Bihar Police Constable Memory Based Paper (Held On: 16 July 2025) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is Arif Mohammad Khan.

Key Points

• Arif Mohammad Khan took oath as the 42nd Governor of Bihar.
• The oath was administered by the Chief Justice of the Patna High Court.
• His appointment as Governor was part of a reshuffle involving several gubernatorial positions in India.

Additional Information

• Governor’s Role: The Governor is the constitutional head of a state in India, appointed by the President of India.
• Oath of Office: Governors take an oath to preserve, protect, and defend the Constitution and the law.
• Tenure: The Governor serves for a term of five years, but can remain in office at the pleasure of the President.
• Responsibilities: The Governor’s duties include summoning, proroguing, and dissolving the state legislature, and giving assent to bills passed by the state assembly.
• Significance: The Governor acts as a bridge between the state and central governments, ensuring the implementation of constitutional provisions and laws effectively.

The correct answer is Jairamdas Daultatram.

• Shri Jairamdas Daulatram was appointed as the first Governor of Bihar after India's Independence.
• Before Independence of India, James Sifton was first Governor of Bihar appointed on 01 April 1936.
• At present Aarif Mohamad Khan is the governor of Bihar.

Additional Information

• Hon. Pandit Lakshmi Kant Jha was the first Indian Chief justice of Patna high court after independence.
• Ms Rekha Doshit was the first woman chief justice of Patna High court.
• Ms Gyan Sudha Mishra was the first woman judge in the Supreme court from Bihar.
• The Patna high court was given two chief justice of India Justice Bhuvneshwar Prasad Mishra and Justice Lalit Mohan Sharma.

The correct answer is 1946.

• The Constituent Assembly of India was formed in 1946.

Key Points

• Constituent Assembly
• Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946 first proposed the constituent assembly.
• Members of the Constituent Assembly were elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies.
• After the partition of India, the number of members of the Constituent Assembly came to 299, of whom 284 were actually present on the 26 November 1949 and signed on the final approved Constitution of India Assembly, which had been elected for undivided India.
• It held its first meeting on December 9, 1946, and reassembled on August 14, 1947, as the sovereign Constituent Assembly for the dominion of India.
• The Constituent Assembly finalized the Constitution in two years, eleven months, and eighteen days.
• Objective Resolution was moved in the first session of the Constituent Assembly i.e. on 13 December 1946 by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru.

Additional Information

• • Dr. Sachidanand Sinha was the first President of the Constituent Assembly.
• Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected the President of the Assembly.
• B.N. Rao was appointed as the Constitutional Advisor of the Assembly.

• ‘Mandamus’ means - We Command.
• It is an order from the Supreme Court or High Court to a lower court or tribunal or public authority to perform a public or statutory duty.
• There are five writs that can be issued by the Supreme Court of India and High Court of India - Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Quo Warranto, and Certiorari.
• Supreme Court has the power to issue writs under Article 32. High Courts have the power to issue writs under Article 226.
• You May Have the Body - Habeas Corpus
• To be Certified - Certiorari
• By What Warrants - Quo Warranto

The correct answer is Third five year plan.

Key Points

• The third Five Year Plan was launched from 1961-1966 under the leadership of Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru.
• The Deputy Chairman of the Planning commission at the time of the third five-year plan was D. R. Gadgil.
• The plan was also known as the Gadgil Yojana.
• The independent economy (establishment of a self-reliant and self-generating economy), agriculture, and improvement in the production of wheat were the major objectives of the plan.
• The third Five Year Plan was affected due to drought and two wars (Sino-India war of 1962 and Indo-Pakistani war of 1965).

Additional Information

• The First five-year plan 
• This plan was launched from 1951-1956 under the leadership of Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru.
• It was based on the Harrod-Domar model.
• The targeted growth rate of the plan was 2.1%.
• The plan was successful and achieved a growth rate of 3.6% which was more than its target.
• The agricultural development of the country was the major objective of the plan.
• At the end of this plan, five IITs were set up in the country.
• The second five-year plan
• ​​​This plan is based on P.C Mahalanobis Model.
• It was planned from 1 April 1956 to 31 March 1961.
• It is popularly known as Mahalanobis Plan.
• The second five-year plan accords high priority to industrialization, and especially to the development of basic and heavy industries.
• This plan includes substantial investment in iron and steel, coal and Heavy engineering, Machine building, Heavy chemicals, and Cement Industries.​
• ​Fourth-Five year Plan:
• ​The duration of this Plan is 1969-1974 under the leadership of Indira Gandhi.
• The two main objectives of this Plan are growth with Stability and Progressive achievement with self-reliance.
• During this Plan, 14 major Indian Banks were nationalized.
• At this time, the Indo-Pak war of 1971 and the Bangladesh liberation war took Place.
• The main emphasis was on the growth rate of agriculture to enable other sectors to move forward.
• First, two years of the plan saw record production.
• The last three years did not measure up due to poor monsoon.
• Implementation of Family Planning Programmes was amongst the major targets of the Plan.

Important Points

The correct answer is 18th.

Key Points

• The 18th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD) convention was organized in Bhubaneswar.
• Pravasi Bharatiya Divas is celebrated to recognize the contributions of the overseas Indian community to India's development.
• The event was first celebrated on January 9, 2003, to commemorate Mahatma Gandhi's return from South Africa to India in 1915.
• The 18th edition of Pravasi Bharatiya Divas focused on strengthening ties between India and its diaspora.

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

• The Moplah Peasant Rebellion of 1921 is associated with the state of Kerala.
• It is also known as the Moplah Riots or the Malabar Rebellion.
• The rebellion was primarily led by the Moplah Muslims against the British authorities and the Hindu landlords.
• The rebellion was a reaction to the oppressive feudal system and the exploitative practices of the British colonial rulers.
• The uprising was characterized by large-scale violence, destruction of property, and loss of life.
• The rebellion is considered a significant event in the history of the Indian independence movement.
• The British government responded with a heavy crackdown, leading to further resentment and unrest in the region.
• The Moplah Rebellion had a lasting impact on the social and political landscape of Kerala.

 Additional Information

• Rajasthan
• Rajasthan is known for its rich cultural heritage and historical significance.
• The state is famous for its forts, palaces, and desert landscapes.
• Punjab
• Punjab is known for its vibrant culture and significant role in the Indian independence movement.
• The state is famous for its agricultural productivity and the Green Revolution.
• Odisha
• Odisha is known for its ancient temples and rich cultural heritage.
• The state is famous for its classical dance form, Odissi.

The correct answer is President.

Key PointsThe Governors of states:

• Governors have been discussed under Article 153 to Article 162 of the Indian Constitution.
• The Governor is the constitutional head of a state in India and is responsible for the administration of the state.
• Under Article 155, the appointment of the Governor is done by the President of India by warrant under his hand and seal.
• He/She holds office at the pleasure of the President, which means that the President can remove the Governor from office at any time without assigning any reason.
• The term of governor's office is normally 5 years but it can be terminated earlier.
• He/She can also resign from his/her office by addressing the resignation letter to the President.
• Under Article 157, the qualifications for appointment as a Governor are: A Governor must
• be an Indian citizen and reside in the country.
• attain an age of a minimum of 35 years.
• not be a member of both houses of the parliament and the house of the state legislature.
• not hold any office for generating profit.

Additional Information

• The Prime Minister of India is the head of the government at the centre.
• Under Article 75, he/she is appointed by the president of India if he/she has the confidence of the majority of Lok Sabha members.
• He can recommend a person's name for the post of Governor to the President.
• Article 74(1) states that there shall be a Council of Ministers with a Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President.
• ​The Chief Minister of a state head of the government at the state level.
• According to Article 164 in the Indian Constitution, the Governor appoints a Chief Minister.

The correct answer is 1915.

Key Points

• Mahatma Gandhi returns to India from South Africa on 9 January 1915.
• After arriving in India, Mahatma Gandhi successfully organized Satyagraha Movements in various places.
• Gandhi returned to India from South Africa in 1915 at the request of Gopal Krishna Gokhale.
• Gandhi Ji returns from South Africa can be seen as perfect timing for the future of development of the Indian national movement. Gokhale helped  Gandhiji at the time of hardships in raising funds when Gandhiji was in South Africa.
• Gokhale insisted Gandhiji that he has been far away from his nation. He wanted Gandhiji to come to India and know the situation of India under British Rule.

Important Points

• Things Mahatma Gandhi did in South Africa:
• He organised non-violent protests against the racial discrimination directed towards the native Africans and Indians in 1894.
• He came to India for a short time in 1896 to gather fellow India to serve in South Africa,
• He organised the Indian Ambulance corps for the British during the outbreak of the Boer War in 1899.
• Het set up Phoenix Farm near Durban where Gandhi trained his cadre for peaceful restraint or non-violent Satyagraha.
• He also set up another farm which was Tolstoy Farm which is considered the place where Satyagraha was moulded into a weapon of protest.
• Movements Started by Gandhiji in India:
• Champaran Satyagraha of 1917
• Kheda Satyagrah of 1918
• Khilafat Movement Post World War I
• Non-Co-operation Movement
• Civil Disobedience Movement
• Negotiations over Round Table Conferences
• Gandhi Irwin Pact
• Quit India Movement

Additional Information

Mahatama Gandhi:

• Born: 2 October 1869
• Died: 30 January 1948
• He was undoubtedly a great man, both in personal force and in political effect.
• He was an Indian Lawyer, Politician, social activist, and writer who moulded the character of the struggle for freedom in India, and impressed his own ideals upon the new governing class that came into power when the English went home.

The correct answer is 1931. 

Key Points

• The Second Round Table Conference was held in London from 7 September 1931 to 1 December 1931.
• Mahatma Gandhi represented the Indian National Congress and Sarojini Naidu represented Indian women in the second round table conferences.
• Some important participants of the Second Round table conference:
• Indian National Congress (INC) – Mahatma Gandhi, Rangaswami Iyengar, Madan Mohan Malaviya
• Muslims League – Md. Ali Jinnah, Aga Khan III, Muhammad Iqbal
• Hindus – M R Jayakar
• Depressed classes – Dr. B R Ambedkar
• The Second Round Table Conference was one of the results of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact.
• The British decided to grant a communal award for representing minorities in India by providing separate electorates for minority communities and Gandhiji was against this.

Additional Information

• The First Round Table Conference was conducted from 12 November 1930 to 19 January 1931 in London.
• The Third Round Table Conference took place between 17 November 1932 and 24 December 1932 in London.

Louis XVI

• Louis XVI of the Bourbon dynasty was the ruler of France during the French Revolution.
• He was referred to as Citizen Louis Capet during the four months just before he was executed by guillotine.
• In 1765, upon the death of his father, Louis, Dauphin of France, he became the new Dauphin.
• He was the last king of France before the fall of the monarchy during the French Revolution.
• The first part of his reign was marked by attempts to reform the French government in accordance with Enlightenment ideas.
• These included efforts to abolish serfdom, remove the taille (land tax) and the corvée (labour tax), and increase tolerance toward non-Catholics as well as the abolition of the death penalty for deserters.
• One day after being convicted of conspiracy with foreign powers and sentenced to death by the French National Convention, King Louis XVI is executed by guillotine in the Place de la Revolution in Paris.
• Louis ascended to the French throne in 1774 and from the start was unsuited to deal with the severe financial problems that he had inherited from his grandfather, King Louis XV.
• In 1789, in a last-ditch attempt to resolve his country’s financial crisis, Louis assembled the States-General, a national assembly that represented the three “estates” of the French people—the nobles, the clergy and the commons.
• The States-General had not been assembled since 1614, and the third estate—the commons—used the opportunity to declare itself the National Assembly, igniting the French Revolution.
• On July 14, 1789, violence erupted when Parisians stormed the Bastille—a state prison where they believed ammunition was stored.
• In August 1792, the royal couple was arrested by the sans-culottes and imprisoned, and in September the monarchy was abolished by the National Convention (which had replaced the National Assembly).
• ​In November, evidence of Louis XVI’s counterrevolutionary intrigues with Austria and other foreign nations was discovered, and he was put on trial for treason by the National Convention. The next January, Louis was convicted and condemned to death by a narrow majority.
• On January 21, he walked steadfastly to the guillotine and was executed. Nine months later, Marie Antoinette was convicted of treason by a tribunal, and on October 16 she followed her husband to the guillotine.

The correct answer is Mahananda.

Key Points

• The Kosi-Mechi Interlinking Project is aimed at diverting water from the Kosi River to the Mechi River, which is a tributary of the Mahananda River.
• This interlinking project is a part of the National River Linking Project (NRLP) initiated to address issues of water scarcity and irrigation.
• It primarily seeks to enhance irrigation facilities in the northeastern region of Bihar and some adjoining areas.
• The diverted water will benefit agricultural lands in the region by improving irrigation and reducing dependency on erratic rainfall.
• The Mahananda River, a key tributary of the Ganges, plays a crucial role in regional water management and irrigation systems.

Additional Information

• Kosi River:
• Known as the "Sorrow of Bihar," the Kosi River causes frequent floods in Bihar due to heavy sediment load and shifting of its course.
• It originates from the Himalayas in Nepal and flows into the Ganges.
• Mahananda River:
• The Mahananda River is a tributary of the Ganges, flowing through Bihar, West Bengal, and Bangladesh.
• It is a vital water source for irrigation and sustains agriculture in the region.
• National River Linking Project (NRLP):
• An ambitious initiative by the Government of India to interlink rivers to manage water distribution effectively.
• It aims to address regional water imbalances and mitigate the effects of droughts and floods.
• Environmental Concerns:
• River interlinking projects often face criticism due to potential ecological and environmental impacts, including habitat destruction and changes in aquatic biodiversity.

The correct answer is Patliputra.

Key Points

• The 3rd Buddhist council was held in 250 BC.
• Venue: Ashoka Rama Vihar, Patliputra
• Chairman: Moggaliputta Tissa
• Patron: Ashoka (Maurya Dynasty)
• Result: (i) Compilation of Mahavibhasa Sastra (ii) the division of Buddhists into Hinayanists.

Additional Information

The correct answer is 1764.

Key Points

• The battle of Buxar was fought on 22nd October 1764. This battle was crucial for Britishers since it provided them full control of Bengal and Bihar.
• It was fought between Hector Munro and the combined forces of Mir Qasim which included Shuja-ud-daula, Shah Alam II, etc.
• In this battle, the combined force of Mir Qasim was defeated.
• The Treaty of Allahabad was signed on 12 August 1765 between Robert Clive and Shah Alam II (Mughal emperor).
• Shah Alam II was forced to pay a fine of five million rupees.

Additional Information 

• The battle of Buxar was the outcome of the misuse of Farman and Dastak, and also the trade expansionist aspiration of English.
• The seeds of the Battle of Buxar were sown after the Battle of Plassey when Mir Qasim became the Nawab of Bengal.
• In the Mughal force, there were 40,000 men in the battle of Buxar, while the English East India Company's Hector Munro's forces included 10,000 men.
• With the defeat of Mir Qasim, the rule of Nawabs came to an end.

The Correct Answer is 130th.

In News

• India ranks 130th on Human Development Index, says UNDP 2025 report.

Key Points

• India ranked 130th out of 193 countries in the 2025 HDR.
• Report title: "A Matter of Choice: People and Possibilities in the Age of AI".
• Published by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
• India’s HDI improved from 0.676 (2022) to 0.685 (2023).
• Top-ranked countries:
• 1st: Iceland (HDI: 0.972)
• 2nd: Norway
• 3rd: Switzerland
• Lowest-ranked: South Sudan (193rd, HDI: 0.388)
• India’s neighbouring countries:
• Ranked above India:
• China (75th)
• Sri Lanka (78th)
• Bhutan (127th)
• Ranked equal to India:
• Bangladesh (130th)
• Ranked below India:
• Nepal (145th)
• Myanmar (149th)
• Pakistan (168th)
• Human Development Index (HDI):
• Measures achievement in three key dimensions:

1. Health – Life expectancy at birth
2. Education – Expected years and mean years of schooling
3. Standard of living – GNI per capita (PPP $)

• Developed by Mahbub ul Haq, based on the capability approach of Amartya Sen.

Kaimur range is the eastern portion of the Vindhya Range, about 483 kilometres (300 mi) long, extending from around Katangi in Jabalpur district of Madhya Pradesh to around sasaram in Rohtas district of Bihar.

The correct answer is Odisha - Sambalpur.

Key Points

• Mahanadi Coalfields Limited (MCL) is one of the major coal-producing companies in India.
• It is one of the eight subsidiaries of Coal India Limited.
• Mahanadi Coalfields Limited was carved out of South Eastern Coalfields Limited in 1992 with its headquarters at Sambalpur.

Additional Information

• Ramgarh Coalfield is located in the Ramgarh district in the Indian state of Jharkhand.
• Pathkheda is a town in Sarni Municipality of Betul district in the Indian state of Madhya Pradesh.
• Jhilimili Coalfield is located in Surguja district in the Indian state of Chhattisgarh.

The correct answer is option 3

The Narmada River is a westward-flowing river in Peninsular India that flows through a rift valley. Unlike the other rivers mentioned, it does not form a delta; instead, it forms an estuary. Consequently, its mouth is not a producer of petroleum minerals.

The correct answer is 22 March.

• Bihar Diwas (Bihar Day) is observed every year on March 22, marking the formation of the state of Bihar.
• It was on this day when the British carved out the state from Bengal Presidency in 1912.
• The Day is a public holiday in Bihar. Bihar Divas was started and celebrated on a large scale by Bihar Government
• Every year the Government of Bihar issues a notification declaring the 22 March to be a public holiday to be celebrated as Bihar Diwas.
• This holiday applies to all the offices and companies under the jurisdiction of the State and Central Government, as well as Schools, celebrate this day by organizing various programmes participated by students.

The correct answer is Narmada.

Key Points

• The Narmada River flows in a westward direction through a rift valley between the Vindhya and Satpura ranges.
• It is the fifth-largest river in the Indian subcontinent.
• The Narmada River is also known as the "Life Line of Madhya Pradesh" due to its immense importance in the state.
• This river divides the Peninsular Plateau into two distinct regions: the Malwa Plateau to the north and the Deccan Plateau to the south.

Additional Information

• Peninsular Plateau
• The Peninsular Plateau is a large plateau in southern India that forms the core of the Indian subcontinent.
• It is composed primarily of ancient crystalline, igneous, and metamorphic rocks.
• This plateau is divided into two major parts: the Central Highlands and the Deccan Plateau.
• Rift Valley
• A rift valley is a lowland region that forms where Earth’s tectonic plates move apart.
• The Narmada River flows through one of the most prominent rift valleys in India.
• Vindhya and Satpura Ranges
• The Vindhya Range runs parallel to the Narmada River in the north.
• The Satpura Range runs parallel to the river in the south.
• Both ranges play a crucial role in dividing the Indian subcontinent into northern and southern parts.
• Significance of the Narmada River
• The Narmada River is crucial for irrigation, drinking water, and hydroelectric power generation.
• Major projects on the river include the Sardar Sarovar Dam and the Bargi Dam.

The correct answer is Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru.

Key Points

• Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru has drafted the resolution of Fundamental Rights and economic program.
• The Karachi Congress Session which was held on March 26 to 31,1931 was chaired by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
• It was a very special session of the Indian National Congress in which Mahatma Gandhi was selected to represent the Indian National Congress in the Second Round Table Conference to be held in London.
• The session also discussed the approval of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact or the Delhi Pact.
• Six days before this session, Bhagat Singh, Rajguru, and Sukhdev were hanged.

The correct answer is Karachi Session 1931.

• The resolution on Fundamental Rights was adopted by the Congress at its Karachi Session (1931).

Key Points

• The congress adopted a resolution on Fundamental Rights and Economic Policy which represented the Party’s Social, Economic and Political programme.
• The Karachi session was presided by Sardar Patel.
• It was later known as Karachi Resolution.
• The Gandhi Irwin Pact was endorsed by the Congress in the Karachi Session of 1931.

Additional Information

• Some important aspects of these resolutions were:
• Basic civil rights of freedom of speech, Freedom of Press, Freedom of assembly, Freedom of association.
• Elections on the basis of Universal Adult Franchise.
• Free and compulsory primary education.
• Substantial reduction in rent and taxes
• On 31st December 1929, in Lahore Session, the newly adopted tricolour was hoisted and 26th January 1930 was fixed as the first Independence Day.

The correct answer is 1942.

Key Points

• In the year 1942, Jayaprakash Narayan escaped from Hazaribagh Prison and joined the Quit India Movement.
• Jayaprakash Narayan was a freedom fighter and political leader who played a significant role in India's struggle for independence.
• He is renowned for spearheading the opposition movement against Prime Minister Indira Gandhi in the middle of the 1970s and advocating for a "total revolution" to remove her.
• In 1999, Narayan received the highest civilian honor in India, the Bharat Ratna, posthumously for his social contribution.
• Among his other honors is the 1965 Magsaysay Award for Public Service.

Additional Information

• The Quit India Movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1942, demanding an end to British rule in India.
• The campaign adopted the catchphrases "Bharat Chodo" or "Quit India."
• Gandhi urged the populace to "do or die."
• It was intended to be a nonviolent, nonviolent movement in keeping with Congress doctrine, pushing the British to give India independence.
• On August 8, 1942, in Bombay, the Congress Working Committee passed the Quit India Resolution.
• The very following day, in response to Gandhi's request, the British administration arrested every significant Congress leader.
• An arrest was made of Gandhi, Nehru, Patel, and others.
• As a result, younger activists like Jayaprakash Narayan and Ram Manohar Lohia took up leadership of the campaign.

The correct answer is 1911.

Key Points

• Until 1911, Calcutta was the capital of India during the British Raj.
• Calcutta was the capital of British India from 1772 to 1911.
• From 1912 to India's Independence in 1947, Calcutta was the capital of all of Bengal.
• Shimla had become the summer capital by the latter half of the 19th century.
• On 12 December 1911, King George V proclaimed the transfer of the capital from Calcutta to Delhi at the climax of the 1911 Imperial Durbar.
• In early 1931, the buildings housing the Viceroy, government, and parliament were inaugurated.

Additional InformationReasons for shifting of capital- 

• One of the main reasons that were cited for the capital shift was the location of the capital (Delhi).
• Delhi was located in the northern part while Calcutta was situated in the eastern coastal part of the country.
• Note:- In 1858, Allahabad (now Prayagraj) became the capital of India for a day when Allahabad also served as the capital of North-Western Provinces.

• Novak Djokovic belongs to Serbia, a country in Southeast Europe.
• Novak Djokovic is a tennis player who is currently ranked world No. 1 in men's singles tennis by the Association of Tennis Professionals.
• He has won 15 Grand Slam singles titles and 5 ATP Finals titles.

The correct answer is  Article 151.

Key Points

• Comptroller and Auditor General of India:
• The Constitution of India (Article 148) provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG).
• He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department.
• He is the guardian of the public purse and controls the entire financial system of the country at both the levels of the Centre and the state
• Article 149 deals with the powers and duties of the CAG.
• His duty is to uphold the Constitution of India and the laws of Parliament in the field of financial administration.
• This is the reason why Dr. B R Ambedkar said that the CAG shall be the most important Officer under the Constitution of India.
• He is one of the bulwarks of the democratic system of government in India; the others being the Supreme Court, the Election Commission, and the Union Public Service Commission.
• Article 151 says that the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India submit the reports in relation to the accounts of the Union to the President, who shall further lay it before each of the houses in the Parliament.
• The current CAG is K. Sanjay Murthy.
• Article related to CAG are 148,149,150,151,279

Additional Information

• Appointment and Term:
• The CAG is appointed by the president of India by a warrant under his hand and seal.
• The CAG, before taking over his office, makes and subscribes before the president an oath or affirmation:
• To bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India;
• To uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India;
• To duly and faithfully and to the best of his ability, knowledge, and judgement perform the duties of his office without fear or favour, affection or ill-will; and
• To uphold the Constitution and the laws.

The correct answer is - Heavy industries

Key Points

• Heavy industries
• The Second Five-Year Plan (1956-61) in India placed a significant emphasis on the development of heavy industries.
• Under the leadership of Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru, the plan aimed to build the industrial foundation of the country.
• It focused on the establishment of large-scale industries such as steel plants, machine-building, and heavy engineering.
• The emphasis on heavy industries was intended to make India self-reliant and reduce dependence on imports.

Additional Information

• Agriculture
• Though important, agriculture was not the primary focus of the Second Five-Year Plan. The First Five-Year Plan (1951-56) had already laid the groundwork for agricultural development.
• The Green Revolution, which significantly boosted agricultural productivity, began later in the 1960s.
• Social services
• Social services, including education and healthcare, were important aspects of development but were not the central focus of the Second Five-Year Plan.
• These sectors received more attention in subsequent plans as the country aimed to improve overall quality of life.
• Defence
• Defence was crucial for national security, but the plan primarily targeted economic and industrial development.
• Defence spending was maintained, but it did not dominate the strategic focus of the Second Five-Year Plan.

The correct answer is 1917.

Key Points

• Champaran Satyagraha against indigo plantation was in 1917.
• Champaran Satyagraha was Mahathma Gandhi's first satyagraha in India.
• It took place at Champaran in Bihar.
• It was a farmer's uprising in Bihar during the British colonial period.
• It was the first popular Satyagraha movement in India.
• Demand for high rent and illegal dues by European planters led to Champaran Satyagraha.
• British agreed to the demands of the farmers at the end of this satyagraha.

The correct answer is Eight.

Key Points

• Indian Hockey in Olympics:
• The number of Gold Medals won by Indian Hockey in the Olympics is eight. 
• India won gold medals in hockey in the following years: 1928, 1932, 1936, 1948, 1952, 1956, 1964, and 1980.
• The number of Silver Medals won by Indian Hockey in the Olympics is one in 1960.
• The number of Bronze Medals won by Indian Hockey in the Olympics is three. (1968,1972 and 2020).

​Thus, the Indian Hockey team has won 8 Gold Medals in Olympics.

Additional Information

• Field Hockey:
• Field Hockey is a team game.
• It is played between two teams of 11 players each.
• It is played with the help of a hockey stick and a ball.
• A hockey stick is equipment used to play hockey.
• It consists of mainly four parts i.e., grip, shaft, heel, and toe.
• The ball should way between 5.5 to 5.75 ounces.
• The "International Hockey Federation" makes the rules.

The correct answer is Ganges and Gandak.

• Sonepur Cattle Fair is held on Kartik Poornima in the month of November- December in Sonepur, Bihar, on the confluence of river Ganges and Gandak.

Key Points

• It is also known as Harihar Kshetra Mela and it attracts visitors from all over Asia.
• To date, it is the biggest cattle fair in Asia and stretches from fifteen days to one month.
• It historically began when Chandragupta Maurya (340 - 297 BCE) bought elephants and horses across the river Ganges.
• The Sonepur Cattle Fair used to attract traders from places as far away as Central Asia.

The correct answer is 1919.

• The Rowlatt Satyagraha was a national protest against Rowlatt Act introduced in 1919.
• The Rowlatt Act was passed on 6th February 1919.
• Rowlatt Satyagraha was founded in 1919 by Mahatma Gandhi.
• Gandhiji became a true national leader as a result of the Rowlatt Satyagraha.
• The Rowlatt Act gave the British government the ability to arrest and imprison anyone for no cause.
• The Rowlatt Act was officially known as the "anarchical and revolutionary offenses act."
• Gandhiji referred to the Rowlatt Act as a "black act."
• On April 6, 1919, Mahatma Gandhi resolved to fight the Rowlatt Act and issued a call for satyagraha.
• The British viceroy who approved the Rowlatt Act was Lord Chelmsford.

The correct answer is Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan.

Key Points

• Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan was a prominent political and spiritual leader known for his non-violent opposition to British rule in India.
• He was also referred to as the "Frontier Gandhi" due to his close association with Mahatma Gandhi and his adherence to Gandhian principles of non-violence.
• He founded the Khudai Khidmatgar ("Servants of God") movement in 1929, which advocated for the rights and welfare of the Pathans (Pashtuns) and promoted social reform and non-violent resistance.
• Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan played a crucial role in the Indian independence movement and continued to advocate for peace and unity even after India gained independence.

Additional Information

• Rabindranath Tagore
• He was a renowned Bengali poet, philosopher, and polymath who reshaped Bengali literature and music in the late 19th and early 20th centuries.
• Tagore became the first non-European to win the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1913 for his collection of poems titled "Gitanjali".
• He is also the author of the Indian national anthem "Jana Gana Mana".
• Gopal Krishna Gokhale
• He was a senior leader of the Indian National Congress and a social reformer who played a significant role in the early stages of India's independence movement.
• Gokhale was a mentor to Mahatma Gandhi and a proponent of moderate and constitutional methods of political agitation.
• He founded the Servants of India Society in 1905 to promote education and social reform.
• Subhash Chandra Bose
• He was a prominent Indian nationalist leader who advocated for complete independence from British rule.
• Bose was known for his militant approach and founded the Indian National Army (INA) to fight against British forces during World War II.
• He is often referred to as "Netaji" and is remembered for his famous slogan, "Give me blood, and I shall give you freedom!".

The correct answer is Varuna.

Key Points

• Varuna is a naval combat exercise between India and France.
• The Indian and French navies have been conducting bilateral maritime exercises since 1993.

Additional Information

• Bilateral Exercise with other Countries:

• About Varuna Exercise 2021:
• This is the first time the United Arab Emirates (UAE) participated in the Varuna maritime exercise.
• Its objective is to contribute to the stability of these strategic areas and to strengthen cooperation with the navies of partner countries, in particular India, for the Indian Ocean component.
• The exercise was seen with high-speed naval operations at sea, including advanced anti-aircraft and anti-submarine exercises, tactical maneuvers, ongoing force resupply, and other operations, other maritime security operations.

The correct answer is USA.

Key Points

• The Ghadar Party was an organization founded by Indian immigrants in the USA.
• It was established in 1913 in San Francisco, California.
• The party aimed to secure India's independence from British rule through armed rebellion.
• The members were primarily Sikhs, but it also included Hindus and Muslims.
• The Ghadar Party published a newspaper called ‘Ghadar’ to promote revolutionary activities.
• The party received support from other immigrant communities and the broader Indian diaspora.
• It played a significant role in inspiring subsequent movements for Indian independence.

 Additional Information

• Turkey
• Turkey has no significant historical connection with the Ghadar Party or Indian revolutionary activities.
• Britain
• While Britain was the colonizing power in India, it was not the location for the establishment of the Ghadar Party.
• Many Indian revolutionary activities, however, did take place in Britain.
• Ireland
• Ireland has its own history of rebellion against British rule, but it was not directly involved in the establishment of the Ghadar Party.
• Some Irish revolutionaries did inspire Indian revolutionaries, but the Ghadar Party was not established there.

The correct answer is Kaimur

In News

• The central government has granted in-principle approval for Bihar's second tiger reserve in Kaimur district, following a proposal from the Bihar government to convert Kaimur Wildlife Sanctuary (KWLS) into a tiger reserve.

Key Points

• The Valmiki Tiger Reserve (VTR) in West Champaran district was the only existing tiger reserve in Bihar, currently housing 54 tigers, exceeding its capacity of 45.
• The state's Forest, Environment and Climate Change Minister, Prem Kumar, emphasized this decision as a significant advancement for wildlife protection in Bihar, although additional technical approvals from the Centre are still needed for the formal declaration.
• The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) provided its in-principle approval during its 12th meeting, responding to the increasing tiger population at VTR.
• Plans for the Kaimur Tiger Reserve include a buffer zone around the Shergarh Fort, a tourist attraction, while excluding 58 nearby villages from the core zone based on NTCA feedback.
• The forest department has designated 450 square kilometers of forest as prime tiger habitat for the new reserve, reduced from an initial proposal of 900 square kilometers.
• The establishment of the Kaimur Tiger Reserve was prompted by the surge in VTR's tiger population, which has grown from 31 in 2018, as highlighted in the Status of Tigers Report 2022 by NTCA and the Wildlife Institute of India.
• The initiative to recognize Kaimur as a tiger reserve gained traction in 2018 after reports of tiger presence, including pugmarks and prey remains, were confirmed by former Kaimur District Forest Officer Satyajeet Kumar, leading to an evaluation by wildlife experts.

The correct answer is XIII.

Key Points

• The Kalinga War is mentioned in the Major Rock Edict XIII of Ashoka.
• This edict provides details about the war, its aftermath, and Ashoka's remorse over the bloodshed and suffering caused.
• Edict XIII also highlights Ashoka's conversion to Buddhism and his efforts towards spreading Dhamma (moral law).
• The edict emphasizes Ashoka's change of heart and his dedication towards non-violence and the welfare of his subjects.

Additional Information

• Major Rock Edicts of Ashoka
• The Major Rock Edicts are a set of 14 inscriptions that were issued by Emperor Ashoka of the Maurya Dynasty around 250 BCE.
• These edicts are found across various parts of the Indian subcontinent, including modern-day India, Nepal, Pakistan, and Afghanistan.
• The edicts focus on ethical and moral teachings, emphasizing non-violence, tolerance, and respect for all forms of life.
• Ashoka's edicts also promote social welfare, justice, and the importance of following the Dhamma.
• Kalinga War
• The Kalinga War was fought between the Mauryan Empire under Ashoka and the state of Kalinga (present-day Odisha) around 261 BCE.
• The war is renowned for its massive scale and the significant loss of life and suffering it caused.
• Ashoka's experience in the aftermath of the war led to his deep remorse and a transformative shift in his beliefs.
• The Kalinga War played a pivotal role in Ashoka's adoption of Buddhism and his subsequent efforts to promote peace and non-violence.
• Ashoka the Great
• Ashoka was the third emperor of the Maurya Dynasty, ruling from approximately 268 to 232 BCE.
• He is widely remembered for his role in spreading Buddhism and his emphasis on moral governance.
• Ashoka's reign marked a period of significant cultural and religious transformation in ancient India.
• His legacy is celebrated for his contributions to the promotion of non-violence, social welfare, and the spread of Buddhist teachings.

The correct answer is Mahi.

Key Points

• River Mahi:
• Mahi river rises in Madhya Pradesh and flows into the Arabian Sea after flowing through the states of Rajasthan and Gujarat.
• It is the river that crosses the tropic of cancer twice.
• River Narmada:
• It is the largest west flowing river.
• It acts as the boundary between North and South India.
• It originates in the Amarkantak plateau, where the Vindhya and Satpura mountain ranges meet.
• It flows through the states of Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Gujarat before emptying into the Arabian sea.
• River Tapti:
• It is a river in central India, located to the south of the Narmada river, and drains into the Arabian Sea.
• The Tapti River is located in Madhya Pradesh.
• River Chambal:
• It originates at Singar Chouri peak in Vindhya ranges in Madhya Pradesh.
• It is a tributary of the Yamuna River.
• It lies in the states of Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, and Rajasthan.

The correct answer is Jeevika Health Insurance Scheme.

Key Points

• The Jeevika Health Insurance Scheme is an initiative by the Bihar government aimed at providing health insurance coverage to rural households.
• It primarily focuses on families associated with self-help groups (SHGs) under the Jeevika program.
• The scheme offers financial assistance for healthcare expenses, ensuring access to quality medical services for economically weaker sections.
• It is part of the Bihar Rural Livelihoods Promotion Society (BRLPS) initiative, which aims to reduce healthcare-related financial burdens on rural communities.
• This scheme is an important step towards improving healthcare accessibility in rural Bihar, aligning with state-level efforts to support marginalized populations.

Additional Information

• Bihar Rural Livelihoods Promotion Society (BRLPS):
• BRLPS is an autonomous body under the Bihar government, implementing the Jeevika program to promote sustainable livelihoods.
• It works to empower rural communities through self-help groups and various socio-economic initiatives.
• The Jeevika Health Insurance Scheme is one of its key healthcare-focused efforts.
• Self-Help Groups (SHGs):
• SHGs are small voluntary associations of people, often women, formed to address economic and social challenges collectively.
• Under the Jeevika program, SHGs play a critical role in accessing health insurance benefits for their members.
• Health Insurance in India:
• Health insurance schemes like Ayushman Bharat aim to provide financial protection against medical expenses.
• State-level schemes, such as Jeevika, complement national programs by addressing specific local needs.
• Challenges in Rural Healthcare:
• Lack of access to quality medical facilities and financial barriers are key challenges in rural India.
• Schemes like Jeevika address these issues by reducing the economic burden and improving healthcare accessibility.

The correct answer is Humayun.

• Humayun was the eldest son of Babur.
• Humayun (1530 AD-1540 AD and 1555 AD-1556 AD):
• He was the eldest son of Babur and ascended the throne in 1530 AD.
• His birth name was Nasir al-Din Muhammad.
• Kamran, Hindal and Askari were brothers of Humayun.
• Battle of Chausa (1539 AD) was fought between Sher Shah and Humayun’s army and Humayun was defeated.
• Humayun was again defeated by Sher Shah in the Battle of Kannauj (Bilgrama) (1540 AD).
• Shah Jahan was the son of Jahangir.
• Akbar was the son of Humayun.
• Changez Khan was the founder of the Mongol Empire.

The correct answer is Jamui.

Key Points

• Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated development projects worth Rs 6,640 crore in Jamui district of Bihar.
• The event was held to mark the 150th birth anniversary of Bhagwan Birsa Munda, a revered tribal leader and freedom fighter.
• The development projects aimed to enhance infrastructure, connectivity, and socio-economic growth in the region.
• Bhagwan Birsa Munda is celebrated for his contributions to tribal rights and his fight against British colonial oppression.
• The inauguration aligns with the government’s focus on promoting regional development and honoring historical figures.

Additional Information

• Bhagwan Birsa Munda:
• Born on 15th November 1875, Birsa Munda was a tribal freedom fighter and religious leader.
• He led the Munda Rebellion (Ulgulan) against British colonial rule and exploitation of tribal communities.
• His efforts led to the recognition of tribal land rights under the Chotanagpur Tenancy Act of 1908.
• He is regarded as a symbol of tribal identity and resistance in India.
• Jamui District:
• Located in Bihar, Jamui is known for its historical and cultural significance.
• The district is rich in mineral resources, including mica and limestone.
• It is home to several temples and pilgrimage sites, contributing to its tourism value.
• Development Projects:
• Projects typically include infrastructure upgrades like roads, railways, schools, and healthcare facilities.
• Such initiatives aim to reduce regional disparities and improve the quality of life.
• They align with the government’s vision of inclusive development.
• Government’s Focus on Tribal Welfare:
• Various schemes and programs are launched to support education, healthcare, and economic empowerment of tribal communities.
• Events like the commemoration of Bhagwan Birsa Munda’s birth anniversary highlight tribal heritage and contributions.
• The Ministry of Tribal Affairs oversees policies and initiatives for tribal welfare in India.

The Correct Answer is Panini.

Key Points

• Ashtadhyayi, Sanskrit Aṣṭādhyāyī("Eight Chapters"), a Sanskrit grammar treatise written by the Indian grammarian Panini in the 6th to 5th century BCE. The linguistic standards for Classical Sanskrit were set by this work. The science of phonetics and grammar that had developed in the Vedic religion was summed up in 4,000 sutras. His work was divided into eight chapters by Panini, each of which is further divided into four chapters.
• Ashtadhyayi distinguishes between use in the spoken language and use that is unique to the language of the sacred texts, beyond describing the morphology and syntax of the Sanskrit language.

Important Points

• An ancient Sanskrit philologist, grammarian, and a respected scholar in ancient India were Pānini, variously dated between the 4th century BCE and the 6th to 5th century BCE.
• Pānini has been considered the "first descriptive linguist" and also labelled as "the father of linguistics" since the discovery and publication of his work by European scholars in the nineteenth century.

Additional Information

• Bāṇabhaṭṭa was a Sanskrit prose writer and poet from India in the seventh century.
• Shudraka was the king and playwright of India. He is ascribed to three Sanskrit plays - Mrichchhakatika (The Little Clay Cart), Vinavasavadatta, and Padmaprabhritaka, a bhana (short one-act monologue).
• In ancient India, Patañjali was a sage who was thought to be the author of a number of Sanskrit works.

The Indian state Odisha established on 1 April 1936.

• The organization Utkal Sammilani was formed in 1903 to demand the unification of Odia-speaking regions into one state.
• The Province of Bihar and Orissa was formed on 1 April 1912.
• Bihar and Orissa were subdivided into separate provinces on 1 April 1936.
• The new Province of Orissa was created on a linguistic basis during the British rule in India, with Sir John Austen Hubback as the first governor.
• On 15 August 1947, the agreement to join Orissa was signed by 27 princely States.

The correct answer is Ahmad Shah Abdali and Marathas.

Key PointsThird Battle of Panipat: 

• The Third Battle of Panipat was fought between the Maratha Empire and the Afghan Army.
• It took place on 14 January 1761 at Panipat.
• The Battle was fought between Sadashiv Rao Bhau(The Maratha Empire) and Ahmad Shah Durrani (The Afghan Army).
• In this Battle, the Afghans were led by their king Ahmed Shah Durrani, who got help from the Rohilla Afghans of the Doab and Shuja-ud-Daula, the Nawab of Awadh. On the other hand, the Marathas failed to get the support of the Sikhs or the Jats or the Rajputs.
• It is considered one of the largest and most fiercely fought battles in the 18th century.
• Sadashivrao Bhau and Vishwasrao were killed in the battle along with tens of thousands of Marathas. Many women and children of the losing side were taken as slaves.
• At last,  the battle was won by the Afghan Army which was led by Ahmad Shah Durrani.

Additional Information First Battle of Panipat: 

• The First Battle of Panipat (21 April 1526) was fought near the small village of Panipat( Haryana), this marked the beginning of the Mughal Empire in India.
• The battle was fought between the invading forces of Zahir-ud-din Babur and the last empire of the Delhi Sultanate, Lodi Empire during the rule of Ibrahim Lodi.

Second Battle of Panipat:

• The Second Battle of Panipat was fought between the forces of Samrat Hem Chandra Vikramaditya, popularly called Hemu, the Hindu king who was ruling North India from Delhi, and the army of Akbar, on November 5, 1556.
• It was a decisive victory for Akbar’s generals Khan Zaman I and Bairam Khan.

The correct answer is Raidas.

Key Points

• Mira Bai was a Rajput princess, the only child of Ratan Singh, the younger brother of the ruler of Merta.
• Her royal education included music and religion as well as instruction in politics and government.
• An image of Krishna given to her during childhood by a holy man began a lifetime of devotion to Krishna, whom she worshipped as her Divine Lover.
• Mira Bai was married in 1516 to Bhoj Raj, crown prince of Mewar.
• Guru Raidas, a low-caste leather worker was the preceptor of Mirabai.

Additional Information

• Dadu was a Hindu-Muslim saint who inspired the formation of a sect called Dadu Panth.
• Dadu became a religious wanderer and preacher, settling for periods of time at Sembhar, at Amber, and finally at Naraina, near Jaipur.
• Ramananda, also called Ramanand or Ramadatta, was a north Indian Brahman (priest), and fifth in succession in the lineage of the philosopher-mystic Ramanuja.
• Surdas was a 16th-century blind Hindu devotional poet and singer.
• He was known for his lyrics written in praise of Krishna.
• They are usually written in Braj Bhasha, one of the two literary dialects of Hindi.

The correct answer is  option 4

Key Points

• Mahabhashya is an influential work on Sanskrit grammar, attributed to Patanjali, expanding on the grammatical rules established by Panini. Hence, option 4 is correct.
• A commentary on selected rules of Sanskrit grammar from Pāṇini's treatise, the Aṣṭādhyāyī, as well as Kātyāyana's Vārttika-sūtra, an elaboration of Pāṇini's grammar.
• It is dated to the 2nd century BCE on the basis of records of Yijing, the Chinese traveller who resided in India for 16 years and studied in Nalanda University.

Additional Information 

• Natyashastra– Bharata Muni
• An ancient Sanskrit treatise on performing arts, covering theatre, dance, and music.
• It is often called the "fifth Veda" due to its significance in Indian classical arts.
• Madhyama-vyayoga– Bhāsa
• A one-act Sanskrit play attributed to the ancient playwright Bhāsa.
• It is based on a story from the Mahabharata, featuring Bhima and Ghatotkacha.
• Kavyalankara– Rudraṭa
• A 9th-century Sanskrit work on poetics and literary criticism.
• Rudraṭa’s Kāvyālaṅkāra systematized poetic devices and aesthetic principles.

The correct answer is Kumara.

Key Points

• Under the Mauryan administration, the provincial administration was generally headed by a Kumara (Prince).
• The Kumara was usually a royal prince, often the king's own son, who was entrusted with governing a province.
• These provinces were known as 'Janapadas'.
• The appointment of Kumaras helped ensure loyalty and effective governance in the vast Mauryan Empire.

Additional Information

• Dandapala
• Dandapala was an official responsible for the maintenance of law and order in the provinces.
• He managed the police and ensured the enforcement of rules and regulations.
• Samaharta
• Samaharta was in charge of revenue collection in the Mauryan administration.
• He was responsible for assessing and collecting land revenue, trade taxes, and other dues.
• Prashasti
• Prashasti refers to an inscription or eulogy written in praise of a ruler or a noble person.
• These inscriptions were often composed by poets and scholars of the court.

The correct answer is Buxar and West Champaran.

Key Points

• The proposed Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in Bihar will be established in Buxar and West Champaran districts.
• SEZs are designed to attract foreign investments and boost economic activity in the designated regions.
• These zones are intended to provide world-class infrastructure and business-friendly regulations to enhance industrial growth.
• Buxar and West Champaran are strategically chosen due to their potential for industrial development and access to resources.

Additional Information

• Special Economic Zones (SEZs)
• SEZs are specifically delineated areas that are subject to different economic regulations than the rest of the country.
• They aim to promote rapid economic growth by using tax and business incentives to attract foreign investment and technology.
• Benefits of SEZs
• SEZs offer various incentives such as tax holidays, duty-free imports, and simplified customs procedures.
• They contribute to increased employment opportunities and infrastructure development in the region.
• Challenges for SEZs in India
• Land acquisition and regulatory approvals can pose significant hurdles in the establishment of SEZs.
• Ensuring environmental compliance and sustainable development within SEZs remains a critical concern.
• Economic Impact
• SEZs have the potential to significantly boost local economies by attracting investment and creating jobs.
• They also facilitate the transfer of technology and skills to the local workforce.

The correct answer is 9.46 × 10¹⁵ m.

Key Points

• One light year is the distance that light travels in one year in vacuum.
• The speed of light in a vacuum is approximately 3 × 10⁸ m/s.
• A light year is calculated by multiplying the speed of light by the number of seconds in a year (365.25 days).
• The correct value of one light year is 9.46 × 10¹⁵ meters.
• This astronomical measurement is widely used to calculate distances between stars and galaxies in space.

Additional Information

• Speed of Light:
• The speed of light is a universal constant, denoted as c, with a value of approximately 299,792,458 m/s.
• It is the fastest speed at which information or matter can travel.
• Astronomical Units:
• An astronomical unit (AU) is another distance measurement unit used in astronomy, representing the mean distance between the Earth and the Sun, approximately 1.496 × 10¹¹ meters.
• Parsec:
• A parsec is a unit of distance used in astronomy, equivalent to approximately 3.26 light years.
• It is based on the method of parallax measurement.
• Applications of Light Year:
• Light years are primarily used to measure distances between celestial objects such as stars and galaxies.
• For example, the nearest star to Earth, Proxima Centauri, is about 4.24 light years away.

The correct answer is Mercury.

Key Points

• Minamata disease is a neurological syndrome caused by severe mercury poisoning.
• The disease was first discovered in Minamata city in Japan in 1956.
• It was caused by the release of methylmercury in the industrial wastewater from the Chisso Corporation's chemical factory.
• This toxic compound bioaccumulated in shellfish and fish in Minamata Bay, which when consumed by the local population, led to mercury poisoning.

Additional Information

• Mercury
• Mercury is a chemical element with the symbol Hg and atomic number 80.
• It is commonly known as quicksilver and was formerly named hydrargyrum.
• Mercury is the only metallic element that is liquid at standard conditions for temperature and pressure.
• It is used in thermometers, barometers, manometers, sphygmomanometers, float valves, some electrical switches, fluorescent lamps, and other devices.
• Mercury and its compounds are highly toxic and can cause severe health problems if ingested or inhaled.
• Minamata Disease
• Minamata disease is a neurological syndrome caused by severe mercury poisoning.
• Symptoms include ataxia, numbness in the hands and feet, general muscle weakness, loss of peripheral vision, and damage to hearing and speech.
• In extreme cases, insanity, paralysis, coma, and death follow within weeks of the onset of symptoms.
• Minamata disease was first discovered in Minamata City in Japan in 1956.
• The disease was caused by the release of methylmercury in the industrial wastewater from the Chisso Corporation's chemical factory.
• This highly toxic chemical bioaccumulated in shellfish and fish in Minamata Bay and the Shiranui Sea, which were then eaten by the local populace.
• Bioaccumulation
• Bioaccumulation refers to the accumulation of substances, such as pesticides, or other chemicals in an organism.
• It occurs when an organism absorbs a substance at a rate faster than that at which the substance is lost by catabolism and excretion.
• This process can lead to the buildup of toxic substances in organisms at the top of the food chain.

The correct answer is Chlorophyceae.

Key Points

• Chlorophyceae:-
• The members of Chlorophyceae are commonly called green algae. (Hence option 4 is correct)
• There are about 7000 species in this class.
• The characteristics and features of Chlorophyceae are discussed below:
• They are usually green due to the presence of chlorophyll a, chlorophyll b, carotene, and xanthophyll.
• Their reserve food material is starch.
• The member of Chlorophyceae family exhibits a diverse range of thallus organisation.
• The majority of the members are filamentous.
• They have apical flagella that range in size from two to eight.
• The members of Chlorophyceae reproduce vegetatively, asexually, and sexually by various methods.
• Examples are Chlamydomonas, Chlorella, Volvox, etc.

Additional Information

• Rhodophyceae:
• Rhodophyceae is a red algae with chlorophyll a and chlorophyll d.
• Their reserve food material is Floridian starch.
• They do not have motile stage i.e. they don't have flagella.
• Examples are Porphyra, Polusiphonia, etc.
• Phaeophyceae:-
• Phaeophyceae is a brown algae with chlorophyll a and chlorophyll c.
• The members of Phaeophyceae contain fucoxanthin pigment.
• Their reserve food material is laminarin.
• They have lateral flagella that are unequal in number (about two).
• Examples are Laminaria, Fucus, etc.
• Desmids:-
• These are a group of microscopic green algae that are known for their beautiful and intricate shapes.
• They are found in freshwater habitats all over the world, and there are over 10,000 known species.
• Desmids are single-celled organisms, but some species can form filaments or colonies.

The correct answer is Energy. 

• A kilowatt-hour (kWh) is a unit of energy. It represents the amount of energy consumed or produced when a device with a power rating of one kilowatt (1,000 watts) operates continuously for one hour. In SI units, one kilowatt-hour equals 3.6 million joules (3.6 megajoules) of energy.

Concept:

Power: The rate of work done by the electric energy is called power. It is denoted by P.

• The SI unit of power is the watt (W).
• Watt is a small unit that's why a kilowatt-hour is used as the unit for electrical energy.

1 unit of electric energy: When a one-kilowatt load works for 1 hour then the energy consumed is called 1 unit of electricity.

• 1 Unit of electricity = 1 kWh = 1000 Watt-hour = 3.6 × 106 J
• 1 Kilo-watt = 1000 Watt

1 Watt: The energy consumption rate of 1 joule per second is called 1 watt.

• The capacity to do work or power consumed in a given time is called energy.
• Power is the rate of doing work or the rate at which energy is spent.
• Kilowatt-hour is the unit of energy.

Key Points

• One thousand-watt makes one kilowatt.
• 1 kw hour is equal to 3600 kilojoules.
• For billing units of energy delivered to consumers by electric appliances, this unit is used.
• It is a non-SI metric unit system.
• The one kilowatt of hour sustained for one hour is the composite unit of energy.
• In kilowatt-hours, the electrical energy is typically sold to consumers.
• In terawatt hours, the major energy production or consumption is expressed.
• How much energy is used by us is measured by Kilowatt-hour.

Mistake Points

Energy is the total amount of work done, and power is how fast you can do it. In other words, power is energy per unit of time. Power is watts. Energy is watt-hours.

The correct answer is Cytokinins.

Key Points

• Hormones are regulatory substances produced in an organism.
• Different plant hormones help to coordinate growth, development, and responses to the environment.
• Auxin hormone -  It synthesizes at the shoot tip of the plant and helps the cells to grow longer.
• Gibberellins hormone - It helps in the growth of the stem
• Cytokinin hormone - It promotes cell division.
• Auxin, Gibberellins, and Cytokinins Are examples of Plant growth hormones
• Abscisic acid - It is a type of hormone which signals to stop the growth

The Correct answer is Option 4

Key Points

• Dengue is caused by the Dengue virus, which is transmitted by the bite of infected Aedes mosquitoes.
• It is a viral disease, not a bacterial one.
• Diphtheria, Plague, and Pneumonia can be caused by bacteria:
• Diphtheria: Caused by the bacterium Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
• Plague: Caused by the bacterium Yersinia pestis.
• Pneumonia: Can be caused by various bacteria, including Streptococcus pneumoniae.

The correct answer is Pyruvate

Explanation:

• During intense physical activity, such as rigorous exercise, the oxygen supply to muscle cells may not be sufficient to meet the energy demands of the body.
• This leads to anaerobic respiration in muscle cells, where glucose is partially broken down to generate energy in the form of ATP.
• In the absence of sufficient oxygen, pyruvate (a product of glycolysis) is converted into lactic acid by the enzyme lactate dehydrogenase.
• The accumulation of lactic acid in muscle cells is responsible for muscle cramps and fatigue during prolonged or intense exercise.

Pyruvate is a key intermediate in cellular respiration.

• In the presence of oxygen (aerobic conditions), pyruvate enters the mitochondria and is converted into acetyl-CoA for the citric acid cycle.
• However, under anaerobic conditions, pyruvate is converted into lactic acid in muscle cells to regenerate NAD⁺, which is essential for glycolysis to continue and produce ATP. This process is called lactic acid fermentation.

Other Options:

• ATP: ATP (adenosine triphosphate) is the energy currency of the cell. It is produced during glycolysis, the citric acid cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation. ATP is not directly converted into lactic acid; rather, its production is facilitated by glycolysis, where pyruvate is formed as an intermediate.
• Ethanol: Ethanol is a byproduct of fermentation in certain microorganisms, such as yeast. It is not produced in human muscle cells. Humans undergo lactic acid fermentation, not alcoholic fermentation, under anaerobic conditions.
• Glucose: Glucose is the primary source of energy in cellular respiration. It undergoes glycolysis to produce pyruvate, which can subsequently be converted into lactic acid under anaerobic conditions.

The correct answer is Ovary.

Key Points

• Ovary is the part of the flower that develops into a fruit after fertilization.
• The ovary contains ovules, which become seeds when fertilized.
• After fertilization, the ovary wall thickens and forms the pericarp, which is the fruit's outer layer.
• The transformation from ovary to fruit ensures the protection and dispersal of seeds.
• This process is crucial for the reproductive cycle of flowering plants, facilitating seed development and propagation.

Additional Information

• The corolla is the collective term for all the petals of a flower, which are usually colorful and attract pollinators.
• Pollen grains are the male gametophytes produced by the anthers of the flower, essential for fertilization.
• The anther is the part of the stamen that produces pollen, playing a key role in the plant's reproductive process.

The correct answer is 1) Plane mirror.

Key Points

• Plane mirrors are the most commonly used mirrors for personal grooming, such as face viewing and makeup application.
• They provide a clear, upright, and undistorted reflection of objects placed in front of them.
• Plane mirrors produce images that are of the same size as the object and maintain the same proportions.
• The image formed by a plane mirror is virtual (not real) and appears to be located behind the mirror at the same distance as the object in front.
• Plane mirrors are used in homes, bathrooms, dressing rooms, and even in optical instruments for basic reflection purposes.

Additional Information

• Concave Mirror:
• Concave mirrors are curved inward and are used to focus light, often in telescopes, headlights, and shaving mirrors.
• They can form both real and virtual images, depending on the object's distance from the mirror.
• When used for face viewing, they magnify the image, making them useful for detailed tasks like shaving.
• Convex Mirror:
• Convex mirrors are curved outward and are primarily used for wide-angle views, like in vehicle side mirrors.
• They always produce virtual, upright, and diminished images, making them unsuitable for face viewing.
• Virtual Image:
• A virtual image is formed when the reflected rays appear to meet behind the mirror.
• Plane mirrors and convex mirrors always form virtual images.
• Reflection of Light:
• The phenomenon of light bouncing back from a surface is called reflection.
• The angle of incidence is always equal to the angle of reflection, as per the law of reflection.

• An apex predator, the tiger is the largest species belonging to the Felidae family. It has been listed on the IUCN Red List as an endangered species.
• Its scientific name is Panthera tigris.

The correct answer is DNA.

Key Points

• DNA stands for Deoxyribonucleic Acid.
• DNA is the hereditary material in humans and almost all other organisms.
• Nearly every cell in a person’s body has the same DNA.
• Most DNA is located in the cell nucleus (where it is called nuclear DNA), but a small amount of DNA can also be found in the mitochondria (where it is called mitochondrial DNA or mtDNA).

Additional Information

• Proteins:
• Proteins are large, complex molecules that play many critical roles in the body.
• They are required for the structure, function, and regulation of the body’s tissues and organs.
• Proteins are made up of hundreds or thousands of smaller units called amino acids, which are attached to one another in long chains.
• Carbohydrates:
• Carbohydrates are one of the main types of nutrients and are the most important source of energy for your body.
• Your digestive system changes carbohydrates into glucose (blood sugar).
• Your body uses this sugar for energy for your cells, tissues, and organs. It stores any extra sugar in your liver and muscles for when it is needed.
• RNA:
• RNA stands for Ribonucleic Acid.
• RNA is a polymeric molecule essential in various biological roles in coding, decoding, regulation, and expression of genes.
• RNA, like DNA, is made up of a long chain of components called nucleotides.
• RNA is single-stranded, unlike double-stranded DNA.

The correct answer is Grignard reagent.

Key Points

• When haloalkanes and aryl and vinyl halides react with magnesium metal, they yield Grignard reagents.
• Grignard reagents are of the form RMgX, where R is an alkyl or aryl group and X is a halogen.
• These reagents are essential in organic synthesis for forming carbon-carbon bonds.
• Grignard reagents are highly reactive and can react with a variety of electrophiles to form new compounds.
• The reaction typically occurs in an anhydrous ether solvent to stabilize the Grignard reagent.

Additional Information

• Hinsberg reagent is used to distinguish between primary, secondary, and tertiary amines.
• Tollens' reagent is used to detect aldehydes, where it forms a silver mirror on the test tube.
• Fehling reagent is another test for aldehydes, particularly in distinguishing between aldehydes and ketones.

Mistake Points

• The human skull has 22 bones, Skull and associated bones together consist of 29 bones but here the question is asking for the number of bones in the skull, therefore 22 will be correct.

Concept-

• The Skeleton system consists of a framework of bones, joints, cartilages, etc.
• The Skeleton system is divided into two parts-
• Axial skeleton- includes bones of the skull, upper and lower jaws, ribs, and vertebral column.
• Appendicular skeleton- involves the bone of legs and hand, pectoral and pelvic girdle.

Explanation-

• The skull is composed of two sets of bones- cranial and facial bones.

• Cranium bones = 8
• Frontal bone = 1
• Pariental bones = 2
• Occipital = 1
• Temporal bones = 2
• Sphenoid bone = 1
• Ethmoid bone = 1
• Facial bones = 14
• Nasal bones = 2
• Inferior turbinals = 2
• Vomer = 1
• Lacrimals = 2
• Zygomatic bones = 2
• Palatines = 2
• Maxillary = 2
• Mandible = 1

Therefore the total number of bones in the human skull is 22.

Additional Information

• Skull and associated bones consist of 29 bones.
• The associated bones are ear ossicles and hyoid bone.
• Ear ossicles - 3 + 3 = 6
• Malleus - 1 + 1 = 2
• Incus - 1 + 1 = 2
• Stapes - 1 + 1 = 2
• Hyoid = 1

The correct answer is centrosome.

• Plant cells are the basic unit of life in organisms of the kingdom Plantae. They have a true nucleus along with specialized structures called organelles that carry out certain specific functions.
• Centrosome 
• These are organelles that serve as the main microtubule-organizing centers for animal cells.
• It helps in cell division and stimulates the changes in the shape of the cell membrane by phagocytosis.
• They also maintain the chromosome number during cell division.
• Plant cells lack centrosomes. Plant cells have a cell wall, chloroplasts, and other specialized plastids, and a large central vacuole.

Important Points

• Plant cell walls are primarily made of cellulose. Cellulose fibers are long, linear polymers of hundreds of glucose molecules.

Additional Information

• Vacuoles 
• These are found in both animal and plant cells.
• They might store food or any variety of nutrients a cell might need to survive.
• They store waste products so the rest of the cell is protected from contamination.
• Plastids
• These are double-membrane organelle.
• These are responsible for the manufacturing and storing of food.
• There are different types of plastids with specialized functions. For example-Chloroplasts, Chromoplasts, Gerontoplasts, Leucoplasts, etc.
• It is not present in animal cell.

The correct answer is the Law of Conservation of Mass

Key Points

• Antoine-Laurent Lavoisier's most important contribution to chemistry in 1789 was the publication of his book
• Traité élémentaire de chimie (Elementary Treatise on Chemistry), which established the Law of Conservation of Mass and the first modern listing of known elements.
• Law of Conservation of Mass
• This law states that the total mass of reactants in a chemical reaction is equal to the total mass of products.
• Mass is conserved throughout the reaction.
• It established a fundamental principle in chemistry, emphasizing that matter cannot be created or destroyed, only transformed from one form to another.
• This law helped to develop chemical equations and stoichiometry, leading to more precise calculations in chemical reactions.​

Additional Information

• Law of Multiple Proportions
• This law states that when two elements combine to form more than one compound, the ratios of the masses of one element that combine with a fixed mass of the other element are in simple whole-number ratios.
• This law highlights that elements can combine in various ways to form different compounds, which led to the understanding of chemical formulas and molecular composition.
• It contributed to the development of atomic theory and provided evidence for the existence of atoms as distinct units in compounds.
• Law of Definite Proportions
• This law states that a chemical compound always contains its component elements in fixed ratio by mass, regardless of the sample size or source of the compound.
• It underscores the consistency and predictability of chemical composition in compounds, leading to a better understanding of chemical reactions.
• This law reinforced the concept of chemical identity and purity, influencing the classification of substances and the development of chemical nomenclature.
• Law of Conservation of Energy
• This law states that energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transformed from one form to another.
• It is a principle applicable to various fields, including physics and chemistry.
• This law emphasizes the interconnectedness of energy changes in physical and chemical processes, laying the groundwork for thermodynamics.
• It has profound implications in understanding chemical reactions, particularly in relation to energy changes, reaction kinetics, and thermodynamic stability.

The correct answer is 6.022 × 10²³.

Key Points

• The value of Avogadro's number is 6.022 × 10²³.
• It represents the number of atoms, molecules, or ions in one mole of a substance.
• The number is named after the Italian scientist Amedeo Avogadro.
• Avogadro's number is a fundamental constant in chemistry and is used in the calculation of the molar mass of substances.

Additional Information

• Mole:
• A mole is a unit of measurement used in chemistry to express amounts of a chemical substance.
• One mole contains exactly 6.022 × 10²³ elementary entities (atoms, molecules, ions, etc.).
• Molar Mass:
• The molar mass of a substance is the mass of one mole of that substance.
• It is expressed in grams per mole (g/mol).
• Avogadro's Law:
• Avogadro's Law states that equal volumes of gases, at the same temperature and pressure, contain the same number of molecules.
• This law is crucial for the concept of the mole and Avogadro's number.
• Applications of Avogadro's Number:
• Used in stoichiometry to convert between moles and number of particles.
• Essential for calculations in chemical reactions and determining molecular structures.

The correct answer is Retina.

Key Points

• The retina is a light-sensitive layer of tissue located at the back of the inner eye.
• It functions like the film in a camera, receiving the image formed by the lens.
• The retina converts light into electrical signals, which are sent to the brain via the optic nerve.
• Photoreceptor cells, namely rods and cones, are essential components of the retina, responsible for vision in low light and color vision, respectively.

Additional Information

• Cornea
• The cornea is the transparent, dome-shaped surface that covers the front of the eye.
• It helps to focus incoming light onto the retina.
• The cornea provides approximately 65-75% of the eye's total focusing power.
• Iris
• The iris is the colored part of the eye surrounding the pupil.
• It controls the size of the pupil and thus the amount of light that enters the eye.
• Pupil
• The pupil is the black circular opening in the center of the iris.
• It regulates the amount of light that enters the eye by expanding and contracting.
• Photoreceptors
• There are two main types of photoreceptors: rods and cones.
• Rods are responsible for vision in low light conditions, while cones are responsible for color vision and detail in bright light.

The correct answer is H₂SO₃

Key Points

• H₂SO₃ is the chemical formula for sulphurous acid.
• It is a weak and unstable acid formed by dissolving sulfur dioxide in water.
• Unlike sulfuric acid (H2SO4), sulphurous acid is not as commonly used in industrial applications due to its instability.
• It is primarily used as a reducing agent and in the bleaching of paper and textiles.
• Sulphurous acid is also used in the food and beverage industry as a preservative and disinfectant.

Additional Information

• Sulphurous acid is related to sulfur dioxide (SO₂), which is a significant air pollutant and can cause respiratory problems in humans.
• In aqueous solutions, sulphurous acid partially dissociates to form bisulfite (HSO^3-) and sulfite (SO₃^2-) ions.
• Handling of sulphurous acid should be done with care due to its corrosive nature and potential health hazards.
• It should be stored in a cool, well-ventilated area away from incompatible substances like strong oxidizing agents.

Rationale:

Correct Answer: 3) Ancylostomiasis

• Hookworm infection is primarily caused by Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus.
• The disease resulting from these parasites is called Ancylostomiasis.
• Hookworms attach to the intestinal mucosa and feed on blood, commonly leading to iron deficiency anemia.

Why the other options are incorrect:

• 1) Elephantiasis – Caused by filarial worms (e.g., Wuchereria bancrofti), not by hookworm.
• 2) Ascariasis – Caused by Ascaris lumbricoides, a different type of roundworm.
• 4) Ascariasis and Architeuthis – Architeuthis refers to a giant squid and is not a disease; ascariasis is unrelated to hookworm infection.

Conclusion: Therefore, the correct disease caused by hookworm is Ancylostomiasis.

The correct answer is Meter per second (m/s).

Key Points

• The SI unit for speed is meter per second (m/s), which is the standard unit used in scientific measurements.
• Although speed limits on highways are commonly displayed in kilometers per hour (km/h) or miles per hour (mph) for practical reasons, the fundamental SI unit remains m/s.
• Speed is a measure of the distance traveled per unit of time, and the use of m/s is consistent with the metric system used globally.
• In everyday usage, different countries may prefer km/h or mph depending on regional standards, but m/s is universally accepted for scientific contexts.

Additional Information

• Speed in Different Units:
• 1 m/s = 3.6 km/h
• 1 m/s ≈ 2.237 mph

The correct answer is Smooth muscles.

Key Points

• The uterus, iris of the eye, and bronchi contain smooth muscles.
• Smooth muscles are involuntary, non-striated muscles found in various internal organs.
• These muscles are responsible for various involuntary movements in the body such as the contraction of the uterus during childbirth, adjustment of the iris in response to light, and regulation of airflow in the bronchi.
• Unlike skeletal muscles, smooth muscles are not under conscious control and are regulated by the autonomic nervous system.

Additional Information

• Striated muscles include skeletal muscles that are under voluntary control and are characterized by their striped appearance.
• Skeletal muscles are attached to bones and help in body movements.
• Cardiac muscles are specialized striated muscles found only in the heart, responsible for pumping blood throughout the body.
• Smooth muscles are also found in the walls of blood vessels, digestive tract, and other hollow organs.

The correct answer is AB Group.

Key Points

• AB Group can donate blood to only AB Group person.
• However, AB Group person is a universal acceptor since it has both kinds of antigens, which are Antigen A and Antigen B.
• People having a blood group of AB+ can accept blood from any person of any blood group.

Additional Information

​Ringworm: A common fungal skin infection that often looks like a circular rash.

• Approximately 40 different species of fungi can cause ringworm; the scientific names for the types of fungi that cause ringworm are Trichophyton, Microsporum, and Epidermophyton.

Key Points

• Trichophyton is a genus of fungi, which includes the parasitic varieties that cause tinea, including athlete's foot, ringworm, jock itch, and similar infections of the nail, beard, skin and scalp. Trichophyton fungi are molds characterized by the development of both smooth-walled macro- and microconidia.

Hence we can conclude that Tricophyton is responsible for ringworm.

Additional Information

• Candida infections of the mouth, throat, and esophagus: Caused by the yeast Candida, also called “thrush.
• The fungal disease, called Fusarium Wilt, is popularly known as the Panama Disease’ and afflicts banana plants.
• Aspergillus (mold fungus) is responsible for causing Aspergillosis. It affects the respiratory tract and causes illness by its spore.

The correct answer is CaCO₃.

Explanation:

• The chemical name of marble is calcium carbonate.
• It has the chemical formula CaCO₃ and is an inorganic chemical compound.

Ca(OH)₂ (aq) + CO₂ (g) → CaCO₃ (s) + H₂O (l)

• Calcium hydroxide slowly reacts with the carbon dioxide (CO₂) in the air to form a thin layer of calcium carbonate on the walls.
• Calcium carbonate is formed after two to three days of whitewashing and gives a shiny finish to the walls.
• Calcium carbonate is a non-toxic, odourless chemical compound that occurs naturally as a white mineral in marbles, limestones, and chalks.
• It is one of the most abundant minerals found in the crust of the earth.

Thus, chemical formula of marble is CaCO3.

The correct answer is [ML²T^-2].

Key Points

• The dimensional formula of energy is [ML²T^-2].
• Energy is defined as the capacity to do work, and its SI unit is the joule (J).
• The dimensional formula can be derived from the work done (force x distance), where force is [MLT^-2] and distance is [L].
• Therefore, combining these gives [ML²T^-2].

Additional Information

• Work:
• Work is defined as the product of the force applied and the distance moved by the force in the direction of the force.
• The SI unit of work is the joule (J).
• Dimensional formula of work is [ML²T^-2].
• Power:
• Power is the rate at which work is done or energy is transferred.
• The SI unit of power is the watt (W).
• Dimensional formula of power is [ML²T^-3].
• Force:
• Force is any interaction that, when unopposed, will change the motion of an object.
• The SI unit of force is the newton (N).
• Dimensional formula of force is [MLT^-2].
• Kinetic Energy:
• Kinetic energy is the energy possessed by an object due to its motion.
• The formula for kinetic energy is 1/2 mv², where m is mass and v is velocity.
• Dimensional formula of kinetic energy is [ML²T^-2].

The correct answer is Germanium

Key Points

• Germanium is a metalloid in the carbon group (Group 14) of the periodic table.
• It shares similar chemical properties with its group neighbours, tin and silicon.
• Germanium has a similar electron configuration to tin and silicon, leading to comparable chemical behavior.
• It is used in semiconductors and various electronic applications, similar to silicon.
• Germanium forms compounds like germanium dioxide (GeO₂) and germanium tetrachloride (GeCl₄), which are analogous to silicon and tin compounds.

Additional Information

• Germanium was discovered by Clemens Winkler in 1886.
• It is a lustrous, hard, grayish-white metalloid in the carbon group, chemically similar to its group neighbours tin and silicon.
• Germanium is less abundant in the Earth's crust compared to silicon but more abundant than tin.
• It is primarily obtained from sphalerite (zinc ore) and from the by-products of coal combustion.
• In addition to its use in electronics, germanium is also used in fiber optics, infrared optics, and as a catalyst in polymerization processes.

The correct answer is Vitamin C.

Key Points

• Scurvy is a disease resulting from a deficiency of vitamin C, known scientifically as ascorbic acid.
• Vitamin C is essential for the synthesis of collagen, which helps in maintaining the integrity of connective tissues.
• Symptoms of scurvy include weakness, anemia, gum disease, and skin problems due to the breakdown of collagen.
• Humans cannot synthesize vitamin C endogenously, so it must be obtained through diet, particularly from fruits and vegetables.

Additional Information

• Vitamin C
• Vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid, is a water-soluble vitamin found in various foods and sold as a dietary supplement.
• It is essential for the biosynthesis of collagen, L-carnitine, and certain neurotransmitters; it is also involved in protein metabolism.
• Vitamin C is also an important physiological antioxidant and has been shown to regenerate other antioxidants within the body, including alpha-tocopherol (vitamin E).
• It improves the absorption of non-heme iron, the form of iron present in plant-based foods.
• Severe vitamin C deficiency leads to scurvy, which is characterized by bleeding gums, bruising, joint pain, and poor wound healing.
• Vitamin D
• Vitamin D is a fat-soluble vitamin that is naturally present in very few foods, added to others, and available as a dietary supplement.
• It is also produced endogenously when ultraviolet rays from sunlight strike the skin and trigger vitamin D synthesis.
• Vitamin D promotes calcium absorption in the gut and maintains adequate serum calcium and phosphate concentrations to enable normal mineralization of bone and to prevent hypocalcemic tetany.
• It is also needed for bone growth and bone remodeling by osteoblasts and osteoclasts.
• Vitamin A
• Vitamin A is a fat-soluble vitamin that is important for normal vision, the immune system, and reproduction.
• It also helps the heart, lungs, kidneys, and other organs work properly.
• Vitamin A is found in foods such as spinach, dairy products, and liver.
• It is available as a dietary supplement.
• Vitamin K
• Vitamin K refers to a group of structurally similar, fat-soluble vitamins that the human body needs for the complete synthesis of certain proteins that are prerequisites for blood coagulation (K from Koagulation, German for "coagulation") and which the body also needs for controlling binding of calcium in bones and other tissues.
• The vitamin K-related modification of proteins allows them to bind calcium ions, which they cannot do otherwise.
• Without vitamin K, blood coagulation is seriously impaired, and uncontrolled bleeding occurs.

The correct answer is Bark.

Key Points

Quinine:

• ​Quinine remains an important anti-malarial drug almost 400 years after its effectiveness was first documented.
• The discovery of quinine is considered the most serendipitous medical discovery of the 17th century.
• Quinine, as a component of the bark of the cinchona (Quina Quina) tree, was used to treat malaria.
• Quinine is a cinchona alkaloid that belongs to the aryl amino alcohol group of drugs.
• It is an extremely basic compound and is, therefore, always presented as a salt.
• Quinine is rapidly absorbed both orally and parenterally, reaching peak concentrations within 1-3 hours.

Additional Information

• Malaria is a disease caused by Plasmodium parasites that are transmitted to humans through the bites of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. High fever with a shiver, headache, vomiting, and nausea are common symptoms of malaria.
• Quinine medicine was made from the bark of the cinchona tree.
• Quinine is a medication used to treat malaria and babesiosis. Quinine was first isolated in 1820 from the bark of a cinchona tree. It is an antimalarial drug that is made from Cinchona bark.
• Cinchona is used in eye lotions to numb pain, kill germs, and as an astringent.

The correct answer is CO₂.

Key Points

• Carbon dioxide (CO₂) is the primary gas used in the production of soft drinks to create carbonation.
• Carbonation occurs when CO₂ is dissolved in water under high pressure, forming carbonic acid, which gives the soft drink its fizzy texture and tangy taste.
• The release of CO₂ from a soft drink upon opening the bottle or can creates the characteristic bubbles and effervescence.
• CO₂ is non-toxic, colorless, and odorless, making it safe for use in beverages.
• It also acts as a mild preservative by inhibiting the growth of spoilage-causing microorganisms in soft drinks.

Additional Information

• Carbonation Process
• Carbonation is the process of dissolving CO₂ into water under high pressure.
• When the pressure is released (e.g., opening a bottle), CO₂ escapes, creating bubbles.
• History of Carbonated Beverages
• The concept of carbonated water was first introduced by Joseph Priestley in 1767.
• Soft drinks gained popularity in the 19th century as flavored carbonated beverages became commercially available.
• Other Gases and Their Uses
• NH₃ (Ammonia): Used in refrigeration systems and fertilizers, not in beverages.
• PH₃ (Phosphine): A toxic gas used in pest control, not related to food or drinks.
• COCl₂ (Phosgene): A highly toxic gas used in chemical manufacturing, not safe for consumption.
• Health Considerations
• Excessive consumption of carbonated drinks can lead to health issues like dental erosion and obesity.
• Moderation is key to enjoying soft drinks without adverse health effects.

CONCEPT:

• Force: The interaction which after applying on a body changes or try to change the state of motion or state of rest is called force.
• Force is denoted by F and the SI unit is Newton (N).
• Force (F) = Mass (m) × acceleration (a)
• Dimensional Formula: It depicts the way to relate any unit to fundamental Units.
• If we have to find The dimensional formula of any quantity, At first, we find its units in terms of these fundamental units, and then replace units with these dimensions.

EXPLANATION:

• Force can be written mathematically as

⇒ F = m × a

As we know, the dimension of mass (m) = [M]

The dimension of acceleration (a) = [LT^-2]

∴ The dimension of force (F) is

⇒ F = [M] ×  [LT-2] = [MLT-2]

Additional Information

Given:

S.P of transistor = Rs. 450

Loss = 10%

Formula used:

C.P = S.P × [100/(100 – loss%)]

Calculation:

C.P = Rs. 450 × (100/90)

⇒ Rs. 500

∴ The cost price of the transistor is Rs. 500

Shortcut Trick

If x − 1/x = k, then x³ − 1/x³ = k³ + 3k.

Given k = 4.

∴ x³ − 1/x³ = 4³ + 3 × 4 = 64 + 12 = 76.

∴ The correct answer is 76.

Alternate Method

Given: x − 1/x = 4

Formula Used: (a − b)³ = a³ − b³ − 3ab(a − b)

⇒ Cubing both sides of the equation: (x − 1/x)³ = 4³

⇒ x³ − 1/x³ − 3 × x × (1/x) × (x − 1/x) = 64

⇒ x³ − 1/x³ − 3 × (x − 1/x) = 64

⇒ Substitute the value x − 1/x = 4 into the equation:

⇒ x³ − 1/x³ − 3 × 4 = 64

⇒ x³ − 1/x³ − 12 = 64

⇒ x³ − 1/x³ = 64 + 12

⇒ x³ − 1/x³ = 76

∴ The correct answer is 76.

Additional Information

Standard Algebraic Identities for Reciprocals

If x + 1/x = k, then x³ + 1/x³ = k³ − 3k.

Square Relations

If x + 1/x = k, then x² + 1/x² = k² − 2 and if x − 1/x = k, then x² + 1/x² = k² + 2.

Power 4 Relation

If x + 1/x = k, then x⁴ + 1/x⁴ = (k² − 2)² − 2.

Concept used

Average

Calculation

Let the average expenditure of all eight friends be Rs. x 

Seven friends spend Rs.16

Sum = 16 × 7 = Rs.112

As per the question 

⇒ ( 112 + x + 35)/8 = x

⇒ x + 147 = 8x 

⇒ 7x = 147 

⇒ x = 21

The total amount spent by them all  

⇒ 112 + (35 + 21) = Rs.168

∴ Total money spent by them is Rs. 168.

Given:

A series is in A.P,

Last term, l = 21

Number of terms = 10

Sum of all 10 terms = 120

Formula used:

(1.) l = a + (n - 1) × d

(2.) S = (\frac{n}{2}) × {2a + (n - 1)d}

Where, 

S = sum of n terms

n = Number of terms

d = Common difference

a = first term

Calculation:

According to the question,

⇒ l = a + (n - 1) × d

⇒ 21 = a + (10 - 1) × d

⇒ 21 = a + 9d          ----(1)

Now,

⇒ S = (\frac{n}{2}) × {2a + (n - 1)d}

⇒ 120 = (\frac{10}{2}) × {2a + (10 - 1)d}

⇒ 120 = 5 × (2a + 9d)

⇒ 120 = 10a + 45d    ----(2)

On solving the equation (1) and (2), we get,

d = 2, a = 3

Now, 

Sum of first three terms = 3 + 5 + 7 = 15

Therefore, '15' is the required answer.

Shortcut Trick

Given 3 tan θ = 2, we have tan θ = 2/3, which means sin θ / cos θ = 2/3.

For a homogeneous expression in sin θ and cos θ, we can directly substitute sin θ = 2 and cos θ = 3.

Expression = (2 sin θ − cos θ) ÷ (2 cos θ − sin θ)

Substituting values: (2 × 2 − 3) ÷ (2 × 3 − 2) = (4 − 3) ÷ (6 − 2) = 1/4.

∴ The correct answer is 1/4.

Alternate Method

Given: 3 tan θ = 2 ⇒ tan θ = 2/3

Formula Used: tan θ = sin θ ÷ cos θ

⇒ Expression = (2 sin θ − cos θ) ÷ (2 cos θ − sin θ)

⇒ Divide the numerator and denominator by cos θ:

⇒ [(2 sin θ / cos θ) − (cos θ / cos θ)] ÷ [(2 cos θ / cos θ) − (sin θ / cos θ)]

⇒ (2 tan θ − 1) ÷ (2 − tan θ)

⇒ Now, substitute tan θ = 2/3 into the simplified expression:

⇒ [2 × (2/3) − 1] ÷ [2 − (2/3)]

⇒ (4/3 − 1) ÷ (6/3 − 2/3)

⇒ (1/3) ÷ (4/3) = 1/4

∴ The correct answer is 1/4.

Additional Information

Trigonometric Ratios

For any angle θ, tan θ = sin θ / cos θ and cot θ = cos θ / sin θ = 1 / tan θ.

Homogeneous Expressions

When every term in a fraction involves sin θ or cos θ to the same power, dividing by cos θ converts the entire expression into a function of tan θ.

Pythagorean Relation

In a right triangle, sin θ = p/h, cos θ = b/h, and tan θ = p/b. The relationship is defined by h² = p² + b².

Given:

tan 53° = 4/3

Formula Used:

tan(x – y) = (tanx – tany)/(1 + tanxtany)

Calculation:

We know, 8° = 53° - 45°

Tan8° = tan(53° - 45°)

⇒ tan8° = (tan53° - tan45°)/(1 + tan53° tan45°)

⇒ tan8° = (4/3 – 1)/(1 + 4/3 × 1)

⇒ tan8° = (1/3)/(7/3)

⇒ tan8° = 1/7

Given

A, B and C working alone, can complete a job in 16, 24 and 36 days, respectively.

Calculation

Using the LCM method,

The LCM of 16, 24 and 36 = 144(total work)

A's efficiency = 144/16

⇒ 9

B's efficiency = 144/24

⇒ 6

C's efficiency = 144/36

⇒ 4

Time = Total work / Total efficiency

Time = 144 / ( 9 + 6 + 4)

Time = 144 / 19

Time = 7 (11/19)

They complete the job if they work together in 7 (11/19) days.

सही उत्तर हिम + आलय है।

Key Points

• ‘हिमालय’ शब्द का संधि विच्छेद ‘हिम + आलय’ होगा।
• अ + आ= आ नियमानुसार हिमालय में दीर्घ स्वर संधि है।
• दीर्घ स्वर संधि- दीर्घ अ, आ, इ, ई, उ, ऊ और ऋ के बाद ह्रस्व या दीर्घ अ, आ, इ, ई, उ, ऊ और ऋ स्वर आ जाएँ तो दोनों मिलकर दीर्घ आ, ई, ऊ और ऋ हो जाते हैं।
• इस मेल से बनने वाली संधि को दीर्घ स्वर संधि कहते हैं। जैसे- विद्यालय= विद्या + आलय

Additional Information

दिए गए विकल्पों में ‘महेश’ उचित विकल्प है। अन्य विकल्प असंगत हैं। अत: इसका उचित उत्तर विकल्प 4 ‘महेश’ होगा।

स्पष्टीकरण:

‘चंद्रशेखर’ का पर्यायवाची शब्द ‘महेश’ है। ‘चंद्रशेखर के अन्य पर्यायवाची शब्द हैं- शंभु, शंकर, त्रिनेत्र, महेश्वर, कैलाशपति आदि।

अन्य विकल्प:

विशेष:

'पंकज' का पर्यायवाची 'कमल' है l 'कमल' सही उत्तर है l

Key Points

• पंकज और कमल के अन्य सभी पर्यायवाची:-
• नीरज, सरोज, जलज, कंज, राजीव, अरविन्द, शतदल, अम्बुज, सरसिज, नलिन, पुष्कर, आदि l

अन्य विकल्पों-

Additional Information

• एक ही शब्द के एक से ज्यादा अर्थ निकले उसे पर्यायवाची शब्द कहते है।
• कुछ अन्य पर्यायवाची शब्दों के उदाहरण:- 
• अंचल - पल्लू, छोर, क्षेत्र, अंत
• अभिलाषा - कामना, मनोरथ, इच्छा, आकांक्षा
• ईश्वर - परमात्मा, परमेश्वर, ईश, ओम

सही उत्तर है - "बहुब्रीहि" l

Key Points

• 'पीताम्बर' शब्द का समास विग्रह - 'पीत है अम्बर जिसका अर्थात् 'कृष्ण' l पीत का अर्थ है - पीला l
• 'पीतांबर' में 'बहुब्रीहि' समास है।
• अन्य विकल्प :-
• तत्पुरुष (द्विगु) - द्विगु समास भी तत्पुरुष समास का ही उपभेद है; अत: इसका भी पूर्वपद गौण तथा उत्तरपद प्रधान होता है।
• द्वन्द्व - समास का वह रूप जिसमें प्रथम और द्वितीय दोनों पद प्रधान होते हैं उसे द्वन्द्व समास कहते हैं।
• अव्ययीभाव - इस समास का पहला पद प्रधान होता है और समस्तपद वाक्य में क्रियाविशेषण का काम करता है।

Additional Information

• जिस समास में कोई पद प्रधान न होकर (दिए गए पदों में) किसी अन्य पद की प्रधानता होती है। यह अपने पदों से भिन्न किसी विशेष संज्ञा का विशेषण है, उनको बहुव्रीहि समास कहा जाता है।
• बहुव्रीहि समास के उदाहरण :-
• चतुर्भुज : चार हैं भुजाएं जिसकी (विष्णु)
• महादेव : महान है जो देव अर्थात शिव।

'हल्दी' का तत्सम शब्द है - हरिद्रा

Key Points

• 'हल्दी' एक तद्भव शब्द है, जबकि इसका तत्सम शब्द 'हरिद्रा' होगा।
• तत्सम - जिन शब्दों को संस्कृत से बिना किसी परिवर्तन के ले लिया जाता है, उन्हें तत्सम शब्द कहते हैं। 
• जैसे- नग्न, मार्ग, अक्षि, काक आदि।
• तद्भव - जिन शब्दों में समय और परिस्थितियों के कारण कुछ परिवर्तन होने से जो शब्द बने हैं, उन्हें तद्भव कहते हैं। 
• जैसे- नंगा, पग, आँख, कौआ आदि।​

अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Information कुछ महत्वपूर्ण ​तत्सम और तद्भव शब्द -

सही विकल्प आदर है|

Key Points

• ‘मान’ का विलोम शब्द है ‘अपमान’,
• ‘सम्मान’ का विलोम है ‘असम्मान’,
• ‘आदर’ का विलोम है ‘अनादर’
• ‘सत्कार’ का विलोम है ‘तिरस्कार’|
• अतः सही विकल्प आदर है|

सही उत्तर जित + इन्द्रिय है।

Key Points

• जित + इन्द्रिय = 'जितेन्द्रिय'।
• जितेंद्रिय संधि का नियम है अ + इ = ए  (गुण स्वर संधि)
• गुण स्वर संधि- जब (अ, आ) के साथ (इ, ई) हो तो ‘ए‘ बनता है, जब (अ, आ) के साथ (उ, ऊ) हो तो ‘ओ ‘बनता है, जब (अ, आ) के साथ (ऋ) हो तो ‘अर‘ बनता है। उसे गुण स्वर संधि कहते हैं।
• उदाहरण-
• आ + इ= ए, भारत + इंदु = भारतेन्दु
• अ + इ= ए, देव + इन्द्र= देवन्द्र

Additional Information

‘स्थिर' का विलोम शब्द होगा- चंचल

Key Points

• ‘स्थिर' शब्द का विलोम शब्द 'चंचल' होगा।
• ‘स्थिर' का अर्थ- स्थिति या संतुलन में स्थिर; दृढ़, अचंचल।
• 'चंचल' का अर्थ- ​अस्थिर, बेचैन, या एक जगह न टिकने वाला।
• विलोम - जो शब्द किसी एक शब्द के विपरीत अर्थ को व्यक्त करते हैं, वे विलोम शब्द कहलाते हैं।

अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Information 

 कुछ अन्य महत्वपूर्ण विलोम शब्द -

The correct answer is 'that'.

Key Points

• The use of the relative pronoun 'whom' is wrong in the given sentence.
• The relative pronoun 'that' is used after superlative adjectives and other determiners like all, same, any, none, nothing, only, everything little, much and no.
• Examples,
• This is the same man that visited us last week.
• All that glitters is not gold.
• According to the rule and examples that are given above, 'that' will be used in the underlined part of the sentence.
  

Correct Sentence: This is the same dog that my friend bought from the U.S.

Hinglish

• दिए गए वाक्य में relative pronoun 'whom' का उपयोग गलत है।
• Relative pronoun 'that' का प्रयोग superlative adjectives और अन्य determiners जैसे, all, same, any, none, nothing, only, everything little, much and no के बाद किया जाता है।
• Examples,
• This is the same man that visited us last week.
• All that glitters is not gold.
• ऊपर दिए गए नियम और उदाहरणों के अनुसार वाक्य के underlined भाग में 'that' का प्रयोग किया जाएगा।

The correct answer is '(C)'.

Key Points 

• The error lies in  Part (C) of the sentence.
• Adjectives are usually placed before the nouns they modify, but when used with linking verbs, such as forms of to be or “sense” verbs, they are placed after the verb.
• “Sense” verbs, such as look, seem, appear, taste, sound, feel, or smell, also demand a verb + adjective word order.
• Example: The cookies smell awesome!
• In this sentence, we need an adjective after the sense verb 'looked.'
• ​Therefore, the use of 'quickly' in Part (C) of the sentence should be replaced with 'quick' to make it grammatically correct.
• Therefore, the correct answer is '(C)'.
• ​​Correct sentence: Even from a distance, Ethan’s pace looked quick.

Additional Information 

• The meaning of the word 'sour' is having an acid taste like lemon or vinegar.
• Example: S**he sampled the wine and found it was sour.

Hinglish 

• त्रुटि वाक्य के Part (C) में निहित है।
• Adjectives आमतौर पर उन nouns से पहले रखे जाते हैं जिन्हें वे संशोधित करते हैं, लेकिन जब verb को जोड़ने के साथ प्रयोग किया जाता है, जैसे कि to be या “sense” verbs के रूप में, उन्हें verb के बाद रखा जाता है।
• “Sense” verbs, जैसे कि look, seem, appear, taste, sound, feel, or smell, भी verb + adjective क्रम की मांग करता है।
• Example: The cookies smell awesome!
• इस वाक्य में, हमें sense verb 'looked' के बाद एक adjective की आवश्यकता है।​
• इसलिए, वाक्य के Part (C) में 'quickly' का उपयोग 'quick' के साथ प्रतिस्थापित किया जाना चाहिए, इसे व्याकरणिक रूप से सही बनाने के लिए।

The correct answer is 'Give me the book.'

Key Points

Let's look at the steps to change the sentence from passive to active voice:

• We need to follow these instructions while changing the voice of an imperative sentence.
• The word 'Let' needs to be replaced by the 1st form of the verb, i.e., give.
• The objective case of the pronoun needs to be used now. (me)
• At last, line up the remaining part.

Following these steps, we finally get - "Give me the book."

Hinglish

• एक imperative sentence की आवाज बदलते समय हमें इन निर्देशों का पालन करने की आवश्यकता है।
• शब्द 'let' को क्रिया के पहले रूप से प्रतिस्थापित करने की आवश्यकता है, अर्थात देना।
• सर्वनाम के objective case का अब उपयोग करने की आवश्यकता है। (me)
• अंत में, शेष भाग को पंक्तिबद्ध करें।

इन चरणों का पालन करते हुए, हमें अंत में मिलता है - "Give me the book."

The correct answer is "with".

Key Points 

We need to understand the type of sentence to know what preposition to use.

• In the given sentence 'Comply' is given and it will take only 'with' preposition. It is also known as phrasal prepositions.
• Phrasal prepositions: A phrasal preposition is a simple preposition preceded by a word from another category, such as an adverb, adjective, or conjunction. Examples: According to, Aside from, Next to etc.
• Example: Please comply with all the rules of the company.
• Other options are incorrect as they do not fit in the context.
• Hence, "with" is the correct answer.

Therefore, the complete sentence is: He could not comply with my demand.

The correct answer is option 1) i.e. Ashok asked Anil about what he had seen at the South Pole

Key Points

• This sentence is in Direct speech.
• It is an interrogative sentence.
• It will be changed into Indirect speech as under:
• Ashok asked Anil is the reporting verb, so it will be put at the beginning of the sentence.
• About may or may not be used.
• Comma and inverted commas will be removed.
• The reported speech begins with a wh-word, so it(what) will be used as the conjunction.
• In order to make the sentence assertive, the subject will be used before the helping verb.
• Past Indefinite Tense changes into Past Perfect Tense.
• Tense will be changed accordingly.
• You will be changed according to Anil.

Important Points

• Pronouns are changed as under:

Thus the Indirect speech of the sentence is: "Ashok asked Anil about what he had seen at the South Pole"

The correct answer is 'Abuse.'

Key Points

• Let us see the meaning of Vituperate:
• Vituperate: blame or insult (someone) in strong or violent language. (आरोप; हिंसक भाषा में किसी को दोष देना या अपमान करना)
• Example: No one else attracted such vituperation from him.
• Let us see the meanings of the given options:
• Encourage: give support, confidence, or hope to (someone). ((किसी को) समर्थन, विश्वास या आशा देना।)
• Abuse: treat with cruelty or violence, especially regularly or repeatedly. (गाली देना)
• Appreciate: to recognize how good someone or something is and to value him, her, or it. (यह पहचानने के लिए कि कोई व्यक्ति या कोई चीज़ कितनी अच्छी है और उसे महत्व देना)
• Copy: to produce something so that it is the same as an original piece of work. (किसी चीज का उत्पादन करना ताकि वह मूल कृति के समान हो)
• From the meanings of the given words, we can say that the word 'Vituperate' is similar in meaning to the option 'Abuse.'
• Hence, the correct answer is 'Abuse.'

Additional Information

• Let us see the antonym of the given options:

Here the correct answer is Agreement.

Key Points:-

• Let's look at the meaning of the given word:-
• Controversy*(noun)* - a lot of disagreement or argument about something, usually because it affects or is important to many people.
• For Example - There was a big controversy surrounding/over the use of drugs in athletics.
• Let's look at the meaning of the correct answer:-
• Agreement*(noun)* - the situation in which people have the same opinion, or in which they approve of or accept something.
• For Example - The whole family was in agreement with her about/on what they should do.
• Let's look at the meaning of the other options:-
• Argument*(noun)* - a disagreement, or the process of disagreeing.
• For Example - The children had an argument about/over what game to play.
• ​Difference*(noun)* - a disagreement.
• For Example - They had a terrible argument a few weeks ago, but now they've settled/resolved their differences.
• Quarrel*(noun)* -an angry disagreement between two or more people or groups..
• For Example - They had a bitter quarrel about/over some money three years ago and they haven't spoken to each other since

Therefore, the correct antonym for the given word is Agreement.