Official Paper

ICAR Technician 4 March 2022 Shift 1 (Previous Year Paper)

100 questions · 90 minutes · with answers · free

General Knowledge (25 questions)

1

What was the approximate annual population growth rate in Bangladesh in 2020?

  1. ((a))

    4%

  2. ((b))

    3%

  3. ((c))

    1%

  4. ((d))

    2%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1%

The correct answer is 1%.

Key Points

  • The annual population growth rate in Bangladesh is 1.37% in 2020. (Bangladesh Statics 2020 Report)
  • According to UN data, the total population in Bangladesh is estimated at 166.5 million in 2020. It is equivalent to 2.11% of the world population.
  • The population density in Bangladesh is 1265 persons per sq km and the area is 130,170 km2.

Additional Information

  • Bangladesh  (As of June 2022)
  • Capital – Dhaka
  • Currency – Bangladeshi Taka
  • Prime Minister – Sheikh Hasina
  • President – Abdul Hamid
  • Famous places/Tourist sites – Lalbag Fort, **Dhakeshwari Devi (600-year-old Kali Temple located in Dhaka)**​

Important Points 

  • The annual population growth rate in India is 1% in 2020. (According to World Bank)​
2

Which of the following is NOT a main goal of Macroeconomics? 

  1. ((a))

    Individual's purchasing decision 

  2. ((b))

    Low inflation 

  3. ((c))

    Economic growth 

  4. ((d))

    Low unemployment 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Individual's purchasing decision 

The correct answer is an Individual's purchasing decision.

Key Points

  • Macroeconomics is the study of the entire industries, structure, performance, behavior, and economy. (Not only a few companies or individuals)
  • The Goal of Macroeconomics
  • To achieve sustainable economic growth
  • Increasing Productivity
  • Full employment
  • Living standard growth
  • Stability and security
  • Financial, Social, and Ecological Sustainability

Additional Information

  • Microeconomics is a study of individual, household, and business decisions regarding the allocation of resources and the price of goods and services. 
  • These economics characterized the consumer equilibrium, individual income, and saving.

Confusion Points

  • Macro - Big (Like - All companies in a whole sector)
  • Micro - Small (Like - Individual company)
3

Which of the following is a temporary type of poverty based on adverse events such as environmental disaster?

  1. ((a))

    Absolute poverty 

  2. ((b))

    Situational poverty 

  3. ((c))

    Generational poverty 

  4. ((d))

    Relative poverty 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Situational poverty 

The correct answer is Situational poverty.

Key Points

  • Situational Poverty is temporary poverty based on an unfortunate event like an environmental disaster, health problem, job loss, etc.
  • Poverty is a scarcity of food, money, clothing, and shelter and people can’t complete their basic needs.

Additional Information

  • Generational Poverty is handed over a family at least two generations (one generation to the one).
  • Absolute Poverty is also known as extreme or abject poverty which is the scarcity of basic food, health, education, and clean water.
  • In other words, where household income is insufficient to afford the basic necessities of life.
  • Relative Poverty is a living standard compared to the economic standards where household income is a certain percentage below median income.
4

In which of the following years was the Registration of Births and Deaths Act enacted? 

  1. ((a))

    1954

  2. ((b))

    1969

  3. ((c))

    1975

  4. ((d))

    1948

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1969

The correct answer is 1969.

Key Points

  • Registration of Births and Death, Act 1969
  • This law is mandatory to register all human births and deaths at the national level.
  • The Chief Registrar maintains the state-level database. (Appointed by the state)
  • The Registrar General of India (RGI) maintains the National level database. (Under the Ministry of Home Affairs)
  • With the enactment of the Registration of Births and Death Act (RBD Act) in 1969, the registration of births, deaths and stillbirths has become mandatory in India.
  • The Registrar General, India (RGI) at the Central Government level coordinates and unifies the activities of registration throughout the country.
  • The Chief Registrar is mandated to publish a statistical report on the registered births and deaths during the year.
  • However, implementation of the statute is vested with the State Governments.
  • The registration of births and deaths in the country is done by the functionaries appointed by the State Governments.
5

Which of the following is the smallest and the youngest language of the Dravidian group? 

  1. ((a))

    Tamil

  2. ((b))

    Kannada

  3. ((c))

    Malayalam 

  4. ((d))

    Telugu 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Malayalam 

The correct answer is Malayalam.

  • Malayalam is the state language of Kerala and is the smallest and youngest language of the Dravidian family.

Key Points

  • Dravidian Language Group
  • It is prominently spoken in southern India and is completely different from the Indian European languages.
  • It is a more than 2000-year-old language.
  • It is the second-largest group in India and covers 25% of the Indian people.
  • It is made up of Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam, Tulu, Badaga, Kodagu etc.

Additional Information

  • India’s official recognized four main Dravidian languages (Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam)
  • Telugu is the state language of Andhra Pradesh and is the biggest language of the Dravidian group.
  • Tamil is the state language of Tamil Nadu and is the purest and oldest language of the Dravidian family.
  • Kannada (Canarese) is the state language of Karnataka.
6

Which of the following compounds is formed on adding water to quick lime? 

  1. ((a))

    Calcium carbonate 

  2. ((b))

    Calcium sulphate 

  3. ((c))

    Calcium hydroxide 

  4. ((d))

    Calcium bicarbonate 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Calcium hydroxide 

The correct answer is Calcium hydroxide .

Key Points

  • Calcium hydroxide is formed due to the Combination Reaction.

​Combination Reaction :- when two reactants react together to form a single product known as Combination Reaction.

Example :-  Cao + H2O = Ca(OH)2

Additional Information

  • Calcium bicarbonate :- Ca(HCO3)2
  • Calcium carbonate :- CaCO3
  • Calcium sulfate :- CaSO4
  • Calcium hydroxide is an Alkali.
  • All Alkali are Base but all Base are not Alkali.
  • Quick Lime is known as calcium Oxide.
7

Which of the following players became the third cricketer in the world to score 3000 runs in Men's T20 Internationals?

  1. ((a))

    Rishabh Pant

  2. ((b))

    Ravindra Jadega

  3. ((c))

    Rohit Sharma 

  4. ((d))

    Virat Kohli 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Rohit Sharma 

The correct answer is Rohit Sharma.

Key Points

  • Batsman Rohit Sharma completed 3000 T20 International runs and became the third cricketer in the world to achieve this feat.
  • Rohit reached the 3000 run mark in a match against Namibia in ICC men's T20 World Cup at Dubai International Cricket Stadium.
  • Rohit Sharma is the only batsman to score five centuries in a single edition of the ICC World Cup.
  • He achieved this milestone in the 2019 world cup.
  • He scored centuries against South Africa, Pakistan, England Bangladesh and Sri Lanka.
  • He is the only batsman in cricket history who has scored 3 double centuries in one-day international matches.

Rohit Sharma: ICC Ranking & Records of Rohit Sharma, Latest news, Photos &  Videos of Rohit

8

In which type of Microfinance institutions is there no requirement of collateral in group lending?  

  1. ((a))

    Rural cooperatives

  2. ((b))

    Regional Rural Bank

  3. ((c))

    Self Help Group 

  4. ((d))

    Joint Liability Group 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Self Help Group 

The correct answer is Self Help Group.

Key Points

  • Self Help Group:
  • Its aim is to organize the rural poor women into SHGs and continuously nurture and support them to participate in economic activities.
  • SHG is a self-managed institution of 10-20 members based on common interests and the socio-economic improvement of their members.
  • Members make small regular saving contributions over a few months.
  • Until there is enough capital in this group to begin lending.

Additional Information

  • The institutional structure of rural banking today consists of a set of multi-agency institutions:
  • Commercial banks, regional rural banks (RRBs), cooperatives, and land development banks.
  • They are expected to provide adequate credit at cheaper rates.
  • Regional Rural Bank(RRB) is also a type of commercial bank but they have been established for providing concessional credit to agriculture and rural sector.
  • They were formed in 1976 and registered under Regional Rural Bank Act, 1976.
  • Ownership of RRB-
  • Central government – 50%, State government – 15% and commercial bank – 35%.
9

Which player won a Silver medal at the Badminton World Federation World Tour Finals 2021?

  1. ((a))

    Aakarshi Kashyap

  2. ((b))

    Saina Nehwal

  3. ((c))

    Pusarla Venkata Sindhu

  4. ((d))

    Ashmita Chaliha

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Pusarla Venkata Sindhu

The correct answer is Pusarla Venkata Sindhu.

Key Points

  • A Seyoung, a South Korean player, won the Cup in Women's singles.
  • And P V Sindhu settled for the Silver.
  • Viktor Axelsen, a Denmark player, won the world badminton championship in Men’s singles.
  • Badminton World Federation sponsored by HSBC.
  • The BWF 2021 tournament took place in Spain.

Additional Information 

  • The Badminton World Federation (BWF) has confirmed that India has been awarded the hosting rights of the BWF World Championships in 2026.
  • Suzhou, China, will stage the BWF Sudirman Cup Finals in 2023.
  • Suzhou was due to host the championships in 2021, but with BWF unable to stage any tournaments in China in 2021, the event was switched to Vantaa in Finland.
  • The BWF World Championships is the most prestigious tournament in badminton.
  • First held in 1977 and originally hosted every two years, the BWF World Championships has, since 2003, been held every year except the year of the Summer Olympic Games.
  • Meanwhile, the Sudirman Cup is the World Team Championship, held every two years, and one of the most prestigious titles in the sport.
  • The cup is named after Dick Sudirman, a former Indonesian badminton player and the founder of the Badminton Association of Indonesia (PBSI).
10

Who among the following is Space X's first flight surgeon?

  1. ((a))

    Ashok Rajgopal

  2. ((b))

    Devi Shetty

  3. ((c))

    Shiv Kumar Sarin

  4. ((d))

    Anil Menon

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Anil Menon

The correct answer is Anil Menon.

Key Points

  • SpaceX flight surgeon Anil Menon is among the 10 latest trainee astronauts who will join the 2021 class of NASA as it plans for the first human missions to the moon in more than 50 years.
  • He served NASA as the crew flight surgeon for various expeditions on the International Space Station (ISS).
  • Menon is a lieutenant colonel in the US air force and was SpaceX’s first flight surgeon.
  • He served Nasa as the crew flight surgeon for various expeditions on the International Space Station (ISS).
  • Menon started as a Nasa flight surgeon in 2014.

Additional Information

  • Founder and CEO of spaceX is Elon Musk.
  • It was founded in 2002.
  • Its headquarters is in California (USA)
  • The administrator of NASA is Bill Nelson.
  • NASA was established on 1 october 1958.
  • Its headquarters is in Washington D.C (USA)
11

In a terrestrial ecosystem, ________ of the Sun's energy is absorbed by green plants,  when they fall on their leaves.

  1. ((a))

    7%

  2. ((b))

    5%

  3. ((c))

    1%

  4. ((d))

    3%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1%

The correct answer is 1%.

Key Points

  • In a terrestrial ecosystem, 1% of the Sun’s energy is absorbed by green plants that fall on their leaves.
  • Photosynthesis is the process used by green plants and a few organisms that use sunlight, carbon dioxide and water to prepare their food.
  • This process involves the conversion of light energy into chemical energy.
  • Sunlight is the main source of energy for Photosynthesis.

Additional Information

  • The gas which is taken in by plants during photosynthesis - Carbon dioxide
  • The gas which is given out by plants during photosynthesis - Oxygen
  • Rate of photosynthesis is maximum in Red Light
  • Rate of photosynthesis is minimum in Yellow Light
  • The pigment in chloroplasts that give green colour to the plants - Chlorophyll.
  • Magnesium is the only metal present in chlorophyll.
12

Which organisation has collaborated with Oppo's Indian arm to strengthen research and development of the NAVIC messaging service in December 2021?

  1. ((a))

    Defense Research and Development organisation 

  2. ((b))

    Council of Scientific and Industrial Research 

  3. ((c))

    National Innovation Foundation 

  4. ((d))

    Indian Space Research Organisation 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Indian Space Research Organisation 

The correct answer is Indian Space Research Organisation.

Key Points

  • Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has signed an agreement with Oppo’s Indian arm to strengthen the research and development of the NavIC messaging service in Dec 2021.
  • They will exchange technical information on NavIC messaging services to build rapid, end-to-end application-specific solutions.
  • The NavIC system provides regional navigation services covering the Indian mainland and an area up to 1,500 km beyond the Indian mainland.

Additional Information

  • The primary function of the NavIC system is to provide PNT (position, navigation, and timing) services.
  • NavIC is also capable of broadcasting short messages.
  • The messaging service is mainly used for broadcasting safety-of-life alerts in areas with poor or no communication, particularly in the oceans.
  • Oppo India has its manufacturing unit in Noida and R&D centre in Hyderabad.
13

Which of the following are micronutrients required by a human body? 

  1. ((a))

    Minerals

  2. ((b))

    Roughage 

  3. ((c))

    Fats

  4. ((d))

    Proteins

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Minerals

The correct answer is Minerals.

Key Points

  • Humans need energy delivering macronutrients (fat, carbohydrate, protein) and no energy delivering micronutrients.
  • Micronutrients are the groups of nutrients required by our bodies in small amounts.
  • These include vitamins and minerals which are essential for growth and energy.
  • Since our body cannot produce vitamins and minerals, they are taken externally from different food products.

Additional Information

Micronutrients can be divided into the four types:

  • Water-Soluble Vitamins
  • Most vitamins can be dissolved in water.
  • They are difficult to store in the body and get flushed out in urine when consumed in large quantities.
  • Since they are not stored in the body, it is important to take them enough from different food sources.
  • Fat-Soluble Vitamins
  • These vitamins do not dissolve in water.
  • These are stored in the liver and fatty tissues for future use.
  • Vitamins A, D, E, and K are important fat-soluble vitamins.
  • They play a major role in the proper functioning of the immune system, proper bone development, proper vision, and protection of cells from damage.
  • Macrominerals
  • Macrominerals are required in higher amounts as compared to trace minerals.
  • The important macrominerals and their functions include:
  • Calcium - For the proper structure and function of bones.
  • Phosphorus - Cell membrane structure
  • Magnesium - Enzyme reactions
  • Sodium - Fluid balance and maintenance of blood pressure
  • Chloride - Maintains fluid balance and formation of digestive juices.
  • Potassium - Nerve impulse transmission and muscle function.
  • Sulphur - present in all the living tissues
  • Trace Minerals
  • These are required in very small amounts, but perform various important functions in our body.
  • Iron, manganese, copper, zinc, iodine, fluoride, and selenium are some of the important trace minerals required by the body.
14

In which year was the political agreement named Gandhi-Irwin Pact signed by Mahatma Gandhi and Lord Irwin to end the Civil Disobedience Movement in India against the British rule? 

  1. ((a))

    1928

  2. ((b))

    1931

  3. ((c))

    1942

  4. ((d))

    1945

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1931

The correct answer is  1931.

Key Points

  • The Gandhi-Irwin Pact was a political agreement signed by Mahatma Gandhi and Lord Irwin, Viceroy of India, on 5 March 1931.
  • Important features of the pact were:
  • The Indian National Congress (INC) agreed to take part in the Second Round Table Conference.
  • The INC would stop the Civil Disobedience Movement.
  • Removal of the salt tax.
  • Withdrawal of all ordinances that curbed the activities of Congress.
  • Withdrawal of all prosecutions except those involving violent crimes.
  • Release of those who were arrested for taking part in the civil disobedience movement.

Important Points

  • Civil Disobedience Movement
  • The Civil Disobedience Movement was started by Gandhi on 12th March 1930 with his famous Dandi March.
  • Together with 78 chosen followers, Gandhi walked nearly 375 km from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi, a village on the Gujarat sea coast.
  • On the morning of 6th April 1930, Gandhiji broke the salt law by making salt. Thousands of people followed suit.
  • This movement resulted in Gandhi-Irwin Pact on 5 March 1931.
  • Indians were allowed to make salt for domestic use.
  • Gandhiji attended the Second Round Table Conference in London as an ‘equal’.

Additional Information

  • Quit India Movement
  • Also known as the August Movement or August Kranti.
  • The Quit India Resolution was passed by the Congress Working Committee on 8 August 1942 in Bombay. Gandhiji was named the movement’s leader.
  • The Movement demanded an immediate end to British rule over India.
  • Gandhiji gave the slogan to the people – ‘Do or die’.
15

Atal Pension Yojna dominates social security schemes with ________ NPS (National Pension System) subscriber base in September 2021.

  1. ((a))

    45%

  2. ((b))

    66%

  3. ((c))

    85%

  4. ((d))

    53%

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

66%

The correct answer is 66%.

Key Points

  • Atal Pension Yojana has emerged as the most popular social security scheme under the National Pension System in September 2021.
  • It has over 2.8 crore subscribers, mainly from the non-metro centres.
  • Out of 4.2 crore National Pension System (NPS) subscribers, over 66 per cent or 2.8 crores opted for the APY at the end of 2020-21.

Additional Information

  • The Atal Pension Yojana was launched by the Government of India in May 2015.
  • This scheme is open to all citizens who are in the age group of 18-40 years.
  • Under the scheme, a subscriber would receive a guaranteed pension of Rs 1000 to Rs 5000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years, depending upon his contributions.
  • After the death of the subscribers, the same pension amount would be paid to his or her spouse.
  • On the demise of both subscriber and spouse, the accumulated pension wealth of the subscriber would be returned to the nominee.
16

Who among the following is a recipient of Abhinandan Saroja National Award 2021 conferred by the National Institute of Indian Classical Dance? 

  1. ((a))

    Swati Daithankar

  2. ((b))

    Amala Akkineni

  3. ((c))

    Sukanya Mahadevan 

  4. ((d))

    Aparna Satheesan

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Aparna Satheesan

The correct answer is Aparna Satheesan.

Key Points

  • Aparna Satheesan is a Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam dancer, choreographer and teacher.
  • She is well known globally for her ability to use creativity in presenting innovative ideas through multiple classical dance forms of India.
  • She was awarded the Abhinandan Saroja award for her contribution to classical dance in November 2021.
  • The selection panel of judges included very famous dancers like Dr Swati Daithankar, Sri. Narendra Kumar, Smt. Sukanya Mahadevan and Smt. Aparna Ramesh.

Additional Information

  • Abhinandan Saroja award
  • It is a national award given to eminent dancers for their choreography, performance and contribution to preserving the traditional classical dance forms of India.
  • It is presented by the National Institute of Indian Classical Dance.
  • This award was started on the birthday of Saroja Vaidyanathan.
  • Amala Akkineni is an actor and animal rights activist.
  • Swati Daithanka
  • She has been associated with Bharatanatyam for two decades.
  • Since the early 1990s, she has been giving solo performances throughout the country and as well as abroad.

Important Points

  • Some famous classical dancers
BharathanatyamRukmini Devi Arundale,Tanjore Balasaraswati
KuchipudiVempati China Satyam, Yamini Krishnamurthy
MohiniyattamKalamandalam Kalyanikutty Amma,Mrinalini Sarabhai
KathakPandit Birju Maharaj, Shovana Narayan, Lachu Maharaj
ManipuriGuru Bipin Singh
OdissiKelucharan Mohapatra
17

What is the approximate width of the outer-most range of the Himalayas?

  1. ((a))

    2 km to 8 km

  2. ((b))

    5 km to 9 km

  3. ((c))

    65 km to 80 km

  4. ((d))

    10 km to 50 km

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

10 km to 50 km

The answer is 10 km to 50 km.

Key Points

  • The Himalayas consists of three parallel ranges in their longitudinal extent.
  • The outermost ranges are called Shiwaliks
  • The width of this range varies from 10 to 50 Km.

Additional Information

  • The Himalayas lie along the stretch over the northern borders of India.
  • These ranges run in a west-east direction from the Indus to the Brahmaputra.
  • The Himalayas consists of three parallel ranges in their longitudinal extent
Inner Himalayas/ HimadriLesser Himalayas/HimachalOuter Himalayas/ Shiwaliks
Avg height of 6000 metresAvg height of 3700-4500 metresAvg height of 900-1100 metres
About 25 Km (much of the part is in Nepal, and Tibet)Avg width of 50 KmAvg width of 10-50 Km
The core of the mountains is Granite
Perennially snow covered
Home to glaciers
Highly compressed and altered rocksSediments brought by rivers
Valleys with thick gravel and alluvial
The world highest peaks Mt Everest and K2 are located hereFamous Kashmir valley and hill stations Mussoorie, and Nainital are located hereLongitudinal valleys called Duns are located here. ex:Dehradun, Kotli Dun, Patlidun
18

In which of the following battles did Sher Khan defeat Humayun in 1540?

  1. ((a))

    Battle of Ahemednagar

  2. ((b))

    Battle of Chausa

  3. ((c))

    Battle of Kannauj

  4. ((d))

    Battle of Chanderi

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Battle of Kannauj

The correct answer is Battle of Kannauj.

Key Points

  • Battle of Kannauj (1540)
  • It was a decisive battle in the history of India as that led to the reign of Sher Shah.
  • In this battle Sher Shah defeated Humayun and took over the reins of the empire.
  • It is the second battle between them after the Battle of Chausa.

Additional Information

  • Battle of Chausa (1539)
  • It is the first battle between Sher Shah  Suri and Humayun.
  • Though Shershah dominated the war the result was not a decisive one, as Humayun escaped the plot.
  • Battle of Chanderi (1528)
  • It was fought between Babur and Medini Rai, a Rajput ruler from Malwa.
  • After defeating Rana Sanga in the Battle of Khanwa, he laid siege to the Chanderi fort.
  • This is a big blow to the power of Rajputs in the North India.
  • It further established the Mughal rule.
  • Battle of Ahmednagar
  • It is a part of the Second Anglo-Maratha War that took place in 1803.
  • It was fought between Maratha confederacy and British forces.
  • The British had won the war and it helped them expand their presence beyond River Godavari.
19

What is the rank of India in the Global Hunger Index 2021, as per the report prepared by the Irish aid agency Concern Worldwide and German organisation Welthungerhilfe? 

  1. ((a))

    101st

  2. ((b))

    102nd

  3. ((c))

    100th

  4. ((d))

    103rd

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

101st

The correct answer is 101st.

Key Points

  • A total of 116 countries participate in the Global Hunger Index.
  • India's rank is 101st on Global Hunger Index and got 27.5 out of 100.
  • Global Hunger Index is measured on a 0 to 100 scale.
  • 0 means zero hunger and 100 means the extremely worst situation.

Additional Information

  • There are four types of indicators to measure the Global Hunger Index:-
  • 1 Undernourishment
  • 2 Child Stunting
  • 3 Child Wasting
  • 4 Child Mortality
  • India's neighbouring rank in Global Hunger Index:-
  • Pakistan - 92
  • Bangladesh - 76
  • Nepal - 76
20

Which of the following states has implemented the Karbi Langpi Hydro Electric Project? 

  1. ((a))

    Assam

  2. ((b))

    Meghalaya

  3. ((c))

    Arunachal Pradesh 

  4. ((d))

    Mizoram

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Assam

The correct answer is Assam.

Key Points

  • The First Hydro Electric Power plant was established in 1898 at Darjeeling (West Bengal).
  • It comes under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
  • Present Minister of New and Renewable Energy is Raj Kumar Singh.

Additional Information

  • Assam (June 2022)
  • Present Chief Minister - Hemanta Vishwa Sharma
  • Present Governor - Shri Gulab Chand Kataria
  • Lok Sabha seats - 14
  • Rajya Sabha seats - 7
21

Which of the following Greek letter commonly used in physics represents the wavelength of a sound wave?

  1. ((a))

    Rho

  2. ((b))

    Lambda

  3. ((c))

    Sigma

  4. ((d))

    Omega

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Lambda

The correct answer is Lambda.

Key Points

  • Sound is a Mechanical Wave.
  • Sound is a vibration that propagates through the medium.
  • It can travel through solid, liquid and gas.
  • Sound waves travel faster in solid, slower in liquid and gas respectively.
  • Wavelength of sound is the distance between the successive compression and rarefaction.
  • Wavelength of sound = Velocity of sound / Frequency of sound
  • Frequency of sound is equal to the inverse of time
22

How many athletes did the Olympics India induct in Target Olympic Podium Scheme for 2024, as on 16 December 2021?

  1. ((a))

    137

  2. ((b))

    148

  3. ((c))

    126

  4. ((d))

    105

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

148

The correct answer is 148.

Key Points

  • ​For this scheme the Ministry of Youth affairs and Sports is responsible.
  • Present Minister of Youth affairs and Sports is Anurag Thakur.
  • This scheme was started in 2014.
  • Under the Target Olympic Podium Scheme there are seven Olympic disciplines and six Paralympic disciplines have been identified for support.

Additional Information

  • First Olympic games were started in 1896 at Athens (Egypt)
  • Headquarter of International Olympic Committee is in Lausanne (Switzerland)
  • The President of the IOC is Thomas Bach.
  • Summer Olympic Games hosted by France in 2024.
23

What are the assembly halls that the Buddhists monks use to pray known as? 

  1. ((a))

    Stupas

  2. ((b))

    Chapels

  3. ((c))

    Chaityas

  4. ((d))

    Viharas

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Chaityas

The correct answer is Chaityas.

Key Points

  • Chaitya is a place of worship, while Vihara is the dwelling place of the monks.
  • Both early Chaityas and Viharas were made from woods and later stone-cut Chaityas and Viharas were made.
  • Chaitya was a rectangular prayer hall with a stupa placed in the centre, the purpose was prayer.
  • The Chaitya was divided into three parts and had an apsidal ending, that is, a semicircular rear end.
  • The central part of the hall (also called the nave) was separated from the two aisles by two rows of pillars.
  • The chaityas also had polished interior walls, semicircular roofs and horse-shoe shaped windows called the Chaitya windows.
  • Viharas were the residences of the monks.

Additional Information

  • Tenets of Buddhism
  • Buddha asked his followers to avoid the two extremes of indulgence in worldly pleasure and the practice of strict abstinence and asceticism.
  • He ascribed instead the 'Madhyam Marg' or the middle path which was to be followed.
  • According to him, everyone was responsible for their own happiness in life, stressing the individualistic component of Buddhism.
  • The main teachings of Buddhism are encapsulated in the basic concept of four noble truths or ariya-sachchani and eightfold path or astangika marg.
  • Four noble truths:
  • Suffering (dukkha) is the essence of the world.
  • Every suffering has a cause – Samudya.
  • Suffering could be extinguished – Nirodha.
  • It can be achieved by following the Atthanga Magga (Eight Fold Path).
24

The motif of which animal was NOT seen on the seals discovered from Harappan period? 

  1. ((a))

    Buffalo 

  2. ((b))

    Horse

  3. ((c))

    Goat 

  4. ((d))

    Elephant 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Horse

The correct answer is Horse.

Key Points

  • Cow, camel, horse, and lion were not depicted on seals.
  • Bull was the animal most commonly represented on the seals.
  • In fact, Horse was an animal that was unknown to the Harappan Civilization.
  • Domestication of animals was an important phenomenon that can be seen in the Harrapan civilization.

Additional Information

  • Indus Valley civilization is also known as the Harrapan civilization.
  • It produced a lot of artifacts and art forms.
  • Thousands of seals have been discovered by archaeologists from the Harappan sites.
  • Most of the seals were made of steatite, which is a kind of soft stone.
  • A few of them were also made of terracotta, gold, agate, chert, ivory, and faience.
  • The standard Harappan seal was square in shape with a 2 x 2 dimension.
  • It is believed that the seals were used for commercial purposes.
  • All the seals have pictures of animals with something written in a pictographic script (which is yet to be deciphered). Chiefly, the animals represented are tigers, elephants, bulls, bison, goats, etc.
  • The script was boustrophedon, which is written from right to left on one line and then from left to right in the next line.
  • The most famous seal is the Pashupati Seal of the Harappan civilization from Mohenjo Daro. It is a seal with a figure seated cross-legged in the center with animals around; an elephant and a tiger to the right of the figure and a rhino and a buffalo to its left.
25

Who among the following suggested the British officials that widows could remarry resulting in the passing of a law for the same in 1856?

  1. ((a))

    Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

  2. ((b))

    Raja Ram Mohan Roy

  3. ((c))

    Swami Vivekananda 

  4. ((d))

    Swami Dayanand Saraswati

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

The correct answer is Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar.

Key Points

  • Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar 
  • Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was an Indian educator and social reformer of the nineteenth century.
  • He is considered the "Father of Bengali prose".
  • He was the most prominent campaigner for Hindu widow remarriage.
  • His efforts came to fruition when Lord Dalhousie personally finalised the bill and the Hindu Widows' Remarriage Act, 1856 was passed. (Passed by Lord Canning)

    

Additional Information

  • Raja Ram Mohan Roy
  • Raja Ram Mohan Roy was one of the founders of the Brahmo Sabha (1828), the precursor of the Brahmo Samaj, a social-religious reform movement in the Indian subcontinent.
  • In 1814, Raja Ram Mohan Roy formed Atmiya Sabha. Atmiya Sabha tried to initiate social and religious reforms in society.
  • He was given the title of Raja by Akbar II, the Mughal emperor.
  • He is known for his efforts to abolish the practices of sati and child marriage.
  • He is considered the “Father of Bengal Renaissance” by many historians.
  • Swami Vivekananda
  • Swami Vivekananda was born on 12th January 1863.
  • His birthday is celebrated as national youth day in India.
  • Narendranath Datta is the original name of Swami Vivekananda.
  • He founded the Ramakrishna Mission in 1897.
  • The headquarters of Ramakrishna Mission is located at Belur Math in West Bengal.
  • Swami Vivekananda attended the Parliament of Religions held in Chicago on 11th September 1893.
  • He is considered the patriotic saint of India.
  • “Go back to Gita” is a famous slogan raised by Swami Vivekananda.
  • He died on 4th July 1902 at the age of 39.
  • Swami Dayanand Saraswati
  • Swami Dayanand Saraswati founded the Arya Samaj in 1875.
  • He gave the slogan “Go back to Vedas”.
  • He translated the Vedas and wrote three books: Satyartha Prakash, Veda Bhasya Bhumika and Veda Bhasya.
  • Dayananda Anglo Vedic (D.A.V) schools were established **based on his philosophy and teachings.**​

Mathematics (25 questions)

26

Let ΔABC ~ ΔQPR and ar(ΔABC)ar(ΔPQR)=4916\frac{ar (\Delta ABC)}{ar( \Delta PQR)} = \frac{49}{16}. If QP = 12 cm, PR = 6 cm and AC = 9 cm, then AB(in cm) is equal to:

  1. ((a))

    15

  2. ((b))

    21

  3. ((c))

    18

  4. ((d))

    24

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

21

Given:

Δ ABC ∼ Δ QPR, ar(ΔABC)ar(ΔPQR)=4916\rm \frac{ar(Δ ABC)}{ar(Δ PQR)}=\frac{49}{16},

QP = 12 cm, PR = 6 cm and AC = 9 cm

Concept used:

Δ ABC ∼ Δ QPR ⇒ Ratio of respective areas = Ratio of square of respective sides

that is, ar(ΔABC)ar(ΔPQR)=AB2PQ2=BC2QR2=AC2PR2\rm \frac{ar(Δ ABC)}{ar(Δ PQR)}=\frac{AB^2}{PQ^2}=\frac{BC^2}{QR^2}=\frac{AC^2}{PR^2}

Calculation:

⇒ 49/16 = (AB)2/PQ2

⇒ AB2 = 122 × 49/16

⇒ AB2 = 32 × 49

⇒ AB = 21 cm

∴ AB(in cm) is equal to 21 cm.

27

The given bar graph represents data of the production of paper (in ten lakh tonnes) by three different companies X, Y and Z during the years 2008 to 2012. The x-axis shows the 'years' and the y-axis represents the 'production of paper (ten lakh tonnes)'.

(Note: The data shown is only for mathematical exercise. They do not represent actual figures.) 

The total production of Company Y during 2008 and 2009 and Company X for 2011 and 2012 taken together is p% (p is correct to the nearest integer) more than the total production of Company Z during 2010, 2011 and 2012. The total production of Company Z during 2008 and 2009 taken together is q% (q is correct to the nearest integer) less than the total production of Company X during 2008, 2009 and 2012 and Company Y during 2010 and 2011 all together. 

What is the positive difference between p and q ?

  1. ((a))

    19

  2. ((b))

    29

  3. ((c))

    21

  4. ((d))

    31

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

29

Production of company Y during 2008 and 2009 = 35 + 45

⇒ 80

Company X production for 2011 and 2012 = 60 + 50

⇒ 110

Total production of company Y and X = 80 + 110

⇒ 190

Total production of company Z, 2010, 2011, and 2012 = 55 + 45 + 45

⇒ 145

Total production of company Y during 2008 and 2009 and company X production for 2011 and 2012 is more than the total production of company z, in 2010, 2011 and 2012 = 190 - 145

⇒ 45

Required percentage(value of p%) = (45/145) × 100

⇒ 31%

⇒ value of p = 31

Company Z Production during 2008 and 2009 = 45 + 50

⇒ 95

company X.production, 2008, 2009 and 2012 = 40 + 55 + 50

⇒ 145

Company Y production, 2010 and 2011 = 45 + 50

⇒ 95

Company Z production during 2008 and 2009 is less than the total production of company X production 2008, 2009 and 2012 and company Y production in 2010 and 2011 = (145 + 95) - 95

⇒ 240 - 95

⇒ 145

Required percentage(value of q%) = (145/240) × 100

⇒ 60%

⇒ value of q = 60

required difference = 60 - 31

⇒ 29

∴ Positive difference between p and q is 29.

28

If a = sum of the first 20 terms of 14×5+15×6+16×7+....\frac{1}{4 \times 5} + \frac{1}{5 \times 6} + \frac{1}{6 \times 7}+ ....and b = sum of the first 22 terms of 13×4+14×5+15×6+16×7+....\frac{1}{3 \times 4} + \frac{1}{4 \times 5} + \frac{1}{5 \times 6}+ \frac{1}{6 \times 7}+ ...., then the value of (ab)-1 is

  1. ((a))

    2231122 \frac{3}{11}

  2. ((b))

    1941119 \frac{4}{11}

  3. ((c))

    2531125 \frac{3}{11}

  4. ((d))

    1641116 \frac{4}{11}

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1641116 \frac{4}{11}

Given:

a = sum of the first 20 terms of 14×5+15×6+16×7+....\frac{1}{4 × 5} + \frac{1}{5 × 6} + \frac{1}{6 × 7}+ ....

 b = sum of the first 22 terms of 13×4+14×5+15×6+16×7+....\frac{1}{3 × 4} + \frac{1}{4 × 5} + \frac{1}{5 × 6}+ \frac{1}{6 × 7}+ ....

Concept used:

xn = x1 + (n - 1) × d

Where xn = nth term

n = No. of term

x1 = 1st term

d = common difference

Calculation:

For the 1st series 

a20 = 4 + (20 - 1) × 1

⇒ a20 = 4 + 19

⇒ a20 = 23

The last term will be 123×24,\frac{1}{{23×24 }},

Consider the first term only, i.e. 14×3,\frac{1}{{4×3 }},

We can write it as 1314\frac{1}{{3}} -\frac{1}{4}

After doing a similar operation in other terms, we will get

a = 1415+1516.........+123124\frac{1}{{4 }} -\frac{1}{5}+\frac{1}{5}-\frac{1}{6}.........+\frac{1}{23} - \frac{1}{24}

⇒ a = 14124\frac{1}{{4 }} -\frac{1}{24}

⇒ a = 6;;124\frac{6;-;1}{24}

⇒ a = 524\frac{5}{24}

Again

b22 = 3 + (22 - 1) × 1

⇒ b22 = 3 + 21

⇒ b22 = 24

The last term will be 124×25,\frac{1}{{24×25 }},

Consider the first term only, i.e. 14×5,\frac{1}{{4×5 }},

We can write it as 1415\frac{1}{{4 }} -\frac{1}{5}

After doing a similar operation in other terms, we will get

⇒ b = 1314+1415.........+124125\frac{1}{{3}} -\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{4}-\frac{1}{5}.........+\frac{1}{24} - \frac{1}{25}

⇒ b = 13125\frac{1}{{3 }} -\frac{1}{25}

⇒ b = 25;;375\frac{25;-;3}{75}

⇒ b = 2275\frac{22}{75}

Now,

(ab)-1 = 1/(ab)

⇒ (ab)-1 = 1/(524\frac{5}{24} × 2275\frac{22}{75})

⇒ (ab)-1 = 1/(11180\frac{11}{180})

⇒ (ab)-1 = 18011\frac{180}{11}

⇒ (ab)-1 = 1641116 \frac{4}{11}

∴ Required value of (ab)-1 is 1641116 \frac{4}{11}.

29

A can do a certain work in 30 days. B is 25% less efficient than A and C is 60% more efficient than B. B and C work together for 10 days. A alone will complete the remaining work in:

  1. ((a))

    9129 \frac{1}{2} days

  2. ((b))

    101210 \frac{1}{2} days

  3. ((c))

    10 days

  4. ((d))

    9 days

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

101210 \frac{1}{2} days

Given:

Time taken by A = 30 days 

Efficiency of B = 25% less efficient than A

Efficiency of C = 60% more efficient than B

Formula used:

Total Work = Efficiency × Time taken 

Calculation:

Let the efficiency of A be = 100 

⇒ Efficiency of B will be = 100(100 - 25)/100 = 75

⇒ Efficiency of C will be = 75 × (100 + 60)/100 = 120 

Ratio of their efficiencies of A, B and C is 100 : 75 : 120 respectively. 

⇒ A : B : C = 20 : 15 : 24 

Total Work = 20 × 30 = 600 units 

Work done by B and C in 10 days = (15 + 24) × 10 = 390

⇒ Remaining work = 600 - 390 = 210 units 

A did the remaining work in

⇒ 210/20

⇒ 101210 \frac{1}{2} days

∴ The required result is 101210 \frac{1}{2} days.

30

In a factory there are three types of Machines M1,M2 and M3 which produce 25%, 35% and 40% of the total products, respectively. M1,M2 and M3 produce 3%, 4% and 5% defective products, respectively. What is the percentage of non -defective products?

  1. ((a))

    95.85%

  2. ((b))

    98.55%

  3. ((c))

    89.55%

  4. ((d))

    85.95%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

95.85%

Given:

Production of machine M1, M2 and M3 = 25%, 35% and 40%

Defective products by machine M1, M2 and M3 = 3%, 4% and 5%

Calculation:

Let the total production is 100 units

Production by machine M1 = 25% of 100 = 25

Production by machine M2 = 35% of 100 = 35

Production by machine M3 = 40% of 100 = 40

Now,

Non- defective product by machine M1 = 97% of 25 = 24.25   ---(1)

Non defective product by machine M2 = 96% of 35 = 33.6      --- (2)

Non defective product by machine M3 = 95% of 40 = 38        --- (3)

Adding 1, 2 and 3

24.25% + 33.6% + 38%

⇒ 95.85%

∴ The percentage of non -defective products is 95.85%.

31

In 2020, the ratio of the incomes of A and B is 5 ∶ 7.  A and B save Rs. 4,000 and Rs. 5,000, respectively, and the expenditure of A is equal to 6623%66 \frac{2}{3} \% of the expenditure of B. If in 2021, the income of A increases by 27% and the income of B decreases by 11%, then the total income of A and B (in Rs.) in 2021 is:

  1. ((a))

    21,560

  2. ((b))

    26,150

  3. ((c))

    25,160

  4. ((d))

    21,650

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

25,160

Given:

The ratio of income of A and B = 5 ∶ 7

Saving of A and B = Rs. 4000 and Rs. 5000

Expenditure of A = 6622322\over3% of B

Formula used:

Income = Saving + Expenditure

Calculation:

Let the income of A and B is 5x and 7x and expenditure of B is y

Income of B = Save + Expenditure

⇒ 7x = 5000 + y     

⇒ 7x - 5000 = y      ---- (1)

Income of A = Save + Expenditure

expenditure of A = 6622322\over3% of y

⇒ 2003200\over3 % of y

⇒ 5x = 4000 + (200y/3 × 100) 

⇒ 5x = 4000 + (2y/3)

⇒ 5x = (12000 + 2y)/3

⇒ 15x = 12000 + 2y      ---- (2)

From 1 and 2

15x = 12000 + 2(7x - 5000)

⇒ 15x = 12000 + 14x - 10,000

⇒ 15x - 14x = 2000

⇒ x = 2000

Income of A = 5(2000)

⇒ 10,000

 Income of B = 7(2000)

⇒ 14000

Income of A in 2021 = 10,000 +  27% of 10,000

⇒ 10,000 + 2700

⇒ 12,700

Income of B in 2021 = 14000 - 11% of 14000

⇒ 14000 - 1540

⇒ 12460

Total income of A and B in 2021 = Rs. 12,700 + Rs. 12460

⇒ Rs. 25,160

∴ Income of A and B in 2021 is Rs. 25,160

32

If the diameter of the base of a cone is 42 cm and its curved surface area is 2310 cm2, then what is 45% of the volume (in cm3)? (Take π = 22/7 )

  1. ((a))

    5218.2

  2. ((b))

    5281.2

  3. ((c))

    5821.2

  4. ((d))

    5812.2

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

5821.2

Shortcut Trick

Radius r = 21 cm, CSA = 2310 cm2.

Slant height l = CSA ÷ (π × r) = 2310 ÷ (22/7 × 21) = 35 cm.

Height h = √(352 − 212) = 28 cm (using 3, 4, 5 triplet × 7).

45% of Vol = 0.45 × (1/3 × 22/7 × 21 × 21 × 28) = 0.45 × 12936 = 5821.2 cm3.

∴ The correct answer is 5821.2 cm3.

Alternate Method

Given:

Diameter (d) = 42 cm ⇒ Radius (r) = 21 cm

Curved Surface Area (CSA) = 2310 cm2

π = 22/7

Formula Used:

CSA of Cone = π × r × l

Volume of Cone (V) = (1/3) × π × r2 × h

Relation: l2 = r2 + h2

Calculations:

⇒ CSA = πrl ⇒ 2310 = (22/7) × 21 × l

⇒ 2310 = 66 × l

⇒ l = 2310 ÷ 66 = 35 cm

⇒ h = √(l2 − r2) = √(352 − 212)

⇒ h = √(1225 − 441) = √784 = 28 cm

⇒ Volume (V) = (1/3) × (22/7) × 21 × 21 × 28

⇒ V = 22 × 21 × 28 = 12936 cm3

⇒ Required Value = 45% of 12936 = (45/100) × 12936

⇒ Required Value = 0.45 × 12936 = 5821.2 cm3

∴ The correct answer is 5821.2 cm3.

Additional Information

Total Surface Area (TSA) of Cone

The total surface area includes the curved surface and the base area: TSA = πr(l + r).

Volume of Cylinder

The volume of a cone is exactly 1/3 the volume of a cylinder with the same radius and height: V = πr2h.

Pythagorean Triplets in Mensuration

For a cone, r, h, and l form a right-angled triangle. Common triplets like (3,4,5), (5,12,13), and (7,24,25) help find missing dimensions quickly.

33

Let P and Q be two towers with the same base. Exactly midway between the foot of the two towers P and Q, the angels of elevation of their tops are 30º and 60º, respectively.The ratio of the heights of Q to P is :

  1. ((a))

    3 : 2 

  2. ((b))

    3 : 1

  3. ((c))

    1 : 3

  4. ((d))

    2 : 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

3 : 1

Shortcut Trick

For two objects at equal distance from an observation point, the ratio of their heights is the ratio of the tangents of their angles of elevation.

Height of Q : Height of P = tan 60° : tan 30°

Ratio = √3 : (1/√3)

Ratio = (√3 × √3) : 1 = 3 : 1

∴ The correct answer is 3 : 1.

Alternate Method

Given: Midway point M between foot of tower P and tower Q. Angles of elevation θP = 30° and θQ = 60°.

Formula: tan θ = Height / Distance

Let the distance from midpoint M to each tower base be d.

⇒ In triangle for tower P: tan 30° = HeightP / d

⇒ HeightP = d × (1/√3)

⇒ In triangle for tower Q: tan 60° = HeightQ / d

⇒ HeightQ = d × √3

⇒ Ratio Q : P = HeightQ / HeightP = (d × √3) / (d / √3)

⇒ Ratio = √3 × √3 = 3 / 1

∴ The correct answer is 3 : 1.

Additional Information

Trigonometric Ratios

Key values: tan 30° = 1/√3, tan 45° = 1, tan 60° = √3. These are derived from right-angled triangle properties.

Angle of Elevation

The angle formed by the line of sight with the horizontal when looking up at an object. It is equal to the angle of depression from the top of the object to the observer.

Proportionality Rule

When the base distance is constant, height (h) is directly proportional to the tangent of the angle of elevation (θ). Formula: h1/h2 = tan θ1 / tan θ2.

34

A hemispherical bowl of internal diameter 72 cm is full of a liquid. This liquid is to be filled into cylindrical bottles each of radius 3 cm and height 12 cm. How many such bottles are required to empty the bowl?

  1. ((a))

    200

  2. ((b))

    276

  3. ((c))

    250

  4. ((d))

    288

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

288

Given:

Diameter(internal) of the hemispherical bowl is 72 cm

Radius(internal) of hemispherical bowl = 36 cm

Radius of cylinder bottle = 3 cm

Height of cylinder bottle = 12 cm

Formula used:

Volume of cylinder bottle = π r2 h

Where r = radius of cylinder, h = height of cylinder

Number of bottle = Volume of cylinder/Volume of bottle

Volume of hemispherical bowl = (2/3)π R3

R = radius of hemispherical bowl

Calculation:

Let n bottles are required to empty the bowl.

Volume of n cylinder bottles =n (π r2 × h)

Volume of liquid in n bottles = Volume of bowl

⇒ n(π r2 × h) = (2/3)π × 36 × 36 × 36

⇒ n = (2 × 12 × 36 × 36)/(3 × 3 × 12)

⇒ n = 288

∴ 288 such bottles are required to empty the bowl.

35

Study the given pie chart which shows the quantity-wise sales distribution of five products (A, B, C, D, and E) of a company in 2019 answer the question that follows.

If 3000 units of product C are sold in 2019 and the total number of units sold by the company in 2020 is 22% more than that in 2019, then how many units were sold by the company in 2020?

  1. ((a))

    18900

  2. ((b))

    10980

  3. ((c))

    10890

  4. ((d))

    19800

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

10980

Given:

3000 units of product C are sold in 2019.

Product of C = 120o

Calculation:

According to the question,

3000 units of product C are sold in 2019

⇒ 120o = 3000 unit

⇒ 1o = 3000/120

Total pie chart is 360o = Total number of unit sold by the company in 2019

⇒ (3000/120)× 360

⇒ 9000

Total number of units sold by the company in 2020 is 22% more than that in 2019

⇒ 9000 × (100 + 22)/100

⇒ 10980

∴ 10980 units were sold by the company in 2020.

36

If x + y + z = 17, xy + yz + zx = 85, then the value of x3+y3+z33xyz8\sqrt{\frac{x^3 + y^3 + z^3 - 3xyz}{8}} is what percentage of 2(x + y + z)?

  1. ((a))

    30%

  2. ((b))

    24%

  3. ((c))

    25%

  4. ((d))

    20%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

25%

Given:

x + y + z = 17, xy + yz + zx = 85

Formula used:

(x + y + z)2  = x2 + y2 + z2 + 2xy + 2yz + 2zx

x3 + y3 + z3 - 3xyz = (x + y + z) (x2 + y2 + z2 - xy - yz - zx)

Calculation: 

x + y + z = 17     ----- (1)

On squaring both sides, we get

(x + y + z)2  = (17)2

⇒ x2 + y2 + z2 + 2xy + 2yz + 2zx = 289

⇒ x2 + y2 + z2 + 2(xy + yz + zx) = 289

⇒ x2 + y2 + z2 + 2(85) = 289

⇒ x2 + y2 + z2 + 170 = 289

⇒ x2 + y2 + z2 = 289 - 170

⇒ x2 + y2 + z2 = 119      ---- (1)

x3 + y3 + z3 - 3xyz = (x + y + z) (x2 + y2 + z2 - xy - yz - zx)

⇒ (17) [119 - (xy + yz + zx)] (from 1)

⇒ 17 [119 - 85] (Given)

⇒ 17 × 34

⇒ 578

 2(x + y + z) = 2 × 17

⇒ 34

x3+y3+z33xyz8√{\frac{x^3 + y^3 + z^3 - 3xyz}{8}} = √578/8

⇒ √72.25

⇒ 8.5

Required percentage = (8.5/34) × 100

⇒ 25%

∴ The value of x3+y3+z33xyz8√{\frac{x^3 + y^3 + z^3 - 3xyz}{8}} is 25% of 2(x + y + z).

37

Pipes A and B can fill a tank in 16 hours and 24 hours, respectively, and C is an emptying pipe, which alone can empty a full tank in x hours. All the pipes were opened together at 9:30 a.m., but C was closed at 12:30 p. m. If the tank gets filled at 7:30 p.m. on the same day, then what is the value of x?

  1. ((a))

    80

  2. ((b))

    72

  3. ((c))

    65

  4. ((d))

    60

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

72

Given:

Tank filled by pipe A = 16 hours

Tank filled by pipe B = 24 hours

Tank empty by pipe C = x hours

Calculation:

Tank filled by pipe A in 1 hour = 1/16

Tank filled  by pipe B in 1 hour = 1/24

Tank empty by pipe C in 1 hour = 1/x

Tank filled by all pipes in 10 hours

Pipe A and B work for 10 hours from 9 : 30 AM to 7 : 30 PM.

Pipe C work from 9 : 30 AM to 12 : 30 PM = 3 hours

According to question:

10[ (1/16) + (1/24)] - 3(1/x) = 1

⇒ (10/16) + (10/24) - (3/x) = 1

⇒ (5/8) + (5/12) - (3/x) = 1

⇒ [(15 + 10)/24] - (3/x) = 1

⇒ (25/24) - (3/x) = 1

⇒ (25/24) - 1 = (3/x)

⇒ (25 - 24)/24 = 3/x

⇒ 1/24 = 3/x

⇒ x = 24 × 3

⇒ x = 72

∴ The value of x is 72 hours.

38

A person invested a sum of Rs. 4,500 at r% per annum at simple interest and a sum of Rs. 6,750 at (r - 2)% per annum at simple interest. If the total interest earned on both the investments for 5 years is Rs. 4,668.75, then the average of the rate of interest on both the investments is:

  1. ((a))

    7.5%

  2. ((b))

    9%

  3. ((c))

    9.5%

  4. ((d))

    8.5%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

8.5%

Given:

Principal = Rs. 4,500 and Rs. 6,750

rate = r% and (r - 2)% per annum

Formula used:

Simple interest = (Principal × rate × time)/100

Calculation:

Simple interest = (4500 × r × 5)/100      ---- (1)

simple interest = (6750 × (r - 2) × 5)/100      ---- (2)

from 1 and 2

4668.75 = (4500 × r× 5)/100 + (6750 × (r - 2) × 5)/100

⇒ 4668.75 = (22500 × r)/100 + 33750 × (r - 2)/100

⇒ 4668.75 = (22500r/100) + 33750(r - 2)/100

⇒ 4668.75 = (22500r + 33750r - 67500)/100

⇒ 4668.75 × 100 = 56250r - 67500

⇒ 466875 = 56250r - 67500

⇒ 466875 + 67500 = 56250r

⇒ 534375 = 56250r

⇒ 534375/56250 = r

⇒ 9.5% = r

(r - 2) = (9.5 - 2)

⇒ 7.5

Average rate of interest is (9.5 + 7.5)/2

⇒  8.5%

∴ The average of the rate of interest on both the investments is 8.5% per annum.

39

A can do certain work in 45 days. He alone completed 3/5 of the work. B alone completed the remaining work in 12 days. Working together, in how many days can one-third of the original work be completed by A and B?

  1. ((a))

    8

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    6

  4. ((d))

    5

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

6

Given:

A can do certain work in 45 days.

He alone completed 3/5 of the work.

B alone completed the remaining work in 12 days.

Concept used:

Total work = LCM of ( A and B alone work in days)

Calculation:

Let the total work be 1 unit

A can do certain work in 45 days.

He alone completed 3/5 of the work.

B remaining work = 1 - 3/5

⇒ 2/5

Total Work complete by B = 12 × (5/2)

⇒ 30 days

Total Work = LCM of 45 and 30 

⇒ 90 unit

Efficiecny of A = 90/45 = 2

Efficiency of B = 90/30 = 3

According to the question,

One-third of the original work be = 90/3 = 30 unit

one-third of the original work be completed by A and B

⇒ 30/(2 + 3)

⇒ 6 days

∴ The required number of day is 6.

40

A sells a car to B at 10% loss. If B sells it for Rs. 5,40,000 and gains 20%, then 10% of the cost price (in Rs.) of the car for A was:

  1. ((a))

    60,000

  2. ((b))

    48,000

  3. ((c))

    40,000

  4. ((d))

    50,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

50,000

Given ∶

A sells a car to B at 10% loss.

B sells it for Rs. 5,40,000 and gains 20%

Formula used:

Selling price = Cost price(100 - loss)/100

Selling price = Cost price(100 + profit)/100

Calculation∶

Let cost price for A be x.

⇒ Selling price for A = 90% of x = 90x/100

According to the question,

Cost price for B = 90x/100

⇒ Selling price for B = 120% of 90x/100 = Rs. 540000

⇒ x = (540000 × 100 × 100)/(120 × 90)

⇒ Rs. 500000

10% of the cost price (in Rs.) of the car for A

⇒ 500000 × 10/100

⇒ Rs. 50,000

∴ 10% of the cost price (in Rs.) of the car for A was Rs 50,000.

Shortcut Trick

41

The speed of a boat in still water is 18 km/h and the speed of the current is 6 km/h. In how much time (in hours) will the boat travel a distance of 90 km upsteam and 72 km distance downstream?

  1. ((a))

    10.5

  2. ((b))

    12

  3. ((c))

    9

  4. ((d))

    11.5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10.5

Given:

The speed of a boat in still water is 18 km/h

The speed of the current is 6 km/h

Distance of upstream = 90 km, and Distance of downstream = 72 km

Formula used:

Time = Distance/Speed

Time = Distance of upstream/(x - y) + Distance of Downstream/(x + y)

Where x = Speed of boat, y = Speed of current

Calculation:

According to the question,

Time = Distance of upstream/(x - y) + Distance of Downstream/(x + y)

⇒ Time = 90/(18 - 6) + 72/(18 + 6)

⇒ Time = 90/12 + 72/24

⇒ Time = 7.5 + 3

⇒ 10.5 hours

∴ The required time is 10.5 hours.

42

There are two whole numbers. If the square root of one of them is 5 and the difference between the squares of two numbers is 481, then the other number can be :

  1. ((a))

    6

  2. ((b))

    10

  3. ((c))

    7

  4. ((d))

    12

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

12

Given:

Square root of one whole number is 5.

Difference between the squares of two numbers = 481

Calculation:

let the one number is x and second number is y.

√y = 5

on squaring both sides, we get

y = 25

According to question:

(25)2  - (x)2 = 481

⇒ 625 - x2 = 481

⇒ 625 - 481 = x2

⇒ 144 = x2

⇒ 12 = x

so. the other number is 12**.**

∴ The other number is 12.

43

The area of a triangular plot having sides 12 m, 35 m and 37 m is equal to the area of a rectangular field whose sides are in the ratio 3 ∶ 5. The perimeter (in m) of the field is:

  1. ((a))

    22√14

  2. ((b))

    14√15

  3. ((c))

    16√14

  4. ((d))

    32√14

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

16√14

Given:

The area of a triangular plot having sides 12 m, 35 m and 37 m is equal to the area of a rectangular field whose sides are in the ratio 3 ∶ 5.

Formula used:

Area of rectangle = Length(L) × Breadth(B)

Area of triangle = (1/2)Base × Height

Perimeter of rectangle = 2(L + B)

Calculation:

35 x 35 + 12 x 12 = 1225 + 144 = 1369 = ​37 x 37

Hence, (12,35 and 37) are Pythagorean triplets.

Let the rectangle length be 3x and the breadth be 5x

According to the question, 

Area of triangle = Area of rectangle 

⇒ (1/2)12 × 35 = 3x × 5x

⇒ 210 = 15 x2

⇒ x = √14 m

The perimeter (in m) of the field

⇒ 2(3x + 5x)

⇒ 2 × 8 × √14

⇒ 16√14 m

∴ The perimeter (in m) of the field is 16√14.

44

A, B, C and D invest in a business in the ratio 3 ∶ 6 ∶ 2 ∶ 5, respectively. But the capital was utilised in the proportion 5 ∶ 3 ∶ 2 ∶ 6, respectively. What is the difference between the shares (in Rs.) of A and C out of a profit of Rs. 50,250?

  1. ((a))

    5,280

  2. ((b))

    8,520

  3. ((c))

    8,250

  4. ((d))

    5,820

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

8,250

Given:

Ratio of investment of A, B, C and D = 3 ∶ 6 ∶ 2 ∶ 5

Ratio of capital of A, B, C and D = 5 ∶ 3 ∶ 2 ∶ 6

Total profit = Rs. 50,250

Formula used:

Ratio of profit = ratio of investment × ratio of capital utilisation

Calculation:

Ratio of profit of A, B, C and D = 3 × 5 ∶ 6 × 3 ∶ 2 × 2 ∶ 5 × 6

⇒ 15 ∶ 18 ∶ 4 ∶ 30

Share of A = (15/67) × 50,250

⇒ 11,250

Share of C = (4/67) × 50,250

⇒ 3000

Required difference = 11,250 - 3000

⇒ 8,250

∴ The difference between the shares (in Rs.) of A and C out of a profit of Rs. 50,250 is Rs. 8250.

45

If 2x2 - 6x + 3 = 0 , then what is the value of (x3 + 27/8x3 + 3/2)?

  1. ((a))

    14

  2. ((b))

    15

  3. ((c))

    171217 \frac{1}{2}

  4. ((d))

    131213\frac{1}{2}

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

15

Given:

If 2x2 - 6x + 3 = 0

Formula used:

(a + b)3 = a3 + b3 + 3ab(a + b)

Calculation:

2x2 - 6x + 3 = 0

Divide by 2x in the above equation,

⇒ x - 3 + 3/2x = 0

⇒ x + 3/2x = 3

Applying the formula (a + b)3 = a3 + b3 + 3ab(a + b)

⇒ (x + 3/2x)3 = x3 + 27/8x3 + 3x(3/2x)(x + 3/2x)

⇒ 33 = x3 + 27/8x3 + 27/2

⇒ x3 + 27/8x3 = 27 - 27/2

⇒ x3 + 27/8x3 = 27/2      ----(1)

Put the value of equation (1) in (x3 + 27/8x3 + 3/2)

⇒ 27/2 + 3/2

⇒ 30/2 

⇒ 15

∴ The value of (x3 + 27/8x3 + 3/2) is 15.

46

A bank offers following 4 schemes for investment. If a customer wants to invest an amount of Rs. P,  then which scheme is more beneficial for a customer after a period of 1 year? 

I. Rate of invest 24% per annum compounded quarterly 

II. Rate of interest 24% per annum compounded half-yearly 

III. Rate of interest 24% per annum compounded annually 

IV. Rate of interest 24% per annum with simple interest

  1. ((a))

    III

  2. ((b))

    IV

  3. ((c))

    II

  4. ((d))

    I

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

I

Given:

Principal = P, time =1 year, rate of interest = 24%

Formula used:

when interest is compounded annually

A = P(1 + r%)

where A, P, r and t are amount, principal, rate and time respectively.

When interest is simple interest.

Simple interest = (P × r × t)/100

Calculation:

When compound is quartely, then rate is divided by 4 and time is multiply by 4

A = 100(1 + 6%)4

⇒ A = 100 ( 1 + 0.06)4

 ⇒ A = 100 (1.06)

⇒ A = 100 × 1.262

⇒ A = 126

when interest is half yearly, then rate is divided by 2 and time is multiply by 2.

A = 100 (1 + 12%)2

⇒ A = 100 ( 1 + 0.12)2

⇒ A = 100 × 1.12

⇒ A = 100 × 1.2544

⇒ A = 125.44

when interest is annually.

A = 100 (1 + 24%)1

⇒ A = 100 (1 + 0.24)

⇒ A = 100 × 1.24

⇒ A = 124

simple interest = (100 × 24 × 1)/100

⇒ 24

Amount = 100 + 24

⇒ Rs. 124

In all the above cases, amount is maximum when compound is quartely.

∴ scheme I is more beneficial for a customer after a period of 1 year.

47

A company offers four types of successive discounts:

I.  25% and 15%

II. 30% and 10%

III. 35% and 5% 

IV. Both 20% each 

Which offer is the best for the company?

  1. ((a))

    II

  2. ((b))

    III

  3. ((c))

    I

  4. ((d))

    IV

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

IV

Shortcut Trick

For the company (the seller), the best offer is the one with the minimum total discount.

When the sum of discounts is the same (25+15 = 30+10 = 35+5 = 20+20 = 40), the effective discount is lowest when the difference between the two discounts is minimum.

Differences: I (25−15=10), II (30−10=20), III (35−5=30), IV (20−20=0).

Since Offer IV has the minimum difference (0), it provides the lowest total discount for the customer, making it the most profitable for the company.

∴ The correct answer is IV.

Alternate Method

Formulas: Effective Discount = a + b − (a × b) ÷ 100

Case I: 25 + 15 − (25 × 15) ÷ 100 = 40 − 3.75 = 36.25%

Case II: 30 + 10 − (30 × 10) ÷ 100 = 40 − 3 = 37%

Case III: 35 + 5 − (35 × 5) ÷ 100 = 40 − 1.75 = 38.25%

Case IV: 20 + 20 − (20 × 20) ÷ 100 = 40 − 4 = 36%

⇒ Comparing all, 36% is the minimum discount, which is best for the company.

∴ The correct answer is IV.

Additional Information

Perspective of Buyer vs Seller

For the Buyer, the best offer is the one with the Maximum Discount. In this problem, that would be Offer III (38.25%).

Successive Discount Calculation

When applying multiple discounts, the sequence does not change the final price. Net Discount % = 1 − [(1 − d1)(1 − d2)...]

48

A gardener wants to plant trees in a garden such that no trees remain unplanted. If the number of trees in each row is the same, and there are 105 or 210 or 315 or 525 rows, then the least number of trees that were planted is:

  1. ((a))

    3510

  2. ((b))

    1350

  3. ((c))

    1530

  4. ((d))

    3150

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

3150

Given:

The number of trees in each row is the same,

There are 105 or 210 or 315 or 525 rows.

Calculation:

The number of trees in each row for 105 or 210 or 315 or 525 rows = L.C.M of (105, 210, 315, 525)

Prime factorisation of 105 = 3 × 5 × 7

Prime factorisation of 210 = 2 × 3 × 5 × 7

Prime factorisation of 315 = 3 × 3 × 5 × 7

Prime factorisation of 525 = 3 × 5 × 5 × 7

L.C.M of (105, 210, 315, 525) = 2 × 3 × 3 × 5 × 5 × 7 = 3150

∴ The required number of trees is 3150.

49

The ratio of water and vinegar in mixture A and B are 3 ∶ 4 and 5 ∶ 9, respectively. A and B are taken in the ratio 2 ∶ 3 and mixed to form a new mixture C. What is the ratio of water and vinegar in C?

  1. ((a))

    21 ∶ 41

  2. ((b))

    43 ∶ 27

  3. ((c))

    27 ∶ 43

  4. ((d))

    41 ∶ 21

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

27 ∶ 43

Given:

The ratio of water and vinegar in mixture A and B are 3 ∶ 4 and 5 ∶ 9, respectively.

A and B are taken in the ratio 2 ∶ 3 and mixed to form a new mixture C.

Calculation:

Let the quantity of mixture A = 70 l

The quantity of mixture A taken for the new mixture C = 22+3\frac{2}{2+3}  × 70 = 28 l

The quantity of water in the required quantity of mixture A = 33+4\frac{3}{3+4} × 28 = 12 l

The quantity of vinegar in the required quantity of mixture A = 43+4\frac{4}{3+4} × 28 = 16 l

Let the quantity of mixture B = 70 l

The quantity of mixture B taken for the new mixture C = 32+3\frac{3}{2+3}  × 70 = 42 l

The quantity of water in the required quantity of mixture B = 55+9\frac{5}{5+9} × 42 = 15 l

The quantity of vinegar in the required quantity of mixture B = 95+9\frac{9}{5+9} × 42 = 27 l

Now, 

The quantity of water for the mixture C = 12 + 15 =  27 l

The quantity of vinegar for the mixture C = 16 + 27 = 43 l

Now, 

The required ratio of water and vinegar in the mixture = 27 : 43 

∴  The ratio of water and vinegar in C is 27 : 43.

50

The average of 27 number is 77. The average of the first 14 numbers is 74 and the average of the last 14 numbers is 84. If the 14th number is excluded, what is the average of the remaining numbers? (Correct to one decimal place)

  1. ((a))

    79.4

  2. ((b))

    74.8

  3. ((c))

    71.5

  4. ((d))

    78.3

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

74.8

Given:

The average of 27 number is 77.

The average of the first 14 numbers is 74.

The average of the last 14 numbers is 84.

Concept used:

The value of xth number from 'n' numbers = a - b

Where,

a, be the sum of first and last 'x' numbers

b, be the sum of all 'n' numbers

Calculation:

The sum of all 27 numbers = 77 × 27 = 2079

The sum of the first 14 numbers = 74 × 14 = 1036

The sum of the last 14 numbers = 84 × 14 = 1176

The sum of first and last 14 numbers = 1036 + 1176 = 2212

Now, 

The value of 14th number = 2212 - 2079 = 133

The sum of all 26 numbers excluding 14th number = 1946

Now, 

The average of remaining 26 numbers = 194626\frac{1946}{26} ≈ 74.8

∴ The average of the remaining numbers is 74.8.

Science (25 questions)

51

Where can we find chondrocytes in a human body? 

  1. ((a))

    In the nervous tissue 

  2. ((b))

    In the epithelial tissue 

  3. ((c))

    In the muscular tissue 

  4. ((d))

    In the connective tissue 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

In the connective tissue 

The correct answer is In the connective tissue.

Concept:

Animal tissue: 

  • The tissue found in the animal bodies can be categorized into 4 groups namely epithelial tissue, muscular tissue, connective tissue, and nervous tissue.
  • These tissues differ in their structure, function, and origin.

Explanation:

Connective tissue:

  • It is made up of a matrix in which specialized cells are embedded.
  • It acts as a binding and supporting structure within the body.

Cartilage has specialized cells called chondrocytes enclosed in small cavities. 

Thus, chondrocytes are found in the connective tissue in the human body.

Additional InformationEpithelial tissue:

  • It forms the protective covering and inner lining of the body and organs.
  • It can be made of either a single layer of cells or many layers of cells stacked one over the other.
  • It can be made up of flat, cuboidal, or columnar cells.

Muscular tissue:

  • It is made up of elongated cells called muscle fibres.
  • It helps in the movement of the body.
  • It is of three types, skeletal (attached to bones), smooth (in walls of internal hollow body organs), and cardiac (heart).

Nervous Tissue:

  • It is made up of special types of elongated cells called nerve cells or neurons.
  • It includes the brain, spinal cord, and nerve fibre.
  • Nerve cells mediate the transmission of messages from the brain to different parts of the body and vice versa.
52

Who is known as the 'Waterman of India '?

  1. ((a))

    Chandi Prasad Bhatt

  2. ((b))

    Ganga Ram Bishnoi

  3. ((c))

    Rajendra Singh

  4. ((d))

    Sunderial Bahuguna

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Rajendra Singh

The correct answer is Rajendra Singh.

Explanation:

Rajendra Singh:

  • He solved the problem of water scarcity in Rajasthan by disseminating information on traditional water conservation technologies.
  • He helped in the revival of some 3000 johads spread across more than 650 villages in Alwar district, Rajasthan, starting from 1984.
  • It has resulted in a steady rise of the groundwater table by almost 6 meters and a 33 percent increase in the forest cover in the area that was destroyed by deforestation and mining activities.
  • Five seasonal rivers are now perennial in nature. River Arvari is a famous example.
  • Popularly known as “Waterman of India”, he is also heading a national network of organizations working on water issues; Rashtriya Jal Biradari.
  • This network is working for the restoration of all-mighty and small rivers of the country.

Johads

  • They can be described as small earthen check dams that capture and conserve rainwater and help in meeting our water needs in dry seasons.
  • It also improves percolation and helps in the recharge of the groundwater table.

Additional Information

Chandi Prasad Bhatt:

  • He founded Dasholi Gram Swarajya Sangh (DGSS) in Gopeshwar in 1964, which later became a mother organization to the Chipko Movement.
  • He was one of the pioneers of this movement and he has been awarded the Ramon Magsaysay Award for Community Leadership in 1982, followed by the Padma Bhushan in 2005.

Ganga Ram Bishnoi:

  • He was the first to receive Amrita Devi Bishnoi Wildlife Protection Award posthumously in 2001.
  • He was gunned down by hunters he was chasing for having killed chinkara.

Sunderlal Bahuguna:

  • He was one of the leaders of the Chipko movement.
  • He fought for the preservation of forests in the Himalayas.
  • From 1981 to 1983 he led a 5000-kilometre march across the Himalayas ending with a meeting with Indian Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.
  • She then passed legislation to protect some areas of the Himalayan forests from clear-cutting.
53

In which of the following cases will the washed, wet clothes dry the fastest? 

  1. ((a))

    Clothes kept bundled up inside a dark room. 

  2. ((b))

    Clothes kept spread out inside a dark room with fan on. 

  3. ((c))

    Clothes kept bundled up in sunlight. 

  4. ((d))

    Clothes kept spread out in sunlight. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Clothes kept spread out in sunlight. 

The correct answer is Clothes kept spread out in sunlight.

Concept:

Evaporation:

  • The process of a liquid changing into vapour (or gas) even its boiling point is called evaporation.
  • Factors affecting evaporation:
  • Temperature: The rate of evaporation increases by increasing the temperature of the liquid.
  • The surface area of the liquid: The rate of evaporation increases by increasing the surface area of the liquid.
  • The humidity of Air: When the humidity of air is low, then the rate of evaporation is high, and water evaporates more readily.
  • Wind Speed: The rate of evaporation of liquid increases with increasing wind speed.

Explanation:

  • When the clothes are bundled up, the surface area is reduced and thus the rate of evaporation also reduces.
  • When the clothes are in a dark room, there is no sunlight, and the temperature is low thus, the rate of evaporation is also low.
  • When clothes are spread in sunlight, both the surface area and temperature are increased leading to an increase in the rate of evaporation.
  • Thus, the washed, wet clothes dry the fastest when clothes are kept spread out in sunlight.
54

As hot air and water vapour rise from the surface of the Earth to higher levels, the hot air ________.

  1. ((a))

    becomes fog due to condensation 

  2. ((b))

    warms up the whole Earth 

  3. ((c))

    helps to form the ozone layer

  4. ((d))

    expands and cools

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

expands and cools

The correct answer is to expand and cools.

Concept:

  • Temperature: It is the measure of the degree of coldness and hotness of a substance.
  • Heat: It is a form of energy transferred between two (or more) systems or a system and its surroundings by virtue of temperature difference.
  • Kinetic Energy: It is the energy possessed by an object due to its motion.

Explanation:

  • When air is heated, its temperature rises.
  • This heat energy is converted into kinetic energy and molecules of gases start to move far away from each other.
  • So, the volume of air increases or we can say it expands.
  • Now, this hot air being light in weight moves upwards along with the water vapours.
  • With the increase in height, the temperature starts to fall and the hot air slowly releases its heat energy into its surroundings and becomes cool.

Thus, on moving to the higher levels of earth, the hot air expands and cools.

55

An element 'X', having atomic number 19, is represented by electronic configuration 

K L M

2 8 8

Which of the following statements for this configuration is true?

  1. ((a))

    It is the configuration of anion of element 'X'.

  2. ((b))

    It is the configuration of cation of element 'X'.

  3. ((c))

    It implies that element 'X' is a noble gas. 

  4. ((d))

    It implies that element 'X' is a non-metal. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

It is the configuration of cation of element 'X'.

The correct answer is It is the configuration of cation of element 'X'.

Concept:

Electronic configuration:

  • It can be defined as the distribution of electrons around the nucleus in different energy levels (shells).
  • It was suggested by Bohr and Bury.

Rules for writing the electronic configuration of an atom:​

  • The maximum number of electrons present in a shell is given by the formula 2n2, where ‘n’ is the orbit number or energy level index, 1,2,3, and so on.
  • Hence, the maximum number of electrons in different shells is as follows:
  • The First orbit or K-shell will be = 2 × 12 = 2,
  • The second orbit or L-shell will be = 2 × 22 = 8,
  • The Third orbit or M-shell will be = 2 × 32 = 18,
  • The fourth orbit or N-shell will be= 2 × 42= 32, and so on.
  • The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in the outermost orbit is 8.
  • Electrons are not accommodated in a given shell unless the inner shells are filled. That is, the shells are filled in a step-wise manner.

Ions: 

  • An atom or group of atoms that bears one or more positive or negative electrical charges, is called an ion.
  • Cations: Positively charged ions formed by losing electrons.
  • Anions: Negatively charged ions are formed by gaining electrons.

​Atomic number:

  • It is equal to the number of protons or electrons in an electrically neutral atom.
  • Thus, Atomic Number = No. of protons of an atom

​Explanation:

  • The element 'X', having atomic number 19, is represented by electronic configuration: ​
KLM
288
  • No. of electrons = 2 + 8 + 8 = 18
  • The atomic number is 19.
  • So, the number of protons = 19
  • Here, the number of protons is more than the number of electrons.
  • The element X must have lost one electron to form a cation.

So, the given electronic configuration is of cation of element X.

56

Sodium metal catches fire on reaction with water; magnesium reacts with hot water; iron react with steam; lead does not react with water. Based on these observations, select the correct statement from the following. 

  1. ((a))

    Lead is the most reactive amongst the elements given above. 

  2. ((b))

    Lead is the least reactive amongst the elements given above. 

  3. ((c))

    Iron is the most reactive amongst the elements given above. 

  4. ((d))

    Lead is not a metal.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Lead is the least reactive amongst the elements given above. 

The correct answer is Lead is the least reactive amongst the elements given above.

Concept:

Metals:

  • The elements that tend to lose electrons are called metals.
  • They are rigid, hard, and usually exist in a solid state at room temperature.
  • They are lustrous, malleable, and ductile.

Explanation:

  • Metals react with water to form metal oxides or hydroxides.
  • Not all metals react with water in the same way. 
  • Sodium metal catches fire in reaction to water.
  • magnesium reacts with hot water.
  • Iron reacts with steam.
  • Lead does not react with water.
  • The more reactive the metal, the more easily it will react with water. ​
  • Thus, lead is the least reactive metal amongst the given elements.

Additional InformationChemical properties of metals:

  • The metal reacts with oxygen to form metal oxide.
  • Metal + Oxygen → Metal oxide
  • The metal reacts with an acid to form a salt.
  • Metal + Acid → Salt + Hydrogen gas
  • Metals react with water to form oxides or hydroxides.
  • Metal + water → Metal oxide/ hydroxide
  • Metals do not react with alkalis.
  • Metal + Alkali → No reaction
57

Two lenses L1 and L2 of powers 10 D and (10/3) D respectively, separated by 45 cm are arranged parallel to each other in vertical planes.  An object is placed 15 cm left to L1, vertically on the common axis of the lenses. The distance between the original object and the final image is :

  1. ((a))

    30 cm

  2. ((b))

    90 cm

  3. ((c))

    75 cm

  4. ((d))

    45 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30 cm

The correct answer is 30.

Concept:

Lens:

  • The transparent curved surface which is used to refract the light and make an image of any object placed in front of it is called a lens.
  • A convex lens can converge a beam of parallel rays to a point on the other side of the lens

Power of lens:

  • It is equal to the reciprocal of the focal length of the lens/mirror in meters.
  • Power (P) = 1/f, where f is the focal length of the lens/mirror.
  • P = 100f\frac{100}{f} where f is the focal length in centimeters.
  • The unit of power of a lens is Dioptre when the focal length of the lens is taken in meters (m).
  • The focal length of the concave lens is negative and hence its power is also negative.
  • The focal length of the convex lens is positive and hence its power is also positive.

Lens formula: 1f=1v1u\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{v}-\frac{1}{u}  where f is focal length, v is image distance and u is object distance.

Explanation:

For first convex lens, L1

Power = 1f\frac{1}{f}

f = 1p\frac{1}{p} = 10010\frac{100}{10} = 10 cm

Given: Object distance, u = -15 cm, Focal length, f = 10 cm

 v=?

1f=1v1u\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{v}-\frac{1}{u}

110=1v115\frac{1}{10} = \frac{1}{v} - \frac{1}{-15}

110=1v+115\frac{1}{10} = \frac{1}{v} + \frac{1}{15}

110115=1v\frac{1}{10} - \frac{1}{15} = \frac{1}{v}

1v=3230\frac{1}{v} = \frac{3-2}{30}

1v=130\frac{1}{v} = \frac{1}{30}

v = 30 cm

For second convex  lens, L2

f = 1p\frac{1}{p} = 100×310\frac{100 × 3}{10} = 10 × 3 = 30 cm

Object distance, u = -45-(-30)= -45 + 30 = -15, focal length, f = 30cm

v = ?

1f=1v1u\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{v}-\frac{1}{u}

130=1v115\frac{1}{30} = \frac{1}{v} - \frac{1}{-15}

130=1v+115\frac{1}{30} = \frac{1}{v} + \frac{1}{15}

130115=1v\frac{1}{30} - \frac{1}{15} = \frac{1}{v}

1v=1230=130\frac{1}{v} = \frac{1-2}{30} = \frac{-1}{30}

v = -30 cm 

Distance between original object and final image = 15 + 45 - 30 = 60-30 = 30cm.

58

Study the given table. 

A copper coil of 100 turns, connected to a galvanometer is mounted on an insulted stand with of the coil in vertical plane. A strong magnet is moved towards/away from the coil. 

Time durationMotion of magnetInduced current
0 - 10sTowards the coil with constant speed vi1
10s - 20sStationaryi2
20s - 30sAway from the coil with same speed v i3

 

Select the correct option.

  1. ((a))

    i1 = i3 and are in the opposite direction.

  2. ((b))

    i3 = i2 and are in the same direction.

  3. ((c))

    i1 = i2 and are in the same direction.

  4. ((d))

    i= i3 and are in the same direction.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

i1 = i3 and are in the opposite direction.

The correct answer is i1** = i3 and are in the opposite direction.** 

Concept:

Electromagnetic induction:

  • When a conductor is set to move inside a magnetic field or a magnetic field is set to be changing around a conductor, an electric current is induced in the conductor.
  • This process is called electromagnetic induction.
  • Electromagnetic induction can be explained with the help of Fleming’s Right-Hand Rule.

Fleming’s Right-Hand Rule:

  • If we arrange our thumb, forefinger, and middle finger of the right-hand perpendicular to each other, then the thumb points towards the direction of the magnetic force, and the forefinger points towards the direction of the magnetic field, and the middle finger points towards the induced current in the coil.

Explanation:

  • When the magnet moves around the coil, the magnetic field around the coil changes, and an electric current is induced in it.
  • On reversing the direction of the magnet, the direction of the magnetic field also changes resulting in the induction of current in opposite direction.

  • Since the no. of coils in the conductor and the magnetic strength is the same in both case-1 and 2, the amount of current induced will be same.
  • But, the direction of the induced current will be opposite.
  • No, current will be induced in the coil in case-2 because the magnet is stationary.
59

The buccal cavity is a part of the human  ________ system. 

  1. ((a))

    circulatory 

  2. ((b))

    respiratory 

  3. ((c))

    digestive 

  4. ((d))

    excretory 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

digestive 

The correct answer is digestive

Concept:

Organ systems: 

  • The different organs group together to perform a particular function and form an organ system.
  • These organ systems are interdependent on each other.
  • The organ systems found in the human body are the digestive system, circulatory system, excretory system, reproductive system, respiratory system, and so on.

Explanation:

Digestive system:

  • It consists of the long alimentary canal and associated glands.
  • The alimentary canal includes
  • Mouth (buccal cavity)
  • Esophagus (food pipe)
  • Stomach
  • Small intestine
  • Large intestine

  • The glands associated with the digestive system are as follows: 
  • Liver
  • Pancreas
  • Intestinal glands

Additional Information

  • Circulatory system: It includes the heart, and blood vessels (arteries, veins, and capillaries).
  • Respiratory system: It includes the nose, pharynx, and lungs (trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli).
  • Excretory system: It includes a pair of kidneys, a pair of ureters, a urinary bladder, and a urethra.
60

An object is placed on the principal axis of a convex lens at a point beyond 2 F1. The image is formed :

  1. ((a))

    at F2

  2. ((b))

    between F2 and 2 F2

  3. ((c))

    at 2 F2

  4. ((d))

    beyond 2 F2

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

between F2 and 2 F2

The correct answer is between F2 and 2 F2.

Concept: 

Convex lenses:

  • A convex lens is thicker at the centre than at the edges.
  • It is called a converging lens because the rays of light that pass through it are brought closer together (they converge).
  • When parallel rays of light pass through a convex lens the refracted rays converge at one point called the principal focus.
  • The distance between the principal focus and the centre of the lens is called the focal length.
  • A double convex lens has two foci F1 and F2 and two centres of curvature 2F1 and 2F2.

Explanation:

Image formation by a convex lens when an object is placed beyond 2F1:

Position of the image- Between F2 and 2 F2

Nature of image- Real and inverted 

Size of image- Diminished 

Additional Information

All six cases of image formation by the convex lens:

Object positionImage positionNature of imageSize of image
At infinityAt F2Real and invertedPoint sized
Beyond 2F1Between F2 and 2F2Real and invertedDiminished
At 2F1At 2F1Real and invertedSame size
Between F1 and 2F1Beyond 2F2Real and invertedMagnified
At F1At infinityReal and invertedHighly magnified
Between F1 and Oon the same side of the objectVirtual and erectMagnified
61

An object 3.0 cm in height is placed at a distance of 180.0 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 60.0 cm on its principal axis. Following New Cartesian Sign Convention, the image is formed at v = _______ and its height h1 = _______.

  1. ((a))

    -90 cm; -1.5 cm

  2. ((b))

    90 cm; 1.5 cm

  3. ((c))

    45 cm; -1.5 cm

  4. ((d))

    -45 cm; 1.5 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

-90 cm; -1.5 cm

The correct answer is -90 cm; -1.5 cm

Concept:

Spherical mirror:

  • A spherical mirror is a mirror that has the shape of a piece cut out of a spherical surface.
  • There are two types of spherical mirrors: concave, and convex.

Mirror formula:1f=1v+1u\frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{v} + \frac{1}{u}, where f = focal length, v = image distance and u = object distance.

Magnification: m = HiHo=vu\frac{Hi}{Ho} = \frac{-v}{u} , where Hi = height of image, Ho = height of object, v = image distance, and u = object distance.

Concave mirror: 

  • It is part of a whole spherical mirror that reflects light from the hollow part.
  • It is a converging mirror because it converges the incident rays at a point.

Explanation:

Given, u = -180 cm        f = -60 cm              h = 3 cm 

1f=1v+1u\frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{v} + \frac{1}{u}

160=1v+1180\frac{1}{-60} = \frac{1}{v} + \frac{1}{-180}

160=1v1180\frac{1}{-60} = \frac{1}{v} - \frac{1}{180}

1v=160+1180\frac{1}{v} = \frac{1}{-60} + \frac{1}{180}

1v=3+1180\frac{1}{v} = \frac{-3 + 1}{180}

1v=2180=190\frac{1}{v} = \frac{-2}{180} = \frac{-1}{90}

v = -90 cm

m = HiHo=vu\frac{Hi}{Ho} = \frac{-v}{u} = Hi3=(90)180\frac{Hi}{3} = \frac{-(-90)}{-180} = -3/2 = -1.5 cm 

Hi =  -1.5 cm

Following New Cartesian Sign Convention, the image is formed at v = -90 cm and its height HI = -1.5 cm.

Additional Information

Convex mirror: 

  • It is part of a whole spherical mirror that reflects light from the bulged-out part.
  • It diverges the incident rays.

62

Which of the following is a top predator? 

  1. ((a))

    Eagle 

  2. ((b))

    Cobra snake

  3. ((c))

    Mouse

  4. ((d))

    Sparrow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Eagle 

The correct answer is Eagle.

Concept:

Food chain:

  • The chain of organisms which involves the transfer of energy from one trophic level to the next trophic level is called a food chain.
  • It is the flow of food or energy in an ecosystem. Each organism in the chain represents a trophic level.
  • Usually, there are four trophic levels present in the ecosystem because the level of energy decreases during the flow of energy from one trophic level to another trophic level.
  • First trophic level [T1] - Producers
  • Second trophic level [T2] - Primary consumers
  • Third trophic level [T3] - Secondary consumers
  • Fourth trophic level [T4] - Top consumers

Explanation:

Food web:

  • Many interconnected food chains make up a food web.
  • Sometimes, a single organism gets eaten by many predators or it eats many other organisms.
  • This is when a food chain doesn’t represent the energy flow in a proper manner because there are many trophic levels that interconnect.
  • This is where a food web comes into place. It shows the interactions between different organisms in an ecosystem.

The food web involving the given organisms can be represented as:

It is clear from the above food web that the eagle is the top predator.

63

Which of the following chemical reactions occurs during photosynthesis?

  1. ((a))

    Sucrose reacts with oxygen in presence of sunlight and chlorophyll to form and carbon dioxide.

  2. ((b))

    Carbon dioxide reacts with water in presence of sunlight and chlorophyll to form sucrose. 

  3. ((c))

    Glucose reacts with oxygen in presence of sunlight and chlorophyll to form water and carbon dioxide. 

  4. ((d))

    Carbon dioxide reacts with water in presence of sunlight and chlorophyll to form glucose. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Carbon dioxide reacts with water in presence of sunlight and chlorophyll to form glucose. 

The correct answer is Carbon dioxide reacts with water in presence of sunlight and chlorophyll to form glucose.

Concept:

Photosynthesis:

  • Photo means light and synthesis means building up.
  • It occurs in green plants, photosynthetic bacteria, and some protists.
  • It is a process in which carbon dioxide and water are converted into glucose in the presence of sunlight and chlorophyll.
  • Oxygen is the by-product.

Explanation:

  • The steps involved in photosynthesis:-
  • Absorption of light energy by leaves through the chlorophyll
  • Conversion of light energy into chemical energy and splitting of water into hydrogen and oxygen
  • Reduction of carbon dioxide into carbohydrates
  • The following chemical reaction takes place during photosynthesis:
  • 6CO   +   6H2O  —>  C6H12O6  + 6O2

So, Carbon dioxide reacts with water in presence of sunlight and chlorophyll to form glucose.

64

A cylindrical wire AB consists of two equal parts AC and CB. Parts AC and CB are made of materials of resistivity ρ and 6ρ and have different radii r and 2r, respectively. A battery is connected across the wire. Let Vand Vbe the potential differences across AC and CB, respectively. Then(V1 / V2) is :

  1. ((a))

    1/3

  2. ((b))

    4/3

  3. ((c))

    2/3

  4. ((d))

    2

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2/3

The correct answer is 2/3.

Concept:

Resistance:

  • It is the opposition offered to the flow of current passing through a conductor.
  • It is measured in Ohms (Ω).
  • R = ρL/ A where ρ is resistivity, L is the length of conductor and A is the area of cross-section.

Ohm's Law:

  • Ohm’s law states that the amount of electric current through a metal conductor in a circuit is directly proportional to the voltage impressed across it, for any given temperature.
  • V = IR, where V is voltage, I is current and R is resistance.

Explanation:

In the above-drawn circuit, we can refer to the two sections of wire as two different resistors in series. Current remains same in series connection. So, here we will take current = I. 

For Wire AC

length = L, resistivity= ρ , Radius = r 

Area of cross-section of wire = π r2 

R1 = ρ L/ A = ρ L / π r2

V1 = I R1 = I ρ L / π r2

For wire BC 

length = L, resistivity= 6ρ , Radius = 2r 

Area of cross-section of wire = 4π r2 

R2 = 6ρ L/ A = 6ρ L / 4 π r2  = 3 ρL / 2 π r2

V2 = I R2 =  3ρ I L /  2π r2 

Ratio of V1 to V2 = V1/ V2 =  ρIL4πr23ρIL2πr2\frac{\frac{ρ IL}{4π r^2}}{\frac{3ρ I L}{2π r^2}} = ρILπr2\frac{ρ IL}{π r^2} × 2πr23ρIL\frac{2 π r^2}{3ρ IL} = 2/3

The ratio (V1 / V2) is 2/3.

65

The length of a cylindrical metal wire is increased by 30% with no change of volume. Its resistance increases by:

  1. ((a))

    30%

  2. ((b))

    39%

  3. ((c))

    69%

  4. ((d))

    71%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

69%

The correct answer is 69%.

Concept:

Resistance (R): 

  • Resistance is a measure of the opposition to current flow in an electrical circuit.
  • It is measured in ohms, symbolized by the Greek letter omega (Ω).
  • R=ρlAR = \frac{ρ l}{A} where ρ is resistivity, l is length, and A is the area of the cross-section of the wire.

Explanation: 

Suppose original length = L, Area of cross-section = A, radius of wire = r and Resistance = R

Since the wire is the same, the resistivity ρ will be the same.

After the increase in length, let us take new length = L', radius of wire = r' and new resistance = R'

L' =  130L/ 100 = 13L/10 ( since there is 30% increase)

The volume of the wire remains the same (given).

So, Volume of Original Wire = volume of new wire 

π r2 L = π r ' 2 L'

r2L = r' 2 L'

r' 2 = r2 L /  L'

r' 2 =  10r2  / 13

Increase in resistance = ρLAρLAρLA\frac{\frac{\rho L'}{A'}-\frac{\rho L}{A}}{\frac{\rho L}{A}} × 100

=ρLπr2ρLπr2ρLπr2×100=\frac{\frac{\rho L'}{\pi r^2} - \frac{\rho L}{\pi r^2}}{ \frac{\rho L}{\pi r^2} } \times 100

=13×13ρL10×10πr2ρLπr2ρLπr2×100=\frac{\frac{13 \times 13 \rho L}{10 \times 10 \pi r^2} - \frac{\rho L}{\pi r^2}}{ \frac{\rho L}{\pi r^2} } \times 100

=169100ρLπr2ρLπr2ρLπr2×100=\frac{\frac{169}{100}\frac{\rho L}{\pi r^2} - \frac{\rho L}{\pi r^2}}{ \frac{\rho L}{\pi r^2} } \times 100

=169ρL100ρL100πr2ρLπr2×100=\frac{\frac{169 \rho L - 100 \rho L}{100\pi r^2}}{ \frac{\rho L}{\pi r^2} } \times 100

=69ρL100πr2×πr2ρL×100=69%= \frac{69 \rho L}{100 \pi r^2} \times \frac{\pi r^2}{ \rho L} \times 100 = 69\%

 

Thus, the increase in length is 69%.

66

An element 'X' is burnt in air to form a compound 'Y'. Aqueous solution of 'Y' turns blue litmus red. On the basis this observation, select the correct statement from the following. 

  1. ((a))

    'Y' will react with an acid to form salt and water. 

  2. ((b))

    'Y' will react with a metal to form salt and water. 

  3. ((c))

    'Y' will react with a non-metal oxide to form salt and water. 

  4. ((d))

    'Y' will react with a base to form salt and water. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

'Y' will react with a base to form salt and water. 

The correct answer is 'Y' will react with a base to form salt and water. 

Concept:

Acids:

  • They are sour in taste.
  • They turn blue litmus red.
  • Its pH value ranges from 1 to 7 on the pH scale.

Bases:

  • They are bitter in taste and soapy to touch.
  • They turn red litmus blue.
  • Its pH value ranges from 7 to 14 on the pH scale.

Explanation:

  • The aqueous solution of 'Y' turns blue litmus red.
  • Acids turn blue litmus red. Therefore, Y is an acid.
  • Element X burns in air to form Y.
  • So, X will form an oxide Y when burnt in the air.
  • Non-metallic oxides are acidic in nature.
  • So, X should be a non-metal.
  • Acid and base react to form salt and water.

'Y' is an acid that will react with a base to form salt and water. ​

67

An element 'M' belongs to group 1 and period 3 and another element 'X' belongs to group 15 and period 2. Which of the following statements is true about the compound formed between 'M' and 'X'?  

  1. ((a))

    An ionic compound is formed by transfer of three electrons from an atom of element 'X' to an atom of element 'M'. 

  2. ((b))

    An ionic compound is formed by transfer of three electrons from three atoms of element 'M' to an atom of element 'X'. 

  3. ((c))

    An ionic compound is formed by transfer of one electron from an atom of element 'M' to an atom of element 'X'. 

  4. ((d))

    An ionic compound is formed by transfer of three electrons from an atom of element 'M' to an atom of element 'X'. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

An ionic compound is formed by transfer of three electrons from three atoms of element 'M' to an atom of element 'X'. 

The correct answer is An ionic compound is formed by the transfer of three electrons from three atoms of element 'M' to an atom of element 'X'.

Concept:

Valency:

  • The number of electrons lost or gained by an atom is called valency.
  • Valency = valence electrons if valence electrons < 4.
  • valency = 8 - valence electrons if valence electrons > 4.

Group number: 

  • It tells how many valence electrons are present in the outermost shell of the atom.
  • Valence electrons = Group no. if it is equal to 1 or 2.
  • valence electrons = Group no. - 10 if it is more than 13 and less than 18.

Period number: 

  • It tells how many shells are there in the atom.
  • No. of shells = Period no.

Explanation:

Element M belongs to group 1 and period 3.

  • No. of Shell = Period no. = 3
  • So, there will be 3 shells, K, L, and M.
  • Valence electrons = Group no. = 1
  • So, electronic configuration of element M = 2, 8, 1
  • The valency of the M is +1. It will form a cation M+.

Element 'X' belongs to group 15 and period 2.

  • No. of shell = Period no. = 2
  • So, there are 2 shells, k, and L.
  • Valence electrons = Group no. - 10  = 15 - 10 = 5
  • So, the electronic configuration of element X = 2, 5
  • The valency of element X = 8-5 = 3. It will form an anion X-3.

An ionic bond will be formed between elements M and X by the transfer of one electron each from 3 atoms of M to X.

68

In Mendel's experiments, __________.

  1. ((a))

    Only hybrid plants were self-fertilised 

  2. ((b))

    plants were first self-fertilised and then cross-fertilised

  3. ((c))

    plants were always only cross-fertilised

  4. ((d))

    plants were first cross-fertilised and then self-fertilised

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

plants were first cross-fertilised and then self-fertilised

The correct answer is plants were first cross-fertilised and then self-fertilised.

Concept:

Monohybrid Cross: A cross between two types of plants of the same species considering only the transmission of one character is called a monohybrid cross.

Explanation:

  • Gregor Johann Mendel used the monohybrid cross to determine the dominant and recessive traits in the case of peas.
  • He first crossed true-breeding tall pea plants with true-breeding dwarf pea plants.
  • The homozygous allele for the tall pea plant is represented by TT, and the homozygous allele for the short/dwarf pea plant is represented by tt.
  • A monohybrid cross between the two plants results in the production of a heterozygous genotype (Tt).
  • In terms of phenotype, the F1 generation has all tall pea plants, thus indicating that the tall trait is the dominant trait and the short trait is a recessive trait.
  • The F1 generation is then self-fertilized to get F2 generation.
  • In F2 generation tall and dwarf plants can be seen in a ratio 3:1.

Phenotype: It refers to the external appearance. 

Genotype: It refers to the genetic constitution i.e., the types of genes present in the organism. ​

69

In mammals, the oviduct is also known as the _________.

  1. ((a))

    vaginal duct

  2. ((b))

    placental cord

  3. ((c))

    cervical tube

  4. ((d))

    fallopian tube

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

fallopian tube

The correct answer is fallopian tube.

Concept:

Female reproductive system:

  • It consists of:
  • A pair of ovaries
  • A pair of oviducts
  • Uterus
  • Vagina

Explanation:

Ovaries:

  • These are oval-shaped glands that are small and are located on both sides of the uterus.
  • Ovaries produce hormones and eggs.

Oviduct:

  • It is also known as the fallopian tube.
  • They are narrow tubes that attach to the upper portion of the uterus.
  • Fallopian tubes act as tunnels for the egg cells.
  • They transport the egg cells from the ovaries the to uterus.

Womb or Uterus:

  • It is a pear-shaped, hollow organ that is ‘home’ to a developing fetus.
  • The uterus separates into two parts; namely, the cervix, and the corpus.
  • The corpus easily enlarges for holding a developing baby.

Vagina:

  • It is a canal that joins the cervix to the external portion of the body.
  • The cervix and vagina together form the birth canal.
70

The refractive index of kerosene and ice are 1.44 and 1.31, respectively. A ray of light travels from ice to kerosene. The refractive index of kerosene with respect to ice is _______ and the light ray bends_______ the normal in kerosene. 

  1. ((a))

    0.91; towards 

  2. ((b))

    1.10; away from 

  3. ((c))

    1.10; towards 

  4. ((d))

    0.91; away from 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1.10; towards 

The correct answer is 1.10; towards.

Concept:

  • Refraction of Light: The bending of the ray of light passing from one medium to the other medium is called refraction.

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  • The refraction of light takes place on going from one medium to another because the speed of light is different in the two media.
  • The greater the difference in the speeds of light in the two media, the greater will be the amount of refraction.
  • A medium in which the speed of light is more is known as an optically rarer medium and a medium in which the speed of light is less is known as an optically denser medium.

Refractive Index (n):

  • It is the measure of the bending of a ray of light when passing from one medium into another.
  • If 'i' is the angle of incidence of a ray in a vacuum and 'r' is the angle of refraction, then the refractive index n is defined as the ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence to the sine of the angle of refraction; i.e., n = sin i / sin r.
  • It is also equal to the velocity of light (c) of a given wavelength in empty space divided by its velocity v in a substance, or n = c/v.
Light rarer to denserLight bends toward the normal (e.g., air to water).
Light denser to rarerLight bends away from the normal (e.g., water to air).

Explanation:

Relative refractive index:

  • It refers to the refractive index of one material medium with respect to another one.
  • n21=n2n1n_{21}= \frac{n_{2}}{n_{1}}
  • Refractive index of kerosene with respect to ice = refractive index of kerosene / refractive index of ice = 1.441.31\frac{1.44}{1.31} = 1.10
  • Greater the refractive index, the denser the medium. Thus, kerosene (1.44) is denser than ice (1.31).
  • The refracted ray moves away from the normal when it travels from a denser to a rarer medium.
  • Hence, when the light ray travels from alcohol to ice, the refracted ray will move away from the normal.

The refractive index of kerosene with respect to ice is 1.10 and the light ray bends towards the normal in kerosene.

71

Which of the following contain the same number of oxygen atoms in them? 

(i) 44 g of carbon dioxide 

(ii) 32 g of ozone 

(iii) 23 g of nitrogen dioxide 

(iv) 42 g of carbon monoxide

  1. ((a))

    (i) and (iii) 

  2. ((b))

    (i) and (ii) 

  3. ((c))

    (iii) and (iv) 

  4. ((d))

    (ii) and (iii) 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(i) and (ii) 

The correct answer is (i) 44 g of carbon dioxide, and (ii) 32 g of ozone.

Concept:

Mole:

  • It is the SI unit of the amount of substance.
  • One mole contains exactly 6.022×1023 atoms/molecules.
  • The mass of one mole of a substance in grams is called its molar mass.
  • The molar mass in grams is numerically equal to atomic/molecular/formula mass in u.
  • So, 1 mole = 6.022 × 1023 atoms/molecules = Atomic/molecular mass of an element/compound.

Explanation:

44 g of carbon dioxide 

  • Molar mass of CO2 = 12 + 2 × 16 = 12 + 32 = 44g
  • 1 mole of CO2 = Molar mass of CO2 = 6.022 × 1023 molecules of CO2 ⇒ 44g  CO2 contain molecules = 6.022 × 1023
  • 1 molecule of CO2 contains 2 atoms of oxygen
  • 6.022 × 1023 molecules of CO2 will contain oxygen atoms = 2 × 6.022 × 1023 = 1.2044 × 1024

32 g of ozone 

  • Molar mass of O3 = 3 × 16 = 48g
  • 1 mole of O3 = Molar mass of O3 = 6.022 × 1023 molecules of O3 ⇒ 48g O3 contains molecules = 6.022 × 1023
  • 32g of O3 will contain molecules = 32 × 6.022 × 1023/ 48 =  2×6.022×10233\frac{2 × 6.022 × 10^{23}} {3}
  • 1 molecule of O3 contains 3 atoms of oxygen.
  • 32g of O3 will contain oxygen atoms = 2×6.022×10233×3\frac{2 × 6.022 × 10^{23}} {3} × 3  = 2 × 6.022 × 1023 = 1.2044 × 1023

23g of Nitrogen dioxide 

  • Molar mass of NO2 = 14 + 2 × 16 = 14 + 32 = 46g
  • 1 mole of NO2 = Molar mass of NO2 = 6.022 × 1023 molecules of NO2 ⇒ 46g of  NO2  contains molecules = 6.022 × 1023
  • 23g of NO2 will contain molecules = 23 × 6.022 × 1023/ 46 = 6.022 × 1023/ 2 = 3.011 × 1023
  • 1 molecule of NO2 contains 2 atoms of oxygen.

3.011 × 1023 molecules of NO2 will contain oxygen atoms = 2 × 3.011 × 1023 =  6.022 × 1023

42 g of carbon monoxide 

  • Molar mass of CO = 12 + 16 = 28g
  • 1 mole of CO = Molar mass of CO = 6.022 × 1023 molecules of CO ⇒ 28 g of CO contains molecules = 6.022 × 1023
  • 42g of CO will contain molecules = 28 × 6.022 × 1023 / 42  = 4.015 × 1023
  • 1 molecule of CO contains 1 atom of oxygen.
  • So, 42g of CO will contain 4.015 × 1023  molecules of oxygen.

44 g of carbon dioxide and 32 g of ozone contain the same number of oxygen atoms.

72

Why are people suffering from diabetes asked to remove sugar from their food intake? 

  1. ((a))

    Sugar blocks the production of insulin.

  2. ((b))

    Sugar damages pancreas thereby reducing production of insulin. 

  3. ((c))

    The level of insulin does not respond to normal feedback mechanisms regulated by sugar. 

  4. ((d))

    The level of insulin in their body is insufficient to convert sugar to glycogen. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The level of insulin in their body is insufficient to convert sugar to glycogen. 

The correct answer is The level of insulin in their body is insufficient to convert sugar to glycogen.

Concept:

Disease: 

  • Dis-functioning of one or more organs or systems of the body, characterized by various signs and symptoms is called a disease.

Types of diseases:

  • Infectious diseases: These diseases spread from one person to another easily. They are caused by germs such as bacteria, viruses, protozoa, etc. Example: Common cold, typhoid, cholera, etc.
  • Non-infectious diseases: These diseases are caused due to nutritional deficiency, sedentary lifestyle, or genetic defect. These diseases do not spread from one person to another. Example: Night blindness, colour blindness, etc.

Explanation:

Diabetes:

  • It is a metabolic disorder caused due to prolonged high blood sugar levels.
  • Cause: High blood sugar (glucose) due to insufficient amount of insulin hormone.
  • Symptoms: frequent urination, increases thirst, increased hunger, weakness, tiredness, dry mouth.​
  • The pancreas secretes two hormones- insulin and glucagon.

Insulin: 

  • It is a peptide hormone that converts glucose into glycogen and also promotes glucose uptake by the cells.
  • Thus, it helps in decreasing the amount of glucose in the blood.

Glucagon: 

  • It is also a peptide hormone that acts on liver cells and stimulates the conversion of glycogen into glucose.
  • Thus, it increases the amount of glucose in the blood.

Since diabetes is caused due to insufficient amounts of insulin in the body that helps in reducing blood sugar levels, people suffering from diabetes are advised to remove sugar from their food.

73

What is the pH range for normal functioning of our body? 

  1. ((a))

    7 to 7.8

  2. ((b))

    7.5 to 8.5 

  3. ((c))

    6 to 7.5

  4. ((d))

    7.5 to 8 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

7 to 7.8

The correct answer is 7 to 7.8.

Concept:

pH scale:

  • A scale developed to measure the concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution is known as the pH scale.
  • pH scale ranges from 0 (highly acidic) to 14 (highly alkaline).
  • The pH of a neutral solution is 7.
  • The basic strength increases as we move from 7 to 14 on the pH scale.
  • The acidic strength increases as we move from 7 to 1.

Explanation:

  • The human body works within a narrow range of pH, 7 to 7.8.
  • Too acidic or too basic pH both are harmful to the human body.
  • In order to survive, the human body needs to keep a balanced pH value.
  • Our body maintains pH balance through respiration, excretion and other metabolic activities.
  • Any change in blood pH, i.e. acidosis (pH is too acidic) or alkalosis (pH is too basic) is due to impaired function of these organs.

Additional Information

  • If the pH of our body drops to 6.9 then we will be in a coma.
  • The normal pH range for our arterial blood is 7.35-7.45.
74

Which of the following two organisms fall into the same group (Phylum)?

  1. ((a))

    Butterfly and prawn

  2. ((b))

    Sea cucumber and sea anemone 

  3. ((c))

    Tapeworm and roundworm 

  4. ((d))

    Centipede and earthworm 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Butterfly and prawn

The correct answer is Butterfly and prawn. 

Classification of organisms: 

  • Classification is the process of grouping organisms into different categories on the basis of their similarities and dissimilarities.
  • It makes the study of organisms easier and more convenient.

Five Kingdom classification system:

  • It was given by R.H. Whittaker in 1969.
  • He divided all organisms into five categories namely, Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, and Animalia.
  • This classification was based upon certain characteristics like mode of nutrition, thallus organization, cell structure, phylogenetic relationships, and reproduction. ​

Explanation:

  • All organisms are grouped into 5 kingdoms, and each kingdom is further subdivided into different phyla (for animals) or divisions(plants).
  • The animal kingdom has the following phyla:
PhylumOrganisms
PoriferaSycon, Spongilla (Freshwater sponge), and Euspongia (Bath sponge)
Coelenterata (Cnidaria)Aurelia (jellyfish), Physalia (Portuguese man-of-war), Adamsia (Sea anemone), Pennatula (Sea-pen), Gorgonia (Sea-fan), and Meandrina (Brain coral)
CtenophoraPleurobrachia and Ctenoplana
PlatyhelminthesTapeworm, liver fluke
Aschelminthes (Nematoda)Ascaris
AnnelidaRoundworms, Earthworm, leech
ArthropodaPrawns, butterflies, houseflies, spiders, scorpions, crabs, and centipedes.
MolluscaOctopus, snails, and mussels.
EchinodermataStarfish, Sea urchin, Sea lily, Sea cucumber, Brittle star.
HemichordataBalanoglossus and Saccoglossus
Chordata

Prawns and butterflies belong to the same phylum called Arthropoda.

75

Three resistors A (12 Ω), B (18 Ω) and C (36 Ω) are connected in parallel. This combination is connected in series to three other resistors D (12 Ω), F (18 Ω) and G (36 Ω) and a 12 V battery of negligible internal resistance. Let PB and PF be the rate of energy dissipated in resistors B and F, respectively. Then the ratio (PB / PF) is :

  1. ((a))

    4/9

  2. ((b))

    2/9

  3. ((c))

    3/9

  4. ((d))

    1/9

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1/9

The correct answer is 1/9.

Concept:

Resistance in series:

  • When resistors are connected end-to-end in a circuit, they are said to be in "series."
  • R = R1 + R2 + R3....
  • Current remains the same across all the resistors connected in series.

Resistance in parallel: 

  • When both ends of resistors are connected, they are said to be in parallel.
  • 1/R = 1/R1 + 1/R2 = 1/R3 ....
  • The potential difference across all the resistors connected in parallel remains the same.

Electric Power:

  • The energy consumed per unit of time or the rate of doing work is called power.
  • Power = work done / time taken = Vq / t = VI = V2/R = I2R

Explanation:

Resistors A (12 Ω), B (18 Ω), and C (36 Ω) are connected in parallel.

Equivalent resistance, 1/R1 = 1/12 + 1/18 + 1/36 = 3+2+1/36 = 6/36 = 1/6 Ω

R1 = 6 Ω

Now, the  resistors R1, D, F, and G are in series.

R2 = 6 + 12 + 18 + 36 = 72 Ω 

Equivalent current, I in the circuit = V/R2 = 12/ 72 = 1/6 A

Potential difference across A = IR1 =  = 6/6 = 1 V

PB = V2/ A =  1 × 1 / 18 = 1/18 Watt  (since voltage remains same in parallel combination)

PF = I2D = 1/6 × 1/6  × 18 = 1/2 Watt  (since current remains same in series combination)

The ratio (PA/PD) = 1/18 × 1/2 = 2/18 = 1/9.

Social Science (25 questions)

76

Historically, which of the following was exported from India? 

  1. ((a))

    Spices

  2. ((b))

    Artifacts 

  3. ((c))

    Tea

  4. ((d))

    Fine cotton cloth

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Fine cotton cloth

The answer is Fine cotton clothes.

  • Export means the transferring of any good from one country to another country in a legal way for the purpose of trade. Export goods are provided to foreign consumers by the domestic producers.

Important Points

  1. The history of Indian exports is very old. During ancient times India exported spices to the other parts of the world.
  2. India was also famous for its textiles which were a chief item for export in the 16th century. Textiles and cotton were exported to the Arab countries from Gujarat.
  3. During the Mughal era, India exported various precious stones such as ivory, pearls, tortoise stones, etc. But during the British era, Indian exports declined as the East India Company took control of foreign trade.

Hence, Historically, Fine cotton clothes were exported from India.

77

Which national political party was founded by reviving the erstwhile Bhartiya Jan Sangh? 

  1. ((a))

    Bahujan Samaj Party

  2. ((b))

    Communist Party of India 

  3. ((c))

    Bharatiya Janta Party

  4. ((d))

    Indian National Congress 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Bharatiya Janta Party

The correct answer is Bharatiya Janta Party.

  • A political party is a group of people who come together to contest elections and hold power in the government. They agree on some policies and programs for the society with a view to promoting the collective good.

Important Points

  1. Bharatiya Janata Party was Founded in 1980 by reviving the erstwhile Bharatiya Jana Sangh, formed by Syama Prasad Mukherjee in 1951.
  2. Wants to build a strong and modern India by drawing inspiration from India’s ancient culture and values; and Deendayal Upadhyaya’s ideas of integral humanism and Antyodaya.
  3. Cultural nationalism (or ‘Hindutva’) is an important element in its conception of Indian nationhood and politics.
  4. Wants full territorial and political integration of Jammu and Kashmir with India, a uniform civil code for all people living in the country irrespective of religion, and a ban on religious conversions. Its support base increased substantially in the 1990s.

Hence, The Bharatiya Janata Party was formed by reviving the erstwhile Bharatiya Jan Sangh.

78

Who opposed the Mandal Commission's Recommendations by self immolation? 

  1. ((a))

    Mulk Raj, a student of JNU, Delhi

  2. ((b))

    Gajendra Singh Rathore, a student of Aligarh Muslim University 

  3. ((c))

    Surinder Singh Chauhan, a student of the University of Delhi

  4. ((d))

    Bir Singh Chauhan, a student of the University of Delhi 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Surinder Singh Chauhan, a student of the University of Delhi

Mandal Commission was set up in 1979 January by the Morarji Desai government

  • This is to identify the socially or educationally backward classes to consider the question of seat reservations and quotas for people to redress caste discrimination, and used eleven social, economic, and educational indicators to determine backwardness.
  • It was chaired by B. P. Mandal.

Important Points

  1. Surinder Singh Chauhan was the first student to perform self-immolation while an evening student of Deshbandhu College (Delhi University) on September 24, 1990, to protest against the implementation of the Mandal Commission recommendation for the reservation of candidates based on birth.
  2. These protests were against giving government jobs to certain castes on basis of birth rather than the merit of the candidate.
  3. These protests closed roads, highways, transportation services, government services, schools, and businesses in India. Anti-reservationists protested. Student protests were planned publicly and in advance.

Hence, Surinder Singh Chauhan opposed the Mandal Commission Recommendations by self-immolation.

79

Which amendment to the Constitution of India provides for three tiers of Panchayati Raj? 

  1. ((a))

    77th Amendment

  2. ((b))

    79th Amendment

  3. ((c))

    73rd Amendment

  4. ((d))

    76th Amendment

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

73rd Amendment

The correct answer is 73rd Amendment.

  • The amendment, in government and law, is an addition or alteration made to a constitution, statute, or legislative bill or resolution.
  • Amendments can be made to existing constitutions and statutes and are also commonly made to bills in the course of their passage through a legislature.

Important Points

  1. The 73rd Amendment envisages the Gram Sabha as the foundation of the Panchayat Raj System to perform functions and powers entrusted to it by the State Legislatures.
  2. The amendment provides for a three-tier Panchayat Raj System at the village, intermediate, and district levels.
  3. The 73rd Amendment 1992 added a new Part IX to the constitution titled “The Panchayats” covering provisions from Article 243 to 243(O); and a new Eleventh Schedule covering 29 subjects within the functions of the Panchayats.

Hence, The 73rd amendment of the constitution provides for three tiers of Panchayati Raj.

80

What is a jet stream?

  1. ((a))

    Monsoon winds that cause heavy rains

  2. ((b))

    Strong winds above Earth's surface

  3. ((c))

    Hot winds blowing in extreme summer 

  4. ((d))

    Ocean currents which bring about Tsunamis 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Strong winds above Earth's surface

The correct answer is Strong winds above the earth's surface.

  • We see that the earth's rotation divided this circulation into three cells. The earth's rotation is responsible for the jet stream as well.

Important Points

  1. Jet streams are relatively narrow bands of strong wind in the upper levels of the atmosphere.
  2. The winds blow from west to east in jet streams but the flow often shifts to the north and south. Jet streams follow the boundaries between hot and cold air.
  3. Since these hot and cold air boundaries are most pronounced in winter, jet streams are the strongest for both the northern and southern hemisphere winters.
  4. Jet streams are often indicated by a line on a weather map indicating the location of the strongest wind.

Hence, The Jet Streams are strong winds above the earth's surface.

81

Which of the following is NOT a determined of the human resource development of a country? 

  1. ((a))

    Sex ratio 

  2. ((b))

    Its income per capita 

  3. ((c))

    Status of health of its people 

  4. ((d))

    Literacy level of its people 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sex ratio 

The correct answer is Sex ratio.

  • Human resource development may be identified as the process through which a society augments the skills, education, and productive abilities of its people. In essence, it means an increase in human capital.

Important Points

  1. Human resource refers to the people who are part of the workforce. Human resource plays a significant role in the economy of a country by contributing to productivity.
  2. Using the human development index of UNDP that the main factors influencing human resource development are the level of per capita income, its rate of growth, state of the income distribution, and expenditure on the military.
  3. Per capita income is the main determinant when we measure human resource development.
  4. The health of the people and Education levels also has the same importance to measure the level of human resource development.

Hence, The Sex ratio of the country is not a determinant of the human resource development of a country.

82

Which of the following pairs is INCORRECT with respect to colours by which a landform is represented on the map? 

  1. ((a))

    Plains - Green 

  2. ((b))

    Plateaus - Grey

  3. ((c))

    Water Bodies - Blue 

  4. ((d))

    Mountains - Brown 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Plateaus - Grey

A landform map shows the locations of landforms in a place. These maps often use color to show mountains, hills, plateaus, plains, and more.

  • They also show major bodies of water Points in different colors on the map and have students use the map key to name the type of landform.

Important Points

  1. Physical maps use color most dramatically to show changes in elevation. The Green color is used to represent various types of plains landform on the map.
  2. The Blue color is used to represent various types of Water bodies or rivers on the map. The Brown color is used to indicate the various types of mountains on the map.
  3. It is important to remember that on maps that use shades of greens, browns, and the like, color does not represent ground cover

Mistake Points

  1. The Yellow color is used to represent Plateaus on the map.

Hence, Plateaus are shown by the Yellow color on the map and not by the Grey color.

83

Which day is celebrated as Constitution Day in India? 

  1. ((a))

    26 November 

  2. ((b))

    26 January 

  3. ((c))

    25 January 

  4. ((d))

    15 August 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

26 November 

The correct answer is 26 November.

  • The Constitution of India is the supreme law of India.
  • The document lays down the framework that demarcates the fundamental political code, structure, procedures, powers, and duties of government institutions and sets out fundamental rights, directive principles, and the duties of citizens.

Important Points

  1. Constitution Day is also known as "National Law Day", is celebrated in India on 26 November every year to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India, 26 November 1949.
  2. The Constituent Assembly of India adopted the Constitution of India, and it came into effect on 26 January 1950.
  3. The Government of India declared 26 November as Constitution Day on 19 November 2015 by a gazette notification.

Hence, The constitution day of India is celebrated on 26th November.

84

The preamble to the Constitution of India mentions about liberty of many types. Which of the following is NOT one of these liberties? 

  1. ((a))

    Worship 

  2. ((b))

    Thought and expression 

  3. ((c))

    Belief and faith 

  4. ((d))

    Action 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Action 

The correct answer is Actions.

  • A preamble is an introductory statement in a document that explains the document's philosophy and objectives.
  • In a Constitution, it presents the intention of its framers, the history behind its creation, and the core values and principles of the nation.

Important Points

  1. The idea of Liberty refers to the freedom of the activities of Indian nationals. This establishes that there are no unreasonable restrictions on Indian citizens in terms of what they think, their manner of expression, and the way they wish to follow up their thoughts in action.
  2. However, liberty does not mean freedom to do anything, and it must be exercised within the constitutional limits.
  3. In the Indian constitution liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship are mentioned.

Hence, In the preamble of the constitution of India, there is no Action liberty mentioned.

85

All of the following are merits of human capital formation EXCEPT :

  1. ((a))

    an educated person is an asset for only his family

  2. ((b))

    an educated person can contribute to the socio-economic development of the country 

  3. ((c))

    a healthy person stops the spread of contagious diseases by adopting personal hygiene and sanitation 

  4. ((d))

    an educated person can participate in the democratic process effectively

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

an educated person is an asset for only his family

Human capital formation refers to the process of adding to the stock of human capital over time.

  • It is the process of acquiring and increasing the number of skilled and experienced people. It is essential for the development of an economy.

Important Points

  1. Human capital allows an economy to grow. An educated person can use his potential to grow.
  2. When human capital increases in areas such as science, education, and management, it leads to increases in innovation, social well-being, equality, increased productivity, and improved rates of participation. All of which contribute to economic growth.
  3. Increases in economic growth tend to improve the quality of life for a population.
  4. An educated person can participate in the democratic process effectively and can contribute to the social-economic development of the country.

Hence, An educated person is an asset for only his family is not the merit of Human capital formation.

86

Among which of the following classes of people did the ideas of national unity, following the abolition of aristocratic privileges, become popular? 

  1. ((a))

    Landlords

  2. ((b))

    Elite class 

  3. ((c))

    Educated liberal middle class 

  4. ((d))

    Landless farmers 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Educated liberal middle class 

The correct answer is Educated, liberal middle class.

  • Liberalism is a political and social philosophy that promotes democracy, free enterprise, and individual rights.
  • The term ‘liberalism’ derives from the Latin word “liber”, which means politically free, it emphasizes the concept of government by Authorization.

Important Points

  1. The objective of national unity in early-nineteenth-century Europe was sharply associated with the ideology of liberalism.
  2. The ideas of national unity which followed the eradication of aristocratic privileges gained a considerable amount of popularity with the educated liberal middle class.
  3. To the new middle classes, liberalism represented individual liberty and the equality of all before the law.
  4. Liberals stressed the inviolability of private property, in the nineteenth century. The landed aristocracy was a socially and politically dominant class on the subcontinent.

Hence, The idea of national unity which followed by the eradication of aristocratic privileges gained in the Educated liberal middle class.

87

The Himalaya mountain do NOT stretch across which of the following countries? 

  1. ((a))

    Sri Lanka

  2. ((b))

    Pakistan 

  3. ((c))

    China

  4. ((d))

    Nepal

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sri Lanka

The correct answer is Sri Lanka.

  • The Himalayas, or the Himalayas, are a mountain range in Asia separating the plains of the Indian subcontinent from the Tibetan Plateau.
  • The range has some of the planet's highest peaks, including the highest, Mount Everest. Over 100 peaks exceeding 7,200 m in elevation lie in the Himalayas.

Important Points

  1. The Himalayas stretch across the northeastern portion of India. They cover approximately 1,500 mi (2,400 km) and pass through the nations of India, Pakistan, Afghanistan, China, Bhutan, and Nepal.
  2. The Himalayan range is bordered on the northwest by the Karakoram and the Hindu Kush ranges, on the north by the Tibetan Plateau, and on the south by the Indo-Gangetic Plain.
  3. Some of the world's major rivers, the Indus, the Ganges, and the Tsangpo–Brahmaputra, rise in the vicinity of the Himalayas, and their combined drainage basin is home to some 600 million people.
  4. There are 53 million people living in the Himalayas mountain range.

Hence, The Himalayas mountain range does not stretch across Sri Lanka.

88

Identify the grassland that is INCORRECTLY paired with its region. 

  1. ((a))

    Pampas - Argentina 

  2. ((b))

    Prairie - North America 

  3. ((c))

    Steppe - Central Asia 

  4. ((d))

    Veld - South America 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Veld - South America 

Grassland is an area in which the vegetation is dominated by a nearly continuous cover of grasses.

  • Grasslands occur in environments conducive to the growth of this plant cover but not to that of taller plants, particularly trees and shrubs.
  • The factors preventing establishment of such taller, woody vegetation are varied.

Important Points

  1. The Pampas, also called the Pampa,  vast plains extending westward across central Argentina from the Atlantic coast to the Andean foothills, bounded by the Gran Chaco and Patagonia.
  2. The Prairie, level or rolling grassland, especially that found in central North America. Decreasing amounts of rainfall, from 100 cm at the forested eastern edge to less than 30 cm  at the desertlike western edge, affect the species composition of the prairie grassland.
  3. The Steppe, belt of grassland that extends some 5,000 miles (8,000 km) from Hungary in the west through Ukraine and Central Asia to Manchuria in the east.

Mistake Points

  1. Veld, which means field in Africaans, is a term that has colloquial come to mean land that is worked.
  2. The velds are expansive grasslands bounded to the east and south by the Great Escarpment and the Lesotho highlands and to the west by the Kalahari Desert.

Hence, Veld Grassland vegetation is found in Kalahari desert in Africa and not in South America.

89

The Election Commission of India is NOT responsible for the supervision, control and directions for elections of which body? 

  1. ((a))

    Local bodies 

  2. ((b))

    Legislative Assembly 

  3. ((c))

    Office of Vice-President of India 

  4. ((d))

    Office of President of India

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Local bodies 

The correct answer is Local bodies.

  • The Election Commission of India (ECI) is a constitutional body under the ownership of the Ministry of Law and Justice, Government of India.
  • It was established by the Constitution of India to conduct and regulate elections in the country.

Important Points

  1. The body administers elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies, State Legislative Councils, and the offices of the President and Vice President of the country.
  2. The Election Commission operates under the authority of the Constitution per Article 324 and subsequently enacted the Representation of the People Act.
  3. The commission has the powers under the Constitution, to act in an appropriate manner when the enacted laws make insufficient provisions to deal with a given situation in the conduct of an election.

Hence, The Election commission of India is not responsible for the election of Local bodies.

90

Which of the following freedoms has NOT been granted under Right to Freedom as per the Constitution of India?

  1. ((a))

    Freedom to perform sacrifices of animals in the name of religion 

  2. ((b))

    Freedom to reside in any part of the country 

  3. ((c))

    Freedom to form associations and unions

  4. ((d))

    Freedom of speech 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Freedom to perform sacrifices of animals in the name of religion 

Fundamental rights in India are the rights guaranteed under Part III (Articles 12-35) of the Constitution of India.

  • There are six fundamental rights (Article 12 - 35) recognized by the Indian constitution.

Important Points

  1. The right to freedom guarantees citizens, among other things, the freedom to live in dignity. They are regulated in Articles 19, 20, 21A, and 22 of the Indian Constitution.
  2. Article 19 of the Indian constitution mentions six freedoms that are available to the citizens of India.
  3. Freedom of speech and expression, Freedom to assemble peacefully and without arms, Freedom to form Associations and Unions are some of them.
  4. Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India, Freedom to reside and settle in any part of India, Freedom to practice any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade, or business. These are also included in the right to freedom.

Hence, The Freedom to perform sacrifices of animals in the name of religion is not included in the right to freedom.

91

Which of the following banks issues currency notes in India? 

  1. ((a))

    State Bank of India 

  2. ((b))

    Bank of India

  3. ((c))

    Reserve Bank of India 

  4. ((d))

    Central Bank of India 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Reserve Bank of India 

The correct answer is the Reserve Bank of India.

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is India's central bank and regulatory body responsible for the regulation of the Indian banking system.
  • It is under the ownership of the Ministry of Finance, Government of India.

Important Points

  1. Other than the Government of India, the Reserve Bank of India is the sole body authorized to issue banknotes in India. The bank also destroys banknotes when they are not fit for circulation.
  2. All the money issued by the central bank is its monetary liability, i.e., the central bank is obliged to back the currency with assets of equal value, to enhance public confidence in paper currency.
  3. The objectives are to issue banknotes and give the public an adequate supply of the same, to maintain the currency and credit system of the country to utilize it to its best advantage, and to maintain the reserves.

Hence, In India, the Reserve Bank of India issues currency notes.

92

People who joined the Mughal service were known by which of the following names? 

  1. ((a))

    Jat

  2. ((b))

    Sevadar

  3. ((c))

    Mansabdar

  4. ((d))

    Jagirdar

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Mansabdar

The correct answer is Mansabdar.

  • The Mansabdar was a military unit within the administrative system of the Mughal Empire introduced by Akbar. The word mansab is of Arabic origin meaning rank or position.
  • The system determined the rank and status of government officials and military generals.

Important Points

  1. Those who joined the Mughal service were enrolled as mansabdars. The term mansabdar refers to an individual who holds a mansab, meaning a position or rank.
  2. It was a system whereby nobles were granted the rights to hold a jagir, or revenue assignment (not the land itself), for services rendered by them, with the direct control of these nobles in the hands of the king.
  3. The term manasabadar means a person having a mansab. (which means a role) In the mansabdari system founded by Akbar.

Hence, People who joined the Mughal service were known as Mansabdar.

93

A long period of fragmentation was faced by which of the following countries? 

  1. ((a))

    Russia

  2. ((b))

    Denmark 

  3. ((c))

    Italy 

  4. ((d))

    Prussia 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Italy 

The correct answer is Italy.

  • Political fragmentation refers to the process of redistributing functions, powers, or people away from a central authority by incorporating autonomous entities such as municipalities and special districts.

Important Points

  1. Italy had a long history of political fragmentation. Italians were scattered over several dynastic states as well as the multinational Habsburg empire.
  2. During the middle of the 19th century, Italy was divided into seven states of which only one, Sardinia- Piedmont was ruled by an Italian Princely House.
  3. The North was under Austrian Habsburg, the center was ruled by the pope and the Southern regions were under the domination of the Bourbon kings of Spain.
  4. Even the Italian language had not any standard common form. It had many regional and local variations.

Hence, Italy faced a long period of fragmentation.

94

In 1904, workers in St. Peterburg went on strike and demanded all of the following EXCEPT:

  1. ((a))

    improvement in the working conditions

  2. ((b))

    family accommodation 

  3. ((c))

    increase in wages

  4. ((d))

    reduction in the working day to eight hours 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

family accommodation 

The correct answer is Family accommodation.

  • The year 1904 was a particularly bad one for Russian workers. Prices of essential goods rose so quickly that real wages declined by 20 percent.

Important Points

  1. The membership of workers' associations rose dramatically. When four members of the Assembly of Russian Workers, which had been formed in 1904, were dismissed at the Putilov Iron Works. there was a call for industrial action.
  2. Over the next few days, over 110,000 workers in St. Petersburg went on strike demanding a reduction in the working day to eight hours, an increase in wages, and improvement in working conditions.
  3. When the procession of workers led by Father Gapon reached the Winter Palace it was attacked by the police and the Cossacks. Over 100 workers were killed and about 300 wounded.
  4. The incident, known as Bloody Sunday, started a series of events that became known as the 1905 Revolution.

Hence, In 1904, workers in St. Petersburg went on strike for improvement in working conditions, increase in wages. Family accommodation was not the reason for the strike.

95

Which of the following is NOT a cause for Lahar or mudflow on the slopes of volcanoes? 

  1. ((a))

    Human disturbances 

  2. ((b))

    Sudden melting of snow 

  3. ((c))

    Water from glaciers

  4. ((d))

    Heavy rainfall

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Human disturbances 

The correct answer is Human disturbances.

  • A lahar is a violent type of mudflow or debris flow composed of a slurry of pyroclastic material, rocky debris, and water.
  • The material flows down from a volcano, typically along a river valley.

Important Points

  1. Lahars formed during explosive eruptions by snow-and-ice melt or ejection of crater lakes, by the failure of vast amounts of wet, weak rock from a volcano, or by the sudden release of water from large lakes dammed by volcanic debris are likely to be large, fast, and very destructive far downstream from the volcano.
  2. More often, lahars are formed by intense rainfall during or after an eruption.
  3. Rainwater can easily erode loose volcanic rock and soil on hillsides and in river valleys.
  4. Landslides are triggered by eruptions, earthquakes, precipitation, or the unceasing pull of gravity on the volcano.

Hence, Human disturbances are not the cause of Lahar or mudflow on the slopes of volcanoes.

96

Which of the following is NOT a demerit of using wind energy? 

  1. ((a))

    It causes noise in the surrounding atmosphere.

  2. ((b))

    It causes harm to birds and bats. 

  3. ((c))

    It has high initial and maintenance cost. 

  4. ((d))

    It is renewable.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

It is renewable.

That energy produced from Wind is called Wind Energy. Wind is caused due to unequal heating of land and water bodies by the sun. This unequal heating generates air movement and causes winds to blow. This kinetic energy of wind is used to generate wind energy from a Windmill.

Key Points 

  • A windmill essentially consists of a structure of a large electric fan that is erected at some height on a rigid support.
  • To generate electricity, the rotatory motion of the windmill is used to turn the turbine of the electric generator.
  • When a number of windmills are erected over a large area, which is known as wind energy farm.
  • Wind energy is an example of a renewable energy source because it is not depleted when used.
  • Netherlands, Germany, Denmark, UK, USA, and Spain are leading producers of wind energy.
  • Denmark is called the country of ‘winds’, More than 25% of their electricity needs are generated through a vast network of windmills.
  • In terms of total output, Germany is the leader, while India is ranked fifth in harnessing wind energy for the production of electricity.
  • It is estimated that nearly 45,000 MW of electrical power can be generated if India’s wind potential is fully exploited.
  • The largest wind energy farm has been established near Kanyakumari in Tamil Nadu and it generates 380 MW of electricity.
  • The Government of India has set a target of installing 175 GW of renewable energy capacity by the year 2022, which includes 100 GW from solar, 60 GW from wind, 10 GW from bio-power and 5 GW from small hydro-power.
AdvantageDisadvantage
non-pollutingnoise pollution
low cost production of electricity once setupwindmills costly to setup
safe and cleandisturbs radio and T.V reception
an inexhaustible source of energyharmful to birds

  

Additional Information

Resources- Everything available in our environment which can be used to satisfy our needs, is called a resource. It should be technologically accessible, economically feasible and culturally acceptable. Only then, it can be termed as a ‘Resource’. Examples: minerals, forests, fossil fuels etc.

Classification of resources:

On the basis of originBiotic and Abiotic
On the basis of exhaustibilityRenewable and Non-renewable
On the basis of ownershipIndividual (Personal), Community, National and International.
On the basis of status and developmentPotential, Developed, Reserve and Stock.
97

Who assassinated King Birendra of Nepal? 

  1. ((a))

    Protestors in Nepal 

  2. ((b))

    Crown Prince Dipendra

  3. ((c))

    Gyanendra Bir Bikram Shah

  4. ((d))

    Dissatisfied Peasants 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Crown Prince Dipendra

On June 1, 2001,King Birendra was fatally shot by his son Crown Prince Dipendra .

  • He also shot and killed  King Birendra, his mother, Queen Aishwarya, his younger brother and sister and other members of the royal family before shooting himself in the head. Because he had killed most of the line of succession, he became king while in a comatose state from the head wound that's called Nepalese royal massacre.

Additional Information Nepal and Democracy:

  • Nepal witnessed an extraordinary popular movement in April 2006.
  • The movement aims to restore democracy.
  • All the major parties in the parliament have formed the Seven-Party Alliance (SPA) and called for a five-day strike in Kathmandu.
  • The 2006 movement aimed to restore the king's general control of the government.
  • All the major political parties in the parliament (Nepal's Seven-Party Alliance) demanded a 4-day strike. The protest quickly turned into an indefinite strike. Many other organizations united and people fought the curfew and took to the streets. Even the security forces cannot control them.
  • On April 21 they served an Utlimatum to the king and the leaders of the movement rejected the half- hearted concessions given by the king and struck to their demand for restoration of parliament power to all party government and a new constituent assembly.
  • On 24 April 2006 the king was forced to grant all the demands.
98

Delhi falls under which railway zone? 

  1. ((a))

    North-Central Railway Zone 

  2. ((b))

    North-Frontier Railway Zone 

  3. ((c))

    Northern Railway Zone 

  4. ((d))

    Central Railway Zone 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Northern Railway Zone 

The Indian Railways is a huge Organisation spread over length and breadth of the country. To make its management and operations smooth and hassle-free, it has been divided into zones, which are further sub-divided into divisions.

  • Each division has its divisional headquarter. At present there are 16 Railway Zones and a total of 69 divisions in India.
  • Zonal and Divisional boundaries are decided by operational/administrative requirements and not on considerations of State boundaries and as such there are some States which have railway lines under jurisdictional control of more than one Zonal Railway/Division.
  • The Divisional Railway Manager is generally assisted by one or two Additional Divisional Railway Managers (ADRM) of the division.

​ 

Additional Information

Railway zoneDivisionZonal Headquaters
Central Railway- Mumbai - Nagpur - Bhusawal - Pune - SholapurMumbai
Eastern Railway- Howrah-I - Howrah-II - Sealdah - Malda - Asansol - Chittaranjan - Kolkata MetroKolkata
East Central Railway- Danapur - Mugalsarai - Dhanbad - Sonpur - SamastipurHajipur
East Coast Railway- Khurda Road - Waltair - SambalpurBhubaneshwar
Northern Railway- Delhi-I - Delhi-II - Ambala - Moradabad - Lucknow - FirozpurBaroda House, New Delhi
North Central  Railway- Allahabad - Jhansi - AgraAllahabad
North Eastern  Railway- Izzatnagar - Lucknow - Varanasi - DLWGorakhpur
North Frontier  Railway- Katihar - Alipurduar - Rangiya - Lumding - TinsukiaMaligaon, Guwahati
North Western Railway- Jaipur - Jodhpur - Bikaner - AjmerJaipur
Southern  Railway- Chennai - Madurai - Palghat - Trichy - TrivandrumChennai
South Central Railway- Secunderabad - Hyderabad - Guntakal - Vijayawada - NandedSecunderabad
South Eastern Railway- Kharagpur - Adra - Chakradharpur - Ranchi - ShalimarGarden Reach, Kolkata
South East Central  Railway- Bilaspur - Nagpur - RaipurBilaspur
South Western Railway- Bangalore - Mysore - Hubli - RWF/YNKHubli
Western Railway- BCT - Vadodara - Ahmedabad - Ratlam - Rajkot - BhavnagarMumbai CST
West Central Railway- Jabalpur - Bhopal - KotaJabalpur

99

Mukti Bahini was led by

  1. ((a))

    Bankim Chandra 

  2. ((b))

    Mujibur Rahman

  3. ((c))

    Potti Sriramulu

  4. ((d))

    Mirabehn (formerly Madeleine Slade) 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Mujibur Rahman

Mukti Bahini refers to the armed organizations that fought against the Pakistan Army during the Bangladesh Liberation War, who lead by Mujibur Rahman.

  • It was a guerrilla resistance movement.
  • Mukti Bahini was formed by Bengali regulars and civilians after the proclamation of Bangladesh‘s independence on March 26, 1971.
  • During the Indo-Pakistani War of 1971, the Mukti Bahini became an integral part of the Bangladesh-India Allied Forces.
  • It played an important role in the surrender of Pakistan and the liberation of Dacca and other cities in December 1971.

Additional Information

Mujibur rahman- is a founding father of Bangladesh.

  • he was the first prime minister of Bangladesh(1972-75).
  • He began his formal political career in 1949 as a co-founder of the Awami League.
  • He played a crucial role in advocating political autonomy for East Pakistan, the detached eastern part of Pakistan (now Bangladesh).

**Potti Sriramulu-**an icon of Andhra Pradesh, was a freedom fighter and champion of Telugu, who fasted unto death for the sake of statehood for Andhra Pradesh.

Bankim Chandra- Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay was one of the greatest novelists and poets of India.

  • He composed the song Vande Mataram in Sanskrit, which was a source of inspiration to the people in their freedom struggle.

 

Mirabehn (formerly Madeleine Slade)-was a British supporter of the Indian Independence Movement who left her home and work with Mahatma Gandhi. 

  • She devoted her life to human development and the advancement of Gandhi's principles.
  • She was awarded Padma Vibhushan in 1982.
100

Generally, which of the following things is/are NOT distributed through the public distribution system in India? 

  1. ((a))

    Vegetables and fruits 

  2. ((b))

    Kerosene 

  3. ((c))

    Grains such as wheat and rice 

  4. ((d))

    Sugar 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Vegetables and fruits 

The Public distribution system (PDS) is an Indian food Security System established under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food, and Public Distribution.

  • Public Distribution System (PDS) is a government managed process of ensuring that food, staples, grains and other necessities are being provided to the poorer sections of the society in India.
  • PDS is operated under the joint responsibility of the Central and the State Governments.
  • presently the commodities namely wheat, rice, sugar and kerosene are being allocated to the States/UTs for distribution.
  • Some States/UTs also distribute additional items of mass consumption through the PDS outlets such as pulses, edible oils, iodized salt, spices, etc.

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