Official Paper

MP Police ASI : (18 Dec 2025) Memory-Based Paper (Previous Year Paper)

100 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

Test (100 questions)

1

In a row, Kishore is at 11th place from the left and Pratik is at 13th place from the right. When they interchange the positions, Kishore becomes 15th from the left. How many were seated in the row?

  1. ((a))

    25

  2. ((b))

    23

  3. ((c))

    27

  4. ((d))

    29

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

27

  1. In a row, Kishore is at 11th place from the left and Pratik is at 13th place from the right.

  1. They interchange their positions, Kishore becomes 15th from the left.

=> The total number of persons = Kishore position from left + Kishore position from right - 1

=> The total number of persons = 15 + 13 - 1 = 28 - 1 = 27

Hence, “27” person were seated in the row.

2

A girl pushes a trolley with a constant force F through a distance s, the work done will be:

  1. ((a))

    F × s

  2. ((b))

    F + s

  3. ((c))

    F/s

  4. ((d))

    F - s

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

F × s

The Correct answer is F × s

Key Points

  • The formula for work done is: W = F × s, where W is the work done, F is the constant force applied, and s is the distance through which the force is applied.
  • In this scenario, the girl pushes the trolley with a constant force of F over a distance s. The work done is the product of the force applied and the distance moved in the direction of the force.
  • Work is a scalar quantity, and its unit in the SI system is Joule (J), where 1 Joule = 1 Newton meter (N·m). The formula reflects this relationship.
3

Which district in Madhya Pradesh has reported the highest rise in child marriages in 2025?

  1. ((a))

    Gwalior

  2. ((b))

    Damoh

  3. ((c))

    Indore

  4. ((d))

    Jabalpur

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Damoh

The correct answer is Damoh.

In News

  • Child marriages in Madhya Pradesh have risen by 47% since 2020, with Damoh district emerging as the worst hotspot in 2025.

Key Points

  • Child marriage cases in Madhya Pradesh increased from 366 in 2020 to 538 in 2025, marking a 47% rise.
  • Damoh district alone accounted for 21% of all child marriages in 2025, with cases rising sharply from 33 in 2024 to 115 in 2025.
  • The rise in child marriages is notably concentrated in Bundelkhand, central MP, Gwalior–Chambal, and tribal areas, indicating socio-economic vulnerabilities.
  • Despite ongoing awareness campaigns, child marriages continue to be a persistent issue in certain districts of Madhya Pradesh.

Additional Information

  • District-Level Statistics
  • Damoh: 115 cases of child marriage in 2025 (21% of MP's total cases).
  • Increase from 33 cases in 2024 to 115 in 2025 highlights a severe surge.
  • Statewide Data
  • Rise from 366 cases in 2020 to 538 cases in 2025, despite efforts to raise awareness and reduce child marriages.
  • Key Vulnerable Regions
  • Bundelkhand, central MP, Gwalior–Chambal, and tribal belts are the worst affected areas.
  • Socio-economic factors like poverty, illiteracy, and entrenched cultural practices contribute to the problem.
  • Impact of Awareness Campaigns
  • Although campaigns are ongoing, child marriage rates remain alarmingly high in specific districts.
  • Greater efforts are required to address the root causes and ensure effective implementation of the law.
4

If sin (A=\frac{6}{7}), then what is the value of sec A?

  1. ((a))

    (\frac{1}{\sqrt{13}})

  2. ((b))

    (\frac{7}{\sqrt{13}})

  3. ((c))

    (\frac{6}{\sqrt{13}})

  4. ((d))

    (\frac{4}{\sqrt{13}})

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(\frac{7}{\sqrt{13}})

Given:

sin A = 6/7

Concept:

sin²A + cos²A = 1 and

sec A = 1/cos A

Calculation:

⇒ cos A = √(1 - sin² A)

⇒ √(1 - (6/7)²) = √(1 - 36/49)

⇒ √(13/49) = √(13)/7

⇒ sec A = 1/cos A = 7/√(13)

Hence, the value of sec A is 7/√(13).

5

Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the series.

OJY, MLW, KNU, IPS, ?

  1. ((a))

    GRQ

  2. ((b))

    GRP

  3. ((c))

    GPO

  4. ((d))

    GRR

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

GRQ

The logic is:

Hence, ‘GRQ’ is the correct answer.

6

The perimeter of an isosceles triangle is 91 cm. If one of the equal sides measures 28 cm, then what is the value of the other non-equal side? 

  1. ((a))

    56 cm

  2. ((b))

    42 cm

  3. ((c))

    14 cm

  4. ((d))

    35 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

35 cm

Given:

The perimeter of an isosceles triangle = 91 cm.

One of the equal sides measures 28 cm.

Concept used:

An isosceles triangle two angles will also be the same in front of the equal sides.

Formula used:

P = (2a + b)

Where, p = perimeter

a = side and b = another side

Calculation:

Let the length of the equal sides be x

P = (2a + b)

⇒ 91 = 2 × 28 + b

⇒ (91 – 56) = b

⇒ 35 = b

∴ The length of the non-equal side is 35 cm.

∴ Option 4 is the correct answer.

7

The gravitational potential energy of an object of mass ‘m’ raised through a height ‘h’ from the earth’s surface is given by _______

  1. ((a))

    m a

  2. ((b))

    m a v

  3. ((c))

    m g h

  4. ((d))

    m g v

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

m g h

The correct answer is m g h.

Key Points

  • Gravitational potential energy is the energy possessed by an object due to its position in a gravitational field.
  • The formula for gravitational potential energy is given by U = mgh, where 'm' is mass, 'g' is the acceleration due to gravity, and 'h' is the height.
  • This formula assumes that the height 'h' is small compared to the radius of the Earth, so the gravitational force can be considered constant.
  • The unit of gravitational potential energy in the International System of Units (SI) is the Joule (J).

Additional Information

  • Gravity
  • Gravity is a force that attracts two bodies towards each other, depending on their masses and the distance between them.
  • The acceleration due to gravity on Earth is approximately 9.8 m/s².
  • Potential Energy
  • Potential energy is the stored energy of an object due to its position or state.
  • It can be converted into other forms of energy, such as kinetic energy.
  • Kinetic Energy
  • Kinetic energy is the energy that an object possesses due to its motion.
  • The formula for kinetic energy is given by KE = 0.5 * m * v², where 'm' is mass and 'v' is velocity.
  • Conservation of Energy
  • The law of conservation of energy states that energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transformed from one form to another.
  • In a closed system, the total energy remains constant.
8

Where was the first dry port established in Madhya Pradesh?

  1. ((a))

     Pithampur (Dhar)

  2. ((b))

     Maneri (Mandla)

  3. ((c))

     Mandideep (Raisen)

  4. ((d))

     Itarsi (Hoshangabad)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

 Pithampur (Dhar)

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

Dry Ports in Madhya Pradesh:

  • First Dry Port:
  • Established in 1994 at Pithampur in Dhar district by Container Corporation of India Limited (CONCOR), a Central Government undertaking. Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • Second Dry Port:
  • The second dry port was established at Mandideep in Raisen district.
  • Dry Port at Mangliya:
  • A dry port was established in 2017-18 at Mangliya, located on the Indore-Dewas border.
  • Largest Dry Port in South Asia:
  • In 2019-20, the second largest dry port of South Asia is being built at Tihi, 5 km away from Pithampur, Dhar district.
  • The dry port at Tihi is being developed over 40 hectares.
  • ICD Tughlakabad:
  • South Asia's first and largest dry port is located at Tughlakabad, Delhi, and spans 44 hectares. It is also known as ICD (Inland Container Depot) Tughlakabad.
9

The radius of a circle is 50 cm. The distance of a chord AB from the centre of this circle is 14 cm. What is the sum of chord AB and the diameter of this circle?

  1. ((a))

    186 cm

  2. ((b))

    192 cm

  3. ((c))

    188 cm

  4. ((d))

    196 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

196 cm

Given:

The radius of a circle = 50 cm

Distance of chord AB from the center of the circle = 14 cm

Formula used:

In a circle, the perpendicular bisector of a chord passes through the center of the circle.

If a perpendicular is drawn from the center of a circle to a chord, it bisects the chord.

In a right triangle, the square of the hypotenuse (longest side) is equal to the sum of the squares of the other two sides.

Calculation:

Let's solve the question:

First, let's draw a rough diagram of the circle and chord AB:

Let O be the center of the circle, and let M be the midpoint of the chord AB. Draw OM, which is the perpendicular bisector of AB.

By the property of perpendicular bisectors, OM passes through the center O of the circle.

Since OM is perpendicular to AB, we can use the Pythagorean theorem to find the length of AM (or BM), which is half of the chord AB:

(AM^2 + OM^2 = OA^2\ AM^2 + 14^2 = 50^2\ AM^2 = 50^2 - 14^2\ AM = BM = √(50^2 - 14^2)\ AM = BM = √(2500 - 196)\ AM = BM = √2304\ AM = BM = 48\)

Therefore, the length of the chord AB is:

AB = 2 × AM

= 2 × 48

= 96 cm

The diameter of the circle is twice the radius, so it is:

diameter = 2 × radius

= 2 × 50

= 100 cm

Therefore, the sum of the chord AB and the diameter of the circle is:

AB + diameter = 96 + 100

= 196 cm

Hence, the sum of chord AB and the diameter of this circle is 196 cm.

10

Refer to the given number, symbol series and answer the question that follows.

(Left) 2 @ 1 ϕ $ λ £ 5 3 & 9 # * 2 @ 6 7 & % 3 £ 2 & 1 5 (Right)

How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and also immediately followed by a number?

  1. ((a))

    2

  2. ((b))

    3

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    1

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

3

(Left) 2 @ 1 ϕ $ λ £ 5 3 & 9 # * 2 @ 6 7 & % 3 £ 2 & 1 5 (Right)

Logic: symbol ⇔ number ⇔ number

Numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and also immediately followed by a number

2 @ 1 ϕ $ λ £ 5 3 & 9 # * 2 @ 6 7 & % 3 £ 2 & 1 5

In the above series, only 3 numbers follow this sequence 

Hence, the correct answer is "3".

11

Which of the following is a covalent compound?

  1. ((a))

    MgO 

  2. ((b))

    MgCl2

  3. ((c))

    Nacl 

  4. ((d))

    CH4

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

CH4

The Correct answer is CH4.

Key Points

  • CH4 stands for methane, which is a simple covalent compound.
  • It consists of one carbon atom bonded to four hydrogen atoms through covalent bonds.
  • Covalent bonds are formed when atoms share electrons.
  • Methane is a major component of natural gas and is used as a fuel.
  • It is also a significant greenhouse gas contributing to global warming.
  • Methane is produced naturally by processes such as decomposition of organic matter.

 Additional Information

  • MgO
  • Magnesium oxide (MgO) is an ionic compound.
  • It consists of magnesium and oxygen ions held together by strong electrostatic forces.
  • It is used in various applications like refractory materials, electrical insulation, and as a dietary supplement.
  • MgCl2
  • Magnesium chloride (MgCl2) is another example of an ionic compound.
  • It consists of magnesium and chlorine ions.
  • MgCl2 is often used for de-icing roads and as a coagulant in water treatment.
  • NaCl
  • Sodium chloride (NaCl) is commonly known as table salt.
  • It is an ionic compound made up of sodium and chloride ions.
  • NaCl is widely used in food for seasoning and preservation.
12

Chitrakoot is situated on the banks of river _______. 

  1. ((a))

    Shipra

  2. ((b))

    Chambal 

  3. ((c))

    Mandakini

  4. ((d))

    Kaveri

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Mandakini

The correct answer is Mandakini.

Key Points

  • Chitrakoot is a renowned religious and historical town located in the Satna district of Madhya Pradesh and partially in Uttar Pradesh.
  • The town is situated on the banks of the Mandakini River, which is considered sacred according to Hindu mythology.
  • Mandakini River is also referred to as Payaswini River in ancient texts and holds significant religious importance.
  • Chitrakoot is widely recognized as a pilgrimage site and is mentioned in the Ramayana as the place where Lord Rama, Goddess Sita, and Lord Lakshmana spent a significant part of their exile.
  • Key attractions in Chitrakoot include Kamadgiri Hill, Ramghat on the Mandakini River, and Gupt Godavari, all of which are closely associated with Lord Rama’s life.

Additional Information

  • Mandakini River:
  • The Mandakini River flows through Chitrakoot and is considered sacred by Hindus. Pilgrims often take holy dips at the river, especially at Ramghat.
  • The river is closely linked to the Ramayana, as Lord Rama and Sita were said to have spent time on its banks during their exile.
  • It originates in the Vindhya range and provides water to the surrounding regions.
  • Religious significance of Chitrakoot:
  • Chitrakoot is mentioned in the Ramayana, where Lord Rama spent over a decade in exile. It is considered a spiritual center for devotees.
  • Important sites include Kamadgiri Hill, believed to be the heart of Chitrakoot and a sacred place for circumambulation (parikrama).
  • Other significant locations include Gupt Godavari, Hanuman Dhara, and Sphatik Shila, all of which are linked to Lord Rama’s life.
  • Shipra River:
  • The Shipra River is not located in Chitrakoot but flows through Ujjain, Madhya Pradesh.
  • It is famous for the Simhastha Kumbh Mela held every 12 years.
  • Chambal River:
  • The Chambal River flows through Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh but is not associated with Chitrakoot.
  • This river is known for its pristine waters and is home to the critically endangered Gharial (a crocodile species).
  • Kaveri River:
  • The Kaveri River flows in southern India through Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
  • It is considered sacred in South India and is referred to as the Ganga of the South.

Important Points

  • Historical and Cultural Importance:
  • Chitrakoot has been a center of spirituality and pilgrimage for centuries due to its association with Lord Rama.
  • The town attracts millions of devotees annually, especially during festivals such as Ram Navami and Diwali.
  • Tourism in Chitrakoot:
  • The area is developed as a tourist destination with temples, ghats, and natural beauty.
  • It serves as a hub for religious tourism, especially for devotees of Lord Rama.
13

PX is a tangent drawn from point X, touches the circle at P, O is the centre of the circle. Radius of this circle is 10 cm and OX = 26 cm. What is the length of PX ?

  1. ((a))

    24.5 cm

  2. ((b))

    24 cm

  3. ((c))

    23.5 cm

  4. ((d))

    25 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

24 cm

Given:

PX is a tangent drawn from point X.

O is the centre of the circle.

Radius of this circle is 10 cm and OX = 26 cm.

Concept Used:

When a tangent is drawn from an external point to a circle, it forms a right angle with the radius drawn to the point of tangency.

Pythagoras theorem

Hypotenuse2 = Base2 + Perpendicular2

Calculation:

Here PX is the tangent makes 90° angle with the radius.

In triangle OPX,

OP = 10 cm

OX = 26 cm

Apply Pythagoras theorem

Hypotenuse2 = Base2 + Perpendicular2

262 = 102 + Perpendicular2

Perpendicular2 =  262 - 102 

Perpendicular2 = 676 - 100

Perpendicular2 = 576

Perpendicular = 24 cm

PX = 24 cm

∴ Option 2 is the correct answer.

14

Consider the argument and decide which of the given assumptions is/are implicit.

Argument:

A mother is crying in the hospital as her only son died in a road accident while driving his bike.

Assumptions:

  1. The mother thinks it’s her son’s fault.
  2. The mother thinks that God is not with her.
  1. ((a))

    Neither 1 nor 2 is implicit

  2. ((b))

    Both 1 and 2 are implicit

  3. ((c))

    Only assumption 2 is implicit

  4. ((d))

    Only assumption 1 is implicit

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Neither 1 nor 2 is implicit

In the above statement, the mother is crying in the hospital as her only son died in a road accident while driving his bike. Here both the assumptions are not implicit as there is no information given about whose fault it is in the accident. The mother is in grief because his son died in the accident, there might be possible that because of the carelessness of his son while driving. With the given information, We cannot predict her intentions towards God.

Hence, “neither 1 nor 2 is implicit” is the correct answer.

15

What are the products formed during photosynthesis?

  1. ((a))

    Glucose, Water and Oxygen

  2. ((b))

    Glucose and Oxygen

  3. ((c))

    Starch and Oxygen

  4. ((d))

    Starch, Water and Oxygen

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Glucose, Water and Oxygen

Explanation:

Photosynthesis is the process through which plants utilize sunlight to make food and it takes place inside the green part (chloroplasts) of the plant.

  • The correct equation to represent the overall process of photosynthesis is given as:

6CO2 + 12H2O (\mathop \to \limits^{Light}) C6 H12 O6 + 6H2O + 6O2

Where **CH12 O**represents glucoseH2O represents water.**O**represents Oxygen.

  • Photosynthesis takes place in the green leaves of plants, and it is the process through which green leafy plants synthesize their food.

Mistake PointsIn general, the equation wrote as -

6CO2 + 12H2O (\mathop \to \limits^{Light}) C6 H12 O6 + 6H2O

But the water produced is vaporized.

16

Which city of Madhya Pradesh also has the honor of being one of the twelve Jyotirlingas?

  1. ((a))

    Ujjain

  2. ((b))

    Bhopal 

  3. ((c))

    Indore

  4. ((d))

    Satna

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ujjain

The correct answer is Ujjain.

Key Points

  • Ujjain is one of the most prominent cities in Madhya Pradesh and holds significant religious importance in India.
  • The city is home to the famous Mahakaleshwar Jyotirlinga, one of the twelve Jyotirlingas dedicated to Lord Shiva.
  • The Mahakaleshwar Temple is a renowned pilgrimage site and is known for its Bhasma Aarti, a unique ritual performed daily.
  • Ujjain is also referred to as the city of temples and serves as a major spiritual center for Hindus.
  • It is located on the banks of the Kshipra River, which is considered sacred and is associated with the historic Simhastha Kumbh Mela, held every 12 years.

Additional Information

  • Jyotirlingas:
  • The Jyotirlingas are twelve sacred shrines dedicated to Lord Shiva, spread across India.
  • The term "Jyotirlinga" translates to "column or pillar of light," symbolizing the infinite nature of Shiva.
  • Other Jyotirlingas include Somnath (Gujarat), Kashi Vishwanath (Varanasi), Trimbakeshwar (Maharashtra), and Kedarnath (Uttarakhand).
  • Mahakaleshwar Temple:
  • The Mahakaleshwar Temple is unique as it houses a Swayambhu (self-manifested) Shivling.
  • It is one of the only Jyotirlingas where the deity is worshipped as the Lord of Time (Mahakal).
  • The temple has historical significance, being mentioned in ancient Hindu texts such as the Puranas.
  • Ujjain's Historical Importance:
  • Ujjain has been a center of learning, spirituality, and culture since ancient times.
  • It was the capital of the Malwa region and played a significant role in Indian history and mythology.
  • Notable historical figures like Kalidasa, one of the greatest Sanskrit poets, were associated with Ujjain.
  • Kshipra River and Simhastha Kumbh Mela:
  • The Kshipra River is considered sacred and is associated with spiritual rituals and festivals.
  • The Simhastha Kumbh Mela, held every 12 years, is one of the largest religious gatherings in the world.
  • During the Kumbh Mela, millions of pilgrims visit Ujjain to take a holy dip in the Kshipra River.

Important Points

  • Other Cities in Madhya Pradesh:
  • Bhopal: The capital city of Madhya Pradesh, known for its lakes and historical importance.
  • Indore: The largest city in the state and a major commercial hub.
  • Satna: A city known for its cement industries and proximity to religious sites like Maihar.
  • Religious Tourism in India:
  • India is home to numerous pilgrimage sites across different religions, including Hinduism, Islam, Christianity, Buddhism, Jainism, and Sikhism.
  • Popular destinations include Varanasi, Amritsar (Golden Temple), Bodh Gaya, Ajmer Sharif, and many others.
  • Religious tourism contributes significantly to India's economy and cultural heritage.
17

A steel wire forms a square whose area is 484 cm2. If the same wire is bent in the form of a circle, then the radius of the circle is (\left(\right. Use \left.\pi=\frac{22}{7}\right))

  1. ((a))

    22 cm

  2. ((b))

    14 cm

  3. ((c))

    30 cm

  4. ((d))

    28 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

14 cm

Given:

Area of Square  = 484 cm2

Formula used:

Area of square = (side)2

Circumference of circle = 2πr

Calculation:

According to question,

⇒ (side)2 = 484 cm2

⇒ side = 22 cm

Since, the wire is bent in the form of circle 

Perimeter of square = Perimeter of Circle

⇒ 4 × 22 = 2 × π × r

⇒ 88 = 2 × 22/7 × r

⇒ r = 14 cm

∴ The correct answer is 14 cm.

18

All 34 students in a class are standing in a straight line facing north. Kamini is 12th from the right end while Poonam is 8th from the left end. How many people stand between Kamini and Poonam?

  1. ((a))

    Eight

  2. ((b))

    Sixteen

  3. ((c))

    Fourteen

  4. ((d))

    Twelve

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Fourteen

Given:

  • All 34 students in a class are standing in a straight line facing north.
  • Kamini is 12th from the right end while Poonam is 8th from the left end.

Students between Kamini and Poonam:

=> Students between Kamini and Poonam = Total number of students - (Position of Kamini from the right + Position of Poonam from the left)

=> Students between Kamini and Poonam = 34 - (12 + 8) = 34 - 20 = 14

Hence, "Fourteen​" Students stand between Kamini and Poonam.

19

A person having stunted growth and discoloured hair is most probably suffering from ________________.

  1. ((a))

    Protein Deficiency

  2. ((b))

    Lipid Deficiency

  3. ((c))

    Glucose Deficiency

  4. ((d))

    Vitamin A Deficiency

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Protein Deficiency

The correct answer is Protein Deficiency.

Key Points

  • Protein deficiency can lead to stunted growth in children as protein is essential for the development and repair of body tissues.
  • Discoloured hair, particularly a reddish-orange tinge, is a common symptom of severe protein deficiency, commonly referred to as Kwashiorkor.
  • Kwashiorkor is more prevalent in areas with limited access to protein-rich foods, such as certain regions in Africa, Central America, and South Asia.
  • Other symptoms of protein deficiency may include muscle wasting, edema, and an enlarged abdomen.
  • A diet rich in legumes, nuts, dairy products, meat, and fish can help prevent protein deficiency.

Additional Information

  • Kwashiorkor:
  • A severe form of malnutrition caused by an inadequate intake of protein.
  • Common in children in developing countries where diets are high in carbohydrates but low in protein.
  • Symptoms include edema, irritability, ulcerating dermatoses, and an enlarged liver.
  • Marasmus:
  • Another form of severe malnutrition caused by an overall lack of calories and protein.
  • Characterized by severe wasting of body fat and muscle, leading to a "skin and bones" appearance.
  • Common among children in regions with food scarcity.
  • Essential Amino Acids:
  • Amino acids that the body cannot synthesize on its own and must be obtained from the diet.
  • There are nine essential amino acids: histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, and valine.
  • They are crucial for protein synthesis and other metabolic processes.
  • Protein-Rich Foods:
  • Foods high in protein include meat, fish, eggs, dairy products, legumes, nuts, and seeds.
  • Incorporating a variety of these foods can help ensure adequate protein intake.
  • Plant-based proteins can be combined to provide all essential amino acids, such as rice and beans.
20

Under which Article of the Constitution of India, Madhya Pradesh State Election Commission organises regular and continuous elections in Panchayats, Municipalities?

  1. ((a))

     Article 243(k) and Article 243(za)

  2. ((b))

     Article 243(m) and Article 243(za)

  3. ((c))

    Article 243(k) and Article 243(zc)

  4. ((d))

     Article 243(m) and Article 243(ZG)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

 Article 243(k) and Article 243(za)

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

Madhya Pradesh State Election Commission:

  • Establishment: Constituted on February 1, 1994, under Article 243 (k) of the Constitution of India.
  • Responsibilities:
  • Conducts regular and continuous elections for Panchayats and Municipalities in Madhya Pradesh.
  • Operates under Article 243 (k) and Article 243–za of the Constitution. Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • Election Highlights:
  • Since its formation, 6 general elections for the three-tier Panchayat and urban bodies have been successfully organized till August 2022.
  • In 1994, after the removal of 7 districts now part of Chhattisgarh, elections were held simultaneously in 38 districts during May–June 1994.
  • General elections for 365 urban bodies, including 6 Nagar Panchayats, were held simultaneously in November–December 1994 (excluding Municipal Councils).
21

AD is a tangent of a circle, and ABC is the secant. If AB = 8 cm and BC = 10 cm, then find the length of AD.

  1. ((a))

    144 cm

  2. ((b))

    12.5 cm

  3. ((c))

    13.45 cm

  4. ((d))

    12 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

12 cm

Calculation:

AD2 = AB ×  AC

⇒ AD2 = 8 × (10 + 8)

⇒ AD2 = 144

⇒ AD = 12

∴ The correct answer is 12

22

In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

FIRE : KNWJ :: PIRE : ?

  1. ((a))

    UMWJ

  2. ((b))

    UNWJ

  3. ((c))

    TMVI

  4. ((d))

    VOWK

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

UNWJ

The pattern followed here is,

Similarly,

 

Hence, ‘UNWJ’ is the correct answer.

23

The term used for the structure used to transfer genetic information from one cell to the other in genetic engineering is __________.

  1. ((a))

    Carrier

  2. ((b))

    t-­RNA

  3. ((c))

    m-­RNA

  4. ((d))

    Vector

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Vector

The correct answer is Vector.

Key Points

  • A vector is a biological tool in rDNA technology.
  • It is used for the delivery of desired foreign DNA into the host cell.
  • A vector is a DNA molecule that has the ability to replicate autonomously in the host cell and into which DNA fragment to be cloned.

 

Addgene: Molecular Biology Reference

  • Properties of an ideal vector:
  • It should be replicate autonomously.
  • A vector should be less than 10 KB in size.
  • It should be easily isolated and purified.
  • It should be easily introduced into the host cell.
  • It should have suitable marker genes.
  • The vector should consist of unique target sites and recognition sites for various restriction enzymes.
  • It should have the capability to incorporate either itself or the DNA insert in the Genome of the host cell.

Important Points

  • Transfer RNA (tRNA) is a small RNA molecule that is essential for protein synthesis.
  • Transfer RNAs (tRNAs) are molecules that act as temporary carriers of amino acids, bringing the appropriate amino acids to the ribosome based on the nucleotide sequence of the messenger RNA (mRNA). In this way, they serve as bridges between nucleotide and amino acid sequences.
24

In which year was the Madhya Pradesh State Planning Board constituted? 

  1. ((a))

    1961

  2. ((b))

    1972

  3. ((c))

    1983

  4. ((d))

    1994

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1972

The correct answer is 1972.

Key Points

  • The Madhya Pradesh State Planning Board was constituted in the year 1972 to oversee the development and implementation of planning activities in the state.
  • The establishment of the Planning Board was aimed at ensuring coordinated and systematic development of resources within Madhya Pradesh.
  • The Planning Board serves as an advisory body to the state government, providing guidance on economic, social, and infrastructure development projects.
  • The constitution of the board aligns with the broader goals of planned development across India, which were initiated during the era of Five-Year Plans.
  • Madhya Pradesh, being a large state with diverse geographical and socio-economic conditions, required such a body to address regional disparities effectively.

Additional Information

  • State Planning Boards in India:
  • State Planning Boards were established in various states during the second half of the 20th century to support the implementation of the Five-Year Plans at the state level.
  • These boards act as advisory bodies that formulate strategies for economic growth, poverty alleviation, and infrastructure development.
  • Madhya Pradesh State Planning Board:
  • The Planning Board in Madhya Pradesh was established in 1972 to address the specific needs of the state.
  • It focuses on areas such as agriculture, education, healthcare, infrastructure, and industrial development.
  • The board plays a critical role in ensuring balanced development across various regions of the state, considering its diverse geography and socio-economic conditions.
  • Five-Year Plans and State Planning:
  • The concept of planned development in India was introduced with the First Five-Year Plan (1951-56), focusing primarily on agricultural growth.
  • Subsequent plans included provisions for the establishment of state-level planning boards to decentralize planning and ensure localized implementation.
  • Key Features of State Planning Boards:
  • They serve as a bridge between the state and central government in terms of developmental planning.
  • State Planning Boards ensure that regional concerns and priorities are incorporated into the broader planning framework.
  • They identify areas requiring immediate attention, such as drought-prone zones or underdeveloped districts.

Important Points

  • Madhya Pradesh:
  • It is the second-largest state in India by area and has diverse geographical regions such as the Vindhya and Satpura ranges.
  • The state is known for its rich cultural heritage and historical landmarks, including Khajuraho temples and Sanchi Stupa.
  • Agriculture and forestry are major contributors to the state's economy, making planning for these sectors crucial.
  • Historical Context of Planning in India:
  • India adopted centralized planning mechanisms after Independence, inspired by the Soviet model.
  • The establishment of state planning boards was a step toward decentralizing the planning process and addressing regional disparities.
25

The radius of a circular field and the length of a square field are the same. Find the ratio of their perimeters. (take π = 22/7)

  1. ((a))

    2 ∶ 1

  2. ((b))

    1 ∶ 2

  3. ((c))

    4 ∶ 7

  4. ((d))

    11∶ 7

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

11∶ 7

Concept used:

• Perimeter of a circle = 2πr, where r = radius

• Perimeter of a square = 4 × side

Calculation:

According to the question, r = side of the square, then

2πr : 4 × r 

⇒ 2 × 22/7 : 4

⇒ 11 : 7

∴ The correct answer is 11 : 7

26

Bhavya's birthday is on Friday 21st April. On what day of the week will be Zara's Birthday in the same year, if Zara was born on 1st September?

  1. ((a))

    Friday

  2. ((b))

    Monday

  3. ((c))

    Wednesday

  4. ((d))

    Tuesday

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Friday

According to the given information,

Bhavya’s birthday is on April 21, which is Friday.

Zara’s birthday is on 1st September

There is a gap of 133 days between the two dates.

1st September is exactly 19 weeks after 21st April.

1st September is also a Friday.

Hence, “Friday” is the correct answer.

27

Which of the following methods is used for refining impure metals? 

  1. ((a))

    Electrolytic refining 

  2. ((b))

    Painting 

  3. ((c))

    Oiling 

  4. ((d))

    Galvanisation 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Electrolytic refining 

The correct answer is Electrolytic refining.

Key Points

  • Electrolytic refining is a method used to purify impure metals by using electrolysis.
  • In this process, the impure metal is made the anode, and a pure metal strip is made the cathode.
  • An electrolyte solution containing the metal ions is used to facilitate the transfer of metal ions from the anode to the cathode.
  • As a result, the pure metal is deposited on the cathode, while impurities either fall off as anode mud or remain in the solution.
  • This method is commonly used for refining metals like copper, nickel, lead, and zinc.

Additional Information

  • Electrolysis is the process of using an electric current to drive a non-spontaneous chemical reaction.
  • In electrolytic refining, the energy supplied by the electric current helps in the separation of pure metal from its impurities.
  • Anode refers to the electrode where oxidation occurs, while the cathode refers to the electrode where reduction occurs.
  • Anode mud is the insoluble impurities that collect at the bottom of the electrolytic cell during the refining process.
  • This method ensures high purity levels of the refined metal, often exceeding 99.9% purity.
28

Which solar project in Madhya Pradesh is recognized as one of the largest single-side solar plants in the world?

  1. ((a))

    Agar Solar Project

  2. ((b))

    Rewa Solar Project

  3. ((c))

    Omkareshwar Solar Project

  4. ((d))

    Neemuch Solar Project

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Rewa Solar Project

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

Rewa Solar Project:

  • Recognition:
  • The Rewa Solar Project is recognized as one of the largest single-site solar plants in the world. Hence, option 2 is correct.
  • Location:
  • Situated in the Rewa district of Madhya Pradesh.
  • Capacity:
  • The project has a total capacity of 750 MW, divided into three units of 250 MW each.
  • Significance:
  • It has set benchmarks in terms of cost-effectiveness, land utilization, and open-access electricity supply, with Delhi Metro being one of its major beneficiaries.
  • It has been recognized internationally for its contribution to India's renewable energy targets.
  • Impact:
  • The Rewa Solar Project underscores Madhya Pradesh's leadership in solar energy development and contributes significantly to India's green energy goals.
29

If sin θ - cos θ = (\frac{1}{5}), then find the value of sin θ + cos θ.

  1. ((a))

    (\frac{5}{7})

  2. ((b))

    (\frac{7}{5})

  3. ((c))

    (\frac{5}{3})

  4. ((d))

    (\frac{3}{5})

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(\frac{7}{5})

Formula Used:

(sin θ + cos θ)2 + (sin θ - cos θ)2 = 2

Calculation:

(sin θ + cos θ)2 + (sin θ - cos θ)2 = 2

⇒ (sin θ + cos θ)2 + (1/5)2 = 2

⇒ (sin θ + cos θ)2 + (1/25) = 2

⇒ (sin θ + cos θ)2 = 2 - (1/25)

⇒ (sin θ + cos θ)2 = 49/25

⇒ (sin θ + cos θ) = √(49/25)

∴ sin θ + cos θ = 7/5

<br>

Alternate Method

sin θ - cos θ = (\frac{1}{5})

Assuming that, If  base = 3 height is = 4 then hypotenuse = 5

sin θ + cos θ = 4/5 + 3/5 

⇒ 7/5

∴ The correct option is 2

30

You are the officer-in-charge of the relief work in a flood-affected area. Despite your hard work, some people put allegations against you for making money out of the funds given for relief. You will

  1. ((a))

    Stop undertaking such initiatives till the matter is resolved. 

  2. ((b))

    Let an inquiry be set up to look into the matter.

  3. ((c))

    Ask your senior to appoint some other person in your place.

  4. ((d))

    Not pay any attention to the allegations and continue your work.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Not pay any attention to the allegations and continue your work.

The correct answer is Option 4: Not pay any attention to the allegations and continue your work.

StatementCorrectnessReasoning
Stop undertaking such initiatives till the matter is resolved.IncorrectIt shows a lack of dedication and also shows that you cannot take criticism.
Let an inquiry be set up to look into the matter.IncorrectSetting up an inquiry is the work of your seniors, not yours. Your work is to cooperate with the inquiries.
Ask your senior to appoint some other person in your place.IncorrectIt shows a lack of dedication and also shows that you cannot take criticism.
Not pay any attention to the allegationsand continue your work.CorrectWhen you are working honestly then you should not worry about the allegations.

 

  • Qualities Projected in this situation:  (Effective Intelligence, Self-confidence, Courage, Presence of mind, and Speed of decision making).
<br>

Key Points

  • Checklist for attempting SRT questions:
  1. Read the question and options carefully.
  2. Look for options that are realistic, optimistic, and reflect officer-like qualities.
  3. Do not skip any situation.
  4. Relegate the negative sentences and choose the most logical option among the remaining. As time is an important factor, hence your thinking ability should be swift.
  5. React quickly and be logical.
<br>

Additional Information

Officer qualities:

31

The zygote would develop into a female child if the sex determining pair of chromosomes is made up of

  1. ((a))

    A set of XX chromosomes

  2. ((b))

    A set of YY chromosomes

  3. ((c))

    A set of XY chromosomes

  4. ((d))

    Both XX and YY chromosomes

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A set of XX chromosomes

The correct answer is A set of XX chromosomes.

Key Points

  • The sex-determining mechanism in humans is the XY type. Humans contain 23 pairs of chromosomes.
  • The sex of the child is determined by the father's chromosomes.
  • 22 pairs of chromosomes are the same in both males and females, which are called autosomes.
  • The 23rd pair is different in both sexes and is known as the sex chromosome.
  • Females have a pair of X chromosomes and males have X and Y chromosomes as sex chromosomes.
  • Hence, The zygote would develop into a female child if the sex determining pair of chromosomes is made up of a set of XX chromosomes.

Important Points 

  • In humans, the females have XX sex chromosomes while the males have XY chromosomes.
  • Hence, The zygote would develop into a female child if the sex determining pair of chromosomes is made up of a set of XX chromosomes.
  • When the X chromosome of a female unites with the X chromosome of a male, a girl will be born and when the X chromosome of females unites with the Y chromosome of a male, a boy will be born.
  • Thus, the sex chromosome of males (father) determines the sex of the child.​
Mother/FatherXY
XXX (Daughter)XY(Son)
XXX(Daughter)XY(Son)

32

Where is Sarafa Bazar, a culninary delight of the tourists, located? 

  1. ((a))

    Burhanpur

  2. ((b))

    Khajuraho

  3. ((c))

    Bhopal 

  4. ((d))

    Indore

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Indore

The correct answer is Indore.

Key Points

  • Sarafa Bazar is a renowned night market located in Indore, Madhya Pradesh, and is famous for its culinary delights and street food.
  • It transforms into a vibrant food street after 9 PM, showcasing a variety of dishes ranging from traditional Indian snacks to innovative fusion cuisines.
  • The market is not only a hub for food enthusiasts but also attracts tourists for its unique experience of food served amidst a jewelry market during the day.
  • Some of the most popular dishes at Sarafa Bazar include Bhutte ka Kees, Poha, Jalebi, Garadu, and Dahi Bade.
  • Indore is widely recognized as the ‘Food Capital of Madhya Pradesh,’ and Sarafa Bazar plays a significant role in maintaining this reputation.

Additional Information

  • Burhanpur:
  • Located in Madhya Pradesh, Burhanpur is known for its historical monuments and association with the Mughals.
  • It is famous for the Ahukhana, Shahi Qila, and exquisite handloom textiles, particularly the production of traditional Zari work.
  • Khajuraho:
  • Khajuraho, also in Madhya Pradesh, is globally renowned for its UNESCO World Heritage Site featuring stunning erotic sculptures and temples.
  • The temples were built by the Chandela dynasty between the 10th and 12th centuries and are dedicated to Hindu and Jain deities.
  • Bhopal:
  • Bhopal, the capital city of Madhya Pradesh, is well-known for its lakes, earning it the nickname ‘City of Lakes.’
  • It also houses significant historical landmarks such as the Taj-ul-Masjid and Bharat Bhavan and is known for its rich cultural heritage.
  • Indore:
  • Indore is the largest city in Madhya Pradesh and a major commercial and educational hub.
  • It is often referred to as the 'Cleanest City of India' due to its achievements in the Swachh Bharat rankings.
  • Other attractions in Indore include Rajwada Palace, Lal Bagh Palace, and Chhappan Dukaan, another popular food street.

Important Points

  • Madhya Pradesh Tourism:
  • Known as the ‘Heart of India’ due to its central location, Madhya Pradesh boasts diverse attractions such as wildlife sanctuaries, historical sites, and cultural festivals.
  • Famous tourist destinations include Bandhavgarh National Park, Kanha National Park, Orchha, Ujjain, and Sanchi Stupa.
  • Cuisine of Madhya Pradesh:
  • Madhya Pradesh’s cuisine is heavily influenced by neighboring states like Rajasthan and Maharashtra.
  • Signature dishes include Dal Bafla, Poha, Jalebi, Chakki ka Shaak, and a variety of street foods, particularly found in cities like Indore and Bhopal.
33

If the ratio of the curved surface area and volume of a right circular cylinder is 5 ∶ 7, then its radius is:

  1. ((a))

    2.6 unit

  2. ((b))

    2.8 unit

  3. ((c))

    3.8 unit

  4. ((d))

    3.2 unit

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

2.8 unit

Given:

Ratio of the curved surface area and volume of a right circular cylinder =  5 ∶ 7

Formulas used:

Curved surface area of cylinder = 2πrh 

Volume of the cylinder = πr2h

Calculation:

2πrh/πr2h = 5/7 

⇒ 2/r = 5/7 

⇒ 2/r = 5/7

⇒ r = 14/5 = 2.8 units 

∴ The radius of the cylinder is 2.8 units.

34

The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements.

Statements:

  1. Some forces are volumes.

  2. Some currents are volumes.

Conclusion:

I. Some volumes are forces.

II. Some volumes are currents.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion II follows.

  2. ((b))

    Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.

  3. ((c))

    Both conclusions follow.

  4. ((d))

    Only conclusion I follows.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Both conclusions follow.

The least possible Venn diagram is given below-

Conclusion:

I) Some volumes are Forces – True (Definite case)

II) Some volumes are currents – True (Definite case)

So, both conclusion I and conclusion II follows.

35

Which of the following are allotropes of carbon?

 

A) Diamond

B) Graphite

C) Fullerenes

  1. ((a))

    A and B

  2. ((b))

    B and C

  3. ((c))

    A and C

  4. ((d))

    All of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

All of these

The Correct answer is All of these.

Key Points

Diamond-

  • It is a hard, beautiful, crystalline allotrope of carbon.
  • In an atom, each carbon atom is linked to four neighbouring carbon atoms.
  • These have tetrahedral three-dimensional symmetry.
  • Diamond doesn't have free electrons. So. it is a non-conductor of electricity.
  • Diamond is a precious stone used in jewellery.

 

Graphite-

  • It is a soft greyish black crystalline substance.
  • It was discovered in 1795 by scientist 'Nicholas Jacques Conte'.
  • Its's density is 1.9 to 2.3 g/cm3.
  • Each carbon atom is attached to three other carbon atoms forming a 'Hexagonal planar structure'.
  • Free electrons move through the layers of graphite, so graphite is a good conductor of electricity.

 

Fullerene-

  • This is a newly known allotrope of carbon and also known as Bucky Ball.
  • Its C-60 type of carbon atoms area attached in Pentagonal-Hexagonal structure.
  • Scientist Richard Buckminster gave this name to the allotrope according to the circular structure of carbon.
  • It is also used as Lubricants.
36

Mai Ki Bagiya, a groove of mango and banana trees, is situated at which of the following places?

  1. ((a))

    Mandu

  2. ((b))

    Mandsaur 

  3. ((c))

    Amarkantak

  4. ((d))

    Sanchi

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Amarkantak

The correct answer is Amarkantak.

Key Points

  • Mai Ki Bagiya is a famous grove of mango and banana trees located in Amarkantak, a pilgrim town in Madhya Pradesh, India.
  • It is situated near the origin point of the sacred rivers Narmada and Son, adding religious significance to this area.
  • The grove is believed to be associated with Goddess Narmada, and it is said that she used to play in this area during her childhood, according to local legends.
  • Amarkantak is a renowned pilgrim site in India and is often referred to as the "Teerthraj" (King of Pilgrimages), attracting visitors for its scenic beauty and spiritual aura.
  • Mai Ki Bagiya is a natural attraction in Amarkantak, known for its serene environment, lush greenery, and connection to local traditions and beliefs.

Additional Information

  • Amarkantak:
  • Amarkantak is a hill station located in the Anuppur district of Madhya Pradesh, India. It is renowned for its religious and ecological significance.
  • The area is famous for being the origin point of three rivers: Narmada, Son, and Johila.
  • Amarkantak is surrounded by the Vindhya and Satpura ranges and offers stunning views of nature, making it a prime destination for pilgrimage and tourism.
  • The town is often visited for its spiritual sites such as Narmada Udgam Temple, Ancient Temples of Kalachuri Era, and Shri Yantra Mandir.
  • Mai Ki Bagiya:
  • This grove is a culturally significant location in Amarkantak, known for its association with Goddess Narmada in folklore.
  • The area is covered with lush mango and banana trees, providing a tranquil environment for visitors.
  • It is considered an excellent spot for nature lovers and pilgrims seeking serenity and spiritual connection.
  • Other Attractions in Amarkantak:
  • Narmada Udgam Temple: This temple marks the origin of the sacred Narmada River and holds immense religious importance.
  • Kapil Dhara: A waterfall located near Amarkantak, offering breathtaking views and a serene atmosphere.
  • Sonmuda: The originating point of the Son River, known for its picturesque landscapes and sunrise views.
  • Religious Significance:
  • The Narmada River is considered one of the holiest rivers in India, and its origin at Amarkantak adds to the town's spiritual importance.
  • Many pilgrims visit Amarkantak to perform rituals and prayers at the Narmada Udgam Temple and other sacred sites.

Important Points

  • Geographical Features:
  • Amarkantak lies at an elevation of approximately 1,048 meters above sea level, making it a cool and refreshing destination.
  • It is surrounded by dense forests and hills, contributing to its ecological diversity and scenic beauty.
  • Tourism:
  • Amarkantak attracts numerous tourists and pilgrims throughout the year, contributing to the local economy.
  • The serene environment and spiritual landmarks make it a popular choice for meditation, photography, and sightseeing.
37

If x + y = 4 and x3 + y3 = 12, then the value of x4 + y4 = ?

  1. ((a))

    146/9

  2. ((b))

    146/3

  3. ((c))

    146/5

  4. ((d))

    146/7

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

146/9

Given:

x + y = 4

x3 + y3 = 12

Formula Used:

x2 + y2 = (x + y)2 – 2xy

x3 + y3 = (x + y) (x2 – xy + y2)

x4 + x4 = (x2 + y2)2 – 2x2y2

Calculation:

x3 + y3 = (x + y) (x2 – xy + y2)

⇒ 12 = 4 × (x2 – xy + y2)

⇒ x2 + y2 = 3 + xy

⇒ (x + y)2 – 2xy = 3 + xy

⇒ 42 – 3 = 3xy

⇒ xy = (16 – 3)/3

⇒ xy = 13/3

x4 + y4 = (x2 + y2)2 – 2x2y2

⇒ (3 + xy)2 – 2 × (13/3)2

⇒ [3 + (13/3)]2 – 2 × (169/9)

⇒ [(9 + 13)/9]2 – 338/9

⇒ (484/9) – 338/9

⇒ (484 – 338)/9

⇒ 146/9

The value of x4 + y4 is 146/9.

38

 Seven boxes, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. No box is kept above F. Only three boxes are kept between F and B. Only one box is kept between G and D. D is kept immediately above B. Only four boxes are kept between G and C. A is kept in some place above E. How many boxes are kept below D?

  1. ((a))

    3

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    1

  4. ((d))

    2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

3

Given: Seven boxes, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.

  1. No box is kept above F.

This means F is the topmost box (Position 7).

  1. Only three boxes are kept between F and B.

  2. D is kept immediately above B.

7F
6
5
4D
3B
2
1

 

  1. Only one box is kept between G and D.

Let's consider two cases:

Case 1: G is at 2

7F
6
5
4D
3B
2G
1

Case 2: G is at 6

7F
6G
5
4D
3B
2
1

 

  1. Only four boxes are kept between G and C.

Consider Case 1 (G is at 2): If G is at 2, and there are 4 boxes between G and C, then C must be at 7 However, F is already at 7. So, Case 1 is not possible.

Consider Case 2 (G is at 6): If G is at 6, and there are 4 boxes between G and C, then C must be at 1 (6 - 4 - 1 = 1).

  1. A is kept in some place above E.
7F
6G
5A
4D
3B
2E
1C

 

Thus, there are 3 boxes kept below D.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

39

Silk is obtained from which stage of silkworm?

  1. ((a))

    Egg

  2. ((b))

    Pupa

  3. ((c))

    Adult

  4. ((d))

    Larva

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Pupa

Concept:

Life Cycle of Silkworm: 

  • Stage 1:The cycle starts when female silk moth lays eggs.
  • Stage 2: The caterpillar of larvae is hatched from the eggs of the silkmoth and they feed on mulberry leaves and consume a large amount of these leaves for around 30 days.
  • Stage 3::The silkworm spin a protective cocoon around itself.it is the size of a small cotton ball and is made of a single thread of silk.
  • Stage 4: Then Pupa changes into an adult moth. The female moth lays eggs after mating and thus the life cycle of silkworm begins again.

Explanation:

  • Silk is extracted from the cocoon that is spun by the pupa.
  • The word caterpillar is applied to the larval stages of all species in the insect.
  • "Silkworms" are the caterpillars of a particular species of a moth: namely Bombyx mori.
  • Silkworm is the larval stage of silk moth and is a more specific term whereas, the caterpillar is a broad term representing the larval stage of any lepidopteran insect.​​
40

Match the crop with its respective district:

CropTop producing District
1. RiceA) Rewa
2. WheatB) Dhar
3. SoybeanC) Ujjain
4. MaizeD) Chhindwara
  1. ((a))

    1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4- A

  2. ((b))

    1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4- D

  3. ((c))

    1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4- B

  4. ((d))

    1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4- D

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4- D

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

CropTop producing District
RiceRewa
WheatDhar
SoybeanUjjain
MaizeChhindwara
41

The average of 40 numbers is 36. The average of the first 25 numbers is 31 and the average of last 16 numbers is 43. Find the 25th number.

  1. ((a))

    21

  2. ((b))

    23

  3. ((c))

    24

  4. ((d))

    22

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

23

Given:

An average of 40 numbers = 36

average of the first 25 numbers = 31

Average of last 16 numbers = 43

Calculation:

⇒ {(31 × 25) + (16 × 43)} – (40 × 36)

⇒ {775 + 688} – 1440

⇒ 1463 – 1440

⇒ 23

∴ The 25th number is 23.  

<br>

Shortcut Trick 

<br>

GIven average = 36 

<br>

Missing number. = average + (higher avg. - avg ) × carry a higher average of candidate - (avg - lower avg) × carry a lower average of the candidate 

<br>

So, the 25th number. =  36 + (43 - 36) 16 - (36 - 31) 25

<br>

⇒ 36 + 112 - 125 = 23

42

Three different positions of the same dice are shown. What will be the number on the face opposite to the side having ‘1’?

  1. ((a))

    3

  2. ((b))

    6

  3. ((c))

    2

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

4

From the given figure, we can tell that

‘6’ is facing opposite to ‘3’.

‘2’ is opposite to ‘5’.

And,

‘4’ is opposite to the side having ‘1’.

Hence, “4” is the correct answer.

43

What is the chemical formula of alcohol?

  1. ((a))

    C2H5OH

  2. ((b))

    C2H5

  3. ((c))

    C2H5COOH

  4. ((d))

    C2H5O

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

C2H5OH

The correct answer is C2H5OH

Explanation:

  • Alcohols are organic compounds in which a hydroxyl group (-OH) is attached to a carbon atom. The general formula for alcohols is R-OH, where R represents an alkyl group.
  • Ethanol (C2H5OH) is the most common type of alcohol, and it is widely used in beverages, as a solvent, and in the pharmaceutical industry.
  • The molecular formula of ethanol is C2H5OH, which indicates it consists of two carbon atoms, six hydrogen atoms, and one oxygen atom, with the hydroxyl group attached to one of the carbon atoms.

Other Options:

  • C2H5: This formula represents an ethyl group, which is an alkyl group derived from ethane (C2H6) by removing one hydrogen atom.
  • C2H5COOH: This is the chemical formula for propanoic acid, a carboxylic acid. It contains a carboxyl group (-COOH) instead of a hydroxyl group.
44

Which two major wildlife reserves are involved in the MP-Rajasthan Cheetah Conservation panel?

  1. ((a))

    Kuno National Park and Ranthambore National Park

  2. ((b))

    Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve and Sariska Tiger Reserve

  3. ((c))

    Pench Tiger Reserve and Keoladeo National Park

  4. ((d))

    Satpura National Park and Desert National Park

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kuno National Park and Ranthambore National Park

The correct answer is option 1

Key Points

  • Kuno National Park (Madhya Pradesh) is the primary site for the cheetah reintroduction project.
  • Ranthambore National Park (Rajasthan) is being considered as a potential site for additional cheetah relocation.
  • The panel is working on addressing issues of cheetah dispersal and establishing sustainable habitats in Rajasthan.
  • The joint corridor management committee was formed to handle issues related to cheetahs straying from Kuno National Park (Madhya Pradesh) into Rajasthan.
  • This initiative ensures better wildlife management and explores suitable relocation areas for cheetahs in Rajasthan.

Additional Information

  • Cheetahs were declared extinct in India in 1952, primarily due to overhunting and habitat destruction.
  • Project Cheetah, launched in 2022, aims to restore the species by bringing cheetahs from Namibia and South Africa.
  • The reintroduction effort is expected to boost biodiversity and restore ecological balance in grassland ecosystems.
  • Kuno National Park (MP) is currently the primary site for Project Cheetah, where cheetahs from Namibia and South Africa were reintroduced in 2022.
45

A sum of Rs. 7,560 is divided between A, B and C such that if their shares are diminished by Rs. 400, Rs. 300 and Rs. 260, respectively, then their shares are in the ratio 4 ∶ 2 ∶ 5. What is the original share of B?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 1,500

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 1,200

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 2,400

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 2,700

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rs. 1,500

Given :

Sum of Rs. 7560 is divided among A,B and C

If Rs 400, 300 and 260 is taken from A,B and C respectively then their shares  ratio is 4 ∶ 2 ∶ 5

Calculation :

Shares of A,B and C is diminished by Rs. 400, Rs. 300 and Rs. 260 respectively

Diminished sum = Rs.7560 - (400 + 300 +260)

⇒ Rs.6600

The new ratio is 4 ∶ 2 ∶ 5 = 11 units 

⇒ 11 units = Rs. 6600

⇒ 1 unit = Rs. 600

⇒ Share of B after diminishing  = 2 × 600

⇒ Rs. 1200

 B was diminished by Rs. 300

∴ Original share of B is Rs. 1500

46

Identify the figure given in the options that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The series follows Step 1 and Step 2 on alternative basis to get the subsequent images of the series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

47

The cheapest source of Vitamin D is?

  1. ((a))

    Sunlight

  2. ((b))

    Fish

  3. ((c))

    Egg

  4. ((d))

    Pulses

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sunlight

The correct answer is Sunlight.

Key Points

  • Sunlight is the most natural and cost-free source of Vitamin D. Ultraviolet B (UVB) rays from sunlight trigger Vitamin D synthesis in the skin.
  • Vitamin D produced from sunlight exposure is stored in the liver and fat tissue, where it can be utilized by the body when required.
  • Regular exposure to sunlight for about 10-30 minutes (depending on skin type, geographic location, and time of day) is sufficient to meet the daily Vitamin D requirement for most individuals.
  • Unlike dietary sources, sunlight does not involve any monetary cost, making it the cheapest and most accessible source of Vitamin D.
  • Deficiency of Vitamin D is common in regions with limited sunlight exposure or during winter months, underscoring the importance of sunlight for maintaining optimal levels.

Additional Information

  • Vitamin D:
  • Vitamin D is a fat-soluble vitamin essential for calcium absorption, bone health, and immune function.
  • The two main forms are Vitamin D2 (ergocalciferol) and Vitamin D3 (cholecalciferol), with D3 being more effective in raising blood levels of the vitamin.
  • Sources of Vitamin D:
  • Natural sources include sunlight, fatty fish (like salmon, mackerel, and sardines), egg yolks, and fortified foods such as milk, cereals, and orange juice.
  • Vitamin D supplements are widely available for individuals unable to meet their requirements through sunlight or diet.
  • Health Benefits of Vitamin D:
  • Supports strong and healthy bones by promoting calcium and phosphorus absorption.
  • Plays a critical role in immune system regulation and reducing inflammation.
  • May help reduce the risk of chronic diseases such as osteoporosis, cardiovascular issues, and certain cancers.
  • Risk Factors for Deficiency:
  • Limited sunlight exposure, use of sunscreen, darker skin pigmentation, and aging reduce the skin’s ability to synthesize Vitamin D.
  • Individuals with malabsorption conditions (e.g., Crohn’s disease) or those following strict vegetarian/vegan diets may also be at risk.
48

Where is the 22nd All India Annual TDS Conference being held?

  1. ((a))

    Jaipur

  2. ((b))

    Bhopal

  3. ((c))

    Lucknow

  4. ((d))

    Pune

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Bhopal

The correct answer is Bhopal.

In News

  • Bhopal is hosting the 22nd All India Annual TDS Conference, organised by the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT).

Key Points

  • The 22nd TDS Conference is being held in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh.
  • Senior CBDT officials, including the Chairman, are inaugurating the event.
  • Key focus areas include amendments in the Income Tax Act, 2025, especially revised TDS provisions.
  • The conference also highlights digital tools like automated TDS tracking and analytics dashboards.

Additional Information

  • CBDT
  • Apex body administering direct taxes in India.
  • Responsible for policy formulation, implementation, and enforcement.
  • Organises annual TDS conferences to review compliance and strengthen systems.
  • TDS (Tax Deducted at Source)
  • Mechanism ensuring tax collection at the time of income generation.
  • Recent amendments aim to simplify compliance and reduce litigation.
  • Critical for transparency and voluntary tax culture.
  • Digital Initiatives
  • Automated TDS monitoring systems under implementation.
  • Data-driven analytics to identify mismatches and compliance gaps.
  • Online platforms designed for faster grievance redressal.
  • Key Participants
  • Principal Chief Commissioners, Chief Commissioners, DGs, and senior TDS officers.
  • Provide policy inputs and discuss nationwide compliance challenges.
  • Focus on implementing new compounding guidelines effectively.
49

If (\rm k - \frac{3}{k} = 5), then what is the value of (\rm k^2 + \frac{9}{k^2}) ?

  1. ((a))

    31

  2. ((b))

    11

  3. ((c))

    25

  4. ((d))

    19

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

31

Shortcut Trick

If the expression is in the form x − a/x = n, then the value of x2 + a2/x2 = n2 + 2a.

Given: k − 3/k = 5. Here, x = k, a = 3, and n = 5.

Applying the shortcut: k2 + 9/k2 = 52 + 2(3) = 25 + 6 = 31.

∴ The correct answer is 31.

Alternate Method

Given:

k − 3/k = 5

Formula Used:

(a − b)2 = a2 + b2 − 2ab

Calculations:

⇒ k − 3/k = 5

Squaring both sides of the equation:

⇒ (k − 3/k)2 = 52

⇒ k2 + (3/k)2 − 2 × k × (3/k) = 25

⇒ k2 + 9/k2 − 2 × 3 = 25

⇒ k2 + 9/k2 − 6 = 25

⇒ k2 + 9/k2 = 25 + 6

⇒ k2 + 9/k2 = 31

∴ The correct answer is 31.

Additional Information

Algebraic Identity for Square of a Sum

(x + y)2 = x2 + y2 + 2xy. If x + a/x = n, then x2 + a2/x2 = n2 − 2a.

Algebraic Identity for Square of a Difference

(x − y)2 = x2 + y2 − 2xy. This is used to derive relations between linear and quadratic terms.

Difference of Two Squares

x2 − y2 = (x − y)(x + y). Useful for simplifying products of conjugate algebraic terms.

50

What will be the value of the given expression if ‘A’ means ‘+’, ‘B’ means ‘-’, ‘C’ means ‘×’ and ‘D’ means ‘÷’

15 C 7 B (24 D 8) A 16 C 4 B 21 D 3

  1. ((a))

    179

  2. ((b))

    165

  3. ((c))

    159

  4. ((d))

    151

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

159

Decoding the information, 

SignABCD
Means+-×÷

Given:

15 C 7 B (24 D 8) A 16 C 4 B 21 D 3

After replacing the signs from left to right and using the BODMAS rule,

15 × 7 - (24 ÷ 8) + 16 × 4 - 21 ÷ 3

= 15 × 7 - 3 + 16 × 4 - 7

= 105 - 3 + 64 - 7

= 169 - 10

= 159

Hence, “159” is the correct answer.

51

A combination of two lenses of power +2.0 D and -0.25 D is equivalent to a single lens of power:

  1. ((a))

    +1.75 D

  2. ((b))

    +2.25 D

  3. ((c))

    -3.5 D

  4. ((d))

    +1.25 D

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

+1.75 D

The correct answer is +1.75 D.

Key Points

  • The power of a lens is measured in diopters (D).
  • The power of a combination of lenses is equal to the algebraic sum of the powers of the individual lenses.
  • Given lens powers: +2.0 D and -0.25 D.
  • To find the equivalent power, add the powers of the two lenses:
  • +2.0 D + (-0.25 D) = +1.75 D.
  • Thus, the combination of these two lenses is equivalent to a single lens of power +1.75 D.

 Additional Information

  • Lens Power
  • Diopter (D) is the unit of measurement for the optical power of a lens.
  • A lens with a power of +1 diopter brings parallel rays of light to focus at 1 meter.
  • The power of a lens is the reciprocal of its focal length in meters (P = 1/f).
  • Positive power indicates a converging lens, while negative power indicates a diverging lens.
  • Combination of Lenses
  • When lenses are combined, their individual powers add algebraically.
  • This is useful in optical instruments like microscopes and telescopes.
  • It is important to consider the sign of the power for accurate calculations.
52

 Van Vihar National Park is located adjacent to which important lake in Bhopal?

  1. ((a))

    Upper Lake (Bada Talab)

  2. ((b))

     Lower Lake (Chhota Talab)

  3. ((c))

    Shivpuri Lake

  4. ((d))

    Tawa Reservoir

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Upper Lake (Bada Talab)

The correct answer is option 1

Key Points

  • Van Vihar National Park is situated along the banks of Upper Lake (Bada Talab) in Bhopal, offering a scenic natural habitat for wildlife.
  • Upper Lake is the largest artificial lake in Madhya Pradesh, providing water supply and ecological balance to the city.
  • Unlike traditional national parks, Van Vihar is managed by the Madhya Pradesh Forest Department, focusing on wildlife rehabilitation and conservation education.
  • The park follows Central Zoo Authority guidelines for captive animals but is not classified as a traditional wildlife sanctuary.
53

An article was sold for Rs. 512 after giving two equal successive discounts on the marked price of Rs. 800. The percentage discount offered is:

  1. ((a))

    18%

  2. ((b))

    16%

  3. ((c))

    20%

  4. ((d))

    15%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

20%

Given:

SP = Rs.512

MP = Rs.800

Calculation:

⇒ 512 = 800 × (100 - ? /100)

⇒ ? = 36%

Single discount = 36%

Let two equal discounts be a%.

⇒ 36 = (a + a - a2/100)

⇒ a2 - 200a + 3600 = 0

⇒ a2 - 180a - 20a + 3600 = 0

⇒ a(a - 180) - 20(a - 180) = 0

a = 180% or a = 20%

∴ % discount offered is 20%.

Shortcut Trick

According to the question, M.P = 800 and S.P = 512

Now, M.P : S.P = 800 : 512 = 400 : 256

Here, two equal successive discounts have given,

So, after one discount the ratio becomes,

⇒ M.P : S.P = √400 : √256

⇒ M.P : S.P = 20 : 16

Now, discount% is (20 - 16)/20 × 100 = 20%

54

Rohit is having his AirForce Agniveer Vayu Group X physical exam. While practicing for 100 m, his leg got sprained. He will 

  1. ((a))

    Place hot pack and elevate it.

  2. ((b))

    Place an ice pack and elevate it.

  3. ((c))

    Ignore it and will continue his training by taking painkillers.

  4. ((d))

    Massage that part.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Place an ice pack and elevate it.

The correct answer is Option 2: Place an ice pack and elevate it.

StatementCorrectnessReasoning
Place hot pack and elevate it.IncorrectYou should not apply heat over a sprain or fracture.
Place an ice pack and elevate it.CorrectThis shows you have the speed of decision and effective intelligence. Immediately placing an ice pack and elevating the leg can prevent swelling and reducing pain.
Ignore it and will continue his training by taking painkillers.IncorrectThis can lead to more complications.
Massage that part.IncorrectYou should never massage a sprain or fracture.

 

  • Qualities Projected in this situation:  (Speed of decision and effective intelligence).

Key Points

  • Checklist for attempting SRT questions:
  1. Read the question and options carefully.
  2. Look for options that are realistic, optimistic, and reflect officer-like qualities.
  3. Do not skip any situation.
  4. Relegate the negative sentences and choose the most logical option among the remaining. As time is an important factor, hence your thinking ability should be swift.
  5. React quickly and be logical.

Additional Information

Officer qualities:

55

The electrical device used for converting mechanical energy into electrical energy is called

  1. ((a))

    voltmeter

  2. ((b))

    ammeter

  3. ((c))

    motor

  4. ((d))

    generator

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

generator

The correct option is generator. 

Key Points

Generator:

  • An electric generator is a device that is used to convert mechanical energy into electric energy.
  • It is also known as a dynamo.
  • An electric generator works on the Electromagnetic Induction Principle.
  • The Principle of Electromagnetic Induction states that when a conductor is connected with a changing flux, it will induce an emf across it. The value of induced emf across the conductor depends on the rate of change of flux connected with the conductor.

Additional Information

  • A voltmeter is an instrument used for measuring the electric potential difference between two points in an electric circuit. It is connected in parallel
  • An ammeter, is an instrument for measuring either direct or alternating electric current, in amperes.
  • An electric motor is a device in which electrical energy is converted into mechanical energy
56

 The modernized Head Post Office in Madhya Pradesh is being constructed in which district?

  1. ((a))

     Indore

  2. ((b))

     Bhopal

  3. ((c))

    Ashoknagar

  4. ((d))

    Jabalpur

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Ashoknagar

The correct answer is option 2

Key Points

  • A new Head Post Office is being constructed in Ashoknagar at a cost of ₹2.1 crore.
  • It aims to provide modernized postal services with automated parcel sorting, biometric authentication, and ATMs.
  • The modernization of post offices aligns with the Digital India initiative, focusing on technology-enabled postal services to improve accessibility.
  • The Post Office Act of 2023 replaced the 1898 Act, enhancing India Post’s service efficiency and outreach.
57

In an election, candidate X got 70% of the overall valid votes. If 20% of the overall votes were declared invalid and the total numbers of votes is 640000, then find the number of valid votes polled in favour of the candidate.

  1. ((a))

    400000

  2. ((b))

    358000

  3. ((c))

    450000

  4. ((d))

    358400

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

358400

Given:

Total number of vote = 640000

Invalid vote = 20%

X got overall valid vote = 70%

Concept used:

Percentage base question

If a% of b so = b × (a/100)

Calculation:

We will find the invalid vote

20% of 640000

⇒ 640000 × (20/100)

⇒ 12800

Valid vote = 640000 – 128000 = 512000

Candidate X got 70% of the overall valid vote

⇒ 512000 × (70/100)

⇒ 358400

∴The number of valid votes polled in favor of the candidate is 358400.

58

There are five boxes K, L, M, N and O, arranged one above the other. Box M is placed above box N. Box O is placed below box K. Box N is placed above K. Box L is placed below O. Which among the following is the bottom most box?

  1. ((a))

    O

  2. ((b))

    L

  3. ((c))

    K

  4. ((d))

    M

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

L

Given that:-

  • Box M is placed above box N.
  • Box O is placed below box K.
  • Box L is placed below O.
  • Box N is placed above K.

  • After combining the statements:-

  • Thus, L is the bottom-most box.

Hence, "option 2" is the correct answer.

59

What distinguishes a plant cell from an animal cell?

  1. ((a))

    Nucleus

  2. ((b))

    Presence of Cytoplasm

  3. ((c))

    Presence of Cell Membrane

  4. ((d))

    Presence of Cell Wall

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Presence of Cell Wall

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

  • The cell wall is the outer covering of a cell. It surrounds the plasma membrane of plant cells and provides tensile strength and protection against mechanical and osmotic stress.
  • The cell wall is present in plant cells and absent in animal cells. Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.

Additional Information

  • The plasma membrane (also called the cell membrane) is the membrane found in all cells that separates the interior of the cell from the outside environment.
  • In bacterial and plant cells, a cell wall is attached to the plasma membrane on its outside surface.
  • The plasma membrane is present in both plant cells and animal cells.
  • A vacuole is a membrane-bound cell organelle.
  • In animal cells, vacuoles are generally small and help sequester waste products.
  • In plant cells, vacuoles help maintain water balance.
60

What does the acronym PARTH stand for in the PARTH Yojana introduced by the Madhya Pradesh government?

  1. ((a))

    Police Army Recruitment Training and Hunar

  2. ((b))

    Patriotism and Recruitment Training Hub

  3. ((c))

    Physical Aptitude and Recruitment Training for Heroes

  4. ((d))

    Professional Army Recruitment and Tactical Hiring

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Police Army Recruitment Training and Hunar

The correct answer is ​Police Army Recruitment Training and Hunar.

In News

  • Madhya Pradesh Launches PARTH Yojana Initiative

Key Points

  • PARTH Yojana is aimed at empowering youth for careers in defence and law enforcement by enhancing their physical and mental preparedness.
  • The initiative provides structured training in physical fitness, written exam coaching, and personality development for candidates aspiring to join the Indian Army, police, and paramilitary forces.
  • Training centres will be set up at divisional levels across Madhya Pradesh, with district officers overseeing their implementation.
  • The scheme is led by Chief Minister Mohan Yadav, with Vishwas Sarang serving as the Minister of Sports and Youth Welfare.
61

Sachin’s income is 25% more than Dileep’s income. By how much percentage is Dileep’s income less than Sachin’s income ?

  1. ((a))

    15%

  2. ((b))

    20%

  3. ((c))

    18%

  4. ((d))

    22%

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

20%

Given : 

Sachin's income is 25% more than Dileep's.

Calculations :

Let the income of Dileep be 100x 

Sachins's income = 100x + 25% of 100x

⇒ 125x 

Now, 

Required percent = (Sachin's income - Dileep's income)/(Sachin's income) × 100 

⇒ (125x - 100x)/(125x) × 100 

⇒ (25x/125x) × 100

⇒ 20% 

∴ Correct answer is option 2.

62

statements is true, even if they appear to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements beyond reasonable doubt.

Statements:

No cat is a monkey.

No monkey is a cow.

Conclusions:

I. No cat is a cow.

II. Some cows are monkeys.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follows.

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows.

  3. ((c))

    Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.

  4. ((d))

    Both conclusions I and II follow.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.

The least possible Venn diagram is,

Conclusion I: No cat is a cow → False (This is possible but not definite)

Conclusion II: Some cows are monkeys → False (This is definitely false)

Hence, “neither conclusion I nor conclusion II” follows.

63

Which of the following is NOT a major tributary of the Narmada River?

  1. ((a))

     Tawa

  2. ((b))

    Goi

  3. ((c))

     Barna

  4. ((d))

     Parbati

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

 Parbati

The correct answer is Parbati.

Key Points

  • Tributaries like Tawa, Goi, and Barna flow into the Narmada River.
  • However, the Parbati River is an independent river flowing in northern Madhya Pradesh.
64

The average of the ages of Sonu, Hari and Govind is 30 years. If their ages are in the ratio of 4 : 5: 6 respectively, then the difference between the ages of Sonu and Govind is:

  1. ((a))

    18 years

  2. ((b))

    21 years

  3. ((c))

    15 years

  4. ((d))

    12 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

12 years

Given 

The average age of Sonu, Hari and Govind = 30 years

Formula Used 

Average = Sum of observation/No. of observation

Calculation

⇒ Sum of age = 30 × 3 = 90 

⇒ let the age of Sonu, Hari and Govind be 4x, 5x and 6x 

⇒ 4x + 5x + 6x = 90 

⇒ 15x = 90 

⇒ x = 6 

⇒ Difference between the ages of Sonu and Govind = 6x - 4x 

⇒ 2x = 2 × 6 = 12 years 

∴  the difference between the ages of Sonu and Govind is 12 years

65

In a certain code, if:

(i) A - Z means A is the father of Z. 

(ii) A + Z means A is the brother of Z. 

(iii) A $ Z means A is the sister of Z.

(iv) A # Z means A is the mother of Z.

I + N $ R – U # S + H

How is R related to H in the given expression?

  1. ((a))

    Daughter

  2. ((b))

    Maternal grandfather

  3. ((c))

    Son

  4. ((d))

    Paternal grandfather

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Maternal grandfather

Making the family tree using following symbols:

On decoding the given information:

A is
Symbols-+$#
MeaningFatherBrotherSisterMother
To Z

Making the final family tree according to the given expression 'I + N $ R – U # S + H':

As we can see, R is maternal grandfather of H.

Hence, the correct answer is "Maternal Grandfather".

66

The Kumbh Mela of ______ is also known as 'Simhastha'.

  1. ((a))

     Ujjain

  2. ((b))

    Satna 

  3. ((c))

    Bhopal

  4. ((d))

    Indore

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

 Ujjain

The correct answer is Ujjain.

Key Points

  • The Kumbh Mela held in Ujjain is referred to as 'Simhastha'.
  • Simhastha Kumbh Mela is celebrated in Ujjain every 12 years when Jupiter is in the zodiac sign of Leo (Simha).
  • Ujjain is one of the four locations where Kumbh Mela is held, the others being Prayagraj, Haridwar, and Nashik.
  • The holy river associated with Ujjain's Kumbh Mela is the Shipra River, which is considered sacred by Hindus.
  • The Simhastha Kumbh Mela attracts millions of pilgrims who gather to take a sacred dip in the Shipra River and participate in religious rituals.

Additional Information

  • Kumbh Mela
  • The Kumbh Mela is one of the largest religious gatherings in the world and is celebrated at four locations: Haridwar, Prayagraj, Ujjain, and Nashik.
  • It is held every 12 years at each location, based on the alignment of celestial bodies.
  • The festival is deeply rooted in Hindu mythology, symbolizing spiritual cleansing and salvation.
  • Millions of devotees gather to take a holy dip in the rivers considered sacred at respective locations.
  • Simhastha Kumbh Mela
  • The term 'Simhastha' is derived from the zodiac sign Simha (Leo), as the event is linked to celestial movements.
  • Ujjain's Simhastha holds cultural and spiritual significance, as Ujjain is considered a holy city in Hinduism.
  • It is associated with the Shipra River and has a unique identity among the Kumbh Mela events.
  • Prominent rituals include bathing in the river, religious discourses, and cultural performances.
  • Shipra River
  • The Shipra River flows through Ujjain and is regarded as sacred in Hinduism.
  • Mythologically, it is believed to have originated from the churning of the ocean (Samudra Manthan).
  • Bathing in the Shipra River during Simhastha is believed to cleanse sins and lead to spiritual liberation.
  • Astrological Significance
  • The timing of the Kumbh Mela is determined by the positions of Jupiter, Sun, and Moon in specific zodiac signs.
  • Simhastha in Ujjain occurs when Jupiter is in the zodiac sign of Leo and the Sun is in Aries.
  • Astrological alignments are considered auspicious for spiritual practices and rituals.
67

The ratio of the incomes of Amar and Komal is 5 ∶ 4 and the ratio of their expenditure is 2 ∶ 1. If each of them saves Rs. 6,000 per month, find Amar’s income.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 12000

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 8000

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 6000

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 10000

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Rs. 10000

Given:

Ratio of income of Amar & Komal is 5 : 4

Ratio of expenditure of Amar & Komal is 2 : 1

They both saves 6000 Rupees

Calculations:

Let the income of Amar & Komal be 5x & 4x

Let the expenditure of Amar and Komal be 2y & y.

We know that

Savings = Income - Expenditure

So

⇒ 5x – 2y = 6000      ----(1)  (saving of Amar)

⇒ 4x – y = 6000       ----(2) ( saving of Komal)

Solving both equations, we get

⇒ x= 2000 & y = 2000

Amar’s income = 5x = 10000

∴ The correct choice is option 4.

68

If 'A & B' means 'A is the brother of B', 'A # B' means 'A is the daughter of B', and 'A @ B' means 'A is the wife of B', then how is K related to Z in the following expression?

'Z @ R & T # H @ K'

  1. ((a))

    Paternal uncle

  2. ((b))

    Father-in-law

  3. ((c))

    Paternal grandfather

  4. ((d))

    Father

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Father-in-law

By using the symbols in the table given below, we can draw the following family tree:

A is
Symbol&#@
Meaningbrotherdaughterwife
to B

 

Z @ R & T # H @ K → Z is wife of R, R is brother of T, T is daughter of H, H is wife of K.

Clearly, K is father-in-law of Z.

Hence, ‘Father-in-law’ is the correct answer.

69

Which department of the Madhya Pradesh Government runs Vikramaditya Yojana?

  1. ((a))

    Department of Home

  2. ((b))

    Department of Agriculture

  3. ((c))

    Department of Rural Development

  4. ((d))

    Department of Higher Education

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Department of Higher Education

The correct answer is Department of Higher Education.

Key Points

  • The Vikramaditya Yojana is a scheme launched by the Madhya Pradesh government under the Department of Higher Education.
  • This scheme provides financial assistance to students belonging to economically weaker sections for pursuing higher education.
  • Eligibility criteria include students from Scheduled Castes (SC) and General categories with a family income below a certain threshold.
  • Under this scheme, the government covers tuition fees, examination fees, and other educational expenses for eligible students.
  • The scheme aims to promote inclusive education and reduce economic barriers faced by underprivileged students in Madhya Pradesh.

Additional Information

  • Scholarship Schemes in India
  • India has various scholarship schemes to support students from marginalized communities, including SC/ST, OBC, and economically weaker sections.
  • Some central government schemes include Post-Matric Scholarships, National Means-Cum-Merit Scholarship, and Central Sector Scheme of Scholarships for College and University Students.
  • State governments also implement region-specific schemes to cater to local educational needs.
  • Higher Education in Madhya Pradesh
  • Madhya Pradesh has several universities and institutions that focus on higher education, including Devi Ahilya Vishwavidyalaya and Rani Durgavati Vishwavidyalaya.
  • The state government is actively working to improve access to education through various initiatives like the Vikramaditya Yojana.
  • Role of the Department of Higher Education
  • The Department of Higher Education in Madhya Pradesh oversees the development of universities, colleges, and educational schemes in the state.
  • Its primary focus is to enhance accessibility, equity, and quality in higher education.
  • Government Efforts for Education
  • The Indian government has allocated significant resources to ensure education for all through initiatives like Right to Education Act and Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan.
  • State-level programs complement these efforts to address regional disparities in education.
70

Three persons namely Govind, Rahim and Sudhir can complete a work in 8, 12 and 15 days, respectively. The time taken to complete the work when they work together is:

  1. ((a))

    40/11 days

  2. ((b))

    4 days

  3. ((c))

    53/11 days

  4. ((d))

    6 days

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

40/11 days

Given:

Three persons namely Govind, Rahim, and Sudhir can complete the work in 8, 12, and 15 days, respectively. 

Concept used:

Total work = Work done per day × Total time taken

Calculation:

LCM (8, 12, 15) = 120

Let the total work be 120 units.

Efficiencies,

Govind = 120/8 = 15 units a day

Rahim = 120/12 = 10 units a day

Sudhir = 120/15 = 8 units a day

Now, the time taken to complete the work when they work together

⇒ 120/(15 + 10 + 8)

⇒ 40/11 days

∴  The time taken to complete the work when they work together is 40/11 days.

71

In a certain code language, ‘FELLOW’ is coded as 'FDNLNY'. What is the code for ‘GOLDEN' in that code language? 

  1. ((a))

    GNNEDQ

  2. ((b))

    DNNDDQ

  3. ((c))

    GNNDDP

  4. ((d))

    GNNDEP

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

GNNDDP

The logic followed here is:

For, ‘FELLOW' is coded as "FDNLNY’,

Similarly, for 'GOLDEN'

So, 'GOLDEN' is coded as 'GNNDDP'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

72

Which wildlife sanctuary in Madhya Pradesh is set to become the third home for cheetahs after Kuno National Park and Gandhi Sagar Sanctuary?

  1. ((a))

    Satpura Tiger Reserve

  2. ((b))

    Nauradehi Wildlife Sanctuary

  3. ((c))

    Ghatigaon Wildlife Sanctuary

  4. ((d))

    Omkareshwar Wildlife Sanctuary

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Nauradehi Wildlife Sanctuary

The correct answer is Nauradehi Wildlife Sanctuary.

In News

  • Nauradehi Sanctuary in Madhya Pradesh will become the third home for cheetahs in the state after Kuno National Park and Gandhi Sagar Sanctuary.

Key Points

  • The sanctuary is located across Sagar, Damoh, and Narsinghpur districts of Madhya Pradesh.
  • It was established in 1975 and serves as an ecological corridor between Panna and Satpura Tiger Reserves.
  • Cheetahs will be brought from Namibia in Africa and released into the sanctuary as part of a reintroduction program.
  • It is home to rivers like Kopra, Bamner, Vyarma, and Bearma—tributaries of the Ken River.

Additional Information

  • Kuno National Park
  • Located in Sheopur district, Madhya Pradesh.
  • Became India’s first cheetah reintroduction site in 2022.
  • Spread over 748 sq km.
  • Gandhi Sagar Sanctuary
  • Located on the northern boundary of Mandsaur and Neemuch districts.
  • Selected as the second home for cheetahs in Madhya Pradesh.
  • Nauradehi Wildlife Sanctuary
  • Flora: Tropical Dry Deciduous.
  • Keystone species: Indian wolf.
  • Omkareshwar Wildlife Sanctuary (proposed)
  • To be established in western Madhya Pradesh.
  • Located near the Narmada River and Indira Sagar Dam.
73

₹10,000 is borrowed for two years at the rate of 15% per annum and the interest compounded annually. The amount paid at the end of two years is:

  1. ((a))

    ₹15,232

  2. ((b))

    ₹12,325

  3. ((c))

    ₹12,523

  4. ((d))

    ₹13,225

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

₹13,225

Given:

₹10,000 is borrowed for two years at the rate of 15% per annum and the interest compounded annually.

Formula used:

Amount = principle(1 + (\dfrac{rate}{100}))time

Calculations:

Amount = 10000 × (1 + (\frac{15}{100}))2

= 10000 × (1 + (\frac{3}{20}))2

= 10000 × ((\frac{23}{20}))2 = 10000 × (\frac{529}{400}) = 13225.

∴ The answer is Rs. 13225.

74

Six friends are sitting in a circle. All of them are facing the centre. Palak is an immediate neighbour of Kumud. Jhalak sits third to the left of Mehak. Rahat sits fourth to the right of Jhalak. Kumud sits second to the right of Chahak.

Who sits to the immediate left of Mehak?

  1. ((a))

    Palak

  2. ((b))

    Rahat

  3. ((c))

    Chahak

  4. ((d))

    Kumud

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Palak

The sitting arrangement as per the given information:

1. Jhalak sits third to the left of Mehak and Rahat sits fourth to the right of Jhalak.

2. Palak is an immediate neighbour of Kumud and Kumud sits second to the right of Chahak.

Here, 'Palak' sits to the immediate left of Mehak.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

75

Which of the following districts is the most populated district in Madhya Pradesh (according to Census 2011)? 

  1. ((a))

    Indore

  2. ((b))

    Bhopal 

  3. ((c))

    Jabalpur

  4. ((d))

    Gwalior

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Indore

The correct answer is Indore.

Key Points

  • Indore is the most populated district in Madhya Pradesh as per the Census 2011, with a population of approximately 32,76,697.
  • It is the largest city in Madhya Pradesh, known as the commercial capital of the state, contributing significantly to its population density.
  • Indore is a major urban center with a blend of historical significance and modern infrastructure, attracting migration for employment opportunities and education.
  • The city has a higher urban population compared to other districts in Madhya Pradesh, which contributes to its overall population being the highest in the state.
  • The district is also famous for its cleanliness and has consistently ranked as the cleanest city in India under the Swachh Bharat Mission.

Additional Information

  • Census 2011:
  • The Census 2011 is the 15th Indian census conducted by the Office of the Registrar General & Census Commissioner, India.
  • The census provides detailed demographic data such as population size, density, literacy rates, and urban-rural distribution.
  • According to Census 2011, the total population of Madhya Pradesh was approximately 72.6 million, with Indore being the most populated district.
  • Population Statistics of Madhya Pradesh:
  • Bhopal, the capital city, has a population of 23,71,061 and ranks second in terms of urban development and population density.
  • Jabalpur has a population of 24,63,289, known for its historical and cultural significance.
  • Gwalior has a population of 20,01,879, making it another prominent urban district in the state.
  • Indore's Economic and Social Influence:
  • Indore is home to several industries, educational institutions, and commercial hubs, making it a preferred destination for migration.
  • The city is famous for its food culture, historical landmarks, and modern urban planning, contributing to its appeal.
  • It is a key contributor to the state's economy and has been recognized as a smart city under the Smart Cities Mission.
  • Key Features of Census Data:
  • The census data helps in policy formulation, allocation of resources, and planning for infrastructure development.
  • It highlights key areas requiring development, such as healthcare, education, and urban planning.
  • Data from Census 2011 has been instrumental in identifying the most populated regions like Indore for targeted initiatives.

Important Points

  • Indore's Cleanliness Rankings:
  • Indore has consistently been ranked as the cleanest city in India under the Swachh Survekshan program.
  • It has received the award for cleanliness multiple times, highlighting its efficient waste management and sanitation practices.
  • Urbanization in Madhya Pradesh:
  • Urbanization trends in Madhya Pradesh are heavily influenced by cities like Indore and Bhopal, which serve as economic and cultural hubs.
  • Indore's urban population growth is driven by migration for employment, education, and better living conditions.
76

The time taken by a 180 m long train running at a speed of 54 km/h to cross a man standing on the platform is:

  1. ((a))

    10 seconds

  2. ((b))

    12 seconds

  3. ((c))

    11 seconds

  4. ((d))

    9 seconds

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

12 seconds

Given:

Length of train = 180 m

Speed of train = 54 km/h

Concept Used:

Speed = (\frac{Distance}{Time})

Calculation:

Firstly, we will change the value of speed from km/h to m/s.

⇒ 54 km/h = (54\times \frac{5}{18})

⇒ 54 km/h = 15 m/s

Putting the value in the speed formula, we get

⇒ 15 m/s = (\frac{180}{Time})

⇒ Time = (\frac{180}{15})

⇒ Time = 12 seconds

∴ The time taken by the train to cross a man standing on the platform is 12 seconds.

77

Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully and select which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statement(s).

Statement:

Looking at Limay’s new watch, Nita comments, “Oh, that’s so awesome. Where did you buy it from?”

Conclusions:

I. Limay’s watch is attractive

II. Nita wants to know where to buy a similar watch from.

  1. ((a))

    Both the conclusions follow

  2. ((b))

    Conclusion II alone follows

  3. ((c))

    Neither I nor II follows

  4. ((d))

    Conclusion I alone follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both the conclusions follow

From the statement give we can find that, Nita is mesmerized by looking at Limay’s new watch, from the words “Oh, that’s so awesome”. So, we can conclude that “Limay’s watch is attractive”.

And, Nita Asked Limay that, “Where did you buy it from?”. So, we can conclude that, “Nita wants to know where to buy a similar watch from”.

Hence, “both the conclusions follow:”.

78

Evaluate 45 - 5 of (6.3 ÷ 9) + 7 × 0.5.

  1. ((a))

    40

  2. ((b))

    42

  3. ((c))

    50

  4. ((d))

    45

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

45

Given:

45 - 5 of (6.3 ÷ 9) + 7 × 0.5

Formula:

Follow the BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below:

Calculation:

45 - 5 of (6.3 ÷ 9) + 7 × 0.5

⇒ 45 - 5 × 0.7 + 3.5

⇒ 45 - 3.5 + 3.5

⇒ 45

79

Complete the Figure X from the given alternatives 1, 2, 3, 4

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    C

  3. ((c))

    D

  4. ((d))

    B

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

D

The option figure that will complete the pattern is shown below:

Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

80

The value of 27 + [3(50 - 20) + 168 ÷ 4 + 2 - 11 × 2] is:

  1. ((a))

    139

  2. ((b))

    149

  3. ((c))

    245

  4. ((d))

    239

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

139

Given:

We have to find the value of 27 + [3(50 - 20) + 168 ÷ 4 + 2 - 11 × 2]

Concept used:

Calculation:

27 + [3(50 - 20) + 168 ÷ 4 + 2 - 11 × 2]

⇒ 27 + [3 × 30 + 42 + 2 – 22]

⇒ 27 + [90 + 42 + 2 – 22]

⇒ 27 + [134 – 22]

⇒ 27 + 112

⇒ 139

∴ The value is 139.

81

Select the figure that will come next in the following series.

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The pattern followed here is,

In each step, the given figure is rotated 90° in a clockwise direction.

In each step, 2 leaves are getting added on the stem that is 3, 5, 7, 9, 11... and shaded leaves are shifting downward.

The figure which will come next is,

Hence, the figure in option 2 is the correct answer.

82

The ratio of present ages (in years) of a father and son is 15 : 8. Six years ago, the ratio of their ages was 13 : 6 What is the father's present age ?

  1. ((a))

    78 years

  2. ((b))

    45 years

  3. ((c))

    58 years

  4. ((d))

    65 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

45 years

Given:

The ratio of present ages (in years) of a father and son is 15 : 8. Six years ago.

And the ratio of their ages was 13 : 6.

Calculation: 

Let the present age of father be 15x years.

And the present age of son be 8x years.

According to the question:

(15x – 6)/(8x – 6 ) = 13/6

⇒ 90x – 36 = 104x – 78

⇒ - 14x = - 42

⇒ x = 3

∴  The present age of father is 15x years = 15 × 3 = 45 years.

83

Select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

92, 137, 182, 227, 272, ?

  1. ((a))

    400

  2. ((b))

    317

  3. ((c))

    350

  4. ((d))

    345

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

317

The logic is:

Hence, ‘317’ is the correct answer.

84

What will be the difference in the simple interest and compound interest compounded annually on a sum of Rs. 6,000 in 2 years at the interest rate of 5% per annum?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 35

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 15

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 10

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 30

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Rs. 15

Given:

Principal = Rs. 6000

Rate of interest = 5% & Time = 2 years

Concept used:

Simple Interest, SI = (P × R × T)/100

Amount = P + SI

where,

P = Principal amount & R = Rate of interest per year

T = Time in years

In case of the compound interest,

Amount = P(1 + R/100)N

CI = P(1 + R/100)N - P

Calculation:

Simple interest incurred = (6000 × 2 × 5)/100

⇒ Rs. 600

Compound interest incurred = 6000(1 + 5/100)2 - 6000

⇒ RS. 615

Now, the difference = 615 - 600 = Rs. 15

∴ The difference in the simple interest and compound interest compounded annually on a sum of Rs. 6,000 in 2 years at the interest rate of 5% per annum will be Rs. 15.

85

Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number.

13 : 17 : : 73 : ?

  1. ((a))

    99

  2. ((b))

    78

  3. ((c))

    81

  4. ((d))

    79

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

79

The logic is:

13 : 17 → Both are pair of prime numbers.

Similarly,

73 : 79

From the options, we can clearly see that only 79 is a prime number.

So, ‘?’ will be replaced by 79.

Hence, ‘79’ is the correct answer.

86

Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Symbol '

' has shifting its position in anticlockwise direction.

Symbol '

' is rotating by 45 and 90 degree alternatively.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

87

Which option represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in English dictionary?

  1. Decline
  2. Dextrous
  3. Detrimental
  4. Decay
  5. Deforestation
  1. ((a))

    4, 1, 3, 5, 2

  2. ((b))

    4, 1, 5, 2, 3

  3. ((c))

    4, 5, 1, 3, 2

  4. ((d))

    4, 1, 5, 3, 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

4, 1, 5, 3, 2

The correct order of the given words as they would appear in English dictionary is:

  1. Decay
  2. Decline
  3. Deforestation
  4. Detrimental
  5. Dextrous

Hence, ‘4, 1, 5, 3, 2’ is the correct answer.

88

If '+' means 'subtraction', '÷' means 'addition', '–' means 'multiplication' and '×' means 'division', then what is the value of (8 + 2 –19) – (4 + 27 ×  3)?

  1. ((a))

    –150

  2. ((b))

    85

  3. ((c))

    –85

  4. ((d))

    150

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

150

Given expression: (8 + 2 –19) – (4 + 27 ×  3)

And sign changes are as follow-

• '+' → '–'

• '÷' → '+'

• '–' → '×'

• '×' → '÷'

On changing signs, given expression becomes: (8 – 2 × 19) × (4 – 27 ÷ 3)

Solve using BODMAS-

(8 – 2 × 19) × (4 – 27 ÷ 3)

= (8 – 38) × (4 – 9)

= (– 30) × (–  5)

= 150

Hence, 'option 4' is the correct answer.

89

Direction: In the question, a statement is given, followed by two arguments, I and II. You have to consider the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given arguments, if any, is a strong argument.

Statement: Is taking a gap this year due to the pandemic, a viable option for students considering competitive exams?

Argument:

I.Yes, students can utilize the time effectively so that they are better prepared next year.

II. No, since a lesser number of students will compete this year, the probability of getting through will be higher.

  1. ((a))

    Neither I nor II is strong.

  2. ((b))

    Only I is strong.

  3. ((c))

    Only II is strong.

  4. ((d))

    Both I and II are strong.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Both I and II are strong.

Correct option 4. Both I and II are strong.

The statement asks if it will be a better option for students appearing for competitive exams to drop this year and appear next year.

Argument I supports the claim and suggests that they should drop this year and enhance their skill set to appear for competition next year. They will thus be better prepared to get through the competition. Therefore, argument I is strong.

Argument II dismisses the option of considering a gap year and suggests that since lesser candidates will appear for the competition this year. The probability of getting through will be better. Therefore, argument II is strong.

Hence, option 4 is correct.

90

At what time between 7 to 8 o'clock will the hands of a clock points opposite to each other?

  1. ((a))

    6(\frac{5}{11}) minutes past to 7.

  2. ((b))

    (5 \frac{5}{11}) minutes past to 7.

  3. ((c))

    (5 \frac{6}{11}) minutes past to 7.

  4. ((d))

    (5 \frac{5}{12})minutes past to 7.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(5 \frac{5}{11}) minutes past to 7.

The angle between the hour hand and minutes hand = (30H - 11M/2)

H = 7 and angle = 180

180 = 30 × 7 - 11 M/2

180 = 210 - 11 M/2

30 = 11 M/2

60 = 11 M

M = 5(5/11) Minutes

Hence, the correct answer is 5(5/11) minutes past to 7.

91

Choose the odd one out of the given options.

  1. ((a))

    CJK

  2. ((b))

    EHK

  3. ((c))

    FHJ

  4. ((d))

    KOJ

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

KOJ

 

The pattern followed here is,

CJK = C + J + K = 3 + 10 + 11 =24

EHK = E + H + K = 5 + 8 + 11 = 24

FHJ = F + H + J = 6 + 8 + 10 = 24

KOJ = K + O + J = 11 + 15 + 10 = 36

Sum of positional value of letters in all pairs are 24 except KOJ.

Hence, “KOJ” is the odd one.

92

Which letter cluster will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?

GDMT, KZQP, OVUL, SRYH, ?

  1. ((a))

    VNCC

  2. ((b))

    WOCE

  3. ((c))

    WNBD

  4. ((d))

    WNCD

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

WNCD

According to the English alphabet series and its positional value

The logic follows here is:

Hence, the correct answer is WNCD.

93

On 8th February, 2020 it was Saturday. What was the day of the week on 1st February, 2016 ?

  1. ((a))

    Sunday 

  2. ((b))

    Monday

  3. ((c))

    Tuesday

  4. ((d))

    Wednesday

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Monday

Odd days:

A leap year has 366 days and a non-leap year has 365 days.

Leap year = 366 days or 52 weeks and 2 days. So, here the number of odd days are 2.

Non - Leap year = 365 days or 52 weeks and 1 day. So, here the number of odd days is 1.

Number of odd days in the following years

2017201820192016
1112
<br>

Total number of odd days in all the years combined = 1+1+1+2 = 5

Code of the dayDay
0Sunday
1Monday
2Tuesday
3Wednesday
4Thursday
5Friday
6Saturday
<br>

 8th February 2020  was Saturday

Code for Saturday is 6 and the number of odd days in all the years combined is 5. So, 6 - 5 = 1

1 is the code for Monday.

Hence, 1st February 2016 was Monday.

94

If in a certain code language, SCIENCE is coded as GFRVMFU, how PHYSICS written in that code language?

  1. ((a))

    UFMHCKR

  2. ((b))

    UFMPCKR

  3. ((c))

    UGMHCKR

  4. ((d))

    UFNHCPR

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

UFMHCKR

The logic follows here is :

Middle term changes to the reverse alphabet.

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is "UFMHCKR".

Additional Information

Sum of place values of Reverse (Positional opposite) alphabets = 27.

95

If A means 'subtraction', B means 'addition', C means 'division' and D means 'multiplication', then find the value of 

48 B 24 C 12 D 3 A 4.

  1. ((a))

    46

  2. ((b))

    146

  3. ((c))

    50

  4. ((d))

    2

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

50

Given Equation: 48 B 24 C 12 D 3 A 4 = ?

BODMAS Rule:

Decoding the given information:

AlphabetABCD
Meaning-+÷×

 

Now replacing the sign from left to right using BODMAS Rule, we get:

⇒ 48 + 24 ÷ 12 × 3 - 4 = ?

⇒ 48 + 2 × 3 - 4 = ?

48 + 6 - 4 = ?

54 - 4 = 50.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 3".

96

Study the given information carefully and answer the question that follows.

Five People A, B, C, D and E are sitting in a row facing south but not necessarily in the same order. A and B are sitting together. C is sitting immediate left of A. D sits second to the right of A. C sits in the extreme left end of the row.

Which of the following sequence is true?

  1. ((a))

    D is third to the left of A .

  2. ((b))

    D is to the left of B.

  3. ((c))

    A is third to the left of E.

  4. ((d))

    C is to the right of B.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A is third to the left of E.

Given:

Five People A, B, C, D and E are sitting in a row facing south.

  1. A and B are sitting together. C is sitting immediate left of A.

  2. C sits in the extreme left end of the row.

  1. D sits second to the right of A.
  1. Remaining Person will be placed in left space

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

97

How many triangles are there in the figure given below?

  1. ((a))

    14

  2. ((b))

    16

  3. ((c))

    17

  4. ((d))

    18

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

18

There are 18 triangles in the figure, namely,

Triangles that are formed from point A: ABC, ACD, ADE, AEF, ABD, ABE, ABF, ACE, ACF, ADF, ACH, AHG, AGF, and AHF.

Triangles that are formed from point H: HCD, HCF, and HDF.

Triangles that are formed from point F: FEG.

Hence there are 18 triangles.

98

Find the number of squares in the following figure.

  1. ((a))

    8

  2. ((b))

    9

  3. ((c))

    10

  4. ((d))

    11

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

10

The figure has a large square and a small square which is itself 2 squares

The large square is compose of 4 small single squares.

The small square is composed of 4 small single squares.

So 10 squares in total

  • Hence option 3 is the right answer.
99

If two days before yesterday was Friday, what day will be day after tomorrow?

  1. ((a))

    Monday

  2. ((b))

    Sunday

  3. ((c))

    Saturday

  4. ((d))

    Wednesday

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Wednesday

According to the given information,

If two days before yesterday was Friday, which means one day before yesterday was Saturday, yesterday was Sunday and today is Monday.

So, Tomorrow will be Tuesday and day after tomorrow will be Wednesday.

Hence, the correct answer is "Wednesday".

100

Four number – pairs have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the one that is different one.

  1. ((a))

    76 – 361

  2. ((b))

    52 – 196

  3. ((c))

    64 – 256

  4. ((d))

    68 – 289

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

52 – 196

The pattern followed here is:

Option 1: 76 – 361 → 19 × 4 – 192

Option 2: 52 – 196 → 13 × 4 – 132(169 ≠ 196)

Option 3: 64 – 256 → 16 × 4 – 162

Option 4: 68 – 289 → 17 × 4 – 172

All follow the same pattern, except ’52 - 196’.

Hence, ’52 – 196’ is the correct answer.

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