275200
2017175275
2018300325

Calculation:

Total export of Car A from 2015 to 2018 = 150 + 275 + 175 + 300 = 900

Total export of Car B from 2015 to 2018 = 250 + 200 + 275 + 325 = 1050

Difference in export of Car B = 1050 - 900 = 150

Difference % = 150900150\over900 × 100 = 16.7% 

∴ 16.7% more cars of type B was exported.

Question 66

Two similar jugs have heights of 8 cm and 12 cm, respectively. If the capacity of the smaller jug is 80 cm3, what is the capacity of the bigger jug (in cm3)?

  1. AOption (a)

    120

  2. BOption (b)

    192

  3. COption (c)

    216

  4. DOption (d)

    270

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

270

Why this answer is correct

Given data:

Height of smaller jug = 8 cm

Height of bigger jug = 12 cm

Volume of smaller jug = 80 cm3 

Concept:

Volume of similar surfaces is equal to the cube of similar sides. 

⇒ HeightA3HeightB3{Height_A}^3 \over {Height_B}^3  = VolumeAVolumeBVolume_A \over Volume_B

Calculation:

From the proportionality concept-

⇒ 831238^3\over12^3 = 80VolumeB80\over Volume_B

⇒ VolumeB = 12×12×12×808×8×812\times 12\times 12\times 80\over 8\times 8\times 8 = 270 cm3 .

The capacity of the bigger jug is 270 cm3.

Additional InformationCapacity of any vessel is equal to the Volume of that vessel

The volume of any body is directly proportional to the cube of its side. 

The volume of first jug / Volume of second jug = Side of figure(1)3/Side of figure(2)3

Question 67

The average of three numbers is 15. The average of the second and the third number is 12.5. What is the first number?

  1. AOption (a)

    18

  2. BOption (b)

    21

  3. COption (c)

    24

  4. DOption (d)

    20

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

20

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Average of all 3 numbers = 15

Deviation of the 2nd and 3rd numbers from the total average = 12.5 − 15 = −2.5

Total deviation for these 2 numbers = −2.5 × 2 = −5

To balance the average, the 1st number must be +5 more than the total average.

First number = 15 + 5 = 20

∴ The correct answer is 20.

Alternate Method

Given:

Average of three numbers = 15

Average of the second and third number = 12.5

Formula Used:

Sum of given numbers = Average × Number of terms

Calculations:

⇒ Let the three numbers be a, b, and c.

⇒ Average of a, b, and c = (a + b + c) ÷ 3 = 15

⇒ Sum of all three numbers (a + b + c) = 15 × 3 = 45

⇒ Average of b and c = (b + c) ÷ 2 = 12.5

⇒ Sum of the second and third number (b + c) = 12.5 × 2 = 25

⇒ Substitute the value of (b + c) in the first equation:

⇒ a + 25 = 45

⇒ a = 45 − 25

⇒ a = 20

∴ The correct answer is 20.

Additional Information

Combined Average

If the average of n1 items is A1 and n2 items is A2, then the combined average is (n1A1 + n2A2) ÷ (n1 + n2).

Weighted Average

Used when different items have varying levels of importance or frequencies. Formula: Weighted Average = (w1x1 + w2x2 + ...) ÷ (w1 + w2 + ...).

Average of Arithmetic Progression

For a set of numbers that form an Arithmetic Progression (equal difference between consecutive terms), the average is simply the middle term, calculated as (First Term + Last Term) ÷ 2.

Question 68

If cos B = 575 \over 7 , what is the value of cosec B + cot B? Given that 0 < B < π2\frac{\pi }{2}?

  1. AOption (a)

    56\frac{5}{{\sqrt 6 }}

  2. BOption (b)

    612\frac{{\sqrt 6 }}{{12}}

  3. COption (c)

    76\frac{7}{{\sqrt 6 }}

  4. DOption (d)

    6\sqrt 6

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

6\sqrt 6

Why this answer is correct

Given data:

cos B = 575 \over 7

Concept:

In a right-angled triangle ABC, 

cos θ = bhb\over h

b2 + p2 = h2 (From Pythagora's theorem)

Calculation:

we know that cos B = 575 \over 7

AC2 = AB2 + BC2

⇒ 72 = AB2 + 52

⇒ AB = √(49 - 25)

⇒ AB = 2√6 cm  

cosec B +  cot B

⇒ (AC/AB) + (BC/AB)

⇒ 72√67\over 2√6 + 52√65\over 2√6 = 122√612\over 2√6 = √6

∴ The value of cosec B + cot B is √6.

Shortcut Trick The side opposite to the angle is the perpendicular. Hence, from ∠ACB, AB is the perpendicular and BC is the base. Similarly, for ∠CAB, BC is the perpendicular, and AB is the base.

Question 69

The following pie-charts show the number of students studying in different departments of an institute during the academic years 2019 and 2020. The total number of students was 2000 and 2400, respectively, in academic years 2019 and 2020. 

What is the ratio of the number of students studying science in the year 2019 to that in the year 2020?

  1. AOption (a)

    18 ∶ 19

  2. BOption (b)

    20 ∶ 21 

  3. COption (c)

    15 ∶ 19 

  4. DOption (d)

    14 ∶ 15 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

15 ∶ 19 

Why this answer is correct

Given data:

Academic year 2019Academic year 2020
Computer science14%15%
Science18%19%
Engineering13%12%
Medical9%10%
Humanities21%19%
Commerce25%25%

Total students in the year 2019 = 2000

Total students in the year 2020 = 2400

Calculations:

Students studying science in 2019 = 1810018\over 100 × 2000 = 360

Students studying science in 2020 =  1910019\over 100 × 2400 = 456

Ratio = 360 : 456 = 15 : 19

∴ The ratio is 15 : 19.

Question 70

If cos 53° = xyx \over y , then sec 53° + cot 37° is equal to:

  1. AOption (a)

    x+y2−x2y\frac{{x + \sqrt {{y^2} - {x^2}} }}{y}

  2. BOption (b)

    x+y2−x2x\frac{{x + \sqrt {{y^2} - {x^2}} }}{x}

  3. COption (c)

    y+y2−x2x\frac{{y + \sqrt {{y^2} - {x^2}} }}{x}

  4. DOption (d)

    y+y2−x2y\frac{{y + \sqrt {{y^2} - {x^2}} }}{y}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

y+y2−x2x\frac{{y + \sqrt {{y^2} - {x^2}} }}{x}

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

In a right-angled triangle ABC

 

cos θ = bhb\over h

sec θ = 1cosθ1\over cosθ  = hbh\over b

tan θ = sinθcosθsin θ \over cosθ  = pbp\over b

Calculation:

cos 53° = xyx\over y

sec 53° = yxy\over x

cot 37° = 1tan37°1\over tan 37°  = (y2−x2)x{\sqrt {(y^2-x^2)}}\over{x}

Using the value of sec 53° and cot 37°-

⇒ sec 53° + cot 37° = yxy\over x + (y2−x2)x{\sqrt (y^2-x^2)}\over x = y+y2−x2x\frac{{y + \sqrt {{y^2} - {x^2}} }}{x}

∴ The value of the expression is y+y2−x2x\frac{{y + \sqrt {{y^2} - {x^2}} }}{x}.

Question 71

Study the given histogram and answer the question that follows.

The histogram represents the percentage of marks obtained by a number of a students of a school in the class X Board Examination in 2018. The total number of students = 250.

 

The number of students who have obtained less than 50% marks is approximately what percentage less than the number of students who have obtained 90% marks and above?

  1. AOption (a)

    75%

  2. BOption (b)

    60%

  3. COption (c)

    80%

  4. DOption (d)

    40%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

60%

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

Students who obtained less than 50% marks approximately = 10

Students who obtained more than 90% marks and above = 25

Difference = 25 - 10 = 15

Difference % = 152515\over 25 × 100 = 60%

∴ The answer is 60%.

Question 72

The given pie charts show the number of start-ups in various industries since 2010 and the number of successful start-ups in those industries. 

Study the charts and answer the question that follows.

Start-ups in various industries started since 2010 

 

Successful start-ups in various industries 

 

What should be the increase in the number (to the nearest integer) of successful start-ups in the industry of Health & sports, so that its success percentage is the same as that of Education?

  1. AOption (a)

    220

  2. BOption (b)

    155

  3. COption (c)

    187

  4. DOption (d)

    127

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

127

Why this answer is correct

Given data:

Total startups in Education = 1280

Successful startup in Education = 520

Total startups in Health and sports = 1050

Successful startup in Health and sports = 300

Calculation:

Successful startup % in education = 5201280520\over 1280 × 100 = 40.625%

Requisite successful startups in Health and sports = 40.62510040.625\over 100 × 1050 = 427 (approximately)

Total increase in the successful startups required for health and sports = 427 - 300 = 127

∴ The answer is 127.

Question 73

If 8A5146B is divisible by 88, then what is the value of AB?

  1. AOption (a)

    27

  2. BOption (b)

    64

  3. COption (c)

    81

  4. DOption (d)

    12 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

81

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

The divisibility rule of 8 states that for a number to be divisible by 8, its last three-digit should be perfectly divisible by 8.

The divisibility rule of 11 states that for a number to be divisible by 11, the difference between the sum of odd and even digits should be completely divisible by 11. 

Calculations:

Using Divisibility rule of 8, we get-

∴ 46B is completely divisible by 8 if B is 4. (∴ B = 4)

Similarly using divisibility rule of 11, we get-

⇒ (8 + 5 + 4 + 4) - (A + 1 + 6) = 21 - 7 - A = 14 - A 

⇒ The number is perfectly divisible if A = 3 (∴ A = 3)

∴ value of AB = 34 = 81

The value of AB is 81.

Question 74

X, Y and Z can complete a piece of work in 46 days, 92 days and 23 days, respectively. X started the work. Y joined him after 7 days. If Z joined them after 8 days from the beginning, then for how many days did Y work?

  1. AOption (a)

    125712\frac{5}{7}

  2. BOption (b)

    115711\frac{5}{7}

  3. COption (c)

    105710\frac{5}{7}

  4. DOption (d)

    9579\frac{5}{7}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

115711\frac{5}{7}

Why this answer is correct

Given data:

Days in which X can complete the work = 46 days

Days in which Y can complete the work = 92 days

Days in which Z can complete the work = 23 days

Days after which Y joined = 7 days

Days after which Z joined = 8 days

Formula used:

Efficiency = Total work / Time taken to complete work individually

Calculation:

LCM of 23, 46, 92 = 92

Assuming that the total work is 92 units.

Efficiency of x-

⇒ 924692\over 46 = 2 units of work/day

Efficiency of y-

⇒ 929292\over 92 = 1 unit of work/day

Efficiency of z-

⇒ 922392\over 23 = 4 units of work/day

Work done in 7 days by X working alone = 2 units × 7 = 14 units

Work done by X and Y on 8th day =  (2 + 1) × 1 = 3 units

Total work done until 8th day = 14 + 3 = 17 units

Remaining work = 92 - 17 = 75 units

Work done by X , Y and Z in one day = 2 + 1 + 4 = 7 units

Total time taken = 75775\over 7 days

Total days worked by Y = 75775\over 7 + 1 = 82782\over 7 = 11575\over 7 days.

∴ Y worked for 11**575\over 7 days.**

Shortcut TrickLet the total work be 92 units.

x = 46 days = 2 units/day

y = 92 days = 1 unit/day

z = 23 days = 4 units/day

Let the work be completed in Q days.

According to the question,

2Q + 1 × (Q - 7) + 4 × (Q - 8) = 92

⇒ 7Q - 39 = 92

⇒ Q = 131/7

⇒ Q - 7 = 131/7 - 7 (Subtracting 7 from both sides)

⇒ Q - 7 = 115711\frac{5}{7}

∴ Y worked for 115711\frac{5}{7} days.

Question 75

What is the simplified value of the following?

\frac{{9 \div \frac{3}{7}\ \text{of} \ \left( {9 + 6 \times \overline {4 - 2} } \right) + \left[ {\frac{1}{5} \div \frac{7}{{25}} - \left{ {\frac{5}{8} + \frac{6}{{16}}} \right}} \right]}}{{24 \div \overline {16 - 10} + 36 \div \left( {5 + 20 \div 4 - 1} \right)}}

  1. AOption (a)

    40740 \over 7

  2. BOption (b)

    5565 \over 56

  3. COption (c)

    7407 \over 40

  4. DOption (d)

    515651 \over 56

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

5565 \over 56

Why this answer is correct

Concept used:

B = Bar/Bracket

O = Of

D = Division

M = Multiplication

A = Addition

S = Subtraction

Calculation:

\frac{{9 \div \frac{3}{7}\ \text{of} \ \left( {9 + 6 \times \overline {4 - 2} } \right) + \left[ {\frac{1}{5} \div \frac{7}{{25}} - \left{ {\frac{5}{8} + \frac{6}{{16}}} \right}} \right]}}{{24 \div \overline {16 - 10} + 36 \div \left( {5 + 20 \div 4 - 1} \right)}}

⇒ \frac{{9 \div \frac{3}{7}\ \text{of} \ \left( {9 + 6 \times 2 } \right) + \left[ {\frac{1}{5} \div \frac{7}{{25}} - \left{ {\frac{5}{8} + \frac{6}{{16}}} \right}} \right]}}{{24 \div 6 + 36 \div \left( {5 + 20 \div 4 - 1} \right)}}

⇒ \frac{{9 \div 9 + \left[ {\frac{1}{5} \div \frac{7}{{25}} - 1 }} \right]}}{{24 \div 6 + 36 \div \left( {5 + 5 - 1} \right)}}

⇒ \frac{{1+ \left[ {\frac{1}{5} \times \frac{25}{{7}} - 1 }} \right]}}{{4 + 36 \div 9 }}

⇒ 1−2781 -{2\over 7}\over 8

⇒ 5565\over56

The answer is 5565\over56.

English Comprehension (25 questions)

Question 76

The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain a grammatical error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don't find any error, mark 'No error' as your answer. 

This park is / the largest bird sanctuary / in the state.

  1. AOption (a)

    the largest bird sanctuary 

  2. BOption (b)

    This park is 

  3. COption (c)

    No error 

  4. DOption (d)

    in the State 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

No error 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "No error"

Key Points

  • The given sentence is absolutely correct.
  • In the given sentence, the subject of the sentence is "this park" and the verb of the sentence is "is", the largest is absolutely correct since we need to use the definite article with the superlative degree of adjective hence, the given sentence is absolutely correct.
  • So the correct answer is Option 3 i.e. No error.

Question 77

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Monotonous

  1. AOption (a)

    Boring 

  2. BOption (b)

    Compulsory 

  3. COption (c)

    Eventful 

  4. DOption (d)

    Momentous 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Boring 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Boring"

Key Points

  • Let's see the meanings of the given words-
  • Monotonous- dull, tedious, and repetitious; lacking in variety and interest.
  • Boring- not interesting; tedious.
  • Compulsory- required by law or a rule; obligatory.
  • Eventful- marked by interesting or exciting events.
  • Momentous- of great importance or significance, especially in having a bearing on future events.
  • Hence, according to the meanings of the given words, the correct answer is Option 1 i.e. Boring.

Question 78

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. 

To hold water

  1. AOption (a)

    To be valid and reasonable 

  2. BOption (b)

    To be unsteady and unsure 

  3. COption (c)

    To be large and deep 

  4. DOption (d)

    To be sad and depressed 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

To be valid and reasonable 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "To be valid and reasonable"

Key Points

  • The meaning of the given idiom "To hold water" is "To bear close inspection; to be valid"
  • Let's see an example-
  • Her alibi just didn't hold water.
  • Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

Question 79

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. 

I asked my friend / where had he / learnt to dance / so well.

  1. AOption (a)

    where had he 

  2. BOption (b)

    learnt to dance 

  3. COption (c)

    I asked my friend 

  4. DOption (d)

    so well 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

where had he 

Why this answer is correct

The erroneous part is "where had he"

Key Points

  • In the given sentence, the usage of "where had he" is incorrect instead of this we need to use "where he had"
  • According to grammar, whenever we need to use an interrogative sentence then, we need to use the modal verb before the subject and whenever we need to write a simple sentence then, we need to write a modal verb after the subject.
  • Let's see an example-
  • Interrogative sentence- Where did you plan to sleep tonight?
  • Simple sentence- I'll show you where you can sleep.

So the correct sentence is- I asked my friend where he had learnt to dance so well.

Confusion Points

  • There is a difference between learned and learnt. The verb forms are learn→ learnt→ learnt
  • "Learnt" is a past participle form of Learn {The verb forms are learn→ learnt→ learnt} and "Learned" is an adjective i.e. means gain or acquire knowledge of or skill in (something) by study, experience, or being taught.
  • Let's see some examples-
  • I have learnt a lot in the seven weeks.
  • This sort of aggression is learned behavior. (learned is an adjective here)
  • There is also a difference of British English and American English between both the words.

Question 80

Select the correct passive voice form of the given sentence. 

The Chief Minister inaugurated the new hospital.

  1. AOption (a)

    The new hospital will be inaugurated by the Chief Minister

  2. BOption (b)

    The new hospital was inaugurated by the Chief Minister

  3. COption (c)

    The new hospital is being inaugurated by the Chief Minister

  4. DOption (d)

    The new hospital had been inaugurated by the Chief Minister.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The new hospital was inaugurated by the Chief Minister

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "The new hospital was inaugurated by the Chief Minister"

Key Points

  • The given sentence is in the Active voice.
  • In active and passive voice, we know that the tense of the sentence will not change. Also, the subject of the sentence becomes the object and the object of the sentence becomes the subject.
  • In the given sentence, the Simple Past Tense has been used so we need to use "was/were (according to the subject) + past participle (V3)"
  • So the correct passive voice will be- The new hospital was inaugurated by the Chief Minister.

Question 81

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A style of cooking food, characteristic of a particular country or region

  1. AOption (a)

    Creche 

  2. BOption (b)

    Antique 

  3. COption (c)

    Menu 

  4. DOption (d)

    Cuisine 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Cuisine 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Cuisine'.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate word for the given group of words is 'Cuisine'.
  • It means 'the style of cooking of a particular country, restaurant, etc.'. (किसी विशेष देश, रेस्‍तराँ आदि की भोजन बनाने की शैली; पाक शैली)
  • Example: Italian cuisine...

Correct Answer: Cuisine.

Additional Information

  • Let's look at the meaning of other words:
  • Creche: a place where small children are looked after while their parents are working, shopping, etc. (माता-पिता की अनुपस्थिति में शिशुओं की देखभाल का स्‍थान; शिशुसदन, शिशुगृह)
  • Antique: very old and therefore unusual and valuable. (प���राचीनकाल की और अतएव असाधारण तथा मूल्‍यवान)
  • Menu: a list of the food that you can choose at a restaurant. [रेस्‍तराँ में उपलब्‍ध पदार्थों की सूची (अभीष्‍ट चुनने के लिए)]

Question 82

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. 

Play with fire

  1. AOption (a)

    To be courageous 

  2. BOption (b)

    To spread knowledge

  3. COption (c)

    To do something dangerous 

  4. DOption (d)

    To fight an opponent 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

To do something dangerous 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'To do something dangerous'.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate meaning of the given idiom 'Play with fire' is 'To do something dangerous'.
  • Play with fire: take foolish risks. (मूर्खतापूर्ण जोखिम उठाएं)
  • Example: An urge to play with fire made her provoke him.

Correct Answer: To do something dangerous.

Question 83

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. 

Abandon

  1. AOption (a)

    Possess

  2. BOption (b)

    Retain 

  3. COption (c)

    Rescue 

  4. DOption (d)

    Quit 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Quit 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Quit'.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate synonym of the given word 'Abandon' is 'Quit'.
  • Abandon: to leave somebody/something that you are responsible for, usually permanently. (किसी प्राणी या वस्‍तु को, जिस का उत्तरदायित्‍व आप पर है, प्रायः सदा के लिए छोड़ देना)
  • Example: The bank robbers abandoned the car just outside the city.
  • Quit: to leave a job, etc., or to go away from a place. (कोई नौकरी या स्‍थान छोड़ना) 
  • Example: She quits as manager of the volleyball team.

Correct Answer: Quit.

Additional Information

  • Let's look at the meaning of other words:
  • Possess: to have or own something. (किसी वस्‍तु को अधिकार में रखना या उस पर स्‍वामित्‍व होना)
  • Retain: to keep or continue to have something; not to lose. (किसी वस्‍तु को रखना या बनाए रखना या रखे रहना; न गँवाना)
  • Rescue: to save somebody/something from a situation that is dangerous or unpleasant. [(ख़तरनाक या अप्रिय सि्‍थति से) व्‍यकि्त या वस्‍तु को बचाना या का उद्घार करना]

Question 84

The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don't find any error, mark 'No error' as your answer.

Shamim have not / attended school / for four days now.

  1. AOption (a)

    attended school 

  2. BOption (b)

    for four days now 

  3. COption (c)

    Shamim have not 

  4. DOption (d)

    No error 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Shamim have not 

Why this answer is correct

The erroneous part is 'Shamim have not'.

Key Points

  • The given sentence is grammatically incorrect.
  • Here, 'Shamim has not' should be used instead of 'Shamim have not'.
  • In the given sentence 'Shamim' is a singular noun.
  • Hence, it should be followed by a singular helping verb that is 'has'.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 3.

Correct Sentence: Shamim has not attended school for four days now.

Question 85

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select 'No substitution required'. 

The dress may pleasantly be delivered to us at the earliest.

  1. AOption (a)

    No substitution required 

  2. BOption (b)

    may kindly 

  3. COption (c)

    might kindly 

  4. DOption (d)

    must pleasantly 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

may kindly 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'kindly'.

Key Points

  • The underlined part in the given sentence is grammatically incorrect.
  • Here, 'may kindly' should be used instead of 'may pleasantly'.
  • 'Kindly' is more formal and 'pleasantly' is more casual and specifically spoken English.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 2.

Correct Sentence: The dress may kindly be delivered to us at the earliest.

Question 86

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

Unable to express feelings clearly

  1. AOption (a)

    Inarticulate 

  2. BOption (b)

    Affluent 

  3. COption (c)

    Eloquent 

  4. DOption (d)

    Verbose 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Inarticulate 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Inarticulate'.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate word for the given group of words is 'Inarticulate'.
  • It means '(used about a person) not able to express ideas and feelings clearly'. [(व्‍यक्ति) जो अपने विचारों और भावों को स्‍पष्‍टता से व्‍यक्त न कर सके, अवाक्‌पटु]
  • Example: My meetings with him left me inarticulate with rage.

Correct Answer: Inarticulate.

Additional Information

  • Let's look at the meaning of other words:
  • Affluent: having a lot of money. (धनवान, समृद्घ)
  • Eloquent: able to use language and express your opinions well, especially when you speak in public. (सार्वजनिक प्रसंग में वाणी का प्रयोग करने में दक्ष; वाक्‌चतुर)
  • Verbose: using or containing more words than are needed. (आवश्यकता से अधिक शब्दों से युक्त; शब्दबहुल; शब्दाडंबरपूर्ण)

Question 87

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Constrict

  1. AOption (a)

    Smite

  2. BOption (b)

    Choke

  3. COption (c)

    Stretch 

  4. DOption (d)

    Cramp 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Stretch 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Stretch'.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate antonym of the given word 'Constrict' is 'Stretch'.
  • Constrict: to become or make something tighter, narrower or less. (संकुचित होना या करना; सिकुड़ना, कसना)
  • Example: She felt her throat constrict with fear.
  • Stretch: to pull something so that it becomes longer or wider; to become longer or wider in this way. (किसी वस्‍तु को अधिक लंबा या चौड़ा करने के लिए खींचना; (किसी वस्‍तु का) खिंच कर अधिक लंबा या चौड़ा हो जाना, बढ़ जाना, तनन)
  • Example: The artist stretched the canvas tightly over the frame.

Correct Answer: Stretch.

Additional Information

  • Let's look at the meaning of other words:
  • Smite: strike with a firm blow. (जोरदार प्रहार)
  • Choke: to be or to make somebody unable to breathe because something is stopping air from getting into the lungs. (दम घुटना या घोटना)
  • Cramp: a sudden pain that you get in a muscle, that makes it difficult to move. (मांसपेशी में अचानक हुई दर्दभरी ऐंठन)

Question 88

Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select 'No improvement required'.

Since setting up, the charity has raised a million dollars.

  1. AOption (a)

    Since being set up 

  2. BOption (b)

    From setting up 

  3. COption (c)

    Since setting 

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement required 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Since being set up 

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is: Since being set up.

Key Points

  • In this context, the use of 'Since being set up' is correct.
  • This option improves the original part ("Since setting up") of the sentence by correcting its grammatical structure and maintaining the intended meaning.
  • "Since being set up" is the appropriate phrase to use when referring to the period from the time the charity was established to the present.
  • It signifies the time from the moment of creation ("being set up") until now ("since").

Therefore, the correct answer is: Since being set up, the charity has raised a million dollars.

Additional Information

  • Explanation for the incorrect options:
  • From setting up: This phrase changes the original meaning of the sentence. "From setting up" suggests that the act of setting up the charity itself generated the million dollars, which is not the same as the intended meaning (the charity has raised a million dollars since it was established).
  • Since setting: This is grammatically incorrect and unclear. It suggests an ongoing action but does not specify what that action is, leaving the sentence incomplete.
  • No improvement required: This option suggests that the original sentence is grammatically correct, which is not the case. The phrase "since setting up" is grammatically awkward and incomplete. It needs to be improved for proper syntax and clarity of meaning.

Question 89

Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct order. 

A. For example, the sound of footsteps followed by the slam of a door are like phrases which convey some information. 

B. In films, sound effects play the part of words.

C. We then know who is performing an action and why, and a clear picture is formed in our mind's eye. 

D. Once the sounds are prefaced or followed by a dialogue, the sentence is complete.

  1. AOption (a)

    DCBA

  2. BOption (b)

    CBDA

  3. COption (c)

    BCDA

  4. DOption (d)

    BADC

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

BADC

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'BADC'.

Key Points

  • The given question is an example of a Para Jumble.
  • We know that the first statement of a para jumbled question is usually an independent general statement, a noun, a universal fact, starting of an incident, or it starts with 'most' or 'once'.
  • Sentence B will be the starting line as it contains the main idea of the parajumble i.e. the importance of sound effects in films.
  • However, Sentence A states that the sound of footsteps followed by the slam of a door is like phrases that convey some information. So, A will follow B.
  • Further, Sentence D states that once the sounds are prefaced or followed by a dialogue, the sentence is complete and sentence C states that we then know who is performing an action and why. So, C will follow D.
  • Thus, the correct sequence is:
  • B: In films, sound effects play the part of words.
  • A: For example, the sound of footsteps followed by the slam of a door are like phrases which convey some information.
  • D: Once the sounds are prefaced or followed by a dialogue, the sentence is complete.
  • C: We then know who is performing an action and why, and a clear picture is formed in our mind's eye. 

Correct Sequence: In films, sound effects play the part of words. For example, the sound of footsteps followed by the slam of a door are like phrases which convey some information. Once the sounds are prefaced or followed by a dialogue, the sentence is complete.  We then know who is performing an action and why, and a clear picture is formed in our mind's eye.

Question 90

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. 

I was angry / on myself / for making / such a silly mistake.

  1. AOption (a)

    such a silly mistake 

  2. BOption (b)

    for making 

  3. COption (c)

    on myself 

  4. DOption (d)

    I was angry 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

on myself 

Why this answer is correct

The erroneous part is 'on myself'.

Key Points

  • The given sentence is grammatically incorrect.
  • Here, 'with myself' should be used instead of 'on myself'.
  • 'Angry with someone' is grammatically the correct phrase for the given sentence.
  • It means 'having a strong feeling against someone who has behaved badly, making you want to shout at them or hurt them किसी ऐसे व्यक्ति के प्रति तीव्र भावना रखना जिसने बुरा व्यवहार किया हो, जिससे आप उन पर चिल्लाना या उन्हें चोट पहुँचाना चाहते हैं)'.
  • Example: He's really angry with me for upsetting Sophie.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 3.

Correct Sentence: I was angry with myself for making such a silly mistake.

Question 91

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

______ or not you allow me, I am going to the fair.

  1. AOption (a)

    Whether 

  2. BOption (b)

    Unless

  3. COption (c)

    If

  4. DOption (d)

    Until 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Whether 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Whether'.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate word for the given blank is 'Whether'.
  • “Whether….or” is a fixed conjunction pair. 
  • Example: Whether or not he will get the job is mere speculation.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct Sentence: Whether or not you allow me, I am going to the fair.

Question 92

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice. 

Can you carry my bag upstairs?

  1. AOption (a)

    Was my bag carried upstairs by you?

  2. BOption (b)

    Could your bag be carried upstairs by me?

  3. COption (c)

    Can my bag be carried upstairs by you?

  4. DOption (d)

    Can your bag be carried upstairs by me?

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Can my bag be carried upstairs by you?

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Can my bag be carried upstairs by you?

Key Points

  • The given sentence is in Active Voice. As per the given question we have to change the sentence into Passive Form.
  • The given sentence is an example of the modal verb.
  • ​The structure of these kinds of sentences is:
  • Modal verb + subject + V1? (Active Voice)
  • Modal verb + Object (Subjective Form) + be + V3? (Passive Voice)
  • The subject of the given sentence is 'you'.
  • The object of the given sentence is 'my bag'.
  • 'Can carry' will be changed into 'can be carried'.
  • Lastly, 'by' preposition will be added.

Correct Sentence: Can my bag be carried upstairs by you?

Question 93

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. 

Taut

  1. AOption (a)

    Tight 

  2. BOption (b)

    Solid 

  3. COption (c)

    Strong 

  4. DOption (d)

    Slack 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Slack 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Slack'.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate antonym of the given word 'Taut' is 'Slack'.
  • Taut: (used about rope, wire, etc.) stretched very tight; not loose. [(रस्‍सी, तार आदि) कसकर बाँधा गया; ढीला नहीं, कसा हुआ]
  • Example: The skin of the drum is taut.
  • Slack: loose; not tightly stretched. (शिथिल, ढीला; जो कसा हुआ न हो)
  • Example: Leave the rope slack.

Correct Answer: Slack.

Additional Information

  • Let's look at the meaning of other words:
  • Tight: fixed firmly in position and difficult to move or remove. [किसी स्‍थान पर कसकर बँधा हुआ (जिसका हिलना या जिसे हिलाना कठिन हो)]
  • Solid: hard and firm; not in the form of liquid or gas. (कड़ा और पक्‍का; द्रव या गैस नहीं, ठोस)
  • Strong: (used about a person) physically powerful; able to lift or carry heavy things. [(व्‍यक्ति) शरीर से ताक़तवर, बलवान, हष्‍ट-पुष्‍ट; वज़न उठाने या ले जाने में समर्थ]

Question 94

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech. 

She asked me what my favourite cuisine was.

  1. AOption (a)

    She said to me, "What is your favourite cuisine?"

  2. BOption (b)

    She said to me, "What my favourite cuisine is?"

  3. COption (c)

    She said to me, "What is my favourite cuisine?"

  4. DOption (d)

    She said to me, "What your favourite cuisine was?"

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

She said to me, "What is your favourite cuisine?"

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is She said to me, "What is your favourite cuisine?"

Key Points

  • The given sentence is in Indirect Speech. As per the question we have to change it into Direct Speech.
  • The process of transformation is as follows:
  • 'Asked' will not be changed because the given question is an example of an interrogative sentence with a question word.
  • Comma and inverted commas will be added.
  • 'my' will be changed into 'your' because in 'direct to indirect' transformation the second person pronoun changes according to the object of the reporting verb.
  • 'was' will be changed into 'is'.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 1.

​Correct Sentence: She said to me, "What is your favourite cuisine?"

Question 95

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

  1. AOption (a)

    Disturbence 

  2. BOption (b)

    Genius 

  3. COption (c)

    Opportunity 

  4. DOption (d)

    Conscious 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Disturbence 

Why this answer is correct

The erroneous spelling is 'Disturbence'.

Key Points

  • Among the given Options the incorrectly spelt word is 'Disturbence'.
  • Its correct spelling is 'Disturbance'.
  • It means 'something that makes you stop what you are doing, or that upsets the normal condition of something'. (किसी काम को करने से रोकनेवाली वस्तु अथवा किसी वस्तु की सामान्य दशा को उथल-पुथल करनेवाला, बाधा, गड़बड़ी)
  • Example: They were arrested for causing a disturbance [fighting] in the town centre.

Correct Answer: Disturbence.

Additional Information

  • Let's look at the meaning of other words:
  • Genius: very great and unusual ability. (अति महान और असाधारण क्षमता)
  • Opportunity: a chance to do something that you would like to do; a situation or a time in which it is possible to do something that you would like to do. (अवसर, सुअवसर, मौक़ा; उपयुक्त, अवसरानुकूल सि्‍थति या समय)
  • Conscious: able to see, hear, feel, etc. things; awake. (सजग, सचेत; होश में, जगा हुआ)

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. 

Pollution is destroying nature. The smoke that is (1) _______ from the chimneys of the factories, and from vehicles is the mixture of poisonous gases. Due to environmental pollution, there is (2) _______ in nature, so, many birds, animals, and plants are on the verge of (3) _______ day by day. The only way to (4) _______ environmental pollution is to plant many trees. By planting trees, we can get rid of many harmful poisonous gases. It is the responsibility of everyone to (5) ______ and protect our environment.

Question 96

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option for blank 1. 

  1. AOption (a)

    generated 

  2. BOption (b)

    absorbed 

  3. COption (c)

    created 

  4. DOption (d)

    emitted 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

emitted 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'emitted'.

Key Points

  • The given passage is about environmental pollution.
  • The most appropriate word for the given blank is 'emitted'.
  • 'Emit' means to send out something, for example, a smell, a sound, smoke, heat, or light.
  • The given passage talks about the smoke that is emitted from the chimneys of the factories.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 4.

Correct Passage: Pollution is destroying nature. The smoke that is emitted from the chimneys of the factories, and from vehicles is the mixture of poisonous gases. Due to environmental pollution, there is (2) _______ in nature, so, many birds, animals, and plants are on the verge of (3) _______ day by day. The only way to (4) _______ environmental pollution is to plant many trees. By planting trees, we can get rid of many harmful poisonous gases. It is the responsibility of everyone to (5) ______ and protect our environment.

Question 97

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option for blank 2.

  1. AOption (a)

    an imbalance 

  2. BOption (b)

    a difference 

  3. COption (c)

    an inequality 

  4. DOption (d)

    a balance 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

an imbalance 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'an imbalance'.

Key Points

  • The given passage is about environmental pollution.
  • The most appropriate word for the given blank is 'an imbalance'.
  • 'Imbalance' means a difference or not being equal.
  • The given passage states that there is an imbalance in nature due to environmental pollution.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct Passage: Pollution is destroying nature. The smoke that is emitted from the chimneys of the factories, and from vehicles is the mixture of poisonous gases. Due to environmental pollution, there is an imbalance in nature, so, many birds, animals, and plants are on the verge of (3) _______ day by day. The only way to (4) _______ environmental pollution is to plant many trees. By planting trees, we can get rid of many harmful poisonous gases. It is the responsibility of everyone to (5) ______ and protect our environment.

Question 98

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option for blank 3.

  1. AOption (a)

    survival 

  2. BOption (b)

    distinction 

  3. COption (c)

    appearance 

  4. DOption (d)

    extinction 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

extinction 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'extinction'.

Key Points

  • The given passage is about environmental pollution.
  • The most appropriate word for the given blank is 'extinction'.
  • 'Extinction' means a situation in which something no longer exists. (ऐसी स्थिति जिसमें कोई चीज़ अब मौजूद नहीं है)
  • Example: Many species have faced extinction due to human activities.
  • The given passage states that so, many birds, animals, and plants are on the verge of extinction day by day.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 4.

Correct Passage: Pollution is destroying nature. The smoke that is emitted from the chimneys of the factories, and from vehicles is the mixture of poisonous gases. Due to environmental pollution, there is an imbalance in nature, so, many birds, animals, and plants are on the verge of extinction day by day. The only way to (4) _______ environmental pollution is to plant many trees. By planting trees, we can get rid of many harmful poisonous gases. It is the responsibility of everyone to (5) ______ and protect our environment. 

Additional Information 

  • Survival : (जीवन का जीना) - The state of continuing to live or exist, typically in spite of difficult conditions.
  • Example: The survival of the species is in danger.
  • Distinction : (भेद, फर्क) - A difference or contrast between similar things or people; excellence that sets someone or something apart from others.
  • Example: The distinction between right and wrong is not always clear.
  • Appearance : (दिखावा, स्वरूप) - The way that someone or something looks.
  • Example: The house had a bleak appearance.

Question 99

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option for blank 4.

  1. AOption (a)

    eradicate 

  2. BOption (b)

    sustain 

  3. COption (c)

    radiate 

  4. DOption (d)

    introduce 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

eradicate 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'eradicate'.

Key Points

  • The given passage is about environmental pollution.
  • The most appropriate word for the given blank is 'eradicate'.
  • ‘Eradicate’ means to destroy or get rid of something completely.
  • The given passage states that the only way to eradicate environmental pollution is to plant many trees.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 1.​

Correct Passage: Pollution is destroying nature. The smoke that is emitted from the chimneys of the factories, and from vehicles is the mixture of poisonous gases. Due to environmental pollution, there is an imbalance in nature, so, many birds, animals, and plants are on the verge of extinction day by day. The only way to eradicate environmental pollution is to plant many trees. By planting trees, we can get rid of many harmful poisonous gases. It is the responsibility of everyone to (5) ______ and protect our environment.

Additional Information Let's understand the meanings of the other given words:

  • ​Sustain: It means to support, uphold, or maintain something over time, often in the sense of keeping it in good condition or continuing its existence.
  • Radiate: It means to emit or give off rays, energy, or light in all directions from a central point.
  • Introduce: It means to present or bring something new or unfamiliar to a person or a situation, often with the purpose of making it known or familiar to others.

Question 100

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option for blank 5.

  1. AOption (a)

    ruin 

  2. BOption (b)

    preserve

  3. COption (c)

    destroy

  4. DOption (d)

    neglect 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

preserve

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'preserve'.

Key Points

  • The given passage is about environmental pollution.
  • The most appropriate word for the given blank is 'preserve'.
  • ‘Preserve’ means to keep something safe or in good condition.
  • The given passage states that it is the responsibility of everyone to preserve and protect our environment.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 2.

Correct Passage: Pollution is destroying nature. The smoke that is emitted from the chimneys of the factories, and from vehicles is the mixture of poisonous gases. Due to environmental pollution, there is an imbalance in nature, so, many birds, animals, and plants are on the verge of extinction day by day. The only way to eradicate environmental pollution is to plant many trees. By planting trees, we can get rid of many harmful poisonous gases. It is the responsibility of everyone to preserve and protect our environment.

100 questions in the full paper