Previous Year Paper

RRB NTPC Graduate Level CBT-I Official Paper (Held On: 19 Jun, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2025

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Question 1

Three numbers are in the ratio 4: 5: 6 and their average is 40. The largest number is :-

  1. AOption (a)

    44

  2. BOption (b)

    42

  3. COption (c)

    48

  4. DOption (d)

    32

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

48

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of numbers = 4 : 5 : 6

Since the numbers are in Arithmetic Progression, the Average is the middle term (5 units).

5 units = 40 ⇒ 1 unit = 8

Largest number (6 units) = 6 × 8 = 48

∴ The correct answer is 48.

Alternate Method

Given: Ratio = 4 : 5 : 6, Average = 40

Formula: Average = Sum of observations ÷ Total number of observations

⇒ Let the numbers be 4x, 5x, and 6x.

⇒ (4x + 5x + 6x) ÷ 3 = 40

⇒ 15x ÷ 3 = 40

⇒ 5x = 40

⇒ x = 8

⇒ Largest number = 6x = 6 × 8 = 48

∴ The correct answer is 48.

Additional Information

Average of AP

For any series in Arithmetic Progression, the Average is equal to (First term + Last term) ÷ 2 or the middle term if the number of terms is odd.

Ratio and Proportion

If quantities are in ratio a : b : c, their values can be assumed as ax, bx, and cx where x is the highest common factor.

Question 2

A, B, C, D, R, S and T are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table. Only one person sits between D and T when counted from the left of T. S sits third to the right of R. C sits third to the left of A. S sits to the immediate right of C. B is not an immediate neighbour of C. How many people sit between B and T when counted from the right of B?

  1. AOption (a)

    Three

  2. BOption (b)

    One

  3. COption (c)

    Two

  4. DOption (d)

    Four

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Three

Why this answer is correct

Given: A, B, C, D, R, S, and T are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table.

  1. S sits third to the right of R.

  2. S sits to the immediate right of C.

  3. C sits third to the left of A.

  4. Only one person sits between D and T when counted from the left of T.

  5. B is not an immediate neighbour of C.

Thus, three people sit between B and T when counted from the right of B.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 3

An electric pump can fill a tank in 8 hours. Due to a leakage in the tank, it takes 9(1/3)​ hours to fill the tank. How much time will this leak take to empty the full tank if water does not get in or out of the tank through any other point during this period?

  1. AOption (a)

    39 hours

  2. BOption (b)

    50 hours

  3. COption (c)

    52 hours

  4. DOption (d)

    56 hours

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

56 hours

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Time for pump (A) = 8 hr

Time for pump + leak (A − B) = 28/3 hr

Total Capacity (LCM of 8, 28) = 56 units

Efficiency of Leak (B) = (56 ÷ 8) − (56 ÷ (28/3)) = 7 − 6 = 1 unit/hr

Time for Leak to empty = 56 ÷ 1 = 56 hr

∴ The correct answer is 56 hr.

Alternate Method

Given:

Filling time of Electric Pump (P) = 8 hours

Filling time with Leakage (P + L) = 9(1/3) hours = 28/3 hours

Formula Used:

Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time

Time = Total Work ÷ Efficiency

ComponentTime (hr)Total CapacityEfficiency
Pump (P)856 units7
Pump + Leak (P + L)28/36

Calculations:

⇒ Efficiency of Pump (P) = 56 ÷ 8 = 7 units/hr

⇒ Efficiency of (Pump + Leak) = 56 ÷ (28/3) = (56 × 3) ÷ 28 = 2 × 3 = 6 units/hr

⇒ Efficiency of Leak (L) = Efficiency of (P + L) − Efficiency of P

⇒ Efficiency of Leak (L) = 6 − 7 = −1 unit/hr (Negative sign denotes emptying)

⇒ Time taken by Leak to empty the tank = Total Capacity ÷ |Efficiency of Leak|

⇒ Time = 56 ÷ 1 = 56 hours

∴ The correct answer is 56 hr.

Additional Information

Pipes and Cisterns Concept

Filling pipes have positive efficiency, while leakage or outlet pipes have negative efficiency.

Leakage Formula

If a pipe fills a tank in 'x' hours and with a leak it takes 'y' hours, the leak empties it in (xy) ÷ (y − x) hours.

Total Work (Capacity)

LCM of individual time durations is the most efficient way to assume the total capacity of the tank.

Question 4

Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

HMP: KON

USQ: XUO

  1. AOption (a)

    DLV: GNT

  2. BOption (b)

    BIO: FNK

  3. COption (c)

    DWP: JZI

  4. DOption (d)

     KWZ: GSC

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

DLV: GNT

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

For HMP to KON

For USQ to XUO

The common pattern is a progressive letter shift of +3, +2, and -2 for each successive letter.

Checking the options:

Option 1) DLV to GNT

The pairs in the other options do not follow this pattern.

Thus, the pair DLV : GNT follows the same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 5

If 425 bananas were distributed among three monkeys in the ratio 8/3 : 7/5 : 8/5 in the mentioned order, how many bananas did the third monkey get?

  1. AOption (a)

    121

  2. BOption (b)

    120

  3. COption (c)

    118

  4. DOption (d)

    119

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

120

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Convert fractional ratio to whole number ratio by multiplying by LCM of denominators (3, 5, 5) = 15.

New Ratio → (8/3 × 15) : (7/5 × 15) : (8/5 × 15) = 40 : 21 : 24.

Total units = 40 + 21 + 24 = 85 units.

Third monkey's share = (24/85) × 425 = 24 × 5 = 120.

∴ The correct answer is 120 bananas.

Alternate Method

Given: Total bananas = 425, Ratio = 8/3 : 7/5 : 8/5

Step 1: Simplify the given ratio.

⇒ Ratio = (8/3) : (7/5) : (8/5)

⇒ Multiplying by 15 → 40 : 21 : 24

Step 2: Calculate sum of the parts.

⇒ Sum = 40 + 21 + 24 = 85

Step 3: Relate sum to total quantity.

⇒ 85 units = 425

⇒ 1 unit = 425 ÷ 85 = 5

Step 4: Find share of the third monkey.

⇒ 24 units = 24 × 5 = 120

∴ The correct answer is 120 bananas.

Additional Information

Fractional Ratios

To simplify a : b : c in fractional form, multiply each term by the Lowest Common Multiple (LCM) of all denominators.

Ratio & Proportion

If a quantity 'Q' is divided in the ratio a:b:c, the share of the third part is calculated as [c / (a + b + c)] × Q.

Question 6

Which of the following statements is true regarding ASCII, LAN, and CD in computer terminology?

  1. AOption (a)

    LAN refers to a wide geographical network like the internet.

  2. BOption (b)

    ASCII is used for formatting disks in a LAN network.

  3. COption (c)

    CD is a rewritable magnetic storage medium.

  4. DOption (d)

    ASCII represents characters using numeric codes in binary.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

ASCII represents characters using numeric codes in binary.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ASCII represents characters using numeric codes in binary.

Key Points

  • ASCII stands for American Standard Code for Information Interchange.
  • It is a character encoding standard that represents text in computers, telecommunications, and other devices.
  • ASCII uses numeric codes in binary, ranging from 0 to 127, to represent characters such as letters, digits, and symbols.
  • For example, the ASCII code for the uppercase letter 'A' is 65, and its binary equivalent is 01000001.
  • ASCII is widely used in programming, data storage, and communication systems as a foundational text encoding scheme.

Additional Information

  • LAN (Local Area Network)
  • A LAN is a network that connects computers and devices within a limited geographical area, such as a home, school, or office.
  • It enables resource sharing, including files, printers, and internet connections.
  • Unlike WAN (Wide Area Network), LAN covers a smaller area and typically offers higher data transfer speeds.
  • CD (Compact Disc)
  • A CD is an optical storage medium used to store data such as music, videos, and software.
  • Unlike magnetic storage, CDs use laser technology to read and write data.
  • CDs can be categorized as CD-ROM (read-only), CD-R (recordable), and CD-RW (rewritable).
  • Unicode
  • Unicode is a universal character encoding standard that extends ASCII to represent characters from multiple languages and scripts.
  • Unlike ASCII, which is limited to 128 characters, Unicode supports over 140,000 characters.
  • It ensures consistent representation of text across different systems and platforms.
  • Binary Number System
  • The binary number system uses only two digits: 0 and 1.
  • Computers operate using binary because it aligns with the digital nature of electronic circuits (on/off states).
  • Binary forms the foundation of all computer processing, data storage, and communication.

Question 7

Till which year has the term of Chief Economic Adviser V Anantha Nageswaran been extended?

  1. AOption (a)

    March 2028

  2. BOption (b)

    March 2026

  3. COption (c)

    March 2027

  4. DOption (d)

    March 2029

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

March 2027

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is March 2027.

Key Points

  • V Anantha Nageswaran is the Chief Economic Adviser (CEA) to the Government of India.
  • The term of the Chief Economic Adviser has been extended till March 2027, ensuring continuity in economic policy advisory.
  • V Anantha Nageswaran was appointed as the CEA on January 28, 2022, succeeding Krishnamurthy Subramanian.
  • As CEA, Nageswaran plays a crucial role in preparing key economic documents like the Economic Survey and advising the government on fiscal and monetary policies.
  • The extension is intended to leverage his expertise in guiding India’s economic strategies amidst global uncertainties.

Additional Information

  • Role of the Chief Economic Adviser:
  • The CEA is responsible for providing expert advice on economic matters to the Ministry of Finance.
  • Prepares the Economic Survey, an important annual document outlining India’s economic performance and future outlook.
  • Acts as an interface between policymakers and economists to ensure evidence-based decision-making.
  • Economic Survey:
  • An annual flagship report prepared by the Ministry of Finance under the guidance of the CEA.
  • It provides a detailed analysis of trends in the economy over the past year and suggests reforms for sustainable growth.
  • India’s Fiscal Policy:
  • Focuses on taxation and government spending to regulate economic activity.
  • Aims at achieving macroeconomic objectives like growth, employment, and inflation control.
  • Global Economic Uncertainty:
  • Factors such as inflation, geopolitical tensions, and monetary tightening by central banks worldwide impact India’s economic strategies.
  • The CEA's role is critical in navigating these challenges through informed policy recommendations.

Question 8

This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below. 

(Left) 617 335 930 459 571 (Right)

(Example-697 - First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7) (Note: All operations to be done from left to right.)

What will be the resultant if the first digit of the highest number is added to the third digit of the lowest number?

  1. AOption (a)

    17

  2. BOption (b)

    14

  3. COption (c)

    15

  4. DOption (d)

    13

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

14

Why this answer is correct

The given three-digit numbers are: 617, 335, 930, 459, 571.

Now,

The highest number is 930. Its first digit is 9.

The lowest number is 335. Its third digit is 5.

Perform the addition.

Add the first digit of the highest number 9 to the third digit of the lowest number 5.

9 + 5 = 14.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 9

If the median of a data is 46.36 less than its mode, then the median of the data exceeds its mean by______. (Use the empirical formula)

  1. AOption (a)

    20.83

  2. BOption (b)

    19.14

  3. COption (c)

    18.76

  4. DOption (d)

     23.18

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

 23.18

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Use the direct Empirical Formula relation: Mode − Median = 2 × (Median − Mean).

Given: Mode − Median = 46.36.

Substitute the value: 46.36 = 2 × (Median − Mean).

Median − Mean = 46.36 ÷ 2 = 23.18.

∴ The correct answer is 23.18.

Alternate Method

Given: Median = Mode − 46.36 ⇒ Mode − Median = 46.36.

Formula: The empirical relationship between Mean, Median, and Mode is Mode = 3 × Median − 2 × Mean.

⇒ Mode = 3 × Median − 2 × Mean

⇒ Mode − Median = (3 × Median − 2 × Mean) − Median

⇒ Mode − Median = 2 × Median − 2 × Mean

⇒ 46.36 = 2 × (Median − Mean)

⇒ Median − Mean = 46.36 ÷ 2

⇒ Median − Mean = 23.18

∴ The correct answer is 23.18.

Additional Information

Empirical Formula

For a moderately skewed distribution, the relationship is Mode = 3 Median − 2 Mean.

Symmetric Distribution

In a perfectly symmetrical distribution, the Mean, Median, and Mode are all equal (Mean = Median = Mode).

Mean-Mode Relation

The difference Mean − Mode = 3 × (Mean − Median) is another common form of this empirical rule.

Question 10

In a certain code language, 'COIL' is coded as '3457' and 'OPEN' is coded as '1246'.

What is the code for 'O' in the given code language?

  1. AOption (a)

    2

  2. BOption (b)

    4

  3. COption (c)

    1

  4. DOption (d)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

4

Why this answer is correct

The given code language is:

Thus, 'O' is coded as '4'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 11

Which Article of the Constitution of India mentions the Fundamental Duty of defending the country and rendering national service when called upon to do so?

  1. AOption (a)

    Article 51A (d)

  2. BOption (b)

    Article 51A (e)

  3. COption (c)

    Article 51A (a)

  4. DOption (d)

    Article 51A (c)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Article 51A (d)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Article 51A (d).

Key Points

  • Article 51A (d) of the Constitution of India mandates that it is the Fundamental Duty of every Indian citizen to "defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so."
  • Fundamental Duties were added to the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
  • These duties are enshrined under Part IVA of the Constitution.
  • The objective of incorporating Fundamental Duties is to remind citizens of their moral obligations toward the nation and to uphold the spirit of patriotism.
  • There are currently 11 Fundamental Duties listed in Article 51A of the Indian Constitution.

Additional Information

  • 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
  • It is also known as the "Mini Constitution" of India due to the significant changes it brought to the Constitution.
  • It introduced Fundamental Duties, added the words "Socialist," "Secular," and "Integrity" to the Preamble, and curtailed the power of the judiciary, among other changes.
  • Swaran Singh Committee
  • The Swaran Singh Committee was constituted in 1976 to recommend the inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Constitution.
  • It was named after Swaran Singh, the then Minister of External Affairs.
  • Fundamental Duties
  • The Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be enforced by the courts.
  • They serve as a moral code of conduct for citizens to contribute positively to society and the nation.
  • Part IVA of the Constitution
  • Part IVA was added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.
  • It contains only one Article, Article 51A, which enumerates the Fundamental Duties.

Question 12

What major event did The Washington Post cover to win the 2025 Pulitzer for Breaking News Reporting?

  1. AOption (a)

    Russian invasion of Ukraine

  2. BOption (b)

    Sudanese civil war

  3. COption (c)

    Donald Trump assassination attempt

  4. DOption (d)

    Texas school shooting

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Donald Trump assassination attempt

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Donald Trump assassination attempt.

Key Points

  • The Washington Post won the 2025 Pulitzer Prize for Breaking News Reporting for its comprehensive and timely coverage of an assassination attempt on Donald Trump, the former President of the United States.
  • The incident occurred in 2024 during a public event, where a failed assassination attempt led to widespread media attention and security concerns.
  • The Washington Post's team was recognized for their accuracy, depth of investigation, and real-time updates during and after the event.
  • The coverage included detailed reporting on the attack, the suspect's motives, and the response of law enforcement agencies.
  • The Pulitzer committee praised the newspaper's efforts in providing clarity and factual information amidst an evolving and highly sensitive situation.

Additional Information

  • Pulitzer Prize for Breaking News Reporting
  • Established in 1942, this category honors distinguished reporting on breaking news events by an individual or team.
  • Entries often showcase real-time coverage, investigative depth, and public impact.
  • It is one of the most prestigious awards in journalism, presented annually by Columbia University.
  • Donald Trump's Public Appearances
  • As a prominent political figure, Trump's public events often attract both supporters and detractors.
  • Heightened security measures are a norm due to his polarizing influence and global recognition.
  • Assassination Attempts on Political Leaders
  • Historically, political leaders worldwide have been targets of assassination attempts due to their influential roles.
  • Such events often lead to increased security protocols and public debates on safety measures.
  • Examples include attempts on leaders like John F. Kennedy, Ronald Reagan, and Indira Gandhi, among others.
  • Role of Media in Crisis Reporting
  • Media plays a crucial role in providing verified information during crises to prevent misinformation and panic.
  • Investigative journalism often aids in uncovering critical facts, ensuring accountability and transparency.
  • Organizations like The Washington Post are known for their commitment to journalistic integrity in such scenarios.

Question 13

A person who spends 52% of his monthly income is able to save ₹7,740 per month. His monthly expenses (in) are:

  1. AOption (a)

    8,348

  2. BOption (b)

    8,460

  3. COption (c)

    8,385

  4. DOption (d)

    8,344

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

8,385

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Savings percentage = 100% − 52% = 48%.

Given 48% = ₹7,740.

Expenses = 52%.

Value of 52% = (7,740 ÷ 48) × 52 = 161.25 × 52 = ₹8,385.

∴ The correct answer is ₹8,385.

Alternate Method

Given:

Expenditure = 52% of Monthly Income

Savings = ₹7,740

⇒ Let Monthly Income be I.

⇒ Savings = Income − Expenditure

⇒ 48% of I = 7,740

⇒ (48/100) × I = 7,740

⇒ I = (7,740 × 100) ÷ 48

⇒ I = 16,125

⇒ Monthly Expenses = 52% of 16,125

⇒ Monthly Expenses = 0.52 × 16,125 = 8,385

∴ The correct answer is ₹8,385.

Additional Information

Income Formula

Total Income is always the sum of Expenditure and Savings (I = E + S).

Percentage Change

If income increases by x% and expenditure by y%, the new savings can be calculated using the Base Change method.

Ratio Method

Convert percentages to fractions to simplify: 52% = 13/25. If Income is 25 units, Expense is 13 units and Savings is 12 units.

Question 14

According to the Regulating Act 1773, which of the following options is INCORRECT about the powers and responsibilities of the Governor General?

  1. AOption (a)

    Can make rules and regulations for the civil government of Fort William

  2. BOption (b)

    Can control the presidencies of Madras and Bombay in war and peace

  3. COption (c)

    Powered to superintendent the presidencies of Madras and Bombay in war and peace

  4. DOption (d)

    Can override the decision of his council

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Can override the decision of his council

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Can override the decision of his council.

Key Points

  • The Regulating Act of 1773 established the office of the Governor-General of Bengal, who was assisted by an executive council of four members.
  • The Governor-General was empowered to make rules and regulations for the civil government of Fort William in Bengal.
  • The Governor-General had the power to control and superintend the presidencies of Madras and Bombay in matters of war and peace.
  • However, the Governor-General could not override the decision of his council; decisions were to be taken collectively, and in the event of a tie, the Governor-General held the casting vote.
  • This limitation was an attempt to ensure checks and balances within the colonial administration.

Additional Information

  • Regulating Act of 1773:
  • The first attempt by the British Parliament to regulate the affairs of the East India Company and its territories in India.
  • It marked the beginning of parliamentary control over the Company's administration in India.
  • It restricted the private trade of Company officials and sought to address administrative corruption.
  • Governor-General of Bengal:
  • The Regulating Act designated the Governor of Bengal as the Governor-General of Bengal.
  • Warren Hastings was the first Governor-General under the Act.
  • Executive Council:
  • The Governor-General's Executive Council consisted of four members appointed by the Court of Directors of the East India Company.
  • It functioned as a decision-making body, with the Governor-General having the casting vote.
  • Limitations of the Regulating Act:
  • The Act failed to provide adequate checks on the Governor-General's powers.
  • Conflicts often arose between the Governor-General and his council members due to the lack of clarity in decision-making authority.
  • This led to the enactment of the Pitt's India Act of 1784, which introduced further reforms.

Question 15

This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 103 678 217 111 537 (Right)

(Example: 697 - First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7) (Note: All operations to be done from left to right.)

What will be the resultant if the second digit of the highest number is added to the first digit of the lowest number?

  1. AOption (a)

    8

  2. BOption (b)

    9

  3. COption (c)

    7

  4. DOption (d)

    11

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

8

Why this answer is correct

The given three-digit numbers are: 103, 678, 217, 111, 537.

Now,

The highest number is 678. Its second digit is 7.

The lowest number is 103. Its first digit is 1.

Perform the addition.

Add the second digit of the highest number 7 to the first digit of the lowest number 1.

7 + 1 = 8.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 16

What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if '+' and '×' are interchanged and ‘−’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

612÷45 + 13 x 936 - 78 =?

  1. AOption (a)

    106

  2. BOption (b)

    15

  3. COption (c)

    112

  4. DOption (d)

    39

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

39

Why this answer is correct

The question contains a slightly confusing set of interchange rules. However, based on the options, the most logical and correct interpretation of the rules is that ‘+’ and ‘×’ are interchanged and ‘−’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged.

The given equation is:

612 ÷ 45 + 13 × 936 − 78 = ?

After applying the interchange rules, the equation becomes:

612 − 45 × 13 + 936 ÷ 78 = ?

Now, we solve the equation following the BODMAS rule:

= 612 − 45 × 13 + 936 ÷ 78

= 612 − 585 + 12

= 27 + 12 = 39

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 17

In March 2025, what important decision did the Supreme Court of India make regarding disability rights?

  1. AOption (a)

    It allowed only private companies to hire persons with disabilities.

  2. BOption (b)

    It said disability rights are a part of fundamental rights.

  3. COption (c)

    It removed reservations for persons with disabilities.

  4. DOption (d)

    It banned all exams for persons with disabilities.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

It said disability rights are a part of fundamental rights.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is It said disability rights are a part of fundamental rights..

Key Points

  • The Supreme Court of India, in March 2025, declared that disability rights are an integral part of fundamental rights under the Indian Constitution.
  • This landmark decision emphasized the enforcement of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, ensuring equality, dignity, and inclusion for persons with disabilities.
  • The judgment underscored Article 21 of the Constitution, which guarantees the right to life with dignity, and linked it to the rights of individuals with disabilities.
  • It mandated that public and private entities must ensure reasonable accommodations for persons with disabilities to eliminate discrimination.
  • The ruling reinforced the idea that accessibility, equal opportunities, and non-discrimination are essential for fostering an inclusive society.

Additional Information

  • Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 (RPwD Act):
  • It replaced the Persons with Disabilities (Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights, and Full Participation) Act, 1995.
  • The Act recognizes 21 types of disabilities, including mental illness, autism, and dwarfism.
  • It ensures rights such as education, employment, and social security for persons with disabilities.
  • It mandates a reservation of 4% in government jobs and 5% in educational institutions for persons with benchmark disabilities.
  • Fundamental Rights under the Indian Constitution:
  • Fundamental rights are guaranteed under Articles 12–35 of the Indian Constitution.
  • Article 21 guarantees the right to life and personal liberty, which includes the right to live with dignity.
  • Equality before law (Article 14) and prohibition of discrimination (Article 15) are key provisions supporting disability rights.
  • Reasonable Accommodation:
  • It refers to necessary and appropriate modifications to ensure persons with disabilities can enjoy their rights equally.
  • Examples include ramps in buildings, assistive technologies, or extended time during examinations.
  • Global Framework on Disability Rights:
  • The United Nations Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (UNCRPD) was adopted in 2006.
  • India ratified the UNCRPD in 2007, committing to its principles of equality, non-discrimination, and accessibility.

Question 18

What is the dominant soil type in the Great Plains of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Laterite soil

  2. BOption (b)

    Black cotton soil

  3. COption (c)

    Alluvial soil

  4. DOption (d)

    Red soil

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Alluvial soil

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Alluvial soil.

Key Points

  • Alluvial soil is the dominant soil type found in the Great Plains of India.
  • It is formed by the deposition of silt, sand, and clay brought down by rivers like the Ganga, Yamuna, Brahmaputra, and their tributaries.
  • The Great Plains are a part of the Indo-Gangetic-Brahmaputra plain, which is one of the most fertile regions in the world.
  • Alluvial soils in the region are highly suitable for agriculture, supporting the cultivation of crops like wheat, rice, sugarcane, and pulses.
  • These soils are rich in nutrients such as potash and lime but are generally deficient in nitrogen and phosphorus.

Additional Information

  • Alluvial Soil:
  • It is categorized into two types: Khadar (new alluvium), which is found closer to riverbanks, and Bhangar (old alluvium), located farther from rivers.
  • Khadar soils are more fertile due to frequent river depositions, while Bhangar soils contain kankar (calcareous concretions).
  • Formation of Alluvial Soil: This soil is formed by the action of rivers and is transported and deposited over time, creating extensive plains and deltas.
  • Distribution in India: Alluvial soils are extensively found in the northern plains, including Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, and West Bengal, and along river valleys in other parts of the country.
  • Agricultural Importance: Due to their fine texture, good water-retention capacity, and nutrient content, alluvial soils are considered ideal for intensive agricultural activities.
  • Soil Management: Regular use of fertilizers and crop rotation practices are necessary to replenish nutrients and maintain soil fertility.

Question 19

Find the area of the sector when the radius of the circle is 16.2 units and the length of the arc is 5 units.

  1. AOption (a)

    40.5 units2

  2. BOption (b)

    42.5 units2

  3. COption (c)

    44.5 units² 

  4. DOption (d)

    46.5 units2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

40.5 units2

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Area of a sector can be calculated directly if the arc length (l) and radius (r) are known.

Shortcut formula: Area = (1 ÷ 2) × l × r

⇒ Area = 0.5 × 5 × 16.2

⇒ Area = 2.5 × 16.2 = 40.5

∴ The correct answer is 40.5 units2.

Alternate Method

Given:

Radius (r) = 16.2 units

Arc length (l) = 5 units

Formula Used:

Area of Sector = (l × r) ÷ 2

Calculations:

⇒ Area = (5 × 16.2) ÷ 2

⇒ Area = 81 ÷ 2

⇒ Area = 40.5

∴ The correct answer is 40.5 units2.

Additional Information

Arc Length Formula

The length of an arc (l) is given by (θ ÷ 360) × 2πr, where θ is the central angle in degrees.

Sector Area (θ method)

Area of a sector can also be calculated as (θ ÷ 360) × πr2.

Perimeter of Sector

The total boundary of a sector is l + 2r, which includes the arc length and two radii.

Question 20

Deficiency of which nutrient is most directly linked to reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of blood?

  1. AOption (a)

    lodine

  2. BOption (b)

    Iron

  3. COption (c)

    Vitamin A

  4. DOption (d)

    Calcium

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Iron

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Iron.

Key Points

  • Iron is an essential nutrient required for the synthesis of hemoglobin, a protein in red blood cells responsible for oxygen transport in the body.
  • Iron deficiency leads to a condition called iron-deficiency anemia, which directly reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood.
  • The primary symptoms of iron-deficiency anemia include fatigue, weakness, pale skin, and shortness of breath due to insufficient oxygen supply to tissues.
  • Dietary sources of iron include red meat, poultry, fish, legumes, leafy green vegetables, and iron-fortified cereals.
  • Iron absorption is enhanced by vitamin C, whereas substances like calcium and phytates can inhibit its absorption.

Additional Information

  • Hemoglobin:
  • Hemoglobin is a protein in red blood cells that binds to oxygen in the lungs and transports it to tissues throughout the body.
  • Each hemoglobin molecule contains iron, which is critical for its oxygen-binding capacity.
  • Iron-Deficiency Anemia:
  • A condition where the body lacks sufficient iron to produce adequate amounts of hemoglobin.
  • It is the most common type of anemia globally and can affect people of all ages.
  • Types of Iron:
  • Heme iron: Found in animal-based foods like meat and is more easily absorbed by the body.
  • Non-heme iron: Found in plant-based foods and has lower bioavailability compared to heme iron.
  • Iron Absorption:
  • Vitamin C-rich foods like oranges and tomatoes enhance iron absorption.
  • Calcium, tea, coffee, and whole grains may inhibit iron absorption when consumed together with iron-rich foods.
  • Prevention and Treatment:
  • Preventing iron deficiency involves consuming a balanced diet rich in iron and vitamin C.
  • Iron supplements may be prescribed in cases of severe deficiency, under medical supervision.

Question 21

In Windows 11, why might you receive an 'Access is denied' error when trying to rename a file?

  1. AOption (a)

    You are using the wrong drive letter.

  2. BOption (b)

    You are renaming from the Recycle Bin.

  3. COption (c)

    ​The file ownership has changed.

  4. DOption (d)

    The file has no extension.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

​The file ownership has changed.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The file ownership has changed..

Key Points

  • An "Access is denied" error in Windows 11 can occur when the ownership of the file has changed.
  • Ownership changes might happen if the file is moved from another user account, system, or network location.
  • To resolve this issue, you need to take ownership of the file via the file's properties under the "Security" tab.
  • Administrative privileges may be required to make changes to file ownership.
  • This error can also occur if the file is locked by another process or user that has exclusive access to it.

Additional Information

  • File Ownership in Windows
  • File ownership determines which user or group has control over a file or folder.
  • By default, the user who creates the file becomes its owner.
  • Ownership can be transferred by administrators or through manual configuration.
  • Steps to Take Ownership
  • Right-click the file or folder and select "Properties."
  • Navigate to the "Security" tab and click "Advanced."
  • Under the "Owner" section, click "Change" and assign ownership to the desired user.
  • Apply the changes to complete the process.
  • Common Causes of File Ownership Issues
  • Files restored from backups may retain their previous ownership settings.
  • Files downloaded from the internet or external storage devices may have restricted ownership.
  • Changes in user accounts or system updates can also affect file ownership.
  • Other Possible Reasons for "Access Denied" Errors
  • File permissions: The user may lack the necessary read/write permissions.
  • File in use: The file might be open or locked by another process.
  • Corrupt file or system: Issues with file integrity or the operating system can lead to errors.
  • Antivirus software: Overly aggressive security software may block access to certain files.

Question 22

Each of P, Q, R, S, T, U and V has an exam on a different day of a week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week. R has an exam on Thursday. Exactly 4 people have their exam between U and T, neither of whom has an exam on Sunday. S has an exam immediately before Q. P does not have an exam on Friday. U does not have an exam after Q. How many people have an exam after Q?

  1. AOption (a)

    3

  2. BOption (b)

    2

  3. COption (c)

    1

  4. DOption (d)

    4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

4

Why this answer is correct

Given: Each of P, Q, R, S, T, U and V has an exam on a different day of a week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week.

R has an exam on Thursday.

DayPerson
Monday
Tuesday
Wednesday
ThursdayR
Friday
Saturday
Sunday

 

Exactly 4 people have their exam between U and T, neither of whom has an exam on Sunday.

S has an exam immediately before Q

U does not have an exam after Q.

DayPerson
MondayU
TuesdayS
WednesdayQ
ThursdayR
Friday
SaturdayT
Sunday

 

P does not have an exam on Friday. 

And V sits at the remaining place.

DayPerson
MondayU
TuesdayS
WednesdayQ
ThursdayR
FridayV
SaturdayT
SundayP

4 people have an exam after Q.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4."

Question 23

Which of the following materials was not used for making ornaments during the Harappan civilisation?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ivory

  2. BOption (b)

    Carnelian

  3. COption (c)

    Steatite

  4. DOption (d)

    Diamond

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Diamond

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Diamond.

Key Points

  • During the Harappan civilisation, ornaments were made using materials like ivory, carnelian, steatite, and gold.
  • Diamond was not used for making ornaments in the Harappan era due to the lack of advanced mining technology and tools required to extract diamonds.
  • Carnelian, a semiprecious stone, was widely used in bead-making and ornamentation, showcasing the Harappans' expertise in craftsmanship.
  • Steatite, a soft stone, was extensively used for crafting beads and seals, reflecting its significance in Harappan material culture.
  • Ivory was utilized to create intricate decorative items and ornaments, indicating the availability of elephants in the region.

Additional Information

  • Carnelian:
  • A reddish-orange semiprecious stone extensively used by the Harappans for bead-making.
  • It was sourced locally or imported from regions like Gujarat and Afghanistan.
  • Carnelian beads often underwent heat treatment to enhance their color and durability.
  • Steatite:
  • A soft stone used for seals, beads, and ornaments during the Harappan civilisation.
  • Harappan seals made of steatite often featured animal motifs and inscriptions in the undeciphered script.
  • Steatite items reflect the high level of artistic skill and intricate workmanship of the Harappans.
  • Ivory:
  • Ivory from elephant tusks was used to create various decorative objects and ornaments.
  • The use of ivory indicates the presence of elephants in the Indus Valley region and trade in ivory goods.
  • Ivory items were often meticulously crafted, showcasing the Harappans' mastery in carving.
  • Diamond Extraction:
  • Diamonds were not used in the Harappan civilisation due to the lack of advanced mining techniques.
  • Diamond mining and usage became prominent in later periods, notably during the ancient Indian kingdoms.
  • Early diamond sources in India were located in the Krishna River basin in modern-day Andhra Pradesh.

Question 24

Harappan trade relations extended to:

  1. AOption (a)

    Mesopotamia

  2. BOption (b)

    Greece

  3. COption (c)

    Persia

  4. DOption (d)

    Rome

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Mesopotamia

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mesopotamia.

Key Points

  • The Harappan Civilization (also known as the Indus Valley Civilization) had extensive trade relations with Mesopotamia, as evidenced by archaeological findings.
  • Trade items included goods like cotton textiles, beads, lapis lazuli, carnelian, and other semi-precious stones, which were highly valued in Mesopotamia.
  • Mesopotamian records refer to a region called "Meluhha," believed to be the Indus Valley, indicating direct or indirect trade between these two ancient civilizations.
  • Artifacts such as Harappan seals and weights have been discovered in Mesopotamia, corroborating the existence of trade links.
  • These trade relations were facilitated via maritime routes across the Arabian Sea and overland routes through Persia and the Persian Gulf region.

Additional Information

  • Harappan Seals:
  • Seals made of steatite were a hallmark of Harappan culture and were used in trade for authentication and identification of goods.
  • Some seals discovered in Mesopotamia have inscriptions resembling Harappan script, strengthening evidence of trade.
  • Meluhha:
  • In Mesopotamian texts, "Meluhha" is described as a distant land, rich in resources like timber, ivory, and lapis lazuli, believed to refer to the Indus Valley region.
  • References to Meluhha occur in Sumerian and Akkadian records dating from around 2300 BCE.
  • Trade Routes:
  • Harappans utilized maritime routes across the Arabian Sea, connecting their ports like Lothal with Mesopotamia and other regions.
  • Overland trade routes through Persia and the Oxus Valley also played a significant role in facilitating trade.
  • Key Harappan Trade Ports:
  • Lothal: A major port city that served as a trade hub with advanced dockyard facilities.
  • Sutkagen Dor: A coastal settlement near present-day Pakistan, likely involved in maritime trade with Mesopotamia.

Question 25

Which of the following is the war dance of the Nagas?

  1. AOption (a)

    Thang Ta

  2. BOption (b)

    Rangma

  3. COption (c)

    Alkap

  4. DOption (d)

    Danda-Jatra

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rangma

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Rangma.

Key Points

  • Rangma is a traditional war dance performed by the Naga tribes of Nagaland, symbolizing bravery and martial prowess.
  • This dance is performed during ceremonies and festivals, particularly to commemorate victories in battles or to invoke courage.
  • The dancers often wear traditional warrior attire, including headgear adorned with feathers and ornaments representing tribal identity.
  • The dance movements mimic combat actions, showcasing the agility and fighting skills of the performers.
  • Rangma dance is an integral part of the Naga culture, reflecting the community's strong warrior tradition and historical significance.

Additional Information

  • Naga Tribes:
  • The Nagas are a group of indigenous tribes residing primarily in Nagaland, northeastern India, as well as parts of Manipur, Arunachal Pradesh, and Myanmar.
  • Each Naga tribe has its unique customs, traditions, and dialects, making their culture highly diverse.
  • Traditional Dances of Nagaland:
  • Other dances include the Sumi war dance, performed during festivals like Tuluni and Ahuna.
  • These dances often serve as expressions of gratitude, celebration, and community bonding.
  • Festivals of Nagaland:
  • Hornbill Festival is the most prominent festival, showcasing the diverse cultural heritage of all Naga tribes.
  • It is held annually in December and features traditional dances, music, arts, and crafts.
  • Significance of War Dances:
  • War dances in tribal communities often represent valor, unity, and preparation for battle.
  • They also serve as a medium to pass down ancestral stories and warrior skills to younger generations.

Question 26

A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. B sits third to the left of F. C sits second to the left of D. Only F sits between A and C. G is not an immediate neighbour of B. How many people sit between A and D when counted from the left of D?

  1. AOption (a)

    Four

  2. BOption (b)

    Two

  3. COption (c)

    One

  4. DOption (d)

    Three

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Three

Why this answer is correct

Given: A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. 

C sits second to the left of D.

Only F sits between A and C.

B sits third to the left of F.

G is not an immediate neighbour of B. 

And E sits at the remaining place.

Thus, three people sit between A and D when counted from the left of D.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 27

Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to the Supreme Court judgement in 'The State Of Tamil Nadu vs The Governor Of Tamil Nadu' on 8 April 2025?

  1. The Supreme Court held that the Governor cannot withhold assent after a bill is re-passed by the legislature.
  2. The Court used its powers under Article 142 to deem 10 pending Bills as having received assent.
  3. The judgement laid down that the Governor may reserve a re-enacted Bill for Presidential consideration.
  1. AOption (a)

    Only 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 1 and 2

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 1 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only 1 and 2.

Key Points

  • The Supreme Court ruled that the Governor does not have the discretion to withhold assent to a Bill once it is re-passed by the legislature, as per the constitutional framework.
  • The Court exercised its powers under Article 142 of the Constitution to declare 10 pending Bills as having received the Governor's assent, ensuring legislative processes are not unduly delayed.
  • The judgment emphasized that withholding assent by the Governor without valid reasons undermines the legislative authority of the elected assembly.
  • The decision reinforces the principle of cooperative federalism and ensures accountability of constitutional functionaries like Governors.
  • The judgment did not include any provision for the Governor to reserve a re-enacted Bill for Presidential consideration, focusing solely on legislative assent processes.

Additional Information

  • Article 142: It grants the Supreme Court wide discretionary powers to pass decrees or orders to ensure "complete justice" in any case, even if such actions are not explicitly provided in the statute.
  • Role of the Governor: As per the Indian Constitution, the Governor acts as the constitutional head of the state and is required to act on the advice of the state council of ministers in most matters.
  • Legislative Process: Once a Bill is passed by a state legislature, it is sent to the Governor for assent. The Governor can assent, withhold, return (if not a money Bill), or reserve it for Presidential consideration.
  • Cooperative Federalism: This principle emphasizes the collaboration between the Union and state governments while respecting each other's jurisdictions as outlined in the Constitution.
  • Judicial Review: The judiciary has the power to review the actions of constitutional authorities, including Governors, to ensure they act within their constitutional limits.

Question 28

What is the expected investment target under the Tamil Nadu Space Industrial Policy 2025?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹10,000 crore

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹5,000 crore

  3. COption (c)

    ₹15,000 crore

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹20,000 crore

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

₹10,000 crore

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ₹10,000 crore.

Key Points

  • The Tamil Nadu government has set an ambitious target of attracting ₹10,000 crore investments under its Tamil Nadu Space Industrial Policy 2025.
  • The policy aims to position Tamil Nadu as a hub for space industry and research, leveraging the state’s strong industrial base and technological ecosystem.
  • It seeks to promote growth in the space sector, including areas like satellite manufacturing, launch services, and ground station operations.
  • The policy also focuses on fostering innovation by encouraging start-ups and academic institutions to participate in the space ecosystem.
  • It is aligned with India’s vision of becoming a major player in the global space economy by enhancing domestic capabilities and infrastructure.

Additional Information

  • Space Economy in India:
  • India’s space economy is valued at approximately $9.6 billion, which is about 2% of the global space economy.
  • It includes segments such as satellite services, ground equipment, and manufacturing.
  • India’s space program is spearheaded by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), which has achieved several milestones globally.
  • Global Space Industry Trends:
  • The global space economy is expected to reach $1 trillion by 2040, driven by advancements in satellite technology and private sector investments.
  • Key players include SpaceX, Blue Origin, and government agencies like NASA, ESA, and Roscosmos.
  • Indian Space Start-ups:
  • India has seen a surge in private space start-ups like Skyroot Aerospace, Agnikul Cosmos, and Pixxel.
  • These start-ups focus on areas such as small satellite launches, payload development, and data analytics.
  • Key Objectives of Tamil Nadu Space Industrial Policy:
  • To develop world-class infrastructure for space-related industries.
  • To attract investments in research, development, and manufacturing.
  • To generate employment opportunities in the high-tech sector.
  • To collaborate with ISRO and other global space agencies.

Question 29

Which of the following states is famous for its ingenious water conservation methods, 'taanka' or 'kunds'?

  1. AOption (a)

    Uttar Pradesh

  2. BOption (b)

    Rajasthan

  3. COption (c)

    Karnataka

  4. DOption (d)

    Madhya Pradesh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rajasthan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Rajasthan.

Key Points

  • Rajasthan is renowned for its traditional water conservation systems, especially 'taanka' and 'kunds', which are designed to store rainwater efficiently.
  • 'Kunds' are circular underground structures with sloping roofs that collect rainwater, making them ideal for arid regions.
  • 'Taanka' is a technique used to store water in small tanks, usually found near households, ensuring water availability during dry seasons.
  • These systems are vital in Rajasthan's desert climate, which experiences low and erratic rainfall, emphasizing the need for sustainable water management.
  • Such indigenous methods highlight Rajasthan's commitment to water conservation and its cultural heritage of managing scarce resources effectively.

Additional Information

  • Water Conservation Techniques in India:
  • India employs several traditional water conservation methods, such as stepwells (baolis), johads, and check dams.
  • These techniques are tailored to specific climatic and geographical conditions.
  • Rainwater Harvesting:
  • A modern adaptation of traditional systems, rainwater harvesting involves collecting and storing rainwater for domestic and agricultural use.
  • It is widely promoted in India to address water scarcity issues, particularly in urban areas.
  • Desert Climate of Rajasthan:
  • Rajasthan is characterized by extreme temperatures, low rainfall (average annual rainfall of 100-400 mm), and arid conditions.
  • Indigenous water conservation systems like 'kunds' and 'taankas' have played a pivotal role in sustaining life in such challenging environments.
  • Historical Importance of Water Conservation:
  • Traditional water systems like 'kunds' have been used for centuries and are examples of sustainable development practices.
  • They showcase the ingenuity of communities in adapting to harsh climates while preserving resources.

Question 30

A and B complete a work in 14 days. If A alone can do it in 56 days, then B alone can do three-fourth of the same work in days.

  1. AOption (a)

    42

  2. BOption (b)

    56

  3. COption (c)

    14

  4. DOption (d)

    28

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

14

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Combined efficiency (A+B) = Total Work ÷ Days = 56 ÷ 14 = 4

A efficiency = 56 ÷ 56 = 1

B efficiency = 4 − 1 = 3

Time for B to do 3/4 work = (3/4 × 56) ÷ 3 = 42 ÷ 3 = 14 days

∴ The correct answer is 14 days.

Alternate Method

Given: Time taken by (A+B) = 14 days, Time taken by A = 56 days.

Formula: 1/B = 1/(A+B) − 1/A

PersonDaysTotal WorkEfficiency
A + B14564
A561

⇒ Efficiency of B = Efficiency of (A + B) − Efficiency of A

⇒ Efficiency of B = 4 − 1 = 3 units/day

⇒ Total Work = 56 units

⇒ 3/4 of Total Work = 56 × (3/4) = 42 units

⇒ Time taken by B = 42 ÷ 3 = 14 days

∴ The correct answer is 14 days.

Additional Information

Time and Efficiency Relationship

Time taken is inversely proportional to efficiency. Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time.

Combined Work Formula

If two people work together, their combined efficiency is the sum of their individual efficiencies.

Fractional Work

Time for partial work = (Fraction × Total Work) ÷ Efficiency of the person.

Question 31

Who among the following has been appointed as the Chairperson of National Commission for Women (NCW), in October 2024?

  1. AOption (a)

    Anju Rathi Rana

  2. BOption (b)

    Vijaya Kishore Rahatkar

  3. COption (c)

    Amit Kumar

  4. DOption (d)

    Arti Sarin

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Vijaya Kishore Rahatkar

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Vijaya Kishore Rahatkar.

Key Points

  • Vijaya Kishore Rahatkar was appointed as the Chairperson of the National Commission for Women (NCW) in October 2024.
  • She has previously served in prominent leadership roles, including as the President of BJP Mahila Morcha.
  • Her appointment reflects her extensive experience in advocacy for women's rights and empowerment in India.
  • The NCW is a statutory body established under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990, tasked with addressing issues affecting women.
  • The Chairperson plays a critical role in shaping policies and initiatives to ensure gender equality and protection of women's rights.

Additional Information

  • National Commission for Women (NCW)
  • The NCW was established in January 1992 under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990.
  • Its primary role is to review legal provisions to safeguard women's rights and recommend measures for their effective implementation.
  • The NCW also investigates specific complaints of violations of women's rights and monitors the functioning of laws relating to women.
  • The commission aims to promote equality and fair treatment of women in various spheres, including employment and societal roles.
  • Chairperson's Role
  • The Chairperson leads the commission in formulating policies and strategies to address women's issues.
  • They represent the NCW in interactions with government bodies, NGOs, and international organizations.
  • The Chairperson is responsible for ensuring that the commission fulfills its mandate under the law.
  • Key Functions of NCW
  • Safeguarding rights guaranteed to women under the Constitution of India.
  • Reviewing existing legislation and proposing amendments to address contemporary challenges faced by women.
  • Creating awareness campaigns and programs to promote gender equality.
  • Investigating complaints regarding women's issues and taking up cases with relevant authorities.
  • Previous Chairpersons
  • The NCW has had several notable leaders, including Rekha Sharma, who served as Chairperson before Vijaya Kishore Rahatkar.
  • Past Chairpersons have contributed significantly to landmark initiatives and advocacy efforts for women's rights.

Question 32

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

428, 405, 372, ?, 276, 213

  1. AOption (a)

    319

  2. BOption (b)

    329

  3. COption (c)

    229

  4. DOption (d)

    339

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

329

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Thus, the missing number in the series is 329.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 33

Which of the following statements regarding the Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan launched in 2024 is/are correct?

  1. The scheme aims for the holistic development of tribal areas through 25 interventions in health, education and livelihood.
  2. The scheme benefits only 10 states with scheduled areas, excluding other tribal areas.
  3. It was launched by Vice President Jagdeep Dhankhar in Jharkhand on 2nd October 2024.
  1. AOption (a)

    Only 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 1

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 1 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only 1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only 1.

Key Points

  • The Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan was launched in 2024 to ensure the holistic development of tribal areas.
  • The scheme focuses on 25 interventions spanning health, education, and livelihood to improve the quality of life for tribal populations.
  • It aims to address socio-economic disparities and promote sustainable development in tribal areas.
  • Unlike the statement in Option 2, the scheme is not limited to only 10 states with scheduled areas. It encompasses a broader range of tribal regions.
  • Option 3 is incorrect as the scheme was launched by another dignitary, not Vice President Jagdeep Dhankhar, and the launch details provided in the statement are inaccurate.

Additional Information

  • Tribal Development:
  • Tribal communities in India face challenges like inadequate access to education, healthcare, and sustainable livelihoods.
  • Government schemes aim to bridge these gaps and ensure inclusive growth for tribal populations.
  • Scheduled Areas:
  • Scheduled Areas are regions identified under the Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution to protect tribal communities.
  • These areas receive special administration and developmental support.
  • Tribal Sub-Plan (TSP):
  • The TSP strategy ensures that a fixed proportion of funds are allocated for tribal development under various central and state government schemes.
  • It aims to address the socio-economic gaps in tribal regions.
  • Jharkhand and Tribal Focus:
  • Jharkhand is home to a significant tribal population and has been a focal point for tribal development initiatives.
  • Efforts in the state include improving education, healthcare access, and preservation of tribal culture.

Question 34

If 18% of a number is equal to 45\frac{4}{5} of another number, then what is the ratio of the first number to the second number ?

  1. AOption (a)

    43:5

  2. BOption (b)

    42:13

  3. COption (c)

    40 : 9

  4. DOption (d)

    41:6

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

40 : 9

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Convert 18% and 4/5 to a common format for comparison.

18% of First Number (A) = 80% of Second Number (B) since 4/5 = 80%.

Ratio A : B = 80 : 18 = 40 : 9.

∴ The correct answer is 40 : 9.

Alternate Method

Given: 18% of first number = 4/5 of second number.

Formula Used: Percentage to Fraction conversion: x% = x/100.

⇒ Let the first number be x and the second number be y.

⇒ (18/100) × x = (4/5) × y

⇒ (9/50) × x = (4/5) × y

⇒ x / y = (4/5) × (50/9)

⇒ x / y = (4 × 10) / 9

⇒ x / y = 40 / 9

∴ The correct answer is 40 : 9.

Additional Information

Percentage to Fraction Conversion

To convert a percentage to a fraction, divide by 100 and simplify. Example: 20% = 20/100 = 1/5.

Ratio and Proportion

If a × X = b × Y, then the ratio X : Y is equal to b : a.

Fraction to Percentage

Multiply the fraction by 100 to get the percentage value. Example: 4/5 × 100 = 80%.

Question 35

According to Airports Authority of India, which Indian airport was the busiest in terms of passenger traffic in Financial Year 2023-2024?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kempegowda International Airport, Bengaluru

  2. BOption (b)

    Indira Gandhi International Airport, Delhi

  3. COption (c)

    Rajiv Gandhi International Airport, Hyderabad

  4. DOption (d)

    Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj International Airport, Mumbai

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Indira Gandhi International Airport, Delhi

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Indira Gandhi International Airport, Delhi.

Key Points

  • Indira Gandhi International Airport (IGIA), located in Delhi, was the busiest airport in India in terms of passenger traffic for the financial year 2023-2024.
  • IGIA serves as the primary hub for major airlines, including Air India, Vistara, and IndiGo, connecting domestic and international destinations.
  • In FY 2023-2024, IGIA handled a record-breaking number of passengers, surpassing 70 million annual passengers as per Airports Authority of India (AAI) data.
  • The airport has consistently ranked among the top in terms of passenger traffic due to its strategic location, advanced infrastructure, and efficient operations.
  • IGIA also features Terminal 3 (T3), one of the largest passenger terminals in the world, handling both domestic and international flights.

Additional Information

  • Passenger Traffic in India
  • India's aviation sector is one of the fastest-growing in the world, with a significant increase in domestic and international passenger traffic.
  • As of FY 2023-2024, the Airports Authority of India (AAI) reported a steady recovery post-COVID-19, with several airports achieving pre-pandemic traffic levels.
  • Delhi, Mumbai, Bengaluru, and Hyderabad airports are among the busiest in the country in terms of passenger and aircraft movement.
  • Indira Gandhi International Airport Overview
  • IGIA is managed by Delhi International Airport Limited (DIAL), a consortium led by GMR Group.
  • The airport has three operational terminals: T1 (domestic), T2 (domestic low-cost carriers), and T3 (mixed-use for international and domestic).
  • It has won several awards, including the prestigious ACI Airport Service Quality (ASQ) awards.
  • Key Growth Drivers for IGIA
  • Delhi's central location and connectivity to major cities within India and abroad contribute to its high passenger traffic.
  • Ongoing infrastructure development, including the expansion of runways and terminals, ensures capacity to handle future growth.
  • Strategic partnerships with airlines and government initiatives like the UDAN scheme play a pivotal role in its success.
  • Economic Impact of IGIA
  • IGIA is a significant contributor to the Indian economy, supporting millions of jobs directly and indirectly.
  • The airport also serves as a hub for cargo operations, facilitating international trade and commerce.

Question 36

What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if '+' is replaced by '-' and ‘×’ and ‘÷' are interchanged?

55 ÷ 7 + 9 x 3 + 1 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    385

  2. BOption (b)

    381

  3. COption (c)

    378

  4. DOption (d)

    390

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

381

Why this answer is correct

Given interchange rules:

  • ‘+’ is replaced by ‘−’.
  • ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged.

The given equation is:

55 ÷ 7 + 9 × 3 + 1 = ?

After applying the interchange rules, the equation becomes:

55 × 7 − 9 ÷ 3 − 1 = ?

Now, we solve the equation following the BODMAS rule:

= 55 × 7 − 9 ÷ 3 − 1

= 385 − 3 − 1

= 382 − 1 = 381

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 37

The roots of the quadratic equation 3x2 - 7x + 1 = 0 are:

  1. AOption (a)

    \(\frac{(7+ \sqrt{37)}}{6} \quad \text{&} \quad \frac{(7 - \sqrt{37)}}{6}\)

  2. BOption (b)

    \(\frac{(7+ \sqrt{37)}}{1.5} \quad \text{&} \quad \frac{(7 - \sqrt{37)}}{1.5}\)

  3. COption (c)

    \(\frac{(-7+ \sqrt{37)}}{3} \quad \text{&} \quad \frac{(-7 - \sqrt{37)}}{3}\)

  4. DOption (d)

    \(\frac{(-7+ \sqrt{37)}}{3} \quad \text{&} \quad \frac{(7 + \sqrt{37)}}{1.5}\)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

\(\frac{(7+ \sqrt{37)}}{6} \quad \text{&} \quad \frac{(7 - \sqrt{37)}}{6}\)

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

For the equation 3x2 − 7x + 1 = 0, identify coefficients a = 3, b = −7, c = 1.

Calculate the Discriminant (D) = b2 − 4ac = (−7)2 − 4(3)(1) = 49 − 12 = 37.

Apply the Quadratic Formula directly: x = (−b ± √D) / 2a.

x = (7 ± √37) / (2 × 3) = (7 ± √37) / 6.

∴ The correct answer is (7 + √37)/6 and (7 − √37)/6.

Alternate Method

Given:

Quadratic equation: 3x2 − 7x + 1 = 0

Formula Used:

For a quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0, the roots are given by:

x = (−b ± √(b2 − 4ac)) / 2a

Calculations:

Comparing 3x2 − 7x + 1 = 0 with ax2 + bx + c = 0:

⇒ a = 3

⇒ b = −7

⇒ c = 1

Substitute these values into the formula:

⇒ x = (−(−7) ± √((−7)2 − 4 × 3 × 1)) / (2 × 3)

⇒ x = (7 ± √(49 − 12)) / 6

⇒ x = (7 ± √37) / 6

The two roots are:

⇒ x1 = (7 + √37) / 6

⇒ x2 = (7 − √37) / 6

∴ The correct answer is (7 + √37)/6 and (7 − √37)/6.

Additional Information

Nature of Roots (D = b2 − 4ac)

If D > 0, roots are real and distinct. If D = 0, roots are real and equal. If D < 0, roots are imaginary/complex.

Sum and Product of Roots

For ax2 + bx + c = 0, the sum of roots (α + β) = −b/a and the product of roots (αβ) = c/a.

Quadratic Formula

Also known as the Sridharacharya formula, it is used to find roots when factorization is difficult.

Question 38

Simplify:\([(24 \times 6)\times\left{ {2÷ 2} \times \left(18 - \frac{12}{2}\right) \right}]\)

  1. AOption (a)

    1435

  2. BOption (b)

    432

  3. COption (c)

    872

  4. DOption (d)

    1728

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1728

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Simplify: [(24 × 6) × { {2 ÷ 2} × (18 - (12 ÷ 2)) }]

Formula used:

Follow the BODMAS rule (Brackets, Orders, Division/Multiplication, Addition/Subtraction).

Calculation:

[(24 × 6) × { {2 ÷ 2} × (18 - (12 ÷ 2)) }]

⇒ [(24 × 6) × { {1} × (18 - 6) }]

⇒ [(24 × 6) × {1 × 12}]

⇒ [(24 × 6) × 12]

⇒ 144 × 12

⇒ 1728

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Question 39

Which of the following letter-clusters should replace # and % so that the pattern and relationship followed between the letter-cluster pair on the left side of :: is the same as that on the right side of :: ?

#: KSB:: NVE: %

  1. AOption (a)

    = FNW, % = SAJ

  2. BOption (b)

    = FUW, % = SAJ

  3. COption (c)

    = FNW, % = SAI

  4. DOption (d)

    #=FNW, % = SUY

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

= FNW, % = SAJ

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is,

Option 1) # = FNW, % = SAJ

For # (FNW) to KSB

For NVE to % (SAJ)

Option 2) # = FUW, % = SAJ

For # (FUW) to KSB

The pattern derived from FUW to KSB is: (+5, -2, +5).

For NVE to % (SAJ)

Option 3) # = FNW, % = SAI

For # (FNW) to KSB

For NVE to % (SAI)

Option 4) # = FNW, % = SUY

 

For # (FNW) to KSB

For NVE to % (SUY)

 

Thus, the analogy holds true only for Option 1 where the pattern (+5, +5, +5) is consistent for both pairs. 

 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 40

Which of the following options is a final good in the context of Indian economy?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sugar

  2. BOption (b)

    Wheat

  3. COption (c)

    Biscuits

  4. DOption (d)

    Flour

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Biscuits

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Biscuits.

Key Points

  • Biscuits are classified as a final good because they are ready for consumption and do not require further processing.
  • In economics, a final good refers to a product that is ultimately consumed by the end-user rather than being used to produce another product.
  • Examples of final goods include packaged foods like biscuits, clothing, and electronics, as they are produced for direct consumption.
  • Intermediate goods like sugar, wheat, and flour are used as inputs for the production of final goods but are not sold directly to consumers for immediate use.
  • The categorization of goods as intermediate or final depends on their use in the economy and the stage of production.

Additional Information

  • Final Goods
  • These are goods that have completed the production process and are ready for sale to the end consumer.
  • Final goods contribute to the calculation of a country's Gross Domestic Product (GDP) as they represent consumption and investment.
  • Examples include consumer goods like cars, refrigerators, and packaged food items.
  • Intermediate Goods
  • Intermediate goods are products used as inputs in the production of other goods.
  • They are not included in GDP to avoid double counting since their value is already embedded in the final goods they help produce.
  • Examples include raw materials like steel, flour, and sugar.
  • Consumer Goods vs. Capital Goods
  • Consumer goods are intended for direct consumption (e.g., biscuits, clothing).
  • Capital goods, such as machinery and tools, are used to produce other goods and services but are not directly consumed.
  • GDP Measurement
  • Only final goods and services are included in GDP calculation to measure a country's economic output.
  • The inclusion of intermediate goods would lead to inflated GDP figures due to double counting.

Question 41

A group of numbers and symbols is coded using letter codes as per the codes given below and the conditions that follow. Study the given codes and conditions and answer the question that follows.

Note: If none of the conditions apply, then codes for the respective number/symbol are to be followed directly as given in the table.

 

Number/symbol5234$&6@#%+897
CodeADFGHJKLZXCVBM

 

Conditions:

If the first element is a symbol and the last a number, the codes for these two (the first and the last elements) are to be interchanged.

If the first element is an odd number and the last an even number, the first and last elements are to be coded as .

If both second and third elements are perfect squares, the third element is to be coded as the code for the second element.

What will be the code for the following group?

3497

  1. AOption (a)

    MGBF

  2. BOption (b)

    FBBM

  3. COption (c)

    FGGM

  4. DOption (d)

    FGBM

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

FGGM

Why this answer is correct

Number/symbol5234$&6@#%+897
CodeADFGHJKLZXCVBM

Conditions:

If the first element is a symbol and the last a number, the codes for these two (the first and the last elements) are to be interchanged.

If the first element is an odd number and the last an even number, the first and last elements are to be coded as .

If both second and third elements are perfect squares, the third element is to be coded as the code for the second element.

Given- 3 4 9 7

The 1st element is 3 (an odd number).

The 2nd element is 4 (a perfect square).

The 3rd element is 9 (a perfect square).

The last element is 7 (an odd number).

Rule No. (1): This condition does not apply because the first element (3) is a number, not a symbol.

Rule No. (2): This condition does not apply because the last element (7) is an odd number, not an even number.

Rule No. (3): This condition applies because the second element (4) is a perfect square and the third element (9) is also a perfect square. So, the code of the third element will be the code for the second element.

Based on the applicable rule (3), the third element will be coded as the code of the second element.

The code for 3 is F.

The code for 4 is G.

The code for 9 is B.

But, due to rule (3), 9 will be coded as G (the code for 4).

The code for 7 is M.

Thus, '3 4 9 7' is coded as → F G G M.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 42

Simplify the following:

(29\frac{2}{9}) x (2710\frac{27}{10}) + (65\frac{6}{5} - 5)

  1. AOption (a)

    −79-\frac{7}{9}

  2. BOption (b)

    −165-\frac{16}{5}

  3. COption (c)

    −98-\frac{9}{8}

  4. DOption (d)

    −174-\frac{17}{4}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

−165-\frac{16}{5}

Why this answer is correct

Given:

29×2710+65−5\dfrac{2}{9} \times \dfrac{27}{10} + \dfrac{6}{5} - 5

Formula used:

Basic arithmetic operations for fractions

Calculation:

29×2710+65−5\dfrac{2}{9} \times \dfrac{27}{10} + \dfrac{6}{5} - 5

⇒ (2×27)(9×10)+65−5\dfrac{(2 \times 27)}{(9 \times 10)} + \dfrac{6}{5} - 5

⇒ 5490+65−5\dfrac{54}{90} + \dfrac{6}{5} - 5

⇒ 35+65−5\dfrac{3}{5} + \dfrac{6}{5} - 5

⇒ (3+6)5−5\dfrac{(3+6)}{5} - 5

⇒ 95−5\dfrac{9}{5} - 5

⇒ 95−255\dfrac{9}{5} - \dfrac{25}{5}

⇒ (9−25)5\dfrac{(9-25)}{5}

⇒ −165\dfrac{-16}{5}

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Question 43

A sum, when invested at 20% simple interest per annum, amounts to ₹8,640 after 3 years. What is the simple interest (in) on the same sum at the same rate in 2 years?

  1. AOption (a)

     2,160

  2. BOption (b)

    8,640

  3. COption (c)

    1,080

  4. DOption (d)

    4,320

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

 2,160

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Effective interest rate for 3 years = 20% × 3 = 60%

Total Amount = 100% (Principal) + 60% (Interest) = 160%

Given 160% → ₹8,640, so 1% = 8640 ÷ 160 = ₹54

Interest for 2 years = 20% × 2 = 40%

Simple Interest (2 yrs) = 40 × 54 = ₹2,160

∴ The correct answer is ₹2,160.

Alternate Method

Given: Amount (A) = ₹8,640, Rate (R) = 20% p.a., Time (T1) = 3 years, Time (T2) = 2 years.

Formula Used: A = P(1 + RT/100) and SI = (P × R × T) / 100

⇒ Amount = P + (P × 20 × 3) / 100

⇒ 8640 = P + 0.6P

⇒ 8640 = 1.6P

⇒ P = 8640 ÷ 1.6 = ₹5,400

⇒ SI (for 2 years) = (5400 × 20 × 2) ÷ 100

⇒ SI = 54 × 40 = ₹2,160

∴ The correct answer is ₹2,160.

Additional Information

Simple Interest Property

Simple interest remains constant for every year if the principal and rate are unchanged. SI for 'n' years = n × (SI for 1 year).

Effective Rate Method

Total interest percentage = (Rate × Time)%. This can be directly added to 100% to find the Amount percentage.

Amount Formula

The total sum at the end of the period is A = P + SI. In terms of P, A = P(1 + RT/100).

Question 44

If sinB=32sinB=\frac{\sqrt3}{2}, then find the value of (3cosecB+secB−4)(\sqrt3 cosecB+secB-4)

  1. AOption (a)

    2

  2. BOption (b)

    3\sqrt3

  3. COption (c)

    0

  4. DOption (d)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

0

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Given: sinB = √3/2 ⇒ B = 60°.

Put B = 60° in √3 cosecB + secB − 4.

⇒ √3 × (2/√3) + 2 − 4

⇒ 2 + 2 − 4 = 0.

∴ The correct answer is 0.

Alternate Method

Given: sinB = √3/2

Formula Used: cosecB = 1/sinB; secB = 1/cosB; sin2B + cos2B = 1

⇒ sinB = √3/2 ⇒ Perpendicular(P) = √3, Hypotenuse(H) = 2

⇒ Base(B) = √(H2 − P2) = √(22 − (√3)2) = √(4 − 3) = 1

⇒ cosecB = H/P = 2/√3

⇒ secB = H/B = 2/1 = 2

⇒ Expression = (√3 × 2/√3) + 2 − 4

⇒ Expression = 2 + 2 − 4 = 0

∴ The correct answer is 0.

Additional Information

Trigonometric Table Values (60°)

sin60° = √3/2, cos60° = 1/2, tan60° = √3, cot60° = 1/√3, sec60° = 2, cosec60° = 2/√3.

Reciprocal Identities

sinθ = 1/cosecθ, cosθ = 1/secθ, tanθ = 1/cotθ.

Pythagorean Triplets

For a right-angled triangle, a2 + b2 = c2. Standard triplets include (3, 4, 5), (5, 12, 13), and (1, √3, 2).

Question 45

The curved surface area of a cylinder is half of its total surface area. If its height is 10 cm, then find the volume of the cylinder (in cm³).

  1. AOption (a)

    993π

  2. BOption (b)

    992π

  3. COption (c)

    1000π

  4. DOption (d)

    1005π

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1000π

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

If Curved Surface Area (CSA) is half of Total Surface Area (TSA), then CSA = Area of 2 bases.

2πrh = 2πr2 ⇒ h = r.

Given height (h) = 10 cm, so radius (r) = 10 cm.

Volume = πr2h = π × 102 × 10 = 1000π cm3.

∴ The correct answer is 1000π cm3.

Alternate Method

Given: Height (h) = 10 cm; CSA = 1/2 × TSA.

Formula Used: CSA = 2πrh; TSA = 2πr(h + r); Volume = πr2h.

⇒ 2πrh = 1/2 × [2πr(h + r)]

⇒ 2πrh = πr(h + r)

⇒ 2h = h + r

⇒ 2h − h = r ⇒ r = h

⇒ r = 10 cm

⇒ Volume = π × (10)2 × 10

⇒ Volume = π × 100 × 10 = 1000π cm3

∴ The correct answer is 1000π cm3.

Additional Information

Surface Area of Cylinder

Curved Surface Area (CSA) = 2πrh and Total Surface Area (TSA) = 2πr(h + r).

Volume of Cylinder

The space occupied is given by Volume = πr2h.

Ratio of CSA to TSA

The ratio is h : (h + r). In this specific case, 1 : 2 implies h = r.

Question 46

What is the correct method to save a new workbook in MS Excel?

  1. AOption (a)

    Press 'Ctrl + P'

  2. BOption (b)

    Press 'Ctrl + Enter'

  3. COption (c)

    Go to the 'Home' tab and click 'Save'

  4. DOption (d)

    Click the 'File' tab and choose 'Save As'

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Click the 'File' tab and choose 'Save As'

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Click the 'File' tab and choose 'Save As'.

Key Points

  • To save a new workbook in MS Excel, the 'Save As' option is used to specify the file name and location.
  • The 'Save As' feature is accessible by clicking the 'File' tab in the Ribbon and selecting 'Save As' from the dropdown menu.
  • This method allows users to save the file in various formats, such as .xlsx, .xls, .csv, or .pdf.
  • Pressing 'Ctrl + S' directly saves the workbook if it has already been named; otherwise, it opens the 'Save As' dialog for new files.
  • 'Save As' ensures that the user can specify file properties like name, type, and location before saving it.

Additional Information

  • File Tab in MS Excel
  • The 'File' tab is part of the Ribbon interface and provides access to options like 'Save', 'Save As', 'Open', 'Close', and 'Print'.
  • It also includes settings for exporting, sharing, and account management.
  • Keyboard Shortcuts for Saving in MS Excel
  • Pressing Ctrl + S saves the current workbook. If unsaved, it opens the 'Save As' dialog box.
  • Pressing F12 directly opens the 'Save As' dialog box.
  • Difference Between 'Save' and 'Save As'
  • 'Save' updates an existing file without changing its name or location.
  • 'Save As' creates a new file, allowing the user to specify a new name, location, or file format.
  • Common File Formats in Excel
  • .xlsx: Default format for Excel workbooks.
  • .xls: Legacy format for older versions of Excel.
  • .csv: Comma-separated values format for plain-text data.
  • .pdf: Portable Document Format for non-editable sharing.

Question 47

The population of a town in the year 1921 was 3,47,900. If its population increased in two successive decades by 50% in each decade, the population of the town in the year 1941 was:

  1. AOption (a)

    7,82,777

  2. BOption (b)

    7,82,775

  3. COption (c)

    7,82,778

  4. DOption (d)

    7,82,776

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

7,82,775

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Initial population = 3,47,900

Decade 1 increase = 50% → Multiplying factor = 1.5

Decade 2 increase = 50% → Multiplying factor = 1.5

Final population = 3,47,900 × 1.5 × 1.5 = 3,47,900 × 2.25

Calculation: 347900 × (9/4) = 86975 × 9 = 7,82,775

∴ The correct answer is 7,82,775.

Alternate Method

Given: Initial population in 1921 = 3,47,900 | Time period = 1921 to 1941 (2 decades) | Growth rate = 50% per decade.

Formula Used: Final Population = P(1 + R/100)n

⇒ Population in 1931 = 3,47,900 + 50% of 3,47,900

⇒ Population in 1931 = 3,47,900 + 1,73,950 = 5,21,850

⇒ Population in 1941 = 5,21,850 + 50% of 5,21,850

⇒ Population in 1941 = 5,21,850 + 2,60,925

⇒ Population in 1941 = 7,82,775

∴ The correct answer is 7,82,775.

Additional Information

Successive Percentage Change

When a value changes by a% and then by b%, the net effective change is (a + b + ab/100)%.

Compound Growth Formula

Population growth usually follows the compound interest formula: A = P(1 + r/100)n where n is the number of time intervals.

Percentage to Fraction Conversion

For quick calculation, 50% increase means multiplying the base value by (1 + 1/2) = 3/2 or 1.5.

Question 48

In a certain code language,

'A + B' means 'A is the sister of B'

'A - B' means 'A is the father of B'

'A x B' means 'A is the daughter of B'

'A ÷ B' means 'A is the son of B'

Based on the above, how is P related to T if 'P + Q - R ÷ S x T'?

  1. AOption (a)

    Daughter's husband's sister

  2. BOption (b)

    Father's sister

  3. COption (c)

    Sister's husband's mother

  4. DOption (d)

    Daughter-in-law

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Daughter's husband's sister

Why this answer is correct

A is
Symbol+–x÷
MeaningSisterFatherDaughterSon
of B

Given Expression: P + Q – R ÷ S x T

P + Q: P is the sister of Q.

Q – R: Q is the father of R.

R ÷ S: R is the son of S.

S x T: S is the daughter of T.

According to the given information, Family Tree Representation:

Therefore, P is the Daughter's husband's sister of T.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

Question 49

What will be the difference in population 3 years ago and 2 years ago of a town whose current population of 2,60,000 is increasing at a rate of 25% every year?

  1. AOption (a)

    32,530

  2. BOption (b)

    33,630

  3. COption (c)

    33,280

  4. DOption (d)

    32,730

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

33,280

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Rate of 25% → 1/4 increase. Multiplier for next year = 5/4. Multiplier for previous year = 4/5.

Population 2 years ago = 2,60,000 × (4/5)2 = 2,60,000 × 16/25 = 1,66,400.

Population 3 years ago = 1,66,400 × 4/5 = 1,33,120.

Difference = 1,66,400 − 1,33,120 = 33,280.

∴ The correct answer is 33,280.

Alternate Method

Given: Current Population = 2,60,000, Rate of Increase = 25% per annum.

Formula Used: Population n years ago = P / (1 + R/100)n

⇒ Let Population 2 years ago be P2 and 3 years ago be P3.

⇒ P2 = 2,60,000 ÷ (1 + 25/100)2 = 2,60,000 ÷ (1.25)2

⇒ P2 = 2,60,000 ÷ 1.5625 = 1,66,400

⇒ P3 = 1,66,400 ÷ (1 + 25/100) = 1,66,400 ÷ 1.25

⇒ P3 = 1,33,120

⇒ Difference = P2 − P3 = 1,66,400 − 1,33,120

⇒ Difference = 33,280

∴ The correct answer is 33,280.

Additional Information

Population Growth Formula

For constant growth R%, Population after n years = P(1 + R/100)n. For decrease, use (1 − R/100).

Successive Percentage Change

The net change for two successive years with rates r1 and r2 is [r1 + r2 + (r1×r2)/100]%.

Reverse Calculation Shortcut

If population increases by x/y, to find the previous value, multiply the current value by y/(x+y).

Question 50

The Indo-Greek king who issued coins with bilingual inscriptions was:

  1. AOption (a)

    Antialcidas

  2. BOption (b)

    Demetrius

  3. COption (c)

    Apollodotus

  4. DOption (d)

    Menander I

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Demetrius

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Demetrius.

Key Points

  • Demetrius I, also known as Demetrius Aniketos ("the Invincible"), was an Indo-Greek king who ruled in the 2nd century BCE.
  • He is credited with issuing coins that featured bilingual inscriptions in Greek and Kharosthi, a script used in ancient India.
  • The bilingual nature of his coins reflects his efforts to integrate Greek and Indian cultures and communicate with the diverse populations of his realm.
  • Demetrius’ coins often depicted symbols such as the elephant, which was significant in Indian culture, symbolizing his connection to the region he ruled.
  • He expanded his rule into northwestern India, marking the beginning of the Indo-Greek kingdom's influence in the subcontinent.

Additional Information

  • Indo-Greek Kingdom:
  • The Indo-Greek kingdom was established in the regions of Bactria and northwestern India following the conquests of Alexander the Great.
  • The blending of Greek and Indian cultures during this period is referred to as Greco-Buddhism.
  • Bilingual Coinage:
  • Indo-Greek coins were unique for their use of both Greek and Indian scripts, typically Greek on the obverse and Kharosthi or Brahmi on the reverse.
  • This bilingual approach was aimed at uniting the multicultural populations under their rule.
  • Kharosthi Script:
  • Kharosthi was an ancient script used primarily in Gandhara (modern-day Pakistan and Afghanistan) and was derived from the Aramaic script.
  • It was commonly used in inscriptions and coins during the Indo-Greek period.
  • Symbolism on Coins:
  • Indo-Greek coins often depicted symbols like elephants, lions, and the deity Zeus to appeal to both Greek and Indian traditions.
  • These symbols also demonstrated the rulers' respect for local customs and beliefs.
  • Demetrius' Contribution:
  • Demetrius’ reign marked the beginning of Hellenistic influence in Indian art, culture, and governance, which persisted for centuries.
  • He is considered a key figure in the history of cultural exchange between Greece and India.

Question 51

Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to that group?

 

(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)

  1. AOption (a)

    YW-DV

  2. BOption (b)

    VT-AR

  3. COption (c)

    GE - LC

  4. DOption (d)

    TR - YP

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

YW-DV

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is.

Option (1) 'YW-DV':

Option (2) 'VT-AR':

Option (3) 'GE - LC':

Option (4) 'TR - YP':

Thus, option 1 is odd one.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 52

Which of the following letter-clusters should replace # and % so that the pattern and relationship followed between the letter-cluster pair on the left side of :: is the same as that on the right side of :: ?

#: LNR:: MOS: %

  1. AOption (a)

    = GIM, % = RTY

  2. BOption (b)

    = GIM, % = RTX

  3. COption (c)

    = GIM, % = STX

  4. DOption (d)

    = HIM, % = RTX

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

= GIM, % = RTX

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is,

Option 1) # = GIM, % = RTY

For # (GIM) to LNR

 

For MOS to % (RTY)

 

 

Option 2) # = GIM, % = RTX

For # (GIM) to LNR

 

For MOS to % (RTX)

 

Since the pattern for GIM to LNR (+5, +5, +5) is the same as the pattern for MOS to RTX (+5, +5, +5),

Option 2 is correct.

Option 3) # = GIM, % = STX

For # (GIM) to LNR

For MOS to % (STX)

Option 4) # = HIM, % = RTX

For # (HIM) to LNR

For MOS to % (RTX)

Thus, the analogy holds true only for Option 2 where the pattern (+5, +5, +5) is consistent for both pairs.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 53

Mr. Filix starts from Point A and drives 19 km towards the South. He then takes a left turn, drives 5 km, turns left and drives 33 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 9 km. He takes a final left turn, drives 14 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90 degrees turns only unless specified.)

  1. AOption (a)

    8 km to the North

  2. BOption (b)

    4 km to the East

  3. COption (c)

    2 km to the South

  4. DOption (d)

    1 km to the West

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

4 km to the East

Why this answer is correct

Given: Mr. Filix starts from Point A and drives 19 km towards the South.

He then takes a left turn, drives 5 km, turns left and drives 33 km.

He then takes a left turn and drives 9 km.

He takes a final left turn, drives 14 km and stops at Point P.

Point P is at a position of 4 km West of Point A.

To return to Point A from Point P, Mr. Filix must drive 4 km in the East direction.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 54

Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete?

QK15 OI26 MG37 KE48 ?

  1. AOption (a)

    IC58

  2. BOption (b)

    ID59

  3. COption (c)

    IC59

  4. DOption (d)

    ID58

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

IC59

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is.

Thus, the missing term in the series is IC59.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3."

Question 55

Find the volume (in cm³) of a sphere having a diameter of 4.2 cm, giving your answer correct to two places of decimal.

Take π=227\pi=\frac{22}{7}

  1. AOption (a)

    188.8

  2. BOption (b)

    18.8

  3. COption (c)

    38.8

  4. DOption (d)

    168.8

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

38.8

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Radius (r) = Diameter ÷ 2 = 4.2 ÷ 2 = 2.1 cm.

Volume of Sphere = (4/3) × π × r3.

Using π ≈ 22/7 ⇒ Volume = (4/3) × (22/7) × 2.1 × 2.1 × 2.1.

Simplified Calculation: 4 × 22 × 0.1 × 2.1 × 2.1 = 8.8 × 4.41 = 38.808 cm3.

∴ The correct answer is 38.8 cm3.

Alternate Method

Given:

Diameter (d) = 4.2 cm

Radius (r) = d/2 = 4.2/2 = 2.1 cm

Formula Used: Volume of sphere = (4/3)πr3

Calculations:

⇒ Volume = (4/3) × (22/7) × (2.1)3

⇒ Volume = (4/3) × (22/7) × 2.1 × 2.1 × 2.1

⇒ Volume = 4 × 22 × (2.1/3) × (2.1/7) × 2.1

⇒ Volume = 88 × 0.7 × 0.3 × 2.1

⇒ Volume = 88 × 0.21 × 2.1

⇒ Volume = 88 × 0.441

⇒ Volume = 38.808 cm3

⇒ Rounding to two decimal places = 38.81 cm3 ≈ 38.8 cm3

∴ The correct answer is 38.8 cm3.

Additional Information

Surface Area of a Sphere

The total surface area of a sphere is given by the formula 4πr2.

Volume of a Hemisphere

A hemisphere is half of a sphere, so its volume is (2/3)πr3.

Curved Surface Area of a Hemisphere

The CSA of a hemisphere is 2πr2, and the Total Surface Area (TSA) is 3πr2.

Question 56

Which of the following banking facilities is/are operated by National Payments Corporation of India?

  1. National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT)
  2. Aadhaar Enabled Payment System
  3. UPI Lite
  1. AOption (a)

    Only 2 and 3

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 1 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 1 and 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only 2 and 3.

Key Points

  • National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) operates innovative payment systems and solutions in India.
  • Aadhaar Enabled Payment System (AePS): Allows basic banking services using Aadhaar authentication.
  • UPI Lite: A simplified version of the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) for small-value offline transactions.
  • NEFT (National Electronic Funds Transfer) is operated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), not NPCI.
  • NPCI focuses on digital payment systems like UPI, AePS, RuPay, and IMPS to enhance financial inclusion.

Additional Information

  • National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI):
  • Established in 2008 under the guidance of the RBI and Indian Banks' Association (IBA).
  • Key initiatives include UPI, RuPay, IMPS, BHIM, and AePS.
  • Aims to create robust payment infrastructure and promote digital payments in India.
  • Aadhaar Enabled Payment System (AePS):
  • Facilitates cash withdrawal, balance inquiry, and fund transfer using Aadhaar authentication.
  • Promotes financial inclusion by enabling banking services in rural and remote areas.
  • Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and UPI Lite:
  • UPI enables instant fund transfers between bank accounts using mobile devices.
  • UPI Lite is designed for low-value transactions, especially in offline scenarios.
  • National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT):
  • An electronic payment system for transferring funds between banks in India.
  • Operated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to facilitate secure and reliable fund transfers.

Question 57

At which session of the Indian National Congress was the resolution for Poorna Swaraj (complete independence) passed?

  1. AOption (a)

    Karachi Session, 1931

  2. BOption (b)

    Lucknow Session, 1916

  3. COption (c)

     Lahore Session, 1929

  4. DOption (d)

    Calcutta Session, 1920

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

 Lahore Session, 1929

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Lahore Session, 1929.

Key Points

  • The resolution for Poorna Swaraj (Complete Independence) was passed during the Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress in December 1929.
  • Jawaharlal Nehru presided over the session, marking a significant moment in India's freedom struggle.
  • The declaration of Poorna Swaraj was officially adopted on 26th January 1930, which was later commemorated as Republic Day after independence.
  • The session also decided to boycott British goods and institutions to intensify the freedom struggle.
  • The demand for complete independence replaced the earlier goal of dominion status, aligning the Congress with the aspirations of the masses.

Additional Information

  • Indian National Congress (INC):
  • Founded in 1885, the INC played a pivotal role in India's struggle for independence.
  • It served as a platform for leaders like Gandhi, Nehru, Patel, and others to mobilize the masses.
  • Poorna Swaraj:
  • The term means "complete independence" and symbolized the ultimate goal of the Indian freedom struggle.
  • It rejected any compromise with British rule and demanded self-rule for Indians.
  • 26th January:
  • This date was chosen for the Poorna Swaraj declaration and later became Republic Day in 1950 when the Indian Constitution came into effect.
  • Boycott Movement:
  • The INC decided to boycott British goods, titles, and institutions as part of its strategy to weaken colonial rule.
  • This was a continuation of the Swadeshi Movement initiated earlier during the partition of Bengal.

Question 58

Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to that group?

(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)

  1. AOption (a)

    MP - LK

  2. BOption (b)

    KM - HJ

  3. COption (c)

    NP - KM

  4. DOption (d)

    HJ - EG

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

MP - LK

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is.

Option (1) 'MP - LK':

Option (2) 'KM - HJ':

Option (3) 'NP - KM':

Option (4) 'HJ - EG':

Thus, option 1 is odd one.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 59

Each of P, Q, R, S, T, U and V has an exam on a different day of a week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week. Q has an exam on Saturday. Only 4 people have exams between T and U, neither of whom has an exam on Monday. P has an exam immediately after V, and R has an exam immediately before V. U has an exam after P. How many people have exams after R?

  1. AOption (a)

    4

  2. BOption (b)

    1

  3. COption (c)

    3

  4. DOption (d)

    2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

4

Why this answer is correct

Given: There are seven people (P, Q, R, S, T, U, V) with exams on a different day of a week, from Monday to Sunday.

Q has an exam on Saturday.

DayPerson
Monday
Tuesday
Wednesday
Thursday
Friday
SaturdayQ
Sunday

Only 4 people have exams between T and U, and neither has an exam on Monday.

U has an exam after P. 

P has an exam immediately after V, and R has an exam immediately before V.

DayPerson
Monday
TuesdayT
WednesdayR
ThursdayV
FridayP
SaturdayQ
SundayU

And S has an exam on Monday.

DayPerson
Monday
TuesdayT
WednesdayR
ThursdayV
FridayP
SaturdayQ
SundayU

R's exam is on Wednesday. The people with exams after Wednesday are V (Thursday), P (Friday), Q (Saturday), and U (Sunday).

4 people have exams after R.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 60

Kanpur, a city in the Indian state of Uttar Pradesh, is an example of which type of town?

  1. AOption (a)

    Administrative Town

  2. BOption (b)

    Recreational Town

  3. COption (c)

    Industrial Town

  4. DOption (d)

    Transfer and Distribution Town

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Industrial Town

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Industrial Town.

Key Points

  • Kanpur, located in Uttar Pradesh, is one of the prominent industrial towns in India.
  • It is known for its textile, leather, and chemical industries, which contribute significantly to its economy.
  • During British rule, Kanpur was a major center for cotton and woolen textiles, earning it the nickname "Manchester of the East."
  • The city's leather industry is globally recognized, making Kanpur a significant hub for leather goods production and export.
  • Kanpur hosts several industrial estates, fostering growth in engineering, fertilizers, and plastics sectors.

Additional Information

  • Industrial Town:
  • It refers to a city or town primarily focused on industrial production and manufacturing.
  • Such towns typically have factories, warehouses, and industrial estates as their key features.
  • These towns often experience rapid urbanization due to employment opportunities in the industrial sector.
  • Other Types of Towns:
  • Administrative Towns: Serve as centers for governmental administration, e.g., New Delhi.
  • Recreational Towns: Focus on tourism and leisure, e.g., Shimla.
  • Transfer and Distribution Towns: Act as hubs for trade and transportation, e.g., Varanasi.
  • Leather Industry in Kanpur:
  • Kanpur's leather industry is one of the largest in India, producing shoes, belts, bags, and saddlery goods.
  • The city exports leather products to the USA, UK, and other countries, contributing to India's foreign exchange earnings.
  • Manchester of the East:
  • Kanpur earned this title due to its significant role in textile production during the British era.
  • The city hosted major textile mills such as Lal Imli Woolen Mills and Elgin Mills.

Question 61

Find the effective price percentage of the marked price after three consecutive discounts of 18%, 24% and 18%. (Rounded up to two decimal places.)

  1. AOption (a)

    53.54%

  2. BOption (b)

    54.41%

  3. COption (c)

    48.56%

  4. DOption (d)

    51.10%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

51.10%

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Let the Marked Price (MP) be 100.

Successive Multiplier = (100 − 18)% × (100 − 24)% × (100 − 18)%.

Effective Price % = 100 × 0.82 × 0.76 × 0.82.

Effective Price % = 100 × 0.511024.

Effective Price % ≈ 51.10%.

∴ The correct answer is 51.10%.

Alternate Method

Given: Three consecutive discounts d1 = 18%, d2 = 24%, and d3 = 18%.

Formulas: Selling Price (SP) = MP × (1 − d1/100) × (1 − d2/100) × (1 − d3/100).

⇒ Assume Marked Price = 100.

⇒ Price after 1st discount = 100 − 18 = 82.

⇒ Price after 2nd discount = 82 − (24% of 82) = 82 − 19.68 = 62.32.

⇒ Price after 3rd discount = 62.32 − (18% of 62.32) = 62.32 − 11.2176 = 51.1024.

⇒ Effective Price Percentage = (Final Price ÷ MP) × 100 = 51.10%.

∴ The correct answer is 51.10%.

Additional Information

Successive Discounts

When multiple discounts are applied one after another, the net discount is calculated on the reducing balance. Formula for two discounts: a + b − (ab ÷ 100).

Effective Price

The effective price is the final amount paid by the customer after all consecutive discounts have been subtracted from the Marked Price.

Question 62

The mode of the observations 35, 27, 27, 32, 25, 24, 27, 24, 32, 20, 31, 21, 29, 22, 27, 20 and 26 is:

  1. AOption (a)

    25

  2. BOption (b)

    35

  3. COption (c)

    32

  4. DOption (d)

    27

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

27

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

The mode is the value that appears most frequently in a data set.

Count the occurrences of each number in the given observations.

Frequency of 27 = 4 times (Highest frequency).

Frequency of 20, 24, and 32 = 2 times each.

All other numbers appear only once.

∴ The correct answer is 27.

Alternate Method

Given: Observations = 35, 27, 27, 32, 25, 24, 27, 24, 32, 20, 31, 21, 29, 22, 27, 20, 26.

Formula: Mode = Value with the maximum frequency.

⇒ Frequency of 20 = 2

⇒ Frequency of 24 = 2

⇒ Frequency of 27 = 4

⇒ Frequency of 32 = 2

⇒ Frequency of other values (21, 22, 25, 26, 29, 31, 35) = 1 each

⇒ The value 27 has the maximum frequency of 4.

Question 63

What is the keyboard shortcut to remove paragraph indentation in MS Word 365?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ctrl + Shift + I

  2. BOption (b)

     Ctrl + M

  3. COption (c)

    Ctrl + Shift + M

  4. DOption (d)

     Ctrl + Tab

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Ctrl + Shift + M

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ctrl + Shift + M.

Key Points

  • The keyboard shortcut Ctrl + Shift + M is used in MS Word 365 to decrease or remove paragraph indentation.
  • This command specifically reduces the left indentation of a paragraph by 0.5 inches (default setting).
  • It is particularly useful for formatting documents quickly and efficiently, especially in professional or academic writing.
  • Users can repeatedly press Ctrl + Shift + M to completely remove multiple levels of indentation, if applied.

Additional Information

  • Paragraph Indentation
  • Paragraph indentation refers to the space added to the left margin of a paragraph.
  • It helps in visually distinguishing sections of text, improving document readability.
  • MS Word Keyboard Shortcuts
  • Ctrl + M: Increases paragraph indentation by 0.5 inches.
  • Ctrl + Shift + T: Reduces hanging indentation in a paragraph.
  • Ctrl + T: Increases hanging indentation of a paragraph.
  • Formatting Options in MS Word
  • MS Word provides a "Paragraph" section in the "Home" tab for adjusting indentation and spacing.
  • Users can also access advanced options via the "Paragraph" dialog box for precise control.
  • Customizing Shortcuts
  • Users can customize keyboard shortcuts in MS Word by navigating to File > Options > Customize Ribbon > Keyboard Shortcuts.
  • This allows assigning new shortcuts for frequently used commands, enhancing productivity.

Question 64

What is the primary purpose of defining a 'Named Range' in MS Excel?

  1. AOption (a)

    To refer to a cell or range of cells using a more descriptive and easier-to-understand name in formulas

  2. BOption (b)

    To encrypt the data within a selected range of cells

  3. COption (c)

    To apply specific formatting to a group of cells

  4. DOption (d)

    To create a visual chart or graph from the selected data

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

To refer to a cell or range of cells using a more descriptive and easier-to-understand name in formulas

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is To refer to a cell or range of cells using a more descriptive and easier-to-understand name in formulas.

Key Points

  • A Named Range in MS Excel allows users to assign a meaningful name to a cell or group of cells, making formulas easier to read and understand.
  • It simplifies complex formulas by replacing cell references (e.g., A1:B10) with descriptive names (e.g., "SalesData").
  • Named Ranges enhance productivity by reducing errors and improving formula accuracy.
  • They can be used across worksheets within the same workbook, enabling consistent references.
  • Named Ranges are especially useful in dynamic reports and dashboards for automating calculations and data management.

Additional Information

  • How to Create Named Ranges:
  • Select the cell or range of cells you want to name.
  • Go to the "Formulas" tab in the ribbon and click "Define Name."
  • Provide a unique name and click "OK."
  • Rules for Naming Ranges:
  • Names cannot include spaces or special characters; use underscores (_) instead.
  • Names must start with a letter, underscore, or backslash.
  • Names are case-insensitive but must be unique within the workbook.
  • Dynamic Named Ranges:
  • Dynamic Named Ranges adjust automatically as data is added or removed.
  • They can be created using Excel functions like OFFSET or INDEX.
  • Applications of Named Ranges:
  • Used in data validation rules for defining allowable inputs.
  • Helpful in creating custom formulas for financial modeling and statistical analysis.
  • Facilitates easier collaboration by making formulas more intuitive for other users.

Question 65

In ∆ABC, DE || AC, where D and E are the points on sides  AB and BC, respectively. If BD = 10cm and AD = 17cm, then what is the ratio of the area  ∆BDE to the trapezium ADEC?

  1. AOption (a)

    406:383

  2. BOption (b)

    344: 415

  3. COption (c)

    100:629

  4. DOption (d)

    629: 100

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

100:629

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Since DE || AC, ΔBDE is similar to ΔBAC.

The ratio of their corresponding sides is BD : BA = 10 : (10 + 17) = 10 : 27.

Therefore, the ratio of their areas is Area(ΔBDE) : Area(ΔBAC) = 102 : 272 = 100 : 729.

Area of trapezium ADEC = Area(ΔBAC) − Area(ΔBDE) = 729 − 100 = 629.

Thus, the ratio of Area(ΔBDE) to Area(ADEC) is 100 : 629.

∴ The correct answer is 100:629.

Alternate Method

Given:

In ΔABC, DE || AC.

D is a point on AB and E is a point on BC.

BD = 10 cm

AD = 17 cm

Formula Used:

If two triangles are similar, the ratio of their areas is equal to the square of the ratio of their corresponding sides.

Area of trapezium ADEC = Area(ΔABC) − Area(ΔBDE)

Calculations:

First, find the total length of side AB:

⇒ AB = BD + AD

⇒ AB = 10 + 17 = 27 cm

Since DE || AC, we have:

⇒ ∠BDE = ∠BAC (Corresponding angles)

⇒ ∠BED = ∠BCA (Corresponding angles)

⇒ ΔBDE ∼ ΔBAC (By AA similarity criterion)

Now, the ratio of the areas of these similar triangles is:

⇒ Area(ΔBDE) / Area(ΔBAC) = (BD / AB)2

⇒ Area(ΔBDE) / Area(ΔBAC) = (10 / 27)2

⇒ Area(ΔBDE) / Area(ΔBAC) = 100 / 729

Let the area of ΔBDE be 100x and the area of ΔBAC be 729x.

The area of trapezium ADEC is given by:

⇒ Area(ADEC) = Area(ΔBAC) − Area(ΔBDE)

⇒ Area(ADEC) = 729x − 100x = 629x

Now, find the ratio of the area of ΔBDE to the area of trapezium ADEC:

⇒ Ratio = Area(ΔBDE) / Area(ADEC)

⇒ Ratio = 100x / 629x = 100 / 629

Thus, the required ratio is 100:629.

∴ The correct answer is 100:629.

Additional Information

Basic Proportionality Theorem (Thales Theorem)

If a line is drawn parallel to one side of a triangle intersecting the other two sides, then it divides the two sides in the same ratio: BD/AD = BE/EC.

Area Ratio of Similar Triangles

For any two similar triangles, the ratio of their areas is equal to the square of the ratio of any of their corresponding parts (sides, altitudes, medians, or angle bisectors).

Properties of Trapezium formed by Parallel Line

The area of the trapezium ADEC is always equal to the difference between the areas of the larger triangle ABC and the smaller triangle BDE.

Question 66

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 - Operations on 13 such as adding to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(15, 18.2, 21.4)

(19, 22.2, 25.4)

  1. AOption (a)

     (28, 30.2, 32.4)

  2. BOption (b)

    (43, 46.2, 48.4)

  3. COption (c)

    (24, 27.2, 30.4)

  4. DOption (d)

    (36, 39.2, 41.4)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(24, 27.2, 30.4)

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second number = First number + 3.2**.**

Third number = Second number + 3.2

Let's verify this logic with the given sets:

For, (15, 18.2, 21.4)

⇒ First to Second: 15 + 3.2 = 18.2.

⇒ Second to Third: 18.2 + 3.2 = 21.4.

Here, the logic followed.

For, (19, 22.2, 25.4)

⇒ First to Second: 19 + 3.2 = 22.2.

⇒ Second to Third: 22.2 + 3.2 = 25.4.

Here, the logic followed.

Now, let's check the options based on this logic:

Option 1) (28, 30.2, 32.4)

⇒ First to Second: 28 + 3.2 = 31.2. (Given Second number is 30.2, 30.2 ≠ 31.2)

Here, logic not followed.

Option 2) (43, 46.2, 48.4)

⇒ First to Second: 43 + 3.2 = 46.2. (Matches)

⇒ Second to Third: 46.2 + 3.2 = 49.4. (Given Third number is 48.4, 48.4 ≠ 49.4)

Here, logic not followed.

Option 3) (24, 27.2, 30.4)

⇒ First to Second: 24 + 3.2 = 27.2. (Matches)

⇒ Second to Third: 27.2 + 3.2 = 30.4. (Matches)

Here, logic followed.

Option 4) (36, 39.2, 41.4)

⇒ First to Second: 36 + 3.2 = 39.2. (Matches)

⇒ Second to Third: 39.2 + 3.2 = 42.4. (Given Third number is 41.4, 41.4 ≠ 42.4)

Here, logic not followed.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 67

Which of the following organisations won the Pulitzer Prize for Public Service in 2025?

  1. AOption (a)

    The New York Times

  2. BOption (b)

    ProPublica

  3. COption (c)

    The Washington Post

  4. DOption (d)

    Reuters

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

ProPublica

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ProPublica.

Key Points

  • ProPublica, an independent, nonprofit newsroom, won the Pulitzer Prize for Public Service in 2025.
  • The Pulitzer Prize for Public Service is considered the most prestigious among the Pulitzer categories, awarded for impactful investigative journalism.
  • ProPublica is known for its focus on stories that expose abuses of power and injustices, often leading to significant reforms.
  • Its winning entry in 2025 highlighted investigations into systemic issues, including government accountability and corporate malfeasance.
  • ProPublica's investigative journalism is funded through donations and grants, allowing it to remain independent and free of corporate or political influence.

Additional Information

  • Pulitzer Prize:
  • The Pulitzer Prizes are awards for achievements in newspaper, magazine, online journalism, literature, and musical composition within the United States.
  • Established in 1917 by provisions in the will of Joseph Pulitzer, a Hungarian-American journalist and newspaper publisher.
  • The awards are administered by Columbia University in New York City.
  • Public Service is the only Pulitzer Prize category where the winner receives a gold medal instead of cash.
  • Investigative Journalism:
  • Investigative journalism involves in-depth reporting to uncover information often hidden from the public.
  • It requires significant research and fact-checking to ensure the accuracy of the findings.
  • This type of journalism often tackles issues like corruption, abuses of power, or systemic failures.
  • It plays a crucial role in holding governments, corporations, and institutions accountable.
  • ProPublica's Approach:
  • ProPublica collaborates with other newsrooms to maximize the impact of its investigations.
  • Its work often leads to legislative changes, policy reforms, and increased public awareness.
  • ProPublica publishes its investigations online for free, making them accessible to a broad audience.
  • It adheres to the highest standards of journalistic integrity and transparency.
  • Importance of Public Service Journalism:
  • Public service journalism aims to inform citizens and empower them to make educated decisions.
  • It highlights pressing societal issues, encouraging public discourse and action.
  • This form of journalism is vital for maintaining a well-functioning democracy.
  • It often requires significant resources and commitment due to the complexity and sensitivity of the topics involved.

Question 68

A shopkeeper sold a book for 225 at a loss of 10%. At what price (in) should he have to sell it to gain 24% on it?

  1. AOption (a)

    307

  2. BOption (b)

    311

  3. COption (c)

    308

  4. DOption (d)

    310

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

310

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Loss of 10% means SP1 is 90% of CP.

Gain of 24% means SP2 is 124% of CP.

Using the unitary method: 90% ⇒ 225.

1% ⇒ 225 ÷ 90 = 2.5.

124% ⇒ 2.5 × 124 = 310.

∴ The correct answer is 310.

Alternate Method

Given: Selling Price (SP1) = 225, Loss% = 10%, Required Gain% = 24%.

Formulas: CP = SP × 100 ÷ (100 − Loss%); New SP = CP × (100 + Gain%) ÷ 100.

⇒ First, find the Cost Price (CP): CP = 225 × 100 ÷ (100 − 10) = 225 × 100 ÷ 90 = 250.

⇒ Now, find the New Selling Price (SP2) for 24% gain: New SP = 250 × (100 + 24) ÷ 100.

⇒ New SP = 250 × 124 ÷ 100 = 2.5 × 124 = 310.

∴ The correct answer is 310.

Additional Information

Direct Ratio Method

When CP is constant, SP is directly proportional to (100 ± Profit/Loss%). Ratio SP1 : SP2 = (100 − L1%) : (100 + P2%).

Cost Price Base

Profit and Loss percentages are always calculated on the Cost Price (CP) unless stated otherwise in the question.

Question 69

A group of people consists of men, women and children. Among them, 20% are men, 30% are women and the rest are children, and their average weights are 50 kg, 40 kg and 40 kg, respectively. The average weight of the group (in kg) is:

  1. AOption (a)

    39

  2. BOption (b)

    38

  3. COption (c)

    42

  4. DOption (d)

    37

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

42

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Men : Women : Children = 20 : 30 : 50 = 2 : 3 : 5.

Total weighted sum = (2 × 50) + (3 × 40) + (5 × 40) = 100 + 120 + 200 = 420.

Average weight of group = 420 ÷ (2 + 3 + 5) = 42 kg.

∴ The correct answer is 42 kg.

Alternate Method

Given:

Percentage of Men = 20%, Women = 30%.

Average weights: Men = 50 kg, Women = 40 kg, Children = 40 kg.

Formula:

Average Weight = (Total Weight of all People) ÷ (Total Number of People)

Calculations:

⇒ Percentage of Children = 100% − (20% + 30%) = 50%

⇒ Let total number of people in the group = 100

⇒ Number of Men = 20, Women = 30, Children = 50

⇒ Total weight = (20 × 50) + (30 × 40) + (50 × 40)

⇒ Total weight = 1000 + 1200 + 2000 = 4200 kg

⇒ Average weight of the group = 4200 ÷ 100 = 42 kg

∴ The correct answer is 42 kg.

Additional Information

Weighted Average

It is the average of a data set where different values have different levels of importance or frequency. Formula: Average = (n1w1 + n2w2 + ...) ÷ (n1 + n2 + ...).

Deviation Method

Pick an assumed average (e.g., 40) and calculate the net deviation. Here, 20% are +10 above 40, so Net Deviation = 20 × 10 = 200. Final Average = 40 + (200 ÷ 100) = 42 kg.

Question 70

The sum of 6 times the present age of A and 4 times the present age of B is 156 years. 2 times the present age of B exceeds 9 times the present age of A by 30 years. What will be the sum of the ages (in years) of A and B, 9 years from now?

  1. AOption (a)

    55

  2. BOption (b)

    46

  3. COption (c)

    51

  4. DOption (d)

    50

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

55

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Let A and B be present ages.

Equation 1: 6A + 4B = 156 → 3A + 2B = 78

Equation 2: 2B − 9A = 30 → 2B = 9A + 30

Substitute 2B in Eq 1: 3A + (9A + 30) = 78 → 12A = 48 → A = 4 years.

Then 2B = 9(4) + 30 = 66 → B = 33 years.

Sum of ages after 9 years = (4 + 33) + (9 × 2) = 37 + 18 = 55 years.

∴ The correct answer is 55 years.

Alternate Method

Given:

6A + 4B = 156 ... (i)

2B − 9A = 30 ... (ii)

Calculations:

⇒ Divide (i) by 2: 3A + 2B = 78

⇒ From (ii): 2B = 30 + 9A

⇒ Substitute in simplified (i): 3A + (30 + 9A) = 78

⇒ 12A = 48

⇒ A = 4 years

⇒ 2B = 30 + 9(4) = 66

⇒ B = 33 years

⇒ Present sum = 4 + 33 = 37 years

⇒ Sum 9 years later = 37 + (9 + 9) = 55 years

∴ The correct answer is 55 years.

Additional Information

Linear Equations in Two Variables

Solving for unknown ages using substitution or elimination methods based on given conditions.

Age Sum Transformation

If there are 'n' persons, the sum of their ages after 't' years increases by n × t.

Ratio of Ages

The difference between the ages of two people always remains constant over time.

Question 71

When appointing judges to the Supreme Court, the President must consult which of the following?

  1. AOption (a)

    The Chief Justice of India

  2. BOption (b)

    The Law Minister exclusively

  3. COption (c)

    The Union Public Service Commission

  4. DOption (d)

    The Prime Minister only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The Chief Justice of India

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The Chief Justice of India.

Key Points

  • Article 124(2) of the Indian Constitution mandates the President of India to consult the Chief Justice of India (CJI) while appointing judges to the Supreme Court.
  • The practice of consultation with the CJI ensures a system of checks and balances in the judicial appointment process.
  • This consultation is binding on the President, as established by the Supreme Court’s judgments in the Second Judges’ Case (1993) and the Third Judges’ Case (1998).
  • The collegium system, comprising the CJI and senior judges of the Supreme Court, plays a significant role in recommending names for judicial appointments.
  • The President, while consulting the CJI, does not act solely on their advice but also takes into account the recommendations made by the Supreme Court Collegium.

Additional Information

  • Collegium System:
  • It is a system used for the appointment and transfer of judges in the Supreme Court and High Courts of India.
  • The collegium comprises the CJI and the four senior-most judges of the Supreme Court.
  • It was introduced through the Second Judges’ Case (1993), which gave primacy to the judiciary over the executive in judicial appointments.
  • Second and Third Judges’ Cases:
  • The Second Judges’ Case (1993) established the principle that the Chief Justice of India’s opinion holds primacy in judicial appointments.
  • The Third Judges’ Case (1998) clarified the role of the collegium and expanded its composition to include four senior-most judges along with the CJI.
  • Article 124 of the Indian Constitution:
  • It deals with the establishment and composition of the Supreme Court, including the appointment of judges.
  • Clause (2) of Article 124 specifies the consultation process for appointing judges.
  • Role of the President:
  • The President appoints Supreme Court judges based on the recommendations of the collegium.
  • However, the President can seek clarification or reconsideration of the recommendation, but this is rare and usually non-binding.

Question 72

The fourth proportion to 7, 5 and 14 is the same as the third proportion to A and 10.What is the value of A?

  1. AOption (a)

    8

  2. BOption (b)

    11

  3. COption (c)

    13

  4. DOption (d)

    10

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

10

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Fourth proportional to 7, 5, 14 is (5 × 14) ÷ 7 = 10.

Third proportional to A and 10 is 102 ÷ A = 100/A.

Given: 10 = 100/A ⇒ A = 10.

∴ The correct answer is 10.

Alternate Method

Given: Numbers for fourth proportional are 7, 5, 14. Numbers for third proportional are A and 10.

Formula Used: Fourth proportional (x) to a, b, c is given by x = (b × c) / a. Third proportional (y) to a, b is given by y = b2 / a.

Calculations:

⇒ Let the fourth proportional be x.

⇒ 7 / 5 = 14 / x ⇒ x = (5 × 14) / 7 = 10.

⇒ Let the third proportional be y. Here y = x = 10.

⇒ A / 10 = 10 / y ⇒ A / 10 = 10 / 10.

⇒ A / 10 = 1 ⇒ A = 10.

∴ The correct answer is 10.

Additional Information

Mean Proportional

The mean proportional between two numbers a and b is √(a × b).

Continued Proportion

If a, b, c are in continued proportion, then a/b = b/c, which implies b2 = ac.

Ratio and Proportion Properties

Product of extremes = Product of means. In a : b :: c : d, then a × d = b × c.

Question 73

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

512 520 510 522 ? 524 506

  1. AOption (a)

    521

  2. BOption (b)

    508

  3. COption (c)

    520

  4. DOption (d)

    505

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

508

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Thus, the missing number in the series is 508.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 74

Ramesh purchased (4x – 3y) dolls from a shop at the rate of ₹(x + y) per doll. Find the total money paid by Ramesh to the shopkeeper.

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹ (4x2 - xy + y2)

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹ (x2 - xy + 3y2)

  3. COption (c)

    ₹ (4x2 + xy - 3y2)

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹ (x2 - xy + y2)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

₹ (4x2 + xy - 3y2)

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Total Money Paid = (Number of dolls) × (Rate per doll)

Multiply (4x − 3y) and (x + y).

Term by term: 4x2 + 4xy − 3xy − 3y2 = 4x2 + xy − 3y2.

∴ The correct answer is ₹(4x2 + xy − 3y2).

Alternate Method

Given:

Number of dolls = (4x − 3y)

Rate per doll = ₹(x + y)

Formula Used:

Total Cost = Quantity × Price

Calculations:

⇒ Total Money = (4x − 3y) × (x + y)

⇒ Total Money = 4x(x + y) − 3y(x + y)

⇒ Total Money = (4x × x) + (4x × y) − (3y × x) − (3y × y)

⇒ Total Money = 4x2 + 4xy − 3xy − 3y2

⇒ Total Money = 4x2 + xy − 3y2

∴ The correct answer is ₹(4x2 + xy − 3y2).

Additional Information

Algebraic Multiplication

When multiplying two binomials (a + b) and (c + d), use the distributive property: a(c + d) + b(c + d) = ac + ad + bc + bd.

Like Terms

Only terms with the exact same variables and exponents (like 4xy and −3xy) can be added or subtracted to simplify the expression.

Law of Exponents

During multiplication of same bases, powers are added: xm × xn = xm+n. For example, x × x = x1+1 = x2.

Question 75

Which of the following letter-clusters should replace # and % so that the pattern and relationship followed between the letter-cluster pair on the left side of :: is the same as that on the right side of ::?

#: QSO:: XZV: %

  1. AOption (a)

    = SFR, % = POS

  2. BOption (b)

     # = TVR, % = UWS

  3. COption (c)

    = TUR, % = UET

  4. DOption (d)

    = SVR, % = UWU

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

 # = TVR, % = UWS

Why this answer is correct

Option 1) # = SFR, % = POS

For # (SFR) to QSO

 

For XZV to % (POS)

 

Option 2) # = TVR, % = UWS

For # (TVR) to QSO

 

For XZV to % (UWS)

 

Since the pattern for TVR to QSO (-3, -3, -3) is the same as the pattern for XZV to UWS (-3, -3, -3),

Option 2 is correct.

Option 3) # = TUR, % = UET

For # (TUR) to QSO

For XZV to % (UET)

Option 4) # = SVR, % = UWU

For # (SVR) to QSO

For XZV to % (UWU)

 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 76

If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number 7418536, how many digits will appear more than once in the new number thus formed?

  1. AOption (a)

    None

  2. BOption (b)

    Three

  3. COption (c)

    One

  4. DOption (d)

    Two

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Three

Why this answer is correct

Given:

1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number 7418536.

Given7418536
Operation+1-2+1-2+1+1-2
New number8226644

The new number formed is 8226644.

The digits 2, 6, and 4 appear more than once.

Thus, three digits appear more than once.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 77

Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.

Counting to be done from left to right only.

(NOTE: All numbers are single digit numbers only.)

(Left) 7 € 2 5 3 Ⓡ 8 © 4 € 9 3 € 5 # % * 3 4 7 $ 1 (Right

How many such symbols are there each of which is immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by a number?

  1. AOption (a)

    8

  2. BOption (b)

    5

  3. COption (c)

    7

  4. DOption (d)

    6

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

6

Why this answer is correct

Given series:

(Left) 7 € 2 5 3 ® 8 © 4 € 9 3 € 5 # % * 3 4 7 $ 1 (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Number → Symbol → Number

7 € 2 5 3 ® 8 © 4 € 9 3 € 5 # % * 3 4 7 7 $ 1

There are six such symbols in the above arrangement (7 € 2, 3 ® 8,  8 © 4, 4 € 9, 3 € 5, 7 $ 1).

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 78

Three numbers are in the ratio 1: 11:19, and their LCM is 8778. Their HCF is

  1. AOption (a)

    50

  2. BOption (b)

    54

  3. COption (c)

    36

  4. DOption (d)

    42

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

42

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Let the HCF be x.

Numbers are x, 11x, and 19x.

LCM of (1, 11, 19) × HCF = Given LCM

Since 1, 11, and 19 are coprime, their LCM is 1 × 11 × 19 = 209.

209 × x = 8778 ⇒ x = 8778 ÷ 209 = 42.

∴ The correct answer is 42.

Alternate Method

Given: Ratio of three numbers = 1 : 11 : 19 and LCM = 8778.

Formula: LCM of numbers = HCF × (Product of ratios if they are coprime).

⇒ Let the numbers be 1x, 11x, and 19x where x is the HCF.

⇒ LCM (x, 11x, 19x) = x × LCM (1, 11, 19)

⇒ Since 1, 11, and 19 have no common factors, LCM = x × 1 × 11 × 19 = 209x.

⇒ 209x = 8778

⇒ x = 8778 ÷ 209

⇒ x = 42

∴ The correct answer is 42.

Additional Information

LCM and HCF Relationship

For two numbers a and b, HCF(a, b) × LCM(a, b) = a × b. This does not directly apply to three or more numbers.

Coprime Numbers

If numbers are coprime, their HCF is 1 and their LCM is the product of the numbers.

Ratio Property

If the ratio of numbers is a:b:c and their HCF is k, then the numbers are ak, bk, and ck.

Question 79

A sound wave with a period of 0.01 seconds has a frequency of:

  1. AOption (a)

     0.1 Hz

  2. BOption (b)

    10 Hz

  3. COption (c)

    100 Hz

  4. DOption (d)

    1000 Hz

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

100 Hz

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 100 Hz.

Key Points

  • The relationship between frequency and period is defined as Frequency = 1 / Period.
  • A sound wave with a period of 0.01 seconds has a frequency calculated as 1 / 0.01 = 100 Hz.
  • Frequency is measured in Hertz (Hz), which represents the number of cycles per second.
  • Sound waves with a frequency of 100 Hz fall within the range of human hearing, typically between 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz.
  • The period and frequency are inversely related—if the period is short, the frequency is high, and vice versa.

Additional Information

  • Frequency:
  • Frequency refers to the number of oscillations or cycles a wave completes in one second.
  • It is measured in Hertz (Hz), where 1 Hz equals one cycle per second.
  • Period:
  • The period is the time taken for one complete cycle of a wave.
  • It is expressed in seconds and is the reciprocal of frequency.
  • Sound Waves:
  • Sound waves are longitudinal waves that travel through a medium (air, water, solids).
  • They consist of compressions and rarefactions caused by vibrating objects.
  • Human Hearing Range:
  • Humans can typically hear frequencies ranging from 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz.
  • Frequencies below 20 Hz are called infrasonic, and frequencies above 20,000 Hz are ultrasonic.

Question 80

What is the mascot of Expo 2025 in Osaka?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sora-Sora

  2. BOption (b)

    Mira-Mira

  3. COption (c)

    Myaku-Myaku

  4. DOption (d)

    Kiko-Kiko

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Myaku-Myaku

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Myaku-Myaku.

Key Points

  • Myaku-Myaku is the official mascot of Expo 2025, which will be held in Osaka, Kansai, Japan.
  • The mascot was unveiled on July 18, 2022, as part of the promotional efforts for the event.
  • Its design represents the concept of "co-creation of a future society for our lives", reflecting the theme of Expo 2025.
  • The character is a vibrant and fluid-like entity symbolizing the flow of life, connection, and coexistence among people, nature, and technology.
  • Myaku-Myaku has gained significant attention for its unique and abstract design, which stands out compared to traditional mascots.

Additional Information

  • Expo 2025 Overview
  • Expo 2025 will be held in Osaka, Kansai, Japan, from April 13 to October 13, 2025.
  • The theme of the event is "Designing Future Society for Our Lives", emphasizing sustainability and innovation.
  • It aims to address global challenges by fostering dialogue and collaboration between nations, organizations, and individuals.
  • World Expos
  • World Expos are large international exhibitions held every five years to showcase achievements in science, technology, culture, and innovation.
  • The first Expo, known as the Great Exhibition, was held in London in 1851.
  • They are regulated by the Bureau International des Expositions (BIE), headquartered in Paris.
  • Japan and World Expos
  • Japan has hosted multiple Expos, including Expo 1970 in Osaka, which was the first World Expo held in Asia.
  • The 1970 Expo's theme was "Progress and Harmony for Mankind" and attracted millions of visitors.
  • Expo 2025 is expected to build upon Japan's legacy of innovation and cultural exchange.
  • Significance of Myaku-Myaku
  • The mascot's name, "Myaku-Myaku," is derived from the Japanese word for "pulse" or "flow," symbolizing continuity and life.
  • Its design reflects the Expo's emphasis on sustainability, diversity, and inclusiveness.
  • The character serves as a cultural ambassador, engaging audiences worldwide and promoting the Expo's goals.

Question 81

Which region was merged in 1948 to form the initial territory of Himachal Pradesh?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rajputana

  2. BOption (b)

    Patiala and East Punjab States Union

  3. COption (c)

    Chhattisgarh

  4. DOption (d)

    Shimla Hill States

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Shimla Hill States

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Shimla Hill States.

Key Points

  • Himachal Pradesh was initially formed on 15 April 1948 by merging 30 princely states known as Shimla Hill States.
  • These states included prominent regions such as Chamba, Mandi, Suket, Baghal, and Bhagat, among others.
  • The merger was part of India's post-independence reorganization of states to streamline administration and governance.
  • The Shimla Hill States were small princely states located primarily in the hilly areas of Punjab Province during British India.
  • The formation of Himachal Pradesh laid the foundation for its eventual recognition as a full-fledged state in 1971.

Additional Information

  • Formation of Himachal Pradesh:
  • On 15 April 1948, Himachal Pradesh was created as a Chief Commissioner's Province by merging 30 princely states.
  • It was made a Union Territory on 1 November 1956, and became a full-fledged state on 25 January 1971.
  • Shimla Hill States:
  • These were princely states in the hilly regions of Punjab Province during British India.
  • They were governed by local rulers under the suzerainty of the British Empire.
  • State Reorganization Post-Independence:
  • India's independence in 1947 led to the integration of princely states into larger administrative units.
  • Many smaller states were merged to create streamlined governance structures.
  • Current Significance:
  • Himachal Pradesh is known for its scenic beauty, cultural heritage, and as a prominent tourist destination.
  • The state contributes significantly to India's agriculture, hydropower, and tourism sectors.

Question 82

What is the name of the team that lost to Rajnigandha Achievers in the Aditya Birla Memorial Polo final Cup 2025?

  1. AOption (a)

    Jindal Panther

  2. BOption (b)

    Aditya Birla Group

  3. COption (c)

    Rajnigandha Polo Team

  4. DOption (d)

    New Delhi Polo Team

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Jindal Panther

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Jindal Panther.

Key Points

  • The Aditya Birla Memorial Polo Cup 2025 is a highly prestigious polo tournament held annually in India.
  • The final match of the 2025 edition witnessed a competitive face-off between Rajnigandha Achievers and Jindal Panther.
  • Jindal Panther, a well-known polo team, lost to Rajnigandha Achievers in the final match of the tournament.
  • The tournament is known for attracting top polo teams and players from across the nation, showcasing intense and high-level polo action.
  • The victory by Rajnigandha Achievers highlights their strategic gameplay and strong team coordination, which led them to secure the championship title.

Additional Information

  • Polo – The Sport:
  • Polo is a team sport played on horseback, where players use a long-handled mallet to hit a small hard ball into the opposing team's goal.
  • It is often referred to as the "Sport of Kings" due to its historical association with royalty and nobility.
  • A standard polo match consists of 4 to 8 periods, known as chukkas, each lasting about 7 minutes.
  • Jindal Panther Polo Team:
  • Jindal Panther is one of India's premier polo teams, supported by Jindal Steel and Power Ltd. (JSPL).
  • The team is known for its skilled players and competitive presence in both national and international tournaments.
  • Rajnigandha Achievers:
  • Rajnigandha Achievers is another prominent polo team in India, backed by the DS Group.
  • The team is recognized for its consistent performance and strategic gameplay in various polo tournaments.
  • Aditya Birla Memorial Polo Cup:
  • The tournament is organized annually to promote polo in India and is named in memory of Aditya Vikram Birla, an industrialist and polo enthusiast.
  • It is one of the most awaited events in the Indian polo calendar, bringing together top players and teams.

Question 83

Which of the following Directive Principles is mentioned in Article 44 of the Constitution of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Organisation of agriculture and animal husbandry

  2. BOption (b)

    Uniform civil code for the citizens

  3. COption (c)

    Equal justice and free legal aid

  4. DOption (d)

    Promotion of co-operative societies

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Uniform civil code for the citizens

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Uniform civil code for the citizens.

Key Points

  • Article 44 of the Indian Constitution is a part of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) and emphasizes the implementation of a Uniform Civil Code (UCC) across the country.
  • The Uniform Civil Code aims to replace personal laws based on the scriptures and customs of various religious communities with a common set of secular laws governing marriage, divorce, inheritance, and adoption.
  • The UCC is intended to ensure gender equality and secularism by providing equal rights to all citizens irrespective of their religion.
  • Although mentioned in the Directive Principles, the Uniform Civil Code is not yet implemented in India, except in the state of Goa, which follows a common civil code.
  • The implementation of UCC is often debated in India due to its potential impact on cultural and religious diversity.

Additional Information

  • Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP):
  • DPSPs are enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution (Articles 36-51).
  • These principles are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be enforced by courts but are fundamental in governance.
  • Their objective is to create a social framework for achieving justice, equality, and welfare for all citizens.
  • Uniform Civil Code in Goa:
  • Goa is the only Indian state to have a common civil code, which applies to all its citizens regardless of religion.
  • This civil code governs marriage, divorce, and inheritance uniformly, ensuring equality among all communities in the state.
  • Personal Laws in India:
  • Personal laws in India are based on religion and govern matters like marriage, divorce, inheritance, and adoption.
  • For example, Hindu law, Muslim law, and Christian law apply to their respective communities.
  • Importance of UCC:
  • Uniform Civil Code is seen as a way to achieve national integration and eliminate discriminatory practices in personal laws.
  • It seeks to create a uniform legal framework ensuring equality before the law for all citizens.
  • Challenges to UCC Implementation:
  • Religious diversity and cultural sensitivities make the implementation of UCC a complex issue in India.
  • Critics argue it may infringe on the right to religious freedom guaranteed by Article 25 of the Constitution.

Question 84

As per the Union Budget 2025-26, the start-up incorporation deadline was extended for how many years to avail tax benefits?

  1. AOption (a)

    5

  2. BOption (b)

    6

  3. COption (c)

    7

  4. DOption (d)

    4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

5

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 5.

Key Points

  • In the Union Budget 2025-26, the government extended the deadline for start-up incorporations by 5 years to avail of tax benefits under Section 80-IAC of the Income Tax Act.
  • This extension is aimed at boosting the entrepreneurial ecosystem and promoting start-up culture in India.
  • The tax benefits allow eligible start-ups to claim a 100% tax deduction on profits for three consecutive years out of their first ten years of incorporation.
  • The eligibility criteria for start-ups include recognition by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT).
  • This initiative aligns with the government’s flagship Startup India campaign to encourage innovation, job creation, and economic growth.

Additional Information

  • Section 80-IAC of the Income Tax Act
  • Introduced in the Union Budget 2016, it provides tax exemptions for start-ups recognized by DPIIT.
  • The tax benefit is available for three consecutive years out of the first ten years of incorporation.
  • Eligible start-ups must have a turnover of less than ₹100 crore in any of the financial years.
  • Startup India Initiative
  • Launched by PM Narendra Modi on January 16, 2016, to promote entrepreneurship and innovation in India.
  • Key benefits include tax exemptions, easier compliance processes, and access to a ₹10,000 crore Fund of Funds.
  • The initiative also includes programs like the Startup India Hub and the Startup India Seed Fund Scheme.
  • Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT)
  • A government body under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry responsible for formulating policies for industrial development.
  • DPIIT recognition is mandatory for start-ups to avail benefits under the Startup India initiative.
  • Economic Impact of Start-ups in India
  • Start-ups contribute significantly to job creation, with over 8 lakh jobs created by recognized start-ups as of 2023.
  • They play a crucial role in driving innovation and supporting sectors like technology, healthcare, and renewable energy.

Question 85

5Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

Some protein are carbs.

Some protein are vitamin.

Some carbs are sugar.

Conclusions:

(1) Some protein are sugar.

(II) Some carbs are vitamin.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only conclusion (1) follows

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither conclusion (1) nor (II) follows

  3. COption (c)

    Only conclusion (II) follows

  4. DOption (d)

    Both conclusions (1) and (II) follow

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Neither conclusion (1) nor (II) follows

Why this answer is correct

Given Statements:

Some protein are carbs.

Some protein are vitamin.

Some carbs are sugar.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some protein are sugar - False (No definite relation is given between protein and sugar. While a possibility exists, it cannot be concluded with certainty from the given statements.)

II. Some carbs are vitamin - False (No direct relationship is established between carbs and vitamin in the statements. it cannot be concluded with certainty from the given statements.)

So, Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 86

What is the dual role of the highest judicial officer in a district?

  1. AOption (a)

    Nyaya Panchayat head for civil cases and Gram Kutchery head for criminal cases

  2. BOption (b)

    District Judge for civil cases and Sessions Judge for criminal cases

  3. COption (c)

    Chief Judicial Magistrate for civil cases and Munsiff for criminal cases

  4. DOption (d)

    Subordinate Judge for civil cases and Metropolitan Magistrate for criminal cases

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

District Judge for civil cases and Sessions Judge for criminal cases

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is District Judge for civil cases and Sessions Judge for criminal cases.

Key Points

  • The highest judicial officer in a district performs a dual role as District Judge for civil cases and Sessions Judge for criminal cases.
  • The District Judge is responsible for adjudicating civil disputes, including property disputes, contract disputes, and family matters.
  • The Sessions Judge handles criminal cases, which include trials for serious offenses such as murder, robbery, and rape.
  • The Sessions Court is empowered to impose the maximum sentence prescribed under the law, including life imprisonment or the death penalty in rare cases.
  • The dual role ensures efficient functioning of judicial proceedings at the district level and proper allocation of responsibilities between civil and criminal jurisdictions.

Additional Information

  • District Judiciary Structure:
  • The district judiciary system operates at the district level, with the District Judge being the highest judicial authority.
  • Subordinate courts such as Munsiff Courts and Magistrate Courts assist in handling lower-level cases.
  • Sessions Court:
  • The Sessions Court is the principal criminal court in a district.
  • It can try offenses under the Indian Penal Code and other criminal laws.
  • Judicial Appointments:
  • District Judges and Sessions Judges are appointed by the High Court of the respective state.
  • Promotions are based on merit and seniority within the judiciary system.
  • Nyaya Panchayat:
  • Nyaya Panchayats are village-level courts established to handle minor disputes and offenses.
  • They work as alternative dispute resolution mechanisms but are not part of the formal judiciary.

Question 87

Which Indian state had the highest Human Development Index (HDI) in 2017?

  1. AOption (a)

    Gujarat

  2. BOption (b)

    Tamil Nadu

  3. COption (c)

    Kerala

  4. DOption (d)

    Maharashtra

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Kerala

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

  • Kerala had the highest Human Development Index (HDI) among Indian states in 2017, reflecting its strong performance in education, health, and living standards.
  • The HDI score for Kerala in 2017 was 0.784, the highest in the country, according to the India Human Development Report.
  • Kerala’s high literacy rate, which stood at 94% as per the 2011 Census, and its robust public healthcare system contributed significantly to its HDI ranking.
  • Key initiatives such as universal education, decentralized healthcare, and social welfare programs have been instrumental in Kerala’s development.
  • Kerala consistently leads in parameters such as life expectancy (74.9 years), gender parity, and infant mortality, making it a model state for human development.

Additional Information

  • Human Development Index (HDI):
  • HDI is a composite index developed by the United Nations to measure a country's development in terms of education, life expectancy, and per capita income.
  • It is expressed on a scale of 0 to 1, where values closer to 1 indicate higher development levels.
  • The HDI rankings of states or countries are often used as benchmarks for policymaking and assessing economic and social progress.
  • Kerala’s Decentralized Planning:
  • Introduced under the Panchayati Raj system, Kerala’s decentralized governance model focuses on grassroots-level development.
  • It emphasizes localized decision-making and community participation to ensure equitable resource allocation and sustainable development.
  • Life Expectancy in India:
  • India’s average life expectancy stood at 69.4 years in 2017, while Kerala’s life expectancy was significantly higher at 74.9 years.
  • Life expectancy is influenced by factors such as healthcare access, sanitation, and nutrition levels.
  • Factors Driving HDI Performance:
  • Key indicators contributing to HDI include literacy rate, gender equality, and access to quality healthcare services.
  • States investing in education and healthcare systems tend to have higher HDI rankings.

Question 88

Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is a key aspect of globalisation. What is a major benefit of FDI for developing countries like India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Increase in taxation

  2. BOption (b)

    Trade deficits

  3. COption (c)

    Currency depreciation

  4. DOption (d)

    Access to technology and employment

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Access to technology and employment

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Access to technology and employment.

Key Points

  • FDI serves as a conduit for the transfer of advanced technologies, which helps developing countries like India enhance their industrial and service sector capabilities.
  • Foreign investments often lead to the creation of jobs, addressing unemployment and providing income opportunities to the local workforce.
  • FDI contributes to infrastructure development by funding various sectors, including manufacturing, IT, and construction, thereby accelerating economic growth.
  • It promotes skill development by facilitating training programs and enabling local workers to gain expertise in cutting-edge technologies and processes.
  • FDI improves global integration, allowing developing nations to participate in international trade and benefit from globalization.

Additional Information

  • Foreign Direct Investment (FDI):
  • FDI refers to investments made by a company or individual based in one country into business interests located in another country.
  • It typically involves acquiring a significant degree of influence or ownership in the foreign enterprise.
  • Technology Transfer:
  • Technology transfer refers to the process of sharing or disseminating technology from one organization to another, often facilitated by FDI.
  • This helps developing nations gain access to innovations, modern equipment, and industrial knowledge.
  • Employment Generation:
  • FDI inflows often lead to the establishment of new enterprises and industries, creating direct and indirect employment opportunities.
  • It plays a critical role in reducing poverty and uplifting the standard of living in developing economies.
  • FDI in India:
  • India has been one of the largest recipients of FDI globally, attracting investments in sectors like IT, telecom, manufacturing, and real estate.
  • Favorable government policies and initiatives such as "Make in India" and "Digital India" have boosted FDI inflows.
  • Economic Growth:
  • FDI contributes to GDP growth by enhancing productivity, increasing export capacity, and improving infrastructure.
  • It also strengthens the competitive edge of domestic industries in the global market.

Question 89

One-third of a journey is covered at a speed of 31 km/hr, the next one-third of the journey is covered at a speed of 4 km/hr, and the remaining journey is covered at a speed of 34 km/hr. The average speed (in km/hr, rounded off to one decimal place) for the entire journey is:

  1. AOption (a)

    9.6

  2. BOption (b)

    6.3

  3. COption (c)

    7.1

  4. DOption (d)

    3.1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

9.6

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

When equal distances (1/3 each) are covered at speeds x, y, and z, the Average Speed is given by the formula: 3xyz / (xy + yz + zx).

Average Speed = (3 × 31 × 4 × 34) ÷ (31 × 4 + 4 × 34 + 34 × 31)

Average Speed = 12648 ÷ (124 + 136 + 1054) = 12648 ÷ 1314

Average Speed ≈ 9.625 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 9.6 km/hr.

Alternate Method

Given: Speeds v1 = 31 km/hr, v2 = 4 km/hr, v3 = 34 km/hr. Let the total distance be D. Each segment is D/3.

Formula: Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time

⇒ Total Time = (D/3 ÷ 31) + (D/3 ÷ 4) + (D/3 ÷ 34)

⇒ Total Time = (D/3) × [1/31 + 1/4 + 1/34]

⇒ Total Time = (D/3) × [(136 + 1054 + 124) ÷ 4216] = (D/3) × [1314 ÷ 4216]

⇒ Average Speed = D ÷ [(D × 1314) ÷ 12648]

⇒ Average Speed = 12648 ÷ 1314 ≈ 9.625 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 9.6 km/hr.

Additional Information

Average Speed for Two Equal Distances

When two equal distances are covered at speeds u and v, the average speed is 2uv / (u + v).

General Average Speed Formula

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time. This is applicable for all scenarios including unequal distances or time intervals.

Rounding Off Rules

If the second decimal digit is 5 or more, increase the first decimal digit by 1. Here, 9.625 is rounded to 9.6 as 2 < 5.

Question 90

If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number 1836547, what will be the sum of the digits that are second from the left and second from the right in the new number thus formed?

  1. AOption (a)

    12

  2. BOption (b)

    14

  3. COption (c)

    10

  4. DOption (d)

    8

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

8

Why this answer is correct

Given:

1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number 1836547.

Given1836547
Operation+1-2+1-2+1-2+1
New number2644628

The new number formed is 2644628.

The second digit from the left is 6.

The second digit from the right is 2.

The sum of these two digits is 6 + 2 = 8.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 91

Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

RLN PKP NJR ? JHV

  1. AOption (a)

     LIT

  2. BOption (b)

    LIS

  3. COption (c)

    LJS

  4. DOption (d)

    LHP

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

 LIT

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Thus, the missing term in the series is LIT.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1";

Question 92

A train is 1495 m and it crosses a platform in 2.8 minutes running at the speed of 54 km/hr. Find the difference between the length of the train and the platform.

  1. AOption (a)

    470 m

  2. BOption (b)

    472 m

  3. COption (c)

    461 m

  4. DOption (d)

    467 m

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

470 m

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Convert speed: 54 km/hr × 5/18 = 15 m/s.

Convert time: 2.8 minutes × 60 = 168 seconds.

Total Distance (Train + Platform) = 15 × 168 = 2520 m.

Platform Length = 2520 − 1495 = 1025 m.

Difference = 1495 − 1025 = 470 m.

∴ The correct answer is 470 m.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length of Train (L1) = 1495 m

Speed of Train (S) = 54 km/hr

Time taken (t) = 2.8 minutes

Formula Used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Total Distance = Length of Train + Length of Platform

Calculations:

⇒ Speed in m/s = 54 × (5/18) = 15 m/s

⇒ Time in seconds = 2.8 × 60 = 168 seconds

⇒ Total Distance = 15 × 168 = 2520 m

⇒ Length of Platform = 2520 − 1495 = 1025 m

⇒ Difference = 1495 − 1025 = 470 m

∴ The correct answer is 470 m.

Additional Information

Unit Conversion

To convert km/hr to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18/5.

Relative Speed

When two objects move in opposite directions, relative speed = S1 + S2. In the same direction, relative speed = |S1 − S2|.

Train Crossing Objects

When a train crosses a stationary pole/man, distance = length of train. When it crosses a bridge/platform, distance = length of train + length of object.

Question 93

A dishonest shopkeeper claims that he sells rock salt at ₹17/kg, which costs him 20/kg. But he gives 567 g instead of 1134 g. What is his profit percentage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Profit of 69%

  2. BOption (b)

    Profit of 68%

  3. COption (c)

     Profit of 73%

  4. DOption (d)

    Profit of 70%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Profit of 70%

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Net Profit/Loss is calculated using the Successive Ratio method.

Price Ratio (CP : SP) = 20 : 17

Weight Ratio (Inverse of quantity) = 567 : 1134 = 1 : 2

Combined Ratio = (20 × 1) : (17 × 2) = 20 : 34 = 10 : 17

Profit% = (17 − 10) ÷ 10 × 100 = 7 ÷ 10 × 100 = 70%.

∴ The correct answer is Profit of 70%.

Alternate Method

Given → Cost Price (CP) = ₹20/kg, Selling Price (SP) = ₹17/kg, Actual weight given = 567 g, Claimed weight = 1134 g. Formulas: Profit% = (Net SP − Net CP) ÷ Net CP × 100 | Total SP = (Price × Claimed Weight) | Total CP = (Cost × Actual Weight).

⇒ Effective Cost for shopkeeper = CP × (Actual Weight ÷ 1000) = 20 × (567 ÷ 1000) = ₹11.34. ⇒ Effective Revenue for shopkeeper = SP × (Claimed Weight ÷ 1000) = 17 × (1134 ÷ 1000) = ₹19.278. ⇒ Profit = 19.278 − 11.34 = ₹7.938. ⇒ Profit% = (7.938 ÷ 11.34) × 100. ⇒ Profit% = 0.7 × 100 = 70%.

∴ The correct answer is Profit of 70%.

Additional Information

Dishonest Dealer Concept

A dealer can earn profit by either marking up the price or by using faulty weights. If a dealer sells at CP but uses less weight, Gain% = [Error ÷ (True Value − Error)] × 100.

Combined Multiplier

When multiple factors (price change and weight change) occur, the Net Profit Factor is the product of the individual ratios: (SP/CP)Price × (True Weight/Actual Weight).

Question 94

Which of the following statements is NOT correct with reference to the main group elements?

  1. AOption (a)

    Their reactivity does not follow any periodic trend.

  2. BOption (b)

    They are also called representative elements.

  3. COption (c)

    They include both s-block and p-block elements.

  4. DOption (d)

    Their valence shell configurations help predict chemical behaviour.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Their reactivity does not follow any periodic trend.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

  • The reactivity of main group elements follows distinct periodic trends, increasing or decreasing depending on their position within the periodic table.
  • In the s-block, reactivity increases down the group due to the ease of losing electrons, while in the p-block, reactivity trends vary based on group and period.
  • Main group elements are referred to as representative elements because their properties exhibit clear periodic trends that represent overall periodic behavior.
  • The main group elements include both s-block (Groups 1 and 2) and p-block elements (Groups 13–18), which together form the bulk of the periodic table.
  • The valence shell configuration of these elements is crucial for predicting their chemical behavior, as it determines their bonding and reactivity patterns.

Additional Information

  • Main Group Elements:
  • Main group elements include Groups 1, 2, and 13–18 of the periodic table.
  • They are characterized by the filling of s and p orbitals in their outermost electron shells.
  • Their chemical properties are influenced by the number of valence electrons in their outer shell.
  • Periodic Trends:
  • Reactivity in s-block elements increases down the group, while in p-block elements, trends depend on electron affinity and electronegativity.
  • Ionization energy, atomic radius, and electronegativity show predictable trends across periods and groups.
  • Valence Shell Configuration:
  • The valence shell configuration determines the chemical bonding and reactivity of elements.
  • Elements with similar configurations exhibit similar chemical properties (e.g., alkali metals in Group 1).
  • Representative Elements:
  • They are named representative elements because their properties and trends typify the periodic table.
  • These elements often form the basis for understanding chemical reactions and periodic trends.

Question 95

In a certain code language, 'JAIL' is coded as '3457' and 'ARCS' is coded as '1265'. What is the code for 'A' in the given code language?

  1. AOption (a)

    1

  2. BOption (b)

    4

  3. COption (c)

    6

  4. DOption (d)

    5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

5

Why this answer is correct

The given code language is:

Thus, 'A' is coded as '5'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 96

If a + b = 50 and a - b = 42. find the value of a² + b²

  1. AOption (a)

    2500

  2. BOption (b)

    2132

  3. COption (c)

    2578

  4. DOption (d)

    2503

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2132

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Direct Formula: a2 + b2 = [(a + b)2 + (a − b)2] ÷ 2

Given: (a + b) = 50 and (a − b) = 42

Substituting values: a2 + b2 = [502 + 422] ÷ 2 = [2500 + 1764] ÷ 2

Final calculation: 4264 ÷ 2 = 2132

∴ The correct answer is 2132.

Alternate Method

Given:

Sum of two numbers (a + b) = 50

Difference of two numbers (a − b) = 42

Calculations:

⇒ (a + b) + (a − b) = 50 + 42 ⇒ 2a = 92 ⇒ a = 46 ⇒ (a + b) − (a − b) = 50 − 42 ⇒ 2b = 8 ⇒ b = 4 ⇒ a2 + b2 = 462 + 42 ⇒ a2 + b2 = 2116 + 16 ⇒ a2 + b2 = 2132

∴ The correct answer is 2132.

Additional Information

Algebraic Identity for Sum of Squares

The relation between the square of sum and square of difference is given by: (a + b)2 + (a − b)2 = 2(a2 + b2).

Finding the Product ab

The product of two numbers can be found using the formula: ab = [(a + b)2 − (a − b)2] ÷ 4.

Basic Square Identities

(a + b)2 = a2 + b2 + 2ab and (a − b)2 = a2 + b2 − 2ab.

Question 97

Harit starts from Point Y and drives 47 km towards the east. He then takes a right turn, drives 23 km, turns right and drives 26 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 52 km. He takes a left turn, drives 21 km. He then turns left, drives 11 km to stop at Point Z. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point Y again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)

  1. AOption (a)

    18 km towards the south

  2. BOption (b)

    19 km towards the north

  3. COption (c)

    24 km towards the east

  4. DOption (d)

    20 km towards the south

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

18 km towards the south

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Harit starts from Point Y and drives 47 km towards the east.

He then takes a right turn, drives 23 km, turns right and drives 26 km.

He then takes a right turn and drives 52 km.

He takes a left turn, drives 21 km.

He then turns left, drives 11 km to stop at Point Z.

Harit's final position (Point Z) is at a distance of 18 km from Point Y, and it's located to the North.

To reach Point Y again, he must drive 18 km in the South direction.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 98

Seven boxes, D, E, F, G, S, T and U, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. Only three boxes are kept above G. Only one box is kept between T and G. Only three boxes are kept between T and S. S is kept at some place above G. E is kept immediately below S. F is kept at one of the places above D. U is not kept immediately above or below T. Which box is kept at the lowermost position?

  1. AOption (a)

    U

  2. BOption (b)

    D

  3. COption (c)

    T

  4. DOption (d)

    F

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

D

Why this answer is correct

Given: Seven boxes, D, E, F, G, S, T and U, are kept one over the other. The lowermost box is numbered 1 and the topmost is numbered 7.

  1. Only three boxes are kept above G.

This means G is on Position 4.

7
6
5
4G
3
2
1
  1. Only one box is kept between T and G. Only three boxes are kept between T and S. S is kept at some place above G.
7
6S
5
4G
3
2T
1
  1. E is kept immediately below S.
7
6S
5E
4G
3
2T
1
  1. F is kept at one of the places above D. U is not kept immediately above or below T.
7U
6S
5E
4G
3F
2T
1D

From the final arrangement, the box kept at the lowermost position (Position 1) is D.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 99

In which year was the demonetisation of 500- and 1000-rupees notes announced in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    2014

  2. BOption (b)

    2016

  3. COption (c)

    2018

  4. DOption (d)

    2020

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2016

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2016.

Key Points

  • The Government of India announced the demonetisation of ₹500 and ₹1000 currency notes on 8th November 2016.
  • This announcement was made by the then Prime Minister of India, Narendra Modi, in a televised address to the nation.
  • The demonetised notes ceased to be legal tender with immediate effect, except for a few essential services until 30th December 2016.
  • The primary objectives of demonetisation were to curb black money, counterfeit currency, and terrorist financing.
  • New ₹500 and ₹2000 currency notes were introduced by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) as replacements.

Additional Information

  • Black Money:
  • Black money refers to income illegally obtained or not declared for tax purposes.
  • Demonetisation aimed to bring undeclared money into the formal economy by encouraging people to deposit cash in banks.
  • Counterfeit Currency:
  • Counterfeit currency is fake money intended to deceive and manipulate the financial system.
  • The demonetisation initiative targeted the circulation of fake ₹500 and ₹1000 notes, which were being used for illegal activities.
  • Digital Transactions:
  • Demonetisation led to a significant increase in digital payments as people turned to alternative modes of payment.
  • The government promoted platforms like UPI, BHIM, and e-wallets to reduce dependence on cash.
  • Criticism and Challenges:
  • The demonetisation move faced criticism for causing disruptions in the economy, particularly in the informal sector.
  • There were long queues at banks and ATMs, and the sudden cash crunch affected daily wage workers and small businesses.

Question 100

What was the purpose of the Imperial Service Scheme (1885)?

  1. AOption (a)

    To facilitate trade among states

  2. BOption (b)

    To raise troops for British defence, paid by princely states

  3. COption (c)

    To abolish princely privileges

  4. DOption (d)

    To educate royal families

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

To raise troops for British defence, paid by princely states

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is To raise troops for British defence, paid by princely states.

Key Points

  • The Imperial Service Scheme was introduced in 1885 during British colonial rule in India.
  • The scheme aimed at raising military forces from Indian princely states to support the British Empire’s defense.
  • Under this scheme, troops were recruited, trained, and maintained by princely states but were available for use by the British government in times of need.
  • It provided princely states with an opportunity to demonstrate loyalty to the British Crown by contributing militarily.
  • These troops were often deployed in various military campaigns beyond India, including in British imperial conflicts.

Additional Information

  • Indian Princely States:
  • During British rule, India was divided into British-controlled territories and approximately 565 princely states governed by local rulers under British suzerainty.
  • Princely states retained internal autonomy but pledged allegiance to the British Crown.
  • British Imperial Defense:
  • Defense was a critical concern for the British Empire, particularly during global conflicts like World War I and II.
  • Indian troops, including those raised under schemes like the Imperial Service Scheme, played significant roles in British military campaigns worldwide.
  • Role of Indian Troops in the British Army:
  • Indian soldiers served in various capacities, including infantry, cavalry, and specialized units, under British command.
  • Their participation in imperial wars earned them recognition but also highlighted the exploitative nature of colonial rule.
  • Impact on Princely States:
  • While contributing troops enhanced the prestige of princely rulers, it also placed financial burdens on the states to maintain military forces.
  • It created a closer dependency on British support and control.

100 questions in the full paper