Official Paper

RBI Grade B Officer Phase-I 2023 Previous Year Paper

120 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

Reasoning (60 questions)

31

Directions (31-35): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Eight family members sit around a circular table facing the centre and all of them related to B in some way. L is the daughter-in-law of B who sits 2nd to the left of his son. B and his daughter are immediate neighbours. B and his wife sit opposite to each other. T is the only son’s son-in-law of B and sits 3rd to the left of B’s daughter. S is the grandmother of E. Q is the paternal aunt of D. B’s sister and B’s wife are not an immediate neighbour. K sits 2nd to the left of L.

How many persons sit between T and D?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Three

  3. ((c))

    Four

  4. ((d))

    Two

  5. ((e))

    None

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Three

32

Directions (31-35): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Eight family members sit around a circular table facing the centre and all of them related to B in some way. L is the daughter-in-law of B who sits 2nd to the left of his son. B and his daughter are immediate neighbours. B and his wife sit opposite to each other. T is the only son’s son-in-law of B and sits 3rd to the left of B’s daughter. S is the grandmother of E. Q is the paternal aunt of D. B’s sister and B’s wife are not an immediate neighbour. K sits 2nd to the left of L.

How is K related to Q?

  1. ((a))

    Niece

  2. ((b))

    Nephew

  3. ((c))

    Aunt

  4. ((d))

    Uncle

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Niece

33

Directions (31-35): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Eight family members sit around a circular table facing the centre and all of them related to B in some way. L is the daughter-in-law of B who sits 2nd to the left of his son. B and his daughter are immediate neighbours. B and his wife sit opposite to each other. T is the only son’s son-in-law of B and sits 3rd to the left of B’s daughter. S is the grandmother of E. Q is the paternal aunt of D. B’s sister and B’s wife are not an immediate neighbour. K sits 2nd to the left of L.

What is the position of D’s daughter with respect to S’s sister-in-law?

  1. ((a))

    4th to the left

  2. ((b))

    3rd to the right

  3. ((c))

    Immediate left

  4. ((d))

    2nd to the left

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

2nd to the left

34

Directions (31-35): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Eight family members sit around a circular table facing the centre and all of them related to B in some way. L is the daughter-in-law of B who sits 2nd to the left of his son. B and his daughter are immediate neighbours. B and his wife sit opposite to each other. T is the only son’s son-in-law of B and sits 3rd to the left of B’s daughter. S is the grandmother of E. Q is the paternal aunt of D. B’s sister and B’s wife are not an immediate neighbour. K sits 2nd to the left of L.

Who among the following is an immediate neighbour of T’s mother-in-law?

  1. ((a))

    E

  2. ((b))

    Q

  3. ((c))

    S

  4. ((d))

    K

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

S

35

Directions (31-35): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Eight family members sit around a circular table facing the centre and all of them related to B in some way. L is the daughter-in-law of B who sits 2nd to the left of his son. B and his daughter are immediate neighbours. B and his wife sit opposite to each other. T is the only son’s son-in-law of B and sits 3rd to the left of B’s daughter. S is the grandmother of E. Q is the paternal aunt of D. B’s sister and B’s wife are not an immediate neighbour. K sits 2nd to the left of L.

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way (according to blood relation) and hence form a group. Who among the following does not belong to that group?

  1. ((a))

    D

  2. ((b))

    Q

  3. ((c))

    L

  4. ((d))

    K

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

D

36

Directions (36-39): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: In a certain code language: “Shopping malls summer season” is coded as “T24V H1P I26V M21V” “Wooden work on shoe” is coded as “M35Z P15Z M15R V20V” “Leather jacket feel awesome” is coded as “I11O G6M O10I V26D” “Jurassic Park dragon flies” is coded as “X31M P1S M16G H14I”

What is the code for “Home minister” in the given code language?

  1. ((a))

    K20V N21P

  2. ((b))

    V20K I23P

  3. ((c))

    V21K I20P

  4. ((d))

    I13P K20V

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

V20K I23P

37

Directions (36-39): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: In a certain code language: “Shopping malls summer season” is coded as “T24V H1P I26V M21V” “Wooden work on shoe” is coded as “M35Z P15Z M15R V20V” “Leather jacket feel awesome” is coded as “I11O G6M O10I V26D” “Jurassic Park dragon flies” is coded as “X31M P1S M16G H14I”

The code “M10J V11S” is coded as for ____.

  1. ((a))

    Green Peas

  2. ((b))

    Greek word

  3. ((c))

    Green peace

  4. ((d))

    Greece state

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Green peace

38

Directions (36-39): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: In a certain code language: “Shopping malls summer season” is coded as “T24V H1P I26V M21V” “Wooden work on shoe” is coded as “M35Z P15Z M15R V20V” “Leather jacket feel awesome” is coded as “I11O G6M O10I V26D” “Jurassic Park dragon flies” is coded as “X31M P1S M16G H14I”

What is the code for “Revolution” in the given code language?

  1. ((a))

    M65U

  2. ((b))

    U35M

  3. ((c))

    M45U

  4. ((d))

    M60U

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

M65U

39

Directions (36-39): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: In a certain code language: “Shopping malls summer season” is coded as “T24V H1P I26V M21V” “Wooden work on shoe” is coded as “M35Z P15Z M15R V20V” “Leather jacket feel awesome” is coded as “I11O G6M O10I V26D” “Jurassic Park dragon flies” is coded as “X31M P1S M16G H14I”

What is the code for “Perfect match” in the given code language?

  1. ((a))

    F10R R10P

  2. ((b))

    G1S S10P

  3. ((c))

    S1P G1S

  4. ((d))

    G10S S1P

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

G10S S1P

40

How many such pair of letters are there in the word ‘MOMENTOUS’, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet (both forward and backward direction)?

  1. ((a))

    Two

  2. ((b))

    Three

  3. ((c))

    Four

  4. ((d))

    Five

  5. ((e))

    Six

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Two

41

Directions (41-45): Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below. Eight saint P, Q, R,S, T, U, V and W are chanting on two different dates (3rd and 16th)in four different months i.e., January, March, April and May. Each of them chants at different places- Golden temple, Tirupati Balaji, Jagannath temple, Meenakshi temple, Konark temple, Somnath temple, Ramnath swamy temple and Badrinath temple. All information is not necessarily in same order. The one who chants in Badrinath temple, chants before the one who chants in Konark temple but both of them chant on odd date. R chants just before the one who chants in Tirupati Balaji but not in the same month. The number of saints chant before R is equal as after Q. R neither chants in January nor in May. More than two saints chant between Q and the one who chants in Meenakshi temple. Four saint chants between the ones who chants in Meenakshi temple and Somnath temple. Q does not chant in Somnath temple. V chants just after the one who chants in Golden temple but not in the same month. S chants in Jagannath temple. T chants just before P in the same month. More than one saint chant between U and the one who chants in Ramnath swamy temple.

How many saints chant between V and the one who chant in Jagannath temple?

  1. ((a))

    Four

  2. ((b))

    More than five

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    Five

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Four

42

Directions (41-45): Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below. Eight saint P, Q, R,S, T, U, V and W are chanting on two different dates (3rd and 16th)in four different months i.e., January, March, April and May. Each of them chants at different places- Golden temple, Tirupati Balaji, Jagannath temple, Meenakshi temple, Konark temple, Somnath temple, Ramnath swamy temple and Badrinath temple. All information is not necessarily in same order. The one who chants in Badrinath temple, chants before the one who chants in Konark temple but both of them chant on odd date. R chants just before the one who chants in Tirupati Balaji but not in the same month. The number of saints chant before R is equal as after Q. R neither chants in January nor in May. More than two saints chant between Q and the one who chants in Meenakshi temple. Four saint chants between the ones who chants in Meenakshi temple and Somnath temple. Q does not chant in Somnath temple. V chants just after the one who chants in Golden temple but not in the same month. S chants in Jagannath temple. T chants just before P in the same month. More than one saint chant between U and the one who chants in Ramnath swamy temple.

Who among the following chants on 3rd may?

  1. ((a))

    U

  2. ((b))

    The one who chants in Tirupati Balaji

  3. ((c))

    W

  4. ((d))

    The one who chant in Jagannath temple

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

U

43

Directions (41-45): Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below. Eight saint P, Q, R,S, T, U, V and W are chanting on two different dates (3rd and 16th)in four different months i.e., January, March, April and May. Each of them chants at different places- Golden temple, Tirupati Balaji, Jagannath temple, Meenakshi temple, Konark temple, Somnath temple, Ramnath swamy temple and Badrinath temple. All information is not necessarily in same order. The one who chants in Badrinath temple, chants before the one who chants in Konark temple but both of them chant on odd date. R chants just before the one who chants in Tirupati Balaji but not in the same month. The number of saints chant before R is equal as after Q. R neither chants in January nor in May. More than two saints chant between Q and the one who chants in Meenakshi temple. Four saint chants between the ones who chants in Meenakshi temple and Somnath temple. Q does not chant in Somnath temple. V chants just after the one who chants in Golden temple but not in the same month. S chants in Jagannath temple. T chants just before P in the same month. More than one saint chant between U and the one who chants in Ramnath swamy temple.

____ chants on 16th of the month in ____.

  1. ((a))

    P, Meenakshi temple

  2. ((b))

    R, Golden temple

  3. ((c))

    W, Somnath temple

  4. ((d))

    R, Tirupati Balaji

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

W, Somnath temple

44

Directions (41-45): Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below. Eight saint P, Q, R,S, T, U, V and W are chanting on two different dates (3rd and 16th)in four different months i.e., January, March, April and May. Each of them chants at different places- Golden temple, Tirupati Balaji, Jagannath temple, Meenakshi temple, Konark temple, Somnath temple, Ramnath swamy temple and Badrinath temple. All information is not necessarily in same order. The one who chants in Badrinath temple, chants before the one who chants in Konark temple but both of them chant on odd date. R chants just before the one who chants in Tirupati Balaji but not in the same month. The number of saints chant before R is equal as after Q. R neither chants in January nor in May. More than two saints chant between Q and the one who chants in Meenakshi temple. Four saint chants between the ones who chants in Meenakshi temple and Somnath temple. Q does not chant in Somnath temple. V chants just after the one who chants in Golden temple but not in the same month. S chants in Jagannath temple. T chants just before P in the same month. More than one saint chant between U and the one who chants in Ramnath swamy temple.

Which of the following statement is not true? I. V does not chant on even date II. W chants in Tirupati Balaji III. T chants after U

  1. ((a))

    Only III

  2. ((b))

    Both I and III

  3. ((c))

    Only II

  4. ((d))

    Both II and III

  5. ((e))

    Only I

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Both II and III

45

Directions (41-45): Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below. Eight saint P, Q, R,S, T, U, V and W are chanting on two different dates (3rd and 16th)in four different months i.e., January, March, April and May. Each of them chants at different places- Golden temple, Tirupati Balaji, Jagannath temple, Meenakshi temple, Konark temple, Somnath temple, Ramnath swamy temple and Badrinath temple. All information is not necessarily in same order. The one who chants in Badrinath temple, chants before the one who chants in Konark temple but both of them chant on odd date. R chants just before the one who chants in Tirupati Balaji but not in the same month. The number of saints chant before R is equal as after Q. R neither chants in January nor in May. More than two saints chant between Q and the one who chants in Meenakshi temple. Four saint chants between the ones who chants in Meenakshi temple and Somnath temple. Q does not chant in Somnath temple. V chants just after the one who chants in Golden temple but not in the same month. S chants in Jagannath temple. T chants just before P in the same month. More than one saint chant between U and the one who chants in Ramnath swamy temple.

The number of saints chant between P and U is twice than the number of saints chant between ____ and ____.

  1. ((a))

    S and the one who chant in Badrinath temple

  2. ((b))

    T and the one who chant in Tirupati Balaji

  3. ((c))

    W and the one who chant in Badrinath temple

  4. ((d))

    Q and the one who chant in Ramnath swamy temple

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

W and the one who chant in Badrinath temple

46

Directions (46-47): In each of the questions below, some statements are given followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer

Statements: Mostly Almonds are Peanuts. Only a few Peanuts are Cream. No Cream is Dairy. Only a few Dairy is Milk.

Conclusions: I. All Peanuts can be Dairy II. Some Peanuts are not milk III. Some Peanuts are not Cream.

  1. ((a))

    Only I and II follows

  2. ((b))

    Only II and III follows

  3. ((c))

    Only III follows

  4. ((d))

    None follows

  5. ((e))

    Only I and III follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Only III follows

47

Directions (46-47): In each of the questions below, some statements are given followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer

Statements: All Jam is Bread. Only a few Jam is Butter. All cake is Butter. All Butter is Cheese.

Conclusions: I. Some Cheese are not Bread II. Some Cake can be Bread III. All Butter can be Jam

  1. ((a))

    Both I and II follow

  2. ((b))

    Only II

  3. ((c))

    Either II or III follows

  4. ((d))

    Both II and III follows

  5. ((e))

    None follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Both II and III follows

48

If we form a meaningful word by the first, second, fourth, fifth and eighth letter of the word “IMPRISONER”, then which of the following will be the first letter of the word thus formed? If more than one word is formed mark Y as your answer. If no meaningful word is formed, mark X as your answer.

  1. ((a))

    R

  2. ((b))

    X

  3. ((c))

    I

  4. ((d))

    Y

  5. ((e))

    N

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

X

49

Directions (49-51): After 8 phases of election in Bengal, on 2nd May the ‘khela’ becomes over. TMC lead by Chief Minister Mamata Banerjee has got success to clean sweep Bengal election despite of strong opposition heavyweight Bhartiya Janata Party. Top Central Ministers and chief ministers of BJP ruled states also participated in rallies. While seated in a wheelchair Didi with her injured left foot, rallies could not have been easy. But Didi scored! And her supporters and TMC cheered.

What may be the reason for defeat of heavyweight Bhartiya Janata Party?

  1. ((a))

    BJP did not get success to connect with common people and their basic needs.

  2. ((b))

    Rallies by Top central Minister and Chief ministers backfires the promotion strategy of BJP.

  3. ((c))

    Promotion by Didi with her injured left foot, seated on wheelchair help in gaining sympathy of Bengal people.

  4. ((d))

    Both (a) and (b)

  5. ((e))

    Both (a) and (c)

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Both (a) and (c)

50

Directions (49-51): After 8 phases of election in Bengal, on 2nd May the ‘khela’ becomes over. TMC lead by Chief Minister Mamata Banerjee has got success to clean sweep Bengal election despite of strong opposition heavyweight Bhartiya Janata Party. Top Central Ministers and chief ministers of BJP ruled states also participated in rallies. While seated in a wheelchair Didi with her injured left foot, rallies could not have been easy. But Didi scored! And her supporters and TMC cheered.

What can be assumed from the given statement of election result?

  1. ((a))

    Rallies by top ministers attract the voters to vote towards the party.

  2. ((b))

    Election commission takes a long duration of time to conduct election in Bengal.

  3. ((c))

    After Bengal, there will be election in two more states.

  4. ((d))

    Both (a) and (b)

  5. ((e))

    Both (b) and (c)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Both (a) and (b)

51

Directions (49-51): After 8 phases of election in Bengal, on 2nd May the ‘khela’ becomes over. TMC lead by Chief Minister Mamata Banerjee has got success to clean sweep Bengal election despite of strong opposition heavyweight Bhartiya Janata Party. Top Central Ministers and chief ministers of BJP ruled states also participated in rallies. While seated in a wheelchair Didi with her injured left foot, rallies could not have been easy. But Didi scored! And her supporters and TMC cheered.

I. TMC Party workers starts celebration and there is some news of violence between BJP & TMC workers. II. Out of 292 seats, TMC has marked a major victory by winning 225 seats and BJP has not touched the triple figure. Give answer

  1. ((a))

    If Statement I is the cause and Statement II is its effect.

  2. ((b))

    If Statement II is the cause and Statement, I is its effect.

  3. ((c))

    If both the Statements I and II are independent causes.

  4. ((d))

    If both the Statements I and II are effects of independent causes.

  5. ((e))

    If both the Statement I and II are effects of some common causes.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

If Statement II is the cause and Statement, I is its effect.

52

Directions (52-54): In each of the questions below. Some statements are given followed by conclusions/group of conclusions. You have to assume all the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically does not follow from the information given in the statements.

Statements: Some Kolkata are Jhansi. Some Delhi are Cuttack. No Jhansi is Cuttack.

Conclusions:

  1. ((a))

    All Kolkata cannot be Cuttack

  2. ((b))

    Some Delhi can be Jhansi

  3. ((c))

    All Jhansi can be Delhi

  4. ((d))

    Some Jhansi are not Kolkata

  5. ((e))

    Some Kolkata can be Cuttack

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Some Jhansi are not Kolkata

53

Directions (52-54): In each of the questions below. Some statements are given followed by conclusions/group of conclusions. You have to assume all the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically does not follow from the information given in the statements.

Statements: All Deepak are Gourav. Some Nitin are Farida. No Deepak are Farida.

Conclusions:

  1. ((a))

    Some Gourav can be Nitin

  2. ((b))

    All Deepak can be Nitin

  3. ((c))

    All Nitin can be Deepak

  4. ((d))

    Some Gourav are not Farida

  5. ((e))

    Some Gourav are Deepak

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

All Nitin can be Deepak

54

Directions (52-54): In each of the questions below. Some statements are given followed by conclusions/group of conclusions. You have to assume all the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically does not follow from the information given in the statements.

Statements: All Nokia are Motorola. All Motorola are Samsung. Some Samsung are Redmi.

Conclusions:

  1. ((a))

    Some Motorola can be Redmi

  2. ((b))

    Some Nokia can be Samsung

  3. ((c))

    All Redmi can be Nokia

  4. ((d))

    All Nokia are Samsung

  5. ((e))

    Some Samsung are Nokia

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Some Nokia can be Samsung

55

Statement: Should smart phone and laptop not be given to children by parents? Arguments: I. No. During covid era, students are taught by school through online education and smart phone or laptop is needed for it. II. Yes. Young children are misguided by certain programmes featuring sex and violence.

  1. ((a))

    If only argument I is strong

  2. ((b))

    If only argument II is strong

  3. ((c))

    If either I or II is strong

  4. ((d))

    If neither I nor II is strong

  5. ((e))

    If both I and II are strong

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

If only argument I is strong

56

Directions (56-60): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. Nine persons – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I are working in different departments- Production, Management, Marketing and Finance of a company, but not necessarily in the same order. At least two persons are working in each department. C doesn’t work in finance department whereas B neither work in management department nor works with C. G either works in finance department or production department but neither works with B nor C. Only A and D work in the same department but not in marketing department. E works with B but not in finance department. Only one person works with F who doesn’t work in production department. The department in which I works doesn’t have the maximum number of persons. I doesn’t work in production department. Neither marketing nor management department has the maximum number of persons. I doesn’t work with C whereas H doesn’t work with G.

Who among the following person works in production department?

  1. ((a))

    B

  2. ((b))

    C

  3. ((c))

    I

  4. ((d))

    H

  5. ((e))

    Both (a) and (d)

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Both (a) and (d)

57

Directions (56-60): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. Nine persons – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I are working in different departments- Production, Management, Marketing and Finance of a company, but not necessarily in the same order. At least two persons are working in each department. C doesn’t work in finance department whereas B neither work in management department nor works with C. G either works in finance department or production department but neither works with B nor C. Only A and D work in the same department but not in marketing department. E works with B but not in finance department. Only one person works with F who doesn’t work in production department. The department in which I works doesn’t have the maximum number of persons. I doesn’t work in production department. Neither marketing nor management department has the maximum number of persons. I doesn’t work with C whereas H doesn’t work with G.

In which of the following department does F work?

  1. ((a))

    Finance

  2. ((b))

    Production

  3. ((c))

    Management

  4. ((d))

    Marketing

  5. ((e))

    Either (a) and (b)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Finance

58

Directions (56-60): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. Nine persons – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I are working in different departments- Production, Management, Marketing and Finance of a company, but not necessarily in the same order. At least two persons are working in each department. C doesn’t work in finance department whereas B neither work in management department nor works with C. G either works in finance department or production department but neither works with B nor C. Only A and D work in the same department but not in marketing department. E works with B but not in finance department. Only one person works with F who doesn’t work in production department. The department in which I works doesn’t have the maximum number of persons. I doesn’t work in production department. Neither marketing nor management department has the maximum number of persons. I doesn’t work with C whereas H doesn’t work with G.

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Find the one that doesn’t belong to that group.

  1. ((a))

    The one who works with B

  2. ((b))

    E

  3. ((c))

    H

  4. ((d))

    The one who works in production department

  5. ((e))

    C

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

C

59

Directions (56-60): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. Nine persons – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I are working in different departments- Production, Management, Marketing and Finance of a company, but not necessarily in the same order. At least two persons are working in each department. C doesn’t work in finance department whereas B neither work in management department nor works with C. G either works in finance department or production department but neither works with B nor C. Only A and D work in the same department but not in marketing department. E works with B but not in finance department. Only one person works with F who doesn’t work in production department. The department in which I works doesn’t have the maximum number of persons. I doesn’t work in production department. Neither marketing nor management department has the maximum number of persons. I doesn’t work with C whereas H doesn’t work with G.

Which of the following statement is/are true with respect to the final arrangement? I. Only two persons work in Production departments. II. F works with G in finance department. III. Neither B nor C works in the same department.

  1. ((a))

    Only II

  2. ((b))

    Both I and II

  3. ((c))

    Both II and III

  4. ((d))

    Both I and III

  5. ((e))

    All statements are true

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Both II and III

60

Directions (56-60): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. Nine persons – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I are working in different departments- Production, Management, Marketing and Finance of a company, but not necessarily in the same order. At least two persons are working in each department. C doesn’t work in finance department whereas B neither work in management department nor works with C. G either works in finance department or production department but neither works with B nor C. Only A and D work in the same department but not in marketing department. E works with B but not in finance department. Only one person works with F who doesn’t work in production department. The department in which I works doesn’t have the maximum number of persons. I doesn’t work in production department. Neither marketing nor management department has the maximum number of persons. I doesn’t work with C whereas H doesn’t work with G.

Who among the following person works in management department?

  1. ((a))

    D

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    E

  4. ((d))

    H

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

D

61

Directions (61-64): Study the following alphanumeric series carefully and answer the questions given below: T @ 3 9 S 9 J L E U * K # 3 I O 9 $ 4 Y Q % T @ 3 9 S I O 9 9 J L E U * K # 3 7 A 6 P & R STEP I- The letters which are immediately preceded and immediately followed by a symbol are arranged in the end of the series in the alphabetical order. STEP II- The symbols which are immediately preceded by the symbol and immediately followed by the number are arranged between & and R in the same order. STEP III- The numbers which are immediately followed by letter are interchanged its position with respect to the element just after it. (STEP II is applied after STEP I and STEP III is applied after STEP II)

Q61. How many letters are arranged at the end of the series in the step-1?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Three

  3. ((c))

    Four

  4. ((d))

    Five

  5. ((e))

    More than five

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Three

62

Directions (61-64): Study the following alphanumeric series carefully and answer the questions given below: T @ 3 9 S 9 J L E U * K # 3 I O 9 $ 4 Y Q % T @ 3 9 S I O 9 9 J L E U * K # 3 7 A 6 P & R STEP I- The letters which are immediately preceded and immediately followed by a symbol are arranged in the end of the series in the alphabetical order. STEP II- The symbols which are immediately preceded by the symbol and immediately followed by the number are arranged between & and R in the same order. STEP III- The numbers which are immediately followed by letter are interchanged its position with respect to the element just after it. (STEP II is applied after STEP I and STEP III is applied after STEP II) Q62. Which among the following are the elements of the series which are second position from the left end and fifth position from the right end in step-III?

  1. ((a))

    63

  2. ((b))

    @#

  3. ((c))

    P#

  4. ((d))

    AK

  5. ((e))

    6#

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

@#

63

Directions (61-64): Study the following alphanumeric series carefully and answer the questions given below: T @ 3 9 S 9 J L E U * K # 3 I O 9 $ 4 Y Q % T @ 3 9 S I O 9 9 J L E U * K # 3 7 A 6 P & R STEP I- The letters which are immediately preceded and immediately followed by a symbol are arranged in the end of the series in the alphabetical order. STEP II- The symbols which are immediately preceded by the symbol and immediately followed by the number are arranged between & and R in the same order. STEP III- The numbers which are immediately followed by letter are interchanged its position with respect to the element just after it. (STEP II is applied after STEP I and STEP III is applied after STEP II) Q63. How many symbols are immediately followed by numbers in step-III?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Six

  3. ((c))

    Four

  4. ((d))

    Five

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

None of these

64

Directions (61-64): Study the following alphanumeric series carefully and answer the questions given below: T @ 3 9 S 9 J L E U * K # 3 I O 9 $ 4 Y Q % T @ 3 9 S I O 9 9 J L E U * K # 3 7 A 6 P & R STEP I- The letters which are immediately preceded and immediately followed by a symbol are arranged in the end of the series in the alphabetical order. STEP II- The symbols which are immediately preceded by the symbol and immediately followed by the number are arranged between & and R in the same order. STEP III- The numbers which are immediately followed by letter are interchanged its position with respect to the element just after it. (STEP II is applied after STEP I and STEP III is applied after STEP II) Q64. How many symbols in between 7th element from left end and 6th element from right end in the final step?

  1. ((a))

    Six

  2. ((b))

    Four

  3. ((c))

    Eight

  4. ((d))

    Two

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Six

65

Directions (65-69): Study the following information and answer the related questions: Seven boxes are placed one above the other. They all of are of different weight (only integer value). Total weight of all the boxes is 215kg. No box is less than 24kg and more than 37kg. Only two boxes are placed above box L whose weight is a multiple of 7. Box D is placed four places below box L. The number of boxes placed above D is same as the number of boxes placed below the box whose weight is 3kg less than box L. One box is placed between box L and box F. Weight of box F is a square number. Weight of box B is a prime number which is placed just above box F. Box T is placed above box G but both are not placed adjacent to each other. Weight of box G is equal to the average weight of box B and box F. G’s weight is not an even number. Total weight of box T and box G is 63kg. More than three boxes are placed below box C. Q65. Which box is placed just above box T?

  1. ((a))

    D

  2. ((b))

    F

  3. ((c))

    L

  4. ((d))

    C

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

C

66

Directions (65-69): Study the following information and answer the related questions: Seven boxes are placed one above the other. They all of are of different weight (only integer value). Total weight of all the boxes is 215kg. No box is less than 24kg and more than 37kg. Only two boxes are placed above box L whose weight is a multiple of 7. Box D is placed four places below box L. The number of boxes placed above D is same as the number of boxes placed below the box whose weight is 3kg less than box L. One box is placed between box L and box F. Weight of box F is a square number. Weight of box B is a prime number which is placed just above box F. Box T is placed above box G but both are not placed adjacent to each other. Weight of box G is equal to the average weight of box B and box F. G’s weight is not an even number. Total weight of box T and box G is 63kg. More than three boxes are placed below box C. Q66. The weight of the box which is placed just below G is_____kg?

  1. ((a))

    36

  2. ((b))

    31

  3. ((c))

    29

  4. ((d))

    28

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

31

67

Directions (65-69): Study the following information and answer the related questions: Seven boxes are placed one above the other. They all of are of different weight (only integer value). Total weight of all the boxes is 215kg. No box is less than 24kg and more than 37kg. Only two boxes are placed above box L whose weight is a multiple of 7. Box D is placed four places below box L. The number of boxes placed above D is same as the number of boxes placed below the box whose weight is 3kg less than box L. One box is placed between box L and box F. Weight of box F is a square number. Weight of box B is a prime number which is placed just above box F. Box T is placed above box G but both are not placed adjacent to each other. Weight of box G is equal to the average weight of box B and box F. G’s weight is not an even number. Total weight of box T and box G is 63kg. More than three boxes are placed below box C. Q67. How many boxes are placed between box T and box C?

  1. ((a))

    More than three

  2. ((b))

    Two

  3. ((c))

    One

  4. ((d))

    Three

  5. ((e))

    None

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

None

68

Directions (65-69): Study the following information and answer the related questions: Seven boxes are placed one above the other. They all of are of different weight (only integer value). Total weight of all the boxes is 215kg. No box is less than 24kg and more than 37kg. Only two boxes are placed above box L whose weight is a multiple of 7. Box D is placed four places below box L. The number of boxes placed above D is same as the number of boxes placed below the box whose weight is 3kg less than box L. One box is placed between box L and box F. Weight of box F is a square number. Weight of box B is a prime number which is placed just above box F. Box T is placed above box G but both are not placed adjacent to each other. Weight of box G is equal to the average weight of box B and box F. G’s weight is not an even number. Total weight of box T and box G is 63kg. More than three boxes are placed below box C. Q68. How many boxes have more weight than B?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Two

  3. ((c))

    Four

  4. ((d))

    Five

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Four

69

Directions (65-69): Study the following information and answer the related questions: Seven boxes are placed one above the other. They all of are of different weight (only integer value). Total weight of all the boxes is 215kg. No box is less than 24kg and more than 37kg. Only two boxes are placed above box L whose weight is a multiple of 7. Box D is placed four places below box L. The number of boxes placed above D is same as the number of boxes placed below the box whose weight is 3kg less than box L. One box is placed between box L and box F. Weight of box F is a square number. Weight of box B is a prime number which is placed just above box F. Box T is placed above box G but both are not placed adjacent to each other. Weight of box G is equal to the average weight of box B and box F. G’s weight is not an even number. Total weight of box T and box G is 63kg. More than three boxes are placed below box C. Q69. Which among the following combination of box and weight is correct?

  1. ((a))

    B-31kg

  2. ((b))

    G-28 kg

  3. ((c))

    T-32 kg

  4. ((d))

    D-33 kg

  5. ((e))

    F-25 kg

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

F-25 kg

70

Directions (70-72): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer. (a) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. (b)ifthe data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. (c) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. (d) if the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. (e) if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question. Q70. What is the direction of D with respect to F? Statement I: A is in West of B. C is in North-east of D. C is in South of B. F is in West of C. Statement II: A is in North of E. F is in West of E. E is in North of B. D is in West of E.

  1. ((a))

    if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

  2. ((b))

    ifthe data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

  3. ((c))

    if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    if the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

  5. ((e))

    if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

if the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

71

Directions (70-72): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer. (a) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. (b)ifthe data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. (c) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. (d) if the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. (e) if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question. Q71. In a five membered family, who is tallest person? Statement I: Equal number of persons is shorter and taller than Daya. Arti is shorter than Arnav who is not the tallest. Jaya is just taller than Subhangi. Statemen II: Two persons between Arti and Arnav. Subhangi is taller than Jaya and shorter than Daya. Jaya is not the shortest person.

  1. ((a))

    if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

  2. ((b))

    ifthe data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

  3. ((c))

    if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    if the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

  5. ((e))

    if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

72

Directions (70-72): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer. (a) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. (b)ifthe data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. (c) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. (d) if the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. (e) if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question. Q72. Six persons sit in circular table facing towards centre. Who sits immediate left of P? Statement I: L sits two places away from B. One person sits between B and Q. K sits immediate right of Q but not sit near to B. Statement II:P sits 2nd to the right of C. B sits 3rd to the left of C but not sit near to K.

  1. ((a))

    if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

  2. ((b))

    ifthe data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

  3. ((c))

    if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    if the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

  5. ((e))

    if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

if the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

73

Directions (73-74): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I, and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the statements and answer the following questions. (a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient (b) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient (c) If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer (d) If the data given in both I and II together are not sufficient (e) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer Q73. Five persons buy a thing one after another. Find how many persons buy thing after T? Statement I: One person buy thing between R and Q. At least two persons buy thing between S and R. Statement II: Three persons buy thing between Q and T. R buy exactly between Q and T.S does not buy just before and just after T. P buy a thing after S.

  1. ((a))

    If the data in statement I alone are sufficient

  2. ((b))

    If the data in statement II alone are sufficient

  3. ((c))

    If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer

  4. ((d))

    If the data given in both I and II together are not sufficient

  5. ((e))

    If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

If the data in statement II alone are sufficient

74

Directions (73-74): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I, and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the statements and answer the following questions. (a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient (b) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient (c) If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer (d) If the data given in both I and II together are not sufficient (e) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer Q74. Five boxes are arranged one above the other from top to bottom. Which of the following box is placed just below the box D? Statement I: There are as many boxes below the box A is same as above E. Box B is placed below the box D but not just below. Statement II: Box C is placed two places above the box E. More than one box is placed between the box A and box B. Box E and box D are not placed adjacent to each other.

  1. ((a))

    If the data in statement I alone are sufficient

  2. ((b))

    If the data in statement II alone are sufficient

  3. ((c))

    If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer

  4. ((d))

    If the data given in both I and II together are not sufficient

  5. ((e))

    If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

If the data in statement II alone are sufficient

75

Q75. In the given number “7549823184‟, the position of the first and tenth numbers are interchanged, similarly, the position of the second and ninth numbers are interchanged, and so on till the end. Then, what is the sum of the digits which are placed at odd numbered positions from right to left?

  1. ((a))

    34

  2. ((b))

    28

  3. ((c))

    30

  4. ((d))

    34

  5. ((e))

    27

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

30

76

Directions (76-78): Study the following information carefully to answer the related question: X#Y means X is 11m north to Y X€Y means X is 7m east to Y XαY means X is 6m west to Y X@Y means X is 13m south to Y X%Y means X is 9m west to Y XΩY means X is 8m south to Y

Q76. If P lies 10m to the north-west of L and O lies exactly between P and R either horizontally or vertically in the expression ‘OαL#M€N’ which holds true then, in which direction is M with respect to R?

  1. ((a))

    South-west

  2. ((b))

    South-east

  3. ((c))

    North-west

  4. ((d))

    East

  5. ((e))

    Can’t be determined

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

South-east

77

Directions (76-78): Study the following information carefully to answer the related question: X#Y means X is 11m north to Y X€Y means X is 7m east to Y XαY means X is 6m west to Y X@Y means X is 13m south to Y X%Y means X is 9m west to Y XΩY means X is 8m south to Y

Q77. If the shortest distance between F and K is same as the distance between K and B which lies to the north of G in the expression ‘FΩG@H, G%JαK’ which holds true, then what will be the distance between B and H?

  1. ((a))

    6m

  2. ((b))

    10m

  3. ((c))

    8m

  4. ((d))

    5m

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

5m

78

Directions (76-78): Study the following information carefully to answer the related question: X#Y means X is 11m north to Y X€Y means X is 7m east to Y XαY means X is 6m west to Y X@Y means X is 13m south to Y X%Y means X is 9m west to Y XΩY means X is 8m south to Y

Q78. If ‘M#AαB@S%R€N’ holds true, then which among the following point do not lie in the south-west of N?

  1. ((a))

    M

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    S

  4. ((d))

    A

  5. ((e))

    Either ‘S’ or ‘M’

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

S

79

Q79. Four among the following five are same in a certain manner and belongs to a group. Which among the following does not belong to the group?

  1. ((a))

    DGM

  2. ((b))

    ILR

  3. ((c))

    LOU

  4. ((d))

    CFK

  5. ((e))

    PSY

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

CFK

80

Directions (80-84): Words and numbers are arrangement machines when given an input line of numbers rearrange them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. Input: Engage Bean 15 92 Cramp Dream 21 45 Glue 33 Step I: Bean 45 Engage 15 92 Cramp Dream 21 Glue 33 Step II: Bean 45 Cramp 92 Engage 15 Dream 21 Glue 33 Step III: Bean 45 Cramp 92 Dream 33 Engage 15 21 Glue Step IV: Bean 45 Cramp 92 Dream 33 Engage 15 Glue 21 And step IV is the last step of the arrangement. As per the above rule followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input: Input: 38 42 Keep Neat Hold 51 63 Lake Peace 17 Q80. How many words are between “38” and “Peace” in the last step?

  1. ((a))

    Five

  2. ((b))

    Four

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    None

  5. ((e))

    Two

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Three

81

Directions (80-84): Words and numbers are arrangement machines when given an input line of numbers rearrange them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. Input: Engage Bean 15 92 Cramp Dream 21 45 Glue 33 Step I: Bean 45 Engage 15 92 Cramp Dream 21 Glue 33 Step II: Bean 45 Cramp 92 Engage 15 Dream 21 Glue 33 Step III: Bean 45 Cramp 92 Dream 33 Engage 15 21 Glue Step IV: Bean 45 Cramp 92 Dream 33 Engage 15 Glue 21 And step IV is the last step of the arrangement. As per the above rule followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input: Input: 38 42 Keep Neat Hold 51 63 Lake Peace 17

Q81. How many steps are required to complete the arrangement?

  1. ((a))

    Six

  2. ((b))

    Three

  3. ((c))

    Four

  4. ((d))

    Five

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Five

82

Directions (80-84): Words and numbers are arrangement machines when given an input line of numbers rearrange them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. Input: Engage Bean 15 92 Cramp Dream 21 45 Glue 33 Step I: Bean 45 Engage 15 92 Cramp Dream 21 Glue 33 Step II: Bean 45 Cramp 92 Engage 15 Dream 21 Glue 33 Step III: Bean 45 Cramp 92 Dream 33 Engage 15 21 Glue Step IV: Bean 45 Cramp 92 Dream 33 Engage 15 Glue 21 And step IV is the last step of the arrangement. As per the above rule followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input: Input: 38 42 Keep Neat Hold 51 63 Lake Peace 17

Q82. Which of the following element is second to the left of the element which is third from the right end in step IV?

  1. ((a))

    Peace

  2. ((b))

    Keep

  3. ((c))

    42

  4. ((d))

    17

  5. ((e))

    Neat

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

42

83

Directions (80-84): Words and numbers are arrangement machines when given an input line of numbers rearrange them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. Input: Engage Bean 15 92 Cramp Dream 21 45 Glue 33 Step I: Bean 45 Engage 15 92 Cramp Dream 21 Glue 33 Step II: Bean 45 Cramp 92 Engage 15 Dream 21 Glue 33 Step III: Bean 45 Cramp 92 Dream 33 Engage 15 21 Glue Step IV: Bean 45 Cramp 92 Dream 33 Engage 15 Glue 21 And step IV is the last step of the arrangement. As per the above rule followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input: Input: 38 42 Keep Neat Hold 51 63 Lake Peace 17

Q83. What is the sum of the elements which are third from the right end in step III and second from the left end in step II?

  1. ((a))

    68

  2. ((b))

    105

  3. ((c))

    80

  4. ((d))

    70

  5. ((e))

    89

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

89

84

Directions (80-84): Words and numbers are arrangement machines when given an input line of numbers rearrange them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. Input: Engage Bean 15 92 Cramp Dream 21 45 Glue 33 Step I: Bean 45 Engage 15 92 Cramp Dream 21 Glue 33 Step II: Bean 45 Cramp 92 Engage 15 Dream 21 Glue 33 Step III: Bean 45 Cramp 92 Dream 33 Engage 15 21 Glue Step IV: Bean 45 Cramp 92 Dream 33 Engage 15 Glue 21 And step IV is the last step of the arrangement. As per the above rule followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input: Input: 38 42 Keep Neat Hold 51 63 Lake Peace 17

Q84. As many elements are arranged to the left of “Lake” in step IV is the same as the number of elements are arranged to the right of ____in step II?

  1. ((a))

    17

  2. ((b))

    Neat

  3. ((c))

    Lake

  4. ((d))

    38

  5. ((e))

    Keep

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Neat

85

Directions (85-89): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow: Twelve persons- O, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are living in the four-floor building (but not necessarily in the same order). The ground floor is numbered as 1, the floor just above it is numbered as 2 and so on till the top most floor is numbered as 4. Each floor has 3 flats in it i.e., flat 1 and flat 2 and flat 3. Flat 1 of floor 2 is immediately above flat 1 of floor 1 and immediately below flat 1 of Floor 3 and so on. Flat 2 of Floor 2 is immediately above flat 2 of floor 1 and immediately below flat 2 of Floor 3. In the same way, flat 3 of Floor 2 is immediately above flat 3 of floor 1 and immediately below flat 3 of Floor 3 and so on. Flat 1 is exactly to the west of Flat 2 which is exactly to the west of flat 3. R lives on an even numbered floor to the south east of U. P lives just above U’s flat. Two floors gap between T and P. Y lives two floors above T and lives to the east of W. T lives in prime numbered flat and to the south east of X. X doesn’t live in odd numbered flat. S lives to the north west of Z. S and O live on the same floor. V lives below Q. X lives in the south of U.

Q85. On which of the following floor and flat does V live?

  1. ((a))

    2nd floor, flat 1

  2. ((b))

    4th floor, flat 2

  3. ((c))

    2nd floor, flat 3

  4. ((d))

    1st floor, flat 1

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1st floor, flat 1

86

Directions (85-89): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow: Twelve persons- O, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are living in the four-floor building (but not necessarily in the same order). The ground floor is numbered as 1, the floor just above it is numbered as 2 and so on till the top most floor is numbered as 4. Each floor has 3 flats in it i.e., flat 1 and flat 2 and flat 3. Flat 1 of floor 2 is immediately above flat 1 of floor 1 and immediately below flat 1 of Floor 3 and so on. Flat 2 of Floor 2 is immediately above flat 2 of floor 1 and immediately below flat 2 of Floor 3. In the same way, flat 3 of Floor 2 is immediately above flat 3 of floor 1 and immediately below flat 3 of Floor 3 and so on. Flat 1 is exactly to the west of Flat 2 which is exactly to the west of flat 3. R lives on an even numbered floor to the south east of U. P lives just above U’s flat. Two floors gap between T and P. Y lives two floors above T and lives to the east of W. T lives in prime numbered flat and to the south east of X. X doesn’t live in odd numbered flat. S lives to the north west of Z. S and O live on the same floor. V lives below Q. X lives in the south of U.

Q86. How many floor(s) gaps is/are between O and T?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Two

  3. ((c))

    Either ‘one’ or ‘two’

  4. ((d))

    None

  5. ((e))

    Can’t be determined

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Two

87

Directions (85-89): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow: Twelve persons- O, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are living in the four-floor building (but not necessarily in the same order). The ground floor is numbered as 1, the floor just above it is numbered as 2 and so on till the top most floor is numbered as 4. Each floor has 3 flats in it i.e., flat 1 and flat 2 and flat 3. Flat 1 of floor 2 is immediately above flat 1 of floor 1 and immediately below flat 1 of Floor 3 and so on. Flat 2 of Floor 2 is immediately above flat 2 of floor 1 and immediately below flat 2 of Floor 3. In the same way, flat 3 of Floor 2 is immediately above flat 3 of floor 1 and immediately below flat 3 of Floor 3 and so on. Flat 1 is exactly to the west of Flat 2 which is exactly to the west of flat 3. R lives on an even numbered floor to the south east of U. P lives just above U’s flat. Two floors gap between T and P. Y lives two floors above T and lives to the east of W. T lives in prime numbered flat and to the south east of X. X doesn’t live in odd numbered flat. S lives to the north west of Z. S and O live on the same floor. V lives below Q. X lives in the south of U.

Q87. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and form a group. Who among the following person does not belong to the group?

  1. ((a))

    P

  2. ((b))

    R

  3. ((c))

    U

  4. ((d))

    X

  5. ((e))

    Z

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

R

88

Directions (85-89): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow: Twelve persons- O, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are living in the four-floor building (but not necessarily in the same order). The ground floor is numbered as 1, the floor just above it is numbered as 2 and so on till the top most floor is numbered as 4. Each floor has 3 flats in it i.e., flat 1 and flat 2 and flat 3. Flat 1 of floor 2 is immediately above flat 1 of floor 1 and immediately below flat 1 of Floor 3 and so on. Flat 2 of Floor 2 is immediately above flat 2 of floor 1 and immediately below flat 2 of Floor 3. In the same way, flat 3 of Floor 2 is immediately above flat 3 of floor 1 and immediately below flat 3 of Floor 3 and so on. Flat 1 is exactly to the west of Flat 2 which is exactly to the west of flat 3. R lives on an even numbered floor to the south east of U. P lives just above U’s flat. Two floors gap between T and P. Y lives two floors above T and lives to the east of W. T lives in prime numbered flat and to the south east of X. X doesn’t live in odd numbered flat. S lives to the north west of Z. S and O live on the same floor. V lives below Q. X lives in the south of U.

Q88. Which among the following statement(s) is/are true? I. Y and O live on the same floor II. S lives just above W’s flat III. Q lives in flat 3

  1. ((a))

    Both I and II

  2. ((b))

    Both II and III

  3. ((c))

    Only II

  4. ((d))

    Both I and III

  5. ((e))

    Only III

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Only II

89

Directions (85-89): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow: Twelve persons- O, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are living in the four-floor building (but not necessarily in the same order). The ground floor is numbered as 1, the floor just above it is numbered as 2 and so on till the top most floor is numbered as 4. Each floor has 3 flats in it i.e., flat 1 and flat 2 and flat 3. Flat 1 of floor 2 is immediately above flat 1 of floor 1 and immediately below flat 1 of Floor 3 and so on. Flat 2 of Floor 2 is immediately above flat 2 of floor 1 and immediately below flat 2 of Floor 3. In the same way, flat 3 of Floor 2 is immediately above flat 3 of floor 1 and immediately below flat 3 of Floor 3 and so on. Flat 1 is exactly to the west of Flat 2 which is exactly to the west of flat 3. R lives on an even numbered floor to the south east of U. P lives just above U’s flat. Two floors gap between T and P. Y lives two floors above T and lives to the east of W. T lives in prime numbered flat and to the south east of X. X doesn’t live in odd numbered flat. S lives to the north west of Z. S and O live on the same floor. V lives below Q. X lives in the south of U.

Q89. Who among the following lives in flat 3rd on floor 3?

  1. ((a))

    T

  2. ((b))

    Y

  3. ((c))

    U

  4. ((d))

    S

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Y

90

Q90. Two labours with one mason have come to complete the remaining work in a house. After half day owner himself guided and inspected their work. Total cost charged by them is 2000 rupees. Which of the following can be assumed from the given statement? (I) Owner was not satisfied by their work as he decided to inspect after half day. (II) Charge of mason is more than charge of two labours together. (III) Both the labours are talkative in nature.

  1. ((a))

    Only II and III

  2. ((b))

    Only III

  3. ((c))

    Only I and III

  4. ((d))

    Only I

  5. ((e))

    All of three

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Only I

English Language (30 questions)

1

Directions (1): In the following questions, few sentences are given. Choose and mark the sentence which contains grammatical or contextual error in it. If all the sentences are grammatically and contextually correct, mark the “all are correct” option as the answer choice.

Q1.

  1. ((a))

    The professor's explanation was so ambiguous that students were left confused about the main concept.

  2. ((b))

    Solving the complex conundrum required a combination of analytical skills and creativity.

  3. ((c))

    Planting trees is an effective way to mitigate the impact of climate change.

  4. ((d))

    The team celebrated their victory after they have scored the winning goal in the final minutes of the game.

  5. ((e))

    All are correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The team celebrated their victory after they have scored the winning goal in the final minutes of the game.

2

Directions (2-3): In the question given below, some sentences/phrases are given which have to be arranged in a proper sequence. Select the option which best defines the proper sequence and arranges the sentence in an appropriate way.

Q2. in lively discussions, exchanging ideas (A)/ eager students engaged (B)/ curiosity and growth (C)/ that sparked intellectual (D)

  1. ((a))

    BCDA

  2. ((b))

    ADCB

  3. ((c))

    BADC

  4. ((d))

    CBAD

  5. ((e))

    ABDC

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

BADC

3

Directions (2-3): In the question given below, some sentences/phrases are given which have to be arranged in a proper sequence. Select the option which best defines the proper sequence and arranges the sentence in an appropriate way.

Q3. nurturing trust and communication (A)/ connections between individuals (B) form the foundation of (C)/enduring and fulfilling (D)

  1. ((a))

    BCDA

  2. ((b))

    ACDB

  3. ((c))

    BADC

  4. ((d))

    CBAD

  5. ((e))

    ABDC

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

ACDB

4

Directions (4): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the question given below.

Q4. (A) At last, in an old attic, he unearthed a chest filled with heirlooms (B) Grateful, James felt a renewed sense of belonging and cherished the legacy passed down through generations. (C) Excitement fueled his journey as he deciphered the riddles and traveled to historic landmarks. (D)A mysterious letter arrived at James's doorstep, revealing clues to an undiscovered family treasure. (E) He also found a letter from a long-lost relative, connecting him to a rich family history.

  1. ((a))

    BCADE

  2. ((b))

    ADCBE

  3. ((c))

    DCBAE

  4. ((d))

    DCAEB

  5. ((e))

    CDABE

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

DCAEB

5

Directions (5-7): In the following questions, you will find two sentences, each with a blank. Select the most appropriate phrase that will complete both blanks, ensuring grammatical correctness and contextual relevance.

Q5. (I) The argument between the coworkers quickly got ____________ , escalating into a heated and unproductive exchange. (II) The party's noise levels were getting_____________ , prompting the neighbors to complain about the disturbance.

  1. ((a))

    in deep trouble

  2. ((b))

    out of hand

  3. ((c))

    dropped

  4. ((d))

    under the thumb

  5. ((e))

    highly rational

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

out of hand

6

Directions (5-7): In the following questions, you will find two sentences, each with a blank. Select the most appropriate phrase that will complete both blanks, ensuring grammatical correctness and contextual relevance.

Q6. (I) The job interview seemed promising initially, but nerves got the best of the candidate, causing the interview______________. (II) The situation started_______________ when conflicts arose among team members.

  1. ((a))

    to go south

  2. ((b))

    to outshine

  3. ((c))

    to think out of the box

  4. ((d))

    to grapple

  5. ((e))

    to perform outstandingly

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

to go south

7

Directions (5-7): In the following questions, you will find two sentences, each with a blank. Select the most appropriate phrase that will complete both blanks, ensuring grammatical correctness and contextual relevance.

Q7. (I) The research team ________________ when the laboratory equipment malfunctioned. (II) The project _______________ , and the initial smooth progress turned into a complex situation.

  1. ((a))

    ridicule the team

  2. ((b))

    found a difficult terrain

  3. ((c))

    on the educational program

  4. ((d))

    were an organized structure

  5. ((e))

    faced unexpected challenges

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

faced unexpected challenges

8

Directions (8-15): Read the following passage and answer the given questions. In the intricate global tapestry, third-world countries stand at the crossroads of challenges and opportunities, with a potential for transformative change. Economic disparities, healthcare inadequacies, and educational barriers are persistent challenges, but a concerted effort toward empowerment can pave the way for sustainable development. Economic inequality remains a pressing issue, depriving millions of access to basic necessities. However, targeted efforts to equally distributing the resources and introducing policies to enhance economic opportunities, such as microfinance initiatives and entrepreneurship support, can uplift communities, fostering self-sufficiency and breaking the chains of poverty. Inadequate healthcare exacerbates the hardships faced by these nations. Addressing this challenge involves not only improving healthcare infrastructure but also implementing preventive measures and health education programs. By fostering a healthier population, nations can build a foundation for economic stability and growth. Education emerges as a key catalyst for change. Access to quality education is a fundamental right that unlocks doors to a better future. International collaborations and investments in educational infrastructure can bridge the existing gaps, empowering individuals to contribute meaningfully to their communities and the global economy. Political stability is integral to sustainable development. Governance reforms that tackle corruption and promote transparency strengthen institutions, fostering an environment ____________to progress. A robust legal and regulatory framework creates a foundation for economic investments, driving growth and development. Infrastructure deficiencies, from unreliable power sources to limited transportation networks, impede progress. Strategic investments in infrastructure development enhance connectivity, promote trade, and create an environment conducive to economic activities, thereby laying the groundwork for sustainable growth. In conclusion, third-world countries face challenges that require comprehensive and collaborative solutions. By empowering communities through economic opportunities, healthcare, education, and political stability, the global community can contribute to a more equitable and sustainable world. The path to sustainable development involves recognizing the potential within these nations and working collectively to build a future where prosperity knows no borders.

Q8. What specific strategies are mentioned to address economic inequality and uplifting communities? (I) Implementing targeted efforts such as microfinance initiatives and entrepreneurship support. (II) Developing initiatives aimed at eradicating corruption and fostering a culture of transparency. (III) Introducing comprehensive policies to bridge income gaps by fostering self-sufficiency. (IV) Advocating for equitable distribution of resources and opportunities to uplift marginalized communities.

  1. ((a))

    Only (I)

  2. ((b))

    Both (III) and (IV)

  3. ((c))

    Both (I) and (IV)

  4. ((d))

    Only (I), (III) and (IV)

  5. ((e))

    All (I), (II), (III) and (IV)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Only (I), (III) and (IV)

9

Directions (8-15): Read the following passage and answer the given questions. In the intricate global tapestry, third-world countries stand at the crossroads of challenges and opportunities, with a potential for transformative change. Economic disparities, healthcare inadequacies, and educational barriers are persistent challenges, but a concerted effort toward empowerment can pave the way for sustainable development. Economic inequality remains a pressing issue, depriving millions of access to basic necessities. However, targeted efforts to equally distributing the resources and introducing policies to enhance economic opportunities, such as microfinance initiatives and entrepreneurship support, can uplift communities, fostering self-sufficiency and breaking the chains of poverty. Inadequate healthcare exacerbates the hardships faced by these nations. Addressing this challenge involves not only improving healthcare infrastructure but also implementing preventive measures and health education programs. By fostering a healthier population, nations can build a foundation for economic stability and growth. Education emerges as a key catalyst for change. Access to quality education is a fundamental right that unlocks doors to a better future. International collaborations and investments in educational infrastructure can bridge the existing gaps, empowering individuals to contribute meaningfully to their communities and the global economy. Political stability is integral to sustainable development. Governance reforms that tackle corruption and promote transparency strengthen institutions, fostering an environment ____________to progress. A robust legal and regulatory framework creates a foundation for economic investments, driving growth and development. Infrastructure deficiencies, from unreliable power sources to limited transportation networks, impede progress. Strategic investments in infrastructure development enhance connectivity, promote trade, and create an environment conducive to economic activities, thereby laying the groundwork for sustainable growth. In conclusion, third-world countries face challenges that require comprehensive and collaborative solutions. By empowering communities through economic opportunities, healthcare, education, and political stability, the global community can contribute to a more equitable and sustainable world. The path to sustainable development involves recognizing the potential within these nations and working collectively to build a future where prosperity knows no borders.

Q9. How is political stability linked to sustainable development in the information provided?

  1. ((a))

    Ensuring autocratic rule prioritizes efficiency, fostering streamlined decision-making.

  2. ((b))

    Political stability fosters an environment conducive to progress and growth.

  3. ((c))

    Guaranteeing equal representation establishes a foundation for inclusive political systems.

  4. ((d))

    Opting for isolationism in political stability can lead to reduced international cooperation.

  5. ((e))

    All of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Political stability fosters an environment conducive to progress and growth.

10

Directions (8-15): Read the following passage and answer the given questions. In the intricate global tapestry, third-world countries stand at the crossroads of challenges and opportunities, with a potential for transformative change. Economic disparities, healthcare inadequacies, and educational barriers are persistent challenges, but a concerted effort toward empowerment can pave the way for sustainable development. Economic inequality remains a pressing issue, depriving millions of access to basic necessities. However, targeted efforts to equally distributing the resources and introducing policies to enhance economic opportunities, such as microfinance initiatives and entrepreneurship support, can uplift communities, fostering self-sufficiency and breaking the chains of poverty. Inadequate healthcare exacerbates the hardships faced by these nations. Addressing this challenge involves not only improving healthcare infrastructure but also implementing preventive measures and health education programs. By fostering a healthier population, nations can build a foundation for economic stability and growth. Education emerges as a key catalyst for change. Access to quality education is a fundamental right that unlocks doors to a better future. International collaborations and investments in educational infrastructure can bridge the existing gaps, empowering individuals to contribute meaningfully to their communities and the global economy. Political stability is integral to sustainable development. Governance reforms that tackle corruption and promote transparency strengthen institutions, fostering an environment ____________to progress. A robust legal and regulatory framework creates a foundation for economic investments, driving growth and development. Infrastructure deficiencies, from unreliable power sources to limited transportation networks, impede progress. Strategic investments in infrastructure development enhance connectivity, promote trade, and create an environment conducive to economic activities, thereby laying the groundwork for sustainable growth. In conclusion, third-world countries face challenges that require comprehensive and collaborative solutions. By empowering communities through economic opportunities, healthcare, education, and political stability, the global community can contribute to a more equitable and sustainable world. The path to sustainable development involves recognizing the potential within these nations and working collectively to build a future where prosperity knows no borders.

Q10. In the context of education as a catalyst for change, what is the significance of international collaborations?

  1. ((a))

    Promoting global standardization of educational curricula.

  2. ((b))

    Addressing educational disparities through collaborative initiatives.

  3. ((c))

    Restricting educational access for the sake of national development.

  4. ((d))

    Fostering emigration of intellectual talent from developing nations.

  5. ((e))

    Enforcing stringent quotas on international student admissions.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Addressing educational disparities through collaborative initiatives.

11

Directions (8-15): Read the following passage and answer the given questions. In the intricate global tapestry, third-world countries stand at the crossroads of challenges and opportunities, with a potential for transformative change. Economic disparities, healthcare inadequacies, and educational barriers are persistent challenges, but a concerted effort toward empowerment can pave the way for sustainable development. Economic inequality remains a pressing issue, depriving millions of access to basic necessities. However, targeted efforts to equally distributing the resources and introducing policies to enhance economic opportunities, such as microfinance initiatives and entrepreneurship support, can uplift communities, fostering self-sufficiency and breaking the chains of poverty. Inadequate healthcare exacerbates the hardships faced by these nations. Addressing this challenge involves not only improving healthcare infrastructure but also implementing preventive measures and health education programs. By fostering a healthier population, nations can build a foundation for economic stability and growth. Education emerges as a key catalyst for change. Access to quality education is a fundamental right that unlocks doors to a better future. International collaborations and investments in educational infrastructure can bridge the existing gaps, empowering individuals to contribute meaningfully to their communities and the global economy. Political stability is integral to sustainable development. Governance reforms that tackle corruption and promote transparency strengthen institutions, fostering an environment ____________to progress. A robust legal and regulatory framework creates a foundation for economic investments, driving growth and development. Infrastructure deficiencies, from unreliable power sources to limited transportation networks, impede progress. Strategic investments in infrastructure development enhance connectivity, promote trade, and create an environment conducive to economic activities, thereby laying the groundwork for sustainable growth. In conclusion, third-world countries face challenges that require comprehensive and collaborative solutions. By empowering communities through economic opportunities, healthcare, education, and political stability, the global community can contribute to a more equitable and sustainable world. The path to sustainable development involves recognizing the potential within these nations and working collectively to build a future where prosperity knows no borders.

Q11. Beyond governance reforms, what is suggested as a critical component to fostering an environment conducive to progress?

  1. ((a))

    Advocacy for a rule characterized by authority and central control.

  2. ((b))

    Encouraging a policy of isolating a culture from external influences.

  3. ((c))

    Seeking uniformity in religious beliefs within a society.

  4. ((d))

    Imposing restrictions on technological information dissemination.

  5. ((e))

    Advocating for increased transparency and openness in governance.

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Advocating for increased transparency and openness in governance.

12

Directions (8-15): Read the following passage and answer the given questions. In the intricate global tapestry, third-world countries stand at the crossroads of challenges and opportunities, with a potential for transformative change. Economic disparities, healthcare inadequacies, and educational barriers are persistent challenges, but a concerted effort toward empowerment can pave the way for sustainable development. Economic inequality remains a pressing issue, depriving millions of access to basic necessities. However, targeted efforts to equally distributing the resources and introducing policies to enhance economic opportunities, such as microfinance initiatives and entrepreneurship support, can uplift communities, fostering self-sufficiency and breaking the chains of poverty. Inadequate healthcare exacerbates the hardships faced by these nations. Addressing this challenge involves not only improving healthcare infrastructure but also implementing preventive measures and health education programs. By fostering a healthier population, nations can build a foundation for economic stability and growth. Education emerges as a key catalyst for change. Access to quality education is a fundamental right that unlocks doors to a better future. International collaborations and investments in educational infrastructure can bridge the existing gaps, empowering individuals to contribute meaningfully to their communities and the global economy. Political stability is integral to sustainable development. Governance reforms that tackle corruption and promote transparency strengthen institutions, fostering an environment ____________to progress. A robust legal and regulatory framework creates a foundation for economic investments, driving growth and development. Infrastructure deficiencies, from unreliable power sources to limited transportation networks, impede progress. Strategic investments in infrastructure development enhance connectivity, promote trade, and create an environment conducive to economic activities, thereby laying the groundwork for sustainable growth. In conclusion, third-world countries face challenges that require comprehensive and collaborative solutions. By empowering communities through economic opportunities, healthcare, education, and political stability, the global community can contribute to a more equitable and sustainable world. The path to sustainable development involves recognizing the potential within these nations and working collectively to build a future where prosperity knows no borders.

Q12. What overarching theme is emphasized as the path to sustainable development for third-world countries?

  1. ((a))

    Technological advancement for all

  2. ((b))

    Isolationist economic policies

  3. ((c))

    Strict adherence to traditional practices

  4. ((d))

    Collective and comprehensive solutions

  5. ((e))

    Rapid industrialization strategies

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Collective and comprehensive solutions

13

Directions (8-15): Read the following passage and answer the given questions. In the intricate global tapestry, third-world countries stand at the crossroads of challenges and opportunities, with a potential for transformative change. Economic disparities, healthcare inadequacies, and educational barriers are persistent challenges, but a concerted effort toward empowerment can pave the way for sustainable development. Economic inequality remains a pressing issue, depriving millions of access to basic necessities. However, targeted efforts to equally distributing the resources and introducing policies to enhance economic opportunities, such as microfinance initiatives and entrepreneurship support, can uplift communities, fostering self-sufficiency and breaking the chains of poverty. Inadequate healthcare exacerbates the hardships faced by these nations. Addressing this challenge involves not only improving healthcare infrastructure but also implementing preventive measures and health education programs. By fostering a healthier population, nations can build a foundation for economic stability and growth. Education emerges as a key catalyst for change. Access to quality education is a fundamental right that unlocks doors to a better future. International collaborations and investments in educational infrastructure can bridge the existing gaps, empowering individuals to contribute meaningfully to their communities and the global economy. Political stability is integral to sustainable development. Governance reforms that tackle corruption and promote transparency strengthen institutions, fostering an environment ____________to progress. A robust legal and regulatory framework creates a foundation for economic investments, driving growth and development. Infrastructure deficiencies, from unreliable power sources to limited transportation networks, impede progress. Strategic investments in infrastructure development enhance connectivity, promote trade, and create an environment conducive to economic activities, thereby laying the groundwork for sustainable growth. In conclusion, third-world countries face challenges that require comprehensive and collaborative solutions. By empowering communities through economic opportunities, healthcare, education, and political stability, the global community can contribute to a more equitable and sustainable world. The path to sustainable development involves recognizing the potential within these nations and working collectively to build a future where prosperity knows no borders.

Q13. What does the author mean by “unlock doors to better future” in reference to the accessibility to quality education?

  1. ((a))

    Open pathways to increased technological literacy and innovation.

  2. ((b))

    With better literacy rate, create opportunities for universal healthcare access and affordability.

  3. ((c))

    Establish foundations for sustainable economic growth and stability.

  4. ((d))

    To enhance citizens' comprehension, implementing comprehensive reforms to ensure transparent and effective governance.

  5. ((e))

    Encourage inclusive and quality education for personal and community development.

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Encourage inclusive and quality education for personal and community development.

14

Directions (8-15): Read the following passage and answer the given questions. In the intricate global tapestry, third-world countries stand at the crossroads of challenges and opportunities, with a potential for transformative change. Economic disparities, healthcare inadequacies, and educational barriers are persistent challenges, but a concerted effort toward empowerment can pave the way for sustainable development. Economic inequality remains a pressing issue, depriving millions of access to basic necessities. However, targeted efforts to equally distributing the resources and introducing policies to enhance economic opportunities, such as microfinance initiatives and entrepreneurship support, can uplift communities, fostering self-sufficiency and breaking the chains of poverty. Inadequate healthcare exacerbates the hardships faced by these nations. Addressing this challenge involves not only improving healthcare infrastructure but also implementing preventive measures and health education programs. By fostering a healthier population, nations can build a foundation for economic stability and growth. Education emerges as a key catalyst for change. Access to quality education is a fundamental right that unlocks doors to a better future. International collaborations and investments in educational infrastructure can bridge the existing gaps, empowering individuals to contribute meaningfully to their communities and the global economy. Political stability is integral to sustainable development. Governance reforms that tackle corruption and promote transparency strengthen institutions, fostering an environment ____________to progress. A robust legal and regulatory framework creates a foundation for economic investments, driving growth and development. Infrastructure deficiencies, from unreliable power sources to limited transportation networks, impede progress. Strategic investments in infrastructure development enhance connectivity, promote trade, and create an environment conducive to economic activities, thereby laying the groundwork for sustainable growth. In conclusion, third-world countries face challenges that require comprehensive and collaborative solutions. By empowering communities through economic opportunities, healthcare, education, and political stability, the global community can contribute to a more equitable and sustainable world. The path to sustainable development involves recognizing the potential within these nations and working collectively to build a future where prosperity knows no borders.

Q14. Which of the following word is suitable to fill the given blank?

  1. ((a))

    conducive

  2. ((b))

    affective

  3. ((c))

    redundant

  4. ((d))

    acknowledging

  5. ((e))

    measuring

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

conducive

15

Directions (8-15): Read the following passage and answer the given questions. In the intricate global tapestry, third-world countries stand at the crossroads of challenges and opportunities, with a potential for transformative change. Economic disparities, healthcare inadequacies, and educational barriers are persistent challenges, but a concerted effort toward empowerment can pave the way for sustainable development. Economic inequality remains a pressing issue, depriving millions of access to basic necessities. However, targeted efforts to equally distributing the resources and introducing policies to enhance economic opportunities, such as microfinance initiatives and entrepreneurship support, can uplift communities, fostering self-sufficiency and breaking the chains of poverty. Inadequate healthcare exacerbates the hardships faced by these nations. Addressing this challenge involves not only improving healthcare infrastructure but also implementing preventive measures and health education programs. By fostering a healthier population, nations can build a foundation for economic stability and growth. Education emerges as a key catalyst for change. Access to quality education is a fundamental right that unlocks doors to a better future. International collaborations and investments in educational infrastructure can bridge the existing gaps, empowering individuals to contribute meaningfully to their communities and the global economy. Political stability is integral to sustainable development. Governance reforms that tackle corruption and promote transparency strengthen institutions, fostering an environment ____________to progress. A robust legal and regulatory framework creates a foundation for economic investments, driving growth and development. Infrastructure deficiencies, from unreliable power sources to limited transportation networks, impede progress. Strategic investments in infrastructure development enhance connectivity, promote trade, and create an environment conducive to economic activities, thereby laying the groundwork for sustainable growth. In conclusion, third-world countries face challenges that require comprehensive and collaborative solutions. By empowering communities through economic opportunities, healthcare, education, and political stability, the global community can contribute to a more equitable and sustainable world. The path to sustainable development involves recognizing the potential within these nations and working collectively to build a future where prosperity knows no borders.

Q15. Which of the following word is synonymous to “fostering”?

  1. ((a))

    suppressing

  2. ((b))

    overviewing

  3. ((c))

    nurturing

  4. ((d))

    raising

  5. ((e))

    neglecting

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

nurturing

16

Directions (16-17): An idiom has been given in each question and has been used in the sentences given below. Identify the statements where the word has been used in a contextually and grammatically correct manner.

Q16. GIVE A BIG HAND (I) The charity organization gave a big hand to the donors who contributed generously to support their cause. (II) The weather forecast looked promising, but unfortunately, they gave a big hand with unexpected rain and thunderstorms. (III) The audience stood up and gave a big hand to the speaker for delivering an inspiring and motivational speech.

  1. ((a))

    Only (I)

  2. ((b))

    Both (I) and (III)

  3. ((c))

    Only (III)

  4. ((d))

    Only (II)

  5. ((e))

    All (I), (II), (III)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Both (I) and (III)

17

Directions (16-17): An idiom has been given in each question and has been used in the sentences given below. Identify the statements where the word has been used in a contextually and grammatically correct manner.

Q17. THRASH OUT (I) With a series of successful product launches, the company thrash out in the market. (II) The collaborators decided to thrash out the creative differences to produce a cohesive artistic vision. (III) Conservation efforts are crucial in thrashing out endangered species and protecting the delicate balance of ecosystems.

  1. ((a))

    Only (I)

  2. ((b))

    Both (I) and (II)

  3. ((c))

    Only (III)

  4. ((d))

    Only (II)

  5. ((e))

    All (I), (II), (III)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Only (II)

18

Directions (18-21): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, options are given. Find out the appropriate word which fits into the blank appropriately. European countries (18) with a persistent challenge: oil dependency. Reliance on imported oil exposes these nations to geopolitical uncertainties and market(19)______. To address this __(20) , there is a concerted effort to diversify energy sources, emphasizing renewables and sustainable practices. The (21) of a greener, more self-sufficient energy landscape is at the forefront of Europe's strategic initiatives.

Q18.

  1. ((a))

    conflict

  2. ((b))

    grapple

  3. ((c))

    subdue

  4. ((d))

    adjusts

  5. ((e))

    validates

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

grapple

19

Directions (18-21): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, options are given. Find out the appropriate word which fits into the blank appropriately. European countries (18) with a persistent challenge: oil dependency. Reliance on imported oil exposes these nations to geopolitical uncertainties and market(19)______. To address this __(20) , there is a concerted effort to diversify energy sources, emphasizing renewables and sustainable practices. The (21) of a greener, more self-sufficient energy landscape is at the forefront of Europe's strategic initiatives.

Q19.

  1. ((a))

    demonstrations

  2. ((b))

    expansion

  3. ((c))

    diversion

  4. ((d))

    fluctuations

  5. ((e))

    distractions

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

fluctuations

20

Directions (18-21): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, options are given. Find out the appropriate word which fits into the blank appropriately. European countries (18) with a persistent challenge: oil dependency. Reliance on imported oil exposes these nations to geopolitical uncertainties and market(19)______. To address this __(20) , there is a concerted effort to diversify energy sources, emphasizing renewables and sustainable practices. The (21) of a greener, more self-sufficient energy landscape is at the forefront of Europe's strategic initiatives.

Q20.

  1. ((a))

    opportunity

  2. ((b))

    vulnerability

  3. ((c))

    possibility

  4. ((d))

    reliability

  5. ((e))

    durability

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

vulnerability

21

Directions (18-21): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, options are given. Find out the appropriate word which fits into the blank appropriately.

European countries (18) with a persistent challenge: oil dependency. Reliance on imported oil exposes these nations to geopolitical uncertainties and market(19)______. To address this __(20) , there is a concerted effort to diversify energy sources, emphasizing renewables and sustainable practices. The (21) of a greener, more self-sufficient energy landscape is at the forefront of Europe's strategic initiatives.

  1. ((a))

    demands

  2. ((b))

    compulsion

  3. ((c))

    pursuit

  4. ((d))

    charity

  5. ((e))

    conclusion

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

pursuit

22

Q22. In the following questions, few sentences are given. Choose and mark the sentence which contains grammatical or contextual error in it. If all the sentences are grammatically and contextually correct, mark the “all are correct” option as the answer choice.

  1. ((a))

    Before we left for the vacation, we had already booked our hotel and made all the necessary arrangements.

  2. ((b))

    Despite facing numerous challenges, she remained tenacious in her pursuit of success.

  3. ((c))

    The research findings was disparate, leading to conflicting interpretations among the scientific community.

  4. ((d))

    Once he had received the information, he immediately began working on the project.

  5. ((e))

    All are correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The research findings was disparate, leading to conflicting interpretations among the scientific community.

23

Directions (23-27): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If the given sentence is grammatically and contextually correct, the choose option “No error” as right answer choice. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

Neither of the candidates (A)/ have submitted (B)/ their application (C)/ before the deadline. (D)

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    No error

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

B

24

Directions (23-27): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If the given sentence is grammatically and contextually correct, the choose option “No error” as right answer choice. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

Never he had imagined that, (A)/ after years of hard work (B)/ and dedication, would success(C)/ come so suddenly. (D)

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    No error

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

25

Directions (23-27): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If the given sentence is grammatically and contextually correct, the choose option “No error” as right answer choice. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

Despite of the rain, (A)/ they decided (B)/ to proceed (C)/ with the outdoor event. (D)

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    No error

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

26

Directions (23-27): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If the given sentence is grammatically and contextually correct, the choose option “No error” as right answer choice. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

She could of finished (A)/ the assignment earlier(B)/ if she had (C)/started it sooner. (D)

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    No error

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

27

Directions (23-27): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If the given sentence is grammatically and contextually correct, the choose option “No error” as right answer choice. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

The conference room is (A)/ large enough to accommodate (B)/ over fifty participants, (C)/ ensuring everyone have a seat. (D)

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    No error

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

D

28

Directions (28): Read the following paragraph and answer the question.

In a remote village, young Raj, armed with determination, led a campaign to plant trees and recycle in response to the changing climate. Armed with a small shovel and a heart full of conviction, he rallied his neighbors to join the fight against deforestation. With each sapling he planted, Raj became the beacon of change, proving that even a small boy from a humble village could make a significant impact in the global battle for a sustainable future. The village transformed, not just in greenery but in awareness, as Raj's passion ignited a collective effort to protect their environment.

What transformation occurred in the village as a result of Raj's efforts?

  1. ((a))

    The village became a hub for industrial growth

  2. ((b))

    The climate deteriorated further

  3. ((c))

    The village embraced a sustainable lifestyle

  4. ((d))

    The villagers became disinterested in environmental issues

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The village embraced a sustainable lifestyle

29

In the following questions, few sentences are given. Choose and mark the sentence which contains grammatical or contextual error in it. If all the sentences are grammatically and contextually correct, mark the “all are correct” option as the answer choice.

  1. ((a))

    Neither of the options seems appealing to me, and I'm unsure which one to choose.

  2. ((b))

    The new employee is adapting well to her new role and quickly learning the company's policies.

  3. ((c))

    The project requires a lot of research, but its importance cannot be overstated.

  4. ((d))

    The teacher requested the students to not talk during the exam.

  5. ((e))

    All are correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The teacher requested the students to not talk during the exam.

30

Directions (30): For each question, five options are given out of which four options follow the similar theme. Choose the option which fails to become a part of the coherent paragraph and is the odd-one-out.

  1. ((a))

    The contemporary education system grapples with the evolving needs of a rapidly changing world.

  2. ((b))

    It integrates of technology, collaborative learning, and emphasis on practical skills

  3. ((c))

    Focused on fostering critical thinking and adaptability, it seeks to prepare students for a dynamic future.

  4. ((d))

    This system inadequately prepares for the rapidly changing job market and technological advancements.

  5. ((e))

    Today’s education system aims to bridge the gap between academia and real-world challenges

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

This system inadequately prepares for the rapidly changing job market and technological advancements.

Quantitative Aptitude (30 questions)

91

Q91. A boat whose speed is same as speed of a car i.e. x km/hr can travel d km upstream and return to the initial point in 8 ⅓ hours. While, the time taken by car to cover total distance travelled by the boat is ⅓ hour less than that by boat. If the time taken by the boat to cover 18 km downstream is 30 minutes more than to cover 6 km upstream and speed of stream is y km/hr, then which of the option is equal to the time taken by the boat to cover (2d+90) km in still water. (i) d / (x-y) + 3y (ii) d / (x-y) - 3y (iii) (180 / (x+y)) + 4

  1. ((a))

    Both (i) & (iii)

  2. ((b))

    Both (ii) & (iii)

  3. ((c))

    Both (i) & (ii)

  4. ((d))

    only (iii)

  5. ((e))

    only (i)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both (i) & (iii)

92

Q92. The ratio of cost price and marked price of an article is A:B. The ratio of selling price and marked price is (B + 1) : (B + 2). If discount offered on the article is Rs.30, then, its selling price becomes Rs.120 (A & B are natural number and A<B). Which of the following is / are correct? (i) B is a prime number. (ii) Maximum profit can be Rs.70. (iii) Cost price can be Rs.150.

  1. ((a))

    Only (i) and (ii)

  2. ((b))

    Only (i) and (iii)

  3. ((c))

    Only (ii) and (iii)

  4. ((d))

    Only (i)

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only (i) and (ii)

93

Q93. X liter of mixture of milk and water contains 25% of water. Which of the following option (s) is /are true. (i) If X/4 liter of water added to the mixture, then water becomes 60% less of the total mixture. (ii) If 9X/20 liter milk is removed from the mixture, then the ratio of milk and water is 6:7. (iii) 25% of mixture taken out the then difference between quantity of milk and initial quantity of water in the mixture is 5X/16 liter.

  1. ((a))

    Only (i) and (ii)

  2. ((b))

    Only (i) and (iii)

  3. ((c))

    Only (ii) and (iii)

  4. ((d))

    Only (i)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Only (i) and (iii)

94

Q94. The roots of x²/3 − (11m)x + 90 = 0 is p & q, where roots are natural number. The sum of square of both the roots is 549. Which of the following is/are true? (i) m = 1 (ii) Roots are 18 and 12. (iii) difference of roots is 3.

  1. ((a))

    Only (i) and (ii)

  2. ((b))

    Only (i) and (iii)

  3. ((c))

    Only (ii) and (iii)

  4. ((d))

    Only (i)

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Only (i) and (iii)

95

Q95. Rs. (2000+x) is invested at 10% CI for two years. The interest received is Rs.525. The interest received on ‘m’ times the amount x is invested again in compound interest at 20% interest rate for same time period is (y+1) times Rs.880. which of the following option (s) is/are incorrect? (i) m = 4(y+1) (ii) x = Rs.500 (iii) x = Rs.1500

  1. ((a))

    Both (i) and (ii)

  2. ((b))

    Both (i) and (iii)

  3. ((c))

    Both (ii) and (iii)

  4. ((d))

    only (iii)

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

only (iii)

96

Q96. The volume of a cube is 2744 cm³. A circle whose diameter is same as the side of the cube drawn on each face of the cube. The cost of painting the circular part with red and remaining part with blue at the cost of Rs.x per m² and Rs.(x – 5) per m². If the total cost of painting is Rs.6972, then find the value of x.

  1. ((a))

    11

  2. ((b))

    10

  3. ((c))

    9

  4. ((d))

    6

  5. ((e))

    7

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

7

97

Q97. AB is a two-digit number where A is on tenth place and B is on unit place. The product of A and B is zero. Unit digits of A³, A², A are same, where A is unit digit of given number. Which of the option is nearest to possible values of the two - digit number.

  1. ((a))

    9, 49 & 64

  2. ((b))

    9, 36 & 100

  3. ((c))

    64, 81 & 121

  4. ((d))

    196, 121 & 16

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

9, 49 & 64

98

Q98. Which of the following statement/s is or are required to find the total profit earned in the business at the end of the year. Statement 1: A and B entered in a partnership by investing Rs. (X+1000) and Rs. (Y+1000) respectively. C joined them after 3 months with some investment Rs. Z. Statement 2: At the end of the year the profit share of C is Rs.12000. Statement 3: The difference between profit share of A and B after one year is Rs.1500.

  1. ((a))

    1 and 2 together

  2. ((b))

    2 and 3 together

  3. ((c))

    1 and 3 together

  4. ((d))

    All together

  5. ((e))

    None together

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

None together

99

Q99. Which of the following statement/s is or are required to find the ratio of age of A after 6 years and age of B two years ago. Statement 1: The sum of present ages of A and B is 78 years. Statement 2: B is 34 years older than A and 12 years older than C. Statement 3: Ratio of present ages of A and C is 1:2.

  1. ((a))

    either 1 & 2 together or 2 & 3 together

  2. ((b))

    1 and 3 together

  3. ((c))

    only 3

  4. ((d))

    All together

  5. ((e))

    None together

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

either 1 & 2 together or 2 & 3 together

100

Q100. If one root of equation x² +Px +84 =0 is – 21, then the value of P is how much more than another root of the given equation.

  1. ((a))

    14

  2. ((b))

    12

  3. ((c))

    25

  4. ((d))

    27

  5. ((e))

    29

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

29

101

Directions (101-106): Read the information and answer the following questions. There are total Y students (boys + girls) in a school. Each student like at least one sport out of three sports (A, B & C). The number of students who like all the three sports is 114. 16% of the total students like A and B but not C. 13% of the total students like B and C but not A. 4% of the total students like A and C but not B. The ratio of number of students who like only A, only B and only C is 2: 3: 1 respectively. Total number of students who like at least two sports are 312. Q101. Find the number of students who like only one sport.

  1. ((a))

    288

  2. ((b))

    144

  3. ((c))

    114

  4. ((d))

    324

  5. ((e))

    124

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

288

102

Directions (101-106): Read the information and answer the following questions. There are total Y students (boys + girls) in a school. Each student like at least one sport out of three sports (A, B & C). The number of students who like all the three sports is 114. 16% of the total students like A and B but not C. 13% of the total students like B and C but not A. 4% of the total students like A and C but not B. The ratio of number of students who like only A, only B and only C is 2: 3: 1 respectively. Total number of students who like at least two sports are 312. Q102. Find the difference between number of students who like only one sport and who like all the sports together.

  1. ((a))

    188

  2. ((b))

    144

  3. ((c))

    174

  4. ((d))

    124

  5. ((e))

    164

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

174

103

Directions (101-106): Read the information and answer the following questions. There are total Y students (boys + girls) in a school. Each student like at least one sport out of three sports (A, B & C). The number of students who like all the three sports is 114. 16% of the total students like A and B but not C. 13% of the total students like B and C but not A. 4% of the total students like A and C but not B. The ratio of number of students who like only A, only B and only C is 2: 3: 1 respectively. Total number of students who like at least two sports are 312. Q103. The students who like only two sports together, one-third are girls. Find the number of boy students who like only two sports together.

  1. ((a))

    138

  2. ((b))

    144

  3. ((c))

    114

  4. ((d))

    132

  5. ((e))

    134

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

132

104

Directions (101-106): Read the information and answer the following questions. There are total Y students (boys + girls) in a school. Each student like at least one sport out of three sports (A, B & C). The number of students who like all the three sports is 114. 16% of the total students like A and B but not C. 13% of the total students like B and C but not A. 4% of the total students like A and C but not B. The ratio of number of students who like only A, only B and only C is 2: 3: 1 respectively. Total number of students who like at least two sports are 312. Q104. Find the value of Y.

  1. ((a))

    480

  2. ((b))

    250

  3. ((c))

    200

  4. ((d))

    400

  5. ((e))

    600

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

600

105

Directions (101-106): Read the information and answer the following questions. There are total Y students (boys + girls) in a school. Each student like at least one sport out of three sports (A, B & C). The number of students who like all the three sports is 114. 16% of the total students like A and B but not C. 13% of the total students like B and C but not A. 4% of the total students like A and C but not B. The ratio of number of students who like only A, only B and only C is 2: 3: 1 respectively. Total number of students who like at least two sports are 312. Q105. The number of students who like all the three sports together are what percentage less than the total number of students in the school.

  1. ((a))

    80%

  2. ((b))

    81%

  3. ((c))

    20%

  4. ((d))

    40%

  5. ((e))

    10%

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

81%

106

Directions (101-106): Read the information and answer the following questions. There are total Y students (boys + girls) in a school. Each student like at least one sport out of three sports (A, B & C). The number of students who like all the three sports is 114. 16% of the total students like A and B but not C. 13% of the total students like B and C but not A. 4% of the total students like A and C but not B. The ratio of number of students who like only A, only B and only C is 2: 3: 1 respectively. Total number of students who like at least two sports are 312. Q106. Find the ratio of girls to boys in the school.

  1. ((a))

    4:5

  2. ((b))

    22:21

  3. ((c))

    20:21

  4. ((d))

    Can’t determine

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Can’t determine

107

Direction (107–109): Solve the series and answer the following questions given below. Series 1: 87 B (2a+15) (30² + 6) (103 + Z) 1076 1101 Series 2: (a+58) 492 529 Y 639 712 749 Note – B = 87 + a Q107. Find the value of a.

  1. ((a))

    361

  2. ((b))

    342

  3. ((c))

    356

  4. ((d))

    344

  5. ((e))

    352

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

361

108

Direction (107–109): Solve the series and answer the following questions given below. Series 1: 87 B (2a+15) (30² + 6) (103 + Z) 1076 1101 Series 2: (a+58) 492 529 Y 639 712 749 Note – B = 87 + a Q108. Find the value of Z.

  1. ((a))

    654

  2. ((b))

    924

  3. ((c))

    656

  4. ((d))

    644

  5. ((e))

    652

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

924

109

Direction (107–109): Solve the series and answer the following questions given below. Series 1: 87 B (2a+15) (30² + 6) (103 + Z) 1076 1101 Series 2: (a+58) 492 529 Y 639 712 749 Note – B = 87 + a Q109. Find the value of B.

  1. ((a))

    548

  2. ((b))

    428

  3. ((c))

    568

  4. ((d))

    448

  5. ((e))

    528

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

448

110

Q110. If x and y are the terms of series 1, then find the sum of x and y. Series 1 – 6, 9, 14, 21, x, 45, y

  1. ((a))

    94

  2. ((b))

    92

  3. ((c))

    83

  4. ((d))

    91

  5. ((e))

    97

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

94

111

Q111. In how much time A and B together can complete the whole work? Statement 1- A and B can complete the work working alternatively starting from A in 16 days Statement 2 - Ratio of efficiency of A and B is 2 : 1 Statement 3 - C can complete the work alone is 36 days while A and C together can complete the work in 9 days

  1. ((a))

    1 and 2 together

  2. ((b))

    2 and 3 together

  3. ((c))

    Either 1 alone or 2 & 3 together

  4. ((d))

    All together

  5. ((e))

    None together

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Either 1 alone or 2 & 3 together

112

Q112. Find the wrong number in the given series. 140, 160, 182, 206, 234, 260

  1. ((a))

    140

  2. ((b))

    234

  3. ((c))

    182

  4. ((d))

    206

  5. ((e))

    260

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

234

113

Q113. There are two equations I. x² –14x +24 = 0 and II. y² + 8y + 15 = 0. The highest root of equation I is what percentage of lowest root of equation II.

  1. ((a))

    66%

  2. ((b))
    • 125%
  3. ((c))

    125%

  4. ((d))
    • 240%
  5. ((e))

    240%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))
  • 240%
114

Q114. There are two equations I. x² +7x + C = 0 and II. y² + 21y + 68 = 0. The even root of equation (II) is one of the roots of equation (I). Find the value of C.

  1. ((a))

    10

  2. ((b))

    12

  3. ((c))

    13

  4. ((d))

    21

  5. ((e))

    7

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

12

115

Direction (115–120): The bar graph shows the percentage of baked bricks out of total bricks in five brickfield and percentage of baked brick sold by each brickfield.

Note – (i) Total number of baked bricks in C is 360. (ii) Total number sold baked brick in D is 350. (iii) Total bricks = baked bricks+ unbaked bricks (iv) Total baked brick = sold baked bricks + unsold baked bricks.

Find the unsold baked bricks by D.

  1. ((a))

    350

  2. ((b))

    250

  3. ((c))

    150

  4. ((d))

    450

  5. ((e))

    600

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

350

116

Direction (115–120): The bar graph shows the percentage of baked bricks out of total bricks in five brickfield and percentage of baked brick sold by each brickfield.

Note – (i) Total number of baked bricks in C is 360. (ii) Total number sold baked brick in D is 350. (iii) Total bricks = baked bricks+ unbaked bricks (iv) Total baked brick = sold baked bricks + unsold baked bricks.

Find the sum of total bricks in C and D.

  1. ((a))

    1480

  2. ((b))

    1250

  3. ((c))

    1200

  4. ((d))

    1400

  5. ((e))

    1600

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1400

117

Direction (115–120): The bar graph shows the percentage of baked bricks out of total bricks in five brickfield and percentage of baked brick sold by each brickfield.

Note – (i) Total number of baked bricks in C is 360. (ii) Total number sold baked brick in D is 350. (iii) Total bricks = baked bricks+ unbaked bricks (iv) Total baked brick = sold baked bricks + unsold baked bricks.

Find the ratio of unbaked bricks in C to that in D.

  1. ((a))

    4:5

  2. ((b))

    22:21

  3. ((c))

    15:2

  4. ((d))

    2:15

  5. ((e))

    1:21

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

2:15

118

Direction (115–120): The bar graph shows the percentage of baked bricks out of total bricks in five brickfield and percentage of baked brick sold by each brickfield.

Note – (i) Total number of baked bricks in C is 360. (ii) Total number sold baked brick in D is 350. (iii) Total bricks = baked bricks+ unbaked bricks (iv) Total baked brick = sold baked bricks + unsold baked bricks.

If the total number of bricks in A is 50% more than unbaked bricks by D, then find the number of sold baked bricks by A.

  1. ((a))

    54

  2. ((b))

    42

  3. ((c))

    56

  4. ((d))

    44

  5. ((e))

    52

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

54

119

Direction (115–120): The bar graph shows the percentage of baked bricks out of total bricks in five brickfield and percentage of baked brick sold by each brickfield.

Note – (i) Total number of baked bricks in C is 360. (ii) Total number sold baked brick in D is 350. (iii) Total bricks = baked bricks+ unbaked bricks (iv) Total baked brick = sold baked bricks + unsold baked bricks.

The number of sold baked bricks by B is what percentage of unbaked bricks by B.

  1. ((a))

    6.66%

  2. ((b))

    3.33%

  3. ((c))

    12.5%

  4. ((d))

    10%

  5. ((e))

    15%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

6.66%

120

Direction (115–120): The bar graph shows the percentage of baked bricks out of total bricks in five brickfield and percentage of baked brick sold by each brickfield.

Note – (i) Total number of baked bricks in C is 360. (ii) Total number sold baked brick in D is 350. (iii) Total bricks = baked bricks+ unbaked bricks (iv) Total baked brick = sold baked bricks + unsold baked bricks.

Unbaked bricks of E are same as that of D. Find unsold baked bricks by E.

  1. ((a))

    680

  2. ((b))

    650

  3. ((c))

    625

  4. ((d))

    675

  5. ((e))

    600

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

675

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