Official Paper

NEET UG 2018 Previous Year Paper Shift 1

180 questions · 200 minutes · with answers · free

Attempt as Timed Mock Test

Physics (50 questions)

1

A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in a glass tube. The length of the air column in this tube can be adjusted by a variable piston. At room temperature of 27°C two successive resonances are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm of column length. If the frequency of the tuning fork is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in air at 27°C is

  1. ((a))

    330 m/s

  2. ((b))

    339 m/s

  3. ((c))

    300 m/s

  4. ((d))

    350 m/s

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

339 m/s

2

An electron falls from rest through a vertical distance h in a uniform and vertically upward directed electric field E. The direction of electric field is now reversed, keeping its magnitude the same. A proton is allowed to fall from rest in it through the same vertical distance h. The time of fall of the electron, in comparison to the time of fall of the proton is

  1. ((a))

    smaller

  2. ((b))

    5 times greater

  3. ((c))

    equal

  4. ((d))

    10 times greater

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

smaller

3

A pendulum is hung from the roof of a sufficiently high building and is moving freely to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum is 20 m/s² at a distance of 5 m from the mean position. The time period of oscillation is

  1. ((a))

    2π s

  2. ((b))

    π s

  3. ((c))

    1 s

  4. ((d))

    2 s

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

π s

4

The electrostatic force between the metal plates of an isolated parallel plate capacitor C having a charge Q and area A, is

  1. ((a))

    independent of the distance between the plates.

  2. ((b))

    linearly proportional to the distance between the plates.

  3. ((c))

    inversely proportional to the distance between the plates.

  4. ((d))

    proportional to the square root of the distance between the plates.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

independent of the distance between the plates.

5

Current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage sensitivity (angular deflection per unit voltage applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the galvanometer is

  1. ((a))

    40 Ω

  2. ((b))

    25 Ω

  3. ((c))

    500 Ω

  4. ((d))

    250 Ω

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

250 Ω

6

A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically between the poles of an electromagnet. When the current in the electromagnet is switched on, then the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out of the horizontal magnetic field. Hence the rod gains gravitational potential energy. The work required to do this comes from

  1. ((a))

    the current source

  2. ((b))

    the magnetic field

  3. ((c))

    the induced electric field due to the changing magnetic field

  4. ((d))

    the lattice structure of the material of the rod

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

the current source

7

An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 μF and a resistor 50 Ω are connected in series across a source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power loss in the circuit is

  1. ((a))

    0·79 W

  2. ((b))

    0·43 W

  3. ((c))

    1·13 W

  4. ((d))

    2·74 W

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0·79 W

8

A metallic rod of mass per unit length 0·5 kg m⁻¹ is lying horizontally on a smooth inclined plane which makes an angle of 30° with the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to slide down by flowing a current through it when a magnetic field of induction 0·25 T is acting on it in the vertical direction. The current flowing in the rod to keep it stationary is

  1. ((a))

    7·14 A

  2. ((b))

    5·98 A

  3. ((c))

    11·32 A

  4. ((d))

    14·76 A

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

11·32 A

9

A carbon resistor of (47 ± 4·7) kΩ is to be marked with rings of different colours for its identification. The colour code sequence will be

  1. ((a))

    Violet – Yellow – Orange – Silver

  2. ((b))

    Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver

  3. ((c))

    Green – Orange – Violet – Gold

  4. ((d))

    Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver

10

A set of ‘n’ equal resistors, of value ‘R’ each, are connected in series to a battery of emf ‘E’ and internal resistance ‘R’. The current drawn is I. Now, the ‘n’ resistors are connected in parallel to the same battery. Then the current drawn from battery becomes 10 I. The value of ‘n’ is

  1. ((a))

    10

  2. ((b))

    11

  3. ((c))

    9

  4. ((d))

    20

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10

11

A battery consists of a variable number ‘n’ of identical cells (having internal resistance ‘r’ each) which are connected in series. The terminals of the battery are short-circuited and the current I is measured. Which of the graphs shows the correct relationship between I and n ?

  1. ((a))

    Graph of I on y-axis and n on x-axis showing a horizontal straight line

  2. ((b))

    Graph of I on y-axis and n on x-axis showing a straight line passing through the origin

  3. ((c))

    Graph of I on y-axis and n on x-axis showing a curve opening upwards

  4. ((d))

    Graph of I on y-axis and n on x-axis showing a curve opening downwards

12

In Young’s double slit experiment the separation d between the slits is 2 mm, the wavelength λ of the light used is 5896 Å and distance D between the screen and slits is 100 cm. It is found that the angular width of the fringes is 0·20°. To increase the fringe angular width to 0·21° (with same λ and D) the separation between the slits needs to be changed to

  1. ((a))

    1·8 mm

  2. ((b))

    1·9 mm

  3. ((c))

    1·7 mm

  4. ((d))

    2·1 mm

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1·9 mm

13

An astronomical refracting telescope will have large angular magnification and high angular resolution, when it has an objective lens of

  1. ((a))

    small focal length and large diameter

  2. ((b))

    large focal length and small diameter

  3. ((c))

    small focal length and small diameter

  4. ((d))

    large focal length and large diameter

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

large focal length and large diameter

14

Unpolarised light is incident from air on a plane surface of a material of refractive index ‘μ’. At a particular angle of incidence ‘i’, it is found that the reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular to each other. Which of the following options is correct for this situation ?

  1. ((a))

    Reflected light is polarised with its electric vector parallel to the plane of incidence

  2. ((b))

    Reflected light is polarised with its electric vector perpendicular to the plane of incidence

  3. ((c))

    i = tan⁻¹(1/μ)

  4. ((d))

    i = sin⁻¹(1/μ)

15

An em wave is propagating in a medium with a velocity V⃗=Vi^\vec{V} = V\hat{i}. The instantaneous oscillating electric field of this em wave is along +y axis. Then the direction of oscillating magnetic field of the em wave will be along

  1. ((a))

    – z direction

  2. ((b))
    • z direction
  3. ((c))

    – x direction

  4. ((d))

    – y direction

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))
  • z direction
16

The refractive index of the material of a prism is √2 and the angle of the prism is 30°. One of the two refracting surfaces of the prism is made a mirror inwards, by silver coating. A beam of monochromatic light entering the prism from the other face will retrace its path (after reflection from the silvered surface) if its angle of incidence on the prism is

  1. ((a))

    60°

  2. ((b))

    45°

  3. ((c))

    zero

  4. ((d))

    30°

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

45°

17

An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. If the object is displaced through a distance of 20 cm towards the mirror, the displacement of the image will be

  1. ((a))

    30 cm away from the mirror

  2. ((b))

    36 cm away from the mirror

  3. ((c))

    36 cm towards the mirror

  4. ((d))

    30 cm towards the mirror

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

36 cm away from the mirror

18

The magnetic potential energy stored in a certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in the inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of inductance

  1. ((a))

    0·138 H

  2. ((b))

    138·88 H

  3. ((c))

    13·89 H

  4. ((d))

    1·389 H

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

13·89 H

19

For a radioactive material, half-life is 10 minutes. If initially there are 600 number of nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the disintegration of 450 nuclei is

  1. ((a))

    20

  2. ((b))

    10

  3. ((c))

    15

  4. ((d))

    30

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

20

20

The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom, is

  1. ((a))

    1 : 1

  2. ((b))

    1 : – 1

  3. ((c))

    1 : – 2

  4. ((d))

    2 : – 1

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1 : – 1

21

An electron of mass m with an initial velocity V⃗ = V₀î (V₀ > 0) enters an electric field E⃗ = −E₀î (E₀ = constant > 0) at t = 0. If λ₀ is its de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its de-Broglie wavelength at time t is

  1. ((a))

    λ₀ / [1 + (eE₀ / mV₀)t]

  2. ((b))

    λ₀ [1 + (eE₀ / mV₀)t]

  3. ((c))

    λ₀

  4. ((d))

    λ₀t

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

λ₀ / [1 + (eE₀ / mV₀)t]

22

When the light of frequency 2v₀ (where v₀ is threshold frequency), is incident on a metal plate, the maximum velocity of electrons emitted is v₁. When the frequency of the incident radiation is increased to 5v₀, the maximum velocity of electrons emitted from the same plate is v₂. The ratio of v₁ to v₂ is

  1. ((a))

    1 : 2

  2. ((b))

    1 : 4

  3. ((c))

    2 : 1

  4. ((d))

    4 : 1

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 : 2

23

In the combination of the following gates the output Y can be written in terms of inputs A and B as

  1. ((a))

    A̅.̅B̅

  2. ((b))

    A . B̅ + A̅ . B

  3. ((c))

    A̅+̅B̅

  4. ((d))

    A̅.̅B̅ + A . B

24

In the circuit shown in the figure, the input voltage Vi is 20 V, VBE = 0 and VCE = 0. The values of IB, IC and β are given by

  1. ((a))

    IB = 40 μA, IC = 10 mA, β = 250

  2. ((b))

    IB = 25 μA, IC = 5 mA, β = 200

  3. ((c))

    IB = 40 μA, IC = 5 mA, β = 125

  4. ((d))

    IB = 20 μA, IC = 5 mA, β = 250

25

In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature due to heating

  1. ((a))

    affects only reverse resistance

  2. ((b))

    affects only forward resistance

  3. ((c))

    affects the overall V – I characteristics of p-n junction

  4. ((d))

    does not affect resistance of p-n junction

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

affects the overall V – I characteristics of p-n junction

26

A solid sphere is rotating freely about its symmetry axis in free space. The radius of the sphere is increased keeping its mass same. Which of the following physical quantities would remain constant for the sphere ?

  1. ((a))

    Angular velocity

  2. ((b))

    Moment of inertia

  3. ((c))

    Angular momentum

  4. ((d))

    Rotational kinetic energy

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Angular momentum

27

The kinetic energies of a planet in an elliptical orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B and C are KA, KB and KC, respectively. AC is the major axis and SB is perpendicular to AC at the position of the Sun S as shown in the figure. Then

  1. ((a))

    KA < KB < KC

  2. ((b))

    KA > KB > KC

  3. ((c))

    KB > KA > KC

  4. ((d))

    KB < KA < KC

28

If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller and the universal gravitational constant were ten times larger in magnitude, which of the following is not correct ?

  1. ((a))

    Raindrops will fall faster.

  2. ((b))

    Walking on the ground would become more difficult.

  3. ((c))

    ‘g’ on the Earth will not change.

  4. ((d))

    Time period of a simple pendulum on the Earth would decrease.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

‘g’ on the Earth will not change.

29

A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling motion a body possesses translational kinetic energy (Kt) as well as rotational kinetic energy (Kr) simultaneously. The ratio Kt : (Kt + Kr) for the sphere is

  1. ((a))

    7 : 10

  2. ((b))

    5 : 7

  3. ((c))

    2 : 5

  4. ((d))

    10 : 7

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

5 : 7

30

A small sphere of radius ‘r’ falls from rest in a viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced due to viscous force. The rate of production of heat when the sphere attains its terminal velocity, is proportional to

  1. ((a))

    r³

  2. ((b))

    r²

  3. ((c))

    r⁴

  4. ((d))

    r⁵

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

r⁵

31

A sample of 0·1 g of water at 100°C and normal pressure (1·013 × 10⁵ Nm⁻²) requires 54 cal of heat energy to convert to steam at 100°C. If the volume of the steam produced is 167·1 cc, the change in internal energy of the sample, is

  1. ((a))

    104·3 J

  2. ((b))

    208·7 J

  3. ((c))

    84·5 J

  4. ((d))

    42·2 J

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

208·7 J

32

Two wires are made of the same material and have the same volume. The first wire has cross-sectional area A and the second wire has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of the first wire is increased by Δl on applying a force F, how much force is needed to stretch the second wire by the same amount ?

  1. ((a))

    9 F

  2. ((b))

    6 F

  3. ((c))

    F

  4. ((d))

    4 F

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

9 F

33

The power radiated by a black body is P and it radiates maximum energy at wavelength, λ₀. If the temperature of the black body is now changed so that it radiates maximum energy at wavelength (3/4)λ₀, the power radiated by it becomes nP. The value of n is

  1. ((a))

    3 / 4

  2. ((b))

    4 / 3

  3. ((c))

    256 / 81

  4. ((d))

    81 / 256

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

256 / 81

34

At what temperature will the rms speed of oxygen molecules become just sufficient for escaping from the Earth’s atmosphere ? (Given : Mass of oxygen molecule (m) = 2·76 × 10⁻²⁶ kg Boltzmann’s constant kB = 1·38 × 10⁻²³ J K⁻¹)

  1. ((a))

    2·508 × 10⁴ K

  2. ((b))

    8·360 × 10⁴ K

  3. ((c))

    1·254 × 10⁴ K

  4. ((d))

    5·016 × 10⁴ K

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

8·360 × 10⁴ K

35

The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies with its temperature (T), as shown in the graph. The ratio of work done by the gas, to the heat absorbed by it, when it undergoes a change from state A to state B, is

  1. ((a))

    2/5

  2. ((b))

    2/3

  3. ((c))

    2/7

  4. ((d))

    1/3

36

The fundamental frequency in an open organ pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ pipe is 20 cm, the length of the open organ pipe is

  1. ((a))

    13·2 cm

  2. ((b))

    8 cm

  3. ((c))

    16 cm

  4. ((d))

    12·5 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

13·2 cm

37

The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working between the freezing point and boiling point of water, is

  1. ((a))

    26·8%

  2. ((b))

    20%

  3. ((c))

    12·5%

  4. ((d))

    6·25%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

26·8%

38

A body initially at rest and sliding along a frictionless track from a height h (as shown in the figure) just completes a vertical circle of diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to

  1. ((a))

    3/2 D

  2. ((b))

    D

  3. ((c))

    5/4 D

  4. ((d))

    7/5 D

39

Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each have the same mass M and radius R. They all spin with the same angular speed ω about their own symmetry axes. The amounts of work (W) required to bring them to rest, would satisfy the relation

  1. ((a))

    WC > WB > WA

  2. ((b))

    WA > WB > WC

  3. ((c))

    WA > WC > WB

  4. ((d))

    WB > WA > WC

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

WC > WB > WA

40

Which one of the following statements is incorrect ?

  1. ((a))

    Rolling friction is smaller than sliding friction.

  2. ((b))

    Limiting value of static friction is directly proportional to normal reaction.

  3. ((c))

    Coefficient of sliding friction has dimensions of length.

  4. ((d))

    Frictional force opposes the relative motion.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Coefficient of sliding friction has dimensions of length.

41

A moving block having mass m, collides with another stationary block having mass 4m. The lighter block comes to rest after collision. When the initial velocity of the lighter block is v, then the value of coefficient of restitution (e) will be

  1. ((a))

    0·5

  2. ((b))

    0·25

  3. ((c))

    0·4

  4. ((d))

    0·8

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

0·25

42

A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined wedge ABC of inclination θ as shown in the figure. The wedge is given an acceleration ‘a’ towards the right. The relation between a and θ for the block to remain stationary on the wedge is

  1. ((a))

    a = g / cosec θ

  2. ((b))

    a = g / sin θ

  3. ((c))

    a = g tan θ

  4. ((d))

    a = g cos θ

43

A toy car with charge q moves on a frictionless horizontal plane surface under the influence of a uniform electric field [Formula above]. Due to the force [Formula above], its velocity increases from 0 to 6 m/s in one second duration. At that instant the direction of the field is reversed. The car continues to move for two more seconds under the influence of this field. The average velocity and the average speed of the toy car between 0 to 3 seconds are respectively

  1. ((a))

    2 m/s, 4 m/s

  2. ((b))

    1 m/s, 3 m/s

  3. ((c))

    1·5 m/s, 3 m/s

  4. ((d))

    1 m/s, 3·5 m/s

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1 m/s, 3 m/s

44

The moment of the force, [Formula above] at (2, 0, – 3), about the point (2, – 2, – 2), is given by

  1. ((a))

    – 8 î – 4 ĵ – 7 k̂

  2. ((b))

    – 4 î – ĵ – 8 k̂

  3. ((c))

    – 7 î – 4 ĵ – 8 k̂

  4. ((d))

    – 7 î – 8 ĵ – 4 k̂

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

– 7 î – 4 ĵ – 8 k̂

45

A student measured the diameter of a small steel ball using a screw gauge of least count 0·001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and zero of circular scale division coincides with 25 divisions above the reference level. If screw gauge has a zero error of – 0·004 cm, the correct diameter of the ball is

  1. ((a))

    0·521 cm

  2. ((b))

    0·525 cm

  3. ((c))

    0·529 cm

  4. ((d))

    0·053 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

0·529 cm

46

The difference between spermiogenesis and spermiation is

  1. ((a))

    In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.

  2. ((b))

    In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatids are formed.

  3. ((c))

    In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are released from sertoli cells into the cavity of seminiferous tubules.

  4. ((d))

    In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from sertoli cells are released into the cavity of seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are released from sertoli cells into the cavity of seminiferous tubules.

47

The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived from

  1. ((a))

    ectoderm and mesoderm

  2. ((b))

    endoderm and mesoderm

  3. ((c))

    ectoderm and endoderm

  4. ((d))

    mesoderm and trophoblast

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ectoderm and mesoderm

48

The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’

  1. ((a))

    blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing eggs from getting implanted.

  2. ((b))

    increases the concentration of estrogen and prevents ovulation in females.

  3. ((c))

    is a post-coital contraceptive.

  4. ((d))

    is an IUD.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing eggs from getting implanted.

49

Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain pregnancy are

  1. ((a))

    hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin

  2. ((b))

    hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin

  3. ((c))

    hCG, progestogens, estrogens, glucocorticoids

  4. ((d))

    hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens

50

Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :

Column IColumn II
a. Proliferative Phasei. Breakdown of endometrial lining
b. Secretory Phaseii. Follicular Phase
c. Menstruationiii. Luteal Phase

a b c

  1. ((a))

    iii ii i

  2. ((b))

    i iii ii

  3. ((c))

    iii i ii

  4. ((d))

    ii iii i

Chemistry (50 questions)

51

All of the following are part of an operon except

  1. ((a))

    an operator

  2. ((b))

    structural genes

  3. ((c))

    a promoter

  4. ((d))

    an enhancer

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

an enhancer

52

A woman has an X-linked condition on one of her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be inherited by

  1. ((a))

    Only daughters

  2. ((b))

    Only sons

  3. ((c))

    Both sons and daughters

  4. ((d))

    Only grandchildren

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Both sons and daughters

53

According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of evolution is

  1. ((a))

    Multiple step mutations

  2. ((b))

    Saltation

  3. ((c))

    Minor mutations

  4. ((d))

    Phenotypic variations

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Saltation

54

AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding sequence of the transcribed mRNA ?

  1. ((a))

    AGGUAUCGCAU

  2. ((b))

    UGGTUTCGCAT

  3. ((c))

    UCCAUAGCGUA

  4. ((d))

    ACCUAUGCGAU

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

AGGUAUCGCAU

55

Among the following sets of examples for divergent evolution, select the incorrect option :

  1. ((a))

    Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah

  2. ((b))

    Heart of bat, man and cheetah

  3. ((c))

    Eye of octopus, bat and man

  4. ((d))

    Brain of bat, man and cheetah

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Eye of octopus, bat and man

56

Conversion of milk to curd improves its nutritional value by increasing the amount of

  1. ((a))

    Vitamin D

  2. ((b))

    Vitamin A

  3. ((c))

    Vitamin E

  4. ((d))

    Vitamin B12

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Vitamin B12

57

Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease ?

  1. ((a))

    Psoriasis

  2. ((b))

    Rheumatoid arthritis

  3. ((c))

    Vitiligo

  4. ((d))

    Alzheimer’s disease

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Alzheimer’s disease

58

The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example of

  1. ((a))

    Homology

  2. ((b))

    Analogy

  3. ((c))

    Adaptive radiation

  4. ((d))

    Convergent evolution

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Homology

59

Which of the following characteristics represent ‘Inheritance of blood groups’ in humans ?

a. Dominance b. Co-dominance c. Multiple allele d. Incomplete dominance e. Polygenic inheritance

  1. ((a))

    b, c and e

  2. ((b))

    a, b and c

  3. ((c))

    a, c and e

  4. ((d))

    b, d and e

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

a, b and c

60

In which disease does mosquito transmitted pathogen cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels ?

  1. ((a))

    Elephantiasis

  2. ((b))

    Ascariasis

  3. ((c))

    Amoebiasis

  4. ((d))

    Ringworm disease

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Elephantiasis

61

All of the following are included in ‘Ex-situ conservation’ except

  1. ((a))

    Wildlife safari parks

  2. ((b))

    Sacred groves

  3. ((c))

    Seed banks

  4. ((d))

    Botanical gardens

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Sacred groves

62

Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the drug “Smack” ?

  1. ((a))

    Flowers

  2. ((b))

    Latex

  3. ((c))

    Leaves

  4. ((d))

    Roots

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Latex

63

In a growing population of a country,

  1. ((a))

    pre-reproductive individuals are more than the reproductive individuals.

  2. ((b))

    reproductive individuals are less than the post-reproductive individuals.

  3. ((c))

    pre-reproductive individuals are less than the reproductive individuals.

  4. ((d))

    reproductive and pre-reproductive individuals are equal in number.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

pre-reproductive individuals are more than the reproductive individuals.

64

Which one of the following population interactions is widely used in medical science for the production of antibiotics ?

  1. ((a))

    Commensalism

  2. ((b))

    Mutualism

  3. ((c))

    Amensalism

  4. ((d))

    Parasitism

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Amensalism

65

Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :

Column IColumn II
a. Eutrophicationi. UV-B radiation
b. Sanitary landfillii. Deforestation
c. Snow blindnessiii. Nutrient enrichment
d. Jhum cultivationiv. Waste disposal

a b c d

  1. ((a))

    ii i iii iv

  2. ((b))

    i iii iv ii

  3. ((c))

    i ii iv iii

  4. ((d))

    iii iv i ii

66

Which of the following options correctly represents the lung conditions in asthma and emphysema, respectively ?

  1. ((a))

    Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased respiratory surface

  2. ((b))

    Increased number of bronchioles; Increased respiratory surface

  3. ((c))

    Decreased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles

  4. ((d))

    Increased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased respiratory surface

67

Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :

Column IColumn II
a. Tricuspid valvei. Between left atrium and left ventricle
b. Bicuspid valveii. Between right ventricle and pulmonary artery
c. Semilunar valveiii. Between right atrium and right ventricle

a b c

  1. ((a))

    iii i ii

  2. ((b))

    i iii ii

  3. ((c))

    ii i iii

  4. ((d))

    i ii iii

68

Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :

Column IColumn II
a. Tidal volumei. 2500 – 3000 mL
b. Inspiratory Reserve volumeii. 1100 – 1200 mL
c. Expiratory Reserve volumeiii. 500 – 550 mL
d. Residual volumeiv. 1000 – 1100 mL

a b c d

  1. ((a))

    iii ii i iv

  2. ((b))

    iii i iv ii

  3. ((c))

    iv iii ii i

  4. ((d))

    i iv ii iii

69

Which of the following is an amino acid derived hormone ?

  1. ((a))

    Epinephrine

  2. ((b))

    Ecdysone

  3. ((c))

    Estriol

  4. ((d))

    Estradiol

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Epinephrine

70

Which of the following structures or regions is incorrectly paired with its function ?

  1. ((a))

    Medulla oblongata : controls respiration and cardiovascular reflexes.

  2. ((b))

    Limbic system : consists of fibre tracts that interconnect different regions of brain; controls movement.

  3. ((c))

    Corpus callosum : band of fibers connecting left and right cerebral hemispheres.

  4. ((d))

    Hypothalamus : production of releasing hormones and regulation of temperature, hunger and thirst.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Limbic system : consists of fibre tracts that interconnect different regions of brain; controls movement.

71

The transparent lens in the human eye is held in its place by

  1. ((a))

    ligaments attached to the ciliary body

  2. ((b))

    ligaments attached to the iris

  3. ((c))

    smooth muscles attached to the ciliary body

  4. ((d))

    smooth muscles attached to the iris

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ligaments attached to the ciliary body

72

Which of the following hormones can play a significant role in osteoporosis ?

  1. ((a))

    Aldosterone and Prolactin

  2. ((b))

    Progesterone and Aldosterone

  3. ((c))

    Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin

  4. ((d))

    Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone

73

Which of the following gastric cells indirectly help in erythropoiesis ?

  1. ((a))

    Chief cells

  2. ((b))

    Mucous cells

  3. ((c))

    Parietal cells

  4. ((d))

    Goblet cells

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Parietal cells

74

Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :

Column IColumn II
a. Fibrinogeni. Osmotic balance
b. Globulinii. Blood clotting
c. Albuminiii. Defence mechanism

a b c

  1. ((a))

    iii ii i

  2. ((b))

    i ii iii

  3. ((c))

    ii iii i

  4. ((d))

    i iii ii

75

Which of the following is an occupational respiratory disorder ?

  1. ((a))

    Anthracis

  2. ((b))

    Silicosis

  3. ((c))

    Emphysema

  4. ((d))

    Botulism

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Silicosis

76

Calcium is important in skeletal muscle contraction because it

  1. ((a))

    binds to troponin to remove the masking of active sites on actin for myosin.

  2. ((b))

    activates the myosin ATPase by binding to it.

  3. ((c))

    prevents the formation of bonds between the myosin cross bridges and the actin filament.

  4. ((d))

    detaches the myosin head from the actin filament.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

binds to troponin to remove the masking of active sites on actin for myosin.

77

Select the incorrect match :

  1. ((a))

    Lampbrush chromosomes – Diplotene bivalents

  2. ((b))

    Allosomes – Sex chromosomes

  3. ((c))

    Polytene chromosomes – Oocytes of amphibians

  4. ((d))

    Submetacentric chromosomes – L-shaped chromosomes

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Polytene chromosomes – Oocytes of amphibians

78

Nissl bodies are mainly composed of

  1. ((a))

    Proteins and lipids

  2. ((b))

    DNA and RNA

  3. ((c))

    Free ribosomes and RER

  4. ((d))

    Nucleic acids and SER

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Free ribosomes and RER

79

Which of these statements is incorrect ?

  1. ((a))

    Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in mitochondrial matrix.

  2. ((b))

    Glycolysis occurs in cytosol.

  3. ((c))

    Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in outer mitochondrial membrane.

  4. ((d))

    Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in outer mitochondrial membrane.

80

Which of the following events does not occur in rough endoplasmic reticulum ?

  1. ((a))

    Protein folding

  2. ((b))

    Protein glycosylation

  3. ((c))

    Phospholipid synthesis

  4. ((d))

    Cleavage of signal peptide

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Phospholipid synthesis

81

Many ribosomes may associate with a single mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are termed as

  1. ((a))

    Polysome

  2. ((b))

    Polyhedral bodies

  3. ((c))

    Nucleosome

  4. ((d))

    Plastidome

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Polysome

82

Which of the following terms describe human dentition ?

  1. ((a))

    Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont

  2. ((b))

    Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont

  3. ((c))

    Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont

  4. ((d))

    Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont

83

Identify the vertebrate group of animals characterized by crop and gizzard in its digestive system.

  1. ((a))

    Amphibia

  2. ((b))

    Reptilia

  3. ((c))

    Osteichthyes

  4. ((d))

    Aves

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Aves

84

Which one of these animals is not a homeotherm ?

  1. ((a))

    Macropus

  2. ((b))

    Chelone

  3. ((c))

    Psittacula

  4. ((d))

    Camelus

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Chelone

85

Which of the following features is used to identify a male cockroach from a female cockroach ?

  1. ((a))

    Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the 9th abdominal segment

  2. ((b))

    Presence of caudal styles

  3. ((c))

    Presence of anal cerci

  4. ((d))

    Forewings with darker tegmina

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Presence of caudal styles

86

Which of the following organisms are known as chief producers in the oceans ?

  1. ((a))

    Dinoflagellates

  2. ((b))

    Diatoms

  3. ((c))

    Euglenoids

  4. ((d))

    Cyanobacteria

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Diatoms

87

Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in

  1. ((a))

    using flagella for locomotion

  2. ((b))

    having a contractile vacuole for removing excess water

  3. ((c))

    having two types of nuclei

  4. ((d))

    using pseudopodia for capturing prey

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

having two types of nuclei

88

Which of the following animals does not undergo metamorphosis ?

  1. ((a))

    Earthworm

  2. ((b))

    Tunicate

  3. ((c))

    Starfish

  4. ((d))

    Moth

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Earthworm

89

Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :

Column I (Function)Column II (Part of Excretory System)
a. Ultrafiltrationi. Henle’s loop
b. Concentration of urineii. Ureter
c. Transport of urineiii. Urinary bladder
d. Storage of urineiv. Malpighian corpuscle
v. Proximal convoluted tubule

a b c d

  1. ((a))

    iv v ii iii

  2. ((b))

    iv i ii iii

  3. ((c))

    v iv i iii

  4. ((d))

    v iv i ii

90

Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :

Column IColumn II
a. Glycosuriai. Accumulation of uric acid in joints
b. Goutii. Mass of crystallised salts within the kidney
c. Renal calculiiii. Inflammation in glomeruli
d. Glomerular nephritisiv. Presence of glucose in urine

a b c d

  1. ((a))

    iii ii iv i

  2. ((b))

    i ii iii iv

  3. ((c))

    iv i ii iii

  4. ((d))

    ii iii i iv

91

What is the role of NAD⁺ in cellular respiration ?

  1. ((a))

    It functions as an enzyme.

  2. ((b))

    It functions as an electron carrier.

  3. ((c))

    It is the final electron acceptor for anaerobic respiration.

  4. ((d))

    It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

It functions as an electron carrier.

92

Which one of the following plants shows a very close relationship with a species of moth, where none of the two can complete its life cycle without the other ?

  1. ((a))

    Hydrilla

  2. ((b))

    Yucca

  3. ((c))

    Viola

  4. ((d))

    Banana

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Yucca

93

Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis by

  1. ((a))

    Green sulphur bacteria

  2. ((b))

    Nostoc

  3. ((c))

    Chara

  4. ((d))

    Cycas

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Green sulphur bacteria

94

In which of the following forms is iron absorbed by plants ?

  1. ((a))

    Ferric

  2. ((b))

    Ferrous

  3. ((c))

    Both ferric and ferrous

  4. ((d))

    Free element

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ferric

95

Double fertilization is

  1. ((a))

    Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube with two different eggs

  2. ((b))

    Fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei

  3. ((c))

    Syngamy and triple fusion

  4. ((d))

    Fusion of two male gametes with one egg

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Syngamy and triple fusion

96

Which of the following elements is responsible for maintaining turgor in cells ?

  1. ((a))

    Magnesium

  2. ((b))

    Sodium

  3. ((c))

    Calcium

  4. ((d))

    Potassium

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Potassium

97

Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of

  1. ((a))

    – 120°C

  2. ((b))

    – 80°C

  3. ((c))

    – 160°C

  4. ((d))

    – 196°C

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

– 196°C

98

Which among the following is not a prokaryote ?

  1. ((a))

    Saccharomyces

  2. ((b))

    Mycobacterium

  3. ((c))

    Oscillatoria

  4. ((d))

    Nostoc

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Saccharomyces

99

The two functional groups characteristic of sugars are

  1. ((a))

    hydroxyl and methyl

  2. ((b))

    carbonyl and methyl

  3. ((c))

    carbonyl and hydroxyl

  4. ((d))

    carbonyl and phosphate

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

carbonyl and hydroxyl

100

Which of the following is not a product of light reaction of photosynthesis ?

  1. ((a))

    ATP

  2. ((b))

    NADH

  3. ((c))

    Oxygen

  4. ((d))

    NADPH

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

NADH

Botany (50 questions)

101

Stomatal movement is not affected by

  1. ((a))

    Temperature

  2. ((b))

    Light

  3. ((c))

    CO₂ concentration

  4. ((d))

    O₂ concentration

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

O₂ concentration

102

The Golgi complex participates in

  1. ((a))

    Fatty acid breakdown

  2. ((b))

    Formation of secretory vesicles

  3. ((c))

    Activation of amino acid

  4. ((d))

    Respiration in bacteria

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Formation of secretory vesicles

103

Which of the following is true for nucleolus ?

  1. ((a))

    Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells.

  2. ((b))

    It is a membrane-bound structure.

  3. ((c))

    It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis.

  4. ((d))

    It takes part in spindle formation.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis.

104

Stomata in grass leaf are

  1. ((a))

    Dumb-bell shaped

  2. ((b))

    Kidney shaped

  3. ((c))

    Barrel shaped

  4. ((d))

    Rectangular

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dumb-bell shaped

105

The stage during which separation of the paired homologous chromosomes begins is

  1. ((a))

    Pachytene

  2. ((b))

    Diplotene

  3. ((c))

    Zygotene

  4. ((d))

    Diakinesis

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Diplotene

106

Which of the following is commonly used as a vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human lymphocytes ?

  1. ((a))

    Retrovirus

  2. ((b))

    Ti plasmid

  3. ((c))

    pBR 322

  4. ((d))

    λ phage

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Retrovirus

107

Use of bioresources by multinational companies and organisations without authorisation from the concerned country and its people is called

  1. ((a))

    Bio-infringement

  2. ((b))

    Biopiracy

  3. ((c))

    Bioexploitation

  4. ((d))

    Biodegradation

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Biopiracy

108

In India, the organisation responsible for assessing the safety of introducing genetically modified organisms for public use is

  1. ((a))

    Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)

  2. ((b))

    Council for Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR)

  3. ((c))

    Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC)

  4. ((d))

    Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation (RCGM)

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC)

109

The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is

  1. ((a))

    Extension, Denaturation, Annealing

  2. ((b))

    Annealing, Extension, Denaturation

  3. ((c))

    Denaturation, Annealing, Extension

  4. ((d))

    Denaturation, Extension, Annealing

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Denaturation, Annealing, Extension

110

Select the correct match :

  1. ((a))

    Ribozyme - Nucleic acid

  2. ((b))

    F₂ × Recessive parent - Dihybrid cross

  3. ((c))

    G. Mendel - Transformation

  4. ((d))

    T.H. Morgan - Transduction

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ribozyme - Nucleic acid

111

A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a foreign company, though such varieties have been present in India for a long time. This is related to

  1. ((a))

    Co-667

  2. ((b))

    Sharbati Sonora

  3. ((c))

    Basmati

  4. ((d))

    Lerma Rojo

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Basmati

112

Select the correct match :

  1. ((a))

    Alec Jeffreys - Streptococcus pneumoniae

  2. ((b))

    Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase - TMV

  3. ((c))

    Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod - Lac operon

  4. ((d))

    Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl - Pisum sativum

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod - Lac operon

113

Which of the following has proved helpful in preserving pollen as fossils ?

  1. ((a))

    Pollenkitt

  2. ((b))

    Cellulosic intine

  3. ((c))

    Sporopollenin

  4. ((d))

    Oil content

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Sporopollenin

114

The experimental proof for semiconservative replication of DNA was first shown in a

  1. ((a))

    Fungus

  2. ((b))

    Bacterium

  3. ((c))

    Virus

  4. ((d))

    Plant

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Bacterium

115

Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched ?

  1. ((a))

    Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles

  2. ((b))

    ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance

  3. ((c))

    T.H. Morgan : Linkage

  4. ((d))

    XO type sex determination : Grasshopper

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles

116

Offsets are produced by

  1. ((a))

    Meiotic divisions

  2. ((b))

    Mitotic divisions

  3. ((c))

    Parthenogenesis

  4. ((d))

    Parthenocarpy

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Mitotic divisions

117

Select the correct statement :

  1. ((a))

    Franklin Stahl coined the term ‘‘linkage’’.

  2. ((b))

    Punnett square was developed by a British scientist.

  3. ((c))

    Transduction was discovered by S. Altman.

  4. ((d))

    Spliceosomes take part in translation.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Punnett square was developed by a British scientist.

118

Which of the following flowers only once in its life-time ?

  1. ((a))

    Bamboo species

  2. ((b))

    Jackfruit

  3. ((c))

    Papaya

  4. ((d))

    Mango

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bamboo species

119

Niche is

  1. ((a))

    all the biological factors in the organism’s environment

  2. ((b))

    the physical space where an organism lives

  3. ((c))

    the functional role played by the organism where it lives

  4. ((d))

    the range of temperature that the organism needs to live

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

the functional role played by the organism where it lives

120

In stratosphere, which of the following elements acts as a catalyst in degradation of ozone and release of molecular oxygen ?

  1. ((a))

    Carbon

  2. ((b))

    Cl

  3. ((c))

    Oxygen

  4. ((d))

    Fe

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Cl

121

What type of ecological pyramid would be obtained with the following data ?

Secondary consumer : 120 g Primary consumer : 60 g Primary producer : 10 g

  1. ((a))

    Inverted pyramid of biomass

  2. ((b))

    Pyramid of energy

  3. ((c))

    Upright pyramid of biomass

  4. ((d))

    Upright pyramid of numbers

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Inverted pyramid of biomass

122

Which of the following is a secondary pollutant ?

  1. ((a))

    CO

  2. ((b))

    CO₂

  3. ((c))

    O₃

  4. ((d))

    SO₂

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

O₃

123

World Ozone Day is celebrated on

  1. ((a))

    5ᵗʰ June

  2. ((b))

    21ˢᵗ April

  3. ((c))

    22ⁿᵈ April

  4. ((d))

    16ᵗʰ September

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

16ᵗʰ September

124

Natality refers to

  1. ((a))

    Death rate

  2. ((b))

    Birth rate

  3. ((c))

    Number of individuals entering a habitat

  4. ((d))

    Number of individuals leaving the habitat

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Birth rate

125

Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :

Column IColumn II
a. Herbariumi. It is a place having a collection of preserved plants and animals.
b. Keyii. A list that enumerates methodically all the species found in an area with brief description aiding identification.
c. Museumiii. Is a place where dried and pressed plant specimens mounted on sheets are kept.
d. Catalogueiv. A booklet containing a list of characters and their alternates which are helpful in identification of various taxa.

a b c d

  1. ((a))

    i iv iii ii

  2. ((b))

    iii ii i iv

  3. ((c))

    iii iv i ii

  4. ((d))

    ii iv iii i

126

Which one is wrongly matched ?

  1. ((a))

    Uniflagellate gametes - Polysiphonia

  2. ((b))

    Biflagellate zoospores - Brown algae

  3. ((c))

    Unicellular organism - Chlorella

  4. ((d))

    Gemma cups - Marchantia

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Uniflagellate gametes - Polysiphonia

127

After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are produced exogenously in

  1. ((a))

    Neurospora

  2. ((b))

    Alternaria

  3. ((c))

    Saccharomyces

  4. ((d))

    Agaricus

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Agaricus

128

Winged pollen grains are present in

  1. ((a))

    Mustard

  2. ((b))

    Cycas

  3. ((c))

    Pinus

  4. ((d))

    Mango

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Pinus

129

Pneumatophores occur in

  1. ((a))

    Halophytes

  2. ((b))

    Free-floating hydrophytes

  3. ((c))

    Submerged hydrophytes

  4. ((d))

    Carnivorous plants

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Halophytes

130

Plants having little or no secondary growth are

  1. ((a))

    Grasses

  2. ((b))

    Deciduous angiosperms

  3. ((c))

    Cycads

  4. ((d))

    Conifers

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Grasses

131

Casparian strips occur in

  1. ((a))

    Epidermis

  2. ((b))

    Pericycle

  3. ((c))

    Endodermis

  4. ((d))

    Cortex

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Endodermis

132

Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem are produced by

  1. ((a))

    Apical meristems

  2. ((b))

    Vascular cambium

  3. ((c))

    Axillary meristems

  4. ((d))

    Phellogen

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Vascular cambium

133

Select the wrong statement :

  1. ((a))

    Cell wall is present in members of Fungi and Plantae.

  2. ((b))

    Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes.

  3. ((c))

    Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell in all kingdoms except Monera.

  4. ((d))

    Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding structures in Sporozoans.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding structures in Sporozoans.

134

Which of the following statements is correct ?

  1. ((a))

    Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in gymnosperms.

  2. ((b))

    Selaginella is heterosporous, while Salvinia is homosporous.

  3. ((c))

    Stems are usually unbranched in both Cycas and Cedrus.

  4. ((d))

    Horsetails are gymnosperms.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in gymnosperms.

135

Sweet potato is a modified

  1. ((a))

    Stem

  2. ((b))

    Adventitious root

  3. ((c))

    Rhizome

  4. ((d))

    Tap root

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Adventitious root

136

The correct order of N-compounds in its decreasing order of oxidation states is

  1. ((a))

    HNO₃, NO, N₂, NH₄Cl

  2. ((b))

    HNO₃, NO, NH₄Cl, N₂

  3. ((c))

    NH₄Cl, N₂, NO, HNO₃

  4. ((d))

    HNO₃, NH₄Cl, NO, N₂

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

HNO₃, NO, N₂, NH₄Cl

137

The correct order of atomic radii in group 13 elements is

  1. ((a))

    B < Al < In < Ga < Tl

  2. ((b))

    B < Al < Ga < In < Tl

  3. ((c))

    B < Ga < Al < In < Tl

  4. ((d))

    B < Ga < Al < Tl < In

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

B < Ga < Al < In < Tl

138

Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the following metals can be used to reduce alumina ?

  1. ((a))

    Fe

  2. ((b))

    Zn

  3. ((c))

    Cu

  4. ((d))

    Mg

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Mg

139

Which one of the following elements is unable to form MF₆³⁻ ion ?

  1. ((a))

    Ga

  2. ((b))

    Al

  3. ((c))

    In

  4. ((d))

    B

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

B

140

Which of the following statements is not true for halogens ?

  1. ((a))

    All form monobasic oxyacids.

  2. ((b))

    All are oxidizing agents.

  3. ((c))

    Chlorine has the highest electron-gain enthalpy.

  4. ((d))

    All but fluorine show positive oxidation states.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

All form monobasic oxyacids.

141

In the structure of ClF₃, the number of lone pairs of electrons on central atom ‘Cl’ is

  1. ((a))

    one

  2. ((b))

    two

  3. ((c))

    three

  4. ((d))

    four

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

two

142

The difference between amylose and amylopectin is

  1. ((a))

    Amylopectin have 1 → 4 α-linkage and 1 → 6 α-linkage

  2. ((b))

    Amylose have 1 → 4 α-linkage and 1 → 6 β-linkage

  3. ((c))

    Amylose is made up of glucose and galactose

  4. ((d))

    Amylopectin have 1 → 4 α-linkage and 1 → 6 β-linkage

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Amylopectin have 1 → 4 α-linkage and 1 → 6 α-linkage

143

Regarding cross-linked or network polymers, which of the following statements is incorrect ?

  1. ((a))

    They contain covalent bonds between various linear polymer chains.

  2. ((b))

    They are formed from bi- and tri-functional monomers.

  3. ((c))

    They contain strong covalent bonds in their polymer chains.

  4. ((d))

    Examples are bakelite and melamine.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

They contain strong covalent bonds in their polymer chains.

144

A mixture of 2·3 g formic acid and 4·5 g oxalic acid is treated with conc. H₂SO₄. The evolved gaseous mixture is passed through KOH pellets. Weight (in g) of the remaining product at STP will be

  1. ((a))

    1·4

  2. ((b))

    3·0

  3. ((c))

    4·4

  4. ((d))

    2·8

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

2·8

145

Which of the following oxides is most acidic in nature ?

  1. ((a))

    MgO

  2. ((b))

    BeO

  3. ((c))

    CaO

  4. ((d))

    BaO

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

BeO

146

Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium also gives m-nitroaniline because

  1. ((a))

    In spite of substituents nitro group always goes to only m-position.

  2. ((b))

    In electrophilic substitution reactions amino group is meta directive.

  3. ((c))

    In acidic (strong) medium aniline is present as anilinium ion.

  4. ((d))

    In absence of substituents nitro group always goes to m-position.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

In acidic (strong) medium aniline is present as anilinium ion.

147

The compound A on treatment with Na gives B, and with PCl₅ gives C. B and C react together to give diethyl ether. A, B and C are in the order

  1. ((a))

    C₂H₅OH, C₂H₆, C₂H₅Cl

  2. ((b))

    C₂H₅OH, C₂H₅Cl, C₂H₅ONa

  3. ((c))

    C₂H₅OH, C₂H₅ONa, C₂H₅Cl

  4. ((d))

    C₂H₅Cl, C₂H₆, C₂H₅OH

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

C₂H₅OH, C₂H₅ONa, C₂H₅Cl

148

Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon atoms. (A) is

  1. ((a))

    CH ≡ CH

  2. ((b))

    CH₂ = CH₂

  3. ((c))

    CH₄

  4. ((d))

    CH₃ – CH₃

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

CH₄

149

The compound C7H8 undergoes the following reactions : [Formula above] The product ‘C’ is

  1. ((a))

    m-bromotoluene

  2. ((b))

    o-bromotoluene

  3. ((c))

    p-bromotoluene

  4. ((d))

    3-bromo-2,4,6-trichlorotoluene

150

Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both due to natural and human activity ?

  1. ((a))

    N₂O₅

  2. ((b))

    NO₂

  3. ((c))

    NO

  4. ((d))

    N₂O

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

N₂O₅

Zoology (30 questions)

151

Which of the following molecules represents the order of hybridisation sp², sp², sp, sp from left to right atoms ?

  1. ((a))

    HC ≡ C – C ≡ CH

  2. ((b))

    CH₂ = CH – C ≡ CH

  3. ((c))

    CH₃ – CH = CH – CH₃

  4. ((d))

    CH₂ = CH – CH = CH₂

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

CH₂ = CH – C ≡ CH

152

Which of the following carbocations is expected to be most stable ?

question figure
  1. ((a))

    NO2 ⊕ Y H

  2. ((b))

    NO2 ⊕ Y H

  3. ((c))

    NO2 H ⊕ Y

  4. ((d))

    NO2 H Y ⊕

153

Which of the following is correct with respect to – I effect of the substituents ? (R = alkyl)

  1. ((a))

    – NH₂ < – OR < – F

  2. ((b))

    – NR₂ < – OR < – F

  3. ((c))

    – NR₂ > – OR > – F

  4. ((d))

    – NH₂ > – OR > – F

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

– NH₂ < – OR < – F

154

In the reaction OH O–Na+

  • CHCl3 + NaOH ⟶ CHO the electrophile involved is
  1. ((a))

    dichloromethyl cation (⊕CHCl2)

  2. ((b))

    formyl cation (⊕CHO)

  3. ((c))

    dichlorocarbene (:CCl2)

  4. ((d))

    dichloromethyl anion (⊖CHCl2)

155

Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of comparable molecular mass. It is due to their

  1. ((a))

    formation of intramolecular H-bonding

  2. ((b))

    formation of carboxylate ion

  3. ((c))

    formation of intermolecular H-bonding

  4. ((d))

    more extensive association of carboxylic acid via van der Waals force of attraction

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

formation of intermolecular H-bonding

156

Compound A, C8H10O, is found to react with NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic smell. A and Y are respectively

question figure
  1. ((a))

    H3C – CH2 – OH and I2

  2. ((b))

    – CH2 – CH2 – OH and I2

  3. ((c))

    CH3 – CH3 OH and I2

  4. ((d))

    – CH – CH3 and I2 | OH

157

Identify the major products P, Q and R in the following sequence of reactions : [Formula above]

question figure
  1. ((a))

    P: CH2CH2CH3, Q: CHO, R: CH3CH2 – OH

  2. ((b))

    P: CH2CH2CH3, Q: CHO, R: COOH

  3. ((c))

    P: CH(CH3)2, Q: OH, R: CH3 – CO – CH3

  4. ((d))

    P: CH(CH3)2, Q: OH, R: CH3CH(OH)CH3

158

Which of the following compounds can form a zwitterion ?

  1. ((a))

    Aniline

  2. ((b))

    Acetanilide

  3. ((c))

    Glycine

  4. ((d))

    Benzoic acid

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Glycine

159

For the redox reaction MnO₄⁻ + C₂O₄²⁻ + H⁺ → Mn²⁺ + CO₂ + H₂O the correct coefficients of the reactants for the balanced equation are | MnO₄⁻ | C₂O₄²⁻ | H⁺ |

  1. ((a))

    16, 5, 2

  2. ((b))

    2, 5, 16

  3. ((c))

    5, 16, 2

  4. ((d))

    2, 16, 5

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

2, 5, 16

160

Which one of the following conditions will favour maximum formation of the product in the reaction, A₂(g) + B₂(g) ⇌ X₂(g) ΔᵣH = – X kJ ?

  1. ((a))

    Low temperature and high pressure

  2. ((b))

    Low temperature and low pressure

  3. ((c))

    High temperature and low pressure

  4. ((d))

    High temperature and high pressure

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Low temperature and high pressure

161

When initial concentration of the reactant is doubled, the half-life period of a zero order reaction

  1. ((a))

    is halved

  2. ((b))

    is doubled

  3. ((c))

    remains unchanged

  4. ((d))

    is tripled

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

is doubled

162

The correction factor ‘a’ to the ideal gas equation corresponds to

  1. ((a))

    density of the gas molecules

  2. ((b))

    volume of the gas molecules

  3. ((c))

    forces of attraction between the gas molecules

  4. ((d))

    electric field present between the gas molecules

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

forces of attraction between the gas molecules

163

The bond dissociation energies of X₂, Y₂ and XY are in the ratio of 1 : 0·5 : 1. ΔH for the formation of XY is – 200 kJ mol⁻¹. The bond dissociation energy of X₂ will be

  1. ((a))

    200 kJ mol⁻¹

  2. ((b))

    100 kJ mol⁻¹

  3. ((c))

    400 kJ mol⁻¹

  4. ((d))

    800 kJ mol⁻¹

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

800 kJ mol⁻¹

164

Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form an ionic compound. If the ground state electronic configuration of (X) is 1s² 2s² 2p³, the simplest formula for this compound is

  1. ((a))

    Mg₂X₃

  2. ((b))

    MgX₂

  3. ((c))

    Mg₃X₂

  4. ((d))

    Mg₂X

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Mg₃X₂

165

Iron exhibits bcc structure at room temperature. Above 900°C, it transforms to fcc structure. The ratio of density of iron at room temperature to that at 900°C (assuming molar mass and atomic radii of iron remains constant with temperature) is

  1. ((a))

    √3 / √2

  2. ((b))

    4√3 / 3√2

  3. ((c))

    1 / 2

  4. ((d))

    3√3 / 4√2

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

3√3 / 4√2

166

Consider the following species : CN⁺, CN⁻, NO and CN Which one of these will have the highest bond order ?

  1. ((a))

    NO

  2. ((b))

    CN⁻

  3. ((c))

    CN

  4. ((d))

    CN⁺

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

CN⁻

167

Which one is a wrong statement ?

  1. ((a))

    Total orbital angular momentum of electron in ‘s’ orbital is equal to zero.

  2. ((b))

    An orbital is designated by three quantum numbers while an electron in an atom is designated by four quantum numbers.

  3. ((c))

    The value of m for dz2 is zero.

  4. ((d))

    The electronic configuration of N atom is 1s2 2s2 2p1x 2p1y 2p1z ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑ ↑ ↓

168

The correct difference between first- and second-order reactions is that

  1. ((a))

    the rate of a first-order reaction does not depend on reactant concentrations; the rate of a second-order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations

  2. ((b))

    the half-life of a first-order reaction does not depend on [A]₀; the half-life of a second-order reaction does depend on [A]₀

  3. ((c))

    the rate of a first-order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations; the rate of a second-order reaction does not depend on reactant concentrations

  4. ((d))

    a first-order reaction can be catalyzed; a second-order reaction cannot be catalyzed

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

the half-life of a first-order reaction does not depend on [A]₀; the half-life of a second-order reaction does depend on [A]₀

169

In which case is the number of molecules of water maximum ?

  1. ((a))

    18 mL of water

  2. ((b))

    0·18 g of water

  3. ((c))

    10⁻³ mol of water

  4. ((d))

    0·00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and 273 K

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

18 mL of water

170

Among CaH₂, BeH₂, BaH₂, the order of ionic character is

  1. ((a))

    BeH₂ < CaH₂ < BaH₂

  2. ((b))

    CaH₂ < BeH₂ < BaH₂

  3. ((c))

    BaH₂ < BeH₂ < CaH₂

  4. ((d))

    BeH₂ < BaH₂ < CaH₂

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

BeH₂ < CaH₂ < BaH₂

171

Consider the change in oxidation state of Bromine corresponding to different emf values as shown in the diagram below : BrO4– 1·82 V ⟶ BrO3– 1·5 V ⟶ HBrO Br– 1·0652 V ⟵ Br2 1·595 V ⟵ Then the species undergoing disproportionation is

  1. ((a))

    BrO3–

  2. ((b))

    BrO4–

  3. ((c))

    HBrO

  4. ((d))

    Br2

172

The solubility of BaSO₄ in water is 2·42 × 10⁻³ gL⁻¹ at 298 K. The value of its solubility product (K_{sp}) will be (Given molar mass of BaSO₄ = 233 g mol⁻¹)

  1. ((a))

    1·08 × 10⁻¹⁰ mol² L⁻²

  2. ((b))

    1·08 × 10⁻¹² mol² L⁻²

  3. ((c))

    1·08 × 10⁻⁸ mol² L⁻²

  4. ((d))

    1·08 × 10⁻¹⁴ mol² L⁻²

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1·08 × 10⁻¹⁰ mol² L⁻²

173

Following solutions were prepared by mixing different volumes of NaOH and HCl of different concentrations : a. 60 mL M/10 HCl + 40 mL M/10 NaOH b. 55 mL M/10 HCl + 45 mL M/10 NaOH c. 75 mL M/5 HCl + 25 mL M/5 NaOH d. 100 mL M/10 HCl + 100 mL M/10 NaOH pH of which one of them will be equal to 1 ?

  1. ((a))

    b

  2. ((b))

    a

  3. ((c))

    c

  4. ((d))

    d

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

c

174

On which of the following properties does the coagulating power of an ion depend ?

  1. ((a))

    The magnitude of the charge on the ion alone

  2. ((b))

    Size of the ion alone

  3. ((c))

    The sign of charge on the ion alone

  4. ((d))

    Both magnitude and sign of the charge on the ion

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Both magnitude and sign of the charge on the ion

175

Given van der Waals constant for NH₃, H₂, O₂ and CO₂ are respectively 4·17, 0·244, 1·36 and 3·59, which one of the following gases is most easily liquefied ?

  1. ((a))

    NH₃

  2. ((b))

    H₂

  3. ((c))

    CO₂

  4. ((d))

    O₂

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

NH₃

176

Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)₅ is

  1. ((a))

    tetranuclear

  2. ((b))

    mononuclear

  3. ((c))

    dinuclear

  4. ((d))

    trinuclear

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

mononuclear

177

The type of isomerism shown by the complex [CoCl₂(en)₂] is

  1. ((a))

    Geometrical isomerism

  2. ((b))

    Coordination isomerism

  3. ((c))

    Linkage isomerism

  4. ((d))

    Ionization isomerism

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Geometrical isomerism

178

Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d transition and paramagnetism as well ?

  1. ((a))

    CrO₄²⁻

  2. ((b))

    Cr₂O₇²⁻

  3. ((c))

    MnO₄²⁻

  4. ((d))

    MnO₄⁻

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

MnO₄²⁻

179

The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the complex [Ni(CO)₄] are

  1. ((a))

    square planar geometry and diamagnetic

  2. ((b))

    tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic

  3. ((c))

    tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic

  4. ((d))

    square planar geometry and paramagnetic

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic

180

Match the metal ions given in Column I with the spin magnetic moments of the ions given in Column II and assign the correct code :

Column IColumn II
a. Co³⁺i. √8 B.M.
b. Cr³⁺ii. √35 B.M.
c. Fe³⁺iii. √3 B.M.
d. Ni²⁺iv. √24 B.M.
v. √15 B.M.

a b c d

  1. ((a))

    iv v ii i

  2. ((b))

    i ii iii iv

  3. ((c))

    iii v i ii

  4. ((d))

    iv i ii iii

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

iv v ii i

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