Official Paper

IBPS Probationary Officer (PO) 2023 Previous Year Paper Shift 4

100 questions · 60 minutes · with answers · free

Attempt as Timed Mock Test

English Language (30 questions)

Read the passage to answer the given questions

Shadow banking (SB) has been an essential and largely disputed issue in finance literature for over a decade. Its macroeconomic implications and institutional-level importance have made it a fascinating area of study. After the Global Financial Crisis of 2007–2008 (GFC), scholars, legislators had SB in their sights. Many scholars have argued that the GFC initially sprouted from the SB sector, and that SB was the main culprit in the crisis. The SB sector’s vulnerability was in its financing of risky, long-term, and illiquid assets with short-term borrowings, resulting in a breakdown in the credit market that forced SBs to sell long-term holdings at fire-sale prices. However, some studies argue that SBs were not entirely responsible for the sub-prime mortgage crisis during the GFC. Moreover, SBs may be a key to mitigating damages if a liquidity crisis caused by traditional banks arises in the future. As the future of SB and the new financial innovations within the SB sector hangs in the balance, some suggest taming the wild horse. On the other hand, some say that if SB remains unregulated or is regulated differently than the traditional banking sector, it will bring about the next global financial crisis. The term “shadow bank” was coined by economist Paul McCulley. In McCulley’s talk, shadow banking had a distinctly US focus and referred mainly to nonbank financial institutions that engaged in what economists call maturity transformation. Commercial banks engage in maturity transformation when they use deposits, which are normally short term, to fund loans that are longer term. Shadow banks do something similar. They raise short-term funds in the money markets and use those funds to buy assets with longer-term maturities. But because they are not subject to traditional bank regulation, they cannot—as banks can—borrow in an emergency from the Federal Reserve (the US central bank) and do not have traditional depositors whose funds are covered by insurance; they are in the “shadows.”

1

Which of the following is the antonym of ‘culprit’ as highlighted in the given passage?

  1. ((a))

    tyranny

  2. ((b))

    virtuous

  3. ((c))

    miscreant

  4. ((d))

    fugitive

  5. ((e))

    sinister

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

virtuous

2

How do some experts view the future of shadow banking in relation to mitigating damages from a liquidity crisis?

  1. ((a))

    They believe shadow banking will exacerbate the damages caused by traditional banks.

  2. ((b))

    They argue that shadow banking will prevent global financial sector from facing liquidity crises.

  3. ((c))

    They suggest that shadow banking should undergo traditional bank regulation.

  4. ((d))

    They consider shadow banking to be entirely unrelated to liquidity crises.

  5. ((e))

    They see shadow banking as a key to mitigating damages if a liquidity crisis arises from traditional banks.

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

They see shadow banking as a key to mitigating damages if a liquidity crisis arises from traditional banks.

3

How did the Global Financial Crisis of 2007–2008 impact shadow banks?

  1. ((a))

    It led to a significant increase in traditional bank regulation for shadow banks.

  2. ((b))

    It caused shadow banks to avoid long-term investments entirely.

  3. ((c))

    Shadow banks experienced a liquidity crisis and had to sell assets at dirt low prices.

  4. ((d))

    Shadow banks shifted their focus from the US market to other regions.

  5. ((e))

    The crisis did not have any significant impact on shadow banks.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Shadow banks experienced a liquidity crisis and had to sell assets at dirt low prices.

4

What has made shadow banking a fascinating area of study in finance literature?

  1. ((a))

    Its engagement in maturity transformation similar to traditional banks

  2. ((b))

    Its regulation by the Federal Reserve

  3. ((c))

    Its focus on short-term borrowings and illiquid assets

  4. ((d))

    Its macroeconomic implications and institutional-level importance

  5. ((e))

    Its ability to provide insurance coverage to traditional depositors

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Its macroeconomic implications and institutional-level importance

5

What factor contributed to the vulnerability of the shadow banking sector during the Global Financial Crisis of 2007–2008?

  1. ((a))

    Financing of risky, long-term, and illiquid assets with short-term borrowings

  2. ((b))

    Imitating regulation of traditional banks

  3. ((c))

    Lack of engagement in maturity transformation

  4. ((d))

    Dependence on the Federal Reserve for emergency funding

  5. ((e))

    Coverage of funds by insurance

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Financing of risky, long-term, and illiquid assets with short-term borrowings

6

What is the primary activity of shadow banks that economists refer to as "maturity transformation"?

  1. ((a))

    Raising short-term funds from money markets

  2. ((b))

    Borrowing in emergencies from the Federal Reserve

  3. ((c))

    Engaging in long-term investments with short-term borrowings

  4. ((d))

    Subjecting themselves to traditional bank regulation

  5. ((e))

    Insuring traditional depositors' funds

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Engaging in long-term investments with short-term borrowings

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’ , the answer is ‘e’ . (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).

7

Despite the challenges, (A)/ I am determined to accomplish (B)/ my all dreams and make a (C)/ positive impact on the world (D).

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    No error

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

C

8

Her style of fashion (A)/ is truly most unique (B)/ and stands out (C)/from the crowd (D).

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    No error

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

B

9

India aims to become (A)/ a leading biomanufacturing hub (B)/ with plans to increase (C)/ fermentation capacity tenfold (D)

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    No error

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

No error

10

Each of the students (A)/ in the class (B)/ have submitted (C)/ their assignments on time (D).

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    No error

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

C

11

The woman who’s (A)/ car broke down (B)/ on the highway called (C)/ for roadside assistance (D).

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    No error

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been denoted by letters. For each blank, five options are given. Choose the most appropriate word from the options that fits the blank appropriately.

Poverty __________________ (A) more than the lack of income and productive resources to ensure sustainable livelihoods. Its _______________________ (B) include hunger and malnutrition, limited access to education and other basic services, social _________________ (C) and exclusion, as well as the lack of participation in decision-making. In 2015, more than 736 million people lived below the international poverty line. Around 10 per cent of the world population (pre-pandemic) was living in extreme poverty and ______________________ (D) to fulfil the most basic needs like health, education, and ____________________ (E) to water and sanitation, to name a few. There were 122 women aged 25 to 34 living in poverty for every 100 men of the same age group, and more than 160 million children were at risk of continuing to live in extreme poverty by 2030.

There has been marked progress in reducing poverty over the past decades. According to the most recent estimates, in 2015, 10 per cent of the world’s population lived at or below $1.90 a day. That’s ________________ (F) from 16 per cent in 2010 and 36 per cent in 1990. This means that ending extreme poverty is ________________(G) our reach.

12

Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (A)?

  1. ((a))

    standardizes

  2. ((b))

    entails

  3. ((c))

    produces

  4. ((d))

    terminates

  5. ((e))

    eliminates

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

entails

13

Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (B)?

  1. ((a))

    tragedy

  2. ((b))

    jeopardize

  3. ((c))

    manifestations

  4. ((d))

    reliance

  5. ((e))

    yield

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

manifestations

14

Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (C)?

  1. ((a))

    discrimination

  2. ((b))

    distinction

  3. ((c))

    divergence

  4. ((d))

    augmentation

  5. ((e))

    significance

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

discrimination

15

Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (D)?

  1. ((a))

    relying

  2. ((b))

    wiggling

  3. ((c))

    thriving

  4. ((d))

    challenging

  5. ((e))

    struggling

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

struggling

16

Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (E)?

  1. ((a))

    access

  2. ((b))

    excess

  3. ((c))

    attempt

  4. ((d))

    overt

  5. ((e))

    conflict

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

access

17

Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (F)?

  1. ((a))

    ploy

  2. ((b))

    incline

  3. ((c))

    series

  4. ((d))

    down

  5. ((e))

    surge

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

down

18

Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (G)?

  1. ((a))

    chance

  2. ((b))

    likely

  3. ((c))

    within

  4. ((d))

    achieved

  5. ((e))

    now

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

within

In the given question, each sentence is divided into four parts, which are may or may not be arranged in the correct order. Choose the order of the arrangement from the options that will provide correct meaning to the sentence. If the sentence is already correctly arranged, choose “No rearrangement needed”.

19

pastors’ churches, John finally has (A)/ after spending fifteen years as (B)/ his own house of worship (C)/ an itinerant preacher at other (D)

  1. ((a))

    BACD

  2. ((b))

    BDAC

  3. ((c))

    DBCA

  4. ((d))

    CDAB

  5. ((e))

    No rearrangement needed

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

BDAC

20

the proliferation of technology (A)/ over the last 100 years has (B) /happened so quickly and (C)/ caused many societal changes (D).

  1. ((a))

    BCDA

  2. ((b))

    BADC

  3. ((c))

    CABD

  4. ((d))

    CDAB

  5. ((e))

    No rearrangement needed

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

No rearrangement needed

In the given question, each sentence is divided into four parts, which are may or may not be arranged in the correct order. Choose the order of the arrangement from the options that will provide correct meaning to the sentence. If the sentence is already correctly arranged, choose “No rearrangement needed”.

21

focusing on the betterment (A)/ to private school (B)/ worked two jobs to send him (C)/ of her son’s life, the mother (D).

  1. ((a))

    ADCB

  2. ((b))

    DBCA

  3. ((c))

    BDAC

  4. ((d))

    CDAB

  5. ((e))

    No rearrangement needed

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ADCB

Each question has four words given in bold which may or may not be arranged in the correct order and need an interchange between them. Choose the interchange required to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.

22

In order to find the repeat, (A) scientists had to anomaly (B) the experiment (C) over a hundred (D) times.

  1. ((a))

    Only (A)-(B)

  2. ((b))

    Only (C)-(D)

  3. ((c))

    Only (A)-(C) and (B)-(D)

  4. ((d))

    Only (A)-(D) and (B)-(C)

  5. ((e))

    No interchange needed

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only (A)-(B)

23

Preventive (A) measures must be taken to make sure that current (B) investments (C) do not fail like the future(D) ones.

  1. ((a))

    Only (A)-(C)

  2. ((b))

    Only (B)-(D)

  3. ((c))

    Only (A)-(C) and (B)-(D)

  4. ((d))

    Only (A)-(D) and (B)-(C)

  5. ((e))

    No interchange needed

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Only (B)-(D)

24

The teacher believes (A) the key to changing disobedient (B) children is punishing (C) them rewards for good behavior instead of offering (D) them when they are bad.

  1. ((a))

    Only (A)-(B)

  2. ((b))

    Only (C)-(D)

  3. ((c))

    Only (A)-(C) and (B)-(D)

  4. ((d))

    Only (A)-(D) and (B)-(C)

  5. ((e))

    No interchange needed

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Only (C)-(D)

25

A graph was showing (A) using certain (B) factors of the town’s population drawn (C) the number of people within demographic (D) age ranges.

  1. ((a))

    Only (A)-(B)

  2. ((b))

    Only (C)-(D)

  3. ((c))

    Only (A)-(C) and (B)-(D)

  4. ((d))

    Only (A)-(D) and (B)-(C)

  5. ((e))

    No interchange needed

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Only (A)-(C) and (B)-(D)

In the following questions, three words have been highlighted. These words may or may not be at their correct position. Following each question four possible arrangements are provided. Choose the arrangement that will make the given sentence contextually meaningful and grammatically correct as your answer.

26

The cat breaking (A) on the table and jumped (B) over the expensive vase, knocked (C) it as a result.

  1. ((a))

    CAB

  2. ((b))

    BCA

  3. ((c))

    CBA

  4. ((d))

    ACB

  5. ((e))

    No rearrangement required

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

BCA

27

The teacher asked (A) the students to invite (B) their hands to raise (C) more participation.

  1. ((a))

    ACB

  2. ((b))

    CBA

  3. ((c))

    CAB

  4. ((d))

    BAC

  5. ((e))

    No rearrangement required

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ACB

28

After hiding (A) of hours (B), the police found the thief searching (C) in the bushes.

  1. ((a))

    ACB

  2. ((b))

    BAC

  3. ((c))

    BCA

  4. ((d))

    CAB

  5. ((e))

    No rearrangement required

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

BCA

In each sentence two words are omitted and replaced with blanks. Choose the pair of words from the given options that can fill the blanks in the same order without changing the intended meaning.

29

With reading children may often misread words and with writing they may have ______________ spelling and _______________ to reverse letters.

  1. ((a))

    consistent, propensity

  2. ((b))

    haphazard, antipathy

  3. ((c))

    transitive, inclination

  4. ((d))

    narrative, probability

  5. ((e))

    erratic, tendency

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

erratic, tendency

30

Years of doing __________________ research had made her very ________________ in her working methods.

  1. ((a))

    collaborative, specific

  2. ((b))

    meticulous, precise

  3. ((c))

    particular, articulate

  4. ((d))

    eccentric, pragmatic

  5. ((e))

    practical, intuitive

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

meticulous, precise

Quantitative Aptitude (35 questions)

The line graph given below shows the total number of pens (red & green) in five different bags (A, B, C, D and E) and number of green pen in these bags. Read the line graph carefully and answer the question given below.

BagTotal pens (red + green)Green pens
A4824
B5434
C7848
D4420
E5022
31

Find the difference between total pens in bags A and C together and total green pens in bag D?

Line graph showing the total number of pens (red & green) and the number of green pens in five different bags (A, B, C, D, and E).
  1. ((a))

    106

  2. ((b))

    96

  3. ((c))

    84

  4. ((d))

    76

  5. ((e))

    116

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

106

32

Total number of pens (red & green) in bags X are 5/4th of total green pens in bag C and total pens (red & green) in bag Y are 300% more than total pens in bag A. If total red pens in bags X & Y are equal and total green pens in bag Y are 275% more than that of bag X, then find the total number of red pens in bag Y?

Line graph showing the total number of pens (red & green) and the number of green pens in five different bags (A, B, C, D, and E).
  1. ((a))

    14

  2. ((b))

    12

  3. ((c))

    16

  4. ((d))

    18

  5. ((e))

    10

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

12

33

Find the ratio of green pens in bag E and D together to total red pens in bag A?

Line graph showing the total number of pens (red & green) and the number of green pens in five different bags (A, B, C, D, and E).
  1. ((a))

    7 : 4

  2. ((b))

    7 : 3

  3. ((c))

    4 : 3

  4. ((d))

    7 : 2

  5. ((e))

    5 : 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

7 : 4

34

In shop F, total number of pens (red & green) are two times the total number of green pens in bag C and the ratio of green pen to red pen in bag F is 3:5, then find the number of red pens in bag F?

Line graph showing the total number of pens (red & green) and the number of green pens in five different bags (A, B, C, D, and E).
  1. ((a))

    20

  2. ((b))

    40

  3. ((c))

    60

  4. ((d))

    80

  5. ((e))

    100

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

60

35

The total number of green pens in C and E together is what percentage less than total pens (red & green) in B and C together (approx.)?

Line graph showing the total number of pens (red & green) and the number of green pens in five different bags (A, B, C, D, and E).
  1. ((a))

    68%

  2. ((b))

    47%

  3. ((c))

    72%

  4. ((d))

    96%

  5. ((e))

    108%

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

47%

36

The sum of perimeter of a rectangle and circumference of a circle is 168 cm. If the ratio of length to breadth of the rectangle is 4 : 1 and radius of the circle is 75% more than breadth of the rectangle. Find the difference between area of the rectangle and the circle (in cm square)?

  1. ((a))

    296

  2. ((b))

    472

  3. ((c))

    360

  4. ((d))

    552

  5. ((e))

    40

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

360

37

The speed of boat in upstream is ⅗th of the speed of boat in downstream. The speed of boat in still water is 6 km/hr more than the speed of stream. Then find the total time taken by boat to cover 25 km in downstream and 15 km in upstream?

  1. ((a))

    4 hours

  2. ((b))

    6 hours

  3. ((c))

    7 hours

  4. ((d))

    5 hours

  5. ((e))

    3 hours

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

5 hours

38

The difference between the interest on Rs X invested at rate of 15% p.a. on simple interest for two years and same amount is invested at rate of 20% p.a. for one year compounded half yearly is Rs 432. Find the value of X?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 5400

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 5000

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 4500

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 4000

  5. ((e))

    Rs. 4800

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Rs. 4800

39

The average salary of Mark & John is Rs. 25000, while that of John & Shane is Rs. 30000. If the average salary of all 3 is Rs. 27000. Mac's salary is Rs. 4000 more than that of John. If all the 4 member’s salaries are included, then the new average salary will be Rs X. Find X+5500 (in Rs.)?

  1. ((a))

    28500

  2. ((b))

    32000

  3. ((c))

    33000

  4. ((d))

    34000

  5. ((e))

    40000

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

34000

40

Uday and Amir entered into partnership business. Amir invested Rs. 1600 for whole year and Uday invested Rs. 1200 for first six months and withdraw 1/4th of his capital and invested remaining amount for next ‘x’ month. If Uday and Amir got profit in the ratio of 9 : 16. Find the value of x?

  1. ((a))

    3

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    5

  4. ((d))

    6

  5. ((e))

    2

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

4

Read the information carefully and answer the questions given below. There are three cities P, Q and R in which there are some clubs & gyms. The ratio of clubs in P to that of R is 4 : 3 and total clubs in all three cities are 255. Total gyms in city P and Q are 320 and ratio of total gyms in Q to total clubs in P is 9 : 4. Total clubs and gyms in city P is 240. Total gyms in R are 5/4th of total clubs in the same city.

41

Total gyms in city X are 3/4th of total gyms in P and total clubs in city X are 80% more than total gyms in R. Find total gyms and clubs in city X are what percent of total clubs in R?

  1. ((a))

    200%

  2. ((b))

    300%

  3. ((c))

    400%

  4. ((d))

    500%

  5. ((e))

    600%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

500%

42

Find the difference between total clubs in Q and total gyms in R?

  1. ((a))

    93

  2. ((b))

    73

  3. ((c))

    83

  4. ((d))

    87

  5. ((e))

    81

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

83

43

Find the total number of gyms in all three cities P, Q and R?

  1. ((a))

    380

  2. ((b))

    360

  3. ((c))

    390

  4. ((d))

    400

  5. ((e))

    420

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

380

44

Find the ratio of total gyms in R to total clubs in P and Q together?

  1. ((a))

    16 : 69

  2. ((b))

    20 : 69

  3. ((c))

    22 : 69

  4. ((d))

    22 : 67

  5. ((e))

    20 : 67

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

20 : 69

45

The ratio of present age of A to B’s is 3 : 2. Five years ago, A age was twice than that of B age at that time. Five years hence, sum of ages of A and B is equal to C age at that time. Find present age of C (in years)?

  1. ((a))

    35

  2. ((b))

    40

  3. ((c))

    20

  4. ((d))

    25

  5. ((e))

    30

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

30

46

A, B and C can do a piece of work in 20 days, 10 days and 15 days respectively. They all started the work together but after 2 days B left the work and A left the work 3/2 days before the completion of work. Find the time in which work gets completed?

  1. ((a))

    7.5 days

  2. ((b))

    6 days

  3. ((c))

    8 days

  4. ((d))

    7 days

  5. ((e))

    9 days

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

7.5 days

47

A 180 meters long train crosses another train having length 270 m in 54/5 seconds by running towards each other. If the ratio of speed of the first train to second train is 2 : 3, then find the time taken by 2nd train to cross first train if both running in the same direction?

  1. ((a))

    47

  2. ((b))

    26

  3. ((c))

    54

  4. ((d))

    50

  5. ((e))

    25

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

54

48

A container has a mixture of milk and water in the ratio 4:1. If ‘x’ liters of milk are added to the mixture, the ratio becomes 5:1, while ‘y’ liters of water are added, the ratio becomes 3:1. If the sum of x and y is 20 liters, then find the quantity of the original mixture.

  1. ((a))

    30 liters

  2. ((b))

    90 liters

  3. ((c))

    45 liters

  4. ((d))

    60 liters

  5. ((e))

    75 liters

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

75 liters

49

The cost price of an article is Rs 1375 and shopkeeper marks up the article 60% above its cost price. If discount allows by the shopkeeper is x-50% and the shopkeeper made a profit of 20%, then find the discount allowed by the shopkeeper?

  1. ((a))

    20%

  2. ((b))

    30%

  3. ((c))

    25%

  4. ((d))

    75%

  5. ((e))

    35%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

25%

Table given below shows total number of people (male + female) visited five different parks and percentage of female out of total people visited these five parks. Read the following table carefully and answer the questions given below.

ParksTotal number of people (male + female) visitedPercentage of female out of total people visited
A25040%
B30055%
C28045%
D34050%
E38060%
50

Find the ratio of number of male visited to park A and B together to total number of female visited to park A and B together?

  1. ((a))

    57 : 52

  2. ((b))

    57 : 53

  3. ((c))

    59 : 53

  4. ((d))

    57 : 58

  5. ((e))

    57 : 59

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

57 : 53

51

If total number of children visited to park A are 40% more than the total number of male visited to park D, then find the difference between total number of male visited to park C and total number of children visited to park A?

  1. ((a))

    84

  2. ((b))

    74

  3. ((c))

    94

  4. ((d))

    64

  5. ((e))

    88

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

84

52

Find the difference between average number of males visited to park A & D together and total number of female visited to park E?

  1. ((a))

    72

  2. ((b))

    98

  3. ((c))

    88

  4. ((d))

    68

  5. ((e))

    78

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

68

53

Find the total number of females visited to park E is what percent of total number of males visited to park A?

  1. ((a))

    158%

  2. ((b))

    52%

  3. ((c))

    88%

  4. ((d))

    112%

  5. ((e))

    152%

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

152%

54

Find the total number of males visited to park B & D together is how much more or less than number of female visited to park D & E together?

  1. ((a))

    71

  2. ((b))

    101

  3. ((c))

    81

  4. ((d))

    93

  5. ((e))

    83

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

93

In each of the following questions two equations are given. Solve these equations and give answer: (a) if x>y (b) if x≥y (c) if x<y (d) if x ≤y (e) if x = y or no relation can be established between x and y.

55

I. x² + x - 12 = 0 II. y² - 9y + 14 = 0

  1. ((a))

    if x>y

  2. ((b))

    if x≥y

  3. ((c))

    if x<y

  4. ((d))

    if x ≤y

  5. ((e))

    if x = y or no relation can be established between x and y.

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

if x = y or no relation can be established between x and y.

56

I. 6x² + 5x + 1 = 0 II. 4y² - 15y = 4

  1. ((a))

    if x>y

  2. ((b))

    if x≥y

  3. ((c))

    if x<y

  4. ((d))

    if x ≤y

  5. ((e))

    if x = y or no relation can be established between x and y.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

if x<y

57

I. 3x² + x - 2 = 0 II. 12y² + 7y + 1 = 0

  1. ((a))

    if x>y

  2. ((b))

    if x≥y

  3. ((c))

    if x<y

  4. ((d))

    if x ≤y

  5. ((e))

    if x = y or no relation can be established between x and y.

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

if x = y or no relation can be established between x and y.

58

I. x² + 13x + 42 = 0 II. y² + 8y + 12 = 0

  1. ((a))

    if x>y

  2. ((b))

    if x≥y

  3. ((c))

    if x<y

  4. ((d))

    if x ≤y

  5. ((e))

    if x = y or no relation can be established between x and y.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

if x ≤y

59

I. 3x² - 13x + 14 = 0 II. 2y² - 17y + 33 = 0

  1. ((a))

    if x>y

  2. ((b))

    if x≥y

  3. ((c))

    if x<y

  4. ((d))

    if x ≤y

  5. ((e))

    if x = y or no relation can be established between x and y.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

if x<y

60

50.111 × 4.98 + 39.88% of 399.92 = ?² − 31.05 What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

  1. ((a))

    25

  2. ((b))

    21

  3. ((c))

    14

  4. ((d))

    5

  5. ((e))

    42

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

21

61

[Formula above]

What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

  1. ((a))

    1760

  2. ((b))

    1620

  3. ((c))

    1840

  4. ((d))

    1980

  5. ((e))

    2090

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1760

62

[Formula above]

What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

  1. ((a))

    4267

  2. ((b))

    4560

  3. ((c))

    4128

  4. ((d))

    4869

  5. ((e))

    4646

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4267

63

14.022² + 9.02³ = ? × 24.88 + 200.12

Instructions: What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

  1. ((a))

    17

  2. ((b))

    29

  3. ((c))

    21

  4. ((d))

    46

  5. ((e))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

29

64

[Formula above] Instructions: What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

  1. ((a))

    304

  2. ((b))

    328

  3. ((c))

    378

  4. ((d))

    245

  5. ((e))

    198

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

328

65

[Formula above]

Instructions: What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

  1. ((a))

    17

  2. ((b))

    12

  3. ((c))

    22

  4. ((d))

    4

  5. ((e))

    27

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

17

Reasoning Ability (35 questions)

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Six persons, P, Q, R, S, T, and U have booked flights to six different countries - India, Pakistan, Australia, Canada, Brazil and Japan – on six different days starting from Monday to Saturday one after the another in the same week. The flight to Australia is booked before Thursday. T’s flight is booked before the one who booked his flight to Pakistan. The flight to Brazil is booked four days before the flight to Japan. S’s flight is booked immediately after the flight to India. P’s flight is booked immediately before the Flight to Japan. The number of flights booked before P’s flight is one less than the number of flights booked after the flight to Canada. The flight to India is not booked on Wednesday. Two flights were booked between S’s flight and Q’s flight. R’s flight is booked before the flight booked for Australia. T doesn’t book a flight to Brazil and U doesn’t book a flight on the last day of the week.

66

Who among the following has booked the flight to Australia?

  1. ((a))

    P

  2. ((b))

    The one who booked the flight on Tuesday.

  3. ((c))

    S

  4. ((d))

    The one who booked the flight on Wednesday.

  5. ((e))

    The one who booked the flight on Monday.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The one who booked the flight on Wednesday.

67

On which among the following day did S booked a flight and to which country respectively?

  1. ((a))

    Monday, Japan

  2. ((b))

    Saturday, India

  3. ((c))

    Saturday, Japan

  4. ((d))

    Friday, Japan

  5. ((e))

    Friday, India

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Saturday, Japan

68

If T is related to U and in the same way Q is related to S then R is related to who among the following persons?

  1. ((a))

    The one who booked the flight immediately after Q’s flight.

  2. ((b))

    The one who booked to flight to Japan.

  3. ((c))

    T

  4. ((d))

    The one who booked to flight to India.

  5. ((e))

    Q

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The one who booked to flight to India.

69

How many persons have their flights after the flight booked to Canada?

  1. ((a))

    Three

  2. ((b))

    Two

  3. ((c))

    Four

  4. ((d))

    Either Four or Five

  5. ((e))

    Five

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Five

70

How many persons have their flights booked between R’s flight and P’s flight?

  1. ((a))

    None

  2. ((b))

    One

  3. ((c))

    Two

  4. ((d))

    Three

  5. ((e))

    Four

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Two

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions: In a certain code language: “Man is reading book” is coded as “pq mn uv xy” “Canvas painting is interesting activity” is coded as “fg ij pq ab kl” “Book activity lecture toy” is coded as “cd fg uv de” “Reading is interesting lecture” is coded as “de pq kl mn”

71

The code “cd” is coded for?

  1. ((a))

    lecture

  2. ((b))

    activity

  3. ((c))

    book

  4. ((d))

    None of these

  5. ((e))

    toy

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

toy

72

What is the code for the word pairs “interesting lecture” in the given code language?

  1. ((a))

    ij de

  2. ((b))

    pq cg

  3. ((c))

    kl de

  4. ((d))

    cg de

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

kl de

73

What is the code for the word “man” in the given code language?

  1. ((a))

    mn

  2. ((b))

    pq

  3. ((c))

    xy

  4. ((d))

    cd

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

xy

74

The code “uv fg” is coded for the word pairs?

  1. ((a))

    lecture book

  2. ((b))

    toy book

  3. ((c))

    painting book

  4. ((d))

    canvas toy

  5. ((e))

    book activity

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

book activity

75

Which of the following combination is correct?

  1. ((a))

    Reading - pq

  2. ((b))

    Is - mn

  3. ((c))

    activity- ab

  4. ((d))

    book-uv

  5. ((e))

    Both (c) and (d)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

book-uv

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions below. Nine boxes – R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are arranged in stacks one after the another, but not necessarily in the same order. Box Z is above placed Box Y which is not adjacent to Box W. Five boxes are placed between Box S and Box U. Box X is placed two boxes above Box S. The number of boxes placed above Box X is three less than the number box placed below Box T. Two boxes are placed between Box X and Box V. Box W is placed four boxes above Box V. Box R is placed exactly between Box W and Box V.

76

Which among the following boxes is placed five boxes below Box Z?

  1. ((a))

    Box X

  2. ((b))

    Box V

  3. ((c))

    Box W

  4. ((d))

    Box Y

  5. ((e))

    Box R

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Box V

77

If all the boxes are arranged in ascending order from bottom to top in alphabetical order, then position of which among the following box remain unchanged?

  1. ((a))

    Box T

  2. ((b))

    Box X

  3. ((c))

    Box V

  4. ((d))

    Box W

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Box W

78

How many boxes are kept above Box X?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Two

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    Four

  5. ((e))

    Five

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Four

79

Box R is placed on which position?

  1. ((a))

    Fourth from the top

  2. ((b))

    Third from the bottom

  3. ((c))

    Fourth from the bottom

  4. ((d))

    Second from the bottom

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Fourth from the bottom

80

How many boxes are placed between Box Y and Box T?

  1. ((a))

    As many are placed between Box Z and Box Y

  2. ((b))

    As many are placed between Box V and Box X

  3. ((c))

    As many are placed between Box R and Box S

  4. ((d))

    As many are placed between Box U and Box V

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

As many are placed between Box U and Box V

In each question below some statements are given followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions definitely follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give an answer:

81

Statements: Some 5 are not 9. Only a few 7 is 9. Some 5 are 1. Conclusions: I. All 9 are 5 is a possibility. II. Some 1 are 7.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion II follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion I follows

  3. ((c))

    Either conclusion I or II follows

  4. ((d))

    Both conclusions I and II follow

  5. ((e))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Only conclusion I follows

82

Statements: Only a few Toronto are Vancouver. Every Vancouver are Calgary. No Calgary are Montreal. Conclusions: I. No Toronto are Calgary. II. Some Vancouver can be Montreal.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion II follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion I follows

  3. ((c))

    Either conclusion I or II follows

  4. ((d))

    Both conclusions I and II follow

  5. ((e))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Neither conclusion I nor II follows

83

Statements: Only Mat are Cat. No Mat is Rat. A few Rat are Bat. Conclusions: I. Some Cat can be Bat. II. No Cat is Rat.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion II follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion I follows

  3. ((c))

    Either conclusion I or II follows

  4. ((d))

    Both conclusions I and II follow

  5. ((e))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusion II follows

84

Statements: Some Sunflower are Marigold. Only Hibiscus are Pink roses. A few Marigold are Hibiscus. Conclusions: I. All Hibiscus can be Sunflower. II. Some Pink Roses are Marigold.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion II follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion I follows

  3. ((c))

    Either conclusion I or II follows

  4. ((d))

    Both conclusions I and II follow

  5. ((e))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Fourteen persons sit in two rows where A, C, E, G, I, K and M sit in row-1 and face north and B, D, F, H, J, L and O sit in row-2 and face south, but not necessarily in that order. All persons of both rows face each other. F sits fourth to the right of the one who faces E. D is not an immediate neighbor of F and the one who faces A. D does not face A. Two persons sit between E and K. K sits four places away from A. Three persons sit between M and E. More than three persons sit between F and O. The one who faces O sits third to the right of G. J sits three places away from O. One person sits between D and H who doesn’t face E. L sits two places away from H and face I.

85

Who among the following persons sits opposite to the person who sits fourth to the right of D?

  1. ((a))

    M

  2. ((b))

    K

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    G

  5. ((e))

    I

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

I

86

Who among the following persons sits to the third to left of C?

  1. ((a))

    The one who faces B.

  2. ((b))

    The one who faces O.

  3. ((c))

    G

  4. ((d))

    The one who faces F.

  5. ((e))

    K

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The one who faces F.

87

Which among the following pairs of persons are immediate neighbors in row 2?

  1. ((a))

    B, H

  2. ((b))

    J, L

  3. ((c))

    F, D

  4. ((d))

    L, H

  5. ((e))

    B, D

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

B, D

88

What is the position of the persons who sits opposite to A with respect to H?

  1. ((a))

    Third to the left

  2. ((b))

    Fourth to the left

  3. ((c))

    Third to the right

  4. ((d))

    Fourth to the right

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Fourth to the left

89

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Who among the following does not belong to that group?

  1. ((a))

    L

  2. ((b))

    F

  3. ((c))

    I

  4. ((d))

    O

  5. ((e))

    A

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

F

90

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word “EXAMINATION”, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet (both in forward and backward directions)?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Four

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    Two

  5. ((e))

    More than four

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Two

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: In a family of eight persons – Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X. No single parent is in the three-generation family. V is the daughter of U and is the sibling of T who is the female member of the family. W is the daughter of Q who is brother-in-law of V. S is the son-in-law of R who is the brother of X. S is not married to Q.

91

How is the wife of R related to Q?

  1. ((a))

    Mother

  2. ((b))

    Daughter

  3. ((c))

    Mother-in-law

  4. ((d))

    Daughter-in-law

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Mother-in-law

92

If X is the husband of Y, then how is Y related to R?

  1. ((a))

    Mother

  2. ((b))

    Neice

  3. ((c))

    Daughter

  4. ((d))

    Sister-in-law

  5. ((e))

    Grandmother

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Sister-in-law

93

How many female members are there in the family, if X is the male member of the family?

  1. ((a))

    Five

  2. ((b))

    Two

  3. ((c))

    Four

  4. ((d))

    Three

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Four

94

In the given word “THINKING” the vowels are changed to their preceding letter and consonants are changed to their succeeding letter then how many letters are repeating more than twice?

  1. ((a))

    None

  2. ((b))

    Four

  3. ((c))

    Two

  4. ((d))

    Three

  5. ((e))

    One

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

One

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Eight persons - M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T - are working at a company , but not necessarily in the same order. Their designations are President, Vice President, General Manager, Senior Manager, Manager, Assistant Manager , Team Leader and Executive Operations. The designations follow a hierarchical sequence with President being the senior-most and Executive Operations being the junior-most. S is designated either two persons junior or two persons senior to the Assistant Manager. There are four persons designated between T and O. Less than three persons are designated between O and N. T is designated two persons senior to S. Q is designated three persons senior to S. The number of persons designated senior to N is two less than the number of persons designated junior to P. Two persons were designated between N and R.

95

How many persons are designated junior to N?

  1. ((a))

    Five

  2. ((b))

    Either Five or Four

  3. ((c))

    Four

  4. ((d))

    Three

  5. ((e))

    Two

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Four

96

Who among the following persons is designated as Team Leader?

  1. ((a))

    M

  2. ((b))

    S

  3. ((c))

    R

  4. ((d))

    T

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

R

97

The number of persons designated senior to M is four less than the number of persons designated junior to ______.

  1. ((a))

    R

  2. ((b))

    Q

  3. ((c))

    T

  4. ((d))

    P

  5. ((e))

    S

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

P

98

How many persons are designated between P and S?

  1. ((a))

    Five

  2. ((b))

    One

  3. ((c))

    Four

  4. ((d))

    Three

  5. ((e))

    Two

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Four

99

Which among the following combination is/are correct?

  1. ((a))

    Senior Manager - P

  2. ((b))

    General Manager - N

  3. ((c))

    Vice President - M

  4. ((d))

    Manager - Q

  5. ((e))

    Both (C) and (D)

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Both (C) and (D)

100

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word from the 2nd, 5th, 6th and 8th letters of the word “ROSEMARY” using each letter only once, then what is the fourth letter of the meaningful word from the left end? If no such meaningful word can be formed, the answer is “Y” and if more than one such meaningful word can be formed, the answer will be “Z” .

  1. ((a))

    O

  2. ((b))

    Y

  3. ((c))

    Z

  4. ((d))

    A

  5. ((e))

    M

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Y

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