Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL 2021 Tier-I (Held On : 11 April 2022 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2021

100 questions60 minutes
With answers
Free

Paper last updated:

Practise under exam conditions

Take this paper as a timed mock test. Review your answers after you submit.

Attempt timed test

Questions & answers

Read the paper at your pace. Open an explanation when you need it.

General Intelligence and Reasoning (25 questions)

Question 1

Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replaced the question mark (?) in the following series.

KYBA, FTEE, AOHI, VJKO, ?, LZQA

  1. AOption (a)

    QENU

  2. BOption (b)

    PFNU

  3. COption (c)

    QEMI

  4. DOption (d)

    QDNI

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

QENU

Why this answer is correct

The position of the English alphabet letters is given below:

    

Hence, the correct answer is "MXJY".

Question 2

Pamila is the granddaughter of Akun who is married to Nikita. Murali is the brother-in-law of Akun who has two daughters but no son. Rahul is the cousin of Kamal and brother of Pamila. Uday and Vanmay are the sons-in-law of Nikita. Vanmay is married to Yamini and they have two daughters and one son. Uday has one son and one daughter. Tina and Smita are the daughters of Yamini. Murali is unmarried. How is Yamini related to Rahul?

  1. AOption (a)

    Daughter

  2. BOption (b)

    Aunt

  3. COption (c)

    Sister

  4. DOption (d)

    Mother

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Aunt

Why this answer is correct

  1. Pamila is the granddaughter of Akun who is married to Nikita.

  2. Murali is the brother-in-law of Akun who has two daughters but no son.

  3. Uday and Vanmay are the sons-in-law of Nikita.

  4. Vanmay is married to Yamini and they have two daughters and one son.

  5. Uday has one son and one daughter.

  6. Tina and Smita are the daughters of Yamini.

  7. Rahul is the cousin of Kamal and brother of Pamila.

  8. Murali is unmarried.

Hence, Yamini is "Aunt" of Rahul.

Question 3

Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the one that is different.

  1. AOption (a)

    FIMRX

  2. BOption (b)

    NQUZF

  3. COption (c)

    LOSXD

  4. DOption (d)

    ZCGLS

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

ZCGLS

Why this answer is correct

Table show alphabet serial number –

The pattern followed is,

 

All follow the same pattern, except 'ZCGLS’.

Hence, “ZCGLS” is the odd one.

Question 4

The sequence of folding a piece of paper (figure i) and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut (figure ii) is shown in the following figures. Select the option that would most closely resemble the unfolded form of figure (ii).

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

The image obtained when the paper is unfolded is,

Hence, "option 1" is the correct answer.

Question 5

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.

PATELS : BQFUTM : :  NECTAR : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    FOVDBS

  2. BOption (b)

    FODUSZ

  3. COption (c)

    FOUDSB

  4. DOption (d)

    OEUDQB

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

FOUDSB

Why this answer is correct

The logic here is,

PATELS : BQFUTM

Similarly,

NECTAR : ?

Hence, "FOUDSB" is the correct answer.

Question 6

In a certain code language, MONEY is written as PRQHB. In the same code language, CREDIT will be written as:

  1. AOption (a)

    FUHGLW

  2. BOption (b)

    FUGHLW

  3. COption (c)

    FUHGWL

  4. DOption (d)

    FHGULW

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

FUHGLW

Why this answer is correct

The table is alphabets place value:

The pattern followed here is:

MONEY is written as PRQHB

Similarly,

'CREDIT' = ?

Hence, 'CREDIT' is coded as "FUHGLW".

Question 7

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements :

No pink is yellow.

No yellow is white.

All reds are yellows.

Conclusions :

I. No red is pink.

II. No red is white.

III. No white is yellow.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only conclusions II and III follow

  2. BOption (b)

    Only conclusions I and III follows.

  3. COption (c)

    Only conclusions I and II follow

  4. DOption (d)

    All the conclusions follow

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

All the conclusions follow

Why this answer is correct

Statements:

No pink is yellow.

No yellow is white.

All reds are yellows.

The least possible diagram for the given statements is as follows

Conclusions:

I. No red is pink → True (Because no pink is yellow and all red is yellow)

II. No red is white → True (Because no white is yellow and all red is yellow)

III. No white is yellow → True (Because no yellow is white)

Hence, “All the conclusions follow".

Question 8

Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the given words in a logical and meaningful order.

  1. Starfish
  2. Blue Whale
  3. Shark
  4. Giant Tortoise
  5. Penguin
  1. AOption (a)

    1, 5, 3, 2, 4

  2. BOption (b)

    4, 5, 1, 3, 2

  3. COption (c)

    1, 5, 4, 3, 2

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 5, 4, 2, 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1, 5, 4, 3, 2

Why this answer is correct

The logical and meaningful order of the given words is as follows:

LOGIC: The organisms have been arranged according to their size

  1. Starfish
  2. Penguin
  3. Giant Tortoise
  4. Shark
  5. Blue Whale

Hence, "1, 5, 4, 3, 2" is the correct answer.

Question 9

Which two numbers and which two signs should be interchanged to balance the following equation?

24 ÷ 16 - 96 + 48 × 12 = 195

  1. AOption (a)

    24 and 48, × and ÷

  2. BOption (b)

    24 and 16, - and ÷

  3. COption (c)

    12 and 16, × and ÷

  4. DOption (d)

    12 and 48, × and +

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

12 and 16, × and ÷

Why this answer is correct

According to the BODMAS rule:

Option 1 : 24 and 48, × and ÷

Given:

24 ÷ 16 - 96 + 48 × 12 = 195

After interchange the numbers and signs;

48 × 16 - 96 + 24 ÷ 12 = 195

By BODMAS rule

48 × 16 - 96 + 2 = 195

768 - 96 + 2 = 195

770 – 96 = 195

674 = 195 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 2 : 24 and 16, - and ÷

Given: 

24 ÷ 16 - 96 + 48 × 12 = 195

After interchange the numbers and signs;

16 - 24 ÷ 96 + 48 × 12 = 195

By BODMAS rule

16 – 0.25 + 48 × 12 = 195

16 – 0.25 + 576 = 195

592 – 0.25 = 195

591.75 = 195 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 3: 12 and 16, × and ÷

Given:

24 ÷ 16 - 96 + 48 × 12 = 195

After interchange the numbers and signs;

24 × 12 - 96 + 48 ÷ 16 = 195

By BODMAS rule

24 × 12 - 96 + 3 = 195

288 – 96 + 3 = 195

291 – 96 = 195

195 = 195 (LHS = RHS)

Option 4: 12 and 48, × and +

Given:

24 ÷ 16 - 96 + 48 × 12 = 195

After interchange the numbers and signs;

24 ÷ 16 - 96 × 12 + 48 = 195

By BODMAS rule

1.5 – 96 × 12 + 48 = 195

1.5 – 1152 + 48 = 195

49.5 – 1152 = 195

  • 1102.5 = 195 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, the answer is “12 and 16, × and ÷”.

Question 10

Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at 'PQ' as shown.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

The correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is held at the right side is:

Detailed Explanation:

  • The line PQ is the mirror
  • The given word “% O V e R t H R o W &" ends with ‘&’. So the mirror image will start with “

" → Option 2 is eliminated.

  • The mirror image of O is incorrect → Option 3 is eliminated.
  • The mirror image of e is incorrect  → Option 4 is eliminated.

 

Hence, option (1) is the correct answer.

Question 11

Which two digits should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?

384 ÷ 16 - 72 + 9 × 10 = 2

  1. AOption (a)

    6 and 9

  2. BOption (b)

    4 and 8

  3. COption (c)

    3 and 7

  4. DOption (d)

    7 and 9

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

7 and 9

Why this answer is correct

According to the BODMAS rule:

Option 1 : 6 and 9

Given:

384 ÷ 16 - 72 + 9 × 10 = 2

After interchanging the digits;

384 ÷ 19 - 72 + 6 × 10 = 2

By BODMAS rule

20.21 - 72 + 6 × 10 = 2

20.21 - 72 + 60 = 2

80.21 – 72 = 2

8.21 = 2 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 2 : 4 and 8

Given:

384 ÷ 16 - 72 + 9 × 10 = 2

After interchanging the digits;

348 ÷ 16 - 72 + 9 × 10 = 2

By BODMAS rule

21.75 - 72 + 9 × 10 = 2

21.75 - 72 + 90 = 2

111.75 - 72 = 2

39.75 = 2 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 3: 3 and 7

Given:

384 ÷ 16 - 72 + 9 × 10 = 2

After interchanging the digits;

784 ÷ 16 - 32 + 9 × 10 = 2

By BODMAS rule

49 - 32 + 9 × 10 = 2

49 - 32 + 90 = 2

139 - 32 = 2

107 = 2 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 4: 7 and 9

Given:

384 ÷ 16 - 72 + 9 × 10 = 2

After interchanging the digits;

384 ÷ 16 - 92 + 7 × 10 = 2

By BODMAS rule

24 - 92 + 7 × 10 = 2

24 – 92 + 70 = 2

94 – 92 = 2

2 = 2 (LHS = RHS)

Hence, the correct answer is “7 and 9”.

Question 12

A side of a square-shaped park is 12 m. If a square-shaped garden with a side of 24 m is developed around the park, what will be the total area of the park including the garden?

  1. AOption (a)

    324 m2

  2. BOption (b)

    576 m2

  3. COption (c)

    288 m2

  4. DOption (d)

    144 m2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

576 m2

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A side of a square-shaped park is 12 m.

  • If a square-shaped garden with a side of 24 m is developed around the park, then the garden with the park will look like the picture below:

Formula:

Area of square = Side × Side

Calculation:

=> Total area of the park including the garden = Area of the outer square = 24 × 24

=> Area of square = 576 m2

Hence, the total area of the park including the garden is 576 m2.

Question 13

Study the given matrix carefully and select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in it.

713174
925104
1130?
  1. AOption (a)

    335

  2. BOption (b)

    129

  3. COption (c)

    431

  4. DOption (d)

    100

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

431

Why this answer is correct

Given:

713174
925104
1130?

Here the pattern followed in each row is:

(1st number)3 – (2nd number)2 = 3rd number

Row 1: (1st number)3 – (2nd number)2 = 3rd number

73 - 132 = 343 - 169 = 174

Row 2: (1st number)3 – (2nd number)2 = 3rd number

93 - 252 = 729 - 625 = 104

Similarly

Row 3: (1st number)3 – (2nd number)2 = 3rd number

113 - 302 = 1331 - 900 = 431

Hence, “431” is correct answer.

Question 14

Four different positions of the same dice are shown, the six faces of which are numbered from 1 to 6. Select the number that will be on the face opposite to the one having the number '1'.

  1. AOption (a)

    3

  2. BOption (b)

    4

  3. COption (c)

    2

  4. DOption (d)

    6

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

3

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Logic: If two dice have 2 faces in common then the third face of dice 1 is opposite to the third face of dice 2.

In the third dice and fourth dice.

Numbers 4 and 2 are common.

Hence, the number "3" will be on the face opposite to the one having the number '1'.

Question 15

Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series will complete the series.

_ L H _ _ U _ H _ _ U _ H _ N U _ _ E N

  1. AOption (a)

    E, U, N, L, N, E, L, E, H, L

  2. BOption (b)

    U, E, L, E, N, N, L, H, N, E

  3. COption (c)

    U, E, N, L, E, N, L, E, L, H

  4. DOption (d)

    U, E, N, L, E, L, H, L, E, H

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

U, E, N, L, E, N, L, E, L, H

Why this answer is correct

Given: _ L H _ _ U _ H _ _ U _ H _ N U _ _ E N

Let's check each option:

1)  E, U, N, L, N, E, L, E, H, L → E L H U N  - U L H N E - U L H E N - U H L E N

2)  U, E, L, E, N, N, L, H, N, E → U L H E L - U E H N N - U L H H N - U N E E N

3)  U, E, N, L, E, N, L, E, L, H → U L H E N - U L H E N - U L H E N - U L H E N

4)  U, E, N, L, E, L, H, L, E, H → U L H E N - U L H E L - U H H L N - U E H E N

So, In option 3 "U L H E N" is repeating itself.

Hence, ‘U, E, N, L, E, N, L, E, L, H’ is the correct answer.

Question 16

In a certain code language, 'her father is okay' is coded as 6583, 'my father is well' is coded as 5137 and 'her arm is injured' is coded as 2839. How will 'okay' be coded in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    8

  2. BOption (b)

    3

  3. COption (c)

    5

  4. DOption (d)

    6

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

6

Why this answer is correct

According to the given information,

WordCode
Her8
is3
father5
okay6

 

‘okay’ is coded as "6".

Hence, '6’ is the correct answer.

Question 17

Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

16, 33, 100, 401, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    1235

  2. BOption (b)

    804

  3. COption (c)

    1588

  4. DOption (d)

    2006

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

2006

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is:

<br>

Hence, '2006' is the correct answer.

Question 18

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed)

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

Given figure:

Important Points

  • The image must not be rotated.

Hence, option (3) is the correct answer.

Question 19

In the following Venn diagram, the hexagon stands for 'police officers', the pentagon stands for 'graduates', the circle stands for 'females', and the square stands for 'Indians'. The given numbers represent the number of persons in that particular category.

How many Indian police officers are graduates but NOT females?

  1. AOption (a)

    19

  2. BOption (b)

    11

  3. COption (c)

    8

  4. DOption (d)

    13

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

11

Why this answer is correct

  • The shaded part represents Indian police officers who are graduates but NOT females.

 

  • The number representing Indian police officers who are graduates but NOT females = 11

Hence, ‘11’ is the correct answer.

Question 20

In a certain code language, 'RAKHI' is coded as 36 - 2 - 22 - 16 - 18 and 'SHALU' is coded as 38 - 16 - 2 - 24 - 42. How will 'MANJU' be coded in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    13 - 2 - 28 - 10 - 24

  2. BOption (b)

    26 - 2 - 28 - 20 - 42

  3. COption (c)

    13 - 2 - 14 - 10 - 24

  4. DOption (d)

    26 - 1 - 14 - 20 - 42

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

26 - 2 - 28 - 20 - 42

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is:

Code = positional value × 2

  • 'RAKHI' is coded as 36 - 2 - 22 - 16 - 18

And,

'SHALU' is coded as 38 - 16 - 2 - 24 - 42

Similarly,

MANJU = ?

Hence, 'MANJU' is coded as "26 - 2 - 28 - 20 - 42".

Question 21

Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number.

23 : 441 : : 28 : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    692

  2. BOption (b)

    676

  3. COption (c)

    494

  4. DOption (d)

    528

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

676

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is,

  • (1st number - 2)2 = 2nd number

Now,

  • 23 : 441

=> (23 - 2)2 = 212 = 441 = 2nd number

Similarly,

  • 28 : ?

**=> **(28 - 2)2 = 262 = 676 = 2nd number

Hence, "676" is the correct answer.

Question 22

Two orientations of the same box as shown. How will this box look when unfolded?

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

Given:

→ Here we can see that the faces with the digits 7, 6, and 4 are adjacent to each other.

 - 7 and 4 are opposite 2.  - 7 and 6 are opposite 3.  - 7, 6, and 4 are adjacent 4.  - 6 and 4 are opposite

Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

Question 23

Five persons are sitting in a row facing the north. One of the two persons at the extreme ends is an introvert and the other one is an extrovert. A thin person is sitting to the immediate right of an intelligent person. A weak person is sitting to the immediate left of the extrovert person. The intelligent person is sitting exactly between the introvert and the thin persons. Which of the following persons is sitting at the centre?

  1. AOption (a)

    Weak

  2. BOption (b)

    Extrovert

  3. COption (c)

    Intelligent

  4. DOption (d)

    Thin

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Thin

Why this answer is correct

Given:

  • Five persons are sitting in a row facing the north
  1. One of the two persons at the extreme ends is an introvert and the other one is an extrovert.

  2. A weak person is sitting to the immediate left of the extrovert person.

  3. The intelligent person is sitting exactly between the introvert and the thin persons.

  4. A thin person is sitting to the immediate right of an intelligent person.

"Thin" person is sitting at the centre.

 

Hence, the correct answer is "Thin".

Question 24

Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

The figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series is shown below:

  1. Figure 1 to 2 - flag rotates 45 degrees in the anti-clockwise direction.
  2. Figure 2 to 3 - flag rotates 90 degrees in the anti-clockwise direction.
  3. Figure 3 to 4 - flag rotates 135 degrees in the anti-clockwise direction.
  4. Figure 4 to 5 -  flag rotates 180 degrees in the anti-clockwise direction.

Hence, ‘option 1’ is the correct answer.

Question 25

Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

10, 14, 31, 35, 73, 77, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    154

  2. BOption (b)

    157

  3. COption (c)

    81

  4. DOption (d)

    90

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

157

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is:

 

Hence, '157' is the correct answer.

General Awareness (25 questions)

Question 26

In February 2021, the Finance Minister of India announced the setting up of a Dispute Resolution Committee (DRC) for taxpayers with taxable income up to _______ and disputed income up to  _________ .

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 5 lakh, Rs. 1 lakh

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 10 lakh, Rs. 2 lakh

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 20 lakh, Rs. 5 lakh

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 50 lakh, Rs. 10 lakh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Rs. 50 lakh, Rs. 10 lakh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Rs. 50 lakh, Rs. 10 lakh.

Key Points

  • Dispute Resolution Committee to be set up for taxpayers with taxable income up to Rs. 50 lakh and disputed income up to Rs. 10 lakh.
  • In the Union Budget 2021-22, the Union Finance Minister-Nirmala Sitharaman reduced the time limit for the reopening of income tax assessment cases from six years to three years.
  • The time limit will be 10 years for serious tax fraud cases where concealment of income is Rs 50 lakh or more with the approval of the Principal Chief Commissioner.
  • The tax department will notify rules to remove hardships of double taxation faced by non-resident Indians (NRIs).
  • She also announced that senior citizens above 75 years of age having an only pension and interest income would not be required to file income tax returns.
  • Banks paying the interest would deduct the tax on their behalf.
  • 1.10 lakh taxpayers have availed of the Direct Tax Vivad Se Vishwas scheme to resolve tax disputes.

Question 27

NIP related to India's budget, which was announced in December 2019 by the Union Finance Minister of India stands for:

  1. AOption (a)

    National Indigenous Project

  2. BOption (b)

    Negotiable Instrument Protocol

  3. COption (c)

    Neutral Interventions on Payments

  4. DOption (d)

    National Infrastructure Pipeline

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

National Infrastructure Pipeline

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ​National Infrastructure Pipeline.

Key Points

  • NIP stands for National Infrastructure Pipeline.
  • The National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) was announced in December 2019 by Finance Minister Nirmala Seetharaman.
  • The NIP was launched with 6835 projects; and as Union Budget 2021-22, the project pipeline has now expanded to 7,400 projects.
  • Around 217 projects worth Rs. 1.10 lakh crores under some key infrastructure Ministries have been completed.
  • In the Union Budget 2021-22, the government propose to take the following steps
  1. by creating the institutional structures;
  2. by a big thrust on monetizing assets,
  3. by enhancing the share of capital expenditure in central and state budgets.

Question 28

The process of wastewater treatment is commonly called ______ treatment.

  1. AOption (a)

    microbe

  2. BOption (b)

    sewage

  3. COption (c)

    pollutant

  4. DOption (d)

    bacteria

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

sewage

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is sewage.

Key Points

  • The process of wastewater treatment is commonly called sewage treatment.
  • Cleaning of water is a process of removing pollutants before it enters a water body or is reused.
  • There are mainly three types of sewage treatment stages primary, secondary or biological, and tertiary sewage treatments.

Additional Information

  • Primary treatment (Physical process):
  • It is the process of physically removing small and large particles from sewage.
  • The floating debris is first removed by filtration through wire mesh screens in a sequential filtration.
  • Secondary or biological sewage treatment:
  • It is the removal of biodegradable organic matter from sewage or similar types of wastewater.
  • This is usually done with the help of microorganisms, hence it is called biological treatment.
  • Tertiary treatment (Chemical process):
  • Biological treatment precedes chemical treatment in the treatment process.
  • Chemical treatment is now considered as a tertiary treatment that can be more broadly defined as “treatment of wastewater by a process involving chemical treatment”.

Question 29

Musi river is a tributary of which of the following rivers?

  1. AOption (a)

    Cauvery

  2. BOption (b)

    Godavari

  3. COption (c)

    Krishna

  4. DOption (d)

    Mahanadi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Krishna

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Krishna.

Key Points

  • Musi River is a tributary of the Krishna River in the Deccan Plateau flowing through Telangana.
  • Musi River is also known as Musinuru or moosa River or Muchukunda.
  • Hyderabad is situated on the banks of the Musi river.
  • Osman Sagar and Himayat Sagar are dams built on it that used to act as a source of water for Hyderabad.

Additional Information

  • The following table shows the different aspects of rivers of east flowing in a tabular manner:
RiversSourceLengthTributaries
MahanadiNorth foothills of Dandakamaya857 km- Seonath - Hasdeo - Ib - Mand - Tel - Ong - Jonk
GodavariTriambak plateau of North Sahyadri near Nashik1465 (longest river of Peninsular India)- Penganga - Wardha - Wainganga - Indrāvati - Sabari - Manjira
KrishnaNorth of Mahabaleshwar in the Western Ghat1400 km- Bhīma - Tungabhadra - Ghat Prabha - Malaprabha - Musi - Koyna
CauveryRise in Brahmgiri range in western Ghat800 km- Harangi - Hemavati - Shimsha - Arkavati - Kabini - Bhavani - Amravati

Question 30

With reference to the Constituent Assembly, which of the following statements is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    The Constituent Assembly adopted the National Anthem in January 1950.

  2. BOption (b)

    The Constituent Assembly adopted the National song in January 1948.

  3. COption (c)

    The Constituent Assembly adopted the National Flag in July 1949.

  4. DOption (d)

    The Constituent Assembly ratified India's membership of the Commonwealth in May 1947.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The Constituent Assembly adopted the National Anthem in January 1950.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The Constituent Assembly adopted the National Anthem in January 1950.

Key Points 

  • The National Flag of the Indian Union was adopted on 22 July 1947.
  • The National Anthem of the Indian Union was adopted on 24 January 1950.
  • The Constitution was passed and adopted by the assembly on 26 November 1949.
  • On 24 Jan1950, The Indian Constituent Assembly adopted "Vande Mataram " as a national song.
  • The Constituent Assembly ratified India's membership of the Commonwealth in May 1949.
  • Hence, Statement one is correct.

Additional Information

  • The Constituent Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan.
  • The elections to the Constituent Assembly were held in July-August 1946.
  • The Constituent Assembly held its first meeting on December 9, 1946.
  • Dr Sachchidanand Sinha, the oldest member, was elected as the temporary President of the Assembly, following the French practice.
  • On December 13, 1946, Jawahar Lal Nehru moved the historic Objectives Resolution in the Assembly that laid down the fundamentals and philosophy of the constitutional structure.

Question 31

The Atharvaveda is a collection of ________ khandas.

  1. AOption (a)

    20

  2. BOption (b)

    10

  3. COption (c)

    15

  4. DOption (d)

    5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

20

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 20.

Key Points

  • The Atharvaveda is a collection of 20 khandas.
  • The Atharva Veda is the "knowledge storehouse of atharvaṇas, the procedures for everyday life".
  • The text is the fourth Veda but has been a late addition to the Vedic scriptures of Hinduism.
  • It is a collection of 730 hymns with about 6,000 mantras, divided into 20 books.
  • About a sixth of the Atharvaveda texts adapts verses from the Rigveda, and except for Books 15 and 16, the text is in poem form deploying a diversity of Vedic matters.
  • Two different recensions of the text – the Paippalada and the Śaunakiya – have survived into modern times.

Additional Information

Yajurveda- The Yajur Veda (book of sacrificial prayers) is a ritual Veda. - The two texts of Yajur Veda are Shukla (white or bright) and Krishna (black or dark). - Shukla Yajurveda has arranged and clear verses. - Krishna Yajurveda has an un-arranged, unclear, motley collection of verses.
Rig Veda- The oldest Veda is the Rigveda (collection of hymns) and one of the oldest religious texts in the world. - This is also known as 'the first testament of mankind'. - It has 1028 hymns called ‘Suktas’ and is a collection of 10 books called ‘Mandalas.’
Sama Veda- Sama Veda derives its roots from 'saman' which means melodies. It is a collection of melodies. - The Sama Veda (book of chants) had 1549 hymns. - All hymns (excluding 75) were taken from the Rig Veda. - The hymns of the Sama Veda were recited by Udgatri at the Soma sacrifice. - This Veda is important for Indian music. - It contains Dhrupad Raga.

Question 32

As per the Hindu Succession Act 1956, who amongst the following has the first right over the property of a Hindu woman who dies intestate?

  1. AOption (a)

    The legal heirs of her husband

  2. BOption (b)

    Her husband

  3. COption (c)

    The legal heirs of her father

  4. DOption (d)

    Her parents

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Her husband

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Her husband.

Key Points

  • As per the Hindu Succession Act 1956, Her husband has the first right over the property of a Hindu woman who dies intestate.
  • The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005 (39 of 2005) was enacted to remove gender discriminatory provisions in the Hindu Succession Act, 1956.
  • Under the amendment, the daughter of a coparcener shall by birth become a coparcener in her own right in the same manner as the son.
  • The daughter shall now have the same rights in the coparcenary property (ancestral property of the Hindu undivided family) as a son.
  • This amendment also repeals Section 23 of the Hindu Succession Act which disentitled a female heir to ask for partition in respect of a dwelling house, wholly occupied by a joint family, until the male heirs choose to divide their respective shares.
  • Section 24 of the Act which denied the rights of a widow to inherit her husband's property upon her re-marriage has been repealed.
  • This Act has brought about a central amendment that is applicable to all state governments.

Question 33

The 'Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay Sanrakshan Abhiyan' (PM-AASHA) has________ components to rationalise the government agricultural produce price and policy for efficiency, savings by way of reduction of wastages and leakages in storage and make fiscal gains.

  1. AOption (a)

    two

  2. BOption (b)

    five

  3. COption (c)

    three

  4. DOption (d)

    eight

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

three

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is three.

Key Points

  • The 'Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay Sanrakshan Abhiyan' (PM-AASHA) has three components to rationalise the government agricultural produce price and policy for efficiency, savings by way of reduction of wastages and leakages in storage and making fiscal gains.
  • It is a scheme that guarantees a Minimum support price (MSP) to the farmers.
  • The scheme is an effort of the government’s commitment to ensure remunerative prices to farmers for their produce as announced in the Union Budget for 2018.

Additional Information

  • The scheme comprises three sub-schemes:
  • Price Support Scheme (PSS)
  • ​Under this, physical procurement of pulses, oilseeds, and Copra is to be done by Central Nodal Agencies in collaboration with state governments.
  • Price Deficiency Payment Scheme (PDPS)
  • ​This is based on the recommendations of NITI Aayog which suggested “Price Deficiency Payment” for implementation of MSP in crops where procurement is poor.
  • Direct payment of the difference between the MSP and the selling price will be made to pre-registered farmers selling their produce in the notified market yard and thus it does not involve any physical procurement.
  • The pilot of the Private Procurement & Stockist Scheme (PPPS)
  • Under this scheme, participation of the private sector in procurement operations will be piloted.
  • States have the option to roll out the scheme on a pilot basis in selected districts/APMCs involving private stockists.

Question 34

What is the nut of an oak tree called?

  1. AOption (a)

    Chestnut

  2. BOption (b)

    Kola nut

  3. COption (c)

    Macadamia

  4. DOption (d)

    Acorn

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Acorn

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Acorn.

Key Points

  • Acorn is the nut of an oak tree.
  • Acorns are usually seated in or surrounded by a woody cupule.
  • They mature within one to two seasons, and their appearance varies depending on the species of oak.​

Additional Information

  • The chestnuts are the deciduous trees and shrubs in the genus Castanea.
  • The kola nut is the fruit of the kola tree (Cola acuminata and Cola nitida), indigenous to West Africa.
  • Macadamia is a genus of four species of trees in the flowering plant family Proteaceae.

Question 35

What is the percentage of rural child population to the total child population of the country in India as per Provisional population Totals of Census 2011?

  1. AOption (a)

    55.23%

  2. BOption (b)

    74.05%

  3. COption (c)

    79.03%

  4. DOption (d)

    62.45%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

74.05%

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 74.05%.

Key Points

  • 74.05% of rural child population to the total child population of the country in India as per Provisional population Totals of Census 2011.
  • As per the Provisional Population Totals of Census 2011, the total population of India was 1210.2 million.
  • Of this, the rural population stands at 833.1 million and the urban population at 377.1 million.
  • According to Census 2001, over 70% lived in rural areas.
  • By the 2001 census, 35 urban agglomerations in India with a population of 1 million or more.

Additional Information

  • Population data is collected through a Census operation held every 10 years in our country.
  • The first population Census in India was conducted in 1872
  • 1872 - The first census was conducted in India non-synchronously in different parts.
  • The first complete Census was conducted only in 1881.
  • Theme of Census 2021- Janganana se Jan Kalyan.
  • The theme of Census 2011 - Our Census, Our future.

Question 36

Which of the following was a fishing colony that was used as a port for trading with the Romans and the Greco-Romans in ancient India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Badami

  2. BOption (b)

    Arikamedu

  3. COption (c)

    Lothal

  4. DOption (d)

    Tulapurushandana

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Arikamedu

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Arikamedu.

Key Points

  • Arikamedu was an ancient Roman trade centre and coastal settlement in Pondicherry.
  • Arikamedu, an archaeological site in Kakkayanthope, Puducherry was formerly a major Chola port dedicated to bead making and trading with Roman traders and was believed to be the only town to have ties with Rome.
  • The ancient city was first excavated by French archaeologists residing at Pondicherry, Jouveau Dubreuil, and Dr A. Aiyappan, the Superintendent of the Government Museum in Madras, four years before Wheeler came there.

Additional Information

  • Lothal is a port city in Gujarat, located on the banks of the Bhogava River, a right tributary of the Sabarmati River.
  • Pulakeshin ruled from the Chalukyan capital of Badami which was the main power in the south of the Narmada river.

Question 37

The Election Commission of India (ECI) is the watchdog of free and fair elections in the country and _____ of the constitution of India provides for its establishment.

  1. AOption (a)

    Article 356

  2. BOption (b)

    Article 324

  3. COption (c)

    Article 352

  4. DOption (d)

    Article 101

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Article 324

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ​Article 324.

Key Points

  • Article 324 deals with provisions with regard to the election commission of India.
  • The Election Commission of India is an autonomous constitutional body responsible for administering Union and State election processes in India.
  • Part XV of the constitution of India deals with elections and establishes a commission for these matters.
  • Article 324 to 329 of the constitution of India deals with powers, function, tenure, eligibility, etc of the commission and the member.

Additional Information

  • State Emergency is provided in Article 356 and is popularly known as Presidents Rule.
  • ​National Emergency is provided in Article 352 and the President of India can declare a national emergency.
  • Article 101 deals with the Vacation of Seats in the parliament.

Question 38

After Mahatma Gandhi's release from prison in January 1931, Congress leaders met at ______ to plan the future course of action.

  1. AOption (a)

    Surat

  2. BOption (b)

    Allahabad

  3. COption (c)

    Calcutta

  4. DOption (d)

    Lahore

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Allahabad

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Allahabad.

Key Points

  • After Mahatma Gandhi's release from prison in January 1931, Congress leaders met at Allahabad to plan the future course of action.
  • Gandhi Ji began his Dandi March from his Asharam in Sabarmati in order to break the salt law, by manufacturing their own salt in Dandi.
  • Salt March also known as Dandi March was initiated by Mahatma Gandhi.
  • It was started on 12 March 1930 and rallied for 24 days at Sabarmati near Ahmedabad.
  • Gandhiji and more than thousands of people got arrested while making their own salt as a protest against British rule and British taxation of salt production to make it legal and tax-free.
  • It ultimately turned into a victory when the British unleashed the protesters from prison and granted the people to make their own salt.

Question 39

Justice _______ was appointed Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India with effect from 24th April 2021.

  1. AOption (a)

    Ajjikuttira Somaiah Bopanna

  2. BOption (b)

    Kuttiyil Mathew Joseph

  3. COption (c)

    Nuthalapati Venkata Ramana

  4. DOption (d)

    Ramayyagari Subhash Reddy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Nuthalapati Venkata Ramana

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Nuthalapati Venkata Ramana.

Key Points

  • Justice Nuthalapati Venkata Ramana was appointed Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India with effect from 24th April 2021.
  • The Chief Justice of India is appointed by the president of India after consultation with the judges of the Supreme Court and high courts.
  • Justice Nuthalapati Venkata Ramana has been appointed as the 48th Chief Justice of India (CJI).
  • He is also the former Chief Justice of Delhi High Court and acting Chief Justice of Andhra Pradesh High Court.

Important Points

  • The current and 50th Chief Justice is Justice Dhananjaya Y. Chandrachud, who entered office on 9 November 2022.

Additional Information

  • At present, the Supreme Court consists of 34 judges (one chief justice and thirty-three other judges).
  • The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President.
  • The President of India is the head of the Indian State.
  • He is a part of the Union Executive (Article 52-78) along with the Vice-President, Prime Minister, Council of Ministers, and Attorney-General of India.

Question 40

The chemical formula of arsenic is:

  1. AOption (a)

    Ar

  2. BOption (b)

    As

  3. COption (c)

    Ac

  4. DOption (d)

    An

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

As

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is As. 

Key Points

  • The chemical formula of arsenic is As.
  • Arsenic:
  • Atomic number: 33
  • Atomic mass: 74.93 u
  • Arsenic is an element that causes arsenicosis.
  • It is found in water that has flowed through arsenic-rich rocks.
  • Arsenic and fluoride have been recognized by the World Health Organization (WHO) as the most serious inorganic contaminants in drinking water on a worldwide basis.

Additional Information

  • There are 7  metalloids in the modern periodic table.
  • The seven commonly recognized metalloids are:-
  • Boron (B), Silicon (Si), germanium (Ge), arsenic (As), antimony (Sb), tellurium (Te), and Polonium*.*
  • Metalloids Silicon and Germanium are widely used in the semiconductor industry.

Question 41

Rajeev Ram is a professional tennis player from ________

  1. AOption (a)

    Slovakia

  2. BOption (b)

    Australia

  3. COption (c)

    United Kingdom

  4. DOption (d)

    United States of America

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

United States of America

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the United States of America.

Key Points

  • Rajeev Ram is a professional tennis player from the United States of America.
  • Ram is a four-time major champion, having won the :
  • 2020 Australian Open and
  • 2021 US Open in men's doubles with Joe Salisbury,
  • Australian Open mixed doubles titles in 2019 and 2021 alongside Barbora Krejčíková.

Question 42

Which of the following statements is correct with respect to chordates?

  1. AOption (a)

    Double ventral solid nerve cord

  2. BOption (b)

    Heart is dorsal or laterally placed or absent

  3. COption (c)

    A post anal tail is absent

  4. DOption (d)

    Notochord is present

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Notochord is present

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Notochord is present.

Key Points 

  • Characteristics of Chordates Are:
  • Presence of Notochord: 
  • In the embryonic stage of chordate animals, there is a solid stick-like structure (Just below the central nervous system and above the alimentary canal), this is called the notochord.
  • Presence of dorsal tubular nerve cord: 
  • In chordates, the nervous system is present at the dorsal surface of the body. The nerve cord is the hollow, tubular structure present just below the body wall and above the notochord.
  • Presence of pharyngeal gill clefts: 
  • In every chordate, there is a presence of a pair of lateral gill clefts in the wall of the pharynx for respiration.
  • These may be present in any stage of its life span like in higher chordates gill clefts are present only in the embryonic stage not in adults.
  • Post anal tail:
  • It is the post-anal part of the body.
  • The tail is reduced or absent in many adult chordates.

Fig: Chordata characteristics

Question 43

For which of the following teams is the former Indian football captain Sunil Chhetri played in 2021?

  1. AOption (a)

    Chennaiyin FC

  2. BOption (b)

    NorthEast United FC

  3. COption (c)

    FC Goa

  4. DOption (d)

    Bengaluru FC

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Bengaluru FC

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bengaluru FC.

Key Points

  • The former Indian football captain Sunil Chhetri played for Bengaluru FC in 2021.
  • Sunil Chhetri has become the highest goalscorer in Indian football, known as the 'Goal Machine'.
  • With 47 goals in six editions, the poster boy of Indian football is the top goal-scoring Indian in the Indian Super League.

Additional Information

  • Important Indian footballer:
  • Baichung Bhutia is a retired Indian footballer of the Sikkim-Bhutia dynasty.
  • PK Banerjee was declared India's greatest footballer in the 20th century by FIFA.
  • Former Indian striker IM Vijayan is a footballer who made his India debut in the 90s.

Question 44

Makaravilakku festival is celebrated at the sacred grove of Lord Ayyappa in:

  1. AOption (a)

    Telangana

  2. BOption (b)

    Kerala

  3. COption (c)

    Andhra Pradesh

  4. DOption (d)

    Karnataka

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Kerala

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

  • Makaravilakku is an annual festival held on Makar Sankranti in the Kerala state.

Makaravilakku is an annual festival held on Makara Sankranti at the Sabarimala Ayyappa temple in Kerala.

  • Makara Jyothi is a star that appears in the sky on Makara Samkramam, when the Sun moves from dhanu Rasi (Sagittarius) to Makaram Rasi (Capricorn) on the first day of the Malayalam month of Makaram, January 14 (Makara Sankranti) this year.
  • Onam is the most important and popular festival in Kerala. Celebrated with much pomp and fervor, Onam is a harvest festival.

Additional Information 

  • Important festivals:
StateFestival
HaryanaTeej
PunjabBaisakhi
Andhra PradeshUgadi
Arunachal PradeshPakke Paga Hornbill
KarnatakaKittur
AssamMe-Dam-Me-Phi
New DelhiInternational Mango Festival
LadakhLosar
MaharashtraElephanta Festival
Tamil NaduAadiperukku
TelanganaBathukamma
TripuraGaria Puja
MizoramChapchar Kut
ManipurSangai and Shirui Lily

Question 45

Which of the following compounds in petroleum can cause corrosion to parts of internal combustion engines and refineries?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sodium

  2. BOption (b)

    Potassium

  3. COption (c)

    Calcium

  4. DOption (d)

    Sulphur

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Sulphur

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sulphur.

Key Points

  • Sulphur in petroleum can cause corrosion to parts of internal combustion engines and refineries.
  • So, H2S04 is used in the refining of petroleum to remove sulphur and other compounds.
  • Sulphuric acid treatment results in partial or complete removal of unsaturated hydrocarbons, sulphur, oxygen and nitrogen compounds.
  • Sulfur:
  • Symbol: S
  • Atomic number: 16
  • Atomic mass: 32 u

Question 46

Which of the following is the theme of International day for Monuments and Sites, 2021?

  1. AOption (a)

    Shared culture, Shared Heritage and Shared Responsibility

  2. BOption (b)

    Rural Landscapes

  3. COption (c)

    Heritage for Generations

  4. DOption (d)

    Complex pasts: Diverse Futures

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Complex pasts: Diverse Futures

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Complex pasts: Diverse Futures.

Key Points

  • World Heritage Day 
  • World Heritage Day is celebrated every year on 18 April.
  • Its aim is to preserve the human heritage and to recognize all the efforts of relevant organizations.
  • The International Council on Monuments and Sites (ICOMOS) 1982 announced 18 April World Heritage Day.
  • The aim of the day is to enhance awareness about the importance of cultural heritage, and monuments and conserving them.
  • Complex Pasts: Diverse Futures was the theme of International day for Monuments and Sites i.e World Heritage Day 2021.

Additional Information

  • Heritage and Climate is the theme for 2022.
  • Shared Cultures, Shared Heritage and Shared Responsibility were the themes for World Heritage Day 2020.
  • Rural Landscapes was the theme for World Heritage Day 2019

Question 47

Which of the following is the main cause of 'bad lands'?

  1. AOption (a)

    Scanty rainfall

  2. BOption (b)

    Soil erosion

  3. COption (c)

    Excessive forest cover

  4. DOption (d)

    Open defecation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Soil erosion

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Soil erosion.

Key Points

  • Badlands are a type of dry terrain where softer sedimentary rocks and clay-rich soils have been extensively eroded.
  • Badlands are arid regions where the hills are badly eroded under the action of water due to occasional rainstorms or the flow of river streams.
  • Gullies and ravines represent them.
  • Badland is rugged topography, usually of relatively low relief.
  • Badland is associated with the arid and semi-arid regions.

Additional Information

  • Types of Erosion are as follows
  • Rain Drop Erosion - Due to falling raindrops on the soil surface.
  • Sheet Erosion- Uniform removal of soil in thin layers from the surface.
  • Rill Erosion - Erosion takes place through numerous narrow streamlets.
  • Gully Erosion - Occurs due to runoff of surface water causing the removal of soil and forming gullies due to erosion.
  • Stram Bank Erosion- Nothing but away from banks of a stream or a river.

Question 48

What is the name of the compound having the formula CH3CH2OH?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ethanol

  2. BOption (b)

    Acetic acid

  3. COption (c)

    Chloroform

  4. DOption (d)

    Methane

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Ethanol

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ethanol.

Key Points

  • Ethanol, anhydrous ethyl alcohol has a chemical formula of C2H5OH or CH3CH2OH.
  • It can be produced from sugarcane, maize, wheat, etc which are having high starch content.
  • Ethanol can be mixed with the gasoline to form different blends.
  • As the ethanol molecule contains oxygen, it allows the engine to completely combust the fuel, resulting in fewer emissions and thereby reducing the occurrence of environmental pollution.

Additional Information

Chemical NameFormula
Acetic acidCH₃COOH
ChloroformCHCl₃
MethaneCH₄
Limestone- Calcium CarbonateCaCO3
Lime- Calcium OxideCaO
Marble- Calcium CarbonateCaCO3
Washing Soda- Sodium carbonateNa2CO3

Question 49

Who is the author of the book, 'Poverty and Un-British Rule in India'?

  1. AOption (a)

    Shashi Tharoor

  2. BOption (b)

    Jairam Ramesh

  3. COption (c)

    Annie Besant

  4. DOption (d)

    Dadabhai Naoroji

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Dadabhai Naoroji

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Dadabhai Naoroji.

Key Points

  • Dadabhai Naoroji wrote the book 'Poverty and Un British Rule in India'.
  • Dadabhai Naoroji was popularly known as the 'Grand Old Man of India'.
  • He is the first Indian to become a member of the British Parliament.
  • He helped found the London Indian Society and East India Association.
  • In 1885, Naoroji became a vice-president of the Bombay Presidency Association.
  • He was Congress president thrice, in 1886, 1893, and 1906.

Additional Information 

  • Major writings of Dada Bhai Naoroji were as follows:
  • Poverty in India
  • The manners and customs of the Parsees
  • Condition of India
  • Admission of educated natives into the ICS
  • The wants and means of India
  • An Era of Darkness is a book written by Shashi Tharoor.
  • The Light of Asia: The Poem that Defined The Buddha is a book written by Jairam Ramesh.
  • The Ancient Wisdom, Man Whence How and Whithera and Man and His Bodies (Dodo Press) are some books written by Annie Besant.

Question 50

Which of the following musical instruments did Dwaram Venkataswamy Naidu play?

  1. AOption (a)

    Violin

  2. BOption (b)

    Veena

  3. COption (c)

    Nadaswaram

  4. DOption (d)

    Mandolin

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Violin

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Violin.

Key Points 

  • Dwaram Venkataswamy Naidu used to play the Violin.
  • He was probably the first to show that the violin can be used to play Carnatic music as well as other traditional instruments like Veena.
  • He is not just another great musician and violinist of the 20th century, but perhaps the one primarily responsible for solo violin performances.
  • Naidu used to play the compositions of famous German musicians like Mendelssohn and Johann Sebastian Bach.

Additional Information

  • Indian Music Instruments and Players:
  • Mridangam: Palakkad Mani Iyer, T.R. Murthy, Guruvayoor Doraiswami, Karaikudi R.Mani, Umayalpuram Shivaraman, Velloor A. Ramabhadran, Mavelikara Krishnan Kutty Nair.
  • Sitar: Ravi Shankar, Mushtaq Ali Khan, Vilayat Khan, Uma Shankar Mishra, Nikhil Banerjee, Raiz Khan, Harashankar Bhattacharya, Budhaditya Mukherjee, Abdul Halim Jaffer Khan
  • Sarod : Amjad Ali Khan, Ali Akbar Khan, Rajiv Taranath
  • Violin : V.G. Jog, Lalgudi Jayaraman, T.N. Krishnan, Yehudi Mennuhin, M. S. Gopalakrishnan, Kunnukkudi Vaidyanathan, Kalyana Krishna Bhagavatar, L. Subramaniam, Chandayya, Kantha Devi, Gajannan Rao Joshi (Hindustani), Zubin Mehta (Western).
  • Santoor: Shiv Kumar Sharma, Tarun Bhattacharya, Bhajan Sopperi.
  • Flute: N.Ramani, Hariprasad Chaurasia, T.R. Mahalingam, Pannalal Ghosh, T. S. Shankaran, Sikkil Sisters
  • Mandolin: U. Srinivas, S. Balamurali Krishna.
  • Piano : Surojeet Chatterji, Kaikhosh Shapurji, Sorabjee.
  • Shehnai: Bismillah Khan, Bagheshwari Gamar, Bade Gulam Ali.
  • Tabla: Alla Rakha, Zakir Hussian, Shankar Ghosh, Abad Mistry, Rimba Shiva, Santha Prasad, Sheikh Dawood, Sharafat Ahmed Khan, Kishan Maharaj, Ahmed, Tirkuva, Pt. Samta Prasad.

Quantitative Aptitude (25 questions)

Question 51

A pole 23 m long reaches a window which is 35\sqrt5 m above the ground on one side of a street. Keeping its foot at the same point, the pole is turned to the other side of the street to reach a window 415\sqrt15 m high. What is the width (in m) of the street?

  1. AOption (a)

    39

  2. BOption (b)

    17

  3. COption (c)

    22

  4. DOption (d)

    35

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

39

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The length of the pole = 23 m

The first window is 3√5 m above the ground and the second window is 4√15 m above the ground.

Formula used:

In a right-angled triangle,

Base = √(Hypotenuse2 - Perpendicular2)

Calculation:

Here, the width of the street = BC

In ΔABO,

BO = √(AO2 - AB2)

= √(232 - 3√52)

= √(529 - 45)

= √484

= 22 m

In ΔOCD,

CO = √(DO2 - DC2)

= √(232 - 4√152)

= √(529 - 240)

= √289 = 17 m

Then, BC = BO + CO

= 22 + 17

= 39 m

∴ The width (in m) of the street is 39 m

Question 52

Study the given bar graph and answer the question that follows.

The bar graph shows the exports of cars of type A and B (in Rs. millions) from 2014 to 2018.

In which year were the exports of cars of type A Rs. 55 million less than the average exports (per year) of cars of type B over the five years?

  1. AOption (a)

    2015

  2. BOption (b)

    2016

  3. COption (c)

    2017

  4. DOption (d)

    2014

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

2014

Why this answer is correct

Given:

There are the exports of cars of type A and B (in Rs. millions) from 2014 to 2018 in the given bar graph.

Total number of years = 5

Concept used:

Average = The sum of the terms/Number of terms

Calculation:

The average exports (per year) of cars of type B (in Rs. millions) = (225 + 250 + 200 + 275 + 325)/5 = 1275/5 = 255 (in Rs. millions)

The exports of cars of type A in 2014 (in Rs. millions) = 200

Here, 255 - 55 = 200 (in Rs. millions)

Therefore, The exports of cars of type A in 2014 is Rs. 55 million less than the average exports (per year) of cars of type B over the five years

Question 53

What is the height (in cm) of an equilateral triangle whose each side is 8 cm?

  1. AOption (a)

    35\sqrt5

  2. BOption (b)

    42\sqrt2

  3. COption (c)

    43\sqrt3

  4. DOption (d)

    32\sqrt2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

43\sqrt3

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Each side of the equilateral triangle = 8 cm

Formula used:

The height of an equilateral triangle = (√3/2) × Side

Calculation:

The height of the equilateral triangle = (√3/2) × 8

= 4√3 cm

∴ The height (in cm) of an equilateral triangle whose each side is 8 cm is 4√3 cm

Question 54

O is the centre of a circle with diameter 20 cm. T is a point outside the circle and TA is a tangent to a circle. If OT is 26 cm, what is the length (in cm) of the tangent TA?

  1. AOption (a)

    18

  2. BOption (b)

    20

  3. COption (c)

    24

  4. DOption (d)

    26

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

24

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Diameter of the circle = 20 cm

OT = 26 cm

Concept used:

Radius = Diameter/2

The radius of a circle is always perpendicular to the tangent on the circle.

In a right-angled triangle, Base = √(Hypotenuse2 - Perpendicular2)

Calculation:

OT = 26 cm

Radius (OA) = 20/2 = 10 cm

OA is perpendicular to TA

So, ∠OAT = 90°

In ΔOAT, TA = √(262 - 102)

= √(676 - 100)

= √576

= 24 cm

∴ The length (in cm) of the tangent TA is 24 cm

Question 55

A vertical pole and a vertical tower are on the same level of ground in such a way that from the top of the pole, the angle of elevation of the top of the tower is 60º and the angle of depression of the bottom of the tower is 30º. If the height of the tower is 76 m, then find the height (in m) of the pole.

  1. AOption (a)

    193\sqrt3

  2. BOption (b)

    57

  3. COption (c)

    38

  4. DOption (d)

    19

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

19

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The angle of elevation of the top of the tower from the top of the pole = 60º

The angle of depression of the bottom of the tower from the top of the pole = 30º

Calculation:

Let, the height of the pole (AB) = CD = x m

So, the height of ED = (76 - x) m

So, In ΔACD, tan 30° = CD/AD

⇒ 1/√3 = x/AD

⇒ AD = √3x   .....(1)

In ΔAED, tan 60° = ED/AD

⇒ √3 = (76 - x)/√3x

⇒ 76 - x = 3x

⇒ 3x + x = 76

⇒ 4x = 76

⇒ x = 76/4 = 19

∴ The height (in m) of the pole is 19 m

Question 56

The given bar graph shows export of cars of type A and B(in Rs. millions) from 2014 to 2018. Study the graph and answer the question that follows.

 

Exports of Cars of Type A and B (in Rs. millions) from 2014 to 2018

The total exports of cars of type B from 2014 to 2017 is what per cent more than the total exports of cars of type A from 2015 to 2018? (correct to one decimal place)

  1. AOption (a)

    6.5%

  2. BOption (b)

    4.9%

  3. COption (c)

    5.6%

  4. DOption (d)

    7.2%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

5.6%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

There are the exports of cars of type A and B (in Rs. millions) from 2014 to 2018 in the given bar graph.

Total number of years = 5

Calculation:

The total exports of cars of type B from 2014 to 2017 (in Rs. millions) = 225 + 250 + 200 + 275 = 950

The total exports of cars of type A from 2015 to 2018 (in Rs. millions) = 150 + 275 + 175 + 300 = 900

The difference (in Rs. millions) = 950 - 900 = 50

The percentage = (50/900) × 100 = 5.55...% ≈ 5.6%

∴ The total exports of cars of type B from 2014 to 2017 is 5.6% more than the total exports of cars of type A from 2015 to 2018

Question 57

The width of the path around a square field is 4.5 m and its area is 105.75 m2. Find the cost of fencing the field at the rate of Rs. 100 per meter.

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 275

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 550

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 600

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 400

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rs. 550

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Area of outer path around a square = 4w(s + w), where w = width and s = side of field.

105.75 = 4 × 4.5 × (s + 4.5)

105.75 = 18 × (s + 4.5) ⇒ s + 4.5 = 5.875 ⇒ s = 1.375 m

Perimeter = 4s = 4 × 1.375 = 5.5 m

Cost = 5.5 × 100 = Rs. 550

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 550.

Alternate Method

Given: Width of path (w) = 4.5 m, Area of path = 105.75 m2, Rate = Rs. 100/m.

Formula Used: Area of path = (s + 2w)2 − s2; Cost = Perimeter × Rate

⇒ Let the side of the square field be s.

⇒ Area of path = (s + 2 × 4.5)2 − s2

⇒ 105.75 = (s + 9)2 − s2

⇒ 105.75 = s2 + 81 + 18s − s2

⇒ 105.75 − 81 = 18s

⇒ 24.75 = 18s

⇒ s = 24.75 ÷ 18 = 1.375 m

⇒ Perimeter of the field = 4 × s = 4 × 1.375 = 5.5 m

⇒ Total Cost of fencing = 5.5 × 100 = Rs. 550

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 550.

Additional Information

Area of Path (Outer)

For a square of side 's' and path width 'w' outside: Area = 4w(s + w).

Area of Path (Inner)

For a square of side 's' and path width 'w' inside: Area = 4w(s − w).

Fencing Cost

Total Cost = Perimeter of the region to be fenced × Rate per unit length.

Question 58

An alloy contains 40% of silver, 30% of copper, and 30% of nickel. How much silver (in kg) should be added to 25 kg of the alloy so that the new alloy contains 50% of silver?

  1. AOption (a)

    20

  2. BOption (b)

    5

  3. COption (c)

    12

  4. DOption (d)

    10

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

5

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Initial non-silver part (copper + nickel) = 100% − 40% = 60%.

Final non-silver part = 100% − 50% = 50%.

Since the quantity of non-silver remains constant: Initial Total × 60% = Final Total × 50%.

25 × 60 = Final Total × 50 ⇒ Final Total = 30 kg.

Silver added = Final Total − Initial Total = 30 − 25 = 5 kg.

∴ The correct answer is 5 kg.

Alternate Method

Given: Initial weight = 25 kg, Initial Silver = 40%, New Silver = 50%.

⇒ Initial Silver = 40% of 25 = 10 kg.

⇒ Initial Others (Copper + Nickel) = 25 − 10 = 15 kg.

⇒ Let x kg of silver be added.

⇒ New Silver = 10 + x, New Total = 25 + x.

⇒ According to question: (10 + x) / (25 + x) = 50 / 100

⇒ (10 + x) / (25 + x) = 1 / 2

⇒ 2 × (10 + x) = 25 + x

⇒ 20 + 2x = 25 + x

⇒ x = 5 kg.

∴ The correct answer is 5 kg.

Additional Information

Mixture Constant Property

When one component is added to a mixture, the quantity of the other components remains constant. Formula: Initial Total × Initial % of Constant Part = Final Total × Final % of Constant Part.

Alligation Method

Silver in mixture (40%) and pure silver added (100%) result in a mean of 50%. The ratio of quantities is (100−50) : (50−40) = 50 : 10 = 5 : 1. If 5 units = 25 kg, then 1 unit = 5 kg.

Question 59

Simplify the following expression:

(a2−4b2)3+64(b2−4c2)3+(16c2−a2)3(a−2b)3+(2b−4c)3+(4c−a)3{{{(a^2-4b^2)}^3} + 64 {{(b^2 - 4c^2)}^3} + {{(16c^2 -a^2})^3}} \over {{(a-2b)^3} +{(2b-4c)^3} +{(4c-a)^3}}

  1. AOption (a)

    -(a + 2b) (b +2c) (4c + a)

  2. BOption (b)

    2(a + 2b) (b + 2c) (4c + a)

  3. COption (c)

    4(a + 2b) (b + 2c) (4c + a)

  4. DOption (d)

    (a + 2b) (b + 2c) (4c + a)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2(a + 2b) (b + 2c) (4c + a)

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The given expression = (a2−4b2)3+64(b2−4c2)3+(16c2−a2)3(a−2b)3+(2b−4c)3+(4c−a)3{{{(a^2-4b^2)}^3} + 64 {{(b^2 - 4c^2)}^3} + {{(16c^2 -a^2})^3}} \over {{(a-2b)^3} +{(2b-4c)^3} +{(4c-a)^3}}

Formula used:

If a + b + c = 0 then a3 + b3 + c3 = 3abc

Calculation:

(a2−4b2)3+64(b2−4c2)3+(16c2−a2)3(a−2b)3+(2b−4c)3+(4c−a)3{{{(a^2-4b^2)}^3} + 64 {{(b^2 - 4c^2)}^3} + {{(16c^2 -a^2})^3}} \over {{(a-2b)^3} +{(2b-4c)^3} +{(4c-a)^3}}

= (a2−4b2)3+(4b2−16c2)3+(16c2−a2)3(a−2b)3+(2b−4c)3+(4c−a)3{{{(a^2-4b^2)}^3} + {{(4b^2 - 16c^2)}^3} + {{(16c^2 -a^2})^3}} \over {{(a-2b)^3} +{(2b-4c)^3} +{(4c-a)^3}}

Let, a2 - 4b2 = x; 4b2 - 16c2 = y; 16c2 - a2 = z

Here, x + y + z = a2 - 4b2 + 4b2 - 16c2 + 16c2 - a2 = 0

Then, (a2 - 4b2)3 + (4b2 - 16c2)3 + (16c2 - a2)3 = 3 (a2 - 4b2) (4b2 - 16c2) (16c2 - a2)

Let, a - 2b = p; 2b - 4c = q; 4c - a = r

Here, p + q + r = a - 2b + 2b - 4c + 4c - a = 0

Then, (a - 2b)3 + (2b - 4c)3 + (4c - a)3 = 3 (a - 2b) (2b - 4c) (4c - a)

Now, (a2−4b2)3+(4b2−16c2)3+(16c2−a2)3(a−2b)3+(2b−4c)3+(4c−a)3{{{(a^2-4b^2)}^3} + {{(4b^2 - 16c^2)}^3} + {{(16c^2 -a^2})^3}} \over {{(a-2b)^3} +{(2b-4c)^3} +{(4c-a)^3}} = 3(a2−4b2)(4b2−16c2)(16c2−a2)3(a−2b)(2b−4c)(4c−a)\frac{3(a^2-4b^2)(4b^2-16c^2)(16c^2-a^2)}{3(a-2b)(2b-4c)(4c-a)}

= (a+2b)(a−2b)(2b+4c)(2b−4c)(4c+a)(4c−a)(a−2b)(2b−4c)(4c−a)\frac{(a+2b)(a-2b)(2b+4c)(2b-4c)(4c+a)(4c-a)}{(a-2b)(2b-4c)(4c-a)}  [Using a2 - b2 = (a + b) (a - b) formula]

= (a + 2b) (2b + 4c) (4c + a)

= 2 (a + 2b) (b + 2c) (4c + a)

∴ The value of the expression is 2 (a+ 2b) (b + 2c) (4c + a)

Alternate Method (a2−4b2)3+64(b2−4c2)3+(16c2−a2)3(a−2b)3+(2b−4c)3+(4c−a)3{{{(a^2-4b^2)}^3} + 64 {{(b^2 - 4c^2)}^3} + {{(16c^2 -a^2})^3}} \over {{(a-2b)^3} +{(2b-4c)^3} +{(4c-a)^3}} 

We know that a + b + c = 0 then a3 + b3 + c3 = 3abc

First, we satisfy the numerator and denominator with this equation.

⇒ (a2 - 4b2) + (4b2 - 16c2) + (16c2 - a2) = 0

Now, (a - 2b) + (2b - 4c) + (4c - a) = 0

(a2−4b2)3+64(b2−4c2)3+(16c2−a2)3(a−2b)3+(2b−4c)3+(4c−a)3{{{(a^2-4b^2)}^3} + 64 {{(b^2 - 4c^2)}^3} + {{(16c^2 -a^2})^3}} \over {{(a-2b)^3} +{(2b-4c)^3} +{(4c-a)^3}}

⇒ 3(a2−4b2)(4b2−16c2)(16c2−a2)3(a−2b)(2b−4c)(4c−a){3{(a^2-4b^2)}{(4b^2 - 16c^2)}{(16c^2 -a^2})} \over {3{(a-2b)}{(2b-4c)}{(4c-a)}} = (a−2b)(a+2b)(2b−4c)(2b+4c)(4c−a)(4c+a)(a−2b)(2b−4c)(4c−a){(a-2b)(a+2b)(2b-4c)(2b+4c)(4c-a)(4c+a)}\over{(a-2b)(2b-4c)(4c-a)} 

⇒ (a + 2b){2(b + 2c)}(4c + a)

⇒ 2(a + 2b)(b + 2c)(4c + a)

∴ The value of the expression is 2(a + 2b)(b + 2c)(4c + a).

Question 60

Monthly expenditure of a family on different heads is shown in the following pie chart. The family earns Rs. 1,08,000 every month.

The money (in Rs.) spent on Misc. Expenses is how much more than that spent on Children Education?

Expenditure on different Heads

  1. AOption (a)

    1,350

  2. BOption (b)

    1,800

  3. COption (c)

    1,500

  4. DOption (d)

    1,200

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1,500

Why this answer is correct

Given:

There is the monthly expenditure of a family on different heads is shown in the following pie chart.

Income of the family = Rs. 108000/month

Calculation:

The total angle of all expenditures = 75° + 60° + 70° + 65° + 50° + 40° = 360°

The difference between Misc. Expenses and spent on Children's Education = 75° - 70° = 5°

So, the amount differences = (5/360) × 108000 = Rs. 1500

∴ The money (in Rs.) spent on Misc. Expenses are Rs. 1500 more than that spent on Children's Education.

Question 61

The profit earned by selling an article for Rs. 832 is equal to the loss incurred when the article is sold for Rs. 448. What will be the selling price of the article if it is sold at a 10% loss?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 576

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 640

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 625

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 540

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Rs. 576

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The selling price at profit = Rs. 832

The selling price at loss = Rs. 448

Required loss = 10%

Formula used:

S.P. = (100 - Loss%)/100 × C.P.

Where, C.P. = Cost price; S.P. = Selling price

Calculation:

Let, the profit = loss = x

So, 448 + x = 832 - x

⇒ x + x = 832 - 448

⇒ 2x = 384

⇒ x = 384/2 = 192

∴ The cost price = (448 + 192) = (832 - 192) = Rs. 640

So the selling price = (100 - 10)/100 × 640 = Rs. 576

∴ The selling price of the article will be Rs. 576

Question 62

Find the greatest number which divides 108, 124 and 156, leaving  the same remainder.

  1. AOption (a)

    16

  2. BOption (b)

    12

  3. COption (c)

    10

  4. DOption (d)

    18

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

16

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The given numbers are 108, 124 and 156

After dividing by the greatest number x, the remainder in each case is the same.

Concept used:

The greatest number that will divide a, b, and c and leaving the same remainder in each case is given by the HCF of |a - b|, |b - c|, and |c - a|

Calculation:

Here, |108 - 124| = |- 16| = 16

|124 - 156| = |- 32| = 32

|156 - 108| = 48

Prime factors of 16 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2

Prime factors of 32 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2

Prime factors of 48 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3

So, HCF of 16, 32, and 48 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 = 16

∴ The greatest number is 16

Question 63

X, Y and Z can do a piece of work in 46 days, 92 days and 23 days, respectively, X started the work. Y joined him after 2 days. If Z joined them after 8 days from the beginning then for how many days did X work?

  1. AOption (a)

    21

  2. BOption (b)

    18

  3. COption (c)

    13

  4. DOption (d)

    16

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

18

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Total work = 92 units (LCM of 46, 92, and 23)

Efficiency = Work/Time

Total efficiency = 2 + 1 + 4 = 7 units

X complete in 2 days = 2 × 2 = 4 work

X and Y complete in 6 days = 6 × (2 + 1) = 18 work

The remaining work = 92 - (4 + 18) = 92 - 22 = 70 work

Time is taken by X, Y, and Z to complete remaining work = 70/7 = 10 days

Total work done by X = 8 + 10 = 18 days

∴ X work the total of 18 days

Alternate Method

Given:

X, Y, and Z can do a piece of work in 46 days, 92 days, and 23 days respectively.

Calculation:

X can finish in 1 day = 1/46 work

Y can finish in 1 day = 1/92 work

Z can finish in 1 day = 1/23 work

X and Y can finish in 1 day = (1/46) + (1/92) = 3/92 work

X, Y, and Z can finish together in 1 day = (1/46) + (1/92) + (1/23) = 7/92 work

X can do in 2 days = 2/46 = 1/23 work

X and Y can do in 6 days =  6 × (3/92) = 9/46 work  [∵ Z joined them after 8 days from the beginning]

The remaining work = 1 - [(1/23) + (9/46)] = 1 - (11/46) = 35/46 work

Time is taken by X, Y, and Z to finish the work = (35/46) ÷ (7/92) = (35/46) × (92/7) = 10 days

Total time of work of X = 8 + 10 = 18 days

∴ X work the total of 18 days

Question 64

What is the value of:

83\sqrt3 sin 30º tan 60º - 3 cos 0º + 3 sin2 45º + 2 cos2 30º?

  1. AOption (a)

    18

  2. BOption (b)

    15

  3. COption (c)

    9

  4. DOption (d)

    12

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

12

Why this answer is correct

Given:

8√3sin30º tan60º - 3cos0º + 3sin245º + 2cos230º

Calculation:

8√3sin30º tan60º - 3cos0º + 3sin245º + 2cos230º

⇒ [8√3 × 121\over2 × √3] - 3 × 1 + 3 × (121\over{\sqrt2})2 + 2 × (32\sqrt3\over2)2

⇒ 12 - 3 + (3 × 121\over2) + (2 × 343\over4)

⇒ 12 - 3 + 323\over2 + 323\over2

⇒ 9 + 3+323+3\over2 = 9 + 3 = 12

The value of the expression is 12

Question 65

The given histogram shows the daily wages ( in Rs.) of workers in a factory.

study the histogram and answer the question that follows.

The number of workers with daily wages less than Rs. 180 is what percentage of the number of workers with daily wages more than Rs. 190? Express your answer correct to one decimal place.

  1. AOption (a)

    75.8%

  2. BOption (b)

    85.6%

  3. COption (c)

    74.8%

  4. DOption (d)

    86.7%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

74.8%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

There is the histogram shows the daily wages ( in Rs.) of workers in a factory.

Calculation:

The number of workers with daily wages less than Rs. 180 = 55 + 80 + 108 = 243

The number of workers with daily wages is more than Rs. 190 = 150 + 105 + 70 = 325

The percentage = (243/325) × 100 = 74.76...% ≈ 74.8%

∴ The number of workers with daily wages less than Rs. 180 is 74.8% of the number of workers with daily wages more than Rs. 190

Question 66

If cos (A - B) = 32{\sqrt3}\over 2 and secA = 2, 0º ≤\leq A ≤\leq 90º, 0º ≤\leq B ≤\leq 90º, then what is the measure of B?

  1. AOption (a)

    60º

  2. BOption (b)

    0º

  3. COption (c)

    30º

  4. DOption (d)

    90º

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

30º

Why this answer is correct

Given:

cos (A - B) = 32{\sqrt3}\over 2

secA = 2

0º ≤\leq A ≤\leq 90º

Calculation:

sec A = 2

⇒ secA = sec60° (sec60° = 2)

⇒ A = 60°

Also, cos (A - B) = √3/2

⇒ cos (A - B) = cos 30°  [∵ cos 30° = 32{\sqrt3}\over 2]

⇒ A - B = 30°

⇒ 60° - B = 30°  [∵ A = 60°]

⇒ B = 60° - 30° = 30°

∴ The measure of B is 30°

Question 67

In a circle with centre O, chords PR and QS meet at the point T, when produced, and PQ is a diameter. If ∠\angleROS = 42º, then the measure of ∠\anglePTQ is

  1. AOption (a)

    58º

  2. BOption (b)

    59º

  3. COption (c)

    69º

  4. DOption (d)

    48º

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

69º

Why this answer is correct

Given:

∠ROS = 42º

Concept used:

The sum of the angles of a triangle = 180°

Exterior angle = Sum of opposite interior angles

Angle made by an arc at the centre = 2 × Angle made by the same arc at any point on the circumference of the circle

Calculation:

Join RQ and RS

According to the concept,

∠RQS = ∠ROS/2

⇒ ∠RQS = 42°/2 = 21°   .....(1)

Here, PQ is a diameter.

So, ∠PRQ = 90°  [∵ Angle in the semicircle = 90°]

In ΔRQT, ∠PRQ is an exterior angle

So, ∠PRQ = ∠RTQ + ∠TQR

⇒ 90° = ∠RTQ + 21°  [∵ ∠TQR = ∠RQS = 21°]

⇒ ∠RTQ = 90° - 21° = 69°

⇒ ∠PTQ = 69°

∴ The measure of  ∠PTQ is 69°

Question 68

Find the value of the following expression:

980 ÷ 35 x 16 + 4 - 2 x 2

  1. AOption (a)

    747\over 4

  2. BOption (b)

    556

  3. COption (c)

    448

  4. DOption (d)

    15215 \over2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

448

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The given expression = 980 ÷ 35 x 16 + 4 - 2 x 2

Calculation:

980 ÷ 35 x 16 + 4 - 2 x 2

= 28 x 16 + 4 - 2 x 2

= 448 + 4 - 4

= 452 - 4

= 448

∴ The value of the expression is 448

Question 69

A sum invested at compound interest amounts to Rs. 7,800 in 3 years and Rs. 11,232 in 5 years. What is the rate per cent?

  1. AOption (a)

    20%

  2. BOption (b)

    26%

  3. COption (c)

    18%

  4. DOption (d)

    15%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

20%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The Sum becomes Rs. 7800 in 3 years and Rs. 11232 in 5 years

Formula used:

At compound interest, the final amount = P(1+r100)nP\left(1+\frac{r}{100} \right)^{n}

Where, P = The sum of the amount

r = Rate of interest

n = Time (years)

Calculation:

Here, Rs. 7800 becomes Rs. 11232 at compound interest in two years.

Let, the rate of interest = R

So, 11232 = 7800(1+R100)27800\left(1+\frac{R}{100} \right)^2

⇒ [(100 + R)/100]2 = 11232/7800

⇒ [(100 + R)/100]2 = 144/100

⇒ [(100 + R)/100]2 = (12/10)2

⇒ [(100 + R)/100] = (12/10)

⇒ 100 + R = 1200/10 = 120

⇒ R = 120 - 100 = 20

∴ The rate per cent is 20%

Question 70

A car runs first 275 km at an average speed of 50 km/h and the next 315 km at an average speed of 70 km/h. What is the average speed ( in km/h) for the entire journey?

  1. AOption (a)

    59

  2. BOption (b)

    62

  3. COption (c)

    58.5

  4. DOption (d)

    60

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

59

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The car covers 275 km with a speed = 50 km/h

The car covers 315 km with a speed = 70 km/h

Formula used:

Average speed = Total Distance/Total time

Calculation:

Time is taken to covers 275 km = 275/50 = 11/2 hours

Time is taken to covers 315 km = 315/70 = 9/2 hours

The average speed = (275 + 315)/(11/2 + 9/2) km/h

= 590/10 km/h

= 59 km/h

∴ The average speed (in km/h) for the entire journey is 59 km/h

Question 71

A, B and C started a business in partnership. Initially, A invested Rs. 29,000, while B and C invested Rs. 25,000 each. After 4 months, A withdrew Rs. 3,000. After 2 more months, C invested Rs. 12,000 more. Find the share of C( in Rs.) in the profit of Rs. 33,200 at the end of the year.

  1. AOption (a)

    12,400

  2. BOption (b)

    11,067

  3. COption (c)

    10,800

  4. DOption (d)

    10,000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

12,400

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Profit = Ratio of (Investment × Time).

A's investment = (29 × 4) + (26 × 8) = 116 + 208 = 324 units.

B's investment = 25 × 12 = 300 units.

C's investment = (25 × 6) + (37 × 6) = 150 + 222 = 372 units.

Ratio A : B : C = 324 : 300 : 372 = 27 : 25 : 31.

Total units = 27 + 25 + 31 = 83 units → Rs. 33,200. 1 unit = 400.

C's share = 31 × 400 = Rs. 12,400.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 12,400.

Alternate Method

Given: Initial investments of A, B, and C are Rs. 29,000, Rs. 25,000, and Rs. 25,000. Changes occur at 4 and 6 months. Total Profit = Rs. 33,200.

Formulas: Profit Share = Investment × Time Period | Total Profit = ∑ Individual Profits.

⇒ A's Equivalent Capital = (29,000 × 4) + (26,000 × 8) = 1,16,000 + 2,08,000 = Rs. 3,24,000.

⇒ B's Equivalent Capital = 25,000 × 12 = Rs. 3,00,000.

⇒ C's Equivalent Capital = (25,000 × 6) + (37,000 × 6) = 1,50,000 + 2,22,000 = Rs. 3,72,000.

⇒ Ratio of Profit = 324 : 300 : 372 = 27 : 25 : 31.

⇒ C's share = (31 ÷ 83) × 33,200 = 31 × 400 = Rs. 12,400.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 12,400.

Additional Information

Partnership Basics

In a compound partnership, the profit is distributed according to the product of capital and the time duration of the investment.

Capital Adjustments

When a partner withdraws or adds capital, calculate the effective capital for each time interval separately before summing them up for the total ratio.

Question 72

How many numbers are there from 500 to 650 (including both) which are divisible neither by 3 nor by 7?

  1. AOption (a)

    87

  2. BOption (b)

    99

  3. COption (c)

    121

  4. DOption (d)

    21

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

87

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The numbers are from 500 to 650 which are divisible neither by 3 nor by 7

Calculation:

The total numbers up to 500 are divisible by 3 = 500/3 → 166 (Quotient)

The total numbers up to 500 are divisible by 7 = 500/7 → 71 (Quotient)

The total numbers up to 500 are divisible by 21 = 500/21 → 23 (Quotient)

The total numbers up to 650 are divisible by 3 = 650/3 → 216 (Quotient)

The total numbers up to 650 are divisible by 7 = 650/7 → 92 (Quotient)

The total numbers up to 650 are divisible by 21 = 650/21 → 30 (Quotient)

⇒ The total number divisible by 3 between 500 and 650 = 216 - 166 = 50

⇒ The total number divisible by 7 between 500 and 650 = 92 - 71 = 21

⇒ The total number divisible by 21 between 500 and 650 = 30 - 23 = 7

The total numbers from 500 to 650 = 150 + 1 = 151

∴ The required numbers = 151 - (50 + 21 - 7) = 151 - 64 = 87

∴ The are total 87 numbers from 500 to 650 (including both) which are neither divisible by 3 nor by 7

Question 73

In the first 10 overs of a cricket game, the run rate was only 7.2. What should be the average run rate in the remaining 40 overs to reach the target of 272 runs?

  1. AOption (a)

    7

  2. BOption (b)

    4

  3. COption (c)

    6

  4. DOption (d)

    5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

5

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Runs scored in 10 overs = 10 × 7.2 = 72 runs.

Remaining runs needed = 272 − 72 = 200 runs.

Required run rate = 200 ÷ 40 = 5.

∴ The correct answer is 5.

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial Overs = 10 | Initial Run Rate = 7.2 | Target = 272 runs | Remaining Overs = 40

Formula Used:

Total Runs = Run Rate × Overs

Required Run Rate = (Target − Runs Scored) ÷ Remaining Overs

Calculations:

⇒ Runs scored in first 10 overs = 10 × 7.2 = 72 runs

⇒ Remaining runs to be scored = 272 − 72 = 200 runs

⇒ Remaining overs = 40 overs

⇒ Required average run rate = 200 ÷ 40

⇒ Required average run rate = 5

∴ The correct answer is 5.

Additional Information

Run Rate Calculation

Run Rate is the average number of runs scored per over. Formula: Run Rate = Total Runs ÷ Total Overs.

Weighted Average in Cricket

The overall run rate for the entire match is the weighted average of the run rates in different phases: (R1O1 + R2O2) ÷ (O1 + O2).

Question 74

The length and the breadth of a rectangle are made to increase and decrease, respectively, by 8% and 10%. What is the percentage increase or decrease in its area?

  1. AOption (a)

    Decrease by 1.8%

  2. BOption (b)

    Decrease by 2.8%

  3. COption (c)

    Increase by 2.8%

  4. DOption (d)

    Increase by 1.8%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Decrease by 2.8%

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Length = 8% increase (108/100 = 27/25)

Breadth = 10% decrease (90/100 = 9/10)

Area of a rectangle = Length × Breadth

The decrease = 250 - 243 = 7

The decrease percentage = (7/250) × 100 = 2.8%

∴ The percentage of decrease in area is 2.8%

Alternate Method

Given:

The length of the rectangle increased = 8%

The breadth of the rectangle decreased = 10%

Formula used:

Area of a rectangle = Length × Breadth

Calculation:

Let, the length of the rectangle = x

The breadth of the rectangle = y

So, the initial area of the rectangle = xy

The final area of the rectangle = (108x/100) × (90y/100) = 243xy/250

The decrease in area = xy - (243xy/250) = 7xy/250

The percentage = [(7xy/250)/xy] × 100 %

= (7/250) × 100 %

= 14/5 %

= 2.8%

∴ The percentage of decrease in area is 2.8%

Alternate Method Use successive increment and decrements method

Total change = A + B + A × B/100

Where, A and B are successive increments and decrements 

So, total percentage increment and decrements = 8 - 10 - 8 × 10/100 = - 2.8%

( ∵ " - " sign denotes the decrement)

∴ The percentage of decrease in area is 2.8%

Question 75

If (4x+2y)3+(4x−2y)3=16(Ax3+Bxy2){{(4x + 2y)^3} + {(4x-2y)^3}}=16({Ax^3 + Bxy^2}), then what is the value of 12(A2+B2){1\over 2 }{(\sqrt{A^2 +B^2})}?

  1. AOption (a)

    3

  2. BOption (b)

    5

  3. COption (c)

    8

  4. DOption (d)

    7

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

5

Why this answer is correct

Given:

(4x + 2y)3 + (4x - 2y)3 = 16 (Ax3 + Bxy2)   .....(1)

Formula used:

a3 + b3 = (a + b) (a2 + b2 - ab)

(a + b)2 + (a - b)2 = 2 (a2 + b2)

a2 - b2 = (a + b) (a - b)

Calculation:

(4x + 2y)3 + (4x - 2y)3 = (4x + 2y + 4x - 2y) [(4x + 2y)2 + (4x - 2y)2 - (4x + 2y) (4x - 2y)]

(4x + 2y)3 + (4x - 2y)3 = 8x [2 (16x2 + 4y2)] - (16x2 - 4y2)

(4x + 2y)3 + (4x - 2y)3 = 8x (32x2 + 8y2 - 16x2 + 4y2)

(4x + 2y)3 + (4x - 2y)3 = 8x (16x2 + 12y2)

(4x + 2y)3 + (4x - 2y)3 = 16 (8x3 + 6xy2)   .....(2)

Justifying equations (1) and (2),

A = 8 and B = 6

So, (1/2) √(A2 + B2) = (1/2) √(82 + 62)

= 1/2 × √(64 + 36)

= 1/2 × √100

= 1/2 × 10 = 5

∴ The value of (1/2) √(A2 + B2) is 5

Alternate Method

(4x + 2y)3 + (4x - 2y)3 = 16 (Ax3 + Bxy2) –––––––– (1)

(a +b)3 = a3 + b3 + 3ab(a + b) 

(4x + 2y)3 = 64x3 + 8y3 + 24xy(4x + 2y)

⇒ 64x3 + 8y3 + 96x2y + 48xy2 –––––––– (2)

And, (4x – 2y)3 = 64x3 – 8y3 – 24xy(4x – 2y)

⇒ 64x3 – 8y3 – 96x2y + 48xy2  –––––––– (3)

Adding the equation 1 and 2, we have

 (4x + 2y)3 + (4x - 2y)3 = 128x3 + 96xy2 = 16(8x3 + 6xy2) –– (4)

Justifying equations (1) and (4), we have

A = 8, and B = 6

12(√A2+B2){1\over 2 }{(√{A^2 +B^2})} = 121\over2 A2+B2\sqrt{A^2+B^2} = 121\over2 82+62\sqrt{8^2+6^2} 

⇒ 121\over2 × 10 = 5

∴ The value of 121\over2(\sqrt{A^2+B^2}\) is 5

English Comprehension (25 questions)

Question 76

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

We stayed / in Jim's flat / during he was / on holiday.

  1. AOption (a)

    on holiday

  2. BOption (b)

    in Jim's flat

  3. COption (c)

    We stayed

  4. DOption (d)

    during he was

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

during he was

Why this answer is correct

The erroneous part is 'during he was'.

Key Points

  • The given sentence is grammatically incorrect.
  • Here, 'when he was' should be used instead of 'during he was'.
  • Use “when + sentence”. So, we need a subject and a verb.
  • We can use this at the beginning or in the middle of a sentence.
  • Example: She is quiet when she is angry.
  • Whereas, we use “during + noun”.
  • We can use this at the beginning or end of a sentence.
  • Example: She cried during the movie.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 4.

Correct Sentence: We stayed in Jim's flat when he was on holiday.

Question 77

Select the correct indirect speech form of the given sentence.

Mother said to me, "I'm worried about your safety."

  1. AOption (a)

    Mother told me that she had been worried about my safety.

  2. BOption (b)

    Mother told me that she was worried about my safety.

  3. COption (c)

    Mother said she is worried about your safety.

  4. DOption (d)

    Mother said that I was worrying about your safety.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Mother told me that she was worried about my safety.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Mother told me that she was worried about my safety.'

Key Points

  • The given sentence is in Direct Speech. As per the question, we have to change it into Indirect Speech.
  • The process of transformation is as follows:
  • In the given sentence the reporting verb has an object. Hence, 'said to' will be changed into 'told'.
  • Comma and inverted commas will be removed.
  • The conjunction 'that' will be added.
  • 'I' will be changed into 'she' because the first person pronouns are changed according to the subject of the reporting verb.
  • 'am' will be changed into 'was'.
  • 'your' will be changed into 'my' because the second-person pronouns are changed according to the object of the reporting verb.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 2.

Correct Sentence: Mother told me that she was worried about my safety.

Question 78

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

Give the child a nourishing diet.

  1. AOption (a)

    The child should be given a nourishing diet.

  2. BOption (b)

    The child was given a nourishing diet.

  3. COption (c)

    The child must have given a nourishing diet.

  4. DOption (d)

    The child is given a nourishing diet

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The child should be given a nourishing diet.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'The child should be given a nourishing diet.

Key Points

  • The given sentence is in the Active Voice. As per the given question we have to change the sentence into Passive Form.
  • The transformation of these kinds of sentences is:
  • The given sentence is an example of an imperative sentence.
  • The notion of the given sentence is the suggestion.
  • V1 + Object. (Active Voice)
  • Subject (Objective case) + should + be + V3. (Passive Voice)
  • Example:
  • Help the poor. (Active Voice)
  • The poor should be helped. (Passive Voice)
  • Hence, as per the above rule, the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct Sentence: The child should be given a nourishing diet.

Question 79

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

  1. AOption (a)

    Retort

  2. BOption (b)

    Revange

  3. COption (c)

    Retrieve

  4. DOption (d)

    Return

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Revange

Why this answer is correct

The erroneously spelt word is Option 2.

Key Points

  • Among the given options, the incorrectly spelt word is 'Revange'.
  • Its correct spelling is 'Revenge'.
  • It means 'something that you do to punish somebody who has hurt you, made you suffer, etc.' [(किस��� से किसी बात का) बदला, प्रतिशोध (चोट के बदले चोट)]
  • Example: He made a fool of me and now I want to get my revenge.
  • ​Thus, the correct answer is Option 2.

Additional Information

  • Let's look at the meaning of other words:
  • Retort: to reply quickly to what somebody says, in an angry or amusing way. [किसी की बात का तुरंत जवाब देना (चिढ़कर या विनोदी ढंग से)]
  • Retrieve: to get something back from the place where it was left or lost. [(किसी वस्‍तु को) पुनः प्राप्‍त करना (वहाँ से जहाँ वह छूटी या खोई थी)]
  • Return: to come or go back to a place. (कहीं पहुँचना या लौटना)

Question 80

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

He allowed / his son to drive /  but he warn him /  of the danger.

  1. AOption (a)

    He allowed

  2. BOption (b)

    his son to drive

  3. COption (c)

    but he warn him

  4. DOption (d)

    of the danger

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

but he warn him

Why this answer is correct

The erroneous part is 'but he warn him'.

Key Points

  • The given sentence is grammatically incorrect.
  • Here, 'but he warned him' should be used instead of 'but he warn him'.
  • The given sentence is in the simple past tense.
  • Hence, the use of 'warn' in the second clause is grammatically incorrect.
  • It should be changed into 'warned'.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 3.

Correct Sentence: He allowed his son to drive but he warned him of the danger.

Question 81

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

She gifted me a beautiful handbag.

  1. AOption (a)

    I am gifted a beautiful handbag by her.

  2. BOption (b)

    I was gifted a beautiful handbag by her.

  3. COption (c)

    I have been gifted a beautiful handbag by her.

  4. DOption (d)

    I am being gifted a beautiful handbag by her.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

I was gifted a beautiful handbag by her.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'I was gifted a beautiful handbag by her.'

Key Points

  • The given sentence is in Active Voice. As per the given question, we have to change it into Passive Voice.
  • The structure of the given sentence is as follows:
  • Subject + V2 + Object. (Active Voice)
  • Subject (objective case) + was/were + V3 + Object (subjective case). (Passive Voice)
  • Example:
  • Their cousin showed them some rare photographs. (Active Voice)
  • They were shown some rare photographs by their cousin. (Passive Voice)
  • The subject of the given sentence is 'She'.​​
  • The object of the given sentence is 'me'.
  • The subject will be put in place of the object and the object will be put in place of the subject.
  • And 'gifted' will be changed into 'was gifted'.
  • Lastly, the preposition 'by' will be added. 

Correct Sentence: I was gifted a beautiful handbag by her.

Question 82

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select 'No substitution required'.

The first meeting of the Standing Committee will be hold next week.

  1. AOption (a)

    will be held next week

  2. BOption (b)

    No substitution required

  3. COption (c)

    will held next week

  4. DOption (d)

    will be holding next week

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

will be held next week

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'will be held next week'.

Key Points

  • The given sentence is grammatically incorrect.
  • Here, 'will be held next week' should be used instead of 'will be hold next week'.
  • We know that after 'will + be' past participle form of the verb(held) is used as the sentence is in passive voice.
  • Example: He will be brought home tomorrow.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct Sentence: The first meeting of the Standing Committee will be held next week.

Question 83

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Taciturn

  1. AOption (a)

    Noisy

  2. BOption (b)

    Lively

  3. COption (c)

    Verbose

  4. DOption (d)

    Reserved

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Reserved

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Reserved'.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate synonym of the given word 'Taciturn' is 'Reserved'.
  • Taciturn: tending not to speak very much, in a way that seems unfriendly. [अल्पभाषी (अमित्रवत ढंग से); कम बोलनेवाला, चुप्पा]
  • Example: a taciturn and lonely young woman...
  • Reserved: shy and keeping your feelings hidden. (संकोची तथा मनोभावों को छिपाकर रखने वाला)
  • Example: She was quiet and reserved for a two-year-old.

Correct Answer: Reserved.

Additional Information

  • Let's look at the meaning of other words:
  • Noisy: making a lot of or too much noise; full of noise. (शोर मचाने वाला; शोर-भरा, कोलाहलपूर्ण)
  • Lively: full of energy, interest, excitement, etc. (चुस्‍ती, रुचि, रोमांच आदि से भरपूर; जानदार, ज़िंदादिल)
  • Verbose: using or containing more words than are needed. (आवश्यकता से अधिक शब्दों से युक्त; शब्दबहुल; शब्दाडंबरपूर्ण)

Question 84

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

ROUGH

  1. AOption (a)

    Coarse

  2. BOption (b)

    Thick

  3. COption (c)

    Crude

  4. DOption (d)

    Smooth

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Smooth

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Smooth'.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate antonym of the given word 'Rough' is 'Smooth'.
  • Rough: not smooth, soft, or level. [खुरदरा (चिकना, कोमल या समतल नहीं)]
  • Example: rough ground...
  • Smooth: having a completely flat surface with no lumps or holes or rough areas. [चिकना (पूरी तरह से समतल सतह वाला, जिसमें न कोई गूमड़ या गाँठ हो न कोई छेद न खुरदरापन)]
  • Example: smooth skin...

Correct Answer: Smooth.

Additional Information

  • Let's look at the meaning of other words:
  • Coarse: consisting of large pieces; rough, not smooth. (मोटे ढेलों वाला; खुरदुरा)
  • Thick: (used about something solid) having a large distance between its opposite sides; not thin. [(ठोस वस्‍तु) मोटी या मोटा; पतला या बारीक से विपरीत]
  • Crude: simple and basic, without much detail, skill, etc. (सरल और बुनियादी; अपरिष्‍कृत)

Question 85

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

One who supervises students in an examination hall

  1. AOption (a)

    Inspector

  2. BOption (b)

    Invigilator

  3. COption (c)

    Teacher

  4. DOption (d)

    Examinee

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Invigilator

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Invigilator'.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate one word for the given group of words is 'Invigilator'.
  • It means 'a person whose job is to watch people taking an exam in order to check that they do not cheat (एक व्यक्ति जिसका काम लोगों को परीक्षा देते देखना है ताकि यह जांचा जा सके कि वे धोखा तो नहीं दे रहे हैं)'.
  • Example: If you need more paper, please ask the invigilator.

Correct Answer: Invigilator.

Additional Information

  • Let's look at the meaning of other words:
  • Inspector: an official who visits schools, factories, etc. to make sure that rules are being obeyed, work is being done properly, etc. (स्‍कूलों, कारख़ानों आदि में नियमों के पालन आदि की जाँच करने वाला अधिकारी; निरीक्षक, इंस्‍पेक्‍टर)
  • Teacher: a person whose job is to teach, especially in a school or college. [शिक्षक, अध्यापक, टीचर (विशेषतः स्‍कूल या कॉलेज में)]
  • Examinee: a person taking an examination or test. (परीक्षा या परीक्षा देने वाला व्यक्ति)

Question 86

Sentence of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. They can help you to decide the right products for you.

B. Advertisements can be extremely useful if they are honest.

C. Teenagers are especially vulnerable to such advertisements.

D. However, some advertisements may be harmful as they try to befool you.

  1. AOption (a)

    CDAB

  2. BOption (b)

    BCAD

  3. COption (c)

    CADB

  4. DOption (d)

    BADC

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

BADC

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'BADC'.

Key Points

  • The given question is an example of a Para Jumble.
  • We know that the first statement of a para jumbled question is usually an independent general statement, a noun, a universal fact, starting of an incident, or it starts with 'most' or 'once'. 
  • Sentence B will be the first sentence because it is an introductory sentence talking about the advertisements.
  • Sentence A will be the next sentence because it tells us what advertisements can do.
  • Sentence D will be the next sentence because it further tells us how harmful advertisements can be.
  • Lastly, Sentence C will be used.
  • Thus, the correct sequence is:
  • B: Advertisements can be extremely useful if they are honest.
  • A: They can help you to decide the right products for you.
  • D: However, some advertisements may be harmful as they try to befool you.
  • C: Teenagers are especially vulnerable to such advertisements.

Correct Passage: Advertisements can be extremely useful if they are honest. They can help you to decide the right products for you. However, some advertisements may be harmful as they try to befool you. Teenagers are especially vulnerable to such advertisements.

Question 87

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Global warming or climate change has today become a major______ to mankind.

  1. AOption (a)

    endanger

  2. BOption (b)

    punishment

  3. COption (c)

    threat

  4. DOption (d)

    penalty

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

threat

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'threat'.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate word for the given blank is 'threat'.
  • It means 'the possibility of trouble or danger'. (कष्‍ट या संकट की आशंका)
  • Example: The forest is under threat from building developments.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 3.

Correct Sentence: Global warming or climate change has today become a major threat to mankind.

Additional Information

  • Let's look at the meaning of other words:
  • endanger: to cause danger to somebody/something. [(व्‍यक्ति या वस्‍तु को) ख़तरे में डालना]
  • punishment: the action or way of punishing somebody. (किसी को दंड देने का कार्य या ढंग; दंड, सज़ा)
  • penalty: a punishment for breaking a law, rule or contract. (क़ानून, नियम या संविदा तोड़ने पर मिलने वाला दंड)

Question 88

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Cake walk

  1. AOption (a)

    Something easy

  2. BOption (b)

    Something enjoyable

  3. COption (c)

    Something sweet

  4. DOption (d)

    Something tasty

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Something easy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Something easy'.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate meaning of the given idiom 'Cake walk' is 'Something easy'.
  • Cake walk: a task that is not difficult to do; a victory that has been easily achieved. (आसान काम, सरल कार्य; सरल विजय, केकवॉक)
  • Example: After winning the national championship, the regional competition was a cakewalk for him.

Correct Answer: Something easy.

Question 89

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

Did you/ recall to meet/ her at the party/ last night?

  1. AOption (a)

    last night

  2. BOption (b)

    Did you

  3. COption (c)

    recall to meet

  4. DOption (d)

    her at the party

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

recall to meet

Why this answer is correct

The erroneous part is 'recall to meet'.

Key Points

  • The given sentence is grammatically incorrect.
  • Here, 'recall meeting' should be used instead of 'recall to meet'.
  • Some verbs should be followed by a to-infinitive (e.g., to go), while others require a gerund (e.g., going).
  • Gerunds are derived from verbs. They end in -ing and act as nouns.
  • In the given sentence the verb 'recall' will be followed by a gerund.
  • Example: You may have difficulty determining the cause of the fire.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 3.

Correct Sentence: Did you recall meeting her at the party last night?

Question 90

Select the option that gives the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.

The chairman of our company takes care of the rank and file in the company.

  1. AOption (a)

    Documents and files

  2. BOption (b)

    Only the top rank people

  3. COption (c)

    Ordinary people

  4. DOption (d)

    Officers

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Ordinary people

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Ordinary people'.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate meaning of the given idiom 'rank and file' is 'Ordinary people'.
  • Rank and file: the ordinary members of an organization as opposed to its leaders. (किसी संगठन के सामान्य सदस्यों के रूप में उसके नेताओं के विरोध में)
  • Example: The rank and file of the Labour Party.

Correct Answer: Ordinary people.

Question 91

The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don't find any error, mark 'No error' as your answer.

Did you baked/ the chocolate cake/ yourself this time?

  1. AOption (a)

    yourself this time

  2. BOption (b)

    Did you baked

  3. COption (c)

    the chocolate cake

  4. DOption (d)

    No error

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Did you baked

Why this answer is correct

The erroneous part is 'Did you baked'.

Key Points

  • The given sentence is grammatically incorrect.
  • Here, 'Did you bake' should be used instead of 'Did you baked'.
  • We know that after the auxiliary verb 'did' the base form of the verb is used.
  • Example: He did not come to the office.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 2.

Correct Sentence: Did you bake the chocolate cake yourself this time?

Question 92

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

Walk or move at a slow, relaxed pace

  1. AOption (a)

    Amble

  2. BOption (b)

    Romp

  3. COption (c)

    Strut

  4. DOption (d)

    Prance

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Amble

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Amble'.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate word for the given group of words is 'Amble'.
  • It means 'to walk at a slow relaxed speed'. (मंथर गति से चलना, टहलना, रहवाल चलना)
  • Example: We ambled down to the beach.

Correct Answer: Amble.

Additional Information

  • Let's look at the meaning of other words:
  • Romp: (used about children and animals) to play in a happy and noisy way. [(बच्‍चों और पशुओं का) उछल-कूद मचाना (ख़ुशी के मारे और शोर मचाते हुए)]
  • Strut: to walk in a proud way. (अकड़ कर चलना)
  • Prance: to move about with quick, high steps, often because you feel proud or pleased with yourself. [(घमंड या ख़ुशी के मारे) अकड़कर चलना, इठलाना]

Question 93

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Vertical

  1. AOption (a)

    Parallel

  2. BOption (b)

    Upright

  3. COption (c)

    Equal

  4. DOption (d)

    Shaky

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Upright

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Upright'.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate synonym of the given word 'Vertical' is 'Upright'.
  • Vertical: going straight up at an angle of 90 degrees from the ground. (खड़ा, सीधा, लंबवत, अनुलंब)
  • Example: a vertical line...
  • Upright: in or into a vertical position. (खड़ी स्थिति में, खड़ा, सीधा)
  • Example: I was so tired I could hardly stay upright.

Correct Answer: Upright.

Additional Information

  • Let's look at the meaning of other words:
  • Parallel: (used about two lines, etc.) with the same distance between them for all their length. [(दो रेखाओं के संबंध में) समानांतर]
  • Equal: the same in size, amount, value, number, level, etc. [(आकार, मात्रा, मोल संख्‍या आदि की दृष्टि से) बराबर, समान]
  • Shaky: shaking or feeling weak because you are frightened or ill. [(डर या बीमारी के कारण) काँपता हुआ या कमज़ोरी अनुभव करता हुआ]

Question 94

Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select 'No substitution required'.

Of the two plans submitted by the architect, this is the one more likely to be accepted.

  1. AOption (a)

    most likelihood

  2. BOption (b)

    much likely

  3. COption (c)

    No substitution required

  4. DOption (d)

    most likely

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

No substitution required

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'No substitution required'.

Key Points

  • The given sentence is grammatically correct.
  • The given sentence is talking about the two plans submitted by the architect.
  • When the comparison is being made between two things we use the comparative degree instead of the superlative degree.
  • Hence, in the given sentence 'more' is correctly used.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 3.

Correct Sentence: Of the two plans submitted by the architect, this is the one more likely to be accepted.

Question 95

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

TENACIOUS

  1. AOption (a)

    Persistent

  2. BOption (b)

    Relentless

  3. COption (c)

    Steadfast

  4. DOption (d)

    Yielding

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Yielding

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Yielding'.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate antonym of the given word 'Tenacious' is 'Yielding'.
  • Tenacious: not likely to give up or let something go; determined. (आसानी से हार न मानने वाला; दृढ़निश्‍चय)
  • Example: She is very tenacious and will work hard and long to achieve objectives.
  • Yielding: inclined to give in; submissive; compliant. (किसी के सामने झुक जाना, किसी की बात मान लेना)
  • Example: The government refused to yield to the hostage takers’ demands.

Correct Answer: Yielding.

Additional Information

  • Let's look at the meaning of other words:
  • Persistent: determined to continue doing something even though people say that you are wrong or that you cannot do it. [(लोगों द्वारा मना या निरुत्‍साहित किए जाने के बावजूद) किसी काम को करते रहने के लिए कृत संकल्‍प]
  • Relentless: not stopping or changing. (लगातार, अनवरत, निरंतर)
  • Steadfast: faithful and loyal; not changing in your attitudes or aims. [विश्‍वसनीय एवं निष्‍ठावान, वफ़ादार; (अपने लक्ष्‍य या रूख़ में) स्थिर, अडिग, अटल]

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

The importance of physical exercise in (1)_________ the incidence of heart attacks cannot be under estimated. The rise of heart attacks has been attaining (2)_______ proportion in recent times causing grave concern specially to the medical (3). Walking is the best mode of physical exercise which (4) ________ no equipment money, material or (5) of a club.

Question 96

Select the most appropriate word to fill in blank number 1.

  1. AOption (a)

    minimising

  2. BOption (b)

    maximising

  3. COption (c)

    emphasising

  4. DOption (d)

    increasing

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

minimising

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'minimising'.

Key Points

  • The given passage is about the importance of physical exercise.
  • In the given blank 'minimising' is the correct word.
  • It means 'to make something as small as possible (in amount or level)'. [(मात्रा या स्‍तर की दृष्टि से) यथासंभव न्‍यूनतम कर देना] 
  • Example: We shall try to minimise the risks to the public.
  • The later part of the sentence is talking about the incidence of heart attacks. Physical exercise reduces heart attacks.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct Passage: The importance of physical exercise in minimising the incidence of heart attacks cannot be under estimated. The rise of heart attacks has been attaining (2)_______ proportion in recent times causing grave concern specially to the medical (3). Walking is the best mode of physical exercise which (4) ________ no equipment money, material or (5) of a club.

Additional Information

  • "maximising" - This means to make something as large or as much as possible. This option is the opposite of "minimising," and while physical exercise can certainly maximize health and fitness, it doesn't quite fit the context of the sentence which is specifically talking about the incidence of heart attacks.
  • "emphasising" - This means to give special importance or attention to something. This option is the best fit for the sentence because it accurately describes the importance of physical exercise in reducing the incidence of heart attacks. By emphasizing the role of physical exercise, people may be more likely to prioritize it in their lives and reduce their risk of heart attack.
  • "increasing" - This means to make something more or to cause something to grow. While regular physical exercise can certainly increase fitness and overall health, this option doesn't fit the context of the sentence which is focused on reducing the incidence of heart attacks.

Question 97

Select the most appropriate word to fill in blank number 2.

  1. AOption (a)

    capacious

  2. BOption (b)

    soothing

  3. COption (c)

    low

  4. DOption (d)

    alarming

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

alarming

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'alarming'.

Key Points

  • The given passage is about the importance of physical exercise.
  • It means 'that makes you frightened or worried'. (चिंताजनक, भयप्रद)
  • Example: The forests are disappearing at an alarming rate.
  • Thus, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Correct Passage: The importance of physical exercise in minimising the incidence of heart attacks cannot be under estimated. The rise of heart attacks has been attaining alarming proportion in recent times causing grave concern specially to the medical (3). Walking is the best mode of physical exercise which (4) ________ no equipment money, material or (5) of a club.

Question 98

Select the most appropriate word to fill in blank number 3.

  1. AOption (a)

    fraternity

  2. BOption (b)

    class

  3. COption (c)

    persons

  4. DOption (d)

    creed

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

fraternity

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'fraternity'.

Key Points

  • The given passage is about the importance of physical exercise.
  • The most appropriate word for the given blank is 'fraternity'.
  • It means 'a group of people who share the same work or interests'. (एक ही काम से जुड़े या अभिरुचि वाले लोगों का समुदाय; भ्रातृसंघ, बिरादरी)
  • Example: the medical fraternity...
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct Passage: The importance of physical exercise in minimising the incidence of heart attacks cannot be under estimated. The rise of heart attacks has been attaining alarming proportion in recent times causing grave concern specially to the medical fraternity. Walking is the best mode of physical exercise which (4) ________ no equipment money, material or (5)______ of a club.

Question 99

Select the most appropriate word to fill in blank number 4.

  1. AOption (a)

    requires

  2. BOption (b)

    loses

  3. COption (c)

    finds

  4. DOption (d)

    gains

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

requires

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'requires'.

Key Points

  • The given passage is about the importance of physical exercise.
  • The most appropriate word for the given blank is 'requires'.
  • It means 'to need something'. [(किसी बात की) आवश्‍यकता होना]
  • Example: a situation that requires tact and diplomacy...
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct Passage: The importance of physical exercise in minimising the incidence of heart attacks cannot be under estimated. The rise of heart attacks has been attaining alarming proportion in recent times causing grave concern specially to the medical fraternity. Walking is the best mode of physical exercise which requires no equipment money, material or (5)______ of a club.

Question 100

Select the most appropriate word to fill in blank number 5.

  1. AOption (a)

    correlation

  2. BOption (b)

    scholarship

  3. COption (c)

    exemption

  4. DOption (d)

    membership

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

membership

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'membership'.

Key Points

  • The given passage is about the importance of physical exercise.
  • The most appropriate word for the given blank is 'membership'.
  • It means 'the state of being a member of a group, organization, etc.' [किसी वर्ग, संगठन आदि की सदस्‍यता]
  • Example: To apply for membership, please fill in the enclosed form.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 4.

Correct Passage: The importance of physical exercise in minimising the incidence of heart attacks cannot be under estimated. The rise of heart attacks has been attaining alarming proportion in recent times causing grave concern specially to the medical fraternity. Walking is the best mode of physical exercise which requires no equipment money, material or membership of a club.

100 questions in the full paper