IB Security Assistant & MTS Official Paper (Held On: 23 March, 2023 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is the National Anthem.

Key Points

• The "Jana Gana Mana" was first publicly sung on 27 December 1911 at the Calcutta Session of the Indian National Congress.
• It was originally composed as "Bharoto Bhagyo Bidhata" by Rabindranath Tagore in Bengali.
• The first stanza of the song "Bharoto Bhagyo Bidhata" was adopted by the Constituent Assembly of India as the National Anthem.
• The first stanza of the song "Bharoto Bhagyo Bidhata" was adopted on 24 January 1950.
• A formal rendition of the national anthem takes almost 52 seconds.​

Additional Information

• Rabindranath Tagore was received Noble Prize in Literature in 1913.
• He was the author of "Gitanjali".
• Tagore's compositions were chosen by two nations as national anthems:-
• India's "Jana Gana Mana".
• Bangladesh's "Amar Shonar Bangla".

The correct answer is Rouf dance.

Key Points

• Rouf dance form belongs to the state of Jammu and Kashmir.
• The Rouf is a folk dance which mainly practised by women and originated in the Muslim community of J & K.
• The dance is simple footwork which is also called Chakri in the local language.
• Rouf performed on different occasions in Kashmir like Eid, Ramdan, harvesting season.

Additional Information Some Important Dance :-

The correct answer is Barabar Caves.

Key Points

• The Barabar caves are the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India, located in the Makhdumpur region of Jehanabad district, Bihar.
• Emperor Ashoka built the Barabar Caves and these caves are Buddhist caves.
• The caves are situated in the twin hills of the Barabar and Nagarjuna hills.
• They date back to the time of the Mauryan Dynasty and Emperor Ashoka in the 3rd century BC.
• These rock-cut chambers depict inscriptions in the name of "King Piyadasi" for the Barabar group.

Additional Information 

The correct answer is 5.

Key Points

• There are five species of Plasmodium that are recognized to infect humans and cause malaria.
• Plasmodium falciparum
• This species is the most dangerous and is responsible for the majority of malaria-related deaths worldwide.
• It can cause severe malaria because it multiplies rapidly in the blood, leading to severe blood loss and clogged blood vessels.
• Plasmodium vivax
• This species isn't usually as deadly as P. falciparum, but it can cause severe disease and death. P. vivax can linger in the liver for a long time, which can result in relapses weeks or months after the first infection.
• Plasmodium ovale
• P. ovale is similar to P. vivax. It's rare and usually found in West Africa. Just like P. vivax, P. ovale can remain dormant in the liver for several months up to about 4 years.
• Plasmodium malariae
• This species generally causes a milder form of malaria, but it can persist in the blood for a very long time.
• Plasmodium knowlesi
• Previously thought to infect only primates, this species was found infecting humans in Malaysia. It may cause severe and fatal disease similar to P. falciparum.

The correct answer is Tiruchirappalli.

Key Points

• These cities were ranked based on their performance across 77 SDG indicators, covering all 17 SDGs.
• The index measures progress on a range of issues, including poverty, hunger, health, education, gender equality, water and sanitation, energy, economic growth, infrastructure, inequality, cities and human settlements, consumption and production patterns, climate change, oceans and marine resources, terrestrial ecosystems, peace and justice, and partnerships for the goals.
• The SDG Urban Index and Dashboard is a valuable tool for tracking progress on sustainable development in Indian cities.
• It can be used to identify areas where cities are doing well and where they need to improve.
• The index can also be used to compare cities to each other and to set targets for future progress.

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• Madhya Pradesh defeated Mumbai by six wickets to win their first-ever Ranji Trophy title at M.Chinnaswamy Stadium in Bengaluru on 26 June 2022.
• Madhya Pradesh chased down 108 in the fourth innings for the fall of four wickets to lift the coveted trophy.
• Mumbai with 41 titles, holds the record of winning the most number of titles.
• Mumbai last won the title in 2015-16.​

Additional Information

• ​​Important Current Affairs related to Cricket in 2022:
• England batter Joe Root completed 10191 Test cricket runs and surpassed former India batter Sunil Gavaskar's record of 10122 runs.
• India spinner Ravichandran Ashwin on 6 March 2022 surpassed Kapil Dev's 434 wickets in the second Test against Sri Lanka.
• Rishabh Pant won the top 'Test batting' prize for his series-winning knock of 89 against Australia in Brisbane at the 15th Annual ESPNcricinfo awards in Feb 2022.
• The Test bowling award went to Kyle Jamieson for his 5 for 31, which helped New Zealand become the first World Test champions.
• New Zealand skipper Kane Williamson was adjudged 'Captain of the Year' at the 15th Annual ESPNcricinfo awards 2022.

The correct answer is Cymbal.

Key Points

• Cymbal
• Percussion Ancient Asia, Egypt, and Rome Cymbals are an ancient percussion instrument that consists of thin, normally round plates of various alloys.
• Sound is produced by striking one cymbal against another or with a drumstick. They are often used in orchestras and drum kits.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

• The 5th edition of the Khelo India Youth Games were be held in Madhya Pradesh. The games of 2022 were held in 2023.
• Maharashtra won highest number of medals and Haryana was the second.
• The Khelo India Youth Games are an annual multidisciplinary grassroots game organised at a national level in India in January or February.
• Previously known as Khelo India School Games (KISG).
• It is held for two groups of students: under-17-year-olds in high school and under-21-year-olds in college.
• Every year, the top 1,000 children will be awarded a 5-lakh annual scholarship for the next eight years in order to prepare them for international sporting events.

Additional Information

• The first edition of the Khelo India Youth Games was held in Delhi in 2018.
• The second edition of the Khelo India Youth Games was held in Pune in 2019.
• The third edition of the Khelo India Youth Games was held in Guwahati in 2020.

The correct answer is Planaria.

Key Points

• Planarian (class Turbellaria) any of a group of widely distributed, mostly free-living flatworms of the class Turbellaria.
• Planaria is the name of one genus, but the name planarian is used to designate any member of the family Planariidae and related families.
• Most planarians occur in fresh water and are sometimes seen in large masses some species are marine, others are terrestrial.
• Some species are parasitic they obtain nourishment from the body of another living animal.
• The planarian body, when elongated, is soft, leaf-shaped, and ciliated.
• The spade-shaped head has two eyes and sometimes tentacles.

Additional Information 

The correct answer is Cycle Threshold.

Key Points

• In the context of the RT-PCR (Real-Time Polymerase Chain Reaction) test, "Ct" stands for Cycle Threshold.
• The cycle threshold is a key concept in PCR testing, and especially for understanding RT-PCR tests for diseases such as COVID-19.
• In an RT-PCR test, the Ct value is the number of cycles needed to amplify the viral RNA to a detectable level. During these cycles, a fluorescent signal is emitted each time the genetic material of the virus (if present) is amplified. The machine detects when the fluorescence increases significantly above the background level.
• Here's how it works briefly:
• If the virus is present in the sample, the PCR machine starts doubling the amount of the virus's genetic material present.
• After each cycle, it checks if the genetic material (RNA/DNA) is detectable (i.e. if there's enough to register a fluorescent signal).
• The process repeats, doubling the amount of genetic material each time until the machine detects the virus.
• The Ct value is the number of these doubling cycles it takes to detect the virus.

The correct answer is ​Evaporation.

Key Points

• Evaporation
• Evaporation is the natural process where the molecules of a liquid absorb the residual heat present in the liquid and escape in the form of vapour.
• Humidity is the amount of water vapour present in the air.
• For a given temperature, the air can only hold a particular amount of water vapour.
• So if the humidity is high, the amount of water vapour is high and hence the further conversion of a liquid into a vapour state is difficult or not favourable.

Additional Information 

The correct answer is Chhattisgarh.

Key Points

• Teejan Bai belongs to Chattisgarh.
• Teejan Bai is a proponent of Pandavani, a traditional performing art form, from Chhattisgarh.
• Pandavani is a folk singing style involving narration of tales from the ancient Indian epic Mahabharata.
• Teejan Bai was born in Ganiyari village, north of Bhilai Chattisgarh, and she belongs to the Pardhi Scheduled Tribe of Chhattisgarh state.​

Additional Information

• Tambura is a primarily used instrument while performing Pandavani and also helps while describing the characters.
• Other instruments also include Harmonium, Tabla, Dholak and Manjira.
• Punaram Nishad, Chetan Dewangan, and Jhaduram Dewangan are some other famous Pandavani exponents in India.
• She has been awarded the Padma Shri in 1988, Padma Bhushan in 2003, and Padma Vibhushan in 2019 by the Government of India, besides 1995 Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in 1995

The correct answer is 2050.

Key Points

• The Mumbai Climate Action Plan (MCAP) aims to achieve net-zero carbon neutrality by 2050.
• This means that the city will have reduced its greenhouse gas emissions to a level where it can absorb any remaining emissions through strategies such as afforestation or soil carbon sequestration.
• This is a ambitious goal, but it is one that Mumbai is committed to achieving.
• Key Goals of the MCAP
• The MCAP has set ambitious goals for Mumbai to achieve by 2050, including:
• Reduction of 80% of greenhouse gas emissions from 2016 levels
• Achieving net-zero carbon neutrality by 2050
• Resilience to climate change impacts, such as heat waves, floods, and sea level rise

The correct answer is 1974.

Key Points

• The Central Pollution Control Board was set up by the government in the year 1974.
• The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) of India is a statutory organization under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (Mo.E.F.C.C.).
• It was established in 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
• The CPCB is also entrusted with the powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
• The board has approximately 500 full-time employees.
• It Coordinates the activities of the State Pollution Control Boards by providing technical assistance and guidance and also resolves disputes among them.
• It is the apex organization in the country in the field of pollution control, as a technical wing of MoEFCC.

The correct answer is All chordates have a ventral nerve cord.

Key Points

Concept:

• The term Chordata is originated by the two Greek words the 'Chorda' means 'thick string' and the 'Ata' means 'to have'.
• The overall meaning of the word is the presence of the notochord, so chordates are the animals having notochord in their life span.
• Notochord supports the body of these animals.

Explanation:

• The Fundamental Characters Of Chordates Are:

1. Presence of Notochord: In the embryonic stage of chordate animals there is a solid stick-like structure (Just below the central nervous system and above the alimentary canal), this is called the notochord.
2. Presence of dorsal tubular nerve cord: In chordates, the nervous system is present at the dorsal surface of the body. The nerve cord is the hollow, tubular structure present just below the body wall and above the notochord.
3. Presence of pharyngeal gill clefts: In every chordate, there is a presence of a pair of lateral gill clefts in the wall of the pharynx for respiration. These may be present in any stage of its life span like in higher chordates gill clefts are present only in the embryonic stage not in adults.
4. Post-anal tail: It is the post-anal part of the body. The tail is reduced or absent in many adult chordates.

• Other important characters of chordates include the presence of a ventral heart.

Mistake Points

• Chordates have a dorsal central nervous system and not the ventral.

The correct answer is Gujarat.

Key Points

• The 36th National Games, whose theme is Celebrating Unity Through Sports, are being held after a gap of seven years and took place from September 29 to October 12 at the EKA Arena TransStadia in Ahmedabad.
• As many as six cities in Gujarat - Ahmedabad, Gandhinagar, Surat, Vadodara, Rajkot and Bhavnagar.
• New Delhi additionally hosted the track cycling event.
• The curtain-raiser event (held on 3rd September 2022)witnessed the unveiling of the Games Anthem and Mascot, as well as a custom-curated website and mobile application, marking the beginning of the biggest sporting extravaganza in the country.
• An estimated 7,000 athletes from 28 states and eight Union Territories are expected to take part across 36 disciplines that include most traditional Olympic sports.
• Indigenous sports like Mallakhamb and Yogasana also featured in the National Games for the first time.
• The 2020 edition of the National Games was scheduled to be held in Goa but was cancelled due to the covid pandemic. ​

Additional Information

• National Games of India
• The National Games of India comprises various disciplines in which sportsmen from the different states of India participate against each other.
• The first such event was held in Lahore in the year 1924.
• The country's first few Olympic Games, now renamed as National Games, were held in North India (Delhi, Lahore, Allahabad, Patiala), Chennai, Calcutta, and Mumbai.
• For several years in the mid-twentieth century, the national games were conducted on a low-key note.
• However, the first Modern National Games on the lines of the Olympics were held in 1985 in New Delhi.

The correct answer is Tyndall effect. 

Key Points

• Tyndall effect: It is also known as Tyndall scattering. The scattering of light by particles in a colloid or else particles in a very fine suspension is called Tyndall effect.
• Under this effect, the longer wavelength light is more transmitted while the shorter wavelength light is more reflected.
• Scattering of light: The phenomenon in which the light ray is redirected in all other directions on passing through particles of dimensions comparable to the wavelength of the light used is called scattering of light.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Kuchipudi.

Key Points

• Kuchipudi
• ​Kuchipudi is a classical dance of Andhra Pradesh.
• Origin from the group of dancers going in the villages to perform known as Kusselavas.
• Kuchipudi derives its name from the village Kusselavapuri in Andhra Pradesh.
• Vijayanagar and Golconda rulers patronized the dance form.
• Famous dance Tarangam where the dancer performs with his feet on edge of brass plate and pot of water on the head.
• Stories from Bhagvat Purana on secular themes.
• Lasya(Soft element) and Tandava(Hard element) are important in Kuchipudi dance.

Additional Information

The correct answer is 107th.

Key Points

• India has been ranked 107th out of 121 countries in the 2022 Global Hunger Index (GHI) released on 14th October 2022.
• In 2021, India was ranked 101st out of 116 countries.
• India has fared poorer than its neighbors Pakistan (99th), Nepal (81st) and Bangladesh (84th).
• The index calculates the hunger levels and malnutrition across the world.
• Published by: Concern Worldwide and Welthungerhilfe.​
• Note :- India has been ranked 111 out of 125 countries in the 2023 Global Hunger Index (GHI)

Additional Information

• This year, the report accessed data from 136 countries but evaluated 121 of them.
• The Global Hunger Index score is calculated on four indicators – undernourishment, child wasting (the share of children under the age of five with low weight for their height), child stunting (children under the age of five with low height for their age) and child mortality (the mortality rate of children under the age of five).
• India’s global hunger index score is 29.1, which puts the country in the “serious” category of hunger problems.
• In 2021, India's score was 27.5.
• Lesser GHI score means better ranking in the index.
• Globally, 17 countries, including China, Hungary, Montenegro, Uzbekistan, Russia and Saudi Arabia, shared the top spot.
• No country has been placed in the extremely alarming category this year.

The correct answer is leukocytes.

Key Points

• White Blood Cells (WBCs)
• WBC-white blood cells are also called leukocytes or leucocytes.
• They are cells of the immune system, which is mainly responsible for:
• Protecting and fighting against invading pathogens.
• Stimulates the production of the progesterone hormone
• Play a vital role in the human reproductive system by producing a network of blood vessels within the ovary.
• On average, the total count of white blood cells in every microliter of blood ranges between 4 and 11 thousand, and a healthy person will produce around 80 to 100 billion white blood cells every day.
• The lifespan of white blood cells ranges between 13 and 20 days.
• White blood cells are nucleotide blood cells that are white in color, hence they are called white blood cells.
• These blood cells are characterized as granulocytes and agranulocytes.

<br>

Additional Information

• Blood
• It is the only fluid connective tissue, which functions by circulating and transporting oxygen, nutrients, and other essential minerals to various cells and tissues of our body.
• In humans, blood is mainly composed of plasma, blood cells, and platelets. Overall, blood makes up 7 to 8 percent of total body weight, and an average, healthy person possesses around 5 to 6 liters of blood.
• A drop of blood contains millions of red blood cells, thousands of white blood cells, and lakhs of blood platelets.
• Overall, a healthy adult human body comprises approximately 1.325 gallons of blood cells.
• Types of Blood Cells
• Erythrocytes (Red blood cells)
• Leucocytes (White blood cells)
• Thrombocytes (Blood Platelets)

Given:

The difference between the two numbers is 1140.

If 6% of one number is equal to 10% of the other number.

Calculation:

Let one number = x and other number = y

According to question

6x% = 10y%

3x = 5y 

x = 5y/3

Now, x - y = 1140

⇒ 5y/3 - y = 1140 

⇒ 2y/3 = 1140 

⇒ y/3 = 570 

⇒ y = 570 × 3 = 1710

Now, x = 5 × (1710/3)

⇒ x = 5 × 570 = 2850

∴ The greater number is 2850.

Given:

If the cost price of 15 articles is equal to the selling price of 10 articles

And the discount on 12 articles is equal to the profit on 4 articles. 

Formula used:

Profit % = (\frac{{\Pr ofit}}{{CP}} × 100)

Mark Price = Selling Price + Discount 

Discount % = (\frac{{Discount}}{{Markprice}} × 100)

Calculation:

Cost price of 15 articles = Selling price of 10 articles

⇒ CP × 15 = SP × 10

⇒ (CP/SP) = 2/3

Profit % = (1/2) × 100 = 50 %

Discount on 12 articles is equal to profit on 4 articles.

⇒ 12 M.P - 12 S.P = 4 S.P - 4 C.P

⇒ 3 M.P - 3 S.P = S.P - 2/3 S.P

⇒ 3 M.P = 10/3 S.P

⇒ M.P/S.P = 10/9

Discount % = [(10 - 9)/10] × 100 = 10 %

∴ Difference of Profit and Discount percent is (50 - 10) = 40 %

Shortcut Trick

Identify perfect squares between 20 and 70: 25, 36, 49, 64.

Count of numbers (n) = 4.

Sum = 25 + 36 + 49 + 64 = 174.

Average = 174 ÷ 4 = 43.5.

∴ The correct answer is 43.5.

Alternate Method

Given: Range is between 20 and 70.

Formula Used: Average = Sum of observations ÷ Number of observations

⇒ Perfect squares are numbers of the form n².

⇒ 5² = 25 (lies between 20 and 70)

⇒ 6² = 36 (lies between 20 and 70)

⇒ 7² = 49 (lies between 20 and 70)

⇒ 8² = 64 (lies between 20 and 70)

⇒ 9² = 81 (outside the range)

⇒ Sum = 25 + 36 + 49 + 64 = 174

⇒ Average = 174 ÷ 4 = 43.5

∴ The correct answer is 43.5.

Additional Information

Sum of first n square numbers

The sum of squares of first n natural numbers is given by [n(n + 1)(2n + 1)] ÷ 6.

Average of first n square numbers

The average of squares of first n natural numbers is [(n + 1)(2n + 1)] ÷ 6.

Perfect Square Property

A perfect square never ends with the digits 2, 3, 7, or 8 at the unit place.

Given:

Wall Dimensions = 50m × 30m × 40m

Brick Dimensions = 3m × 2m × 1m

Ordered Bricks = 6500

Formula used:

Volume of cuboid = length × breath × height

Calculations: 

Volume of Wall = 50m × 30m × 40m = 60000 m³

Volume of Single Brick = 3m × 2m × 1m = 6 m³

Total Bricks Required = Volume of Wall/Volume of Single Brick = 60000/6 = 10000 bricks

Additional Bricks Required = Total Bricks Required - Ordered Bricks = 10000 - 6500

Hence, the contractor would require 3500 more bricks.

Given:

Total mixture = 90 L

Initial ratio of milk and water = 4 : 5

Final ratio of milk and water = 5 : 4

Calculation:

Let, the added quantity of the milk = a 

Initial quantity of milk

⇒ 90 × 4/(4 + 5) = 90 × 4/9 = 40 L

Initial quantity of water

⇒ 90 × 5/(4 + 5) = 90 × 5/9 = 50 L

According to the question,

(40 + a) : 50 = 5 : 4

⇒ (40 + a)/50 = 5/4

⇒ (40 + a) × 4 = 5 × 50

⇒ 160 + 4a = 250

⇒ 4a = 250 - 160

⇒ a = 90/4 = 22.5 L

∴ The quantity of milk to be further added is 22.5 L.

Given:

Profit percentage increases from 15% to 40%.

SP is increased by 40%.

Concept used:

New = Initial × (100 + Increase%)/100

CP = SP × 100/(100 + Profit%)

Calculation:

Let, Initial CP of the article = 100 units

Initial SP = 100 × 115/100 = 115 units

After increment in SP,

New SP = 115 × 140/100 = 161 units

Now, New CP = 161 × 100/140 = 115 units

So, Increase in CP = (New CP - Initial CP)/Initial CP × 100

⇒ (115 - 100)/100 × 100 = 15%

∴ The percentage increase in the cost price is 15%.

Given:

Jai can complete a work in 20 days.

Naresh can complete the work in 30 days.

Sunil can complete the same work in 60 days.

Jai started the work alone on the first day.

Every alternate day, Jai is assisted by Naresh and Sunil.

Concept used:

Efficiency = 1-day work

Required time = Total work/Efficiency

Calculation:

Total work = LCM of (20, 30, 60) = 60 units

1-day work of (Jai + Naresh + Sunil) = 3 + 2 + 1 = 6 units

Back to back 2 days of work

⇒ 1-day work of Jai + 1-day work of (Jai + Naresh + Sunil)

⇒ 3 + (3 + 2 + 1) = 3 + 6 = 9 units

54 is the last number divisible by 9, which is less than 60.

So, 12 days of work = 6 pairs of days work  = 6 × 9 = 54 units

Remaining work = 60 - 54 = 6 units

Jai does 3 units of work on (12 + 1) = 13th day

Now, last remaining work = 6 - 3 = 3 units

Three of them completed the last remaining work in

⇒ 3/6 = 1/2 days

So, Total no. of days = 12 + 1 + 1/2 = (13\frac{1}{2}) days

∴ In (13\frac{1}{2}) days Jai will complete the work, as per the given condition.

Given:

Expression, (\rm x+\frac{1}{x}=6 ) and (\rm y=\frac{2^{18}+2^{20}+2^{22}}{2^{20}+2^{22}+2^{24}})

Concept used:

a^m + a^m+n + a^m+p = a^m(1 + aⁿ + a^p)

a^m/aⁿ = a^m-n

a^-m = 1/a^m

Calculation:

We have (\rm x+\frac{1}{x}=6 )

Squaring both sides

⇒ x² + 1 = 6x     -----(1)

Now, (\rm y=\frac{2^{18}+2^{20}+2^{22}}{2^{20}+2^{22}+2^{24}})

⇒ (\rm y=\frac{2^{18}(1+2^{2}+2^{4})}{2^{20}(1+2^{2}+2^{4})})

⇒ (\rm y=\frac{2^{18}}{2^{20}})

⇒ y = 2^18-20

⇒ y = 2^-2 = 1/(2²)

⇒ y = 1/4 = 0.25     -----(2)

Now the expression (\rm \frac{3x}{2x^2+2-5x}:y) can be written as

⇒ (\rm \frac{3x}{2(x^2+1)-5x}:y)

Put the values from equation(1) and equation(2)

⇒ (\rm \frac{3x}{2(6x)-5x}:0.25)

⇒ 3x/7x : 0.25

⇒ 3/7 : 0.25 = 12 : 7

Hence, the required ratio is 12 : 7.

Given:

LCM of two prime numbers = 667

Prime number x > y

Concept used:

If the LCM of two prime numbers x and y is N

Then, x and y must be distinct prime factors of N.

Calculation:

The prime factorization of 667 = 23 × 29

We have x > y

Therefore, x = 29 and y = 23

Put the values in the expression 5y - 3x

⇒ (5 × 23) - (3 × 29)

⇒ 115 - 87

⇒ 28

Hence, the value of 5y - 3x is 28.

Shortcut Trick

Total Work (LCM of 15, 20) = 60 units.

Efficiency: A = 4 units/day, B = 3 units/day.

Work done in 2 days (A + B) = 4 + 3 = 7 units.

In 8 days (4 cycles of 2 days), work done = 4 × 7 = 28 units.

Unfinished part = (60 − 28) ÷ 60 = 32/60 = 8/15.

∴ The correct answer is 8/15.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by A = 15 days

Time taken by B = 20 days

Total duration of work = 8 days (alternate starts with A)

Calculations:

⇒ Total work = LCM(15, 20) = 60 units.

⇒ Efficiency of A = 60 ÷ 15 = 4 units/day.

⇒ Efficiency of B = 60 ÷ 20 = 3 units/day.

⇒ Work on Day 1 (A) = 4 units.

⇒ Work on Day 2 (B) = 3 units.

⇒ Work in first 2-day cycle = 4 + 3 = 7 units.

⇒ Total work done in 8 days (4 cycles) = 4 × 7 = 28 units.

⇒ Remaining work = Total Work − Completed Work = 60 − 28 = 32 units.

⇒ Part of work unfinished = Remaining work ÷ Total work = 32 ÷ 60.

⇒ Unfinished part = 8/15.

∴ The correct answer is 8/15.

Additional Information

Alternate Day Work

In alternate day problems, calculate the work done in one full cycle (e.g., 2 days for 2 people) and then multiply by the number of complete cycles within the given time.

Work-Efficiency Relation

Total Work = Efficiency × Time. Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken to complete the work (Efficiency ∝ 1/Time).

Leftover Work Fraction

Fraction of work left = (Total Work − Work Done) ÷ Total Work. To find the part completed, use (Work Done ÷ Total Work).

Calculation:

Let the number be N.

15% × (55% × N) = 2475

⇒ 15/100 × 55 N/100 = 2475 

⇒ N = (2475 × 100 × 100)/(15 × 55)

⇒ N = (2475 × 20 × 20)/(3 × 11)

⇒ N = 75 × 20 × 20 

⇒ N = 30,000

Now, 41% of that number is:

⇒ 30,000 × 41/100 

⇒ 300 × 41

⇒ 12,300

∴ The 41% of the number is 12,300.

Given:

Initial ratio of two numbers is 5 : 4

y is subtracted from each of the two numbers then the ratio becomes 2 : 1 

Calculation:

Let the two numbers be 5x and 4x.

According to the question,

(5x - y)/(4x - y) = 2/1

⇒ 5x - y = 8x - 2y

⇒ 3x = y     -----(1)

Now, The ratio when y is added to the two numbers,

⇒ (5x + y) : (4x + y)

Take the value of y from equation (1), we get

⇒ (5x + 3x) : (4x + 3x)

⇒ 8x : 7x

⇒ 8 : 7

∴ The ratio of the two numbers when y added to them is 8 : 7

Shortcut Trick

Total Work (LCM of 20, 30) = 60 units.

Efficiency: A = 3 units/day, B = 2 units/day.

Work done in 5 days: A = 3 × 5 = 15 units; B = 2 × 5 = 10 units.

Remaining work done by C = 60 − (15 + 10) = 35 units.

Payment Ratio (Work Done) = 15 : 10 : 35 = 3 : 2 : 7.

∴ The correct answer is 3 : 2 : 7.

Alternate Method

Given: Time taken by A = 20 days, B = 30 days. They work together for 5 days. C finishes the rest.

Formula: Payment is distributed in the ratio of the Total Work done by each individual.

⇒ Work done by A in 5 days = Efficiency × Time = 3 × 5 = 15 units.

⇒ Work done by B in 5 days = Efficiency × Time = 2 × 5 = 10 units.

⇒ Total work done by A and B together = 15 + 10 = 25 units.

⇒ Remaining work completed by C = Total Work − Work done by (A + B)

⇒ Work done by C = 60 − 25 = 35 units.

⇒ Ratio of Payment = Work done by A : Work done by B : Work done by C

⇒ Ratio = 15 : 10 : 35

⇒ Dividing by common factor 5: Ratio = 3 : 2 : 7.

∴ The correct answer is 3 : 2 : 7.

Additional Information

Wages and Work Done

Wages are always distributed in direct proportion to the actual work performed by each person, not necessarily their individual efficiencies unless they work for the same duration.

Efficiency and Time

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken to complete a task. Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time Taken.

Combined Work Rule

If multiple people work together, their combined efficiency is the sum of their individual efficiencies (Units/Day).

Given:

SI on ₹6000 in 4 years at R% = SI on ₹9000 in 2 years at 12%

Formula Used:

SI = PRT/100

Where, P = Principal, R = Rate, T = Time(in years)

Calculation:

According to the question

(\frac{6000\times R\times 4}{100}) = (\frac{9000\times 12\times 2}{100}) 

⇒ R = (\frac{9\times 12\times 2}{6\times4}) = 9%

∴ The value of R is 9%.

Given:

(32)√x = 41√x - 40√x    

Concept used:

We will follow the options eliminated method.

Calculation:

According to the Option 3

If x² = 16

⇒ x = 4

Put the value in the equation.

⇒ 9^√4 = 41^√4 - 40^√4

⇒ 9² = 41² - 40²

⇒ 81 = 1681 - 1600

⇒ 81 = 81

Hence option 3 is fit to the equation.

According to the option 1

x² = 4

x = 2 

option 1 does not fit the equation because 2 is not a perfect square.

option 2 and 4 also do not fit the equation because they are also not a perfect square.

∴ The correct answer is 16

Shortcut Trick

Since the time of travel is constant for both trains, the distance ratio is equal to the speed ratio.

Speed ratio (Train 1 : Train 2) = 10 : 27

Difference in distance units = 27 − 10 = 17 units

17 units = 340 km → 1 unit = 20 km

Total distance = (10 + 27) units = 37 units = 37 × 20 km = 740 km

∴ The correct answer is 740 km.

Alternate Method

Given: Speed_A = 10 km/h, Speed_B = 27 km/h, Distance difference = 340 km

Formula: Distance = Speed × Time

Let the time after which they meet be 't' hours.

⇒ Distance covered by first train (d₁) = 10 × t

⇒ Distance covered by second train (d₂) = 27 × t

⇒ According to the question: d₂ − d₁ = 340

⇒ 27t − 10t = 340

⇒ 17t = 340

⇒ t = 20 hours

⇒ Total Distance = d₁ + d₂ = 10t + 27t = 37t

⇒ Total Distance = 37 × 20 = 740 km

∴ The correct answer is 740 km.

Additional Information

Relative Speed

When two objects move towards each other, their relative speed is the sum of their individual speeds (S₁ + S₂).

Meeting Time Formula

Time taken to meet = (Initial distance between them) ÷ (Relative Speed).

Constant Time Property

When time is constant, the ratio of distances covered is directly proportional to the ratio of their speeds (D₁/D₂ = S₁/S₂).

Given:

Average weight of X, Y, Z = 50 kg

Average weight of X, Y = 44.5 kg

Average weight of Y, Z = 53.5 kg

Weights of X, Y, Z are represented by p, q, r respectively.

Concept used:

Concept Used: Weighted Averages.

Calculation:

According to the question,

The Average weight of X, Y, and Z = 50 kg

⇒ p + q + r = 50 × 3

⇒ p + q + r = 150      .....(1)

The average weight of X and Y = 44.5 kg

⇒ p + q = 44.5 × 2

⇒ p + q = 89     .....(2)

The average weight of Y and Z = 53.5 kg

⇒ q + r = 53.5 × 2

⇒ q + r = 107     .....(3)

Solving these equations,

Subtract equation 2 from equation 1,

⇒ r = (p + q + r ) - (p + q)

⇒ r = 150 - 89 = 61     .....(4)

Subtract equation 4 from equation 3,

⇒ (q + r) - (r)

⇒ q = 107 - 61 = 46     .....(5)

Substitute q's value in equation 2,

⇒ p + q = 89

⇒ p + 46 = 89

⇒ p = 89 - 46  = 43     .....(6)

To get (\rm \frac{p+q}{r}) ,

⇒ (\rm \frac{43 + 46 }{61} ) = 1.46 (to 2 decimal places)

∴ The value of  (\rm \frac{p+q}{r}) correct to two decimal places, is 1.46

Given:

1 + 4 + 9 + 16 + 25 + ..... + 81 + 100 + 81 + ...... + 16 + 9 + 4 + 1 

Concept used:

Sum of Square of 1^st  'n' natural numbers is given by

12 + 22 + 32 + ..... + n2 = (\frac{n(n+1)(2n+1)}{6})

Calculation:

According to the question,

1 + 4 + 9 + 16 + 25 + ..... + 81 + 100 + 81 + ..... + 16 + 9 + 4 + 1

⇒ 2 (1 + 4 + 9 + 16 + 25 + ..... + 81) + 100

⇒ 2 (1² + 2² + 3² + 4² + .... + 9²) + 100

By using the formula for sum of squares of 1^st  '9' natural numbers,

⇒ 2 ( [\frac{9(9+1)(18 +1)}{6}]) + 100

⇒ 2 ((\frac{9; \times ;10 ;\times ;19}{6} )) + 100 

⇒ 570 + 100 = 670

∴ The sum of the given series is 670.

Given:

The distance between two trains A & B is 530 km

The speed of train A is 90 km/h

Speed of train B is 90 km/h

Formula Used:

Distance = Time × Speed

Calculation:

Train A, 1 hours distance = 1 × 90 = 90 km 

So, train A started time is 10:00 A.M.

Remaining distance = 530 - 90 = 440 km

Time = 440/(90 + 90)

Time = 440/180 = 22/9 hour

Train meet after 22/9 hours after 10:00 A.M.

⇒ Time they meet = 10:00 A.M. + 22/9 hours

22/9 hours = (2\frac{4}{9})hours = 2 hours, 26 minutes and 40 seconds 

since,

4/9 hours × 60 minutes = 80/3 min = 26 (\frac{2}{3}) min

2/3 min = 2/3 × 60 = 120/3 = 40 sec

⇒ So, they meet at 12:26:40 P.M.

∴ Train meet after 12:26:40 P.M. hours after 10:00 A.M.

Given : 

Principal = Rs. 64000

Rate = 5% per annum

Time = 3/2

Calculation : 

Since the interest is paid half yearly.

So, Time = 3 years, Rate = 2.5%

2.5% = 1/40

According to the question:

P :  A 

⇒ (40)³ : (41)³

⇒ 64000 : 68921

⇒ 64000 unit = 64000

⇒ 1 unit = 1

Interest  = 68,921 - 64,000 = 4,921

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 4,921.

Given: Seven members (A, B, C, D, E, F, G) are sitting in a row facing north.

Only two people sit to the left of E. F sits to the immediate right of E.

G sits at the extreme left end of the row.

C sits to the immediate left of B. D is not sitting at the extreme end of the row.

Neither A nor D is the immediate neighbour of the person placed exactly in the middle of the row.

A is sitting at the extreme right end of the row.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The logic followed here is:

Asha is sitting at 532 from the right and 462 from the left end.

Total number of person in that row = Rank of Asha from Right + Rank of Asha from Left - 1.

= 532 + 462 - 1

= 994 - 1

= 993.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The logic followed here is:

The Rank of Soumya from the left end = 17th.

The Rank of Kiran from the right end = 37th.

The Rank of Soumya from the right end = Rank of Kiran from the right end - 13th.

37 - 13 = 24th.

Total number of person in the row = Rank of Soumya from the left end + Rank of Soumya from the right end - 1.

= 17 + 24 - 1 = 40.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The position and positional values of English Alphabets are as follows:

The logic followed here is:

For, 'BLOCK' is written as 'ELUCT'.

For, 'FLANK' is written as 'ILGNT'.

Similarly, 'WHILE' will be:

Thus, 'WHILE' can be written as 'ZHOLN'.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Given Equation: 181 * 7 * 9 * 18 * 9 = 120

BODMAS Rule:

Let's check each option one by one:

Option 1) ÷ × + −

Given: 181 * 7 * 9 * 18 * 9 = 120

After replacing * signs we get;

⇒ 181 ÷ 7 × 9 + 18 - 9 = 120

⇒ 25.8 × 9 + 18 - 9 = 120

⇒ 232.2 + 18 - 9 = 120

⇒ 250.2 - 9 = 241.2

⇒ 241.2 ≠ 120.

Option 2) − × + ÷ 

Given: 181 * 7 * 9 * 18 * 9 = 120

After replacing * signs we get;

⇒ 181 - 7 × 9 + 18 ÷ 9 = 120

⇒ 181 - 7 × 9 + 2 = 120

⇒ 181 + 2 - 63 = 120

⇒ 183 - 63 = 120

⇒ 120 = 120.

Option 3) + × ÷ −

Given: 181 * 7 * 9 * 18 * 9 = 120

After replacing * signs we get;

⇒ 181 + 7 × 9  ÷ 18 - 9 = 120

⇒ 181 + 7 × 0.5 - 9 = 120

⇒ 181 + 3.5 - 9 = 120

⇒ 184.5 - 9 = 175.5

⇒ 175.5  ≠ 120.

Option 4) × + − ÷

Given: 181 * 7 * 9 * 18 * 9 = 120

After replacing * signs we get;

⇒ 181 × 7 + 9 - 18 ÷  9 = 120

⇒ 181 × 7 + 9 - 2 = 120

⇒ 1267 + 9 - 2 = 120

⇒ 1276 - 2 = 120

⇒ 1276 ≠ 120.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Statements: D > T ≤ B > A, P ≤ R > S ≠ D

After combining the statements, we get: P ≤ R > S ≠ D > T ≤ B > A

Conclusions: 

1. P ≠ D → This does not follow as (P ≤ R > S ≠ D, there is no definite relation can be forms between P and D).

2. T = A → This does not follow as (T ≤ B > A, there is no definite relation can be forms between T and A).

Thus, None of the conclusion follow.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some books are yellow → Does not follow (As, there is no definite relation given between Books and Yellow, so it can be possible only).

II. Some purses are papers → Follows (The part of paper which also yellow is purse as it is given in statement that some paper are yellow).

Thus, only conclusion II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Given:

Diksha walks 20 m towards the south, turns left and walks 30 m, after which, she turns right and walks 30 m.

Again, She turns right and walks 30 m, after which, she takes a final right turn and walks 20 m.

The Distance between the Starting point and Final point is 30m.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The logic followed here is:

1. Chisel: a tool with a sharp end that is used for cutting or shaping wood or stone.

2. Rake: a garden tool with a long handle and a row of metal teeth, used for collecting leaves or making the earth smooth.
3. Sickle: a tool with a short handle and a long, curved metal part with a sharp edge (a blade) that is used for cutting long grass, corn, etc.
4. Shovel: a tool used for picking up and moving earth, snow, sand, etc.

Here, Except "Chisel" all the three are tools used in garden. Chisel is used in cutting or shaping wood or stone.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Family Chart:

Given:

Veer is the brother of Rohan and Hari. Rita is Hari’s mother and Ram is Rohan’s father.

So, Veer is the son of Ram.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The position and positional value of English Alphabets are:

The logic followed here is:

For, ‘BUREAU’ is written as ‘RUBUAE’

For, ‘NUMBER’ is written as ‘MUNREB’

Similarly, 'DETECT' will be written as:

So, 'DETECT' will be written as 'TEDTCE'.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The logic followed here is:

So, 66 will complete the series.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The logic followed here is: (Number)³ - 1 = Terms of series.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Given: Eight friends - A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, sitting around a circular table, facing centre.

E sits second to the right of G.

Only three people sit between F and E.

B is immediate the neighbour of E but not D.

A sits second, to the right of B.

Case I:

Case II:

C sits third to the left of D.

H and C are not immediate neighbours of each other.

Case I:

Case II:

Case II, Contradicts H and C are not immediate neighbour of each other.

Hence, Case II becomes false.

So, the final arrangement is:

From Case I, G is sitting between D and H when counted from right of D.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Given: 9 $D 8 @ 7 H$ 9 % 8 # Q 6 R & P T & 6

Symbols in the following string which are exactly preceded by a letter but NOT followed by a number.

9 $ D 8 @ 7 H % Y 3 G 5 $ 9 % 8 # Q 6 R & P T & 6.

So, there are '2 Symbols' which are preceded by a letter but NOT followed by a number.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Given: 8 W H 6 T 8 4 G 9 E R 6 K 5 L Q 7 U P 3

Letters which are followed by a number:

8 W H 6 T 8 4 G 9 E R 6 K 5 L Q 7 U P 3.

So, we can say the there are '7 letters' in the given string which are followed by number.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The position and positional values of English Alphabets are as follows:

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

BODMAS Rule:

Given: 198.98 − (98.89 + 9.98) + 9 − 1.89 + 9.09 = ? 

Taking approximate values,

⇒199 - (99 + 10) + 9 - 2 + 9 = ?

⇒199 - 109 + 9 - 2 + 9 = ?

Arranging the equation: 

⇒199 + 9 + 9 - 109 - 2 = ?

⇒217 - 109 -2 = ?

⇒108 - 2 = 106.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Words are synonyms of each other.

• Stop : Cease → Stop is the synonym of Cease.

Similarly,

• Start : ? → Start is the synonym of Commence.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The logic followed here is:

1. Female Peacock: are able to fly.
2. Sparrow: are able to fly high.

3.Hen: are able fly short distance.

4. Ostrich: are unable to fly, they can run fast as they have long legs.

All are flying birds except 'Ostrich'.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The correct answer is "Chromotherapy is based on the fact that various lights have definitive energy bands and are linked to various organs of the body and can help to heal them."

Key Points

• Let's dive deeper into the grammatical structure of Option 2: Chromotherapy is based on the fact that various lights have definitive energy bands and are linked to various organs of the body and can help to heal them.
• "Chromotherapy is based on the fact that..." - This is the introductory clause for the sentence, setting up the subject matter (chromotherapy) and its underlying principle.
• "...various lights have definitive energy bands..." - This part of the sentence details the mechanism involved in the functioning of chromotherapy. It implies that particular lights have certain specific energy bands.
• "and are linked to various organs of the body..." - This continuation further explains that these various lights correlate to distinct organs in the human body. The use of "and" here connects this idea with the previous one, indicating that both occur concurrently.
• "...and can help to heal them." - Lastly, this segment implies the healing effect that chromotherapy may have on the organs of the body. The use of the second "and" connects this final result with the preceding set of actions - having energy bands and being linked to various organs.
• The sentence is grammatically correct as it possesses a clear structure, maintains subject-verb agreement, and uses conjunctions appropriately to link related ideas.
• Moreover, it avoids ambiguity, presenting the information about chromotherapy in a logical and easily understood manner.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct answer is "seldom".

Key Points

• The term "seldom" is an adverb, and, in the context of the sentence, it modifies the verb "disagree."
• Adverbs can modify verbs, adjectives, or other adverbs.
• When an adverb modifies a verb, as in this case, it is explaining when, where, how, or to what degree the verb action occurs.
• "Seldom" is a type of adverb that is indicative of the frequency of an occurrence.
• Specifically, "seldom" indicates that something does not happen very often or only happens rarely.
• In the sentence, "Rajat and Sanjeev seldom disagree on trivial matters and seem to be excellent friends," the adverb "seldom" is telling us about the frequency of the verb "disagree."
• It's saying that Rajat and Sanjeev do not disagree very often — they rarely, or seldom, disagree.
• It thus helps to paint a more accurate picture of Rajat and Sanjeev's relationship, suggesting that the rarity of their disagreements is indicative of their excellent friendship.
• So, the role of the adverb "seldom" in this sentence is to provide more detail about how frequently (or in this case, infrequently) the action of the verb it's modifying — "disagree" — occurs.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Additional Information

• The options are:
• "trivial" - This is an adjective describing the noun "matters."
• "disagree" - This is a verb in the sentence. It is the action that Rajat and Sanjeev "seldom" execute.
• "excellent" - This is an adjective used to describe the noun "friends."

The correct answer is "(2)".

Key Points

• The sentence is:"Either my aunt or (1) / my cousin have (2) / the cookbook my (3) / uncle wrote. (4)"
• Here, the part that contains the error is "my cousin have".
• The error here is about subject-verb agreement.
• When we use "either/or" or "neither/nor" in a sentence, the verb should agree with the nearest subject.
• "My cousin" is a singular subject, therefore it requires a singular verb.
• The verb "have" is plural, so it does not match the singular subject "my cousin".
• So the correct sentence should be: "Either my aunt or my cousin has the cookbook my uncle wrote."

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct answer is "Atheist".

Key Points

• Let's go through each option and find the correct one:
• Atheist - An atheist is someone who does not believe in God or gods.
• They reject or lack the belief in the existence of deities.
• This matches the description of 'A person who does not believe in there being any God.'
• Pantheist - A pantheist is a person who believes that God is not a personality, but that all laws, forces, manifestations, etc. of the self-existing universe are God.
• Essentially, they believe that God is all, and all is God. This does not match our description.
• Antipathy - This is not a person but a noun representing a deep-seated feeling of dislike; aversion.
• This cannot represent the group of words we are looking for.
• Antisocial - An antisocial person is a person who avoids social interaction or may act in a way that is contrary to society's norms.
• This term refers to social behavior, not to religious or spiritual beliefs, thus it doesn't fit the description 'A person who does not believe in there being any God.'
• In conclusion, the correct answer is "Atheist."
• The term 'atheist' refers to someone who specifically does not believe in the existence of any deity, aligning with the provided phrase 'A person who does not believe in there being any God.'

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The correct answer is "the".

Key Points

• Definite articles are used to specify or make clear references to particular instances of a noun, as opposed to indefinite articles ("a" and "an"), which are employed when making non-specific or general references.
• In the context of this sentence, we're referring to the Moon, a unique entity that orbits our planet, Earth.
• Given its unique status (as the only moon of Earth known to humans) and the globally shared understanding of which moon is being referred to when someone says "the Moon," the definite article "the" is the appropriate choice.
• If we were talking about any moon in a general sense, such as a moon of another planet, then we might use the indefinite article 'a.'
• However, in this context, we are referring specifically to the Earth's moon, which is a unique entity.
• That's why we say "the Moon" and not merely "a moon."
• So, the filled sentence correctly reads: "Today, man has reached the Moon and you still believe in superstitions?"

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2". 

Additional Information

• "an" - This is used before words that begin with a vowel sound, and it's incorrect to use "an" before "moon."
• "a" - This is used before words that begin with a consonant sound.
• It's used to refer to a non-specific or non-particular entity of a group or class.
• However, considering that we have one specific moon in the context of Earth, this is not a correct choice.

The correct answer is "Itinerary".

Key Points

• Let's examine each option:
• "Arbitaraty" - This is not spelled correctly. The correct spelling is "arbitrary."
• "Confidantial" - This is also spelled incorrectly. The correct spelling is "confidential."
• "Itinerary" - This is spelled correctly. "Itinerary" is a planned route or journey.
• "Mandatery" - This is spelled incorrectly. The correct spelling is "mandatory."
• So, the correct answer is "Itinerary," which is spelled correctly.
• The word "itinerary" refers to a detailed plan or route of a journey.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct answer is "Studies in psychology show that an untroubled mind very soon becomes stagnant."

Key Points

• In English, a basic sentence needs to have a discernible structure that includes a subject, a verb, and often an object. Additionally, a sentence needs to communicate a complete thought.
• Breaking this sentence down, we can observe the following:
• "Studies in psychology" is the subject of the sentence. It demonstrates what we are talking about.
• "show" is the verb or the action word in the sentence. This verb is linking the subject "Studies in psychology" to the rest of the sentence, telling us what these studies do or demonstrate.
• The rest of the sentence, "that an untroubled mind very soon becomes stagnant," works as the object in this sentence.
• It's the thing or idea that the verb is acting upon. This part is a dependent clause using 'that' as a conjunction to create cohesion in the sentence. The clause explains what the "studies in psychology" show.
• So the entire sentence is saying, quite clearly and logically, that according to psychological studies, an untroubled (or undisturbed or unchallenged) mind can quickly become stagnant, or inactive and unchanging.
• The sentence is grammatically correct, structured logically, and conveys a complete and coherent thought.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The correct answer is "(4)".

Key Points

• In general, there are two ways to report someone's words: direct speech and indirect (or reported) speech.
• In direct speech, we simply repeat the exact words someone said.
• These words are enclosed in inverted commas (also known as quotation marks) to show they are someone else's exact words.
• For example:
• He said, "I am going to the library."
• Here, "I am going to the library" is exactly what the person said, and it is enclosed within inverted commas.
• On the other hand, in indirect or reported speech, we convey the same information but in our own words and without using quotation marks.
• The sentence typically needs to be adjusted for changes in tense, pronouns, and words indicating time and place.
• Using the previous example, the indirect form of this would be: He said that he was going to the library.
• From the above explanation it is clear that the given sentence is in direct narration. So the sentence will be enclosed by inverted commas.
• The correct sentence will be: The headmaster said to the student, “Yes, you may come in."

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The correct answer is "Numismatist". 

Key Points

• Let's go through each option:
• "Coinologist" - This term does not exist. There is no specific term called "coinologist" in English to denote a collector of coins.
• "Philatelist" - A philatelist is a person who collects or studies stamps. Therefore, this term does not fit the description of a collector of coins.
• "Numismatist" - A numismatist is a person who collects or studies money (and coins in particular). This term accurately represents a collector of coins.
• "Philanthropist" - A philanthropist is someone who seeks to promote the welfare of others, typically by the generous donation of money to good causes. This term doesn't fit the context in reference here.
• Therefore, the correct single-word substitution for "a collector of coins" is "Numismatist".
• Numismatics is the study or collection of currency, including coins, tokens, paper money, and related objects, and a person engaged in these activities is known as a numismatist.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct answer is "Livelihood".

Key Points

• Let's discuss each option for the idiom "bread and butter":
• Livelihood - This option is the most suitable interpretation of "bread and butter" when used as an idiom.
• This phrase often refers to the main source of income, the work that someone relies on to make the money they need to live or survive.
• Simplicity - Although bread and butter themselves are simple, everyday items, when used as an idiom, "bread and butter" does not specifically refer to the concept of simplicity.
• Food - While 'bread and butter' are indeed types of food, as an idiomatic phrase, this meaning doesn't hold.
• Basic understanding - This interpretation does not coincide with the idiom 'bread and butter.'
• The phrase doesn't relate to knowledge or comprehension but more to a person's means of earning a living.
• In conclusion, "Livelihood" is the most accurate interpretation of the idiom "bread and butter."
• As an idiom, it's often used to express the idea of a job or activity that provides one with a steady income, not merely the food items bread and butter themselves.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The correct answer is "eat; your; from".

Key Points

• The filled sentence with option 1 "eat; your; from" is: 
• "After you eat a meal or a snack, your pancreas releases more insulin to make sure the extra glucose in your bloodstream can enter your cells. If you have more glucose than you need, your body can remove the excess from your blood and store it in your liver and muscles or convert it to fat."
• Here's why each chosen word is correct:
• "eat" - This term, referring to the consumption of food, fits most naturally in the sentence.
• The other possible verbs ("devour", "consume", "gobble") can also mean to eat, but they have additional connotations (eating heartily, quickly or a lot) that aren't necessary for the process being described.
• "your" - This is the correct possessive pronoun to use when referring to someone's own cells.
• The use of “your” naturally relates the cells to the person who has eaten the meal or snack, maintaining the sentence's coherence.
• "from" - This preposition appropriately establishes that excess glucose is removed "from your blood."
• Together, these words most accurately present the biological process that occurs after eating.
• The subject is the person eating ("you"), and the objects of the sentence—the cells, the pancreas, the insulin, and the glucose—all belong to that person, which justifies the use of the possessive pronoun "your".
• This sentence accurately and clearly explains a physiological response to eating food.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The correct answer is "constant". 

Key Points

• The word "fleeting" is an adjective that means lasting for a very short time or brief.
• It's used to describe things that occur quickly and then disappear or are over.
• The word "constant," on the other hand, means persisting over time, without interruption, or staying the same.
• It implies something stable, unchanging, or enduring.
• Thus, "constant" serves as an ideal antonym for "fleeting."
• While "fleeting" communicates transience or briefness, "constant" communicates continuity or permanence, making these terms opposites in terms of the duration they represent.
• In the context of the sentence "Tarana needs __________(fleeting) attention: she is such a spoilt, fussy woman," the word "constant" suggests that Tarana requires ongoing, steady attention, which is the opposite of needing only brief or fleeting attention.
• Therefore, "constant" effectively contrasts the meaning of "fleeting" and correctly fills in the blank as an antonym of "fleeting."

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Additional Information

• "same" - This term is not synonymous with "fleeting," but nor is it its antonym.
• "Fleeting" refers to something brief or quick, while "same" refers to the quality of being identical or consistent.
• "flexible" - "Flexible" does not function as an antonym for "fleeting".
• It refers to a quality of adaptability or versatility, rather than a measurement of time.
• "varying" - "Varying" suggests changeability, which is also not the antonym for "fleeting".

The correct answer is "an;an". 

Key Points

• In English, we use "a" and "an" before singular, countable nouns.
• The choice between "a" and "an" depends on the sound that begins the next word.
• "an" - We use this article before words where the first letter has a vowel sound.
• So, before "army," the correct article is "an" because "army" starts with a vowel sound.
• "a" - We use this article before words where the first letter has a consonant sound.
• When we read "M.B.A.," the first letter "M" is pronounced "em," which begins with a vowel sound, but we read "M.B.A." as an initialism—it's spoken by saying each letter separately (em-bee-ay), as opposed to an acronym like NASA, which is spoken like a word.
• So the first sound we hear when we say "M.B.A." is "em," which is a vowel sound.
• So, the grammatically correct sentence would be: "Suman’s father is an army brigadier whereas her sister is an M.B.A."

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct answer is "Cortege".

Key Points

• "Cortege" - This word is indeed a one-word substitute for "a slowly moving line of people or cars at a funeral."
• The term specifically refers to a procession of mourners at a funeral or the vehicles in such a procession.
• So the sentence would read: "Finally, Mr. Yuvraj Narsinghani passed by the cortege."

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Additional Information

• "Caravan" - Normally refers to a group of traveling people and vehicles, riverboats, etc., moving together.
• It doesn't specifically signify a funeral context.
• "Posse" - It usually suggests a group gathered together for a particular purpose, often related to law enforcement.
• This doesn't directly relate to a funeral procession.
• "Procession" - 'Procession' is a general term for people or vehicles moving along in an orderly way, but it does not specifically imply a funeral.

The correct answer is "Cultivated". 

Key Points

• Let's examine each option:
• "Conspicuous" - This term generally means something easily visible or noticeable; it doesn't directly refer to manners or refinement, so it's not an antonym of "uncouth," which refers to a lack of good manners, refinement, or grace.
• "Barbaric" - This describes behavior that is savage, cruel, or inhuman.
• This is closer to a synonym, rather than an antonym, for "uncouth."
• "Cultivated" - This word refers to something or someone refined, cultured, or well-educated.
• This is clearly an antonym of "uncouth," which describes someone who is lacking in sophistication, refinement, or manners.
• "Covered" - This word generally means something concealed or protected; it has no direct opposite link with "uncouth."
• Therefore, the most accurate antonym for "uncouth" from the given options is "Cultivated".
• In detail, "uncouth" refers to being awkward, clumsy, or lacking in sophistication or good manners.
• It often characterizes an individual who is uncultured, crude, or rough.
• Conversely, "cultivated" refers to a person who is well-educated, mannered, polished, and shows sophistication.
• It represents an individual who has been trained or influenced, often in terms of manners and taste, suggesting a refined and socially comfortable nature.
• This makes "cultivated" a suitable antonym for "uncouth".

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct answer is "bring". 

Key Points

• The correct form of the verb to use in the sentence is "bring".
• ​The full sentence reads, "I did not bring the laptop with me, so I cannot update the file."
• This is because the sentence is written in the past tense using the auxiliary verb (or "helper verb") "did".
• When "did" is used in the past simple tense, it's usually coupled with the base form of the main verb.
• Here, "bring" is the base form of the main verb.

So, the correct answer is "Option 3". 

Additional Information

• "had brought" is past perfect tense, used for actions completed before a point in the past. This doesn't fit here.
• "bringed" is not correct English. The correct past tense of bring is brought.
• "brought" is the past tense form of "bring" and cannot be used with "did".
• ​It would make the sentence "I did not brought", which is grammatically incorrect.

The correct answer is "to". 

Key Points

• The correct preposition to fill in the blank is "to".
• "We are not oblivious to the dangers that lie in our path."
• Explanation: Prepositions are connecting words in English that typically describe two things: time (when something happened) and place (where something is).
• They can also denote a relationship between different entities in a sentence.
• In this sentence, we are stating that "we" (the subject) are not unaware of (or oblivious to) the dangers.
• When the word 'oblivious' is used in English, the preposition that typically follows it is 'to'.
• The phrase 'oblivious to' means 'unaware of' or 'not conscious of'.
• So the correct form of the sentence is: "We are not oblivious to the dangers that lie in our path."

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Additional Information

• As for the other options:
• "on" would be used to denote something is on top of a surface or to indicate a manner or state.
• It is not typically used to show awareness or recognition.
• "at" is used to point towards a specific target.
• It is not typically used to show awareness or recognition.
• "from" is used to denote separating or removing something.
• Again, it is not typically used with 'oblivious'.

The correct answer is "Discripancy". 

Key Points

• The correct spelling should be "Discrepancy".
• Spelling errors can occur for numerous reasons, including unfamiliarity with a word's proper spelling, typographical errors, or a lack of attention to detail.
• Let's evaluate each option:
• "Florid" is correctly spelled. It's an adjective that means excessively ornate or intricate.
• "Discripancy" is spelled incorrectly. The correct spelling is "Discrepancy", which is a noun meaning an inconsistency or a lack of compatibility between two or more facts.
• "Emulate" is correctly spelled. It's a verb that means to match or try to surpass typically by imitation.
• "Insular" is correctly spelled. As an adjective, it can mean ignorant of or indifferent to cultures outside one's own experience, or it can refer to something characteristic of an isolated community.
• So, the word "Discripancy" is incorrectly spelled - the actual spelling should be "Discrepancy".

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct answer is "half a loaf is better than nore". 

Key Points

• The most suitable proverb to fill in the blank is "half a loaf is better than none."
• The full sentence says, "Aryan should be happy with the job he got after struggling without an income for five years, and not complain about the low salary. After all, half a loaf is better than none."
• Proverbs are traditional sayings that express a perceived truth based on common sense or experience.
• They are often used for conveying lessons or morals.
• Let's analyze which one fits the context best:
• "it is better to be safe than sorry": This means it's better to be careful and take precautions rather than face consequences later. This doesn't fit the context as it doesn't convey being grateful for what you have.
• "a rolling stone gathers no moss": This means if one keeps moving and doesn't settle, they avoid responsibilities or commitments. This doesn't fit because it doesn't suggest appreciating what one has even if it’s not what one desired.
• "half a loaf is better than none": This means it's better to have something, even if it's less than you would like, than having nothing at all. This proverb fits the situation in the sentence where Aryan should appreciate the job he got even though it doesn't pay as much as he desired.
• "the early bird gets the worm": The idea behind this phrase is that people who make an effort to start earlier are more likely to succeed. This doesn't fit as it does not suggest being thankful for what one has.
• Therefore, the most suitable proverb for the given context is: "half a loaf is better than none."
• It aligns with the idea that Aryan should be grateful for the job he has, even if it’s not what he desired initially.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct answer is '4' i.e. “My name,” replied the lady, “is the same as my mother’s.” .

Key Points

• In direct speech, a comma is placed inside the quotation marks before the reporting clause.
• The reporting clause “replied the lady” is separated by commas on both sides.
• The possessive form “mother’s” requires an apostrophe + s to show possession.
• Therefore, option 4 follows both correct punctuation and correct possessive form.

Correct sentence: “My name,” replied the lady, “is the same as my mother’s.”

Additional Information

• Option 1: Missing comma after lady and incorrect possessive form mothers’.
• Option 2: Missing comma after lady and lacks possessive apostrophe in mother.
• Option 3: Missing comma after “My name” and incorrect possessive form mothers.

The correct answer is Seven Member 

Key Points

• The Constitution of India came into force on 26th January 1950.
• The Constitution of India has 448 articles in 25 parts and 12 schedules.
• The Constitution of India was drafted by the Constituent Assembly from 1946 to 1950.
• On 29th August 1947, the Constituent Assembly through a resolution appointed a Drafting Committee.

The objective of the Committee:

• To scrutinize the draft of the text of the Constitution of India prepared by the Constitutional Advisor.
• To submit to the Assembly for consideration the text of the draft constitution as revised by the Committee.
• At its first meeting on 30th August 1947, the Drafting Committee elected Dr. B.R Ambedkar as its Chairman.
• The Drafting Committee had seven members
• | | Members of Drafting Committee | | --- | --- | | 1 | Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (Chairman) | | 2 | Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar | | 3 | N. Gopalaswami Ayyangar | | 4 | K.M. Munshi | | 5 | Mohammad Saddulla | | 6 | B.L. Mitter | | 7 | D.P. Khaitan |

The correct answer is Option(3). i.e.​Nagabhatta I.

Key Points

• Nagabhatta I was the founder of the Gurjara-Pratiharas Dynasty. 
• The Pratiharas Dynasty(8th-11th Century A.D):
• The Pratiharas were also renamed as Gurjara.
• Between the 8th and 11th century A.D, they ruled over northern and western India.
• Pratiharas: A fortification- Against the hostility of the Muslims from the days of Junaid of Sind, the Pratiharas stood as a fortification of India’s defense to Mahmud of Ghazni.
• The following table shows the rulers of the Pratiharas dynasty with respective features.
• Pratiharas dynasty:
• | Name of Rulers | Characteristics | | --- | --- | | Vatsaraja | Played a crucial role in case of merging the empire | | Mihira Bhoja | - The most powerful Pratihara king. - During his period, the empire expanded from Kathiawar to Bihar & from Kashmir to the Narmada. | | Nagabhata I | - He was the founder of the Pratihara dynasty. - Kanauj was his capital | | Dhruva | - Dhruva (reigned 780–793 CE) was one of the Rashtrakuta Empire's most notable rulers. - He took the throne in place of his elder brother, Govinda II. - Dhruva is proclaimed emperor in the Dhulia grant of 779 and the Garugadahalli inscription of 782 |

The correct answer is ​James Augustus Hicky

Key Points

• Bengal Gazette, the first newspaper in India began publication in 1780 by James Augustus Hicky.
• It is also known as Hicky's Bengal Gazette or the Original Calcutta General Advertiser.
• It was the first English-language newspaper published on the Indian subcontinent as well as in Asia.
• It was founded in Calcutta, capital of British India at the time, by Irishman James Augustus Hicky in 1779.
• The front-page news stories are written in British English.
• He took the policy "Open to all Parties, but Influenced by None".
• East India Company published a rivel newspaper of Bengal Gazette called India Gazette on 18th November 1780.
• This paper was famous for its sarcastic and provocative writing style.
• The paper discusses the topics like female masturbation, proto-class consciousness, right of poor, right to taxation with representation, etc.

The correct answer is Article 87(1)

Key Points

Article 87 of the Indian Constitution states that "At the commencement of the first session after each general election to the House of the People and at the commencement of the first session of each year the President shall address both Houses of Parliament assembled together and inform Parliament of the causes of its summons". 

• The President also addresses both the houses at the commencement of the first session of each year.
• The President’s addressing speech essentially highlights the government’s policy priorities and plans for the upcoming year.
• The address also provides a broad framework of the government’s agenda and direction

Additional Information Article 41:

• Article 41 states that there should be a right to education, work and public assistance in certain cases.
• Within the limits of economic capacity and development, the state should have provisions to secure rights on work of education and public assistance in case of employment.

Article 53:

The executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with this Constitution.

Article 93:

The Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the House of the People The House of the People shall, as soon as may be, choose two members of the House to be respectively Speaker and Deputy Speaker thereof and, so often as the office of Speaker or Deputy Speaker becomes vacant, the House shall choose another member to be Speaker or Deputy Speaker, as the case may be

The correct answer is 1971

Key Points

THE NORTH-EASTERN AREAS (REORGANISATION) ACT, 1971 ACT NO. 81 OF 1971 [30th December,

1971.] An Act to provide for the establishment of the States of Manipur and Tripura and to provide for

the formation of the State of Meghalaya and of the Union territories of Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh

by reorganization of the existing State of Assam and for matters connected there with.

The correct answer is '2.4 per cent'

Key Points

• India’s total geographical area:
• India's total geographical area is about 3.28 million square kilometers.
• This area accounts for approximately 2.4 per cent of the total geographical area of the world.
• India is the seventh-largest country in the world by land area.
• Despite its relatively small size compared to other large nations, India has a significant population, making it the second most populous country in the world.

Additional Information

• Other comparative statistics:

The correct answer is Chambal basin

Key Points

Gully erosion:

• Gullies are channels deeper than 30 cm that can not be removed by normal cultivations.
• They can be spectacular to look at but over time actually lose less soil than sheet and rill erosion​

Additional Information

Backwaters of Kerala:

• ​The backwaters were formed by the action of waves and shore currents creating low barrier islands across the mouths of the many rivers flowing down from the Western Ghats range.

Malda gap:

• Malda Gap separates the Meghalaya plateau from Indian Peninsula Plateau.

Rann of Kutchh:

• The Rann was a once a shallow part of the Arabian Sea, until a geological shift closed off the connection with the sea.

The correct answer is R Venkataramani.

Key Points

• Senior advocate R. Venkataramani has been appointed as the new Attorney General (AG) of India by President Droupadi Murmu for a period of three years.
• He will succeed K. K. Venugopal, whose term ends on September 30.
• The Attorney General for India is the Indian government's chief legal advisor and is its chief advocate in the courts​

Additional Information

• The Constitution (Article 76) has provided for the office of the Attorney General for India.
• He is the highest law officer in the country.
• The Attorney General (AG) is appointed by the president.
• He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court.
• The term of office of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution.
• Further, the Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal.
• He holds office during the pleasure of the president.

The Correct Answer is Arunachal Pradesh

Key Points

• Arunachal Pradesh has the lowest density of population.
• Arunachal Pradesh has the lowest population density with 17 persons per sq. km, whereas our national capital has the highest population density with 11,320 persons per sq. km.
• The population of India has been augmented by more than 181 million during the decade 2001-2011.
• The population density of India in the year 2011 was **382 persons per square km. **​

Additional Information Mizoram:

• The population of Mizoram state is 1,097,206.
• The density of Mizoram state is 52 per sq km.
• Mizoram State is spread over 21,081 Sq Km.

​​Sikkim:

• Sikkim is an State of India with population of Approximate 6.11 Lakhs.
• The population of Sikkim state is 610,577.
• The density of Sikkim state is 86 per sq km.
• Sikkim State is spread over 7,096 Sq Km.

​​Goa:

• The population of Goa state is 1,458,545.
• The density of Goa state is 394 per sq km.
• Goa State is spread over 3,702 Sq Km

The correct answer is Hugli 

Key Points There was change of 9.46 percent in the population compared to population as per 2001.

In 2011, Hugli had population of 5,519,145 of which male and female were 2,814,653 and 2,704,492 respectively.

In 2001 census, Hugli had a population of 5,041,976 of which males were 2,589,625 and remaining 2,452,351 were females

Additional Information 

Jaipur:

• There was change of 26.19 percent in the population compared to population as per 2001.

Surat:

• Decennial Population Growth Rate between 2001 – 2011 of Surat City 55.29% i.e. Averge Annual Growth Rate is 4.5 %. Per 100 Persons,

Nashik:

• As per provisional reports of Census India, population of Nashik in 2011 is 1,486,053. Although Nashik city has population of 1,486,053; its urban / metropolitan population is 1,561,809.

The correct answer is Sher Shah

Key Points

• Sher Shah started the land measurement system in India.
• Sher shah adopted the system of measurement of land known as zabt. This system
  

continued till the time of 1579 that is in the twenty fourth year of Akbar’s rule.

• For land revenue improvement, he determined the share in production based on the variety of land and crops.
• Sher Shah started the application of 'Zarib' for land measurement.
• Sher Shah fixed the area of a bigha 360 square yards.
• **On the basis of yield and category, the land was divided into three parts good, middling, and low.**​

Additional Information

• Sher Shah Suri was the founder of the Suri Empire in India.
• After taking control of the Mughal Empire in 1540, he set up a new civic and military administration and implemented several reforms in the financial and postal sectors.
• The famous Battle of Chausa was fought between him and the second Mughal Empire Humayun in the year 1539.

The correct answer is option2) ​(a), (b) and (c)

Key Pointspublic sector banks:

• Public sector banks are those in which the government holds more than 50% of the total stock.
• The government formulates all the financial guidelines for public sector banks.
• The public sector banks operate under the government to inspire trust in the depositors that their money is safe.
• Canara bank, Bank of Baroda, Central bank of India are the public sector banks​

Additional Information IndusInd bank:

• IndusInd Bank Limited is an Indian financial services headquartered in Mumbai.
• IndusInd Bank was inaugurated in April 1994 by then Union Finance Minister Manmohan Singh

 RBL bank :

• RBL Bank, formerly known as Ratnakar Bank, is an Indian private sector bank headquartered in Mumbai and founded in 1943

​

The correct answer is 112.

Key Points 

• Article 112 of the Indian Constitution, the Union Budget of a year, also referred to as the annual financial statement, is a statement of the estimated receipts and expenditure of the government for that particular year.
• Union Budget keeps the account of the government's finances for the fiscal year that runs from 1st April to 31st March.
• Union Budget is classified into **Revenue Budget and Capital Budget.**​

Additional Information

• Article 123 of the Constitution of India grants the President certain law-making powers to promulgate ordinances when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session, in urgent situations.
• Article 121 of indian constitution declares that no discussion shall take place in Parliament with respect of the conduct of any judges of the Supreme Court or High Court in the discharge of his duties except upon a motion for presenting an address to the president praying for the removal of the judges as herein after provided.
• Money Bill is defined in Article 110 of the Indian Constitution. Money bills are concerned with financial matters like taxation, public expenditure, etc

The correct answer is 7^th

Key Points:

• The Union List is a list of 100 (Originally 97) numbered items as provided in List I of the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India.
• The Union Government or the Parliament of India has exclusive power to legislate on matters relating to these items.
• Few important items are:
• ​Defense of India.
• Naval, military, and air forces; any other armed forces of the Union.
• Social Security and Social Insurance.
• Atomic energy and mineral resources, necessary for its production.
• Central Bureau of Intelligence and Investigation.
• War and peace.
• Preventive Detention.
• Regulation and development of inter-State rivers and rivers.
• Constitution, organization, jurisdiction, and powers of the Supreme Court.
• **Jurisdiction and powers of all courts, except the Supreme Court.**​

Additional Information

• The third schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the forms of oath and affirmation for Union Ministers of India. Parliament Election Candidates. Members of Parliament (MPs)
• The 10th Schedule of the Indian Constitution (which talks about the anti-defection law) is designed to prevent political defections prompted by the lure of office or material benefits or other like considerations. The Anti-defection law was passed by Parliament in 1985 and reinforced in 2002.
• The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas as well as of Scheduled Tribes residing in any State other than the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.

The correct answer is Right to Privacy

Key Points

• The right of privacy is a fundamental right.
• It is a right which protects the inner sphere of the individual from interference from both State, and non-State actors and allows the individuals to make autonomous life choices.
• About the Right to Privacy: In Puttaswamy v. Union of India case, 2017, the Right to Privacy was declared a fundamental right by the Supreme Court.
• Right to privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 and as a part of the freedoms guaranteed by Part III of the Constitution.​

Additional Information

• Anyone can apply for the right to constitutional remedies and approach the High Court or Supreme Court. This right allows the citizens to restore their fundamental rights if they are violated. After that, the High Court or Supreme Court will issue the directives or orders to the government for the right enforcement.
• Any law enacted by the government that restricts any of these rights will be deemed unconstitutional by the courts. Freedom of Religion and Cultural & Educational Rights of Minorities are also a part of these fundamental rights provided under Part III of the Indian Constitution and are covered under articles 25 to 30
• The Right against Exploitation is enshrined in Articles 23 and 24 of the Indian Constitution. These are important Fundamental Rights that guarantee every citizen protection from any kind of forced labour

The correct answer is 53%

Key Points

 

• According to the Economic Survey 2021-2022, The Service sector has seen a growth rate of 8.2% and contributed over 50% of India's GDP in 2021-2022.
• Nirmala Sithraman presented the Economic Survey 2021-22 in Parliament on 31st January 2022.
• Some other fiscal developments as per the Survey are as follows:
• The revenue receipts(April-November 2021) from Central Government have gone up by 67.2%.
• Gross Tax Revenue registered a growth of over 50% ( April-November 2021).
• Central Government debt has gone up from 49.1%(2019-20) to 59.3%(2020-21) of GDP
• As per the Economic Survey 2021-22, the foreign exchange reserves touched USD 633.6 billion(as of Dec 31, 2021).
• According to the Economic Survey 2021-22, the repo rate was maintained at 4% in 2021
• The Economic Survey also revealed that Rs. 89,066 crores was raised via 75 Initial Public Offering (IPO) issues in April-November 2021.

The correct answer is Pandita Ramabai Saraswati

Key Points

• Pandita Ramabai criticised gender-based social distinctions.
• She published a book about the terrible lives of upper-caste Hindu ladies because she believed that Hinduism was oppressive to women.
• To help widows who had been mistreated by their husband's families, she established a widow's house in Poona.
• Here, women received training to enable them to sustain themselves financially.
• 'Arya Mahila Samaj' was founded by Pandita Ramabai for women's reform.​​

Additional InformationTarabai Shinde

• Even though she belonged to a high-caste background, Tarabai Shinde was a feminist activist.
• She fought against caste and sexism in 19th-century India.
• She is well-known for the 1882 Marathi-original publication of Sri Purush Tulana, one of her published works​

Savitribai Phule

• Savitribai Phule was India's first female teacher and a well-known social reformer.
• She fought for lower castes and women.
• She spoke out against the oppressive social structure that ruled Pune (Maharashtra) society in the 19th century.
• Her contribution focused on logic and human values like equality, truth, and humanism.

Fatima Sheikh,

• ​​Fatima Sheikh, often a lost figure in Indian history, was a pioneering teacher, anti-caste activist, proponent of girls’ education, and social reformer in 19th century Maharashtra.

The correct answer is 1976

Key Points

• Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) were set-up on the recommendations of the Narasimham Committee.
• First Regional Rural Bank was Prathama Grameen Bank set-up at Moradabad (U.P).
• Ownership of RRB is such that the Government of India holds 50% share while the State Government holds 15% and Private Sponsors hold 35% shares.
• The main objectives of RRBs is to provide banking and financial services in rural areas.
• Target of Priority Sector Lending for RRB is 75%.

The correct answer is Union Public Service Commission

Key Points

• The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is the central recruiting agency in India.
• It is an independent constitutional body.
• The provisions regarding the composition of UPSC, appointment and removal of its members and the powers and functions of UPSC are provided in Part XIV of the **Indian Constitution under Article 315 to Article 323.**​

Additional Information

NITI Aayog:

• Planning has been in Indian psyche as our leaders came under influence of the socialist clime of erstwhile USSR.
• Planning commission served as the planning vehicle for close to six decades with a focus on control and command approach.
• Planning Commission was replaced by a new institution – NITI Aayog on January 1, 2015 with emphasis on ‘Bottom –Up’ approach to envisage the vision of Maximum Governance, Minimum Government, echoing the spirit of ‘Cooperative Federalism’.

​​National Human Rights Commission:

• The National Human Rights Commission or NHRC is a standalone entity of the Government of India with the mission of promoting and protecting human rights.
• It is a statutory body mentioned in the Constitution of India that was established in 1993 under the ‘Protection of Human Rights Act.’
• This act was further amended in 2006

​Lokpal and Lokayuktas:

• The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013 provided for the establishment of Lokpal for the Union and Lokayukta for States.
• These institutions are statutory bodies without any constitutional status.
• They perform the function of an "ombudsman” and inquire into allegations of corruption against certain public functionaries and for related matters.

The correct answer is Arunachal Pradesh

Key Points

• The total literacy rate of Arunachal Pradesh is 65.38% which is less than average literacy rate 72.98% of India.
• Also the male literacy rate is **72.55% and the female literacy rate is 57.7% in Arunachal Pradesh.**​

Additional InformationGOA:

• As per Census 2011, the literacy rate of Goa is 88.7%. According to Census 2011,
• Goa has a population of 14.59 lakh people, with 739,140 males and 719,405 females.
• The male literacy rate is 92.65%, while the female literacy rate is 84.66%

​Tripura:

• The literacy rate for Tripura was 87.75 according to the 2011 census,

Himachal Pradesh:

1. According to the 2011 literacy census, Himachal Pradesh's literacy rate is 82.80 percent.
2. Male literacy rates are 89.53 percent, while female literacy rates are 75.93 percent.