Official Paper

RRB Clerk Mains Memory Based Paper (Held on: 24th September 2022) (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

Reasoning (40 questions)

Directions: Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Nine persons J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q and R are sitting in a straight row but not in the same order. Some of them are facing south and others facing north direction. Not more than two adjacent persons face in the same direction. J sits 4^th from one of the extreme ends. K sits 5^th to the right of J. Two persons sit between K and N and both K and N are facing towards the north. One person sits between N and P, who sits to the immediate left of Q. R sits third to the right of P, who faces south. O sits to the immediate left of both L and J. M and R face the same direction.

Who sits immediate right of J?

((a))
R
((b))
M
((c))
L
((d))
P
((e))
K

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Nine persons: J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R

Faces both directions North and South.

J sits 4^th from one of the extreme ends.
K sits 5^th to the right of J.
Two persons sit between K and N and both K and N are facing towards the north.
One person sits between N and P, who sits to the immediate left of Q.

R sits third to the right of P, who faces south.
O sits to the immediate left of both L and J.
M and R face the same direction.

Clearly, R sits immediate right of J.

Find the odd one.

((a))
M
((b))
L
((c))
R
((d))
K
((e))
Q

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Nine persons: J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R

Faces both directions North and South.

J sits 4th from one of the extreme ends.
K sits 5th to the right of J.
Two persons sit between K and N and both K and N are facing towards the north.
One person sits between N and P, who sits to the immediate left of Q.

R sits third to the right of P, who faces south.
O sits to the immediate left of both L and J.
M and R face the same direction.

Clearly, all except K are facing south direction.

Who sits fourth to the left of N?

((a))
J
((b))
K
((c))
L
((d))
M
((e))
P

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Nine persons: J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R

Faces both directions North and South.

J sits 4th from one of the extreme ends.
K sits 5th to the right of J.
Two persons sit between K and N and both K and N are facing towards the north.
One person sits between N and P, who sits to the immediate left of Q.

R sits third to the right of P, who faces south.
O sits to the immediate left of both L and J.
M and R face the same direction.

Hence, L sits fourth to the left of N.

R sits exactly between ___ and ___.

((a))
N – Q
((b))
J – N
((c))
O – Q
((d))
Both 1) and 2)
((e))
Both 2) and 3)

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Both 2) and 3)

Nine persons: J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R

Faces both directions North and South.

J sits 4th from one of the extreme ends.
K sits 5th to the right of J.
Two persons sit between K and N and both K and N are facing towards the north.
One person sits between N and P, who sits to the immediate left of Q.

R sits third to the right of P, who faces south.
O sits to the immediate left of both L and J.
M and R face the same direction.

Hence, R sits between J and N as well as O and Q.

Number of persons sitting to the right of ___ is equal to number of persons sitting to the left of J.

((a))
K
((b))
L
((c))
N
((d))
P
((e))
Q

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Nine persons: J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R

Faces both directions North and South.

J sits 4th from one of the extreme ends.
K sits 5th to the right of J.
Two persons sit between K and N and both K and N are facing towards the north.
One person sits between N and P, who sits to the immediate left of Q.

R sits third to the right of P, who faces south.
O sits to the immediate left of both L and J.
M and R face the same direction.

Hence, Number of persons sitting to the right of N is equal to number of persons sitting to the left of J.

Direction: Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:

Seven persons M1, M2, M3, M4, M5, M6 and M7 score different marks in chemistry exam. At least three persons score better marks than M5. The score of M7 is 37, which is the lowest marks that anyone has scored. M2 scores better marks than M4 but not better than that of M5. Person, who scored 2^ndhighest marks, scored 88 marks. Neither M1 nor M6 scored 88 marks.

Who among the following scored the highest marks?

((a))
M6
((b))
M4
((c))
M1
((d))
M5
((e))
Cannot be determined

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Cannot be determined

Persons: M1, M2, M3, M4, M5, M6 and M7.

At least three persons score better marks than M5.
The score of M7 is 37, which is the lowest marks that anyone has scored.
M2 scores better marks than M4 but notbetter than that of M5.
Person, who scored 2^nd highest marks, scored 88 marks.
Neither M1 nor M6 scored 88 marks.

Student	M6/M1	M3	M1/M6	M5	M2	M4	M7
Marks		88					37

Either M6 or M1 scored the highest marks.

Hence, ‘Cannot be determined’ is the correct answer.

What would be possible score of M4 if M2 scores 67 marks?

((a))
90
((b))
17
((c))
70
((d))
55
((e))
10

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Persons: M1, M2, M3, M4, M5, M6 and M7.

At least three persons score better marks than M5.
The score of M7 is 37, which is the lowest marks that anyone has scored.
M2 scores better marks than M4 but notbetter than that of M5.
Person, who scored 2nd highest marks, scored 88 marks.
Neither M1 nor M6 scored 88 marks.

Student	M6/M1	M3	M1/M6	M5	M2	M4	M7
Marks		88					37

Either M6 or M1 scored the highest marks.

If M2 scores 67 then the arrangement is:

Student	M6/M1	M3	M1/M6	M5	M2	M4	M7
Marks		88			67	55	37

Hence, the possible score of M4 is 55.

How many persons score better marks than M5?

((a))
Two
((b))
Three
((c))
One
((d))
Five
((e))
Four

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Three

Persons: M1, M2, M3, M4, M5, M6 and M7.

At least three persons score better marks than M5.
The score of M7 is 37, which is the lowest marks that anyone has scored.
M2 scores better marks than M4 but notbetter than that of M5.
Person, who scored 2nd highest marks, scored 88 marks.
Neither M1 nor M6 scored 88 marks.

Student	M6/M1	M3	M1/M6	M5	M2	M4	M7
Marks		88					37

Either M6 or M1 scored the highest marks.

Hence, three persons score better marks than M5.

Rahul remembers that his exam will be after 12th September and before 19th September while Sahil remembers that their exam will be after 13th September and before 20th September and Sonali says that her examination will be after 15th September and before 22nd September. What is the exact date of their exam?

((a))
16^th September
((b))
17th September
((c))
18th September
((d))
19th September
((e))
Can not be determined.

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Can not be determined.

From the statement of Rahul: Exam can be on 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, and 18.

From the statement of Sahil: Exam can be on 14, 15, 16, 17, 18 and 19.

From the statement of Sonali: Exam can be on 16, 17, 18, 19, 20 and 21.

Here, combining all three statements the exam could be on 16, 17 or 18.

Hence, the exact date of their exam can not be determined.

Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that “S < X” and “N ≥ P” definitely hold True?

X _ N _ O ≥ S _ P

((a))

, =, >
((b))
=, ≥, =
((c))

, ≥, =
((d))

, >, ≥
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

, ≥, =

Let us check the options

I. X > N = O ≥ S > P → N > P

II. X = N ≥ O ≥ S = P → S ≤ X

III. X > N ≥ O ≥ S = P → S < X, N ≥ P

IV. X > N > O ≥ S ≥ P → N > P

Hence, the correct sequence of symbols to satisfy the given condition is “>, ≥, =”.

Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that

“B ≥ T” definitely holds True?

A _ B _ I _ N _ R _ T

((a))
<, ≤, =, <, <
((b))
<, <, ≤, <, =
((c))
>, ≥, =, ≥, ≥
((d))
>, >, =, >, ≥
((e))
>, =, ≥, >, =

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

>, ≥, =, ≥, ≥

Let us check each option:

A < B ≤ I = N < R < T → B < T

A < B < I ≤ N < R = T → B < T

A > B ≥ I = N ≥ R ≥ T → B ≥ T

A > B > I = N > R ≥ T → B > T

A > B = I ≥ N > R = T → B > T

Hence, the correct sequence of symbols to satisfy the given condition is “>, ≥, =, ≥, ≥”.

In the following question, how to place the symbols so that both the conditions, Y > L and A ≤ L, definitely hold true when all the expressions are considered together?

H > C __ T < Y; C = L __ J; J ≥ Z __ A

((a))
<, >, =
((b))
=, <, <
((c))
=, =, <
((d))
<, ≥, ≥
((e))
<, =, >

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

<, ≥, ≥

Let us check each option:

H > C < T < Y; C = L > J; J ≥ Z = A → Y > L; L > A
H > C = T < Y; C = L < J; J ≥ Z < A → Y > L; relation between L and A can’t be determined
H > C = T < Y; C = L = J; J ≥ Z < A → Y > L; relation between L and A can’t be determined.
H > C < T < Y; C = L ≥ J; J ≥ Z ≥ A → Y > L; L ≥ A as required.
H > C < T < Y; C = L = J; J ≥ Z > A → Y > L; L > A.

Hence, ‘<, ≥, >’ are to be placed so that both Y > L and L ≥ A hold definitely true.

Direction: Read the information given below carefully and answer the following questions.

11 persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J and K are sitting in a circular table such that all of them are facing the center. There are two people sitting between A and B. G is the immediate neighbor of I and B. K and F are immediate neighbors. The number of persons between A and G is the same as the number of persons between K and A. There is one person between H and F. H is not a immediate member of I and K. There are three people between H and D. One of the neighbors of H is C. E and J are immediate neighbors. J sits to the immediate left of E. E and A are not immediate neighbors. I and A are not immediate members.

Who is sitting third to the left H?

((a))
A
((b))
G
((c))
B
((d))
K
((e))
J

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Persons: A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J and K.

1**.** There are two people sitting between A and B.

G is the immediate neighbor of I and B. 3. I and A are not immediate members.

The number of persons between A and G is the same as the number of persons between K and A.

5. There is one person between H and F. H is not a immediate member of I and K.

6.There are three people between H and D. One of the neighbors of H is C.

E and J are immediate neighbors.
J sits to the immediate left of E.

So, Case 1, Case 2, Case 1B, Case 2B is invalid.

9. E and A are not immediate neighbors.

So. Case 2A is invalid.

The final arrangement is,

Hence, K is sitting third to the left of H.

If I and J interchange their position, then who sits to the immediate right of J?

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Persons: A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J and K.

1. There are two people sitting between A and B. 2. G is the immediate neighbor of I and B. 3. I and A are not immediate members.

The number of persons between A and G is the same as the number of persons between K and A.

5. There is one person between H and F. H is not a immediate member of I and K.

6.There are three people between H and D. One of the neighbors of H is C.

E and J are immediate neighbors.
J sits to the immediate left of E.

So, Case 1, Case 2, Case 1B, Case 2B is invalid.

9. E and A are not immediate neighbors.

So. Case 2A is invalid.

The final arrangement is,

Hence, If I and J interchange their position, D sits to the immediate right of J.

Find the odd one out from the following.

((a))
GK
((b))
DB
((c))
EH
((d))
JC
((e))
AF

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Persons: A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J and K.

1. There are two people sitting between A and B. 2. G is the immediate neighbor of I and B. 3. I and A are not immediate members.

The number of persons between A and G is the same as the number of persons between K and A.

5. There is one person between H and F. H is not a immediate member of I and K.

6.There are three people between H and D. One of the neighbors of H is C.

E and J are immediate neighbors.
J sits to the immediate left of E.

So, Case 1, Case 2, Case 1B, Case 2B is invalid.

9. E and A are not immediate neighbors.

So. Case 2A is invalid.

The final arrangement is,

In DB, EH, JC and AF the first person is seated third to the right of the second person.

In GK the first person is seated third to the left of the second person

Hence, GK is the odd one out.

Which of the following statement is false about A?

I. A sits second to the right of C.

II. Even number of persons sit between A and I when counted from the left of A.

III. Immediate neighbors of A are H and E.

((a))
Only I
((b))
Only II
((c))
Only III
((d))
Both I and II
((e))
Both II and III

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Both II and III

Persons: A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J and K.

1. There are two people sitting between A and B. 2. G is the immediate neighbor of I and B. 3. I and A are not immediate members.

The number of persons between A and G is the same as the number of persons between K and A.

5. There is one person between H and F. H is not a immediate member of I and K.

6.There are three people between H and D. One of the neighbors of H is C.

E and J are immediate neighbors.
J sits to the immediate left of E.

So, Case 1, Case 2, Case 1B, Case 2B is invalid.

9. E and A are not immediate neighbors.

So. Case 2A is invalid.

The final arrangement is,

I. A sits second to the right of C.

II. Odd number of persons sit between A and I when counted from the left of A.

III. Immediate neighbors of A are H and J.

Hence, Both II and III are false statements.

How many persons sit between K and D when counted from the right of K?

((a))
None
((b))
Nine
((c))
Ten
((d))
Four
((e))
Six

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Nine

Persons: A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J and K.

1. There are two people sitting between A and B. 2. G is the immediate neighbor of I and B. 3. I and A are not immediate members.

The number of persons between A and G is the same as the number of persons between K and A.

5. There is one person between H and F. H is not a immediate member of I and K.

6.There are three people between H and D. One of the neighbors of H is C.

E and J are immediate neighbors.
J sits to the immediate left of E.

So, Case 1, Case 2, Case 1B, Case 2B is invalid.

9. E and A are not immediate neighbors.

So. Case 2A is invalid.

The final arrangement is,

Hence, nine persons sit between K and D when counted from the right of K.

Directions: Study the information given below carefully and answer the following questions that follow.

Sagar starts walking from his office in the South direction and walks for 5 km, from here he takes a left turn to reach the coffee shop which is 4 km away. From the coffee shop, he takes a left turn and walks for 1 km, and finally takes a right turn to reach the park which is 3 km away. Another person, Anurag also starts walking from the same office in the South direction and walks for 4 km, and then takes a left turn to reach the car stand which is 2 km. From the car stand, he takes a left turn and walks for 6 km and then takes right turn and walks 2 km and takes right turn and walks 2 km and then again takes left turn and walks 3 km and then takes right turn and walks for 4 km to reach the park.

What is the shortest distance between the office and the car stand?

((a))
√29 km
((b))
√27 km
((c))
22 km
((d))
29 km
((e))
√20 km

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

√20 km

1) Sagar starts walking from his office in the South direction and walks for 5 km, from here he takes a left turn to reach the coffee shop which is 4 km away. From the coffee shop, he takes a left turn and walks for 1 km, and finally takes a right turn to reach the park which is 3 km away.

2) Anurag starts walking in the South direction and walks for 4 km, and then takes a left turn to reach the car stand which is 2 km. From the car stand, he takes a left turn and walks for 6 km and then takes right turn and walks 2 km and takes right turn and walks 2 km and then again takes left turn and walks 3 km and then takes right turn and walks for 4 km to reach the park.

By merging all the diagrams, the final diagram is:

Since Sagar and Anurag start from the same office (point A)

The shortest distance between the office and the car stand:

By using Pythagoras theorem:

(Hypotenuse)2 = (Perpendicular)2 + (Base)2

(Hypotenuse)2 = (4)2 + (2)2

(Hypotenuse)2 = 16 + 4

Hypotenuse = √20

Hence, the shortest distance between the office and the car stand is √20 Km.

What is the total distance between covered by Sagar from Coffee shop to Park?

((a))
9 km
((b))
5 km
((c))
4 km
((d))
6 km
((e))
10 km

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

4 km

Sagar starts walking from his office in the South direction and walks for 5 km, from here he takes a left turn to reach the coffee shop which is 4 km away. From the coffee shop, he takes a left turn and walks for 1 km, and finally takes a right turn to reach the park which is 3 km away.

Anurag starts walking in the South direction and walks for 4 km, and then takes a left turn to reach the car stand which is 2 km. From the car stand, he takes a left turn and walks for 6 km and then takes right turn and walks 2 km and takes right turn and walks 2 km and then again takes left turn and walks 3 km and then takes right turn and walks for 4 km to reach the park.

By merging all the diagrams, the final diagram is:

Since Sagar and Anurag start from the same office (point A)

The total distance between Coffee shop to Park = 1 km + 3 km = 4 km

Hence, the total distance between the Coffee shop to Park is 4 km.

In which direction is the final position with respect to the initial position for Sagar?

((a))
South-West
((b))
North-West
((c))
South
((d))
South-East
((e))
North

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

South-East

Sagar starts walking from his office in the South direction and walks for 5 km, from here he takes a left turn to reach the coffee shop which is 4 km away. From the coffee shop, he takes a left turn and walks for 1 km, and finally takes a right turn to reach the park which is 3 km away.

Anurag starts walking in the South direction and walks for 4 km, and then takes a left turn to reach the car stand which is 2 km. From the car stand, he takes a left turn and walks for 6 km and then takes right turn and walks 2 km and takes right turn and walks 2 km and then again takes left turn and walks 3 km and then takes right turn and walks for 4 km to reach the park.

By merging all the diagrams, the final diagram is:

Since Sagar and Anurag start from the same office (point A)

Hence, the final position is in the South-East direction with respect to the initial position.

H is brother of P. D is father-in-law of S. H is son of G. P is wife of S. K is daughter of L. L is wife of H. How is G related to K?

((a))
Maternal Grand Mother
((b))
Maternal Grand Father
((c))
Paternal Grand Mother
((d))
Paternal Grand Father
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Paternal Grand Mother

Symbol representation:

Possible tree diagram will be:

Hence, G is Paternal Grand Mother of K.

Direction: Read the information given below carefully and answer the following questions.

Six persons namely Sam, Anu, Deva, Arvind, Shri and Nazim bought the dress on different days of the week starting from Monday to Saturday. They bought different color dresses i.e., Red, Green, Orange, Blue, Pink, and Yellow. All the information is not necessarily in the same order. Nazim bought on three days before the one who bought the blue color dress. The number of persons bought before Nazim is the same as the number of persons bought after Deva. Only one day is there between the one who bought pink color dress and Deva. The one who bought a green color dress is bought immediately before the one who bought orange color dress. Deva does not buy the orange color dress. Sam bought immediately before the one who bought a yellow color dress. Neither Arvind nor Shri bought red color dress. Arvind bought before Shri but not before Anu.

Yellow color dress is bought by whom?

((a))
Arvind
((b))
Sam
((c))
Shri
((d))
Nazim
((e))
Deva

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Nazim

Persons: Sam, Anu, Deva, Arvind, Shri and Nazim.

Days: Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday and Saturday.

Color: Red, Green, Orange, Blue, Pink and Yellow.

1. Nazim bought on three days before the one who bought the blue color dress.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3
DAYS	PERSONS	COLOR	PERSONS	COLOR	PERSONS	COLOR
MONDAY					Nazim
TUESDAY			Nazim
WEDNESDAY	Nazim
THURSDAY						Blue
FRIDAY				Blue
SATURDAY		Blue

2. The number of persons bought before Nazim is the same as the number of persons bought after Deva. 3. Only one day is there between the one who bought pink color dress and Deva.

So, Case 3 is invalid.

	CASE 1	CASE 2
DAYS	PERSONS	COLOR	PERSONS	COLOR
MONDAY
TUESDAY		Pink	Nazim
WEDNESDAY	Nazim			Pink
THURSDAY	Deva
FRIDAY			Deva	Blue
SATURDAY		Blue

4. The one who bought a green color dress is bought immediately before the one who bought orange color dress. 5. Deva does not buy the orange color dress.

	CASE 1	CASE 2
DAYS	PERSONS	COLOR	PERSONS	COLOR
MONDAY				Green
TUESDAY		Pink	Nazim	Orange
WEDNESDAY	Nazim			Pink
THURSDAY	Deva	Green
FRIDAY		Orange	Deva	Blue
SATURDAY		Blue

6. Sam bought immediately before the one who bought a yellow color dress.

	CASE 1	CASE 2
DAYS	PERSONS	COLOR	PERSONS	COLOR
MONDAY				Green
TUESDAY	Sam	Pink	Nazim	Orange
WEDNESDAY	Nazim	Yellow	Sam	Pink
THURSDAY	Deva	Green		Yellow
FRIDAY		Orange	Deva	Blue
SATURDAY		Blue

7. Neither Arvind nor Shri bought red color dress.

	CASE 1	CASE 2
DAYS	PERSONS	COLOR	PERSONS	COLOR
MONDAY	Anu	Red		Green
TUESDAY	Sam	Pink	Nazim	Orange
WEDNESDAY	Nazim	Yellow	Sam	Pink
THURSDAY	Deva	Green		Yellow
FRIDAY		Orange	Deva	Blue
SATURDAY		Blue	Anu	Red

Arvind bought before Shri but not before Anu.

So, Case 2 is invalid.

The final arrangement is,

DAYS	PERSONS	COLOR
MONDAY	Anu	Red
TUESDAY	Sam	Pink
WEDNESDAY	Nazim	Yellow
THURSDAY	Deva	Green
FRIDAY	Arvind	Orange
SATURDAY	Shri	Blue

Hence, Nazim bought yellow color dress.

Find the wrong pair.

((a))
Monday-Red
((b))
Nazim-Wednesday
((c))
Green-Deva
((d))
Sam-Tuesday
((e))
Shri-Yellow

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Shri-Yellow

Persons: Sam, Anu, Deva, Arvind, Shri and Nazim.

Days: Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday and Saturday.

Color: Red, Green, Orange, Blue, Pink and Yellow.

1. Nazim bought on three days before the one who bought the blue color dress.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3
DAYS	PERSONS	COLOR	PERSONS	COLOR	PERSONS	COLOR
MONDAY					Nazim
TUESDAY			Nazim
WEDNESDAY	Nazim
THURSDAY						Blue
FRIDAY				Blue
SATURDAY		Blue

2. The number of persons bought before Nazim is the same as the number of persons bought after Deva. 3. Only one day is there between the one who bought pink color dress and Deva.

So, Case 3 is invalid.

	CASE 1	CASE 2
DAYS	PERSONS	COLOR	PERSONS	COLOR
MONDAY
TUESDAY		Pink	Nazim
WEDNESDAY	Nazim			Pink
THURSDAY	Deva
FRIDAY			Deva	Blue
SATURDAY		Blue

4. The one who bought a green color dress is bought immediately before the one who bought orange color dress. 5. Deva does not buy the orange color dress.

	CASE 1	CASE 2
DAYS	PERSONS	COLOR	PERSONS	COLOR
MONDAY				Green
TUESDAY		Pink	Nazim	Orange
WEDNESDAY	Nazim			Pink
THURSDAY	Deva	Green
FRIDAY		Orange	Deva	Blue
SATURDAY		Blue

6. Sam bought immediately before the one who bought a yellow color dress.

	CASE 1	CASE 2
DAYS	PERSONS	COLOR	PERSONS	COLOR
MONDAY				Green
TUESDAY	Sam	Pink	Nazim	Orange
WEDNESDAY	Nazim	Yellow	Sam	Pink
THURSDAY	Deva	Green		Yellow
FRIDAY		Orange	Deva	Blue
SATURDAY		Blue

7. Neither Arvind nor Shri bought red color dress.

	CASE 1	CASE 2
DAYS	PERSONS	COLOR	PERSONS	COLOR
MONDAY	Anu	Red		Green
TUESDAY	Sam	Pink	Nazim	Orange
WEDNESDAY	Nazim	Yellow	Sam	Pink
THURSDAY	Deva	Green		Yellow
FRIDAY		Orange	Deva	Blue
SATURDAY		Blue	Anu	Red

Arvind bought before Shri but not before Anu.

So, Case 2 is invalid.

The final arrangement is,

DAYS	PERSONS	COLOR
MONDAY	Anu	Red
TUESDAY	Sam	Pink
WEDNESDAY	Nazim	Yellow
THURSDAY	Deva	Green
FRIDAY	Arvind	Orange
SATURDAY	Shri	Blue

Nazim bought yellow color dress and Shri bought blue color dress.

Hence, Shri-Yellow is the wrong pair.

Deva bought _________ color dress on ___________.

((a))
Orange, Monday
((b))
Green, Thursday
((c))
Pink, Thursday
((d))
Green, Tuesday
((e))
Red, Thursday

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Green, Thursday

Persons: Sam, Anu, Deva, Arvind, Shri and Nazim.

Days: Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday and Saturday.

Color: Red, Green, Orange, Blue, Pink and Yellow.

1. Nazim bought on three days before the one who bought the blue color dress.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3
DAYS	PERSONS	COLOR	PERSONS	COLOR	PERSONS	COLOR
MONDAY					Nazim
TUESDAY			Nazim
WEDNESDAY	Nazim
THURSDAY						Blue
FRIDAY				Blue
SATURDAY		Blue

2. The number of persons bought before Nazim is the same as the number of persons bought after Deva. 3. Only one day is there between the one who bought pink color dress and Deva.

So, Case 3 is invalid.

	CASE 1	CASE 2
DAYS	PERSONS	COLOR	PERSONS	COLOR
MONDAY
TUESDAY		Pink	Nazim
WEDNESDAY	Nazim			Pink
THURSDAY	Deva
FRIDAY			Deva	Blue
SATURDAY		Blue

4. The one who bought a green color dress is bought immediately before the one who bought orange color dress. 5. Deva does not buy the orange color dress.

	CASE 1	CASE 2
DAYS	PERSONS	COLOR	PERSONS	COLOR
MONDAY				Green
TUESDAY		Pink	Nazim	Orange
WEDNESDAY	Nazim			Pink
THURSDAY	Deva	Green
FRIDAY		Orange	Deva	Blue
SATURDAY		Blue

6. Sam bought immediately before the one who bought a yellow color dress.

	CASE 1	CASE 2
DAYS	PERSONS	COLOR	PERSONS	COLOR
MONDAY				Green
TUESDAY	Sam	Pink	Nazim	Orange
WEDNESDAY	Nazim	Yellow	Sam	Pink
THURSDAY	Deva	Green		Yellow
FRIDAY		Orange	Deva	Blue
SATURDAY		Blue

7. Neither Arvind nor Shri bought red color dress.

	CASE 1	CASE 2
DAYS	PERSONS	COLOR	PERSONS	COLOR
MONDAY	Anu	Red		Green
TUESDAY	Sam	Pink	Nazim	Orange
WEDNESDAY	Nazim	Yellow	Sam	Pink
THURSDAY	Deva	Green		Yellow
FRIDAY		Orange	Deva	Blue
SATURDAY		Blue	Anu	Red

Arvind bought before Shri but not before Anu.

So, Case 2 is invalid.

The final arrangement is,

DAYS	PERSONS	COLOR
MONDAY	Anu	Red
TUESDAY	Sam	Pink
WEDNESDAY	Nazim	Yellow
THURSDAY	Deva	Green
FRIDAY	Arvind	Orange
SATURDAY	Shri	Blue

Hence, Deva bought green color dress on Thursday.

If Arvind and Nazim interchange their position, then who bought dress just after Nazim?

((a))
Anu
((b))
Sam
((c))
Deva
((d))
Arvind
((e))
Shri

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Shri

Persons: Sam, Anu, Deva, Arvind, Shri and Nazim.

Days: Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday and Saturday.

Color: Red, Green, Orange, Blue, Pink and Yellow.

1. Nazim bought on three days before the one who bought the blue color dress.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3
DAYS	PERSONS	COLOR	PERSONS	COLOR	PERSONS	COLOR
MONDAY					Nazim
TUESDAY			Nazim
WEDNESDAY	Nazim
THURSDAY						Blue
FRIDAY				Blue
SATURDAY		Blue

2. The number of persons bought before Nazim is the same as the number of persons bought after Deva. 3. Only one day is there between the one who bought pink color dress and Deva.

So, Case 3 is invalid.

	CASE 1	CASE 2
DAYS	PERSONS	COLOR	PERSONS	COLOR
MONDAY
TUESDAY		Pink	Nazim
WEDNESDAY	Nazim			Pink
THURSDAY	Deva
FRIDAY			Deva	Blue
SATURDAY		Blue

4. The one who bought a green color dress is bought immediately before the one who bought orange color dress. 5. Deva does not buy the orange color dress.

	CASE 1	CASE 2
DAYS	PERSONS	COLOR	PERSONS	COLOR
MONDAY				Green
TUESDAY		Pink	Nazim	Orange
WEDNESDAY	Nazim			Pink
THURSDAY	Deva	Green
FRIDAY		Orange	Deva	Blue
SATURDAY		Blue

6. Sam bought immediately before the one who bought a yellow color dress.

	CASE 1	CASE 2
DAYS	PERSONS	COLOR	PERSONS	COLOR
MONDAY				Green
TUESDAY	Sam	Pink	Nazim	Orange
WEDNESDAY	Nazim	Yellow	Sam	Pink
THURSDAY	Deva	Green		Yellow
FRIDAY		Orange	Deva	Blue
SATURDAY		Blue

7. Neither Arvind nor Shri bought red color dress.

	CASE 1	CASE 2
DAYS	PERSONS	COLOR	PERSONS	COLOR
MONDAY	Anu	Red		Green
TUESDAY	Sam	Pink	Nazim	Orange
WEDNESDAY	Nazim	Yellow	Sam	Pink
THURSDAY	Deva	Green		Yellow
FRIDAY		Orange	Deva	Blue
SATURDAY		Blue	Anu	Red

Arvind bought before Shri but not before Anu.

So, Case 2 is invalid.

The final arrangement is,

DAYS	PERSONS	COLOR
MONDAY	Anu	Red
TUESDAY	Sam	Pink
WEDNESDAY	Nazim	Yellow
THURSDAY	Deva	Green
FRIDAY	Arvind	Orange
SATURDAY	Shri	Blue

Hence, If Arvind and Nazim interchange their position, shri bought dress after Nazim.

Pink color dress is bought on__________.

((a))
Saturday
((b))
Monday
((c))
Tuesday
((d))
Thursday
((e))
Friday

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Tuesday

Persons: Sam, Anu, Deva, Arvind, Shri and Nazim.

Days: Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday and Saturday.

Color: Red, Green, Orange, Blue, Pink and Yellow.

1. Nazim bought on three days before the one who bought the blue color dress.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3
DAYS	PERSONS	COLOR	PERSONS	COLOR	PERSONS	COLOR
MONDAY					Nazim
TUESDAY			Nazim
WEDNESDAY	Nazim
THURSDAY						Blue
FRIDAY				Blue
SATURDAY		Blue

2. The number of persons bought before Nazim is the same as the number of persons bought after Deva. 3. Only one day is there between the one who bought pink color dress and Deva.

So, Case 3 is invalid.

	CASE 1	CASE 2
DAYS	PERSONS	COLOR	PERSONS	COLOR
MONDAY
TUESDAY		Pink	Nazim
WEDNESDAY	Nazim			Pink
THURSDAY	Deva
FRIDAY			Deva	Blue
SATURDAY		Blue

4. The one who bought a green color dress is bought immediately before the one who bought orange color dress. 5. Deva does not buy the orange color dress.

	CASE 1	CASE 2
DAYS	PERSONS	COLOR	PERSONS	COLOR
MONDAY				Green
TUESDAY		Pink	Nazim	Orange
WEDNESDAY	Nazim			Pink
THURSDAY	Deva	Green
FRIDAY		Orange	Deva	Blue
SATURDAY		Blue

6. Sam bought immediately before the one who bought a yellow color dress.

	CASE 1	CASE 2
DAYS	PERSONS	COLOR	PERSONS	COLOR
MONDAY				Green
TUESDAY	Sam	Pink	Nazim	Orange
WEDNESDAY	Nazim	Yellow	Sam	Pink
THURSDAY	Deva	Green		Yellow
FRIDAY		Orange	Deva	Blue
SATURDAY		Blue

7. Neither Arvind nor Shri bought red color dress.

	CASE 1	CASE 2
DAYS	PERSONS	COLOR	PERSONS	COLOR
MONDAY	Anu	Red		Green
TUESDAY	Sam	Pink	Nazim	Orange
WEDNESDAY	Nazim	Yellow	Sam	Pink
THURSDAY	Deva	Green		Yellow
FRIDAY		Orange	Deva	Blue
SATURDAY		Blue	Anu	Red

Arvind bought before Shri but not before Anu.

So, Case 2 is invalid.

The final arrangement is,

DAYS	PERSONS	COLOR
MONDAY	Anu	Red
TUESDAY	Sam	Pink
WEDNESDAY	Nazim	Yellow
THURSDAY	Deva	Green
FRIDAY	Arvind	Orange
SATURDAY	Shri	Blue

Hence, pink color dress in bought on Tuesday.

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.

A certain number of people are sitting in a row facing towards the north. X is sitting second from the right end of the row. Five persons are sitting between X and P. C is sitting immediate right of P. E is sitting third to the right of C. Seven persons are sitting to the left of E. A is sitting on one of the extreme ends but not sitting immediately right of X. T is sitting eighth to the right of A and immediately left of X. Y is sitting second to the right of T. Four persons are sitting between Y and R.

Who is sitting at the extreme left end of the row?

((a))
P
((b))
A
((c))
T
((d))
X
((e))
Y

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Given,

Facing direction - North

X is sitting second from the right end of the row.
Five persons are sitting between X and P.

C is sitting immediate right of P.
E is sitting third to the right of C.

5. Seven persons are sitting to the left of E. 6. A is sitting on one of the extreme ends but not sitting immediately right of X.

T is sitting eighth to the right of A and immediately left of X.
Y is sitting second to the right of T.
Four persons are sitting between Y and R.

A is sitting at the extreme left end of the row.

How many seats are there in row?

((a))
10
((b))
11
((c))
13
((d))
14
((e))
17

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Given,

Facing direction - North

X is sitting second from the right end of the row.
Five persons are sitting between X and P.

C is sitting immediate right of P.
E is sitting third to the right of C.

5. Seven persons are sitting to the left of E. 6. A is sitting on one of the extreme ends but not sitting immediately right of X.

T is sitting eighth to the right of A and immediately left of X.
Y is sitting second to the right of T.
Four persons are sitting between Y and R.

11 seats in row is the correct answer.

How many persons are sitting between C and T?

((a))
Two
((b))
Four
((c))
Three
((d))
Five
((e))
Six

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Three

Given,

Facing direction - North

X is sitting second from the right end of the row.
Five persons are sitting between X and P.

C is sitting immediate right of P.
E is sitting third to the right of C.

5. Seven persons are sitting to the left of E. 6. A is sitting on one of the extreme ends but not sitting immediately right of X.

T is sitting eighth to the right of A and immediately left of X.
Y is sitting second to the right of T.
Four persons are sitting between Y and R.

Three persons is the correct answer.

Who is sitting immediate left of R?

((a))
C
((b))
P
((c))
T
((d))
Y
((e))
A

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Given,

Facing direction - North

X is sitting second from the right end of the row.
Five persons are sitting between X and P.

C is sitting immediate right of P.
E is sitting third to the right of C.

5. Seven persons are sitting to the left of E. 6. A is sitting on one of the extreme ends but not sitting immediately right of X.

T is sitting eighth to the right of A and immediately left of X.
Y is sitting second to the right of T.
Four persons are sitting between Y and R.

C is sitting immediate left of R.

Direction: Study the following information and answer the questions given below.

Seven people P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V are from seven different countries India, Brazil, China, USA, UAE, UK, and Russia not necessarily in the same order. Each one of them works in the same company but on different designation i.e. Chief Executive Officer ( CEO), Chairman, Manager, Deputy Manager (DM), Assistant Manager (AM), Assistant and Clerk. These ranks are given in descending order (ex. CEO is the senior and Clerk is the junior).

P is senior to V but he is neither CEO nor Manager. U is senior to R who is not from UAE. Two designations are between Q and the one who is from Brazil. P is from China and immediate senior to the one who is from UAE. Q is a junior to the AM and he is from Russia. More than four people are senior to S. The number of people who are senior to the one who is from Brazil is the same as the number of people junior to V. T is from the USA and is junior to one who is from India.

What is the designation of V?

((a))
CEO
((b))
Manager
((c))
DM
((d))
Assistant
((e))
AM

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Seven people P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V are from seven different countries India, Brazil, China, USA, UAE, UK, and Russia. Each one of them works in the same company but on different designation i.e. Chief Executive Officer ( CEO), Chairman, Manager, Deputy Manager (DM), Assistant Manager (AM), Assistant and Clerk. These ranks are given in descending order (ex. CEO is the senior and Clerk is the junior).

More than four people are senior to S.

Hence, there can be two possible cases:

S is Assistant in case1 and Clerk in case2.

	(Case1)	(Case2)
Designations	People	Countries	People	Countries
CEO
Chairman
Manager
DM
AM
Assistant	S
Clerk			S

Q is junior to the AM and he is from Russia.
Two designations are between Q and the one who is from Brazil.
The number of people who is senior to the one who is from Brazil is the same as the number of people junior to V.

	(Case1)	(Case2)
Designations	People	Countries	People	Countries
CEO
Chairman
Manager				Brazil
DM	V	Brazil
AM			V
Assistant	S		Q	Russia
Clerk	Q	Russia	S

P is senior to V but he is neither CEO nor Manager.

Hence, there can be one possible case i.e. Case2A

In case1 P is Chairman, in case2 P is DM and in case2A P is Chairman.

	(Case1)	(Case2)	(Case2A)
Designations	People	Countries	People	Countries	People	Countries
CEO
Chairman	P				P
Manager				Brazil		Brazil
DM	V	Brazil	P
AM			V		V
Assistant	S		Q	Russia	Q	Russia
Clerk	Q	Russia	S		S

P is from China and immediate senior to the one who is from UAE.

Here, case2A is eliminated because UAE is not immediately junior to P.

	(Case1)	(Case2)	(Case2A) Eliminated
Designations	People	Countries	People	Countries	People	Countries
CEO
Chairman	P	China			P	China
Manager		UAE		Brazil		Brazil
DM	V	Brazil	P	China
AM			V	UAE	V
Assistant	S		Q	Russia	Q	Russia
Clerk	Q	Russia	S		S

T is from the USA and is junior to one who is from India.

In Case1 and Case2 S is from the UK.

	(Case1)	(Case2)
Designations	People	Countries	People	Countries
CEO		India		India
Chairman	P	China	T	USA
Manager		UAE		Brazil
DM	V	Brazil	P	China
AM	T	USA	V	UAE
Assistant	S	UK	Q	Russia
Clerk	Q	Russia	S	UK

U is senior to R who is not from UAE.

Here, Case1 is eliminated.

	(Case1) Eliminated	(Case2)
Designations	People	Countries	People	Countries
CEO	U	India	U	India
Chairman	P	China	T	USA
Manager	R	UAE	R	Brazil
DM	V	Brazil	P	China
AM	T	USA	V	UAE
Assistant	S	UK	Q	Russia
Clerk	Q	Russia	S	UK

Final arrangement:

Designations	People	Countries
CEO	U	India
Chairman	T	USA
Manager	R	Brazil
DM	P	China
AM	V	UAE
Assistant	Q	Russia
Clerk	S	UK

The designation of V is ‘Assistant Manager (AM)’.

How many persons are senior to T?

((a))
1
((b))
2
((c))
3
((d))
4
((e))
None

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

More than four people are senior to S.

Hence, there can be two possible cases:

S is Assistant in case1 and Clerk in case2.

	(Case1)	(Case2)
Designations	People	Countries	People	Countries
CEO
Chairman
Manager
DM
AM
Assistant	S
Clerk			S

Q is junior to the AM and he is from Russia.
Two designations are between Q and the one who is from Brazil.
The number of people who is senior to the one who is from Brazil is the same as the number of people junior to V.

	(Case1)	(Case2)
Designations	People	Countries	People	Countries
CEO
Chairman
Manager				Brazil
DM	V	Brazil
AM			V
Assistant	S		Q	Russia
Clerk	Q	Russia	S

P is senior to V but he is neither CEO nor Manager.

Hence, there can be one possible case i.e. Case2A

In case1 P is Chairman, in case2 P is DM and in case2A P is Chairman.

	(Case1)	(Case2)	(Case2A)
Designations	People	Countries	People	Countries	People	Countries
CEO
Chairman	P				P
Manager				Brazil		Brazil
DM	V	Brazil	P
AM			V		V
Assistant	S		Q	Russia	Q	Russia
Clerk	Q	Russia	S		S

P is from China and immediate senior to the one who is from UAE.

Here, case2A is eliminated because UAE is not immediately junior to P.

	(Case1)	(Case2)	(Case2A) Eliminated
Designations	People	Countries	People	Countries	People	Countries
CEO
Chairman	P	China			P	China
Manager		UAE		Brazil		Brazil
DM	V	Brazil	P	China
AM			V	UAE	V
Assistant	S		Q	Russia	Q	Russia
Clerk	Q	Russia	S		S

T is from the USA and is junior to one who is from India.

In Case1 and Case2 S is from the UK.

	(Case1)	(Case2)
Designations	People	Countries	People	Countries
CEO		India		India
Chairman	P	China	T	USA
Manager		UAE		Brazil
DM	V	Brazil	P	China
AM	T	USA	V	UAE
Assistant	S	UK	Q	Russia
Clerk	Q	Russia	S	UK

U is senior to R who is not from UAE.

Here, Case1 is eliminated.

	(Case1) Eliminated	(Case2)
Designations	People	Countries	People	Countries
CEO	U	India	U	India
Chairman	P	China	T	USA
Manager	R	UAE	R	Brazil
DM	V	Brazil	P	China
AM	T	USA	V	UAE
Assistant	S	UK	Q	Russia
Clerk	Q	Russia	S	UK

Final arrangement:

Designations	People	Countries
CEO	U	India
Chairman	T	USA
Manager	R	Brazil
DM	P	China
AM	V	UAE
Assistant	Q	Russia
Clerk	S	UK

Only 'one' person is senior to T.

The correct answer is 'A'.

Who among the following is from UAE?

((a))
P
((b))
R
((c))
S
((d))
V
((e))
U

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

More than four people are senior to S.

Hence, there can be two possible cases:

S is Assistant in case1 and Clerk in case2.

	(Case1)	(Case2)
Designations	People	Countries	People	Countries
CEO
Chairman
Manager
DM
AM
Assistant	S
Clerk			S

Q is junior to the AM and he is from Russia.
Two designations are between Q and the one who is from Brazil.
The number of people who is senior to the one who is from Brazil is the same as the number of people junior to V.

	(Case1)	(Case2)
Designations	People	Countries	People	Countries
CEO
Chairman
Manager				Brazil
DM	V	Brazil
AM			V
Assistant	S		Q	Russia
Clerk	Q	Russia	S

P is senior to V but he is neither CEO nor Manager.

Hence, there can be one possible case i.e. Case2A

In case1 P is Chairman, in case2 P is DM and in case2A P is Chairman.

	(Case1)	(Case2)	(Case2A)
Designations	People	Countries	People	Countries	People	Countries
CEO
Chairman	P				P
Manager				Brazil		Brazil
DM	V	Brazil	P
AM			V		V
Assistant	S		Q	Russia	Q	Russia
Clerk	Q	Russia	S		S

P is from China and immediate senior to the one who is from UAE.

Here, case2A is eliminated because UAE is not immediately junior to P.

	(Case1)	(Case2)	(Case2A) Eliminated
Designations	People	Countries	People	Countries	People	Countries
CEO
Chairman	P	China			P	China
Manager		UAE		Brazil		Brazil
DM	V	Brazil	P	China
AM			V	UAE	V
Assistant	S		Q	Russia	Q	Russia
Clerk	Q	Russia	S		S

T is from the USA and is junior to one who is from India.

In Case1 and Case2 S is from the UK.

	(Case1)	(Case2)
Designations	People	Countries	People	Countries
CEO		India		India
Chairman	P	China	T	USA
Manager		UAE		Brazil
DM	V	Brazil	P	China
AM	T	USA	V	UAE
Assistant	S	UK	Q	Russia
Clerk	Q	Russia	S	UK

U is senior to R who is not from UAE.

Here, Case1 is eliminated.

	(Case1) Eliminated	(Case2)
Designations	People	Countries	People	Countries
CEO	U	India	U	India
Chairman	P	China	T	USA
Manager	R	UAE	R	Brazil
DM	V	Brazil	P	China
AM	T	USA	V	UAE
Assistant	S	UK	Q	Russia
Clerk	Q	Russia	S	UK

Final arrangement:

Designations	People	Countries
CEO	U	India
Chairman	T	USA
Manager	R	Brazil
DM	P	China
AM	V	UAE
Assistant	Q	Russia
Clerk	S	UK

'V' is from UAE.

The correct answer is 'D'.

Which of the following is the incorrect pair?

((a))
P - China
((b))
Assistant - S
((c))
T - Chairman
((d))
R - Brazil
((e))
CEO - India

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Assistant - S

More than four people are senior to S.

Hence, there can be two possible cases:

S is Assistant in case1 and Clerk in case2.

	(Case1)	(Case2)
Designations	People	Countries	People	Countries
CEO
Chairman
Manager
DM
AM
Assistant	S
Clerk			S

Q is junior to the AM and he is from Russia.
Two designations are between Q and the one who is from Brazil.
The number of people who is senior to the one who is from Brazil is the same as the number of people junior to V.

	(Case1)	(Case2)
Designations	People	Countries	People	Countries
CEO
Chairman
Manager				Brazil
DM	V	Brazil
AM			V
Assistant	S		Q	Russia
Clerk	Q	Russia	S

P is senior to V but he is neither CEO nor Manager.

Hence, there can be one possible case i.e. Case2A

In case1 P is Chairman, in case2 P is DM and in case2A P is Chairman.

	(Case1)	(Case2)	(Case2A)
Designations	People	Countries	People	Countries	People	Countries
CEO
Chairman	P				P
Manager				Brazil		Brazil
DM	V	Brazil	P
AM			V		V
Assistant	S		Q	Russia	Q	Russia
Clerk	Q	Russia	S		S

P is from China and immediate senior to the one who is from UAE.

Here, case2A is eliminated because UAE is not immediately junior to P.

	(Case1)	(Case2)	(Case2A) Eliminated
Designations	People	Countries	People	Countries	People	Countries
CEO
Chairman	P	China			P	China
Manager		UAE		Brazil		Brazil
DM	V	Brazil	P	China
AM			V	UAE	V
Assistant	S		Q	Russia	Q	Russia
Clerk	Q	Russia	S		S

T is from the USA and is junior to one who is from India.

In Case1 and Case2 S is from the UK.

	(Case1)	(Case2)
Designations	People	Countries	People	Countries
CEO		India		India
Chairman	P	China	T	USA
Manager		UAE		Brazil
DM	V	Brazil	P	China
AM	T	USA	V	UAE
Assistant	S	UK	Q	Russia
Clerk	Q	Russia	S	UK

U is senior to R who is not from UAE.

Here, Case1 is eliminated.

	(Case1) Eliminated	(Case2)
Designations	People	Countries	People	Countries
CEO	U	India	U	India
Chairman	P	China	T	USA
Manager	R	UAE	R	Brazil
DM	V	Brazil	P	China
AM	T	USA	V	UAE
Assistant	S	UK	Q	Russia
Clerk	Q	Russia	S	UK

Final arrangement:

Designations	People	Countries
CEO	U	India
Chairman	T	USA
Manager	R	Brazil
DM	P	China
AM	V	UAE
Assistant	Q	Russia
Clerk	S	UK

'Assistant - S' is the incorrect pair.

The correct answer is 'B'.

How many designations are there between U and S?

((a))
1
((b))
2
((c))
3
((d))
4
((e))
5

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

More than four people are senior to S.

Hence, there can be two possible cases:

S is Assistant in case1 and Clerk in case2.

	(Case1)	(Case2)
Designations	People	Countries	People	Countries
CEO
Chairman
Manager
DM
AM
Assistant	S
Clerk			S

Q is junior to the AM and he is from Russia.
Two designations are between Q and the one who is from Brazil.
The number of people who is senior to the one who is from Brazil is the same as the number of people junior to V.

	(Case1)	(Case2)
Designations	People	Countries	People	Countries
CEO
Chairman
Manager				Brazil
DM	V	Brazil
AM			V
Assistant	S		Q	Russia
Clerk	Q	Russia	S

P is senior to V but he is neither CEO nor Manager.

Hence, there can be one possible case i.e. Case2A

In case1 P is Chairman, in case2 P is DM and in case2A P is Chairman.

	(Case1)	(Case2)	(Case2A)
Designations	People	Countries	People	Countries	People	Countries
CEO
Chairman	P				P
Manager				Brazil		Brazil
DM	V	Brazil	P
AM			V		V
Assistant	S		Q	Russia	Q	Russia
Clerk	Q	Russia	S		S

P is from China and immediate senior to the one who is from UAE.

Here, case2A is eliminated because UAE is not immediately junior to P.

	(Case1)	(Case2)	(Case2A) Eliminated
Designations	People	Countries	People	Countries	People	Countries
CEO
Chairman	P	China			P	China
Manager		UAE		Brazil		Brazil
DM	V	Brazil	P	China
AM			V	UAE	V
Assistant	S		Q	Russia	Q	Russia
Clerk	Q	Russia	S		S

T is from the USA and is junior to one who is from India.

In Case1 and Case2 S is from the UK.

	(Case1)	(Case2)
Designations	People	Countries	People	Countries
CEO		India		India
Chairman	P	China	T	USA
Manager		UAE		Brazil
DM	V	Brazil	P	China
AM	T	USA	V	UAE
Assistant	S	UK	Q	Russia
Clerk	Q	Russia	S	UK

U is senior to R who is not from UAE.

Here, Case1 is eliminated.

	(Case1) Eliminated	(Case2)
Designations	People	Countries	People	Countries
CEO	U	India	U	India
Chairman	P	China	T	USA
Manager	R	UAE	R	Brazil
DM	V	Brazil	P	China
AM	T	USA	V	UAE
Assistant	S	UK	Q	Russia
Clerk	Q	Russia	S	UK

Final arrangement:

Designations	People	Countries
CEO	U	India
Chairman	T	USA
Manager	R	Brazil
DM	P	China
AM	V	UAE
Assistant	Q	Russia
Clerk	S	UK

'5' designations are there between U and S.

The correct answer is 'D'.

Direction: Read the information given below carefully and answer the following questions.

A person buys ten products namely I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, and R one after another but not necessarily in the same order. N was bought four products before P. Only one product is bought between P and K. At least three products are bought before N. The number of products before N is same as after I. Only three products are bought between I and L. L neither bought at first nor last. The number of products between K and I is the same as between J and N. R was bought three products before M. M was bought after I. O was bought before Q and is not the first product to bought.

How many products were bought between O and I?

((a))
Two
((b))
Three
((c))
Five
((d))
Six
((e))
Four

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Four

Persons: I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, and R

N was bought four products before P.
At least three products are bought before N.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3
10
9
8
7	N
6		N
5			N
4
3	P
2		P
1			P

3. Only one product is bought between P and K. 4. The number of products before N is same as after I.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3	CASE 4
10
9
8
7	N			N
6		N	I
5	K	I	N
4	I	K		I
3	P		K	P
2		P
1			P	K

5. Only three products are bought between I and L. 6. L neither bought at first nor last.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3	CASE 4
10
9		L
8	L			L
7	N			N
6		N	I
5	K	I	N
4	I	K		I
3	P		K	P
2		P	L
1			P	K

7. The number of products between K and I is the same as between J and N.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3	CASE 4
10				J
9		L
8	L		J	L
7	N	J		N
6	J	N	I
5	K	I	N
4	I	K		I
3	P		K	P
2		P	L
1			P	K

8. R was bought three products before M. 9. M was bought after I.

So, Case 1 and Case 2 is invalid.

	CASE 3	CASE 4
10		J
9
8	J	L
7	R	N
6	I
5	N	R
4	M	I
3	K	P
2	L	M
1	P	K

10. O was bought before Q and is not the first product to bought.

So, Case 3 is invalid.

The final arrangement is,

10	J
9	O
8	L
7	N
6	Q
5	R
4	I
3	P
2	M
1	K

Hence, four products were bought between O and I.

Find the odd one out.

((a))
J, L
((b))
O, N
((c))
Q, I
((d))
K, I
((e))
P, K

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

K, I

Persons: I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, and R

N was bought four products before P. 2. At least three products are bought before N.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3
10
9
8
7	N
6		N
5			N
4
3	P
2		P
1			P

3. Only one product is bought between P and K. 4. The number of products before N is same as after I.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3	CASE 4
10
9
8
7	N			N
6		N	I
5	K	I	N
4	I	K		I
3	P		K	P
2		P
1			P	K

5. Only three products are bought between I and L. 6. L neither bought at first nor last.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3	CASE 4
10
9		L
8	L			L
7	N			N
6		N	I
5	K	I	N
4	I	K		I
3	P		K	P
2		P	L
1			P	K

7. The number of products between K and I is the same as between J and N.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3	CASE 4
10				J
9		L
8	L		J	L
7	N	J		N
6	J	N	I
5	K	I	N
4	I	K		I
3	P		K	P
2		P	L
1			P	K

8. R was bought three products before M. 9. M was bought after I.

So, Case 1 and Case 2 is invalid.

	CASE 3	CASE 4
10		J
9
8	J	L
7	R	N
6	I
5	N	R
4	M	I
3	K	P
2	L	M
1	P	K

10. O was bought before Q and is not the first product to bought.

So, Case 3 is invalid.

The final arrangement is,

10	J
9	O
8	L
7	N
6	Q
5	R
4	I
3	P
2	M
1	K

Every pair except K, I has one product between them, where K, I has two products between them.

Hence**, K, I is the odd one out.**

Number of products after N is same as the number of products before _______.

((a))
K
((b))
P
((c))
M
((d))
Q
((e))
I

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Persons: I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, and R

N was bought four products before P. 2. At least three products are bought before N.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3
10
9
8
7	N
6		N
5			N
4
3	P
2		P
1			P

3. Only one product is bought between P and K. 4. The number of products before N is same as after I.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3	CASE 4
10
9
8
7	N			N
6		N	I
5	K	I	N
4	I	K		I
3	P		K	P
2		P
1			P	K

5. Only three products are bought between I and L. 6. L neither bought at first nor last.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3	CASE 4
10
9		L
8	L			L
7	N			N
6		N	I
5	K	I	N
4	I	K		I
3	P		K	P
2		P	L
1			P	K

7. The number of products between K and I is the same as between J and N.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3	CASE 4
10				J
9		L
8	L		J	L
7	N	J		N
6	J	N	I
5	K	I	N
4	I	K		I
3	P		K	P
2		P	L
1			P	K

8. R was bought three products before M. 9. M was bought after I.

So, Case 1 and Case 2 is invalid.

	CASE 3	CASE 4
10		J
9
8	J	L
7	R	N
6	I
5	N	R
4	M	I
3	K	P
2	L	M
1	P	K

10. O was bought before Q and is not the first product to bought.

So, Case 3 is invalid.

The final arrangement is,

10	J
9	O
8	L
7	N
6	Q
5	R
4	I
3	P
2	M
1	K

Hence, Number of products after N is same as the number of products before I.

Which of the following is true?

I. J is the last product to buy.

II. The number of products before Q is same as the number of products after N.

III. Even number of products is bought between L and K.

((a))
Both I and III
((b))
Both II and III
((c))
Only I
((d))
All the above
((e))
Only III

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Only III

Persons: I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, and R

N was bought four products before P. 2. At least three products are bought before N.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3
10
9
8
7	N
6		N
5			N
4
3	P
2		P
1			P

3. Only one product is bought between P and K. 4. The number of products before N is same as after I.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3	CASE 4
10
9
8
7	N			N
6		N	I
5	K	I	N
4	I	K		I
3	P		K	P
2		P
1			P	K

5. Only three products are bought between I and L. 6. L neither bought at first nor last.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3	CASE 4
10
9		L
8	L			L
7	N			N
6		N	I
5	K	I	N
4	I	K		I
3	P		K	P
2		P	L
1			P	K

7. The number of products between K and I is the same as between J and N.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3	CASE 4
10				J
9		L
8	L		J	L
7	N	J		N
6	J	N	I
5	K	I	N
4	I	K		I
3	P		K	P
2		P	L
1			P	K

8. R was bought three products before M. 9. M was bought after I.

So, Case 1 and Case 2 is invalid.

	CASE 3	CASE 4
10		J
9
8	J	L
7	R	N
6	I
5	N	R
4	M	I
3	K	P
2	L	M
1	P	K

10. O was bought before Q and is not the first product to bought.

So, Case 3 is invalid.

The final arrangement is,

10	J
9	O
8	L
7	N
6	Q
5	R
4	I
3	P
2	M
1	K

I. J is the first product to buy.

II. The number of products before Q is same as the number of products after R.

III. Even number of products is bought between L and K.

Hence, Only III is true.

Odd number of persons sit between _____ and _____.

((a))
R, M
((b))
M, I
((c))
O, Q
((d))
I, N
((e))
J, N

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

M, I

Persons: I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, and R

N was bought four products before P. 2. At least three products are bought before N.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3
10
9
8
7	N
6		N
5			N
4
3	P
2		P
1			P

3. Only one product is bought between P and K. 4. The number of products before N is same as after I.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3	CASE 4
10
9
8
7	N			N
6		N	I
5	K	I	N
4	I	K		I
3	P		K	P
2		P
1			P	K

5. Only three products are bought between I and L. 6. L neither bought at first nor last.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3	CASE 4
10
9		L
8	L			L
7	N			N
6		N	I
5	K	I	N
4	I	K		I
3	P		K	P
2		P	L
1			P	K

7. The number of products between K and I is the same as between J and N.

	CASE 1	CASE 2	CASE 3	CASE 4
10				J
9		L
8	L		J	L
7	N	J		N
6	J	N	I
5	K	I	N
4	I	K		I
3	P		K	P
2		P	L
1			P	K

8. R was bought three products before M. 9. M was bought after I.

So, Case 1 and Case 2 is invalid.

	CASE 3	CASE 4
10		J
9
8	J	L
7	R	N
6	I
5	N	R
4	M	I
3	K	P
2	L	M
1	P	K

10. O was bought before Q and is not the first product to bought.

So, Case 3 is invalid.

The final arrangement is,

10	J
9	O
8	L
7	N
6	Q
5	R
4	I
3	P
2	M
1	K

Hence, Odd number of persons sit between M and I.

Computer Knowledge (40 questions)

First web browser was created by _______?

((a))
Tim Berners lee
((b))
Mozilla Foundation
((c))
Jacobs
((d))
Marc Andreessen
((e))
Alan Turing

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Tim Berners lee

The first web browser was developed in 1990 by Tim Berners - Lee.

Important Points

Web browser is a software program that allows a user to locate, access, and display web pages.
Browser rendering engine. Software that renders HTML pages (Web pages).
Mozilla Firefox is a free and open - source web browser developed by the Mozilla Foundation and its subsidiary, Mozilla Corporation.
Internet Explorer (or IE) is a free graphical browser maintained by Microsoft.

List of Top Web Browsers

Google Chrome
Mozilla Firefox
Opera
Safari
Internet Explorer
Netscape Browser
UC Browser

Which of the following in not an output device?

((a))
Flat screen
((b))
Scanner
((c))
LCD
((d))
Plotter
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Scanner

The correct option is 2 i.e., Scanner.

The scanner is not an output device.
The scanner is an input device.
Flat-screen is an output device.
LCD is an output device.
LCD stands for Liquid Crystal Display.
LCD uses liquid crystals in its primary form of operation.
A plotter is a computer hardware device that is used for printing vector graphics.

The deleted mail in Gmail account goes in which folder?

((a))
Trash
((b))
Spam
((c))
Draft
((d))
Receipts
((e))
Starred

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Trash

The correct answer is Trash

Key Points

The Trash folder is where any emails have been deleted.
This folder also indicates the mail which has been automatically deleted, are sent.
The Trash folder will empty every time we log out of Message Center, and all of the messages will be permanently deleted.
If we delete an e-mail from your inbox, it will initially be put into the Trash folder.
The e-mail will only be permanently deleted if we delete it in the Trash folder or empty the trash, or if the e-mail's storage time has expired.
Permanently deleted e-mail cannot be recovered.
The default storage time for an email in the Trash folder is 1 day.
We can customize the storage time for an email in the Trash folder.
It is present at the left below the compose window in the email window.

Additional Information

Important Components of Compose Mail

Components	Description
To	- To indicates the address of the person whom we want to send the mail. - we can send one mail to multiple people at once. - For that, we just need to mention the email address of each person by adding a semicolon after each address in To part.
Body	- The body is the screen where we will write the actual mail. - Here we will write the full details of the mail. - It should be in the proper format depending upon the type of letter we are writing. - It can be in the form of a formal or informal letter.
CC	- In email sending, CC is the abbreviation for carbon copy. - Just like the physical carbon copy above, CC is an easy way to send copies of an email to other people. - If you’ve ever received a CCed email, you’ve probably noticed that it will be addressed to you and a list of other people who have also been used.
BCC	- BCC stands for blind carbon copy. - BCC is a way of sending copies of an email to other people. - It’s called blind carbon copy because the other recipients won’t be able to see that someone else has been sent a copy of the email.

Which of the following is used with the intention of extorting money from its owner?

((a))
Ransomware
((b))
Malware
((c))
Spyware
((d))
Adware
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Ransomware

The correct option is 1 i.e., Ransomware.

Key Points

Ransomware is used with the intention of extorting money.
Ransomware is a type of malware program that infects and takes control of a system.

Additional Information

Spyware is unwanted software that infiltrates your computing device, stealing your internet usage data and

sensitive information.

Adware, or advertising-supported software, is software that generates revenue for its developer by automatically

generating online advertisements.

Malware stands for malicious software.
Malware is any software used to disrupt computer operation, gather sensitive information, or gain access to private computer systems.

Which out of the following is NOT a valid cell reference in an Excel spreadsheet?

((a))
CA20
((b))
C20
((c))
CA#20
((d))
CA$20
((e))
All are valid

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

CA#20

The correct answer is CA#20.

Key Points

A cell reference or cell address is a combination of a column letter and a row number that identifies a cell on a worksheet.
For example, A1 refers to the cell at the intersection of column A and row 1; B2 refers to the second cell in column B, and so on.
A range reference is represented by the address of the upper-left cell and the lower right cell separated with a colon.
There exist two address styles in Excel: A1 and R1C1.
A1 is the default style used most of the time. In this style, columns are defined by letters and rows by numbers, i.e. A1 designates a cell in column A, row 1.
R1C1 is the style where both rows and columns are identified by numbers, i.e. R1C1 designates a cell in row 1, column 1.
There are three types of cell references in Excel:
A relative reference is the one without the $ sign in the row and column coordinates, like A1 or A1:B10. By default, all cell addresses in Excel are relative.
An absolute reference is the one with the dollar sign ( $) in the row or column coordinates, like$ A $1 or$ A $1:$ B$10.
A mixed reference contains one relative and one absolute coordinate, like $A1 or A$ 1.

When you connect to this service your computer is communicating with a server at your Internet Service Provider (ISP) What does this refer ?

((a))
Modem
((b))
Internet
((c))
Intranet
((d))
Server
((e))
None of Above

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Internet

The correct answer is the Internet.

Key Points

The Internet is a global wide area network that connects computer systems across the world.
It includes several high-bandwidth data lines that comprise the Internet "backbone".
These lines are connected to major Internet hubs that distribute data to other locations, such as web servers and Internet Service Providers (ISPs).

Additional Information

Vint Cerf is widely known as the father of the Internet.
Vint is the co-designer with Robert Kahn of TCP/IP protocols and basic architecture of the Internet.
Bob Kahn and Vint Cerf were the two who first invented the internet.
The first web page went live on August 6, 1991.

What happens when you open a folder in Windows 10 OS and press the CTRL+A key?

((a))
All files except sub-folders of the current folder are selected.
((b))
All subfolders except files in the current folder are selected.
((c))
All files and sub-folders in the current folder are selected.
((d))
Only the first 10 files and sub-folders of the current folder are selected.
((e))
Switches between open apps

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

All files and sub-folders in the current folder are selected.

The correct answer is All files and sub-folders in the current folder are selected.

Key Points

When you open a folder in Windows 10 OS and press the CTRL+A key, All files and sub-folders in the current folder are selected.

Shortcut Keys	Functions
Ctrl + X	Cut
F11 or Windows logo key + Up arrow	Maximize Window
Windows logo key + Tab	Open Task View
Alt + Tab	Switch between open apps
Windows logo key + L	Lock your PC

What is the keyboard shortcut for 'Undo' function?

((a))
Ctrl + Z
((b))
Ctrl + V
((c))
Ctrl + C
((d))
Ctrl + U
((e))
Ctrl + N

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Ctrl + Z

The correct answer is Ctrl + Z.

Undo is a technique or a command which is implemented in many computer programs.
It erases the last change done to the document.

Key Points

We can undo, redo, or repeat many actions in Microsoft Word, PowerPoint, and Excel.
With the help of undo command, the users can explore and work without fear of making mistakes, because changes can be made whenever required.
The opposite of undo is Redo.
The redo command reverses the undo command.
In Microsoft Windows applications, the keyboard shortcut for the Undo command is Ctrl+Z or Alt+Backspace, and the shortcut for Redo is Ctrl+Y or Ctrl+Shift+Z.

Which one of the following keys is used to minimize the active window?

((a))
Windows Logo Key + Home Key
((b))
Windows Logo Key + Spacebar Key
((c))
Windows Logo Key + Up Arrow Key
((d))
Windows Logo Key + Down Arrow key
((e))
Windows Logo Key + Enter key

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Windows Logo Key + Down Arrow key

The correct answer is Windows Logo Key + Down Arrow Key.

Key Points

Windows
It is a family of operating systems for personal computers.
Windows provides a graphical user interface, virtual memory management, and support for various peripheral services.
Windows Logo Key + Down Arrow Key
It is a shortcut key is used to minimize the active window.

Additional Information

Shortcut Key	Used to
Windows Logo Key + Home Key	Minimize all windows except the selected or currently active window.
Windows Logo Key + Spacebar Key	Switch input language and keyboard layout.
Windows Logo Key + Up Arrow Key	Maximize the active window vertically

In MS Excel 2010, the shortcut key to apply or remove strikethrough is:

((a))
Ctrl+3
((b))
Ctrl+5
((c))
Ctrl+2
((d))
Ctrl+4
((e))
Ctrl+9

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Ctrl+5

The correct answer is Ctrl+5.

Key Points

The shortcut for the strikethrough effect in Excel 2010 is Ctrl + 5.
The strikethrough function indicates that information in a cell should be ignored, but do not want to delete that information.
This effect is applied to the information if copy and paste it into another spreadsheet or document.
Navigation: Home > Format cell > Font button at the bottom-right corner of the Font section in the ribbon > Check or uncheck the box to the left of Strikethrough.

Additional Information

Other shortcut keys in Excel 2010:

Ctrl+3	Applies or removes italic formatting.
Ctrl+2	Applies or removes bold formatting.
Ctrl+4	Applies or removes underlining.
Ctrl+6	Alternates between hiding and displaying objects.
Ctrl+8	Displays or hides the outline symbols.
Ctrl+9	Hides the selected rows.

Name the feature that commands the word processor to align all the text to fit within the defined margins.

((a))
Auto correct
((b))
Auto text
((c))
Auto format
((d))
Sort
((e))
Word wrap

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Word wrap

The correct answer is Word wrap.

Key Points

Line breaking, also known as word wrapping, is breaking a section of text into lines so that it will fit into the available width of a page, window, or another display area.
In-text display, line wrap is continuing on a new line when a line is full, so that each line fits into the viewable window, allowing text to be read from top to bottom without any horizontal scrolling.
Word wrap is the additional feature of most text editors, word processors, and web browsers, of breaking lines between words rather than within words, where possible.

Additional Information

Autocorrection, also known as text replacement, replace-as-you-type, or simply autocorrect, is an automatic data validation function commonly found in word processors and text editing interfaces for smartphones and tablet computers.
The AutoFormat feature automatically formats a document as you type it by applying the associated styles to text.

VGA is :

((a))
Volatile Graphics Array
((b))
Video Graphics Adapter
((c))
Video Graphics Array
((d))
Visual Graphics Array
((e))
Video Graphic Array

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Video Graphics Array

The correct answer is Video Graphics Array.

Key Points

VGA is Video Graphics Array which is a computer chipset standard for displaying colour graphics.

Additional Information

VGA is a popular display standard developed by IBM and introduced in 1987.
It provides 640 x 480 resolution color display screens with a refresh rate of 60 Hz and 16 colors displayed at a time.
VGA utilizes analog signals, which means it's only capable of lower resolutions and a lower quality display on screens.
The VGA connector is used for display devices and is used to connect a computer to a monitor, projector, or TV.

Which is a permanent storage device ?

((a))
DRAM
((b))
monitor
((c))
RAM
((d))
hard disk
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

hard disk

The correct answer is hard disk.

A hard disk drive (HDD), hard disk, hard drive, or fixed disk is an electro-mechanical data storage device that stores and retrieves digital data using magnetic storage and one or more rigid rapidly rotating platters coated with magnetic material.

Key Points

Computer storage is of two types:

Primary Storage Devices: It is also known as internal memory and main memory.
This is a section of the CPU that holds program instructions, input data, and intermediate results.
It is generally smaller in size. RAM (Random Access Memory) and ROM (Read Only Memory) are examples of primary storage.
Secondary Storage Devices: Secondary storage is a memory that is stored external to the computer.
It is mainly used for the permanent and long-term storage of programs and data.
Hard Disk, CD, DVD, Pen/Flash drive, SSD, etc, are examples of secondary storage.

Computer Memory - Primary and Secondary Memory in Computer - VidyaGyaan

A software interrupt is also called as a/an _______.

((a))
trap
((b))
query
((c))
interrupt handler
((d))
trigger
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

trap

A software interrupts often occurs when an application software terminates or when it requests the operating system for some service. This is quite unlike a hardware interrupt, which occurs at the hardware level.

Key Points

A software interrupt only communicates with the kernel and indirectly interrupts the central processing unit.
All software interrupts are associated with an interrupt handler, which is actually just a routine that is activated when an interrupt happens.
Only one bit of information is communicated during a software interrupt.
A software interrupt is used to perform an input/output request.

Therefore, A trap, also known as a software interrupt, is an instruction that explicitly generates an exception condition.

Additional Information

A query can either be a request for data results from your database or for action on the data, or for both.
A query can give you an answer to a simple question, perform calculations, combine data from different tables, add, change, or delete data from a database.
Interrupt handling is a key function in real-time software and comprises interrupts and their handlers.
An interrupt is a hardware signal from a device to the CPU. It tells the CPU that the device needs attention and that the CPU should stop performing what it is doing and respond to the device.
If the CPU is available (it is not performing a task with higher priority, such as servicing a higher-priority interrupt), it suspends the current thread and eventually invokes the interrupt handler for that device.
The job of the interrupt handler is to service the device and stop it from interrupting. Once the handler returns, the CPU resumes what it was doing before the interrupt occurred.
A trigger is a stored procedure in the database which automatically invokes whenever a special event in the database occurs.

In power point, Themes could be found under-

((a))
Transition tab
((b))
Design tab
((c))
Insert tab
((d))
Animation tab
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Design tab

The correct answer is Design tab.

Themes could be found in Design tab.
The Design Tab contains all the features to change the look of your document in one place.

Additional Information

To find out how to format your document using the design tab follow these simple instructions.

To format your document with a theme
Select Design (tab) | Document Formatting (group) | Themes (drop-down button)
Select a theme from the drop-down list.

An operating system enables a person to communicate with a computer through the use of symbols, icons, visual metaphors and pointing devices. In which of the following will it be classified?

((a))
Graphical User Interface
((b))
Line Command Interface
((c))
Black User Interface
((d))
Tap User Interface
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Graphical User Interface

The correct answer is Graphical User Interface.

Key Points

An operating system enables a person to communicate with a computer through the use of symbols, icons, visual metaphors, and pointing devices. It is classified in Graphical User Interface.
A graphical user interface (GUI) is a type of user interface through which users interact with electronic devices via visual indicator representations.
GUIs graphically display information and related user controls, unlike text-based interfaces, where data and commands are strictly in text.
Today, each OS has its own GUI (such as Ubuntu for Linux). Software applications (Microsoft Word and Excel, or Adobe Photoshop) use these and add additional GUIs of their own.
A GUI uses windows, icons, and menus to carry out commands, such as opening, deleting, and moving files.

Additional Information

A Command Line Interface connects a user to a computer program or operating system. Through the CLI, users interact with a system or application by typing in the text (commands).

MAC address is a _______ bit number.

((a))
24
((b))
36
((c))
48
((d))
42
((e))
38

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

The correct answer is 48.

Key Points

A media access control address (MAC) is a unique identifier assigned to a network interface controller for use as a network address in communications within a network segment.
This use is common in most IEEE 802 network technologies, including Ethernet, Wi-fi, and Bluetooth.
Every NIC ( Network Interface Controller) has a hardware address that's known as a MAC, for media access control where IP addresses are associated with TCP/IP (networking software), MAC addresses are linked to the hardware of network adapters.

Additional Information

MAC addresses are recognizable as six groups of two hexadecimal digits, separated, by hyphens, colons, or without a separator.
A MAC address is a 48-bit number.
A network interface controller is a computer hardware component that connects a computer to a computer network.

Which device converts, a decimal input number to binary

((a))
accumulator:
((b))
encoder
((c))
ALU
((d))
memory
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

encoder

The correct answer is encoder.

An encoder converts information from one format or code to another. An encoder can be used to encode the decimal number to binary number.

Accumulator:

An accumulator is a general-purpose register of microprocessor. It is used to store result of most arithmetic and Logical Operations performed in 8085.

Some examples of decimal to binary conversion are:

0 → 0
1 → 01
2 → 10
3 → 11
4 → 100
5 → 101
6 → 110
7 → 111
8 → 1000
9 → 1001

ALU:

ALU stands for arithmetic logic unit. ALU contains circuits that perform arithmetic operations such as Addition/subtraction and Logical operations such as XOR, AND etc

Memory:

Memory is a storage device that is used to store data as well as instructions that are to be executed by the microprocessor.

Which option in excel, allows users to bring together copies of workbooks that other users have worked on independently.

((a))
Copying
((b))
Merging
((c))
Pasting
((d))
Compiling
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Merging

In excel, merger option allows users to bring together copies of workbooks that other users gave worked on independently.

In a HTML page, apart from tag which of the following make the text bold?

((a))
<fat>
((b))
((c))
<emp>
((d))
<thick>
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

In HTML, the following 2 syntax are used to make the text BOLD

They both have the same functioning.

Note that, the tag is used to define emphasized text. The content inside is typically displayed in italic.

In which year was Windows 7 launched?

((a))
24 October 2011
((b))
22 October 2009
((c))
21 October 2009
((d))
22 September 2009
((e))
22 October 2008

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

22 October 2009

The correct answer is 22 October 2009.

Key Points

Windows 7
It is an operating system that was produced by Microsoft and released as part of the Windows NT family of operating systems.
It was released to manufacturing on July 22, 2009, and became generally available on October 22, 2009.
It is the successor to Windows Vista, released nearly three years earlier.
Windows XP:
It is an operating system produced by Microsoft as part of the Windows NT family of operating systems.
It was the successor to both Windows 2000 for professional users and Windows Me for home users.
It was released to manufacturing on August 24, 2001, and broadly released for retail sale on October 25, 2001.
Microsoft Office:
It is a family of client software, server software, and services developed by Microsoft. It was first announced by Bill Gates on August 1, 1988, at COMDEX in Las Vegas.

Additional Information

An Operating System (OS):
It is an interface between a computer user and computer hardware.
An operating system is software that performs all the basic tasks like file management, memory management, process management, handling input and output, and controlling peripheral devices such as disk drives and printers.

What is the Hexadecimal equivalent of 160?

((a))
0A
((b))
AA
((c))
A0
((d))
A5
((e))
B0

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

To convert a decimal number system to hexadecimal, we follow the successive division approach i.e. we divide the decimal number by 16 and note down the remainder.

Each remainder is then expressed in hexadecimal.

Alternate Method:

The conversion from decimal to hexadecimal can also take place by first converting the decimal to binary, i.e.

Taking a pair of 4 and converting it into its hexadecimal equivalent, we get:

1010 0000 = (A0)16

1 Petabyte (PB) = 1024 ______.

((a))
Zettabytes (ZB)
((b))
Exabytes (EB)
((c))
Terabytes (TB)
((d))
Gigabytes (GB)
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Terabytes (TB)

The correct answer is Terabytes (TB).

1 Petabyte = 1024 Terabytes.
The units of Computer Memory Measurements are: 
1 Bit = Binary Digit.
8 Bits = 1 Byte
1024 Bytes = 1 KB (Kilo Byte)
1024 KB = 1 MB (Mega Byte)
1024 MB = 1 GB (Giga Byte)
1024 GB = 1 TB (Tera Byte)
1024 TB = 1 PB (Petabyte)
1024 PB = 1 EB (Exa Byte)
Geop byte is the highest memory measurement unit.

Why is the Caps Lock Key referred to as toggle key?

((a))
Because it changes its status on pressing the key
((b))
Because it cannot be used for entering numbers
((c))
Because it can be used to insert
((d))
Because it cannot be used to insert
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Because it changes its status on pressing the key

The correct answer is Because it changes its status on pressing the key

Important Points

A toggle key is a key that is used to turn a function on or off or to switch between two functions. Examples of toggle keys are the caps lock key, number lock key, and scroll lock key. A toggle key can also be used as an accessibility option to alternate the input mode of keys.

Key Points

A toggle key toggles the input from other keys on the keyboard between different input modes. The most commonly used toggle key is the caps lock key, which alternates the letter keys between uppercase and lowercase.
Num lock is another toggle key that helps to input numerals from the numeric keyboard and is turned on by default.
Another example of a toggle key is the scroll lock key, which allows arrow keys to scroll through the window's contents and allows users to scroll without depending on the scroll bar.
The insert key is another example of a toggle key, and it toggles between overtype mode and inserts mode while entering text.
A toggle key, unlike modifier keys, is turned on or off when pressed —they need not be held down while pressing other keys. Most keyboards have lights indicating whether the keys are switched on or off. Some operating systems and applications also display the toggle key status on the screen.

What is the shortcut key for the central alignment of a line or text in MS Office software?

((a))
Ctrl+E
((b))
Ctrl+A
((c))
Ctrl+G
((d))
Ctrl+C
((e))
Ctrl + D

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Ctrl+E

The Correct Answer is Ctrl+E.

Key Points

Ctrl + E makes the text in a word document centred.

Important Points

Ctrl + A Selects all text.
Ctrl + G opens the Find and replace options.
Ctrl+C Copy the selected text.

Additional Information

Word shortcut keys

Ctrl + A -- Select all contents of the page.
Ctrl + B -- Bold highlighted selection.
Ctrl + C -- Copy selected text.
Ctrl + X -- Cut selected text.
Ctrl + N -- Open new/blank document.
Ctrl + O -- Open options.
Ctrl + P -- Open the print window.
Ctrl + F -- Open find box.
Ctrl + I -- Italicise highlighted selection.
Ctrl + K -- Insert link.
Ctrl + U -- Underline highlighted selection.
Ctrl + V -- Paste.
Ctrl + Y -- Redo the last action performed.
Ctrl + Z -- Undo last action.
Ctrl + G -- Find and replace options.
Ctrl + H -- Find and replace options.
Ctrl + J -- Justify paragraph alignment.
Ctrl + L -- Align selected text or line to the left.
Ctrl + Q -- Align selected paragraph to the left.
Ctrl + E -- Align selected text or line to the centre.
Ctrl + R -- Align selected text or line to the right.
Ctrl + M -- Indent the paragraph.
Ctrl + T -- Hanging indent.
Ctrl + D -- Font options.
Ctrl + Shift + F -- Change the font.
Ctrl + Shift + > -- Increase selected font +1.
Ctrl + ] -- Increase selected font +1.
Ctrl + [ -- Decrease selected font -1.
Ctrl + Shift + * -- View or hide non printing characters.
Ctrl + (Left arrow) -- Move one word to the left.
Ctrl + (Right arrow) -- Move one word to the right.
Ctrl + (Up arrow) -- Move to the beginning of the line or paragraph.
Ctrl + (Down arrow) -- Move to the end of the paragraph.
Ctrl + Del -- Delete word to the right of the cursor.
Ctrl + Backspace -- Delete word to the left of the cursor.
Ctrl + End -- Move cursor to end of the document.
Ctrl + Home -- Move cursor to the beginning of the document.
Ctrl + Space -- Reset highlighted text to default font.
Ctrl + 1 -- Single-space lines.
Ctrl + 2 -- Double-space lines.
Ctrl + 5 -- 1.5-line spacing.
Ctrl + Alt + 1 Change text to heading 1.
Ctrl + Alt + 2 Change text to heading 2.
Ctrl + Alt + 3 Change text to heading 3.
F1 -- Open help.
Shift + F3 -- Change case of selected text.
Shift + Insert -- Paste.
F4 -- Repeat the last action performed (Word 2000+).
F7 -- Spell check selected text and/or document.
Shift + F7 -- Activate the thesaurus.
F12 -- Save as.
Ctrl + S -- Save.
Shift + F12 -- Save.
Alt + Shift + D -- Insert the current date.
Alt + Shift + T -- Insert the current time.
Ctrl + W -- Close document.

Windows 95 is an example of which type of operating system?

((a))
Single-User Operating System
((b))
Multi-User Operating System
((c))
Real-Time Operating System
((d))
Distributed Operating System
((e))
Multi processing Operating system

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Single-User Operating System

The correct answer is Single-User Operating System.

Important Points

Single-User Operating System
Performs a single task for Single-user.
This operating system is designed to manage the computer so that one user can effectively do one thing at a time.
Examples include Microsoft Windows.

Additional Information

The different types of Operating System:
Batch Operating System
There is no direct communication between the computer and the OS.
There is an intermediate, the Operator.
The operator distributes the work into batches.
Real-Time Operating System
The processing time is very small between the user’s command and the output such that there is no operator.
Time-Sharing Operating System
Multiple people at various computers can use a program at the same time.
Distributed Operating System
When two or more systems are connected to each other and one can open each other's files.
Embedded Operating System
These special Operating systems are built into larger systems.
They are limited to single specific functions like an ATM.
Network Operating System
They have one main server which is connected to other client servers.
It provides a secure operating system for working with multiple users.

What is the maximum limit of available worksheet functions in MS Excel?

((a))
141
((b))
231
((c))
341
((d))
421
((e))
561

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

341

The maximum limit of available worksheet functions is 341.

All formulas in MS Excel start with

((a))
%
((b))
((c))
=
((d))
–
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

The equal to sign '=', marks the start of any formula in the MS excel spreadsheet.

Which of the following is not the main function of the operating system?

((a))
Memory Management
((b))
Device Management
((c))
Network Management
((d))
Malware Protection
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Malware Protection

Malware Protection is not the main function of the operating system.

Important Points

Malware Protection
Malware is any software intentionally designed to cause damage to a computer, server, client, or computer network.
A range of antivirus software, firewalls and other strategies are used to protect against the introduction of malware.

Key Points

Operating system
An operating system is a large and complex system.
OS system components include:
File,
Process,
Memory,
I/O device management.

Additional Information

The process management component
The process management component is a procedure for managing the many processes that are running simultaneously on the operating system.
Every software application program has one or more processes when they are running.
For example, when we use a browser like Google Chrome, there is a process running for that browser program.
All these processes managed by process management.
The process management uses memory allocated to them and shutting them down when needed.
File management
File management in an operating system includes file creation and deletion.
Manipulating files and directories.
Memory management
An Operating System performs the functions for Memory Management such as:
It helps to keep track of primary memory.
Determine what parts of it are in use by whom, what part is not in use.
I/O device management
An Operating System performs the functions for I/O device management such as:
It offers buffer caching system
It provides general device driver code
It provides drivers for particular hardware devices.

Which of the following is a method of accessing fixed internet for home or office?

((a))
Public Wi-Fi
((b))
Mobile broadband
((c))
Digital subscriber line
((d))
Private Wi-Fi
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Digital subscriber line

The correct answer is the Digital subscriber line.

Key Points

A digital subscriber line is a method of accessing fixed internet for home or office.

Additional Information

The digital subscriber line (DSL) uses the existing telephone cabling infrastructure.
There are two methods of Internet access
Direct- The device connects directly to the Internet using 3G/4G mobile networks or public Wi-Fi.
Indirect- The device connects to a network using Ethernet or WiFi and the network connects to the Internet using DSL, cable, or fiber.

Integrated Circuits were used in which generation computer?

((a))
First Generation
((b))
Second Generation
((c))
Third Generation
((d))
Fourth Generation
((e))
Fifth Generation

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Third Generation

The correct answer is Third Generation.

Key Points

The First generation of computer's period was from 1940 to 1956.
Vacuum tubes were used in the first generation of computers for circuitry and magnetic drums were used for memory.
Computers in this generation were enormous and they use to take entire rooms.
Computers were very expensive to operate and used a great deal of electricity which generated a lot of heat which cause malfunctions.
Computer relied on machine language to perform operations and so could solve one problem at a time.
The UNIVAC (Universal Automatic Computer) and ENIAC (Electronic Numerical Integrator and Computer) are examples of first-generation computing devices.
The UNIVAC (Universal Automatic Computer) was the first commercial computer delivered to a business client, the U.S. Census Bureau in 1951.
The second generation of computer's period was from 1956-1963.
Transistors were used in second-generation computers.
The transistor was invented in 1947 but was used in computers in the late 1950s.
The transistors were far superior to the vacuum tube, allowing computers to become smaller, faster, cheaper, more energy-efficient, and more reliable than their first-generation predecessor.
Early versions of COBOL (Common Business-Oriented Language) and FORTRAN (Formula Translation) which are high-level programming languages were also being developed at this time.
The third generation of computer's period was from 1964-1971.
Integrated circuits were used in third-generation computers.
These computers carry out instructions in billionths of a second.
Computers for the first time became accessible to a mass audience because they were smaller and cheaper than their predecessor.
Fourth Generation computer's period was from 1971 to the present.
Microprocessors were used in fourth-generation computers.
Fourth Generation computers saw the development of the Graphical User Interface (GUI's), the mouse, and handheld devices.
Fourth-generation computers were small and more powerful as compared to other generations as a result they could be linked together to form networks and led to the development of the internet.
Fifth Generation computers are in the present generation and will see further developments.
Artificial Intelligence is used in this generation of computers.
Games such as chess and checkers can be played on the computer.
The term Artificial intelligence was coined for the first time by John McCarthy in 1956 at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology.
Natural-language processing, Voice recognition, robotics, etc are some of the achievements of this generation of computers.

What is the function of a modem?

((a))
Encryption and Decryption
((b))
Converts data to voice and vice-versa
((c))
Convert analog signals to digital and vice-versa
((d))
Serves as a hardware anti-virus
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Convert analog signals to digital and vice-versa

The correct answer is Convert analog signals to digital and vice-versa

The modem is a device that transforms the computer-generated digital signals into analog signals to enable their traveling through phone lines. The ‘modulator-demodulator’ or modem may work as a dial-up for LAN or connect to an ISP.
Modems can be both external, as in the device which connects to the USB or the serial port of a computer machine, or proprietary components for handheld smart devices and other devices, also as internal, in the form of add-on expansion cards for computer systems and PCMCIA cards for laptop computers.

Key Points

The design of a modem differs for both the external and internal modem. In internal modems, IRQ – Interrupt request is utilized to configure the modem in addition to I/O, which is a memory address. Usually, before the installation of a built-in modem, integrated serial interfaces are disabled, assigning them the COM2 resources at the same time.
For external types of a modem, the modem assigns and uses the resources itself. This is especially helpful for the USB port and laptop users as the non-complex and simpler nature of the process renders it far much more useful for daily usage.
At the time of setup, the second step to make sure the proper working of a modem is the installation of drivers. The modem working efficiency and processing is decided by two factors:
Speed of UART –An acronym for Universal Asynchronous Receiver or Transmitter chip (installed on the motherboard to which the modem connection is established)
Speed of the modem itself

Which of the following is a server acts as an intermediary between a workstation user and the Internet so that the enterprise can ensure security?

((a))
Proxy Server
((b))
Gateway
((c))
Kerberos
((d))
DMZ
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Proxy Server

In computer networks, a proxy server is a server (a computer system or an application) that acts as an intermediary for requests from clients seeking resources from other servers. A client connects to the proxy server, requesting some service, such as a file, connection, web page, or other resource available from a different server and the proxy server evaluates the request as a way to simplify and control its complexity. Proxies were invented to add structure and encapsulation to distributed systems. Today, most proxies are web proxies, facilitating access to content on the World Wide Web and providing anonymity.

What is the full form of DHCP in networking system?

((a))
Data Host Configuration Protocol
((b))
Dynamic Host Control Point
((c))
Data Host Control Panel
((d))
Display House Control Protocol
((e))
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol

The correct answer is Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol.

Key Points

DHCP is the acronym of Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol.
A Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol is a network server that automatically provides and assigns IP addresses, default gateways and other network parameters to client devices.
It will help to prevent duplication of addresses and also help the administrator keep good records.
DHCP is designed to improve the efficiency of allocating IP addresses.
DHCP services exist for networks running both Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) and Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6).
The IPv6 version of the DHCP protocol is commonly called DHCPv6.

Additional Information

Other common network protocols examples:
Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
File Transfer Protocol(FTP)
HyperText Transfer Protocol(HTTP)
Post Office Protocol (POP3)
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
Secure Shell Protocol (SSH)

The system of 32 bit number IP addressing is known as

((a))
IPv2
((b))
IPv4
((c))
IPv6
((d))
IPv8
((e))
IPv7

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

IPv4

The correct answer is IPv4.

IP (Internet Protocol) is a numerical value assigned to each device participating in a computer network.
The IP address is a unique address.
Every public IP address is registered to an owner, whether that owner is an individual or an organisation.
There are two versions of IP: IPv4 and IPv6.
IPv4 stands for Internet Protocol version 4.
IPv4 is a connectionless protocol.
IPv4 is a 32-Bit IP address.

Additional Information

IPv6 stands for Internet Protocol version 6.
IPv6 is a 128-Bit IP address.

Which of the following is a standard internet protocol used for transmitting the files from one computer to another computer connected to the internet?

((a))
SMTP
((b))
FTP
((c))
TELNET
((d))
HTTP
((e))
HTTPS

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

FTP

The correct answer is FTP.

Key Points

FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol.
It is a network protocol for transmitting files between computers over Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) connections.
It is considered an application layer protocol.

Important Points

SMTP
It stands for Simple Mail Transfer Protocol.
It is a TCP/IP protocol used in sending and receiving e-mail.
TELNET
It stands for Terminal Network.
Its utility allows users to test connectivity to remote machines and issue commands through the use of a keyboard.
HTTP
It stands for HyperText Transfer Protocol.
A protocol for fetching resources such as HTML documents.

Which among the following is NOT a search engine in the internet ?

((a))
Archie
((b))
Google
((c))
Nexus
((d))
Microsoft Bing
((e))
Yahoo!

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Nexus

Nexus is NOT correct.

Among the options, only Nexus is NOT a search engine.

Key Points

Nexus is a web browser.
It is the world’s first web browser.
It was invented by Tim Berners Lee.
It is formerly known as WorldWideWeb.
it searched FTP sites to create an index of downloadable files
It could be used to create pages as well as browse them.

Important Points

A search engine is a software that is designed to search for information on the world wide web.
Important search engines are:
Google.
Yahoo!.
Bing.
Archie.
DuckDuckGo.
Ask.com
Baidu.

Additional Information

Archie is the first search engine on the internet.
Bing search engine is developed by Microsoft.
Google search engine is the most used search engine in the World.
It is developed by Google LLC.

ICMP is is a network layer protocol used by network devices to diagnose network communication issues, what does ICMP stand for ?

((a))
Internet control manage Process
((b))
Internet comfort mass Protocol
((c))
Information control manage Protocol
((d))
Internet Control Message Protocol
((e))
None of These

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Internet Control Message Protocol

The correct answer is the Internet Control Message Protocol.

Important Points

ICMP Stands for Internet Control Message Protocol.
ICMP is part of Internet Protocol.
The Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) is a network layer protocol used by network devices to diagnose network communication issues.
ICMP is mainly used to determine whether or not data is reaching its intended destination in a timely manner.
When information is transferred over the Internet, computer systems send and receive data using the TCP/IP protocol.
If there is a problem with the connection, error, and status messages regarding the connection are sent using ICMP.
When one computer connects to another system over the Internet it may seem like a quick and easy process.
But In cases where there is a problem with the connection, ICMP can send back codes to our system explaining why a connection failed.
These may be messages such as, "Network unreachable" for a system that is down, or "Access denied" for a secure, password-protected system
ICMP may also provide routing suggestions to help bypass unresponsive systems.
While ICMP can send a variety of different messages, most are never seen by the user.

Key Points

Purpose of ICMP

The primary purpose of ICMP is for error reporting.
When two devices connect over the Internet, the ICMP generates errors to share with the sending device in the event that any of the data did not get to its intended destination.
Secondary use of ICMP protocol is to perform network diagnostics.
the figure below shows the working ICMP protocol.

ICMP flood, several echo requests and echo replies

Which of the following is the full form of 'BCC', a field of E-mail header?

((a))
Basic carbon copy
((b))
Blind carbon copy
((c))
Basic common copy
((d))
Blind common copy
((e))
Black common copy

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Blind carbon copy

The correct answer is Blind carbon copy.

Bcc means blind carbon copy which is the same as similar Cc.
Bcc appears for specified recipients only.

Key Points

Due to security as well as privacy reasons, it is best to use the Blind Carbon Copy (Bcc) feature when sending an email message to a large number of people.
When you place email addresses in the BCC field of a message, those addresses are invisible to the recipients of the email mentioned.
Earlier this concept was used in paper correspondence but now it is applied to emails.

Which of the following types of internet service does NOT require cable or phone lines?

((a))
ISDN
((b))
DSL
((c))
Satellite
((d))
Dial up
((e))
All of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Satellite

The correct answer is Satellite.

Key Points

Satellite Internet access is Internet access provided through communication satellites.
Modern consumer-grade satellite Internet service is typically provided to individual users through geostationary satellites that can offer relatively high data speeds.
Integrated Services Digital Network is a set of communication standards for simultaneous digital transmission of voice, video, data, and other network services over the digitalized circuits of the public switched telephone network.
A digital subscriber line(DSL) is a family of technologies that are used to transmit digital data over telephone lines.
Dial-up Internet access is a form of Internet access that uses the facilities of the public switched telephone network to establish a connection to an Internet service provider by dialing a telephone number on a conventional telephone line.

Additional Information

The first web page address was http://info.cern.ch/hypertext/WWW/TheProject.html.
ARPANET adopted TCP/IP on January 1, 1983.
NCSA Mosaic ran on Windows computers was the first browser to surf the internet.

General Awareness (40 questions)

Who among the following has been elected as the new prime minister of Pakistan?

((a))
Shah Mahmood Qureshi
((b))
Chaudhari Nisar
((c))
Shehbaz Sharif
((d))
Maryam Nawaz
((e))
Rafiq Tarar

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Shehbaz Sharif

The correct answer is Shehbaz Sharif.

Key Points

Pakistan’s parliament has elected Shehbaz Sharif as the country’s new Prime Minister following the removal of Imran Khan in a vote of no confidence.
He will now form a new government that can remain in place until August 2023, when general elections are due.
No Prime Minister has ever completed a five-year term in office during the country’s nearly 75-year history.

Additional Information

Pakistan Prime Minister Imran Khan-led government was ousted from power on 9 April 2022 after he failed the no-confidence motion moved against him by the opposition.
He served as the 22nd Prime Minister of Pakistan since 2018.
He is also a former cricketer.
Khan scored 3,807 runs and took 362 wickets in Test cricket and was inducted into the ICC Cricket Hall of Fame.
Pakistan's Army on 9 April 2022 conducted a successful flight test of the surface-to-surface medium-range ballistic missile Shaheen-III.
Veteran politician, former Supreme Court judge, and President of Pakistan, Rafiq Tarar passed away at the age of 92 years in March 2022.
The global money laundering and terrorist financing watchdog, Financial Action Task Force (FATF), retained Pakistan on the grey list in March 2022.

Mahatma Gandhi Setu bridge is in which state of India?

((a))
Gujarat
((b))
Maharashtra
((c))
West Bengal
((d))
Uttrakhand
((e))
Bihar

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Bihar

The correct answer is Bihar.

Key Points

Union Minister for Road Transport and Highways Nitin Gadkari and State Chief Minister Nitish Kumar inaugurated the eastern end of the Mahatma Gandhi Setu at Patna in the state of Bihar on 7 June 2022**.**
Built over the river Ganges, Gandhi Setu connects Patna in the south to Hajipur in the North.
The bridge has been reconstructed by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) at Rs 1,742 crore under the Prime Minister’s package to Bihar.
The eastern lane of the Mahatma Gandhi Setu, which was the longest bridge in the country for 35 years, has been completed after five years.
This bridge will be a lifeline from Patna to north Bihar, now the distance from Patna to Vaishali will be covered in 15 minutes.
It is made of steel instead of cemented. This bridge is the largest steel bridge in the country. It is 5.6 km long.
Such a steel bridge has been constructed for the first time in the country. 67,000 tons of iron have been used in its construction.
It is known that Mahatma Gandhi Setu has been constructed under 15 National Highway projects at a cost of Rs.13,585 crore.

Additional Information

The bridge was originally inaugurated in 1982 by then PM Indira Gandhi. The 5.57-km long bridge was in a dilapidated condition in absence of proper maintenance before the Modi government in 2016 approved the reconstruction of the four-lane bridge at an estimated cost of Rs 1,742 crore.
The bridge was constructed after dismantling the damaged pre-stressed cantilever arms superstructure and subsequent re-decking by steel truss.
The bridge can now see about 1 lakh passenger car unit traffic daily. The bridge will benefit Hajipur, Chhapra, Muzzafarpur, Samastipur, Darbhanga, Madhubani, Sitamarhi, Siwan and eastern Uttar Pradesh on the northern side and Patna, Ara, Arwal, Jahanabad, Nalanda, Gaya, Aurangabad, Sasaram and Jharkhand on the southern side.

After defeating which country, India made history by winning its first - ever title in Thomas Cup 2022?

((a))
Indonesia
((b))
Denmark
((c))
Japan
((d))
Malaysia
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Indonesia

The correct answer is Indonesia.

Key Points

India’s Men’s Badminton team made history by winning their first-ever title in the Thomas Cup tournament, on 15^th May 2022.
The team defeated the 14 times champion Indonesia by 3 - 0 in the final held at the Impact Arena in Thailand.
India has become the 6th different country to win the title.
Lakshya Sen, Satwiksairaj-Chirag Shetty and Kidambi Srikanth clinched stunning victories to help India script history.

Additional Information

Some of the important sports tournaments and their winners in 2022 are mentioned below:
ICC Women's World Cup 2022 - Australia
ICC Under-19 Cricket World Cup 2022 - India
Men's singles title at the Australian Open 2022 - Rafael Nadal
Women's Hockey Asia Cup 2022 - Japan

What is the name of portal recently launched by Prime Minister to act as a single platform for loan application and processing of various Governments’ credit-linked schemes?

((a))
Umang Loan Portal
((b))
Utsav Samarth portal
((c))
Uttam Samarth portal
((d))
Mann Samarth portal
((e))
Jan Samarth portal

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Jan Samarth portal

The correct answer is ‘Jan Samarth portal’

Key Points

Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched a unified portal for the government’s credit-linked schemes, aimed at improving the ease of living for citizens.
The so-called “Jan Samarth portal” will act as a single platform for loan application and processing.
It is a one-stop digital portal linking Government credit schemes and also a first-of-its-kind platform that directly connects beneficiaries to lenders.
The main purpose of the Jan Samarth portal is to encourage inclusive growth and development of various sectors by guiding and providing them with the right type of government benefits through simple and easy digital processes.
As many as 13 schemes and over 125 lending institutions have joined the portal, according to the ministry of finance.
The portal can be used to avail loans for education, agricultural infrastructure, business activity and livelihood opportunities.
Key state-owned lenders like the State Bank of India and large private lenders are part of the initiative.
Prime Minister also released special series of one, two, five, ten and twenty rupees coins.
These special series of coins will have the theme of the logo of Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav and will also be easily identifiable to visually impaired persons.

Which of the following has announced the launch of a revamped Ayushman Bharat Health Account (ABHA) mobile app?

((a))
National Health Authority
((b))
Indian Institute of Health Management Research
((c))
Indian Red Cross Society
((d))
Public Health Foundation of India
((e))
NITI Aayog

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

National Health Authority

The correct answer is National Health Authority.

Key Points

The National Health Authority has announced the launch of a revamped Ayushman Bharat Health Account (ABHA) mobile app.
It has been launched under its flagship scheme of Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM).
The application enables an individual to create an ABHA address (username@abdm), an easy-to-remember username that can be linked with the 14-digit randomly generated ABHA number.

Important Points

The updated version of the ABHA app has a new User Interface (UI) and added functionalities that enable individuals to access their health records anytime and anywhere.
The mobile application also enables users to link their health records created at ABDM compliant health facility and view them in their smartphones.
The application also allows self-uploading of physical health records in the ABDM compliant health lockers along with sharing of digital health records such as diagnostic reports, prescriptions, CoWIN vaccination certificate etc. after the consent of an individual through the ABDM network.
The Ayushman Bharat Health Account (ABHA) Mobile App (previously known as NDHM Health Records or PHR App) is available on the Google Play Store, and has over 4 lakh downloads.

In April 2022, who amongst the following was appointed as the new foreign secretary of India?

((a))
Harsh Vardhan Shringla
((b))
Vinay Mohan Kwatra
((c))
Gaitri Issar Kumar
((d))
Ruchira Kamboj
((e))
Other than these options

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Vinay Mohan Kwatra

The correct answer is ‘Vinay Mohan Kwatra’

Key Points

The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet has appointed Vinay Mohan Kwatra as the new foreign secretary of India.
He will succeed Harsh Vardhan Shringla who will retire on April 30.
Vinay Mohan Kwatra is a Seasoned diplomat and prior to this appointment, he was serving as India’s envoy to Nepal.
Before his diplomatic posting to Nepal in 2020, he served as the Ambassador of India to France from August 2017 to February 2020.
He is having extensive expertise in dealing with India’s neighbourhood as well as the US, China and Europe.
A career diplomat with over 32 years of experience, Kwatra has also held the position of a Joint Secretary in the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) for two years between October 2015 to August 2017.
There is a possibility that Shringla may get an assignment after his retirement and he could be considered for the post of coordinator for the G-20 summit which India is hosting in late 2023.

Dhanu Yatra is held in which state?

((a))
Bihar
((b))
Uttar Pradesh
((c))
Odisha
((d))
Assam
((e))
Rajasthan

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Odisha

The correct answer is Odisha.

Key Points

Dhanua Jatra is held in Odisha. It is a 11 day festival which began on January 2 in western Odisha.
All rituals were performed before Goddess Samaleswari, the presiding deity of the event.
Dhanua Jatra is an annual drama-based open air theatrical performance celebrated in and around Bargarh city spanning over an area of 6 km radius.
It is considered to be the world’s largest open air theatrical festival.

Recently “the Quad member countries have accepted India’s position on the crisis in Ukraine”. Which of the following countries is not a member of Quad Country?

((a))
India
((b))
Brazil
((c))
Japan
((d))
Australia
((e))
USA

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Brazil

The correct answer is ‘Brazil’

Key Points

The Australian High Commissioner to India Barry O’Farrell said “the Quad member countries have accepted India’s position on the crisis in Ukraine”.
The Australian Prime Minister Scott Morrison held a virtual summit with Indian Prime Minister, Narendra Modi and they are set to discuss the situation in Ukraine.
The Quad comprises India, Japan, Australia and the US.
Except for India, the three other Quad member countries have been severely critical of Russia for its military aggression against Ukraine.
However, the Quad Countries have agreed to set up a new humanitarian assistance and disaster relief mechanism.
This mechanism will enable the Quad to meet future humanitarian challenges in the Indo-Pacific and provide a channel for communication as they respond to the crisis in Ukraine.

India’s Accredited Social Health Activists (ASHAs) are among the six recipients of the WHO Director-General’s Global Health Leaders Award. The award was given at _________ World Health Assembly on 22 May 2022.

((a))
73rd
((b))
75th
((c))
85th
((d))
70th
((e))
79th

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

75th

The correct answer is 75th.

Key Points

India's 1 mn all-women ASHA workers were awarded and honored by WHO on 22 May 2022.
They were honoured for their outstanding contribution to advancing global health, demonstrated leadership and commitment to regional health issues.
Accredited Social Health Activists or ASHA volunteers are Indian government's affiliated healthcare workers who are the first point of contact in rural India.

Important Points

ASHAs worked to provide maternal care and immunization for children against vaccine-preventable diseases; community health care; treatment for hypertension and tuberculosis; and core areas of health promotion for nutrition, sanitation, and healthy living.
The ceremony for the awards, which were established in 2019, was part of the live-streamed high-level opening session of the 75th World Health Assembly.

Additional Information

WHO:
Headquarters - Geneva, Switzerland.
Founded In - 1948.
Director-General - Tedros Adhanom.

Which of the following initiatives was recently launched by the Airport Authority of India (AAI) to encourage local women led SHGs by providing them with the right opportunities?

((a))
Airport as Venue for Skilled Women's of the Region
((b))
Airport as Venture for Skilled Artisans of the Region
((c))
Airport as Venture for Skilled Women's of the Region
((d))
Airport as Venue for Skilled Artisans of the Region
((e))
Other than these options

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Airport as Venue for Skilled Artisans of the Region

The correct answer is ‘AVSAR’

Key Points

The Airport Authority of India (AAI) has launched an initiative “AVSAR” to encourage the talent of women, artisans and craftsmen and provide them with the right opportunities.
AVSAR stands for ‘Airport as Venue for Skilled Artisans Of The Region’.
Under “AVSAR”, an opportunity to help the indigent to mobilize their households into functionally effective self-earned groups for self-reliance and self-dependence has been provided.
SHGs operated by local women are showcasing and marketing their homemade local products like Puffed Rice, Pickles, Bamboo-based Ladies Bag/Bottle/Lamp Sets to the air travellers.
Few outlets have already been commissioned at Chennai, Agartala, Dehradun, Kushinagar, Udaipur & Amritsar Airport.
An area of 100-200 square feet has been earmarked at each AAI-operated airport and is being allotted to the self-help groups, turn on a turn basis, for a duration of 15 days.

Who has been appointed new Lieutenant Governor of Delhi in May 2022?

((a))
Vinai Kumar Saxena
((b))
Satyapal Malik
((c))
Rakesh Asthana
((d))
Neeraj Thakur
((e))
Anil Baijal

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Vinai Kumar Saxena

The correct answer is Vinai Kumar Saxena.

Key Points

Vinai Kumar Saxena has been appointed new Lieutenant Governor of Delhi.
Born on March 23, 1958, Saxena is currently the chairman of the Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC). He was appointed to the post in 2015.
Saxena will succeed Anil Baijal who resigned from the post on May 18 citing "personal reasons".

Additional Information

Delhi, officially the National Capital Territory of Delhi (NCT), is a city and a union territory of India containing New Delhi, the capital of India.
It is situated alongside River Yamuna and bordered by Haryana state on three sides and by Uttar Pradesh state to the east.
The States Reorganisation Act, 1956 created the Union Territory of Delhi from its predecessor, the Chief Commissioner's Province of Delhi.
The Constitution (Sixty-ninth Amendment) Act, 1991 declared the Union Territory of Delhi to be formally known as the National Capital Territory of Delhi.

Who among the followings has been appointed as India’s Chief Economic Advisor in January 2022?

((a))
V. Anantha Nageswaran
((b))
Dr Shankar Acharya
((c))
Gita Gopinath
((d))
Jaithirth Rao
((e))
Pradeep Kumar Rawat

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

V. Anantha Nageswaran

The correct answer is V. Anantha Nageswaran.

Key Points

V. Anantha Nageswaran took charge on 28 January 2022.
He is the former executive with Credit Suisse Group AG and Julius Baer Group.
He will succeed Krishnamurthy Subramanian.
The Chief Economic Adviser (CEA) in the Finance Ministry, advises the govt on economic matters and traditionally scripts the economic survey presented in Parliament a day before the Union budget presentation.

Additional Information

Indian Entrepreneur and writer Jaithirth Rao, popularly known as Jerry Rao, has come out with a book on Mahatma Gandhi titled “Economist Gandhi: The Roots and the Relevance of the Political Economy of the Mahatma” in October 2021.
Noted Economist and former Chief Economic Adviser to the Government of India, Dr. Shankar Acharya has authored a new book titled “An Economist at Home and Abroad: A Personal Journey” in November 2021.
French-born economist Pierre-Olivier Gourinchas has been named as the chief economist of the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
International Monetary Fund Chief Economist, Gita Gopinath has taken over from Geoffrey Okamoto as the institution’s No. 2 official in December 2021.

National Unity Day 2022 will mark the ____ Birth Anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel?

((a))
144th
((b))
145th
((c))
146th
((d))
147th
((e))
143th

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

147th

The correct answer is 146th.

Key Points

National Unity Day or Rashtriya Ekta Diwas is celebrated on October 31 every year.
The day was introduced by the Government of India in 2014 to mark the birth anniversary of Iron Man of India - Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
This year marks the 147th birth anniversary of the freedom fighter.
He was the first Deputy Prime Minister and Home Minister of independent India.

Additional Information

India’s tallest statue, the statue of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel is located in the state of Gujarat, India.
Statue of Unity has a height of 182 metres (597 ft) and is the world's tallest statue.
It is located on the Sardar Sarovar Dam on river Narmada in Kevadiya colony, 100 kilometres (62 mi) southeast of the city of Vadodara.

In May, the then Vice-President M. Venkaiah Naidu unveiled a 16 feet tall bronze statue of which former Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu?

((a))
Edappadi K. Palaniswami
((b))
O. Panneerselvam
((c))
C. N. Annadurai
((d))
J. Jayalalithaa
((e))
M. Karunanidhi

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

M. Karunanidhi

The correct answer is M. Karunanidhi.

Key Points

In May, the then Vice President M Venkaiah Naidu unveiled a 16–feet tall bronze statue (standing on a 14–feet high pedestal) of Dravidian political leader and five-time Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu Late 'Kalaignar' M. Karunanidhi in Chennai on May 28, 2022.
The statue is located at the campus of the multi-super specialty government hospital at Omandurar Estate.
The 16-feet high bronze statue is mounted on a 14-foot high pedestal.
After the formal unveiling, the Vice President, accompanied by the chief minister and other leaders paid floral tributes to a portrait of Karunanidhi kept near the statue.

Additional Information

M. Karunanidhi

Muthuvel Karunanidhi (3 June 1924 – 7 August 2018) was an Indian writer and politician who served as Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu for almost two decades over five terms between 1969 and 2011.
He was popularly referred to as Kalaignar (Artist) and Mutthamizh Arignar (Tamil Scholar) for his contributions to Tamil literature.
He had the longest tenure as Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu with 6,863 days in office.
He was also a long-standing leader of the Dravidian movement and ten-time president of the Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam political party.
Karunanidhi has the record of never losing an election to the Tamil Nadu Assembly, having won 13 times since his first victory in 1957.

Prime Minister's Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP) is a credit-linked subsidy programme launched in 2008 by which Ministry?

((a))
Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare
((b))
Ministry of Commerce and Industry
((c))
Ministry of Rural Development
((d))
Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
((e))
Ministry of Culture

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

The correct answer is Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.

Key Points

Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP) is a credit-linked subsidy program.
It was launched in 2008 for the generation of employment opportunities through the establishment of microenterprises in rural and urban areas.
It is a central sector scheme being administered by the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME).
Implementing Agency at the National Level is Khadi and Village Industries Commission(KVIC).
It is a statutory organization under the administrative control of the Ministry of MSME.
Features of the scheme are as follow-
It allows entrepreneurs to set up factories or units.
Any individual above 18 years of age is eligible for this scheme.
Only new projects/units are considered for sanction of loans.
Maximum Cost of Project/Unit Admissible for Manufacturing Sector is Rs. 25 lakh.
Maximum Cost of Project/Unit Admissible for Service Sector is Rs. 10 lakh.
The government has decided to provide Subsidy in Rural Areas - 25% for the general category and 35% for the special category, which includes SC/ST/ OBC/Minorities, Northeast Region, Hill, and Border Areas. and, In Urban Areas- 15% for general category and 25% for special categories.
Under the scheme, loans are provided by Public Sector Banks, Regional Rural Banks, Co-operative Banks, and Private Scheduled Commercial Banks approved by respective State Task Force Committee.

Additional Information

The Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises, a branch of the Government of India.
It is the apex executive body for the formulation and administration of rules, regulations, and laws relating to micro, small and medium enterprises in India.

Important Points

The Minister of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises is Nitin Gadkari.
Constituency-Nagpur

Who has been conferred with Royal Gold Medal 2022 by the Royal Institute of British Architects (RIBA), the world’s highest honor for architecture?

((a))
Raj Rewal
((b))
B.V. Doshi
((c))
Mani Ratnam
((d))
P. C. Sreeram
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

B.V. Doshi

The correct answer is B.V. Doshi.

Key Points

Balkrishna Vithaldas Doshi received the Royal Gold Medal 2022 by the Royal Institute of British Architects (RIBA), the world’s highest honor for architecture.
Many of his iconic buildings include the Indian Institute of Management, Bangalore and Aranya Low-Cost Housing (1989), Indore, which won the Aga Khan Award for Architecture in 1995.

Important Points

The Royal Gold Medal is “approved personally by Her Majesty The Queen and is given to a person or group of people who have had a significant influence on the advancement of architecture”.
His buildings combine pioneering modernism with vernacular.
His projects include administrative and cultural facilities, housing developments and residential buildings.
Doshi’s key projects include:
Shreyas Comprehensive School Campus (1958-63), Ahmedabad.
Atira Guest House (1958), Ahmedabad, low-cost housing.
The Institute of Indology (1962), Ahmedabad, a building to house rare documents.
Ahmedabad School of Architecture (1966, with additions until 2012) - renamed CEPT University in 2002 - which focused on creating spaces that promoted collaborative learning.
Tagore Hall and Memorial Theatre (1967), a 700-seat Brutalist auditorium in Ahmedabad etc.

What is money laundering?

((a))
Any person who is knowingly involved or assists
((b))
Any activity connected with proceeds of crime
((c))
Shall be guilty of offence of money laundering
((d))
The concealment of the origins of illegally obtained money, typically by means of transfers involving foreign banks or legitimate businesses.
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

The concealment of the origins of illegally obtained money, typically by means of transfers involving foreign banks or legitimate businesses.

Money laundering is the process of transforming the proceeds of crime and corruption into ostensibly legitimate assets. In a number of legal and regulatory systems, however, the term money laundering has become conflated with other forms of financial and business crime, and is sometimes used more generally to include misuse of the financial system (involving things such as securities, digital currencies, credit cards, and traditional currency), including terrorism financing and evasion of international sanctions. Most anti-money laundering laws openly conflate money laundering (which is concerned with source of funds) with terrorism financing (which is concerned with destination of funds) when regulating the financial system.

In May 2022, Prime Minister has inaugurated World's first Nano Urea (Liquid) Plant constructed at Indian Farmers Fertilizer Cooperative Ltd (IFFCO) at ____________.

((a))
Dewas
((b))
Kalol
((c))
Raver
((d))
Chennai
((e))
Surat

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Kalol

The correct answer is ‘Kalol’

Key Points

Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated World's first Nano Urea (Liquid) Plant constructed at Indian Farmers Fertilizer Cooperative Ltd (IFFCO) at Kalol.
The Nano Urea (Liquid) Plant has been built at the cost of around 175 crore rupees in an effort to further provide farmers the means to boost productivity and help increase their income.
The ultramodern Nano Fertilizer Plant has been established keeping in mind the increase in crop yield through the use of Nano Urea.
The Plant will produce about 1.5 lakh bottles of 500 ml per day.
The cooperative sector of Gujarat has been a role model for the entire nation.
There are more than 84 thousand cooperative societies in the state.
The organization of the Seminar of leaders of various Cooperative institutions on 'Sahakar Se Samriddhi' is yet another step towards further strengthening the cooperative movement in the state.
He also addresses the Seminar of Leaders of various Cooperative Institutions on 'Sahakar Se Samriddhi' at Mahatma Mandir in Gandhinagar.
Prime Minister also inaugurated the newly built Matushri KDP Multispeciality Hospital in Atkot, Rajkot.

Who among the following army officers has become Chief of the Army Staff in April 2022?

((a))
SS Mahal
((b))
Upendra Dwivedi
((c))
Rana Pratap Kalita
((d))
Manoj Pande
((e))
Pradip Shah

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Manoj Pande

The correct answer is Manoj Pande.

Key Points

Army Vice Lieutenant General Manoj Pande has become Chief of the Army Staff.
Previously, he served as the General Officer-Commanding-in-Chief, Eastern Command.
The incumbent Army Chief General M.M. Naravane will retire by the end of April 2022.
General Naravane is the front runner for the post of Chief of Defence Staff after the passing of General Bipin Rawat.

Additional Information

The Army Medical Corps (AMC) celebrated its 258th raising day on 3 April 2022.
The Corps has the motto of “Sarve Santu Niramaya” meaning “Let all be free from disease and disability”.
Chief of Army Staff General MM Naravane left for Singapore on a three-day visit from 4-6 April 2022.

100

Who is the director general of World Health Organisation??

((a))
Margaret Chan
((b))
Roberto Azevedo
((c))
Christine Lagarde
((d))
Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus
((e))
Lee Jong Wook

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus

The correct answer is Dr. Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus.

Key Points

Dr. Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus is the Director-General of WHO.
Former Ethiopian Health Minister Dr. Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus has been elected as the Director-General of the World Health Organisation.
The election has earned the distinction of being the first election that saw the participation of all WHO member states in the voting process.
Dr. Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus defeated the other two contenders to the post, namely, UK’s Dr. David Nabarro and Pakistan’s Dr. Sania Nishtar.

WHO works worldwide to promote health, keep the world safe, and serve the vulnerable.

Important Points

World Health Organisation (WHO)
It aims to achieve better health for everyone, everywhere.
Total members- 194
Founded- 7 April 1948.
It is celebrated as world health day.
Headquarters- Geneva, Switzerland
Director-General- Dr. Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus
WHO Regional Director for South-East Asia- Dr. Poonam Khetrapal Singh

Additional Information

Margaret Chan Fung Fu-Chun, OBE, JP, FRCP is a Chinese-Canadian physician, who served as the Director-General of the World Health Organization delegating the People's Republic of China for 2006–2017.
Roberto Carvalho de Azevêdo is a Brazilian career diplomat who served as Director-General of the World Trade Organization from 2013 until 2020. Since 2020, he has been Executive Vice President and Director of Corporate Affairs at PepsiCo.
Christine Madeleine Odette Lagarde is a French politician and lawyer who is the current President of the European Central Bank, a position she has held since 1 November 2019. Prior to this appointment and between July 2011 and September 2019, she was the Managing Director of the International Monetary

101

Which of the following American Presidents completed two terms as President?

((a))
Donald Trump
((b))
Jimmy Carter
((c))
Abraham Lincoln
((d))
John Adams
((e))
Barack Obama

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Barack Obama

The correct answer is Barack Obama.

Key Points

Twenty-second Amendment, amendment (1951) to the Constitution of the United States effectively limiting to two the number of terms a president of the United States may serve.
The US has had an elected president since its constitution went into effect in 1789.
Ten former U.S. presidents were unable to win second terms, including Jimmy Carter, George H.W. Bush and Donald Trump.
The first president of US was George Washington, the renowned great leader Abraham Lincoln was 16th one.
U.S. Constitutional Requirements for Presidential Candidates:
Be a natural-born citizen of the United States.
Be at least 35 years old.
Have been a resident of the United States for 14 years.
But in India, President can also be a naturalized citizen. Also, a candidate to be nominated for the office of president needs 50 electors as proposers and 50 electors as seconders for his name to appear on the ballot.
In the US, a person can be the president for only two terms. But there is no such bar in India.

102

Which of the following statements is not correct with respect to the Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Livelihoods Mission (NRLM)?

((a))
It was launched by the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD)
((b))
It is a restructured version of Swarna Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojna (SGSY).
((c))
It aims at poverty reduction through building strong institutions of the poor, particularly women.
((d))
It does not provide financial support to the beneficiaries
((e))
RBI has raised the limit for collateral-free loans to Self-Help Groups under the scheme from Rs. 10 lakhs to Rs. 20 Lakhs.

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

It does not provide financial support to the beneficiaries

The correct answer is It does not provide financial support to the beneficiaries.

Key Points

Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Livelihoods Mission (NRLM):

The Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD), Government of India launched the National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) by restructuring Swarnajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana (SGSY) with effect from 1st April 2013. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct.
NRLM was renamed as DAY-NRLM (Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Rural Livelihoods Mission) w.e.f. March 29, 2016.
The DAY-NRLM is the flagship program of Govt. of India for promoting poverty reduction through building strong institutions for the poor, particularly women, and enabling these institutions to access a range of financial services and livelihoods. Hence statement 3 is correct.
The Reserve Bank of India has raised the limit for collateral-free loans to Self-Help Groups (SHG) under the DAY-NRLM (Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihoods Mission) from Rs. 10 lakhs to Rs. 20 Lakhs. Hence statement 5 is correct.

Important Points

Key Features of DAY-NRLM:

It provides Revolving Fund (RF) to SHGs of Rs.10,000-15,000 as a corpus to meet the members' credit needs directly and as catalytic capital for leveraging repeat bank finance. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.
At least one woman member from each identified rural poor household is to be brought under the Self Help Group (SHG) network in a time-bound manner.
Special emphasis is particularly on vulnerable communities such as manual scavengers, victims of human trafficking, Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs), Persons with Disabilities (PwDs) and bonded labour.
Community Investment Support Fund (CIF): CIF would be provided by the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD) to the SHGs promoted under DAY-NRLM.

103

Choose the new savings scheme introduced for girl child from the following:

((a))
Suraksha Samridhi Yojana
((b))
Sukanya Samridhi Yojana
((c))
Sukanya Bima Yojana
((d))
Suraksha Bima Yojana
((e))
Sampriti Bima Yojana

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Sukanya Samridhi Yojana

The correct answer is Sukanya Samridhi Yojana.

Key Points

Sukanya Samridhi Yojana
Sukanya Samridhi Yojana scheme is the new savings scheme introduced for the betterment of girl children.
It has been launched to offer a saving to the girl child in every family.
The tenure of the scheme is 21 years from the date of opening the account.
The scheme can be closed if the girl marries after 18 years of age.
Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched the scheme under the 'Beti Bachao Beti Padhao' campaign.
It aims to secure the future of a girl child.

Important Points

Benefits of the Sukanya Samridhi Yojana scheme
Reduction of interest rate from 8.4% to 7.6%
Tax benefits of up to Rs 1.5 lakh
Transfer of account

Additional Information

Suraksha Samridhi Yojana
The Mukhya Mantri Parivar Samridhi Yojna is a unique initiative of the Haryana Government.
It is one of the largest social security programmes in the country.
It is to secure the future of the underprivileged sectors of society.
It also ensures life and accidental insurance for farmers and unorganised workers of Haryana.
Sukanya Bima Yojana
It is also known as the 'Girl Child Prosperity Account'.
Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched the scheme in 2015.
It is an Indian Government saving scheme for the girl child.
It encourages the parents to build a fund for the future education and marriage expenses for the child.
It is part of the 'Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao' campaign.
Suraksha Bima Yojana
Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana is the Prime Minister's Safety Insurance Scheme.
It is an accident insurance scheme.
It was launched by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi in 2015.

104

Vigilance Awareness Week is observed every year during the last week of October due to the birth anniversary of which freedom fighter?

((a))
Subhash Chandra Bose
((b))
Bal Gangadhar Tilak
((c))
Dadabhai Naoroji
((d))
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
((e))
Lala Lajpat Rai

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

The correct answer is Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

Key Points

Every year India celebrates Vigilance Awareness Week in the months of October – November. The week is celebrated in the birthday of Sardar Vallabhai Patel (Bismarck of India or The Iron Man of India).
He was born on October 31. It is mainly celebrated by Central Vigilance Commission and also by other organisations.
The idea of Vigilance Awareness Week was first introduced in 2000.
The theme for 2022 is “Corruption free India for a developed Nation”.

Additional Information

Central Vigilance Commission (CVC):
It is an independent body which is only responsible to the Parliament.
It is the apex vigilance institution monitoring all vigilance activity under the Central Government and advising various authorities in Central Government organisations in planning, executing, reviewing and reforming their vigilance work.
It was set up by the Government in February 1964 on the recommendations of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption, headed by K Santhanam.
The Parliament enacted the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003 conferring statutory status on the CVC.
On the recommendations of the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption, Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) was established by a resolution of the Ministry of Home Affairs on April 1, 1963.
Later, it was transferred to the Ministry of Personnel and now it enjoys the status of an attached office.

105

In April 2022, who amongst the following has taken charge as India's new envoy to Ukraine?

((a))
Tarun Kumawat
((b))
Partha Satpathy
((c))
Harsh Kumar Jain
((d))
Arun Singh
((e))
Prashant Pathak

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Harsh Kumar Jain

The correct answer is ‘Harsh Kumar Jain’

Key Points

Diplomat Harsh Kumar Jain is set to take charge as India's new envoy to Ukraine.
Harsh Kumar Jain succeeds Partha Satpathy as the Indian envoy to Ukraine.
At present, the embassy is operating from Warsaw in Poland amid the Russia-Ukraine war.
He is an IFS Officer of 1993 Batch and is currently designated as an Additional Secretary in the Foreign Ministry.
In 2017, he was appointed as the Ambassador of India to the Slovak Republic after being released from the Ambassador of India to the Republic of Kazakhstan.

106

India defeated Japan to win bronze at the Men’s Hockey Asia Cup 2022 held at

((a))
Tokyo
((b))
Dhaka
((c))
Bangkok
((d))
Tehran
((e))
Jakarta

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Jakarta

The correct answer is Japan 1-0.

Key Points

The Indian men’s hockey team won bronze in Hockey Asia Cup 2022 held at Jakarta, Indonesia after defeating Japan 1-0.
India captain Birendra Lakra won the player of the match award for his sturdy defensive work.
The 2022 Men's Hockey Asia Cup was the eleventh edition of the Men's Hockey Asia Cup.
South Korea won their fifth title after a final win over Malaysia.

Additional Information

The Indian men's hockey team slipped to 4th spot, but the women's team rose to number six in the latest International Hockey Federation (FIH) World Rankings, issued on 31 May 2022.
Australia and the Netherlands continued to be the world's number one ranked teams in the men's and women's ranking.
The Federation Internationale de Hockey, commonly known by International Hockey Federation (FIH), is the international governing body of field hockey and indoor field hockey.
International Hockey Federation (FIH):
Headquarters: Lausanne, Switzerland
President: Seif Ahmed (as of August 2022)
CEO: Thierry Weil (Apr 2018–)
Founded: 7 January 1924, Paris, France
Membership: 137 national associations

107

Which of the following countries is not a member of NATO?

((a))
United Kingdom
((b))
Ukraine
((c))
France
((d))
USA
((e))
Poland

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Ukraine

The correct answer is Ukraine.

Important Points

About North Atlantic Treaty Organization:
It is an intergovernmental military alliance.
Established by the Washington treaty.
Treaty that was signed on 4 April 1949.
Headquarters: Brussels, Belgium.
Headquarters of Allied Command Operations — Mons, Belgium.
Composition:
Since its founding, the admission of new member states has increased the alliance from the original 12 countries to 30.
The most recent member state to be added to NATO was North Macedonia on 27 March 2020.
NATO membership is open to “any other European state in a position to further the principles of this Treaty and to contribute to the security of the North Atlantic area.”

108

TSX is a stock exchange located in Canada. What does T stand for in TSX?

((a))
Tallinn
((b))
Transaction
((c))
Tripoli
((d))
Toledo
((e))
Toronto

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Toronto

The correct answer is Toronto.

Key Points

The term Toronto Stock Exchange (TSX) refers to a Canadian stock exchange located in Toronto, Ontario. Founded in 1861.
In 2007, the TSX merged with the Montreal Exchange (MX) to form the TMX Group.
The exchange is fully electronic with more than 1,500 companies listed.
All transactions are conducted in Canadian dollars.
The TSX and the London Stock Exchange (LSE) explored the opportunity for a merger. The deal fell through in 2011 after it failed to receive the required two-thirds majority of votes from shareholders.

Additional Information

The Toronto Stock Exchange is one of the largest stock exchanges in the world and is the third-largest in North America after the New York Stock Exchange (NYSE) and the Nasdaq.
Stock Exchanges are physically existing institutionalised set-up where instruments of security stock market (shares, bonds, debentures, securities, etc.) are traded.
Security trading in India goes back to the 18th century when the East India Company began trading in loan securities.
The Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) is the oldest stock exchange in Asia and was the first to be granted permanent recognition under the Securities Contract Regulation Act, 1956.
The Amsterdam Stock Exchange is considered the oldest in the world. It was established in 1602 by the Dutch East India Company, contemporary to Akbar in Mughal Period in India(1556-1605 CE).

109

Which city has announced to host the Summer Olympic Games 2028 in July 2028?

((a))
New York
((b))
London
((c))
Shanghai
((d))
Los Angeles
((e))
Paris

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Los Angeles

The correct answer is Los Angeles.

Key Points

The organisers of the Los Angeles 2028 Summer Olympic Games have announced that the opening ceremony for the mega event will take place on July 14, 2028.
The Games will be running through July 30, 2028.
The LA28, which is the Organising Committee for the Olympic and Paralympic Games 2028 revealed that Paralympic Games will begin on August 15, 2028, and close on August 27.

Additional Information

The Summer Olympic Games, also known as the Games of the Olympiad, are a major international multi-sport event normally held once every four years.
The inaugural Games took place in 1896 in Athens, Greece, and most recently the 2020 Summer Olympics were celebrated in 2021 in Tokyo, Japan.
The International Olympic Committee was founded in 1894.
The first edition of The Olympic Games was held in Athens in 1896 and attracted just 245 competitors, of whom more than 200 were Greek, and only 14 countries were represented.

110

Which of the following is a scheme for Senior Citizens of India?

((a))
Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyaan
((b))
Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana
((c))
Samartha Scheme
((d))
Pradhan Mantri Poshan Shakti Nirman
((e))
Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana

The correct answer is Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana.

Key Points

Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana is a pension scheme that ensures monthly pension payouts to senior citizens for the period of its term of 10 years.
Eligibility Criteria:
Be an Indian Citizen.
Be 60 years or above.
Have an Adhar Card.
An investor is at the liberty of opting for the pension amount he/she wants or for the purchase price one wants to invest in.
Launched in 2017 by the Ministry of Finance, the scheme was opened for enrolment till 31st March 2020.
The Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) is the exclusive and sole provider of this scheme.
The minimum pension amount to be Rs. 1000.
The maximum pension amount to be Rs. 9,250 per month

Additional Information

The scheme has recently been given the nod again by the Finance Ministry and would remain in effect till March 2023.
The amount of the maximum investment has been fixed at Rs. 15 Lakh per senior citizen.
The returns have been exempted from GST (Goods and Services Tax).
Initial rate of return for the year 2020-21 has been fixed at 7.40%. The return will keep getting reset every year with respect to the Senior Citizen Saving Scheme (SCSS).

111

In January, the Tonga volcano eruption destroyed the uninhabited island of Hunga Tonga Ha’apai and is now officially the largest explosive eruption of the 21st century. This vocano is present in which ocean?

((a))
Indian Ocean
((b))
Arctic Ocean
((c))
Atlantic Ocean
((d))
North Pacific Ocean
((e))
South Pacific Ocean

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

South Pacific Ocean

The correct answer is South Pacific Ocean.

Key Points

Tonga volcano eruption took place in South Pacific Ocean.
The initial tsunami wave created by Tonga’s underwater Hunga Tonga volcano eruption in 2022 was 90 metres high.
It was nine times higher than the tsunami recorded near Japan in 2011.
The volcano is located approximately 70 km from the Tongan capital Nuku'alofa; this distance significantly minimizes its destructive power.
The Tonga volcano eruption unleashed more energy than the Tsar Bomba, the most powerful nuclear device ever detonated.

Additional Information

It is surrounded by Fiji and Wallis and Futuna (France) to the northwest; Samoa to the northeast; New Caledonia (France) and Vanuatu to the west; Niue (the nearest foreign territory) to the east; and Kermadec (New Zealand) to the southwest.
Tonga has a tropical rainforest climate.
The Hunga Tonga-Hunga Ha'apai volcano lies along the ‘Pacific Ring of fire’.
A region along the Pacific Ocean marked by active volcanoes and frequent earthquakes is known as the Pacific "Ring of Fire," Pacific Rim, or Circum-Pacific Belt.
More than 450 volcanoes, or nearly 75% of the world's volcanoes, are found there. Additionally, 90% of earthquakes on Earth happen here.

112

As per the report of National Family Health Survey, India’s total fertility rate (TFR) has declined from 2.2 children in 2015-16 to _________ children per woman in 2022.

((a))
1.5
((b))
1.8
((c))
2.0
((d))
0.8
((e))
2.2

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

2.0

The correct answer is 2.0.

Key Points

India’s total fertility rate (TFR) has declined from 2.2 children in 2015-16 to 2 children per woman now, the latest edition of the National Family Health Survey (NFHS) showed.
The TFR is currently below the replacement level of fertility of 2.1 children per woman.
According to the report, the median age at first birth among women aged 25-49 is 21.2 years.

Additional Information

The Total Fertility Rate (TFR) is a standard demographic indicator.
It is used internationally to estimate the average number of children that a woman would have over her childbearing years (i.e. age 15-49).
The replacement rate:
The single most important factor in population growth is the total fertility rate (TFR).
If, on average, women give birth to 2.1 children and these children survive to the age of 15, any given woman will have replaced herself and her partner upon death.
A TFR of 2.1 is known as the replacement rate.

113

What is the maximum age for giving pre-education to children under article 45 of the Indian Constitution?

((a))
14 years
((b))
12 years
((c))
10 years
((d))
18 years
((e))
22 years

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

14 years

The correct answer is 14 years.

Key Points

Article 45 of Indian Constitution mentions the right to education as a part of the Directive Principles.
It mentions that the state should provide free and compulsory education to children till the age of 14.
Article 21A of Indian Constitution was included as part of the 86th amendment, making the right to education a fundamental right for children aged 6 to 14.
Following the ratification of the amendment, the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan was established, with the goal of providing "useful and relevant primary education" to all children aged six to fourteen.
The 93rd Constitutional Amendment Act added Clause (5) to Article 15 in 2006.
This allowed the state to make specific arrangements in all aided and unaided educational establishments, with the exception of minority educational institutes, such as reservations for the advancement of any backward sections of citizens such as SCs and STs.
The government responded by enacting the Right to Education (RTE) Act of 2009, which focuses on universal education and mandates the inclusion of impoverished children in schools.
Section 12(1)(c) of the Act, in particular, provides for a 25% reserve of places in unaided schools for students from economically disadvantaged sections and groupings.

Additional Information

Right To Education:
In 2009, the Right to Education Act (RTE) established free and compulsory education for children as a basic right under Article 21-A.
Committee Related To Right To Education:
The Ramamurti Committee Report, published in 1990, was the first formal document addressing the right to education.
The Tapas Majumdar Committee was established in 1999 which had Aim of Incorporating Article 21A into the Constitution.
Every child has a right to a full-time elementary education of adequate and equitable quality in a formal school that meets certain key norms and requirements. They are entitled to an education that is both free and compulsory.
Right to Education Act defines 'compulsory education' as the government's commitment to offer free elementary education and to assure compulsory entrance, attendance, and completion of primary school for all children aged six to fourteen.

114

Who is the CEO of Apple?

((a))
Kinam Kim
((b))
Timothy Donald Cook
((c))
Steve Jobs
((d))
Satya Narayana Nadella
((e))
Sundar Pichai

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Timothy Donald Cook

The correct answer is Timothy Donald Cook.

Key Points

Timothy Donald Cook is an American business executive and industrial engineer.
Cook is the Chief Executive Officer of Apple Inc and previously served as the company's Chief Operating Officer under its founder Steve Jobs.

Additional Information

Kinam Kim is the President of the Device Solutions Division. of Samsung Electronics Co.
Steve Jobs was the chairman, (CEO), and co-founder of Apple Inc., the chairman and majority shareholder of Pixar, and the founder, chairman, and CEO of NeXT.
Satya Narayana Nadella is the chief executive officer (CEO) of Microsoft.

115

Which of the following banks is not a part of Scheduled Commercial Banks?

((a))
Suryoday Small Finance Bank Limited
((b))
Kotak Mahindra Bank Ltd
((c))
Fino Payments Bank
((d))
Kerala Gramin Bank
((e))
Capital Local Area Bank

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Capital Local Area Bank

The correct answer is Capital Local Area Bank.

Key Points

Scheduled banks are those banks that are listed under Schedule II of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
The bank's paid-up capital and raised funds must be at least Rs. 5 lakh to qualify as a scheduled bank.
These banks are liable for low interest loans from the RBI.
They also have membership in clearing houses.
They also have to maintain an average daily Cash Reserve Ratio with the central bank.
The banks in the Indian banking system are sub categorized as Scheduled Banks, Non-Schedule Banks, Private Banks and Public Banks.
Types of Scheduled Banks in India:
The banks listed in Schedule II are further classified as –
Scheduled Commercial Public Sector Banks
SBI and its associates
Scheduled Commercial Private Sector Banks
Old Private Banks
New Private Sector Banks
Scheduled Foreign Banks in India
E.g. State Bank of India (SBI), Punjab National Bank, Union Bank of India, HDFC Bank, ICICI Bank, Axis Bank etc.
Non-Scheduled Bank:
They are not listed in the second schedule of the RBI Act.
There is no such condition that needs to be fulfilled for it to be considered a non-scheduled bank.
They maintain the CRR amount with themselves.
These banks are riskier.
E.g. Coastal Local Area Bank Ltd - Vijayawada (Andhra Pradesh), Capital Local Area Bank Ltd - Phagwara (Punjab), Krishna Bhima Samruddhi Local Area Bank Ltd, Mahbubnagar (Andhra Pradesh), Subhadra Local Area Bank Ltd., Kolhapur (Maharashtra) etc.

Additional Information

At the time of India's independence, all of the country's major banks were privately led, which was a source of concern because people in rural areas were still reliant on money lenders for financial assistance.
To address this issue, the then-Government decided to nationalise the banks.
The Banking Regulation Act of 1949 was used to nationalise these banks.
To ensure the stability and profitability of the Nationalised Public Sector Banks, the Government decided to form a committee led by Shri. M Narasimham to oversee the various banking reforms in India.
Universal Banks are the financial entities like the commercial banks, Financial Institutions, Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs), which undertake multiple financial activities under one roof, thereby creating a financial supermarket.
According to the guidelines on on-tap licensing of universal banks issued in August 2016, resident individuals and professionals having 10 years of experience in banking and finance at a senior level are eligible to promote universal banks.

116

The Chief Minister of which of the following states has recently launched 'Indira Gandhi Urban Employment Scheme', a scheme on the lines of the MGNREGA to provide 100 days of employment to families in urban areas.

((a))
Uttar Pradesh
((b))
Madhya Pradesh
((c))
Rajasthan
((d))
Maharashtra
((e))
Bihar

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Rajasthan

The correct answer is 'Rajasthan'.

Key Points

Rajasthan Chief Minister Ashok Gehlot launched a scheme on the lines of the MGNREGA to provide 100 days of employment to families in urban areas.
The scheme is known as Indira Gandhi Urban Employment Scheme.
Any family that wants to increase their income at a time of high inflation could seek jobs under it.
The scheme has been prepared after studying similar such programmes in other states, he added after launching the programme during a state-level event at Ambedkar Bhawan here.
Ten women beneficiaries were presented job cards during the function.
Under the scheme, projects on environment protection, water conservation, heritage conservation, maintenance of gardens, removal of encroachment, illegal sign boards, hoardings and banners, and sanitation will be undertaken.
People in the 18 to 60 age group are eligible for the scheme, under which at least 50 people in each ward of urban local bodies will be given employment.

Additional Information

National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005 or NREGA, later renamed as the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act or MGNREGA in 2009, is an Indian labour law and social security measure that aims to guarantee the 'right to work'.
It aims to enhance livelihood security in rural areas by providing at least 100 days of wage employment in a financial year to at least one member of every household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work.
Women are guaranteed one third of the jobs made available under the MGNREGA.

117

Which of the following statements regarding eligibility for the selection to the post of President of India is INCORRECT?

((a))
(S)he must have completed the age of 35 years
((b))
(S)he should be a citizen of India
((c))
(S)he should be qualified for the election as a member of the Lok Sabha
((d))
(S)he should be a Graduate
((e))
(S)he must not hold any office of profit under the government of India or the Government of any State

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

(S)he should be a Graduate

The Correct Answer is (S)he should be a Graduate.

Key Points

Eligibility for the election of President of India:
(S)he should be a citizen of India
(S)he must have completed the age of 35 years
(S)he should be qualified for the election as a member of the Lok Sabha
(S)he must not hold any office of profit under the government of India or the Government of any State or under any local or other authority subject to the control of any of the Government (Article 58)

Important Points

The President of India is the ceremonial head of state of India, and the Indian Armed Forces Commander-in-Chief.
An electoral college comprising the Parliament of India (both houses) and the legislative assemblies of each of the states and territories of India, all of whom are themselves directly elected, indirectly elects the President.
Though Article 53 of the Constitution of India provides that the President can, with a few exceptions, exercise his powers directly or through a subordinate authority, all the executive powers conferred on the President shall, in practice, be exercised by the Prime Minister (a subordinate authority) with the assistance of the Council of Ministers.

118

Which of the following statements is true about Know Your Customer (KYC) regulations?

((a))
KYC means Know Your Customer
((b))
It was introduced under Prevention of Money Laundering Act
((c))
KYC process includes ID card verification, face verification, document verification such as utility bills as proof of address, and biometric verification.
((d))
Banks must comply with KYC regulations and anti-money laundering regulations to limit fraud.
((e))
All are true

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

All are true

The correct answer is All are true.

Key Points

The Reserve Bank of India introduced Know your customer (KYC) guidelines for all banks in 2002.
In 2004, RBI directed that all banks ensure that they are fully acquiescent with the KYC provisions before December 31, 2005.
The main aim of KYC was to prevent money laundering, terrorist financing, and theft.
Banks should frame their KYC policies incorporating the following four key elements:
Customer Acceptance Policy,
Customer Identification Procedures,
Monitoring of Transactions and
Risk Management.
Money laundering is the process of making large amounts of money generated by criminal activity, such as drug trafficking or terrorist funding, appear to have come from a legitimate source.
The Prevention of Money Laundering Act was introduced in 2002 and came into force with effect from 2005.

119

What is the name of the India’s first passenger drone, unveiled by PM Narendra Modi on 20 July 2022?

((a))
Varuna
((b))
Jataayu
((c))
Saaras
((d))
Pawan
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Varuna

The correct answer is Varuna.

Key Points

PM Narendra Modi on 20 July 2022 unveiled 'Varuna', India’s first passenger drone in New Delhi.
Varuna has been developed by a startup 'Sagar Defence Engineering' specifically for the Indian Navy.
It can carry a 130 kg human payload & has a range of 25 km.
It has 25-33 minutes of flight time

Additional Information

Sagar Defence Engineering founded: 2015
Headquarters: Mumbai
CEO: Nikunj Parashar
Important Current Affairs Related to PM Narendra Modi:
Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the Akshaya Patra Foundation’s new mid-day kitchen in Varanasi on 7 July 2022.
PM Narendra Modi on 7 July 2022 inaugurated 'Akhil Bhartiya Shiksha Samagam' on implementation of the National Education Policy (NEP) in Varanasi.
The Ministry of Education is organising Shiksha Samagam from 7th to 9th July '22.
PM Modi laid the foundation stone and inaugurated several projects worth 33000 crore rupees in Bengaluru on 20 June 2022.
Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated ‘Kranti Gatha’ on 14 June 2022.
PM Modi on 10 June 2022 inaugurated the headquarters of the Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) at Bopal in Ahmedabad, Gujarat.
IN-SPACe was established in June 2020.
PM Modi on 28 May 2022 inaugurated the world's first Nano Urea Liquid plant by IFFCO at Kalol, Gujarat.
IFFCO nano urea liquid was developed through proprietary technology at Nano Biotechnology Research Centre in Kalol.
PM Modi is going to release benefits under the PM CARES for Children Scheme on 30 May 2022.

120

Who got the Best Supporting actor award in the 68th National Film Awards 2022?

((a))
Siddhant Chaturvedi
((b))
Piyush Mishra
((c))
Biju Menon
((d))
Deepak Dobriyal
((e))
Pankaj Tripathi

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Biju Menon

The correct answer is Biju Menon.

Key Points

Biju Menon won the best supporting actor award in the 68th National Film Awards 2022.
Biju Menon is an Indian actor who predominantly appears in Malayalam films.
He won this for the film Ayyappanum Koshiyum.

Additional Information

Best Feature Film: Soorarai Pottru
Best Director: Sachy, Ayyappanum Koshiyum
Best Popular Film Providing Wholesome Entertainment: Tanhaji
Best Actor: Suriya for Soorarai Pottru and Ajay Devgn for Tanhaji
Best Supporting Actress: Lakshmi Priya Chandramouli, Sivaranjaniyum Innam Sila Pengallum

English Language (40 questions)

Read the following passage and answer the questions given below. Some words may be highlighted. Pay attention.

After the pandemic caused shortages of essential items, Russia’s invasion of Ukraine has disrupted important food supplies, driving up prices of staples like cooking oil in supermarkets around the world. Before the war, Ukraine was the world’s largest exporter of sunflower oil. The conflict has now paralyzed harvests and left many nations with limited stocks of edible oil and soaring prices for what’s left. The United Nations has also warned that Russia's invasion of Ukraine could soon cause a global food crisis that may last for years.

Edible oil prices had gone up in the following months after Russian President Vladimir Putin launched a “Special military operation” in Ukraine. However, after five months, in continuation to the global price reduction and the government’s effort to pass on the benefits of reduced edible oil prices to consumers has given temporary relief to the common man.

Ukraine and Russia have been the major suppliers of sunflower oil. Between November 2020 and October 2021, India imported a total of 18.93 lakh tonnes of crude sunflower oil; of this Ukraine exported 13.97 lakh tonnes and Russia exported 2.22 lakh tonnes of sunflower oil to India. With the ongoing Russia-Ukraine crisis, the demand and supply chain of sunflower oil has been impacted. As a result, edible oil companies are now looking at options to import edible oil from other countries. They have also put forward the proposal of the usage of other cooking oils such as palm oil and groundnut oil so that the retail prices do not increase.

Weather woes across the world's major producers of edible oils are adding to fears of shortages. Dryness has foreshortened the size of soybean harvests in South America, the world's biggest producer, and drought in Canada shrank production of canola, leaving little available supply.

While limited supply and soaring prices are set to worsen inflation of food items like salad dressing and mayonnaise in wealthy economies like the U.S., developing nations like India are set to feel the worst impacts. Such countries depend on imports of palm oil as a cheaper alternative to more costly soybean, sunflower and canola oil.

121

Who has/have proposed usage of other cooking oils like palm oil and groundnut oil to keep the retail price in check?

((a))
Russia
((b))
Ukraine
((c))
The edible oil companies
((d))
South America
((e))
The Government of India

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

The edible oil companies

The correct answer is 'Developing countries'.

Key Points

Let's take a look at the reference sentence in the passage:-
'With the ongoing Russia-Ukraine crisis, the demand and supply chain of sunflower oil has been impacted. As a result, edible oil companies are now looking at options to import edible oil from other countries. They have also put forward the proposal of the usage of other cooking oils such as palm oil and groundnut oil so that the retail prices do not increase.'
We can see that it is the edible oil companies who have proposed using cooking oils other than sunflower oil so that the retail prices do not increase.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

122

Which country/countries are likely to have worst impact of the inflation of food items, according to the article?

((a))
Wealthy countries
((b))
Developing countries
((c))
Russia
((d))
Ukraine
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Developing countries

The correct answer is 'Developing countries.'

Key Points

Let's take a look at the reference sentence in the passage:-
'While limited supply and soaring prices are set to worsen inflation of food items like salad dressing and mayonnaise in wealthy economies like the U.S., developing nations like India are set to feel the worst impacts.'
The above sentence clearly states that developing nations like India will feel the worse impact of the inflation of food items.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.

123

What made companies of edible oils look towards the other countries as a import source?

((a))
Covid-19 Pandemic
((b))
Disruption in the supply chain by the war
((c))
Disruption in the production due to adverse weather
((d))
Offer of reduced price by other contries
((e))
UN Warning

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Disruption in the supply chain by the war

The correct answer is 'Disruption in the supply chain by the war'.

Key Points

Let's take a look at the reference sentence in the passage:-
'With the ongoing Russia-Ukraine crisis, the demand and supply chain of sunflower oil has been impacted. As a result, edible oil companies are now looking at options to import edible oil from other countries.'
The above line gives the answer to the given question.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.

124

Which oil acts as alternative to other costly edible oils in the countries like the U.S. and India?

((a))
Palm oil
((b))
Sunflower oil
((c))
Canola oil
((d))
Olive oil
((e))
Soybean oil

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Palm oil

The correct answer is 'Palm oil'.

Key Points

Let's take a look at the reference sentences in the passage:-
'While limited supply and soaring prices are set to worsen inflation of food items like salad dressing and mayonnaise in wealthy economies like the U.S., developing nations like India are set to feel the worst impacts. Such countries depend on imports of palm oil as a cheaper alternative to more costly soybean, sunflower and canola oil.'
The concluding line gives the direct answer to the question.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

125

Which country has supplied highest amount of sunflower oil to India between November 2020 and October 2021?

((a))
Both Ukraine and Russia
((b))
Canada
((c))
U.S.
((d))
Russia
((e))
Ukraine

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Ukraine

The correct answer is 'Ukraine'.

Key Points

Let us have a look at the following lines given in the passage:-
'Ukraine and Russia have been the major suppliers of sunflower oil. Between November 2020 and October 2021, India imported a total of 18.93 lakh tonnes of crude sunflower oil; of this Ukraine exported 13.97 lakh tonnes and Russia exported 2.22 lakh tonnes of sunflower oil to India.'
We can see that India imported a large amount of sunflower oil (18.93 lakh tonnes) in the said time, and the data clearly shows Ukraine has supplied most of it (13.97 lakh tonnes).

Hence, the correct answer is Option 5.

126

What might cause a long term global food crisis according to the UN?

((a))
Covid-19 Pandemic
((b))
Drastic weather changes
((c))
The proposal by the edible oil companies
((d))
Russia's invasion of Ukraine
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Russia's invasion of Ukraine

The correct answer is ' Russia's invasion of Ukraine'.

Key Points

Let's take a look at the reference sentence in the passage:-
'The United Nations has also warned that Russia's invasion of Ukraine could soon cause a global food crisis that may last for years.'
The above line gives the direct answer to the question.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.

127

Find the synonym of the following word: Crisis.

((a))
windfall
((b))
boon
((c))
godsend
((d))
pulchritude
((e))
plight

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

plight

The correct answer is 'plight'.

Key Points

Let us see the meaning of the words given in the options:
windfall ⇒ a large amount of money that is won or received unexpectedly.
boon ⇒ a thing that is helpful or beneficial.
godsend ⇒ a very helpful or valuable event, person, or article.
pulchritude ⇒ beauty.
plight ⇒ a dangerous, difficult, or otherwise unfortunate situation.
From above, we can see that the word 'plight' is closest to the meaning of 'crisis'.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 5.

128

Which of the given words is an antonym of ongoing?

((a))
occurring
((b))
extant
((c))
finished
((d))
current
((e))
happening

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

finished

The correct answer is 'finished'.

Key Points

The word 'ongoing' is a participial adjective and it means something that is continuing; still in progress.
Usage example, 'No agreement has yet been reached and the negotiations are still ongoing.'
Let us take a look at the meaning of the marked word:
finished ⇒ brought to an end; completed.
Clearly, these two words are opposite in meaning.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

Additional Information

Let us see the meanings of the other words in the options:
occurring (adj) ⇒ happening, taking place.
extant (adj) ⇒ still in existence; surviving.
current (adj) ⇒ happening or being used now.
happening (adj ⇒ fashionable, trendy.

129

What is the meaning of the phrasal verb put forward?

((a))
submit
((b))
propose
((c))
stay for some time
((d))
stretch out
((e))
postpone

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

propose

The correct answer is 'propose'.

Key Points

The phrasal verb 'put forward' means recommend as a suitable option.
Usage example, 'These tentative suggestions have been put forward to generate discussion in the next meeting.'
Clearly, propose is the correct meaning of put forward.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.

130

Which of the given words is not a synonym of essential?

((a))
vestal
((b))
necessary
((c))
crucial
((d))
indispensable
((e))
vital

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

vestal

The correct answer to this question is 'vestal'.

Key Points

The word 'essential' is an adjective and it means something absolutely necessary; extremely important.
Usage example, 'Mother's milk is essential for a baby at least for first six months.'
Let us take a look at the meaning of the marked word:
vestal ⇒ relating to the Roman goddess Vesta.
Other words like necessary, crucial, indispensable and vital have similar meanings as essential.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

131

Directions: Pick out the most effective form of the word from the given options to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

According to brokers, a _______ trend in Asia accelerates buying activity in the _______ market.

((a))
firmly, domestic
((b))
firm, domestic
((c))
firm, domestics
((d))
firms, domestically
((e))
firmed, domesticate

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

firm, domestic

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. firm, domestic.

From the context of the sentence, the adjectives should be used in the given blanks.
Let us explore the options:
The first option is incorrect as 'firmly' is used as an adverb in the sentence. 'Domestic' is still okay for the second blank but 'firmly' is not fit for the first blank.
The second option is correct as 'firm' is used as an adjective to describe the noun 'trend'. 'Domestic' is also used as an adjective to describe the noun 'market'.
The third option is incorrect as 'domestics' is used as a noun. 'Firm' is still okay for the first blank but 'domestics' is not fit for the second blank.
The fourth option is incorrect as 'firms' is used as a noun and 'domestically' is used as an adverb.
The fifth option is incorrect as 'firmed' is used as the past form of the verb and 'domesticate' is also used as the verb.
Hence, the correct option is "firm, domestic".

Complete Sentence: According to brokers, a firm trend in Asia accelerates buying activity in the domestic market.

Important Tips and Tricks to solve double fillers:
Do not read options: Read the sentence and think of a word that 'fits' the sentence. Now go to the options and choose the word that best replaces the word that you had thought of initially.
Elimination method: In certain questions, our knowledge and understanding of vocabulary and common idioms-phrases may be tested. Hence, be sure to have a good skill set of such phrases.
Use grammar clues: Keep a close watch at the tense of the sentence, subject-verb agreement, whether the blank in the sentence is after the article 'an' etc.
Use Connotation: Each word expresses two things: a definition and a connotation. A connotation is a positive, negative, or neutral feeling that is implied by or associated with a word.
Identify the Indicators: Indicators tell us what is coming up. They indicate if the question is moving to draw a contrast with something stated previously, or support something stated previously.

132

Directions: The following question has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits in the context of the sentence.

The pandemic _______ a range of new _______ needs, particularly around liquidity, for many retail and business customers.

((a))
triggers, financially
((b))
triggering, financial
((c))
trigger, financing
((d))
triggered, finances
((e))
triggered, financial

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

triggered, financial

The correct answer is option 5) i.e. triggered, financial.

From the context of the sentence, a past participle form of the verb and an adjective should be used respectively in the given blanks.
Let us explore the options:
The first option is incorrect as 'triggers' is used as a third-person present form of the verb. 'Financially' is used as an adverb.
The second option is incorrect as 'triggering' is used as a present participle form of the verb. 'Financial' is still okay for the second blank but 'triggering' is not fit for the first blank.
The third option is incorrect as 'trigger' is used as the base form of the verb. 'Financing' is used as a noun.
The fourth option is incorrect as 'finances' is used as a noun. 'Triggered' is still okay for the first blank but 'finances' is not fit for the second blank.
The fifth option is correct as 'triggered' is used as the past participle form of the verb and 'financial' is used as an adjective describing the noun 'needs'.
Hence, the correct option is "triggered, financial".

Complete Sentence: The pandemic triggered a range of new financial needs, particularly around liquidity, for many retail and business customers.

Important Tips and Tricks to solve double fillers:
Do not read options: Read the sentence and think of a word that 'fits' the sentence. Now go to the options and choose the word that best replaces the word that you had thought of initially.
Elimination method: In certain questions, our knowledge and understanding of vocabulary and common idioms-phrases may be tested. Hence, be sure to have a good skill set of such phrases.
Use grammar clues: Keep a close watch at the tense of the sentence, forms of the verb, subject-verb agreement, whether the blank in the sentence is after the article 'an' etc.
Use Connotation: Each word expresses two things: a definition and a connotation. A connotation is a positive, negative, or neutral feeling that is implied by or associated with a word.
Identify the Indicators: Indicators tell us what is coming up. They indicate if the question is moving to draw a contrast with something stated previously, or support something stated previously.

133

Directions: Pick out the most effective form of the word from the given options to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

Emerging-market banks will _______ see a _______ increase in credit losses in 2020.

((a))
likes, sharps
((b))
likely, sharp
((c))
liking, sharping
((d))
likely, sharpen
((e))
like, sharp

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

likely, sharp

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. likely, sharp.

From the context of the sentence, an adverb and an adjective should be used respectively in the given blanks.
Let us explore the options:
The first option is incorrect as 'likes' is acting as a third-person singular verb and 'sharps' is acting as a noun.
The second option is correct as 'likely' is acting as an adverb and modifying the verb 'see'. 'Sharp' is acting as an adjective describing the noun 'increase'.
The third option is incorrect as 'liking' is the present participle form of the verb and 'sharping' is acting as a noun.
The fourth option is incorrect as 'sharpen' is acting as a verb. 'Likely' is still okay for the first blank but 'sharpen' is not fit for the second blank.
The fifth option is incorrect as 'like' is acting as a verb. 'Sharp' is still okay for the second blank but 'like' is not fit for the first blank.
Hence, the correct option is "likely, sharp".

Complete Sentence: Emerging-market banks will likely see a sharp increase in credit losses in 2020.

Important Tips and Tricks to solve double fillers:
Do not read options: Read the sentence and think of a word that 'fits' the sentence. Now go to the options and choose the word that best replaces the word that you had thought of initially.
Elimination method: In certain questions, our knowledge and understanding of vocabulary and common idioms-phrases may be tested. Hence, be sure to have a good skill set of such phrases.
Use grammar clues: Keep a close watch at the tense of the sentence, subject-verb agreement, whether the blank in the sentence is after the article 'an' etc.
Use Connotation: Each word expresses two things: a definition and a connotation. A connotation is a positive, negative, or neutral feeling that is implied by or associated with a word.
Identify the Indicators: Indicators tell us what is coming up. They indicate if the question is moving to draw a contrast with something stated previously, or support something stated previously.

134

Pick out the most effective form of the word from the given options to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

The agitators, however, were unhappy with the verbal __________ as they were expecting a written _______________ from an oﬃcer.

((a))
Assure, apology
((b))
Assuring, apologizing
((c))
Assurance, apology
((d))
Assured, apologetic
((e))
Assurances, apology

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Assurance, apology

The correct answer is 'Assurance, Apology'

Key Points

Here, a basic knowledge of parts of speech can help you to find the correct answer at once.

The words verbal and written are adjectives which tell you that they are indicating some noun in the blank. Other words like assure (verb), Assuring(gerund/participle), assured(past participle) don’t fit in the blank.

So the correct word that would fit in the blank is assurance.

Similarly the second blank also requires a noun, hence apology is the correct answer.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

135

Directions: Pick out the most effective form of the word from the given options to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

Interest to serve the merchants has been _______ since digitization _______ at the merchant's end.

((a))
grown, started
((b))
growing, started
((c))
grow, started
((d))
growing, starting
((e))
grows, started

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

growing, started

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. growing, started.

From the context of the sentence, the verbs should be used in the given blanks.
Let us explore the options:
The first option is incorrect as 'grown' is the past participle form of the verb. 'Started' is still okay for the second blank but 'grown' is not fit for the first blank.
The second option is correct as 'growing' is the present participle of the verb, the present perfect continuous is formed using has/have + been + present participle and 'started' is the past tense of the verb.
The third option is incorrect as 'grow' is the base or simple form of the verb. 'Started' is still okay for the second blank but 'grow' is not fit for the first blank.
The fourth option is incorrect as 'starting' is the present participle of the verb. 'Growing' is still okay for the first blank but 'starting' is not fit for the second blank.
The fifth option is incorrect as 'grows' is the third person present form of the verb.
Hence, the correct option is "growing, started".

Complete Sentence: Interest to serve the merchants has been growing since digitization started at the merchant's end.

Important Tips and Tricks to solve double fillers:
Do not read options: Read the sentence and think of a word that 'fits' the sentence. Now go to the options and choose the word that best replaces the word that you had thought of initially.
Elimination method: In certain questions, our knowledge and understanding of vocabulary and common idioms-phrases may be tested. Hence, be sure to have a good skill set of such phrases.
Use grammar clues: Keep a close watch at the tense of the sentence, subject-verb agreement, whether the blank in the sentence is after the article 'an' etc.
Use Connotation: Each word expresses two things: a definition and a connotation. A connotation is a positive, negative, or neutral feeling that is implied by or associated with a word.
Identify the Indicators: Indicators tell us what is coming up. They indicate if the question is moving to draw a contrast with something stated previously, or support something stated previously.

136

Directions: Pick out the most effective form of the word from the given options to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

Companies _______ work from home hours to _______ personal time.

((a))
sets, protected
((b))
set, protecting
((c))
set, protect
((d))
setting, protect
((e))
set, protects

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

set, protect

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. set, protect.

From the context of the sentence, a verb and an infinitive should be used respectively in the given blanks.
Let us explore the options:
The first option is incorrect as 'sets' is used as the noun which is not correct as per the context. 'Protected' is used as the past form of the verb.
The second option is incorrect as 'protecting' is used as the present participle form of the verb. 'Set' is still okay for the first blank but 'protecting' is not fit for the second blank.
The third option is correct as 'set' is used as the singular verb for the singular subject 'companies' and 'protect' is the base form of the verb which is correct to be used as a to-infinitive.
The fourth option is incorrect as 'setting' is the present participle form of the verb. 'Protect' is still okay for the second blank but 'setting' is not fit for the first blank.
The fifth option is incorrect as 'protects' is the third person present form of the verb. 'Set' is still okay for the first blank but 'protects' is not fit for the second blank.
Hence, the correct option is "set, protect".

Complete Sentence: Companies set work from home hours to protect personal time.

Important Tips and Tricks to solve double fillers:
Do not read options: Read the sentence and think of a word that 'fits' the sentence. Now go to the options and choose the word that best replaces the word that you had thought of initially.
Elimination method: In certain questions, our knowledge and understanding of vocabulary and common idioms-phrases may be tested. Hence, be sure to have a good skill set of such phrases.
Use grammar clues: Keep a close watch at the tense of the sentence, subject-verb agreement, whether the blank in the sentence is after the article 'an' etc.
Use Connotation: Each word expresses two things: a definition and a connotation. A connotation is a positive, negative, or neutral feeling that is implied by or associated with a word.
Identify the Indicators: Indicators tell us what is coming up. They indicate if the question is moving to draw a contrast with something stated previously, or support something stated previously.

137

Read the sentence below to find out if there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error the answer is (5). (Ignore errors in punctuation if any)

Wuhan Institute of Virology, a leading (A)/coronavirus research center, (B)/is responsible for introducing a new (C)/ coronavirus that it was secret creating in its laboratories. (D)/No error (E)

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

The error in part D of a sentence, the error is in usage 'secret'
Here, we need to use the adverb form of 'secret'
Hence we need to replace 'secret' with 'Secretly'

Correct sentence - Wuhan Institute of Virology, a leading coronavirus research center, is responsible for introducing a new coronavirus that it was secretly creating in its laboratories.

Additional Information

Adverbs usually end with 'ly'.
If any additional information is given regarding verbs then it is considered as an adverb.
In the given sentence the adverb Secretly Describes the verb Creating.

138

Ahead of a more anticipated (A)/Cabinet reshuffle, the Rashtrapati Bhavan (B)/on Tuesday announced a (C)/slew of gubernatorial appointments. (D)/ No error (E)

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

Error is in part A of a sentence, the error is in the usage of More anticipated
adverb 'More' is incorrectly used. It should be replaced with 'Much'
'More' is a word that is mainly used for comparison.
'Much' is mainly used with uncountable nouns.

Correct answer- Ahead of a much anticipated Cabinet reshuffle, the Rashtrapati Bhavan on Tuesday announced a slew of gubernatorial appointments.

Additional Information

Adjective is the word which gives additional information regarding the noun

139

The jurisdiction of the KRMB covering (A)/ all off takes of irrigation and power on (B)/ common reservoirs to stop indiscriminate (C)/ draw sole for power generation by Telangana**. (D)** /No Error (E)

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

The error in part D of a sentence, the error is in usage 'sole'
Here, we need to use the adverb form of 'sole'
Hence we need to replace 'sole' with 'solely'

Correct sentence - The jurisdiction of the KRMB covering all off takes of irrigation and power on common reservoirs to stop indiscriminate draw solely for power generation by Telangana.

Additional Information

Adverbs usually end with 'ly'.
If any additional information is given regarding verbs then it is considered as an adverb.
In the given sentence the adverb ostensibly Solely the verb Stop.

140

In this question, a sentence has been divided into four parts (A), (B), (C) and (D). Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark that part as your answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘No error’. Ignore the error of punctuation if any.

Among those eligible include (A)/ all employees who was employed (B)/ at the district on or before Jan. 25, 2022 (C)/ and had completed a contract for 2021-2022. (D)/ No error (E)

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

The correct answer is ‘B’, i.e this part of the sentence has an error.

Key Points

The sentence talks about the eligibility of the employees for an institute.
The date mentioned is in the past, and the sentence is in the Past indefinite tense.
The ‘employees’ are plural, the plural form of the verb 'was' i.e, 'were' will be used.
Therefore the correct answer is 'were employed'.

Hence, the correct option is option 2.

The correct sentence is: Among those eligible include all employees who were employed at the district on or before Jan. 25, 2022, and had completed a contract for 2021-2022.

141

In the following sentence, some parts have errors and some are correct. Find out which part has an error and mark it as your answer. if there is no error mark 'option E'

If the bus (A)/ will not get the signal, it will not leave the stand. (B)/ The bus needs to be ready for departure and (C)/ there should not be any problems in the journey. (D)/ No error (E)

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

The correct answer is Option 2)i.e. B.

Key Points

The error lies in part B.❌
Remove ‘will' in part B of the sentence.
This is an example of type 1 conditional sentence, 'If the bus does not get the signal', is in the simple present tense.
The reaction, 'it will not leave the stand' is in the future tense.
The structure of type 1 conditional sentence is:
| If clause | Main clause | | --- | --- | | If + simple present | simple future | | If this thing happens | that thing will happen. | | If I run | I will not stop till I reach the border. |

📌Correct sentence: If the bus does not get the signal, it will not leave the stand. The bus needs to be ready for departure and there should not be any problems in the journey.✔️

Additional Information

The type 1 conditional refers to a possible condition and its probable result. These sentences are based on facts, and they are used to make statements about the real world, and about particular situations. We often use such sentences to give warnings. In type 1 conditional sentences, the time is the present or future and the situation is real.
Example: If you don't hurry, you will miss the bus.
Meaning that in the present 'if' the subject 'you' does not hurry, the bus (in future) will be missed.

142

Directions: In the following sentence, one part of the sentence has an error and other parts are correct. Find out which part has an error and mark it as your answer. If there is no error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer. Ignore the error of punctuation, if any.

When her husband saw Madhuri body, (A)/ upside down in the water, he got scared;(B)/ he thought suddenly, it was because of him and (C)/ a spurt of triumph went through him.(D)/ No error/

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
No error

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

The correct Answer is Option 1.

Key Points

This sentence is an example of the Possessive Case of Nouns.
A possessive noun is a noun that possesses something.
Here, Madhuri possesses body, and we denote this by use of an apostrophe + s at the end of 'Madhuri' i.e. Madhuri's*.*

Correct sentence: *"*When her husband saw Madhuri’s body, upside down in the water, he got scared; he thought suddenly, it was because of him and a spurt of triumph went through him."

Important Points

If the possessor is a building, an object, or a piece of furniture, you don’t need to add an apostrophe to show possession.

Additional Information

The possessive case shows ownership. With the addition of ’s (or sometimes just the apostrophe), a noun can change from a simple person, place, or thing to a person, place, or thing that owns something.

143

Assembling a team that will almost certainly be (A)/ defeated—that will face bigger, stronger, more (B)/ talented competition, weeks after weeks—verges (C)/ on the morally macabre. (D)/

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
No error

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

The Correct Answer is Option 3.

Key Points

The error is in part C of the sentence.
In the given sentence, the format is noun+preposition+noun.

The rule says: If a preposition comes after a noun and then the same noun is repeated, the noun should be used in a singular form. Thus, the verb accompanying the noun will be used accordingly i.e. singular.

Hence, instead of weeks after weeks, week after week is correct.
Here, 'after' is the preposition that is used before and after the noun 'weeks' So, the noun should be singular i.e. week.

Correct sentence: "Assembling a team that will almost certainly be defeated—that will face bigger, stronger, more talented competition, week after week—verges on the morally macabre.**"

Additional Information

'After' acts as a preposition and conjunction both. After means ‘later than’ and ‘next in time or place’.

After can be used before a noun phrase (as a preposition):
Shall we have a swim after lunch?
The bank is just after the park, on the left.
After can introduce a clause (as conjunction):
After I left him a message, he phoned me immediately.
She did voluntary work in a hospital after she graduated.
Some examples of the above format are:
Wicket after wicket
Door to door
Train after train
Page after page

144

Directions: In the following sentence, five words are given in bold, out of which one word is misspelled. Find the misspelled word.

The operative(A) constitutional principle in social behaviour(B) should be the promotion(C) of equality(D) and fratarnity(E).

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

The correct answer is 'E.'

Key Points

Let us explore the options:-
'Operative' means Functioning or having an effect.
'Behaviour' means The way in which one acts or conducts oneself, especially towards others.
'Promotion' means Activity that supports or encourages a cause, venture, or aim.
'Equality' means The state of being equal, especially in status, rights, or opportunities.
'Fratarnity': There is no such word in English or we can say that there is some spelling mistake in this word.
The correct spelling is 'Fraternity' means Friendship and mutual support within a group.

Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

Correct Sentence: The operative constitutional principle in social behavior should be the promotion of equality and fraternity.

Additional Information

The synonyms of the word 'Fraternity' are "Fellowship, Kinship, Friendship".
Example of 'Fraternity' in a sentence:
There is a strong spirit of fraternity among these isolated people.

145

Directions: In the following sentence, five words are given in bold, out of which one word is misspelled. Find the misspelled word.

A constitutional authority(A) cannot circumvent(B) a provision(C) of the Constitution by taking advantage(D) of an ommision(E).

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

The correct answer is 'E.'

Key Points

Let us explore the options:-
'Authority' means A person or organization having political or administrative power and control.
'Circumvent' means To find a way around an obstacle.
'Provision' means The action of providing or supplying something for use.
'Advantage' means A condition or circumstance that puts one in a favorable or superior position.
'Ommision': There is no such word in English or we can say that there is some spelling mistake in this word.
The correct spelling is 'Omission' means A person or thing that has been left out or excluded.

Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

Correct Sentence: A constitutional authority cannot circumvent a provision of the Constitution by taking advantage of an omission.

Additional Information

The synonyms of the word 'Omission' are "Deletion, Cut, Exclusion".
Example of 'Omission' in a sentence:
The play was shortened by the omission of two scenes.

146

Directions: In the following sentence, five words are given in bold, out of which one word is misspelled. Find the misspelled word.

The scope of the HRD Ministry with referrence(A) to language(B) extends to education(C) and the promotion(D) of cultural expression(E).

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

The correct answer is 'A.'

Key Points

Let us explore the options:-
'Referrence': There is no such word in English or we can say that there is some spelling mistake in this word.
The correct spelling is 'Reference' means Looking at something for information.
'Language' means The system of communication in speech and writing that is used by people of a particular country.
'Education' means A body of knowledge acquired while being educated.
'Promotion' means Activity that supports or encourages a cause, venture, or aim.
'Expression' means Something that you say that shows your opinions or feelings.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Sentence: The scope of the HRD Ministry with reference to language extends to education and the promotion of cultural expression.

Additional Information

The synonyms of the word 'Reference' are "Referral, Remission, Direction".
Example of 'Reference' in a sentence:
You should keep the book for future reference.

147

Directions: In the following sentence, five words are given in bold, out of which one word is misspelled. Find the misspelled word.

We are moraly(A) and politically(B) entitled(C) to ask if the dream of Marine Le Pen has become that of a significant(D) portion of the French population(E)?

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

The correct answer is 'A.'

Key Points

Let us explore the options:-
'Moraly': There is no such word in English or we can say that there is some spelling mistake in this word.
The correct spelling is 'Morally' means In a way that is considered right according to the code of behavior of a particular society.
'Politically' means In a way that relates to the political ideas or beliefs of a person or group.
'Entitled' means Believing oneself to be inherently deserving of privileges or special treatment.
'Significant' means Important or large enough to be noticed.
'Population' means The number of people who live in a particular area, city, or country.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Sentence: We are morally and politically entitled to ask if the dream of Marine Le Pen has become that of a significant portion of the French population?

Additional Information

The synonyms of the word 'Morally' are "Purely, Righteously, Virtuously".
Example of 'Morally' in a sentence:
They thought slavery was morally wrong.

148

Directions: In the following sentence, five words are given in bold, out of which one word is misspelled. Find the misspelled word.

The spewing(A) of hatred by inflamatory(B) words and any abetting(C) of those by elements in power belittle(D) the Constitution and betray(E) the people of India.

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

The correct answer is 'B.'

Key Points

Let us explore the options:-
'Spewing' means Expelling large quantities of something rapidly and forcibly.
'Inflamatory': There is no such word in English or we can say that there is some spelling mistake in this word.
The correct spelling is 'Inflammatory' means Arousing or intended to arouse angry or violent feelings.
'Abetting' means Encouraging or assisting someone to do something wrong, in particular, to commit a crime.
'Belittle' means To dismiss someone or something as unimportant.
'Betray' means To hurt somebody who trusts you, especially by not being loyal or faithful to him/her.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Sentence: The spewing of hatred by inflammatory words and any abetting of those by elements in power belittle the Constitution and betray the people of India.

Additional Information

The synonyms of the word 'Inflammatory' are "Provoking, Inflaming, Inciting".
Example of 'Inflammatory' in a sentence:
Barely a week went by without him making inflammatory comments of some kind.

149

The following sentences form a paragraph. The sentences are numbered as P, Q, R, S and T. These sentences are not given in their proper order. Read the sentences and choose the alternative that arranges them in the correct order.

P- Both clinics are considered rural family medicine clinics. Out of the 170 patients enrolled in the health management program 115 patients were included in the study.

Q- Durant is a town of just over 15,000 as of the 2010 census.

R- Data was obtained through chart review of two clinics in Durant, Oklahoma.

S- There was no significant reduction in the office visit rates seen over the same time period.

T- The Data showed that over a period of seven months there was a significant reduction of patients going to the hospital for admission. A reduction of 50% was demonstrated with a significant p-value of 0.025896.

((a))
RSTQP
((b))
TSPQR
((c))
RPSTQ
((d))
RQPTS
((e))
STRPQ

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

RQPTS

The given sentence shows the use of conjunctions, indicating that they are meaningfully related to each other.

Out of the given sentences, only sentence R talks about providing a 'Data' while others give more information about it.

So, there are two sentences which are starting with sentence P. Let us take a look at both of them.

Sentence Q introduces the first town i.e. Durant.

Out of the given options, option 4 reflects this order i.e. RQ.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

150

P- It is so important to get help as fast as you can it can make a difference with speech there are memory exercises that can be of great benefit.

Q- It is very important that the client gets as much help as they can get, speech therapy plenty of exercises but above all keep their dignity,

R- some examples of this would always make eye contact make sure the client can hear and see you always tell them who you are and what will be happening you may have to repeat this many times and speak slow clear and calm.

S- Picks is very hard to diagnose it is sometimes mistaken for depression it has some of the symptoms of depression e.g. mood swings, no attention span, lack of hygiene overeating or not eating properly,

T- The loss of speech and understand when trying to communicate can be very upsetting for the client which leads to aggression impatience and frustration.

((a))
TRQPS
((b))
STQRP
((c))
PRSTQ
((d))
RSTQP
((e))
SRTPQ

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

STQRP

The given sentence shows the use of conjunctions, indicating that they are meaningfully related to each other.

Out of the given sentences, only sentence S introduces the topic i.e. 'Misconceptions about Picks and its cure' while others give more information about it.

So, there are two sentences which are starting with sentence S. Let us take a look at both of them.

Sentence T explains about someone who is suffering from the disorder.

Out of the given options, option 2 reflects this order i.e. ST.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

151

Directions: In the following question, sentences of a paragraph have been jumbled and have been labelled as A, B, C, D and E. You are required to rearrange the jumbled sentences accordingly by selecting the correct option.

A: The sonification revisits the actual sound waves discovered in data from NASA’s Chandra X-ray Observatory.

B: The popular misconception that there is no sound in space originates from the fact that most of the space is essentially a vacuum, providing no medium for sound waves to propagate through.

C: Since 2003, the black hole at the centre of the Perseus galaxy cluster has been associated with sound.

D: Now a new sonification brings more notes to this black hole.

E: This is because astronomers discovered that pressure waves sent out by the black hole caused ripples in the cluster’s hot gas that could be translated into a sound note — one that humans cannot hear.

((a))
ABCDE
((b))
ECADB
((c))
BCADE
((d))
CDABE
((e))
CEDAB

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

CEDAB

The correct answer is 'CEDAB'

Key Points

The sentence 'C' is independent of any other sentence as the sentence talks about the black hole at the centre of the Perseus galaxy being associated with sound. Hence 'C' is the first part.
The sentence 'E' is talking about the black hole being associated with sound because pressure waves sent out by the black hole caused ripples in the cluster's hot gas. Hence 'E' follows 'C'.
In the sentence 'D' we read about a new sonification bringing more notes to this black hole. Hence 'D' follows 'E'.
In the sentence, 'A' the sentence talks about the sonification revisiting the actual sound waves discovered in NASA's Chandra X-ray Observatory. Hence 'A' follows 'D'.
The sentence 'B' is the concluding sentence that states the popular misconception that there is no sound in space because of space being a vaccum. Hence 'B' is the last sentence.
The correct sequence is C-E-D-A-B.

Paragraph after rearranging the sentences:- Since 2003, the black hole at the centre of the Perseus galaxy cluster has been associated with sound. This is because astronomers discovered that pressure waves sent out by the black hole caused ripples in the cluster’s hot gas that could be translated into a sound note — one that humans cannot hear. Now a new sonification brings more notes to this black hole. The sonification revisits the actual sound waves discovered in data from NASA’s Chandra X-ray Observatory. The popular misconception that there is no sound in space originates from the fact that most of the space is essentially a vacuum, providing no medium for sound waves to propagate through.

Hence the correct answer is option 5.

152

A: At the root of all political corruption is electoral funding, it began in India with the first general election in 1952.

B: So, it has remained for five crucial years since, while a new national government and two-dozen state governments

C: have been elected, toppled, re-elected and so on.

D: Finally, on 1 April 2017, it was legalised with the Union Budget taking effect.

E: Three generations of the wisest Indians failed to defeat it over 65 years.

((a))
EABDC
((b))
AEDBC
((c))
EADBC
((d))
EDCBA
((e))
BCDEA

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

AEDBC

The correct answer is 'AEDBC'

Key Points

The sentence 'A' is independent of any other sentence as the sentence talks about the root of all political corruption i.e electoral funding. Hence 'A' is the first part.
The sentence 'E' is talking about how three generations of wisest Indians failed to defeat this political corruption. Hence 'E' follows 'A'.
In the sentence 'D' we read that in 2017 electoral funding was legalized with the Union Budget taking effect. Hence 'D' follows 'E'.
In sentence 'B' we read that electoral funding had remained in India for 5 crucial years. Hence 'B' follows 'D'.
The sentence 'C' is the concluding sentence that states that electoral funding has remained in India through 5 crucial years of governments having been elected, toppled, re-elected and so on. Hence 'C' is the last sentence.
The correct sequence is A-E-D-B-C.

Paragraph after rearranging the sentences:- At the root of all political corruption is electoral funding. It began in India with the first general election in 1952. Three generations of the wisest Indians failed to defeat it over 65 years. Finally, on 1 April 2017, it was legalised with the Union Budget taking effect. So, it has remained for five crucial years since, while a new national government and two-dozen state governments have been elected, toppled, re-elected and so on.

Hence the correct answer is option 2.

153

A: Responding to PM Modi, Russian President Vladimir Putin said that he knows about India’s position on the Ukraine conflict and “we want all of this to end as soon as possible”.

B: American publication -CNN praised PM Modi’s hold on world politics and reported "Indian leader Narendra Modi tells Putin: Now is not the time for war”.

C: Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s advice to Russian President Vladimir Putin over the Ukraine war during a bilateral meeting

D: International media praised PM Modi’s diplomatic acumen, who in a friendly tone pushed the concerns of the global community to its long-standing friend Russia.

E: on the sidelines of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization’s summit in Uzbekistan’s Samarkand has grabbed the attention of leading international media organisations.

((a))
ACBDE
((b))
DCABE
((c))
CEDBA
((d))
DAEBC
((e))
AEBDC

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

CEDBA

The correct answer is 'CEDBA'

Key Points

The sentence 'C' is independent of any other sentence as it talks about PM Modi's advice to Russian President Vladimir Putin. Hence 'C' is the first part.
The sentence 'E' is talking about the advice Modi gave to Putin during the SCO summit in Uzbekistan's Samarkand. Hence 'E' follows 'C'.
In the sentence 'D' we read about how international media houses praised Modi who in a friendly tone voiced his concerns to Russia. Hence 'D' follows 'E'.
In sentence 'B' the American publishing house CNN is being talked about which reported 'Indian leader Narendra Modi tells Putin: Now is not the time for war”. Hence 'B' follows 'B'.
The sentence 'A' is the concluding sentence that states Putin responded to Modi by saying that “we want all of this to end as soon as possible”. Hence 'A' is the last sentence.
The correct sequence is C-E-D-B-A.

Paragraph after rearranging the sentences:- Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s advice to Russian President Vladimir Putin over the Ukraine war during a bilateral meeting on the sidelines of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization’s summit in Uzbekistan’s Samarkand has grabbed the attention of leading international media organisations. International media praised PM Modi’s diplomatic acumen, who in a friendly tone pushed the concerns of the global community to its long-standing friend Russia. American publication -CNN praised PM Modi’s hold on world politics and reported "Indian leader Narendra Modi tells Putin: Now is not the time for war”. Responding to PM Modi, Russian President Vladimir Putin said that he knows about India’s position on the Ukraine conflict and “we want all of this to end as soon as possible”.

Hence the correct answer is option 3.

154

A: A former Chinese diplomat, Zhang said the main agenda for the SCO now is how to promote peace, security, development and prosperity.

B: including China — said SCO secretary general Zhang Ming, also highlighting that the multilateral body was expected to expand during India’s chairmanship.

C: The SCO was founded in Shanghai in 2001 and currently has eight permanent members — China, Russia, India, Pakistan, Uzbekistan, Kyrgyzstan, Kazakhstan, and Tajikistan.

D: India, which took over the chairmanship of the China-led Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) from Uzbekistan in September 2022, will be supported by all member countries,

E: India became a full member of the SCO in 2017 and this is the first time ever that the country has taken over the chairmanship of the multilateral body.

((a))
ABDCE
((b))
EDCBA
((c))
ECBDA
((d))
DBECA
((e))
DCBEA

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

DBECA

The correct answer is 'DBECA'

Key Points

The sentence 'D' is independent of any other sentence as it is talking about India taking over the chairmanship of the China-led Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO). Hence 'D' is the first part.
The sentence 'B' is talking about India being supported by all the member countries including China. Hence 'B' follows 'D'.
In the sentence 'E' we are made aware that India became a member of SCO in 2017 and this is the first time ever that the country has taken over the chairmanship of the multilateral body. Hence 'E' follows 'B'.
In the sentence 'C' the writer says gives a brief history of the SCO and its foundation and members. Hence 'C' follows 'E'.
The sentence 'A' is the concluding sentence that states the main agenda of the SCO that is propounded. Hence 'A' is the last sentence.
The correct sequence is D-B-E-C-A.

Paragraph after rearranging the sentences:- India, which took over the chairmanship of the China-led Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) from Uzbekistan last week, will be supported by all member countries — including China — said SCO secretary general Zhang Ming, also highlighting that the multilateral body was expected to expand during India’s chairmanship. India became a full member of the SCO in 2017 and this is the first time ever that the country has taken over the chairmanship of the multilateral body. The SCO was founded in Shanghai in 2001 and currently has eight permanent members — China, Russia, India, Pakistan, Uzbekistan, Kyrgyzstan, Kazakhstan, and Tajikistan. A former Chinese diplomat, Zhang said the main agenda for the SCO now is how to promote peace, security, development and prosperity.

Hence the correct answer is option 4.

155

A: This coincided with the price of India’s crude oil basket rising to $126.36 per barrel, its highest level since July 2008, according to data from the Petroleum Planning and Analysis Cell.

B: In March, the Rupee fell low against the US dollar, at 77.01.

C: The popular perception is that a falling currency is just bad news for an economy.

D: A weakening rupee benefits a country’s exports as exporters get more value for the same amount of goods that they export in dollars.

E: In the Indian context, this isn’t so, there are several pros and cons.

((a))
BACED
((b))
DABCE
((c))
AEBDC
((d))
BCADE
((e))
CBDEA

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

BACED

The correct answer is 'BACED'

Key Points

The sentence 'B' is independent of any other sentence as it is talking about the rupee being low as compared to the US dollar. Hence 'B' is the first part.
The sentence 'A' is talking about the fall of the rupee coinciding with India's crude oil basket rising to $126.36 per barrel. Hence 'A' follows 'B'.
In the sentence 'C' we are made aware of the popular perception that falling currency is purely bad news for the economy. Hence 'C' follows 'A'.
In the sentence 'E' the writer says that in the Indian context it is not so that the falling of the rupee is just bad news. Hence 'E' follows 'C'.
The sentence 'D' is the concluding sentence that states that the tweaking rupee benefits the country's exporters who get more value for the same amount of goods. Hence 'D' is the last sentence.
The correct sequence is B-A-C-E-D.

Paragraph after rearranging the sentences:- In March, the currency fell low against the US dollar, at 77.01. This coincided with the price of India’s crude oil basket rising to $126.36 per barrel, its highest level since July 2008, according to data from the Petroleum Planning and Analysis Cell. The popular perception is that a falling currency is just bad news for an economy. In the Indian context, this isn’t so. There are several pros and cons. A weakening rupee benefits a country’s exports as exporters get more value for the same amount of goods that they export in dollars.

Hence the correct answer is option 1.

In the following passage, some words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the given alternatives.

Despite all the global headwinds, talks of inflation, and recession the Indian markets have seen (1) _______ revitalized energy. The past couple of months have been encouraging. In the month of July Sensex gained 9.4%, whereas August witnessed gains of 1.5%.

The market in the short term primarily gets (2) ________ affected by either facts or noise. The facts for obvious reasons act as a stronger indicator of the sustainability of a trend. Thus, it becomes important to understand what it is that is driving the market.

There have been a lot of talks about the de-coupling of India from the West. The opinion is that India will (3) ________ continue to witness growth despite the underperformance of its Western peers. But if we look through history the GDP growth rate of India and the USA have been (4) ________ insufficiently in line with each other, (5) ________ sketching any downward movement in the USA economy will have its trickle-down impact on India too.

156

Which of the following words refers to the blank labelled as (1)?

((a))
rescued
((b))
renewed
((c))
rectified
((d))
declining
((e))
misleading

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

renewed

The correct answer is 'renewed.'

Key Points

The given text suggests that the blank must contain a word that means 'revitalized' I.e., imbue (something) with new life and vitality.
Let us see the meaning of the words given in the options:
rescued ⇒ saved (someone or something).
renewed ⇒ resumed (an activity) after an interruption.
rectified ⇒ made corrections of any error.
declining ⇒ decreasing.
misleading ⇒ giving the wrong idea or impression.
From the above discussion, we can see that the correct sentence is 'Despite all the global headwinds, talks of inflation, and recession the Indian markets have seen renewed energy.'

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.

157

Which of the following words refers to the blank labelled as (2)?

((a))
unmoved
((b))
demonstrated
((c))
influenced
((d))
jaded
((e))
mandated

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

influenced

The correct answer is 'influenced.'

Key Points

The given text suggests that the blank must contain a word that means the opposite of ' affected means impacted.
Let us see the meaning of the words given in the options:
unmoved ⇒ not changed, steadfast.
demonstrated ⇒ clearly show the existence or truth of (something) by giving proof or evidence.
influenced ⇒ have an effect on.
jaded ⇒ tired, physically exhausted.
mandated ⇒ assigned or administer (something, such as a territory) under a mandate.
From the above discussion, we can see that the correct sentence is 'The market in the short term primarily gets influenced by either facts or noise.'

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

158

Which of the following words refers to the blank labelled as (3)?

((a))
carry on
((b))
break down
((c))
bear away
((d))
call up
((e))
draw on

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

carry on

The correct answer is 'carried on.'

Key Points

The given text suggests that the blank must contain a word that means 'continue' I.e., to persist in an activity or process.
Let us see the meaning of the phrasal verbs given in the options:
carry on ⇒ persist, keep om.
break down ⇒ cease to function.
bear away ⇒ attain a victory.
call up ⇒ summon someone to serve in the armed forces or remember (something).
draw on ⇒ use one's experience, talents, or skills as a resource.
From the above discussion, we can see that the correct sentence is 'The opinion is that India will carry on to witness growth despite the underperformance of its Western peers.'

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

159

Which of the following words refers to the blank labelled as (4)?

((a))
inefficiently
((b))
quickly
((c))
abruptly
((d))
freely
((e))
fairly

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

fairly

The correct answer is 'fairly.'

Key Points

The given text suggests that the blank must contain a word that means the opposite of 'insufficiently' I.e., adequately or moderately.
Let us see the meaning of the words given in the options:
inefficiently ⇒ not efficiently.
quickly ⇒ fast.
abruptly ⇒ suddenly.
freely ⇒ willingly, without being controlled.
fairly ⇒

to a moderately high degree; relatively; pretty much.

From the above discussion, we can see that the correct sentence is 'But if we look through history the GDP growth rate of India and the USA have been fairly in line with each other.'

Hence, the correct answer is Option 5.

160

Which of the following words refers to the blank labelled as (5)?

((a))
Starving
((b))
Depicting
((c))
Decoupling
((d))
Barricading
((e))
Changing

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Depicting

The correct answer is 'Depicting.'

Key Points

The given text suggests that the blank must contain a word that means 'Sketching' I.e., portraying.
Let us see the meaning of the words given in the options:
starving ⇒ suffering or dying from hunger.
depicting ⇒ showing, representing.
decoupling ⇒ disengaging or disconnecting.
barricading ⇒ block or defend with a barricade.
changing ⇒ becoming different; alter.
From the above discussion, we can see that the correct sentence is '... depicting any downward movement in the USA economy will have its trickle-down impact on India too.'

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.

Numerical Ability (40 questions)

Directions: Study the given table carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

The table shows the flats (1BHK and 2BHK) in 4 different societies.

Society	1 BHK	2 BHK
P	Z	25% more
Q	Z – 1	160
R	Z – 2	50% less
S	Z – 3	90

Note: The average number of 1BHK flat is 122.5.

161

Find the difference between 1BHK flats and 2 BHK flats in society Q.

((a))
17
((b))
27
((c))
37
((d))
47
((e))
57

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

The average number of 1 BHK flats in all four societies = 122.5

Therefore, (Z + Z - 1 + Z - 2 + Z - 3) = 122.5 × 4

⇒ 4Z - 6 = 490

⇒ 4Z = 496

⇒ Z = 124

The total number of 1 BHK flats in society P = Z = 124

The total number of 2 BHK flats in society P = (5/4) × 124 = 155

The total number of 1 BHK flats in society Q = Z - 1 = 123

The total number of 1 BHK flats in society R = Z -2 = 122

The total number of 2 BHK flats in society R = (1/2) × 122 = 61

The total number of 1 BHK flats in society S = Z - 3 = 121

Putting all the values in a table we get

Society	1 BHK Flats	2 BHK Flats	Total flats
P	124	155	279
Q	123	160	283
R	122	61	183
S	121	90	211
Total	490	466	956

The difference between 1BHK flats and 2 BHK flats in society Q = 160 - 123 = 37

Hence, the correct answer is 37.

162

The number of 2BHK flats in Society P is approximately how much percent more than the number of 2BHK flats in Society S.

((a))
66%
((b))
50%
((c))
80%
((d))
45%
((e))
72%

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

72%

The average number of 1 BHK flats in all four societies = 122.5

Therefore, (Z + Z - 1 + Z - 2 + Z - 3) = 122.5 × 4

⇒ 4Z - 6 = 490

⇒ 4Z = 496

⇒ Z = 124

The total number of 1 BHK flats in society P = Z = 124

The total number of 2 BHK flats in society P = (5/4) × 124 = 155

The total number of 1 BHK flats in society Q = Z - 1 = 123

The total number of 1 BHK flats in society R = Z -2 = 122

The total number of 2 BHK flats in society R = (1/2) × 122 = 61

The total number of 1 BHK flats in society S = Z - 3 = 121

Putting all the values in a table we get

Society	1 BHK Flats	2 BHK Flats	Total flats
P	124	155	279
Q	123	160	283
R	122	61	183
S	121	90	211
Total	490	466	956

Required % = [(155 - 90)/90] × 100 = 72.22% ~ 72%

Hence, the correct answer is 72%.

163

What will be the ratio of number of 1BHK flats in Society Q and the number of 2BHK flats in Society S?

((a))
43 : 30
((b))
41 : 30
((c))
47 : 30
((d))
53 : 30
((e))
37 : 30

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

41 : 30

The average number of 1 BHK flats in all four societies = 122.5

Therefore, (Z + Z - 1 + Z - 2 + Z - 3) = 122.5 × 4

⇒ 4Z - 6 = 490

⇒ 4Z = 496

⇒ Z = 124

The total number of 1 BHK flats in society P = Z = 124

The total number of 2 BHK flats in society P = (5/4) × 124 = 155

The total number of 1 BHK flats in society Q = Z - 1 = 123

The total number of 1 BHK flats in society R = Z -2 = 122

The total number of 2 BHK flats in society R = (1/2) × 122 = 61

The total number of 1 BHK flats in society S = Z - 3 = 121

Putting all the values in a table we get

Society	1 BHK Flats	2 BHK Flats	Total flats
P	124	155	279
Q	123	160	283
R	122	61	183
S	121	90	211
Total	490	466	956

Required ratio = 123 : 90 = 41 : 30

Hence, the correct answer is 41 : 30.

164

Find the total number of 2BHK flats in society P and R together.

((a))
208
((b))
216
((c))
226
((d))
210
((e))
256

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

216

The average number of 1 BHK flats in all four societies = 122.5

Therefore, (Z + Z - 1 + Z - 2 + Z - 3) = 122.5 × 4

⇒ 4Z - 6 = 490

⇒ 4Z = 496

⇒ Z = 124

The total number of 1 BHK flats in society P = Z = 124

The total number of 2 BHK flats in society P = (5/4) × 124 = 155

The total number of 1 BHK flats in society Q = Z - 1 = 123

The total number of 1 BHK flats in society R = Z -2 = 122

The total number of 2 BHK flats in society R = (1/2) × 122 = 61

The total number of 1 BHK flats in society S = Z - 3 = 121

Putting all the values in a table we get

Society	1 BHK Flats	2 BHK Flats	Total flats
P	124	155	279
Q	123	160	283
R	122	61	183
S	121	90	211
Total	490	466	956

The total number of 2BHK flats in society P and R together = 155 + 61 = 216

Hence, the correct answer is 216.

165

Which of the following Statement is correct as per the given table?

((a))
Total number of 2BHK flats in Society R is 50 more than the total number of 1 BHK flats in society S.
((b))
The total number of 1BHK flats in Society Q is approximately 45% more than that of total number of 2BHK Flats in society S.
((c))
The total number of 1BHK flats in Society R is equal to total number of 2BHK flats in Society P.
((d))
Total number of 1BHK flats in Societies Q and S together is 2/3rd of the total number of 2BHK flats in Society P and R.
((e))
None of them is true

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

None of them is true

The average number of 1 BHK flats in all four societies = 122.5

Therefore, (Z + Z - 1 + Z - 2 + Z - 3) = 122.5 × 4

⇒ 4Z - 6 = 490

⇒ 4Z = 496

⇒ Z = 124

The total number of 1 BHK flats in society P = Z = 124

The total number of 2 BHK flats in society P = (5/4) × 124 = 155

The total number of 1 BHK flats in society Q = Z - 1 = 123

The total number of 1 BHK flats in society R = Z -2 = 122

The total number of 2 BHK flats in society R = (1/2) × 122 = 61

The total number of 1 BHK flats in society S = Z - 3 = 121

Putting all the values in a table we get

Society	1 BHK Flats	2 BHK Flats	Total flats
P	124	155	279
Q	123	160	283
R	122	61	183
S	121	90	211
Total	490	466	956

For (1) Required difference = (121 - 61) = 60 more (Not true)

For (2) Required % = [(123 - 90)/90] × 100 ~ 36% (Not true)

For (3) by table data 122 ≠ 155 so Not true

For (4) (123 + 121) = 244 ≠ (2/3) × (155 + 61) (Not true)

Hence, the correct answer is None of true.

166

What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series?

3, 4, 10, 33, 136, ?, 4116

((a))
570
((b))
580
((c))
685
((d))
680
((e))
500

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

685

GIVEN:

3, 4, 10, 33, 136, ?, 4115

Calculation:

The series follows the following pattern:

⇒ 3 × 1 + 1 = 4

⇒ 4 × 2 + 2 = 10

⇒ 10 × 3 + 3 = 33

⇒ 33 × 4 + 4 = 136

⇒ 136 × 5 + 5 = 685

⇒ 685 × 6 + 6 = 4116

∴ The required value of "?" is 685.

Alternate Method

As we know, Unit digit didn't be the same in options, so we can solve this series with Unit digit also:

After solving the Unit digit method:

The value of ? = 6 × 5 + 5

⇒ 35

The unit digit in 35 is 5. Only one of the given options is having the same unit digit = 685

∴ The required value of "?" is 685.

167

What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series?

12, 16, 25, 41, 66, ?

((a))
122
((b))
106
((c))
101
((d))
102
((e))
99

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

102

Given:

12, 16, 25, 41, 66, ?

Calculation:

The series follows the following pattern

12 + 2² = 16

16 + 3² = 25

25 + 4² = 41

41 + 5²= 66

66 + 6²= 102

∴ The required value of ? is 102

168

What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series?

299, 302, 308, 317, ?, 344

((a))
327
((b))
328
((c))
329
((d))
330
((e))
331

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

329

GIVEN:

299, 302, 308, 317, ?, 344

Concept Used:

The number of consecutive factors of 3 is being added to the series.

Calculation:

The series follows the following pattern:

⇒ 299 + 3 = 302

⇒ 302 + 6 = 308

⇒ 308 + 9 = 317

⇒ 317 + 12 = 329

⇒ 329 + 15 = 344

∴ The required value of "?" is 329.

169

What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series?

25, 200, 40, ?, 64, 512

((a))
320
((b))
45
((c))
80
((d))
64
((e))
216

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

320

Calculation:

The series follows the pattern:

⇒ 25 × 8 = 200

⇒ 200 ÷ 5 = 40

⇒ 40 × 8 = 320

⇒ 320 ÷ 5 = 64

⇒ 64 × 8 = 512

∴ The missing number is 320.

170

What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series?

1, 27, ?, 343, 729, 1331.

((a))
27
((b))
125
((c))
343
((d))
72
((e))
1331

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

125

Calculation:

⇒ 1³= 1

⇒ 3³ = 27

⇒ 5³ = 125

⇒ 7³ = 343

⇒ 9³ = 729

⇒ 113 = 1331

∴ The missing number is 125.

171

Given below are two quantities named A and B. Based on the given information, you have to determine the relationship between the two quantities. You should use the given data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose between the possible answers.

Quantity A: What will be the difference between compound interest and simple interest for 4 years on a principal of Rs 20480 at the rate of 25% per annum?

Quantity B: Rs 8079

((a))
Quantity A > Quantity B
((b))
Quantity A < Quantity B
((c))
Quantity A ≥ Quantity B
((d))
Quantity A ≤ Quantity B
((e))
Quantity A = Quantity B or No relation

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Quantity A > Quantity B

Given:

Time = 4 years

Principal = Rs 20480

Rate = 25%

Formula used:

S.I = P R T/100

C.I = P(1 + R/100)^t - P

Calculation:

S.I = 20480 × 25 × 4/100 = Rs 20480

C.I = 20480 (1 + 25/100)⁴ - 20480

⇒ 20480 (5/4)⁴ - 20480

⇒ 20480 (625/256) -20480

⇒ 80 × 625 - 20480 = Rs 29520

Required difference = Rs 9040

∴ The difference is Rs 9040

S.I = 25 × 4 = 100 % of 20480

S.I = Rs 20480

For C.I

25 % = 1/4

P = 4, A = 5

P for 4 years = 4⁴ = 256 ratio

A for 4 years = 5⁴= 625 ratio

Interest = 625 - 256 = 369 ratio

256 ratio = 20480

∴ 369 ratio = 20480/256 × 369 = Rs 29520

Required difference = Rs 9040

∴ The difference is Rs 9040

172

Quantity A: An amount is to be distributed among A, B, and C in the ratio 1 : 3 : 2respectively, but was erroneously distributed in the ratio 2 : 7 : 9 due to which B got Rs. 136 less. What is the amount to be distributed?

Quantity B: Rs 1228

((a))
Quantity A > Quantity B
((b))
Quantity A < Quantity B
((c))
Quantity A ≥ Quantity B
((d))
Quantity A ≤ Quantity B
((e))
Quantity A = Quantity B or No relation

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Quantity A < Quantity B

GIVEN:

Real ratio = 1 : 3 : 2

Incorrect ratio = 2 : 7 : 9

B's loss = Rs 136

EXPLANATION:

Real ratio = (1 + 3 + 2) = 6

Incorrect ratio = (2 + 7 + 9) = 18

Let amount be 18x (L.C.M of 6 and 18)

Amount to be received by B = 18x/6 × 3 = 9x

Amount erroneously received by B = 18x/18 × 7 = 7x

Difference = 9x - 7x = 2x

∴ 2x = 136

⇒ x = 68

so, Amount = 18x = 18 × 68 = Rs 1224

∴ Quantity A < Quantity B

173

Quantity A: A shopkeeper bought 300 pens for Rs 1200. He wanted to sell them at a profit so that he got 36 pens for free. At what profit percent should he sell them?

Quantity B: 15%

((a))
Quantity A > Quantity B
((b))
Quantity A < Quantity B
((c))
Quantity A ≥ Quantity B
((d))
Quantity A ≤ Quantity B
((e))
Quantity A = Quantity B or No relation

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Quantity A < Quantity B

GIVEN:

C.P of 300 pens = Rs 1200

Profit = C.P of 36 pens

FORMULA USED:

Profit % = Profit/C.P × 100

CALCULATION:

C.P of 1 pen = 1200/300 = Rs 4

C.P of 36 pens = 36 × 4 = Rs 144

Required profit is Rs 144 on Rs 1200

∴ Profit% = (144/1200) × 100= 12%

∴ Profit is 12%.

∴ Quantity A < Quantity B

174

A can do the work in 15 days and is 50% more efficient than B. They started work together alternatively starting from A. Find in how many days, they both can complete the work.

((a))
10 days
((b))
15 days
((c))
18 days
((d))
12 days
((e))
9 days

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

18 days

Given: Number of days taken by A to complete the work = 15 days

The ratio of efficiency A : B = 3 : 2

Formulation: Total work = Time × Efficiency

Calculation: Let the total work = 15 × 3 = 45 units

They started work together alternatively starting from A.

Therefore, total work completed by A+B in 2 days = 3 + 2 = 5 units

So, 5 units of total work completed by A + B in = 2 days

⇒ 45 units completed by A + B in = (45/5) × 2 = 18 days

Hence, the correct answer is 18 days.

175

A train 525 meters long running at a speed of 103 kmph overtakes another train which is 425 meters long running at a speed of 73 kmph in the same direction. Find the time taken by the faster train to overtake the slower train. (In seconds)

((a))
118
((b))
116
((c))
120
((d))
114
((e))
122

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

114

Given:

Length of the faster train = 525 m

Length of the slower train = 425 m

Speed of the faster train = 103 kmph

Speed of the slower train = 73 kmph

Formula used:

Speed = Distance/time

Speed in m/s = $\dfrac{5}{18} ×$ speed in kmph

Calculation:

Total distance = 525 + 425 = 950 m

When trains running in the same direction, then their relative speed is the difference between their speeds

⇒ Net speed = 103 - 73 = 30 kmph

⇒ Speed in m/s = $\dfrac{5}{18} ×$ 30 = 25/3 m/s

Total time = $\dfrac{950}{25/3}$

⇒ Time = 38 × 3 = 114

∴ The time taken by the faster train to overtake the slower train = 114 s

176

Ratio of Cost price to selling price of a book is 5 : 6 and ratio of selling price to marked price is 4 : 5. Marked price of the book is by what percent more than that of cost price of the book?

((a))
30%
((b))
50%
((c))
60%
((d))
40%
((e))
33%

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

50%

Given

Ratio of Cost price to selling price of a book is 5 : 6 and ratio of selling price to marked price is 4 : 5

Formula:

x is what percent of y = (x/y) × 100

Calculation:

CP : SP = 5 : 6 --- (1) × 2

SP : MP = 4 : 5 --- (2) × 3

CP : SP : MP = 10 : 12 : 15 = 10x : 12x : 15x

MP is more than CP by = 15x – 10x = 5x

∴ MP is more than CP by = (5x/10x) × 100 = 50%

177

To cross a man standing on platform, a train takes 40 seconds. When the same train crosses the platform at half its speed, it crosses the platform in 120 seconds. Find the ratio of lengths of train and platform.

((a))
1 : 1
((b))
2 : 1
((c))
2 : 3
((d))
4 : 3
((e))
4 : 1

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

2 : 1

Let the length of train be T meters and that of platform be P meters, and let speed of train be S m/sec.

When train crosses a standing man, distance travelled is length of train at speed S m/sec.

We know, Time taken = Distance / Speed

⇒ T/S = 40 - i)

When the same train crosses the platform at half its speed, it crosses the platform in 120 seconds.

In this case, speed will be 0.5S m/sec, and distance travelled will be sum of lengths of train and platform.

⇒ (T + P)/0.5S = 120 -ii)

Divide equation ii) by i), we get

2(T + P)/T = 3

⇒ 2T + 2P = 3T

⇒ T = 2P

∴ T : P = 2 : 1; ratio of lengths of train and platform is 2 : 1.

178

The area of the Rectangle is 6 times that of Square. If the ratio of perimeter of Rectangle and Square is 5 : 2, then find the length of the rectangle.

((a))
12 units
((b))
24 units
((c))
16 units
((d))
10 units
((e))
Can not be determine

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Can not be determine

Given : The area of rectangle = 6 × Area of square

Ratio of the perimeter of rectangle to square = 5 : 2

Formulation : Area of rectangle = Length × Breadth

Area of square = (side)²

Perimeter of rectangle = 2 × (Length + Breadth)

Perimeter of square = 4 × (side)

Calculation : Let the length of the rectangle = x units

The breadth of the rectangle = y units

And, the side of the square = z units

Therefore, x × y = 6 × z² ... (a)

And, [2 × (x + y)/4z] = 5/2

⇒ (x + y) = 5z ...(b)

We know that (x - y)² = (x + y)² - 4xy

⇒ (x - y)² = (5z)² - 4 × 6 × z²

⇒ (x - y) = z ...(c)

Adding (b) and (c) we get

2x = 6z

⇒ x = 3z

Since neither x nor z is known here, it has multiple possible answers.

Hence, the correct answer Can not be determined.

Direction: Read the Pie chart and Table carefully and answer the following questions:

The Pie chart shows the number of Employees in four different companies (in %) at the end of the December month. The total number of Employees at the end of December is 8000.

The table shows the data of number of Employees Join and Left the company in the month of January

Company	(Join + Left)	(Join – Left)
A	220	80
B	270	90
C	180	60
D	320	160

179

Find the total number of employees in company D at the end of January.

((a))
2420
((b))
2670
((c))
2860
((d))
2560
((e))
2260

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

2560

The total number of Employees at the end of December = 8000

Total number of employees in company A at the end of December = 20% × 8000 = 1600

For company A (Joined + Left) employees in January = 220 ...(a)

And, (Joined - Left) employees in January = 80 ...(b)

Adding both (a) and (b) we get

Total number of employees who joined company A in the month of January = (220 + 80)/2 = 150

Subtracting both (a) and (b) we get

Total number of employees who left company A in the month of January = (220 - 80)/2 = 70

Total number of employees in company A at the end of January = 1600 + 150 - 70 = 1680

Similarly, we can follow the same process for the remaining companies and get this table

Company	Employees at the end of December	Employees who joined the company in the month of January	Employees who left the company in the month of January	Employees at the end of January
A	20% × 8000 = 1600	(220 + 80)/2 = 150	(220 - 80)/2 = 70	1600 + 150 - 70 = 1680
B	15% × 8000 = 1200	(270 + 90)/2 = 180	(270 - 90)/2 = 90	1200 + 180 - 90 = 1290
C	35% × 8000 = 2800	(180 + 60)/2 = 120	(180 - 60)/2 = 60	2800 + 120 - 60 = 2860
D	30% × 8000 = 2400	(320 +160)/2 = 240	(320 -160)/2 = 80	2400 + 240 - 80 = 2560
Total	8000	690	300	8390

The total number of employees in Company D at the end of January = 2560

Hence, the correct answer is 2560.

180

Find the difference between the total number of employees in company B and company A at the end of January.

((a))
250
((b))
440
((c))
390
((d))
740
((e))
620

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

390

The total number of Employees at the end of December = 8000

Total number of employees in company A at the end of December = 20% × 8000 = 1600

For company A (Joined + Left) employees in January = 220 ...(a)

And, (Joined - Left) employees in January = 80 ...(b)

Adding both (a) and (b) we get

Total number of employees who joined company A in the month of January = (220 + 80)/2 = 150

Subtracting both (a) and (b) we get

Total number of employees who left company A in the month of January = (220 - 80)/2 = 70

Total number of employees in company A at the end of January = 1600 + 150 - 70 = 1680

Similarly, we can follow the same process for the remaining companies and get this table

Company	Employees at the end of December	Employees who joined the company in the month of January	Employees who left the company in the month of January	Employees at the end of January
A	20% × 8000 = 1600	(220 + 80)/2 = 150	(220 - 80)/2 = 70	1600 + 150 - 70 = 1680
B	15% × 8000 = 1200	(270 + 90)/2 = 180	(270 - 90)/2 = 90	1200 + 180 - 90 = 1290
C	35% × 8000 = 2800	(180 + 60)/2 = 120	(180 - 60)/2 = 60	2800 + 120 - 60 = 2860
D	30% × 8000 = 2400	(320 +160)/2 = 240	(320 -160)/2 = 80	2400 + 240 - 80 = 2560
Total	8000	690	300	8390

The difference between the total number of employees in company B and company A at the end of January = 1680 - 1290 = 390

Hence, the correct answer is 390.

181

Total number of Employees joined in company B is what percent of the total number of Employees joined in company D?

((a))
60%
((b))
50%
((c))
33.33%
((d))
66.67%
((e))
75%

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

75%

The total number of Employees at the end of December = 8000

Total number of employees in company A at the end of December = 20% × 8000 = 1600

For company A (Joined + Left) employees in January = 220 ...(a)

And, (Joined - Left) employees in January = 80 ...(b)

Adding both (a) and (b) we get

Total number of employees who joined company A in the month of January = (220 + 80)/2 = 150

Subtracting both (a) and (b) we get

Total number of employees who left company A in the month of January = (220 - 80)/2 = 70

Total number of employees in company A at the end of January = 1600 + 150 - 70 = 1680

Similarly, we can follow the same process for the remaining companies and get this table

Company	Employees at the end of December	Employees who joined the company in the month of January	Employees who left the company in the month of January	Employees at the end of January
A	20% × 8000 = 1600	(220 + 80)/2 = 150	(220 - 80)/2 = 70	1600 + 150 - 70 = 1680
B	15% × 8000 = 1200	(270 + 90)/2 = 180	(270 - 90)/2 = 90	1200 + 180 - 90 = 1290
C	35% × 8000 = 2800	(180 + 60)/2 = 120	(180 - 60)/2 = 60	2800 + 120 - 60 = 2860
D	30% × 8000 = 2400	(320 +160)/2 = 240	(320 -160)/2 = 80	2400 + 240 - 80 = 2560
Total	8000	690	300	8390

Required% = (180/240) × 100 = 75%

Hence, the correct answer is 75%.

182

Find the ratio between the number of employees left from company D to the number of employees left from company C.

((a))
4 : 5
((b))
3 : 4
((c))
4 : 3
((d))
2 : 1
((e))
4 : 1

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

4 : 3

The total number of Employees at the end of December = 8000

Total number of employees in company A at the end of December = 20% × 8000 = 1600

For company A (Joined + Left) employees in January = 220 ...(a)

And, (Joined - Left) employees in January = 80 ...(b)

Adding both (a) and (b) we get

Total number of employees who joined company A in the month of January = (220 + 80)/2 = 150

Subtracting both (a) and (b) we get

Total number of employees who left company A in the month of January = (220 - 80)/2 = 70

Total number of employees in company A at the end of January = 1600 + 150 - 70 = 1680

Similarly, we can follow the same process for the remaining companies and get this table

Company	Employees at the end of December	Employees who joined the company in the month of January	Employees who left the company in the month of January	Employees at the end of January
A	20% × 8000 = 1600	(220 + 80)/2 = 150	(220 - 80)/2 = 70	1600 + 150 - 70 = 1680
B	15% × 8000 = 1200	(270 + 90)/2 = 180	(270 - 90)/2 = 90	1200 + 180 - 90 = 1290
C	35% × 8000 = 2800	(180 + 60)/2 = 120	(180 - 60)/2 = 60	2800 + 120 - 60 = 2860
D	30% × 8000 = 2400	(320 +160)/2 = 240	(320 -160)/2 = 80	2400 + 240 - 80 = 2560
Total	8000	690	300	8390

Required ratio = 80 : 60 = 4 : 3

Hence, the correct answer is 4 : 3.

183

What is the total number of Employees joined in the month of January?

((a))
590
((b))
730
((c))
710
((d))
690
((e))
570

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

690

The total number of Employees at the end of December = 8000

Total number of employees in company A at the end of December = 20% × 8000 = 1600

For company A (Joined + Left) employees in January = 220 ...(a)

And, (Joined - Left) employees in January = 80 ...(b)

Adding both (a) and (b) we get

Total number of employees who joined company A in the month of January = (220 + 80)/2 = 150

Subtracting both (a) and (b) we get

Total number of employees who left company A in the month of January = (220 - 80)/2 = 70

Total number of employees in company A at the end of January = 1600 + 150 - 70 = 1680

Similarly, we can follow the same process for the remaining companies and get this table

Company	Employees at the end of December	Employees who joined the company in the month of January	Employees who left the company in the month of January	Employees at the end of January
A	20% × 8000 = 1600	(220 + 80)/2 = 150	(220 - 80)/2 = 70	1600 + 150 - 70 = 1680
B	15% × 8000 = 1200	(270 + 90)/2 = 180	(270 - 90)/2 = 90	1200 + 180 - 90 = 1290
C	35% × 8000 = 2800	(180 + 60)/2 = 120	(180 - 60)/2 = 60	2800 + 120 - 60 = 2860
D	30% × 8000 = 2400	(320 +160)/2 = 240	(320 -160)/2 = 80	2400 + 240 - 80 = 2560
Total	8000	690	300	8390

The total number of Employees joined = 150 + 180 + 120 + 240 = 690

Hence, the correct answer is 690.

184

Total number of employees left from all the companies together is how much percent more than the number of employees joined in company D?

((a))
12.5%
((b))
25%
((c))
30%
((d))
45%
((e))
50%

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

25%

The total number of Employees at the end of December = 8000

Total number of employees in company A at the end of December = 20% × 8000 = 1600

For company A (Joined + Left) employees in January = 220 ...(a)

And, (Joined - Left) employees in January = 80 ...(b)

Adding both (a) and (b) we get

Total number of employees who joined company A in the month of January = (220 + 80)/2 = 150

Subtracting both (a) and (b) we get

Total number of employees who left company A in the month of January = (220 - 80)/2 = 70

Total number of employees in company A at the end of January = 1600 + 150 - 70 = 1680

Similarly, we can follow the same process for the remaining companies and get this table

Company	Employees at the end of December	Employees who joined the company in the month of January	Employees who left the company in the month of January	Employees at the end of January
A	20% × 8000 = 1600	(220 + 80)/2 = 150	(220 - 80)/2 = 70	1600 + 150 - 70 = 1680
B	15% × 8000 = 1200	(270 + 90)/2 = 180	(270 - 90)/2 = 90	1200 + 180 - 90 = 1290
C	35% × 8000 = 2800	(180 + 60)/2 = 120	(180 - 60)/2 = 60	2800 + 120 - 60 = 2860
D	30% × 8000 = 2400	(320 +160)/2 = 240	(320 -160)/2 = 80	2400 + 240 - 80 = 2560
Total	8000	690	300	8390

Total number of employees left from all the companies together = 300

Required% = [(300 - 240)/240] × 100 = 25%

Hence, the correct answer is 25%.

185

In the given questions, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I. 3x2 – 18x + 15 = 0

II. 4y2 – 84y + 320 = 0

((a))
x > y
((b))
x ≤ y
((c))
x ≥ y
((d))
x < y
((e))
x = y or relation between x and y can not be determined.

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

x ≤ y

Calculation:

I. 3x2 – 18x + 15 = 0

⇒ 3x² – 15x – 3x + 15 = 0

⇒ 3x(x – 5) – 3(x – 5) = 0

⇒ (x – 5) (3x – 3) = 0

⇒ x = 5, 1

II. 4y2 – 84y + 320 = 0

⇒ 4y² – 20y – 64y + 320 = 0

⇒ 4y(y – 5) – 64(y – 5) = 0

⇒ (y – 5) (4y – 64) = 0

⇒ y = 5, 16

Comparison between x and y (via tabulation):

Value of x	Value of y	Relation
5	5	x = y
5	16	x < y
1	5	x < y
1	16	x < y

∴ x ≤ y

186

In the given questions, two equations numbered l and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I. x² + 20x + 91 = 0

II. y²- 21y + 80 = 0

((a))
x > y
((b))
x < y
((c))
x ≥ y
((d))
x ≤ y
((e))
x = y or no relation found between x and y

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

x < y

From I,

x2 + 20x + 91 = 0

⇒ x2 + 13x + 7x - 91 = 0

⇒ x(x + 13) + 7(x + 13) = 0

⇒ (x + 7)(x + 13) = 0

Taking,

⇒ x + 13 = 0 or x + 7 = 0

⇒ x = - 13 or x = - 7

From II,

y2 - 21y + 80 = 0

⇒ y2 - 16y - 5y + 80 = 0

⇒ y(y - 16) - 5(y - 16) = 0

⇒ (y - 16)(y - 5) = 0

Taking,

⇒ y - 5 = 0 or y - 16 = 0

⇒ y = 5 or y = 16

Comparison between x and y (via Tabulation):

x	Y	Relation
- 13	5	x < y
-13	16	x < y
-7	5	x < y
-7	16	x < y

∴ By comparing x and y, x < y.

187

In the given questions, two equations numbered l and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I. 14x² - 32x - 30 = 0

II. 10y² - y - 24 = 0

((a))
x > y
((b))
x < y
((c))
x ≥ y
((d))
x ≤ y
((e))
x = y or no relation found between x and y.

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

x = y or no relation found between x and y.

Shortcut Trick

I. 14x2 - 32x - 30 = 0

There are three terms = a, b, and c

Where 'a' = value of x2, 'b' = Value of x, 'c' = 30

'c' is negative here.

II. 10y2 - y - 24 = 0

There are also three terms = a, b, and c

Where 'a' = value of y2, 'b' = Value of y, 'c' = 24

'c' is also negative here.

If the value of 'c' is negative in both statements, then the answer always be "x = y or the relation between x and y can’t be established."

Basic and conventional method is given below:

From I,

14x2 - 32x - 30 = 0

⇒ 14x2 - 42x + 10x - 30 = 0

⇒ 14x(x - 3) + 10(x - 3) = 0

⇒ (14x + 10)(x - 3) = 0

Taking,

⇒ 14x + 10 = 0 or x - 3 = 0

⇒ x = - 5/7 or x = 3

From II,

10y2 - y - 24 = 0

⇒ 10y2 - 16y + 15y - 24 = 0

⇒ 2y(5y - 8) + 3(5y - 8) = 0

⇒ (5y - 8)(2y + 3) = 0

Taking,

⇒ 2y + 3 = 0 or 5y - 8 = 0

⇒ y = - 3/2 or y = 8/5

Comparison between x and y (via Tabulation):

x	Y	Relation
- 5/7	- 3/2	x > y
-5/7	8/5	x < y
3	- 3/2	x > y
3	8/5	x > y

∴ x = y or no relation found between x and y.

188

In the given questions, two equations numbered l and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer

I. 2x² + 8x – 90 = 0

II. 25y² – 45y – 10 = 0

((a))
x < y
((b))
x > y
((c))
x ≤ y
((d))
x ≥ y
((e))
x = y or the relation between x and y can't be established.

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

x = y or the relation between x and y can't be established.

Shortcut Trick

I. 2x2 + 8x – 90= 0

There are three terms = a, b, and c

Where 'a' = value of x², 'b' = Value of x, 'c' = 90

'c' is negative here.

II. 25y2 – 45y – 10 = 0

There are also three terms = a, b, and c

Where 'a' = value of y², 'b' = Value of y, 'c' = 10

'c' is also negative here.

If the value of 'c' is negative in both statements, then the answer always be "x = y or the relation between x and y can’t be established."

Basic and conventional method is given below:

Given:

I. 2x2 + 8x – 90 = 0

II. 25y2 – 45y – 10 = 0

Calculation:

I. 2x2 + 8x – 90 = 0

⇒ (2x2 + 8x – 90)/2 = 0/2

⇒ x2 + 4x – 45 = 0

⇒ x²+ 9x – 5x– 45 = 0

⇒ x(x + 9) – 5(x + 9) = 0

⇒ (x + 9)(x – 5) = 0

⇒ x = (-9), 5

II. 25y2 – 45y – 10 = 0

⇒ (25y2 – 45y – 10)/5 = 0/5

⇒ 5y2 – 9y – 2 = 0

⇒ 5y²– 10y + y – 2 = 0

⇒ 5y(y – 2) + 1(y – 2) = 0

⇒ (y - 2)(5y + 1) = 0

⇒ y = 2, (-1/5)

Value of ‘x’	Relation	Value of ‘y’
-9	<	2
-9	<	-1/5
5	>	2
5	>	-1/5

When we compared the values of X and Y in the table above, we found that there are THREE relations between X and Y i.e. >, = and <. So, a relation cannot be defined.

∴ After comparison all the values of x and y, the relation is “x = y or the relation between x and y can't be established.”

189

In the given questions, two equations numbered l and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I. 3x - 18 = 0

II. 2y²- 7y + 5 = 0

((a))
x > y
((b))
x < y
((c))
x ≤ y
((d))
x ≥ y
((e))
x = y or no relation found in x and y.

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

x > y

Calculations:

From I,

3x - 18 = 0

⇒ x = 18/3

⇒ x = 6

From II,

2y2 - 7y + 5 = 0

⇒ 2y2 - 2y - 5y + 5 = 0

⇒ 2y(y - 1) - 5(y - 1) = 0

⇒ (2y - 5)(y - 1) = 0

Taking,

⇒ 2y - 5 = 0 or y - 1 = 0

⇒ y = 2.5 or y = 1

Comparison between x and y (via Tabulation):

x	Y	Relation
6	2.5	x > y
6	1	x > y

∴ By comparing every root values, we get x > y.

Direction: Data given below of 4 containers A, B, C and D contains mixture of different liquids. Read the data and answer the following question carefully.

Container A contains mixture of only water and rum in ratio 7 : 4. Volume of rum in container B is 12.5% less than that of rum in container A and in addition to that volume of vodka in container B is equal to volume of rum in container A. Ratio of Rum and vodka in container C is in ratio 2 : 1. Vodka in container C is same as of volume of rum in container B. volume of water in container D is double the volume of water in container B. Container D contains only water and vodka. Volume of container B is same as container C. Container B contains water also. Ratio of water and vodka in container D is 3 : 5. Difference of volume in container A and D is 50 litres.

190

find the ratio of total volume of container B and container C together to the total volume of container D.

((a))
16 : 21
((b))
21 : 8
((c))
15 : 17
((d))
21 : 16
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

21 : 16

Let water in container A = 7x

Let rum in container A = 4x

Total volume of container A = 11x

Volume of vodka in container B = volume of rum in container A

volume of vodka in container B = 4x

Volume of rum in container B = 4x × (7/8) = 3.5x

Volume of rum in container B = vodka in container C

vodka in container C = 3.5x

Volume of rum in container C = 2 × 3.5x = 7x

Volume of container B = volume of container C

volume of water + (3.5x + 4x) = 3.5x + 7x

volume of water + 7.5x = 10.5x

volume of water in container B = 3x

Volume of water in container D = 2 × water in container B

Volume of water container D = 2 × 3x = 6x

Volume of vodka in container D = 6x x (5/3) = 10x

total volume of container D = 10x + 6x = 16x

Difference of volume in container A and D = 16x - 11x = 5x

5x = 50

x = 10

value of x is solved and volume of every term is obtained in term of x , so on solving

LIQUID	A	B	C	D
WATER	70	30		60
RUM	40	35	70
VODKA	-	40	35	100
TOTAL	110	105	105	160

Volume of container B = 105 l (given)

Volume of containers C = 105 l (given)

Total volume of container B and C = 105 + 105 = 210 l

Volume of container D = 160 l (given)

Required ratio = 21 : 16

191

if 10 litres of rum from container A is poured in container B and 10 litre of water from container B is poured into container A. Find the new ratio of water and rum in container A.

((a))
1 : 2
((b))
2 : 1
((c))
3 : 2
((d))
8 : 3
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

8 : 3

Let water in container A = 7x

Let rum in container A = 4x

Total volume of container A = 11x

Volume of vodka in container B = volume of rum in container A

volume of vodka in container B = 4x

Volume of rum in container B = 4x × (7/8) = 3.5x

Volume of rum in container B = vodka in container C

vodka in container C = 3.5x

Volume of rum in container C = 2 × 3.5x = 7x

Volume of container B = volume of container C

volume of water + (3.5x + 4x) = 3.5x + 7x

volume of water + 7.5x = 10.5x

volume of water in container B = 3x

Volume of water in container D = 2 × water in container B

Volume of water container D = 2 × 3x = 6x

Volume of vodka in container D = 6x x (5/3) = 10x

total volume of container D = 10x + 6x = 16x

Difference of volume in container A and D = 16x - 11x = 5x

5x = 50

x = 10

value of x is solved and volume of every term is obtained in term of x , so on solving

LIQUID	A	B	C	D
WATER	70	30		60
RUM	40	35	70
VODKA	-	40	35	100
TOTAL	110	105	105	160

New volume of water in container A = 70 + 10 = 80 l

New volume of rum in container A = 40 - 10 = 30 l

New ratio = 8 : 3

192

If contents of container B and C is mixed together in new container E. find the volume of water, rum and vodka in container E.

((a))
30 L, 40 L, 50 L
((b))
35 L , 105 L, 80 L
((c))
105 L , 30 L , 75 L
((d))
30 L, 105 L, 75 L
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

30 L, 105 L, 75 L

Let water in container A = 7x

Let rum in container A = 4x

Total volume of container A = 11x

Volume of vodka in container B = volume of rum in container A

volume of vodka in container B = 4x

Volume of rum in container B = 4x × (7/8) = 3.5x

Volume of rum in container B = vodka in container C

vodka in container C = 3.5x

Volume of rum in container C = 2 × 3.5x = 7x

Volume of container B = volume of container C

volume of water + (3.5x + 4x) = 3.5x + 7x

volume of water + 7.5x = 10.5x

volume of water in container B = 3x

Volume of water in container D = 2 × water in container B

Volume of water container D = 2 × 3x = 6x

Volume of vodka in container D = 6x x (5/3) = 10x

total volume of container D = 10x + 6x = 16x

Difference of volume in container A and D = 16x - 11x = 5x

5x = 50

x = 10

value of x is solved and volume of every term is obtained in term of x , so on solving

LIQUID	A	B	C	D
WATER	70	30		60
RUM	40	35	70
VODKA	-	40	35	100
TOTAL	110	105	105	160

volume of water in container E = 30 L

volume of rum in container E = 35 + 70 = 105 L

volume of vodka in container E = 40 + 35 = 75 L

193

find the ratio of vodka in container B, C and D.

((a))
8 : 7 : 15
((b))
8 : 7 : 20
((c))
5 : 6 : 7
((d))
7 : 15 : 20
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

8 : 7 : 20

Let water in container A = 7x

Let rum in container A = 4x

Total volume of container A = 11x

Volume of vodka in container B = volume of rum in container A

volume of vodka in container B = 4x

Volume of rum in container B = 4x × (7/8) = 3.5x

Volume of rum in container B = vodka in container C

vodka in container C = 3.5x

Volume of rum in container C = 2 × 3.5x = 7x

Volume of container B = volume of container C

volume of water + (3.5x + 4) = 3.5x + 7x

volume of water + 7.5x = 10.5x

volume of water in container B = 3x

Volume of water in container D = 2 × water in container B

Volume of water container D = 2 × 3x = 6x

Volume of vodka in container D = 6x x (5/3) = 10x

total volume of container D = 10x + 6x = 16x

Difference of volume in container A and D = 16x - 11x = 5x

5x = 50

x = 10

value of x is solved and volume of every term is obtained in term of x , so on solving

LIQUID	A	B	C	D
WATER	70	30		60
RUM	40	35	70
VODKA	-	40	35	100
TOTAL	110	105	105	160

volume of vodka in container B = 40 L

volume of vodka in container C = 35 L

volume of vodka in container D = 100 L

required ratio = 8 : 7 : 20

194

If price per litre of rum and vodka is Rs. 100 and Rs. 150. find the cost of container A.

((a))
Rs. 6000
((b))
Rs. 5500
((c))
Rs. 5000
((d))
Rs. 4000
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Rs. 4000

Let water in container A = 7x

Let rum in container A = 4x

Total volume of container A = 11x

Volume of vodka in container B = volume of rum in container A

volume of vodka in container B = 4x

Volume of rum in container B = 4x × (7/8) = 3.5x

Volume of rum in container B = vodka in container C

vodka in container C = 3.5x

Volume of rum in container C = 2 × 3.5x = 7x

Volume of container B = volume of container C

volume of water + (3.5x + 4x) = 3.5x + 7x

volume of water + 7.5x = 10.5x

volume of water in container B = 3x

Volume of water in container D = 2 × water in container B

Volume of water container D = 2 × 3x = 6x

Volume of vodka in container D = 6x x (5/3) = 10x

total volume of container D = 10x + 6x = 16x

Difference of volume in container A and D = 16x - 11x = 5x

5x = 50

x = 10

value of x is solved and volume of every term is obtained in term of x , so on solving

LIQUID	A	B	C	D
WATER	70	30		60
RUM	40	35	70
VODKA	-	40	35	100
TOTAL	110	105	105	160

total price of water in container A = 70 × 0 = Rs. 0

total price of rum in container A = 40 × 100 = Rs. 4000

⇒ total cost = Rs. 4000

195

In an election 2 participants participated. 325 voters didn’t participate in an election. If a winning candidate got 25% more votes than another and won by the votes mathematically equal to the voters who didn’t participate. Find the number of voters of an election.

((a))
2925
((b))
1625
((c))
6500
((d))
3250
((e))
None of the above.

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

3250

Given :

Number of voters didn’t participate in an election = 325

Winning votes = 325

Winners vote = 125% of another’s vote

Terminology used :

The difference in the vote share of the participants is known as winning votes.

Common Mistake :

A won by x votes is often misguided as A got x votes.

Assumption :

Let A and B be the candidates of an election, In which A is a winning candidate.

Calculation :

Vote share of A is 25% higher than the vote share of B

Let, the vote share of B be 4x

⇒ Vote share of A = 125% of vote share of B = 125% of 4x = 5x

⇒ Winning votes = 5x – 4x = x = 325

⇒ Voter’s didn’t participate = Winning votes = x = 325

⇒ Total voters = Votes of A + Votes of B + Voters who didn’t participate.

⇒ Total voters = 5x + 4x + x = 10x = 3250

∴ The total number of voters is 3250 in an election.

196

A started a business investing Rs. 3000. After 3 months, B joined the business investing Rs. 2000. After some more time, C joined the business investing Rs. 1500. At the end of the year, profit from the business was Rs. 16000 and share of C was Rs.1600 out of the profit. For how many months C invested in the business?

((a))
3
((b))
5
((c))
6
((d))
4
((e))
7

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

GIVEN:

CONCEPT:

Profit will be shared according to the Investment and the time for which the investment is done.

CALCULATION:

Suppose C invested in the business for ‘x’ months.

So,

Ratio in which the profit will be shared among A, B and C

= (3000 × 12) : (2000 × 9) : (1500 × x)

= 360 : 180 : 15x

= 24 : 12 : x

Now,

Share of C is given to be Rs. 1600 out of Rs. 16000.

Hence,

x/(24 + 12 + x) = 1600/16000

⇒ x/(36 + x) = 1/10

⇒ 10x = 36 + x

⇒ x = 4

∴ C invested amount for 4 months.

197

Two boats P and Q start towards each other from two places, 300 km apart. The speed of the boat P and Q in still water is 32 km/h and 28 km/h respectively. If P goes downwards and Q up the stream, they will meet after how many hours?

((a))
6 hours
((b))
5 hours
((c))
8 hours
((d))
10 hours
((e))
12 hours

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

5 hours

Given:

Distance between P and Q = 300 km

Speed of boat P in still water = 32 km/h

Speed of boat Q in still water = 28 km/h

Formula Used:

Total Distance = Distance covered while going downstream + Distance covered while going upstream

Calculations:

Let the speed of the stream be x km/h.

Both the boats meet after t hours.

According to the question,

Total Distance = Distance covered while going downstream + Distance covered while going upstream

⇒ (32 + x) t + (28 – x) t = 300

⇒ 32t + xt + 28t – xt = 300

⇒ 60t = 300

⇒ t = 5 hours

They will meet after 5 hours.

198

Two pipes A and B can fill a cistern in 12 hours and 15 hours respectively. A third pipe C is also there to empty the cistern. If all the pipes working simultaneously can fill the cistern in 10 hours then in how much time the third pipe can empty the cistern?

((a))
20 hours
((b))
18 hours
((c))
30 hours
((d))
5 hours
((e))
14 hours

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

20 hours

GIVEN:

time taken by A to fill the cistern = 12 hours

time taken by B to fill the cistern = 15 hours

time taken by all three pipes to fill the cistern = 10 hours

EXPLANATION:

Let the third pipe empty the cistern in x hours

part of cistern filled by all three pipes in one hour = $\frac{1}{12}+\frac{1}{15}-\frac1x$

acc, to question

$\frac{1}{12}+\frac{1}{15}-\frac1x= \frac{1}{10} \\Rightarrow x=20hours$

the efficiency of emptying pipe is taken as negative

ALTERNATE SOLUTION:

Let the capacity of the tank be 60 units (L.C.M 0f 10, 12, 15)

the efficiency of A = 5 units

the efficiency of B = 4 units

the efficiency of (A + B + C) = 6 units

c's efficiency = (5 + 4) - 6 = 3 units

time taken by C to empty = $\frac{60}{3}=20hours$

199

If the difference between simple interest and compound interest on the same sum at 7% per annum for 2 years is Rs 24.5 then find principal amount.

((a))
Rs 5000
((b))
Rs 10000
((c))
Rs 15000
((d))
Rs 12500
((e))
Rs 18500

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Rs 5000

Given:

Difference = Rs 24.5

Time = 2 years

Rate = 7%

Formula used:

Difference between CI and SI for 2 years = PR²/100²

P = Principal

R = Rate

Calculation:

Let Principal be X

Difference = Rs 75

⇒ C.I. – S.I. = PR2/1002

⇒ 24.5 = P × (49/10000)

⇒ 245000 = 49P

⇒ 5000 = P

∴ The principal amount is Rs 5000

200

After selling a saree for Rs. 3360 a shopkeeper suffers a loss of 16%. If he wants to earn 15% profit after giving the discount of 8%, what will be the marked price of the saree?

((a))
Rs. 4800
((b))
Rs. 5000
((c))
Rs. 5500
((d))
Rs. 4000
((e))
Rs. 4600

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Rs. 5000

Given:

Selling Price = Rs. 3360

Discount = 8%

Loss = 16%

Profit = 15%

Formula Used:

C.P = S.P/(100 – loss%) × 100

M.P = C.P × (100 + profit%)/(100 – discount%)

Calculation:

∴ according to the formula:

C.P = S.P/(100 – loss%) × 100

⇒ C.P = 3360/(100 - 16) × 100

⇒ C.P = (3360/84) × 100

⇒ C.P = 40 × 100

⇒ C.P = Rs. 4000

∴ Marked Price = C.P × (100 + profit%)/(100 – discount%)

⇒ 4000 × (100 + 15)/(100 – 8)

⇒ 4000 × (115/92)

⇒ 4000 × 1.25

⇒ Rs. 5000

∴ The marked price of the saree should be Rs. 5,000.

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