Official Paper

Gujarat Engineering Service 2019 Official Paper (General Studies) (Previous Year Paper)

100 questions · 50 minutes · with answers · free

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General Studies (100 questions)

1

Statement 1: Areawise, Gujarat ranks 7th in India.

Statement 2: Gujarat is situated between 20° 1' and 24° 7'  northern latitude.

  1. ((a))

    Only statement 1 is correct

  2. ((b))

    Only statement 2 is correct

  3. ((c))

    Both statements 1 and 2 are correct

  4. ((d))

    Both statements 1 and 2 are wrong

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Only statement 2 is correct

The correct answer is Only statement 2 is correct.

Key Points

  • There are 28 states and 8 Union Territories in India.
  • The top 10 states of India area wise (in sq km) are given below-
  1. Rajasthan with 342,239
  2. Madhya Pradesh with 308,252
  3. Maharastra with 307,713
  4. Uttar Pradesh with 236,286
  5. Gujarat with 196,244
  6. Karnataka with 191,791
  7. Andhra Pradesh with 191,791
  8. Odisha with 155,707
  9. Chattisgarh with 136,034
  10. Tamil Nadu with 130,058
  • Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • Latitude is the angular distance of a place north or south of the earth's equator.
  • The main land of India extends between latitudes 8°4'N and 37°6'N and longitudes 68°7'E and 97°25'E.
  • Gujarat is on the western coast of India.
  • The latitude of Gujarat is 23° 2' 1.9068'' North to be precise. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
2

'Kanthi's Plains' are situated in ______.

  1. ((a))

    Junagadh

  2. ((b))

    Banaskantha

  3. ((c))

    Vadodara

  4. ((d))

    Kutch

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Kutch

The correct answer is Kutch.

Key Points

  • Kutch district is a district of Gujarat state.
  • it is the largest district of India.
  • It is surrounded by the Gulf of Kutch and the Arabian Sea in the south and west, while the northern and eastern parts are surrounded by the Great and Little Rann of Kutch.
  • Kutch is divided into four zones-
  • Wagad (Regional including Rapar and Bhachau Taluka and Little Rann)
  • Kanthi (Sea Coast area) comprising Anjar Mundra and Mandvi Taluka
  • Banni Region with Pascham which includes Bhuj, Nakhatrana and surrounding areas
  • Maghpat which includes part of Nakhatrana and Lakhapat taluka
3

Arrange the following rivers in South to North order.

  1. Mahi
  2. Ambica
  3. Saraswati
  4. Tapi
  1. ((a))

    1, 3, 4, 2

  2. ((b))

    1, 2, 3, 4

  3. ((c))

    3, 1, 4, 2

  4. ((d))

    3, 1, 2, 4

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

3, 1, 4, 2

The correct answer is 3, 1, 4, 2.

Key Points

  • Saraswati
  • This river is a river in western India in Gujarat whose origin is Aravali hill.
  • Its basin has a maximum length of 360 km.
  • The Mukeshwar dam is on the Saraswati River.
  • Patan and Siddhpur are located on the banks of the Saraswati River.
  • Mahi
  • This river rises in Madhya Pradesh and, after flowing through the Vagad region of Rajasthan, enters Gujarat and flows into the Arabian Sea.
  • Mahi Bajaj Sagar Dam is a dam across the Mahi River.
  • Tapi
  • Its origin is near Multai Reserve forest in Madhya Pradesh.
  • It enters Maharashtra and flows through the western part of Vidarbha and Khandesh.
  • From Maharashtra, it flows into Gujarat, where its mouth is near Surat.
  • Ukai Dam and Kakrapar Dam are on Tapi river.
  • Ambica
  • It has its origins in Saputara Hill ranges in the Nasik district of Maharashtra.
  • Gira Waterfall is on the Ambika River
  • Khapri, Valam, Kaveri and Kharear are the main tributaries of Ambika river.
  • Saraswati, Mahi, Tapi, and Ambica flow in South to North order.
4

Match the following tables:

Table 1Table 2
P. Moolraj Solanki1. Sun Temple
Q. Pushyagupta2. Sudarshan Lake
R. Bhimdev First3. Sahastralinga Lake
S. Shiddhraj4. Rudra Mahalaya
  1. ((a))

    P - 1, Q - 2, R - 3, S - 4

  2. ((b))

    P - 4, Q - 2, R - 1, S - 3

  3. ((c))

    P - 4, Q - 1, R - 2, S - 3

  4. ((d))

    P - 1, Q - 3, R - 2, S - 4

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

P - 4, Q - 2, R - 1, S - 3

The correct answer is P - 4, Q - 2, R - 1, S - 3.

Key Points

  • Moolraj Solanki
  • He was the founder of the Chaulukya dynasty of India.
  • He is also known as the Chalukyas of Gujarat or Solanki.
  • He replaced the last Chavda king, and founded an independent kingdom with his capital in Anahilapataka in 940-941 CE.
  • The original Rudra Mahalaya Temple at Shristhala (now Siddhpur) is referred to him traditionally.
  • Pushyagupta
  • He was the provincial governor of Saurashtra under Chandragupta Maurya.
  • He built Saurashtra lake.
  • Bhimdev First
  • He was a Chaulukya king who ruled parts of present-day Gujarat.
  • Towards the end of his reign, he formed an alliance with the Kalachuri king Lakshmi-Karna, and played an important role in the downfall of the Paramara king Bhoja.
  • The earliest of the Dilwara Temples and the Modhera Sun Temple were built during Bhima's reign.
  • The construction of Rani ki vav is attributed to his queen Udayamati.
  • Shiddhraj
  • Jayasiṃha assumed the title Siddharāja. He ruled western parts of India.
  • He was a member of the Chaulukya dynasty.
  • He renovated a lake built by his ancestor Durlabha in Patan, and named it Sahastralinga lake.
5

With which of the following, is 'Mukhi Garbaddas' associated?

  1. ((a))

    Freedom Struggle

  2. ((b))

    Agricultural Development

  3. ((c))

    Folk Literature

  4. ((d))

    Dairy Development

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Freedom Struggle

The correct answer is Freedom Struggle.

Key Points

  • Mukhi Garbaddas
  • Mukhi Patel Garbaddas and his fellowmen supported Thakore Jivabhai.
  • They gathered an army of 2000 soldiers consisting of Kolis, Bhils, Nayakadas, Sibandi, etc.
  • The British troops had encamped at Lotia Bhagol of Anand. The young Mukhi Garbaddas and his companions with a view to harassing the British army reached Lotia Bhagol under the cover of darkness.
  • As Mukhi Garbaddas had gone to his native village of Asoj for his marriage, he could not be arrested at this time.
  • However, he was arrested a little later and sentenced to transportation for life in Andamans where he died later on.
  • Hence, he is associated with Freedom Struggle.
6

Arrange the following in chronological order:

  1. Kheda Satyagrah
  2. Establishment of 'Prarthana Samaj'
  3. Satyagrah Ashram
  4. Gujarat Vidyapith
  1. ((a))

    4, 2, 3, 1

  2. ((b))

    4, 3, 2, 1

  3. ((c))

    2, 3, 1, 4

  4. ((d))

    2, 1, 4, 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2, 3, 1, 4

The correct answer is 2, 3, 1, 4.

Key Points

  • Prarthana Samaj was founded by the Dadoba Pandurang and his brother Atmaram Pandurang in 1863.
  • It was established with an aim to make people believe in one God and worship only one God. It became popular after Mahadev Govind Ranade joined.
  • Satyagraha Ashram at Ahmedabad is the place where Mahatma Gandhi lived after he returned from South Africa in 1915.
  • Gandhi and his wife Kasturba lived in this ashram for 2 years till 1917.
  • The Kheda Satyagraha of 1918, in the Kheda district of Gujarat, was a Satyagraha movement organised by Gandhi.
  • It was the second Satyagraha movement after Champaran Satyagraha.
  • Gujarat Vidyapith was founded by Mahatma Gandhi on 18th October 1920.
  • It has been deemed university since 1963. It was started as Rashtriya Vidyapith (National Institute of University Education) and was the wake of the Non-cooperative Movement.
  • The main objective is to prepare workers of character, ability, culture and dedication for the conduct of movements connected with the regeneration of country in accordance with the ideals given by Mahatma Gandhi.
7

Match the following tables:

Table 1Table 2
P. Ambubhai Purani Award1. Human welfare
Q. Omkarnath Thakur Award2. Education
R. Maganbhai Desai Award3. Sports
S. Jaibhikhu Award4. Art
  1. ((a))

    P - 3, Q - 4, R - 2, S - 1

  2. ((b))

    P - 3, Q - 4, R - 1, S - 2

  3. ((c))

    P - 4, Q - 3, R - 2, S - 1

  4. ((d))

    P - 4, Q - 3, R - 1, S - 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

P - 3, Q - 4, R - 2, S - 1

The correct answer is P - 3, Q - 4, R - 2, S - 1.

Key Points

  • Ambubhai Purani Award
  • It the highest sporting award that is given to a state sportsman of Gujarat.
  • Omkarnath Thakur Award
  • Pt. Omkarnath Thakur was an Indian music teacher, musicologist and Hindustani classical singer.
  • He received "Padma Sri" in 1955.
  • Omkarnath Thakur Award is given in arts.
  • Maganbhai Desai Award
  • Manibhai Bhimbhai Desai was an Indian social activist.
  • In 1968, the Indian government honoured Manibhai with the Padmashree award.
  • In 1982, Manibhai accepted the Ramon Magsaysay Award for Public Service.
  • It is given in the field of education.
  • Jaibhikhu Award
  • He was a Gujarati novelist and short story writer.
  • He is known for his historical novels.
  • He had decided to follow four rules in his life: never do a job, not take any property from his father, not give his son any property and earn living through writing.
  • The award is given to Human welfare.
8

The following laureates were conferred with Ranjitram Gold Medals. Arrange them chronological order.

  1. Gunvantrai Acharya
  2. Umashankar Joshi
  3. Pannalal Patel
  4. Ravishankar Raval
  1. ((a))

    2, 4, 1, 3

  2. ((b))

    4, 2, 1, 3

  3. ((c))

    2, 4, 3, 1

  4. ((d))

    4, 2, 3, 1

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

4, 2, 1, 3

The correct answer is 4, 2, 1, 3.

Key Points

  • Ranjitram Gold Medals
  • It is also known as Ranjitram Suvarna Chandrak.
  • It was founded by Gujarat Sahitya Sabha.
  • It is considered the highest literary award in Gujarati literature.
  • The award is named after renowned Gujarati writer Ranjitram Mehta.
  • It has been awarded since 1928.
  • The first award was given to Jhaverchand Meghaniin 1928.
  • 1930-Ravishankar Raval
  • 1939-Umashankar Josh
  • 1945-Gunvantrai Acharya
  • 1950-Pannalal Patel
9

Match the following tables:

Table 1Table 2
P. Sharvilak1. Essay
Q. Statue2. Drama
R. Hayati3. Poems
S. Dhoolmani Pagalio4. Memoirs
  1. ((a))

    P - 1, Q - 2, R - 3, S - 4

  2. ((b))

    P - 1, Q - 2, R - 4, S - 3

  3. ((c))

    P - 2, Q - 1, R - 3, S - 4

  4. ((d))

    P - 2, Q - 1, R - 4, S - 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

P - 2, Q - 1, R - 3, S - 4

The correct answer is P - 2, Q - 1, R - 3, S - 4.

Key Points

  • Shervilak is a play (drama) composed by noted Gujarati language litterateur Rasiklal C. Parikh.
  • He was awarded the Sahitya Akademi Award for the Gujarati language in 1960.
  • Bibi Hayati Kermani was born into a Sufi family in the early 1800's in the Kerman province of Persia (Iran).
  • She became well-known for her passionate mystical poems.
  • Dhoolmani Pagalio is a memoir written by Chandrakant Sheth in the Gujarati language.
  • We can match statue with essay since this is the only option left.
10

'Muktaben Dagli' is associated with which of the following field?

  1. ((a))

    Painting

  2. ((b))

    Journalism

  3. ((c))

    Folk dance

  4. ((d))

    Social Service

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Social Service

The correct answer is Social Service.

Key Points

  • Muktaben Dagli
  • She is a social worker from Gujarat.
  • She was awarded the Padma Shri in 2019 for her social service.
  • She works for blind and handicapped people and associated with several organisations.
  • She served as an honorary secretary of Andhjan Mandal (Blind People's Association), Amreli for twelve years.
  • She was awarded the Gandhi Mitra award in 2015.
  • She founded a primary school for the blind in Amreli.
  • She is the executive member of Navchetan Andhjan Mandal, Bhachau
11

Statement 1: Lalchand Hirachand is associated with shipping industry.

Statement 2: Jaswantrai Anjaria is associated with economic sector.

  1. ((a))

    Only statement 1 is correct

  2. ((b))

    Only statement 2 is correct

  3. ((c))

    Both statements are correct

  4. ((d))

    None of the statements is correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Both statements are correct

The correct answer is Both statements are correct.

Key Points

  • Lalchand Hirachand
  • He belonged to the Walchand group.
  • He was the youngest son of Hirachand Doshi.
  • He is also the author an acclaimed book on Ramayana named The Indian epic – Ramayana.
  • He was elected as an independent candidate as a Member of the Bombay Legislative Council, in 1939.
  • After independence, he also became a Member of the Rajya Sabha from 1952 to 1958.
  • Walchand Hirachand Doshi's entrepreneurship in shipping, aviation, and automobile earned him the title of 'Father of transportation of India'.
  • Jaswantrai Anjaria
  • He was a recipient of Padma Shri award in 1957.
  • He is associated with economic sector.
  • Both statements are correct.
12

Mana Patel is associated with ______.

  1. ((a))

     Lawn Tennis

  2. ((b))

    Table Tennis

  3. ((c))

    Swimming

  4. ((d))

    Running

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Swimming

The correct answer is Swimming.

Key Points

  • Maana Patel
  • She is an Indian backstroke swimmer from Ahmedabad, Gujarat.
  • She has won gold medals in 50 backstrokes and 200-metre backstroke also at the National Games.
  • She has also won the gold medal in 100-metre backstroke at the 60th National School Games (2015) breaking the national record in the backstroke.
  • She won six medals (1 gold, 4 silver, 1 bronze) at the 10th Asian Age-group Championships-2019 which was held in Bangalore.
  • She was coached by Kamlesh Nanavati at the Gujarat Vidyapeeth Swimming Centre.
13

Who of the following was also known as ‘Shakshat Saraswati’?

  1. ((a))

     Swami Dayanand Saraswati

  2. ((b))

    Shrimad Rajchandra

  3. ((c))

    Rang Avadhootji 

  4. ((d))

    Hemchandracharya

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Shrimad Rajchandra

The correct answer is Shrimad Rajchandra.

Key Points

  • Swami Dayanand Saraswati
  • He was an Indian philosopher, social leader and founder of the Arya Samaj.
  • He was the first to give the call for Swaraj as "India for Indians" in 1876.
  • He advocated the doctrine of Karma and Reincarnation.
  • He emphasized the Vedic ideals of brahmacharya, including celibacy and devotion to God.
  • Shrimad Rajchandra
  • He was a Jain poet, mystic, philosopher, scholar and reformer.
  • He wrote much philosophical poetry including Atma Siddhi.
  • He is best known for his teachings on Jainism and his spiritual guidance to Mahatma Gandhi.
  • He performed śatāvadhāna (100 Avadhāna) at Sir Framji Cowasji Institute in Bombay on 22 January 1887.
  • He was awarded gold medals by institutes and the public for his performances as well as the title of ‘Sakshat Saraswati’ (Incarnation of the Goddess of Knowledge).
  • Rang Avadhootji 
  • He was a mystic saint-poet (Sadguru) belonging to Datta-panth (Gurucharita tradition of Dattatreya) of Hinduism.
  • He is credited for the expansion of Datta-panth in Gujarat state of India.
  • He has written more than 45 works mostly concerning spirituality and devotion.
  • Hemchandracharya
  • He was an Indian Jain scholar, poet, mathematician and polymath.
  • He was noted as a prodigy by his contemporaries, he gained the title kalikālasarvajña, "the knower of all knowledge in his times".
14

Which of the following is not written by Narsinharav Divetiya?

  1. ((a))

    Pingalpravesh

  2. ((b))

    Premaljyoti

  3. ((c))

    Kusummala

  4. ((d))

    Noopurzankar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pingalpravesh

The correct answer is Pingalpravesh.

Key Points

  • Narsinharav Divetiya
  • He was a poet, linguist and critic of Gujarati literature.
  • He passed the Indian Statutory Civil Service examination and appointed as Assistant Collector of Kera district in 1884.
  • He presided Gujarati Sahitya Parishad in 1915. He was elected as a fellow of the Bombay Branch of Royal Asiatic Society in 1924.
  • His first poetry collection was Kusumamala published in 1887.
  • He wrote Premaljyoti and Noopurzankar.
  • Narmadashankar Lalshankar Dave
  • He wrote Pingalpravesh in 1857.
  • He is considered the founder of modern Gujarati literature.
  • He promoted nationalism and patriotism with famous songs like Sahu Chalo Jeetva Jang, wrote about self-government and talked about one national language/
15

Statement 1: Kanakavati and Rukmavati are species of cows of Gujarat.

Statement 2: Panvad is a famous banyan tree situated at Ambaji.

  1. ((a))

    Only statement 1 is correct

  2. ((b))

    Only statement 2 is correct

  3. ((c))

    Both statements are correct

  4. ((d))

    None of the statements is correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

None of the statements is correct

The correct answer is None of the statements is correct.

Key Points

  • The Rukmavati River is a south-flowing river originating in the central Kutch District and empties into the Arabian Sea in the state of Gujarat.
  • Kankavati village is located in Dhrangadhra Tehsil of Surendranagar district in Gujarat.
  • Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • Panvad village is located in Kavant Tehsil of Vadodara district in Gujarat, India.
  • Banyan is considered holy in several religious traditions of India. The Ficus benghalensis is the National tree of India and also the state tree of Madhya Pradesh.
  • Kabirvad, Gujarat is one of the biggest banyan trees in India.
  • It is named after saint Kabir and it is one of the most famous destinations for tourists in Gujarat near Bharuch city.
  • Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
16

Bhatha, Besar, Dhar are types of Gujarati ______.

  1. ((a))

    folk dance

  2. ((b))

    painting

  3. ((c))

    soils

  4. ((d))

    dialects

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

soils

The correct answer is soils.

Key Points

  • The soils of Gujarat can be broadly classified into nine groups- Black soil, Mixed red and black soils, Residual sandy soil, Alluvial soil, Saline soil, Lateritic soil, Hilly soil, Desert soil, and Forest soil.
  • The soils of Central Gujarat belongs from fine to coarser in general.
  • The soil of Anand, Kheda, Panchmahal, Dahod districts is predominantly medium textured (Loamy) followed by fine-textured (clayey).
  • The soils adjoining to Anand, Kheda, Panchmahal and Dahod districts are coarser (Sandy).
  • In the Vadodara district, the soils are dominantly fine-textured (clayey) followed by medium-textured (loamy) and towards adjoining Vadodara and Dahod district boundary the soils are coarser (Sand).
  • Bhata is barren soil consisting of red gravels and sands found in Gujarat.
  • Besar soil is formed by the admixture of sandy loam and black cotton soil and is found in the whole of Padra taluka, part of Vadodara.
  • Dhar soil is found in Gujarat.
17

Where did the first Legislative Assembly of Gujarat use to sit?

  1. ((a))

    Civil Hospital, Ahmedabad

  2. ((b))

    Gujarat University

  3. ((c))

    Gujarat Vidyapith

  4. ((d))

    Gujarat College

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Civil Hospital, Ahmedabad

The correct answer is Civil Hospital, Ahmedabad.

Key Points

  • The State of Gujarat was formed by bifurcating the Greater Bombay State into Gujarat and Maharashtra on 1st May 1960 by an Act of Parliament called the Bombay Reorganisation Act, 1960.
  • The 132 members of the former Bombay legislative assembly, elected from the territorial constituencies of Gujarat, formed the first Gujarat legislative assembly.
  • The first Legislative Assembly of Gujarat used to sit Civil Hospital, Ahmedabad.
  • The Gujarat Legislature is unicameral and is known as the Vidhansabha.
  • Presently, the Twelfth Legislative Assembly consists of 182 members. The term of the Assembly is five years unless dissolved sooner. There are 19 permanent Committees in the Assembly and these committees function as oversight committees.
  • Article 169- The Constitution allows Parliament to either create or abolish a Council in a state “if the Legislative Assembly of the State passes a resolution to that effect'.
18

Which of the following is wrongly paired?

  1. ((a))

    Sheth Hathisinh and Sheth Premabhai Civil Hospital : Ahmedabad

  2. ((b))

    Dholavira : Kutch

  3. ((c))

    Hridaykunj : Dabhoi

  4. ((d))

    Changdev : Hemchandracharya 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Hridaykunj : Dabhoi

The pair ​Hridaykunj : Dabhoi is incorrect.

Key Points

  • Ahmedabad Civil Hospital is a public hospital located in Ahmedabad. It was founded with the help of donations given by Shri Hutheesing, Shri Premabhai and Surgeon General D Wyllie in 1858.
  • Dholavira 
  • It is an archaeological site at Khadirbet in Bhachau Taluka of Kutch District.
  • It is one of the five largest Harappan sites and most prominent archaeological sites in India belonging to the Indus Valley Civilization.
  • The site was discovered in 1967-68 by J. P. Joshi, of the Archaeological Survey of India.
  • Dabhoi is a town and a municipality in Vadodara district in the state of Gujarat.
  • Hriday Kunj was Gandhiji's home in the Ashram. Kakasaheb Kalelkar named it Hriday Kunj.
  • Hemchandra
  • He was born in Dhandhuka. Hemchandra's original name was Changdev.
  • He was a great Guru, a social reformer, a religious teacher, a mathematician and a wonderfully talented intellectual.
  • His name is very important in the field of Indian thought, literature and practice.
19

Which king is also known as ‘Ashok’ in the history of Gujarat?

  1. ((a))

    Kumarpal

  2. ((b))

    Bhimdev First

  3. ((c))

    Siddhraj Jaisinh

  4. ((d))

    Ajaypal

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kumarpal

The correct answer is Kumarpal.

Key Points

  • Kumarpal
  • He was an Indian king from the Chaulukya (Solanki) dynasty of Gujarat.
  • He ruled present-day Gujarat and surrounding areas, from his capital Anahilapataka (modern Patan).
  • He was well known for his patronage of Jainism.
  • He was also known as 'Ashok'.
  • Bhimdev First
  • He was a Chaulukya king who ruled parts of present-day Gujarat.
  • The earliest of the Dilwara Temples and the Modhera Sun Temple were built during Bhima's reign.
  • The construction of Rani ki vav is attributed to his queen Udayamati.
  • Siddhraj Jaisinh
  • He was an Indian king who ruled western parts of India.
  • He was a member of the Chalukyas (also called Chalukya or Solanki) dynasty.
  • He also annexed a part of Malwa (in present-day Madhya Pradesh) by defeating the Paramaras.
20

Which of the following pairs is wrong?

  1. ((a))

    Bharuch : Bhrugupur

  2. ((b))

    Aarzi Hukumat : Shamaldas Gandhi

  3. ((c))

    Didi of Dang : Purnimaben Pakwasa

  4. ((d))

    Laxmibais of Gujarat : Vagher Women

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bharuch : Bhrugupur

The pair Bharuch : Bhrugupur is incorrect.

Key Points

  • Bharuch
  • It is a city at the mouth of the river Narmada in Gujarat.
  • Bhrugupur village is located in Chuda Tehsil of Surendranagar district in Gujarat.
  • Samaldas Gandhi
  • He was an Indian independence activist who headed the Aarzi Hukumat or Temporary Government of the erstwhile princely state of Junagadh.
  • He was initially part of Gujarati evening newspaper Janmabhoomi.
  • When the Nawab of Junagadh acceded his state to Pakistan in 1947, Samaldas headed a government-in-exile created by citizens of Junagadh to reflect the wishes of its majority population.
  • Purnimaben Pakwasa
  • She was known as the Didi of Dangs, was an Indian independence activist and social worker from Gujarat.
  • At the age of 18, she participated in the Dandi March during which she was arrested.
  • She participated in the 51st session of the Indian National Congress at Haripura in 1938.
  • In 2004, she was awarded the Padma Bhushan award for her services to society.
  • The Waghers inside the fort of Bet Dhwarka had no artillery to counter the attack by the British Commander of Navy in 1857.
  • The Wagher women came up with a very brave and innovative idea. They soaked the mattress with water in which they could catch the cannon balls and cool them immediately. This would enable the Wagher men to fight the battle without being hit by the cannon balls.
  • These women were the Laxmibais of Gujarat.
21

Who among the following is said to have initiated social reforms in Gujarat?

  1. ((a))

    Durgaram Mehtaji

  2. ((b))

    Mahipatram Roopram

  3. ((c))

    Dalpatram

  4. ((d))

    Dayaram

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Durgaram Mehtaji

The correct answer is Durgaram Mehtaji.

Key Points

  • Durgaram Mehtaji
  • He was a Gujarati social reformer, essayist, diarist and teacher from British India.
  • He founded the Manav Dharma Sabha along with other reformists.
  • Manav Dharma Sabha the first reform association of Gujarat, at Surat in 1844
  • He was the first to use autobiographical writing in Gujarati literature by keeping minutes of the transactions of the Manav Dharma Sabha with his comments and views.
  • Mahipatram Rupram Nilkanth wrote biography of Durgaram under the tile Mehtaji Durgaram Manchharamnu Jivancharitra.
  • Mahipatram Roopram
  • He was a Gujarati educationist, reformer, novelist and biographer from 19th century India.
  • He wrote the first travelogue of Gujarati literature, Englandni Musafarinu Varnan (1862) in which he had described the political, social, education condition of England then as well as descriptions of some popular places in England.
  • Dalpatram
  • He was a Gujarati language poet during 19th century in India.
  • He led a social reform movement in Ahmedabad, and wrote articles against superstitions, caste restrictions and child marriage.
  • He dealt with the problem of widow remarriage at length in his poem, Vencharitra.
  • Dayaram
  • He was a Gujarati poet of medieval Gujarati literature.
  • He is known in Gujarati literature for his literary form called Garbi, lyric songs.
  • He was a follower of Pushtimarg of Hindu Vaishnavism.
22

Which of the following pairs is wrong?

  1. ((a))

    Lion Sanctuary : Gir

  2. ((b))

    Marine Life Sanctuary : Pirotan

  3. ((c))

    Black Buck Sanctuary : Velavadar

  4. ((d))

    Bear Sanctuary : Bardipada

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Bear Sanctuary : Bardipada

The pair Bear Sanctuary: Bardipada is incorrect.

Key Points

  • Gir
  • Gir National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary is also known as Sasan Gir.
  • It is a forest and wildlife sanctuary near Talala Gir in Gujarat.
  • It is part of the Khathiar-Gir dry deciduous forests ecoregion.
  • Gir is the only natural habitat of world popular Asiatic Lions.
  • Pirotan
  • It is an Arabian Sea island in the Marine National Park, Jamnagar District of Gujarat state, India.
  • The island derived its name from Pirotan Patan, the ancient city probably at the place of Bedi Bandar.
  • India's first Marine Wildlife Sanctuary and first Marine National Park were created here in the Gulf of Kutch in 1980 and 1982, respectively.
  • Velavadar
  • Blackbuck National Park is a national park in India located at Velavadar in the Bhavnagar District of Gujarat state.
  • The National Park was established in 1976 in the Bhal region of Saurashtra.
  • Bardipada is located in Vyara Tehsil of Tapi district in Gujarat.
  • The Jessore Sloth Bear Sanctuary is situated 45 km from Palanpur in Gujarat.
23

Tropic of Cancer passes through which of the following districts of Gujarat?

  1. ((a))

    Kheda

  2. ((b))

    Sabarkantha

  3. ((c))

    Ahmedabad

  4. ((d))

    Jamnagar

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Sabarkantha

The correct answer is Sabarkantha.

Key Points

  • Tropic of Cancer
  • It is also referred to as the Northern Tropic.
  • It is a parallel of latitude on the Earth, 23.5 degrees north of the equator.
  • On the northern summer solstice/southern winter solstice (around the 21st June each year), the Sun reaches its most northerly declination of +23.5 degrees.
  • At this time, the Sun is directly overhead for an observer on the Tropic of Cancer.
  • The Seven district of Gujarat where Tropic of Cancer passes through-
  • Aravali
  • Sabarkantha
  • Gandhinagar
  • Mehsana
  • Surendranagar
  • Patab
  • Kutch
  • The declination of the Sun and the latitude of the a Tropic of Cancer are equal to the obliquity of the ecliptic, the angle that the ecliptic makes with the celestial equator.
24

Which of the following lakes are situated at Pavagadh?

  1. ((a))

    Doodhiya, Teliya, Ghiya

  2. ((b))

    Doodhiya, Teliya, Chhasiya

  3. ((c))

    Doodhiya, Dahiya, Chhasiya

  4. ((d))

    Chhasiya, Teliya, Ghiya

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Doodhiya, Teliya, Chhasiya

The correct answer is Doodhiya, Teliya, Chhasiya.

Key Points

  • Pavagadh
  • It is a Municipality operating region in the Panchmahal district.
  • It is known for a famous Mahakali temple that draws thousands of pilgrims every day.
  • It is a tribal area populated predominantly by the Rathwas.
  • The area of this locality Champaner-Pavagadh Archaeological Park was inscribed by UNESCO as a World Heritage Site in 2004.
  • It is home to Pavagadh Jain Temple and Kalika Mata Temple.
  • Doodhiya lake is in Pavagadh.
  • Suparshvanath old digamber temple and teliya lake is at pavagadh hill.
  • Chhasiya lake is at Pavagadh.
25

In which district is the sanctuary of tortoise situated? 

  1. ((a))

    Bhavnagar

  2. ((b))

    Jamnagar

  3. ((c))

    Surat

  4. ((d))

    Kheda

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bhavnagar

The correct answer is Bhavnagar.

Key Points

  • Bhavnagar
  • It is a city in the Bhavnagar district of the Saurashtra region of Gujarat.
  • It was founded in 1724 by Bhavsinhji Gohil.
  • It was a princely state before it was merged into the Indian Union in 1948.
  • Velavadar Bird Sanctuary is situated in Bhavnagar.
  • Jamnagar
  • It is a city in Gujarat.
  • It is located on the southern coast of the Gulf of Kutch.
  • It is also known as the Jewel of Kathiawar.
  • Khijadiya Bird Sanctuary is a bird sanctuary located in the Jamnagar district of Gujarat
  • Surat
  • It is a city in Gujarat.
  • It is used to be a large seaport and is now the commercial and economic centre in South Gujarat.
  • It is known as the textile hub of the nation.
  • Purna Wildlife Sanctuary is in Surat.
  • Kheda
  • It is a city in Gujarat.
  • It is famous for tobacco farming.
26

The boundry of which of the following districts does not touch Amreli district?

  1. ((a))

    Bhavnagar

  2. ((b))

    Junagadh

  3. ((c))

    Jamnagar

  4. ((d))

    Botad

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Jamnagar

The correct answer is Jamnagar.

Key Points

  • Bhavnagar
  • It is a city in the Bhavnagar district of the Saurashtra region of Gujarat.
  • It was founded in 1724 by Bhavsinhji Gohil.
  • It was a princely state before it was merged into the Indian Union in 1948.
  • Junagadh
  • It is a city in Gujarat.
  • It is surrounded by the Arabian sea and forest area.
  • The Mauryan king Chandragupta Maurya constructed the famous Junagadh Fort here as far back as 319 BC.
  • Jamnagar
  • It is a city in Gujarat.
  • It is located on the southern coast of the Gulf of Kutch.
  • It is also known as the Jewel of Kathiawar.
  • It does not touch Amreli district.
  • Botad
  • It is a city in Botad district of Gujarat.
  • It is made from Ahmedabad and Bhavnagar.
  • It was an earlier part of Bhavnagar district.
  • Amreli district is one of the 33 administrative districts of the state of Gujarat.
27

What is the share of Gujarat in exports of diamonds from India?

  1. ((a))

    60%

  2. ((b))

    70%

  3. ((c))

    80%

  4. ((d))

    90%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

90%

The correct answer is 90%.

Key Points

  • India's $23 billion diamond industry accounts for over one-third of its gems and jewellery trade.
  • It makes up 7% of the Indian Gross Domestic Product.
  • The diamond is quite literally the 'crown jewel' of all gemstones.
  • India exported US$ 18.66 billion worth of cut and polished diamonds in FY20P. It contributed 64% to the total gems and jewellery export.
  • Close to 90% of the world's diamonds pass through Gujarat for polishing, making the Indian state a pivotal member of the diamond supply chain.
  • The diamond industry of India traces its roots to the 1960s when some entrepreneurs belonging to the Patel community of Saurashtra began importing rough diamonds, which were then polished and exported.
  • Post the 1980s, the industry grew rapidly due to close proximity to the financial capital, Mumbai, and eventually resulted in the emergence of many such business communities from Saurashtra and Gujarat that helped the diamond industry of Surat prosper.
  • However, the Bharat Diamond Bourse (BDB), located in Bandra Kurla Complex, Mumbai, serves as the sole diamond trading hub for India.
28

Which of the following Share markets was Asia’s first Share market?

  1. ((a))

    Kolkata Share market

  2. ((b))

    Ahmedabad Share market

  3. ((c))

    Mumbai Share market

  4. ((d))

    Surat Share market

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Mumbai Share market

The correct answer is Mumbai Share market.

Key Points

  • Bombay Stock Exchange
  • It was established in 1875 as the native share and Stock Brokers' Association.
  • It is Asia's first exchange and the largest securities market in India.
  • It enables investors to trade in equities, currencies, debt instruments, derivatives, and mutual funds.
  • It also provides other important capital market trading services such as risk management, clearing, settlement, and investor education.
  • In 1995, the BSE switched from an open-floor to an electronic trading system.
  • The BSE's overall performance is measured by the Sensex, a benchmark index of 30 of the BSE's largest and most actively traded stocks covering 12 sectors.
  • The index broadly represents the composition of India's entire market.
  • The Bombay Stock Exchange is located on Dalal Street in downtown Mumbai, India.
  • Kolkata Share market was established in 1908.
  • Ahmedabad Share market was established as a Public Charitable Trust in 1894.
29

For which of his following works was Shri Umashankar Joshi awarded Jnanpith award?

  1. ((a))

    Vishvashanti

  2. ((b))

    Dharavastra

  3. ((c))

    Gangotri

  4. ((d))

    Nishith

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Nishith

The correct answer is Nishith.

Key Points

  • Shri Umashankar Joshi
  • He was an Indian poet, scholar and writer known for his contribution to Gujarati literature.
  • In April 1930, Joshi joined Viramgam satyagraha camp as a Satyagrahi.
  • He penned his first poetry work, Vishwa Shanti, in 1931 in the Jail.
  • Vishwa Shanti is a long poem and it "refers to Gandhi's message and Lifework".
  • In 1934, Gangotri, the anthology of Joshi's poems written during 1932-34 was published.
  • He received the Jnanpith Award for his work Nishith along with Kannada poet K.V.Puttapa (for Ramayana Darsana) in 1967.
  • Nishith was written while he was aboard an electric train at midnight.
  • He published Nishith as an anthology of poems in 1939.
30

Which of the following pairs is wrong:

  1. ((a))

    Ilaben Bhatt : Bharat Ratna

  2. ((b))

    Pandurang Shastri : Magsaysay

  3. ((c))

    Morarji Desai : Bharat Ratna

  4. ((d))

    Parul Parmar : Arjun

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ilaben Bhatt : Bharat Ratna

The pair Ilaben Bhatt: Bharat Ratna is incorrect.

Key Points

  • Ilaben Bhatt
  • She found the Self-Employed Women's Association of India in 1972.
  • She is the current Chancellor of the Gujarat Vidyapith.
  • She is the recipient of the Indira Gandhi Prize.
  • Pandurang Shastri 
  • He was an Indian activist, spiritual leader, and religion reformist.
  • He founded the Swadhyaya Parivar in 1954.
  • He is the recipient of the Ramon Magsaysay Award for Community Leadership, Templeton Prize, Padma Vibhushan.
  • Morarji Desai
  • He was an Indian independence activist.
  • He served between 1977 and 1979 as the 4th Prime Minister of India.
  • He led the government formed by the Janata Party.
  • He is the recipient of Bharat Ratna, Nishan-e-Pakistan.
  • Parul Parmar
  • She is an Indian para-badminton player from Gujarat.
  • She had been ranked world number one in para-badminton women's singles SL3.
  • She was awarded the Arjuna Award in 2009 by the Government of India and Eklavya Award by the Government of Gujarat.
31

Who is the author of ‘Lajja’?

  1. ((a))

    Anita Desai

  2. ((b))

    Taslima Nasrin

  3. ((c))

    Kundanika Kapadia

  4. ((d))

    Amrita Pritam

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Taslima Nasrin

The correct answer is Taslima Nasrin.

Key Points

  • Lajja is a controversial book.
  • It deems as a response book to anti-Hindu riots that erupted in parts of Bangladesh, soon after the demolition of Babri Masjid in India on 6 December 1992.
  • The book indicates that communal feelings were on the rise, the Hindu minority of Bangladesh was oppressed, and secularism was under the shadow.
  • Anita Desai
  • She is an Indian novelist.
  • She is the John E. Burchard Professor of Writing at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology.
  • Her books include Clear Light of Day (1980), In Custody (1984) and Fasting, Feasting (1999) among many.
  • Taslima Nasrin
  • She is a Bangladeshi-Swedish writer.
  • She is known for her writing on women's oppression and criticism of religion, despite forced exile.
  • Some of her books are banned in Bangladesh.
  • Her books include Lajja, Girlhood, French Lover among many.
  • Kundanika Kapadia
  • She was an Indian novelist, story writer, and essayist from Gujarat.
  • She was best known for her novel Saat Pagla Aakashma.
  • Amrita Pritam
  • She was an Indian novelist, essayist and poet, who wrote in Punjabi and Hindi.
  • She is one of the most recognized Punjabi authors of the 20th century.
  • Her books include Kagaz te canvas, shadows of words, Rasidi tickets among many.
32

Who has written the book ‘Mansaina Diva’ in the memory of Ravishankar Maharaj?

  1. ((a))

    Kavi Nathalal

  2. ((b))

    Pannalal Patel

  3. ((c))

    Zaverchand Meghani

  4. ((d))

    Govardhanram Tripathi

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Zaverchand Meghani

The correct answer is Zaverchand Meghani.

Key Points

  • Zaverchand Meghani wrote ‘Mansaina Diva’ in the memory of Ravishankar Maharaj.
  • It was published in 1945.
  • Jhaverchand Meghani
  • He was a noted poet, litterateur, social reformer and freedom fighter from Gujarat.
  • He is a well-known name in the field of Gujarati literature.
  • Mahatma Gandhi spontaneously gave him the title of Raashtreeya Shaayar (National Poet).
  • He received many awards like Ranjitram Suvarna Chandrak and Mahida Paaritoshik in literature.
  • He went from village to village in search of folk-lores and published them in various volumes of Saurashtra Ni Rasdhar.
  • Ravishankar Maharaj
  • He was an Indian independence activist, a social worker from Gujarat.
  • He was influenced by Arya Samaj philosophy.
  • He worked for years for the rehabilitation of Baraiya and Patanvadiya castes of coastal central Gujarat.
  • He participated in Borsad Satyagraha in 1923 and protested against Haidiya Tax.
  • He inaugurated Gujarat state when it was created on 1 May 1960.
33

Who established ‘Panchmahal Bhil Seva Mandal’?

  1. ((a))

    Dayaram Mehta

  2. ((b))

    Gandhiji

  3. ((c))

    Thakkar Bapa

  4. ((d))

    Ravishankar Raval

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Thakkar Bapa

The correct answer is Thakkar Bapa.

Key Points

  • Rev. A.V.Thakkar, affectionately known as Thakkar Bapa started Bhil Seva Mandal in the year 1923 with a view to uplifting weaker sections of the society particularly the tribal people.
  • In 1922, the Bhils had faced a severe famine.
  • He started the activities of Adivasioma Retia.
  • He started free clothes, grain at concessional prices, hay-making centres etc.
  • He saw that poverty, ignorance and exploitation were rampant in the Bhil community.
  • He nurtured the Mandal to the position of eminence.
  • Thakkar Bapa became a member of the Servants of India Society founded by Gopal Krishna Gokhale in 1905.
  • He had authored the book ‘Tribes of India’ which was published in 1950.
  • In 1969, India Post released a stamp in his honour.
34

Which of the following pairs is wrong?

  1. ((a))

    Kumudini Lakhia : Kadamb

  2. ((b))

    Narsimha Mehta : Talaja

  3. ((c))

    Sidis : Dhamal

  4. ((d))

    Gaurishankar Joshi : Sneshrashmi

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Gaurishankar Joshi : Sneshrashmi

The pair Gaurishankar Joshi : Sneshrashmi is wrong.

Key Points

  • Kumudini Lakhia
  • She is an Indian Kathak dancer.
  • She founded Kadamb School of Dance and Music, an institute of Indian dance and music in 1967.
  • She is a recipient of Padma Shri, Padma Bhushan, Sangeet Natak Akademi Award, among others.
  • Narsimha Mehta
  • He was a 15th-century poet-saint.
  • He was born in a Nagar Brahmin family, in the town of Talaja.
  • He is especially revered in Gujarati literature, where he is acclaimed as its Adi Kavi.
  • Sidis
  • The Sidis is one of the major tribal communities of Gujarat.
  • Most Siddis are believed to be the descendants of slaves, sailors, servants and merchants from the Bantu-speaking parts of East Africa.
  • Dhamal is a traditional dance of the community.
  • Gaurishankar Joshi 
  • He is better known by his pen name Dhumaketu.
  • He was an Indian Gujarati-language writer.
  • Jhinabhai Ratanji Desai was better known by his pen name Snehrashmi.
  • Hence, pair 4 is incorrect.
35

Which of the following cities lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi?

  1. ((a))

    Bengaluru

  2. ((b))

    Hyderabad

  3. ((c))

    Nagpur

  4. ((d))

    Pune

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bengaluru

The correct answer is Bengaluru.

Key Points

  • Longitude is measured by imaginary lines that run around the Earth vertically (up and down) and meet at the North and South Poles.
  • These lines are known as meridians. Each meridian measures one arcdegree of longitude
  • Delhi is located in Northern India at 28.61°N 77.23°E.
  • Bengaluru
  • It is the capital of Karnataka state.
  • It is widely regarded as the "Silicon Valley of India".
  • It is located at 12.9716° N, 77.5946° E.
  • Hyderabad
  • It is the capital of Telangana state.
  • The city is noted for its monuments which include the Charminar and the fort of Golconda.
  • It is located at 17.3850° N, 78.4867° E.
  • Nagpur
  • It is a city in Maharastra.
  • It is also known as the Orange City as it is famous for its orange fruit.
  • It is located at 21.1458° N, 79.0882° E.
  • Pune
  • It is the second-largest city of Maharastra.
  • It is located at 18.5204° N, 73.8567° E.
36

Which of the following places is geographically closest to Great Nicobar?

  1. ((a))

    Sumatra

  2. ((b))

    Barneo

  3. ((c))

    Java

  4. ((d))

    Sri Lanka

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sumatra

The correct answer is Sumatra.

Key Points

  • Sumatra
  • It is a large Indonesian island.
  • It is the second-largest (after Borneo) of the Greater Sunda Islands.
  • It is separated in the northeast from the Malay Peninsula by the Strait of Malacca and in the south from Java by the Sunda Strait.
  • The distance between Sumatra and Great Nicobar is 1,192 km.
  • Barneo
  • It is a city in Italy.
  • Java
  • It is an island of Indonesia.
  • It is bordered by the Indian Ocean on the south and the Java Sea on the north.
  • The distance between Java and Great Nicobar is 1,817 km.
  • Sri Lanka
  • It is a country in South Asia.
  • It has been called “the pearl of the Indian ocean” because of its shape and location.
  • It is located between the Laccadive Sea in the west and the Bay of Bengal in the east.
  • The distance between Sri Lanka and Great Nicobar is 1,437 km.
37

Which of the following factors is responsible for wind to deflect towards left in the southern hemisphere?

  1. ((a))

    Temperature

  2. ((b))

    Magnetic field

  3. ((c))

    Rotation of the Earth

  4. ((d))

    Pressure

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Rotation of the Earth

The correct answer is Rotation of the Earth.

Key Points

  • The Coriolis effect is responsible for wind to deflect towards left in the southern hemisphere.
  • The key to the Coriolis effect lies in Earth's rotation.
  • Coriolis effect-
  • It is the tendency for the path of moving bodies (e.g., ocean currents) to be deflected on the surface of the Earth, to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere.
  • It is a result of the fact that different latitudes on Earth rotate at different speeds.
  • Between the poles and 60o latitude, the difference in rotation speed is 800 km/hr and between the equator and 30o latitude, the difference is only 200 km/hr.
  • Therefore, the strength of the Coriolis Effect is stronger near the poles, and weaker at the equator.
  • Objects moving from the equator towards the poles move into a region of slower rotational speed and their paths are deflected “ahead” of their point of origin.
  • Movement from high latitudes to low latitudes goes from a region of low speed to a region of higher rotation speed, and there is deflection “behind” their point of origin.
  • In the Northern Hemisphere this deflection is always to the right from the point of origin, and in the Southern Hemisphere the deflection is always to the left.
38

Which of the following pairs is wrong?

  1. ((a))

    Berlin : Rhine

  2. ((b))

    London : Thames

  3. ((c))

    New York : Hudson

  4. ((d))

    Vienna : Danube

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Berlin : Rhine

The correct answer is Berlin : Rhine.

Key Points

  • Rhine
  • It is one of the longest and most important river in Europe.
  • It runs for over 1,232 km (766 mi) from its source in the in the Swiss Alps (in Switzerland).
  • It flows through six countries -Switzerland, Principality of Liechtenstein, Austria, Germany, France and the Netherlands before flowing into the North Sea at Rotterdam.
  • It is called Rhein in Germany; Rhine in France and Rijn in Netherlands.
  • Thames
  • It flows from the source at Thames Head near the hamlet of Kemble in England.
  • It flows through southern England including London.
  • It is the longest river entirely in England and the second-longest in the United Kingdom, after the River Severn.
  • Hudson
  • It flows from north to south primarily through eastern New York in the United States.
  • It is about 315 miles (507 km) long.
  • Danube
  • It is Europe's second-longest river, after the Volga.
  • It is located in Central and Eastern Europe.
  • Vienna (Austria’s capital) lies in the country’s east on the Danube River.
39

Which of the following rivers does NOT originate in India?

  1. ((a))

    Beas

  2. ((b))

    Chenab

  3. ((c))

    Ravi

  4. ((d))

    Sutlej

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Sutlej

The correct answer is Sutlej.

Key Points

  • Sutlej
  • It rises from the Manasarovar-Rakas Lakes in western Tibet.
  • Before entering the Punjab plain, it cuts a gorge in Naina Devi Dhar, where the famous Bhakra dam has been constructed.
  • It is the longest of the five tributaries of the Indus River.
  • It eventually drains into the Indus in Pakistan.

 

Additional Information

  • Beas
  • It rises in the Himalayas in central Himachal Pradesh.
  • Its total length is 470 kilometres.
  • It meets river Sutlej at the south-western boundary of Kapurthala district of Punjab.
  • The chief tributaries are Bain, Banganga, Luni and Uhal.
  • Chenab
  • It is formed by the confluence of two rivers, Chandra and Bhaga.
  • It originates from Lahaul valley in Himachal Pradesh.
  • It flows through the Jammu region of Jammu and Kashmir into the plains of Punjab, Pakistan.
  • Ravi
  • It originates in the Himalayas in the Multhan tehsil of Kangra district of Himachal Pradesh.
  • It drains the area between the Pir Panjal and the Dhaola Dhar ranges.
  • It enters Punjab Plains near Madhopur and later enters Pakistan below Amritsar.
40

Consider the following protected areas:

  1. Bandipur
  2. Bhitarkanika
  3. Manas
  4. Sundarbans

Which of the above are declared as Tiger Reserves?

  1. ((a))

    1 and 2 only

  2. ((b))

    1, 3 and 4 only

  3. ((c))

    2, 3 and 4 only

  4. ((d))

    1, 2, 3 and 4

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1, 3 and 4 only

The correct answer is 1, 3 and 4 only.

Key Points

  • Bandipur
  • It is located in Gundulpet taluk, Chamarajanagar district.
  • This National Park was formed by including most of the forest areas of the then Venugopala Wildlife Park.
  • This reserve was brought under Project Tiger in 1973.
  • It has the second highest Tiger population in India.
  • Tigers, Indian Elephants, Leopard, Dhole, Sambar, Sloth bear, Chital many more animals and Birds can be spotted in the Bandipur National park.
  • Bhitarkanika
  • It is in the state of Odisha.
  • It is the second largest Mangrove ecosystems of India.
  • It is the breeding place for the endangered salt water crocodiles which are the prime attractions of the sanctuary.
  • Manas
  • It is a national park, UNESCO Natural World Heritage site, a Project Tiger reserve, an elephant reserve and a biosphere reserve in Assam.
  • About the half of the Park is covered by Grasslands of Terai and Bhabar type.
  • There are more than 650 species of Angiosperms alone.
  • Sundarbans
  • It is a national park, tiger reserve, and biosphere reserve in West Bengal, India.
  • The area is known for its wide range of fauna, including 260 bird species, the Bengal tiger and other threatened species such as the estuarine crocodile and the Indian python.
41

Which one of the following is located in Bastar region?

  1. ((a))

    Bandhavgadh National Park

  2. ((b))

    Dandeli Sanctuary

  3. ((c))

    Rajaji National Park

  4. ((d))

    Indravati National Park

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Indravati National Park

The correct answer is Indravati National Park.

Key Points

  • Bastar is a district in the state of Chhattisgarh.
  • The headquarters of Bastar district and Bastar division is Jagdalpur.
  • It is known for the beautiful forests and tribal culture,because of this it is called as the cultural capital of the state.
  • There are 70 percent tribal communities in the population of Bastar, such as Gond, Maria, Muriya, Bhatra, Halba, Dhruva community.
  • Bandhavgadh National Park
  • It is spread at vindhya hills in Madhya Pradesh.
  • It is known for the Royal Bengal Tigers.
  • The density of the Tiger population at Bandhavgarh is the highest known in India.
  • Dandeli Sanctuary
  • It is located in Uttara Kannada District of Karnataka.
  • It is the second largest sanctuary in Karnataka and is located on the banks of River Kali.
  • It is surrounded by thick forests and hills of the Kannada District.
  • Rajaji National Park
  • It is located in the Shivalik range of Himalayas and spread over 820 kms.
  • It covers a part of over three districts of Uttarakhand: Haridwar, Dehradun and Pauri Garhwal.
  • The park has been created in 1983 by the amalgamation of three sanctuaries - Rajaji Sanctuary and National park (estd. 1948) Motichur sanctuary (estd. 1964) and Chilla sanctuary (estd. 1977).
  • Indravati National Park
  • It is a national park located in Bijapur district of Chhattisgarh state of India.
  • It is located in Bastar Region.
  • It is home to one of the last populations of rare wild buffalo.
42

With 2.4 per cent of the world’s area, how much of the world’s population does India have?

  1. ((a))

    12%

  2. ((b))

    9%

  3. ((c))

    18%

  4. ((d))

    24%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

18%

The correct answer is 18%.

Key Points

  • The current population of India is 1,389,123,461 as on March 2021.
  • It is is equivalent to 17.7% of the total world population. Option 3 seems fair in this case.
  • India is the second most populated country after China. China population is estimated at 1,439,323,776 people.
  • The population density in India is 464 per Km2.
  • The total land area is 2,973,190 Km2.
  • The median age in India is 28.4 years.
  • Top 10 most populated countries in the world-
  1. China
  2. India
  3. The USA
  4. Indonesia
  5. Pakistan
  6. Brazil
  7. Nigeria
  8. Bangladesh
  9. Russia
  10. Mexico
  • Top 10 countries by area-
  1. Russia
  2. Canada
  3. China
  4. The USA
  5. Brazil
  6. Australia
  7. India
  8. Argentina
  9. Kazakhastan
  10. Algeria
43

Which one of the following reflects back more sunlight as compared to the other three?

  1. ((a))

    Sand desert

  2. ((b))

    Paddy crop land

  3. ((c))

    Land covered with fresh snow

  4. ((d))

    Prairie Plain

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Land covered with fresh snow

The correct answer is Land covered with fresh snow.

Key Points

  • Albedo is the ability of a surface to reflect sunlight (solar radiation).
  • A perfectly black surface has an albedo of 0 (all radiation is absorbed).
  • A perfectly white surface has an albedo of 1.0 (all radiation is reflected).
  • Snow and ice have high albedo – much of the sunlight hitting surfaces covered with snow and ice bounces back.
  • In contrast, dark earthy surfaces have a low albedo, therefore, they absorb more sunlight.
  • Fresh snow reflects up to 95% of the incoming radiation.
  • Therefore, fresh snow has a high albedo of .95.
  • Land and ocean have low albedos (typically from 0.1 to 0.4) and absorb more energy than they reflect.
  • Earth’s average albedo is about 0.3. In other words, about 30 percent of incoming solar radiation is reflected back into space and 70 percent is absorbed.
  • Desert Sand has an albedo of  0.40 and Grassland has an albedo of 0.25.
44

Which of the following planets has largest number of natural satellites or moons?

  1. ((a))

    Jupiter

  2. ((b))

    Mars

  3. ((c))

    Saturn

  4. ((d))

    Venus

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Saturn

The correct answer is Saturn​.

Key Points

  • Saturn
  • It is the sixth planet from the Sun and the second-largest planet in our solar system.
  • Like fellow gas giant Jupiter, Saturn is a massive ball made mostly of hydrogen and helium.

Mistake Point

  • After the discovery of 62 more satellites, It has now 274 moons, which is maximum among all the planets in the Solar system.

Additional Information

  • Jupiter is the largest planet in the solar system.
  • It is the fastest-rotating planet in the solar system.
  • The great red spot is seen in Jupiter.
  • Jupiter takes 12 earth years to make one revolution around the sun in the solar system.
  • Jupiter has 95  moons now.
  • Mars
  • It is the fourth planet from the Sun and the second-smallest planet in the Solar System.
  • It is also a dynamic planet with seasons, polar ice caps, canyons, extinct volcanoes, etc.
  • Mars has two moons- Phobos and Deimos
  • Venus
  • It is the second planet from the Sun.
  • Its thick atmosphere traps heat in a runaway greenhouse effect, making it the hottest planet in our solar system with surface temperatures hot enough to melt lead.
  • Venus has no moons.

Important Points

PlanetNo. of Moons
Mercury0
Venus0
Earth1
Mars2
Jupiter95
Saturn274
Uranus28
Neptune16
Pluto5

Data : As of June 8, 2023,

45

What is the average distance (approximate) between the Sun and the Earth?

  1. ((a))

    70 × 105 km

  2. ((b))

    100 × 105 km

  3. ((c))

    110 × 106 km

  4. ((d))

    150 × 106 km

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

150 × 106 km

The correct answer is 150 × 106 km.

  • Earth
  • It is the third planet from the Sun.
  • It is the fifth largest of the planets in the solar system.
  • It's smaller than the four gas giants — Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune — but larger than the three other rocky planets, Mercury, Mars and Venus.
  • Earth has a diameter of roughly 8,000 miles (13,000 kilometers).
  • It is "oblate spheroid," because its spin causes it to be squashed at its poles and swollen at the equator.
  • Sun
  • It holds 99.8 percent of the solar system's mass.
  • The visible part of the sun is about 10,000 degrees Fahrenheit (5,500 degrees Celsius), while temperatures in the core reach more than 27 million F (15 million C), driven by nuclear reactions.
  • While Earth orbits the sun, the planet is simultaneously spinning on an imaginary line called an axis that runs from the North Pole to the South Pole.
  • It takes Earth 23.934 hours to complete a rotation on its axis and 365.26 days to complete an orbit around the sun.
  • The average distance from the sun: 92,956,050 miles (149,598,262 km)
46

Which of the following weather conditions is indicated by a sudden fall in barometer reading?

  1. ((a))

    Stormy weather

  2. ((b))

    Calm weather

  3. ((c))

    Cold and dry weather

  4. ((d))

    Hot and sunny weather

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Stormy weather

The correct answer is Stormy weather.

Key Points

  • Barometer is a scientific instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure.
  • The atmosphere is the layers of air wrapped around the Earth. That air has a weight and presses against everything it touches as gravity pulls it to Earth. Barometers measure this pressure.
  • Atmospheric pressure is an indicator of weather.
  • Meteorologists use barometers to predict short-term changes in the weather.
  • A "rising" barometer indicates increas­ing air pressure; a "falling" barometer indicates decreasing air pressure.
  • A rapid fall in barometer reading indicates stormy weather**,** it means that a low-pressure system is arriving.

Additional Information

  • The simplest kind of barometer is a tall closed tube standing upside down in a bath of mercury (a dense liquid metal at room temperature) so the liquid rises partly up the tube a bit like it does in a thermometer.
47

Which of the following is called philosopher’s wool?

  1. ((a))

    Zinc bromide

  2. ((b))

    Zinc nitrate

  3. ((c))

    Zinc oxide

  4. ((d))

    Zinc chloride

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Zinc oxide

The correct answer is Zinc oxide.

Key Points

  • The compound zinc oxide (ZnO) is called philosopher's wool.
  • ZnO residual has a wool like texture.
  • It is said that Alchemists, as part of their rituals, would burn zinc in air and collect the residue, which formed into white woolly tufts.
  • Zinc bromide
  • It is an inorganic compound with the chemical formula ZnBr2.
  • It is used to prepare dense, clear (solids-free) brine for well completion and workover operations.
  • Zinc nitrate
  • It is an inorganic chemical compound with the formula Zn(NO₃)₂.
  • It is soluble in both water and alcohol.
  • It is used as a catalyst and a mordant for dyes, and in liquid fertilizer.
  • Zinc Oxide
  • It is an inorganic compound with the formula ZnO.
  • Zinc oxide topical (for the skin) is used to treat diaper rash, minor burns, severely chapped skin, or other minor skin irritations.
  • Zinc chloride
  • It is the name of chemical compounds with the formula ZnCl₂.
  • It is used as a soldering flux / cleaning agent. Such fluxes are capable of dissolving the oxide layer on the metal surface.
48

Which of the following gas is used for artificial ripening of green fruits?

  1. ((a))

    Carbon Dioxide

  2. ((b))

    Ethane

  3. ((c))

    Hydrogen

  4. ((d))

    Ethylene

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Ethylene

The correct answer is Ethylene.

Key Points

  • Ethylene is used for the artificial ripening of green fruits.
  • The life of fruit can be divided into three phases: fruit set, fruit development, and fruit ripening.
  • Fruit ripening is an irreversible phenomenon involving a series of biochemical, physiological, and organoleptic changes.
  • Acetylene gas liberated from calcium carbide accelerates the ripening process.
  • Carbon Dioxide
  • It is a chemical compound composed of one carbon and two oxygen atoms.
  • It is present in the Earth's atmosphere at a low concentration and acts as a greenhouse gas.
  • In its solid state, it is called dry ice.
  • Ethane
  • It is a colourless and odourless gas.
  • It is mainly used to produce ethylene, a feedstock to make plastics.
  • It is also used to produce ethylene, which is then used by the petrochemical industry to produce a range of intermediate products.
  • Hydrogen
  • It is the lightest element in the periodic table.
  • It is the most abundant chemical substance in the universe.
  • It is used to make ammonia for fertilizers, refining metals, and methanol for making artificial materials like plastics.
  • It is also used as a rocket fuel where liquid hydrogen is combined with liquid oxygen to produce a powerful explosion.
49

When ants bite, they inject ______.

  1. ((a))

    Glacial Acetic Acid

  2. ((b))

    Methanol

  3. ((c))

    Formic Acid

  4. ((d))

    Stearic Acid

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Formic Acid

The correct answer is Formic Acid.

Key Points

  • Formic acid is a component of ant venom.
  • Depending on the species, ants may attack with stingers or use their mouthparts to bite others and spray formic acid into the wound in doing so.
  • Glacial Acetic Acid
  • It is a name for water-free (anhydrous) acetic acid.
  • Prolonged skin contact with glacial acetic acid may result in tissue destruction.
  • The main use of glacial acetic acid in cooking is in form of vinegar.
  • Methanol
  • It is also known as wood alcohol and methyl alcohol.
  • It is a light, volatile, colourless, flammable liquid with a distinctive alcoholic odour similar to that of ethanol.
  • It is mostly used to create fuel, solvents and antifreeze.
  • Formic Acid
  • It is the simplest carboxylic acid.
  • It is an important intermediate in chemical synthesis
  • The principal use of formic acid is as a preservative and antibacterial agent in livestock feed.
  • Stearic Acid
  • It is a saturated long-chain fatty acid with an 18-carbon backbone.
  • It is a major component of cocoa butter and shea butter.
  • It is found in various animal and plant fats.
50

What is the pH level of blood of normal person?

  1. ((a))

    4.5 - 4.75

  2. ((b))

    6.45 - 6.55

  3. ((c))

    7.35 - 7.45

  4. ((d))

    8.25 - 8.35

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

7.35 - 7.45

The correct answer is 7.35 - 7.45.

Key Points

  • The pH scale is a logarithmic scale used to specify the acidity or basicity (alkalinity) of an aqueous solution.
  • A solution that has a pH of 0 is very acidic with a high concentration of hydrogen ions and a pH of 7 is a neutral solution with equal concentrations of hydrogen ions and their basic counterpart hydroxy ions.
  • pH 14 represents a high concentration of hydroxy ions and any solution with pH value 14 is basic in nature.
  • Numerically, the pH equals the negative logarithmic value of the concentration of hydrogen ion (H+).
  • Substances having a value of pH ranging 0 to 7 on pH scale are termed as acidic and for the value of pH ranging 7 to 14 on pH scale are known as basic solutions.
  • The pH values of the most common aqueous solutions are given below-
pH valueSubstances
0Battery Acid
1Hydrochloric Acid
2Lemon Juice, Vinegar
3Soda, Orange Juice
4Tomato Juice, Beer
5Black Coffee, Banana
6Urine, Saliva, Milk
7Pure Water, Blood
8Eggs, Baking Soda, Seawater
9Toothpaste, Hand soap
10Milk of Magnesia
11Ammonia Solution
12Soapy water
13Bleach, Oven Cleaner
14Caustic Soda, Liquid Drain Cleaner
51

Alpha - Keratin is a protein present in ______.

  1. ((a))

    Blood

  2. ((b))

    Skin

  3. ((c))

    Wool

  4. ((d))

    Eggs

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Wool

The correct answer is Wool 

  • Wool fiber is primarily composed of proteins called Alpha-keratins.

Key Points

  • These have a high sulphur content, consistent with having a high relative abundance of the amino acid cysteine.
  • Alpha-keratin is a protein present in the skin.
  • Keratin is one of a family of fibrous structural proteins.
  • Keratin monomers assemble into bundles to form intermediate filaments, which are tough and form strong unmineralized tissues found in reptiles, birds, amphibians and mammals.
  • Alpha -keratin is found on epithelial cells, which line the inside and outside surfaces of the body.
  • Keratins help form the tissues of the hair, nails, and the outer layer of the skin.
  • They are also found in cells in the lining of organs, glands, and other parts of the body.

Additional Information

  • Blood contains two main kinds of proteins: Albumin and Globulins.
  • Blood proteins help our body to produce substances it needs to function.
  • These substances include hormones, enzymes, and antibodies.
  • Ovalbumin is the major protein found in egg whites and consists of 54 percent.
52

The characteristic odour of garlic is due to ______.

  1. ((a))

    A chloro compound

  2. ((b))

    A sulphur compound

  3. ((c))

    A fluorine compound

  4. ((d))

    Acetic acid

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

A sulphur compound

The correct answer is A sulphur compound

  • The characteristic odour of garlic is due to a sulphur compound.

Key Points

  • Garlic is known to cause bad breath and body odour, described as a pungent "garlicky" smell to sweat.
  • This is caused by Allyl Methyl Sulfide (AMS).
  • AMS is a volatile liquid that is absorbed into the blood during the metabolism of garlic-derived sulfur compounds; from the blood, it travels to the lungs and skin, where it is exuded through skin pores.
  • Garlic (Allium sativum) is a species in the onion genus, Allium.
  • The sulfur compound allicin which is produced by crushing or chewing fresh garlic produces other sulfur compounds: Ajoene, Allyl Polysulfides, and Vinyldithiins.

Additional Information

  • Chloro compounds are any class of organic compounds that contain a carbon–chlorine bond.
  • Fluorine (F) is the most reactive chemical element and the lightest member of the halogen elements, or Group 17 of the periodic table.
  • Acetic acid (CH3COOH) is also called ethanoic acid. It is the most important of the carboxylic acids.
53

Which one of the following links all the ATMs in India?

  1. ((a))

    Indian Banks Association 

  2. ((b))

    National Securities Depository Limited

  3. ((c))

    National Payments Corporation of India

  4. ((d))

    Reserve Bank of India

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

National Payments Corporation of India

The correct answer is National Payments Corporation of India.

  • National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) is the apex authority for maintaining a nationwide link of all the ATMs in India.

Key Points

  • The NPCI was founded on 2008 for the operation of retail payments in India.
  • NPCI exercises this role through its wing IDRBT (Institute for Development of Research in Banking Technology).
  • IDRBT created a massive network called National Financial Switch in the year 2004 for linking all the ATMs in India.
  • The NPCI provides a variety of services those are Rupay: A domestic card scheme, BHIM: Unified payment interface, Check truncation system and Aadhar enabled payment system.

Additional Information

  • Indian Bank Association (IBA) is formed in 1946.
  • It is a representative body of management of banking in India.
  • IBA was formed for development, coordination and strengthening of Indian banking, and assist the member banks in various ways.
  • National Securities Depository Limited (NSDL) is a financial organization created to hold securities such as bonds, shares etc. in the form of physical or non-physical certificates i.e. in dematerialized format.
  • These securities are held in depository accounts such as funds held in bank accounts.
  • NSDL is one of the largest Depositories in the World.
  • It was established in August 1996.
  • It has established a state-of-the-art infrastructure that handles most of the securities held and settled in dematerialized form in the Indian capital market.
  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central bank of India whose primary function is to manage and govern the financial system of the country.
  • RBI was established on 1 April 1935 in accordance with the provisions of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
  • The Central Office of the RBI was initially established in Kolkata but was permanently moved to Mumbai in 1937.
54

Consider the following high-yielding varieties of crops in India:

  1. Arjun
  2. Jaya
  3. Padma
  4. Sonalika

Which of these are wheat?

  1. ((a))

    Only 1 and 2

  2. ((b))

    Only 2 and 3

  3. ((c))

    Only 1 and 4

  4. ((d))

    Only 3 and 4

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Only 1 and 4

The correct answer is Only 1 and 4.

Arjun and Sonalika are hybrid variety of wheat produced by Indian Council of Agricultural Research

Jaya and Ratna are the semi- dwarf varieties of rice.

Key Points

  • ​Rice is an edible starchy cereal grain and the grass plant (family Poaceae) by which it is produced.
  • Roughly one-half of the world population, including virtually all of East and Southeast Asia, is wholly dependent upon rice as a staple food; 95 percent of the world’s rice crop is eaten by humans.
  • Rice is cooked by boiling, or it can be ground into flour.
  • It is eaten alone and in a great variety of soups, side dishes, and main dishes in Asian, Middle Eastern, and many other cuisines.
  • Basmati is the best type of rice in India.

Additional Information

  • During the green revolution, semi-dwarf varieties were derived from the IR-8 and its derivatives later introduced in India in 1966.
  • The better-yielding rice varieties 'Jaya' and 'Ratna' were then developed in 1966. It increases the rice production from 35 million tonnes to 89.5 million tonnes in India.
  • Jaya and Ratna are high-yielding semi-dwarf varieties of rice developed crop in India in the wake of the green revolution.
  • Rice that is processed to remove only the husks, called brown rice, contains about 8 percent protein and small amounts of fats and is a source of thiamine, niacin, riboflavin, iron, and calcium.
55

The accounting year of Reserve Bank of India is ______.

  1. ((a))

    April - March

  2. ((b))

    July - June

  3. ((c))

    October - September

  4. ((d))

    January - December

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

July - June

The correct answer is July-June

  • The current RBI’s accounting year runs from July to June while the government follows the April-March fiscal year.

Key Points

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has planned to align its financial year with the centre.
  • The Central Board of Directors of the RBI recommended to align the accounting year of RBI with the financial year of the government (April-March), from 2020-21.
  • The preamble of RBI is to regulate the issue of Bank notes and keeping of reserves with a view to securing monetary stability in India and generally to operate the currency and credit system of the country to its advantage; to have a modern monetary policy framework to meet the challenge of an increasingly complex economy, to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth.
  • The Reserve Bank's affairs are governed by a central board of directors.
  • The board is appointed by the Government of India in keeping with the Reserve Bank of India Act.
56

Economic Survey in India is published officially, every year by the ______.

  1. ((a))

    Reserve Bank of India

  2. ((b))

    Finance Commission of India

  3. ((c))

    Ministry of Finance, Government of India

  4. ((d))

    Ministry of Industries, Government of India

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Ministry of Finance, Government of India

The correct answer is Ministry of Finance, Government of India

  • Economic Survey in India is published officially, every year by the Ministry of Finance, Government of India.

Key Points

  • The Economic Survey is prepared by the Economics Division of the Department of Economic Affairs.
  • It is prepared under the overall guidance of the chief economic adviser and is released after it is approved by the finance minister.
  • The Economic Survey brings out the economic trends in the country and facilitates a better appreciation of the mobilisation of resources and their allocation in the Union Budget.
  • The Survey analyses the trends in agricultural and industrial production, infrastructure, employment, money supply, prices, imports, exports, foreign exchange reserves and other relevant economic factors that have a bearing on the Budget.
  • It is presented in Parliament ahead of the Budget for the ensuing year.

Additional Information

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central bank of India whose primary function is to manage and govern the financial system of the country.
  • The Reserve Bank's affairs are governed by a central board of directors.
  • The board is appointed by the Government of India in keeping with the Reserve Bank of India Act.
  • Finance Commission is a constitutional body for the purpose of allocation of certain revenue resources between the Union and the State Governments.
  • It was established under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution by the Indian President.
  • It was created to define the financial relations between the Centre and the states.
  • It was formed in 1951.
  • The role of the Indian Chamber of Commerce and Industry in the promotion of trade is the Inter-state movement of goods and Labour laws.
57

‘Eco mark’ is given to the Indian products that are ______.

  1. ((a))

    Pure and unadulterated

  2. ((b))

    Rich in proteins

  3. ((c))

    Environment-friendly

  4. ((d))

    Economically viable

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Environment-friendly

The correct answer is Environment-friendly.

  • ‘Eco mark’ is given to the Indian products that are Environment-friendly.

Key Points

  • Eco-mark is a voluntary labeling scheme for easily identifying environment-friendly products.
  • The Eco-mark scheme defines as an environmentally friendly product, any product which is made, used, or disposed of in a way that significantly reduces the harm it would otherwise cause the environment.
  • Eco Mark Scheme was introduced by the Indian Government for labeling environment-friendly products.
  • The Eco Mark Scheme is being administered by the Bureau of Indian Standards (hereinafter referred to as 'BIS') and falls under the ambit of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
  • An earthen pot has been chosen as the logo for the Ecomark scheme in India.
  • The familiar earthen pot uses a renewable resource like earth, does not produce hazardous waste, and consumes little energy in making.
58

To prevent recurrence of scams in Indian Capital Market, the Government of India has assigned regulatory powers to _______.

  1. ((a))

    SEBI

  2. ((b))

    RBI

  3. ((c))

    NITI Aayog

  4. ((d))

    CBI

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

SEBI

The correct answer is SEBI 

  • To prevent the recurrence of scams in the Indian Capital Market, the Government of India has assigned regulatory powers to SEBI.

Key Points

  • The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) was established on 12 April 1992.
  • It was formed in accordance with the provisions of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992.
  • The basic functions of the SEBI are to protect the interests of investors in securities and to promote the development of, and regulate the securities market and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.

Additional Information

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central bank of India whose primary function is to manage and govern the financial system of the country.
  • NITI Aayog is the National Institution for Transforming India (NITI) is an Indian Government policy, established to replace the Planning Commission.
  • The aim of NITI Aayog is to encourage involvement and participation in the economic policy-making process, with an emphasis on making the country cooperative federalism.
  • Central Bureau Investigation (CBI) is India’s top-notch agency that investigates very severe cases from all over the country.
  • This organization comes under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances, and Pensions of the Federal government, which is further headed by a Cabinet Minister who is directly reportable to the Prime Minister.
  • CBI was found in 1941 by the Government of India as the Special Police establishment.
59

Unemployment which occurs when workers move from one job to another job is known as ______.

  1. ((a))

    Seasonal unemployment

  2. ((b))

    Frictional unemployment

  3. ((c))

    Technological unemployment

  4. ((d))

    Cyclical unemployment

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Frictional unemployment

The correct answer is Frictional unemployment. 

  • Unemployment which occurs when workers move from one job to another job is known as Frictional unemployment.

Key Points

  • Frictional unemployment is a type of unemployment that occurs when workers move from one job to another job.
  • It is sometimes called search unemployment and can be based on the circumstances of the individual.
  • Frictional unemployment is a time spent between jobs when a worker is searching for a job or transitioning from one job to another.

Additional Information

  • Seasonal unemployment occurs when people are unemployed at particular times of the year when demand for labour is lower than usual.
  • Technological unemployment occurs when developments in technology and working practices cause some workers to lose their jobs. Technological unemployment is considered to be part of a wider concept known as structural unemployment.
  • Cyclical unemployment is the component of overall unemployment that results directly from cycles of economic upturn and downturn. Cyclical unemployment is the impact of economic recession or expansion on the total unemployment rate.
60

In which of the following products has Bangladesh emerged as the main competitor to India in the world market?

  1. ((a))

    Wheat

  2. ((b))

    Jute

  3. ((c))

    Cement

  4. ((d))

    Pharmaceuticals

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Jute

The correct answer is Jute

  • Jute products have Bangladesh emerged as the main competitor to India in the world market.

Key Points

  • The newly started jute industry in Bangladesh has captured some of the markets for Indian jute goods.
  • India is the world's largest producer of raw jute and jute goods, contributing to over 50 percent and 40 percent respectively of global production.
  • West Bengal, Assam, and Bihar are the major jute growing states in the country, which accounts for about 98 percent of the country's jute area and production.

Additional Information

  • India is the ninth-largest steel production country in the world the second largest producer of silk in the world.
  • China is the top country by wheat production in the world. The country that is ranked second in the production of wheat in the world is India.
  • India is the second-largest cement producer in the world. China is the largest producer of cement in the world.
  • The Indian pharmaceutical market is the third-largest in terms of volume and the 13th largest in terms of value. India is the largest supplier of generic medicines in the world.
61

Who is the pioneer of ‘White Revolution’ in India?

  1. ((a))

    M. S. Swaminathan

  2. ((b))

    Verghese Kurien

  3. ((c))

    Amrita Patel

  4. ((d))

    APJ Abdul Kalam

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Verghese Kurien

The correct answer is Verghese Kurien.

  • Dr Verghese Kurien is known as the father of the White Revolution in India.

Key Points

  • The White Revolution in India, also known as Operation Flood was launched in the 1970s to make India self-dependent in milk production.
  • White Revolution is associated with a sharp increase in milk production.
  • Currently, India is the world’s largest milk producer. Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh, Punjab and Haryana are the major milk-producing states in India. India is also the largest producer of buffalo milk in the world.
  • During 1964-65, the Intensive Cattle Development Programme (ICDP) was introduced in the country in which a package of improved animal husbandry was given to cattle owners for promoting the white revolution in the country.
  • Later on, to increase the speed of the white revolution, a new programme named “operation flood” was introduced in the country by the National Dairy Development Board.

Additional Information

  • Dr M. S. Swaminathan has been called the "Father of Green Revolution in India" for his role in introducing and further developing high-yielding varieties of wheat in India.
  • He is the founder of the MS Swaminathan Research Foundation.
  • Dr Arun Krishnan and Dr Hirlal Chaudhuri is the father of Blue Revolution, which is related to the fish.
  • The concept of the rapid increase in the production of fish and marine products through package programmes is called as blue revolution.
  • Blue Revolution was launched in India during the Seventh Five-year plan (1985-1990) when the Central Government sponsored the Fish Farmers Development Agency (FFDA).
  • It has brought improvement in aquaculture by adopting new techniques of fish breeding, fish rearing, fish marketing, and fish export.
62

Which of the following companies had started a rural marketing network called e-Choupal?

  1. ((a))

    ITC

  2. ((b))

    Dabur

  3. ((c))

    Proctor and Gamble

  4. ((d))

    Reliance

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ITC

The correct answer is ITC

  • The ITC had started a rural marketing network called e-Choupal.

Key Points

  • e-Choupal is an India-based business initiative by ITC Limited that provides Internet access to rural farmers.
  • The purpose is to inform and empower them and, as a result, to improve the quality of agricultural goods and the quality of life for farmers.
  • e-Choupal is launched in June 2000 and already become the largest initiative among all Internet-based interventions in rural India.
  • Currently, the 'e-Choupal' website provides information to farmers across the states of Madhya Pradesh, Haryana, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu.

Additional Information

  • ITC was incorporated in the year 1910 and originally called Imperial Tobacco Company of India Ltd.
  • Later, in 1970, it was rechristened to Indian Tobacco Company Ltd and in 1974, to ITC Ltd.
  • ITC started its Agri-Business division in 1990.
  • It was set up to leverage its agri-sourcing competency and also to support the export of agricultural commodities.
63

Which of the following pairs is wrong?

  1. ((a))

    Samkhya - Kapil Muni

  2. ((b))

    Vaisheshika - Kanad

  3. ((c))

    Mimamsa - Shankaracharya

  4. ((d))

    Nyaya - Gautama

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Mimamsa - Shankaracharya

The incorrect pair is Mimamsa - Shankaracharya.

Key Points

  • The Mimamsa Sutra or the Purva Mimamsa Sutras, written by Rishi Jaimini is one of the most important ancient Hindu philosophical texts.
  • It forms the basis of Mimamsa, the earliest of the six orthodox schools (Darshanas) of Indian philosophy.

Additional Information

  • Sage Kapila is traditionally known as a founder of the Samkhya school.
  • The Sanskrit philosopher Kanada Kashyapa (2nd–3rd century) expounded its theories and is credited with founding the Vaisheshika Philosophy.
  • Gautama Muni is the founder of Nyaya Philosophy.
64

Which of the following pairs is wrong?

  1. ((a))

    Kalaripayattu - Kerala

  2. ((b))

    Gatka - Punjab

  3. ((c))

    Silambam - Karnataka

  4. ((d))

    Kathi Samu - Andhra Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Silambam - Karnataka

The correct answer is Silambam - Karnataka

Key Points

  • Silambam is a weapon-based Indian martial art from Tamil Nadu, but also traditionally practiced by the Tamil community of Sri Lanka and Malaysia.
  • It derives from the Tamil word Silam meaning "hill".
  • The Kannada word bamboo from which the English "bamboo" originates.

Additional Information

  • Kalaripayattu is an ancient martial art indigenous to Kerala.
  • Kalaripayattu is specialization in indigenous medicinal practices and Kalaris are important centers of religious worship.
  • Gatka has its origins in the State of Punjab and this traditional fighting style of the Nihang Sikh Warriors is used both as self-defense and as a sport.
  • Gatka uses the sword as the main weapon, amongst others.
  • Kathi Samu is a martial art from Andhra Pradesh, was practiced by the royal armies.
  • Mallakhamba is a well-known sport across India and Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra have been the hotspots of this sport.
  • Thang-Ta is a Manipur martial art that has passed into oblivion lately.
65

‘Bahujan Hitay Bahujan Sukhay’ is the motto of ______.

  1. ((a))

    All India Radio

  2. ((b))

    Craft Council of India

  3. ((c))

    Sahitya Akademi

  4. ((d))

    State Bank of India

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

All India Radio

The correct answer is All India Radio

  • All India Radio (AIR) has been serving to inform, educate and entertain the masses since it's inception, truly living up to its motto – ‘Bahujan Hitaya: Bahujan Sukhaya’.

Key Points

  • The Prasar Bharati Board functions at the apex level ensuring formulation and implementation of the policies of the organization and fulfillment of the mandate in terms of the Prasar Bharati Act, 1990.
  • The Executive Member functions as the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of the Corporation.
  • All India Radio (Prasar Bharati) Marketing offices located at Mumbai, New Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai, Bangalore, Thiruvananthapuram, Kochi, Hyderabad, Guwahati and Jallandhar, look after the marketing activities of both All India Radio and Doordarshan.
  • It aims to provide information, education and entertainment, for promoting the welfare and happiness of the masses (Bahujana Hitaya Bahujana Sukhaya).

Additional Information

  • The AIR is one of the largest public broadcasting organizations in the world.
  • It has 414 stations in 23 languages and broadcasts in 179 dialects.
66

Which of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?

  1. ((a))

    Liberty of Thought

  2. ((b))

    Economic Liberty

  3. ((c))

    Liberty of Expression

  4. ((d))

    Liberty of Belief

  5. ((e))

    None of the above/More than one of the above.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Economic Liberty

The correct answer is Economic Liberty

  • Economic Liberty is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India.

Key Points

  • The objectives of the Preamble are to secure justice, liberty, equality to all citizens and promote fraternity to maintain the unity and integrity of the nation.
  • The Preamble secures to all citizens of India liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship, through their Fundamental Rights, enforceable in the court of law, in case of violation.
  • Liberty is essential for the successful functioning of the Indian democratic system.
  • The preamble was amended by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1976, in which three new words Socialist, Secular, and Integrity were added.
  • Sovereign means that India is an independent country and not a dominion of others.

Additional Information

  • Socialist states that the Indian version of socialism is democratic socialism unlike communism socialism i.e. involving nationalization of industry and abolition of private property.
  • In democratic socialism, the public and private sectors exist side by side.
  • Secular means that all religions irrespective of strength are having the same status and support from the state.
  • Democratic states that in India Supreme power is with the people.
  • India has indirect democracy where representatives of people exercise power on their behalf.
  • Indian democracy has social, political, and economic democracy.
67

Local self-government can be best explained as an effort in ______.

  1. ((a))

    Democratic centralisation

  2. ((b))

    Democratic decentralisation

  3. ((c))

    Administrative delegation

  4. ((d))

    Administrative centralisation

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Democratic decentralisation

The correct answer is Democratic decentralization

  • Local self-government can be best explained as an effort in Democratic decentralization.

Key Points

  • The first Municipal Corporation was set-up in the former Presidency town of Madras in 1688 and was followed by similar corporations in then Bombay and Calcutta in 1726.
  • Local self-government means that residents in towns, villages, and rural settlements are the hosts in their own homes.
  • People elect local councils and their heads authorizing them to solve the most important issues.
  • In order to provide for a common framework for urban local bodies and help to strengthen the functioning of the bodies as effective democratic units of self-government, Parliament enacted the Constitution (74th Amendment) Act, 1992 relating to municipalities in 1992.

Additional Information

  • A new part IX-A relating to the Municipalities has been incorporated in the Constitution to provide for among other things.
  • Constitution provides three types of Municipalities, i.e., Nagar Panchayats for areas in transition from a rural area to an urban area, Municipal Councils for smaller urban areas and Municipal Corporation for large urban areas, fixed duration of municipalities, the appointment of the state election commission, appointment of state finance commission and constitution of metropolitan and district planning committees.
68

The Parliament can make law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties ______.

  1. ((a))

    With the consent of all the states

  2. ((b))

    With the consent of the majority of states

  3. ((c))

    With the consent of the states concerned

  4. ((d))

    Without the consent of any state

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Without the consent of any state

The correct answer is without the consent of any state.

The Parliament can make a law for the whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties without the consent of any state.

Key Points

  • The Constitution of India provides for a federal system of government of the country.
  • It has divided powers (legislative, executive, and financial) between the union and the states.
  • Articles 245 to 255 in Part XI of the Constitution deal with the legislative relations between the union and the states. Besides these, there are some other constitutional provisions dealing with the same subject.
  • The constitution empowers parliament to make laws on any matter in-state list under five extraordinary circumstances -
  • Rajya Sabha passes the resolution
  • National emergency
  • States make a request
  • To implement international agreements
  • During the president's rule
  • The Indian Constitution also divides the legislative powers between the center and the states with respect to both the territory and the subjects of legislation like any other Federal Constitution.
  • The Parliament can alone make ‘extra-territorial legislation’ thus the laws of the Parliament are applicable to the Indian citizens and their property in any part of the world.
  • Subject to the provisions of the Constitution, a state legislature may make laws for the whole or any part of the state to which it belongs.
  • It is not possible for a state legislature to enlarge its territorial jurisdiction under any circumstances, except when the boundaries of the state itself are widened by an act of the Parliament.
69

Who of the following is authorised to withdraw funds from the Consolidated Fund of India?

  1. ((a))

    The President of India

  2. ((b))

    The Parliament of India

  3. ((c))

    The Prime Minister of India

  4. ((d))

    The Union Finance Minister

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The Parliament of India

The correct answer is The Parliament of India

The Parliament of India is authorized to withdraw funds from the Consolidated Fund of India

Key Points

There are three types of funds of the Central Government:

  1. Consolidated Fund of India (Article 266)
  2. Contingency Fund of India (Article 267)
  3. Public Accounts of India (Article 266)

Additional Information

  • This is the Government of India's main account.
  • Taxation such as income tax, customs taxes, and non-tax revenue, arising from the government's conduct of its business, are the inflows to the fund.
  • The funds also receive loans raised through the issue of treasury bills.
  • All expenses including repayments of loans from the fund will be paid by the Government.
  • Without Parliament's permission, no amount may be withdrawn from the Fund.
  • This fund is established under the provisions of the Indian Constitution, Article 266 (1).
70

In India, the first Municipal Corporation was set up in which of the following?

  1. ((a))

    Kolkata

  2. ((b))

    Chennai

  3. ((c))

    Ahmedabad

  4. ((d))

    Vadodara

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Chennai

The correct answer is Chennai.

  • The first such Municipal Corporation was set-up in the former Presidency Town of Madras (in present Chennai) in 1688, and was followed by similar corporations in then Bombay and Calcutta in 1726.

Key Points

  • The Municipal City Council and Municipal Corporation, which have been created by State enactments are controlled by the Government, which bodies also receive financial assistance from the Government.
  • It is well settled that Municipal Corporations are instrumentality or agency of the Government.
  • The Mayor is the head of the municipal corporation, but in most states and territories of India, the role is largely ceremonial as executive powers are vested in the Municipal Commissioner.

Additional Information

  • After the 74th Amendment of the Indian constitution was enacted there are only three categories of urban local bodies: Mahanagar Nigam (Municipal Corporation), Nagar Palika (Municipality), Nagar Panchayat (Notified Area Council or City Council).
71

Which schedule of the Constitution of India contains special provisions for the administration and control of scheduled areas in some states?

  1. ((a))

    Third

  2. ((b))

    Fifth

  3. ((c))

    Seventh

  4. ((d))

    Ninth

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Fifth

The correct answer is Fifth.

  • The fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India contains special provisions for the administration and control of scheduled areas in some states.

Key Points

  • The Fifth Schedule under Article 244(1) of the Constitution defines Scheduled Areas.
  • Article 244 (1) of the Indian Constitution defines Scheduled Areas as the areas defined by the President of India and are mentioned in the fifth schedule of the Constitution.
  • Scheduled Areas as such areas as the President may by order declare to be Scheduled Areas after consultation with the Governor of that State.
  • The provisions regarding the administration and control of Scheduled and Tribal Areas of any state except Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram four states are mentioned under this schedule.

Additional Information

  • The Sixth Schedule under Article 244 (2) of the Constitution defines Tribal areas.
  • The Sixth Schedule mentions the provisions related to the tribal areas of the four states – Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
  • The tribal areas in these four states come under the name of ‘Autonomous Districts, but the state still has its executive authority over them.
  • The Third Schedule contains the forms of Oaths or Affirmations.
  • The Ninth Schedule contains provisions as to the validation of certain Acts and Regulations.
  • The Seventh Schedule contains the Union list, State list, and the concurrent list.
72

The purpose of the inclusion of Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution is to establish _______.

  1. ((a))

    Political democracy

  2. ((b))

    Social democracy

  3. ((c))

    Gandhian democracy

  4. ((d))

    Social and economic democracy

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Social and economic democracy

The correct answer is Social and economic democracy.

  • The purpose of the inclusion of Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution is to establish social and economic democracy.

Key Points

  • Directive Principles are mentioned in Part IV from Article 36 to Article 51 of the Indian Constitution.
  • These principles differ from fundamental rights which are discussed in an earlier chapter. While fundamental rights are enforceable, Directive Principles are not enforceable by the courts.
  • Directive principles are in the nature of instruments of instructions to the government of the day to do something positive.

Additional Information

  • Directive Principles are directions given by the constitution to the state.
  • Directive Principles attempt to provide socio-economic foundations to Indian democracy.
  • The Directive Principles are non-justiciable by the judicial process does not mean that they are of subordinate importance.
73

In the Indian Constitution, the Right to Equality is granted by five articles. They are

  1. ((a))

    Article 16 to Article 20

  2. ((b))

    Article 15 to Article 19

  3. ((c))

    Article 14 to Article 18

  4. ((d))

    Article 13 to Article 17

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Article 14 to Article 18

The correct answer is Article 14 to Article 18.

Key Points

  • Article 14 to Article 18 of the Constitution of India guarantees the right to equality to every citizen of India.
  • This deals with the general principles of equality.
  • Article 14 of the constitution states that:
  • The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
  • This article constitutes of 2 parts, being:
  • Equality before law and
  • Equal protection of the laws
  • Article 15 prohibits discrimination against citizens on such specific grounds as religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
  • Article 16 guarantees equality of opportunity in matters of employment under the state. The right is available to citizens only.
  • Article 17 deals with a peculiar problem of our country. Howsoever praiseworthy the caste system in its origin might have been, it certainly proved to be a disgrace to humanity, a threat to unity, and a serious hindrance to the social, educational, and economic progress of our country.
  • Article 18 abolishes titles, other than a military or academic distinction.
74

A British citizen staying in India cannot claim Right to _______.

  1. ((a))

    Freedom of trade and profession.

  2. ((b))

    Equality before the law.

  3. ((c))

    Protection of life and personal liberty.

  4. ((d))

    Freedom of religion.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Freedom of trade and profession.

The correct answer is Freedom of trade and profession.

  • A British citizen staying in India cannot claim the Right to Freedom of trade and profession.

Key Points

  • The Constitution of India, therefore taking into consideration the need and the importance of work, enshrines and has guaranteed a fundamental right under Article 19( 1) (g) to practise any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade, or business, to all the citizens residing with the jurisdiction of the country.
  • This right aims at the welfare and well-being of the citizens as well as the nation as a whole.
  • Under this article, every citizen has the right to choose employment, or take up any trade or occupation, etc as per his volition and free will, but at the same time, the State has the right to impose certain limits, which it feels necessary for the interest of the public.
  • This article does not guarantee a monopoly to any individual to carry on any occupation.
  • The right to carry on a business also includes the right to close it, at any time depending upon the desire of the owner.
  • The State cannot compel any citizen to run a business that is against his will. But as no right is absolute, the right to close a business is also not an absolute right.

Additional Information

  • Article 19:  Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech etc
  • All citizens shall have the following right:
  • To freedom of speech and expression
  • To assemble peaceably and without arms
  • To form associations or unions
  • To move freely throughout the territory of India
  • To reside and settle in any part of the territory of India
  • Omitted
  • To practise any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business
75

The Panchayati Raj was first introduced in the states of Rajasthan and _______.

  1. ((a))

    Andhra Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Bihar

  3. ((c))

    Gujarat

  4. ((d))

    Odisha

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Andhra Pradesh

The correct answer is Andhra Pradesh.

  • The Panchayati Raj was first introduced in the states of Rajasthan and Andhra Pradesh.

Key Points

  • After the Constitution came into force, Article 40 made a mention of panchayats, and Article 246 empowers the state legislature to legislate with respect to any subject relating to local self-government.
  • In 1953, the Rajasthan Panchayat Act was enacted and village Panchayats were established throughout the state.
  • The system later came to be known as Panchayati Raj, which was inaugurated by the then Prime Minister Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru on 2 October 1959 at Nagour in Rajasthan.
  • The first elections under the Rajasthan Panchayat Samitis and Zilla Parishads Act, 1959 were held in September-October 1959.
  • With the already existing Panchayats at the village level under the Rajasthan Panchayat Act, 1953, the three-tier scheme of Panchayati Raj began functioning on 2 October 1959.

Additional Information

  • The Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992 has added a new part IX consisting of 16 Articles and the Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution.
  • The 73th Amendment envisages the Gram Sabha as the foundation of the Panchayat Raj System to perform functions and powers entrusted to it by the State Legislatures.
76

Which of the following Articles of the Directive Principles of State Policy deals with the promotion of international peace and security?

  1. ((a))

    51

  2. ((b))

    48A

  3. ((c))

    43A

  4. ((d))

    41

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

51

The correct answer is 51

Article 51 of the Directive Principles of State Policy deals with the promotion of international peace and security.

Key Points

Article 51: Promotion of international peace and security The State shall endeavor to:

(a) promote international peace and security;

(b) maintain just and honorable relations between nations;

(c) foster respect for international law and treaty obligations in the dealings of organized peoples with one another; and encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration Part IVA Fundamental DUties. 

Additional Information

  • Article 48A: Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife The State shall endeavor to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wildlife of the country.
  • Article 43A: The State shall take steps, by suitable legislation or in any other way, to secure the participation of workers in the management of undertakings, establishments, or other organizations engaged in any industry.
  • Article 41: Right to work, to education and to public assistance in certain cases The State shall, within the limits of its economic capacity and development, make effective provision for securing the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement, and in other cases of undeserved want.
77

The salaries and allowances of the Judges of the High Court are charged upon the _______.

  1. ((a))

    Consolidated Fund of India

  2. ((b))

    Consolidated Fund of the State

  3. ((c))

    Contingency Fund of India

  4. ((d))

    Contingency Fund of the State

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Consolidated Fund of the State

The correct answer is Consolidated Fund of the State

  • The salaries and allowances of the Judges of the High Court are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of the State.

Key Points

  • Authority of Parliament is required for withdrawing any amount from the Consolidated Fund.
  • Consolidated Fund of India is formed under the Constitution.
  • The taxes received by the government including central tax, income tax, excise tax, and certain non-tax revenues are credited in Consolidated Fund.
  • All expenditures of the Government are incurred from this fund.
  • The Secretary to the Government of India, Ministry of Finance, Department of Economic Affairs holds the Consolidated Fund on behalf of the President of India.
  • The provision for this fund is given in Article 266(1) of the Constitution of India.
  • Each state can have its own Consolidated Fund of the state with similar provisions.

Additional Information

  • There are three types of funds of the Central Government:
  1. Consolidated Fund of India (Article 266),
  2. Contingency Fund of India (Article 267), and
  3. Public Accounts of India (Article 266)
  • All other public money other than those covered under the Consolidated Fund of India received by or on behalf of the Indian Government is credited to the Public account/fund.
  • This is constituted under Article 266(2) of the Constitution.
  • The contingency Fund of India is used to meet unexpected or unforeseen expenditure.
  • Provision for this fund is made in Article 267(1) of the Constitution of India.
  • The Secretary of, Finance Ministry holds this fund on behalf of the President of India.
  • Each state can have its own contingency fund.
78

Which of the following was initially the most powerful city/State of India in the sixth century B.C.?

  1. ((a))

    Gandhar

  2. ((b))

    Kamboj

  3. ((c))

    Kashi

  4. ((d))

    Magadh

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Magadh

The correct answer is Magadh

  • Magadh was initially the most powerful city/State of India in the sixth century B.C.

Key Points

  • Magadha, the ancient kingdom of India, situated in what is now west-central Bihar state, in northeastern India.
  • It was the nucleus of several larger kingdoms or empires between the 6th century BCE and the 8th century CE.
  • The supremacy of Magadha continued under the Nanda (4th century BCE) and Mauryan (4th–2nd century BCE) dynasties; under the Mauryan dynasty, the empire included almost the entire subcontinent of India.
  • The early centuries CE saw the decline of Magadha, but the rise of the Gupta dynasty in the 4th century brought it once more to a position of preeminence.
79

Who of the following is not associated with medicine in India?

  1. ((a))

    Dhanvantri

  2. ((b))

    Bhaskaracharya

  3. ((c))

    Charaka

  4. ((d))

    Susruta

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Bhaskaracharya

The correct answer is Bhaskaracharya.

  • Bhaskaracharya was the leading mathematician of the 12th century, who wrote the first work with full and systematic use of the decimal number system.

​

Key Points

  • He was the lineal successor of the noted Indian mathematician Brahmagupta (598–c. 665) as head of an astronomical observatory at Ujjain, the leading mathematical center of ancient India.
  • He has been attached to his name to distinguish him from the 7th-century astronomer of the same name.
  • He is particularly known for the discovery of the principles of differential calculus and its application to astronomical problems and computations.

Additional Information

  • Dhanvantari is the Hindu god of medicine who has also been the king of Varanasi is an avatar of Lord Vishnu.
  • He is mentioned in the Puranas as the god of Ayurveda.
  • Charaka was one of the principal contributors to Ayurveda, a system of medicine and lifestyle developed in Ancient India.
  • He is known as the compiler or editor of the medical treatise entitled Charaka Samhita.
  • Sushruta, also spelled Suśruta, an ancient Indian surgeon known for his pioneering operations and techniques and for his influential treatise Sushruta-Samhita, the main source of knowledge about surgery in ancient India.
80

Who among the following Indian rulers established embassies in foreign countries on modern lines?

  1. ((a))

    Haider Ali

  2. ((b))

    Mir Qasim

  3. ((c))

    Shah Alam 2

  4. ((d))

    Tipu Sultan

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Tipu Sultan

The correct answer is Tipu Sultan. 

  • Indian ruler Tipu Sultan established embassies in foreign countries on modern lines.

Key Points

  • In 1767 Tippu commanded a corps of cavalry against the Marathas in the Carnatic (Karnataka) region of western India, and he fought against the Marathas on several occasions between 1775 and 1779.
  • During the second Mysore War, he defeated Col. John Brathwaite on the banks of the Kollidam (Coleroon) River (February 1782).
  • He succeeded his father in December 1782 and in 1784 concluded peace with the British and assumed the title of the sultan of Mysore.

Additional Information

  • Hyder Ali was the Sultan and de facto ruler of the Kingdom of Mysore in southern India. Born as Hyder Ali Khan, he distinguished himself militarily, eventually drawing the attention of Mysore's rulers.
  • In 1763 Mir Qasim nawab of Bengal, made Munger his capital and built an arsenal and several palaces. It was constituted a municipality in 1864.
  • Shah Alam II was the sixteenth Mughal Emperor and the son of Alamgir II. Shah Alam II became the emperor of a crumbling Mughal empire.
81

The Hunter Commission was appointed after the _______.

  1. ((a))

    Black Hole incident

  2. ((b))

    Jallianwala Bagh massacre

  3. ((c))

    Partition of Bengal

  4. ((d))

    Bardoli Satyagraha

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Jallianwala Bagh massacre

The correct answer is Jallianwala Bagh massacre.

  • The Hunter Commission was appointed after the Jallianwala Bagh massacre.
  • After the terrible massacre at Jallianwala Bagh on 13th April, 1919, the Legislative Council of the government of India constituted the Hunter Commission to examine the mishap that occurred there.
  • On October 14, 1919, the Government of India announced the formation of the Disorders Inquiry Committee.
  • The committee was commonly known as Hunter Commission after the name of chairman, Lord William Hunter. It also had Indian members.
  • In the final report submitted in March 1920, the committee unanimously condemned Dyer’s actions.
  • However, the Hunter Committee did not impose any penal or disciplinary action against General Dyer.

​

​Jallianwala Bagh Massacre:​

  • On April 9, 1919, two nationalist leaders, Saifuddin Kitchlew and Dr. Satyapal were arrested by the British officials without any provocation except that they had addressed protest meetings, and taken to some unknown destination.
  • This caused resentment among the Indian protestors who came out in thousands on April 10 to show their solidarity with their leaders.
  • Soon the protests turned violent because the police resorted to firing in which some of the protestors were killed. To curb any future protest government put martial law in place and law and order in Punjab was handed over to Brigadier-General Dyer.
  • On 13th April, Baisakhi day, a large crowd of people mostly from neighboring villages, unaware of the prohibitory orders in the Amritsar gathered in the Jallianwala Bagh.
  • Brigadier-General Dyer arrived on the scene with his men. The troops surrounded the gathering under orders from General Dyer and blocked the only exit point and opened fire on the unarmed crowd killing more than 1000 unarmed men, women, and children.
82

“Abhinav Bharat” was organised by _______.

  1. ((a))

    Khudiram Bose

  2. ((b))

    V. D. Savarkar

  3. ((c))

    Prafulla Chaki

  4. ((d))

    Bhagat Singh

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

V. D. Savarkar

The correct answer is V.D. Savarkar.

  • 'Abhinav Bharat' was organized by V.D. Savarkar.
  • It was a secret society founded by Vinayak Damodar Savarkar and his brother Ganesh Damodar Savarkar in 1904.
  • Initially founded at Nasik as Mitra Mela, the society was associated with several revolutionaries and political activists with branches in various parts of India and London.

​

V.D.Savarkar:

  • VD Savarkar was born on 28th May, 1883 in Bhagur, a village near Nashik in Maharashtra.
  • Founded a secret society called Abhinav Bharat Society.
  • Went to the United Kingdom and was involved with organizations such as India House and the Free India Society.
  • Involved in the formation of Hindu Mahasabha.
  • He was the president of Hindu Mahasabha from 1937 to 1943.
  • Savarkar wrote a book titled ‘The History of the War of Indian Independence’ in which he wrote about the guerilla warfare tricks used in the 1857 Sepoy Mutiny.
  • He also wrote the book ‘Hindutva: who is Hindu’.
83

Consider the following Statements:

Statement 1: Plan Bee is an innovation which helps rearing of bees.

Statement 2: Plan Bee is developed by Northeast Frontier Railway (NFR)

  1. ((a))

    Only statement 1 is correct

  2. ((b))

    Only Statement 2 is correct

  3. ((c))

    Both the statements are correct

  4. ((d))

    None of the statements is correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Only Statement 2 is correct

The correct answer is Only Statement 2 is correct.

Key Points

  • Plan Bee was developed by Northeast Frontier Railway (NFR).
  • Plan Bee is an amplifying system that imitates the buzz of a swarm of honey bees to keep wild elephants away from railway tracks.
  • Many studies suggest that elephants are scared of swarming bees thus this device was designed to generate an amplified sound of honey bees audible from about 700-800 meters.
  • The first such instrument was installed at a level crossing west of Guwahati in Assam on a track adjoining Rani Reserve Forest, an elephant habitat.
  • As per the study conducted Plan Bee device has been helpful in diverting herds of elephants, especially when trains approach and dashing becomes imminent. Also as per NFR officials, a mix of Plan Bee and other measures have helped them save 1,014 elephants from 2014 to June 2019.
84
  1. Philip Compose Task Force of Experts is associated with which of the following?
  1. ((a))

    Increasing rate of inflation

  2. ((b))

    Increasing rate of AES deaths

  3. ((c))

    Increasing problem of global warming

  4. ((d))

    Increasing problem of ammunition accidents

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Increasing problem of ammunition accidents

The correct answer is Increasing problem of ammunition accidents.

  • Philip Compose Task Force of Experts is associated with the increasing problem of ammunition accidents.
  • Mandate of the task force: To evolve a methodology to prevent ammunition accidents and minimize its effects.
  • Chairman: The Task Force was headed by Lt Gen Philip Compose, former Vice Chief of Army Staff.
  • The Task Force Chairman, Lt Gen (Retd) Philip Campose explained the causes for ammunition accidents and brought out preventive and mitigative measures.
  • The recommendations of the Task Force were appreciated by the Raksha Mantri and gave directions to expedite implementation.
85

“Operation Nightwatch” is going on in which country?

  1. ((a))

    Israel

  2. ((b))

    Iran

  3. ((c))

    Netherlands

  4. ((d))

    Turkey

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Netherlands

The correct answer is Netherlands.

  • “Operation Nightwatch” was going in Netherlands.
  • Amsterdam’s famed Rijksmuseum began the biggest ever restoration of Rembrandt’s “The Night Watch”, erecting a huge glass cage around the painting so the public can see the work carried outlive.
  • The Night Watch is a 1642 Dutch painting by Rembrandt van Rijn. It depicts the officers and other members of the so-called “Night Watch” militia.
  • ​The Night Watch is one of the world’s most famous paintings. The painting is famous for three things:
  • its colossal size (363 cm × 437 cm),
  • the dramatic use of light and shadow (tenebrism) and
  • the perception of motion in what would have traditionally been a static military group portrait.
  • ​In July 2019 a long and complex restoration began Dubbed “Operation Night Watch”, the restoration is taking place in public, in a specially-made glass enclosure built and placed in the Rijksmuseum, and is being live-streamed.
  • Experts have recently noticed changes to the painting, with a white haze appearing on some parts.
86

“Utkarsh 2022” is associated with _______.

  1. ((a))

    RBI

  2. ((b))

    ONGC

  3. ((c))

    SEBI

  4. ((d))

    ICICI Bank

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

RBI

The correct answer is RBI.

 

  • "Utkarsh 2022" is associated with RBI.
  • Utkarsh 2022 is the three-year roadmap of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to improve regulation and supervision, among other functions of the central bank.
  • It is a medium-term strategy in line with the global central bank's plan to strengthen the regulatory and supervisory mechanism.
  • This specifically includes the central bank’s proactive role to avoid any other IL&FS debt default issue in the future.
  • Earlier, an internal committee of RBI was formed under former Deputy Governor Viral Acharya, to identify issues that needed to be addressed over the next three years.

​

Additional Information

Headquarters of:

RBIMumbai
ONGCDelhi
SEBIMumbai
ICICI BankMumbai
87

Consider the following Statements:

Statement 1: Vande Bharat Express runs between Delhi and Varanasi.

Statement 2: It is India’s fastest indigenous train.

  1. ((a))

    Only statement 1 is correct

  2. ((b))

    Only statement 2 is correct

  3. ((c))

    Both the statements are correct

  4. ((d))

    None of the statements is correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Both the statements are correct

The correct answer is Both the statements are correct.

  • Vande Bharat Express runs between Delhi and Varanasi.
  • It is India's fastest indigenous train.
  • It is India’s first indigenously built engineless semi-high speed train. Earlier, it was known by the name Train 18.
  • It runs between Delhi and Varanasi at a maximum speed of 160 kmph.
  • It has been built by the Integral Coach Factory, Chennai, in a record time of 20 months.
  • The train is a 100% ‘Make in India’ project and is claimed to be built at half the cost of a similar train set that is imported.
  • It is energy-efficient as its coaches will be fitted with LED lights. Coaches will have automatic doors and retractable footsteps
  • It will be inter-connected with fully sealed gangways along with a GPS-based Passenger Information System. It is provided with Bio toilets.
88

What is ‘DEEP-CEE’?

  1. ((a))

    A type of submarine being developed by DRDO.

  2. ((b))

    An Artificial Intelligence-powered tool to identify galaxy clusters.

  3. ((c))

    A bunker on Indo-Pak border on a secret location.

  4. ((d))

    A scientific program of ISRO.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

An Artificial Intelligence-powered tool to identify galaxy clusters.

The correct answer is An Artificial Intelligence-powered tool to identify galaxy clusters.

  • Researchers developed “Deep-CEE”, an Artificial Intelligence-powered tool to identify galaxy clusters quickly.
  • This tool has been trained to look at colour images and identify galaxy clusters quickly.
  • Its model is based on neural networks, which are designed to mimic the way a human brain learns to recognise objects by activating specific neurons when visualising distinctive patterns and colours.
89

Which of the following animals is not included in ‘immunocontraceptive measures’ by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change?

  1. ((a))

    Monkey

  2. ((b))

    Elephant

  3. ((c))

    Bear

  4. ((d))

    Wild Boar

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Bear

The correct answer is Bear.

  • Among the given options, Bear is not included in ‘immunocontraceptive measures’ by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
  • The Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change (MoEFCC) had launched a project for undertaking ‘immunocontraceptive measures’ for population management of wild animals.
  • The project includes four species of wild animals, viz. Elephant, Wild boar, Monkeys and Blue Bull (Nilgai).
  • The Wildlife Institute of India (WII) and the National Institute of Immunology (NII) developed a protocol of immunocontraception.

​

Immunocontraception:

  • Immunocontraception is a birth control method that uses the body's immune response to prevent pregnancy.
  • It is a technology that uses a female animal’s immune system to build a protein around the egg that prevents it from fertilising.
  • It is a humane, nonlethal solution to conflicts between people and wildlife as well as a solution to local problems of animal overabundance.
  • Immunocontraception can also help reduce the overproduction of captive animals in zoos and other facilities.
90

Recently Jaipur city of Rajasthan has been chosen as UNESCO world heritage site. Now, India has how many world heritage sites?

  1. ((a))

    36

  2. ((b))

    37

  3. ((c))

    40

  4. ((d))

    39

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

40

The correct answer is 40.

  • The Pink city, Jaipur (Rajasthan), has been declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
  • India has 40 world heritage sites now.
  • The city was nominated for its value of being an exemplary development in town planning and architecture that demonstrates an amalgamation and important exchange of ideas in the late medieval period.
  • The status of World Heritage City boosts domestic and international tourism, strengthens the local economy and also provides employment to the people. The income of the handicrafts and handloom industry also gets the benefits of tourism.
  • Jaipur has become the second city of the country after Ahmedabad to get the recognition.
  • The walled city of Jaipur in Rajasthan, was founded in 1727 AD under the patronage of Sawai Jai Singh II. It also serves as the capital city of the state of Rajasthan.

Important Points

  • Recently, Dholavira, Harappan City in the Rann of Kutchh, becomes India’s 40th UNESCO World Heritage Site.

​

UNESCO World Heritage Committee (WHC)

  • The World Heritage Committee is composed of representatives of 21 States Parties to the World Heritage Convention who meet annually.
  • The Convention Concerning the Protection of the World Cultural and Natural Heritage is an international agreement that was adopted by the General Conference of UNESCO in 1972.
  • It is based on the premise that certain places on Earth are of outstanding universal value and should therefore form part of the common heritage of humankind.
  • It basically defines the kind of natural or cultural sites which can be considered for inscription on the World Heritage List.
  • To date, 1,092 sites in 167 countries have been inscribed on the World Heritage List.
91

In Economic Survey 2018-19, the term ‘BADLAV’ is for:

  1. ((a))

    Cleanliness

  2. ((b))

    Girls

  3. ((c))

    Boys

  4. ((d))

    Poor

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Girls

The correct answer is Girls.

  • In Economic Survey 2018-19, the term ‘BADLAV’ is for girls.
  • The theme of Economic Survey, 2018-19 is "Shifting Gears towards a $5 trillion Indian economy by 2024-25”.
  • The survey has drawn on Nobel Laureate Richard Thaler’s Behavioural Economics Theory to lay out an “ambitious agenda" for behavior change that will bring in social change, which in turn, will help India transit to a $5 trillion economy by 2024-25.
  • It pitches for behavioral change by applying the principles of behavioral economics to several issues including gender equality, a healthy and beautiful India, savings, tax compliance, and credit quality.
  • This includes a transition from ‘Beti Bachao Beti Padhao’ to ‘BADLAV’ (Beti Aapki Dhan Lakshmi Aur Vijay Lakshmi), from ‘Swachh Bharat’ to ‘Sundar Bharat’, from ‘Give it up” for the LPG subsidy to ‘Think about the Subsidy’ and from ‘Tax evasion’ to ‘Tax compliance’.

​

 

Economic Survey:

  • The Economic Survey is prepared by the Economics Division of the Department of Economic Affairs in the Finance Ministry under the overall guidance of the Chief Economic Adviser.
  • The survey was de-linked from the Budget in the year 1964 and is circulated in advance to provide the context of the Budget.
  • India’s first Economic Survey was presented in the year 1950-51.
92

MOSAIC Mission is for _______.

  1. ((a))

    Study of Sun

  2. ((b))

    Study of Atlantic Ocean and climate change

  3. ((c))

    Study of climate change impact on the Arctic

  4. ((d))

    Study of the Himalayan Glaciers

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Study of climate change impact on the Arctic

The correct answer is Study of climate change impact on the Arctic.

  • Mosaic mission is for study of climate change impact on the Arctic.
  • The Multidisciplinary Drifting Observatory for the Study of Arctic Climate (MOSAiC) is an international research expedition to study the physical, chemical, and biological processes that coupled the Arctic atmosphere, sea ice, ocean, and ecosystem.
  • MOSAiC is the first year-round expedition into the central Arctic exploring the Arctic climate system.
  • During the year-round operation of research, the distributed regional network of observational sites will be set up on the sea ice surrounding the ship icebreaker RV Polarstern.
  • The results of MOSAiC will contribute to enhance understanding of the regional and global consequences of Arctic climate change and sea-ice loss and improve weather and climate predictions.
  • The project has been designed by an international consortium of leading polar research institutions, under the umbrella of the International Arctic Science Committee (IASC).
93

Where is “Kulhudhuffushi” situated?

  1. ((a))

    Sri Lanka

  2. ((b))

    Maldives

  3. ((c))

    Myanmar

  4. ((d))

    Indonesia

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Maldives

The correct answer is Maldives.

  • Kulhudhuffushi is the capital of Haa Dhaalu Atoll administrative division on Thiladhunmathi Atoll in the north of the Maldives.
  • Kulhudhuffushi is known as the "Heart of the North".
  • The island is famous for its mangroves, after which the island itself is named.
94

Consider the following Statements:

Statement 1: LESA is an abbreviation of ‘Lunar Evacuation System Assembly’

Statement 2: It is managed by ISRO

  1. ((a))

    Only statement 1 is correct.

  2. ((b))

    Only Statement 2 is correct.

  3. ((c))

    Both the statements are correct

  4. ((d))

    None of the statements is correct.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only statement 1 is correct.

The correct answer is Only statement 1 is correct.

  • LESA is an abbreviation of ‘Lunar Evacuation System Assembly’.
  • LESA developed by the European Space Agency (ESA), is a pyramid-like structure used for rescuing an injured astronaut on the lunar surface.
  • Astronauts could not carry their fallen crewmate over their shoulder while wearing a heavy extravehicular activity (EVA) suit.
  • LESA enables an astronaut to lift their crewmate onto a mobile stretcher in less than 10 minutes, before carrying them to the safety of a nearby pressurized lander.
95

“Garuda 6” is a joint military exercise of which of the following two countries?

  1. ((a))

    India and France

  2. ((b))

    India and Israel

  3. ((c))

    India and Russia

  4. ((d))

    India and USA

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

India and France

The correct answer is India and France.

  • “Garuda 6” is a joint military exercise of India and France.
  • Indian Air Force (IAF) had participated in the 6th edition of bilateral exercise Garuda hosted by France.
  • It is aimed at enhancing the interoperability level of French and Indian crews in air defence and ground attack missions.
  • It promoted professional interaction, exchange experiences and operational knowledge besides strengthening bilateral relations with the French Air Force.
96

Recently, at which of the following places was the statue of Maharaja Ranjit Singh installed?

  1. ((a))

    Amritsar

  2. ((b))

    Lahore

  3. ((c))

    Luknow

  4. ((d))

    Toronto

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Lahore

The correct answer is Lahore.

  • The life-size bronze statue of Maharaja Ranjit Singh has unveiled at Lahore fort near Maharani Jinda haveli at Lahore, Pakistan on the occasion of 180th death anniversary of Sikh ruler.
  • The life-size statue shows Maharaja Ranjit Singh, riding his favourite Arabic horse Kahar Bahar.
  • The statue is located in open space outside Mai Jindian Haveli in Lahore Fort, close to the building that houses Ranjit Singh samadhi.
  • The haveli is named after Ranjit Singh’s youngest queen.

​

 

About Maharaja Ranjit Singh

  • He was popularly known as Sher-e-Punjab Singh.
  • He had ruled over Punjab for close to 40 years in the early 19th century from 1801-1839.
  • He had a long association with Lahore, which was the capital of the Sikh Empire under the leadership of Ranjit Singh, and is also his final resting place.
  • He captured Lahore in 1799 and unified all the warring misls(groups) into one empire.
  • He also protected Lahore from invading Afghans and was responsible for the restoration of Mughal architecture in the city.
  • Before he took reigns of Sikh empire, factionalism was prevalent in Lahore with different warring misls ruling different parts of the city.
97

“Dastak Campaign” is associated with which of the following states?

  1. ((a))

    Gujarat

  2. ((b))

    Rajasthan

  3. ((c))

    Haryana

  4. ((d))

    Uttar Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Uttar Pradesh

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.

  • “Dastak Campaign” is associated with Uttar Pradesh.
  • Uttar Pradesh government had launched a massive campaign called ‘Dastak’ to eradicate deadly Acute Encephalitis Syndrome (AES) and Japanese Encephalitis (JE) disease.
  • It was a state-wide campaign against communicative diseases which ran from 1st to 31st July 2019.
  • Under this state-wide campaign, teams had gone door to door in every village of the 75 districts of the state to create awareness about the communicable diseases as well as Acute Encephalitis Syndrome (AES) and Japanese Encephalitis (JE).
98

“Sah-Beej”, brand name of seeds, will be supplied by which of the following states?

  1. ((a))

    Gujarat

  2. ((b))

    Madhya Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Sikkim

  4. ((d))

    Rajasthan

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Madhya Pradesh

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

  • “Sah-Beej”, brand name of seeds, will be supplied by Madhya Pradesh.
  • Madhya Pradesh State Cooperative Seed Federation had decided to produce its own seeds under the brand name ‘Sah-Beej’.
  • The decision had been taken in a Board of Directors’ meeting held under the chairmanship of the Minister for Cooperatives Govind Singh in Bhopal on 9th July 2019.
  • A plan had been made to produce seeds from the next Rabi season.
  • A large number of seed committees present in the state, which linked to the seed federation and these committees will help in the marketing of seeds.
99

Where is the headquarters of ‘FATF’ situated?

  1. ((a))

    New York

  2. ((b))

    Paris

  3. ((c))

    Geneva

  4. ((d))

    Berlin

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Paris

The correct answer is Paris.

  • The headquarters of FATF is situated in Paris.
  • The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an inter-governmental body established in 1989 during the G7 Summit in Paris.
  • The objectives of the FATF are to set standards and promote effective implementation of legal, regulatory, and operational measures for combating money laundering, terrorist financing, and other related threats to the integrity of the international financial system.
  • Its Secretariat is located at the Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) headquarters in Paris.
  • Member Countries: it consists of thirty-seven member jurisdictions.
  • India is one of the members.

Additional Information 

  • FATF has two lists:
  • Grey List: Countries that are considered safe haven for supporting terror funding and money laundering are put in the FATF grey list. This inclusion serves as a warning to the country that it may enter the blacklist.
  • Black List: Countries known as Non-Cooperative Countries or Territories (NCCTs) are put on the blacklist. These countries support terror funding and money laundering activities. The FATF revises the blacklist regularly, adding or deleting entries.
  • The FATF Plenary is the decision-making body of the FATF.
  • It meets three times per year.
100

Consider the following Statements:

Statement 1: ‘Dragon Fly’ mission is announced by European Space Agency.

Statement 2: ‘Dragon Fly’ mission is for Jupitor.

  1. ((a))

    Only statement 1 is correct.

  2. ((b))

    Only Statement 2 is correct.

  3. ((c))

    Both the statements are correct

  4. ((d))

    None of the statements is correct.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

None of the statements is correct.

The correct answer is None of the statements is correct.

  • The National Aeronautics and Space Administration's (NASA) Dragonfly mission, (which will be launched in 2026 and land in 2034) plans to fly a drone copter to Saturn’s largest moon Titan in search of the building blocks of life.
  • Dragonfly mission will study whether the moon of Saturn (Titan) could now be, or once was, home to life.
  • Dragonfly will fly to dozens of promising locations on Titan looking for prebiotic chemical processes common on both Titan and Earth.
  • This will be the first time Nasa will fly a multi-rotor vehicle for science on another planet.
  • It will investigate the Titan’s atmospheric and surface properties and its subsurface ocean and liquid reservoirs and will also search for chemical evidence of past life.

​

Titan:

  • Titan is the largest moon of Saturn and the second-largest moon in our solar system.
  • It has liquid rivers, lakes, and seas on its surface (though these contain hydrocarbons like methane and ethane, not water).
  • Titan’s atmosphere is made mostly of nitrogen, like Earth’s, but is four times denser.
  • Unlike Earth, it has clouds and rain of methane.

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