Bihar Police SI Memory Based Paper (Held on: 18th Jan 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is 1336.

Key Points

• The brothers Harihara and Bukka were the founders of the Vijayanagara Empire.
• They established the empire in the year 1336.
• The Vijayanagara Empire was located in the southern part of India, primarily in the region that is now known as Karnataka.
• The empire was known for its capital city, Hampi, which is now a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
• The Vijayanagara Empire played a crucial role in protecting the southern part of India from the invasions of the Delhi Sultanate.
• The empire saw significant developments in art, architecture, and culture, with contributions in various fields such as literature and religious practices.
• It was a period of economic prosperity and growth, marked by trade and commerce.
• The rulers of Vijayanagara were patrons of Hindu religion and worked towards the revival of Hinduism in the region.

 Additional Information

• 1346
• This date does not hold significant importance in relation to the establishment of the Vijayanagara Empire.
• 1356
• This date does not correspond to any major event related to the founding of the Vijayanagara Empire.
• 1367
• This date is not associated with the establishment of the Vijayanagara Empire.

The correct answer is 100.

Key Points

• The Smart Cities Mission was launched by the Government of India on 25 June 2015 under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
• Initially, 100 cities were selected to be developed as part of the mission.
• The mission aims to improve urban infrastructure and provide better quality of life through sustainable and inclusive development.
• The cities were selected through a competitive process known as the Smart Cities Challenge.
• The total planned investment for the mission is estimated at ₹2.05 lakh crore, covering projects like affordable housing, urban mobility, and IT connectivity.

Additional Information

• Smart Cities Mission Objectives:
• The mission focuses on area-based development such as retrofitting, redevelopment, and greenfield projects.
• It emphasizes smart solutions like smart meters, intelligent traffic management, and e-governance.
• Selection Process:
• The cities were selected through a three-stage competition involving state governments, urban local bodies, and central government evaluation.
• Only cities that meet specified criteria are granted funding under the mission.
• Implementation:
• Each selected city sets up a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) for implementation, with support from government and private partners.
• The SPV is responsible for planning, appraising, and executing projects under the mission.
• Progress:
• As of 2023, over 7,000 projects have been tendered, with many nearing completion across various cities.
• Key focus areas include urban mobility, affordable housing, and green energy initiatives.

The incorrect answer is The Bill was introduced citing an increase in Telangana’s rural fertility rate above replacement level.

In News

• Telangana Legislative Assembly passed the Telangana Panchayat Raj (Amendment) Bill, 2026, abolishing the two-child norm for local body elections.

Key Points

• The Bill removes the long-standing two-child norm that disqualified candidates with more than two children.
• The restriction was originally enacted in 1994 to address population surge concerns of earlier decades.
• The government cited a decline in rural Telangana’s total fertility rate to 1.7 children per woman.
• Incorrect Statement Explained
• The Bill was not introduced due to an increase in fertility rate
• Instead, concerns were raised about a declining fertility rate
• Lower fertility may affect Telangana’s future demographic dividend

Additional Information

• Two-Child Norm
• A population control measure linked to electoral eligibility
• Adopted by several states during the 1990s
• Aimed at promoting small family norms
• Total Fertility Rate (TFR)
• Average number of children a woman is expected to have
• Replacement level fertility is around 2.1
• Telangana’s rural TFR of 1.7 is below replacement level
• Demographic Dividend
• Economic growth potential from a larger working-age population
• Declining fertility can reduce this advantage over time
• Policy adjustments are often required to balance population structure

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• Statement 1: The 73rd Inter Services Water Polo Championship was organized by the Eastern Naval Command. This statement is correct as the Eastern Naval Command is known for hosting and organizing various sports events for the armed forces.
• Statement 2: Visakhapatnam hosted the championship. This statement is correct as Visakhapatnam is home to the headquarters of the Eastern Naval Command, making it a prime location for such events.
• Statement 3: The event was held in April 2025 as per the Services’ aquatic calendar. This statement is also correct as sports events in the Services are often scheduled according to pre-determined calendars, including aquatic championships.
• All three statements are correct, making the correct answer Option 4.

Additional Information

• Eastern Naval Command:
• The Eastern Naval Command is one of the three main commands of the Indian Navy, headquartered in Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh.
• It is responsible for overseeing naval operations along the eastern coast of India and plays a vital role in maritime security in the Bay of Bengal.
• The Command frequently organizes sporting events to foster camaraderie, fitness, and team spirit among personnel.
• Visakhapatnam:
• Known as the "City of Destiny," Visakhapatnam is a port city located on the eastern coast of India.
• It serves as a strategic location for the Indian Navy and hosts various military and naval events.
• The city is also famous for its scenic beaches and proximity to significant naval bases.
• Inter Services Water Polo Championship:
• This championship is organized annually to promote water sports among the armed forces.
• Participants include teams from different branches of the Indian Armed Forces, such as the Army, Navy, and Air Force.
• The event fosters healthy competition and contributes to the physical fitness of military personnel.
• Aquatic Sports in the Armed Forces:
• Aquatic sports like water polo, swimming, and diving are integral to military training and recreational activities.
• These sports enhance endurance, teamwork, and tactical skills among personnel.
• Events like the Inter Services Water Polo Championship showcase the importance of aquatic disciplines in the armed forces.

Important Points

• Significance of Armed Forces Sports:
• Sports in the armed forces are not just recreational but also play a crucial role in physical training and mental well-being.
• Inter-service championships encourage healthy competition and unity among the different branches of the military.
• Benefits of Aquatic Sports:
• Develops physical endurance and stamina, crucial for military personnel.
• Enhances teamwork, which is vital for successful military operations.
• Promotes discipline and strategic thinking.

The correct answer is 1 and 3 are correct.

Key Points

• Statement 1: An election to constitute a municipality shall be completed before the expiration of a period of six months from the date of its dissolution. This statement is correct as per the provisions of the Constitution of India.
• Statement 2: Election to constitute a municipality should be before three months of its expiration. This statement is incorrect as the timeframe mentioned does not align with the legal provisions.
• Statement 3: A municipality constituted upon dissolution of a municipality before expiration of its term shall continue only for the remainder period. This statement is correct and aligns with the constitutional provisions regarding municipalities.
• Statement 4: If a municipality is dissolved before expiration of its term, then the new municipality will be constituted for five years. This statement is incorrect as the new municipality would continue only for the remaining period of the original term.

Additional Information

• Municipal Elections:
• Municipal elections are governed by the provisions of the Constitution of India, specifically under Article 243U.
• As per this article, elections to constitute a municipality must be completed before the expiry of its term, ensuring continuity in governance.
• Term of Municipality:
• The normal term of a municipality is five years from the date of its first meeting.
• If a municipality is dissolved before the completion of its term, the newly constituted municipality will serve only for the remaining period, not a full five-year term.
• Election Process:
• When a municipality is dissolved, elections must be held to reconstitute it within six months, as per constitutional guidelines.
• This ensures that governance is not disrupted and local administration continues to function efficiently.
• Constitutional Provisions:
• The constitutional provisions for municipalities are detailed in the 74th Amendment of the Constitution, which introduced Part IXA.
• These provisions outline the structure, composition, and functioning of urban local bodies in India.

Important Points

• Article 243U: This article specifies the term and reconstitution process for municipalities in India.
• 74th Constitutional Amendment: Enacted in 1992, this amendment established urban local bodies as the third tier of governance in India.
• Six-Month Timeframe: Elections for reconstituting a dissolved municipality must be held within six months to ensure administrative continuity.
• Remaining Term: A municipality constituted after dissolution serves for the remainder of the original term, ensuring adherence to constitutional provisions.

The correct answer is Option 3: Only one and two.

Key Points

• Statement 1: Chandragupta Maurya established the Maurya Empire by overthrowing the Nanda dynasty.
• This is correct. Chandragupta Maurya, with the assistance of his mentor Chanakya (Kautilya), overthrew the Nanda dynasty in Magadha and established the Mauryan Empire around 321 BCE.
• The Nanda dynasty ruled over Magadha and was overthrown due to its oppressive policies and unpopularity.
• Statement 2: Ashoka's edicts, found extensively in Bihar, promoted a policy of 'Dhamma' based on non-violence and tolerance.
• This is correct. Emperor Ashoka's policy of 'Dhamma' emphasized non-violence, compassion, religious tolerance, and welfare of all living beings.
• Many of Ashoka's inscriptions and edicts have been found in Bihar, such as those at Kaimur, Rampurva, and Lauria Nandangarh, promoting these principles.
• Statement 3: Megasthenes, a Greek ambassador, visited Pataliputra during the reign of Bindusara.
• This is incorrect. Megasthenes, the Greek ambassador of Seleucus I Nicator, visited Pataliputra during the reign of Chandragupta Maurya, not Bindusara.
• He documented his observations in his work "Indica," providing valuable information about the Mauryan administration, culture, and society.

Additional Information

• The Mauryan Empire:
• The Mauryan Empire (321 BCE–185 BCE) was the first large-scale empire in India, founded by Chandragupta Maurya and expanded by his successors Bindusara and Ashoka.
• Pataliputra (modern-day Patna, Bihar) served as the capital of the empire.
• Ashoka's Contribution:
• Emperor Ashoka is regarded as one of the greatest rulers in Indian history for propagating Buddhism and his policy of 'Dhamma.'
• His edicts were inscribed on rocks and pillars across the Indian subcontinent and are some of the earliest examples of written records in India.
• Megasthenes and His Observations:
• Megasthenes' "Indica" provides insights into the Mauryan administration, agriculture, and urban planning.
• He described Pataliputra as a well-planned city with a fortified wall, gates, and a moat, highlighting the advanced urban planning of the Mauryan era.
• The Nanda Dynasty:
• The Nanda dynasty preceded the Mauryan Empire and was known for its wealth and military strength.
• However, its oppressive taxation policies led to widespread discontent, paving the way for Chandragupta Maurya's rise to power.

Important Points

• The Mauryan administration was centralized and organized, with a council of ministers and a network of spies to ensure efficient governance.
• The Arthashastra by Chanakya is a valuable text that provides insights into the political and economic policies of the Mauryan Empire.
• Ashoka's propagation of Buddhism had a significant impact on the spread of the religion across Asia, including regions like Sri Lanka, Southeast Asia, and Central Asia.
• The Mauryan Empire's decline began after Ashoka's death, leading to the rise of regional kingdoms.

The correct answer is Fifth Five-Year Plan.

Key Points

• The Twenty Point Programme was launched in India during the Fifth Five-Year Plan period (1974-79).
• It was introduced by Prime Minister Indira Gandhi on 1st July 1975.
• The programme aimed at poverty eradication, employment generation, and improvement of quality of life.
• The focus was on areas like health, education, housing, and social welfare to uplift the marginalized sections of society.

Additional Information

• Five-Year Plans in India
• India's Five-Year Plans were centralized economic and social growth programs modeled after the Soviet Union's planning system.
• The first Five-Year Plan was launched in 1951, focusing on agriculture and infrastructure development.
• The plans aimed to achieve self-reliant and robust economic growth, reducing poverty, and improving living standards.
• Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-79)
• It aimed at economic self-reliance and poverty reduction, with a focus on employment generation.
• Major projects included the National Program for Minimum Needs and the Twenty Point Programme.
• The plan faced challenges due to the global oil crisis and inflationary pressures.
• Indira Gandhi's Policies
• Indira Gandhi, the then Prime Minister, introduced several socio-economic reforms in the 1970s.
• Her policies focused on poverty alleviation, land reforms, and increasing agricultural productivity.
• She nationalized banks in 1969 to ensure credit availability to the underprivileged.
• Poverty Alleviation Programs
• India has implemented various programs to alleviate poverty, such as the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA).
• These programs aim to provide employment, improve infrastructure, and support vulnerable populations.

The correct answer is 'Harris'

Key Points

• Stationary Wave Theory:
• Proponent: The Stationary Wave Theory was propounded by R.A. Harris, a scientist with the U.S. Coast and Geodetic Survey.
• Contrasting Approach: Unlike the Progressive Wave Theory (proposed by William Whewell), which describes tides as waves traveling freely across oceans, Harris suggested that tides are regional phenomena caused by stationary waves originating independently in each ocean.
• Mechanism: According to the theory, tidal forces from the Sun and Moon create oscillations in the oceanic waters. These oscillations do not occur along straight lines, but rather around central points known as amphidromic points.
• Amphidromic Points: These are points in the ocean where water remains calm and does not move. The water level oscillates around these points, creating a rotational system of waves.
• Anti-clockwise Motion: The oscillating waves move in an anti-clockwise direction around each amphidromic point, forming a series of stationary waves. These waves then move towards the coastlines.
• Effect of Coastlines: The forward movement of these waves is impeded by continents, islands, and peninsulas. When these waves reach the coast, their crests and troughs cause high and low tides respectively.
• Relation to Ocean Depth: The height of tides is influenced by the depth of the ocean. Deeper oceans generate higher stationary waves, which result in higher tides (spring tides). In contrast, shallow seas produce smaller waves, causing lower tides (neap tides).

Additional Information

• Progressive Wave Theory:
• Proposed by William Whewell in 1833, the Progressive Wave Theory posits that tidal waves travel from east to west across the globe, driven by the moon's tidal force.
• This theory suggests that tidal waves can travel freely across oceans, but their path is obstructed by landmasses, causing the waves to refract northward and generate secondary waves.
• Canal Theory:
• G.B. Airy proposed the Canal Theory in 1842, which attributes the formation of tides to the shape and configuration of ocean basins. Airy focused on how the geometry of the basins could influence the movement of tidal waves.

Important Points

• Oscillatory Motion: Stationary waves are a result of oscillatory motion caused by the tidal forces of the Sun and Moon. The water moves rhythmically, creating a wave-like movement without advancing along a linear path.
• Stationary Wave Dynamics: The stationary waves generated by the oscillations form a circular or elliptical path around the amphidromic points. The period of oscillation varies depending on the depth and shape of the oceanic basins.
• Wave Refraction: The direction and velocity of these waves are affected by the landmasses they encounter. The waves refract northward as they are obstructed by continents, leading to regional variations in tidal patterns.
• Effect on Coastal Tides: As the stationary waves reach the coastlines, the crests and troughs cause high and low tides. This phenomenon is especially noticeable in regions with deep ocean basins.
• Correlation with Ocean Depth: There is a direct correlation between the depth of the ocean and the height of the tides. In deeper oceans, stationary waves are larger, leading to more significant tides. In shallow seas, smaller stationary waves result in lower tides.

Shortcut Trick Let the Income of B be 100x 

Income of A and B is 180x and 100x respectively

New Income of A = 180x [80/100] = 144x

New Income of B = 100x[160/100] = 160x

According to options 1)

⇒ [(160x - 144x)/144x ] × 100 = 11(1\over9)%

∴ B's Income is more than A's income by 11(1\over9)%

Alternate Method Given:

A's income is 80% more than B's income

Calculation:

Let B's income be Rs. 100

A's income,

⇒ B's income + 80% of B's income

⇒ 100 + (80/100 × 100)

⇒ 180

Now A's income is decreased by 20%

⇒ 180 – (20/100) × 180

⇒ 180 – 36

A's new income is Rs. 144

Now B's income increased by 60%

⇒ 100 + (60/100) × 100

⇒ 100 + 60

B's new income is Rs. 160

B's income is more than A's income,

⇒ 160 – 144

⇒ 16

In percent,

⇒ 16/144 × 100

⇒ 1/9 × 100

⇒ (11\frac{1}{9})%

∴ B's income is more than A's income by (11\frac{1}{9})%

The Correct answer is Option 1. 

Key Points

Based on global remittance rankings for 2022:

1. India received the highest remittances (1st place).
2. Mexico ranked second.
3. China ranked third.
4. The Philippines ranked fourth.

Thus, the correct matching should be:

• A (Mexico) → 2
• B (China) → 3
• C (India) → 1
• D (Philippines) → 4

Hence Option 1 is Correct.

The correct answer is "1 and 3 only".

Key Points

• A Great Circle is the largest possible circle that can be drawn on a sphere, whose plane passes through the center of the Earth.
• Equator is a Great Circle because it divides the Earth into two equal halves (Northern Hemisphere and Southern Hemisphere). Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Prime Meridian along with its opposite meridian (180° longitude) forms a Great Circle passing through the poles and the Earth's center. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Tropic of Cancer is a small circle (parallel of latitude at 23.5° North) and does not pass through the center of the Earth. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Hence, the correct answer is "1 and 3 only".

Additional Information

• Latitude: Imaginary horizontal lines measured in degrees north or south of the Equator (0°).
• Longitude: Imaginary vertical lines measured in degrees east or west of the Prime Meridian (0°), which passes through Greenwich, London.
• Great Circles Importance: They represent the shortest distance between two points on the Earth's surface and are used in aviation and navigation.
• Small Circles: All parallels except the Equator (like Tropic of Cancer, Tropic of Capricorn, Arctic Circle) are small circles.
• Key Values: Equator = 0° latitude, Tropic of Cancer = 23.5° N, Tropic of Capricorn = 23.5° S.

Important Points

• All longitudes are parts of great circles when considered with their opposite meridian.
• The Equator is the only latitude that is a Great Circle; all other latitudes are small circles.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

The correct hierarchical classification of plant species from higher to lower order follows this sequence:

• Plant Kingdom (Highest Level) – The broadest category, including all plants.
• Phylum (Division in plants) – The major subdivision within the kingdom.
• Class – A group within a phylum, consisting of related plant species.
• Order – A further division within a class, grouping similar families.

Hierarchy in Taxonomy (Higher to Lower Order):

• Kingdom → Phylum (Division) → Class → Order → Family → Genus → Species

The Correct answer is Article 280

Key Points

• Article 280 of the Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of the Finance Commission.
• The Finance Commission is responsible for recommending the distribution of financial resources between the Union and the States, ensuring a balanced fiscal system.
• The Commission’s role is crucial for maintaining the financial health of the country by addressing fiscal imbalances and ensuring equitable distribution of resources.
• The Finance Commission is a vital institution in the federal structure of India, aimed at maintaining fiscal balance.

 Additional Information

• Article 282
• Article 282 empowers the Union or State to spend money from its funds for any public purpose.
• It is not directly related to the Finance Commission but allows financial allocations for general purposes.
• Article 281
• Article 281 deals with the President’s assent to the Finance Commission’s recommendations.
• It does not establish the Finance Commission but pertains to the procedural part of its functioning.
• Article 283
• Article 283 deals with the custody and auditing of accounts of the Union and State Governments.
• It is unrelated to the functioning of the Finance Commission.

The correct answer is Panchayat Samiti.

Key Points

• The Panchayati Raj system in India is a three-tier structure consisting of the Gram Panchayat at the village level, the Panchayat Samiti at the block level, and the Zila Parishad at the district level.
• The Panchayat Samiti does not operate at the village level. It functions at the block level, acting as an intermediary body between the Gram Panchayat and the Zila Parishad.
• The components of the Panchayati Raj system at the village level include the Gram Sabha, Gram Panchayat, and Nyaya Panchayat.
• The Gram Sabha is the general assembly of all the registered voters in a village, while the Gram Panchayat is the executive body responsible for governance and development activities.
• The Nyaya Panchayat, where established, handles minor disputes and judicial matters at the village level.

Additional Information

• Gram Sabha:
• The Gram Sabha is the foundational body of the Panchayati Raj system, consisting of all the registered voters in a village.
• It plays a key role in decision-making, approving budgets, and monitoring the functioning of the Gram Panchayat.
• Gram Panchayat:
• The Gram Panchayat is the executive body of the village-level Panchayati Raj system.
• It is responsible for implementing development programs, maintaining public infrastructure, and ensuring welfare schemes reach the beneficiaries.
• Nyaya Panchayat:
• Nyaya Panchayats are quasi-judicial bodies established at the village level in some states to handle minor civil and criminal disputes.
• They aim to provide accessible and speedy justice to rural citizens without the need for formal legal proceedings.
• Panchayat Samiti:
• The Panchayat Samiti operates at the block level, coordinating and supervising the activities of the Gram Panchayats under its jurisdiction.
• It is responsible for planning and implementing development programs at the block level.
• Zila Parishad:
• The Zila Parishad is the apex body of the Panchayati Raj system, functioning at the district level.
• It coordinates development activities and provides administrative support to the Panchayat Samitis and Gram Panchayats.

The correct answer is Bihar Times

Key Points

• Bihar Times played an effective role in educating the masses and inspiring them to struggle for the creation of Bihar.
• The journal consistently advocated that separating Bihar from Bengal would ease the Bengal administration and benefit the Government of India.
• Over time, Bihar Times also influenced newspapers in neighboring states to support the idea of Bihar’s creation.
• After the death of its first editor, Mahesh Narain, the paper suffered a major setback but continued publication.
• Much later, it transformed into the newspaper Motherland, and in modern times, it survives in a new form on the internet.
• Thus, originating in the 19th century, the paper has traveled through the 20th century and entered the 21st century with renewed zeal to serve the people of Bihar in India and abroad.

Additional Information

• Role of Regional Publications:
• Regional publications like the Bihar Herald were crucial in spreading awareness on socio-political issues in pre-independence India.
• They served as platforms for local leaders and reformers to voice concerns and educate the masses.
• Mahesh Narayan:
• A prominent intellectual and reformer from Bihar known for his efforts in education and journalism.
• His work with the Bihar Herald showcased his commitment to the development of the region.
• 19th Century Indian Journalism:
• During the late 19th century, newspapers and magazines often served as tools for social reform and freedom struggle.
• Editors like Mahesh Narayan played a critical role in shaping public opinion and promoting regional identity.
• Legacy of Bihar Herald:
• The magazine remains a symbol of Bihar’s intellectual and reformist legacy during the colonial era.
• It is often studied as an example of early Indian journalism and regional advocacy.

The correct answer is Bisleri International and Observer Research Foundation.

In News

• Bisleri International, in collaboration with the Observer Research Foundation (ORF), launched a book on ‘Water Credits Valuation’ at Raisina Dialogue 2025.
• The book, titled "Trading Blue Gold: A Blueprint for Water Credit Valuation in India," aims to extend the water credit framework beyond the beverage sector.

Key Points

• Water Credits are a market-based mechanism promoting sustainable water management.
• Bisleri International has committed to being a water-positive company by replenishing more water than it extracts.
• The book was developed by Bisleri and ORF, with contributions from experts Nilanjan Ghosh and Soumya Bhowmick.
• The study reinforces sustainable water use and aligns with the "Lifestyle for Environment" (LiFE) initiative launched by the Hon’ble Prime Minister.

Additional Information

• Water Credits
• Similar to carbon credits, companies can purchase water credits to offset their water consumption.
• Credits are generated through conservation, rainwater harvesting, wastewater treatment, and efficient water use.
• Bisleri International Pvt. Ltd.
• India's leading packaged drinking water brand, established over 54 years ago.
• Operates 128 plants and has a strong distribution network across India and neighboring countries.
• Observer Research Foundation (ORF)
• A leading public policy think tank in India focused on development studies and sustainability.
• Collaborates with institutions to drive policy innovation and environmental research.
• Raisina Dialogue
• An annual conference hosted in India that brings together global policymakers and industry leaders.
• Focuses on addressing key challenges, including water sustainability and environmental conservation.

The correct answer is Satish Prasad Singh.

Key Points

• Satish Prasad Singh served as the Chief Minister of Bihar for only five days in March 1968, making him the shortest-serving Chief Minister of Bihar.
• He was a member of the Indian Congress (Socialist) faction.
• He succeeded Mahamaya Prasad Sinha and was later succeeded by Bhola Paswan Shastri.
• His brief tenure was a result of political instability and frequent changes in government during that period.
• The political scenario in Bihar during the 1960s and 1970s was characterized by coalition governments and fragmented political alliances.

Additional Information

• Chief Minister of Bihar: The Chief Minister is the head of the government in the Indian state of Bihar, responsible for executive decisions and administration.
• Political Instability in Bihar: The state witnessed frequent political instability during the 1960s and 1970s, with short tenures of several Chief Ministers.
• Coalition Politics: Bihar’s political scene during that era was dominated by coalition governments, which often led to fragmented alliances and short-lived administrations.
• Longest-serving Chief Minister: In contrast, Nitish Kumar has been one of the longest-serving Chief Ministers of Bihar, holding office multiple times since 2005.
• Historical Context: The frequent changes in government during the mid-20th century in Bihar reflected broader challenges in Indian politics, including ideological differences and the emergence of regional parties.

The correct answer is 10,000 rupees.

In News

• Under the ‘Mukhyamantri Mahila Rojgar Yojana’ in Bihar, each selected woman will receive 10,000 rupees as financial assistance.

Key Points

• The scheme will provide financial assistance to one woman from every family in Bihar to start her own occupation.
• The first instalment of 10,000 rupees will be provided to each selected woman for initiating her employment activity.
• In the next phase, up to 2 lakh rupees may be provided to the selected beneficiary after a six-month assessment.
• Local markets or haat bazaars will be developed for the sale of products made by women under the scheme.

Additional Information

• Mukhyamantri Mahila Rojgar Yojana
• A scheme by the Bihar government aimed at providing employment opportunities and financial support for women.
• Bihar Government
• Under the leadership of Chief Minister Nitish Kumar, the Bihar government is focusing on women’s empowerment and job creation.

The correct answer is Harmanpreet Singh

In News

• Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports announced the National Sports Awards 2024.

Key Points

• National Sports Awards 2024 Announced
• Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports announced the National Sports Awards 2024.
• Awardees will receive their awards from the President of India on 17th January 2025, at Rashtrapati Bhavan.
• Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award 2024
• Gukesh D (Chess)
• Harmanpreet Singh (Hockey)
• Praveen Kumar (Para-Athletics)
• Manu Bhaker (Shooting)
• Arjuna Awards 2024 (Outstanding performance in sports)
• Athletics: Jyothi Yarraji, Annu Rani
• Boxing: Nitu, Saweety
• Chess: Vantika Agrawal
• Hockey: Salima Tete, Abhishek, Sanjay, Jarmanpreet Singh, Sukhjeet Singh
• Para-Athletics: Rakesh Kumar, Preeti Pal, Jeevanji Deepthi, Ajeet Singh, Sachin Sarjerao Khilari, Dharambir, Pranav Soorma, Hokato Sema, Simran, Navdeep
• Para-Badminton: Nitesh Kumar, Thulasimathi Murugesan, Nithya Sre Sumathy Sivan, Manisha Ramadass
• Para-Judo: Kapil Parmar
• Para-Shooting: Mona Agarwal, Rubina Francis
• Shooting: Swapnil Suresh Kusale, Sarabjot Singh
• Squash: Abhay Singh
• Swimming: Sajan Prakash
• Wrestling: Aman
• Arjuna Award (Lifetime)
• Athletics: Sucha Singh
• Para-Swimming: Murlikant Rajaram Petkar
• Dronacharya Award for Outstanding Coaches
• Regular Category:
• Subhash Rana (Para-Shooting)
• Deepali Deshpande (Shooting)
• Sandeep Sangwan (Hockey)
• Lifetime Category:
• S Muralidharan (Badminton)
• Armando Agnelo Colaco (Football)
• Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar
• Awarded to Physical Education Foundation of India
• Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (MAKA) Trophy 2024
• Overall Winner University: Chandigarh University
• 1st Runner-Up: Lovely Professional University (PB)
• 2nd Runner-Up: Guru Nanak Dev University, Amritsar

The correct answer is Article 324.

Key Points

• Article 324 of the Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of the Election Commission of India.
• This article empowers the Election Commission to supervise, direct, and control the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of President and Vice-President.
• Article 324 establishes a multi-member Election Commission, with the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners as deemed necessary by the President.
• The Election Commission of India is an autonomous constitutional authority responsible for administering election processes in India at both the national and state levels.

Additional Information

• Article 280
• It deals with the composition and functions of the Finance Commission.
• The Finance Commission is constituted by the President to recommend the distribution of revenues between the Union and the States.
• Article 264
• It defines the extent of the executive power of the Union and the States.
• This article specifies that the executive power of the Union and States extends to matters with respect to which Parliament and the State Legislature have the power to make laws.
• Article 26
• It deals with the freedom to manage religious affairs.
• This article ensures that every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes.
• Election Commission of India
• Established on January 25, 1950, the Election Commission of India is responsible for administering election processes in India.
• The Commission ensures that elections are free, fair, and transparent.

The correct answer is Gram Panchayat.

Key Points

• The Gram Panchayat is the grassroots-level body in the three-tier Panchayati Raj system in India.
• It is directly elected by the people of the village, forming the first tier of the Panchayati Raj system.
• The Gram Panchayat is responsible for local governance and development activities in villages.
• Its members are elected for a term of five years by the eligible voters in the village.
• The head of the Gram Panchayat is called the Sarpanch, who is also elected by the villagers.

Additional Information

• Panchayati Raj System in India:
• The Panchayati Raj system is a decentralized form of governance in which gram panchayats are the basic units of administration.
• It was constitutionalized through the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992.
• The system has three levels: Gram Panchayat (village level), Panchayat Samiti (block level), and Zila Parishad (district level).
• Roles and Responsibilities of Gram Panchayat:
• Implementation of development programs such as rural housing, sanitation, and drinking water supply.
• Maintenance of public assets like roads, schools, and community centers.
• Promotion of literacy, health, and awareness programs in rural areas.
• Funding of Gram Panchayats:
• Funds are provided through grants from the central and state governments, revenue generated locally, and other sources.
• The Finance Commission recommends financial allocations to Panchayati Raj institutions.
• Importance of Grassroots Governance:
• It ensures that governance is inclusive and caters to the specific needs of rural populations.
• It encourages local participation in decision-making and promotes accountability.

The correct answer is - (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

Key Points

• Very High Fertility Rate - Pakistan
• Pakistan has one of the highest fertility rates in the world. This demographic feature is characterized by a high number of births per woman.
• This high fertility rate can be attributed to cultural, social, and economic factors.
• One Child Norm - China
• China implemented the one-child policy in 1979 to control its rapidly growing population.
• This policy has been one of the most significant social engineering efforts in the world, leading to various demographic changes.
• High Density of Population - India
• India is known for its high population density, particularly in urban areas such as Mumbai, Delhi, and Kolkata.
• This high density poses challenges for infrastructure, healthcare, and other public services.
• Mixed Economy - India and Pakistan
• Both India and Pakistan follow a mixed economy model, which incorporates elements of both capitalism and socialism.
• This model allows for private enterprise to coexist with government intervention in economic activities.

Additional Information

• Demographic Features
• Demographic features refer to the statistical characteristics of a population. These can include age, gender, income, education, and employment, among others.
• Understanding these features helps in planning and implementing policies for economic and social development.
• Fertility Rate
• The fertility rate is a measure of the number of children born to women of childbearing age (usually 15-49 years) in a given population.
• High fertility rates can lead to rapid population growth, which can strain resources and infrastructure.
• One-Child Policy
• China's one-child policy was introduced to curb population growth and improve living standards.
• The policy has had long-term effects on the country's demographic structure, leading to an aging population and gender imbalances.
• Population Density
• Population density is the number of people living per unit area of land. It is a key indicator of how crowded a place is.
• High population density can lead to challenges such as housing shortages, traffic congestion, and environmental degradation.
• Mixed Economy
• A mixed economy features both private and public ownership of property and businesses.
• This type of economy aims to balance the benefits of a free market with the social welfare provided by government intervention.

The correct answer is Beyond C, real and inverted.

Key Points

• When an object is placed between the center of curvature (C) and the focal point (F) of a concave mirror, the image formed is real, inverted, and located beyond C.
• The image is formed by the reflection of light rays that converge after bouncing off the mirror surface.
• The image size is larger than the object, making it magnified.
• This type of image formation is utilized in various optical devices like telescopes and microscopes.
• Concave mirrors are often used in applications where magnified images of objects are required.

Additional Information

• Concave Mirrors:
• Concave mirrors have a reflective surface that curves inward, resembling a portion of the interior of a sphere.
• They are also known as converging mirrors because they converge incoming light rays to a focal point.
• Center of Curvature (C):
• It is the center of the sphere from which the concave mirror is a part.
• The distance from the mirror to the center of curvature is called the radius of curvature.
• Focal Point (F):
• The point where parallel light rays converge after reflecting off the concave mirror.
• The distance from the mirror to the focal point is called the focal length.
• Image Formation by Concave Mirrors:
• When an object is placed at different positions relative to the focal point and center of curvature, the nature of the image formed (real or virtual, upright or inverted) varies.
• The mirror formula 1/f = 1/v + 1/u relates the object distance (u), image distance (v), and focal length (f).
• Applications:
• Concave mirrors are used in various applications such as shaving mirrors, satellite dishes, headlights, and reflecting telescopes.
• Their ability to form magnified images makes them useful in scientific and medical instruments.

The correct answer is Ligaments

Explanation:

• Ligaments are a type of connective tissue that connect one bone to another bone, providing stability and support to joints.
• They are composed mainly of long, stringy collagen fibers which provide great tensile strength.
• Ligaments are crucial for maintaining the structural integrity of the skeletal system, especially in joints where they help to prevent excessive movements that could lead to dislocation or injury.
• Tendons: Tendons are connective tissues that attach muscles to bones, not bones to bones. They play a key role in transmitting the force generated by muscles to the bones, enabling movement.
• Areolar tissue: Areolar tissue is a loose connective tissue that holds organs in place and attaches epithelial tissue to other underlying tissues. It also surrounds blood vessels and nerves. It does not connect bones to each other.
• Cartilage: Cartilage is a flexible connective tissue found in various forms in the body, such as in the joints between bones (as articular cartilage), the rib cage, the ear, the nose, and the bronchial tubes. It provides support and flexibility but does not directly connect bones to each other.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

Statements 1 and 3 are correct:

• Demand has increased significantly.
• Peak demand rose 1.4x from 2018-19 to 2023-24. Statement 2, while partially true, is not considered fully accurate due to practical gaps in achieving 100% supply, as per Survey’s phrasing.

The correct answer is Pistil.

Key Points

• The pistil is the female reproductive part of a flower.
• It typically consists of three main parts: the ovary, style, and stigma.
• The ovary contains ovules, which develop into seeds upon fertilization.
• The style is a slender stalk that connects the ovary to the stigma.
• The stigma is the receptive tip of the pistil that collects pollen.

Additional Information

• Sepals: These are the outer parts of the flower that protect the developing bud.
• Petals: Often colorful parts of a flower that attract pollinators.
• Stamens: The male reproductive parts of a flower, consisting of anthers and filaments.
• Pollen: The fine powder produced by the anthers of the stamens, containing male gametes.
• Pollination: The process by which pollen is transferred from the anther to the stigma, leading to fertilization.

The correct answer is Kolyma, Cherskiy, Stanovoy, and Yablonovy.

Key Points

• Kolyma Mountains: Located in northeastern Siberia, these mountains lie in the northernmost part of the sequence, closer to the Arctic Ocean. Their position marks the northern boundary of this chain.
• Cherskiy Range: Found south of the Kolyma Mountains, the Cherskiy Range stretches across parts of northeastern Siberia, making it the next in the north-to-south order.
• Stanovoy Range: Situated further south, near the border of Siberia and the Russian Far East, the Stanovoy Range acts as a transitional mountain range between northern and southern Asia.
• Yablonovy Range: Positioned in the southern part of eastern Siberia, the Yablonovy Range completes the sequence as the southernmost mountain range in this order.
• This sequence is determined based on the geographic latitude of each mountain range, ensuring an accurate north-to-south alignment.

Additional Information

• Kolyma Mountains:
• Located in the northeastern region of Russia, near the Kolyma River basin.
• Known for its extreme cold climate and permafrost due to proximity to the Arctic Ocean.
• Rich in gold and other minerals, contributing to mining activities in the region.
• Cherskiy Range:
• Named after Polish geographer and explorer Ivan Cherski.
• Home to some of the highest peaks in northeastern Siberia, including the Pobeda Peak.
• Features rugged terrain with glaciers and tundra vegetation.
• Stanovoy Range:
• Extends across southern Siberia, forming a natural boundary between Siberia and the Russian Far East.
• Acts as a watershed for several rivers, including the Lena River.
• Known for its dense forests and diverse wildlife.
• Yablonovy Range:
• Located in the southern part of Siberia, near the Trans-Baikal region.
• Rich in minerals like coal and iron ore, playing a vital role in regional mining industries.
• Known for its scenic beauty and biodiversity, attracting eco-tourism.

Important Points

• Geographical Order: The north-to-south arrangement of mountain ranges helps in understanding the climatic zones and biodiversity distribution in Asia.
• Environmental Significance: These mountain ranges play a crucial role in influencing weather patterns and acting as watersheds for major rivers.
• Economic Importance: Many of these ranges are rich in natural resources, including minerals and forests, contributing to regional economies.
• Exploration and Research: These ranges have been the subject of various geological and ecological studies due to their unique features.

The correct answer is Centrifugation

Explanation:

• Centrifugation is a technique that involves the use of centrifugal force to separate components of a mixture based on their density.
• It is widely used in laboratories for the analysis of blood samples, among other applications.
• In blood tests, centrifugation helps to separate blood cells from plasma or serum, which is essential for various diagnostic tests.
• The rate of separation in a suspension of particles by way of gravitational force mainly depends on the particle size and density.
• Particles of higher density or larger size typically travel at a faster rate and at some point will be separated from particles less dense or smaller.
• In blood tests, centrifugation is employed to separate the different components of blood, such as plasma, red blood cells (erythrocytes), white blood cells (leukocytes), and platelets.

Other Options:

• Filtration: This technique is used to separate solids from liquids or gases using a filter medium that allows only the fluid to pass through. It is not suitable for separating components of blood.
• Chromatography: This method is used to separate and analyze components of a mixture based on their movement through a stationary phase. While useful for many applications, it is not typically used for routine blood tests in diagnostic laboratories.
• Crystallization: This process involves the formation of solid crystals from a homogeneous solution. It is generally used in chemical processes for purifying substances and not for blood analysis.

The correct answer is Swadesh Darshan 2.0 - Theme-based tourism circuits.

Key Points

• Swadesh Darshan 2.0 is an upgraded version of the Swadesh Darshan Scheme, focusing on sustainable and theme-based tourism circuits.
• Launched by the Ministry of Tourism, it aims to enhance tourism infrastructure and create employment opportunities in tourism-focused areas.
• The scheme prioritizes the development of circuits based on themes such as cultural heritage, ecotourism, adventure, and wellness tourism.
• It aligns with the vision of promoting responsible tourism, ensuring environmental sustainability and socio-economic benefits to local communities.
• Funding is provided for infrastructure development, capacity building, and marketing under this initiative to bolster India's tourism sector.

Additional Information

• Swadesh Darshan Scheme (Original Version)
• Launched in 2014-15, the original scheme aimed at developing theme-based tourist circuits across India.
• Some of the circuits include Buddhist Circuit, Himalayan Circuit, Coastal Circuit, and Tribal Circuit.
• It focused on integrated development of tourism infrastructure in specific destinations.
• Incredible India Campaign
• A flagship campaign by the Ministry of Tourism to promote India's rich cultural heritage globally.
• It emphasizes India's diversity, historical landmarks, and unique experiences for international tourists.
• National Tourism Policy 2022
• Aims to position India as a global tourism hub and strengthen domestic tourism.
• Focuses on sustainable tourism, digitalization, and supporting local businesses in the tourism sector.
• Eco-Tourism in India
• Promotes responsible travel to natural areas, conserving the environment and improving the well-being of locals.
• Popular destinations include Kaziranga National Park, Sundarbans, and Silent Valley National Park.

The correct answer is Tianjin, China.

In News

• The 25th SCO Summit was held in Tianjin, China, from August 31 to September 1, 2025.

Key Points

• The 25th SCO Summit took place in Tianjin, China, with discussions focusing on security, global governance, economic cooperation, and sustainable development.
• PM Modi highlighted India’s vision for SCO under three pillars: security, connectivity, and opportunity.
• The summit resulted in the adoption of the Tianjin Declaration, reaffirming commitments to peace, cooperation, and a shared future.
• India reiterated its support for SCO reforms and the need for a multilateral system that represents the Global South's interests.

Additional Information

• Tianjin Declaration
• The Tianjin Declaration emphasized collective efforts in AI, energy, sustainable development, and shaping a shared future for humanity.
• SCO Vision
• PM Modi presented India’s approach to the SCO, focusing on combating terrorism, promoting infrastructure, and fostering innovation and cultural dialogue.
• Chabahar Port and INSTC
• India reaffirmed its support for the Chabahar Port and the International North-South Transport Corridor to enhance connectivity and trade in the region.
• Civilizational Dialogue Forum
• A proposal by PM Modi to establish a forum under SCO to promote cultural exchanges and understanding among member nations.

The correct answer is A lichen.

Key Points

• Litmus, a natural pH indicator, is derived from lichens, which are symbiotic organisms formed by the association of fungi and algae.
• Lichens are mainly found in cold and temperate regions, growing on rocks, trees, and soil. They are known for their ability to survive in extreme environmental conditions.
• Litmus is produced by processing specific species of lichen, such as Roccella tinctoria, which are rich in coloring substances.
• The litmus solution is used to detect the pH level of substances, turning red in acidic conditions and blue in alkaline conditions.
• Lichens have historically been used not only for litmus production but also as a source of dyes and medicines due to their unique chemical properties.

Additional Information

• Lichens:
• Definition: Lichens are composite organisms formed through a symbiotic relationship between fungi and algae or cyanobacteria.
• Characteristics: They are capable of surviving in extreme conditions and play an important role in ecosystems by contributing to soil formation and nutrient cycling.
• Uses: Apart from producing litmus, lichens are used as natural dyes, in perfumes, and as medicines to treat wounds and infections.
• Examples: Common lichen species used for litmus production include Roccella tinctoria and Lecanora.
• pH Indicators:
• Litmus: A natural indicator derived from lichens, used to test acidity or alkalinity.
• Other natural indicators: Turmeric, red cabbage extract, and beetroot juice are also used as natural pH indicators.
• Synthetic indicators: Phenolphthalein and methyl orange are examples of synthetic indicators used in laboratories.
• Comparison with other options:
• Red algae: While red algae like Gelidium and Gracilaria are used for producing agar, they are not a source of litmus.
• Fungi: Fungi contribute to the symbiotic relationship in lichens but do not directly produce litmus.
• Brown algae: Brown algae, such as Sargassum, are primarily used in food and industrial applications, not for litmus production.
• Significance of Litmus:
• Litmus is widely used in laboratories and industries for quick and simple pH testing.
• It plays a crucial role in applications like water testing, food quality control, and chemical manufacturing.

The correct answer is Option 2: i - 2, ii - 1, iii - 5, iv - 4, v - 3.

Key Points

• Sublimation: It refers to the direct transformation of a substance from the solid phase to the gas phase without passing through the liquid phase. This process is typically observed in substances like dry ice (solid carbon dioxide). Hence, statement i matches with 2.
• Distillation: It is a method of separation that relies on differences in the boiling points of components in a mixture. This process is commonly used for purifying liquids. Hence, statement ii matches with 1.
• Evaporation: This process involves the change of a liquid into a vapor at a temperature below its boiling point. It is often used for separating a liquid from dissolved solids. Hence, statement iii matches with 5.
• Filtration: This is a physical method used to separate a solid from a liquid by passing the mixture through a filter medium. It is widely used in laboratories and industries. Hence, statement iv matches with 4.
• Condensation: This refers to the transformation of a gas into a liquid, typically due to cooling. For instance, water vapor in the air condenses into liquid water when cooled. Hence, statement v matches with 3.

Additional Information

• Sublimation:
• Sublimation is commonly observed in substances like iodine, naphthalene, and dry ice.
• It is a useful process in industries for purifying compounds and in creating products like freeze-dried foods.
• It occurs under specific conditions of temperature and pressure, often at reduced pressure.
• Distillation:
• It is categorized into various types, such as simple distillation, fractional distillation, and steam distillation, depending on the application.
• Fractional distillation is commonly used in oil refineries to separate crude oil into various fractions like diesel, kerosene, and petrol.
• Distillation is also used in alcoholic beverage production to concentrate ethanol.
• Evaporation:
• Evaporation plays a significant role in natural processes like the water cycle, where water from oceans and rivers evaporates and forms clouds.
• It is also used in industrial applications such as salt production from seawater.
• Factors like temperature, surface area, and airflow affect the rate of evaporation.
• Filtration:
• Filtration is widely used in water purification systems to remove impurities and sediments.
• It is also employed in various industries, such as pharmaceuticals, food processing, and chemical manufacturing.
• Filters can range from simple paper filters to advanced membrane filters used for microfiltration and ultrafiltration.
• Condensation:
• Condensation is essential in refrigeration and air conditioning systems, where gases are cooled and condensed into liquids.
• It is a key process in the water cycle, leading to the formation of dew, fog, and clouds.
• Condensation occurs when a gas loses thermal energy and its molecules come closer together.

Important Points

• Sublimation: Sublimation is utilized in freeze-drying techniques, which are employed in food preservation and pharmaceutical industries.
• Distillation: Distillation is critical in chemical laboratories for purifying solvents and isolating chemical compounds.
• Evaporation: Evaporation is influenced by environmental factors such as humidity, wind speed, and ambient temperature.
• Filtration: Filtration systems are pivotal in ensuring clean drinking water and maintaining hygiene in medical environments.
• Condensation: Condensation forms the basis of cloud formation and precipitation, which are vital for sustaining ecosystems.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

• Simlipal Biosphere Reserve – Located in Odisha, it is known for its tiger reserve and rich biodiversity.
• Nokrek Biosphere Reserve – Situated in Meghalaya, it is famous for its rare citrus species and is a UNESCO-recognized biosphere reserve.
• Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve – Spread across Kerala and Tamil Nadu, it is part of the Western Ghats and harbors unique flora and fauna.
• Manas Biosphere Reserve – Found in Assam, it is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and known for its rich biodiversity, including the golden langur and pygmy hog.

Given:   

Profit% = 54%

Discount% = 1%                          

Formula Used:

Profit = SP – CP

Discount = MP – SP

Profit% = (Profit /CP) × 100 

Discount% = (Discount /MP) × 100

SP = {(100 + P%)/100} × CP

SP = {(100 – D%)/100} × MP

Where P is Profit, D is discount, CP is cost price, SP is selling price and MP is maximum retail price.

Calculation:

SP = {(100 + P%)/100} × CP

SP = {(100 – D%)/100} × MP

⇒ {(100 + P%)/100} × CP = {(100 – D%)/100} × MP

⇒ (100 + P%) × CP = (100 – D%) × MP 

⇒ CP/MP = (100 – D%)/(100 + P%)

⇒ Putting D = 1 and P = 54

⇒ CP/MP = 99/154

⇒ 9/14

⇒ CP ∶ MP = 9 ∶ 14

⇒ SP = (154/100) × CP

⇒ SP = (77/50) × CP

⇒ SP/CP = 77/50

⇒ CP ∶ SP = 50 ∶ 77

⇒ Only I is incorrect.

∴ II and III are correct.

The correct answer is Kulasekarapattinam, Tamil Nadu.

In News

• ISRO’s Kulasekarapattinam spaceport in Tamil Nadu will launch its first Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV) in 2027.

Key Points

• Kulasekarapattinam spaceport is ISRO’s second launch complex outside Andhra Pradesh.
• SSLV from this spaceport will support polar satellite launches of up to 500 kg, enhancing India's small satellite launch capabilities.
• The spaceport will be fully commissioned in 24 months, with Indian industry participation in SSLV production.
• ISRO Chairman V. Narayanan confirmed the launch timeline at IIT Madras, inaugurating the S. Ramakrishnan Centre of Excellence for Research.

Additional Information

• Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh
• Home to ISRO’s primary launch facility, the Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC).
• Chandipur, Odisha
• Used for launching missile systems under the DRDO’s Integrated Test Range (ITR).
• Mahendragiri, Tamil Nadu
• ISRO’s propulsion testing center, used for testing cryogenic and liquid propulsion engines.

Answer: C

Key Points

• The Moist deciduous forests are found in the regions which record rainfall b/w 100-200 cm.
• These forests are found in the NE states along the foothills of Himalayas, eastern slopes of the Western Ghats & Odisha.
• Teak, sal, shisham, hurra, mahua, amla, semul, kusum, and sandalwood etc. are the main species of these forests.

The correct answer is 500 GW.

Key Points

• India has set an ambitious target of achieving 500 GW of renewable energy installed capacity by the year 2030.
• This target includes contributions from various renewable sources such as solar, wind, hydropower, and biomass.
• The initiative is part of India's commitment under the Paris Agreement to combat climate change and reduce carbon emissions.
• India aims to fulfill 50% of its energy requirements from renewable sources by 2030.
• As of 2023, India has already achieved around 125 GW of renewable energy capacity, showcasing significant progress toward the 2030 goal.

Additional Information

• National Solar Mission (NSM):
• Launched in 2010, NSM is part of India's National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC).
• It aims to establish India as a global leader in solar energy by achieving a target of 100 GW of solar capacity by 2022.
• Paris Agreement:
• An international treaty adopted in 2015 to combat climate change.
• India pledged to reduce its carbon intensity by 33-35% by 2030 compared to 2005 levels.
• Renewable energy targets are a key component of India's commitment under this agreement.
• International Solar Alliance (ISA):
• Founded by India and France in 2015, ISA is a treaty-based intergovernmental organization.
• Its objective is to promote the use of solar energy globally and mobilize financial resources for its expansion.
• Green Energy Corridor Project:
• A government initiative to integrate renewable energy into India's power grid.
• The project involves setting up transmission networks to handle renewable energy efficiently.

Answer: B

Key Points

• The UTs were introduced in the States Reorganization Act 1956 by 7th Constitutional amendment Act 1956. Hence, statement 1 is correct
• 42nd Constitutional amendment Act,1976 made the president bound to the advice of the cabinet. Hence, statement 2 is wrong.
• 97th Constitutional Amendment Act gave constitutional status to the Cooperative societies by inserting part IX-B to the Constitution of the country. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The term Socialist , Secular & Integrity in constitution is added by 42nd Amendment Act. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

• Sita Kund – Located ~6 km east of Munger town. It's a well-known hot spring in Munger district tied to Ramayana lore
• Rishi Kund – Situated ~9 km south of Sita Kund, nestled in Munger’s Kharagpur hills
• Gaumukh Kund – Also listed among the principal hot springs in the Munger area
• Nanak Kund – This spring is linked to Rajgir in Nalanda district, not Munger

Additional Information

List of Hot Springs in Bihar:

The correct answer is (2v₁v₂)/(v₁ + v₂)

Solution:

Let the total distance = 2d

First half distance = d

Second half distance = d

Time taken for first half

t₁ = d/v₁

Time taken for second half

t₂ = d/v₂

Total distance

= 2d

Total time

= d/v₁ + d/v₂

Average speed

= Total Distance / Total Time

= 2d / (d/v₁ + d/v₂)

= 2d / [d(v₁ + v₂)/(v₁v₂)]

= 2v₁v₂ / (v₁ + v₂)

Hence, the average speed is

(2v₁v₂)/(v₁ + v₂)

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

• The Bihar Budget 2025–26 earmarked funds to open 108 new urban medical centres across the state. Hence, option 4 is correct.
• These centres are designed to serve urban and peri‑urban populations, particularly slum dwellers and economically vulnerable groups.
• This initiative is a key component of the health sector’s expansion, which also includes a dedicated cancer hospital in Begusarai and special care centres for cancer patients.
• Why It Matters:
• Bridging health access gaps: These centres aim to decongest district hospitals by offering primary urban healthcare.
• Strengthening public health: Complementing ongoing efforts, Bihar has already set up 21 urban health and wellness centres in Patna under a Smart City mission
• Boosted health allocation: The overall health budget for 2025–26 stands at approximately ₹20,000–20,335 crore, reflecting a strategic focus on healthcare infrastructure.

The correct answer is 'Abuse.'

Key Points

• Let us see the meaning of Vituperate:
• Vituperate: blame or insult (someone) in strong or violent language. (आरोप; हिंसक भाषा में किसी को दोष देना या अपमान करना)
• Example: No one else attracted such vituperation from him.
• Let us see the meanings of the given options:
• Encourage: give support, confidence, or hope to (someone). ((किसी को) समर्थन, विश्वास या आशा देना।)
• Abuse: treat with cruelty or violence, especially regularly or repeatedly. (गाली देना)
• Appreciate: to recognize how good someone or something is and to value him, her, or it. (यह पहचानने के लिए कि कोई व्यक्ति या कोई चीज़ कितनी अच्छी है और उसे महत्व देना)
• Copy: to produce something so that it is the same as an original piece of work. (किसी चीज का उत्पादन करना ताकि वह मूल कृति के समान हो)
• From the meanings of the given words, we can say that the word 'Vituperate' is similar in meaning to the option 'Abuse.'
• Hence, the correct answer is 'Abuse.'

Additional Information

• Let us see the antonym of the given options:

The correct answer is Valence electrons.

Key Points

• Valence electrons are the electrons present in the outermost shell of an atom. These electrons play a crucial role in determining the chemical behavior of an atom.
• The chemical properties of an element are largely influenced by the number of valence electrons, as they are involved in chemical bonding and reactions.
• Atoms with similar numbers of valence electrons exhibit similar chemical behavior and belong to the same group in the periodic table.
• The reactivity of an atom depends on how easily it can gain, lose, or share valence electrons to achieve a stable electron configuration (typically a full outer shell).
• For example, elements in Group 1 of the periodic table (like Sodium and Potassium) have one valence electron, making them highly reactive, while elements in Group 18 (like Neon and Argon) have a full valence shell and are chemically inert.

Additional Information

• Atomic Weight:
• The atomic weight refers to the weighted average mass of the atoms of an element, calculated using the abundance of isotopes. However, it does not directly influence the chemical behavior of an atom.
• For example, isotopes of Carbon (C-12 and C-14) have different atomic weights but exhibit similar chemical properties.
• Neutron Count:
• Neutrons are subatomic particles found in the nucleus of an atom. They do not participate in chemical reactions and thus do not determine chemical behavior.
• Neutron count is significant in determining the isotope of an element but has little to no impact on chemical reactivity.
• Mass Number:
• The mass number is the sum of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom. While it helps identify isotopes, it does not influence chemical behavior directly.
• Chemical properties remain consistent across isotopes, as they are determined by the number of electrons in the outer shell.
• Valence Electrons:
• Valence electrons define the atom's ability to form bonds and participate in chemical reactions.
• Elements with fewer or more valence electrons tend to lose, gain, or share electrons to achieve stability, such as through ionic or covalent bonding.
• For instance, Hydrogen has one valence electron and forms bonds easily to achieve stability.
• Periodic Table:
• The periodic table is organized based on the number of valence electrons, with elements in the same group having similar chemical properties.
• This arrangement highlights the importance of valence electrons in predicting chemical behavior.

Important Points

• Octet Rule:
• Atoms tend to gain, lose, or share electrons to achieve a full outer shell of 8 electrons (except for Hydrogen and Helium).
• This stability is the basis for chemical bonding and reactivity.
• Electronegativity:
• Electronegativity refers to an atom's ability to attract shared electrons in a chemical bond.
• It is influenced by the number of valence electrons and is critical in determining chemical properties.
• Ionization Energy:
• The energy required to remove an electron from an atom is directly related to its valence electrons.
• Atoms with fewer valence electrons generally have lower ionization energy and are more reactive.
• Covalent and Ionic Bonds:
• Valence electrons are central to both covalent bonding (electron sharing) and ionic bonding (electron transfer).
• Elements with 1-3 valence electrons typically form ionic bonds, while those with 4-7 valence electrons form covalent bonds.

The correct answer is Charaka.

Key Points

• Charaka is one of the principal founders of Ayurveda, the ancient Indian system of medicine, which is deeply rooted in holistic healing practices.
• He authored the renowned text Charaka Samhita, which is considered one of the foundational works of Ayurveda and provides detailed explanations of various medical principles, practices, and treatments.
• The Charaka Samhita emphasizes the importance of maintaining balance among the three doshas: Vata, Pitta, and Kapha, which are key to human health and well-being.
• Charaka introduced a systematic approach to diagnosis and treatment, focusing on dietary regulations, herbal medicine, and lifestyle changes for disease prevention and cure.
• He contributed significantly to the study of human anatomy, physiology, and pathology, laying the groundwork for modern medical systems.

Additional Information

• Sushruta:
• Sushruta was another prominent ancient Indian physician and is often referred to as the "Father of Surgery." He authored the Sushruta Samhita, which includes detailed descriptions of surgical techniques and procedures.
• The Sushruta Samhita covers various surgical practices, including rhinoplasty (nose reconstruction), cataract surgery, and wound management.
• It also outlines the use of surgical instruments and emphasizes the importance of cleanliness and sterilization during surgeries.
• Patanjali:
• Patanjali is credited with composing the Yoga Sutras, a foundational text on Yoga philosophy.
• While not directly related to Ayurveda, Patanjali’s work complements the holistic approach of Ayurveda by focusing on mental and spiritual well-being.
• The Yoga Sutras emphasize practices such as meditation, physical postures, and breath control to achieve balance and harmony.
• Aryabhata:
• Aryabhata was a renowned ancient Indian mathematician and astronomer, known for his contributions to mathematics and astronomy.
• His work, Aryabhatiya, focuses on topics such as arithmetic, algebra, trigonometry, and celestial calculations.
• He is not associated with Ayurveda or medical sciences but played a significant role in advancing scientific knowledge in ancient India.
• Ayurveda:
• Ayurveda is an ancient Indian medical system that originated more than 3,000 years ago and focuses on holistic health.
• It emphasizes the balance between mind, body, and spirit, using natural remedies, dietary guidelines, and lifestyle practices.
• Ayurveda is divided into eight branches, including Kaya Chikitsa (Internal Medicine), Shalya Tantra (Surgery), and Rasayana (Rejuvenation Therapy).
• Both Charaka and Sushruta are considered pioneers in their respective branches of Ayurveda.

Important Points

• Role of Charaka:
• Charaka focused extensively on preventive medicine and advocated for maintaining a healthy lifestyle to prevent diseases.
• His teachings highlight the importance of individualized treatment based on the patient’s constitution and dosha balance.
• Charaka’s contributions are still regarded as the cornerstone of Ayurvedic medical practices worldwide.
• Impact of Sushruta:
• Sushruta’s surgical techniques influenced modern medicine and are considered revolutionary in ancient medical practices.
• His emphasis on anatomical knowledge and surgical precision laid the foundation for advancements in medical surgery.
• Ayurveda and Modern Medicine:
• Ayurveda is recognized globally as a complementary and alternative medicine system.
• Its principles have influenced modern holistic health practices, including herbal medicine, detoxification therapies, and wellness strategies.

The correct answer is New Delhi.

Key Points

• The Sepak Takraw Federation of India (STFI) is headquartered in New Delhi, India.
• STFI is the governing body responsible for the promotion and regulation of Sepak Takraw in the country.
• New Delhi serves as a central administrative hub for various national sports federations in India.
• STFI organizes national tournaments and collaborates with international bodies to promote Sepak Takraw globally.
• The federation is affiliated with the International Sepak Takraw Federation (ISTAF), which governs the sport worldwide.

Additional Information

• Sepak Takraw:
• Sepak Takraw is a traditional Southeast Asian sport that combines elements of soccer and volleyball.
• It is played with a rattan ball and involves players using their feet, head, knees, and chest to hit the ball over a net.
• International Sepak Takraw Federation (ISTAF):
• ISTAF is the global governing body for Sepak Takraw and promotes the sport worldwide.
• It organizes major international tournaments, including the ISTAF World Cup and King's Cup.
• Recognition in India:
• Sepak Takraw has gained recognition in India under the auspices of STFI.
• Indian teams regularly participate in international events, showcasing talent on the global stage.
• Development of Sepak Takraw:
• Efforts are being made by STFI to popularize the sport at the grassroots level.
• Workshops, training camps, and school-level competitions are held to increase participation.

The correct answer is Ghiyasuddin Balban.

Key Points

• Ghiyasuddin Balban was a ruler of the Delhi Sultanate who introduced the practice of Sijda.
• Sijda is a form of prostration where the subjects would bow before the ruler to show their respect and submission.
• The practice was part of Balban's efforts to strengthen his authority and establish the divine right of kingship.
• He also introduced the practice of Paibos, which involved kissing the feet of the Sultan.

Additional Information

• Ghiyasuddin Balban's Reign:
• He ruled from 1266 to 1287 AD.
• Balban was one of the most powerful rulers of the Slave Dynasty.
• His reign is noted for strengthening the Sultanate against internal and external threats.
• Administrative Reforms:
• Balban reformed the military and administrative systems to centralize power.
• He introduced a strong spy system to keep an eye on the nobility and the general public.
• Balban's Legacy:
• He is remembered for his efforts to consolidate the Sultanate and maintain law and order.
• His policies laid the foundation for the future expansion and stability of the Delhi Sultanate.
• Divine Right of Kingship:
• Balban propagated the idea that the Sultan was God's representative on Earth.
• This concept helped in enhancing the Sultan's authority and legitimacy.

The correct answer is Mumbai Indians.

In News

• Mumbai Indians won their second Women’s Premier League (WPL) title by defeating Delhi Capitals in the 2025 final.
• Mumbai secured an eight-run victory, with Nat Sciver-Brunt taking three crucial wickets.

Key Points

• Mumbai Indians set a target of 150 runs, with Harmanpreet Kaur scoring 66 runs.
• Delhi Capitals, led by Meg Lanning, fell short despite strong performances from Marizanne Kapp and Shree Charani.
• Nat Sciver-Brunt was named Player of the Tournament and also won the Orange Cap.
• Amelia Kerr won the Purple Cap for taking the most wickets.

Additional Information

• Other Award Winners:
• Harmanpreet Kaur – Player of the Match
• Chinelle Henry – Highest strike-rate
• Ashleigh Gardner – Most sixes
• Annabel Sutherland – Catch of the season
• Shabnim Ismail – Most dot balls
• Amanjot Kaur – Emerging player of the season
• Gujarat Giants – Fair play award
• Delhi Capitals have now reached the WPL final three times but have never won the title.

The correct answer is - Motor vehicles

Key Points

• Motor vehicles
• Infrastructure cess is a tax imposed on the production and import of motor vehicles.
• The purpose of this cess is to generate revenue for the development of infrastructure, particularly roads and highways.
• This tax is usually added to the cost of vehicles, making them slightly more expensive for consumers.
• The collected funds are allocated towards improving the transportation network and maintaining existing infrastructure.

Additional Information

• Builders
• Builders are typically subject to different kinds of taxes and levies, such as Goods and Services Tax (GST) and real estate development charges.
• Railways
• Railways are a separate entity and have their own set of funding mechanisms, including government grants and passenger fares.
• Public Transport
• Public transport systems like buses and trams are funded through ticket sales, government subsidies, and other specific taxes, but not through infrastructure cess.

The correct answer is Varun Sagar.

In News

• The Rajasthan government renamed Foy Sagar in Ajmer as Varun Sagar.
• The lake was originally named after a British engineer during the colonial period.
• Assembly Speaker Vasudev Devnani stated that the renaming process was completed after orders from the Ajmer Municipal Corporation.
• The lake is now dedicated to Lord Varun, the god of water, and a ghat with a statue of Lord Varun will be developed.

Key Points

• Foy Sagar, a historic lake in Ajmer, was built during the British era in 1892.
• The lake was initially created to address water scarcity and drought conditions in the region.
• The renaming is part of an initiative to remove British-era names that symbolize colonial rule.
• Many people, especially from the Sindhi community, consider the lake’s water sacred and use it for religious purposes.

Additional Information

• King Edward Memorial Bhawan Renaming
• Previously known as King Edward Memorial Bhawan.
• Renamed as Maharishi Dayanand Vishrant Grih.
• Located on Ajmer’s Railway Station Road.
• Named after Maharishi Dayanand, the founder of Arya Samaj.
• Other Renamed Places in India
• Allahabad → Prayagraj
• Faizabad → Ayodhya
• Habibganj Railway Station → Rani Kamlapati Railway Station
• Rajpath → Kartavya Path
• Lord Varun in Hindu Mythology
• Lord Varun is regarded as the god of water and oceans in Hinduism.
• He is one of the Adityas (solar deities) mentioned in the Vedas.
• Often depicted riding a mythical sea creature called Makara.

सही उत्तर है - "बहुब्रीहि" l

Key Points

• 'पीताम्बर' शब्द का समास विग्रह - 'पीत है अम्बर जिसका अर्थात् 'कृष्ण' l पीत का अर्थ है - पीला l
• 'पीतांबर' में 'बहुब्रीहि' समास है।
• अन्य विकल्प :-
• तत्पुरुष (द्विगु) - द्विगु समास भी तत्पुरुष समास का ही उपभेद है; अत: इसका भी पूर्वपद गौण तथा उत्तरपद प्रधान होता है।
• द्वन्द्व - समास का वह रूप जिसमें प्रथम और द्वितीय दोनों पद प्रधान होते हैं उसे द्वन्द्व समास कहते हैं।
• अव्ययीभाव - इस समास का पहला पद प्रधान होता है और समस्तपद वाक्य में क्रियाविशेषण का काम करता है।

Additional Information

• जिस समास में कोई पद प्रधान न होकर (दिए गए पदों में) किसी अन्य पद की प्रधानता होती है। यह अपने पदों से भिन्न किसी विशेष संज्ञा का विशेषण है, उनको बहुव्रीहि समास कहा जाता है।
• बहुव्रीहि समास के उदाहरण :-
• चतुर्भुज : चार हैं भुजाएं जिसकी (विष्णु)
• महादेव : महान है जो देव अर्थात शिव।

The correct answer is: 'Justice C.N. Broomfield'.

Key Points

• Justice C.N. Broomfield was the judge who presided over Mahatma Gandhi's trial in 1922.
• Gandhiji was tried for his involvement in the Non-Cooperation Movement, which aimed at gaining full independence from British rule.
• The trial took place after the movement was called off due to the Chauri Chaura incident, where a violent mob killed 22 policemen.
• Justice Broomfield sentenced Gandhi to six years of imprisonment for sedition, but praised him for his moral and ethical integrity during the trial.

Incorrect Options

• Justice William Hodges
• There is no historical record of a Judge William Hodges presiding over any significant trial involving Mahatma Gandhi.
• Justice Joseph Noel
• Justice Joseph Noel is not associated with any trial of Mahatma Gandhi. His name does not appear in historical accounts relating to Gandhi's legal battles.
• Justice Thomas Barker
• Similarly, Justice Thomas Barker did not preside over any notable trial involving Mahatma Gandhi. His name is not linked with Gandhiji's legal history.

Hence, the correct answer is Justice C.N. Broomfield, and the other options are not relevant to the trial of Mahatma Gandhi after the withdrawal of the Non-Cooperation Movement.

Additional Information

• Non-Cooperation Movement:
• Launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1920, the Non-Cooperation Movement was a significant part of the Indian independence struggle against British colonial rule.
• It aimed to resist British rule through non-violent means such as boycotting British goods, institutions, and services.
• The movement was abruptly called off in 1922 after the Chauri Chaura incident, where a violent clash resulted in the death of policemen, contradicting the movement's non-violent principles.
• Chauri Chaura Incident:
• On February 5, 1922, a violent altercation between the police and protesters in the town of Chauri Chaura, Uttar Pradesh, led to the death of 22 policemen.
• In response to this violence, Gandhiji called off the Non-Cooperation Movement, emphasizing the importance of non-violence in the struggle for independence.

The correct answer is Vitamin A deficiency - color blindness.

Key Points

• Vitamin A deficiency typically leads to night blindness, not color blindness.
• Color blindness is generally an inherited condition, not related to vitamin deficiencies.
• Iron deficiency is correctly associated with anemia, a condition where the blood lacks enough healthy red blood cells.
• Vitamin D deficiency is correctly linked to rickets, a condition that affects bone development in children.
• Vitamin C deficiency is correctly associated with scurvy, which causes weakness, anemia, gum disease, and skin problems.

Additional Information

• Night Blindness
• Caused by a deficiency in Vitamin A.
• Leads to difficulty seeing in low light or darkness.
• Can be treated by increasing Vitamin A intake through diet or supplements.
• Anemia
• A condition where the body does not have enough red blood cells to carry adequate oxygen to tissues.
• Commonly caused by iron deficiency.
• Symptoms include fatigue, weakness, and pale skin.
• Rickets
• Caused by a deficiency in Vitamin D, calcium, or phosphate.
• Leads to softening and weakening of bones in children.
• Can result in bone deformities and growth disturbances.
• Scurvy
• Caused by a severe deficiency of Vitamin C.
• Symptoms include anemia, gum disease, and skin hemorrhages.
• Can be prevented and treated with Vitamin C-rich foods or supplements.
• Color Blindness
• A genetic condition that affects the ability to distinguish between certain colors.
• Most commonly affects the differentiation between red and green.
• Not caused by vitamin deficiencies, but rather by problems in the color-detecting molecules in the eye.

The correct answer is Option 2: i, iii, and iv.

Key Points

• Gogabeel Bird Sanctuary is located in the Katihar district of Bihar. Hence, option ii is correct.
• The sanctuary is recognized as the first 'Community Reserve' of Bihar and is known for its rich biodiversity.
• It lies in the northeastern region of Bihar, and it is an important habitat for migratory birds, aquatic species, and vegetation. Hence, it is not located in Samastipur (option i), Kaimur (option iii), or Nalanda (option iv).
• Samastipur, Kaimur, and Nalanda districts are geographically and ecologically different from Katihar, which houses Gogabeel Bird Sanctuary.
• Gogabeel Bird Sanctuary is formed at the confluence of three rivers: the Mahananda, Kankhar, and Ganga, making it a unique and suitable habitat for wetland species.

Additional Information

• Biodiversity of Gogabeel Bird Sanctuary:
• The sanctuary is an important habitat for over 90 species of birds, including several endangered and migratory species.
• Birds such as the black-necked stork, white ibis, and Eurasian wigeon are commonly spotted here.
• The wetland ecosystem supports various aquatic plants and animals, making it ecologically significant.
• Geography and Location:
• Katihar district is located in the northeastern part of Bihar and is known for its rich wetlands and water bodies.
• Unlike Katihar, districts such as Samastipur, Kaimur, and Nalanda lack such extensive wetland ecosystems, which are necessary for a bird sanctuary.
• Importance of Wetland Ecosystems:
• Wetlands serve as critical habitats for birds, fish, and other aquatic organisms.
• They act as natural water purifiers, flood controllers, and carbon sinks.
• Gogabeel Bird Sanctuary contributes to the conservation of wetland biodiversity and serves as a tourist attraction.
• Community Reserve Concept:
• Gogabeel is designated as Bihar's first 'Community Reserve,' promoting community-based conservation efforts.
• The community reserve model encourages local participation in biodiversity conservation and sustainable resource use.

Important Points

• Samastipur: This district is known for its agricultural activities and does not host any significant wetland or sanctuary like Gogabeel.
• Kaimur: Located in western Bihar, it is known for its hilly terrain and the Kaimur Wildlife Sanctuary, not Gogabeel Bird Sanctuary.
• Nalanda: Famous for its historical significance, including Nalanda University, it lacks the ecological features required for a sanctuary like Gogabeel.
• Katihar: Gogabeel Bird Sanctuary is located in this district, highlighting its importance as a biodiversity hotspot and wetland ecosystem in Bihar.

The correct answer is Sushil Kumar Modi.

Key Points

• Sushil Kumar Modi is a senior Indian politician from Bihar and a member of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP).
• He served as the Deputy Chief Minister of Bihar multiple times, showcasing his significant role in Bihar’s politics.
• Modi was posthumously awarded the Padma Bhushan in 2025 for his contributions to public life and governance in Bihar.
• His work focused on economic reforms, welfare schemes, and strengthening governance in Bihar during his tenure.
• The Padma Bhushan is India’s third-highest civilian award, recognizing distinguished service of high order.

Additional Information

• Padma Awards:
• Padma Awards are one of India’s highest civilian honors, instituted in 1954.
• They are classified into three categories: Padma Vibhushan (highest), Padma Bhushan (second highest), and Padma Shri (third highest).
• These awards recognize achievements in various fields, including arts, public affairs, science, and social work.
• Bihar’s Political Landscape:
• Bihar has been a politically significant state in India, producing notable leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan, Lalu Prasad Yadav, and Nitish Kumar.
• Political reforms and governance improvements have been pivotal in shaping Bihar’s development trajectory.
• Economic Reforms in Bihar:
• Under leaders like Sushil Kumar Modi, Bihar saw advancements in fiscal policy, infrastructure development, and welfare schemes.
• Efforts were focused on improving education, healthcare, and rural development in the state.
• Recognition of Public Service:
• Posthumous awards like the Padma Bhushan highlight the importance of contributions made by individuals to society and governance.
• Such recognitions aim to inspire future generations to contribute to public life and nation-building.

The correct answer is 'August'

Key Points

• Maximum Sea Temperature in the Northern Hemisphere:
• In the Northern Hemisphere, the maximum annual sea temperature is typically recorded in August.
• This is primarily because of the thermal inertia of water; the ocean takes longer to heat up compared to the land. During the summer months, the ocean absorbs heat, which peaks around August, after which it begins to cool down as autumn sets in.
• In contrast to land surfaces, which can heat up and cool down more quickly, the ocean’s thermal capacity means it reaches its highest temperature later in the season.

Additional Information

• February:
• February is typically one of the coldest months in the Northern Hemisphere, as it is near the peak of winter. The sea temperature is generally lower during this time.
• April:
• April marks the transition from winter to spring, and while the ocean starts warming up, it is still relatively cold compared to the peak temperatures in August.
• December:
• December is near the beginning of winter in the Northern Hemisphere, which results in lower sea temperatures compared to the summer months.

Important Points

• The time lag between maximum solar radiation in the Northern Hemisphere (around June solstice) and the highest sea surface temperatures (usually around August) is due to the thermal properties of water.
• Sea temperatures can affect various climatic phenomena, including ocean currents, weather patterns, and marine ecosystems.
• While August is typically the peak, factors such as latitude, depth, and ocean currents can influence the precise timing of the maximum temperature in specific regions.

GIVEN:

Rate of Interest = 12%

Time = 8 and 10 years

Difference in Interest = Rs. 14688

FORMULA USED:

Interest = P × R × T / 100

CALCULATION:

Let Principal = Rs. x,

According to the question

∴ {(x × 10 × 12)/100} – {(x × 8 × 12)/100} = 14,688        

⇒ {120x/(100)} – {96x/100} = 14,688

⇒ 24x/100 = 14,688                           

∴ x = Rs. 61,200

Answer: B

Key Points

• Tanka (silver coins) and Jital (copper coins) were introduced by Delhi Sultan Iltutmish. Hence, option (a) is incorrect.
• Satavahana coins were made of Copper, Silver, Lead, and Potin, appearing in Round, Square, and Rectangular shapes. Silver coins became common after Gautamiputra Satakarni, often depicting king’s portraits. Some gold coins were also issued. Hence, option
  

(b) is correct.

• Varaha referred to the gold coins issued by Vijayanagar kings. Hence, option (c) is incorrect.
• Shahrukhi coins (silver coins) were in circulation since the time of Babur and Humayun. They remained popular under Humayun and Akbar until replaced by the rupee. Hence, option (d) is incorrect.

Additional Information

• First punch-marked coins in India, called Pana, were minted by Janapadas in the Indo-Gangetic Plain.
• Gupta period gold coins were known as Dinar.
• Mughal gold coins were called Muhar. Akbar issued coins in gold, silver, and copper, named Muhar, Rupiya, Dam, and Falus/Tanka, respectively.
• Dam was a copper coin introduced by Sher Shah Suri.

The correct answer is Banihal Pass.

Key Points

• Banihal Pass is a mountain pass located in the Pir Panjal range in the Indian union territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
• The pass connects the towns of Banihal in Jammu with Qazigund in the Kashmir Valley.
• It is situated at an elevation of approximately 2,832 meters (9,291 feet) above sea level.
• The pass is crucial for road transport, especially the Jammu-Srinagar National Highway (NH44), which is a vital link between the two regions.

Additional Information

• Nathu La Pass
• Located in the Himalayas, Nathu La Pass connects the Indian state of Sikkim with China's Tibet Autonomous Region.
• It is a significant trade route and was part of the ancient Silk Road.
• The pass is situated at an elevation of 4,310 meters (14,140 feet).
• Niti Pass
• Niti Pass is located in the state of Uttarakhand, India, and connects the region to Tibet.
• The pass is situated at an elevation of approximately 5,070 meters (16,634 feet).
• It is historically significant for trade and movement between India and Tibet.
• Rohtang Pass
• Rohtang Pass is situated in the state of Himachal Pradesh and connects the Kullu Valley with the Lahaul and Spiti Valleys.
• It is located at an elevation of 3,978 meters (13,050 feet).
• The pass is a popular tourist destination known for its scenic beauty.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• The Human Development Index (HDI) is calculated using three primary indicators: life expectancy, education (mean years and expected years), and GNI per capita (Gross National Income).
• A rise in GNI per capita alone cannot significantly improve the HDI score if other parameters like life expectancy and education decline.
• The HDI approach emphasizes balanced improvement across all dimensions for holistic human development assessment.
• Global HDI rankings and trends reflect a country's socio-economic and public health development over time.
• The claim that "a rise in GNI per capita alone can significantly improve HDI, even with falling life expectancy and education" is incorrect, as HDI depends on simultaneous performance across all indicators.

Additional Information

• Human Development Index (HDI):
• Developed by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) to measure a country's overall achievement in its social and economic dimensions.
• HDI is a composite index based on three dimensions: health (life expectancy), education, and standard of living (GNI per capita).
• It is widely used to compare development levels among nations and regions.
• Gross National Income (GNI):
• GNI represents the total income earned by a country's residents and businesses, including income from abroad.
• It is an important economic indicator used in HDI calculation to reflect the standard of living.
• Life Expectancy:
• Life expectancy serves as a proxy for the health dimension in HDI.
• It reflects the average number of years a person is expected to live, based on current mortality rates.
• Education Indicators in HDI:
• Mean years of schooling (average years of education received by people aged 25 and older).
• Expected years of schooling (number of years a child of school-entry age is expected to spend in school).
• Balanced Development:
• Improvement in one dimension (e.g., GNI) cannot compensate for declines in others (e.g., education or health).
• Holistic growth across all dimensions is crucial for sustainable human development.

The correct answer is World Investment Report.

Key Points

• The World Trade Organization (WTO) publishes reports related to international trade and global commerce.
• World Trade Statistical Review and The World Trade Report are official publications of the WTO.
• World Investment Report is published by:
• UNCTAD (United Nations Conference on Trade and Development)

and not by the WTO. Hence, option 2 is correct.

• Option-wise Analysis:
• World Trade Statistical Review – Published by WTO.
• World Investment Report – Published by UNCTAD, not WTO. Correct.
• The World Trade Report – Published by WTO.
• None of the above – Incorrect.
• Hence, the correct answer is World Investment Report.

Additional Information

• The World Trade Organization (WTO) was established on:
• 1 January 1995
• The headquarters of WTO is located in:
• Geneva, Switzerland
• Main functions of WTO:
• Facilitating international trade
• Reducing trade barriers
• Resolving trade disputes
• Monitoring trade policies
• World Trade Statistical Review provides:
• Statistical data on world trade
• Trade performance of countries
• The World Trade Report focuses on:
• Trade policies
• Global trade challenges
• Economic analysis
• UNCTAD is a United Nations body that deals with:
• Trade
• Investment
• Development issues

Important Points

• World Investment Report is widely used for data on:
• Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)
• Global investment trends
• Questions related to international organizations, WTO reports, UN agencies, and global economic reports are frequently asked in competitive examinations.

The correct answer is Powers of Parliament to legislate on State subject - Article 248.

Key Points

• Administration of Scheduled and Tribal Areas - Article 244: Article 244 of the Constitution of India deals with the administration of Scheduled Areas and Tribal Areas. It includes provisions for the governance of these areas under the Fifth Schedule (for Scheduled Areas) and the Sixth Schedule (for Tribal Areas in northeastern states). Hence, this statement is correct.
• Consolidated Fund of India - Article 266: Article 266 governs the Consolidated Fund of India, which includes all revenues received by the Government of India, all loans raised, and all money received in repayment of loans. This fund is used for the expenditure of the government. Hence, this statement is correct.
• Powers of Parliament to legislate on State subject - Article 248: Article 248 does not deal with the powers of Parliament to legislate on state subjects. Instead, it deals with residuary powers of legislation, granting Parliament the exclusive authority to make laws on matters not enumerated in the State List or the Concurrent List. The correct article for Parliament's power to legislate on State subjects is Article 249. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
• Freedom of trade and commerce - Article 301: Article 301 ensures freedom of trade, commerce, and intercourse throughout the territory of India. It guarantees that trade and commerce can be conducted freely across state boundaries without restrictions. Hence, this statement is correct.

Additional Information

• Article 244:
• Fifth Schedule: Pertains to the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes. It provides for the establishment of Tribes Advisory Councils and laws to regulate the transfer of tribal land.
• Sixth Schedule: Deals with the administration of Tribal Areas in northeastern states like Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram, allowing for Autonomous District and Regional Councils with legislative, executive, and judicial powers.
• Article 266:
• The Consolidated Fund of India represents the primary account of the central government, containing all revenues and loans.
• Withdrawals from this fund require parliamentary approval through appropriation bills.
• Article 248:
• Residuary powers: Grants Parliament the authority to legislate on matters not enumerated in the State or Concurrent List.
• Parliament can also impose taxes on residuary subjects under this article.
• Article 301:
• Ensures the free flow of trade and commerce across India.
• Exceptions to this freedom are provided under Articles 302 to 307, which allow Parliament or state legislatures to impose restrictions under specific circumstances.

Important Points

• Residuary Powers in India:
• India follows a federal structure where powers are divided into Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.
• Residuary powers (Article 248) are those legislative powers not covered in these lists, exclusively vested in Parliament.
• Examples of residuary subjects include taxation on internet services or any new technology not envisaged during the drafting of the Constitution.
• Freedom of Trade under Article 301:
• Article 301 protects the fundamental right of trade and commerce across state boundaries.
• However, restrictions can be imposed under Article 302 if deemed necessary in the public interest.

Shortcut Trick

Identify the modal class (highest frequency): Class 20−30 with frequency 10.

Difference with preceding frequency (d₁) = 10 − 8 = 2.

Difference with succeeding frequency (d₂) = 10 − 2 = 8.

Mode = Lower limit + [ d₁ / (d₁ + d₂) ] × Class Width

Mode = 20 + [ 2 / (2 + 8) ] × 10 = 20 + 2 = 22.

∴ The correct answer is 22.

Alternate Method

Given:

Modal Class = 20−30 (as it has the maximum frequency of 10)

Lower limit of modal class (l) = 20

Frequency of modal class (f₁) = 10

Frequency of preceding class (f₀) = 8

Frequency of succeeding class (f₂) = 2

Class width (h) = 10

Formula Used:

Mode = l + [ (f₁ − f₀) / (2f₁ − f₀ − f₂) ] × h

Calculations:

⇒ Mode = 20 + [ (10 − 8) / (2 × 10 − 8 − 2) ] × 10

⇒ Mode = 20 + [ 2 / (20 − 10) ] × 10

⇒ Mode = 20 + [ 2 / 10 ] × 10

⇒ Mode = 20 + 2

⇒ Mode = 22

∴ The correct answer is 22.

Additional Information

Empirical Relationship

For a moderately skewed distribution: 3 × Median = Mode + 2 × Mean or Mean − Mode = 3(Mean − Median).

Modal Class

In a grouped frequency distribution, the modal class is the class interval which contains the maximum frequency.

Measures of Central Tendency

Mean is the average, Median is the middle-most value, and Mode is the most frequently occurring value in a data set.

The correct answer is 1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A..

Key Points

• Assertion (A): UDAN Scheme improves regional air connectivity:
• The UDAN Scheme, known as Ude Desh Ka Aam Nagrik, is a flagship regional air connectivity scheme launched by the Government of India in 2016.
• Its primary aim is to make air travel affordable and accessible for common citizens, especially in tier-2 and tier-3 cities.
• By connecting underserved and remote regions of India, UDAN improves regional connectivity and fosters economic growth. Hence, the assertion is correct.
• Reason (R): It provides financial viability gap funding to airlines:
• Under the UDAN scheme, airlines operating on regional routes receive Viability Gap Funding (VGF) from the government.
• The VGF reduces the financial burden on airlines to operate flights on less profitable routes, ensuring sustained operations.
• This funding is critical to achieving the goals of UDAN by incentivizing airlines to cover underserved routes. Hence, the reason is correct.
• The reason (R) directly explains the assertion (A), as the financial VGF mechanism is integral to improving regional air connectivity through the UDAN scheme. Thus, both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Additional Information

• UDAN Scheme:
• The UDAN Scheme is jointly funded by the Central Government and the State Governments.
• It aims to reduce the cost of air travel by capping fares at Rs. 2,500 for an hour-long flight.
• The scheme also promotes the development of regional airports and infrastructure in remote areas.
• As of 2023, the scheme has connected several underserved regions, including cities like Darbhanga, Kanpur, and Jharsuguda.
• Viability Gap Funding (VGF):
• VGF is a financial support mechanism provided by the government to make projects commercially viable.
• Under UDAN, VGF is funded through a levy collected from airlines operating on metro routes.
• It ensures that airlines can operate on regional routes without incurring significant losses.
• Impact of UDAN:
• Boosts tourism and trade in remote and underserved areas.
• Generates employment opportunities in aviation and related sectors.
• Strengthens socioeconomic development by connecting regions with the rest of the country.
• Other Regional Connectivity Efforts:
• Development of regional airports under Regional Connectivity Infrastructure Investment.
• Promotion of private sector investments in aviation infrastructure.
• Collaboration with state governments to enhance last-mile connectivity.

Important Points

• UDAN Achievements:
• As of October 2023, the UDAN scheme has connected over 70 airports and initiated 425 routes in India.
• It has made air travel accessible to millions of citizens, especially in remote regions.
• Future Goals:
• The scheme aims to connect all regions of India, including the North-Eastern States and hilly terrains, by 2030.
• Plans to expand infrastructure and increase the number of operational airports to 100+.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

The correct answer is Treaty of Madras.

Key Points

• The First Anglo-Mysore War occurred between 1767 and 1769, involving the forces of the British East India Company and Hyder Ali, the ruler of Mysore.
• The war was marked by intense military engagements, with Hyder Ali showing remarkable strategic skills and challenging the British forces effectively.
• The war ended with the Treaty of Madras signed in 1769. This treaty is significant as it restored peace between Mysore and the British.
• Under the treaty, both parties agreed to mutual restitution of conquered territories, and pledged to assist each other in case of attacks by other powers.
• The Treaty of Madras also highlighted Hyder Ali's growing influence as a leader capable of negotiating on equal terms with the British forces.

Additional Information

• First Anglo-Mysore War:
• The war was initiated due to territorial ambitions and political rivalry between Mysore and the British East India Company.
• Hyder Ali formed alliances with the Nizam of Hyderabad and the Marathas to counter the British forces.
• Despite initial setbacks, Hyder Ali's military strategies forced the British to sue for peace.
• Treaty of Madras:
• Signed in April 1769, it restored territories captured during the war.
• It included a clause for mutual assistance in case of external attacks, particularly highlighting Hyder Ali's diplomatic acumen.
• This treaty marked a temporary end to hostilities but left unresolved tensions that later led to subsequent Anglo-Mysore wars.
• Treaty of Mangalore:
• Signed in 1784, this treaty concluded the Second Anglo-Mysore War, not the first.
• It restored territories to their pre-war status but did not involve the First Anglo-Mysore War.
• Treaty of Srirangapattanam:
• This treaty was signed in 1792 after the Third Anglo-Mysore War between Tipu Sultan and the British forces.
• It involved significant territorial losses for Mysore and marked the beginning of Tipu Sultan's decline.
• Treaty of Salbai:
• This treaty was signed in 1782 between the Marathas and the British, concluding the First Anglo-Maratha War.
• It is unrelated to the Anglo-Mysore conflicts.

Important Points

• The Anglo-Mysore Wars were pivotal in shaping the colonial history of India and demonstrated the resistance offered by Indian rulers like Hyder Ali and Tipu Sultan.
• The treaties signed after each war reflect the geopolitical shifts and growing dominance of the British East India Company.
• Understanding these treaties helps contextualize the broader struggle for power between Indian states and colonial forces.

The correct answer is (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II).

 Key Points

• The Indian Constitution is a comprehensive document that defines the framework for the governance of the country.
• Article 368 outlines the procedure for amending the Constitution of India, making it the provision for Constitution amendment.
• Article 40 states that the state shall take steps to organize Panchayats in the rural areas and to endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government, making it the provision for Panchayati Raj.
• Article 61 deals with the impeachment of the President of India and sets out the procedure for removing the President from office, making it the provision for Impeachment of the President.
• Article 352 deals with the Emergency Provision, which allows the President to declare a state of emergency in the country in case of a threat to the security of the nation or to the functioning of the government.

The correct answer is February 17th.

In News

• Global Tourism Resilience Day is observed on February 17th.

Key Points

• The United Nations General Assembly designated February 17th as Global Tourism Resilience Day.
• The day aims to raise awareness and build capacity for resilience in the tourism sector.
• It highlights the vulnerabilities of the tourism industry and calls for action to address these challenges.
• The initiative began in 2023, and in 2024, the UN proclaimed 2027 as the International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism.

Additional Information

• UN General Assembly
• It plays a crucial role in declaring important days and initiatives to promote global awareness.
• The declaration of Global Tourism Resilience Day is part of the UN's efforts to make the tourism industry more resilient.
• Sustainable and Resilient Tourism
• Refers to a tourism model that focuses on long-term sustainability while being resilient to external challenges.
• The International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism will be celebrated in 2027.

The correct answer is Carbon disulphide.

Key Points

• Carbon disulphide has the highest absolute refractive index among the given materials.
• The refractive index of Carbon disulphide is approximately 1.63.
• It is higher than that of Crown glass (around 1.52) and Fused quartz (around 1.46).
• Turpentine oil has a refractive index of about 1.47, which is lower than Carbon disulphide.

Additional Information

• Refractive Index: It is a measure of how much the speed of light is reduced inside a medium compared to a vacuum.
• Snell's Law: It describes the relationship between the angles of incidence and refraction, when referring to light or other waves passing through a boundary between two different isotropic media.
• Critical Angle: The angle of incidence above which total internal reflection occurs.
• Applications: Materials with high refractive indices are used in optics and photonics to manipulate light paths in lenses, microscopes, and other instruments.
• Absolute Refractive Index: The refractive index measured with respect to the vacuum, which has an index of 1.

The correct answer is The percent growth of population decreased, but Bihar's share in India's total population increased.

Key Points

• During the period 2001-2011, Bihar experienced a reduction in the percent growth rate of population compared to the previous decade. This indicates a decline in the rate at which the population was increasing.
• Despite the decrease in the growth rate, Bihar's absolute population increased, leading to an increase in its share in India's total population during the same period.
• Population growth in Bihar was still significant due to its already high fertility rates, which contributed to its increasing share within India's demographic structure.
• The population density of Bihar also rose substantially during this decade, making it one of the most densely populated states in India.
• This trend reflects the interplay between absolute population growth and a reduced growth rate, highlighting demographic shifts in Bihar's contribution to the national population.

Additional Information

• Population Growth Rate:
• The population growth rate refers to the percentage change in the total population over a specific period. In Bihar, the growth rate declined from 28.62% (1991-2001) to 25.42% (2001-2011).
• A declining growth rate can result from factors such as improved education, healthcare, and family planning awareness.
• Bihar's Share in India's Total Population:
• Despite the reduced growth rate, Bihar's total population rose from approximately 83 million in 2001 to 104 million in 2011.
• This increase led to Bihar accounting for a higher proportion of India's total population, rising from 8.07% to 8.58% during the same period.
• Factors Contributing to Population Dynamics:
• High fertility rates: Bihar recorded one of the highest fertility rates in India during this period.
• Migration trends: Outward migration from Bihar for employment opportunities influenced demographic shifts but did not significantly reduce the overall population.
• National Demographic Context:
• India's population growth rate during 2001-2011 was 17.64%, lower than Bihar's growth rate, explaining the state's increased share in the national population.
• Bihar remains a critical contributor to India's overall population density due to its limited geographical area compared to its growing population.

Important Points

• Population Density: Bihar's population density rose from 880 persons per square kilometer (2001) to 1106 persons per square kilometer (2011), making it the most densely populated state in India.
• Demographic Transition: Bihar is in the early stages of demographic transition, where high birth rates are gradually declining due to socio-economic improvements.
• Government Initiatives: Efforts to improve education, healthcare, and rural development in Bihar aim to reduce fertility rates and manage population growth more effectively.
• Impact on Resources: The increasing population share poses challenges for resource allocation, infrastructure development, and service delivery in Bihar.

The Correct Answer is Option 1

Key Points

• Kanchipuram → Ancient Period (4)
• Kanchipuram, located in Tamil Nadu, was an important ancient city and a center of learning and Hindu culture during the Pallava and Chola dynasties.
• Jaisalmer → Medieval Period (3)
• Jaisalmer, in Rajasthan, was founded in 1156 CE by Rawal Jaisal and became a major medieval trade and fort city.
• Kodaikanal → Colonial Period (2)
• Kodaikanal, a hill station in Tamil Nadu, was developed by the British in the 19th century as a retreat from the heat.
• Bhilai → Post-Independence (1)
• Bhilai, in Chhattisgarh, was planned after independence, especially with the establishment of the Bhilai Steel Plant in collaboration with the USSR in 1955.
• Correct Answer: Option 1) A - 4, B - 3, C - 2, D - 1

सही उत्तर हिम + आलय है।

Key Points

• ‘हिमालय’ शब्द का संधि विच्छेद ‘हिम + आलय’ होगा।
• अ + आ= आ नियमानुसार हिमालय में दीर्घ स्वर संधि है।
• दीर्घ स्वर संधि- दीर्घ अ, आ, इ, ई, उ, ऊ और ऋ के बाद ह्रस्व या दीर्घ अ, आ, इ, ई, उ, ऊ और ऋ स्वर आ जाएँ तो दोनों मिलकर दीर्घ आ, ई, ऊ और ऋ हो जाते हैं।
• इस मेल से बनने वाली संधि को दीर्घ स्वर संधि कहते हैं। जैसे- विद्यालय= विद्या + आलय

Additional Information

The Correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

Considering statement (I),

⇒ x = 5

Considering statement (II),

⇒ y = z – 3

Considering statement (III),

⇒ z = 5x – 2

Using information from all three statements,

⇒ z = 5(5) – 2 = 23

⇒ y = 23 – 3 = 20

∴ Required average = (x + y + z)/3 = (5 + 20 + 23)/3 = 48/3 = 16

∴ The question can be answered using all the three statements

Hence the Correct answer is Option 3.

The correct answer is Option 2

Key Points 

• A. Hindu Polity → 3. K.P. Jayaswal
• "Hindu Polity" was written by K.P. Jayaswal and focuses on the political system in ancient India, particularly during the classical period.
• B. The Wonder That Was India → 2. A.L. Basham
• "The Wonder That Was India" is a classic book by A.L. Basham. It is a comprehensive historical analysis of ancient India, highlighting the rich cultural and social contributions of the civilization.
• C. An Introduction to the Study of Indian History → 1. D.D. Kosambi
• "An Introduction to the Study of Indian History" is written by D.D. Kosambi. It emphasizes the scientific approach to the study of Indian history, particularly its social and economic aspects.
• D. The Early History of India → 4. Vincent Arthur Smith
• "The Early History of India" was written by Vincent Arthur Smith. It deals with the early history of India, especially covering the periods of ancient and early medieval history.
• Hence, the correct answer is A - 3, B - 2, C - 1, D - 4

Given:

Total medals = 85

Ratio = Silver : Gold = a : b

Formula used:

Total medals = k(a + b)

⇒ 85 must be divisible by (a + b)

Calculations:

⇒ For 2 : 3 → a + b = 5 → 85 ÷ 5 = 17 (integer) 

⇒ For 12 : 13 → a + b = 25 → 85 ÷ 25 = 3.4 (not integer) 

⇒ For 9 : 8 → a + b = 17 → 85 ÷ 17 = 5 (integer) 

⇒ For 12 : 5 → a + b = 17 → 85 ÷ 17 = 5 (integer) 

∴ The ratio that cannot be the medal ratio is: 12 : 13.

The correct answer is option 1

In News

• The Supreme Court recently questioned the submission of Justice Yashwant Varma to an in-house inquiry procedure under allegations of misconduct. The matter has revived discussions on the constitutional and legal framework governing judicial accountability and disciplinary action.

Key Points

• Article 124(4): Provides for the removal of Supreme Court judges through a parliamentary process requiring a motion passed by both Houses. Hence, statement I is correct
• Judges Inquiry Act, 1968: Statutory mechanism that outlines the procedure for investigation and presentation of charges against judges of the High Court and Supreme Court. Hence, statement II is correct
• Article 121: Restricts Parliament from discussing the conduct of judges except when a motion for removal is under consideration. Hence, statement III is correct
• Contempt of Courts Act, 1971: Deals with maintaining the authority of courts, but does not directly govern judicial removal. Hence, statement IV is incorrect
• Article 326: Pertains to adult suffrage and the right to vote; not relevant to judicial discipline. Hence, statement V is incorrect

Concept used:

Amount = Principal[1 + (rate/n)]^{time × n}

n = number of times interest applied in a year

Calculation:

We have to check Each option one by one

The principal would be the same for each case, time would be 1 year.

Let the Principal be 'P'

Option 1:

Amount = P[1 + (24/100)]¹      ----(1)

Option 2:

Amount = P[1 + (2/12)]¹²      ----(2)

Option 3:

Amount = P[1 + (6/4)]⁴      ----(3)

Option 4:

Amount = P[1 + (12/2)]2      ----(4)

By comparing equations (1), (2), (3), (4)

The maximum power present in equation (2), which will give maximum interest in a year

∴ option(2) Interest compounded monthly at 2% per month will give maximum interest in a year.

The correct answer is Law of areas.

Key Points

• The Law of Areas, also known as Kepler's Second Law, states that a line segment joining a planet and the sun sweeps out equal areas during equal intervals of time.
• This law implies that planets move faster when they are closer to the sun and slower when they are farther from the sun.
• Kepler formulated this law based on the precise observations of planetary motions made by Tycho Brahe.
• It is fundamental in understanding the elliptical orbits of planets and their varying velocities at different points in the orbit.

Additional Information

• Kepler's Laws of Planetary Motion
• Law of Orbits: Planets move in elliptical orbits with the Sun at one of the foci.
• Law of Areas: A line joining a planet and the Sun sweeps out equal areas during equal intervals of time.
• Law of Periods: The square of the orbital period of a planet is proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis of its orbit.
• Elliptical Orbits
• Planets do not move in perfect circles but in ellipses, with the sun at one focus.
• The shape of the elliptical orbit is defined by its eccentricity.
• Velocity of Planets
• Planets move faster when they are closer to the sun (perihelion) and slower when they are farther from the sun (aphelion).
• This variation in velocity is a direct consequence of the Law of Areas.
• Historical Context
• Kepler's laws were derived from the meticulous observations of Tycho Brahe.
• These laws significantly advanced the heliocentric model of the solar system proposed by Copernicus.

The correct answer is: A - 4, B - 2, C - 3, D - 1.

Key Points

Additional Information 

• Hirakud Project in Odisha:
• Overview: The Hirakud Dam is built across the Mahanadi River in Odisha. It is one of the longest dams in the world.
• Purpose: The primary purpose of the Hirakud Dam is to control floods, provide irrigation, and generate hydroelectric power.
• Significance: This dam is crucial for flood control in the Mahanadi delta and supports agriculture in the region.
• Damodar Valley Project in Jharkhand-West Bengal:
• Overview: The Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC) operates several dams, reservoirs, and a network of canals in the Damodar River basin, spanning Jharkhand and West Bengal.
• Purpose: The project aims at flood control, irrigation, and hydroelectric power generation.
• Significance: It plays a vital role in managing water resources and providing electricity to the region.
• Nagarjuna Sagar Project in Telangana:
• Overview: The Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is built on the Krishna River in Telangana.
• Purpose: It provides irrigation water to the regions of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh and generates hydroelectric power.
• Significance: This dam is one of the largest and earliest multipurpose projects in India, significantly boosting agriculture in the area.
• Indira Gandhi Canal in Rajasthan:
• Overview: The Indira Gandhi Canal is one of the largest canal projects in India, designed to carry water from the Beas and Sutlej rivers to the Thar Desert in Rajasthan.
• Purpose: The canal provides irrigation to the arid regions of Rajasthan, transforming the desert into productive agricultural land.
• Significance: The project has significantly improved the socio-economic conditions of the region by enhancing agriculture and providing drinking water.

The correct answer is Divya Deshmukh.

Key Points

• Divya Deshmukh is an Indian chess prodigy who emerged victorious in the 2025 FIDE Women’s World Cup.
• 
• The Women's Chess World Cup 2025 is a single-elimination chess tournament, the third edition of the Women's Chess World Cup, which took place in Batumi, Georgia
• Divya’s victory in the 2025 Women’s World Cup further solidified her position as one of India’s top female chess players.
• Her strategic gameplay and resilience against some of the world’s toughest competitors were key to her success in the tournament.
• The current world champion in men's Chess is Gukesh Dommaraju, who defeated the previous champion Ding Liren in the 2024 World Chess Championship.

Additional Information

• FIDE Women’s World Cup:
• The FIDE Women’s World Cup is a prestigious knockout tournament organized by the International Chess Federation (FIDE).
• It serves as a pathway for players to qualify for the Women’s Candidates Tournament, a step towards competing for the Women’s World Chess Championship.
• The format involves multiple rounds, with players facing off in two-game matches and tiebreakers if necessary.
• Divya Deshmukh’s Chess Journey:
• Divya is a Woman Grandmaster (WGM) and holds the title of International Master (IM), showcasing her remarkable talent in chess.
• She has represented India in numerous international tournaments, including the Chess Olympiad.
• Her consistent performances at the junior and senior levels have made her a prominent figure in Indian chess.
• Notable Indian Women in Chess:
• India has produced several top female chess players, including Koneru Humpy, Harika Dronavalli, and Vaishali Rameshbabu.
• Koneru Humpy became the Women’s World Rapid Chess Champion in 2019, inspiring a new generation of players.
• Chess in India:
• Chess has a rich history in India, with its origins traced back to the ancient game of Chaturanga.
• India’s rise in global chess is attributed to the influence of players like Viswanathan Anand, a former World Chess Champion.
• The country continues to invest in nurturing young talent through academies and national tournaments.

The correct answer is Intracellular digestion.

Key Points

• Lysosomes are membrane-bound organelles found in animal cells that contain digestive enzymes. These enzymes help in breaking down cellular waste, debris, and foreign particles through intracellular digestion.
• Intracellular digestion occurs when lysosomes fuse with vesicles containing cellular waste or foreign particles. The digestive enzymes degrade these substances into simpler molecules that can be reused or expelled from the cell.
• Lysosomes play a vital role in maintaining cellular health by removing damaged organelles, pathogens, and cellular debris. This process is known as autophagy.
• Lysosomal enzymes function optimally at acidic pH levels, making lysosomes a specialized compartment for digestion within the cell.
• Disorders related to lysosomal function, such as Lysosomal Storage Diseases (e.g., Tay-Sachs disease), occur when these enzymes are defective, leading to the accumulation of undigested substances in cells.

Additional Information

• Protein synthesis:
• Protein synthesis primarily occurs in the ribosomes, which are present in the cytoplasm or attached to the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
• This process involves two major steps: transcription (DNA to mRNA) and translation (mRNA to protein).
• Lysosomes are not involved in protein synthesis, but they help degrade proteins that are damaged or no longer needed.
• Energy production:
• Energy production in cells is mainly carried out by the mitochondria, known as the "powerhouse of the cell."
• Mitochondria generate energy in the form of ATP through processes such as cellular respiration and oxidative phosphorylation.
• Lysosomes do not contribute to energy production; their primary role is in digestion and waste removal.
• Genetic information storage:
• Genetic information is stored in the form of DNA within the cell nucleus and mitochondria.
• The nucleus contains the majority of the cell’s genetic material and regulates gene expression and replication.
• Lysosomes do not have any role in storing or managing genetic information.
• Function of lysosomes:
• Lysosomes are involved in processes such as endocytosis (intake of substances), exocytosis (expulsion of waste), and autophagy (self-digestion of cellular components).
• They contain hydrolytic enzymes such as proteases, lipases, and nucleases, which break down various biomolecules.
• Lysosomes are often referred to as the "cell's garbage disposal" due to their role in waste degradation.

Important Points

• Discovery: Lysosomes were first discovered by Belgian biologist Christian de Duve in 1955.
• Structure: Lysosomes are spherical vesicles surrounded by a lipid bilayer membrane that maintains their acidic environment.
• Enzymes: The enzymes within lysosomes are synthesized in the rough endoplasmic reticulum and processed in the Golgi apparatus before being enclosed in lysosomes.
• Diseases: Mutations affecting lysosomal enzymes can lead to conditions like Gaucher disease and Niemann-Pick disease.

The Correct Answer is Maharashtra.

In News

• Khelo India Youth Games 2025 to conclude with colourful ceremony in Patna.

Key Points

• The games started on 4th May 2025.
• It will be held at Pataliputra Sports Complex, Kankarbagh, Patna, Bihar.
• Maharashtra is the overall champion.
• It won 149 medals in total.
• This includes 56 gold and 45 silver medals.
• Haryana finished in second place.
• It won 107 medals.
• This includes 35 gold and 26 silver medals.
• Rajasthan came in third place.
• It won 55 medals, including 22 gold.
• The closing ceremony will have colorful performances and entertainment.

The correct answer is Bryophyllum: Budding.

Key Points

• Bryophyllum reproduces through vegetative propagation, specifically by leaf buds, not budding as mentioned in the incorrect option.
• Vegetative propagation in Bryophyllum occurs when new plantlets grow from the notches of its leaves.
• Budding is a mode of asexual reproduction observed in organisms like yeast and hydra, where a new organism develops as an outgrowth.
• The correct mode of reproduction for Bryophyllum is vegetative propagation, which differs significantly from budding.
• This vegetative reproduction mechanism allows Bryophyllum to multiply efficiently without seeds.

Additional Information

• Binary Fission:
• A type of asexual reproduction where a single organism divides into two identical daughter organisms.
• It is commonly observed in unicellular organisms like Leishmania and bacteria.
• Leishmania exhibits binary fission with a longitudinal splitting of the cell.
• Multiple Fission:
• In multiple fission, the parent cell divides into many daughter cells simultaneously.
• This process is typical in organisms like Plasmodium (malaria parasite).
• Plasmodium undergoes multiple fission during its life cycle in the human host and mosquito vector.
• Regeneration:
• Regeneration is the ability of an organism to regrow lost or damaged parts.
• Planaria exhibits remarkable regeneration abilities, allowing it to regrow its body parts.
• It involves the division of cells and their specialization to form different tissues and organs.
• Vegetative Propagation:
• A form of asexual reproduction where new plants grow from vegetative parts like roots, stems, or leaves.
• Bryophyllum reproduces through vegetative propagation via leaf buds.
• This method is common in various plants such as potatoes, ginger, and sweet potatoes.

The correct answer is Bhagalpur.

Key Points

• The new power plant under the "PM Modi Green Energy Scheme" is expected to significantly benefit Bhagalpur, Bihar, by improving electricity availability and infrastructure.
• This initiative aligns with India’s National Green Energy Mission, focusing on renewable energy sources such as solar and wind to enhance sustainable development.
• The plant is anticipated to support industrial growth and provide a boost to local employment opportunities in Bhagalpur and surrounding areas.
• The project is part of the government’s commitment to achieving 500 GW of renewable energy capacity by 2030 as per international climate agreements.
• Bhagalpur’s selection is strategic, considering its potential to serve as a hub for clean energy distribution in eastern India.

Additional Information

• PM Modi Green Energy Scheme:
• An initiative aimed at accelerating India’s transition towards clean and renewable energy sources.
• Focuses on solar, wind, and hybrid energy projects while reducing dependency on fossil fuels.
• Renewable Energy in India:
• India is the 3rd largest producer of renewable energy globally, with a target of achieving net-zero emissions by 2070.
• As of 2023, India has installed over 175 GW of renewable energy capacity.
• Benefits of Green Energy Projects:
• Reduces carbon emissions and mitigates climate change.
• Creates job opportunities and boosts local economies.
• Improves energy security and reduces import dependency on fossil fuels.
• Bhagalpur’s Strategic Importance:
• Known as the “Silk City,” Bhagalpur is a major trade and economic center in Bihar.
• Better power infrastructure can enhance industrial activity, including silk production and other small-scale industries.

The correct answer is Vinod Kumar Shukla.

Key Points

• Vinod Kumar Shukla was selected for the 59th Jnanpith Award for the year 2024, announced in March 2025.
• He is a prominent Hindi poet and novelist, known for his minimalist and introspective literary style.
• Born in 1937 in Rajnandgaon, Chhattisgarh, he is the first author from the state to receive this prestigious award.
• His notable works include poetry collections like 'Lagbhag Jaihind' and novels such as 'Naukar Ki Kameez' and 'Deewar Mein Ek Khidki Rehti Thi'.
• The award recognizes his outstanding contribution to Indian literature in Hindi spanning over five decades.

Additional Information

• Jnanpith Award
• Established in 1961 by the Bharatiya Jnanpith Trust, it is India's highest literary honour.
• Awarded annually to writers for outstanding literary works in any of the 22 Indian languages listed in the 8th Schedule of the Constitution.
• Includes a cash prize, citation, and a bronze replica of Goddess Saraswati (Vagdevi).
• Vinod Kumar Shukla's Literary Contributions
• His writing is marked by philosophical depth, poetic language, and reflection on everyday life.
• He received the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1999 for 'Deewar Mein Ek Khidki Rehti Thi'.
• 'Naukar Ki Kameez' was adapted into a Hindi film by Mani Kaul in 1999.
• Previous Jnanpith Laureates
• 2023 (58th): Jagadguru Rambhadracharya for Sanskrit literature.
• 2022 (57th): Damodar Mauzo for Konkani literature.
• 2021 (56th): Nilmani Phookan for Assamese literature.
• Eligibility and Selection
• The award is given to living authors with a proven track record of significant literary contribution.
• A selection board comprising eminent scholars and literary experts recommends the recipient.

The correct answer is Option 2 (All three).

Key Points

• Mansabdari System: The Mansabdari system was introduced by the Mughals, specifically under Akbar, and it integrated military and civil services. Mansabdars were assigned ranks (Mansabs) and were responsible for maintaining a set number of troops for the empire. This system ensured an efficient administrative mechanism combining military and civil duties. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Dahsala System: Akbar introduced the Dahsala system of land revenue assessment as part of his administrative reforms. This system calculated revenues based on the average yield and prices over the last ten years. It was introduced by Raja Todar Mal, Akbar's finance minister, and ensured a uniform and systematic method of taxation. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Jagirdari System: In the Mughal administration, the Jagirdari system was a practice where Mansabdars were granted land assignments (Jagirs) instead of cash salaries. The revenue generated from these Jagirs was used to pay for their services. This system played a crucial role in maintaining the Mughal administrative and military structure. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• All three statements are correct.

Additional Information

• Mansabdari System:
• The Mansabdari system was introduced by Akbar in 1571. The term "Mansab" means rank or position.
• Mansabdars were ranked based on two measures: Zat (personal rank) and Sawar (number of cavalry).
• Mansabdars were responsible for maintaining soldiers and horses, which they had to present during inspections.
• Ranks varied from 10 to 10,000 and were revised based on the Emperor's needs.
• Dahsala System:
• The Dahsala system was introduced in 1580 by Akbar to streamline revenue collection.
• Revenue was fixed based on the average production of crops over the previous ten years.
• The payment could be made in cash or kind, depending on the region's preferences.
• This system brought consistency and reduced exploitation of peasants by local revenue collectors.
• Jagirdari System:
• Mansabdars were assigned Jagirs, which were land grants to collect revenue.
• Jagirdars had no ownership rights over the land, and their position was transferable.
• This system ensured loyalty to the empire but sometimes led to corruption due to misuse of revenue collections.
• It was a critical component of the Mughal administrative and military apparatus.
• Akbar's Administrative Reforms:
• Akbar introduced several reforms, including the Sulh-i-kul policy, emphasizing tolerance and harmony.
• He created a centralized administration divided into provinces, districts, and villages for efficient governance.
• Akbar's revenue reforms, including the Dahsala system, ensured fairness and efficiency in taxation.

Important Points

• Role of Raja Todar Mal: He was Akbar's finance minister and played a pivotal role in establishing the Dahsala system and other revenue reforms.
• Impact of Mansabdari System: The system ensured an organized military and administrative framework but also led to challenges like corruption and inefficiency in later years.
• Historical Significance: These systems contributed to the stability and prosperity of the Mughal empire and were later studied for their administrative excellence.

I. Two successive discounts of 30% and 20%

For successive discount of a% and b%,

Total discount = a + b – (ab/100)

Now, Total discount = 30 + 20 – {(30 × 20)/100} = 50 – 6 = 44%

II. Buy 4 get 7

Let marked price of one item be Rs. 100

⇒ Marked price of 7 items = Rs. 700

⇒ Amount actually paid = Marked price of 4 item = Rs. 400

⇒ Discount = Rs. (700 – 400) = Rs. 300

⇒ Discount % = (Discount/Total marked price) × 100 = (300/700) × 100 = 42.85%

III. Buy 4 get 3 free

Buy 4 get 3 free is another way of saying buy 4 get 7

So,

⇒ Discount % = 42.85%

∴ Maximum profit is gained by scheme I

The correct answer is Neutrophils, macrophages.

Key Points

• Phagocytic cells are specialized immune cells that engulf and digest foreign particles, pathogens, and cellular debris. This process is known as phagocytosis.
• Neutrophils: These are the most abundant type of white blood cells in the human body. They play a crucial role in the innate immune response by engulfing and destroying bacteria and fungi. Neutrophils are highly effective in combating acute infections.
• Macrophages: These are large phagocytic cells derived from monocytes. Macrophages not only engulf pathogens but also present antigens to T cells, aiding the adaptive immune response. They are found in tissues throughout the body.
• Mast cells: While mast cells are involved in allergic reactions and inflammation, they are not phagocytic. Instead, they release histamine and other chemicals during immune responses. Hence, option 2 and option 4 are incorrect.
• Antibodies: These are proteins produced by B cells that bind specifically to antigens on pathogens, marking them for destruction by other immune cells. However, antibodies themselves are not phagocytic. Hence, option 1 is incorrect.
• Thus, the correct phagocytic cells are Neutrophils and Macrophages.

Additional Information

• Phagocytosis Mechanism:
• Phagocytic cells recognize pathogens through receptors that bind to pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs), such as lipopolysaccharides on bacteria.
• Once a pathogen is recognized, the cell membrane forms extensions called pseudopodia that engulf the pathogen, creating a vesicle known as a phagosome.
• The phagosome then fuses with lysosomes to form a phagolysosome, where enzymes digest the pathogen.
• Debris is expelled from the cell, completing the process of phagocytosis.
• Roles of Phagocytic Cells:
• Neutrophils: Act as the first responders to infection, migrating to the site of injury or infection through chemotaxis.
• Macrophages: Apart from phagocytosis, macrophages release cytokines to recruit other immune cells and are involved in tissue repair.
• Dendritic Cells: Although they are primarily antigen-presenting cells, dendritic cells also exhibit phagocytic activity to capture antigens.
• Immune System Overview:
• The immune system is divided into two main branches: innate immunity (non-specific and immediate) and adaptive immunity (specific and delayed).
• Phagocytic cells like neutrophils and macrophages are part of the innate immune response, providing the first line of defense against pathogens.
• Adaptive immunity involves T cells and B cells, with B cells producing antibodies and T cells attacking infected cells directly.
• Diseases Associated with Phagocytic Dysfunction:
• Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD): A genetic disorder where phagocytic cells fail to kill pathogens due to defective enzymes.
• Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency (LAD): A rare disorder where phagocytes cannot migrate effectively to infection sites.

Important Points

• Neutrophils: They have a short lifespan (6-12 hours) and are replenished continuously by the bone marrow.
• Macrophages: They are long-lived and can survive for months, providing sustained immune responses.
• Cytokines: Macrophages release signaling molecules like interleukin-1 (IL-1) and tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-α) to coordinate immune responses.
• Phagocytic Activity in Inflammation: Phagocytic cells accumulate at the site of inflammation, forming pus, which consists mainly of dead neutrophils and pathogens.
• Applications: Understanding phagocytosis is crucial for developing therapies for infections, cancer immunotherapy, and vaccine design.

The correct answer is Both overall sex ratio and child sex ratio decreased.

Key Points

• Overall Sex Ratio: The overall sex ratio in Bihar refers to the number of females per 1,000 males in the total population. Between Census 2001 and Census 2011, the overall sex ratio in Bihar decreased, indicating a decline in the proportion of females compared to males.
• Child Sex Ratio: The child sex ratio is the ratio of females to males in the age group of 0-6 years. Data from Census 2011 showed a decline in the child sex ratio in Bihar compared to Census 2001, highlighting gender disparities among children.
• Reasons for Decline: The decline in both ratios can be attributed to social factors like gender bias, preference for male children, and practices such as female infanticide or sex-selective abortions.
• State Trends: Bihar, despite showing economic improvements, continues to face challenges in addressing gender inequalities, particularly in rural areas where traditional norms prevail.
• Correct Statement: Based on the data, the statement that both the overall sex ratio and child sex ratio decreased in Bihar is correct, reflecting the gender disparity trends observed during the Census period.

Additional Information

• Sex Ratio in India:
• The national average sex ratio as per Census 2011 was 943 females per 1,000 males, showing a marginal improvement from the Census 2001 figure of 933 females per 1,000 males.
• States such as Kerala and Puducherry recorded higher sex ratios, while states like Haryana and Punjab had significantly lower ratios.
• Child Sex Ratio:
• The child sex ratio at the national level decreased from 927 in Census 2001 to 919 in Census 2011.
• This decline highlights the persistent issue of gender preference and societal biases against girl children.
• Reasons for Decline:
• Sex-selective abortions: Due to the availability of prenatal diagnostic techniques, many parents opt for male children.
• Social norms: Preference for male children is often rooted in cultural and economic factors, such as inheritance laws and the perception of males as breadwinners.
• Lack of awareness: Gender equality campaigns and legal frameworks often fail to reach rural and marginalized communities effectively.
• Government Initiatives:
• Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao: Launched in 2015, this program aims to address declining child sex ratios and promote gender equality.
• Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana: A savings scheme launched for the welfare of girl children to encourage financial independence.
• Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (PCPNDT) Act: Enacted in 1994, this law aims to prevent sex-selective abortions and regulate the use of diagnostic techniques.

Important Points

• Impact of Declining Ratios:
• Declining sex ratios can lead to social imbalance, increased instances of violence against women, and issues related to marriage patterns.
• Regions with lower sex ratios often witness practices like trafficking and forced marriages.
• Role of Education:
• Education and awareness campaigns are crucial in changing societal attitudes towards gender equality.
• Programs like gender sensitization in schools can help address biases early.
• Regional Disparities:
• States with better socioeconomic indicators like Kerala often show higher sex ratios due to improved awareness and reduced gender biases.
• Conversely, states with lower development indices like Bihar and Uttar Pradesh face challenges in addressing gender disparities.

The correct answer is 1864.

Key Points

• Sir Syed Ahmed Khan founded the Scientific Society in 1864.
• The main objective was to translate Western works on science and other subjects into Urdu.
• It aimed to promote modern scientific knowledge among Indians, especially Muslims.
• The society played a crucial role in the educational and social reform movement in India.
• It was one of the first institutions to promote Western education and knowledge in India.

Additional Information

• Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
• Born on October 17, 1817, in Delhi, India.
• He was a prominent Muslim reformer, educator, and politician.
• He is best known for founding the Aligarh Muslim University in 1875.
• His efforts were aimed at modernizing Muslim education and promoting social reforms.
• Scientific Society
• Established in 1864 in Ghazipur, India.
• It was one of the first institutions in India to translate Western scientific works into Urdu.
• The society published journals and books to spread scientific knowledge.
• It served as a platform for intellectual discussions and debates.
• Impact of the Scientific Society
• Contributed to the spread of modern education among Muslims in India.
• Encouraged the adoption of Western scientific knowledge and methodologies.
• Played a significant role in the educational and social reform movement of the 19th century.
• Helped bridge the gap between traditional and modern education systems.
• Aligarh Movement
• Started by Sir Syed Ahmed Khan to promote modern education among Muslims.
• Aimed at creating a class of educated Muslims who could serve in government and other modern professions.
• The movement led to the establishment of the Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College, which later became Aligarh Muslim University.
• It emphasized the importance of scientific and rational thinking.

Here the correct answer is Agreement.

Key Points:-

• Let's look at the meaning of the given word:-
• Controversy*(noun)* - a lot of disagreement or argument about something, usually because it affects or is important to many people.
• For Example - There was a big controversy surrounding/over the use of drugs in athletics.
• Let's look at the meaning of the correct answer:-
• Agreement*(noun)* - the situation in which people have the same opinion, or in which they approve of or accept something.
• For Example - The whole family was in agreement with her about/on what they should do.
• Let's look at the meaning of the other options:-
• Argument*(noun)* - a disagreement, or the process of disagreeing.
• For Example - The children had an argument about/over what game to play.
• ​Difference*(noun)* - a disagreement.
• For Example - They had a terrible argument a few weeks ago, but now they've settled/resolved their differences.
• Quarrel*(noun)* -an angry disagreement between two or more people or groups..
• For Example - They had a bitter quarrel about/over some money three years ago and they haven't spoken to each other since

Therefore, the correct antonym for the given word is Agreement.

दिए गए विकल्पों में ‘महेश’ उचित विकल्प है। अन्य विकल्प असंगत हैं। अत: इसका उचित उत्तर विकल्प 4 ‘महेश’ होगा।

स्पष्टीकरण:

‘चंद्रशेखर’ का पर्यायवाची शब्द ‘महेश’ है। ‘चंद्रशेखर के अन्य पर्यायवाची शब्द हैं- शंभु, शंकर, त्रिनेत्र, महेश्वर, कैलाशपति आदि।

अन्य विकल्प:

विशेष:

The correct answer is More than one of the above.

Key Points

• The Nonia Rebellion in Bihar, occurring between 1770 and 1800, was a significant uprising against oppressive land revenue policies implemented during British colonial rule.
• This rebellion predominantly impacted multiple districts, including Saran and Vaishali, reflecting widespread unrest among the Nonia caste and agricultural laborers.
• The Nonias, traditionally saltpetre workers and laborers, revolted against exploitative taxation and harsh treatment by British officials and local landlords.
• The rebellion was part of a broader pattern of rural resistance in Bengal and Bihar during this period, driven by discontent over economic exploitation and famine conditions.
• Thus, more than one district was significantly affected, supporting the answer: "More than one of the above."

Additional Information

• Saltpetre Industry: The Nonias were heavily involved in the saltpetre (potassium nitrate) industry, a key component in gunpowder production, which brought them into direct conflict with colonial exploitation.
• Land Revenue Policies: The Permanent Settlement of 1793 exacerbated the plight of rural communities by fixing high land revenue demands, leading to widespread peasant unrest.
• Famine of 1770: The Bengal Famine severely impacted Bihar, leading to economic distress and heightened resentment against British policies.
• Other Revolts in Bihar: Similar uprisings, such as the Santhal Rebellion (1855) and Chuar Rebellion (1766–1772), highlight the region's long history of resistance against colonial rule.
• Historical Context: These rebellions were not isolated events but part of a larger resistance movement that laid the foundation for later anti-colonial struggles in India.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• Barauni Refinery
• Location: Barauni, Bihar
• Details: Established in 1966, the Barauni Refinery is operated by the Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL). It plays a significant role in the oil refining industry in eastern India.
• Bongaigaon Refinery
• Location: Bongaigaon, Assam
• Details: This refinery, also operated by Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL), began operations in 1974. It is an important refinery in the northeastern region of India, contributing to the region’s economic development.
• Bina Refinery
• Location: Bina, Madhya Pradesh
• Details: The Bina Refinery, which began operations in 2011, is a joint venture between Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (BPCL) and Mittal Energy Limited. It is a major refinery in central India and plays a key role in refining and distributing petroleum products in the region.
• Koyali Refinery
• Location: Koyali, Gujarat
• Details: The Koyali Refinery is operated by Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL) and was established in 1965. It is one of the largest refineries in western India, crucial for the production and distribution of petroleum products in the region.
• So, the correct answer is Option 4: A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3.

Given:

Volumes of two cylinders are in the ratio, V₁ : V₂ = 2 : 5.

Radius of the two cylinders are in the ratio, r₁ : r₂ = 1 : 4.

Concepts used:

Volume of a cylinder (V) = π × r² × h

Curved surface area of a cylinder (CSA) = 2 × π × r × h

Solutions:

Volumes of two cylinders are in the ratio,

V₁ : V₂ = π × r₁²× h₁ : π × r₂² × h₂

2 : 5 = 1 × h₁ : 16 × h₂

h₁ : h₂ = 32 : 5

So, their heights h₁ and h₂ are in the ratio 32 : 5.

Thus, statement I is false.

Ratio of CSA of given cylinders:

CSA₁ : CSA₂ = 2 × π × r₁ × h₁ : 2 × π × r₂ × h₂

CSA₁ : CSA₂ = r₁ × h₁ : r₂ × h₂

CSA₁ : CSA₂ = 1 × 32 : 4 × 5

CSA₁ : CSA₂ = 8 : 5.

So, the ratio of curved surface areas of the cylinders CSA₁ and CSA₂ will be in the ratio 2 : 5.

Thus, the statement II is False.

∴ Both I and II are False.

Additional Information Total Surface Area of a Cylinder = (2\pi r(r+h))

The correct answer is Limited.

Key Points

• The Appellate Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in India refers to its authority to hear appeals against the judgments of lower courts such as the High Courts.
• In the context of criminal matters, the appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is limited as specified in the Constitution of India.
• Under Article 134 of the Indian Constitution, the Supreme Court has appellate jurisdiction in criminal cases involving substantial questions of law or cases where a High Court has reversed an acquittal to impose a death sentence.
• Appeals in criminal cases to the Supreme Court also require certification by the High Court that the case involves a substantial legal question or has grave importance.
• This ensures that only cases of significant judicial and constitutional importance are brought before the Supreme Court for adjudication.

Additional Information

• Article 134 of the Indian Constitution:
• This article defines the appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in criminal cases.
• It specifically allows appeals to the Supreme Court in cases where a High Court has reversed an acquittal and sentenced the accused to death.
• It also allows appeals in cases where the High Court certifies that the case involves a substantial question of law.
• Appeals with Special Leave (Article 136):
• Under this provision, the Supreme Court can grant special leave to appeal in any case, including criminal matters, where it deems it necessary to address a legal or constitutional question.
• This power is discretionary and allows the Court to provide justice in cases of exceptional importance.
• High Court Certification:
• In most criminal cases, the High Court must certify that the matter involves a substantial question of law before it can be appealed to the Supreme Court.
• This certification acts as a filter to ensure that the Supreme Court does not get overburdened with ordinary criminal cases.
• Death Penalty Appeals:
• The Supreme Court has exclusive jurisdiction to hear appeals in cases where the High Court has imposed a death penalty after reversing an acquittal.
• This ensures the highest level of judicial scrutiny in cases involving capital punishment.

Important Points

• The appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is not unlimited. It only entertains cases that meet specific constitutional and legal criteria.
• In addition to criminal matters, the Supreme Court also has appellate jurisdiction over civil cases under Article 133 of the Indian Constitution.
• The Supreme Court’s jurisdiction can also extend to disputes between states or between the Union and states under its original jurisdiction (Article 131).
• The limited appellate jurisdiction ensures that the Supreme Court focuses on cases with substantial constitutional or legal implications.

The correct answer is An extra tax levied on all subjects..