MP Patwari Group-2 (Sub Group-4) 2022 Official Paper (Held On: 15 Mar, 2023 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is Industrial policy Act 1991.

Key Points

Industrial Policy Act 1991:

• The government controls trade restrictions through various measures and policies, including the Industrial Policy Act 1991.
• The Industrial Policy Act of 1991 was a significant policy reform introduced by the Indian government to liberalize and deregulate the industrial sector.
• It aimed to promote competition, attract foreign investment, and facilitate trade by removing unnecessary restrictions and barriers.
• Under the Industrial Policy Act 1991, the government implemented several measures to liberalize trade, such as reducing import tariffs, relaxing licensing requirements, promoting foreign direct investment, and encouraging technological advancements.
• These reforms helped in opening up the Indian economy, expanding trade opportunities, and integrating India into the global market.

Additional Information

• The Partnership Act of 1932: The Partnership Act regulates the formation and operation of partnership firms in India, but it does not directly control trade restrictions.
• MRTP Act: The MRTP (Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices) Act aimed to prevent monopolistic and restrictive trade practices but is not specifically focused on controlling trade restrictions.
• FEMA Act: The FEMA (Foreign Exchange Management Act) regulates foreign exchange transactions and transactions involving foreign investments, but it is not primarily concerned with controlling trade restrictions.

The correct answer is Chitrakoot.

Key Points

• Chitrakoot means the ‘Hill of many wonders’.
• Chitrakoot falls in the northern Vindhya range of mountains spread over the states of Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh
• Chitrakoot district in Uttar Pradesh was created on 4 September 1998.
• Chitrakoot Parvat Mala includes Kamad Giri, Hanumaan Dhara, Janki Kund, Lakshman Pahari, and Devangana's famous Religious mountains.
• Lord Rama spend a major part of his exile here.
• Gods of Hinduism, (Brahma, Vishnu, and Shiva) took incarnations here.

The correct answer is Singing

Key Points

• Kumar Gandharva (April 8, 1924-January 12, 1992) was a famous Hindustani Classical singer, famous for his unique vocal style, refusal to be bound by the tradition of any Gharana, and his innovative genius.
• He was born in Sulebhavi near Dharwad (Karnataka).
• He was awarded the  Padma Vibhushan award in 1990.

Important Points 

• Khyal, also spelt Khayal or Kayal, in Hindustani Classical music, a musical form based on a Hindi song in two parts that recur between expanding cycles of melodic and rhythmic improvisation.
• In a standard performance, a slow (vilambit) khyal is followed by a shortest, fast (durt) khayal in the same raga (melodic framework).

correct answer is Tennis 

Key Points

Explanation:

• The tournament was originally known as the International Lawn Tennis Challenge.
• It was later known as Davis Cup after Dwight Davis's trophy, which was designed by William Durgin and crafted by Rowland Rhodes.
• The Davis Cup was named after American collegian Dwight Filley Davis.
• He came up with the idea to start a challenging tennis match between the USA and Great Britain.
• It was first played in 1900.

Thus, the Davis cup is related to tennis.

 Additional Information

• The Davis Cup is the premier international team event in men's tennis.
• It is run by the International Tennis Federation and Kosmos Holding and is contested annually between teams from competing countries in a knock-out format.
• The first Devis cup was held at the Longwood Cricket Club in Boston.
• The USA won the match 3-0.

The correct answer is Saline Soils.

 Key Points 

• Saline Soils are also known as Usara soils.
• Saline soils contain a larger proportion of sodium, potassium, and magnesium, and thus, they are infertile and do not support any vegetative growth.
• They have more salts, largely because of the dry climate and poor drainage.
• They occur in arid and semi-arid regions, and in waterlogged and swampy areas. Their structure ranges from sandy to loamy.
• They lack nitrogen and calcium. Saline soils are more widespread in western Gujarat, deltas of the eastern coast, and in Sundarban areas of West Bengal.

The correct answer is Swimmer

Key Points

• Satendra Singh Lohiya
• On September 20, 2022, Para swimmer Satendra Singh Lohia of Madhya Pradesh has become the first para swimmer of Asia to cross the North Channel in Ireland.
• Satendra Singh walked 36 km.
• He crossed the North Channel in 14 hours 39 minutes to set a world record.
• Significantly, on June 24, 2018, international para swimmer Satendra Singh Lohia covered a distance of 49 km in 12 hours and 24 minutes and crossed the long English Channel.
• For this, his name is recorded in the Asian Limca Book of Records.
• On August 18, 2019, in America, he covered a distance of 42 km in 11 hours 34 minutes. Crossed the long Catalina Channel.
• Satendra Singh has won 24 medals for the country by participating in 7 National Para Swimming Championships.
• The Government of Madhya Pradesh honored him with the highest sporting honor Vikram Award in 2014. After this, on 3 December 2019, the Vice President also received the National Award for the Best Disabled Sportsperson. PM Narendra Modi has also honored Satendra Singh Lohia.

The correct answer is Gwalior Fort.

Key Points 

• The Gujari Mahal Archeological Museum, also known as the State Archaeological Museum or the "Gwalior Fort Museum," is a state museum in Gwalior that is housed in the Gujari Mahal citadel.
• Raja Man Singh Tomar built the Gujari Mahal mansion for his wife Mrignayani, a Gujar princess.
• Gwalior Fort was described by Mughal Emperor Babur as ‘the pearl amongst the fortress of Hind”.

Additional Information 

The correct answer is Sports.

Key Points 

• The Duckworth-Lewis (DLS) method used in cricket to calculate the target score match interrupted by weather or other circumstances was created by two Britishers-Frank Duckworth and Tony Lewis.
• The method was formerly known as the Duckworth–Lewis method and it was adopted officially by the ICC in 1999.
• Tony Lewis, one of the men behind the Duckworth-Lewis-Stern method used in weather-affected limited-overs cricket matches passed away in April 2020.

Additional Information 

Various sports and terms related to them are mentioned below:

The correct answer is the Upward sloping demand curve

Key Points

• Veblen good: It is the type of good whose demand increases when price increases due to its exclusive nature and also because it appeals to customers as a symbol of status.
• Giffen good: It is the type of good whose demand increases when the price increases and demand falls when the price decrease.
• Normal good: It is the type of good whose demand increases with an increase in the income of consumers.
• Substitute goods: These are the type of goods whose demand gets increased when the price of another good increases.

The correct anwer is Article 368.

Key Points 

• Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution deals with the power of parliament to amend the constitution and its procedures.
• It states that the Parliament may amend the Constitution by way of addition, variation, or repeal of any provision in accordance with the procedure laid down for the purpose.
• However, the Parliament cannot amend those provisions which form the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution. This was ruled by the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973).

Important Points

• According to Article 343 -
• The official language of the Union will be Hindi and the script Devanagari.
• The form of numerals to be used for official purposes of the Union shall be the international form of Indian numerals.
• According to Article 361, 
• The President, or the Governor or Rajpramukh of a State, shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office or for any act done or purporting to be done by him in the exercise and performance of those powers and duties.
• Under Article 352,
• The President can declare a national emergency when the security of India or a part of it is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion.
• It may be noted that the president can declare a national emergency even before the actual occurrence of war or external aggression or armed rebellion if he is satisfied that there is an imminent danger.
• The President can also issue different proclamations on grounds of war, external aggression, armed rebellion, or imminent danger thereof, whether or not there is a proclamation already issued by him and such proclamation is in operation.
• This provision was added by the 38th Amendment Act of 1975.
• When a national emergency is declared on the ground of ‘war’ or ‘external aggression’, it is known as an ‘External Emergency’.
• On the other hand, when it is declared on the ground of ‘armed rebellion’, it is known as ‘Internal Emergency’.

The correct answer is ICSID

Key Points 

• The World Bank Group consists of five institutions:
• International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD): The IBRD is the oldest institution in the World Bank Group. It provides loans to middle-income and creditworthy low-income countries. India is a member.
• International Development Association (IDA): The IDA is the largest source of concessional financing for the poorest countries. It provides interest-free loans and grants to help countries reduce poverty and promote development. India is a member.
• International Finance Corporation (IFC): The IFC is the largest global development institution focused on the private sector. It provides loans, equity, and technical assistance to help businesses in developing countries grow and create jobs. India is a member.
• Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA): MIGA provides political risk insurance to investors in developing countries. This insurance protects investors against losses caused by political violence, expropriation, and breach of contract. India is a member.
• International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID): ICSID is an international arbitration institution that helps resolve investment disputes between investors and States. India is not a member.

Additional Information

• The World Bank is an international financial institution that provides loans and grants to the governments of low- and middle-income countries for the purpose of pursuing capital projects.
• It was founded in 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference and is headquartered in Washington, D.C.
• With 189 member countries, staff from more than 170 countries, and offices in over 130 locations.
• The World Bank Group is a unique global partnership: five institutions working for sustainable solutions that reduce poverty and build shared prosperity in developing countries.
• Functions of the World Bank:
• ​Lending: The World Bank provides loans to developing countries to finance capital projects, such as infrastructure, education, and health care.
• Technical assistance: The World Bank provides technical assistance to developing countries to help them implement reforms and improve their economic performance.
• Research: The World Bank conducts research on development issues and publishes reports on its findings.
• Advocacy: The World Bank advocates for policies that promote development in developing countries.

​

The Correct Answer is Asha Bhosle.

Key Points 

• Asha Bhosle, the legendary playback singer, has been chosen to receive the prestigious Maharashtra Bhushan Award.
• At a meeting of the award selection committee on March 25, 2021, the decision to bestow the state's highest honour on the 87-year-old singer was made.
• Maharashtra's Chief Minister, Uddhav Thackeray, presided over the meeting.

Important Points 

• Asha Bhosle is a playback singer and entrepreneur from India. Asha Bhosle claimed in 2006 that she had sung over 12,000 songs, a number that has been verified by several other outlets.
• She was officially recognized as the most registered artist in music history by the Guinness Book of World Records in 2011.
• In 2000, the Indian government awarded her the Dadasaheb Phalke Award, and in 2008, the Padma Vibhushan.
• Bhosle is the younger sister of playback singer Lata Mangeshkar and is a member of the Mangeshkar family, which is well-known in Bollywood.

Additional Information 

• The Maharashtra Bhushan Award is the highest and most prestigious award given by the Maharashtra government each year.
• The first recipient of the awards, which were founded in 1996, was Purushottam Laxman Deshpande in Literature.
• The Maharashtra Bhushan was first given out in the fields of art, literature, sport, and science, and later expanded to include journalism, social work, health care, and public administration.

The correct answer is Bhopal.

Key Points 

• The Madhya Pradesh Sahitya Parishad or Sahitya Academy was established in 1954.
• Its headquarters at that time was Nagpur.
• Later, after the establishment of Madhya Pradesh, its headquarters became Bhopal.
• Sahitya Akademi provides grants for publication to the first works of writers from scheduled castes and tribes and young writers of unreserved class.

Additional Information 

• The Madhya Pradesh Sahitya Parishad presents 2 types of awards -
• Literature is written in any of the six dialects of Madhya Pradesh - Bundeli, Bagheli, Malvi, Nimari, Bhili, and Gondi.
• Award is given to various genres of Hindi literature.

The correct answer is 16.

Key Points

Mahajanapadas:

• As the rulers of the Mahajanapadas were building huge forts, maintaining big armies, they needed more resources.
• And they needed officials to collect these. So, instead of depending on occasional gifts brought by people, as in the case of the Raja of the Janapadas, they started collecting regular taxes.
• Taxes on crops were the most important.
• This was because agriculture was the main occupation at that time.
• Usually, the tax was fixed at 1/6th of what was produced.
• This was known as bhaga or a share.
• For example, a weaver or a smith may have had to work for a day every month for the king.
• During the second urbanisation period in ancient India, there were sixteen kingdoms that existed during the sixth to fourth century BCE known as Mahajanapadas.
• The Buddhist text Angutara Nikaya mention 16 Mahajanapadas.

The Correct Answer is 28

Key Points 

• Total number of literates in Madhya Pradesh as per 2011 census is 4,38,27,193 wherein 1,79,79,056 are females and 2,58,48,137 are males.
• In 2011, the literacy rate of Madhya Pradesh is 69.32 percent as compared to 63.7 percent in the year 2001.

 

Important Points 

Literacy rate in Madhya Pradesh

• Female and male literacy rates in 2011 are 60.0 percent and 80.5 percent respectively.
• In 2001, the female literacy rate was 50.3 percent whereas the male literacy rate was 76.1 percent.
• in 2011 the literacy rate is slipped to the 28th position among the Indian states.

 

Additional Information 

• The literacy rate of India in 2011 is 74.0 percent.
• The literacy rate among females is 65.5 percent whereas the literacy rate among males is 82.1 percent.
• In order of higher literacy rates; Kerala, Lakshadweep, and Mizoram states hold first, second and third positions respectively.
• In female literacy, Kerala is the first while Mizoram and Lakshadweep hold second and third positions among all States and Union Territories.

The correct answer is "Monastery'.

Key Points Facts About Saru-Maru caves:

• It is an archaeological site of an ancient monastic complex and Buddhist caves.
• It is located near the Pangoraria, Budhani tehsil, Sehore district.
• The site contains a number of stupas as well as natural caves for monks.
• Buddhist graffiti have been found here(Swastika, Triratna, Kalasa, etc.).
• In the main cave, 2 Ashokan inscriptions have been found.
• A version of Minor rock edict no. 1.
• Another inscription mentions visit of Maharaha Kumara.

The correct answer is 1907.

 Key Points

• Surat split
• The Congress split at Surat took place in the year 1907 in the month of December.
• The Surat split was the splitting of the Indian National Congress into two groups:
• The Extremists
• The Moderates
• The Extremists were led by Lokmanya Tilak, Lajpat Rai and Shri Aurobindo.
• The Moderates were led by Gopal Krishna Gokhale, Pherozeshah Mehta and Surendranath Banerjee.
• The Surat session was presided by Dr. Rash Behari Ghosh.
• 1885-1905 was known as the period of Moderates because they dominated the Indian National Congress.

Additional Information 

• In 1907 the Surat session was held at the bank of the Tapti river in Surat.
• Dr. Rash Behari Ghosh was elected in the session but extremists had an objection to this election.
• Initially the extremists protested against the election but soon they accepted Dr. Rash Behari Ghosh as the president and offered to cooperate.
• But the session was suspended. Congress got split.
• The next session of Congress was held in Madras in 1908 under Dr. Rash Behari Ghosh.
• It was the extremist camp that was facing the Lathis and arrest by the British Government who was now in its comfortable position as Congress was divided.

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points 

• Koodiyattam also spelt as Kutiyattam, Sanskrit drama performed in Kerala, India.
• It has been recognised by UNESCO as a Human Heritage Art.
• It is the oldest existing classical theatre form in the entire world, having originated much before Kathakali and most other theatrical forms. It is considered to be at least 2000 years old.
• Kulasekhara Varma Cheraman Perumal, an ancient King of Kerala was known as the creator of Koodiyattam in the present form.
• Three prominent Koodiyattam artists are Indu G, Aparna Nangiar and Kalamandalam Sindhu.

​

Additional Information 

Correct answer is Raja Gokul Das

Key Points

• Raja Gokul Das
• He was the famous Maheshwari merchant of Jabalpur, who had constructed the main seat of the present-day Madhya Pradesh High Court, in the year 1889 AD.
• While his son Seth Govinddas (1896 - 1974) was a freedom fighter, parliamentarian, and Hindi writer of India.
• Raja Gokuldas better known as Raja Sahib for the people of Jabalpur, as it was known during the British Period, may well be described as the maker of ‘modern Jabalpur.
• Although the contributions made by Raja Sahib have now passed into history this does not make less oblivious for the people of Jabalpur.
• Raja Sahib, the Premier Merchant King of Central Province rendered assistance in the form of large-hearted charities for the benefit of the people of his town, through the British Government and otherwise, whenever he saw the need for it.
• Raja Gokuldas thought ahead of his time, believed in progress, and had a vision of a successful and enterprising businessman.
• He was a successful agriculturist, banker, trader, and industrialist with an estate spanning many districts, thousands of acres of agriculture, various kings, princes, and government as his borrowers, trading shops in every major city of the country and industry of the scale unheard of in those days.
• But success alone was not the charisma that made him so popular, it was his humbleness and humility that made Raja Sahib such a famous and popular person within every segment of the society.

The correct answer is Tapti.

Key Points 

• Burhanpur city is situated on the banks of Tapti river in Madhya Pradesh. 
• The city is surrounded by ramparts equipped with many huge gates.
• This city was reputed as the capital for some time during the period of Mughals.
• The city is dotted with important tombs, mosques and historical monuments from medieval history.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

• The given sentence is in the active voice, with the subject "Human rights commission" performing the action of "insulting". The object of the verb is "our organization".
• The sentence is in Present Perfect tense.
• To convert the active voice into the passive voice, we follow these steps:
• The subject and object are reversed. In the active sentence, the subject is "Human rights commission" and the object is "our organization". In the passive sentence, the subject is "our organization" and the object is "Human rights commission".
• The verb is changed to the past participle. The verb in the active sentence is "insulted". The past participle of "insult" is "insulted".
• The preposition "by" is added before the subject of the active sentence. In the active sentence, the subject is "Human rights commission". In the passive sentence, the subject is "our organization", so we add the preposition "by" before "Human rights commission".
• The correct passive voice sentence is: "Our organization has been insulted for its policies by Human rights commission."
• Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information

• The other options are incorrect for the following reasons:
• Option 1 is in the active voice, not the passive voice.
• Option 2 is also in the active voice, and it incorrectly states that the Human rights commission has been insulted.
• Option 4 is grammatically incorrect. The verb "have" is not used with the past participle in the passive voice.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

• The original sentence is in direct speech. The reporting verb is "said", which is in the simple past tense. This means that the event of the aunt's death happened in the past.
• To convert the direct speech sentence to indirect speech, we follow these steps:
• Remove the quotation marks.
• Change the reporting verb to the past tense. In this case, the reporting verb is "said". The past tense of "said" is "said".
• Change the pronouns to the appropriate person and number. In this case, the pronoun "I" in the direct speech sentence becomes "she" in the indirect speech sentence.
• The given direct speech is in Simple Past tense, so in Indirect speech it will change into Past Perfect tense.
• Change the tense of the verb in the reported clause to the past tense. In this case, the verb "died" in the direct speech sentence becomes "had died" in the indirect speech sentence.
• The correct indirect speech sentence is: "Eliza said that her aunt had died of influenza."
• Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information

• The other options are incorrect for the following reasons:
• Option 1 is in direct speech, not indirect speech.
• Option 2 uses the present tense, which is incorrect because the event of the aunt's death happened in the past.
• Option 4 uses the present tense, which is incorrect because the event of the aunt's death happened in the past.

The correct answer is "although".

Key Points

• Here the two clauses express a contrast, so the most appropriate word to fill in the blank is "although".
• The word "although" is a conjunction that is used to introduce a clause that expresses a contrast or concession. In this case, the clause "although I don't agree with them" expresses a contrast between the speaker's respect for the other person's ideas and their disagreement with those ideas.
• Example: I love to travel, although I'm not very good at packing.
• Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

• Let us look at other options:
• nor - This option would not be appropriate because it does not express a contrast. The word "nor" is used to join two negative clauses.
• Example: I don't have the money, nor do I have the time.
• till - This option would not be appropriate because it is a preposition that means "until". It would not make sense to say "I have the greatest respect for his ideas, till I don't agree with them".
• Example: I'll work on this project till it's finished.
• until - This option would also not be appropriate because it is a preposition that means "up to the time that". It would not make sense to say "I have the greatest respect for his ideas, until I don't agree with them".
• Example: I'll wait here until you get back.​

The correct answer is "uncertain".

Key Points

• The most appropriate word to fill in the blank space is "uncertain".
• Let us look at the meanings of all the words:
• Adore means to love or admire someone or something very much. It is not appropriate in this context because it does not reflect the uncertain situation of the refugees.
• Example: The fans adore their favorite band.
• Eagerly means with great eagerness or enthusiasm. It is not appropriate in this context because it does not reflect the uncertain situation of the refugees.
• Example: The children eagerly awaited the arrival of Santa Claus.
• Amaze means to fill with wonder or surprise. It is not appropriate in this context because it does not reflect the uncertain situation of the refugees.
• Example: The audience was amazed by the magician's tricks.
• Uncertain means not known or decided; having no definite or fixed character. It is the most appropriate option because it accurately reflects the situation of the refugees, who are unsure of their future due to the circumstances that forced them to flee their homes.
• Example: The future of the refugees is uncertain.
• ​From the meanings of all the words, it is clear that the  most appropriate word to fill in the blank space is "uncertain".
• Therefore, option 4 is correct.

The correct answer is "No Improvement".

Key Points

• The phrase "a number of" is used to refer to a group of things that is not specifically named or counted. It is always followed by a plural noun and a plural verb.
• In this sentence, the phrase "a number of" is used to refer to the trials that the speaker and Morrison have completed.
• The other options are not grammatically correct.
• Many of is used to refer to a large number of things that are specifically named or counted. It is always followed by a plural noun and a plural verb. However, in this sentence, the number of trials that the speaker and Morrison have completed is not specifically named or counted.
• Much of is used to refer to a large quantity of something. It is always followed by a singular noun and a singular verb. However, in this sentence, the trials are not a quantity of something. They are a group of things.
• A several of is not grammatically correct. The phrase "a several of" is not a real phrase in English.
• Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information

• Here are the rules for using the phrase "a number of":
• The phrase "a number of" is always followed by a plural noun and a plural verb.
• The phrase "a number of" can be used to refer to a group of things that is not specifically named or counted.
• The phrase "a number of" can be used to refer to a group of things that is large, but not necessarily a specific number.

The correct answer is "remain undecided and unsure".

Key Points

• The idiom "to sit on the fence" means to remain neutral or undecided in a situation. It is often used in a derogatory way to describe someone who lacks the courage to make a decision.
• Example: I'm not sure what to think about the new policy. I'm still sitting on the fence.
• The other options are not as appropriate in this context.
• Option 1, "relax when others are working," is not a common meaning of the idiom "to sit on the fence."
• Option 2, "to sit lazily and not do anything," is a possible meaning of the idiom, but it is not as appropriate in this context because the sentence is specifically talking about people who are undecided.
• Option 4, "build fences and walls for sitting on," is not a meaning of the idiom "to sit on the fence."
• Therefore, the correct answer is option 3).

The correct answer is "with".​

Key Points

• The correct preposition for the blank space is "with".
• The verb "cope" means "to deal with something successfully, despite or in the face of some difficulty." The preposition "with" is used to indicate the thing that is being dealt with. In this case, the thing being dealt with is "trouble."
• Example:  I cope with my problems by talking to my friends.
• The other prepositions in the options are not appropriate in this context.
• The preposition "of" is used to indicate possession or a part of something.
• Example: The book is full of stories of people coping with adversity.
• The preposition "by" is used to indicate the means by which something is done.
• Example: She was able to cope with the stress of the job by exercising regularly.
• The preposition "for" is used to indicate a purpose or a reason.
• Example: I'm grateful for the support of my family and friends as I cope with this difficult time.
• Therefore option 4 is correct.

• The correct answer is "Prepration".

Key Points

• The wrongly spelt word is "Prepration". The correct spelling is "Preparation".
• The word "preparation" means "the act of preparing something or someone for a particular purpose".
• Example: The doctor's preparation for surgery was meticulous.
• Let us look at other options:
• Versatile (adjective): having many different talents or skills.
• Example: The versatile actor can play a wide range of roles.
• Privilege (noun): a special right, advantage, or immunity granted to a particular person or group.
• Example: The privilege of voting is one that should not be taken for granted.
• Righteous (adjective): morally right or justifiable.
• Example: The righteous indignation of the protesters was palpable.

The correct answer is option 2). 

Key Points

• The given sentence is in direct speech.
• The reporting verb is "begged," which is in the past tense. Therefore, the indirect speech will also be in the past tense.
• The verb "tell" in the direct speech is an imperative, which is a command.
• In indirect speech, imperatives are changed to infinitives. Therefore, the verb "tell" in the indirect speech will be "to tell."
• The pronoun "her" in the direct speech refers to the person who is being begged.
• In indirect speech, the pronoun "her" will be replaced with the name of the person who is being begged. In this case, the name of the person who is being begged is not given, so the pronoun "her" will remain unchanged.
• The indirect speech of the sentence is: "She begged her to tell her more about the case."​
• Therefore, option 2 is correct.

The correct answer is "Cortege".

Key Points

• The most appropriate word for a procession of people who are walking or riding in cars to a funeral is "cortege".
• Example: ​The cortege slowly made its way to the cemetery, followed by a long line of cars.
• Let us look at the meanings of other words:
• Epitaph: a brief inscription on a tombstone or other memorial.
• Example: The epitaph on the tombstone read, "Here lies a loving husband and father."
• Mortuary: a place where dead bodies are stored before burial or cremation.
• Example: The body was taken to the mortuary, where it would be prepared for burial.
• Obituary: a notice of a person's death, typically published in a newspaper.
• Example: The obituary in the newspaper described the deceased as a kind and generous person.
• Therefore option 3 is correct.

The correct answer is "Convergance".

Key Points

• The wrongly spelt word is "Convergance". The correct spelling is "Convergence".
• Convergence: the process of coming together or approaching a point.
• Example: The convergence of technology and art is changing the way we live.
• Let us look at the meanings of other words:
• Significance: the importance or meaning of something.
• Example: The significance of the study was not immediately clear.
• Disconnected: not connected or linked.
• Example: The two teams were disconnected from each other by a language barrier.
• Remuneration: payment for work or services.
• Example: The remuneration for the job was not enough to live on.
• Therefore option 2 is correct.

The correct answer is "the same".

Key Points

• "But" used in the sentence denotes that there is a contrast between the two clauses.
• The sentence states that the two volcanoes are formed in the same handful of ways. This means that although volcanoes are different in many ways, they all share some basic similarities.
• The word "the same" would be accurate in this context because "No" is used at the beginning of the sentence.
• The word "dissimilar" is contextually incorrect.
• The word "the differ" is not a grammatically correct word, so it should not be used.
• Therefore option 2 is correct.

Complete sentence: No two volcanoes are the same, but they all form in the same handful of ways.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• The correct order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph is "XZY".
• Here is a table that summarizes the logical order of the sentences:

• Therefore option 2 is correct.

The correct answer is "Naivete".

Key Points

• This is incorrect because the correct spelling is "Naïveté," with the diacritical mark (trema) over the letter "i."
• It is used to indicate the pronunciation of the two vowels separately, and it means innocence or lack of sophistication.
• For Example - Her naïveté led her to believe that everyone she met online was trustworthy and genuine.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Additional Information

• Naïve:  It refers to someone who is innocent, simple, or lacking experience in a particular situation.
• Neophyte: It refers to a beginner or novice in a particular field or activity.
• Novice: It also refers to someone who is new to a skill, job, or activity.

The correct answer is "defend itself".

Key Points

• The sentence contains a grammatical error in the phrase "defend itself."
• The correct phrase should be "defend themselves." This is because the subject of the sentence is "sharks," which is a plural noun. Therefore, the verb "defend" must also be plural.
• The rule for this is that when the subject of a sentence is plural, the verb must also be plural.
• For example, if the subject of the sentence were "dog," the verb would be "defends." However, since the subject is "sharks," the verb must be "defend themselves."
• The other options in the question are grammatically correct.
• The word "menu" is a singular noun, so the verb "are" is correct.
• The word "curiosity" is a singular noun, so the preposition "out of" is correct.
• The word "humans" is a plural noun, but it is the object of the preposition "on," so the verb "are" is still correct.
• Therefore, the answer is option 2.

The correct answer is "did not act sooner".

Key Points

 

• The word "sooner" is an adverb that means "at an earlier time." It is used to modify verbs, adjectives, and other adverbs.
• In this sentence the word "sooner" is modifying the verb "act."
• The word "more" is an adverb that means "to a greater extent." It is often used to modify adjectives and adverbs. However, it cannot be used to modify verbs. Therefore, the phrase "more soon" is grammatically incorrect.
• The correct phrase to use in this sentence is "did not act sooner." This phrase is grammatically correct and it conveys the meaning of the sentence accurately.
• The other options in the question are not grammatically correct.
• The phrase "did not soon acted" is a verb phrase, but it is not grammatically correct.
• The phrase "didn't act more sooner" is also a verb phrase, but it is grammatically incorrect because it uses the adverb "more" to modify the verb "act."
• Therefore, the answer is option 1.

The correct answer is "Rough".

Key Points

• The correct synonym for the word "Coarse" is "Rough".
• Coarse means "having a rough or uneven surface." It can also mean "lacking in refinement or polish."
• Example: The coarse fabric felt scratchy against my skin.
• Rough means "having a rough or uneven surface." It can also mean "rude or unrefined."
• Example: The rough terrain made it difficult to walk.
• Tired means "feeling weary or fatigued."
• Example: I was too tire d to go out tonight.
• Smooth means "having a smooth or even surface."
• Example: The smooth surface of the table made it easy to clean.
• Stiff means "not flexible or pliable."
• Example: The stiff material of the dress made it difficult to move.
• From the meanings of all the words, it is clear that the synonym for the word "Coarse" is "Rough".
• Therefore, option 1 is correct.

The correct answer is "contribute".

Key Points

• The correct word to fill in the blank is "contribute".
• Contribute is a verb that means "to give something to help or support something else."
• Contributing is the present participle of the verb "contribute." It means "the act of giving something to help or support something else."
• Contribution is a noun that means "something that is contributed."
• In the given sentence the word "contribute" is the most appropriate because the relative pronoun 'which' refers to 'greenhouse gases' (plural), necessitating plural verbs 'trap' and 'contribute'.
• The other words in the question are not as appropriate because they do not follow grammatical rules for subject-verb agreement.
• Therefore, the answer to the question is option 3.

The correct answer is "Neglected".

Key Points

• "Turned a deaf ear" means to ignore or disregard something intentionally, especially when someone is not paying attention to requests or appeals.
• For Example - Despite repeated pleas from the residents, the city council turned a deaf ear to their concerns about the deteriorating infrastructure.

Therefore, the correct answer is "option 2".

The correct answer is "Sanjeev told his son that he had often forbidden him not to play cricket outside the school."

Key Points

• Change the reporting verb ("said" in this case) to an appropriate reporting verb for indirect speech ("told" in this case).
• Change the pronouns to match the new subject**. "I" changes to "he," and "you" changes to "him."**
• Change the tense of the reporting verb to the past tense. "Have often forbidden" becomes "had often forbidden."
• Move the reporting verb clause after the reporting verb. In this case, "not to play cricket outside the school" follows "that."

Therefore. the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct answer is "Decline".

Key Points

Let's understand the meanings of the given and the marked words:

• Boost - It means to increase or raise something, typically in a positive way.
• For Example - A successful marketing campaign helped boost sales.
• Decline - To decrease or go down in value, quantity, or quality.
• For Example -  The company's profits began to decline after the economic downturn.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other options:

• Increase: To make something larger in size, quantity, or degree.
• Exclude: To leave out or not include something or someone.
• Memorize: To commit something to memory by learning or repetition.

The correct answer is "Where Pawanji lives nowadays is not known to Neelima."

Key Points

• The given sentence is in Active Voice. As per the question, we have to change it into Passive Voice.
• The structure of the given sentence as follows:
• Subject + does not know + Object. (Active Voice)
• Object + is not known + to + Subject. (Passive Voice)
• 'Neelima' will remain the subject in both active and passive voice but in passive voice it becomes 'to Neelima'.
• The object 'where Pawanji lives nowadays' becomes the subject in the passive voice.
• The phrase 'doesn't know' will be changed into 'is not known'.

​Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The correct answer is "SPRQ".

Key Points

• Sentence S sets the context by introducing the idea that something happens when the birds are alarmed.
• Sentence P provides information about what the birds are doing when they are on the ground.
• Sentence R  follows logically after sentence P, describing what the birds do when alarmed.
• Sentence Q concludes the paragraph by adding a detail about how the birds behave, which is related to their behavior when alarmed.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Complete Paragraph: If you alarm them while feeding on the ground in winter they merely rise up to the nearest tree and it may be observed that they do this in pairs

The correct answer is "Her romantic novel will have been finished by Nimiksha by this time."

Key Points

• This sentence is in Active Voice. We need to convert it to Passive Voice.
• The structure of the given sentence is:
• Subject + will have + past participle (V3) + Object. (Active Voice) This is a sentence in the future perfect tense.
• In the Passive Voice, the structure changes to:
• Object + will have been + past participle (V3) + by + Subject. (Passive Voice)
• 'Nimiksha' is the subject in the active voice sentence but it will become "by Nimiksha" in the passive voice sentence.
• The object of the active sentence, 'her romantic novel', becomes the subject in the passive voice.
• The verb 'will have finished' will be changed into 'will have been finished'.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option3".

The correct answer is "Apperence"

Key Points

• The correct spelling of this word is 'Appearance'.
• 'Appearance' refers to the way that someone or something looks.
• For Example -  The appearance of the garden has improved since you weeded and planted new flowers.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct answer is Sewers

Key Points

Sewer:

A sewer is an underground pipe that carries human waste to a place where it can be treated. There are three types of sewer according to their working:

• Sanitary sewers:  Sanitary sewers carry wastewater from homes and businesses.
• Storm sewers: Storm sewers carry rainwater and melting snow.
• Combined sewers: carry both wastewater and storm runoff water to wastewater plants.

Additional Information

Different Types of Sewers:

• House Sewer:
• A house sewer is a term given to the connection of the horizontal house drainage system to the public sewer.
• Lateral sewer:
• A sewer lateral is an underground pipe that connects a residence or business to the main sewer line.
• Branch Sewer:
• Branch sewers are an integral part of the municipal sewerage system that connects lateral sewer pipes from homes and offices along a street and empties them into the main sewers.
• Outfall Sewer:
• The length of the main or trunk sewer between the connection of the lowest branch and the final point of disposal is known as an outfall sewer and it thus conducts the sewage either to the treatment plant or to the point of final discharge.

Hence, Sewer is not a source of wastewater.

The correct answer is They make up more than half the volume of neural tissue.

Key Points

• Nervous system:
• The nervous system of all animals is composed of highly specialized cells called neurons.
• Neurons can detect, receive and transmit different kinds of stimuli.
• The human nervous system consists of the brain, spinal cord, and nerves.
• Reflex action: 
• It is an extremely quick, automatic, sudden action in response to a stimulus.
• It does not need to be taught. It is an innate characteristic.
• It occurs involuntarily, i.e., without conscious effort or thought. So, it is not controlled by the cerebral hemispheres.
• A stimulus is a change in the environment to which an organism responds. It can be heat, sharp objects, light, etc.
• For example-
• Immediately pulling back of fingers after touching a hot plate.
• Closing of eyes when flashed with a high-intensity light.
• Salivation when hungry.
• The pathway of nerves involved in a reflex action is called reflect arc.

• Receptors present in sense organs are stimulated. Gustatory receptors are one of them.

Additional Information 

• Synapse: It is the gap between two neurons.
• Gustatory receptors: They present on the papillae of the tongue and are used for detecting taste.

Hence**, They make up more than half the volume of neural tissue statement is wrong**

The correct answer is the Dumping of various waste products from industries.

Key Points

• Water pollution
• Water bodies include lakes, rivers, oceans, aquifers, reservoirs, and groundwater.
• It is the contamination of water bodies, usually as a result of human activities.
• Water pollution results when contaminants mix with these water bodies

Additional Information

• Water Pollution from paints:
• All paints, solvents, and adhesives contain chemicals that are harmful to aquatic life in creeks, lakes, and the ocean
• Leaching from paint products happens as water washes down a painted surface or as paint deteriorates, allowing chemicals to bind to runoff waters and find their way into soils, thus leading to soil and plant contamination and potential groundwater pollution.
• Water Pollution from Silt:
• Siltation is water pollution caused by particulate terrestrial clastic material, with a particle size dominated by silt or clay.
• Water Pollution from Detergents:
• Regular laundry detergents are bad for the environment
• Detergents don't completely biodegrade and they contaminate our water supplies, rivers, and oceans with toxic heavy metals like cadmium and arsenic.

correct answer is Iris

Key Points

Explanation:

Iris: A dark muscular tissue and ring-like structure behind the cornea are known as the iris.

• The colour of the iris actually indicates the colour of the eye.
• The iris also helps regulate or adjust exposure by adjusting the iris.
• The iris is divided into two major regions:
• The pupillary zone is the inner region whose edge forms the boundary of the pupil.
• The ciliary zone is the rest of the iris that extends to its origin at the ciliary body.
• Control pupil size is the function of an important part of the human eye, the iris.
• It controls how much light enters the eye by changing the size of the pupil.
• Eye colour is defined by the iris.
• In optical terms, the pupil is the eye's aperture, while the iris is the diaphragm.

Additional Information 

Retina:

• It contains highly specialized nerve cells.
• These convert the light which is focused there into electrical signals.
• These are then passed through the optic nerves to the parts of the brain which process vision and build up the picture that we see.
• It is a light-sensitive layer that consists of numerous nerve cells.
• It converts images formed by the lens into electrical impulses.

Pupil:

• A small opening in the iris is known as a pupil.
• Its size is controlled with the help of the iris.
• It controls the amount of light that enters the eye.
• Lens:
• Behind the pupil, there is a transparent structure called a lens.
• By the action of ciliary muscles, it changes its shape to focus light on the retina.
• It becomes thinner to focus on distant objects and becomes thicker to focus on nearby objects.

Cornea:

• The front transparent part of the sclera is called the cornea.
• Light enters the eye through the cornea.

The correct answer is Terrycot

Key Points

• Terrycots are examples of blended fibers. These are the fibers that are developed by mixing/blending two or more natural or synthetic polymers.
• Terrycot - Terylene + cotton
• Natural Polymers are such that they exist in nature and can be extracted. Examples: silk, wool, etc.
• Synthetic Polymers are mainly human-made polymers, such as Nylon, Polyethylene, etc.

Additional Information

• Terylene
• A polymer is a macromolecular compound composed of repeatedly joined small units.
• Polymers can be classified into two main categories, natural and man-made or synthetic, based on their source.
• Cotton, wool, and rubber are some examples of naturally occurring polymers.
• Nylon, rayon, and Teflon are a few examples of synthetic polymers.
• Polyester
• Polyester is a synthetic fiber derived from coal, air, water, and petroleum.
• Polyester fibers can form very long-chain polymers composed of ester groups that are very stable and strong.
• It is used in the manufacture of many products, including clothing, home furnishings, industrial fabrics, computer and recording tapes, and electrical insulation.
• Polyester has several advantages over traditional fabrics such as cotton.
• It does not absorb moisture, but does absorb oil; this quality makes polyester the perfect fabric for the application of water, soil, and fire-resistant finishes.
• PET
• PET stands for Polyethylene Terephthalate.
• It is a type of plastic that is made from the condensation of terephthalic acid and ethylene glycol.
• PET is the most common type of plastic used for bottles. It is used to make bottles for a variety of products, including water, soda, juice, and cooking oil.
• PET is also used to make food packaging, such as bags, wraps, and containers.

The correct answer is  B. O. D Test

 Key Points

• Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD), is the amount of dissolved oxygen used by microorganisms in the biological process of metabolizing organic matter in water.
• Water pollution by organic wastes is measured in terms of Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD).
• BOD is the amount of dissolved oxygen needed by bacteria in decomposing the organic wastes present in water.
• The higher value of BOD indicates low dissolved oxygen content of water and high water pollution.

Additional Information 

• Methods used in measuring BOD.
• Dilution method
• Manometric method
• Biosensor
• Fluorescent
• Polarographic method
• Software sensor
• Real-time BOD monitoring

The correct answer is 2:3.

Key Points

• The resistance R of a bulb is given by the formula: $R=\frac{V^2}{P}$, where V is the voltage and P is the power.
• For the 40W, 220V bulb: $R_1=\frac{220^2}{40}=\frac{48400}{40}=1210 ohms$
• For the 60W, 220V bulb: $R_2=\frac{220^2}{60}=\frac{48400}{60}=806.67 ohms$
• The ratio od resistances: $\frac{R_1}{R_2}= \frac{1210}{806.67}=\frac{3}{2}$
• Hence, the correct answer: (3) 2:3

Additional Information

• Power rating of a bulb: Indicates the energy consumed per unit time at the rated voltage.
• Resistance and Power Relationship: Higher power bulbs have lower resistance since resistance is inversely proportional to power when voltage is constant.
• Ohm’s Law: The fundamental relation between voltage, current, and resistance is given by the equation $V=IR$.
• Effect of Series and Parallel Connection: In a series circuit, resistance adds up, while in parallel, the total resistance decreases, affecting brightness.
• Practical Application: Higher resistance bulbs (lower wattage) produce more heat and are dimmer in series circuits compared to lower resistance (higher wattage) bulbs.

The correct answer is Different age group have different reproductive capabilities.

Key Points

• The age structure of a population directly influences reproductive rates and overall population growth trends.
• Different age groups have different reproductive capabilities, affecting birth rates and demographic shifts.
• A population with a higher proportion of individuals in reproductive age (15-49 years) will experience higher population growth.
• Populations with a larger proportion of elderly individuals (above 60 years) will have a lower birth rate and may experience population decline.
• This principle is a key factor in demographic transition models, which explain how societies evolve from high birth and death rates to low birth and death rates.

Additional Information

• Demographic Transition Theory: Describes population growth changes in four stages—high birth/death rates (Stage 1), declining death rates (Stage 2), declining birth rates (Stage 3), and population stabilization or decline (Stage 4).
• Age Structure Diagram: A graphical representation of the population's age distribution, used to predict future growth trends.
• Fertility Rate: The average number of children born to a woman during her reproductive years; higher in younger reproductive populations.
• Dependency Ratio: The ratio of non-working age groups (children and elderly) to the working-age population; influences economic growth and social policies.
• Youth Bulge Phenomenon: A situation where a high proportion of the population is young, often leading to increased economic activity or social instability, depending on employment opportunities.

The correct answer is Element.

Key Points

Element

• It is a substance that cannot be further resolved into simpler substances by chemical means.
• It is a substance that is made entirely from one type of atom.
• For example, Hydrogen, Carbon, Gold etc.

Compound

• It is a substance made of more than one type of atom.
• It is a substance made from two or more different elements that have been chemically joined
• For example, H₂O), NaCl, CaCO₃

correct answer is Rectifier

Key Points

Rectifier: It is an electrical device that converts alternating current (AC), to direct current (DC). 

Rectifiers are widely used in electronics systems because most of our equipment runs on direct current (DC), but the supply we get into our households is alternating current.

Diode: It is a two-terminal electronic component that allows current to flow in a single direction. 

Half wave rectifier.

 

Full-wave rectifier.

  

Center tap full-wave rectifier.

correct answer is Athens

Key Points

Waste removal system for the first time in Athens, Greece in 320 BCE. This system involves the following:

1. The practice of throwing waste onto unpaved streets and roadways had been forbidden by the authorities of that time.
2. It was made compulsory that property owners were responsible for cleaning the streets fronting their property.
3. Disposal methods such as open pits were adopted, located just outside the city walls.
4. As the quantum of waste increases due to the population increase, waste is transported farther out from the cities.

The correct answer is Contamination is caused by the entry of germs into drinking water or edible foods.

Key Points

• Contamination of water and food means when water gets unfit for drinking and food to eat because of some impurity.
• Foods that are spoiled or tainted because they either contain microorganisms, such as bacteria or parasites, or toxic substances that make them unfit for consumption.
• A food contaminant can be biological, chemical or physical.

Additional Information

• Water can be contaminated in several ways.
• It can contain microorganisms like bacteria and parasites that get in the water from human or animal faeces.
• It can contain chemicals from industrial waste or from spraying crops.
• Various minerals such as lead or mercury can enter the water supply, sometimes from natural deposits underground, or more often from improper disposal.
• There are many cases of banned pesticides or carcinogens found in foods.
• In India, soft drinks were found contaminated with high levels of pesticides and insecticides, including lindane, DDT, malathion and chlorpyrifos.
• Formaldehyde, a carcinogen, was frequently found in the common Vietnamese dish,
• The 2005 Indonesia food scare, where carcinogenic formaldehyde was found to be added as a preservative to noodles, tofu, salted fish, and meatballs.
• In 2008 Chinese milk scandal, melamine was discovered to have been added to milk and infant formula which caused 54,000 babies to be sent to the hospital. Six babies died because of kidney stones related to the contaminant.

The correct answer is Mn 

Key Points

CONCEPT:

• Ferromagnetic: Materials that exhibit a strong attraction to magnetic fields are ferromagnetic materials.
• They are able to retain their magnetic properties after the external field has been removed.
• These materials have a large, positive susceptibility to an external magnetic field.
• Iron, nickel, and cobalt are examples of ferromagnetic materials.

EXPLANATION:

• Iron, nickel, and cobalt are examples of ferromagnetic materials.
• Platinum is a paramagnetic material.
• So the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information 

• Paramagnetic materials include magnesium, molybdenum, lithium, and tantalum.
• Most elements in the periodic table like copper, silver, and gold, are diamagnetic.

The correct answer is Manganin wire pressure

Key Points

• Manganin wire pressure gauge is a device used for the measurement of high pressure with high accuracy.
• It is based on the principle of electrical resistance.
• Manganin wire is an alloy made up of copper, manganese, and nickel, which has a very low temperature coefficient of resistance.
• This means that its resistance does not change significantly with temperature.
• The wire is connected to an electrical circuit, and a current is passed through it.
• When pressure is applied to the wire, it gets strained, and its resistance changes.
• The change in resistance is directly proportional to the applied pressure, according to the piezoresistive effect.
• Advanatges 
• High accuracy: Manganin wire pressure gauges can provide highly accurate measurements of pressure.
• High sensitivity: Manganin wire has a high sensitivity to pressure, which means that it can detect even small changes in pressure.
• Wide pressure range: Manganin wire pressure gauges can be used to measure pressure over a wide range, from a few millibars to several thousand bar.
• Good stability: Manganin wire pressure gauges have good long-term stability, which means that their accuracy remains constant over time.

The correct answer is Defecating in public

Key Points

• Open defecation is the human practice of defecating outside ("in the open") rather than into a toilet.
• People may choose fields, bushes, forests, ditches, streets, canals, or other open spaces for defecation.
• They do so either because they do not have a toilet readily accessible or due to traditional cultural practices.
• Open defecation can pollute the environment and cause health problems and diseases.
• High levels of open defecation are linked to high child mortality, poor nutrition, poverty, and large disparities between rich and poor.

Additional Information

• The following are some of the key drivers used to fight against open defecation in addition to behaviour change
• Political will
• Sanitation solutions that offer a better value than open defecation
• Stronger public sector local service delivery systems
• Creation of the right incentive structures

Correct answer is Botanical garden

Key Points

• Biodiversity conservation refers to the protection, scientific management, and upliftment of the natural flora and fauna. It involves the conservation of various threatened plant and animal species.
• Biodiversity conservation can be done in two modes i.e. In-Situ and  Ex-Situ

Explanation:

• Ex-Situ Conservation: The mode of conservation includes the protective maintenance of threatened species outside the areas where they naturally occur.
• Examples of Ex-Situ conservation are botanical gardens, zoological gardens, gene banks, etc.
• In-Situ Conservation: The conservation method to protect the entire ecosystem in which the species are protected in their natural habitat.
• Examples of In-Situ conservation are national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, biosphere reserves &Sacred groves.

​

Additional Information 

• There are more than 100 national parks in India covering an area of 40,564.00 km2. Some of the important National parks of India are Ranthambore National Park, Jim Corbett national park, Kaziranga national park
• There are about 553 Wildlife sanctuaries present in India.
• Sacred groves are the patches of protected forest areas that are home to different tribal people. Examples -Khasi and Jaintia Hills in Meghalaya and Aravalli Hills of Rajasthan

Key Points 

• Isotones: These are the atoms of different elements having the same number of neutrons.
• Examples: 146C, 157N
• The number of neutrons in Carbon and Nitrogen is 8.
• Isobars: These are atoms of the elements having the same atomic mass but different atomic numbers.
• Examples: 4018Ar, 4020Ca
• In the case of Ca and Ar atomic mass of both the element is 40.
• Isotopes: These are atoms of the elements having the same atomic number but a different mass number.
• Examples: 126C, 136C
• Both elements have the same no of protons means the same atomic number.
• Isoelectronic: These are the atoms/molecules/ions containing the same number of electrons.
• Examples: N3–, O2–, F–

The correct answer is All

Key Points 

• Chlorofluorocarbons are widely used in Refrigerators, Microwave ovens, Air conditioners, Perfumes.
• Chlorofluorocarbon (CFC), is any of several organic compounds composed of carbon, fluorine, and chlorine.
• When CFCs also contain hydrogen in place of one or more chlorines, they are called hydrochlorofluorocarbons, or HCFCs.
• CFCs are widely used refrigerants.
• They are discharged in lower parts of the atmosphere but however, move upward and reach the stratosphere where UV rays act upon them releasing chlorine atoms that degrade ozone releasing molecular oxygen.
• CFCs added to the stratosphere in this way have permanent and continuing effects on ozone.

The correct answer is 181.5°.

Key Points

• According to Charles's Law, $\frac{V_1}{V_2}=\frac{V_2}{T_2}$
• V₁ = Initial Volume
• V₂ = Final Volume
• T₁ = Initial Temperature in Kelvin
• T₂ = Final Temperature in Kelvin
• V₂ = 1.5V₁
• T₁ = 30°C = (30 + 273) K = 303K
• Using Charles's Law: $\frac{V_1}{303}=\frac{1.5V_1}{T_2}$
• Cancelling V₁: $\frac{1}{303}=\frac{1.5}{T_2}$
• Rearranging for T₂: $T_2=1.5 \times 303 =454.5K$
• Converting back to Celcius: $T_2=454.5-273=181.5°C$
• Hence, the correct answer is 181.5°C.

Additional InformationBoyle’s Law (Pressure-Volume Relationship)

• Statement: At constant temperature, the pressure of a given mass of gas is inversely proportional to its volume.
• Mathematical Form: $P_1V_1=P_2V_2$
• Example: Compressing a syringe without releasing gas increases pressure while decreasing volume.

Charles’s Law (Temperature-Volume Relationship)

• Statement: At constant pressure, the volume of a given mass of gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature (Kelvin).
• Mathematical Form: $\frac{V_1}{T_1}=\frac{V_2}{T_2}$
• Example: A balloon expands when heated because the gas volume increases.

Gay-Lussac’s Law (Pressure-Temperature Relationship)

• Statement: At constant volume, the pressure of a gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature.
• Mathematical Form: $\frac{P_1}{T_1}=\frac{P_2}{T_2}$
• Example: A sealed aerosol can may explode when exposed to heat due to increased pressure.

Avogadro’s Law (Volume-Mole Relationship)

• Statement: At constant temperature and pressure, the volume of a gas is directly proportional to the number of moles of the gas.
• Mathematical Form: $\frac{V_1}{n_1}=\frac{V_2}{n_2}$
• Example: Increasing the amount of gas in a balloon makes it expand.

Combined Gas Law

• Statement: This law combines Boyle’s, Charles’s, and Gay-Lussac’s Laws into a single equation.
• Mathematical Form: $\frac{P_1V_1}{T_1}=\frac{P_2V_2}{T_2}$
• Example: Used in scuba diving and weather balloons where multiple factors (pressure, temperature, volume) change simultaneously.

Ideal Gas Law

• Statement: Describes the relationship between pressure, volume, temperature, and number of moles of an ideal gas.
• Mathematical Form: $PV=nRT$

correct answer is Elasticity

Key Points

CONCEPT:

• Elasticity is the ability of a body that resists the body to distort under any force and try to return to its original shape and size when that force is removed.
• Elasticity for different substances is calculated by different experiments using Stress and strain.

<br>

Plasticity: 

The ability of a body that can not make it to its original shape and size after deformation when force is removed is called plasticity.

• It remains in its deformed position when force is removed.
• Viscosity: The state of being thick, sticky, and semi-fluid inconsistency, due to internal friction is called viscosity.
• Surface tension: The property of the liquid surfaces to shrink into the minimum surface area possible is known as surface tension.

EXPLANATION:

• Viscosity is the property of liquids, not solids. So this can't be the answer.
• Similarly, surface tension is the property of liquids, not solids. So this can't be the answer.
• The plastic property of solids can not make them return to their original shape and size.
• The ability of solids that makes them return to their original shape and size after deformation is called elasticity.

Hence the correct answer is option 3

The correct answer is Forest

Key Points

• Forest is the best example of interaction of biotic and abiotic factors of ecosystem.
• The constant interaction between the biotic (living organisms) and abiotic (non-living components) of the biosphere makes it a dynamic but stable system.
• The biosphere encompasses all living organisms and their interactions with the physical environment, including the atmosphere, hydrosphere, and lithosphere.
• The biotic components of the biosphere, such as plants, animals, and microorganisms, interact with the abiotic components, such as air, water, soil, and minerals.
• While the biosphere is dynamic, meaning it is constantly changing and evolving, it also exhibits stability through various feedback mechanisms and regulatory processes.

The correct answer is Municipality.

Key Points

• The municipality is responsible for waste collection and disposal in urban and rural areas.
• Municipal workers or contracted agencies collect household garbage and transport it to waste processing or landfill sites.
• Waste collection includes biodegradable (wet waste) and non-biodegradable (dry waste), which are often segregated.
• Many municipalities implement door-to-door garbage collection to improve sanitation and hygiene.
• Municipalities follow solid waste management rules, such as the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 (India), for effective waste handling.

Additional Information

• Solid Waste Management (SWM): The process of collecting, treating, and disposing of solid waste generated from households, industries, and commercial establishments.
• Waste Segregation: Dividing waste into categories like biodegradable, non-biodegradable, recyclable, and hazardous waste to improve recycling efficiency.
• Landfills and Waste Treatment: Municipal solid waste is often dumped in sanitary landfills, incinerated, or processed in waste-to-energy plants.
• Swachh Bharat Mission: A government initiative in India aimed at improving sanitation, reducing open dumping, and promoting waste management.
• Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR): A policy requiring manufacturers to take responsibility for waste generated by their products, particularly electronic and plastic waste.

Correct answer is 1997 

Key Points

• The Kyoto Protocol was adopted in Kyoto, Japan, on December 11, 1997 and entered into force on February 16, 2005.
• The Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty which extends the 1992 United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change that commits State Parties to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, based on the scientific consensus that (a) global warming is occurring and (b) it is extremely likely that human-made CO2 emissions have predominantly caused it.
• On August 9, 2017, India ratified the second commitment period of the Kyoto Protocol that commits countries to contain the emission of greenhouse gases, reaffirming its stand on climate action.

The correct answer is A mixture

Key Points

• Air is generally a mixture of different gases and dust particles present in our surroundings.
• Nitrogen and oxygen are two gases that make up most part of the air.
• Carbon dioxide, helium, ozone, argon, and hydrogen are found in lesser quantities.
• Apart from these gases, tiny dust particles are also present in the air.

Important Points

The atmospheric composition of gases by volume is as follows:

Thus, the air is a mixture.

Additional Information 

• Nitrogen:
• Nitrogen is the most plentiful gas in the air.
• When we inhale, we take some amount of nitrogen into our lungs and exhale it.
• But plants need nitrogen for their survival.
• They can not take nitrogen directly from the air.
• Bacteria, that live in the soil and roots of some plants, take nitrogen from the air and change its form so that plants can use it.
• Oxygen:
• Oxygen is the second most plentiful gas in the air.
• Humans and animals take oxygen from the air as they breathe.
• Green plants produce oxygen during photosynthesis.
• In this way, oxygen content in the air remains constant.
• If we cut trees then this balance gets disturbed.
• Carbon Dioxide:
• Carbon dioxide is another important gas.
• Green plants use carbon dioxide to make their food and release oxygen.
• Humans or animals release carbon dioxide.
• The increased volume of carbon dioxide is affecting the earth’s weather and climate.

The correct answer is Bleaching powder.

Key Points

• The chemical formula for bleaching powder is CaOCl2, but the actual composition is quite complex.
• Ca(OH)₂ is the molecular formula for calcium hydroxide. It has a white colour and is formed when calcium oxide dissolves in water.
• Bleaching powder is formed when dry-slaked lime reacts with chlorine.
• During the electrolysis of aqueous sodium chloride, chlorine is produced (brine).
• This chlorine gas is used in the production of bleaching powder.
• Thus, bleaching powder is produced by the action of chlorine on dry-slaked lime.

Additional Information

• Uses of bleaching powder
• Bleaching cotton and linen in the textile industry,
• Bleaching wood pulp in paper mills,
• And bleaching washed clothes in laundries;
• As an oxidising agent in many chemical industries; and disinfecting drinking water.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key PointsKalzium is not an open-source software for libraries.

 Additional Information

• Koha: It is a popular open-source Integrated Library System (ILS) used by libraries worldwide.
• Evergreen: It is another open-source ILS used by libraries, particularly in North America.
• PMB: It is a French open-source ILS used primarily in Europe.

The correct answer is option 3.

 Key Points

• The part of the computer used for calculating and comparing is the Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU).
• The ALU performs arithmetic operations (addition, subtraction, multiplication, division) and logical operations (AND, OR, NOT) on data.
• The ALU is a component of the CPU (Central Processing Unit). • The ALU operates on binary data.

 Additional Information

• Disk unit: The disk unit is used for storage of data and programs. It is not involved in calculating or comparing data.
• Control unit: The control unit is responsible for coordinating and controlling the operations of the CPU. It does not directly perform calculations or comparisons.
• Modem: A modem is a device that enables communication between computers over a network. It is not involved in calculating or comparing data.

The correct answer is option 2.

 Key Points

• The three main forms of computer architecture are:
• 1. Von Neumann architecture, which is the most common architecture used in personal computers.
• 2. Harvard architecture, which is used in embedded systems and digital signal processing.
• 3. Modified Harvard architecture, which is a combination of Von Neumann and Harvard architectures.

  

 Additional Information

• Option 1 (Five) is incorrect as there are only three main forms of computer architecture. It is unclear what the additional two forms would be.
• Option 3 (Two) is incorrect as there are three main forms of computer architecture, not two.
• Option 4 (Four) is incorrect as there are only three main forms of computer architecture. It is unclear what the additional form would be.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points 

• Up to 256 users can open the Excel file at the same time.
• It's important to note that the number of users who can open an Excel file at the same time can vary depending on the version of Excel and the hardware and network capabilities of the computers being used.
• Additionally, it's important to consider the potential impact on performance when many users are accessing the same file simultaneously. This can cause the file to slow down or even crash.

The correct answer option 1.

 Key Points

• Option 1 is the correct answer as it states that none of the given options is a memory device.
• Option 2, Hard Disk, is a type of memory device that is commonly used for storing data on computers.
• Option 3, Magnetic Tape, is also a type of memory device that was popular in the past for storing data but is now mostly replaced by other devices.
• Option 4, Floppy Disk, is another type of memory device that was popular in the past, but is now mostly obsolete

The correct answer is option 2.

Key PointsAudio output refers to the sound produced by a device, such as a speaker or headphones.

Additional Information

• Video output refers to the visual display on a screen or monitor.
• Text output refers to the written or typed words displayed on a screen or printed on paper.
• None of the given options, would be incorrect because the question specifically asks about the type of output for the speaker's voice.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key PointsComplex selectors are not a type of CSS selector used to find HTML elements to style.

 Additional Information

• Simple selectors: Are the most basic type of CSS selector used to select elements based on their tag name, class, or ID.
• Combinator selectors: Are used to select elements based on their relationship to other elements, such as selecting a child element or a sibling element.
• Pseudo-elements selectors: Are used to select and style specific parts of an element, such as the first letter or line of text.

The correct answer is option 3.

 Key Points

• A firewall is a security device that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules.
• It acts as a barrier between an untrusted network (like the internet) and a trusted network (like a company's internal network) to prevent unauthorized access to the trusted network.
• Firewalls can be either hardware or software-based and are an essential component of network security.

 Additional Information

• Hub: It is a network device that connects multiple devices in a network, but it does not provide any security features.
• Router: It is a network device that directs traffic between networks, but it has limited security features compared to a firewall.
• Bridge: It is a network device that connects two network segments, but it also does not provide any security features.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

• Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) is a data encryption program that uses a combination of symmetric key and public-key cryptography.
• PGP is a secure encryption algorithm that can be used for both electronic mails and file encryption.

 Additional Information

• Option 1: It is incorrect as PGP is a well-known encryption algorithm and not an absence of any encryption.
• Option 2: It is partially correct as electronic mails can be encrypted using PGP, but it does not encompass the entire scope of PGP's capabilities.
• Option 3: It is partially correct as file encryption can also be done using PGP, but it does not encompass the entire scope of PGP's capabilities.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

• Instructions have to be fed into the computer in a systematic order to perform a specific task.
• The systematic order of instructions is important because computers follow instructions in a linear fashion.
• The order of instructions is called a program or algorithm.
• A program is a set of instructions that tells the computer what to do.
• The program has to be written in a specific language that the computer can understand, such as Python or Java.

 Additional Information

• Particular task: It is similar to specific task but not as precise.
• All task: It is too broad and not accurate.
• Referral task: It is not a commonly used term in computing and does not make sense in this context.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

• The correct sequence of website designing process is:
• 3. Information Gathering
• 5. Planning
• 2. Design
• 6. Development
• 1. Testing and Delivery
• 4. Maintenance
• Information Gathering involves understanding the purpose, goals, target audience, and content requirements of the website.
• Planning involves creating a sitemap, defining the overall structure, and identifying the technologies and tools required.
• Design involves creating the visual design, layout, and user interface of the website.
• Development involves coding, integrating content, and building the functionality of the website.
• Testing and Delivery involves testing the website for functionality, usability, and compatibility, and delivering it to the client or hosting server.
• Maintenance involves ongoing updates, backups, and security checks to ensure the website remains functional and up to date.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

• "Used for tying things", is not a correct application of twisted pair cables.
• Twisted pair cables are not used for tying things as they are specifically designed for data transmission.

Additional Information

• Twisted pair cables are widely used for data transmission in various applications.
• DSL line uses twisted pair cables to transmit data over a telephone line.
• Broadband also uses twisted pair cables for high-speed internet connectivity.
• ISDN network uses twisted pair cables to connect devices for data transmission.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

• The built-in browser provided with Windows 10, 11, etc. is called "Microsoft Edge."
• Microsoft Edge replaced Internet Explorer as the default browser on Windows operating systems.
• Microsoft Edge offers features such as built-in PDF reader, Cortana integration, and a reading mode for distraction-free reading.
• Microsoft Edge also supports extensions, allowing users to customize their browsing experience.

 Additional Information

• Internet Explorer: It was the default browser on Windows operating systems prior to the release of Microsoft Edge. However, it has been replaced by Microsoft Edge and is no longer the recommended browser.
• Siri: It is a virtual assistant developed by Apple and is not related to the built-in browser provided with Windows operating systems.
• Cortana: It is a virtual assistant developed by Microsoft and is integrated into Microsoft Edge. However, it is not the name of the browser itself.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points File Compression: 

• It reduces a file's size so that it uses less storage space.
• It is important to note that while file compression reduces the size of a file, it can also affect the quality of the content.
• Some compression methods may result in loss of data or lower resolution.
• Benefits of File Compression:
• Reduces the amount of storage space required.
• Makes it easier to transfer files over the internet or other networks.
• Can improve the speed of data transfer.
• Can reduce the cost of storage and backup solutions.
• Limitations of File Compression:
• Some compression methods may result in loss of data or lower resolution.
• The compressed file must be decompressed before it can be used, which can take time and use processing power.
• Compressing and decompressing files can also increase wear and tear on hard drives and other storage media.

Additional Information

• File Synthesizing: It is not a function that reduces a file's size, it is the process of combining multiple files into one.
• File Defragmenting: It is the process of organizing the data on a hard drive to improve performance, but it does not reduce the size of a file.
• File Scanning: It is the process of checking a file for viruses or other malicious software, it does not reduce the size of a file.

The correct answer is option 1.

• The default file extension for all Word documents is ".docx".
• This extension was introduced in Microsoft Office 2007 and is used by all versions of Word since then.
• The ".docx" extension signifies that the file is saved in the Open XML format, which is an open standard for electronic documents.
• The Open XML format allows for better compatibility with other software and easier integration with web-based applications.

 Additional Information

• ".word": It is incorrect as it is not a valid file extension.
• ".txt": It is incorrect as it is the file extension for plain text documents.
• ".pdf": It is incorrect as it is the file extension for documents saved in the PDF format.

The correct answer is Richard Stallman

Key Points

• Richard Stallman founded the Free Software Foundation in 1985.
• The Free Software Foundation (FSF) is a nonprofit organization that promotes the universal freedom to study, distribute, create, and modify computer software.
• Stallman is also known for launching the GNU Project in 1983, which aimed to create a free Unix-like operating system.
• The FSF supports the development of free software and campaigns against proprietary software and software patents.
• Richard Stallman is a prominent advocate for software freedom and has authored several influential works on the subject.

Additional Information

• The Free Software Foundation focuses on promoting computer user freedom and defending the rights of all software users.
• It encourages the use of free software licenses, such as the GNU General Public License (GPL), which ensures that software remains free for all its users.
• The FSF also maintains a directory of free software and provides resources for developers and users to adopt and advocate for free software.
• Richard Stallman's efforts have significantly influenced the open-source and free software movements, leading to widespread adoption of free software principles in various sectors.

The correct answer is option 1.

• HTTP error code 304 denotes "Not Modified" which means that the requested resource has not been modified since the last time it was accessed by the client, and hence can be served from the client's cache without the need for the server to send a new copy of the resource.
• This status code is typically used in response to a conditional GET request, where the client sends a request with an "If Modified".
• Since header to check if the resource has been modified since the last time it was accessed.

Additional Information

• Moved Temporarily (HTTP 302): It is used to indicate that the requested resource has been temporarily moved to a different URL. The client should follow the redirect to the new URL to access the resource.
• Internal Server Error (HTTP 500): It indicates that there was an error on the server while processing the request, and the server was unable to fulfill the request.
• Not Acceptable (HTTP 406): It indicates that the server cannot produce a response that is acceptable to the client according to the headers sent in the request.

The correct answer is option 3.

 Key Points

• Office Vista is not a valid version of MS Office.
• It was a codename for Windows Vista, an operating system released by Microsoft in 2006.

 Additional Information

• Office 2007 is a valid version of MS Office. It was released in 2007 and introduced the ribbon interface.
• Office XP is a valid version of MS Office. It was released in 2001 and introduced features such as smart tags and task panes.
• None of the given options is not a valid answer because it does not provide a specific version of MS Office.

The correct answer is option 3.

• A wireless device connects to a network using radio waves instead of cables.

Additional Information 

• Server: A server is a computer program or a hardware device that provides functionality to other devices or programs in the network.
• Client: A client is a device or a software program that accesses the services or resources provided by a server in the network.
• Wired: Wired devices use physical cables to connect to the network, such as Ethernet cables.

The correct answer is option 3.

 Key PointsFormat Painter is a tool in Microsoft Office applications that allows users to copy formatting from one object and apply it to another object.

This tool is particularly useful when working with large documents or spreadsheets where consistent formatting is important.

 Additional Information

• Style: It refers to a collection of formatting settings that can be saved and applied to text, such as font, size, and color.
• Editing: It does not relate to copying formatting and is not a relevant answer to the question.
• Tabs: It refers to the horizontal spaces used to separate content on a page and does not relate to copying formatting.

Decoding signs:

Given: 54 Z 3 Y 22 X 5 = ?

54 Z 3 Y 22 X 5 = ? ⇒ 54 ÷ 3 + 22 × 5 = ?

⇒ 54 ÷ 3 + 22 × 5 = ?

⇒ 18 + 22 × 5 = ?

⇒ 18 + 110 = ?

⇒ 128 = ?

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) 11-33

(1 - 1) = (3 - 3)

0 = 0 (LHS = RHS)

Option 2) 10 - 87

(1 - 0) = (8 - 7)

1 = 1 (LHS = RHS)

Option 3) 21-32

(2 - 1) = (3 - 2)

1 = 1 (LHS = RHS)

Option 4) 10 - 20

(1 - 0) = (2 - 0)

1 ≠ 2 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Thus, out of all the options, '10 - 20' is the odd one out.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:​

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Given:

The post office is to the east of the school while my house is to the south of the school.

The market is to the north of the post office.

The distance of the market from the post office is equal to the distance of my house from the school.

Thus, market is to the northeast of school.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The diagram/set that indicates the relation between the given classes is shown below: 

Brake pad is a part of car.

Car is a different set from table.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

1. The shaded circle element shift anticlockwise back and forth.

2. First box series → The rectangle element is alternately shaded.

3) Second box series → The rectangle element is alternately shaded and the circle element is alternately added.

Thus, final series is:

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) FL

Option 2) KU

Option 3) JT

Option 4) HP

Thus, out of all the options 'KU' is the odd one out.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Given: Anita, Mahima, Rajan, Lata and Deepti are five cousins. 

1) Anita is twice as old as Mahima. 

Anita > Mahima

2) Rajan is half the age of Mahima.

Anita > Mahima > Rajan

3. Anita is half the age of Deepti and Rajan is twice the age of Lata.

Deepti > Anita > Mahima > Rajan > Lata

Thus, according to the final arrangement, Anita is younger than Deepti.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) SGRFI → No letter is repeated

Option 2) ISEPU → No letter is repeated

Option 3) YNHIA → No letter is repeated

Option 4) FHUJU → Here, 'U' letter is repeated.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer

The logic followed here is:

​

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Given series: 5 9 8 1 3 2 7 4 3 8

According to the question the first and second digits in the sequence are interchanged. Also, the third and fourth digits, the fifth and sixth digits and so on:

Thus, the digit that would be the seventh from the right:

(Left) 9 5 1 8 2 3 4 7 8 3 (Right)

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Decoding signs:

Given: 265 × 5 + 100 - $\frac{50}{7}$ = ?

265 × 5 + 100 - 50 ÷ 7 = ? ⇒ 265 ÷ 5 - 100 + 50 × 7 = ?

⇒ 265 ÷ 5 - 100 + 50 × 7 = ?

⇒ 53 - 100 + 50 × 7 = ?

⇒ 53 + 350 - 100 = ?

⇒ 403 - 100 = ?

⇒ 303 = ?

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Given Word: ACKNOWLEDGE

Option 1) CANDLE → Can be formed

Option 2) WEAKEN → Can be formed

Option 3) AWAKEN → Cannot be formed, as 'A' is repeated here but not in the given word.

Option 4) LOCKED → Can be formed

Hence "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Given:

Ananya goes to the departmental store, which is to the North of her house, 6 km away by an auto.

After the shopping she decides to visit her friend Ayushi, Hence turns to the right and reaches her friend's house which is 8 km away.

From there she visits a shop which is 6 km away, taking a right turn.

Finally, she turns to the right and phones up to the house to send the car. 

Thus, Ananya is 8km far from her house.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

2 × 3 = 12

(2 + 1) × (3 + 1) = 12

3 × 4 = 12

12 = 12 (LHS = RHS)

3 × 4 = 20

(3 + 1) × (4 + 1) = 20

4 × 5 = 20

20 = 20 (LHS = RHS)

And,

4 × 5 = 30

(4 + 1) × (5 + 1) = 30

5 × 6 = 30

30 = 30 (LHS = RHS)

Similarly,

2 × 6 = ?

(2 + 1) × (6 + 1) = ?

3 × 7 = ?

21 = ?

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) WRONG

Option 2) WRONG

Option 3) RIGHT

Option 4) PRUNE

Thus, out of all the options 'RIGHT' is the odd one out.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Given: Family of five members.

1) I is the son of J

2. J is the wife of F

3) F is the grandfather of G

4. G is the daughter of K.

 

Thus, K is I's wife.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

The logic followed here is:

​

​

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Concept Used:

Expenditure = Income - Profit 

Calculation:

Expenditure of Company P in 2013 :

⇒ $\dfrac{ 100-45}{ 100} \times 40.60$ = 22.33 

Expenditure of Company Q in 2015 :

⇒ $\dfrac{ 100-36}{ 100} \times 20.40$  = 13.056

Total Expenditure  22.33 + 13.056 = 35.386 lakhs

Given:

Discount = 12% , Profit = 10% 

Calculation:

Let the cost price of the product be Rs. ‘x’

When discount = 12%, profit = 10%,

⇒ Selling price = x + 10% of x = 1.1x

Marked price – Discount = Selling price

⇒ MP – 12% of MP = 1.1x

⇒ 88% of MP = 1.1x

⇒ Marked price = MP = 1.1x/0.88 = 1.25x

Now,

To earn a profit of 20%,

Selling price = x + 20% of x = 1.2x

⇒ Discount = Marked price – Selling price = 1.25x – 1.2x = 0.05x

Discount percentage = 0.05x/1.25x × 100 = 4%

Hence the correct answer is Option 2.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

I. Some mouses are scanners → Follow (As some scanners are mouses. As some part of scanners is common with mouses, therefore it is true.)

II. No keyboard is a printer → Does not follow (As no printer is a scanner, some scanners are mouses and some mouses are keyboards. As no direct relation is given between printer and keyboard, therefore it is false.)

III. No keyboard is a mouse → Does not follow (As some mouses are keyboards. some part of mouses is common with keyboard, therefore it is false.)

Thus, only conclusion II and III do not follow.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Concept:

The mode is the value that appears most often in a set of data values.

Calculation:

32 occurred 8 times

14 occurred 4 times

59 occurred 12 times

41 occurred 8 times 

28 occurred 10 times

7 occurred 16 times 

34 occurred 15 times

20 occurred 9 times

∴ Mode will be 7

The correct answer is option 1 i.e.7

Given:

Tickets are numbered from 1 to 15 are mixed up and 3 tickets are drawn at random. 

Calculation:

Divisible by 3: 3, 6, 9, 12, 15 So, we have 5 tickets.

Divisible by 4: 4, 8, 12 So, we have 3 tickets.

The total number of tickets divisible by 3 or 4 is =  5 tickets.+  3 tickets. -1 ticket (12 is common in both sets. ) = 7 tickets 

∴ Total outcomes = ¹⁵C₃ = 15! / [3!(15-3)!]

= (15× 14× 13) / (3× 2× 1) = 455 

The number of favourable outcomes is given by the combination formula selecting 3 tickets out of the 7:

= ⁷C₃ =7! / [3!(7-3)!]

 = (7× 6× 5) / (3× 2× 1) = 35

The probability that a ticket drawn at random will be divisible by either 3 or 4 is = $\dfrac{ 35}{ 455}$ = $\dfrac{1}{13}$

The correct answer is option 3 i.e.$\dfrac{1}{13}$

Calculation:

The number of Selected IFS Officers in 2012  and 2015 together :

⇒ 20% + 10% = 30% 

Which is equal to  Selected IFS Officers in 2016 i.e. 30% 

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. 2016

Given: Second hand move 5400º

⇒ For movement of seconds' hand:

1 min = 360º

To get '5400', multiplying both the sides by (15):

1 min × 15 = 360º × 15

15 min = 5400º

So, time taken by second hand to move 5400º is 15 min.

⇒ For minute hand:

1 min = 6º

So, the angle covered by the minute hand in 15 min, multiplying both sides by (15):

1 min × 15 = 6º × 15

15 min = 90º

So, minute hand takes 90º in the same time (15 min) in which the second hand move 5400.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Additional InformationMovement of Hour head

12 hr = 360º

1 hr = 30º

60 min = 30º

1 min = 0.5º

Movement of  Minute head       

1 hr =  360º

60 min = 360º

1 min = 6º   

5 min = 30º     

Movement of Seconds head       

1 min =  360º

60 sec = 360º

1 sec = 6º   

5 sec = 30º

Gapping between hour head and minute head

​55 min = 60 min       

1 min = 60/55

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) HMR

Option 2) EJO

Option 3) FKP

Option 4) GLO

Thus, out of all the options, 'GLO' is the odd one out.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer

Given: 8 persons from A to H sit around a square table such that 2 persons sit in the middle of each of the sides. The persons sitting on one side of the table face the persons sitting exactly opposite to them on the opposite side of table.

1) A sits on the immediate right of E.

2) G faces the one who is second to the left of B.

3. 3 persons sit between A and G. 

4) Two persons sit between F and D (when counted from one side only), who is adjacent to E.

5) A is not adjacent to F.

6) Only one person sits between G and C (when counted from one side only).

After positioning C, only one position is left which will be occupied by the only person left i.e. H.

Thus, according to the final arrangement D sits second to the right of the one who faces E.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

​MPTV: PMWS

Similarly,

KOSU : ?

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Concept Used:

Probability =  the number of favourable outcomes / total number of possible outcomes.

Calculation:

In throwing a dice, there are 6 possible outcomes =  (1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6).

The favorable outcomes for getting an even number = 2, 4, and 6. 

Probability of getting an even number = Number of favorable outcomes / Total outcomes = 3/6 = 1/2

In flipping a coin, there are 2 possible outcomes (Head and Tails).

The favourable outcome for getting a head is 1 (just Head).

Probability of getting a head = Number of favourable outcomes / Total outcomes = 1/2

The probability that dice shows an even number and coin shows a head = (1/2) ×  (1/2) = 1/4.

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. $\frac{1}{4}$

Given:

Sides of Triangle =  5√5 cm, 10 cm and 15 cm.

Concept used:

Area of right-angle triangle = ½ × base × height.

Calculation:

First, we check whether the triangle is a right-angle triangle or not.

Pythagoras theorem,

P2 + B2 = H2

⇒ 102 + (5√5)2 = 152

⇒ 100 + 125 = 225

⇒ 225 = 225

Hence, it is a right-angle triangle.

Area of right-angle triangle = ½ × base × height = ½ × 10 × 5√5 = 25√5

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. 25√5