Official Paper

UPPCL Technician (Electrical) 19 Mar 2021 Official Paper (Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

250 questions · 180 minutes · with answers · free

Computer Knowledge (CCC Level) (50 questions)

1

Which of the following options is correct regarding banded rows and columns in a table in Microsoft Word 2007?

  1. ((a))

    A banded row/column may contain one or more additional cells than other rows/columns.

  2. ((b))

    Banded Row/Column displays a summary of all rows/columns.

  3. ((c))

    In banded rows/columns, even and odd rows/columns are displayed with another color.

  4. ((d))

    Banded rows/columns are formed by joining two or more rows/columns.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

In banded rows/columns, even and odd rows/columns are displayed with another color.

The correct option is (3)

In banded rows/columns, even and odd rows/columns are displayed with another color.

Key Points

  • Banded rows signify that after one row, another row will be in a different color, and so on.
  • In MS Word, the banded column feature is used to differentiate the formatting of even columns from topic columns.
  • Your worksheet's data may be easier to scan if you use color banding, which is the practice of adding a different color to alternate rows or columns.
  • You can quickly apply a pre-made table format to format different rows or columns. When rows and columns are added using this technique, alternative row or column shading is automatically applied.
  • When an Excel sheet contains a lot of data, color banding makes it simpler for the human eye to distinguish between rows and columns.
  • Rows and columns can be banded together to create alternating bands of colored or textured rows and columns.
  • To select something, tap anywhere on the table. To choose a whole row or column, drag the selection handle after tapping once more to select the first cell in the row or column.

2

Which of the following options provides Internet access by transmitting digital data over a local telephone network?

  1. ((a))

    Digital signal line

  2. ((b))

    Leased line

  3. ((c))

    Ethernet

  4. ((d))

    Digital subscriber line

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Digital subscriber line

The correct option is (4)

Digital subscriber line

Key Points

  • A communication method known as Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) is used to transmit internet traffic via copper-wired telecommunications lines and telephone networks.
  • DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) is a technology that uses standard copper telephone lines to deliver high-bandwidth information to homes and small businesses.
  • The Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) internet service is only available in some locations and has a restricted operating range due to the limitations of the telephone network.

Additional Information Leased line:- A leased line is a two-way phone line that has been rented for exclusive usage in communications, data exchange, or voice.

Ethernet:- Ethernet is still a widely used type of network connection and is used to connect devices in a network. Ethernet is utilized for local networks because of its high speed, security, and dependability in places where it is specifically needed, including company offices, campuses of educational institutions, and hospitals.

Digital signal line:- A digital signal is one that can only take on one of a limited number of discrete values at any given time, representing data as a sequence of discrete values.

3

Which of the following expands the first letter of a paragraph to multiple lines?

  1. ((a))

    Drop cap

  2. ((b))

    Auto correct

  3. ((c))

    Subscript

  4. ((d))

    Superscript

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Drop cap

The correct option is (1)

Drop cap

Concept:-

Drop cap expands the first letter of a paragraph to multiple lines.

Key Points

  • The first letter of a paragraph is called a drop cap, and it is significantly larger than the remaining conventional text.
  • A huge capital letter known as a drop cap (sometimes known as a dropped capital) is used as a decorative element at the start of a paragraph or section. A drop cap is often two or more lines in length.

Additional Information Autocorrect:- A sort of software program known as auto-correct recognizes misspelled words, applies algorithms to determine the words that were most likely intended, and then fixes the text as necessary. 

Subscript and Superscript:- A character (such as a number or letter) that is slightly below or above the typical line of type is referred to as a subscript and superscript, respectively. Usually, it is less substantial than the rest of the text. Superscripts are above the baseline, while subscripts are at or below it.

4

What is the letter 'S' in SRAM?

  1. ((a))

    Secure

  2. ((b))

    Symmetric

  3. ((c))

    Static

  4. ((d))

    Synchronous

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Static

The correct option is (3)

Static

Concept:-

SRAM stands for static random access memory.

Key Points

  • As long as power is being provided, SRAM (static RAM), a form of random access memory (RAM), keeps data bits in its memory.
  • A particular kind of memory found in semiconductors is known as static random-access memory. SRAM is immobile. It can function without a human periodically refreshing it.
  • N registers are contained in a static random access memory (SRAM), and each is addressed by log N address bits A. Due to the fact that the underlying flip-flops are "static," they are what gives SRAM its moniker.
  • Flip-flops, a bistable circuit made up of four to six transistors, make up static RAM (SRAM). Until the opposite value is put in a flip-flop, the bit it previously stored is retained.

Additional Information Symmetric:- A balanced and proportionate likeness between two halves of an object is referred to as symmetry. It implies that one half is the other's mirror image.

Synchronous:- Synchronous learning entails virtually attending a weekly class meeting at the same time as your instructor and classmates, even though you will be learning from a distance.

5

Which of the following is considered to be the world's first computer network?

  1. ((a))

    NSFNET

  2. ((b))

    ASAPNET

  3. ((c))

    CNNET

  4. ((d))

    ARPANET

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

ARPANET

The correct option is (4)

ARPANET

Concept:-

The first network created by the internet was the ARPANET.

Key Points

  • The first wide-area packet-switched network with distributed controversy was the Advanced Research Projects Agency Network (ARPANET).
  • The first open packet-switched computer network was the U.S. Advanced Research Projects Agency Network (ARPANET).
  • In 1989, it was ultimately deactivated after being put into use in 1969. The primary applications of ARPANET were in academia and research.
  • The TCP/IP protocol suite was first used in early packet-switching networks like ARPANET.

Additional Information

  • Option 1 – NSFNET: ❌ Developed later in the 1980s as a successor to ARPANET for academic and research purposes.
  • Option 2 – ASAPNET: ❌ Not a recognized early computer network.
  • Option 3 – CNNET: ❌ Refers to China's early networking efforts, much later than ARPANET.
  • Option 4 – ARPANET: ✅ Correct. It is the earliest and foundational network that led to the development of the Internet.
6

Which of the following is not an application layer protocol?

  1. ((a))

    TCP

  2. ((b))

    TELNET

  3. ((c))

    HTTP

  4. ((d))

    FTP

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

TCP

The correct option is (1)

TCP

Concept:-

Several protocols are included at the application layer, including Telnet, FTP, TFTP, SMTP, SNMP, DNS, and DHCP.

Key Points

  • An application protocol for distributed, collaborative, and hypermedia information systems is the Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP).
  • Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) connections can be used to send files between computers using the FTP (File Transfer Protocol) network protocol.
  • FTP is regarded as an application layer protocol within the TCP/IP family of protocols.
  • Programs that emulate terminals and let you connect to distant hosts frequently use TELNET.
  • TELNET, however, can also be utilized for interprocess communication and terminal-to-terminal communication.
  • Other protocols (like FTP) can also establish a protocol control channel using TELNET.

Additional Information

  • A trustworthy, full-duplex, connection-oriented data transmission service is offered by the transport-layer protocol TCP. TCP is used by most Internet applications.
  • The top layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) communications paradigm, Layer 7, is where the application layer is located.
7

Which of the following is not an error value? Rather it is a special value that you can manually enter into a cell to indicate that you do not yet have the required value.

  1. ((a))

    #NULL!

  2. ((b))

    #NUM!

  3. ((c))

    #N/A

  4. ((d))

    #NAME?

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

#N/A

The correct option is (3)

#N/A

Concept:-

#N/A:- "No value available" or "not available" are the meanings of this error. It means that the formula is unable to locate the value that we had assumed it would. Consider using Excel's VLOOKUP, HLOOKUP, and MATCH functions.

 Key Points

  • The formula or the cells that it references have a problem. Microsoft acknowledges that this error value is ambiguous and that determining its cause can be challenging.
  • formula-filled cells that produce errors: The anticipated syntax, parameters, or data types are not used in a formula. #DIV/0!, #N/A, #NAME?, #NULL!, #NUM!, #REF!, and #VALUE! are examples of error values.
  • Each of these erroneous values has a unique cause and a unique method of correction.

Additional Information #NULL!:- #NULL! Error-values happen when there is an accidental or improper space used in a formula to separate two or more cell references.

#NUM!:- When an Excel calculation can't be done, the #NUM! error appears.

#NAME?:- When you encounter the #NAME? mistake in your calculation, fix it since it indicates that the syntax has to be fixed.

8

In Linux, each file or directory is uniquely identified by an identifier called _____.

  1. ((a))

    PID

  2. ((b))

    I-Node

  3. ((c))

    T-Node

  4. ((d))

    V-Node

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

I-Node

The correct option is (2)

I-Node

Concept:-

Each file or directory has a unique identifier that is typically referred to as an I-Node, as well as its name and the directory in which it is located.

Key Points

  • An I-Node is a type of data structure used by UNIX operating systems to store crucial data about files in a file system.
  • Because they contain information that is always required, such as ownership and protection, I-Nodes are found on discs and are always valid.
  • A predetermined number of I-Nodes are also created when a file system is formed in UNIX. The I-Node table typically receives 1% of the entire file system's disc capacity.

Additional Information

  • A kernel memory object called Vnode operates similarly to the UNIX file interface, opening, reading, writing, and closing files.
  • On an operating system that is similar to Linux or Unix, a PID is an acronym for a process identification number.
  • Every newly formed process is given a PID by default.
  • On a system similar to Unix, a process is nothing more than a running instance of a program, and each process has a distinct PID.
9

What is the full form of CAD?

  1. ((a))

    Computer Aided Design

  2. ((b))

    Computer Academy Design

  3. ((c))

    Computer Academy Developer

  4. ((d))

    Computer Aided Developer

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Computer Aided Design

The correct option is (1)

Computer-Aided Design

Key Points

  • Computer-aided design, or CAD, is the process of using computer-based software to help with design processes. Engineers and designers of all stripes regularly utilize CAD software.
  • Architects, construction managers, and engineers now use CAD design in favor of manual drafting.
  • In addition to assisting users in visualizing buildings in either 2D or 3D, it also enables the development, modification, and optimization of the design process.
  • Using specialized software, computer-aided design (CAD) produces two- and three-dimensional representations and animations of projects for use in manufacturing, advertising, and technical manuals.
  • Using computers (or workstations) to help with the creation, revision, analysis, or optimization of a design is known as computer-aided design (CAD).
10

What will be the value of the following Microsoft Excel formula?

=2+16/2^1*3

  1. ((a))

    26

  2. ((b))

    6

  3. ((c))

    18

  4. ((d))

    10

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

26

The correct option is (1)

26

Explanation:-

Here given excel formula

=2+16/2^1*3

The value of 2^1 stands for 21 which results in a value of 2.

The 16 is divided by 2 the result is 8 and 8*3 = 24 then 2+24=26

∴ the value of =2+16/2^1*3 = 26

Key Points

  • Initialize the formula in an excel cell using the =(equal to )sign.
  • MS Excel formula is an expression that operates on value in a range of cell addresses and operators.
  • The operator " ^ (caret)" raises a number to a power.
11

Which of the following is used to move the contents of the window to see information that is currently out of view?

  1. ((a))

    Scroll bar

  2. ((b))

    Minimise button

  3. ((c))

    Status bar

  4. ((d))

    Title bar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Scroll bar

The correct option is (1)

Scroll bar

Key Points

  • A horizontal scroll bar makes it possible to left- or right-scroll a window's content. The user can scroll the content up or down using a vertical scroll bar.
  • A scroll bar on a computer screen is a long, thin box along a window's edge that you can click with your mouse to move the text up, down, or across the window.
  • A window can be relocated to any location on your screen after it has been enlarged so that it is not fullscreen. Click and hold the left mouse button on the window's title bar to accomplish this. After that, drag it where you want it to go.
  • Instead of utilizing the vertical scroll bar on the right side of a document or webpage, you can scroll up and down on any page by using the scroll wheel in the center of the mouse. Another function of the mouse's scroll wheel is as a third button.

Additional Information

  • The minimize button (the "-" symbol for minimize) reduces the size of the application window and moves it to the taskbar while the program is still running.
  • A horizontal window at the bottom of a parent window called a status bar is where an application can show several types of status information. To display multiple types of information, the status bar can be separated into sections.
  • An icon and line of text specified by the application are displayed in the title bar at the top of a window. The text identifies the application by name and describes the window's function.
12

Select the odd one out from the following options.

  1. ((a))

    EPROM

  2. ((b))

    DRAM

  3. ((c))

    SRAM

  4. ((d))

    Magnetic Tape

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Magnetic Tape

The correct option is (4)

Magnetic Tape

Concept:-

EPROM, DRAM, and SRAM are all types of computer memory, while Magnetic Tape is a storage medium that was commonly used for data backup and archival purposes before the advent of modern storage devices like hard drives and solid-state drives.

Key Points

  • Speech and music are recorded on magnetic audio tape, and analog voice and video signals can be directly and simultaneously recorded on magnetic videotape at a low cost.
  • A long, narrow strip of plastic film is covered in a thin, magnetizable coating to create magnetic tape, a medium for magnetic storage. It was created in Germany in 1928 using magnetic wire recording as a foundation.
  • SRAM, which stands for Static Random Access Memory, is a type of computer memory that needs an ongoing supply of power to function.
  • DRAM, which stands for dynamic random access memory, is one of the memory modules that are most frequently found in PC-compatible desktop computers and workstations.
  • EPROM stands for Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory. It is a type of non-volatile memory that can be programmed and erased multiple times. EPROMs are used in many electronic devices such as computers, consumer electronics, and automotive systems.
13

Which of the following is not a valid network topology?

  1. ((a))

    Random

  2. ((b))

    Star

  3. ((c))

    Ring

  4. ((d))

    Bus

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Random

The correct option is (1)

Random

Concept:-

Bus topology, ring topology, star topology, mesh topology, and hybrid topology are some examples of topologies. Random is not a valid topology.

Key Points

  • Network topology is the configuration of a network made up of nodes and connecting lines via sender and receiver.
  • The network architecture will develop in accordance with how data is moved between devices and how they are linked.
  • The structure or pattern in which each node in a network is connected is known as topology. In networking, there are many different topologies, such as the bus, tree, ring, star, mesh, and hybrid topologies.

Additional Information

  • In a LAN (Local Area Network), a bus architecture is used to connect several nodes to a specific cable instead of using a single backbone. It is possible to connect many devices using a coaxial wire or RJ-45 cable. When a cable in a bus topology has an issue, the entire network will not function.
  • Every device on the network is separately connected to the switch or hub, which is the central node, in a network topology known as a star topology.
  • In a ring topology, device connections form a circular data channel in the network setup.
14

There are _____ different editions of Windows 7, each with a different but overlapping set of capabilities.

  1. ((a))

    Five

  2. ((b))

    Seven

  3. ((c))

    Eight

  4. ((d))

    Six

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Six

The correct option is (4)

Six

Concept:-

There are six editions of the Windows 7 operating system.

Key Points

  • Windows 7 comes in six different editions: Starter, Home Basic, Home Premium, Professional, Enterprise, and Ultimate. As is to be expected, confusion envelops each of these editions like fleas do an old cat.
  • The most advanced version of Windows 7, Windows 7 Ultimate includes all the features found in Professional and Home Premium as well as BitLocker technology. Additionally, Windows 7 Ultimate has the broadest language support.
  • The operating system Windows 7 Home Premium was created for home PCs and has a variety of multimedia features.
  • The powerful networking features of the Windows 7 Professional operating system were created with workplace machines in mind.
  • Large organizations are the target market for the Windows 7 Enterprise operating system.
  • The operating system for Windows 7 Home Basic is more feature-rich and easy to use.
  • The Windows 7 Starter operating system was created with simplicity in mind.
15

To edit the contents of a Microsoft Excel cell, press the ______ function key.

  1. ((a))

    F1

  2. ((b))

    F5

  3. ((c))

    F2

  4. ((d))

    F11

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

F2

The correct option is (3)

F2

Concept:-

Key Points In MS Excel, the F2 function key is used to edit the content of a cell in MS Excel.

Key Points

  • Everyone (or almost everyone) is aware that pressing the F2 key in Excel activates the "editing" mode for the selected cell, allowing you to change its contents while the formula's various cell references change colors.
  • The FUNCTION keys F1 through F12 have unique alternate commands. Enhanced function keys are what these keys are known as. You can access frequently used tasks quickly with the help of enhanced function keys, which can boost your productivity.

Additional Information

  • F1: Displays the Help menu for the currently active window.
  • By hitting F5, the page or document window is refreshed or reloaded in all contemporary Internet browsers.
  • A function key called F11 can be located at the top of practically every computer keyboard. All contemporary web browsers support the key, which is frequently used to enter and leave fullscreen mode.
16

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true with respect to MS-Word 2007?

(i) In the Page Layout menu of a Microsoft Word document, there is a margin called 'Normal'.

(ii) Multiple Microsoft Word documents can be viewed at a time and all of them can be edited simultaneously.

  1. ((a))

    (i) - False, (ii) - False

  2. ((b))

    (i) - True (ii) - False

  3. ((c))

    (i) - False, (ii) - True

  4. ((d))

    (i) - True, (ii) - True

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(i) - True (ii) - False

The correct option is (2)

(i) - True (ii) - False

Key Points

  • The area between the text and the edge of your document is known as a margin. The margins of a new document are by default set to Normal, which leaves one inch between the text and each edge. You can alter the margin size in Word to suit your requirements.
  • By selecting the Layout tab and pressing the little arrow in the Page Setup group's lower-right corner, you can also access the Page Setup dialogue box.
  • Each page in Word has a one-inch margin by default. You can configure margins for facing pages, add extra margin space to enable document binding, change how margins are measured, and customize or select established margin settings.
  • Multiple open documents can be seen horizontally or side by side. Each document may be handled separately. The ability to simultaneously scroll through two documents is also available. Let's examine a few of these beneficial Word features.
  • Activate File > Options > Advanced. To access the Display section, scroll down. The "Show all windows in the Taskbar" checkbox should be selected. Each document will now open in a distinct window, which you can then move to a different monitor.
17

With respect to computer systems, what is the full form of GIGO?

  1. ((a))

    Garbage in Garbage out

  2. ((b))

    Gross in Gross out

  3. ((c))

    Garbage installation Garbage output

  4. ((d))

    Gigabyte in Gigabyte out

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Garbage in Garbage out

The correct option is (1)

Garbage in garbage out

Key Points

  • Computer science and mathematics both share the idea of GIGO (Garbage in, Garbage out), which states that the quality of the input determines the quality of the result.
  • GIGO is also used to refer to errors in human decision-making brought on by inaccurate, insufficient, or unreliable data.
  • "Garbage In, Garbage Out" is what it stands for. The computer science abbreviation GIGO means that poor input will lead to poor output.

Additional Information

  • Data, objects, or other areas of a computer system's memory (or other system resources) that won't be used by the system or a program running on it in the future are referred to as "trash" in computer science.
  • Politics can be reduced, objectivity can be upheld, and garbage can be avoided by teaching the six principles to everyone who has a say in the decision-making process and by creating transparency around the decision-making process.
18

Which of the following is NOT a valid cell address in Microsoft Excel?

  1. ((a))

    AD205

  2. ((b))

    AA256

  3. ((c))

    ZAA250

  4. ((d))

    A$260

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

ZAA250

The correct option is (3)

ZAA250

Key Points

  • An alphanumeric value known as a cell reference, sometimes known as a cell address, is used to specify a particular cell in a spreadsheet. A number is followed by one or more letters in each cell reference. The column is designated by one or more letters, while the row is denoted by a number.
  • As an illustration, the references A1, B2, and so on all refer to the cells that are located at the intersection of column A and row 1.
  • A range in Excel is a group of two or more cells. The address of the upper left cell and the lower right cell, separated by a colon, serve as a range reference.

Additional Information

  • A reference that is relative lacks the dollar sign ($) in the row and column coordinates, such as A1 or A1:B10. In Excel, all cell addresses are by default relative.
  • The row or column coordinates with the dollar sign ()inthem,suchas) in them, such as A1or1 or A1:1:B$10, are absolute references.
  • One relative and one absolute coordinate, such as A1orAA1 or A1, are included in a mixed reference.
19

Which of the following is a time-sensitive service on the internet ?

  1. ((a))

    E-mail

  2. ((b))

    File transfer

  3. ((c))

    Internet telephony

  4. ((d))

    File download

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Internet telephony

The correct option is (3)

Internet telephony

Concept:-

Internet telephony is a time-sensitive service on the internet.

Key Points

  • Standard telephone services that are transported over the internet using packet switching as opposed to circuit switching are referred to as internet telephony.
  • All telephony services, such as phone calls, faxes, voicemail, video calls, and other kinds of communication, are referred to as "Internet Telephony" when calls and data are sent digitally over the Internet using the Internet Protocol (IP) as opposed to using conventional analog landlines.
  • The global network of voice-focused public telephone networks is known as the public switched telephone network or PSTN.

 Additional Information

  • Electronic mail, also known as email, is identified by an email ID or address when it is sent over the internet. The email requires a sender and recipient address, just like regular mail. All email addresses had the same structure since the 1980s: a distinctive name, followed by @ and the domain name.
  • The exchange of data files across computer systems is referred to as file transfer. File transfer is the procedure of copying or moving a file from one computer to another across a network or internet connection, according to Techopedia.
  • To download a file, visit the website where it is available. Tap the Download link or Download image after touching and holding the item you wish to download. Tap Download on various music and video files.
20

The ASCII code of 7 is 00110111. What will be the ASCII code of 8?

  1. ((a))

    00111000

  2. ((b))

    00111001

  3. ((c))

    11001000

  4. ((d))

    00110010

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

00111000

The correct option is (1)

00111000

Explanation:

Here is the given.

The ASCII code of 7 = 00110111. 

According to the table,

The ASCII code of 8 = 00111000

Key Points

  • The most used character encoding format for text data in computers and on the internet is ASCII (American Standard Code for Information Interchange).
  • There are distinct values for 128 extra alphabetic, numeric, special, and control characters in ASCII-encoded data.
  • ASCII is used to translate computer text into human text. Every computer uses binary, which is a series of 0s and 1s.
21

A set of rules that governs data communication is called:

  1. ((a))

    Standard

  2. ((b))

    Topology

  3. ((c))

    Networking

  4. ((d))

    Protocol

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Protocol

The correct option is (4)

Protocol

Concept:-

A set of rules that governs data communication is called a protocol.

Key Points

  • A set of guidelines called a protocol governs communication. A sender, a receiver, and a method by which the message is sent from the sender to the receiver are the fundamental elements of communication.
  • A "blueprint of methods, properties, and other requirements that suit a given task or piece of functionality" is defined by protocols.
  • A protocol is a set of instructions for formatting and processing data in networking. Computers have a common language known as network protocols.
  • Even if the software and hardware used by the computers in a network may be very dissimilar, the usage of protocols allows them to communicate with one another.

Additional Information Networking:- Networking is the informal social exchange of knowledge and ideas among those who share a profession or a particular interest. A single area of agreement is frequently the starting point for networking.

Standard:- Standards are a set of guidelines for data transmission that are required for the exchange of data between devices.

Topology:- The physical and logical configuration of a network's nodes and connections is known as its topology. Devices like switches, routers, and software with switch and router features are typically included in nodes.

22

What is MFLOPS?

  1. ((a))

    It is used to measure the state of the CPU.

  2. ((b))

    It is used to measure the speed of CPU.

  3. ((c))

    It is a memory unit.

  4. ((d))

    It is used to measure memory access time.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

It is used to measure the speed of CPU.

The correct option is (2)

It is used to measure the speed of the CPU.

Key Points

  • MFLOPs, an abbreviation for mega floating-point operations per second, is a commonly used indicator of how quickly computers can do floating-point computations.
  • MIPS (million instructions per second), which measures integer performance, is another widely used metric of computer speed and power.
  • MFLOPs are a commonly used metric for gauging how quickly floating-point calculations are processed by microprocessors.
  • The term FLOP, or floating point operations per second, refers to how quickly a computer can perform calculations.
  • A Giga FLOP is merely a GFLOP. So having GPU with 2 times higher GFLOP value is very likely to speed up the training process.
  • A central processing unit, also known as a CPU, is a piece of electronic equipment that executes commands from software, enabling a computer or other device to carry out its functions.
23

URL means:

  1. ((a))

    Unique Resource Label

  2. ((b))

    Uniform Resource Locator

  3. ((c))

    Unique Reference Label

  4. ((d))

    Uniform Reference Locator

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Uniform Resource Locator

The correct option is (2)

Uniform Resource Locator

Key Points

  • Uniform Resource Locator, or URL, is an Internet resource address and a reference to that resource.
  • Websites have individual addresses to make it easier for users to find them, just like residences and structures have street addresses. These are known as URLs on the Internet (Uniform Resource Locators).
  • A website's name is its domain, its location is its URL, and its content is what visitors see and use when they arrive.
  • In other words, purchasing a domain only gets you the name of your website; the actual website itself still needs to be built.
  • The text or image that you want to appear as a hyperlink should be selected. Input Ctrl+K. You can also choose a Link from the shortcut menu by right-clicking the text or image and selecting it. Type or paste your link into the Address box of the Insert Hyperlink box.
24

What does macro mean in the context of Microsoft Word?

  1. ((a))

    A macro is a command used to automatically send email.

  2. ((b))

    The macro command automatically creates multiple documents with similar content.

  3. ((c))

    A macro is a series of commands and instructions that you put together as a single command to automatically accomplish a task.

  4. ((d))

    The Macro command helps to create multiple mails with different contents.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A macro is a series of commands and instructions that you put together as a single command to automatically accomplish a task.

The correct option is (3)

A macro is a series of commands and instructions that you put together as a single command to accomplish a task automatically.

Key Points

  • By creating and using macros in Word, you may automate routine operations. A macro is a collection of instructions and commands that you can use as a single command to carry out a task automatically.
  • Updated versions of Office 2007 Word used online. Combine the procedures into a macro to save time on routine chores.
  • A macro is a section of code that a program replaces with its value. The #define directive defines a macro.
  • When the compiler comes across a macro name, it substitutes the name with the macro definition. A semicolon is not required to end macro definitions (;).
  • You may automate frequently used formatting options in Microsoft Word using macros, a little-utilized feature.
  • When you frequently find yourself changing the same formatting settings across many documents**, macros** can be very helpful.
25

Which of the following menu items is used in Microsoft PowerPoint 2016 to see different presentation view options?

  1. ((a))

    Review

  2. ((b))

    Home

  3. ((c))

    View

  4. ((d))

    Design

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

View

The correct option is (3)

View

Key Points

  • The View tab is where you'll discover the many PowerPoint view choices, as demonstrated below.
  • The PowerPoint window's bottom-right corner houses the slide view commands. Four primary slide views are available.
  • Five alternative views are available in PowerPoint for working with presentations: Slide. \sOutline. Sorting by slide Page of Notes. Show a Slide.
  • To see all of your slides listed in a column, choose Outline View. To view thumbnails of all your slides, use Slide Sorter.

Additional Information

  • The Review tab is the following tab in Ribbon. This includes resources that can be used to edit and proofread presentations. We start with the available languages: Spelling: run a spell check on your written work.
  • The Cut and Paste capabilities, Font and Paragraph settings, and tools you need to add and organize slides are all found on the Home page.
  • The overall look of your entire slide show can be selected here. A slide show can be easily designed using themes. Each presentation slide will be customized to match the theme's chosen backdrop, font, colors, and effects.
26

What is the absolute address of the first cell of a Microsoft Excel worksheet?

  1. ((a))

    1AA

  2. ((b))

    A1A1

  3. ((c))

    1A1A

  4. ((d))

    AA1

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

AA1

The correct answer is AA1.

Key Points

  • The cell reference or cell address in MS Excel helps to identify the cell. Now, when a cell reference gets fixed and cannot change due to copy, then it is referred to as an absolute cell reference in MS Excel.
  • In MS Excel, rows are named after numbers like 1, 2, 3, 4 etc. and the columns are named with capital letters A, B, C etc. Once it reaches the letter Z, the next column starts with 'AA'.
  • The cell reference of the very first cell of MS Excel is A1. To create an absolute cell reference, the user needs to add the '$' sign at the beginning of the name of the row and column.
  • For example, the absolute cell reference of A1 will be AA1.

Thus the correct answer is AA1.

Additional Information

  • MS Excel, a spreadsheet program, is widely used for different kinds of functions, as a result, the info is simple to avoid wasting time, and data is accessible and removed with zero discomforts and less labour. Given below area unit some necessary advantages of exploitation MS Excel:
  • Easy To Store Data: Since there's no limit to the number of data that may be saved in an exceeding program. MS Excel is widely accustomed to saving or analysing information. Filtering info in stand out is simple and convenient.
  • Easy To Recover Data: If the data is written on a bit of paper, finding it should take longer, however, this is often not the case with Excel spreadsheets. Finding convalescent information is simple.
  • Application of Mathematical Formulas: Doing calculations has become more accessible and less time-taking with the formulas possibility in MS Excel.
  • More Secure: These spreadsheets are countersigned and secured in an exceedingly portable computer or laptop computer; therefore, the chance of losing them is much lesser than information written in registers or pieces of paper.
  • Data at One Place: Earlier, information was to be unbroken in several files and registers once the work was done. Now, this has become convenient as over one worksheet is accessible in an exceedingly single MS Excel file.
  • Neater and Clearer Visibility of Information: Once the info is saved within the type of a table, analysing it becomes easier. Thus, info may be a program that's a lot of legible and comprehensible.
27

What is the label of the first column of a Microsoft Excel worksheet?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    AA

  3. ((c))

    Z

  4. ((d))

    1

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

The correct answer is A.

Key Points

  • The cell address in MS excel helps to identify the cell.
  • In MS Excel, rows are labelled after numbers like 1, 2, 3, 4 etc. and the columns are labelled with capital letters A, B, C etc. Once it reaches the letter Z, the next column starts with 'AA'.
  • The cell reference of the very first cell of MS Excel is A1 where the label of the first column is A and the label of the first row is 1.

Thus the correct answer is A.

 Additional Information

  • MS Excel, a spreadsheet program, is widely used for different kinds of functions, as a result, the info is simple to avoid wasting time, and data is accessible and removed with zero discomforts and less labour. Given below area unit some necessary advantages of exploitation MS Excel:
  • Easy To Store Data: Since there's no limit to the number of data that may be saved in an exceeding program. MS Excel is widely accustomed to saving or analysing information. Filtering info in stand out is simple and convenient.
  • Easy To Recover Data: If the data is written on a bit of paper, finding it should take longer, however, this is often not the case with Excel spreadsheets. Finding convalescent information is simple.
  • Application of Mathematical Formulas: Doing calculations has become more accessible and less time-taking with the formulas possibility in MS Excel.
  • More Secure: These spreadsheets are countersigned and secured in an exceedingly portable computer or laptop computer; therefore, the chance of losing them is much lesser than information written in registers or pieces of paper.
  • Data at One Place: Earlier, information was to be unbroken in several files and registers once the work was done. Now, this has become convenient as over one worksheet is accessible in an exceedingly single MS Excel file.
  • Neater and Clearer Visibility of Information: Once the info is saved within the type of a table, analysing it becomes easier. Thus, info may be a program that's a lot of legible and comprehensible.
28

What is the address of the cell containing the 4th row and 5th column in Microsoft Excel?

  1. ((a))

    E4

  2. ((b))

    4E

  3. ((c))

    45

  4. ((d))

    54

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

E4

The correct answer is E4.

Key Points

  • The cell address in MS excel helps to identify the cell.
  • In MS Excel, rows are labelled after numbers like 1, 2, 3, 4 etc. and the columns are labelled with capital letters A, B, C etc. Once it reaches the letter Z, the next column starts with 'AA'.
  • The cell reference of the very first cell of MS Excel is A1 where the label of the first column is A and the label of the first row is 1.
  • In this manner, the address of the cell containing the 4th row and 5th column in Microsoft Excel is E4.

Thus the correct answer is E4.

Additional Information

  • MS Excel, a spreadsheet program, is widely used for different kinds of functions, as a result, the info is simple to avoid wasting time, and data is accessible and removed with zero discomforts and less labour. Given below area unit some necessary advantages of exploitation MS Excel:
  • Easy To Store Data: Since there's no limit to the number of data that may be saved in an exceeding program. MS Excel is widely accustomed to saving or analysing information. Filtering info in stand out is simple and convenient.
  • Easy To Recover Data: If the data is written on a bit of paper, finding it should take longer, however, this is often not the case with Excel spreadsheets. Finding convalescent information is simple.
  • Application of Mathematical Formulas: Doing calculations has become more accessible and less time-taking with the formulas possibility in MS Excel.
  • More Secure: These spreadsheets are countersigned and secured in an exceedingly portable computer or laptop computer; therefore, the chance of losing them is much lesser than information written in registers or pieces of paper.
  • Data at One Place: Earlier, information was to be unbroken in several files and registers once the work was done. Now, this has become convenient as over one worksheet is accessible in an exceedingly single MS Excel file.
  • Neater and Clearer Visibility of Information: Once the info is saved within the type of a table, analysing it becomes easier. Thus, info may be a program that's a lot of legible and comprehensible.
29

Which of the following characteristics of a computer makes it capable to carry out a job without any human intervention?

  1. ((a))

    Diligence

  2. ((b))

    Accuracy

  3. ((c))

    Automatic

  4. ((d))

    Versatility

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Automatic

The correct answer is Automatic.

Key Points

  • Diligence: A computer is a machine and never gets tired or exhausted. It can work 24x7 hrs constantly, without making any mistakes.
  • Accuracy: A computer is a machine and never makes any mistakes. It produces always 100% accurate answers after performing the calculation.
  • Automatic: The automation mode allowed the computer to do its work automatically without human intervention.
  • Versatility: A computer is a machine that can perform several tasks at the same time without making mistakes.

Thus the correct answer is Automatic.

Additional Information

  • Charles Babbage is known as the father of the computer who invented the analytical engine in the year 1822. Abacus is known as the first calculating device.
  • The computer can perform any task faster than a human being.
  • Computer never forgets anything.
30

Which keyboard shortcut is used to move the insertion point to the beginning of a Microsoft Word document?

  1. ((a))

    CTRL+End

  2. ((b))

    CTRL+Enter

  3. ((c))

    CTRL+Home

  4. ((d))

    ALT+Home

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

CTRL+Home

The correct answer is CTRL+Home.

Key Points

  • CTRL + End: This keyboard shortcut is used to move the insertion point to the end of a Microsoft Word document
  • CTRL + Enter: keyboard shortcut is used to insert a page break in a Microsoft Word document.
  • CTRL + Home: This keyboard shortcut is used to move the insertion point to the beginning of a Microsoft Word document.
  • Alt + Home: This keyboard shortcut is used to move the insertion point to the first cell of a table in a Microsoft Word document.

Thus the correct answer is CTRL+Home.

Additional Information

  • The leading creators of MS Word software are Charles Simonyi and Richard Brodie, launched in 1983 under Microsoft corporation.
  • Microsoft word is recognised as a word processor software which means that a user can rewrite, erase or modify a document as per the requirement.
  • The documents created in MS Word are very high in quality. MS Word creates reports, stories, letters, resumes, etc.
  • It allows users to edit or modify the new or existing document with colour or any other formats like bold, italic and underline.
  • In MS Word, the users can write the stories in paragraph format.
  • The file extension used in MS Word is .doc or .docx.
31

Which of the following options is equal to 256 nibbles?

  1. ((a))

    128 bytes

  2. ((b))

    4 kilobytes

  3. ((c))

    512 bits

  4. ((d))

    8 kilobyte

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

128 bytes

The correct answer is 128 bytes.

Key Points

  • The data is measured in the computer system in bits. It is the smallest unit to measure the data.
  • When the 4 bits of the memory unit are called together as a nibble.
  • When the 8 bits of the memory unit are called together as a byte.
  • So, it can state that 2 nibbles =1 byte.

Therefore 256 nibbles = (256/2) bytes =128 bytes.

Thus the correct answer is 128 bytes.

Additional Information

  • The other storage units used in the computer system are KiloBytes(KB), MegaBytes (MB), GigaBytes(GB), and TeraByte(TB).
  • 1 KB= 1024 bytes; 1MB= 1024 KB;  1GB= 1024 MB;   1TB= 1024 GB.
  • Above terabytes, there are some more storage units. These are petabytes (PB), exabytes (EB), zettabytes (ZB), and yottabytes (YB).
32

From the following options, what is the keyboard shortcut to add a new slide to an existing Microsoft Power Point presentation?

  1. ((a))

    Alt+N

  2. ((b))

    Ctrl+M

  3. ((c))

    Alt+W

  4. ((d))

    Ctrl+N

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Ctrl+M

The correct answer is CTRL + M.

Key Points

The following keyboard shortcuts are used in MS PowerPoint for the Windows version.

  • Alt + N: This keyboard shortcut is used to open the insert tab in Microsoft PowerPoint presentation.
  • Ctrl + M: This keyboard shortcut to add a new slide to an existing Microsoft PowerPoint presentation
  • Alt + W: This keyboard shortcut is used to go to the view tab in Microsoft PowerPoint.
  • Ctrl + N: This keyboard shortcut is used to open a new presentation in Microsoft PowerPoint.

Thus the correct answer is CTRL + M.

Additional Information

  • The main creators of MS PowerPoint software are Robert Gaskins and Dennis Austin, launched in 1987. PowerPoint Presentation area is useful for every person and practised usage. Given below area unit one or two of the foremost fields where PPT is extremely useful:
  • Education – With e-learning and smart classes being chosen as a typical mode of education lately, PowerPoint displays can facilitate making education loads interactive and attract students towards the modified version of learning.
  • Marketing – Among the sphere of commerce, PowerPoint displays are going to be terribly necessary. Practice graphs and charts, numbers are going to be shown loads plain and clearly which may be ignored by the viewer if being scanned.
  • Business – To raise investors or to point out the increase or decrease in profits, MS PowerPoint is going to be used.
  • Depicting Growth – Since every graphic and text is going to be adscititious throughout a presentation, the portrayal of the enlargement of an organization, business, student’s marks, etc. is easier than practice PPT.
33

Which of the following requires continuous refreshing to retain data?

  1. ((a))

    SRAM

  2. ((b))

    EEPROM

  3. ((c))

    EPROM

  4. ((d))

    DRAM

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

DRAM

The correct answer is DRAM.

Key Points

  • The word RAM stands for Random Access Memory. It is a very fast internal memory of the CPU. It holds data temporarily. After switching off the computer, data are deleted from the RAM. There are two variants of RAM. These are SRAM and DRAM.
  • SRAM: The word SRAM stands for Static Random Access Memory. The SRAM is comparatively the fastest memory. SRAM chips use a matrix of 6-transistors and no capacitors. Transistors don't need the power to forestall outpouring, therefore SRAM needn't be invigorated on a daily basis. There is an additional area within the matrix, thence SRAM uses a lot of chips than DRAM for an equivalent quantity of space for storing, creating the producing prices higher. SRAM is therefore used as cache memory and has no time access.
  • DRAM: The word DRAM stands for Dynamic Random Access Memory. DRAM always refresh itself to maintain the organised data. This is done by putting the memory on a refresh circuit that rewrites the information many hundred times per second. DRAM is employed for many system memory because it is affordable and tiny in size. DRAMs are created from memory cells, that are composed of 1 capacitor and one electronic transistor.

Thus the correct answer is DRAM.

Additional Information

  • ROM: The word ROM stands for Read Only Memory. It is permanent memory that the user will solely read but cannot write of it. This sort of memory is non-volatile. The data is kept for good in such recollections throughout manufacture. A memory stores such directions that square measure needed to begin a computing system. This operation is remarked as bootstrap.
  • Memory chips don't seem to be solely utilized in the computing system however conjointly in different electronic things like cleaning machines and microwave ovens. MROM, PROM, EPROM and EEPROM are the types of ROM.
34

State whether the following statements are true or false.

(i) WinZip does not do any compression.

(ii) Linux is a system software.

  1. ((a))

    (i) - True, (ii) - True

  2. ((b))

    (i) - True, (ii) - False

  3. ((c))

    (i) - False, (ii) - False

  4. ((d))

    (i) - False, (ii) - True

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

(i) - False, (ii) - True

The correct answer is (i) - False, (ii) - True.

Key Points

  • WinZip: WinZip is known as an application software. The main application of WinZip files is to achieve and compress the file for the Windows operating system, macOS. IOS, Android.
  • Linux: Linux is an operating system that acts like Unix operating system or the system software. The code used to build Linux is free and available for the public to view, edit and use. Ubuntu is the popular version of Linux. Linux uses a command line interface as well as the graphical user interface.

Thus the correct answer is (i) - False, (ii) - True.

Additional Information

  • When a user interacts with the computer system through some software, then it is known as application software.
  • The system software is known as the base for the other software. System software uses a low-level programming language.
35

Click the ______ if you want to get a window out of the screen temporarily without closing it .

  1. ((a))

    minimise button

  2. ((b))

    scroll bar

  3. ((c))

    maximise button

  4. ((d))

    status bar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

minimise button

The correct answer is the minimise button.

Key Points

  • Minimise button: By clicking on the minimise button a window out of the screen temporarily without closing it. The minimise button minimizes the current window to the taskbar. But the task will not close. It will keep running in the background. By clicking it again in the taskbar, it will return to the screen.
  • Scroll bar: The scroll bar helps to scroll down or scroll up the content in windows. It also scrolls horizontally through the window.
  • Maximise button: By clicking on the maximise button a window went to full-screen mode. Other applications cannot be seen at that time on the screen.
  • Status bar: The status bar shows the status of the cursor movement and other statuses of the current window.

 Thus the correct answer is the minimise button.

36

A CPU directly interacts with a ______ to access data during a program’s execution.

  1. ((a))

    RAM

  2. ((b))

    ROM

  3. ((c))

    hard disk

  4. ((d))

    magnetic tape

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

RAM

The correct answer is RAM.

Key Points

  • The word RAM stands for Random Access Memory. It is a very fast internal memory of the CPU. It holds data temporarily. After switching off the computer, data are deleted from the RAM. A CPU directly interacts with RAM to access data during a program’s execution. There are two variants of RAM. These are SRAM and DRAM.
  • The word SRAM stands for Static Random Access Memory. The SRAM is comparatively the fastest memory. SRAM chips use a matrix of 6-transistors and no capacitors. There is an additional area within the matrix, thence SRAM uses a lot of chips than DRAM for an equivalent quantity of space for storing, creating the producing prices higher. SRAM is therefore used as cache memory and has no time access. The word DRAM stands for Dynamic Random Access Memory. DRAM always refresh itself to maintain the organised data. This is done by putting the memory on a refresh circuit that rewrites the information many hundred times per second. DRAM is employed for many system memory because it is affordable and tiny in size. DRAMs are created from memory cells, that are composed of 1 capacitor and one electronic transistor.

Thus the correct answer is RAM.

 Additional Information

  • ROM: The word ROM stands for Read Only Memory. It is permanent memory that the user will solely read but cannot write of it. This sort of memory is non-volatile. The data is kept for good in such recollections throughout manufacture. A memory stores such directions that are needed to begin a computing system. This operation is remarked as bootstrap. Memory chips don't seem to be solely utilized in the computing system however conjointly in different electronic things like cleaning machines and microwave ovens. MROM, PROM, EPROM and EEPROM are the types of ROM.
  • Hard disk: The hard disk is recognised as secondary memory. It is permanent in nature. The size of the hard disk is depending on the users' requirements.
  • Magnetic tape: The magnetic tape is the primary storage unit which is circular in size. Audio files, video files are recorded by using the magnetic tapes.
37

What is the value of the following Microsoft Excel function?

=ROUNDUP(2.5,0)

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    Error

  4. ((d))

    3

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

3

The correct answer is 3.

Key Points

  • ROUNDUP(): In MS Excel, the roundup() function is used to convert the decimal number to the next closest whole number or the decimal number. The syntax for roundup() is given below:

                     =roundup(decimal number, number of unit)

  • For example, =roundup(5.86,1). The result will be 5.9.
  • In the same manner, =ROUNDUP(2.5,0) will produce 3. Because after the decimal point, the number of the unit is 0.

Thus the correct answer is 3.

Additional Information

  • MS Excel, a spreadsheet program, is widely used for varied functions, as a result, the info is simple to avoid wasting time, and data is accessible and removed with zero discomforts and less labour. Given below area unit some necessary advantages of exploitation MS Excel:
  • Easy To Store Data: Since there's no limit to the number of data that may be saved in an exceeding program, MS Excel is widely accustomed to saving or analysing information. Filtering info in stand out is simple and convenient.
  • Easy To Recover Data: If the data is written on a bit of paper, finding it should take longer, however, this is often not the case with Excel spreadsheets. Finding convalescent information is simple.
  • Application of Mathematical Formulas: Doing calculations has become more accessible and less time-taking with the formulas possibility in MS Excel.
  • More Secure: These spreadsheets are countersigned and secured in an exceedingly portable computer or laptop computer and therefore the chance of losing them is much lesser as compared to information written in registers or pieces of paper.
  • Data at One Place: Earlier, information was to be unbroken in several files and registers once the work was done. Now, this has become convenient as over one worksheet is accessible in an exceedingly single MS Excel file.
  • Neater and Clearer Visibility of Information: Once the info is saved within the type of a table, analysing it becomes easier. Thus, info may be a program that's a lot of legible and comprehensible.
38

Which of the following facilitates creating and printing letters and emails, or labels and envelopes for a group of persons in Microsoft Word?

  1. ((a))

    Mail Merge

  2. ((b))

    Pivot Table

  3. ((c))

    Drop Cap

  4. ((d))

    Pagination

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Mail Merge

The correct answer is Mail Merge.

Key Points

  • Mail Merge: In MS Word, a unique feature lets the user helps to create a batch of documents that are personalized for each recipient. This unique feature is known as a mail merge. In mail merge, the main document, the source of data and the document to be merged are referred to as the three important parts. The main document of the mail merge consists of text, images, information or instructions etc. The source of data holds the recipients' information which is going to be attached one by one to the main document. After merging the whole data, the merged mail is ready to be sent.
  • Pivot Table: In the pivot table data can interact with each other to generate the final result. The pivot table is mainly used to generate a sort of report as per the given conditions.
  • Drop Cap: A special feature in MS Word, that makes the story or paragraph more attractive. By using the drop cap, the first letter can be written in a very big size.

  • Pagination: Pagination is done by adding the page number in the desired location in MS Word. It helps to understand the sequence of the content written in MS Word.

Thus the correct answer is Mail Merge.

Additional Information

  • The leading creators of MS Word software are Charles Simonyi and Richard Brodie, launched in 1983 under Microsoft corporation.
  • Microsoft word is recognised as a word processing software which means that a user can rewrite, erase or modify a document as per the requirement.
  • The documents created in MS Word are very high in quality. MS Word creates reports, stories, letters, resumes etc.
  • It allows users to edit or modify the new or existing document with colour or any other formats like bold, italic and underline.
  • In MS Word, the users can write the stories in paragraph format.
  • The file extension used in MS Word is .doc or .docx.
39

What is the keyboard shortcut to go to the last cell of a row in Microsoft Excel?

  1. ((a))

    Alt+right arrow

  2. ((b))

    Ctrl+right arrow

  3. ((c))

    Ctrl+left arrow

  4. ((d))

    Ctrl+top arrow

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Ctrl+right arrow

The correct answer is the Ctrl+right arrow.

Key Points

  • Alt + right arrow: This keyboard shortcut is used to go forward.
  • Ctrl + right arrow: This keyboard shortcut is used to go to the last cell of a row in Microsoft Excel.
  • Ctrl + left arrow: This keyboard shortcut is used to go to the first cell of the current row in Microsoft Excel.
  • Ctrl + top arrow: This keyboard shortcut is used to go to the top cell of the current column in Microsoft Excel.

Thus the correct answer is the Ctrl + right arrow.

Additional Information

  • Given below area unit some necessary advantages of exploitation MS Excel:
  • Easy To Store Data: Since there's no limit to the number of data that may be saved in an exceeding program, MS Excel is widely accustomed to saving or analysing information. Filtering info in stand out is simple and convenient.
  • Easy To Recover Data: If the data is written on a bit of paper, finding it should take longer, however, this is often not the case with Excel spreadsheets. Finding convalescent information is simple.
  • Application of Mathematical Formulas: Doing calculations has become more accessible and less time-taking with the formulas possibility in MS Excel.
  • More Secure: These spreadsheets are countersigned and secured in an exceedingly portable computer or laptop computer and therefore the chance of losing them is much lesser as compared to information written in registers or pieces of paper.
  • Data at One Place: Earlier, information was to be unbroken in several files and registers once the work was done. Now, this has become convenient as over one worksheet is accessible in an exceedingly single MS Excel file.
  • Neater and Clearer Visibility of Information: Once the info is saved within the type of a table, analysing it becomes easier. Thus, info may be a program that's a lot of legible and comprehensible.
40

Which of the following is defined as a global collection of computer networks that are linked together by devices called 'routers' and use a common set of protocols for data transmission?

  1. ((a))

    Internet

  2. ((b))

    LAN

  3. ((c))

    VPN

  4. ((d))

    Intranet

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Internet

The correct answer is the Internet.

Key Points

  • Local Area Network (LAN): In the Local Area Network, computers are connected through a common line. In this network system, the range of the area is limited. Ethernet and Wi-Fi are the two most important technologies used in LAN. The LAN can be used in the home, school, library, etc.
  • Virtual Private Network (VPN): In the Virtual Private Network, computers are acted as an extended private network. VPN users can send and receive the data like private network users, even though they are not connected to any private network.
  • Intranet: When an organisation is using a network system for their private use then the network system is referred to as an Intranet. It's designed for the exclusive use of a corporation and its associates, like workers, customers, and alternative licensed individuals. It offers a secure platform to convey info and share knowledge with licensed users. The database, links, forms, and applications or any confidential data may be created and offered to the employees through the computer network within the organisation.
  • Internet: The Internet is referred to as a  world network that connects billions of computers across the world with one another. It uses a commonplace web protocol suite (TCP/IP) to attach billions of computer or digital device users worldwide. It can be possible only because the cables like optical fibres and different wireless and networking technologies are connected properly. At present, the Internet is the quickest mean of causation or exchanging data and information between computers across the world.

Thus the correct answer is the Internet

Additional Information

  • The Internet was developed by Bob Kahn and Vint Cerf in the year 1970. They began the planning of what we tend to these days grasp because of the ‘Internet’.
  • At the very beginning, the Internet was known as ARPANET, which stands for Advanced Research Projects Agency Network. This was presupposed to be a communications system for the accumulation of the US of America - a network that might conjointly survive a nuclear attack.
  • It eventually became a fortunate nationwide experimental packet network.
41

In the Page Setup group of Microsoft Word 2007, which of the following is not a margin?

  1. ((a))

    Normal

  2. ((b))

    Wide

  3. ((c))

    Framed

  4. ((d))

    Narrow

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Framed

The correct answer is Framed.

Key Points

  • The margins in the Word document give the content a very good impression. If the margin is not set properly, then it will affect the printing also. The margin for MS Word can be found in the page setup options.
  • In the Page Setup group of Microsoft Word 2007, the preset margin option has four categories. These are given below:
  • Normal: The normal margin setup leaves 1 inch on all sides of the page in MS Word.
  • Narrow: If the document consists of multi-columns, then the narrow margin helps to set the margins properly.
  • Moderate: The moderate margin setup leaves three-quarter inches from both the left and right ends of the page in MS Word.
  • Wide: The wide margin occupies more space while proofing a manuscript or other document.

Thus the correct answer is Framed.

Additional Information

  • The leading creators of MS Word software are Charles Simonyi and Richard Brodie, launched in 1983 under Microsoft corporation.
  • Microsoft word is recognised as a word processing software which means that a user can rewrite, erase or modify a document as per the requirement.
  • The documents created in MS Word are very high in quality. MS Word creates reports, stories, letters, resumes etc.
  • It allows users to edit or modify the new or existing document with colour or any other formats like bold, italic and underline.
  • In MS Word, the users can write the stories in paragraph format.
  • The file extension used in MS Word is .doc or .docx.
42

Which tab in the menu bar of Microsoft Word 2007 provides the facility to proofread, comment, make changes and compare Word documents?

  1. ((a))

    Design

  2. ((b))

    Page Layout

  3. ((c))

    Review

  4. ((d))

    References

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Review

The correct answer is Review.

Key Points

  • Design: The design tab helps to apply the theme to the content in MS Word 2007. It helps to format the text automatically. It has other sub-tabs like page colour 

<br>
  • Page Layout: If the user wishes to change the page setup and orientation then the user needs to click on page layout.

<br>
  • Review: The review tab in the menu bar of Microsoft Word 2007 provides the facility to proofread, comment, make changes and compare Word documents.

<br>
  • References: The references tab in the menu bar of Microsoft Word 2007 provides the facility to create a table of content, footnote and so on.

Thus the correct answer is Review.

Additional Information

  • The leading creators of MS Word software are Charles Simonyi and Richard Brodie, launched in 1983 under Microsoft corporation.
  • Microsoft word is recognised as a word processing software which means that a user can rewrite, erase or modify a document as per the requirement.
  • The documents created in MS Word are very high in quality. MS Word creates reports, stories, letters, resumes etc.
  • It allows users to edit or modify the new or existing document with colour or any other formats like bold, italic and underline.
  • In MS Word, the users can write the stories in paragraph format.
  • The file extension used in MS Word is .doc or .docx.
43

Each Microsoft Excel file is called a:

  1. ((a))

    chart sheet

  2. ((b))

    PDF

  3. ((c))

    workbook

  4. ((d))

    worksheet

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

workbook

The correct answer is Workbooks.

<br>

Key Points

  • MS Excel, a spreadsheet program, is widely used for varied functions, as a result, the info is simple to avoid wasting time, and data is accessible and removed with zero discomforts and less labour.
  • PDF: The full form of the PDF is Portable Document File. PDF is recognised as a file format developed by Adobe in the year 1992.
  • Worksheet: The worksheet is referred to as the working area of MS Excel. It is also named a spreadsheet. The worksheet in MS Excel is filled with cells. In the worksheet, the user can perform mathematical calculations, store data and so on.
  • Workbook: After storing the data in MS Excel, the user saves the file with a proper name. This file is referred to as a workbook. The workbook can hold at least one or many worksheets.

Thus the correct answer is Workbook.

 Additional Information

  • Given below area unit some necessary advantages of exploitation MS Excel:
  • Easy To Store Data: Since there's no limit to the number of data that may be saved in an exceeding program, MS Excel is widely accustomed to saving or analysing information. Filtering info in stand out is simple and convenient.
  • Easy To Recover Data: If the data is written on a bit of paper, finding it should take longer, however, this is often not the case with Excel spreadsheets. Finding convalescent information is simple.
  • Application of Mathematical Formulas: Doing calculations has become more accessible and less time-taking with the formulas possibility in MS Excel.
  • More Secure: These spreadsheets are countersigned and secured in an exceedingly portable computer or laptop computer and therefore the chance of losing them is much lesser as compared to information written in registers or pieces of paper.
  • Data at One Place: Earlier, information was to be unbroken in several files and registers once the work was done. Now, this has become convenient as over one worksheet is accessible in an exceedingly single MS Excel file.
  • Neater and Clearer Visibility of Information: Once the info is saved within the type of a table, analysing it becomes easier. Thus, info may be a program that's a lot of legible and comprehensible.
44

For the period up to May 2019, what is the latest version of Windows operating system?

  1. ((a))

    Windows 16

  2. ((b))

    Windows 8

  3. ((c))

    Windows 10

  4. ((d))

    Windows 7

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Windows 10

The correct answer is Windows 10.

Key Points

  • Windows 10 was the updated version of the Windows 8.1 operating system, developed by Microsoft.
  • Windows 10 was released on 15th July 2015 and went for retailing on 29th July 2015.
  • Windows 10 is using 32-bit processor and also works with BIOS firmware.
  • Windows 10 was the latest version of the Windows operating system, for the period up to May 2019.

Thus the correct answer is Windows 10.

Additional Information

  • Microsoft first introduced its first GUI (Graphical User Interface) based operating system, named Microsoft Windows in the year 1983.
  • Microsoft Windows can perform all the tasks just like an operating system does. It can execute multiple instructions at a time.
  • It also made communication between the hardware and software.
45

A link, image or icon on a web page associated with another web page is called a/ an:

  1. ((a))

    URL

  2. ((b))

    Hyperlink

  3. ((c))

    Add- ons

  4. ((d))

    Plug- ins

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Hyperlink

The correct answer is Hyperlink.

Key Points

  • Hyperlink: The HTML links are referred to as a hyperlink. When a link, image or icon on a web page is associated with another web page then it is called a hyperlink. By clicking on the hyperlinks, the user can jump to another page or web page. There are three types of hyperlinks. Text hyperlink, image hyperlink and bookmark.

Thus the correct answer is Hyperlink.

Additional Information

  • URL: The full form of the URL is Uniform Resource Locator. A Uniform Resource Locator could be a variety of uniform resource symbols and is the address of a resource on the World Wide Web; the protocol won’t access it. It is to indicate the placement of an Internet resource to access the web pages.
  • Add-ons and Plug-ins are web browser-based programs. These are integrated into the web browser.
46

Which of the following protocols handles exchange of messages between e-mail servers over a TCP/ IP network?

  1. ((a))

    FTP

  2. ((b))

    HTTP

  3. ((c))

    SMTP

  4. ((d))

    TELNET

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

SMTP

The correct answer is SMTP.

Key Points

  • FTP: The full form of FTP is File Transfer Protocol. It is mainly responsible for transferring files from one host to another. It is provided by the TCP/IP and is mainly used in web pages. It also helps to download the files to the client's computer from the server's computer.
  • HTTP: The full form of HTTP is HyperText Transfer Protocol. The main job of HTTP is to build communication between the client and server.
  • SMTP: The full form of SMTP is a Simple Mail Transfer Protocol. The main job of SMTP protocols is to handle the exchange of messages between e-mail servers over a TCP/ IP network.
  • TELNET: The TELNET is recognised as a network computer. The main job of TELNET is to provide proper communication which is usually text-based.

 Thus the correct answer is SMTP.

Additional Information

  • The full form of the OSI model is Open System Interconnection. The OSI model was developed by ISO in the year 1984. The computer system follows this architecture for transmitting the data over the network or device to the device. A brief description of the seven layers of the OSI model is given below.

  • Physical layer: The very first layer of the OSI model which builds the physical connection between the device. The information is divided into small bits and then transfer from one device to another.

  • Data link layer: This layer is the second layer of the OSI model. Here, data is transferred from node to node.

  • Network layer: This layer is the third layer of the OSI model. It transfers the data frame from one host of a network to another host of another network.

  • Transport layer: This layer is the fourth layer of the OSI model. This layer uses TCP\IP and UDP protocols for transmitting the data.

  • Session Layer: Manages sessions or connections between applications. Controls dialogues between computers, establishing, managing, and terminating connections.

  • Presentation layer: This layer is the sixth layer of the OSI model. It ensures that the data encryption has been done properly.

  • Application layer: This layer is the seventh layer of the OSI model. In this layer, humans can interact with the system through different applications and are also able to connect with the network.

47

Which of the following extends a private network to a public network?

  1. ((a))

    Wide area network

  2. ((b))

    Virtual private network

  3. ((c))

    Enterprise private network

  4. ((d))

    Local area network

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Virtual private network

The correct answer is Virtual Private Network.

Key Points

  • Wide Area Network (WAN): In Wide Area Network, all the computers are connected throughout the world. A good example of WAN technology is the Internet.
  • Enterprise Private Network (EPN): The Enterprise Private Network is a very secure networking system and is mostly used in businesses.
  • Local Area Network (LAN): In the Local Area Network, computers are connected through a common line. In this network system, the range of the area is limited. Ethernet and Wi-Fi are the two most important technologies used in LAN. The LAN can be used in the home, school, library, etc.
  • Virtual Private Network (VPN): In the Virtual Private Network, computers are acted as an extended private network. VPN users can send and receive the data like private network users, even though they are not connected to any private network.

 Thus the correct answer is Virtual Private Network.

Additional Information

  • Many computers are connected through a communication path which is known as a computer network. The main job of the network is to share information or resources between the computers in a network. The different uses of computer networks are given below:
  • Users can communicate with each other using instant messages, files, emails, videos, etc.
  • Networking helps to connect devices such as printers, scanners, etc.
  • Networking helps users to access information easily.
48

A _______ is a secondary window that allows users to perform a command, ask users a question, or provide users with information.

  1. ((a))

    Menu bar

  2. ((b))

    Drop-down list

  3. ((c))

    Option box

  4. ((d))

    Dialogue box

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Dialogue box

The correct answer is the dialogue box.

Key Points

  • Menu bar:  A menu bar may be a graphical management component that contains drop-down menus. The menu bar's purpose is to provide a standard housing for window- or application-specific menus which offer access to such functions as gap files, interacting with the associate application, or displaying facilitate documentation or manuals.

<br>
  • Drop-down list: The drop-down list holds multiples of data in a list manner. The drop-down list can also be referred to as a graphical control program. The user can choose the desired data, by clicking on the list.

<br>
  • Option box: In the option box, the user can select the desired options provided in that box. The option box may contain radio buttons and checkboxes.

<br>
  • Dialogue box: A dialogue box is a secondary window that allows users to perform a command, asks users a question or provides users with information.

<br>

Thus the correct answer is the dialogue box.

49

In which year was Windows 10 released?

  1. ((a))

    2015

  2. ((b))

    2018

  3. ((c))

    2017

  4. ((d))

    2010

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2015

The correct answer is 2015.

Key Points

  • Windows 10 was the updated version of the Windows 8.1 operating system, developed by Microsoft.
  • Windows 10 was released on 15th July 2015 and went for retailing on 29th July 2015.
  • Windows 10 is using 32-bit processor and also works with BIOS firmware.

Thus the correct answer is 2015.

Additional Information

  • Microsoft first introduced its first GUI (Graphical User Interface) based operating system, named Microsoft Windows in the year 1983.
  • Microsoft Windows can perform all the tasks just like an operating system does. It can execute multiple instructions at a time.
  • It also made communication between the hardware and software.
50

Which of the following is NOT a valid way to delete the content of a cell in Microsoft Excel?

  1. ((a))

    Select the cell and press the Delete key

  2. ((b))

    Right-click on the cell and select ‘clear contents’

  3. ((c))

    Right-click on the cell and select ‘remove’

  4. ((d))

    Select the cell and press the Backspace key

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Right-click on the cell and select ‘remove’

The correct answer is Right-click on the cell and selects ‘remove’.

Key Points

  • The valid way to delete the content of a cell in Microsoft Excel are given below:
  • Right-click on the cell and select ‘clear contents' or delete.
  • A user can select the cell and press the Delete key.
  • A user can Select the cell and press the Backspace key.
  • But there is no such option as right-clicking on the cell and selecting ‘remove’.

 

The correct answer is Right-click on the cell and selects ‘remove’.

 Additional Information

  • MS Excel, a spreadsheet program, is widely used for varied functions, as a result, the info is simple to avoid wasting time, and data is accessible and removed with zero discomforts and less labour. Given below area unit some necessary advantages of exploitation MS Excel:
  • Easy To Store Data: Since there's no limit to the number of data that may be saved in an exceeding program, MS Excel is widely accustomed to saving or analysing information. Filtering info in stand out is simple and convenient.
  • Easy To Recover Data: If the data is written on a bit of paper, finding it should take longer, however, this is often not the case with Excel spreadsheets. Finding convalescent information is simple.
  • Application of Mathematical Formulas: Doing calculations has become more accessible and less time-taking with the formulas possibility in MS Excel.
  • More Secure: These spreadsheets are countersigned and secured in an exceedingly portable computer or laptop computer and therefore the chance of losing them is much lesser as compared to information written in registers or pieces of paper.
  • Data at One Place: Earlier, information was to be unbroken in several files and registers once the work was done. Now, this has become convenient as over one worksheet is accessible in an exceedingly single MS Excel file.
  • Neater and Clearer Visibility of Information: Once the info is saved within the type of a table, analysing it becomes easier. Thus, info may be a program that's a lot of legible and comprehensible.

General Studies & Logical Reasoning (20 questions)

51

Which of the following is NOT a fundamental right provided by the Indian Constitution?

  1. ((a))

    Right to Constitutional Remedy

  2. ((b))

    Right to Liberty

  3. ((c))

    Right to Seek Labour

  4. ((d))

    Right Against Exploitation

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Right to Seek Labour

The correct answer is the Right to Seek Labour.

Key Points 

  • The right to Seek Labor is not a fundamental right, but it comes in the Indian Labour Law.
  • Article 41 is in DPSP to secure the rights of workers.
  • These include the right to work of one's choice, the right against discrimination, the prohibition of child labor, just and humane conditions of work, social security, protection of wages, redress of grievances, right to organize and form trade unions, collective bargaining, and participation in management.

Fundamental Right

  • Articles 12 to 35 in part -III of the Indian constitution are fundamental rights.
  • Fundamental rights are not absolute, in other words, these rights can be suspended under special circumstances (except Articles 20 and 21).
  • The Fundamental Rights are taken from the American Bill of Rights.
  • Their violation can be taken to court to be enforced i.e. they are judicial.
  • Article 32 empowers the Supreme Court to protect the fundamental rights
  • The right to property which was a fundamental right was removed by the 44th Constitutional Amendment (1976)

Additional Information Right to Constitutional Remedy

  • There is a right in India that states that a person can move to the Supreme court if he/she wants to get their fundamental rights protected.
  • This right comes under article 32 for the Supreme court and article 226 for the high court.
  • It is known as the right to constitutional remedies.
  • There are 5 Constitutional Remedies given by the Indian Constitution Habeas Corpus, Certiorari, Prohibition, Mandamus, and Quo Warranto.

 Right to Liberty

  • According to Article 21: “Protection of Life and Personal Liberty: No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.”
  • This fundamental right is available to every person, citizens and foreigners alike.

 Right Against Exploitation

  • Article 23 of the Indian Constitution prohibits human trafficking and begar (forced labor without payment) to protect the millions of underprivileged and deprived people in the country.
  • The right is available to citizens of India as well as to non-citizens.
  • The right provides against human trafficking in the form of:
  • Selling and buying of men**, women, and children,** Prostitution, Devadasis, and Slavery.
  • Prohibition of Child Labour: Article 24 of the Indian Constitution forbids the employment of children below the age of 14 years in dangerous jobs like factories and mines
52

S is the mother of Z. F is the son of D. J is the husband of G. F is brother of G. R is the husband of S. D is the wife of Z. How is J related to F?

  1. ((a))

    Nephew

  2. ((b))

    Brother

  3. ((c))

    Cousin

  4. ((d))

    Brother-in-law

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Brother-in-law

Symbol table;

Now let's take important information from question;

  1. J is the husband of G.

  2. F is the brother of G.

3) F is the son of D.

  1. D is the wife of Z.

  2. S is the mother of Z.

Here we can see J is 'Brother-in-law' of F.

Hence, the correct answer is "Brother-in-law".

53

If in a certain code language, 'PENCIL' is coded as '59' then how will 'ERASER' be coded in that code language?

  1. ((a))

    66

  2. ((b))

    67

  3. ((c))

    64

  4. ((d))

    65

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

66

Positional value of alphabets;

LOGIC : THE CODE WORD IS SUM OF ALL ALPHABETS POSITIONAL VALUE OF GIVEN WORD.

Let's use this logic;

PENCIL : 59 →

Similarly;

ERASER : ? →

Hence, the correct answer is "66".

54

Choose the option which is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word.

Goat : Mimiaht :: Bee : ?

  1. ((a))

    Hiss

  2. ((b))

    Tweet

  3. ((c))

    Buzzing

  4. ((d))

    Torment

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Buzzing

Given:

Goat : Mimiaht :: Bee : ?

As per the given information:

In Goat : Mimiaht → the sound of goat is called mimiaht.

Similarly,

In Bee : ? → the sound of bee is called Buzzing.

Here, **'**Bee : Buzzing' is correct as per the given information.

Hence, the correct answer is "Buzzing".

55

The administrative capital of Assam is _______.

  1. ((a))

    Dhubri

  2. ((b))

    Shillong

  3. ((c))

    Jorhat

  4. ((d))

    Dispur

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Dispur

The correct answer is Dispur.

Key Points 

  • Dispur is the administrative capital of Assam and is a suburb of Guwahati.
  • It became the capital in 1973, when Shillong the erstwhile capital, became the capital of the state of Meghalaya that was carved out of Assam.
  • Dispur is the seat of power of the Government of Assam.
  • The Assam Secretariat (Janata Bhawan) building is located in Dispur along with the Assam Legislative Assembly House (total of 126 Members ), MLA Hostels, and the State Emergency Operations Centre.
  • The Bhorolu river flows through the heart of the Dispur
  • Basistha Ashram is six kilometers from Dispur.
  • It is popular for the Lord Shiva temple.
  • Prof. Jagadish Mukhi is the governor of Assam and Himanta Biswa Sarma is the Chief Minister of Assam (As of November 2022)

Additional Information Dhubri

  • Dhubri is an old town and headquarters of Dhubri district in the Indian state of Assam.
  • It is an old town on the bank of the Brahmaputra river, with historical significance.
  • Mahamaya Dham and shakti pith Snan Ghat, Chakrasila Wildlife Sanctuary, Florican Garden, and Netai Dhubuni Park are some famous places in Dhubri

Shillong

  • Shillong is a hill station in the northeastern part of India and the capital of Meghalaya.
  • It is said that the rolling hills around the town reminded the British of Scotland
  • Elephant Falls, Ka Phan Nonglait Park, Ward's Lake, Nokrek National Park, Balpakram National Park, and Siju Bird Sanctuary are some famous places in Meghalaya.

Jorhat

  • Jorhat is one of the important cities and a growing urban center in the state of Assam
  • Tea Research Institute is situated in Jorhat
56

Pulitzer Prize is related to which field?

  1. ((a))

    Film

  2. ((b))

    Journalism

  3. ((c))

    Sport

  4. ((d))

    Medical

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Journalism

The correct answer is Journalism.

Key Points

  • The Pulitzer Prize is an award for achievements in newspaper, magazine, online journalism, literature, and musical composition within the United States.
  • It was established in 1917 by provisions in the will of Joseph Pulitzer, who had made his fortune as a newspaper publisher, and is administered by Columbia University.
  • Prizes are awarded annually in twenty-one categories.
  • In twenty of the categories, each winner receives a certificate and a US$15,000 cash award (raised from $10,000 in 2017)

Additional Information 2022 Pulitzer Prizes:- 

CATEGORYWINNERS
Public ServiceThe Washington Post
Breaking News ReportingThe staff of the Miami Herald
National ReportingThe staff of The New York Times
International ReportingThe staff of The New York Times, notably Azmat Khan, contributing writer
Feature PhotographyAdnan Abidi, Sanna Irshad Mattoo, Amit Dave, and the late Danish Siddiqui (Indian journalist)
57

'Right to Education' comes under which article of the Indian Constitution?

  1. ((a))

    Article 19

  2. ((b))

    Article 39A

  3. ((c))

    Article 21A

  4. ((d))

    Article 43B

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Article 21A

The correct answer is Article 21A.

Key Points

  • The Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002 inserted Article 21-A
  • The Constitution of India provides free and compulsory education for all children in the age group of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right in such a manner as the State may, by law, determine.
  • Articles 12 to 35 in part -III of the Indian constitution are fundamental rights.
  • The concept of Fundamental Rights is inspired by the Bill of Rights provided in the US Constitution.
  • Fundamental rights are not absolute, in other words, these rights can be suspended under special circumstances (except Articles 20 and 21).

Additional Information Article 19

  • Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech etc
  • All citizens shall have the right
  • (a) to freedom of speech and expression;
  • (b) to assemble peaceably and without arms;
  • (c) to form associations or unions;
  • (d) to move freely throughout the territory of India;
  • (e) to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India; and
  • (f) Right to property omitted in 44th Amendment 1978.
  • (g) to practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade, or business

 Article 39A

  • That the citizens, men, and women equally, have the right to an adequate means of livelihood.
  • The article was inserted by the Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976.

 Article 43B

  • The State shall endeavor to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control, and professional management of co-operative societies."
  • The article was inserted by the Constitution 97th Amendment act, of 2011
58

The difference between the government's total income (total tax and non-debt capital receipts) and total expenditure is called _______.

  1. ((a))

    Fiscal debt

  2. ((b))

    Gross Domestic Product

  3. ((c))

    Fiscal deficit

  4. ((d))

    Revenue Loss

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Fiscal deficit

The correct answer is Fiscal deficit.

Key Points

  • The difference between the total revenue and total expenditure of the government is termed a fiscal deficit.
  • It is an indication of the total borrowings needed by the government.
  • While calculating the total revenue, borrowings are not included.
  • Fiscal Deficit = Total expenditure - Total receipts

Additional Information Fiscal debt

  • Debt is any money that is owed to someone else while the term deficit refers to a situation where expenses exceed revenues or liabilities exceed assets.
  • This difference is filled by government borrowings.

 Gross Domestic Product

  • Gross domestic product (GDP) is the standard measure of the value added created through the production of goods and services in a country during a certain period.
  • As such, it also measures the income earned from that production or the total amount spent on final goods and services (fewer imports).
  • GDP = private consumption + gross private investment + government investment + government spending + (exports – imports).

 Revenue Loss

  • Revenue loss occurs when a business earns less revenue than planned from operations due to external and internal variables.
  • A significant capital loss might result from client churn, company limitations, and market shifts.
59

Select an option that gives the name of a fruit when all the letters are re-arranged.

  1. ((a))

    GONMAE

  2. ((b))

    NABANAN

  3. ((c))

    HAPEC

  4. ((d))

    VAUEAGU

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

HAPEC

Unjumble the jumbled words;

1) GONMAE →MANGO → But E is Extra

2) NABANAN → BANANA → But one N is Extra in the Letters.

3) HAPEC → PEACH → Fruit 

4) VAUEAGU → GUAVA → U and E are extra

Hence, the correct answer is "HAPEC".

60

In a certain code language, 'WIT' is written as 'VXHJSU'. Using the same language, decode 'MONPCE'.

  1. ((a))

    NOD

  2. ((b))

    JOT

  3. ((c))

    TOP

  4. ((d))

    REX

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

NOD

Here, we are using the table given below:

The logic followed in the given code is:

Similarly,

Here, 'MONPCE' is coded as NOD as per logic.

Here, the correct answer is "NOD".

61

Which of the following options is not correctly matched?

  1. ((a))

    Ahmedabad : Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel International Airport

  2. ((b))

    New Delhi : Indira Gandhi International Airport

  3. ((c))

    Bengaluru: Rajiv Gandhi International Airport

  4. ((d))

    Kolkata: Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose International Airport

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Bengaluru: Rajiv Gandhi International Airport

The correct answer is Bengaluru: Rajiv Gandhi International Airport.

Key Points

  • Rajiv Gandhi International Airport is situated in Hyderabad Telangana.
  • Kempegowda International Airport is situated in Bengaluru Karnataka
  • The Airports Authority of India, or AAI, is a Miniratna Category-1 Public Sector Undertaking, under the ownership of the Ministry of Civil Aviation, Government of India.
  • It is responsible for creating, upgrading, maintaining, and managing civil aviation infrastructure in India.
  • There are seventeen international airports in India as on November 2022
Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose International Airport,Kolkata
Chennai International AirportChennai
Thiruvananthapuram International AirportKerala
Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel International AirportAhmedabad
Guru Ram Dass Jee International AirportAmritsar
Lokpriya Gopinath Bordoloi International AirportGuwahati
Goa International Airport (Civil Enclave)Goa
Srinagar International AirportJammu&Kashamir
Jaipur International AirportJaipur
Kozhikode AirportCalicut
Veer Savarkar International AirportPort Blair, A&N Islands (UT)
Indira Gandhi International AirportDelhi
Chattrapati Shivaji International AirportMumbai
GMR Hyderabad International AirportHyderabad
Bangalore International Airport LimitedBengaluru
Cochin International AirportKochi (Private)
Bharat Ratna Babasaheb Dr. B.R. Ambedkar International AirportNagpur (Maharashtra)

In News 

  • The Centre has so far privatized six airports, with Ahmedabad, Lucknow, Guwahati, Thiruvananthapuram, Jaipur, and Mangaluru being leased out to Adani Enterprises for 50 years.
  • Delhi Airport Becomes India's First to Run Solely on Hydro & Solar Power. (June 2022)
  • Kerala's Cochin International Airport Ltd (CIAL) is the first airport in the world that would be running fully on solar power. (2021)
  • Indra Gandhi International Airport was awarded 'the best and 'the cleanest' airport in India/South Asia, and Rajiv Gandhi International Airport bagged the title of the 'Best Airport Staff in India & South Asia' (in 2022).
  • Some Important Airports Name changes recently:-
Former NameCurrent NameYear of change
Lucknow AirportChaudhary Charan Singh Airport, Lucknow2008
Rajasansi International Airport, AmritsarSri Guru Ram Dass Jee International Airport, Amritsar2010
Mana Airport, RaipurSwami Vivekananda Airport, Raipur2012
Bengaluru International Airport, BengaluruKempegowda International Airport, Bengaluru2013
Agartala AirportMaharaja Bir Bikram Singh Airport, Agartala2018
Chhatrapati Shivaji International Airport, MumbaiChhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj International Airport, Mumbai2018
62

Choose the option which is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word.

Meghalaya : Shillong :: Sikkim : ?

  1. ((a))

    Bangalore

  2. ((b))

    Itanagar

  3. ((c))

    Gangtok

  4. ((d))

    Aizawl

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Gangtok

Given:

Meghalaya : Shillong :: Sikkim : ?

As per the given information:

In Meghalaya : Shillong → Shillong is capital of meghalaya.

Similarly,

In Sikkim : ? → Gangtok is capital of Sikkim.

Here, 'Sikkim : Gangtok' is correct as per the given information.

Hence, the correct answer is "Gangtok".

63

Which site of the Indus Valley Civilization was first discovered?

  1. ((a))

    Lothal

  2. ((b))

    Mohenjo-Daro

  3. ((c))

    Harappa

  4. ((d))

    Banwali

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Harappa

The correct answer is Harappa.

Key Points

  • Harappa is an archaeological site in Punjab, Pakistan
  • Harappa was the first site of the Indus Valley Civilization which was excavated by Dayaram Sahni in 1921.
  • Harappa was situated on the banks of the river Ravi.
  • Most sites of Harappan culture were discovered in Gujarat after the independence.
  • During the excavation, many similar things have been found from Harappa, which can be linked to Hinduism.
  • An idol of a priest, bull, Nandi, mother goddess, bullock cart, and Shivling.

Additional Information 

SiteRiverLocationExcavatorEvidence
LothalBhogawaGujratRangnath RaoMajor Port of Indus Valley
Mohenjo-DaroSindhuSindh Province (Pakistan)Rakhaldas BanerjeeThe Great Bath
BanwaliRangoiHissar (Haryana)Ravindra Singh Bishtseveral seals, weights were found
64

Which is the greatest epic ever written?

  1. ((a))

    Ramayana

  2. ((b))

    Mahabharata

  3. ((c))

    Firdausi - Shahnama

  4. ((d))

    Gilgamesh Epic

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Mahabharata

The correct answer is Mahabharata.

Key Points

  • The Mahabharata is one of the major Sanskrit epics of ancient India, Written by Veda Vyasa.
  • It narrates the struggle between two groups of cousins in the Kurukshetra War and the fates of the Kaurava and the Pandava princes and their successors.
  • It also contains philosophical and devotional material, such as discussing the four "goals of life" or Purusatha.
  • Principal works and stories in the Mahabharata are the Bhagavad Gita.

Additional Information 

BookTypeWriterAbout
RamayanaEpicValmikiBiography of Maryada Purusottama Shri Ram
ShahnamaEpic PoemFirdausiAbout the life of Mohammad Ghazni and his campaigns in India
Gilgamesh EpicEpic PoemSin-leqi-UnninniiHistory of the Middle Babylonian Period
65

Who among the following is a Nobel laureate?

  1. ((a))

    Sir Vidyadhar Surajprasad Naipaul

  2. ((b))

    Mahatma Gandhi

  3. ((c))

    Jawaharlal Nehru

  4. ((d))

    Indira Gandhi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sir Vidyadhar Surajprasad Naipaul

The correct answer is Sir Vidyadhar Surajprasad Naipaul.

Key Points

  • Sir Vidyadhar Surajprasad Naipaul (V.S. Naipaul) is a Trinidadian writer of Indian descent known for his pessimistic novels set in developing countries.
  • Naipaul won the Nobel Prize for Literature in 2001.

 Nobel Prize:-

  • The Nobel Prizes are five prizes that, according to Alfred Nobel's will of 1895, are awarded to "those who, during the preceding year, have conferred the greatest benefit to humankind."
  • Alfred Nobel was a Swedish chemist, engineer, and industrialist most famously known for the invention of dynamite.
  • Nobel Prize for Economics started in 1967.

Nobel Laureate Indian/Person of Indian Origin:- 

NameCategoryYear
Ravindra Natha TagorLiterature1913
C.V. RamanPhysics1930
Hargovind KhuranaMedicine1968
Mother TerresaPeace1979
Subramanyam ChandrshekharPhysics1983
Amraty SenEconomics1998
Venkatraman RamkrishanChemistry2009
Kailash SatyrthiPeace2014
Abhijit BanerjeeEconomics2019

Important Points Nobel Prize Winner 2022:- 

The Nobel Prize in Physics 2022Alain Aspect, John F. Clauser, Anton Zeilinger
The Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2022Carolyn R. Bertozzi, Morten Meldal, K. Barry Sharpless
The Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine 2022Svante Paabo
The Nobel Prize in Literature 2022Annie Ernaux
The Nobel Peace Prize 2022Ales Bialiatski, Memorial, Center for Civil Liberties
Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences 2022Ben S. Bernanke, Douglas W. Diamond, Philip H. Dybvig
66

Select the option which is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.

RKP : VHS :: UJM : ?

  1. ((a))

    XHQ

  2. ((b))

    YHQ

  3. ((c))

    XGP

  4. ((d))

    YGP

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

YGP

Position values of the letters according to the English alphabet series,

The logic followed here is,

R + 4 → V

K - 3 → H

P + 3 → S

Similarly,

U + 4 → Y

J - 3 → G

M + 3 → P

So, UJM : ? → UJM : YGP

Hence, the  correct answer is "YGP".

67

Out of the following four words, three are alike in some way or the other and one is different. Identify the different word.

  1. ((a))

    Guru Nanak

  2. ((b))

    Bible

  3. ((c))

    Quran

  4. ((d))

    Ramayana

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Guru Nanak

As per the given information:

From all the above options:

1. Guru Nanak → Guru Nanak was the founder of Sikhism and is the first of ten Sikh gurus. 2. Bible → The bible is a collection of religious texts or sacred scriptures of Christianity. 3. Quran → The Quran is a collection of religious texts or sacred scriptures of Islam. 4. Ramayana → The Ramayana is a collection of lord ram's religious texts or sacred scriptures.

Here, Guru Nanak is different from other options.

Hence, the correct answer is "Guru Nanak"

68

Which of the following options is not correctly matched?

  1. ((a))

    EXIM : Export-Import Bank of India

  2. ((b))

    ICICI: Industrial Credit and International Corporation of India Limited

  3. ((c))

    HDFC : Housing Development Finance Corporation

  4. ((d))

    NABARD : National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

ICICI: Industrial Credit and International Corporation of India Limited

The correct answer is ICICI: Industrial Credit and International Corporation of India Limited.

Key Points

  • ICICI (Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India) Bank Limited is an Indian Private bank.
  • It is headquartered in Mumbai.
  • It offers a wide range of banking products and financial services for corporate and retail customers through a variety of delivery channels and specialized subsidiaries in the areas of investment banking, life, and non-life insurance, venture capital, and asset management.

Additional Information 

Major Financial InstitutionEstablished year
Imperial Bank of India1921
Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India (ICIC)January 1955
State Bank of India1 July 1955
Indian Unit Trust1 February 1964
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)12 July 1982
The Export-Import Bank of the United State (EXIM)1 January 1982
Small Industries Development Bank of IndiaApril 1990
69

Choose the similar pair for the following:

343 ∶ 6 ∶∶

  1. ((a))

    225 ∶ 15

  2. ((b))

    512 ∶ 7

  3. ((c))

    256 ∶ 4

  4. ((d))

    196 ∶ 17

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

512 ∶ 7

In 343 ∶ 6

6 + 1 = 7

7= 343

Similarly;

7 + 1 = 8

83 = 512

Hence, the correct answer is 512 ∶ 7

70

In the following number series, which of the alternatives should come in place of the a (?) question mark?

12, 14, 18, 24, 32, ?

  1. ((a))

    40

  2. ((b))

    42

  3. ((c))

    44

  4. ((d))

    46

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

42

Logic:

The pattern followed here is:

The sum of consecutive even numbers at every next step.

Here, the following term would be "42".

Hence, the correct answer is "42".

General Hindi (15 questions)

71

'प्रेमचंद' हिंदी के सुप्रसिद्ध कवि हैं' यह कथन क्या है?

  1. ((a))

    सत्य

  2. ((b))

    अपूर्ण

  3. ((c))

    अर्द्धसत्य

  4. ((d))

    असत्य

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

असत्य

सही उत्तर है - ‘असत्य’।

  • ‘प्रेमचंद हिंदी के सुप्रसिद्ध कवि हैं’ यह कथन असत्य है।
  • प्रेमचंद हिन्दी और उर्दू के सर्वाधिक लोकप्रिय उपन्यासकार, कहानीकार एवं विचारक थे।

Additional Information

  • धनपत राय श्रीवास्तव जो प्रेमचंद नाम से जाने जाते हैं।
  • उन्होंने सेवासदन, प्रेमाश्रम, रंगभूमि, निर्मला, गबन, कर्मभूमि, गोदान आदि लगभग डेढ़ दर्जन उपन्यास तथा कफन, पूस की रात, पंच

परमेश्वर, बड़े घर की बेटी, बूढ़ी काकी, दो बैलों की कथा आदि तीन सौ से अधिक कहानियाँ लिखीं।

72

'जो माँस खाता है' के लिए उपयुक्त शब्द क्या है?

  1. ((a))

    हिंसाचारी

  2. ((b))

    सर्वभक्षी

  3. ((c))

    सामिष

  4. ((d))

    निरामिष

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

सामिष

सही उत्तर है - ‘सामिष’।

  • जो माँस खाता है - सामिष

Key Pointsअन्य विकल्प:

  • हिंसाचारी :  हिंसा करने वाला।
  • सर्वभक्षी : सब कुछ भक्षण करने या खाने वाला।
  • निरामिष : मांस न खानेवाला।

Additional Information

  • जब किसी वाक्य में प्रयुक्त या स्वतन्त्र, किसी वाक्यांश के लिए किसी एक शब्द का प्रयोग किया जाता है,

जो उस वाक्यांश के अर्थ को पूरी तरह सिद्ध करता हो तो उसे वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द कहते हैं, अर्थात

अनेक शब्दों के लिए एक शब्द को प्रयुक्त करना ही वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द कहलाता है।

वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द :-

  • इतिहास का ज्ञाता - इतिहासज्ञ
  • एक सप्ताह में होने वाला-  साप्ताहिक
  • जो नियंत्रण में नहीं हो - अनियंत्रित
73

हिंदी खड़ी बोली गद्य का आविर्भाव किस शताब्दी में हुआ?

  1. ((a))

    बीसवीं

  2. ((b))

    अठारहवीं

  3. ((c))

    इक्कीसवीं

  4. ((d))

    उन्नीसवीं

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

उन्नीसवीं

सही उत्तर है - ‘उन्नीसवीं’।

  • हिंदी खड़ी बोली गद्य का आविर्भाव उन्नीसवीं शताब्दी में हुआ।
  • इस विकास में कोलकाता के फोर्ट विलियम कॉलेज की महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका रही।

Key Points

  • ठेठ या शुद्ध हिन्दी का चलन नहीं था। लगभग 18वीं शताब्दी के आरम्भ के समय कुछ हिन्दी गद्यकारों ने ठेठ हिन्दी बोली में लिखना शुरू किया।
  • इसी ठेठ हिन्दी को 'खरी हिन्दी' या 'खड़ी हिन्दी' कहा गया।
  • शुद्ध अथवा ठेठ हिन्दी बोली या भाषा को उस समय साहित्यकारों द्वारा खरी या खड़ी बोली के नाम से सम्बोधित किया गया था।

Important Points

  • खड़ी बोली के क्षेत्र: खड़ी बोली निम्न लिखित स्थानों के ग्रामीण क्षेत्रों में बोली जाती है- मेरठ, बिजनौर, मुज़फ़्फ़रनगर, सहारनपुर, देहरादून के मैदानी भाग, अम्बाला, कलसिया और पटियाला के पूर्वी भाग, रामपुर और मुरादाबाद।
74

नीचे दी गई कहानियों में कौन-सी कहानी प्रेमचंद की है?

  1. ((a))

    बड़े भाई साहब

  2. ((b))

    शरणदाता

  3. ((c))

    परिंदे

  4. ((d))

    कोसी का घटवार

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

बड़े भाई साहब

सही उत्तर है - ‘बड़े भाई साहब’।

  • बड़े भाई साहब’ कहानी प्रेमचंद की है।

Key Points

  • बड़े भाई साहब’ कहानी जो सन् 1936 में लिखी गई पर आज भी उतनी ही प्रासंगिक है।
  • ‘पढ़ोगे लिखोगे बनोगे नवाब, खेलोगे कूदोगे बनोगे ख़राब’ सहित रट्टामार, कठोर अनुशासन और सुंदर लिखावट के मिथक को तोड़, खेल के महत्त्व को रेखांकित करती है।

अन्य विकल्प:

  • शरणदाता नामक कहानी के लेखक : सच्चिदानंद हीरानंद वात्स्यायन
  • परिंदे नामक कहानी के लेखक : निर्मल वर्मा
  • कोसी का घटवार नामक कहानी के लेखक : शेखर जोशी
75

'आचार्य रामचंद्र शुक्ल हिंदी के आलोचक हैं', यह कथन क्या है?

  1. ((a))

    अर्द्धसत्य

  2. ((b))

    अपूर्ण

  3. ((c))

    गलत

  4. ((d))

    सही

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

सही

सही उत्तर है - ‘सही’।

  • ‘आचार्य रामचंद्र शुक्ल हिंदी के आलोचक हैं’, यह कथन सही है।

Key Points

  • हिन्दी में रामचन्द्र शुक्ल को सर्वश्रेष्ठ आलोचक माना जाता है।
  • हिन्दी में पाठ आधारित वैज्ञानिक आलोचना का सूत्रपात भी उन्हीं के द्वारा हुआ।

Additional Informationहिन्दी के प्रमुख आलोचक

  • रामचन्द्र शुक्ल
  • नन्ददुलारे वाजपेई
  • हजारीप्रसाद द्विवेदी
  • रामविलास शर्मा
  • डाॅ. नगेन्द्र प्रमुख आलोचक
  • डाॅ. नामवर सिंह
76

आचार्य महावीर प्रसाद द्विवेदी हिंदी की किस प्रसिद्ध पत्रिका के संपादक थे?

  1. ((a))

    माधुरी

  2. ((b))

    सरस्वती

  3. ((c))

    जागरण

  4. ((d))

    हंस

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

सरस्वती

सही उत्तर है - ‘सरस्वती’।

  • आचार्य महावीर प्रसाद द्विवेदी हिंदी की सरस्वती प्रसिद्ध पत्रिका के संपादक थे।
  • आचार्य महावीर प्रसाद द्विवेदी ने सरस्वती प्रसिद्ध पत्रिका का संपादन  जनवरी 1903 से दिसंबर 1920 तक किया।

Key Points अन्य विकल्प:

  • माधुरी पत्रिका: 
  • इसके संपादक विष्णुनारायण भार्गव थे। प्रारम्भ में कई वर्ष तक इसके संपादक दुलारेलाल भार्गव और रूपनारायण पाण्डेय थे।
  • बाद में प्रेमचन्द और कृष्णबिहारी मिश्र ने इसका संपादन किया।.
  • दैनिक जागरण:​
  • ​संजय गुप्ता दैनिक जागरण के मुख्य संपादक और जागरण समूह के सीईओ के साथ-साथ कंपनी में निदेशक भी हैं।
  • हंस:
  • हंस का प्रकाशन सन् 1930 ई० में बनारस से प्रारम्भ हुआ था। इसके सम्पादक मुंशी प्रेमचन्द थे।
  • प्रेमचन्द के सम्पादकत्व में यह पत्रिका हिन्दी की प्रगति में अत्यन्त सहायक सिद्ध हुई।

Important Points

पत्रिकासंपादक
सरस्वतीमहावीर प्रसाद द्विवेदी
समालोचकचंद्रधर शर्मा 'गुलेरी'
कविवचन सुधाभारतेन्दु हरिश्चन्द्र
प्रतापगणेश विद्यार्थी
इंदुआम्बिका प्रसाद गुप्त
77

'पोथी पढ़ि-पढ़ि जग मुआ पंडित भया न कोय' काव्य - पंक्ति किस कवि की है?

  1. ((a))

    सूरदास

  2. ((b))

    बिहारी

  3. ((c))

    तुलसीदास

  4. ((d))

    कबीर

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

कबीर

सही उत्तर है - ‘कबीर’।

  • ‘पोथी पढ़ि-पढ़ि जग मुआ पंडित भया न कोय' काव्य - पंक्ति कबीर की है।

Key Pointsपोथी पढ़ि पढ़ि जग मुआ, पंडित भया न कोय।

ढाई आखर प्रेम का, पढ़े सो पंडित होय।।

व्याख्या : 

  • बड़ी बड़ी पुस्तकें पढ़ कर संसार में कितने ही लोग मृत्यु के द्वार पहुँच गए, पर सभी विद्वान न हो सके।

कबीर मानते हैं कि यदि कोई प्रेम या प्यार के केवल ढाई अक्षर ही अच्छी तरह पढ़ ले, अर्थात

प्यार का वास्तविक रूप पहचान ले तो वही सच्चा ज्ञानी होगा।​

Additional Information

  • कबीर साहेब या कबीर परमेश्वर 15वीं सदी के भारतीय रहस्यवादी कवि और संत थे।​
  • वे हिन्दी साहित्य के भक्तिकालीन युग में परमेश्वर की भक्ति के लिए एक महान प्रवर्तक के रूप में उभरे।
  • इनकी रचनाओं ने हिन्दी प्रदेश के भक्ति आंदोलन को गहरे स्तर तक प्रभावित किया।

Important Points

  • गुरु गोविंद दोउ खड़े, काके लागूं पांय
  • बलिहारी गुरु आपनो, गोविंद दियो बताय।
  • पोथी पढ़ि पढ़ि जग मुआ, पंडित भया न कोय,
  • ढाई आखर प्रेम का, पढ़े सो पंडित होय।
  • माला फेरत जुग भया, फिरा न मन का फेर,
  • कर का मनका डार दे, मन का मनका फेर।
  • जाति न पूछो साधु की, पूछ लीजिये ज्ञान,
  • मोल करो तरवार का, पड़ा रहन दो म्यान
  • माया मुई न मन मुआ, मरी मरी गया सरीर.
  • आसा त्रिसना न मुई, यों कही गए कबीर .
78

चर्चित कहानी 'आकाशदीप' के लेखक कौन हैं?

  1. ((a))

    निर्मल वर्मा

  2. ((b))

    प्रेमचंद

  3. ((c))

    जयशंकर प्रसाद

  4. ((d))

    रामधारी सिंह 'दिनकर'

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

जयशंकर प्रसाद

सही उत्तर है - ‘जयशंकर प्रसाद’।

  • चर्चित कहानी 'आकाशदीप' के लेखक जयशंकर प्रसाद हैं।
  • जयशंकर प्रसाद कवि, नाटककार, कहानीकार, उपन्यासकार तथा निबन्ध लेखक थे।

Key Points

  • आकाशदीप जयशंकर प्रसाद का तीसरा कहानी संग्रह है, जिसका प्रकाशन सन् 1929 ई॰ में भारती भंडार, इलाहाबाद से हुआ था।
  • इसमें संकलित कहानियों की कुल संख्या उन्नीस है।

Additional Information

  • जयशंकर प्रसाद कवि, नाटककार, कहानीकार, उपन्यासकार तथा निबन्ध-लेखक थे।
  • वे हिन्दी के छायावादी युग के चार प्रमुख स्तंभों में से एक हैं।
  • उन्होंने हिन्दी काव्य में एक तरह से छायावाद की स्थापना की जिसके द्वारा खड़ीबोली के काव्य में न केवल कमनीय माधुर्य की रससिद्ध धारा प्रवाहित हुई,

​बल्कि जीवन के सूक्ष्म एवं व्यापक आयामों के चित्रण की शक्ति भी संचित हुई और कामायनी तक पहुँचकर वह काव्य प्रेरक शक्तिकाव्य के रूप में भी प्रतिष्ठित हो गया।

Important Points

 जयशंकर प्रसाद की महत्वपूर्ण कहानियां:

  • कहानी के क्षेत्र में प्रसादजी के पाँच कथा-संग्रह प्रकाशित हुए-'छाया', 'प्रतिध्वनि', 'आकाशदीप', 'आँधी' तथा 'इंद्रजाल'।
  • इन पाँचों कहानी संग्रहों में प���रसादजी की कुल 70 कहानियाँ प्रकाशित हईं।
  • इन कहानियों में मानव-जीवन के प्रत्येक पहलू को प्रदर्शित किया गया है।​
79

'कलंकारोपण' का क्या अर्थ होता है?

  1. ((a))

    दोष मढ़ना

  2. ((b))

    दोस्त बनाना

  3. ((c))

    वृक्षारोपण

  4. ((d))

    पौधरोपण

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

दोष मढ़ना

सही उत्तर है - ‘दोष मढ़ना’।

  • कलंकारोपण’ का क्या अर्थ दोष मढ़ना है अर्थात आरोपित करना।

Key Pointsअन्य विकल्प :

  • दोस्त बनाना अर्थात किसी व्यक्ति से मित्रता करना।
  • वृक्षारोपण या पौधरोपण  : छोटे पौधों को एक स्थान से खोदकर दूसरे स्थान पर लगाने की प्रक्रिया को वृक्षारोपण कहते हैं तथा इसी प्रकार बीज रोप का नया पौधा पोधा लगाना पौधरोपण कहलाता है।
80

निम्नलिखित में से व्याकरण की दृष्टि से अशुद्ध वाक्य को चुनिये।

  1. ((a))

    अभी देश में सर्वत्र शांति है।

  2. ((b))

    यूनान गहरे आर्थिक संकट से घिरा हुआ है।

  3. ((c))

    पृथ्वी का कोई भी देश कंप्यूटर क्रांति के प्रभाव से अछूता नहीं रहा।

  4. ((d))

    श्री मद् भागवत की कथा पंद्रह दिनों में समाप्त हुई।

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

यूनान गहरे आर्थिक संकट से घिरा हुआ है।

सही उत्तर है - “यूनान गहरे आर्थिक संकट से घिरा हुआ है”।

  • यूनान गहरे आर्थिक संकट से घिरा हुआ है। वाक्य व्याकरण की दृष्टि से अशुद्ध है।
  • शुद्ध वाक्य: यूनान गहरे आर्थिक संकट से जूझ रहा है।
  • अन्य विकल्प सही नहीं  है। क्योंकि उन वाक्यों में कोई त्रुटि नहीं है।

Key Points

  • वाक्य भाषा की अत्यंत महत्वपूर्ण इकाई है।

इसलिए लिखने या बोलने के समय यह ध्यान रखना चाहिए कि वह स्पष्ट और व्याकरणिक दृष्टि से शुद्ध हो।

वाक्यों के विभिन्न अंग यथास्थान होने चाहिए।

81

'रहिमन पानी राखिए, बिन पानी सब सून। पानी गए न ऊबरै, मोती मानुष चून' में कौन - सा अलंकार है?

  1. ((a))

    अनुप्रास

  2. ((b))

    यमक

  3. ((c))

    उपमा

  4. ((d))

    श्लेष

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

श्लेष

सही उत्तर है - ‘श्लेष’।

  • ‘रहिमन पानी राखिए, बिन पानी सब सून। पानी गए न ऊबरै, मोती मानुष चून' में श्लेष अलंकार है।
  • इस दोहे में पानी शब्द का प्रयोग तीन अर्थों में किया गया है।
  • मनुष्य के सन्दर्भ में आत्मसम्मान, मोती के सन्दर्भ में चमक या कान्ति, चुने के सन्दर्भ में सूखना
  • अतः यहाँ श्लेष अलंकार है।

Key Points

  • श्लेष अलंकार :
  • जब किसी शब्द का प्रयोग एक बार ही किया जाता है पर उसके एक से अधिक अर्थ निकलते हैं तब श्लेष अलंकार होता है।
  • **उदाहरण :**चरण धरत चिंता करत, चितवत चारहु ओर।

सुबरन को खोजत फिरत, कवि, व्यभिचारी, चोर।

  • यहाँ सुबरन का प्रयोग एक बार किया गया है, किन्तु पंक्ति में प्रयुक्त सुबरन शब्द के तीन अर्थ हैं; कवि के सन्दर्भ में सुबरन का अर्थ अच्छे शब्द,

व्यभिचारी के सन्दर्भ में सुबरन अर्थ सुन्दर वर, चोर के सन्दर्भ में सुबरन का अर्थ सोना है।

अन्य विकल्प:

  • यमक अलंकार :
  • जिस काव्य में समान शब्द के अलग-अलग अर्थों में आवृत्ति हो, वहाँ यमक अलंकार होता है।
  • उदाहरण : कनक कनक ते सौगुनी मादकता अधिकाय।

​या खाए बौरात नर या पाए बौराय।।

  • ​इस पद्य में ‘कनक’ शब्द का प्रयोग दो बार हुआ है। प्रथम कनक का अर्थ ‘सोना’ और दूसरे कनक का अर्थ धतूरा है।

अतः; ‘कनक’ शब्द का दो बार प्रयोग और भिन्नार्थ के कारण उक्त पंक्तियों में यमक अलंकार की छटा दिखती है

  • अनुप्रास अलंकार :
  • जब किसी काव्य को सुंदर बनाने के लिए किसी वर्ण की बार-बार आवृति हो तो वह अनुप्रास अलंकार कहलाता है।
  • उदाहरण : मधुर मधुर मुस्कान मनोहर, मनुज वेश का उजियाला।
  • यहाँ काव्य को सुंदर बनाने के लिए ‘’ वर्ण की बार-बार आवृति हो रही है।
  • उपमा अलंकार : 
  • किसी प्रस्तुत वस्तु की उसके किसी विशेष गुण, क्रिया, स्वभाव आदि की समानता के आधार पर अन्य अप्रस्तुत से समानता स्थापित की जाए तो उपमा अलंकार होगा।
  • उदाहरण : हरि पद कोमल कमल से।
  • यहाँ हरि (भगवान) के पैरों को कमल के समान कोमल बताया गया है।
82

'कर चले हम फिदा जानो-तन साथियो' काव्य-पंक्ति के लेखक का नाम बताइए?

  1. ((a))

    शकील बदायूँनी

  2. ((b))

    निराला

  3. ((c))

    कैफी आजमी

  4. ((d))

    दिनकर

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

कैफी आजमी

सही उत्तर है - ‘कैफी आजमी’।

  • ‘कर चले हम फिदा जानो-तन साथियो' काव्य-पंक्ति के लेखक का नाम कैफी आजमी है।

Key Points

  • कैफ़ी आजमी जी ने प्रस्तुत कविता को चीन और भारत के बीच युद्ध के समय बनी फिल्म ‘हकीक़त’ के लिए लिखा था।
  • इस कविता का उद्देश्य भारतीय नौजवानों में देशभक्ति की ऊर्जा का संचार करना था। उस समय युद्ध के दौरान बहुत से जवान शहीद हो रहे थे।
  • ऐसे में हर जगह मायूसी ही छाई थी। कवि इस गीत को लिख कर नौजवानों के अंदर ऊर्जा फूंकना चाहते थे, जिससे कि वो देशभक्ति की भावना से भरकर हँसते-हँसते अपना बलिदान कर सकें।
  • इस कविता से हमें उस समय युद्ध-भूमि में अपने प्राणों की बाजी लगा रहे जवानों की मनोस्थिति का पता चलता है।
83

निम्नलिखित में से भाववाचक संज्ञा के उदाहरण को चुनिये।

  1. ((a))

    हिमालय

  2. ((b))

    रेगिस्तान

  3. ((c))

    भारत

  4. ((d))

    एकता

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

एकता

सही उत्तर है - ‘एकता’।

  • एकता भाववाचक संज्ञा का उदाहरण है।
  • यहाँ एकता (एक होने) का भाव उत्पन्न हो रहा है।

Key Points

  • जिस संज्ञा शब्द से पदार्थों की अवस्था, गुण-दोष, भाव या दशा, धर्म आदि का बोध हो उसे भाववाचक संज्ञा कहते हैं।

जैसे : बुढ़ापा, मिठास, बचपन, मोटापा, चढ़ाई, थकावट आदि।

अन्य विकल्प:

  • रेगिस्तान में जातिवाचक संज्ञा है।
  • जिस शब्द से एक जाति के सभी प्राणियों अथवा वस्तुओं का बोध हो उसे जातिवाचक संज्ञा कहते हैं।
  • भारत में व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा है।
  • हिमालय में व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा है।
  • जिन शब्दों से किसी विशेष व्यक्ति, स्थान अथवा वस्तु के नाम का बोध हो, उसे व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा कहते हैं।

Additional Information

  • संज्ञा : 
  • किसी जाति, द्रव्य, गुण, भाव, व्यक्ति, स्थान और क्रिया आदि के नाम को संज्ञा कहते हैं।
  • जैसे - पशु (जाति), सुन्दरता (गुण), व्यथा (भाव), मोहन (व्यक्ति), दिल्ली (स्थान), मारना (क्रिया)।
84

'कनक कनक ते सौ गुनी, मादकता अधिकाय' काव्य - पंक्ति के रचयिता कौन हैं?

  1. ((a))

    वृंद

  2. ((b))

    बिहारी

  3. ((c))

    सूर

  4. ((d))

    रहीम

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

बिहारी

सही उत्तर है - ‘बिहारी’।

  • ‘कनक कनक ते सौ गुनी, मादकता अधिकाय’ काव्य - पंक्ति के रचयिता बिहारी हैं।

Key Points

  • बिहारी सतसई कवि बिहारी की रचना है, यह  मुक्तक काव्य है, इसमें 713 दोहे संकलित हैं।
  • इसमें नीति, भक्ति और शृंगार से संबंधित दोहों का संकलन है।

Additional Informationकनकु कनक तैं सौगुनौ मादकता अधिकाइ। 

उहिं खाऐं बौराइ जग इहिं पाऐं हीं बौराइ॥ 

व्याख्या:

  • स्वर्ण और धतूरे दोनों में मादकता होती है। सोने में धतूरे से सौगुनी अधिक मादकता पाई जाती है।

स्पष्ट शब्दों में सोना धातु होकर भी मनुष्य को उन्मत्त और पागल बना देता है तभी तो संसार में यह देखा जाता है

की लोग धतूरे को खाकर पागल होते हैं और सोने को प्राप्त करके ही उन्मत्त हो जाते हैं।

जिस वस्तु की प्राप्ति-मात्र से उन्मत्तता बढ़ जाए वह निश्चय ही उस वस्तु की तुलना में अधिक मादक है

जो खाने के पश्चात् मनुष्य की बुद्धि और विवेकशीलता को समाप्त कर देती है।

Important Points

  • सतसइया के दोहरा ज्यों न��वक के तीर....
  • मेरी भव-बाधा हरौ, राधा नागरि सोई......
  • सोहत ओढ़ैं पीतु पटु स्याम, सलौनैं गात.....
  • नहिं पराग नहिं मधुर मधु नहिं विकास यहि काल....
  • बतरस लालच लाल की मुरली धरी लुकाइ.......
  • चिरजीवौ जोरी जुरै, क्यों न सनेह गंभीर......
85

निम्नलिखित में कौन - सा शब्द 'विदेशज' है?

  1. ((a))

    आग

  2. ((b))

    औरत

  3. ((c))

    खेत

  4. ((d))

    पगड़ी

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

औरत

सही उत्तर है - ‘औरत’।

  • औरत शब्द ‘विदेशज' है।
  • औरत एक अरबी शब्द है।

Key Points

  • आग तद्भव शब्द है और अग्नि तत्सम शब्द है।
  • खेत तद्भव शब्द है और क्षेत्र तत्सम शब्द है।
  • पगड़ी एक देशज शब्द है।

Additional Information

  • विदेशी / विदेशज शब्द:-
  • विदेशी भाषाओं से हिंदी में आये शब्दों को विदेशी शब्द कहा जाता है।
  • इन विदेशी भाषाओं में मुख्यतः अरबी, फारसी, तुर्की, अंग्रेजी व पुर्तगाली शामिल है।
  • उदाहरण – औलाद, कसार, कसूर, सरकार, बेगम आदि।
  • देशज शब्द:-
  • ​​वे शब्द जिनकी उत्पत्ति के मूल का पता न हो परन्तु वे प्रचलन में हों, ऐसे शब्द देशज शब्द कहलाते हैं।
  • ये शब्द आम तौर पर क्षेत्रीय भाषा में प्रयोग किये जाते हैं।
  • उदाहरण – लोटा, कटोरा, डोंगा, डिबिया, खिचड़ी आदि।

General English (15 questions)

86

The following sentence is in jumbled order. Identify the option that arranges the words of the sentence in a meaningful order.

Delhi lives in elder brother my.

  1. ((a))

    My elder brother lives in Delhi.

  2. ((b))

    Delhi my elder brother in lives.

  3. ((c))

    My elder brother Delhi lives in.

  4. ((d))

    Delhi lives elder brother in my.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

My elder brother lives in Delhi.

The correct answer is 'My elder brother lives in Delhi'.

Key Points 

  • As in the given sentence we are talking about the speaker's elder brother who lives in Delhi.
  • We have to start the sentence with the subject about whom we are talking about i.e speaker's elder brother.
  • Then the subject is followed by the main verb or the helping verb.
  • Then the main verb or the helping verb is followed by the object.
  • Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
87

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

A friend of ours is repairing the roof .

  1. ((a))

    The roof is repaired by a friend of ours.

  2. ((b))

    The roof is being repair by a friend of ours.

  3. ((c))

    The roof is repair by a friend of ours.

  4. ((d))

    The roof is being repaired by a friend of ours.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The roof is being repaired by a friend of ours.

The correct answer is 'The roof is being repaired by a friend of ours'.

Key Points   

  • The given sentence is in active form of the sentence.
  • In active sentences, the thing doing the action is the subject of the sentence and the thing receiving the action is the object. Most sentences are active.
  • Structure of the sentence:- Subject + Main Verb + Object.
  • For example:- The ball hit him.
  • In order to convert the given sentence into passive form, we have to follow the below-mentioned structure:-
  • Passive form of a sentence is a sentence i.e being used when the grammatical subject is the person or thing that experiences the effect of an action, rather than the person or thing that causes the effect.
  • Structure of the sentence:- Subject + Helping Verb + V3 + by + the + Object.
  • For example:- He was hit by the ball.
  • By referring to the above explanation, it can be concluded that 'The roof is being repaired by a friend of ours' correctly expresses the given active form of the sentence in the passive voice.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

88

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

They built this house in 2019.

  1. ((a))

    This house was build in 2019.

  2. ((b))

    This house was built in 2019.

  3. ((c))

    This house is built in 2019.

  4. ((d))

    This house have build in 2019.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

This house was built in 2019.

The correct answer is 'This house was built in 2019'.

Key Points  

  • The given sentence is in active form of the sentence.
  • In active sentences, the thing doing the action is the subject of the sentence and the thing receiving the action is the object. Most sentences are active.
  • Structure of the sentence:- Subject + Main Verb + Object.
  • For example:- He teaches us mathematics.
  • In order to convert the given sentence into passive form, we have to follow the below-mentioned structure:-
  • Passive form of a sentence is a sentence i.e being used when the grammatical subject is the person or thing that experiences the effect of an action, rather than the person or thing that causes the effect.
  • Structure of the sentence:- Subject + Helping Verb + V3 + by + the + Object.
  • For example:- We are taught mathematics by him.
  • By referring to the above explanation, it can be concluded that 'This house was built in 2019' correctly expresses the given active form of the sentence in the passive voice.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

89

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in reported speech.

"Brother," said Poonam, "Have you been reading since morning?"

  1. ((a))

    Poonam asked her brother if he had been read since morning.

  2. ((b))

    Poonam asked her brother if he had reading since morning.

  3. ((c))

    Poonam asked her brother if he had been reading since morning.

  4. ((d))

    Poonam asked her brother if he has been reading since morning.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Poonam asked her brother if he had been reading since morning.

The correct answer is 'Poonam asked her brother if he had been reading since morning'.

Key Points      

  • The given sentence is in direct speech.
  • Direct speech:- The reporting of speech by repeating the actual words of a speaker.
  • For example:- ‘I'm going,’ she said.
  • We have to convert it into indirect speech.
  • Indirect speech:- Indirect speech is speech that tells you what someone said but does not use the person's actual words.
  • For example:- 'They said you didn't like it', 'I asked her what her plans were', and ' Citizens complained about the smoke'.
  • In order to convert the given direct speech into an indirect speech, we have to follow some of the steps:-
  • The reported verb said of a direct speech should be converted into asked in an indirect speech.
  • Reported speech written in inverted commas in the given direct speech should be removed while converting it into an indirect speech.
  • The pronoun (You) present in the given direct speech should be converted into the pronoun(he) in an indirect speech.
  • As the reported speech involved an interrogative sentence i.e a yes/no question, the inverted commas in the given direct speech should be removed while converting it into an indirect speech by adding if to it.
  • As the reported verb used in a direct speech indicates that the given sentence is in past tense form, 'have' should be converted into 'had' in an indirect speech.

​​Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

90

Choose the most appropriate preposition to fill in the blank.

She was surprised _______ see what he had done.

  1. ((a))

    about

  2. ((b))

    to

  3. ((c))

    of

  4. ((d))

    in

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

to

The correct answer is 'to'.

Key Points  

  • To is a preposition.
  • It is also used as part of the infinitive (the to-infinitive).
  • To as a preposition: destination or direction.
  • To as a preposition: receiver of an action.
  • For example:-  We're going to Liverpool next week.
  • About means on the subject of; concerning.
  • Of means expressing the relationship between a part and a whole; expressing the relationship between a scale or measure and a value.
  • In means expressing the situation of something that is or appears to be enclosed or surrounded by something else; expressing a period of time during which an event happens or a situation remains the case.
  • By referring to the above explanation, it can be concluded that to should be the appropriate option to be chosen for filling in the blank.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

91

Choose the most appropriate verb form of the following word.

RED

  1. ((a))

    Reds

  2. ((b))

    Reded

  3. ((c))

    Reden

  4. ((d))

    Redden

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Redden

The correct answer is 'Redden'.

Key Points  

  • Verb means a word used to describe an action, state, or occurrence, and forming the main part of the predicate of a sentence, such as hear, become, happen.
  • Red means of a colour at the end of the spectrum next to orange and opposite violet, as of blood, fire, or rubies.
  • For example:- Her eyes were red from crying.
  • The most appropriate verb form of the word red is redden.
  • Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
92

Choose the correctly spelt word.

  1. ((a))

    Beggar

  2. ((b))

    Begger

  3. ((c))

    Baggar

  4. ((d))

    Bagar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Beggar

The correct answer is 'Beggar'.

Key Points   

  • Let us explore the given options:-
  • Beggar means a person, typically a homeless one, who lives by asking for money or food.
  • In option 2, Begger is wrongly spelt as the letter 'e' before 'r' should be replaced by 'a' in order to correct it.
  • In option 3, Baggar is wrongly spelt as the letter 'a' after 'B' should be replaced by 'e' in order to correct it.
  • In option 4, Bagar is wrongly spelt as the letter 'a' before 'g' should be replaced by 'e' and the letter 'g' should be added just after 'g' in order to correct it.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

93

Fill in the blank with the correct modal verb of the word given in the brackets.

These roses _______ (ability) grow anywhere.

  1. ((a))

    can

  2. ((b))

    must

  3. ((c))

    will

  4. ((d))

    should

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

can

The correct answer is 'can'.

Key Points  

  • Can means be able to; be permitted to.
  • For example:-  You can go home now.
  • Must means be obliged to; should (expressing necessity).
  • Will means expressing the future tense.
  • Should means used to indicate obligation, duty, or correctness, typically when criticizing someone's actions.
  • By referring to the above explanation, it can be concluded that can should be the appropriate option to be chosen for filling in the blank.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

94

Choose the correct negative form of the following sentence.

She looks very beautiful on the stage.

  1. ((a))

    She did not look very beautiful on the stage.

  2. ((b))

    She does not look very beautiful on the stage.

  3. ((c))

    She do not looks very beautiful on the stage.

  4. ((d))

    She does not looks very beautiful on the stage.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

She does not look very beautiful on the stage.

The correct answer is 'She does not look very beautiful on the stage'.

Key Points   

  • The given sentence is an affirmative form of the sentence.
  • An affirmative sentence, as the name suggests, is a sentence structure that affirms a proposition, a day-to-day action, an idea, a request or a random thought.
  • In simpler terms, it can be said that an affirmative sentence is a positive statement.
  • In order to transform the given affirmative sentence into the negative one, we have to follow the below structure:-
  • A negative sentence is a sentence that states that something is false.
  • In English, we create negative sentences by adding the word 'not' after the auxiliary, or helping, verb.
  • For example:- He wasn't eating white rice.
  • By referring to the above explanation, it can be concluded that She does not look very beautiful on the stage should be the appropriate option to be chosen as the correct negative form.
  • Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
95

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate article. If no article is needed, select ‘No article required’.

Honesty is ______ best policy.

  1. ((a))

    the

  2. ((b))

    an

  3. ((c))

    a

  4. ((d))

    No article required

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

the

The correct answer is 'the'.

Key Points    

  • In English, there are three articles: a, an, and the.
  • Articles are used before nouns or noun equivalents and are a type of adjective.
  • The definite article (the) is used before a noun to indicate that the identity of the noun is known to the reader.
  • The indefinite article (a, an) is used before a noun that is general or when its identity is not known.
  • There are certain situations in which a noun takes no article which are as follows:
  • When non-count nouns are used that refer to items that are not counted and are always singular then no article is used before them.
  • No article is used when we are talking about things in a general way not in a specific way.
  • By referring to the above explanation, it can be concluded that the should be the appropriate option to be chosen for filling the blank.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

96

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate interrogative pronoun.

_______ wrote ‘The Canterbury Tales’?

  1. ((a))

    Whose

  2. ((b))

    How

  3. ((c))

    Who

  4. ((d))

    Which

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Who

The correct answer is 'Who'.

Key Points

  • Who means what or which person or people.
  • For example: Do you know who wrote this novel?
  • Whose means belonging to or associated with which person.
  • How means in what way or manner; by what means.
  • Which means asking for information specifying one or more people or things from a definite set.
  • By referring to the above explanation, it can be concluded that who should be the appropriate option to be chosen for filling the blank.
  • Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
97

What will be the correct affirmative form of the following sentence?

I did not see anyone entering his office.

  1. ((a))

    I saw someone entering his office.

  2. ((b))

    I did see anyone entering his office.

  3. ((c))

    I see anyone entering his office.

  4. ((d))

    I did saw someone entering his office.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

I saw someone entering his office.

The correct answer is 'I saw someone entering his office'.

Key Points    

  • The given sentence is an negative form of the sentence.
  • A negative sentence is a sentence that states that something is false.
  • In English, we create negative sentences by adding the word 'not' after the auxiliary, or helping, verb.
  • For example:- He wasn't playing in the evening.
  • In order to transform the given negative sentence into the affirmative one, we have to follow the below structure:-
  • An affirmative sentence, as the name suggests, is a sentence structure that affirms a proposition, a day-to-day action, an idea, a request or a random thought.
  • In simpler terms, it can be said that an affirmative sentence is a positive statement.
  • For example:- He is doing his homework.
  • By referring to the above explanation, it can be concluded that I saw someone entering his office should be the appropriate option to be chosen as the correct affirmative form.
  • Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
98

Choose the most appropriate adjective form of the following word.

ADVENTURE

  1. ((a))

    Adventuree

  2. ((b))

    Adventured

  3. ((c))

    Adventures

  4. ((d))

    Adventurous

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Adventurous

The correct answer is 'Adventurous'.

Key Points  

  • Adjective means a word naming an attribute of a noun, such as sweet, red, or technical.
  • Adventure means an unusual and exciting or daring experience.
  • For example:- He loved adventure and to test his powers; he had great self-confidence.
  • The most appropriate adjective form of the word adventure is adventurous.
  • Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
99

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option.

_______ you like gardening?

  1. ((a))

    Have

  2. ((b))

    Do

  3. ((c))

    Was

  4. ((d))

    Are

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Do

The correct answer is 'Do'.

Key Points    

  • ​As in the given sentence, we are talking about someone and asking him/her that whether he/she likes gardening or not.
  • In option 1, have is used, i.e grammatically incorrect as have is followed by V3.
  • In option 2, do is used, i.e grammatically correct as do is followed by V1.
  • In option 3, was is used i.e again grammatically incorrect as was is followed by V4.
  • In option 4, are is used i.e again grammatically incorrect as are is followed by V4.
  • Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
100

Fill in the blank with the correct form of the verb given in the brackets.

I have ______ (know) her since 1990.

  1. ((a))

    know

  2. ((b))

    known

  3. ((c))

    knows

  4. ((d))

    knew

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

known

The correct answer is 'known'.

Key Points          

  • Known is the the correct form of the verb that should be used in the given blank as have is followed by V3 form of the verb.
  • For example:  I have known Tom since I was a little boy.
  • By referring to the above explanation, it can be concluded that known should be the appropriate option to be chosen for filling the blank.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Domain Knowledge (150 questions)

101

In the Ferranti effect, what is the effect on the voltage at the receiving end of the transmission line as compared to the sender end?

  1. ((a))

    decrease

  2. ((b))

    increase

  3. ((c))

    become zero

  4. ((d))

    constant

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

increase

The correct answer is option 2):(increase)

Concept:

Ferranti Effect:

  • The effect in that the receiving end voltage is higher than sending end voltage in the long transmission line.
  • It mainly occurs because of a light load or open circuit at the receiving end
  • . It is due to the charging current of the line. When an alternating voltage is applied, the current that flows into the capacitor is called the charging current.
  • The charging current increases in the line when the receiving end voltage of the line is larger than the sending end.

Method to Minimize Ferrant Effect:

  • This voltage can be controlled by placing the shunt reactors at the receiving end of the lines
  • A shunt reactor is an inductive current element connected between line and neutral to compensate for the capacitive current from transmission lines.
  • When this effect occurs in long transmission lines, shunt reactors compensate the capacitive VAr of the lines and therefore the voltage is regulated within the prescribed limits.

Ferranti on long overhead lines can't be experienced

  • when The line heavily loaded.
  • The power factor is unity.
102

Which digital gate performs the multiplication operation?

  1. ((a))

    AND Gate

  2. ((b))

    NOR Gate

  3. ((c))

    OR Gate

  4. ((d))

    NAND Gate

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

AND Gate

The correct answer is option 1):(AND Gate)

Concept:

Logic gates: It is an electric circuit, which works on simple Boolean algebra to perform a logical operation for one or more binary inputs that produce a single binary output.

AND Gate:

If both the inputs are high, it produces a high output.

It  performs the multiplication operation

The Boolean algebra for AND gate is X = A. B

 

F1 J.K 13.6.20 Pallavi D21

103

In a moving coil dynamometer type, which type of damping is provided?

  1. ((a))

    Air friction

  2. ((b))

    Mechanical damping

  3. ((c))

    Induction of coil

  4. ((d))

    Eddy current

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Air friction

The correct answer is option 1): Air friction

Concept:

  • A Dynamometer wattmeter is an instrument commonly used for the measurement of DC as well as AC electric power.
  • It works on the principle of a dynamometer i.e. a mechanical force acts between two current-carrying conductors
  • The electrodynamometer wattmeter has a fixed coil divided into two parts and is connected in series with the load and caries the load current (I1).
  • The moving coil is connected across the load through a series multiplier resistance (R) and carries a current (I2) proportional to the load voltage.
  • The fixed coil is called as Current Coil and the moving coil is called as Potential Coil.
  • The controlling torque is provided by two spiral springs.
  • Air friction damping is provided in an electrodynamometer wattmeter. A pointer is attached to the moving coil

104

If the peak value of the wave is VPK, then what will be the RMS value of the square wave?

  1. ((a))

    (\sqrt{2V}_{PK})

  2. ((b))

    VPK

  3. ((c))

    (\frac{V_{PK}}{\sqrt{3}})

  4. ((d))

    (\frac{V_{PK}}{\sqrt{2}})

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

VPK

Concept:

The DC value or the average value of a waveform f(t) is given by the Area under the curve for one complete time period; i.e.,

({f_{DC}} = \frac{1}{T}\mathop \smallint \nolimits_o^T f\left( t \right)dt)

RMS value 'or' the effective value of an alternating quantity is calculated as:

({V_{rms}} = \sqrt{\frac{1}{T}\mathop \smallint \limits_0^T {v^2}\left( t \right)dt} )

For a Square wave 

If VPK is the peak value then

RMS value = Average value = VPK

105

Which of the following is an advantage of the double cage induction motor over single cage rotor?

  1. ((a))

    Low efficiency

  2. ((b))

    Low slip

  3. ((c))

    High efficiency

  4. ((d))

    Low starting current

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Low starting current

The correct answer is option 4):(Low starting current)

Concept:

Comparison between double squirrel cage motor and round bar cage motor:

  • A double cage rotor has a low starting current and high starting torque, therefore, it is more suitable for direct online starting
  • Since the effective rotor resistance of a double cage motor is higher, there is larger rotor heating at the time of starting as compared to that of a single cage rotor
  • The high resistance of the outer cage increases the resistance of the double cage motor, so full-load copper losses are raised, and efficiency is decreased
  • The pull-out torque of double cage motor is smaller than single cage motor
  • The cost of a double cage motor is about 20-30% more than that of a single cage motor of the same rating

Additional Information

  • The rotor of a double squirrel cage motor has two independent cages on the same rotor. Bars of high resistance and low reactance are placed in the outer cage, and bars of low resistance and high reactance are placed in the inner cage.
106

The rate at which the capacity of a battery is built up is known as:

  1. ((a))

    Q - Rate

  2. ((b))

    D - Rate

  3. ((c))

    R - Rate

  4. ((d))

    C - Rate

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

C - Rate

The correct answer is option 4):C - Rate

Concept:

  • The C-rate is the unit battery experts use to measure the speed at which a battery is fully charged or discharged.
  • For example, charging at a C-rate of 1C means that the battery is charged from 0-100% in one hour.
  • A C-rate higher than 1C means a faster charge
  • For example, a 3C rate is three times faster, so a full charge in 20 minutes. Likewise, a lower C-rate means a slower charge: C/5 (or 0.2C) would be five times slower than 1C, amounting to a five-hour charge.
  • It depends on the current density
  • The amount of electrical current that goes through the battery is divided by the area of its layers.
  • For a given C-rate, the current density will be a function of the loading of the cathode, which is closely related to its thickness.
  • Thus, when comparing C-rates, it’s important to ensure the cathode loading is at commercially relevant levels: for EVs, this is typically in the range of 2.5-5 mAh/cm2.
107

 DC shunt generator is a

  1. ((a))

    separately excited generator

  2. ((b))

    Parallel-series excited generator

  3. ((c))

    Self-excited generator

  4. ((d))

    Series excited generator

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Self-excited generator

The correct answer option 3):(Self-excited generator)

Concept:

  • A shunt generator is a type of electric generator in which field winding and armature winding are connected in parallel, and in which the armature supplies both the load current and the field current for the excitation (the generator is therefore self-excited)
  • The following conditions must be satisfied for voltage build-up in a self-excited DC generator.
  • There must be sufficient residual flux in the field poles.
  • The field terminals should be connected in such a way that the field current increases flux in the direction of residual flux.
  • The field circuit resistance should be less than the critical field circuit resistance.

Additional Information

108

Which type of speed control method is used in small motors like food mixers, and fans?

  1. ((a))

    Series area tapping method

  2. ((b))

    Applied voltage control method

  3. ((c))

    Field diverter method

  4. ((d))

    Armor resistance method

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Series area tapping method

The correct answer option 1): (Series area tapping method)

Concept:

The speed control method is used in small motors like food mixers, and fans can be done by connecting resistors in series to adjust the input current

The speed is inversely proportional to the armature current.

By Adjusting the input taps the speed can be controlled.

109

If the number of coils per phase per pole is unequal in coil groups, then the respective winding is called _______.

  1. ((a))

    Even group

  2. ((b))

    Balanced coil

  3. ((c))

    Unbalanced coil

  4. ((d))

    Disparate group

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Unbalanced coil

The correct answer is option 3):  Unbalanced coil

Concept:

An unbalanced winding has a combination of a number of poles and the number of slots that do not allow the arrangement of the coil in such a way that they produce a symmetrical system of equally time-phase displaced emf of identical magnitude, frequency, and waveform.

A 6-pole 9-slot winding has 3 winding symmetries and is balanced

A 6-pole 12-slot winding has also 3 winding symmetries but is unbalanced.

The number of slots = Qs

The number of poles = P

For unbalanced winding:

(\frac{Q_s}{3\cdot GCD\left( Q_s, \frac{p}{2} \right)} \mbox{ is not integer} )

balanced winding:

(\frac{Q_s}{3\cdot GCD\left( Q_s, \frac{p}{2} \right)} \mbox{ is integer} )

The greatest common divisor (GCD) between the number of slots and the number of pole pairs indicates the number of winding symmetries.

110

Which of the following is not required for lighting design calculations?

  1. ((a))

    Measurement of the area where the light is to be provided

  2. ((b))

    Manufacturer Data Sheet of Lamp 

  3. ((c))

    Weight of personnel/persons working in that area

  4. ((d))

    Area Requirement Study of Artificial Lighting

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Weight of personnel/persons working in that area

The correct answer is option 3): (Weight of personnel/persons working in that area)

Concept:

The key steps in the design process are:

  1. Identify the requirements. Measurement of the area where the light is to be provided.Area Requirement Study of Artificial Lighting
  2. Determine the method of lighting.
  3. Select the lighting equipment.
  4. Calculate the lighting parameters and adjust the design as required. Manufacturer Data Sheet of Lamp
  5. Determine the control system.
  6. Choice of the luminaire.
  7. Inspect the installation upon completion.

So option 3 is wrong

111

What is the lifespan of a halogen lamp?

  1. ((a))

    500 - 800 hours

  2. ((b))

    1000 - 1200 hours

  3. ((c))

    2000 - 3500 hours

  4. ((d))

    100 - 300 hours

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2000 - 3500 hours

The correct answer is option 2):2000 - 3500 hours

Concept:

  • A halogen lamp is an incandescent lamp consisting of a tungsten filament sealed in a compact transparent envelope that is filled with a mixture of inert gas and a small amount of a halogen, such as iodine or bromine.
  • This allows the filament to operate at a higher temperature than a standard incandescent lamp of similar power and operating life. this also produces light with higher luminous efficacy and color temperature.
  • The small size of halogen lamps permits their use in compact optical systems for projectors and illumination.
  • Halogen lamps are used in automotive headlamps, under-cabinet lighting, and work lights.
  • The life span of a halogen lamp is 2000 - 3500 hours
112

The EMF of a cell falls from 2.1 V to 1.8 V when its terminals are joined to an external resistance of 4 Ω. The value of the current flowing through the external resistance is:

  1. ((a))

    0.45 A

  2. ((b))

    0.045 A

  3. ((c))

    45 A

  4. ((d))

    4.5 A

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0.45 A

The correct  answer is option 1): 0.45 A

Concept:

The current I is given by

I = (Voltage \over R)

Calculation:

V = 1.8 V

I = (1.8 \over 4)

= 0.45 A

113

A three-phase, 50 Hz induction motor has 8 poles and operates at 20 percent slip. What is the frequency of rotor current ?

  1. ((a))

    20 Hz

  2. ((b))

    10 Hz

  3. ((c))

    50 Hz

  4. ((d))

    100 Hz

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

10 Hz

The correct answer is option 2):( 10 Hz)

Concept:

 The synchronous speed is given by

Ns = (120f\over P)

Where, f is the supply frequency in Hz or C/s

P is the number of poles

The induction motor rotates at a speed (Nr) close but less than the synchronous speed.

Slip of an induction motor is given by,

(s = \frac{{{N_s} - {N_r}}}{{{N_s}}})

Where,

Ns is the synchronous speed and Nr is the rotor speed

Rotor current frequency

(fr) = (s)(f)

The slip is negative when the rotor speed is more than the synchronous speed of the rotor field and is in the same direction.

Calculation:

Given 

P = 8

f= 50 Hz

s= 0.2

(fr) = (s)(f)

= 0.2 × 50

= 10 Hz

114

What are the components of home thermal appliances are made up of?

  1. ((a))

    Eureka

  2. ((b))

    Tungsten

  3. ((c))

    Nichrome

  4. ((d))

    Silver

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Nichrome

The correct answer is option 3): (Nichrome)

Concept:

  • Nichrome, an Alloy of nickel and chromium
  • Nickel 80%-20% chromium
  • It is highly resistive, Even heating up for small current
  • It is incredibly useful as a heating element in commercial products and home tools. Toasters and hair dryers use coils of nichrome wire to create large amounts of heat
  • The most common use for tungsten is in light bulb filaments and is also used in aerospace, military equipment, electronics, and nuclear reactors.
115

Which of the following methods is used to find the synchronous reactance of a synchronous motor?

  1. ((a))

    Thermal method

  2. ((b))

    Equal area method

  3. ((c))

    Potier's method

  4. ((d))

    Circle diagram method

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Potier's method

The correct answer is option 3):(Potier's method)

Potier triangle method:

  • This method depends on the separation of the leakage reactance of the armature and its effects
  • It is used to find the synchronous reactance of a synchronous motor
  • It is used to obtain the leakage reactance and field current equivalent of the armature reaction.
  • It is the most accurate method of voltage regulation. Calculating the regulation requires open circuit characteristics and zero power factor characteristics.

Additional Information

Synchronous impedance method (EMF Method):

  • The synchronous impedance method of calculating the voltage regulation of an alternator is otherwise called the EMF method. The synchronous impedance method or the EMF method is based on the concept of replacing the effect of armature reaction with an imaginary reactance.
  • This method is not accurate as it gives a result that is higher than the original value.
  • That's why it is called the pessimistic method. For calculating the regulation, the synchronous method requires the armature resistance per phase, the open-circuit characteristic, and the short-circuit characteristic.

Armature turn method:

  • It is also known as the MMF method.
  • It gives a value that is lower than the original value.
  • That's why it is called an optimistic method.
  • To calculate the voltage regulation by MMF Method, the following information is required. They are as follows:

          The resistance of the stator winding per phase Open circuit characteristics at synchronous speed Field current at rated short circuit current

116

What is the voltage range for a super tension cable?

  1. ((a))

    1 - 11 kV

  2. ((b))

    11 - 33 kV

  3. ((c))

    more than 66 kV

  4. ((d))

    33 - 66 kV

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

11 - 33 kV

The correct answer is option 2):(11 - 33 kV)

Concept:

The cables for operating voltage up to a maximum of 33000 V or 33 kV are said to be super tension cables.

Classification of underground cables on the basis of voltage level is given below

Type of CableVoltage Level kV
Low tension cable0 -1 kV
High tension cable1- 11 kV
Super  tension cable11-33kV
Extra High tension cable33-66 kV
Extra Super  tension cable66 kV and above
117

What will be the effect of increase in temperature on the resistance of an insulator?

  1. ((a))

    resistance will remain the same

  2. ((b))

    resistance will increase

  3. ((c))

    Resistance will first increase, then decrease

  4. ((d))

    resistance will decrease

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

resistance will decrease

The correct answer is option 4):(resistance will decrease)

Concept:

Effect of temperature on insulator:

  • With the increase in the temperature of the insulator, resistance will be decreased
  • In insulators, there is a large gap between Valance and conduction band
  • When the temperature raised, the electrons moved from the valance band to the conduction band
  • The conductance will increase due to the availability of free electrons in the conduction band, so the resistance decreases with an increase in temperature in the insulator.

Additional Information

  • Resistance of a conductor increases with an increase in temperature.α is positive.

R=R0​(1+ α ΔT)

  • The resistivity of a semiconductor decreases with temperature.

The Temperature vs Resistivity graph for electrical material is shown below,

118

For armouring of underground cable, the material used is:

  1. ((a))

    galvanised steel wire

  2. ((b))

    wood

  3. ((c))

    aluminium

  4. ((d))

    copper

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

galvanised steel wire

The correct answer is option 1):(galvanised steel wire)

Concept:

  • Over the bedding, armouring is provided which consists of one or two layers of galvanized steel wire or steel tape.
  • Its purpose is to protect the cable from mechanical injury while laying it and during the course of handling.
  • Armouring may not be done in the case of some cables.
  • Galvanized steel is magnetic because the base steel metal is magnetic.
  • Galvanized steel is covered with a thin layer of zinc and this process does not interfere with the magnetic strength of the steel.

RRB JE EE 78 15Q Power Systems 1 Hindi - Final 2

119

The common name of control circuit used to drive lamps is:

  1. ((a))

    electronics power circuit

  2. ((b))

    electronics ballast

  3. ((c))

    electronics protection

  4. ((d))

    electronics device

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

electronics ballast

The correct answer is option 2): (electronics ballast)

Concept:

  • An electronic ballast is a device that controls the starting voltage and the operating currents of lighting devices
  • It works on the principle of electrical gas discharge.
  • An electronic ballast will convert power frequency to a very high frequency to initialize the gas discharge process in Fluorescent Lamps – by controlling the voltage across the lamp and current through the lamp.

There are some advantages to using electronic ballast instead of electromagnetic ballast.

  • It operates in low supply voltage. It produces a high frequency to give a very high output voltage initially to start up the discharge process.
  • ​It creates very low noise during operation.
  • It does not create any stroboscopic effect or RF interference.
  • As it works with a very high frequency, it helps to start the lamp operation instantaneously
  • It does not require any starter that is used in electromagnetic ballast
  • It never creates flickering.
  • No start-up vibration occurs.
120

Which of the following is the reason for using differential coverings in cables?

  1. ((a))

    to include in insulation

  2. ((b))

    For uniform stress distribution

  3. ((c))

    to reduce stress

  4. ((d))

    to provide security

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

For uniform stress distribution

The correct answer is option 2):(For uniform stress distribution)

Concept:

  • The electrostatic or voltage stress in a single core cable has a maximum value (gmax) at the conductor surface and goes on decreasing as we move towards the sheath.
  • The maximum voltage that can be safely applied to a cable depends upon gmax i.e., electrostatic stress at the conductor surface. For the safe working of a cable having a homogeneous dielectric, the strength of the dielectric must be more than gmax.
  • If a dielectric of high strength is used for a cable, it is useful only near the conductor where stress is maximum.
  • But as we move away from the conductor, the electrostatic stress decreases, so the dielectric will be unnecessarily over-strong.
  • The unequal stress distribution in a cable is undesirable for two reasons. Firstly, insulation of greater thickness is required which increases the cable size. Secondly, it may lead to a breakdown of insulation.
  • The process of achieving uniform electrostatic stress in the dielectric of cables is known as the grading of cables.
  • The reason for using differential coverings in cables,For uniform stress distribution
121

Which of the following is NOT a parameter on the power curve of a wind turbine?

  1. ((a))

    Thermal limit

  2. ((b))

    Cut-in

  3. ((c))

    Rated wind speed

  4. ((d))

    Cut-out

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Thermal limit

The correct answer is option 1):(Thermal limit)

Concept:

  • The power curve of a wind turbine is a graph that indicates how large the electrical power output will be for the turbine at different wind speed
  • Power curves are found by field measurements, where an anemometer is placed on a mast reasonably close to the wind turbine (not on the turbine itself or too close to it, since the turbine rotor may create turbulence, and make wind speed
  • The cut-in speed (typically between 6 and 9 mph) is when the blades start rotating and generating power. As wind speeds increase, more electricity is generated until it reaches a limit, known as the rated speed. This is the point that the turbine produces its maximum, or rated power.
  • The rated wind speed is defined as the wind speed at which the rated power (the maximum output power) of the electrical generator is reached
  • The cut-out speed is the point at which the turbine must be shut down to avoid damage to the equipment

so option 1 is wrong.

122

What is included in the Incandescent Lamp Glass Envelope?

  1. ((a))

    mixture of nitrogen and argon gas

  2. ((b))

    mixture of hydrogen and nitrogen gas

  3. ((c))

    mixture of hydrogen and argon gas

  4. ((d))

    only argon gas 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

mixture of nitrogen and argon gas

The correct answer is option 1):(mixture of nitrogen and argon gas)

Concept:

  • The glass envelope of an electrical lighting device that contains and protects the light-emitting medium
  • The incandescent lamp contains a mixture of nitrogen and argon gas inside the glass envelope to enclose the tungsten filament
  • Gases in a light bulb prevent the tungsten from evaporating. otherwise, the bulb would be blackened

F1 Raviranjan 29-12-21 Savita D18

123

What is the name of the mechanical rectifier in DC machines?

  1. ((a))

    commutator brush system

  2. ((b))

    Diode rectifier system

  3. ((c))

    Armature system

  4. ((d))

    field system

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

commutator brush system

The correct answer is option 1): (commutator brush system)

Concept:

A mechanical rectifier is a device for converting alternating current (AC) to direct current (DC) by means of mechanically operated switches

The commutators function as a mechanical rectifiers in a DC generator, transforming the alternating current from the windings to direct current in the external load circuit.

The commutator in a DC motor switches the direction of the current to deliver electricity to the windings.

124

Which technique is used to find the exact fault location of cables?

  1. ((a))

    Loop test of current

  2. ((b))

    Murray and Varley loop test

  3. ((c))

    Resistance measurement test

  4. ((d))

    Directional relay

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Murray and Varley loop test

The correct answer is option 2):( Murray and Varley loop test)

Concept:

Murray Loop Test :

  • Murray loop test is the most common and accurate method for locating earth faults and short-circuit faults
  • However, to perform the Murray loop test, it is necessary that a sound (good) cable runs along the faulty cable.
  • This test employs the principle of Wheatstone bridge for fault location
  • To perform the Murray loop test, the alongside sound cable and the faulty cable is shorted with a jumper conductor at the far end.
  • The test side end is connected through a pair of resistors to a voltage source. Also, a null detector or galvanometer is connected between the two conductors at the test end.
  • The circuit diagram is shown in the image below.

murray loop test for location of faults in underground cables

Varley Loop Test:

  • Varley loop test is also for locating short-circuit and earth faults in underground cables. This test also employs the principle of the Wheatstone bridge.
  • The difference between the Murray loop test and the Varley loop test is that in the Varley loop test resistances Rand R2 are fixed, and a variable resistor is inserted in the faulted lag.
  • If the fault resistance is high, the sensitivity of Murray loop test is reduced and the Varley loop test may be more suitable.

 

Additional Information

Directional overcurrent relays respond to excessive current flow in a particular direction in the power system.

125

When the potential difference across the terminal of a PMMC device is 75 mV, it shows a reading of 25 mA. What will be the value of shunt resistance for full scale deflection corresponding to 50 A?

  1. ((a))

    0.15 mΩ

  2. ((b))

    15 mΩ

  3. ((c))

    1.5 mΩ

  4. ((d))

    150 mΩ

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1.5 mΩ

The correct answer is option 3): 1.5 mΩ

Concept:

Extension of voltmeter:

For range extension of voltage measurement in moving coil instrument, a resistance is connected in series with internal meter resistance.

For a constant value of current, resistance connected in a series connection has a higher voltage drop compared to a parallel or shunt connection.

The value of the series resistance is given by:

Instrument resistance = (Potential ; drop :across: the : terminal \over instrument :current ) = Rm

Shunt resistance required for full scale deflection corresponding to

Rsh = (R_m \over \frac{I}{I_m} -1 )

Calculation:

Given:

Vm = 75 mV

I = 25 mA

I = 50 A

Resistance of voltmeter (Rm) =  (75 × 10^{-3} \over 25 × 10^{-3} )

= 3 Ω

Shunt resistance required for full scale deflection corresponding to

Rsh = (R_m \over \frac{I}{I_m} -1 )

= (3 \over \frac{50}{25× 10^{-3}} -1)

= (3 \over 1999)

= 1.5 × 10-3 mΩ

126

If a DC series motor is mistakenly connected to a single phase AC supply, the torque produced will be _______.

  1. ((a))

    pulsating and bidirectional

  2. ((b))

    pulsating and unidirectional

  3. ((c))

    Zero

  4. ((d))

    oscillatory

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

pulsating and unidirectional

The correct answer is option 2): pulsating and unidirectional

Concept:

  • If a DC series motor is accidentally connected to single-phase ac supply voltage then the current direction through a series motor is reversed, the polarities of the field poles and the armature conductors are both reversed, resulting in a pushing effort between them in the same direction.
  • Because of this, a series motor will operate on AC supply, its direction of rotation is the same for both half cycles.
  • The lower the frequency of AC, the greater the torque that can be produced.
  • If the frequency is high, the inductive reactance of the coil limits the current that can flow and the torque of the motor.
  • An AC supply will exert unidirectional,Pulsating torque because the direction of armature current and field current reverses at the same time and the direction of rotation will as it is.
  • Due to the presence of alternating current, eddy currents are induced in the yoke and field cores which causes excessive heating of the yoke and field cores
127

Which of the following is NOT a part of a nuclear reactor?

  1. ((a))

    Reactor core

  2. ((b))

    Moderator

  3. ((c))

    Shielding

  4. ((d))

    Reactor battery

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Reactor battery

The correct answer is option 4

The Heat exchanger, nuclear reactor core, Shield, moderator, and control rods are the parts of the nuclear reactor.

Concept:

Nuclear Power Plant:

  • A power generating station that converts the heat energy of nuclear fission into electrical energy is called a nuclear power plant.
  • The most important characteristic of a nuclear power plant is that a large amount of electrical energy can be produced from a relatively small amount of nuclear fuel.
  • Therefore, the running cost of a nuclear power plant is lower than that of thermal and diesel power plants.
  • In practice, it has been found that the complete fission of 1 kg of Uranium (U235), which is a radioactive material can produce energy equivalent to that can be produced by the burning of 4500 tons of coal.
  • Therefore, nuclear energy can be used for producing low-cost electrical energy at a large scale so that the problem of the energy crisis can be overcome.
  • The Schematic diagram of a typical nuclear power plant is shown in the figure.

  • In a nuclear power plant, heavy elements such as Uranium (U235) or Thorium (Th232) are subjected to nuclear fission (i.e., breaking up of nuclei of heavy atoms into two nearly equal parts with the release of a large amount of energy) in a piece of equipment called the nuclear reactor.
  • The heat energy, released in nuclear fission, is utilized for producing steam at high pressure and temperature.
  • This steam runs a steam turbine which converts the heat energy of steam into mechanical energy.
  • The steam turbine drives the electric generator which converts the mechanical energy of the turbine into electrical energy.
128

Which of the following is related to illumination?

  1. ((a))

    Kirchhoff's law of voltage

  2. ((b))

    Lambert's law of absorption

  3. ((c))

    Thevenin's law of the circuit

  4. ((d))

    Newton's law of motion

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Lambert's law of absorption

The correct answer option 2):(Lambert's law of absorption)

Concept:

Lambert's cosine law: This law states that ‘illumination, E at any point on a surface is directly proportional to the cosine of the angle between the normal at that point and the line of flux.

Law of inverse squares: According to the Law of inverse squares, illumination of a surface is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between the surface and the light source.

(E = \frac{I}{{{d^2}}})

Where E is the illuminance, I is the luminous intensity, and D is the distance between the surface and the source

Refraction: When a ray of light passes from one medium to another it suffers a change in direction at the boundary of two media is called refraction.

Interference: The combination of two or more electromagnetic waveforms to form a resultant wave that may have greater, lower, or the same amplitude is called interference.

129

If the machine has 4 poles, 22 slots and 6 coil  slots, what will be the value of coil span for a lap winding DC machine?

  1. ((a))

    6 slots 

  2. ((b))

    5 slots 

  3. ((c))

    3 slots 

  4. ((d))

    2 slots 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

5 slots 

The correct answer is option 2):  5 slots 

Concept:

  • Coil span (also known as coil pitch) is defined as the peripheral distance between two sides of a coil, measured in terms of the number of armature slots between them.
  • It means one side of the coil in a particular slot, after how many conjugative slots, the other side of the same coil is placed on the armature. This number is known as the coil span

Pole pitch = (No:of: slots \over No : of : poles)

Coil span = pole pitch ,In full pitch coil

Coil span < pole pitch in short pitch coil

Calculation

Given that,

 Number of slot = 22

Number of slot  per pole = 5.5 = 5(round off ) 

Coil span = 5 slot

One side of the coil will be 1st slot means the next side of the coil will be at the fifth slot (assume that the coil is short pitch)

130

In a three-phase induction motor, squirrel cage rotor:

  1. ((a))

    windings are kept open for flexible connection

  2. ((b))

    windings are placed in the slots of the rotor core

  3. ((c))

    solid bars of conducting material are placed in rotor slots and shorted through end rings on each side

  4. ((d))

    solid bars of conducting material are placed in rotor slots and shorted through resistor

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

solid bars of conducting material are placed in rotor slots and shorted through end rings on each side

The correct answer is option 3):(solid bars of conducting material are placed in rotor slots and shorted through end rings on each side)

Concept:

Squirrel Cage Induction Motor:

  • The 3 phase squirrel cage induction motor is a type of 3-ϕ induction motor based on the principle of electromagnetism.
  • It is called a ‘squirrel cage’ motor because the rotor inside of it looks like a squirrel cage and is known as a squirrel cage rotor.
  • This rotor is a cylinder of steel laminations, with highly conductive metal (typically aluminum or copper) embedded into its surface.
  • It is also known as short-circuited rotor type motor.
  • It doesn't need a slip ring and brush assembly.
  • Airgap between the stator and rotor is uniform.
  • External resistance cannot be introduced in the rotor circuit.
  • In a three-phase induction motor, squirrel cage rotor,solid bars of conducting material are placed in rotor slots and shorted through resistor

F1 Jai.P 07-01-22 Savita D2

  • When an alternating current is run through the stator windings, a rotating magnetic field is produced.
  • This induces a current in the rotor winding, that produces its own magnetic field.
  • The interaction of the magnetic fields produced by the stator and rotor windings produces torque on the squirrel cage rotor.
  • One big advantage of a squirrel cage motor is easily it can change its speed-torque characteristics.
  • This can be done by simply adjusting the shape of the bars in the rotor.
  • Squirrel cage induction motors are mainly used in the industry. Because they are reliable, self-starting, and easy to adjust
131

Which of the following wiring systems is very costly?

  1. ((a))

    Wood casing wiring

  2. ((b))

    Cleat wiring

  3. ((c))

    Conduit wiring

  4. ((d))

    TRS wiring

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Conduit wiring

The correct answer is option 3):(Conduit wiring)

Concept:

  • Electrical conduit provides very good protection to enclosed conductors from impact, moisture, and chemical vapors.
  • Varying numbers, sizes, and types of conductors can be pulled into a conduit, which simplifies design and construction compared to multiple runs of cables or the expense of customized composite cables.
  • Conduit wiring is more expensive but at least it will be neat looking and the conductors are safe from rats or damages inflicted by other workers
  • It is a waterproof wiring system. It has a long life. It is a good appearance. Alternation is possible. It is reliable
  • It requires a lot of holes in drywall to fish wires, and then each hole needs to be patched, painted, etc. It's also a difficult and potentially time-consuming job, as existing wiring, plumbing, etc gets in the way.
132

What causes tides?

  1. ((a))

    Due to the gravitational pull of the Moon and the Sun

  2. ((b))

    Due to the gravitational pull of the Earth and the Sun

  3. ((c))

    Due to the gravitational pull of the Moon and the Earth

  4. ((d))

    Due to the gravitational pull of the ocean and the earth

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Due to the gravitational pull of the Moon and the Earth

The correct answer is option 1): (Due to the gravitational pull of the Moon and the Sun)

Concept:

  • Tides are the rise and fall of sea levels caused by the combined effects of the gravitational forces exerted by the Moon and are also caused by the Earth and Moon orbiting one another. 
  • Tides are very long-period waves that move through the ocean in response to the forces exerted by the moon and sun.
  • Tides originate in the ocean and progress toward the coastlines where they appear as the regular rise and fall of the sea surface.
  • When the highest part, or crest, of the wave, reaches a particular location, high tide occurs; low tide corresponds to the lowest part of the wave, or its trough.
  • The difference in height between the high tide and the low tide is called the tidal range.
133

In an infinite bus, which two magnitudes are constant?

  1. ((a))

    electro-current, frequency

  2. ((b))

    voltage, frequency

  3. ((c))

    active electro-power, reactive electro-power

  4. ((d))

    active electro-power, rotor angle

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

voltage, frequency

The correct answer is option 2):(voltage, frequency)

Concept:

  • An infinite bus is a power system has its voltage and frequency remain constant. It is independent of real power and reactive power which is drawn from it or supplied to it.
  • When an alternator is operating in parallel with an infinite bus and its excitation voltage is changed, the power factor of the machine changes.
  • The model of the infinite bus bar is given as

![Solved] A synchronous generator is connected to an infinite bus with](https://storage.googleapis.com/tb-img/production/23/05/F2_Vinanti_Engineering_23.05.23_D6.png)

134

The speed of a three-phase induction motor can be controlled by:

  1. ((a))

    reactive power control

  2. ((b))

    temperature control

  3. ((c))

    moisture control

  4. ((d))

    armature voltage control

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

armature voltage control

The correct answer is option 4):(armature voltage control)

Concept:

The speed of an induction motor can be controlled from the stator side by changing;

  • Applied voltage
  • Applied frequency
  • Number of stator poles

Speed Control by Changing Applied Voltage

  • From the torque equation of the induction motor, the torque is directly proportional to the square of applied voltage.
  • The slip at maximum torque is independent of the applied voltage. And also, the change in supply voltage does not change the synchronous speed.
  • The below figure shows the torque-speed characteristics for changing values of the supply voltage.

135

In radiometry, the unit of radiant flux is:

  1. ((a))

    meter / second

  2. ((b))

    lumen / watt

  3. ((c))

    watt

  4. ((d))

    lumen / meter

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

watt

The correct answer is option 3): Watt

Concept:

  • Radiant flux or radiant power is the radiant energy emitted, reflected, transmitted, or received per unit time
  • Radiant Flux (Φ) is energy per unit time (dQ/dt) that is radiated from a source over optical wavelengths
  • The SI unit of radiant flux is the watt (W), one joule per second (J/s),
  • The unit of spectral flux in frequency is the watt per hertz (W/Hz) a
  • The unit of spectral flux in wavelength is the watt per metre (W/m)
  • the unit of velocity is meter / second
  • The lumen is a derived SI unit of luminous flux.
136

What material are lugs made of?

  1. ((a))

    Iron and Copper

  2. ((b))

    Tin and Zinc

  3. ((c))

    Aluminum and Copper

  4. ((d))

    Nickel and Tin

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Aluminum and Copper

The correct answer is option 3): (Aluminum and Copper)

Concept:

  • A cable lug is a component of an electrical device that connects the cable to the device terminals which simplifies the assembly of personnel, maintenance, and repair processes.
  • A cable lug or connector is used when a permanent connection is required, but a direct one is inconvenient or impossible to achieve
  • Mechanical lugs are mainly used to connect cables, Clamps that connect wires to an automotive battery is an easy example of lugs. They are made up of two metals – Aluminum  and copper.
137

What is the nature of electric power generated by wind turbine system?

  1. ((a))

    AC

  2. ((b))

    DC

  3. ((c))

    impulsive

  4. ((d))

    Exponential

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

AC

The correct answer is option 1): (AC)

Concept:

  • Wind turbines work on a simple principle, instead of using electricity to make wind, like a fan wind turbines use the wind to make electricity.
  • The wind turns the propeller-like blades of a turbine around a rotor, which spins a generator, which creates electricity.
  • The nature of electric power generated by wind turbine systems is AC
  • The diagram for wind turbine is given as

F1 Pratiksha Shetty Anil 22.02.21 D5

138

What is the percentage change in voltage from No-load to rated voltage with respect to the rated voltage of the alternator?

  1. ((a))

    Voltage regulation

  2. ((b))

    Electro-power regulation

  3. ((c))

    Electro-current regulation

  4. ((d))

    frequency regulation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Voltage regulation

The correct answer is option 1):(Voltage regulation)

Concept:

The voltage regulation of an alternator is defined as the rise in voltage at the terminals, when the load is reduced from full load rated value to zero, speed and field current remaining constant

It is given by the formula

(\mathrm{Percentage:voltage:regulation =\frac{|𝐸_{𝑎}| − |𝑉|}{|𝑉|}× 100%} )

Where,

|𝐸𝑎| is the magnitude of generated voltage (or no-load voltage) per phase

|𝑉| is the magnitude of full-load rated terminal voltage per phase

The voltage regulation of an alternator depends upon the power factor of the load, 

  • An alternator operating at a unity power factor has a small positive voltage regulation.
  • An alternator operating at a lagging power factor has a large positive voltage regulation.
  • An alternator operating at lower leading power factors, the voltage rises with increase of the load and hence, the voltage regulation is negative.
  • For a certain leading power factor, the full-load voltage regulation is zero. In this case, both the full-load and no-load terminal voltages are the same.
139

The algorithm used to extract maximum power from the renewable sources is known as:

  1. ((a))

    PMMT

  2. ((b))

    MTTP

  3. ((c))

    MPPT

  4. ((d))

    TMMP

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

MPPT

The correct answer is option 3):(MPPT)

Concept:

  • MPPT is abbrvated as Maximum power point tracking algorithm
  • This algorithm used to extract maximum power from the renewable source like solar energy
  • To gain the maximum amount of power from the solar cell it should operate at the maximum power voltage. The maximum power voltage is further described by VMP, the maximum power voltage, and IMP, the current at the maximum power point

F2 Madhuri Engineering 30.05.2022 D33

 

  • The maximum power point (MPP) is the point on the current-voltage (I-V) curve of a solar module under illumination, where the product of current and voltage is maximum (Pmax, measured in Watts).
140

Which of the following is not a characteristic of electric fuse?

  1. ((a))

    frequency

  2. ((b))

    conductance

  3. ((c))

    Melting point

  4. ((d))

    rating

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

frequency

The correct answer is option 1): frequency

Concept:

Electric Fuses are proven to be helpful in safeguarding any Electrical appliance or household Circuits.

Its features are-

  1. The melting points of Electric Fuses are very low, which is 200° C.
  2. Fuse wires are made of an alloy composed of 50% lead and 50% tin.
  3. The resistance of Fuse wires is so high that whenever its temperature rises and it reaches its melting point, it breaks the Current which passes through the Circuit. The conductance of the fuse is low
  4. The rating of a fuse connected to the general household lighting circuit is 5A.
  5. So the frequency is not characteristic of the fuse.
141

What should be the hysteresis loop for the material of the core of a transformer?

  1. ((a))

    Tall and narrow

  2. ((b))

    large and wide

  3. ((c))

    small and narrow

  4. ((d))

    small and wide

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tall and narrow

The correct answer is option 1):(large and narrow)

Concept:

The hysteresis loop depicts the relation between the magnetic flux density and the magnetizing field strength.

The hysteresis loop for the material of the core of a transformer should be Tall and narrow 

The loop is produced by measuring the magnetic flux coming out from the ferromagnetic substance while changing the external magnetizing field.

Soft magnetic materials have narrow hysteresis shapes. these materials are easily magnetized and demagnetized. They typically have intrinsic coercivity less than 1000 Am-1. They are used primarily to enhance the flux produced by an electric current.

Advantages of Hysteresis Loop

  1. A smaller region of the hysteresis loop is indicative of less loss of hysteresis.  2. Hysteresis loop provides a substance with the importance of retentivity and coercivity. Therefore the way to select the right material to make a permanent magnet is made simpler by  the heart of machines. 3. Residual magnetism can be calculated from the B-H graph and it is, therefore, simple to choose material for electromagnets.
142

What is the distance between two poles called?

  1. ((a))

    Sag

  2. ((b))

    Stay

  3. ((c))

    Length

  4. ((d))

    Span

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Span

The correct answer is option 4

Concept:

Sag is defined as the difference in level between points of support and the lowest point on the conductor.

Sag of conductor’s between two poles can be determined by

(S = \frac{{W{L^2}}}{{8T}})

Where, S is the sag of conductors

W is the weight per unit length of the conductor

L is the length of span

T is the tension in the conductor

Explanation:

Length of span - The horizontal distance between two consecutive supports of an overhead line.

Observations:

  • The SAG is directly proportional to the weight of the conductor.
  • The SAG is directly proportional to the span length.
  • The SAG is inversely proportional to the working tensile strength of the conductor at constant temperature.

 

When the temperature rises:

  • As the temperature rises, the tension in the transmission line decreases
  • As temperature rises, the sag in transmission lines increases
  • Tension and sag in transmission lines are complementary to each other

 

Important Points:

  • Stringing chart is useful in knowing the sag and tension at any temperature
  • Stringing chart gives the data per sag to be allowed and the tension to be allowed for a particular temperature
  • Stringing chart prepared by calculating the sag and tension on the conductor under worst conditions such as maximum wind pressure and minimum temperature by assuming a suitable safety factor

143

The reason for crawling in an induction motor is:

  1. ((a))

    poor design

  2. ((b))

    harmonics

  3. ((c))

    high load

  4. ((d))

    low voltage supply

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

harmonics

The correct answer is option 2):(harmonics)

Concept:

  • The crawling in the induction motor is caused by harmonics developed in motor.
  • Crawling is the tendency of particularly squirrel cage rotor to run at speeds as low as one-seventh of their synchronous speed. This phenomenon is known as the crawling of an induction motor.
  • When the no. of rotor slots is equal to the number of stator slots, the speed of all the harmonics by the stator slotting coincide with the speed of corresponding rotor harmonics.
  • Thus harmonics of every order would try to exert synchronous torques at their synchronous speeds and the machine would refuse to start.
  • This is known as cogging or magnetic locking.
  • Therefore the no. of stator slots should never equal to the rotor slots. Cogging can be easily overcome by making no. of rotor slots prime to no. of stator slots.
144

What are the transmission line parameters for Shunt Admittance Circuit?

  1. ((a))

    A = 1, B = 0, C = Y, D = 1

  2. ((b))

    A = 1, B = 0, C = 0, D = 1

  3. ((c))

    A = 0, B = 0, C = Y, D = 1

  4. ((d))

    A = 1, B = 0, C = Y, D = Y

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A = 1, B = 0, C = Y, D = 1

The correct answer is option 1):(A = 1, B = 0, C = Y, D = 1)

Concept:

  • The shunt admittance of a line consists of the conductance and the capacitive susceptance.
  • The conductance is usually ignored because it is very small compared to the capacitive susceptance.
  • For a short transmission line
  • A short transmission line can be modelled as a series impedance z = R + jωL
  • The ABCD constants of this series impedance are

(\left[ \begin{matrix} 1 & Z \ 0 & 1 \ \end{matrix} \right] )   A = D = 1, B = z, C = 0​

F1 U.B. Nita 29.10.2019 D 5

  • The ABCD constants of   Shunt admittance

  is  (\left[ \begin{matrix} 1 & 0 \ Y & 1 \ \end{matrix} \right]) A = 1, B = 0, C = Y, D = 1

F1 U.B. Nita 29.10.2019 D 6

145

In a thermal power plant, the role of a super heater is to:

  1. ((a))

    remove the moisture of water coming into plant

  2. ((b))

    remove the moisture of steam present in the plant

  3. ((c))

    heat the water present in the plant

  4. ((d))

    remove the moisture of steam coming out of boiler

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

remove the moisture of steam coming out of boiler

The correct answer is option 4): (remove the moisture of steam coming out of boiler)

Concept:

  • A superheater is a device used to convert saturated steam or wet steam into superheated steam or dry steam Superheated steam is used in steam turbines for electricity generation, steam engines, and in processes such as steam reforming
  • The superheater is used to remove  the moisture of steam coming out of the boiler
  • While the temperature of the steam in the superheater rises, the pressure remains the same as that of the boiler Superheaters:
  • It is used to dry the wet steam and raise the temperature of the steam above its saturation temperature.
  • It is generally placed in the path of the furnace gases so as to utilize the heat from the hot flue gases.
  • Heat is added on a constant pressure process, thus the pressure remains the same whereas the temperature increases.

Additional Information

​The correct path of flue gases from boiler furnace to chimney is:

146

Which of the following is an instrument used to detect the phase difference between two alternators connected in parallel?

  1. ((a))

    ammeter

  2. ((b))

    synchroscope

  3. ((c))

    tachometer

  4. ((d))

    galvanometer

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

synchroscope

Correct option 2

Concept:

Synchroscope

  • A Synchroscope is a device designed specifically to indicate if two power networks or generators (or any other AC electrical power system) are synchronized with one another.
  • This device checks the operation of both systems to make sure they are working at the same frequency.
  • To be synchronized, the phase angle of these two systems should be 0 as well as The phase sequence between two poly-phase systems, too, should be the same.

Synchroscope structure and working principles

  • The relative frequency difference, as well as the phase angle between two AC power systems, are measured with the help of these principles.
  • A Synchroscope consists of a stator, a two-phase one, and a rotor. The two-phase supply to the Synchroscope is provided by the alternators.
  • When two of the phases are synchronized together, the third one automatically follows the process and will sync with the other two phases.
  • The Synchroscope’s stator receives the supply from the existing alternator. The incoming alternator, then, provides the supply for the rotor. This phase shifting between the above-mentioned supplies is a sign of the difference in both frequency and phase to the connected alternators that are parallel to one another.

Type of Synchroscope :

  1. Electrodynamic type
  2. Moving Iron type

Electrodynamic type: 

  • This Synchroscope type is also known as the western Synchroscope type and includes an electrodynamic device as well as a three-limb transformer.
  • The static and dynamic methods of synchronization have been brought together in this Synchroscope type to achieve the correct synchronization instant.
  • In the dynamic method, an electrodynamometer-type Synchroscope will be used while in the static method, the system will need a lamp.

Moving Iron Synchroscope :

  • This Synchroscope type consists of a static coil. These static coils are tailored for minimal current and are connected throughout the busbars’ phases.
  • Two iron cylinders are located on a shaft and are apart from each other with the help of spacers.
147

The reliability of a conduit wiring system is:

  1. ((a))

    poor

  2. ((b))

    good

  3. ((c))

    very bad

  4. ((d))

    extremely good

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

extremely good

The correct answer is option 4): (extremely good)

Concept:

The conduit wiring is two types

  1. Surface conduit wiring
  2. Concealed conduit wiring

​Surface conduit wiring:

  • If the conduits are installed on the roof or wall, it is known as surface conduit wiring.
  • In this wiring method, they make holes on the surface of the wall on equal distances and conduit is installed then with the help of Rawal plugs.

Concealed conduit wiring:

  • If the conduit is hidden inside the wall slots with the help of plastering, it is called Concealed conduit wiring. It is the most popular, beautiful, stronger, and common wiring system nowadays.
  • In this, steel tubes known as conduits are buried in the walls under the plaster, and VIR or PVC cables are afterward drawn by means of a GI wire of size about 18SWG. Mostly PVC conduits are used in domestic wiring.

​Advantages of conduit wiring:

  • It is the safest wiring system, and its appearance is very beautiful.
  • No risk of mechanical wear and tear and fire in the case of metallic pipes.
  • It is a reliable and long-lasting wiring system
148

The thickness of insulation of conductors on cables depends on:

  1. ((a))

    current through cable

  2. ((b))

    operating voltage

  3. ((c))

    reactive power flow

  4. ((d))

    power factor

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

operating voltage

The correct answer is option 2): (operating voltage)

Concept:

  • The thickness of the insulation layer on the conductor in cables is dependent upon voltage.
  • In a conductor, the voltage gradient is developed along the length of the conductor which decreases radially outwards from the conductor.
  • If no insulation is being used then air behaves as dielectric to absorb that voltage gradient and may take a few meters to completely absorb the voltage gradient.
  • For example overhead bare conductors, that's why they have separated apart with a certain distance. In distance between the bare conductor increases with the increase in voltage.
  • But in the case of underground cables insulation covers the bare conductor.
  • The material used in insulation has greater dielectric strength and absorbs all the voltage gradients just within a few mm or cm distance. As the voltage increases the thickness of insulation increases.
  • Thus insulation absorbs the voltage gradient
  • The insulation is made of such material so that it can dissipate the heat generated in the conductor inside.
  • Thus insulation is independent of current and depends only on voltage.
149

Due to which of the following reason the motor starter will not be able to activate?

  1. ((a))

    Long-lasting overload of the motor

  2. ((b))

    Low Voltage

  3. ((c))

    Long lasting reduction of load on the motor

  4. ((d))

    Power supply failure

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Long lasting reduction of load on the motor

The correct answer is option 3):(Long lasting reduction of load on the motor)

Concept:

  • The primary function of a motor starter is to start and stop the motor to which it is connected.
  • These are specially designed electromechanical switches similar to relays.
  • The main difference between a relay and a starter is that a starter contains overload protection for the motor.
  • So the purpose of the starter is twofold, i.e., to switch the power automatically or manually to a motor and at the same time protect the motor from overload or faults
  • The Causes for the failure of the starter may include a large change in load e.g., a scrap grinder is fed reduced load for a long time, missalignment, a broken drive gear, or improper motor drive. Power problems also may cause an overload condition.
150

What can be determined by the electric power generated by an ocean wave?

  1. ((a))

    by triangular water waves

  2. ((b))

    by sinusoidal water waves

  3. ((c))

    by Exponential water wave

  4. ((d))

    extremely good

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

by sinusoidal water waves

The correct answer is option 2):by sinusoidal water waves

Concept:

wave power, also called ocean wave energy, electrical energy generated by harnessing the up-and-down motion of ocean waves.

Wave power is typically produced by floating turbine platforms or buoys that rise and fall with the swells.

 wave power can be generated by exploiting the changes in air pressure occurring in wave capture chambers that face the sea or changes in wave pressure on the ocean floor.

 wave power can be generated by exploiting the changes in air pressure occurring in wave capture chambers that face the sea or changes in wave pressure on the ocean floor.

The electric power generated by an ocean wave is sinusoidal wave in nature

151

Which of the following terms is used to know the usable capacity of a battery?

  1. ((a))

    Height of discharge

  2. ((b))

    Depth of discharge

  3. ((c))

    Rate of discharge

  4. ((d))

    extremely good

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Depth of discharge

The correc answer is option 2): (Depth of discharge)

Concept:

  • Battery's depth of discharge (DoD) indicates the percentage of the battery that has been discharged relative to the overall capacity of the battery.
  • Depth of Discharge is defined as the capacity that is discharged from a fully charged battery, divided by battery nominal capacity.
  • Depth of discharge is an important parameter appearing in the context of rechargeable battery operation.
  • The life of the battery depends on the depth of discharge
  • The usable capacity of a battery is known by Depth of discharge
  • Depth of Discharge refers to how much energy is cycled into and out of the battery on a given cycle
152

Which system is not a DC transmission system?

  1. ((a))

    Two-wire DC with midpoint earthing system

  2. ((b))

    Four Wire DC System

  3. ((c))

    Three wire DC system

  4. ((d))

    Two wire DC system

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Four Wire DC System

The correct answer is option 2): Four Wire DC System

Concept:

Four wire system

  • The AC power from generating stations is transmitted over long distances through transmission lines to various receiving stations.
  • R, Y and B is  3 phase 3 wire, 4th wire system an additional neutral N is present.
  • 4 wire system is mainly used in the distribution side to convert the 3-phase system into a single phase to supply single-phase household loads, where the neutral acts as the current return path.
  • It is done by connecting the secondary side of the distribution transformer in star.

3 Phase 4 Wire System - Your Electrical Guide

 

Additional InformationDC two-wire:

  • In the 2-wire DC system, one is the outgoing wire called the positive wire and the other is the return wire called the negative wire as shown in Figure below.
  • The return wire is also connected to the earth.

F1 Nakshtra 17-11-21 Savita D5

DC two-wire with mid-point earthed:

  • The two-wire DC system with a mid-point earthed is shown in the figure below.
  • The maximum voltage between any conductor and the earth is Vm and the maximum voltage between conductors is 2Vm.
  • The voltage level is high when compared to two-wire systems.

F1 Nakshtra 17-11-21 Savita D6

 (iii) DC three-wire system:

In a 3-wire DC system, there are two outers and a middle wire which is connected to earth.

When the load is balanced, the current in the neutral wire is zero. DC 3- wire system is shown in figure below.

F1 Nakshtra 17-11-21 Savita D7

153

What will be the speed of a two pole synchronous generator to generate 50Hz voltage?

  1. ((a))

    3 RPM

  2. ((b))

    3000 RPM

  3. ((c))

    30 RPM

  4. ((d))

    300 RPM

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

3000 RPM

The correct answer is option 2):(3000 RPM)

Concept:

The speed of synchronous generator is given as

N = (120f\over p)

where

N is the speed in RPM

f is the frequency in Hz

P is the no of poles

Calculation:

P = 2

f = 50 Hz

N = (120 \times50 \over 2)

=3000 RPM

154

What is the importance of Eddy current?

  1. ((a))

    Suitable for lubricating in windings

  2. ((b))

    Suitable for cooling in motors

  3. ((c))

    Suitable for heating in windings

  4. ((d))

    Suitable for damping in MC meters

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Suitable for damping in MC meters

The correct answer is option 4):

Concept:

  • In the moving coil instrument type instruments, damping is done  by eddy current
  • The deflecting torque is used for deflection
  • The controlling torque acts opposite to the deflecting torque. So before coming to rest the pointer always oscillates due to inertia,
  • To bring the pointer to rest within a short time by reducing oscillations, we use damping torque without affecting controlling torque. The following mechanism can be used for producing damping torque.

 

Types of damping

  1. Air friction damping
  2. Fluid friction damping
  3. Eddy current damping

The damping device should be such that it produces a damping torque only while the moving system is in motion. To be effective the damping torque should be proportional to the velocity of the moving current but independent of the operating current.

Eddy current damping:

  • When a conductor moves in a magnetic field an emf is induced in it.
  • If a closed path is provided, a current (known as eddy current) flows.
  • This current interacts with the magnetic field to produce an electromagnet torque that opposes the motion.
  • This torque is proportional to the strength of the magnetic field and the current produced.

Additional Information

  • Air friction damping  is used in moving iron instrument
  • Fluid friction damping is used in Electrostatic voltmeter
  • Electromagnetic damping used in flux meter
155

Which of the following is an INVALID state in an 8421 binary-coded decimal?

  1. ((a))

    1001

  2. ((b))

    1101

  3. ((c))

    1000

  4. ((d))

    0100

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1101

The correct answer is option 2):(1101)

Concept:

  • 8421 is also known as BCD code BCD is a weighted code.
  • In weighted codes, each successive digit from right to left represents weights equal to some specified value, and to get the equivalent decimal number to add the products of the weights by the corresponding binary digit.
  • The following represents the 4-bit binary representation of decimal values:
  • | Decimal | BCD Digits | | --- | --- | | 0 | 0000 | | 1 | 0001 | | 2 | 0010 | | 3 | 0011 | | 4 | 0100 | | 5 | 0101 | | 6 | 0110 | | 7 | 0111 | | 8 | 1000 | | 9 | 1001 |

Explanation :

  • A number with an 'n' decimal digit will require 4k bits in BCD.
  • Ex- Decimal 396 is represented in BCD with 12 bits as 0011 1001 0110, with each group of 4 bits representing one decimal digit.
  • As the decimal digits relating to 1010, 1011, 1100, 1101, 1110, and 1111 do not exist, these are invalid. In BCD valid states are from 0 to 9. So 1101 is invalid state
156

What is the name of the converter that transforms DC signals into AC signals?

  1. ((a))

    DC-DC Converter

  2. ((b))

    rectifier 

  3. ((c))

    inverter 

  4. ((d))

    AC Voltage Controller

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

inverter 

The correct answer is option 3): (inverter )

Concept:

Inverter An inverter is a device that changes direct current (DC) to alternating current (AC).

The input voltage, output voltage, and frequency. Inverters power the electric appliances in the event of power failure.

They are also used in uninterruptible power supplies, control of electrical machines, and active power filtering.

The inverter itself does not produce any power – instead, the power is provided by the DC source.

Power inverters are either 100% electronic or they could be a combination of mechanical components such as rotary equipment and electronic circuitry. 

An inverter may take the 12, 24, or 48 volts DC and convert to 230 volts AC.

Additional Information

  • A rectifier is an electrical device that converts A.C. to D.C.
  • AC Voltage Controller is a thyristor-based device which converts fixed alternating voltage directly to variable alternating voltage without change in frequency
  • A DC-to-DC converter is an electronic circuit or electromechanical device that converts a source of direct current (DC) from one voltage level to another
157

Which of the following principles is used to analyze the working of a single-phase induction motor?

  1. ((a))

    first law of thermodynamics

  2. ((b))

    first law of motion

  3. ((c))

    cross field theory

  4. ((d))

    extremely good

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

cross field theory

The  correct  answer is option 3): cross field theory

Concept:

  • Cross field theory is used to analyze the working of a single-phase induction motor
  • Idea behind the cross - field theory is that how the rotor develops torque According to cross field theory, the stator flux can be resolved into two components which are mutually perpendicular One acts along the axis of the stator winding and other acts perpendicular to it
  • Assume now that an initial push is given to the rotor in an anticlockwise direction Due to the rotation, rotor physically cuts the stator flux and dynamically e.m.f. gets induced in the rotor
  • This e.m.f. circulates current through the rotor
  • This current produces its own flux called rotor flux ϕr This axis of ϕr is at 90° to the axis of stator flux hence this rotor flux is called cross-field
158

A 100kW, 200 V long shunt commutative compound generator has negligible armature resistance. What will be the value of the supplied current?

  1. ((a))

    50 A

  2. ((b))

    200 A

  3. ((c))

    100 A

  4. ((d))

    500 A

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

500 A

The correct answer is option 4): 500 A

Concept:

In a long-shunt compound generator:

F1 Jai 18.1.21 Pallavi D2

Here,

Vt = Terminal Voltage (V)

Il = Line Current (A)

Rsf = Series field resistance (Ω)

Ra = Armature resistance (Ω)

Rshf = Shunt field resistance (Ω)

Ish = Shunt current (A)

Ia = Armature current (A)

Eg = Generated EMF (V)

Vb = Brush voltage drop ( = 2 Vb1 = 2 × voltage drop per brush) Formula:

({I_{sh}}=\frac{{{V_t}}}{{{R_{shf}}}})

Eg = Vt + Ia(Ra + Rsf) + 2 Vb1

P = V × I W

Calculation:

Output Power = P = 100 kW

Vt = 200 V

100 × 103 = 200 × I

I = 500 A

159

The type of coil distribution which does not cover all the branches is called _______.

  1. ((a))

    Fully distributed coil

  2. ((b))

    Partially distributed coil

  3. ((c))

    Intensive coiling

  4. ((d))

    Distributed coil

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Partially distributed coil

The correct answer is option 2):  (Partially distributed coil)

Concept:

Distributed winding is a type of coil in electrical machines where all the winding turns are organized in a number of full pitches. These coils are then placed in phase form or the commutator winding in slots spread around the periphery of the air gap. This type of winding is used in stators and rotors of induction motors.

Partially distributed coil type of coil distribution which does not cover all the branches

160

In a 3-phase induction motor, if the slip value is 1, the rotor ______.

  1. ((a))

    running at synchronous speed

  2. ((b))

    The temporary oscillation is in the system

  3. ((c))

    slip is moving with a speed of frequency 

  4. ((d))

    is in a blocked state

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

is in a blocked state

The correct answer is option 4):(is in a blocked state)

Concept:

  • When the rotor of a three-phase induction motor is blocked, the rotor is in stationery.
  • The speed of the rotor is zero i.e., Nr = 0.
  • Slip speed (N) is equal to the difference between the synchronous speed and rotor speed.
  • Slip is equal to
  • Slip (s) = (Ns – Nr) / Ns
  • As in this case, s = 1  the equivalent circuit of the motor is exactly like a transformer, having a short-circuited secondary.

Additional Information s= 0 (Zero Slip)

  • Zero slip means that rotor speed is equal to synchronously rotating magnetic flux.
  • Under this condition, there will not be any relative motion between the rotor coils and rotating magnetic flux.
  • Therefore, there will not be any flux-cutting action of rotor coils. Hence, no emf will be generated in rotor coils to produce rotor current.
  • This means no electromagnetic torque will be produced. The induction motor will not work.
  • Therefore, it is very important for induction motors to have a positive value of slip.
  • This is the reason; slip is never zero in an induction motor

**s = Negative (Negative Slip)**​

  • The negative value of slip in an induction motor can be achieved when the rotor speed is more than the synchronously rotating magnetic flux.
  • This is only possible when the rotor is rotated in the direction of rotating magnetic flux by some prime mover.
  • Under this condition, the machine operates as an Induction Generator.

​s > 1 (Slip greater than 1)

  • Slip more than 1 implies that, the rotor is rotating in a direction opposite to the direction of rotation of magnetic flux.
  • This means if magnetic flux is rotating in the clockwise direction, then the rotor is rotating in an anticlockwise direction or vice versa.
  • Therefore, the relative speed between them will be (Ns + Nr). In Plugging or Braking the Induction motor, a slip of more than 1 is achieved to quickly bring the rotor to rest.

161

A wattmeter consists of:

  1. ((a))

    four coils: two current coils and two potential coils

  2. ((b))

    three coils: one current coil and two potential coils

  3. ((c))

    two coils: one current coil and one potential coil

  4. ((d))

    three coils: two current coils and one potential coil

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

two coils: one current coil and one potential coil

The correct answer is option 3):(two coils: one current coil and one potential coil)

Concept:

Wattmeter:

  • A wattmeter is an electrical instrument that is used to measure the electric power of any electrical circuit.
  • The internal construction of a wattmeter is such that it consists of two coils.
  • One of the coils is in series and the other is connected in parallel. The coil that is connected in series with the circuit is known as the current coil and the one that is connected in parallel with the circuit is known as the voltage coil Wattmeter measures the average power.
  • The reading of wattmeter will be,

Average power = Vpc Icc cos ϕ

Where,

Vpc is the voltage across the pressure coil

Icc is the current flows through the current coil ϕ is the phase angle between Vpc and Icc

  • So, a wattmeter is a device capable of detecting voltage, current and the angle between the voltage and the current to provide power readings.
162

Which of the following is NOT a condition for parallel operation of DC generator?

  1. ((a))

    Same percentage voltage regulation

  2. ((b))

    Same voltage rating

  3. ((c))

    Same operating temperature

  4. ((d))

    Same percentage speed regulation of prime movers

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Same operating temperature

The correct answer is  option 3):(Same operating temperature)

Concept:

Essential and desirable conditions of parallel operation of DC generators are:

  • Same drooping voltage characteristics
  • Same voltage rating
  • Same percentage of voltage regulation
  • Same percentage speed regulation of the prime movers

The Same operating temperature is NOT a condition for parallel operation of DC generator

163

What is the condition for maximum efficiency of a transformer?

  1. ((a))

    Copper loss/Iron loss = 1

  2. ((b))

    Copper loss / Iron loss = 2

  3. ((c))

    Iron loss / Copper loss = 2

  4. ((d))

    Copper loss + Iron loss = 0

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Copper loss/Iron loss = 1

The correct answer is option 1):(Copper loss/Iron loss = 1)

Concept:

The efficiency of the transformer is defined as the ratio of  output to input power. 

efficiency = (output:power\over input:power)

= (output:power \over output:power+loss)

=(output:power \over output:power+​​​​iron : loss +copper : loss)

The maximum efficiency in a transformer that occurs at copper losses is equal to iron losses

Efficiency is maximum at some fraction x of full load.

x = ( \sqrt{Wi \over Wcu})

Where

Wi = iron losses

Wcu = copper losses

164

A 220 V, 6 pole, 50 Hz single-winding single-phase induction motor runs at 97 percent of the synchronous speed. What is the value of slip S?

  1. ((a))

    0.77

  2. ((b))

    0.03

  3. ((c))

    0.97

  4. ((d))

    0.66

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

0.03

The correct answer is option 2):(0.03)

Concept:

Slip in Induction Motor is the relative speed between the rotating magnetic flux and rotor expressed in terms of per unit synchronous speed.

If Ns and Nr are the synchronous speed of rotating magnetic flux and rotor speed respectively, then the relative speed between them is equal to (Ns – Nr). Therefore, slip is defined as

 

(N_s=\frac{120f}{P})

f is the frequency in Hz

P is the no of poles 

Calculation:

P = 6

f = 50 Hz 

(N_s=\frac{120f}{P})

= (120 × 50 \over 6)

= 1000 RPM

Rotor speed Nr = 1000 ×  0.97 = 970 RPM

​(s=\frac{N_s-N_r}{N_s})​

= (1000 -970 \over 1000)

=  0.03

165

The other name of a secondary battery is:

  1. ((a))

    accumulator

  2. ((b))

    circuit breaker

  3. ((c))

    sensor

  4. ((d))

    generator

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

accumulator

The correct answer is option 1):(accumulator)

Concept:

  • The secondary battery or charge accumulator is a cell or combination of cells in which the cell reactions are reversible.
  • The secondary battery is rechargeble battery
  • The basic electrochemical unit responsible for the actual storage of energy is called a Cell. A Cell, as just mentioned, is the fundamental electrochemical unit that is the source of electrical energy produced by the conversion of chemical energy.
  • In its basic form, a cell typically contains three main components: two electrodes and an electrolyte and also consists of terminals, a separator and a container. Speaking of electrodes, there are two types of electrodes called the Anode and the Cathode.
  • The Anode is the negative electrode (also called the Fuel Electrode or the Reducing Electrode). It loses electrons to the external circuit and in the electrochemical reaction, it gets oxidized.
  • Battery: Know Definition, Uses and Types- Primary and Secondary
166

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the transmission line?

  1. ((a))

    Voltage control and reactivity electro-power control are related

  2. ((b))

    Voltage control and active electro-power control are related

  3. ((c))

    Voltage control and frequency control are related

  4. ((d))

    Voltage control and reactivity electro-power control are not related

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Voltage control and reactivity electro-power control are related

The correct answer  is option 1):(Voltage control and reactivity electro-power control are related)

Concept:

Voltage Control:

  • In power system networks, while supplying power through a transmission line,
  • The voltage constant at the sending end. The voltage at the receiving end undergoes a change that does not depend on the load and power factor.
  • Voltage control should therefore be considered in power system networks as the voltage changes while transmitting power from sending end to end.

Adjusting Reactive Power for Voltage Control

  • For voltage control, reactive power flow should be adjusted and its reactive VAR is adjusted locally.
  • In other words, locally adjusting the VAR means, generating the VAR in the system locally whenever it is required
  • This could be achieved with the help of shunt capacitors or synchronous capacitors and also by shunt inductors in case of capacitive loads or light loads
167

When is the grounding transformer used?

  1. ((a))

    When neutral is available

  2. ((b))

    When voltage level is to be changed

  3. ((c))

    When reactive power is to be supplied

  4. ((d))

    When neutral is not available

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

When neutral is not available

The correct answer is option  4):(When neutral is not available)

Concept:

Grounding transformers are typically used to: 

  • Provide a relatively low-impedance path to ground, thereby maintaining the system neutral at or near ground potential.
  • Limit the magnitude of transient overvoltages when restriking ground faults occur. Provide a source of ground-fault current during line-to-ground faults.
  • The grounding transformer is used to provide a path to an ungrounded system or when the system neutral is not available for some reason.
  • For example, when a system is delta connected. It provides a low impedance path to the neutral and also limits the transient overvoltage when the ground faults occur in the system.
168

Which of the following converters is used in a DC drive system?

  1. ((a))

    DC-AC converter

  2. ((b))

    AC-AC converter

  3. ((c))

    Cyclo converter

  4. ((d))

    DC-DC converter

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

DC-DC converter

The correct answer is option 4): (DC-DC converter)

Concept:

  • A DC-to-DC converter is an electronic circuit or electromechanical device that converts a source of direct current (DC) from one voltage level to another.
  • It is a type of electric power converter. Power levels range from very low (small batteries) to very high (high-voltage power transmission).
  • DC-DC converters are widely used to efficiently produce a regulated voltage from a source that may or may not be well controlled to a load that may or may not be constant
  • DC Drives are functional circuitry designed to regulate the speed of the dc motor by offering precise control of the same.
  • It facilitates starting, and stopping along with changing the direction and speed of the motor
  • Choppers are used in speed-controlling dc motors. Generally, when a dc supply is given to the system than the case speed of the motor is controlled by the chopper. There are several advantages like high efficiency, controlling flexibility, lightweight, small size, fast response
  • circuit of dc chpper drive
169

Free-wheeling diodes are used to provide a path to release the energy stored in _______.

  1. ((a))

    Inductor 

  2. ((b))

    capacitor 

  3. ((c))

    MOSFET 

  4. ((d))

    resistor

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Inductor 

The correct answer is option 1):Inductor 

Concept:

  • A freewheeling diode is used to protect the circuit from unusual damage caused due to abrupt reduction in the current flowing through the circuit
  • The purpose of the freewheeling diode is to overcome the impact of the inductive load at the output voltage,
  • A freewheeling diode is used in parallel to the load that freewheels the energy stored in the inductor during the negative cycle of the input voltage as shown in Fig.

170

What voltage rating is used for single bus bar configuration in a sub-station?

  1. ((a))

    66 kV

  2. ((b))

    132 kV

  3. ((c))

    33 kV

  4. ((d))

    11 kV

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

33 kV

Bus bar Arrangements in Substations:

1.) Single bus-bar system

  • It consists of a single bus-bar and all the incoming and outgoing lines are connected to it.
  • The chief advantages of this type of arrangement are low initial cost, less maintenance and simple operation.
  • However, the principal disadvantage of single bus-bar system is that if repair is to be done on the bus-bar or a fault occurs on the bus, there is a complete interruption of the supply.
  • This arrangement is not used for voltages exceeding 33kV. The indoor 11kV sub-stations often use single Bus bar Arrangements in Substations.

2.) Single bus-bar system with sectionalization:

  • In this arrangement, the single bus-bar is divided into sections and load is equally distributed on all the sections. Any two sections of the bus-bar are connected by a circuit breaker and isolators.
  • Two principal advantages are claimed for this arrangement. Firstly, if a fault occurs on any section of the bus, that section can be isolated without affecting the supply from other sections.
  • Secondly, repairs and maintenance of any section of the bus-bar can be carried out by de-energising that section only, eliminating the possibility of complete shut down. This arrangement is used for voltages upto 33 kV.

3.) Duplicate bus-bar system:

  • This system consists of two bus-bars, a “main” bus-bar and a “spare” bus-bar. Each bus-bar has the capacity to take up the entire sub-station load.
  • The incoming and outgoing lines can be connected to either bus-bar with the help of a bus-bar coupler which consists of a circuit breaker and isolators.
  • Ordinarily, the incoming and outgoing lines remain connected to the main bus-bar. However, in case of repair of main bus-bar or fault occurring on it, the continuity of supply to the circuit can be maintained by transferring it to the spare bus-bar.
  • For voltages exceeding 33kV, duplicate bus-bar system is frequently used.
171

Which of the following power transmission lines do not require reactive electric power?

  1. ((a))

    normal AC transmission

  2. ((b))

    HVDC transmission

  3. ((c))

    Distribution AC Transmission

  4. ((d))

    HVAC Transmission

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

HVDC transmission

The correct answer is option  2): HVDC transmission

Concept:

  • In HVDC, cost of transmission is less, since only two conductors are used for transmission.
  • There is no reactive power. So transmission losses are reduced. Due to high voltage transmission, for the same power current is less.
  • So I2R loss is very less.
  • Hence for bulk power transmission over very long distance HVDC transmission preferably used.

 

Additional InformationAdvantages of HVDC transmission:

No Skin Effect:

In HVDC transmission current distributes uniformly over the cross-section of the conductor. Hence no loss due to skin effect is encountered.

For the same current-carrying capacity HVDC lines have lesser cross-section compared to HVAC lines

Lower Transmission Losses:

HVDC transmission requires only two conductors. Therefore the power loss in the DC line will be lesser compared to the AC line

Good voltage Regulation:

In DC lines, a voltage drop does not exist due to inductive reactance. Voltage Regulation will be better in HVDC transmission

Surge Impedance Loading:

Long EHV lines are loaded to less than 80% of the natural load. No such condition is applicable in HVDC transmission

No Line Loading Limit:

The permissible loading limit on EHV AC lines is limited by the transient stability limit and the line reactance to almost one-third of the thermal rating of the conductors.

No such limitations exist in the case of HVDC line

Lesser Corona Loss and Radio Interference: Corona Loss directly proportional to frequency. Therefore in the DC line, corona loss will be lesser compared to the AC line.

172

The capacity of a battery is shown as _______.

  1. ((a))

    ampere-hour

  2. ((b))

    voltage-hour

  3. ((c))

    ampere

  4. ((d))

    kilowatt-hour

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ampere-hour

The correct answer is option 1): ampere-hour

Concept:

  • The capacity of a battery is shown as ampere-hour
  • 1 ampere of current flowing for one hour.
  • During the hour, the amount of charge transferred in is 3,600 coulombs (ampere-seconds).
  • For example, a 12V lithium battery with a capacity of 100Ah can deliver 100A to a 12-volt device for one hour.
  • The same 100Ah battery could supply power for 4 hours (100/25=4) to a 25-ampere device.
173

In a switch board with 230 V 4  wire 3 phase system, neutral wire is marked with which color?

  1. ((a))

    Blue

  2. ((b))

    Green

  3. ((c))

    Red

  4. ((d))

    Black

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Black

The correct answer is option 4

The neutral wire is marked with Black color

Concept:

FunctionColour code
Single-phase lineRed/Brown
Single-phase neutralBlack/Blue
Ground wireGreen
Three-phase line 1Red
Three-phase line 2Yellow
Three-phase line 3Blue
Three-phase neutralBlack
Three-phase protective ground or earthGreen (or) Green - Yellow
Neutral wire (3-core flexible cable)Blue
<br>

Additional Information

Ground wire:

  • It is a wire that provides an alternate path for the excess charge.
  • The excess charge goes to the ground, as the ground acts as zero potential surfaces.
  • It protects us from electrical shock.
  • It protects appliances from electrical fires
174

Which of the following devices has bidirectional current capability?

  1. ((a))

    IGBT

  2. ((b))

    SCR

  3. ((c))

    GTO

  4. ((d))

    RCT

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

RCT

Among the following options, RCT has the bidirectional current capability.

RCT

  • The full form of RCT is reverse conducting thyristor.
  • It consists of an SCR and a diode connected anti-parallel, hence current flows in both directions.
  • Because of the reverse diode, this thyristor is not capable of reverse blocking. These devices are advantageous where a reverse or freewheel diode must be used.
175

Which of the following is an aluminum electrolytic capacitor?

  1. ((a))

    film capacitor

  2. ((b))

    AC type capacitor

  3. ((c))

    tantalum capacitor

  4. ((d))

    DC type capacitor

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

DC type capacitor

The DC-type capacitor is an aluminum electrolytic capacitor.

Aluminum electrolytic capacitor:

  • Aluminum electrolytic capacitors are polarized electrolytic capacitors whose anode electrode (+) is made of pure aluminum foil with an etched surface.
  • The aluminum forms a very thin insulating layer of aluminum oxide by anodization that acts as the dielectric of the capacitor.
  • A non-solid electrolyte covers the rough surface of the oxide layer, serving in principle as the second electrode (cathode) (-) of the capacitor.
  • A second aluminum foil called “cathode foil” contacts the electrolyte and serves as the electrical connection to the negative terminal of the capacitor.
  • They are made with capacitance values from 0.1 µF up to 2.7 Fand rated voltage values from 4 V up to 630 V.
176

With an increase in temperature, the magnetic susceptibility of a ferromagnetic material will:

  1. ((a))

    remain constant

  2. ((b))

    decrease

  3. ((c))

    increase and then decrease

  4. ((d))

    increase

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

decrease

Magnetic susceptibility is a dimensionless proportionality constant that indicates the degree of magnetization of a material in response to an applied magnetic field. 

The relation between magnetic susceptibility and temperature is:

(ζ={C\over T-T_c})

where, ζ = Magnetic susceptibility

C = Curie constant

Tc = Curie temperature

Explanation:

From the above expression, ζ α 1/T

The magnetic susceptibility decreases with an increase in temperature. So, ferromagnetism decreases with rising temperature.

It is maximum at absolute zero temperature and becomes zero at curie temperature.

Above this temperature, the ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic.

177

The correct relationship of magnetic susceptibility is:

  1. ((a))

    Magnetisation + Magnetising force

  2. ((b))

    Magnetisation / Magnetising force

  3. ((c))

    Magnetising force / Magnetisation

  4. ((d))

    Magnetisation × Magnetising force

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Magnetisation / Magnetising force

The correct answer is option 2):(Magnetisation / Magnetising force)

Concept:

  • Magnetic susceptibility is a measure of how much a material will become magnetized in an applied magnetic field.
  • It is a scalar quantity with no units and dimensions The magnetic susceptibility indicates whether a material is repelled out or attracted to a magnetic field.
  • The diamagnetic substance is those which repel the magnetic field and henceforth their susceptibility is negative. It is positive for paramagnetic material and ferromagnetic material has large positive magnetic susceptibility.
  • Magnetic susceptibility (X) of a material is the ratio of magnetization I (magnetic moment per unit volume) to the applied magnetizing field intensity H.
  • X = (Magnetisation \over Magnetising:force)
178

which of the following for plate earthing G.I. the size of the plate should not be less than ?

  1. ((a))

    80 cm ×  80 cm × 2.18 mm

  2. ((b))

    30 cm × 30 cm × 1.3 mm

  3. ((c))

    40 cm × 40 cm × 8.5 mm

  4. ((d))

    60 cm × 60 cm × 6.35 mm

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

60 cm × 60 cm × 6.35 mm

The correct answer is option 4):  (60 cm × 60 cm × 6.35 mm)

Concept:

  • In areas with high soil resistivity, GI (Galvanized Iron) Earthing Electrodes give a low-impedance ground.
  • This method dissipates lightning surges and other dangerous electrical fault currents
  • When it is used in conjunction with Reflow Grounding Minerals, it will work well even in  sandy or rocky soil conditions
  • A GI plate of minimum size 600mm x600mm and thickness of 6.3 mm is used.
  • Where in the case of a copper (plate) a minimum thickness of 3.15mm can be used.
  • The plate is placed such that the earthing plate is surrounded by an alternate layer of charcoal and salt.
179

Which of the following is not used as an insulator in cables?

  1. ((a))

    Rubber 

  2. ((b))

    Paper 

  3. ((c))

    Copper

  4. ((d))

    Varnished cambric

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Copper

The correct answer is option 3):Copper

Concept:

Insulation is a nonconductive material within a cable's construction

The principal insulating materials used in cables are

  • Rubber,
  • Vulcanized India rubber, i
  • Impregnated paper,
  • Varnished cambric
  • Polyvinyl chloride.

Copper is the conductor. it should not used for insulation purposes

180

What will be the rated current of the secondary winding of a single phase transformer of power 25 kVA, 2200 / 220 V, 50 Hz?

  1. ((a))

    1.1364 A

  2. ((b))

    1136.4 A

  3. ((c))

    11.364 A

  4. ((d))

    113.64 A

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

113.64 A

The correct answer is option 4):(113.64 A)

Concept:

The current rating of the transformer is given as

Current = (KVA \over V)

KVA is  KVA Rating

V is the Voltage

Calculation:

KVA =  25 × 103 VA

Secondary voltage = 220 V

Secondary current = (25 × 10^3\over 220)

=113.6363 A

181

AC voltage controller is used to convert _______ into _______ voltage.

  1. ((a))

    AC; AC

  2. ((b))

    AC; DC

  3. ((c))

    DC; AC

  4. ((d))

    DC; DC

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

AC; AC

The correct answer is option 1): AC; AC

Concept:

  • AC Voltage Controller is a thyristor-based device which converts fixed alternating voltage directly to variable alternating voltage without a change in frequency.
  • The ac voltage controller is a static power electronic circuit that converts fixed ac to variable ac.
  • It accomplishes this task without a change in frequency. It finds application in heating, lighting circuits, speed control of ac machines, fan regulators, etc, similar to the applications of an autotransformer.
  • The circuit of the ac voltage controller is based on either thyristors, TRIACs, SCRs, or IGBTs.

Additional Information A Single-phase full-wave ac voltage controller using SCR’s Shown below.

182

Which type of capacitor works on a pure alternating current (AC) circuit?

  1. ((a))

    Unidirectional

  2. ((b))

    Polar

  3. ((c))

    Unpolarized

  4. ((d))

    Electrolyte

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Unpolarized

The correct answers are option 3): Unpolarized

Concept:

Electrolytic capacitor is a polarized,unidirectional capacitor are specially designed for operate in Direct current circuits.

Unpolarized capacitor:

A non-polarized capacitor is a type of capacitor that has no implicit polarity.

It can be connected either way in a circuit.

It operates on pure AC circuits.

They are mainly used in circuits of coupling, decoupling, feedback, compensation, and oscillation.

The symbol for polarized and non polarized capacitor  are

What is Non-Polarized Capacitor? Definition & Usage | Linquip

183

In an economical electric-power system operation, the loss coefficient is used for?

  1. ((a))

    Bus Frequency Calculation

  2. ((b))

    economical loading of all load variations

  3. ((c))

    bus current calculation

  4. ((d))

    Bus voltage calculation

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

economical loading of all load variations

Economic load dispatch

  • In power system analysis and optimization, the B-coefficient loss formula is frequently used to estimate network losses.
  • The losses are expressed in terms of the penalty factor.
  • The penalty factor in the power system is a factor (greater than unity) by which the incremental cost of power production of the plant must be multiplied to accommodate for transmission losses.
  • The penalty factor is given by:

Penalty factor = ({1\over 1-{dP_L\over dP_n}}) 

where, ({dP_L\over dP_n}=) Loss factor

184

Which of the following issues is associated with the series-connected capacitors in a transmission line?

  1. ((a))

    Increase in power transfer capability

  2. ((b))

    Control of voltage

  3. ((c))

    Creation of sub synchronous resonance

  4. ((d))

    Improvement in system stability

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Creation of sub synchronous resonance

In a transmission line, the capacitors are installed in a parallel (admittance) branch.

The problem associated with Series capacitors are:

  • The series compensated line produces series resonance at frequencies lower than power frequencies. This is known as sub-synchronous resonance. The sub-synchronous produces mechanical stress due to which high torsional stress occurs in the rotor shaft.
  • Series capacitors produced high recovery voltages across the breakers contact.
  • If the degree of compensation and location of capacitors are not proper, the distance relays used for line protection may not function properly.
  • Switching in of an unloaded transformer at the end of a series compensation of the line may produce non-linear resonance or Ferro resonance. This may result in uninterrupted oscillations.
185

The battery used in an inverter is connected to?

  1. ((a))

    from the output of the inverter

  2. ((b))

    in parallel between the inverter and the load

  3. ((c))

    Inverter output in series with load

  4. ((d))

    from the input of the inverter

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

from the input of the inverter

The correct answer is option 4):(from the input of the inverter)

Concept:

  • The inverter is a power electronics device used to regulate the flow of electrical power
  • The inverter is used to accomplish the DC-to-AC conversion by switching the direction of a DC input back and forth very rapidly.
  • As a result, a DC input becomes an AC output.
  • The battery used in an inverter is connected to the input of the inverter
  • The diagram for ups is drawn given as

186

 In a DC machine, the main pole structure is provided at?

  1. ((a))

    in series with rotor

  2. ((b))

    on the stator

  3. ((c))

    on the rotor

  4. ((d))

    in series with stator

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

on the stator

The correct answer is option 2):(on the stator)

Concept:

  • The stator has pairs of poles
  • each pair of which is activated and made into an electromagnet by a current being passed through the coils wrapped around it.
  • When one pair of poles is activated, a magnetic field is produced that attracts the nearest pair of rotor teeth so that the teeth and poles line up.
  • The Dc machine Diagram is shown as
  • F2 Madhuri Engineering 04.07.2022 D19
187

Which of the following is not a transistor?

  1. ((a))

    SIT

  2. ((b))

    TRIAC

  3. ((c))

    MOSFET

  4. ((d))

    IGBT

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

TRIAC

The correct answer is option 2):(TRIAC)

Concept:

  • TRIAC is a three-terminal electronic component that conducts current in either direction when triggered
  • Triac is a non-linear device, a switch. That means it has no predominant linear region to amplify a signal, and is not used as an amplifier.
  • TRIAC is designed to carry high currents. The control terminal is used to control the power to the load by varying the phase angle.
  • A transistor has a predominant and useful linear region and can amplify voltage/current
  • when supplied by a voltage source. The control terminal of the transistor is used to vary the output amplitude. The  SIT, MOSFET, IGBT are Transistor

Additional Information

Power electronic deviceSymbol
GTO thyristor
Triac
IGBT
BJT
188

Which type of transmission line can have different values ​​of frequency at the receiver-end and the sender-end?

  1. ((a))

    HVDC

  2. ((b))

    HVAC

  3. ((c))

    normal AC

  4. ((d))

    Transformer Based AC Line

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

HVDC

The correct answer option 1):(HVDC)

Concept:

  • HVDC stands for High Voltage DC transmission system
  • HVDC allows power transmission between AC transmission systems that are not synchronized.
  • Since the power flow through an HVDC link can be controlled independently of the phase angle between source and load, it can stabilize a network against disturbances due to rapid changes in power.
  • HVDC also allows the transfer of power between grid systems running at different frequencies, such as 50 and 60 Hz.
  • This improves the stability and economy of each grid, by allowing the exchange of power between incompatible networks
189

Which method of the following is NOT used for laying of underground cables?

  1. ((a))

    Direct laying

  2. ((b))

    Solid system laying

  3. ((c))

    Draw in system laying

  4. ((d))

    Neural network laying

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Neural network laying

Neural network laying is not used for laying underground cables.

Laying Of Underground Cables

1.) Direct Laying Of Underground Cables

  • A trench of about 1.5 meters deep and 45 cm wide is dug.
  • Then the trench is covered with a 10 cm thick layer of fine sand.
  • The cable is laid over the sand bed. The sand bed protects the cable from moisture from the ground.
  • Then the laid cable is again covered with a layer of sand about 10 cm thick.
  • When multiple cables are to be laid in the same trench, a horizontal or verticle spacing of about 30 cm is provided to reduce the effect of mutual heating.
  • Spacing between the cables also ensures a fault occurring on one cable does not damage the adjacent cable.
  • The trench is then covered with bricks and soil to protect the cable from mechanical injury.

2.) Draw-In System

  • In this method, cast iron or concrete pipes or ducts are laid underground with manholes at suitable positions along the cable route.
  • The cables are then pulled into the pipes from the manholes.
  • Usually, an additional pipe/duct is also provided along with the three cable ducts for carrying relay protection connections and pilot wires.

3.) Solid System

  • In this method, the cable is laid into troughing of cast iron, stoneware, asphalt, or treated wood.
  • When the cable is laid into the position, the troughing is filled with bituminous of asphaltic compound and then covered over.
  • Cables to be laid in this manner could be just lead-covered as the troughing provides good mechanical protection.
190

Which of the following is the correct connection in the commutator pitch winding?

  1. ((a))

    Number of commutator segments < number of armature coils

  2. ((b))

    Number of commutator segments + number of armature coils = 0

  3. ((c))

    Number of commutator segments = number of armature coils

  4. ((d))

    Number of commutator segments > Number of armature coils

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Number of commutator segments = number of armature coils

Commutator pitch winding

The distance between the two commutator segments to which the two ends of a coil are connected is called commutator pitch (YC).

In commutator pitch winding:

  • Number of commutator segments = number of armature coils
  • The diameter of the commutator will generally be about (60 to 80)% of the armature diameter.
  • The segments of the commutator are insulated from each other and the armature shaft.
  • The purpose of the commutator is to rectify the waveform.
191

Cathodic protection is a technique used to control _______ on a metal surface.

  1. ((a))

    Thermal damage

  2. ((b))

    Mechanical damage

  3. ((c))

    Electrical damage

  4. ((d))

    Rust

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Rust

The correct answer is option 4): (Rust)

Concept:

  • Cathodic protection (CP) is a method used to resist the corrosion (forming rust) of a metal surface by making it the cathodic side of an electrochemical cell.
  • The main purpose of cathodic protection is to protect steel structures buried in soil or immersed in water which have higher chances of being affected by rust.
  • The technique of providing cathodic protection to steel preserves the metal by providing a highly active metal that can act as an anode and provide free electrons. By introducing these free electrons, the active metal sacrifices its ions and keeps the less active steel from corrosion.
192

Which of the following is a FACTS device?

  1. ((a))

    Circuit breaker

  2. ((b))

    Relay

  3. ((c))

    Isolator

  4. ((d))

    STATCOM

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

STATCOM

The correct answer  is option 4):(STATCOM)

Concept:

  • The term FACTS stands for flexible AC Transmission systems
  • By the usage of the series and shunt compensation, the fact devices are utilized to  increase power transfer capability, stability, and controllability of the power system
  • STATCOM stands for static synchronous compensator

  • A static synchronous compensator is a shunt-connected FACTS device that is used primarily for reactive power control
  • The STATCOM capability is similar to that of a rotating synchronous condenser or static VAR compensator (SVC) which controls reactive power for voltage support.
  • STATCOM is a voltage source converter (VSC)-based device, with the voltage source behind a reactor. The voltage source is created from a DC capacitor and therefore a STATCOM has very little active power capability.
  • The reactive power at the terminals of the STATCOM depends on the amplitude of the voltage source.
  • If the terminal voltage of the VSC is higher than the AC voltage at the point of connection, the STATCOM generates a reactive current.
  • On the other hand, when the amplitude of the voltage source is lower than the AC voltage, it absorbs reactive power.
193

Suspension type insulators are subject to _______.

  1. ((a))

    depends on its use

  2. ((b))

    tensile stress

  3. ((c))

    tensile and compression stress

  4. ((d))

    compression stress

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

tensile stress

Correct option 2

Concept:

Suspension type insulator

Definition: A suspension-type insulator protects an over headed transmission line like a conductor. Generally, it is made up of porcelain material that includes a single or a string of insulating discs hung over a tower. It operates at above 33KV and overcomes the limitation of pin-type insulators like the following.

  1. Its size and weight increase above 33KV
  2. It is difficult to handle and replace a unit insulator
  3. The replacement of a damaged insulator is costly

Properties of Insulator Material

The following are the properties of any insulating material they are,

  1. They should be mechanically strong.
  2. The dielectric strength of the material should withstand high-voltage stress
  3. The electrical insulating resistance should be high.
  4. The material should be free from impurities, have no cracks, and be non-porous
  5. The physical properties and electrical properties of an insulator should not be affected due to changes in the environment

Suspension Insulator Construction and Working :

It consists of two main parts

  1. they are the cross-arms and the insulators (also called disc insulators) with a number of metallic links.
  2. A suspension insulator or suspension string is developed by connecting a number of insulators in series with the help of metallic links, where the conductor is suspended by the bottom-most insulator and the top end of the insulator is secured by cross-arms 

194

For which type of diode, is the reverse recovery time minimum?

  1. ((a))

    General purpose diode

  2. ((b))

    Fast recovery diode

  3. ((c))

    Zener diode

  4. ((d))

    Schottky diode

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Schottky diode

The correct answer is option 4): (Schottky diode)

Concept:

  • The Reverse recovery time is the amount of time the current flows in the reverse direction when the forward current instantaneously switches directions due to residual stored charge.
  • Schottky diodes are used for their low turn-on voltage, fast recovery time and low-loss energy at higher frequencies. These characteristics make Schottky diodes capable of rectifying a current by facilitating a quick transition from conducting to blocking state
  • Because the Schottky diode is a majority carrier device. At forward bias, there is no diffusion capacitance, which makes the Schottky diode a higher-frequency device than the PN junction diode.
  • At reversed bias, there is no minority carrier stored charge, which makes the switching process: forward bias to reverse bias or reverse bias to forward bias), very fast.
  • Since there is no minority carrier storage time, the reverse recovery time is nearly zero in the Schottky diode.
195

The property of Zener region of a diode is used for:

  1. ((a))

    voltage regulation

  2. ((b))

    moisture regulation

  3. ((c))

    current regulation

  4. ((d))

    temperature regulation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

voltage regulation

The correct answer is option 1): (voltage regulation)

Concept:

  • The Zener diode is a semi-conductor diode which is specifically designed for operating at the reverse biased condition
  • Zener Diodes can be used to produce a stabilised voltage output with low ripple under varying load current conditions
  • It is used to regulate the voltage level. It generates a fixed output voltage that remains constant for any changes in load conditions or input voltage, i.e. it regulates or maintains a constant dc output voltage in spite of the fluctuations in ac input voltage or load current.
  • The circuit diagram of the Zener diode as voltage regulator is drawn as

06.11.2018.001..09

06.11.2018.001..10

  • It is a PN junction (silicon PN junction) diode and has a low specified reverse voltage which takes advantage of any reverse voltage applied to it.
  • Unlike a normal diode (Schottky diode, varactor diode, tunnel diode) that blocks any flow of current through itself when reverse biased. From the I-V characteristics curve above voltage across the diode in the breakdown, the region is almost constant.
  • In the breakdown region, it can be used as a voltage regulator application.
196

What is the function of oil in a transformer?

  1. ((a))

    to provide protection against illumination

  2. ((b))

    to provide lubrication

  3. ((c))

    to provide short-circuit protection

  4. ((d))

    to provide insulating and cooling

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

to provide insulating and cooling

The correct answer is option 4):(to provide insulating and cooling)

Concept:

  • The oil in the transformer is used for insulation and cooling purposes
  • Transformer oil is used in oil-filled electrical power transformers to insulate, stop arcing and corona discharge, and dissipate the heat of the transformer
  • The transformer is wholly immersed in the oil
  • Transformer oil is also used to preserve the transformer’s core and windings
  • The insulating oil has the ability to prevent oxidation of the cellulose-made paper insulation.
  • The transformer tank shown as

Construction of Transformer | Transformer Parts and its Function

197

For a balanced three-phase system, the value of zero sequence components is:

  1. ((a))

    zero

  2. ((b))

    infinity

  3. ((c))

    dependent on load condition

  4. ((d))

    dependent on grid frequency

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

zero

The correct answer is option 1):(zero)

Concept:

A balanced three-phase voltage or current is one in which the size of each phase is the same, and the phase angles of the three phases differ from each other by 120 degrees.

A balanced three-phase network is one in which the impedances in the three phases are identical.

Positive sequence component:

It represents three equal phasors with a phase displacement of 120° and has a phase sequence the same as the original phasors. It specifies that the current is flowing through the source to load.

Negative sequence component:

It represents three equal phasors with a phase displacement of 120° with each other and has a phase sequence opposite to that of the original phasors. It specifies that current is flowing from load to source.

Zero sequence component:

It represents three equal and parallel phasors with zero phase displacement. It specifies that current is flowing from source to ground. In a balanced three-phase system operating in normal conditions, only a positive sequence component exists and hence zero sequence currents are zero.

198

What is the general cable that is connected between the distributor and consumer load terminals called?

  1. ((a))

    Super line

  2. ((b))

    Service line

  3. ((c))

    Supply line

  4. ((d))

    Special line

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Service line

The correct answer is option 2

Concept:

Service lines:

The overhead line or U.G cable connecting the supplier's distributing line to the consumer's premises is called service mains or service connection or service line.

Feeder:

  • A feeder is a conductor which connects the sub-station or local generating station to the area where the power is distributed.
  • Generally, no tapping is taken from the feeder, so the current is remain same throughout.
  • The main consideration in the design of a feeder is current-carrying capacity.

Distributor:

A distributor is a conductor from which tapping is taken for supply to the consumer. While designing the distributor, voltage drop along its length is the main consideration.

199

A battery consists of 20 cells - each of EMF 1.5 V - and internal resistance 0.2 Ω, connected five in series per row and four rows in parallel. The EMF at the output terminals of the battery is:

  1. ((a))

    0.75 V

  2. ((b))

    0.075 V

  3. ((c))

    7.5 V

  4. ((d))

    75 V

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

7.5 V

Concept:

In series, resistance and voltage get added while in parallel, resistance and voltage remain the same.

In series, no. of batteries connected = 5

E = 5 × 1.5 = 7.5V

R = 0.2 × 5 = 1 Ω

({V-7.5\over 1}+{V-7.5\over 1}+{V-7.5\over 1}+{V-7.5\over 1}=0)

V = 7.5

200

In an ideal transformer at no load, the phase difference between primary voltage and secondary voltage is:

  1. ((a))

    90°

  2. ((b))

    120°

  3. ((c))

    180°

  4. ((d))

    360°

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

180°

The correct answer is option 3): (180°)

Concept:

  • An ideal transformer is a theoretical model of a transformer with no energy losses in it
  • The advantages of the ideal transformer include the following.
  • There are no losses like hysteresis, eddy, and copper.
  • Voltage & current ratios are perfectly based on the twists of the coil.
  • There is no flux leakage.
  • It doesn't depend on the frequency
  • the phase difference between primary voltage and secondary voltage is i180 degrees in the case of an ideal transformer.
  • In a practical transformer, it deviates away from 180 degrees.
  • At full load, the deviation is negligible. At lower loads, the deviation is more.
201

The static device used to control the reactive electric power in the grid is called?

  1. ((a))

    FACTS equipment

  2. ((b))

    HVDC equipment

  3. ((c))

    circuit breaker

  4. ((d))

    Separator

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

FACTS equipment

FACTS devices

  • The static device used to control the reactive electric power in the grid is called FACTS equipment.
  • FACTS devices are static power-electronic devices installed in AC transmission networks to increase power transfer capability, stability, and controllability of the networks through series and/or shunt compensation.
  • FACTS enhance the overall grid capacity and performance. They also increase the reliability and efficiency of your power system.
  • The static synchronous series compensator (SSSC) and thyristor-controlled series capacitor (TCSC) are some of the FACTS control devices that provide series compensation to the reactance of the lines.
  • static synchronous compensator (STATCOM) and static VAR compensator (SVC)  are FACTS devices that provide shunt compensation to transmission lines.
202

The system used to convert tidal energy into electricity is known as:

  1. ((a))

    hydro system

  2. ((b))

    battery system

  3. ((c))

    barrage system

  4. ((d))

    storage system

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

barrage system

Correct option 3

Concept:

Tidal barrage

Tidal barrage systems are a tidal power generation method that works similarly to hydropower and have sluices that control the tidal flow to drive turbines and generate electricity

Benefits

  • These types of dams can be used not only to produce renewable energy but also to reduce flooding.
  • the global effects of climate change become more evident, the world is faced with the very real threat of rising sea levels.

Tidal barrages can be used to prevent flooding of low-lying areas - areas that already are at a high risk of flooding - by holding back or releasing water as necessary

Drawbacks

  • Tidal barrages alter the flow of salt water in and out of estuaries, which can alter the quality of the seawater and thus negatively impact and displace marine life in the area
  • barrage systems have high development costs and it can be difficult to justify using so much capital especially when the environmental threats are taken into consideration.

Barrage Designs

There are several different types and methods of producing electricity by the tidal barrage. However, there are two main classes that are used. Typically the type or class used depends on the environmental circumstances of an area.

Ebb Generation 

  • Ebb generation uses gates that allow the water to fill a basin to the normal level, these gates are then closed at full tide.
  • The water is then held back for a few hours while the tide recedes, the gates are then opened and the water flows through turbines for several hours generating electricity through to low tide

Two-way Generation

  • Two-way generation uses turbines to generate power during both flood and ebb tide. All the water flows through the turbines and, unlike ebb generation, the water is not held back but allowed to flow freely and constantly turn the turbines
203

Which of the following power plant is of renewable energy type?

  1. ((a))

    thermal

  2. ((b))

    chemical

  3. ((c))

    nuclear

  4. ((d))

    magnetic hydraulics

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

magnetic hydraulics

The correct answer is option 4):magnetic hydraulics

Concept:

  • An electromagnet that uses hydraulics to power its generator and generate its current
  • Hydraulic energy is a  classification of energy that takes advantage of the movement of water.
  • It is also called water energy and it enables us to obtain electricity by making use of kinetic energy and potential energy from currents and waterfalls.
  • It is clean and renewable energy that uses the force of streams, rivers and waterfalls.
  • when we think of hydraulic energy, what comes to mind are hydroelectric power stations on dams in reservoirs.

Additional Information

  • A non-renewable resource is a natural resource that cannot be readily replaced by natural means at a pace quick enough to keep up with consumption
  • There are four major types of nonrenewable resources: oil, natural gas, coal, and nuclear energy
204

The preferred location of hydroelectric power plant installation is:

  1. ((a))

    deserts

  2. ((b))

    flat areas

  3. ((c))

    hilly areas

  4. ((d))

    deltas

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

hilly areas

The correct answer is option 3):(hilly areas)

Concept:

The hilly areas are the preferred location for the hydroelectric power plant because of the following reason

  • Availability of water: The rivers originate in the hilly regions plenty of water is available in hilly regions.
  • The downstream water creates a lot of energy. This kinetic energy is utilized to rotate the turbine of the hydroelectric power plant
  • The ideal location for the multipurpose dam is a hilly region.the narrow site valley widens upstream  of the dam
  • In flat and desert areas sufficient water head cannot be obtained, deltas are not suitable because of high sedimentation levels.
205

How can direction of speed of 3 phase induction motor be reversed?

  1. ((a))

    By adjusting the winding of the rotor

  2. ((b))

    By interchanging any one of the supply line leads

  3. ((c))

    By interchanging any two supply line leads

  4. ((d))

    By interchanging all three supply line leads

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

By interchanging any two supply line leads

The correct answer is option 3):(By interchanging all three supply line leads)

Concept:

  • The direction of rotation of a 3-phase induction motor can be reversed by interchanging any two of the three motor supply lines.
  • Let the phase sequence of the three-phase voltage applied to the stator winding be A-B-C.
  • If this sequence is changed to A-C-B, it is observed that the direction of rotation of the field is reversed Such that the field rotates counterclockwise rather than clockwise.
  • However, the number of poles and the speed at which the magnetic field rotates remain unchanged.
  • Thus it is necessary only to change the phase sequence in order to change the direction of rotation of the magnetic field.
  • For a three-phase supply, this can be done by interchanging any two of the three lines.
206

Which of the following is not a form of ocean energy?

  1. ((a))

    steam energy

  2. ((b))

    ocean heat

  3. ((c))

    tide 

  4. ((d))

    wave

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

steam energy

Correct option 1

Steam energy is normally generated from thermal power plants.

Concept:

Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion:

  • In ocean thermal energy conversion hot water available at the surface of the ocean is used for the generation of steam.
  • This generated steam is then put as input to the steam turbine to produce electricity.
  • After putting pressure on the blades of the turbine and expanding over the turbine chamber this steam is taken out and cooled down through cold water available at the bottom of the sea.
  • So, Ocean Thermal Energy conversion known as OTEC uses the water available at different temperatures in the sea.

Tidal Energy:

Tidal energy is a form of power produced by the natural rise and fall of tides caused by the gravitational interaction between the Earth, the sun, and the moon. 

Green Mechanic: Tidal Barrage Power Generation

The advantages of tidal energy are:

  • Environment-friendly
  • A highly predictable energy source
  • High energy density
  • Operational and maintenance costs are low
  • An inexhaustible source of energy

The disadvantages of tidal energy are:

  • High tidal power plant construction costs
  • Negative influence on marine life forms
  • Location limits
  • The variable intensity of sea waves

Wave Energy:

  • The kinetic energy possessed by huge waves near the seashore is used to generate electricity.
  • The kinetic energy of the waves is used to rotate the turbine of the floating generators that generate electricity.
  • Tidal Energy:
  • Tidal energy is harnessed by constructing a dam across a narrow opening to the sea.
  • A turbine fixed at the opening of the dam converts tidal energy to electricity.
207

In a single-phase shaded pole induction motor, the shaded pole winding is provided to enable the motor for:

  1. ((a))

    self starting

  2. ((b))

    carrying high current

  3. ((c))

    better cooling

  4. ((d))

    safety features

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

self starting

Shaded pole induction motor:

  • The shaded pole induction motor is simply a self-starting single-phase induction motor whose one of the poles is shaded by the copper ring
  • The copper ring is also called the shaded ring
  • This copper ring act as a secondary winding for the motor
  • The part which is covered with the copper ring is called the shaded part and which is not covered by the rings is called the unshaded part
  • The shaded pole motor rotates only in one particular direction, and the reverse movement of the motor is not possible
  • The direction of rotation of the magnetic field is from the unshaded pole to the shaded pole
  • This shading coil carries only induced current

  • When the supply is connected to the windings of the rotor, the alternating flux induces in the core of the rotor
  • The small portion of the flux link with the shaded coil of the motor as because it is short-circuited
  • The variation in the flux induces the voltage inside the ring because of which the circulating current induces in it
  • The circulating current develops the flux in the ring which opposes the main flux of the motor
  • The flux induces in the shaded portion of the motor, and the unshaded portion of the motor has a phase difference
  • The flux under the unshaded pole leads to the flux under the shaded pole
  • The main motor flux and the shaded ring flux are also having a space displacement by an angle of 90°
  • The flux in the unshaded portion leads to that in the shaded portion.

So, the shaded portion flux lags the unshaded portion flux

The disadvantages of shaded pole induction motor:

  • Low power factor
  • The starting torque is very poor
  • The efficiency is very low as the copper losses are high due to the presence of the copper band
  • The speed reversal is also difficult and expensive as it requires another set of the copper ring

The advantages of shaded pole induction motor:

  • Very economical and reliable
  • Construction is simple and robust because there is no centrifugal switch
208

Which type of fault is a symmetrical fault?

  1. ((a))

    Line-to-line fault

  2. ((b))

    Single phase ground fault

  3. ((c))

    Three-phase short-circuit faults

  4. ((d))

    Line-line-ground fault

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Three-phase short-circuit faults

Types of fault

1.) Symmetrical fault

  • In such types of faults, all the phases are short-circuited to each other and connected to the earth.
  • These faults do not disturb the symmetry of the fault i.e. the magnitude of all three phases remains equal and they are 120° displaced from each other.
  • Two kinds of symmetrical faults include three-phase short-circuit (L-L-L) and (L-L-L-G) faults.

​2.) Unsymmetrical fault

  • Unsymmetrical faults involve only one or two phases.
  • In unsymmetrical faults the three-phase lines become unbalanced.
  • There are mainly three types namely line-to-ground (L-G), line-to-line (L-L), and double line-to-ground (LL-G) faults.

209

The capacitance multiplier used in the electrostatic instrument is used for the measurement of:

  1. ((a))

    low DC Voltage

  2. ((b))

    low AC Voltage

  3. ((c))

    high AC Voltage

  4. ((d))

    high DC Voltage

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

high AC Voltage

Electrostatic instruments

  • The instrument which uses the static electric field for producing the deflecting torque is known as the electrostatic instrument.
  • The electrostatic instrument works on the principle of mechanical interaction of the electrodes that consists of the opposite electrical charge.
  • In the electrostatic instrument, the charge is stored between the plates.
  • The electrostatic instrument consists of the charges of two opposite polarities and force of attraction occurs between these two plates.
  • Because of the force of attraction, the movable plates move towards the fixed plates and store the maximum electrostatic energy.
  • The capacitance multiplier used in the electrostatic instrument is used for the measurement of high AC Voltage.

210

Which motor is used for constant speed operation?

  1. ((a))

    DC Compound Motor

  2. ((b))

    3-phase induction motor

  3. ((c))

    single-phase induction motor

  4. ((d))

    synchronous motor

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

synchronous motor

Synchronous motor

  • ​A synchronous motor is a motor that rotates at the same speed as the revolving field in the machine which is equal to synchronous speed (Ns).
  • Synchronous motors are not self-starting motors. This property is due to the inertia of the rotor; it cannot instantly follow the rotation of the magnetic field of the stator.
  • Synchronous motors are capable of running at constant speed irrespective of the load acting on them.
  • Synchronous motors have got higher efficiency.
  • They run at the synchronous speed of the supply. They are generally used for constant speed operation under no load conditions such as to improve the power factor.
  • Its efficiency ranges from 90 – 92%.
211

What will be the RMS value of the periodic voltage in which the following values ​​suddenly change from one value to the next for equal time intervals?

<br>

0 V, 5 V, 10 V, 20 V, 50 V, 60 V, 50 V, 20 V, 10 V, 5 V, 0 V, -5 V, -10 V, etc.

  1. ((a))

    3.1 V

  2. ((b))

    31 V

  3. ((c))

    5.3 V

  4. ((d))

    53 V

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

31 V

Concept:

The RMS value is given by:

(RMS =\sqrt{Mean \space square \space value})

After the 10th entry, the values are repeated.

Hence, n = 10

The mean square value of V is given by:

 (={0^2+5^2+10^2+20^2+50^2+60^2+50^2+20^2+10^2+5^2\over 10})

= 965 V

(RMS =\sqrt{965})

RMS = 31 V

212

Which of the following points is not considered while selecting a wiring system for a home?

  1. ((a))

    cost 

  2. ((b))

    number of residents

  3. ((c))

    durability 

  4. ((d))

    Security

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

number of residents

While selecting the wiring system for the home, the number of residents is not considered.

Choice Of Wiring Systems:

While making choice for a wiring system for a home, the following factors should be considered:

1.) Cost of wiring

The initial cost of the wiring system to be chosen or selected is one of the paramount factors to be considered. It should be economical and safe.

2.) Durability

 When making choices for a wiring system, the wiring type should be durable (long-lasting) and should also be of proper specifications and in accordance with the assessed life and type of building to be wired.

3.) Mechanical Protection

The wiring should be protected from mechanical damage during its use.

4.) Appearance

The wiring should provide a good look after its installation. If cleat or casing–capping wiring is used in a modern building, it will spoil the outlook of that building. Conduit wiring is preferred mostly for modern buildings except that it’s expensive.

5.) Safety

When it comes to wiring, safety is one of the most paramount factors to be considered because electrocution is one thing you won’t have the time to give a second thought to. Where there is the possibility of a fire hazard, conduit wiring should be used.

6.) Permanency

The wiring should not deteriorate by the action of weather, fumes, dampness, etc. the cables should be resistant to harsh weather and chemical attacks.

213

What is the average value of the signal shown in the following figure?

  1. ((a))

    100 V

  2. ((b))

    150 V

  3. ((c))

    200 V

  4. ((d))

    250 V

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

100 V

Concept:

Average Value:

The average value can be calculated by dividing the area by time period for one cycle

({V_{avg}} = \frac{{\frac{1}{2}{V_m}T}}{T} = \frac{{{V_M}}}{2} = 0.5;{V_m})

Rms value:

({V_{rms}} = \sqrt {\frac{1}{T}\mathop \smallint \limits_0^T {{\left( {\frac{{{V_m}}}{T}t} \right)}^2}dt;} ;)

Vrms = Vm / √3 = 0.577 Vm

Note: The result of RMS value for standard triangular waveform and sawtooth waveform should be remembered as Vm/√3

Application:

Given, 

Peak voltage Vm = 200 V

Time period T = 2 sec

({V_{avg}} = \frac{{\frac{1}{2} \times 2 \times 200}}{2} = 100V)

214

In a separately excited DC generator, the prime mover is connected:

  1. ((a))

    in series with field winding

  2. ((b))

    with armature

  3. ((c))

    with field

  4. ((d))

    in parallel with supply voltage

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

with armature

Separately excited DC generator:

  • A separately excited DC generator is one whose field winding is supplied by an independent external DC source (like a battery).
  • The armature is connected to the prime mover that provides mechanical input to the generator.
  • The magnitude of the generated voltage depends upon the speed of armature rotation and the field current, i.e., the greater the speed and field current, the higher the induced voltage.
  • The separately excited type DC generators are used for power and lighting purposes. The series DC generator is used in arc lamps for lighting, as a stable current generator, and as a booster.
215

Which of the following is not a cause of failure in an OH line insulator?

  1. ((a))

    Improper verification

  2. ((b))

    Flashover

  3. ((c))

    Mechanical stress

  4. ((d))

    Porosity of matter

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Improper verification

Improper verification is not a cause of failure in an OH line insulator.

Causes of failure in an overhead insulator:

1.) Porosity

  • For overhead transmission lines, Porcelain and stearate insulating material is porous and likely to absorb moisture, if their surfaces are not properly glazed and smoothened.
  • The resistance of insulating material will be decreased if it absorbs moisture. And it will increase leakage current. The leakage current may damage the insulator and punch the material permanently.

2.) Poor Mechanical Strength

  • The Insulators losses their desired mechanical strength due to certain design defects. Therefore, due to the weight of the conductor and wind loading, Insulator gets broken.

3.) Surface Flash Overdue to Dust and Dirt

  • As the line Insulator is directly in contact with an atmospheric condition, dust, and dirt deposit on its surface. This may cause a flashover between the conducting ends of the Insulator.

4.) Internal Impurities Cavities

  • While manufacturing the Insulators they may consist of certain impurities, cavities, and/or voids. The breakdown strength of Insulators decreases due to such impurities.
216

The diffused impurities, called as acceptor atoms, have:

  1. ((a))

    5 valence electrons

  2. ((b))

    0 valence electrons

  3. ((c))

    3 valence electrons

  4. ((d))

    1 valence electron

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

3 valence electrons

Types of semiconductors

1.) P-Type semiconductor

  • When trivalent impurity atoms such as indium, and gallium are added to an intrinsic semiconductor, it is known as a p-type semiconductor.
  • These semiconductors have 3 valence electrons, therefore accepting one electron to complete its outermost shell. Hence, it is also known as the acceptor atom impurities.
  • The majority of charge carriers are holes & minority of charge carriers are electrons.

2.) N-Type semiconductor

  • When pentavalent impurity atoms such as antimony and arsenic are added to an intrinsic semiconductor, it is known as an n-type semiconductor.
  • These semiconductors have 5 valence electrons, therefore donating one electron to complete its outermost shell. Hence, it is also known as the donor atom impurities.
  • The majority of charge carriers are electrons & minority of charge carriers are holes.

217

Which of the following motors can run on both  A.C and D.C supply?

  1. ((a))

    Universal motor

  2. ((b))

    Induction motor

  3. ((c))

    DC motor 

  4. ((d))

    Synchronous motor

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Universal motor

Universal motor

  • The universal motor is a type of electric motor that can operate on either AC or DC power and uses an electromagnet as its stator to create its magnetic field.
  • It is a commutated series-wound motor where the stator's field coils are connected in series with the rotor windings through a commutator. It is often referred to as an AC series motor.
  • The universal motor is very similar to a DC series motor in construction but is modified slightly to allow the motor to operate properly on AC power.
  • This type of electric motor can operate well on AC because the current in both the field coils and the armature (and the resultant magnetic fields) will alternate (reverse polarity) synchronously with the supply.
  • Hence the resulting mechanical force will occur in a consistent direction of rotation, independent of the direction of applied voltage, but determined by the commutator and polarity of the field coils.
218

Which of the following is not used in load flow analysis of electric power system?

  1. ((a))

    Rapid coupling load flow method

  2. ((b))

    Gauss Seidel Method

  3. ((c))

    Newton Raphson method 

  4. ((d))

    Maximum Power Transfer Method

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Maximum Power Transfer Method

The maximum Power Transfer Method is not used in the load flow analysis of the electric power system.

Method of load flow analysis in power system

  1. Gauss-Seidel method
  2. Newton Raphson method
  3. Fast decoupled load flow method

​A comparison between load flow methods is given below:

S.NoGSNRFDLF
1Require large number of iteration to reach convergenceRequire less number of iterations to reach convergenceRequire more number of iteration than N.R method
2Computation time per iteration is lessComputation time per iteration is morecomputation time per iteration is less
3It has linear convergence characteristicsIt has quadric convergence characteristics
4The number of iteration required for convergence increases with size of the systemThe number of iterations are independent of the size of the systemThe number of iterations are dose not dependent of the size the system
5Less memory requirementsMore memory requirementsless memory requirements than N.R method
219

The speed of operation of a diode is decided by:

  1. ((a))

    frequency of operation

  2. ((b))

    applied voltage across its terminal

  3. ((c))

    duty cycle

  4. ((d))

    reverse recovery time

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

reverse recovery time

Operation of diode:

A diode operates when it is forward biased i.e. anode is connected to a positive terminal and the cathode is connected to the negative terminal of the battery.

The speed of operation of a diode is decided by reverse recovery time (trr).

Reverse recovery time is the amount of time the current flows in the reverse direction when the forward current instantaneously switches directions due to residual stored charge.

The greater the reverse recovery time; the slower will be the diode and vice-versa. Thus the diodes with lesser reverse recovery time are preferred.

The reverse recovery of a diode is shown below:

220

In a DC motor, if Faraday- Lenz relationship is applied to the triangular-shaped flux wave, it will result in:

  1. ((a))

    rectangular-shaped voltage wave

  2. ((b))

    DC voltage wave having no negative components

  3. ((c))

    clipped-sawtooth-shaped voltage wave

  4. ((d))

    triangular-shaped voltage wave

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

rectangular-shaped voltage wave

The waveform of induced EMF in a DC motor is:

When one conductor sweeps through under one pole, it is expected to see a uniform flux, thus inducing a constant emf in it. When it sweeps through under the next pole, induced emf is still constant but the polarity is now reversed.

This gives rise to the flat-topped rectangular waveform.

Hence, in a DC motor, if Faraday- Lenz relationship is applied to the triangular-shaped flux wave, it will result in a rectangular-shaped voltage wave.

221

Which of the following types of materials lacks permanent magnetic dipoles?

  1. ((a))

    paramagnetic

  2. ((b))

    ferrimagnetic

  3. ((c))

    diamagnetic

  4. ((d))

    ferromagnetic

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

diamagnetic

Types of magnetic materials

1.) Diamagnetic material

  • The materials are repelled by a magnet such as zinc. mercury, lead, sulfur, copper, silver, bismuth, wood, etc., are known as diamagnetic materials.
  • They are slightly magnetized when placed in a very strong magnetic field and act in the direction opposite to that of the applied magnetic field.
  • Diamagnetic materials lack permanent magnetic dipoles.
  • Their permeability is slightly less than one.

2.) Paramagnetic material

  • The materials which are not strongly attracted to a magnet are known as paramagnetic materials. For example aluminum, tin magnesium, etc.
  • Such materials are magnetized only when placed on a super strong magnetic field and act in the direction of the magnetic field.
  • Their relative permeability is small but positive.

3.) Ferromagnetic material

  • The materials which are strongly attracted by a magnetic field or magnet is known as ferromagnetic material for eg: iron, steel, nickel, cobalt, etc.
  • The permeability of these materials is very very high.

4.) Ferrimagnetic material

  • In these materials, magnetic moments are aligned in unequal numbers in parallel and antiparallel directions, resulting in a net moment.
  • Ferrimagnetism comes in an oxide of iron called magnetite, with the chemical formula Fe3O4.
222

In which of the following systems is a battery NOT required?

  1. ((a))

    Solar inverter (standalone)

  2. ((b))

    Electric vehicle

  3. ((c))

    UPS

  4. ((d))

    Electronics ballast

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Electronics ballast

Correct option 4

For electronic ballast system battery is not required

Concept:

UPS Block Diagram:

A static transfer switch makes an online UPS different from offline UPS. 

The block diagrams of both the UPS are shown in the figure.

Electric vehicle :

Electric vehicles contain AC_DC converter, Battery pack, DC-DC converter, motor, mech reactions, and block diagram is shown below

Block diagram of a typical electric vehicle

<br>

Solar Inverter:

Solar inverter always has a battery backup it as shown below

Electronic ballast:

An electronic ballast (or electrical ballast) is a device that controls the starting voltage and the operating currents of lighting devices.

223

Open circuit test is conducted on a transformer to determine:

  1. ((a))

    copper loss

  2. ((b))

    thermal loss

  3. ((c))

    iron loss

  4. ((d))

    both iron and copper loss

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

iron loss

Testing of Transformer

1.) Open Circuit Test

  • An open circuit test is conducted on a transformer to determine iron loss or constant loss.
  • This test is conducted on the LV side keeping the HV side open circuit.
  • This test is performed at rated voltage and rated frequency.
  • The voltage at rated frequency is applied to that LV side with the help of a variac of variable ratio auto transformer.
  • Now with the help of variac, the applied voltage gets slowly increased until the voltmeter gives a reading equal to the rated voltage of the LV side.

2.) Short Circuit Test

  • A short circuit test is conducted on a transformer to determine copper loss.
  • This test is conducted on the HV side keeping the LV side short circuit.
  • This test is performed at the rated current.
  • A low voltage of around 5-10% is applied to that HV side with the help of a variac.
  • Now with the help of variac applied voltage is slowly increased until the wattmeter, and an ammeter gives a reading equal to the rated current of the HV side.
224

Fuse is a safety device that is used to protect a circuit from-

  1. ((a))

    Under voltage

  2. ((b))

    Excess current

  3. ((c))

    Under current

  4. ((d))

    Leakage current

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Excess current

The correct answer is option 2

Concept:

  • A fuse is an electrical safety device used to protect an electrical or electronic device from Excess-current
  • When the current above the rated value of the fuse flows through the fuse, the heat generated will cause the fuse wire to melt, thereby breaking the connection.
  • An electric fuse is a protective device that protects electrical equipment in the circuit by breaking the circuit when there is a short circuit.
  • It contains a fuse wire which has a low melting point, it allows normal current to pass through it safely but if there is any short circuit fuse wire can’t withstand the heat produced by that current (infinite current) so it melts and breaks the circuit
  • Whereas the fuse rating of an electrical fuse is the maximum amount of current that can pass through it without melting the fuse wire
  • Hence if an electrical safety fuse is rated (marked) as 16 A, it means that the fuse wire will be blown (break) if the current exceeds 16 A to prevent overload or short-circuit
225

In a shell type transformer, the leakage current is reduced by:

  1. ((a))

    opening HV and LV windings

  2. ((b))

    placing a magnet between HV and LV windings

  3. ((c))

    sandwiching HV and LV windings

  4. ((d))

    providing air cooling between HV and LV windings

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

sandwiching HV and LV windings

Correct option 3

Concept:

Shell type transformer

  • Shell-type transformers provide a shorter magnetic path compared to core type transformer
  • In shell type transformer leakage flux and magnetizing current are lesser as compared to the core type transformer. Therefore power transfer capability is more this is due to sandwiching HV and LV windings
  • It provides better support against electromagnetic force.

F1 Pinnu 28.9.20 Pallavi D1

Core type transformerShell types transformer
1   It has one yoke and two limb1 . It has two yoke tree limb
2   leakage flux is more power transfer capability is less2 leakage flux is less  and power transfer capability is more
3. more amount of copper is required for winding3 less amount of copper is required for winding
226

Which of the following factors will NOT affect the tariff of electricity consumption?

  1. ((a))

    Number of energy meters connected

  2. ((b))

    Power factor of the load

  3. ((c))

    Maximum demand

  4. ((d))

    Type of load

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Number of energy meters connected

The number of energy meters connected does not affect the tariff of electricity consumption.

Tariff

  • The electricity tariff is defined as the rate at which electrical energy is sold to a consumer.
  • The tariff should include the total cost of producing and supplying electrical energy plus the profit to the power company.

Factors Affecting the Electricity Tariffs:

1.) Type of load

  • The load is mainly classified into three types, i.e., domestic, commercial, or industrial.
  • Industrial consumers use more energy for a longer time than domestic consumers, and hence the tariff for industrial consumers is more than the domestic consumers.

2.) Maximum demand

  • The cost of the electrical energy supplied by a generating station depends on the installed capacity of the plant and the kWh generated.
  • Increased maximum capacity increased the installed capacity of the generating station.

3.) The power factor of the load

  • The power factor plays a major role in plant economics.
  • The low power factor increases the load current which increases the losses in the system.
  • Thus, the regulation becomes poor. For improving the power factor, the power factor correction equipment is installed at the generating station.
  • Thus, the cost of the generation increases.

4.) The time at which load is required

  • The time at which the maximum load is required is also essential for the electricity tariff.
  • If the maximum demand coincides with the maximum demand of the consumer, then an additional plant is required.
  • And if the maximum demand of the consumers occurs during off-peak hours, the load factor is improved, and no extra plant capacity is needed.
  • Thus, the overall cost per kWh generated is reduced.
227

"The net emf around a closed-circuit loop is equal to the sum of the potential drops around the loop" - This statement is related to which of them?

  1. ((a))

    Kirchhoff's Law of current 

  2. ((b))

    Kirchhoff's law of voltage 

  3. ((c))

    Kirchhoff's Faraday's Law

  4. ((d))

    Lange's law

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Kirchhoff's law of voltage 

The correct answer is option 2

Concept:

Kirchhoff’s Voltage Law (KVL): "The net emf around a closed-circuit loop is equal to the sum of the potential drops around the loop"

Mathematically, KVL implies that

(\mathop \sum \limits_{m = 1}^M {v_m} = 0 )

Where M is the number of voltages in a loop or number of branches in a loop

And, vm is mth voltage.

Consider a circuit shown below in which R1 and R2 are two resistance, v1, v2 are two voltage source which causes current (I) flow in the loop.

The sign of voltage drop across the passive element is such a way that the current entering from the positive terminal.

Applying KVL on this circuit

V1 + V4 – IR1 – IR2 = 0

Or, V1 + V4 = IR1 + IR2

Hence, the Sum of Voltage drops = Sum of Voltage rises

Note: KVL deals with the conservation of energy.

Kirchhoff’s Current Law (KCL): It states that the algebraic sum of currents entering a node or closed boundary is zero.

Mathematically, KCL implies that

(\mathop \sum \limits_{n = 1}^N {i_n} = 0 )

Where N is the number of branches connected to the node

And in is the nth current entering or leaving the node.

By this law current entering a node may be regarded as positive and current leaving a node may be regarded as negative or vice-versa.

Considered the node in the figure shown below, in which i1, i3, and i5 are incoming current and i2, i4, and i6 are outgoing current.

Applying KCL gives,

i1 + i3 + i5 = i2 + i4 + i6

Hence, the sum of currents entering a node is equal to the sum of the currents leaving the node.

Note: KCL is based on the conservation of charge.

228

Fluorescent lamp should operate on _______.

  1. ((a))

    Grid supply frequency for better performance

  2. ((b))

    Less than grid supply frequency for better performance

  3. ((c))

    Low frequency signals for better performance

  4. ((d))

    High frequency signals for better performance

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

High frequency signals for better performance

Fluorescent lamp

  • A fluorescent lamp is a low-pressure mercury-vapor gas-discharge lamp that uses fluorescence to produce visible light.
  • An electric current in the gas excites mercury vapor, which produces short-wave ultraviolet light that then causes a phosphor coating on the inside of the lamp to glow.
  • Traditionally, fluorescent lamps have been operated at the same 50Hz or 60Hz frequency as the periodicity of the mains electricity supply. Operating at high-frequency mode results in low power loss at the cathodes which means more power is available in the arc.
  • A fluorescent lamp converts electrical energy into useful light much more efficiently than an incandescent lamp.
  • The typical luminous efficacy of fluorescent lighting systems is 50–100 lumens per watt.
229

What is the correct relation between the number of parallel paths (A) and the number of poles (P) in a lap-wound DC machine?

  1. ((a))

    A = P

  2. ((b))

    A > P

  3. ((c))

    A + P = 0

  4. ((d))

    A < P

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A = P

Types of winding in DC machine

1) Lap winding

In lap winding, the conductors are joined in such a way that their parallel paths and poles are equal in number.

The end of each armature coil is connected to the adjacent segment on the commutator. 

A = P

A = No. of parallel paths

P = No. of poles

2.) Wave winding

In this winding, the conductors are connected to two parallel paths irrespective of the number of poles of the machine.

The finishing end of one armature coil is connected to the starting end of the other armature coil commutator segment at some distance apart.

230

What are major components the of the battery?

  1. ((a))

    UPS

  2. ((b))

    thermal power plant

  3. ((c))

    hydroelectric plant

  4. ((d))

    transformer

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

UPS

The battery is a major component of the UPS.

Components of UPS

There are four main components in any online double conversion uninterruptible power supply (UPS) system: Rectifier; UPS Batteries; Inverter; and Static Bypass Switch.  

1.) UPS Rectifier

  • The UPS rectifier carries out several key functions. The first is to convert the input power from AC (Alternating Current) to DC (Direct Current).
  • Its second main role is to recharge the batteries, while the DC power routes to the inverter too.

2.) Batteries

  • The batteries in a UPS system provide emergency power when the main supply fails.
  • Either the rectifier or a separate charger ensures that the batteries are always charged.

3.) Inverter 

  • This component fulfills the second half of the double conversion by switching the DC voltage from the rectifier or battery back to an AC output that powers the critical load.

4.) Static Bypass Switch

  • This component is a safeguard in case there’s a failure within the UPS system.
  • In the event of a UPS fault, the static bypass switch automatically connects the load to the mains supply, bypassing the rectifier, batteries, and inverter.
231

Photovoltaic cells are _______.

  1. ((a))

    semiconductor material

  2. ((b))

    poor conductor material

  3. ((c))

    superconductor material

  4. ((d))

    conductor material

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

semiconductor material

Photovoltaic cells

  • A photovoltaic (PV) cell is an energy-harvesting technology, that converts solar energy into useful electricity through a process called the photovoltaic effect.
  • The photovoltaic effect is a process that generates a voltage or electric current in a photovoltaic cell when it is exposed to sunlight.
  • These solar cells are composed of two different types of semiconductors: a p-type and an n-type which are joined together to create a p-n junction.
  • By joining these two types of semiconductors, an electric field is formed in the region of the junction as electrons move to the positive p-side and holes move to the negative n-side.
  • This field causes negatively charged particles to move in one direction and positively charged particles in the other direction.
  • When the light of a suitable wavelength is incident on these cells, energy from the photon is transferred to an electron of the semiconducting material, causing it to jump to a higher energy state known as the conduction band.
  • In their excited state in the conduction band, these electrons are free to move through the material, and it is this motion of the electron that creates an electric current in the cell.
232

The function of the tap changer in a transformer is to increase and decrease _______.

  1. ((a))

    Voltage

  2. ((b))

    Current

  3. ((c))

    Kilo-Watt hours

  4. ((d))

    Frequency

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Voltage

The correct answer is option 1

The function of the tap changer in a transformer is to increase and decrease the Voltage

Concept:

Tap changing transformer:

  • A tap is a connection point along a transformer winding that allows a certain number of turns to be selected. The tap selection is made with a tap changer mechanism.
  • A tap changer is a mechanism in transformers that allows for variable turn ratios to be selected in discrete steps. These are often placed on the high voltage (low current) transformer winding for easy access and to minimize the current load during operation.
  • This means a transformer with a variable turns ratio is produced, enabling voltage regulation of the output. So Secondary side voltage changes.
233

The magnetically soft materials have:

  1. ((a))

    high permeability

  2. ((b))

    no magnetic properties

  3. ((c))

    no permeability

  4. ((d))

    low permeability

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

high permeability

Soft magnetic material

  • Soft magnetic materials are magnetic materials with low coercivity and high permeability.
  • Due to the low coercivity of the soft magnetic material, it is easy to demagnetize after the technical magnetization reaches saturation and the external magnetic field is removed.
  • The most widely used soft magnetic materials are iron-silicon alloys (silicon steel sheets) and various soft ferrites.
  • These materials have a small hysteresis loop.

Hard magnetic material

  • Hard magnetic materials have a high anisotropy field, high coercivity, and a large hysteresis loop area.
  • Due to the high coercivity, after the technical magnetization to saturation and the magnetic field, is removed, it will remain in very strong magnetism.
  • Alloys composed of iron, cobalt and aluminum are generally acted as hard magnetic materials.
234

What is low cost protection for an electrical system?

  1. ((a))

    circuit breaker

  2. ((b))

    isolator 

  3. ((c))

    rewirable fuse

  4. ((d))

    air breaker switch

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

rewirable fuse

Rewirable fuse is a low-cost protection for an electrical system.

Fuse wire

  • In electronics and electrical engineering, a fuse is an electrical safety device that operates to provide overcurrent protection of an electrical circuit.
  • Its essential component is a metal wire or strip that melts when too much current flows through it, thereby stopping or interrupting the current.
  • ​It is a one-time-use device; once a fuse has operated in an open circuit, it is of no use and must be replaced or rewired.

Additional Information

  • A circuit breaker is an electrical safety device designed to protect an electrical circuit from damage caused by an overcurrent or short circuit. Its basic function is to interrupt current flow to protect equipment and to prevent the risk of fire.
  • An isolator is a type of disconnecting switch which is used in an electrical circuit to ensure that the circuit is totally isolated from the supply mains
235

If a 10 μF capacitor is connected to a 220 V 50 Hz supply, then find the capacitive reactance.

  1. ((a))

    318.4 Ω

  2. ((b))

    526 Ω

  3. ((c))

    3.184 Ω

  4. ((d))

    151.26 Ω

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

318.4 Ω

The correct answer is option 1): ( 318.4 )

Concept:

The capacitive reactance is

Xc = (\frac{1}{ω× C})

ω = 2 × π × f × C

ω = frequency in radians/sec

C is the capacitance value of the capacitor in  farad

f  is supply frequency

Calculation:

Given

C = 10 μF = 10 ×  10-6 F

V = 220 V

f = 50 hz

Xc = (\frac{1}{ω× C})

=  (\frac{1}{ω× C})

= (\frac{1}{2 × \pi × C \times f})

= (\frac{1}{2 × \pi × 10 ×10^-6 × 50})

= 318.4 Ω

Additional Information 

Inductive reactance:

Inductive reactance (XL) is given by

XL = ω × L 

ω = frequency in radians/sec

which can be written as

ω = 2 ×π × f

XL = ω × L

XL= 2 × π × f × L

f = frequency in Hz

L = value of inductor in Henry

236

The electric circuit used to convert unregulated electrical energy to regulated energy in solar PV application is knows as:

  1. ((a))

    thermal converter

  2. ((b))

    RLC converter

  3. ((c))

    R-L circuit

  4. ((d))

    power electronics converter

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

power electronics converter

Solar PV System

  • The electric circuit used to convert unregulated electrical energy to regulated energy in solar PV applications is known as a power electronics converter.
  • A photovoltaic (PV) system is a power electronics converter that generates electricity when it is exposed to light.
  • Direct Current (DC) needs to be converted into alternating current (AC) so it can be used in a domestic building; this is performed by an inverter.
  • The AC electricity then passes via the generation meter, which measures how much electricity has been created, and on to the consumer unit where it can be fed into the property for use or exported back to the national grid via the electricity meter.
237

Which type of substance is gallium arsenide (GaAs)? 

  1. ((a))

    super conductor 

  2. ((b))

    conductor 

  3. ((c))

    insulator  

  4. ((d))

    semiconductor

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

semiconductor

Gallium arsenide (GaAs) is a type of semiconductor.

Classification of substance

1.) Conductor

The substances that allow the flow of current through it are known as conductors.

Materials made of metal are common electrical conductors.

2.) Insulator

The substances that do not allow the flow of current through them are known as insulators.

The atoms of the insulator have tightly bound electrons which cannot readily move. 

Some common insulator materials are glass, plastic, rubber, air, and wood.

3.) Semiconductor

A semiconductor is a material, which has an electrical conductivity value falling between that of a conductor and an insulator.

Its resistivity falls as its temperature rises; metals behave in the opposite way.

Examples of Semiconductors: Gallium arsenide, germanium, and silicon are some of the most commonly used semiconductors. 

4.) Superconductor

A superconductor is a material that achieves superconductivity, which is a state of matter that has no electrical resistance and does not allow magnetic fields to penetrate.

238

Which component is not used in HVDC transmission?

  1. ((a))

    rectifier 

  2. ((b))

    inverter 

  3. ((c))

    Solar PV

  4. ((d))

    transformer

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Solar PV

Correct option 3

Concept:

HVDC: High voltage direct current transmission. The massive transmission of electricity in the form of DC over long distances by a submarine cable or overhead transmission lines is High voltage direct current transmission.

The AC power is generated in the generating station. This should first be converted into DC. This takes place with the help of a rectifier.

The DC power will flow through an overhead transmission line. At the receiving end, this DC power converted into an AC with the help of an inverter 

Advantages of HVDC

  1. corona lossless
  2. no skin effect
  3. no  reactive power compensation is required

The component used in HVDC

Rectifier: The function of the rectifier is to convert the AC component into a DC component.

Types of Rectifier

  1. 1- phase Rectifier
  2. 3- phase Rectifier

Inverter: The inverter's function is to convert the system's DC component into an AC component.

Type of Inverter

  1. Voltage source inverter
  2. Current source inverter

Transformer: A transformer is a static device used to step up or down the voltage or current without changing frequency. 

Types of transformer

  1. 1- phase transformer
  2. 3- phase transformer

Symmetrical diagram of HVDC

F2 Madhuri Engineering 21.07.2022 D13

239

Which of the following is NOT an overload relay?

  1. ((a))

    Electromagnetic

  2. ((b))

    Static

  3. ((c))

    Thermal

  4. ((d))

    Induction

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Static

Correct option 2

Concept:

Overload relay: an overload Relay is a protective device used to protect an electrical motor from overheating .

it's mainly three types**:**

  1. Thermal relay: Thermal overload relay is a protective device, that is mainly designed to cut the power whenever the motor uses too much current for an extended time period.
  2. Magnetic relay or Induction Relay: Magnetic overload relay is operated by detecting by measuring magnetic field strength, which is generated by the flow of current toward the motor. this relay can be built with a variable magnetic core within a coil.
  3. Electromagnetic or solid-state relay: Solid-state relays are semiconductor or equivalent to electromagnetic relays and can be used to control the electrical loads without the use of moving parts
240

In DC motors, why interpoles are used?

  1. ((a))

    To convert armature current to DC

  2. ((b))

    To reduce sparking on the commutator

  3. ((c))

    To reduce the counter emf

  4. ((d))

    to increase motor speed

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

To reduce the counter emf

Interpoles in DC machine

 Interpoles are similar to the main field poles and are located on the yoke between the main field poles.

They have windings in series with the armature winding.

Interpoles in DC machine basically serves two purposes:

  • Automatic neutralization of cross magnetization due to armature reaction.
  • To counter and cancel reactance voltage in the coil undergoing commutation.

Additional Information

Compensating winding

  • Compensating winding in an AC series motor is used to reduce the sparking of brushes.
  • A compensation winding in a DC shunt motor is a winding in the field pole face plate that carries armature current to reduce stator field distortion.
241

The voltage generated by a solar PV at its output terminal is:

  1. ((a))

    DC

  2. ((b))

    AC

  3. ((c))

    impulse

  4. ((d))

    exponential

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

DC

Solar PV system:

  • A photovoltaic (PV) system is composed of one or more solar panels combined with an inverter and other electrical and mechanical hardware that use energy from the Sun to generate electricity.
  • The light from the Sun, made up of packets of energy called photons, falls onto a solar panel and creates an electric current through a process called the photovoltaic effect.
  • The electricity produced from a solar panel (or array) is in the form of direct current (DC).
  • Therefore, in order for solar electricity to be useful, it must first be converted from DC to AC using an inverter.
  • This AC electricity from the inverter can then be used to power electronics locally, or be sent onto the electrical grid for use elsewhere.

242

The initial cost of which type of transmission lines is high?

  1. ((a))

    Overhead transmission line

  2. ((b))

    HVDC transmission line

  3. ((c))

    HVAC transmission line

  4. ((d))

    Underground transmission line

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Underground transmission line

The underground cable has more initial cost as compared with the overhead system for the same voltage as the insulation required for underground cable is more compared to overhead lines.

Comparison between the underground and overhead transmission line

  1. The voltage and current rating of the overhead line are greater than underground cable.
  2. Underground cables need more insulation. It is because the whole conductor is required coated with the insulation sheath.
  3. Underground cables do not cause interference to the communication lines as these are buried under the earth's surface.
  4. Overhead lines have high maintenance costs as compared to underground cable.
  5. In the case of an overhead line, the risk of explosion or fire is more.
243

Which of the following types is NOT used as a single-phase induction motor starting type?

  1. ((a))

    Capacitor start motor

  2. ((b))

    Two value capacitor motor

  3. ((c))

    Voltage dip motor

  4. ((d))

    Resistance split phase motor

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Voltage dip motor

A voltage dip motor is not a type of 1ϕ induction motor.

Types of 1ϕ induction motor:

1.) Resistance split phase motor:

  • It has a single cage rotor, and its stator has two windings known as main winding and starting winding. Both the windings are displaced 90 degrees in space.
  • The main winding has very low resistance and a high inductive reactance whereas the starting winding has high resistance and low inductive reactance.
  • A resistor is connected in series with the auxiliary winding. The current in the two windings is not equal as a result, the rotating field is not uniform. Hence, the starting torque is small, of the order of 1.5 to 2 times the stated running torque.

2.) Capacitor start motor:

  • Capacitor Start Motors are single-phase Induction Motors that employ a capacitor in the auxiliary winding circuit to produce a greater phase difference between the current in the main and the auxiliary windings.
  • IM is the current in the main winding which is lagging the auxiliary current IA by 90 degrees.
  • Thus, a single-phase supply current is split into two phases that provide the starting torque to the motor.

3.) Two-value capacitor motor:

  • There are two capacitors in this method one is used at the time of the starting and is known as starting capacitor. The other one is used for the continuous running of the motor and is known as the RUN capacitor.
  • In the starting, the two capacitors are connected in parallel. The capacitor Cs is the Starting capacitor that is short-time rated.
  • As the motor reaches the synchronous speed, the starting capacitor Cs is disconnected from the circuit by a centrifugal switch Sc.
  • The capacitor CR is connected permanently to the circuit and thus it is known as RUN Capacitor. The run capacitor is long-time rated and is made of oil-filled paper.
244

MPPT control of wind turbines cannot be obtained by _______. 

  1. ((a))

    optimum torque control 

  2. ((b))

    highest electro-power control 

  3. ((c))

    optimum tip speed control 

  4. ((d))

    sun tracker

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

sun tracker

The Sun tracker method cannot be used for MPPT control of wind turbines.

The Sun tracker method is used in MPPT control of the solar system.

The MPPT control method of the wind turbines are:

1.) Tip speed control​

2.) Optimum torque control 

3.) Highest electro-power control 

4.) Power signal feedback control

5.) Hill climb search control

245

What type of lamp is a high pressure mercury vapor lamp?

  1. ((a))

    fluorescent lamp

  2. ((b))

    discharge lamp

  3. ((c))

    incandescent lamp 

  4. ((d))

    LED lamp

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

discharge lamp

Discharge Lamps:

  • In all discharge lamps, an electric current is passed through a gas or vapor which renders it luminous.
  • The elements most commonly used in this process of producing light by gaseous conduction are neon, mercury, and sodium vapors.
  • The colors (i.e. wavelength) of light produced depend on the nature of the gas or vapor.
  • For example, the neon discharge yields orange-red light of nearly 6,500 A.U. which is very popular for advertising signs and other spectacular effects.
  • The pressure used in neon tubes is usually from 3 to 20 mm of Hg.
  • High-pressure mercury vapor lamps, Neon lamps, Sodium vapor lamps, etc are examples of discharge-type lamps.
  • Mercury-vapour light is always bluish-green and deficient in red rays, whereas sodium vapor light is orange-yellow.
  • The discharge lamps work on the discharge phenomenon i.e, the voltage needs to discharge the ion from one side of the electrode to another side due to this high voltage is needed to pass the ion than the current so the current will lag behind the voltage at the normal working time.
  • Hence Discharge lamp working at a lagging power factor.
  • Due to the addition of the Choke and Capacitor, it has a high initial cost.
  • It required approximately 5 minutes for starting due to the ionization process phenomena.
246

An n type of substance is formed by adding impure elements which contain _______.

  1. ((a))

    7 valence electrons

  2. ((b))

    11 valence electrons

  3. ((c))

    5 valence electrons

  4. ((d))

    0 valence electrons

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

5 valence electrons

Types of semiconductors

1.) P-Type semiconductor

  • When trivalent impurity atoms such as indium, and gallium are added to an intrinsic semiconductor, it is known as a p-type semiconductor.
  • These semiconductors have 3 valence electrons, therefore accepting one electron to complete its outermost shell. Hence, it is also known as the acceptor atom impurities.
  • The majority of charge carriers are holes & minority charge carriers are electrons.

2.) N-Type semiconductor

  • When pentavalent impurity atoms such as antimony and arsenic are added to an intrinsic semiconductor, it is known as an n-type semiconductor.
  • These semiconductors have 5 valence electrons, therefore donating one electron to complete its outermost shell. Hence, it is also known as the donor atom impurities.
  • The majority of charge carriers are electrons & minority charge carriers are holes.

247

If the solar irradiance increases, then for solar PV, the power output will:

  1. ((a))

    decrease

  2. ((b))

    radiate

  3. ((c))

    increase

  4. ((d))

    remain same

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

increase

Irradiance and PV output

Irradiance is the amount of light energy which reaches the surface of the receiver with a square meter in a second.

Power output from the solar panel is proportional to the intensity of solar irradiation.

When all parameters are constant, the higher the irradiance, the greater the output current, and as a result, the greater the power generated.

The effect of irradiance on the I-V curve of the PV module is shown below:

248

What is the PV curve of a solar PV?

  1. ((a))

    Nonlinear

  2. ((b))

    Sinusoidal

  3. ((c))

    Linear

  4. ((d))

    Exponential

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Nonlinear

PV curve of the solar system:

  • The PV curve of solar PV is non-linear.
  • A PV device, such as a solar module, produces its maximum current when there is no resistance in the circuit.
  • This maximum current is known as the short circuit current.
  • When the module is shorted, the voltage in the circuit is zero.
  • These two extremes in load resistance, and the whole range of conditions in between them, are depicted on the I-V curve. Current, expressed in amps, is on the (vertical) y-axis. Voltage, in volts, is on the (horizontal) x-axis .
  • The power available from a photovoltaic device at any point along the curve is just the product of current and voltage at that point and is expressed in watts.
  • At the short circuit current point, the power output is zero, since the voltage is zero. At the open circuit voltage point, the power output is also zero, but this time it is because the current is zero.
249

Which of the following factors does hysteresis loss depend?

  1. ((a))

    Flux density and time

  2. ((b))

    Frequency and time 

  3. ((c))

    Frequency and thickness of lamination

  4. ((d))

    Flux Density and Frequency

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Flux Density and Frequency

Hysteresis Loss

During the cycle of magnetization and demagnetization of magnetic substances, energy is spent and this spent energy appears in the form of heat. This heat loss is known as hysteresis loss.

The hysteresis loss is given by:

(P_h=K_h f(ϕ)^x)

where, Ph = Hysteresis loss

f = Frequency

x = Steinmenz constant

ϕ = Flux

Hysteresis loss depends on the volume of material, class of material, frequency & flux density.

250

Which of the following are unknown parameters for slack or reference bus?

  1. ((a))

    Active power, voltage

  2. ((b))

    Active power, reactive power

  3. ((c))

    Reactive power, voltage

  4. ((d))

    Active power, rotor angle

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Active power, reactive power

Active power and reactive power are unknown parameters for slack or reference buses.

Classification of the bus in load flow analysis

Type of busKnown VariableUnknown Variable
Slack or Reference busV and δP and Q
Load BusP and QV and δ
Generator BusP and VQ and δ

where, P = Active Power

Q = Reactive Power

V = Voltage

δ = Load Angle

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