Official Paper

EMRS (JSA) Junior Secretariat Assistant Official Paper (Held On: 17 December 2023) (Previous Year Paper)

130 questions · 150 minutes · with answers · free

Reasoning Ability (20 questions)

1

Six friends A, L, K, D, B and G are sitting on a bench facing towards North. 'A' is sitting second to the left of 'G' and ‘G' is sitting fourth to the right of 'K'. 'B' is sitting to the immediate right of 'G'. Who is sitting at the extreme left end?

  1. ((a))

    L

  2. ((b))

    K

  3. ((c))

    D

  4. ((d))

    A

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

K

Given:

Six friends A, L, K, D, B and G are sitting on a bench facing towards North.

  1. 'A' is sitting second to the left of 'G' and ‘G' is sitting fourth to the right of 'K'.

  1. 'B' is sitting to the immediate right of 'G'. 

 

So, 'K' is sitting at the extreme left end.

Hence, the correct answer is "K".

2

Study the given diagram carefully and answer the question. The number in different sections indicates the number of persons who speak different languages.

What is the number of persons who speak at least two languages?

  1. ((a))

    22

  2. ((b))

    17

  3. ((c))

    25

  4. ((d))

    14

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

25

The shaded part represents the number of persons who speak at least two languages.

The number of persons who speak at least two languages is = 9 + 8 + 5 + 3 = 25

Hence, the correct answer is "25".

3

Two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are given. Read both the statements carefully and select the correct answer with the help of the codes.

Assertion (A) : Use of electric vehicles is being promoted.

Reason (R) : Electric vehicles are more environment friendly.

  1. ((a))

    (A) is false, but (R) is true.

  2. ((b))

    Both (A) and R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

  3. ((c))

    (A) is true, but (R) is false.

  4. ((d))

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Assertion (A) : Use of electric vehicles is being promoted → True

Reason (R) : Electric vehicles are more environment friendly → True

Electric vehicles (EVs) are promoted because they are environmentally friendly, reducing pollution and contributing less to climate change. This makes both the promotion of EVs and their environmental benefits closely connected and mutually supportive.

 

Hence, Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)..

4

Two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are given. Read both the statements carefully and select the correct answer with the help of the codes.

Assertion (A) : We celebrate Republic Day on 26th January every year.

Reason (R) : India became free from British rule on 26th January, 1947.

  1. ((a))

    (A) is false, but (R) is true.

  2. ((b))

    Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

  3. ((c))

    (A) is true, but (R) is false.

  4. ((d))

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(A) is true, but (R) is false.

Assertion (A): We celebrate Republic Day on 26th January every year. This statement is true; India does celebrate Republic Day on 26th January.

Reason (R): India became free from British rule on 26th January, 1947. This statement is false. India actually gained independence from British rule on 15th August 1947, not on 26th January 1947.

Therefore, (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

5

Six friends Arunesh, Jitendra, Charu, Devansh, Pradeep and Kitu live on different floors of a six-floor building. Charu does not live on the top floor. Only three friends live above Pradeep's floor. Only four friends live below Jitendra's floor. Only Arunesh lives between the floors of Devansh and Pradeep.

Who lives on the top floor?

  1. ((a))

    Kitu

  2. ((b))

    Pradeep

  3. ((c))

    Devansh

  4. ((d))

    Jitendra

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kitu

Six friends Arunesh, Jitendra, Charu, Devansh, Pradeep and Kitu live on different floors of a six-floor building.

  1. Only three friends live above Pradeep's floor.
FloorPerson live
6
5
4
3Pradeep
2
1

 

  1. Only four friends live below Jitendra's floor.

  2. Only Arunesh lives between the floors of Devansh and Pradeep.

FloorPerson live
6
5Jitendra
4
3Pradeep
2Arunesh
1Devansh

 

  1. Charu does not live on the top floor.
FloorPerson live
6Kitu
5Jitendra
4Charu
3Pradeep
2Arunesh
1Devansh

 

Hence, 'Kitu' lives on the top floor.

6

Given below is a question followed by two statements numbered I and II, each containing some information. You have to decide which of the statements is/are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and decide the appropriate answer.

What is the code for beautiful' in a certain code language?

Statements :

I. In the same code language, 'She is beautiful' is written as 'Ta Re Na'.

II. In the same code language, ‘Red beautiful flower' is written as 'Sa Ge Ta'.

  1. ((a))

    Either statement I alone or statement II-alone is sufficient to answer the question.

  2. ((b))

    Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while statement I alone is not sufficient.

  3. ((c))

    Both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while statement II alone is not sufficient.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

I.  In the same code language, 'She is beautiful' is written as 'Ta Re Na'.

We cannot obtain the code for 'beautiful' using this data.

II. In the same code language, 'Pa ne min' means 'this is beautiful'

We cannot obtain the code for 'beautiful' using this data.

I and II together:

So, 'beautiful' is the code for 'Ta'.

Hence, Both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

7

Given below is a question followed by two statements numbered I and II, each containing some information. You have to decide which of the statements is / are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and decide the appropriate answer.

What is the number of students in the class??

Statements :

I. Rank of Chetan is 19th from the top and 12th from the last.

II. 11 students got lower rank than Chetan.

  1. ((a))

    Either statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

  2. ((b))

    Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while statement I alone is not sufficient.

  3. ((c))

    Both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

  4. ((d))

    Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while statement II alone is not sufficient.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while statement II alone is not sufficient.

Statement I: Rank of Chetan is 19th from the top and 12th from the last.

According to the formula:

Total = Position from top  + Position from last – 1

Total = 19 + 12 – 1

Total = 31 – 1 = 30

Therefore, this statement is enough for us to calculate the total number of students in the class.

Statement II: 11 students got lower rank than Chetan.

This means Chetan is 12th from the last end.

This statement is not enough to determine the total number of students in the class.

Hence, “Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while statement II alone is not sufficient” is the correct answer.

8

The given question consists of a statement, followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the assumptions is/are implicit in the statement.

Statement : IPL is popular among the Indian youths.

Assumptions :

I. Indian senior citizens do not like IPL.

II. All Indian youth like to watch IPL matches.

  1. ((a))

    Both I and II are implicit.

  2. ((b))

    Neither I nor II is implicit.

  3. ((c))

    Only II is implicit.

  4. ((d))

    Only I is implicit.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Neither I nor II is implicit.

The statement "IPL is popular among the Indian youths" implies that a significant number of Indian youths like or watch IPL matches.

Let's evaluate the assumptions:

I. Indian senior citizens do not like IPL.

This assumption is not necessarily implicit in the statement. The statement talks about the popularity of IPL among Indian youths but doesn't give any information about the preferences of Indian senior citizens towards IPL. So, assumption I is not implicit.

II. All Indian youth like to watch IPL matches.

This assumption is also not implicit in the statement. The statement mentions that IPL is popular among Indian youths, but it doesn't state that every single Indian youth likes or watches IPL matches. Therefore, assumption II is not implicit.

So, neither assumption I nor II is implicit in the statement.

Hence, The correct answer is "Option (2)".

9

There are six teachers in a school, viz. Bhanu, Raghav, Abdul, Shekhar, Kunal and Devesh. Since there is no games teacher in the school, each of the teachers is allocated one day for taking games class during six days of the week. There is no class on Sunday. Abdul takes the games class on the very next day to that of Raghav. Bhanu takes the games class on Friday and Shekhar takes the games class on Wednesday. Kunal takes the games class one day after Shekhar. On which day does Devesh take the games class?

  1. ((a))

    Saturday

  2. ((b))

    Tuesday

  3. ((c))

    Wednesday

  4. ((d))

    Monday

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Saturday

Given:

  1. There are six teachers in a school, viz. Bhanu, Raghav, Abdul, Shekhar, Kunal and Devesh.

  2. There is no class on Sunday.

  3. Bhanu takes the games class on Friday and Shekhar takes the games class on Wednesday.

  4. Kunal takes the games class one day after Shekhar.

DaysTeacher
Monday
Tuesday
WednesdayShekhar
ThursdayKunal
FridayBhanu
Saturday

 

  1. Abdul takes the games class on the very next day to that of Raghav.
DaysTeacher
MondayAbdul
TuesdayRaghav
WednesdayShekhar
ThursdayKunal
FridayBhanu
SaturdayDevesh

So, takes the games class on 'Saturday'

Hence, the correct answer is "Saturday"

10

In this question, two statements are followed by two conclusions, numbered I and II. Find out which conclusion (s) is / are definitely true, based on the given statements.

Statement : G < L ≤ Q, W = T > Q

Conclusions :

I. G < T

II. W ≥ L

Choose the correct option:

  1. ((a))

    Either conclusion I or conclusion II is true. 

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II is true.

  3. ((c))

    Both conclusions I and II are true.

  4. ((d))

    Only conclusion I is true.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Only conclusion I is true.

The given statement is: G < L ≤ Q, W = T > Q

Combine the statement: G < L ≤ Q < T = W

Conclusions:

I. G < T → True (as G < L ≤ Q < T gives; so G < T True).

II. W ≥ L → False (as L ≤ Q < T = W gives; as W > L; so W ≥ L False).

Hence, the correct answer is “Only conclusion I is true”.

11

Six friends Vinay, Kapil, Suman, Mukul, Naina and David are sitting around a circle facing away from the centre. Mukul is sitting third to the left of Vinay and Suman is sitting to the immediate left of Vinay. Only Naina is sitting between David and Vinay. Who is sitting second to the right of David?

  1. ((a))

    Vinay

  2. ((b))

    Kapil

  3. ((c))

    Mukul

  4. ((d))

    Suman

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Kapil

Given:

Six friends Vinay, Kapil, Suman, Mukul, Naina and David are sitting around a circle facing away from the centre.

  1. Mukul is sitting third to the left of Vinay and Suman is sitting to the immediate left of Vinay.

  2. Only Naina is sitting between David and Vinay. 

<br>

 

So, 'Kapil' is sitting second to the right of David.

Hence, the correct answer is "Kapil".

12

In this question, two statements are followed by two conclusions, numbered I and II. Find out which conclusion (s) is / are definitely true, based on the given statements.

Statement : D > B ≥ W, Y > W > M

Conclusions :

I. B ≥ M

II. M < D

  1. ((a))

    Either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II is true.

  3. ((c))

    Both conclusions I and II are true.

  4. ((d))

    Only conclusion I is true.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Only conclusion II is true.

The given statement is: D > B ≥ W, Y > W > M

Combine the statement: D > B ≥ W, Y > W > M

Conclusions:

I. B ≥ M → False (as D > B ≥ W, Y > W > M gives; as B ≥ W > M; so B > M).

II. M < D → True (as D > B ≥ W, Y > W > M gives; as D > B ≥ W > M; so M < D).

Hence, the correct answer is “Only conclusion II is true”.

13

Study the given diagram carefully and answer the question. The numbers in different sections indicate the number of students who have scored more than 70% in three subjects, Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics.

What is the number of students who have scored more than 70% in both Physics and Chemistry, but not in Mathematics?

  1. ((a))

    6

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    12

  4. ((d))

    2

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

4

The shaded part represents the number of students who have scored more than 70% in both Physics and Chemistry, but not in Mathematics

The number of students who have scored more than 70% in both Physics and Chemistry, but not in Mathematics = 4

Hence, ‘4’ is the correct answer.

14

'A + B' means 'A is the wife of B'.

'A – B' means ‘A is the father of B'.

'A × B' means 'A is the brother of B'.

'A ÷ B' means 'A is the daughter of B'.

Based on the above, if "T÷ V × Q ÷ S + M  -F", then how is 'M' related to "T"?

  1. ((a))

    Father's brother

  2. ((b))

    Mother's mother

  3. ((c))

    Mother's brother

  4. ((d))

    Father's father

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Father's father

Family Chart:

Decoding the Symbols:

Symbol+-×÷
Meaningwifefatherbrotherdaughter

 

Given: T ÷ V × Q ÷ S + M  - F

T is the daughter of V, V is the brother of Q, Q is the  daughter of S, S is the wife of M and M is the father of F

So, M is the 'Father's father' of T

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

15

Arpit started from his office and travelled 2 km towards west, then he turned right and travelled 2 km and then turned left and travelled 3 km. From there he took a bus which travelled straight towards north and he travelled 10 km by this Bus and reached his home. What is the shortest distance between his home and office?

  1. ((a))

    13 km

  2. ((b))

    12 km

  3. ((c))

    14 km

  4. ((d))

    10 km

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

13 km

According to the given information:

  1. Arpit started from his office and travelled 2 km towards west,
  2. then turned right and travelled 2 km and then turned left and travelled 3 km.
  3. From there he took a bus which travelled straight towards North and travelled 10 km by this bus and reached his home.

The following diagram can be deduced,

F4 Madhuri State Govt. 26.08.2022 D22

The shortest distance between his home and office:

F4 Madhuri State Govt. 26.08.2022 D23

  • The least distance will be the hypotenuse of triangles.
  • Shortest distance (?2) = 122 + 52 =144 + 25 = 169
  • So the total distance becomes = 13 km.

​Hence, the correct answer is "13 km".

16

Pointing to Sushmita, a man said, 'She is the only daughter of my daughter's paternal grandmother.' How is that man related to Sushmita ?

  1. ((a))

    Father's brother 

  2. ((b))

    Brother

  3. ((c))

    Mother's brother

  4. ((d))

    Father

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Brother

From the given information,

We can draw following Tree from information given above:

So, that man is 'Brother' of Sushmita

Hence, the correct answer is 'Brother'.

17

One morning Raghav met Bhaskar while walking in the park. Bhaskar noted that Raghav's shadow was exactly to the left of Raghav. If they were facing each other, which direction was Raghav facing? 

  1. ((a))

    North

  2. ((b))

    West

  3. ((c))

    South

  4. ((d))

    East

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

North

One morning Raghav met Bhaskar while walking in the park. Bhaskar noted that Raghav's shadow was exactly to the left of Raghav. 

So, 'North' direction was Raghav is facing.

Hence, 'North' is the correct answer.

18

What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

13, 27, 83, 335, ?

  1. ((a))

    1128

  2. ((b))

    672

  3. ((c))

    1679

  4. ((d))

    548

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1679

The logic follows here:

Hence, The correct answer is "1679".

19

Refer to the following letter sequence and answer the question given below:

(Left) P, T, S, A, Q, R, G, P, Q, N, D, F, L, H, R, F, A, N (Right)

If every third letter in the given sequence is replaced by its next letter in the English alphabet, which letter will come second to the right of the fifteenth letter from the right end?

  1. ((a))

    Q

  2. ((b))

    S

  3. ((c))

    T

  4. ((d))

    R

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

S

Given:

(Left) P, T, S, A, Q, R, G, P, Q, N, D, F, L, H, R, F, A, N (Right)

If every third letter in the given sequence is replaced by its next letter in the English alphabet

(Left) P, T, T, A, Q, S, G, P, R, N, D, G, L, H, S, F, A, O (Right)

The fifteenth letter from the right end: A

The letter will come second to the right of the fifteenth letter from the right end: S

Hence, the answer is "S".

20

In this question, three statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements :

• All cars are buses.

• All buses are toys.

• All toys are gifts.

Conclusions :

I. All cars are gifts.

II. Some toys are cars.

  1. ((a))

    Both conclusions I and II follow.

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows. 

  3. ((c))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

  4. ((d))

    Only conclusion I follows.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both conclusions I and II follow.

The least possible diagram for the given statements as follows:

Conclusions:

I. All cars are gifts → Follows (Because all cars are buses and all buses are gifts so, all cars are gifts)

II. Some toys are cars → Follows (Because all cars are buses and all buses are toys so, some toys are also cars)

Hence, the correct answer is "Both conclusions I and II follow".

Quantitative Aptitude (20 questions)

21

A 350 m long train running at a speed of 72 km/h crosses a bridge in 114\frac{1}{4} minutes. What is the length of the bridge (in m)?

  1. ((a))

    1150

  2. ((b))

    1050

  3. ((c))

    1180

  4. ((d))

    980

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1150

Given:

Length of the train = 350 m

Speed of the train = 72 km/h

Time to cross the bridge = 114\frac{1}{4} = 5/4 minutes

Formula used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Convert speed from km/h to m/s by multiplying with 5/18

Calculation:

Speed in m/s = 72 × 5/18 = 20 m/Sec.

Total time in seconds = 5/4 × 60 = 75 Sec.

Distance covered in 75 s = Speed × Time

⇒ Distance = 20 m/s × 75 Sec. = 1500 m

Distance covered = Length of train + Length of bridge

⇒ 1500 m = 350 m + Length of bridge

⇒ Length of bridge = 1500 m - 350 m

⇒ Length of bridge = 1150 m

∴  The length of the bridge is 1150 m.

22

Two types of pulses of rates ₹ 116 per kg and ₹ 128 per kg are mixed in the ratio of 2 ∶ 1 respectively. What will be the price per kg (in) of the mixture so formed?

  1. ((a))

    122

  2. ((b))

    120

  3. ((c))

    126

  4. ((d))

    115

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

120

Given:

Price of 1st type of pulses = Rs.116/kg

Price of 2nd type of pulses = Rs. 128/kg

Ratio of mixing = 2:1

Formula used:

Price per kg of mixture = (Total cost of pulses)/(Total weight of pulses)

Calculation:

Let the quantities of pulses be 2x kg and 1x kg respectively.

Total cost of pulses = (2x × 116) + (1x × 128)

⇒ (232x + 128x) = 360x

Total weight of pulses = 2x + 1x = 3x kg

Price per kg of mixture = Total cost/Total weight

⇒ 360x/3x = Rs. 120/kg

∴ The price per kg of the mixture is Rs. 120.

23

The average of six consecutive odd numbers is 66. What is the average of the lowest and highest odd numbers out of these?

  1. ((a))

    64

  2. ((b))

    63

  3. ((c))

    66

  4. ((d))

    61

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

66

Given:

The average of six consecutive odd numbers is 66.

Formula used:

Average = Sum of all terms / Number of terms

Calculation:

Let the six consecutive odd numbers be x, x + 2, x + 4, x + 6, x + 8, x + 10

⇒ Average = (x + x + 2 + x + 4 + x + 6 + x + 8 + x + 10)/6 = 66

⇒ (6x + 30)/6 = 66

⇒ 6x + 30 = 66 × 6 = 396

⇒ 6x = 396 - 30 = 366

⇒ x = 366/6 = 61

The lowest number = x = 61

And the highest number = (x+10) = 61 + 10 = 71

Average = (Lowest + Highest)/2

⇒ (61 + 71)/2 = 132/2 = 66

∴ The average of the lowest and highest odd numbers out of these is 66.

24

Rajiv travels at a speed of 48 km/h for 10 minutes and at a speed of 60 km/h for the next 15 minutes. What was his average speed (in km/h) during the whole journey?

  1. ((a))

    5515\frac{1}{5}

  2. ((b))

    5412\frac{1}{2}

  3. ((c))

    56

  4. ((d))

    54

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5515\frac{1}{5}

Shortcut Trick

Average speed is the weighted average of given speeds using time as weights.

Ratio of time intervals = 10 minutes : 15 minutes = 2 : 3

Average Speed = (S1 × T1 + S2 × T2) ÷ (T1 + T2)

Average Speed = (48 × 2 + 60 × 3) ÷ (2 + 3)

Average Speed = (96 + 180) ÷ 5 = 276 ÷ 5 = 55 1/5 km/h

∴ The correct answer is 55 1/5 km/h.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed S1 = 48 km/h, Time T1 = 10 minutes = 10/60 = 1/6 hours

Speed S2 = 60 km/h, Time T2 = 15 minutes = 15/60 = 1/4 hours

Formula Used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time

8 km 48 km/h, 10 min

15 km 60 km/h, 15 min

Total Distance = 23 km | Total Time = 25 min Average Speed = 55 1/5 km/h

Calculations:

⇒ D1 = 48 × (1/6) = 8 km

⇒ D2 = 60 × (1/4) = 15 km

⇒ Total Distance = 8 + 15 = 23 km

⇒ Total Time = 10 + 15 = 25 minutes = 25/60 = 5/12 hours

⇒ Average Speed = 23 ÷ (5/12) = (23 × 12) ÷ 5

⇒ Average Speed = 276 ÷ 5 = 55 1/5 km/h

∴ The correct answer is 55 1/5 km/h.

Additional Information

Average Speed (Different Distances & Times)

Average Speed is always defined as Total Distance ÷ Total Time. It is not the simple average of individual speeds unless the time intervals are strictly equal.

Average Speed (Equal Distances)

If a person covers two equal halves of a journey at speeds x and y, the Average Speed = 2xy ÷ (x + y).

Average Speed (Equal Time Intervals)

If a person travels at speeds x and y for equal amounts of time, the Average Speed simplifies to (x + y) ÷ 2.

25

Rakesh obtained 25% more marks than Ambuj and Suresh obtained 40% less marks than Rakesh. Marks obtained by Suresh are what percent less than marks obtained by Ambuj ?

  1. ((a))

    28

  2. ((b))

    25

  3. ((c))

    30

  4. ((d))

    20

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

25

Given:

Rakesh obtained 25% more marks than Ambuj.

Suresh obtained 40% less marks than Rakesh.

Formula used:

If A gets x% more than B, then marks of A = (1 + x/100) × marks of B.

If C gets y% less than A, then marks of C = (1 - y/100) × marks of A.

Percent less of C compared to B = [(B - C) / B] × 100%.

Calculation:

Let the marks obtained by Ambuj be 100 units.

Marks obtained by Rakesh = 100 × (1 + 25/100)

⇒ 100 × 1.25 = 125 units

Marks obtained by Suresh = 125 × (1 - 40/100)

⇒ 125 × 0.6 = 75 units

Marks of Suresh are what percent less than Ambuj:

Percent less = [(100 - 75) / 100] × 100%

⇒ (25/100) × 100% = 25%

∴ Suresh's marks are 25% less than Ambuj's marks.

26

The largest three - digit number which gives the same remainder 3 when divided by 4, 9, 6 is:

  1. ((a))

    979

  2. ((b))

    975

  3. ((c))

    982

  4. ((d))

    972

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

975

Given:

The largest three-digit number providing a remainder of 3 when divided by 4, 9, and 6.

Formula used:

To solve this, another approach is to find a number that satisfies the condition "remainder of 3" and is divisible by the Least Common Multiple (LCM) of 4, 9, and 6, plus 3.

Calculation:

Therefore, LCM of (4, 9, and 6) = 36

A number that gives a remainder of 3 when divided by any of these numbers can be represented as 36n + 3, where n is an integer.

For the largest three-digit number satisfying these conditions, we start with the largest three-digit number, 999, and subtract the remainder 3, resulting in 996.

Now, we need to find the largest number less than or equal to 996 that is also a multiple of 36.

996 ÷ 36 = 27.666...

This means 36 × 27 gives us the largest multiple of 36 under 996.

⇒ 36 × 27 = 972

Adding the remainder of 3, we get 972 + 3 = 975.

∴ The largest three-digit number satisfying the given conditions is 975.

27

Which of the following fraction lies between 37\frac{3}{7} and 89\frac{8}{9} ?

  1. ((a))

    49\frac{4}{9}

  2. ((b))

    25\frac{2}{5}

  3. ((c))

    513\frac{5}{13}

  4. ((d))

    13\frac{1}{3}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

49\frac{4}{9}

Given:

Fractions for comparison: 3/7, 8/9

Concept used:

To compare fractions, convert them to a common denominator or approximate their decimal values.

Calculation:

Approximating decimal values:

3/7 ≈ 0.4286

8/9 ≈ 0.8889

Check options:

  1. 4/9 ≈ 0.4444 

Lies between 0.4286 and 0.8889

  1. 2/5 = 0.4

Does not lie between 0.4286 and 0.8889

  1. 5/13 ≈ 0.3846

Does not lie between 0.4286 and 0.8889

  1. 1/3 ≈ 0.3333

Does not lie between 0.4286 and 0.8889

∴ The fraction that lies between 3/7 and 8/9 is 4/9.

28

Seema sold a laptop at a profit of 15%. If she had bought it at 10% less and sold it for ₹ 2,100 less, she would have gained 20%. What was the cost price (in ₹) of the laptop?

  1. ((a))

    30,000

  2. ((b))

    29,000

  3. ((c))

    31,500

  4. ((d))

    27,500

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30,000

Given: 

Profit 1 = 15% and Profit 2 = 20%

Decrease in Selling Price (SP) = Rs. 2,100

Decrease in Cost Price (CP) = 10%

Formula used:

Profit % = [(SP - CP)/CP] × 100

Calculation:

New SP = Original SP -  Rs. 2,100

New CP = Original CP × 0.9

Let the original CP be Rs. x.

Original SP = CP + 15% of CP

⇒ SP = x + 0.15x = 1.15x

For the second scenario:

New CP = 0.9x

Profit in second scenario = 20%

New SP = New CP + 20% of New CP

⇒ New SP = 0.9x + 0.2 × 0.9x = 1.08x

It's given that the new SP is Rs. 2,100 less than the original SP:

Original SP - New SP = Rs. 2,100

⇒ 1.15x - 1.08x = 2,100

⇒ 0.07x = 2,100

⇒ x = 2,100 / 0.07 = Rs. 30,000

∴The cost price (CP) of the laptop was Rs. 30,000.

Shortcut Trick

 

29

Study the given table to answer the question that follows.

The table shows the number of students who appeared in the 12th Board Examination from four schools A, B, C and D in different years.

Year → School ↓20182019202020212022
A8178828380
B8384807875
C7085816579
D7869868984
<br>

From which school is the total number of students that appeared in 12th Board Examination from 2019 to 2021 the highest?

  1. ((a))

    C

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    D

  4. ((d))

    A

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

D

Calculation:

Year → School ↓201920202021Total Student
A788283243
B848078242
C858165231
D698689244

 

∴ School D has the highest total number of students appearing for 12th board exam from 2019 to 2021.

30

An amount becomes ₹ 1,451.25 in one year on simple rate of interest. If the rate of interest was 2% higher, the amount would have been ₹ 27 more. What is the amount invested?

  1. ((a))

    ₹ 1,350

  2. ((b))

    ₹ 1,275

  3. ((c))

    ₹ 1,380

  4. ((d))

    ₹ 1,200

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

₹ 1,350

Given:

Final amount (A1) = Rs. 1,451.25 for 1 year at initial interest rate

Final amount (A2) = Rs. 1,451.25 + Rs. 27 = Rs. 1,478.25 for 1 year at an interest rate 2% higher

Interest rate increase = 2% and Time, T = 1 year

Formula used:

Amount (A) formula at simple interest, A = P + (P × R × T)/100

Calculation:

For the initial amount A1 = P + (P × R × T)/100

And, for the increased interest amount A2 = P + {P × (R + 2) × T}/ 100

Now,  A2 - A1 = {P × 2 × T}/100 = Rs. 27

⇒ {P × 2 × 1}/100 = 27       {T = 1 year}

⇒ P × 2 = 2700

⇒ P = 2700/2 = Rs. 1350

∴ The amount invested (P) is Rs. 1,350.

31

A sum of ₹ 2,400 amounts to ₹ 2,904 in 2 years at a certain rate of compound interest compounder yearly. What will be the simple interest (in ₹) on the same sum for the same time and the same rat of interest?

  1. ((a))

    460

  2. ((b))

    436

  3. ((c))

    480

  4. ((d))

    389

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

480

Given:

Principal (P) = Rs. 2,400

Amount after 2 years = Rs. 2,904

Time (T) = 2 years

Formula Used:

Amount = P(1 + R/100)T

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T)/100

Calculation:

Amount = P(1 + R/100)T

⇒ 2,904 = 2,400(1 + R/100)2

⇒ (1 + R/100)2 = 2,904/2,400

⇒ (1 + R/100)2 = 1.21

⇒ 1 + R/100 = √1.21 = 1.1

⇒ R/100 = 0.1

⇒ R = 0.1 × 100 = 10%

Now, SI = (P × R × T)/100

⇒ SI = (2,400 × 10 × 2) / 100 = 480

∴ The simple interest on the same sum for the same time and the same rate of interest is ₹480.

32

The average age of husband, wife and their child 4 years ago was 24 years and that of the husband and the child 5 years ago was 19 years. The present age of the wife is :

  1. ((a))

    36 years

  2. ((b))

    34 years

  3. ((c))

    37 years

  4. ((d))

    30 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

36 years

Given:

Average age of husband, wife, and child 4 years ago = 24 years

Average age of husband and child 5 years ago = 19 years

Formula used:

Average age = (Sum of ages of all individuals)/(Number of individuals)

Sum of current ages = (Average age × Number of individuals) + (Number of individuals × Number of years ago)

Calculation:

According to the question, For husband, wife, and child 4 years ago,

⇒ (H - 4) + (W - 4) + (C - 4) = 24 × 3

⇒ H + W + C - 12 = 72

⇒ H + W + C = 84 →(1)

Again, For husband and child 5 years ago,

⇒ (H - 5) + (C - 5) = 19 × 2

⇒ H + C - 10 = 38

⇒ H + C = 48 →(2)

From Eqn (1) and (2), we have:

⇒ H + W + C = 84

⇒ W = 84 - (H + C)

⇒ W = 84 - 48 = 36

∴ The present age of the wife is 36 years.

33

In an election between two candidates Abhay and Bharti, Abhay got 55% of the total valid votes, and 20% of the total votes were invalid. If the total number of votes was 10,000, the number of valid votes that Abhay got was:

  1. ((a))

    4800

  2. ((b))

    4400

  3. ((c))

    5000

  4. ((d))

    4200

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

4400

Shortcut Trick

Valid Votes = 10000 × (100% − 20%) = 8000

Abhay's Votes = 55% of Valid Votes

Abhay's Votes = 8000 × 55 ÷ 100 = 4400

∴ The correct answer is 4400 votes.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total number of votes = 10,000

Invalid votes = 20%

Abhay gets 55% of the total valid votes.

Formula Used:

Valid Votes = Total Votes × (100 − Invalid %) ÷ 100

Votes Obtained = Total Valid Votes × % of Votes ÷ 100

Total = 10,000

Invalid (20%) = 2,000

Valid (80%) = 8,000

Abhay (55%) = 4,400

Bharti (45%) = 3,600

Calculation:

⇒ Percentage of valid votes = 100% − 20% = 80%

⇒ Total number of valid votes = 80% of 10,000

⇒ Valid votes = (80 ÷ 100) × 10,000 = 8,000

⇒ Abhay's share in valid votes = 55%

⇒ Votes secured by Abhay = 55% of 8,000

⇒ Votes secured by Abhay = (55 ÷ 100) × 8,000 = 4,400

∴ The correct answer is 4400 votes.

Additional Information

Invalid Votes

Votes that are improperly cast or blank and thus excluded from the total valid count. Only valid votes decide the election outcome.

Winning Margin

The winning margin is the difference between the winner's and the loser's votes. Margin = (Winner % − Loser %) × Valid Votes.

Majority Percentage

If a candidate gets 55% of the votes, the other candidate gets (100 − 55) = 45% of the votes. The majority percentage in such an election is (55 − 45) = 10%.

34

The average age of 12 boys in a group is 8 years. If 3 more boys join the group, the average is increased by 1 year. What is the average age (in years) of the three new boys in the group?

  1. ((a))

    12

  2. ((b))

    10

  3. ((c))

    13

  4. ((d))

    9

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

13

Given:

Average age of 12 boys = 8 years

Total boys after 3 new boys join = 12 + 3 = 15

New average age after 3 boys join = 8 + 1 = 9 years

Formula used:

Average = (Sum of observations)/(Number of observations)

Calculation:

Total age of 12 boys initially = 12 boys × 8 years = 96 years

Total age of 15 boys after 3 new join = 15 boys × 9 years = 135 years

The total age of the 3 new boys = Total age after they join - Total age before they join

⇒ 135 - 96 = 39 years

Average age of the 3 new boys = Total age of 3 new boys/Number of new boys

⇒ 39/3 = 13 years

∴ The average age of the three new boys is 13 years.

35

Which one of the following numbers is divisible by 11?

  1. ((a))

    1987645

  2. ((b))

    4873524

  3. ((c))

    2875944

  4. ((d))

    3587645

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1987645

Given:

The numbers given are 1) 1987645, 2) 4873524, 3) 2875944, 4) 3587645.

Formula used:

A number is divisible by 11 if the difference between the sum of its digits in odd places and the sum of its digits in even places is either 0 or a multiple of 11.

Calculation:

Checking Option (1), 1987645:

Sum of digits in odd places = 1 + 8 + 6 + 5 = 20

Sum of digits in even places = 9 + 7 + 4 = 20

Difference = 20 - 20 = 0

Since the difference is 0, 1987645 is divisible by 11

∴ Option (1) is the correct answer.

36

Total expenditure of a family on different heads is shown in the pie - chart. If total expenditure of the family is ₹ 72,000, then what is the total expenditure (in ₹) on Education and Entertainment ? 

  1. ((a))

    30,000

  2. ((b))

    25,000

  3. ((c))

    32,000

  4. ((d))

    22,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30,000

Calculation:

Expenditure on Education = 110° 

Expenditure on Entertainment = 40° 

Total expenditure on Education and Entertainment = 72000 × (110+40)360\dfrac{(110 +40)}{360}

⇒ 72000 × 150360\dfrac{150}{360} = 30000

∴ The total expenditure (in ₹) on Education and Entertainment is Rs. 30000.

37

Saurabh can complete a piece of work in 20 days. He worked for 5 days and left. Anirudh completed the remaining work in 12 days. If both of them had done the work together, the work would have been completed in how many days?

  1. ((a))

    9

  2. ((b))

    889\frac{8}{9}

  3. ((c))

    989\frac{8}{9}

  4. ((d))

    8

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

889\frac{8}{9}

Given:

Saurabh can complete work in 20 days. He worked for 5 days and left.

Anirudh completed the remaining work in 12 days.

Calculation:

Saurabh works for 5 days, so work completed by him = (5/20) × 100% = 25%

So, remaining work = 100 - 25 = 75%

75% of the work completed by Anirudh in = 12 days 

So, 100% of the work completed by Anirudh = 12 × (100/75) = 16 days

Anirudh can complete the total work alone in = 16 days.

So, total work = LCM(20, 16) = 80 units

Efficiency of Saurabh = 80/20 = 4 units

Efficiency of Anirudh = 80/16 = 5 units

If they work together then they can complete the total work = 80/(4 + 5) = 88989

 days

∴ If Saurabh and Anirudh worked together, they would have completed the work in 889\frac{8}{9} days.

38

The value of 324729+13169676+12\frac{\sqrt{324}}{\sqrt{729}}+\frac{1}{3}-\frac{\sqrt{169}}{\sqrt{676}}+\frac{1}{2} is:

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    12\frac{1}{2}

  3. ((c))

    2

  4. ((d))

    0

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1

Calculation:

324729+13169676+12\frac{\sqrt{324}}{\sqrt{729}}+\frac{1}{3}-\frac{\sqrt{169}}{\sqrt{676}}+\frac{1}{2}

⇒ 1827+131326+12\dfrac{18}{27}+\dfrac{1}{3}-\dfrac{13}{26}+\dfrac{1}{2}

⇒ 23+1312+12\dfrac{2}{3}+\dfrac{1}{3}-\dfrac{1}{2}+\dfrac{1}{2}

⇒ 1 - 0 = 1

∴ The value of 324729+13169676+12\frac{\sqrt{324}}{\sqrt{729}}+\frac{1}{3}-\frac{\sqrt{169}}{\sqrt{676}}+\frac{1}{2}  is 1.

39

The value of 710÷125 of 34114 of 23÷416+115\frac{7}{10} \div 1 \frac{2}{5} \text { of } \frac{3}{4}-1 \frac{1}{4} \text { of } \frac{2}{3} \div 4 \frac{1}{6}+\frac{1}{15} is:

  1. ((a))

    37\frac{3}{7}

  2. ((b))

    15\frac{1}{5}

  3. ((c))

    815\frac{8}{15}

  4. ((d))

    1

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

815\frac{8}{15}

Given:

The expression is 710÷125 of 34114 of 23÷416+115\dfrac{7}{10} ÷ 1 \dfrac{2}{5} \text { of } \dfrac{3}{4}-1 \dfrac{1}{4} \text { of } \dfrac{2}{3} ÷ 4 \dfrac{1}{6}+\dfrac{1}{15}

Formula used:

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculation:

710÷125 of 34114 of 23÷416+115\dfrac{7}{10} ÷ 1 \dfrac{2}{5} \text { of } \dfrac{3}{4}-1 \dfrac{1}{4} \text { of } \dfrac{2}{3} ÷ 4 \dfrac{1}{6}+\dfrac{1}{15}

⇒ 710\dfrac{7}{10} ÷ 75\dfrac{7}{5} × 34\dfrac{3}{4} - 54\dfrac{5}{4} × 23\dfrac{2}{3} ÷ 256\dfrac{25}{6} + 115\dfrac{1}{15}

⇒ 710\dfrac{7}{10} ÷ 2120\dfrac{21}{20} - 56\dfrac{5}{6} ÷ 256\dfrac{25}{6} + 115\dfrac{1}{15}

⇒ 710\dfrac{7}{10} × 2021\dfrac{20}{21} - 56\dfrac{5}{6}​ × 625\dfrac{6}{25} + 115\dfrac{1}{15}

Code
      ⇒ \\(\dfrac{2}{3}\\) - \\(\dfrac{1}{5}\\)​ + \\(\dfrac{1}{15}\\) = \\(\dfrac{(10 - 3 + 1)}{15}\\) = \\(\dfrac{8}{15}\\)

∴ 710÷125 of 34114 of 23÷416+115\dfrac{7}{10} ÷ 1 \dfrac{2}{5} \text { of } \dfrac{3}{4}-1 \dfrac{1}{4} \text { of } \dfrac{2}{3} ÷ 4 \dfrac{1}{6}+\dfrac{1}{15} is 815\dfrac{8}{15}.

40

​₹ 6,900 is divided between L, M and N in the ratio of 6 ∶ 8 ∶ 9. If 'L' and 'M' each gave ​₹ 300 to "N", then the new ratio of shares of L, M and N is: 

  1. ((a))

    5 ∶ 7 ∶ 11

  2. ((b))

    3 ∶ 7 ∶ 9

  3. ((c))

    5 ∶ 7 ∶ 9

  4. ((d))

    3 ∶ 5 ∶ 9

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5 ∶ 7 ∶ 11

Given:

Total amount = ₹6,900

Original ratio of L, M, and N = 6:8:9

Formula used:

Total parts in the ratio = Sum of the ratio parts

Individual shares = (Individual's ratio part/Total parts) × Total amount

Calculation:

Total parts = 6 + 8 + 9 = 23 parts

L's share = 6/23 × 6,900 = Rs. 1,800

M's share = 8/23 × 6,900 = Rs. 2,400

N's share = 9/23 × 6,900 = Rs. 2,700

After L and M each gave Rs. 300 to N:

L's new share = 1,800 - 300 = Rs. 1,500

M's new share = 2,400 - 300 = Rs. 2,100

N's new share = 2,700 + 300 + 300 = Rs. 3,300

New ratio of L : M : N = 1,500 : 2,100 : 3,300 = 5 : 7 : 11

∴ The new ratio of shares of L, M and N is 5 : 7 : 11.

General Awareness (30 questions)

41

Which of the following States is not covered under Strengthening Teaching - Learning and Results for States (STARS) Project ?

  1. ((a))

    Madhya Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Rajasthan

  3. ((c))

    Karnataka

  4. ((d))

    Himachal Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Karnataka

Key Points

  • Karnataka is not covered under the Strengthening Teaching - Learning and Results for States (STARS) project.
  • The STARS project is an initiative by the World Bank and the Government of India to improve the quality of education in select states of India.
  • It aims to enhance the overall learning outcomes and governance of the school education system in participating states.
  • The project focuses on areas such as teacher development, assessment systems, and strengthening early childhood education and vocational education.

Additional Information

  • The STARS project is part of the broader effort by India to improve its educational system and align it with the goals of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.
  • The project is designed to support the participating states in developing, implementing, monitoring, and evaluating strategies for improving school education.
  • It focuses on building capacities at the state, district, and school levels to provide quality education and ensure equitable learning outcomes for all students.
  • The project includes a significant component on the use of technology in education, aiming to leverage technology to improve teaching practices and student learning.
42

In which of the following States did India host the 'Hero Asian Champions Trophy' hockey tournament in August 2023 ?

  1. ((a))

    Punjab

  2. ((b))

    Odisha

  3. ((c))

    Tamil Nadu

  4. ((d))

    Manipur

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Tamil Nadu

Key Points

  • The Hero Asian Champions Trophy hockey tournament was hosted in Chennai, the capital city of the southern Indian state of Tamil Nadu, in August 2023.
  • This tournament is a significant event in the Asian hockey calendar, featuring top teams from across the continent.
  • Hosting such a prestigious event showcases India's commitment to promoting hockey at the national and international levels.

Additional Information

EventDescription
Asian Champions TrophyAn annual men's and women's field hockey tournament among the top teams in Asia. It was introduced by the Asian Hockey Federation to provide a competitive platform for the continent's hockey-playing nations.
Founding YearThe tournament was first conducted in 2011 for men and 2010 for women, aiming to enhance the quality of hockey in Asia.
ObjectiveTo improve competitive exposure for Asian teams, helping them perform better on the global stage such as the Olympics and World Cup.
SignificanceIt serves as a crucial event for Asian teams to gain points for world rankings and prepare for international competitions.
43

Which of the following grades does the Secondary stage cover as per the Curricular and Pedagogical Structure mentioned in the National Education Policy, 2020 ?

  1. ((a))

    Grades 9 to 10

  2. ((b))

    Grades 6 to 12

  3. ((c))

    Grades 9 to 12

  4. ((d))

    Grades 6 to 10

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Grades 9 to 12

Key Points

  • The Secondary stage as per the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 covers grades 9 to 12.
  • This stage is designed to deepen understanding, increase knowledge, and enable students to specialize in subjects of their interest.
  • The NEP 2020 emphasizes flexibility and student choice, ensuring a broad-based, multi-disciplinary, holistic education with flexible curricula.
  • It aims to prepare students for higher education and employment by focusing on critical thinking and experiential learning.

Additional Information

AspectDetails
National Education Policy (NEP) 2020Introduced by the Indian government to overhaul the Indian educational system.
Implementation YearThe policy was approved by the Union Cabinet in 2020.
ObjectiveTo make the Indian education system more holistic, flexible, multidisciplinary, aligned to the needs of the 21st century and aiming for a global standard of education.
Structural ReformIntroduces a new curricular structure known as the 5+3+3+4 system, covering the ages from 3 to 18 years.
Key Focus AreasEmphasizes on ensuring universal access to education, promoting multilingualism, and preparing students with the essential skills for employment and life.
44

Which of the following organizations is entrusted with the task of developing the Assessment Framework of National Achievement Survey (NAS) 2021 ?

  1. ((a))

    National Institute of Open Schooling (NIOS)

  2. ((b))

    National Institute of Educational Planning and Administration (NIEPA)

  3. ((c))

    Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)

  4. ((d))

    National Council for Educational Research and Training (NCERT)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

National Council for Educational Research and Training (NCERT)

Key Points

  • The National Council for Educational Research and Training (NCERT) is responsible for developing the Assessment Framework of National Achievement Survey (NAS) 2021.
  • The NAS is a nationwide, representative assessment of students' learning levels, intended to assess the health of the education system across states and UTs.
  • NCERT's role includes designing test items, sampling, data collection, and analysis to provide insights into student learning outcomes.
  • The survey aims to understand the effectiveness of school education across different regions and demographic groups.

Additional Information

OptionDetails
1) National Institute of Open Schooling (NIOS)Provides opportunities for continuing education to those who missed completing school education.
2) National Institute of Educational Planning and Administration (NIEPA)Focuses on capacity building and research in planning and management of education systems.
3) Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)An autonomous body under the Ministry of Education, India, that manages and administers public and private school education up to the secondary level.
4) National Council for Educational Research and Training (NCERT)Responsible for developing the curriculum and educational resources for schools in India. Entrusted with the NAS 2021 Assessment Framework.
45

Which of the following Indian cities hosted the 2023 Squash World Cup in June 2023 ? 

  1. ((a))

    Chennai

  2. ((b))

    Mumbai

  3. ((c))

    Ahmedabad

  4. ((d))

    Kolkata

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Chennai

Key Points

  • The 2023 Squash World Cup was hosted by Chennai, India in June 2023.
  • Chennai has a rich history in promoting squash and has previously hosted several national and international squash events.
  • The event brought together top squash players from around the world, showcasing their talent and competing for the prestigious title.
  • This event was significant for India, highlighting its capabilities in hosting world-class sporting events and promoting squash in the country.

Additional Information

  • Squash is a racquet sport played by two (singles) or four players (doubles squash) in a four-walled court with a small, hollow rubber ball.
  • The sport is governed internationally by the World Squash Federation (WSF).
  • India has produced several top squash players who have competed at the highest levels internationally.
  • Squash, while popular in many countries, has been lobbying for inclusion in the Olympic Games, with efforts continuing to have it included in future Olympics.
46

Which among the following States has seen a steady increase every year from 2017 - 18 to 2020 - 21 in the overall scores of Performance Grading Index (PGI)?

  1. ((a))

    Chhattisgarh

  2. ((b))

    Tamil Nadu

  3. ((c))

    Telangana

  4. ((d))

    Maharashtra

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Chhattisgarh

Key Points

  • Chhattisgarh has seen a steady increase in its overall scores of the Performance Grading Index (PGI) every year from 2017-18 to 2020-21.
  • The PGI aims to drive improvements in the education sector by promoting healthy competition among the States and UTs.
  • Improvement in PGI scores indicates a significant advancement in key domains such as learning outcomes, access, infrastructure, equity, and governance processes.
  • The consistent progress of Chhattisgarh in PGI scores reflects its dedication towards enhancing the quality of education.

Additional Information

AspectDetails
InitiativeThe Performance Grading Index (PGI) is an initiative by the Ministry of Education, Government of India, to foster competitive and qualitative improvements in school education.
DomainsIt encompasses five domains: Learning Outcomes, Access, Infrastructure, Equity, and Governance.
ObjectiveThe primary objective of PGI is to encourage States and UTs to undertake multi-pronged interventions that will bring about the much-desired optimal education outcomes.
ImpactPGI serves as a guide for States and UTs to identify gaps and implement corrective actions, thus leading to a better educational framework.
Annual ReportThe index is released annually, providing a snapshot of the status of school education quality across States and UTs.
47

'Smiling Buddha' was the code name for which of the following operations in India?

  1. ((a))

    India's peace - keeping mission on the western border of Pakistan in 1970

  2. ((b))

    India's first successful nuclear bomb test in 1974

  3. ((c))

    India's launch of the first satellite into space

  4. ((d))

    India's counter insurgency operation against China in 1962

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

India's first successful nuclear bomb test in 1974

Key Points

  • 'Smiling Buddha' was the code name for India's first successful nuclear bomb test conducted on 18 May 1974.
  • The test was carried out at the Pokhran Test Range in Rajasthan, India.
  • This event marked India as a nuclear power, making it the sixth country in the world to develop and test a nuclear bomb.
  • The operation's code name, 'Smiling Buddha', reflects the non-violent nature of India's culture and the peaceful application of nuclear energy.

Additional Information

OptionDetails
Option 1India's peace-keeping mission on the western border of Pakistan in 1970 is not related to 'Smiling Buddha'.
Option 2This option is the correct answer, representing India's first successful nuclear bomb test in 1974.
Option 3India's launch of the first satellite into space is not associated with 'Smiling Buddha'. India's first satellite, Aryabhata, was launched in 1975.
Option 4India's counter-insurgency operation against China in 1962 is not related to 'Smiling Buddha'.
48

Skill Acquisition and Knowledge Awareness for Livelihood Promotion (SANKALP) is a skill development programme in India assisted by which of the following?

  1. ((a))

    SAARC

  2. ((b))

    International Labour Organization 

  3. ((c))

    World Bank

  4. ((d))

    USA

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

World Bank

Key Points

  • The Skill Acquisition and Knowledge Awareness for Livelihood Promotion (SANKALP) is an initiative by the Government of India aimed at enhancing skill development at the national level.
  • SANKALP is supported by the World Bank, which provides financial assistance to help implement the program's objectives effectively.
  • The program targets the improvement of institutional mechanisms for skill development and increases access to quality and market-relevant training for the workforce.
  • SANKALP also emphasizes on providing equitable access to skill training opportunities for the marginalized and disadvantaged groups.

Additional Information

OptionDetails
SAARCSouth Asian Association for Regional Cooperation is an organization of South Asian nations, established for economic and regional integration.
International Labour OrganizationA United Nations agency dealing with labour issues, particularly international labour standards, social protection, and work opportunities for all.
World BankAn international financial institution that provides loans and grants to the governments of poorer countries for the purpose of pursuing capital projects.
USAThe United States of America, a country that provides various forms of aid and support to other countries, including India, across different sectors.
49

According to the Economic Survey of India 2022 - 23, the School Gross Enrolment Ratio is the highest at which level of schooling as per the latest data available for the year 2021 - 22 ?

  1. ((a))

    Upper primary

  2. ((b))

    Primary

  3. ((c))

    Secondary

  4. ((d))

    Pre-school

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Upper primary

Key Points

  • The Economic Survey of India 2022-23 highlights the educational enrolment across various levels of schooling in India.
  • According to the latest data available for the year 2021-22, the School Gross Enrolment Ratio is the highest at the Upper Primary level.
  • This indicates a significant level of participation in the Upper Primary level of education compared to other stages.
  • The focus on educational enrolment at this level suggests efforts towards reducing dropout rates and improving educational attainment.

Additional Information

OptionDetails
Upper PrimaryHighest School Gross Enrolment Ratio as per 2021-22 data.
PrimaryAlso shows significant enrolment but less than Upper Primary.
SecondaryEnrolment at this level is lower compared to Upper Primary but still critical for educational progression.
Pre-schoolEnrolment at the pre-school level sets the foundation for future educational attainment.
50

Which of the following was awarded the 'Best International Feature Film' at the 95th Academy Awards 2023 ?

  1. ((a))

    TAR

  2. ((b))

    All Quiet on the Western Front

  3. ((c))

    The Quiet Girl

  4. ((d))

    The Elephant Whisperers

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

All Quiet on the Western Front

The correct answer is All Quiet on the Western Front.

Key Points

  • "All Quiet on the Western Front" is a film adaptation of the novel of the same name by Erich Maria Remarque.
  • The film received critical acclaim for its portrayal of the harrowing experiences of soldiers during World War I.
  • Winning the 'Best International Feature Film' at the 95th Academy Awards 2023 highlights the film's impact and recognition on a global scale.

Additional Information

OptionDetails
1) TARA drama film directed by Todd Field, known for its strong performances and unique storytelling.
2) All Quiet on the Western FrontWinner of the Best International Feature Film at the 95th Academy Awards 2023.
3) The Quiet GirlAn Irish drama film, notable for its sensitive portrayal of a young girl's life.
4) The Elephant WhisperersA documentary short film that explores the bond between an orphaned elephant and its caretakers.
51

Who among the following was awarded the Padma Vibhushan 2023 in the field of Art ?

  1. ((a))

    Suman Kalyanpur

  2. ((b))

    Vani Jairam

  3. ((c))

    S.M. Krishna

  4. ((d))

    Zakir Hussain

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Zakir Hussain

The correct answer is Zakir Hussain.

Key Points

  • Zakir Hussain was awarded the Padma Vibhushan in 2023 for her contributions to the field of Art.
  • The Padma Vibhushan is India's second-highest civilian award, recognizing exceptional and distinguished service in any field including service rendered by Government servants.
  • This award highlights the recipient's immense contribution to their field and is a testament to their dedication and excellence.

Additional Information

OptionDetails
2) Vani JairamAwarded the Padma bhushan in 2023 for her contributions to Indian music.
3) S.M. KrishnaFormer Chief Minister of Karnataka and External Affairs Minister of India, known for his political and diplomatic contributions.
4) Zakir HussainRenowned tabla virtuoso, known globally for his contributions to classical Indian music and collaborations.
52

Which of the following planets has moons called 'Ophelia' and 'Puck' which have been named after characters from William Shakespeare's works?

  1. ((a))

    Pluto

  2. ((b))

    Jupiter

  3. ((c))

    Mars

  4. ((d))

    Uranus

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Uranus

Key Points

  • The moons 'Ophelia' and 'Puck' are indeed named after characters from William Shakespeare's plays.
  • These moons belong to the planet Uranus, which is known for having its moons named after characters from the works of William Shakespeare and Alexander Pope.
  • Uranus has 27 known moons, and many of them are named after literary characters.
  • The naming convention for Uranus' moons is unique among the planets in the Solar System.

Additional Information

OptionDetails
1) PlutoPluto, now classified as a dwarf planet, has five known moons: Charon, Styx, Nix, Kerberos, and Hydra.
2) JupiterJupiter is the largest planet in our solar system and has 79 known moons, including the four large Galilean moons: Io, Europa, Ganymede, and Callisto.
3) MarsMars has two small moons, Phobos and Deimos, which are thought to be captured asteroids.
4) UranusUranus is the correct answer with moons named after Shakespearean characters, including 'Ophelia' and 'Puck'.
53

An International Museum Expo was organised in May in New Delhi to celebrate the 47th International Museum Day. What is the theme of the International Museum Day for this year ?

  1. ((a))

    'Museums, Memory, Welfare'

  2. ((b))

    ‘Museums, Heritage, History'

  3. ((c))

    'Museums, Sustainability, and Well Being' 

  4. ((d))

    'Museums are History'

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

'Museums, Sustainability, and Well Being' 

The correct answer is Museums, Sustainability, and Well Being.

Key Points

  • The theme for this year's International Museum Day is 'Museums, Sustainability, and Well Being'.
  • International Museum Day is celebrated annually on May 18th to highlight the importance of museums as means of cultural exchange, enrichment of cultures, and development of mutual understanding, cooperation, and peace among peoples.
  • The event in New Delhi aimed to showcase the diverse heritage, art, and culture from around the world.
  • International Museum Day has been celebrated since 1977, organized by the International Council of Museums (ICOM).
  • The day provides an opportunity for museum professionals to meet the public and alert them to the challenges that museums face.

Additional Information

EventDescription
International Museum DayA global celebration that emphasizes the role of museums in the development of society, observed on May 18.
ICOMThe International Council of Museums, which coordinates the event, is a global organization of museums and museum professionals committed to the conservation, continuation, and communication to society of the world's natural and cultural heritage.
Theme SelectionThe theme for International Museum Day changes every year, focusing on a specific aspect of museums' contribution to society.
Global ParticipationMuseums from all over the world participate in International Museum Day, offering special activities and free entry to highlight the importance of museums in society.
Public EngagementThe day serves as an opportunity to engage the public with museums, encouraging a deeper understanding of their role and promoting cultural exchange.
54

Which of the following is / are among the four National Curriculum Frameworks (NCF) being developed under the aegis of NEP 2020 ?

A. NCF for School Education

B. NCF for Early Childhood Care and Education

C. NCF for Spiritual Education

D. NCF for Vocational Education

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

  1. ((a))

    Only A and B

  2. ((b))

    Only C and D

  3. ((c))

    Only A, B and C

  4. ((d))

    Only A

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Only A

Under the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, different curriculum-related frameworks have been proposed with clearly defined and distinct titles.

Key Points

  • The policy explicitly mentions NCF (National Curriculum Framework) for School Education.
  • This framework is intended to guide curriculum design, pedagogical approaches, learning outcomes, and assessment practices for school education in alignment with the 5+3+3+4 structure.
  • Since the question strictly asks about frameworks named NCF, only this option clearly qualifies based on the official wording of the policy.

Hint

  • NEP 2020 proposes National Committee for the Integration of Vocational Education (NCIVE).
  • NEP 2020 proposes a separate framework called the National Curricular and Pedagogical Framework for Early Childhood Care and Education (NCPFECCE).
  • NCF for Spiritual Education is not mentioned in NEP 2020.

Hence, the correct answer is Only A.

55

Consider the following statements:

A. The two main genres of Indian classical music are Carnatic and Hindustani.

B. The Bharat Ratna awardee M.S. Subbulakshmi belongs to the genre of Hindustani music.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

  1. ((a))

    Both A and B are correct.

  2. ((b))

    A is wrong but B is correct

  3. ((c))

    Neither A nor B is correct

  4. ((d))

    A is correct but B is wrong

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

A is correct but B is wrong

The correct answer is A is correct but B is wrong.

Key Points

  • A is correct; the two main genres of Indian classical music are indeed Carnatic and Hindustani.
  • B is incorrect; M.S. Subbulakshmi was a renowned exponent of the Carnatic genre, not Hindustani music.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option 4: A is correct but B is wrong.
  • The distinction between Carnatic and Hindustani music primarily lies in their geographical origins, with Carnatic music being prevalent in the southern part of India, while Hindustani music is found in the northern regions.

Additional Information

GenreDescription
Carnatic MusicA classical music form of southern India, characterized by its rhythmic complexity and structured compositions.
Hindustani MusicA classical music form of northern India, known for its improvisation and the use of ragas and talas.
M.S. SubbulakshmiA legendary Carnatic vocalist, the first musician ever to be awarded the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian honor.
Code
56

Which of the following statements is/are correct about friction?

A. Friction can be entirely eliminated on any surface.

B. Rolling reduces friction.

C. Sliding friction is smaller than the rolling friction.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

  1. ((a))

    Only B and C are correct

  2. ((b))

    Only A and C are correct 

  3. ((c))

    Only B is correct

  4. ((d))

    Only A and B are correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Only B is correct

The correct answer is Only B is correct.

Key Points

  • Friction cannot be entirely eliminated on any surface; there are always some forces at play that cause resistance.
  • Rolling friction is indeed lower than sliding friction, which is why wheels are so effective in reducing the effort needed to move objects.
  • The statement that sliding friction is smaller than rolling friction is incorrect; it's actually the other way around.

Additional Information

Friction TypeDescription
Static FrictionThe force that needs to be overcome to start moving an object at rest.
Sliding FrictionResistance that occurs when an object slides over a surface.
Rolling FrictionResistance that occurs when an object rolls over a surface, usually much less than sliding friction.
Fluid FrictionResistance that objects moving through a fluid (liquid or gas) encounter, also known as drag.
57

What is the mean annual average temperature (in degrees Celsius) in 'Temperate' vegetation zones?

  1. ((a))

    7°C to 17°C

  2. ((b))

    17° C to 24°C

  3. ((c))

    Below 7°C

  4. ((d))

    Above 24°C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

7°C to 17°C

Key Points

  • The mean annual average temperature in 'Temperate' vegetation zones is 7°C to 17°C.
  • Temperate zones are characterized by their moderate weather conditions, falling between the polar and tropical zones.
  • These regions experience four distinct seasons: winter, spring, summer, and autumn.
  • Vegetation in temperate zones includes deciduous forests, grasslands, and temperate rainforests.

Additional Information

  • Temperate zones are located between the tropics and the polar regions, typically between 30° and 60° latitude in both hemispheres.
  • The climate and ecosystem diversity in temperate zones support a wide range of plant and animal life, adapted to seasonal changes.
  • Human activities, including agriculture, urbanization, and industrialization, have significantly impacted many temperate ecosystems.
  • Conservation efforts in temperate regions aim to protect natural habitats and biodiversity while managing sustainable use of resources.
58

Who among the following is the winner of (2023 'Goldman Environmental Prize' for winning a landmark case against Formosa Plastics', one of the world's largest petrochemical companies, for the illegal dumping of toxic plastics waste on Texas Gulf Coast?

  1. ((a))

    Tero Mustonen

  2. ((b))

    Delima Silalahi

  3. ((c))

    Alessandra Korap Munduruku

  4. ((d))

    Diane Wilson

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Diane Wilson

The correct answer is Diane Wilson.

Key Points

  • Diane Wilson is an environmental activist who won the 2023 Goldman Environmental Prize for her efforts against Formosa Plastics.
  • She was recognized for her role in a landmark case that resulted in a $50 million settlement, the largest citizen settlement in U.S. history regarding the Clean Water Act.
  • Wilson's activism led to a significant victory for environmental justice, highlighting the impact of grassroots movements in combatting pollution and protecting ecosystems.

Additional Information

OptionDetails
1) Tero MustonenA Finnish environmentalist known for his work on climate change and biodiversity conservation.
2) Delima SilalahiAn Indonesian activist recognized for her work in defending indigenous peoples' rights and environmental protection.
3) Alessandra Korap MundurukuA Brazilian indigenous leader and environmental defender, advocating for the rights of the Munduruku people and the preservation of the Amazon.
59

As per the 'Status of Tigers, 2022 Report released in April 2023, what percentage of the total world wild tiger population does India account for ?

  1. ((a))

    60%

  2. ((b))

    50%

  3. ((c))

    70%

  4. ((d))

    40%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

70%

Key Points

  • India accounts for 70% of the total world wild tiger population.
  • The Status of Tigers, 2022 Report was released in April 2023.
  • This percentage signifies India's significant contribution to tiger conservation globally.
  • India's efforts in tiger conservation are recognized as one of the most successful wildlife recovery plans.

Additional Information

  • The Global Tiger Initiative was launched in 2008 with the goal of doubling the number of wild tigers by 2022, a goal known as TX2.
  • India plays a crucial role in the Global Tiger Initiative, hosting several tiger reserves across the country.
  • The Project Tiger program, initiated in 1973, has been instrumental in increasing the tiger population in India.
  • The 2022 tiger census in India is part of a regular effort to monitor and manage tiger populations effectively.
Code
60

Speed of light is about _______.

  1. ((a))

    3,00,000 m/s

  2. ((b))

    30,00,000 km/s

  3. ((c))

    30,00,000 m/s

  4. ((d))

    3,00,000 km/s

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

3,00,000 km/s

Key Points

  • The speed of light in a vacuum is approximately 299,792 kilometers per second (km/s), or about 3.00 x 108 meters per second (m/s).
  • This speed is a fundamental constant of nature and is denoted by the letter c in physics equations.
  • The speed of light plays a crucial role in areas of physics, including in the theory of relativity proposed by Albert Einstein.
  • Nothing can travel faster than the speed of light in a vacuum, according to current scientific understanding.

Additional Information

  • The concept of the speed of light has been explored since ancient times, but accurate measurement became possible only in the 17th and 18th centuries.
  • The first known practical measurement of the speed of light was made by Ole Rømer in 1676, based on observations of Jupiter's moons.
  • In the early 20th century, Albert Einstein's theory of special relativity established that the speed of light in a vacuum is the same for all observers, regardless of their relative motion or the motion of the light source.
  • The speed of light is not only a key element of physics but also has practical applications in technology, including in telecommunications and GPS systems.
61

Which of the following is a thermosetting plastic?

  1. ((a))

    PVC

  2. ((b))

    Polythene

  3. ((c))

    Nylon

  4. ((d))

    Melamine

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Melamine

The correct answer is Melamine.

Key Points

  • Melamine is a thermosetting plastic.
  • Thermosetting plastics, unlike thermoplastics, cannot be remelted and remolded after they are initially formed.
  • Melamine is known for its ability to resist heat and fire, making it suitable for kitchenware and fire-resistant fabrics.
  • Once set, thermosetting plastics form strong, permanent bonds that are heat resistant and do not soften upon reheating.

Additional Information

OptionDetails
PVCPolyvinyl Chloride (PVC) is a thermoplastic that is used in a wide range of products including pipes, cables, and clothing.
PolythenePolythene (Polyethylene) is a common thermoplastic used in packaging, containers, and plastic bags.
NylonNylon is a thermoplastic known for its strength and resistance to wear, used in textiles and engineering.
62

Which Indian city was earlier referred to as the 'Manchester of India'?

  1. ((a))

    Patna

  2. ((b))

    Kolkata

  3. ((c))

    Chennai

  4. ((d))

    Ahmedabad

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Ahmedabad

Key Points

  • Ahmedabad has been historically known as the 'Manchester of India' due to its extensive textile industry.
  • The city is located in the western part of India in the state of Gujarat and is one of the leading industrial hubs in the country.
  • Its textile mills and the production of cotton have made it a significant center for trade and commerce since the 19th century.
  • The comparison with Manchester, UK, comes from both cities' prominence in the textile industry during their peak times.

Additional Information

OptionDetails
1) PatnaCapital city of Bihar, known for its historical significance and educational institutions.
2) KolkataCapital of West Bengal, known as the cultural capital of India and was the capital of British India until 1911.
3) ChennaiCapital of Tamil Nadu, known for its automotive industry, cultural heritage, and as the gateway to South India.
63

Which of the following teams won the Tata Indian Premier League 2023 title ?

  1. ((a))

    Lucknow Super Giants

  2. ((b))

    Chennai Super Kings

  3. ((c))

    Mumbai Indians

  4. ((d))

    Gujarat Titans

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Chennai Super Kings

The correct answer is Chennai Super Kings.

Key Points

  • The Tata Indian Premier League (IPL) is one of the most celebrated cricket leagues globally, drawing talent from all over the world.
  • The Chennai Super Kings were declared the winners of the Tata Indian Premier League 2023 title, marking a significant achievement for the team.

Additional Information

OptionDetails
1) Lucknow Super GiantsNever won the Tata Indian Premier League title.
2) Chennai Super KingsA team known for its strong performance in IPL history, with 5 titles.
3) Mumbai IndiansOne of the most successful teams in IPL, with 5 championships to their name.
4) Gujarat TitansA relatively new team that has shown promising performance in their appearances with 1 title.
64

Which of the following options depict the correct chronology in which the States given below were created in independent India, starting from the State created first to the last?

  1. ((a))

    Tripura → Jharkhand → Nagaland

  2. ((b))

    Tripura → Nagaland → Meghalaya

  3. ((c))

    Meghalaya → Nagaland → Mizoram

  4. ((d))

    Meghalaya → Mizoram → Jharkhand

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Meghalaya → Mizoram → Jharkhand

The correct answer is Meghalaya → Mizoram → Jharkhand.

Key Points

  • Meghalaya became a full-fledged state on 1 April 1970.
  • Mizoram was established on 20 February 1987.
  • Jharkhand was formed on 15 November 2000, carved out of the southern part of Bihar.

Additional Information

EventYear
Nagaland becomes a state1963
Tripura becomes a state1972
Jharkhand formation2000
Reorganization of Indian states on linguistic lines1956
Creation of Telangana from Andhra Pradesh2014
65

Which of the following Fundamental Rights is not suspended when a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation according to the Indian Constitution?

  1. ((a))

    Protection in respect of conviction for offences

  2. ((b))

    Freedom to assemble peaceably and without arms

  3. ((c))

    Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment

  4. ((d))

    Freedom of speech and expression

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Protection in respect of conviction for offences

The correct answer is Protection in respect of conviction for offences.

Key Points

  • The correct option is "Protection in respect of conviction for offences," which means this right is not suspended during the Proclamation of Emergency.
  • Article 20 of the Indian Constitution provides protection in respect of conviction for offences. This includes protection against ex post facto laws, double jeopardy, and self-incrimination.
  • During a Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution, the rights conferred by Article 19 can be suspended.
  • However, rights under Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended. This ensures a fundamental safeguard against abuse of state power, even during an emergency.

Additional Information

OptionDetails
Option 2Freedom to assemble peaceably and without arms is a part of Article 19, which can be suspended during an emergency.
Option 3Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment, part of the Right to Equality, is not directly affected by the Proclamation of Emergency but can be impacted by resultant legislative actions.
Option 4Freedom of speech and expression, also under Article 19, is directly suspended during the period of emergency.
66

Who was the founder of the 'Independent Labour Party' in India?

  1. ((a))

    B. R. Ambedkar

  2. ((b))

    Ram Manohar Lohia

  3. ((c))

    Jayaprakash Narayan

  4. ((d))

    V. V. Giri

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

B. R. Ambedkar

The correct answer is B.R. Ambedkar.

Key Points

  • B.R. Ambedkar founded the Independent Labour Party in 1936 in India.
  • The party aimed at addressing the socio-economic issues of the labor class and the untouchables in India.
  • It participated in the 1937 Bombay Presidency elections and won 15 seats, making a significant impact on the political landscape.
  • The Independent Labour Party was a precursor to the All India Scheduled Castes Federation, which Ambedkar formed in 1942.

Additional Information

OptionDetails
2) Ram Manohar LohiaWas an activist for the Indian independence movement and a nationalist political leader.
3) Jayaprakash NarayanKnown for his leadership during the Quit India Movement and later as an opposition leader against Indira Gandhi.
4) V. V. GiriServed as the fourth President of India from 1969 to 1974 and was also known for his contributions to the labor movement in India.
67

Which of the following rivers in the world does not have a single bridge across it?

  1. ((a))

    Amazon

  2. ((b))

    Thames

  3. ((c))

    Negro

  4. ((d))

    Nile

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Amazon

The correct answer is Amazon.

Key Points

  • The Amazon River, despite being one of the largest and most voluminous rivers in the world, does not have a single bridge crossing it.
  • This is primarily due to the vast width of the river, its extensive floodplain, and the dense rainforest surrounding it, making construction challenging and costly.
  • Furthermore, the region around the Amazon River has a relatively low population density, reducing the necessity for a bridge.
  • Environmental concerns also play a significant role in the absence of bridges over the Amazon, as any construction would have a significant impact on the river's ecosystem.

Additional Information

OptionDetails
ThamesThe Thames River in London is well-known for its many bridges, including the famous Tower Bridge and London Bridge.
NegroThe Negro River is a major tributary to the Amazon River. It has fewer bridges due to its location and environmental considerations, but not entirely devoid of them.
NileThe Nile, one of the longest rivers in the world, has several bridges that connect various parts of Egypt and facilitate transportation and commerce.
68

Which of the following places is known as the 'City of Peace and Justice' ?

  1. ((a))

    Montreal

  2. ((b))

    Warsaw

  3. ((c))

    Munich

  4. ((d))

    The Hague

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The Hague

The correct answer is The Hague

Key Points

  • The Hague is widely recognized as the 'City of Peace and Justice'.
  • It hosts the International Court of Justice (ICJ), which is the principal judicial body of the United Nations.
  • The city is also home to the International Criminal Court (ICC), among other international legal bodies.
  • The Hague has a long history of diplomacy and international relations, contributing to its reputation as a center for international law and justice.

Additional Information

OptionDetails
MontrealKnown for its vibrant culture and as a center for commerce, industry, and technology.
WarsawThe capital city of Poland, known for its historical significance and resilience.
MunichA key cultural and economic hub in Germany, famous for its Oktoberfest and beer halls.
The HagueThe actual 'City of Peace and Justice', hosting major international judicial bodies.
69

Which of the following images during the French Revolution stood for the symbol of Eternity?

  1. ((a))

    The eye within a triangle

  2. ((b))

    The broken chain

  3. ((c))

    A snake biting its tail to form a ring

  4. ((d))

    The winged woman

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A snake biting its tail to form a ring

The correct answer is  ​A snake biting its tail to form a ring.

Key Points

  • Snake Biting its tail to form a Ring represents a circle without a start or finish, symbolizing eternity.
  • The French Revolution is an uprising in France against the monarchy from 1789 to 1799 which resulted in the establishment of France as a republic and ended in 1799 with the Consulate under Napoleon.
  • Napoleon Bonaparte was an officer when the French Revolution began.
  • In 1804 he crowned himself Emperor of france.
  • He started conquering neighbouring countries by waging wars against them.
  • He introduced many laws such as the protection of private property and a uniform system of weights and measures provided by the decimal system.
  • The ideas of liberty and democratic rights were the most important legacy of the French Revolution

Additional Information

  • The Broken Chain: Chains were used to fetter slaves. A broken chain symbolises the freedom from slavery.
  • The Eye within a Triangle Radiating Light: The all seeing eye stands for knowledge. The rays of the sun will drive away the clouds of ignorance. It depicts that knowledge removes ignorance.
  • The Winged Woman: It is the personification of the law. It symbolises the power of law.
70

Which of the following organizations is associated with the people's movement for Right to Information which eventually led to the enactment of the Right to Information Act?

  1. ((a))

    Jan Adhikar Morcha

  2. ((b))

    People's Union for Civil Liberties

  3. ((c))

    Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan

  4. ((d))

    Safai Karamchari Sabha

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan

The correct answer is Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan.

Key Points

  • The Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan (MKSS) played a pivotal role in the grassroots movement advocating for the Right to Information (RTI).
  • This movement by MKSS was instrumental in raising awareness about the importance of transparency in governance.
  • Their advocacy for RTI was based on the belief that information in the hands of the people is crucial for democracy and accountability.
  • The relentless efforts of MKSS and other civil society groups eventually led to the enactment of the Right to Information Act in 2005, empowering Indian citizens to seek information from public authorities.

Additional Information

OptionDetails
Jan Adhikar MorchaNot directly associated with the RTI movement but may work on various rights-based issues.
People's Union for Civil LibertiesA human rights body that has been involved in various rights-related campaigns, including support for RTI.
Safai Karamchari SabhaFocuses on the rights and welfare of sanitation workers; not directly related to the RTI movement.

Language Competency Test (30 questions)

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

Dadi had come to the hospital for operation for an eye ailment. The operation had gone well and she was on the road to recovery. On the day of the expected discharge, when Tanuja's mother came to the hospital to complete the formalities and take her home, she was accosted by some hospital inmates at the gate who told her, 'Where have you been all this time? Your old mother slipped from her bed at night and broke her hip bone.' Tanuja's mother rushed in to provide succour to her mother. After emergency treatment, Dadi was shifted to the orthopaedic ward. A complicated surgery followed which necessitated her stay in the hospital for six weeks for convalescence. In the hospital, she was looked after by Tanuja and Machhli during the day, while Tanuja's mother stayed with her during the night. After a few days, when Machhli found Tanuja's mother overworked as she had to take care of her home too, she offered to do the night shift too. Machhli's devoted service for Dadi's recovery brought her closer to Dadi and Her family.

Over the years, Machhli had served many, many patients but there was something so affectionate, so endearing in Dadi that brought Machhli close to her. Machhli could not help recalling that in her village home too, she had a grandmother who resembled Dadi in many ways, including the way Dadi showered affection on all those who came in contact with her. In the hospital, Dadi showered affection on doctors, nurses, attendants, in fact, on all those who touched her life even in oblique ways. The hospital personnel too called her Dadi and gave her due respect and regard.

71

What unfortunate thing had happened to Dadi?

  1. ((a))

    She had fainted unexpectedly.

  2. ((b))

    She had broken her hip bone.

  3. ((c))

    She had stumbled on the roadside.

  4. ((d))

    She had suffered a heart attack.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

She had broken her hip bone.

The correct answer is "She had broken her hip bone".

Key Points

  • Dadi slipped from her bed at night and broke her hip bone, leading to an unexpected turn of events post her successful eye operation.
  • The incident is detailed in paragraph 1, where the specifics of the accident and its consequences are explained.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option (2).

Additional Information

  • Option (1) is incorrect because there is no mention of Dadi fainting in the passage.
  • Option (3) is incorrect as Dadi did not stumble on the roadside; she had an accident in the hospital.
  • Option (4) is incorrect because Dadi suffered from a broken hip bone, not a heart attack.
  • Some Important words used in the passage:
  • Accosted (संबोधन करना)- the act of approaching someone boldly or aggressively.
  • Succour (सहायता)- assistance and support in times of hardship and distress.
  • Convalescence (स्वास्थ्यलाभ)- the time spent recovering from an illness or medical treatment.
  • Endearing (मनमोहक)- inspiring affection or warmth.
  • Oblique (तिर्यक)- not direct in stating or expressing something.
  • Resembled (समान होना)- to be like or similar to something or someone.
72

What does 'convalescence' mean? 

  1. ((a))

    feeling depressed

  2. ((b))

    getting weaker day by day

  3. ((c))

    showing no signs of recovery

  4. ((d))

    improvement in health condition

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

improvement in health condition

The correct answer is "improvement in health condition".

Key Points

  • Convalescence (आरोग्यलाभ) is the time spent recovering from an illness or medical treatment.
  • Dadi needed a six weeks' stay in the hospital for convalescence after her surgery for the hip bone break, indicating improvement in health condition.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option (4).

Additional Information

  • Option (1) is not suitable as convalescence typically involves recovery, not feeling depressed.
  • Option (2) contradicts the meaning of convalescence, where the patient is expected to get stronger, not weaker.
  • Option (3) is incorrect because convalescence implies recovery signs, opposite to showing no signs of recovery.
73

State which of the following statements is true/false.

A. The hospital personnel treated Dadi with contempt.

B. Dadi was affectionate towards everyone.

  1. ((a))

    'A' is true but 'B' is false.

  2. ((b))

    Both 'A' and 'B' are false.

  3. ((c))

    'A' is false but 'B' is true.

  4. ((d))

    Both 'A' and 'B' are true.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

'A' is false but 'B' is true.

The correct answer is "'A' is false but 'B' is true".

Key Points

  • The hospital personnel did not treat Dadi with contempt (अवमानना); instead, they showed her due respect and regard, making statement 'A' false.
  • Dadi was affectionately involved with everyone she met, including doctors, nurses, and attendants, making statement 'B' true as described in paragraph 2.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option (3).

Additional Information

  • Option (1) and Option (4) are incorrect as they imply incorrect conditions about Dadi and the hospital staff's behaviour.
  • Option (2) is incorrect because it states both statements are false while 'B' is clearly true per the passage.
74

How does Machhli come out as a person in the passage ?

  1. ((a))

    friendly and devoted

  2. ((b))

    cold and uncaring

  3. ((c))

    thoughtless and frivolous

  4. ((d))

    vain and arrogant

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

friendly and devoted

The correct answer is "friendly and devoted".

Key Points

  • Machhli offered to take the night shift to help Tanuja's mother, indicating a friendly and devoted attitude.
  • This devoted service and care for Dadi during her convalescence in paragraph 1 highlight her compassionate nature.

Therefore, the correct answer is  Option (1).

Additional Information

  • The other options Option (2), Option (3), and Option (4) describe negative traits that Machhli does not exhibit according to the passage.
75

The tone of the passage is :

  1. ((a))

    narrative

  2. ((b))

    discursive

  3. ((c))

    argumentative 

  4. ((d))

    reflective

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

narrative

The correct answer is "narrative".

Key Points

  • The passage follows a narrative style, telling the story of Dadi's hospitalization, subsequent accident, and the kindness shared among the characters.
  • There is a clear storyline focusing on events and responses to those events as seen in both paragraph 1 and paragraph 2.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option (1).

Additional Information

 

  • Narrative: Tells a story or recounts events in a structured manner.
  • Discursive: Explores various sides of a topic in a balanced way, often weaving personal reflections or experiences into the discussion.
  • Argumentative: Presents a viewpoint or hypothesis and supports it with evidence and reasoning to persuade the reader.
  • Reflective: Focuses on the writer's personal experience, thoughts, and feelings, often analyzing or making sense of them.
76

In the given sentence, identify the part which contains an error.

It seems that (a) / he hasn't met you (b) / for a long time, (c) / is it (d) ?

  1. ((a))

    c

  2. ((b))

    b

  3. ((c))

    d

  4. ((d))

    a

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

d

The correct answer is '3' i.e. d contains the error.

Key Points

  • The given sentence needs to be examined for agreement in tense and structure.
  • In the clause "is it" (part d), there is an issue with the question tag. The correct question tag should match the auxiliary verb in the sentence.
  • The sentence uses the present perfect tense ("he hasn't met"), so the question tag should use "has he?" instead of "is it."

Correct sentence: It seems that he hasn't met you for a long time, has he?.

Additional Information

  • Rules for Question Tags:
  • If the main clause is positive, the question tag should be negative, and vice versa.
  • The auxiliary verb in the question tag should match the auxiliary verb in the main clause.
  • Examples of Correct Question Tags:
  • He is coming, isn't he?
  • You don't like coffee, do you?
77

Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word:

MODESTY

  1. ((a))

    Arrogance

  2. ((b))

    Meekness

  3. ((c))

    Violence

  4. ((d))

    Anger

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Arrogance

The correct answer is Option (1) i.e. "Arrogance".

Key Points

  • MODESTY (विनम्रता) - The quality of not being too proud or confident about yourself or your abilities.
  • Example: She accepted the award with modesty.
  • Arrogance (अहंकार) - An attitude of superiority manifested in an overbearing manner or in presumptuous claims or assumptions.
  • Example: His arrogance irritates many of his coworkers.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Arrogance".

Additional Information

  • Meekness (विनम्रता) - The quality of being patient and mild, free from aggressiveness.
  • Violence (हिंसा) - The use of physical force so as to injure, abuse, damage, or destroy.
  • Anger (क्रोध) - A strong feeling of annoyance, displeasure, or hostility.
78

Rearrange the parts in correct order to make a meaningful sentence:

A. and finally caught him

B. while he was jumping onto

C. they ran after the thief

D. a speeding bus

  1. ((a))

    BCDA

  2. ((b))

    CABD

  3. ((c))

    ABCD

  4. ((d))

    CBAD

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

CABD

The correct answer is Option (2) i.e. CABD.

Key Points

  • The parts in the correct order to make a meaningful sentence is CABD, which forms the sentence: 
  • C: They ran after the thief" starts the action, showing who is doing the action.
  • A: "and finally caught him" follows next, revealing the outcome of the chasing.
  • B: "while he was jumping onto" introduces the action being performed by the thief at the time of being caught.
  • D: "a speeding bus" ends the sentence, specifying what the thief was jumping onto.

Therefore, the correct answer is- "CABD".

Complete sentenceThey ran after the thief and finally caught him while he was jumping onto a speeding bus.

79

Choose the correct meaning of the idiom/phrase given below:

Be down with

  1. ((a))

    being humiliated

  2. ((b))

    coming from a poor background

  3. ((c))

    biding one's time

  4. ((d))

    suffering from an ailment

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

suffering from an ailment

The correct answer is Option (4) i.e. "suffering from an ailment".

Key Points

  • be down with: suffering from an ailment (किसी बीमारी से पीड़ित होना)
  • Example: She's been down with the flu for a week now.
  • suffering from an ailment: (बीमारी से पीड़ित) - Experiencing discomfort or illness caused by a specific condition or disease.
  • This idiom means to be ill or to have a disease, which matches the definition of suffering from an ailment.

Therefore, the correct answer is "suffering from an ailment".

Additional Information

  • being humiliated: (अपमानित होना) - Feeling ashamed or embarrassed as a result of being made to look foolish or incompetent.
  • coming from a poor background: (गरीब पृष्ठभूमि से आना) - Originating from a family or situation where there is a lack of financial resources.
  • biding one's time: (अपना समय बिताना) - Waiting patiently for the right moment to act.
80

Choose the word nearest in meaning to the given word:

MELANCHOLIC

  1. ((a))

    Serious

  2. ((b))

    Jubilant

  3. ((c))

    Sad

  4. ((d))

    Frustrated

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Sad

The correct answer is Option (3) i.e. "Sad".

Key Points

  • MELANCHOLIC (उदास) - Feeling or expressing pensive sadness.
  • Example: The movie has a melancholic tone.
  • Sad (उदास) - Affected by unhappiness or grief; sorrowful or mournful.
  • Example: She feels sad about her friend moving away.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Sad".

Additional Information

  • Serious (गंभीर) - Requiring thought, concentration, or application.
  • Jubilant (प्रसन्न) - Feeling or expressing great happiness and triumph.
  • Frustrated (निराश) - Feeling or expressing distress and annoyance, especially because of inability to change or achieve something.
81

Fill in the blank with the appropriate Article.

We should always take care of _________ poor.

  1. ((a))

    the

  2. ((b))

    an

  3. ((c))

    No article

  4. ((d))

    a

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

the

The correct answer is Option (1) i.e. "the".

Key Points

  • "The" is used before adjectives like "poor" to talk about a group of people in a general sense.
  • The phrase "We should" indicates a general sense. Hence, 'a' is not fitted here. 'The' is fitted here.

Therefore, the correct answer is- "We should always take care of the poor."

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Additional Information

  • Option (2) "an" is used before singular nouns that start with a vowel sound; not suitable here.
  • Option (4) "a" is used before singular nouns that start with a consonant sound; not suitable here.
82

Choose the best option in which the given sentence has been changed from Active Voice to Passive Voice.

I lost my watch in the rural fair.

  1. ((a))

    In the rural fair, I lost my watch.

  2. ((b))

    My watch was lost in the rural fair.

  3. ((c))

    My watch is lost in the rural fair.

  4. ((d))

    My watch has been lost in the rural fair.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

My watch was lost in the rural fair.

The correct answer is Option(2). i.e. My watch was lost in the rural fair.

Key Points

  • The sentence "I lost my watch in the rural fair." is in the Active Voice.
  • The type of the sentence is declarative, and the tense is simple past.
  • Subject of the given sentence is "I" and the object is "my watch."
  • Active Format: Subject + V2 (Past form of verb) + Object.
  • Passive Format: Subject (Objective case) + was/were + V3 (Past Participle) + (by + Object (Subjective case).
  • Example:
  • "He wrote a letter." (Active)
  • "A letter was written by him." (Passive).

Therefore, the correct answer is- “My watch was lost in the rural fair."

83

Fill in the blank with the appropriate form of the Verb that agrees with the Subject.

Each one of the workers _______ a raise in salary from the coming month.

  1. ((a))

    are wanting

  2. ((b))

    wants

  3. ((c))

    have wanted

  4. ((d))

    want

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

wants

The correct answer is Option (2) i.e. "wants".

Key Points

  • Here "Each one" is the main subject which is singular.
  • "Each one of the workers" implies each worker individually which requires a singular verb.
  • "Wants" correctly agrees with the singular subject phrase.

Therefore, the correct answer is- "Each one of the workers wants a raise in salary from the coming month."

Additional Information

  • Option (1) "are wanting" does not agree with the singular subject phrase.
  • Option (3) "have wanted" does not correctly fit the singular subject in present tense.
  • Option (4) "want" is plural and does not agree with the singular subject phrase.
84

Choose the option which correctly identifies the tense of the underlined part in the given sentence.

Aren't they going to meet you soon?

  1. ((a))

    Past Continuous Tense

  2. ((b))

    Present Continuous Tense

  3. ((c))

    Simple Future Tense

  4. ((d))

    Simple Present Tense

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Present Continuous Tense

The correct answer is Option (2) i.e. Present Continuous Tense.

Key Points

  • The tense of the quoted part "Aren't they going" in the given sentence is Present Continuous Tense.
  • The Present Continuous Tense is used for actions happening at the moment of speaking or for actions happening around the present time.
  • Formation: Subject + am/is/are + verb-ing.
  • In the sentence, "going" is the -ing form of the verb "to go," and it is used with "are" (contracted to "aren't" for negation), which fits the structure of the Present Continuous Tense.

Therefore, the correct answer is- "Present Continuous Tense".

85

Fill in the blank by choosing the correct form of the Verb.

By the time I met him, he ________ reading the voluminous novel.

  1. ((a))

    was finishing

  2. ((b))

    had finished

  3. ((c))

    will finish

  4. ((d))

    finished

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

had finished

The correct answer is Option (2) i.e. "had finished".

Key Points

  • The use of "had finished" correctly implies that the action was completed before a certain point in the past.
  • It fits grammatically with the past perfect tense used for actions completed before another past action.
  • For example: By the time I reached the station, the train had already left.

Therefore, the correct answer is- "By the time I met him, he had finished reading the voluminous novel."

Additional Information

  • Option (1) "was finishing" implies the action was ongoing, not completed.
  • Option (3) "will finish" is future tense, inappropriate for a past context.
  • Option (4) "finished" indicates simple past, but does not emphasize completion before another past action.

निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर उस पर आधारित प्रश्नों  के सटीक उत्तर दीजिए :

शिक्षा से समाज के विकास में सहायता मिलेगी। लोगों को इस दृष्टि से शिक्षित करना भी आवश्यक है कि वे अपने परिवार के जीवन स्तर को सुधारने के लिए जनसंख्या पर नियंत्रण करें। शिक्षा से इस प्रकार की चेतना भी आएगी कि वे राष्ट्र के विषय में सोच सकें और राष्ट्र की इस समस्या के समाधान में महत्त्वपूर्ण भूमिका अदा करें। जनसंख्या वृद्धि को रोकने के लिए सरकार ने विवाह की आयु भी निर्धारित की है। बालिका की आयु कम - से - कम 18 वर्ष और बालक की आयु कम - से - कम 21 वर्ष रखी गई है। विवाह पश्चात् पति-पत्नी दोनों को अपनी आमदनी या जीवन उपयोगी साधनों के अनुसार परिवार नियोजन पर ध्यान देना चाहिए ।

86

लोगों को शिक्षित किया जाना चाहिए ताकि वे :

  1. ((a))

    जीवन स्तर को सुधारने के लिए जनसंख्या पर नियंत्रण करें।

  2. ((b))

    जीवन स्तर को सुधार सकें।

  3. ((c))

    देश के विकास में योगदान दें। 

  4. ((d))

    रोज़गार प्राप्त कर सकें।

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

जीवन स्तर को सुधारने के लिए जनसंख्या पर नियंत्रण करें।

लोगों को शिक्षित किया जाना चाहिए ताकि वे, जीवन स्तर को सुधारने के लिए जनसंख्या पर नियंत्रण करें

अत: विकल्प 1 सही उत्तर होगा।

Key Pointsगद्यांश के अनुसार-

  • लोगों को शिक्षित करना इसलिए जरूरी है ताकि वे अपने परिवार के जीवन स्तर को सुधारने के लिए जनसंख्या पर नियंत्रण कर सकें
  • यह बताता है कि शिक्षा के माध्यम से जनसंख्या नियंत्रण के लिए जागरूकता और समझ विकसित की जा सकती है।
  • जीवन स्तर को सुधार सकें: गद्यांश के अनुसार ऐसा नहीं कहां गया कि केवल जीवन स्तर को सुधार सकें।
  • देश के विकास में योगदान दे: शिक्षा से इस प्रकार की चेतना भी आएगी कि वे राष्ट्र के विषय में सोच सकें, और राष्ट्र की इस समस्या
  • के समाधान में महत्त्वपूर्ण भूमिका अदा करें, परंतु लोग अगर जनसंख्या नियंत्रण करेंगे तो यह स्वत: देश के विकास का ओर एक कदम होगा।
  • तो यह बिन्दु विकल्प 1 में सम्मलित है।
  • रोजगार प्राप्त कर सके: गद्यांश में सीधे तौर पर रोज़गार प्राप्त करने का उल्लेख नहीं है।
  • इस तरह से, उपर्युक्त चारों बिंदुओं पर गद्यांश के आधार पर विचार करने के बाद निष्कर्ष निकलता है कि गद्यांश विशेषकर जनसंख्या नियंत्रण और जीवन स्तर के सुधार के संदर्भ में बात करता है।
87

जनसंख्या नियंत्रण के लिए सरकार ने अन्य उपायों के साथ और क्या किया है? 

  1. ((a))

    विवाह की आयु निर्धारित की है।

  2. ((b))

    वैज्ञानिक विषयों की शिक्षा को बढ़ाया है।

  3. ((c))

    शीघ्र विवाह पर रोक लगा दी है।

  4. ((d))

    अस्पताल खोले हैं।

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

विवाह की आयु निर्धारित की है।

जनसंख्या नियंत्रण के लिए सरकार ने अन्य उपायों के साथ विवाह की आयु निर्धारित की है

अत: विकल्प 1 सही उत्तर होगा।

Key Pointsगद्यांश के अनुसार-

  • ​जनसंख्या वृद्धि को रोकने के लिए सरकार ने विवाह की आयु भी निर्धारित की है।
  • बालिका की आयु कम - से - कम 18 वर्ष और बालक की आयु कम - से - कम 21 वर्ष रखी गई है।
  • विवाह पश्चात् पति-पत्नी दोनों को अपनी आमदनी या जीवन उपयोगी साधनों के अनुसार परिवार नियोजन पर ध्यान देना चाहिए।
  • वैज्ञानिक विषयों की शिक्षा को बढ़ाया है: गद्यांश में इस संदर्भ में कोई बात नहीं की गई है।
  • शीघ्र विवाह पर रोक लगा दी है: गद्यांश में सीधे तौर पर यह बात नहीं की गई, इसलिए यह सही उत्तर नहीं होगा।
  • अस्पताल खोले हैं: गद्यांश में इस संदर्भ में कोई बात नहीं की गई है।
88

विवाह के पश्चात् पति - पत्नी को क्या करना चाहिए ?

  1. ((a))

    आमदनी बढ़ानी चाहिए।

  2. ((b))

    आर्थिक उन्नति करनी चाहिए।

  3. ((c))

    आमदनी या जीवन उपयोगी साधनों के अनुसार परिवार नियोजन पर ध्यान देना चाहिए।

  4. ((d))

    परिवार का विकास करना चाहिए।

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

आमदनी या जीवन उपयोगी साधनों के अनुसार परिवार नियोजन पर ध्यान देना चाहिए।

विवाह के पश्चात् पति - पत्नी को ​आमदनी या जीवन उपयोगी साधनों के अनुसार परिवार नियोजन पर ध्यान देना चाहिए

अत: विकल्प 3 सही उत्तर है, अन्य विकल्प असंगत है।

Key Pointsगद्यांश के अनुसार-

  • विवाह पश्चात् पति-पत्नी दोनों को अपनी आमदनी या जीवन उपयोगी साधनों के अनुसार परिवार नियोजन पर ध्यान देना चाहिए।​
  • गद्यांश के अनुसार विवाह पश्चात् पति-पत्नी दोनों को अपनी आमदनी या जीवन उपयोगी साधनों के अनुसार परिवार नियोजन पर ध्यान देना चाहिए।
  • बालिका की आयु कम - से - कम 18 वर्ष और बालक की आयु कम - से - कम 21 वर्ष रखी गई है।
89

शिक्षा से इस प्रकार की चेतना नहीं आएगी कि लोग : 

  1. ((a))

    परिवार का जीवन स्तर तय होगा ।

  2. ((b))

    राष्ट्र की समस्या के समाधान में योगदान दें।

  3. ((c))

    समाज के विकास में सहायता होगी।

  4. ((d))

    राष्ट्र के विषय में सोच सकें

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

परिवार का जीवन स्तर तय होगा ।

शिक्षा से इस प्रकार की चेतना नहीं आएगी कि लोग, परिवार का जीवन स्तर तय होगा

अत: विकल्प 1 सही उत्तर है, अन्य विकल्प असंगत है।

Key Pointsगद्यांश के अनुसार- 

  • ​गद्यांश में सीधे तोर पर यह नहीं कहां गया कि, परिवार का जीवन स्तर तय होगा
  • गद्यांश में कहां गया है, लोगों को इस दृष्टि से शिक्षित करना भी आवश्यक है कि वे अपने परिवार के जीवन स्तर को सुधारने के लिए जनसंख्या पर नियंत्रण करें
  • जनसंख्या नियंत्रण का सीधा संबंध परिवार के जीवन स्तर को सुधारने से है
  • गद्यांश के अनुसार- यदि जनसंख्या नियंत्रण होगा, तभी परिवार का जीवन स्तर हो सकता है।
  • विकल्प में जनसंख्या को कही इंगित नहीं किया है।

अन्य विकल्प-​

  • राष्ट्र की समस्या के समाधान में योगदान दें - शिक्षित व्यक्ति राष्ट्र की समस्याओं के समाधान में योगदान देने में सक्षम होंगे।
  • यह विकल्प भी उस चेतना को दर्शाता है जो शिक्षा से आएगी।
  • समाज के विकास में सहायता होगी - शिक्षा समाज के विकास में महत्वपूर्ण सहायता प्रदान करेगी।
  • इसलिए, यह विकल्प भी शिक्षा से आने वाली चेतना को दर्शाता है।
  • राष्ट्र के विषय में सोच सकें - शिक्षा लोगों में इस प्रकार की चेतना विकसित करेगी कि वे राष्ट्र के विषय में सोच सकें और राष्ट्र की समस्या के समाधान में महत्त्वपूर्ण भूमिका अदा करें।
90

निम्नलिखित में से कौन - सा विकल्प सही नहीं है ? 

  1. ((a))

    वर्ष में एक बार प्रकाशित होने वाला - वार्षिक

  2. ((b))

    सप्ताह में एक बार प्रकाशित होने वाला - साप्ताहिक

  3. ((c))

    पखवाड़े में एक बार प्रकाशित होने वाला - पाक्षिक

  4. ((d))

    माह में एक बार प्रकाशित होने वाला - माहिक

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

माह में एक बार प्रकाशित होने वाला - माहिक

माह में एक बार प्रकाशित होने वाला - माहिक, सही विकल्प नहीं है, अन्य सभी विकल्प सही है।

Key Points

  • माह में एक बार प्रकाशित होने वाला - मासिक होता है।
  • जैसे- मासिक पत्रिका, मासिक वेतन आदि।
  • 'माहिक' शब्द का प्रयोग गलत है, क्योंकि माह में एक बार प्रकाशित होने वाले पत्रिका के लिए सही शब्द 'मासिक' होता है।
  • अन्य विकल्प में सही वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द दिए गए है।
  • 'वार्षिक' वर्ष में एक बार प्रकाशित होने को दर्शाता है, जो सही है।
  • 'साप्ताहिक' सप्ताह में एक बार प्रकाशित होने को दर्शाता है, यह भी सही है।
  • 'पाक्षिक' का अर्थ होता है पखवाड़े में एक बार (हर दो हफ्ते में एक बार), जो सही है।

Additional Informationवाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द के अन्य उदाहरण-

वाक्यांशवाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द
जो बाद मे जन्मा होअनुज
जो इंद्रियों द्वारा न जाना जा सकेअगोचर
जिसका पता न होअज्ञात
आगे आने वालाआगामी
अण्डे से जन्म लेने वालाअण्डज
91

‘सड़क नापना' मुहावरे का सटीक अर्थ है :

  1. ((a))

    बेकार काम करना

  2. ((b))

    सड़क की लंबाई मापना

  3. ((c))

    मन का काम न मिलना

  4. ((d))

    व्यर्थ में इधर-उधर घूमना

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

व्यर्थ में इधर-उधर घूमना

‘सड़क नापना' मुहावरे का सटीक अर्थ है- व्यर्थ में इधर-उधर घूमना होगा।

अत: विकल्प 4 सही उत्तर है, अन्य विकल्प असंगत है।

Key Points

  • 'सड़क नापना' मुहावरे का प्रयोग किसी व्यक्ति के गंतव्य या उद्देश्य के बिना इधर-उधर घूमने की स्थिति को व्यक्त करने के लिए किया जाता है।
  • इस मुहावरे में 'सड़क नापना' वास्तविक सड़क की लंबाई मापने की भौतिक क्रिया को नहीं दर्शाता, बल्कि यह एक लाक्षणिक अभिव्यक्ति है।
  • यह मुहावरा उन परिस्थितियों में प्रयोग होता है,
  • जहाँ व्यक्ति के पास कोई ठोस योजना नहीं होती या वह बिना किसी विशेष उद्देश्य के समय बिता रहा होता है।
  • 'बेकार काम करना', 'सड़क की लंबाई मापना', और 'मन का काम न मिलना' जैसे विकल्प इस मुहावरे की वास्तविक भावना को पूर्णतः व्यक्त नहीं करते।
  • अतः, 'सड़क नापना' का सही अर्थ 'व्यर्थ में इधर-उधर घूमना' है, जो आवारागर्दी या उद्देश्यहीन रूप से समय बर्बाद करने की स्थिति को दर्शाता है।

Additional Information मुहावरे के अन्य उदाहरण- 

मुहावरेअर्थ
आँख का अंधाकिसी बात को समझने में असमर्थ।
अपने मुँह मियाँ मिट्ठूखुद की तारीफ करना।
उल्टा चोर कोतवाल को डांटेअपना अपराध स्वीकार न करके पूछने वाले को दोष देना।
कान का कच्चा होनाआसानी से किसी की बात पर भरोसा करना।
खाई में पैर डालनाकिसी खतरनाक स्थिति में पड़ जाना।
92

निम्नलिखित शब्दों में से 'पत्नी' का पर्यायवाची नहीं है :

  1. ((a))

    कामिनी

  2. ((b))

    गृहिणी

  3. ((c))

    दारा

  4. ((d))

    वामांगी

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

कामिनी

'पत्नी' का पर्यायवाची कामिनी नहीं है, अन्य विकल्प पत्नी के पर्यायवाची है।

अत: विकल्प 1 सही उत्तर है।

Key Points

  • पत्नी के पर्यायवाची- कान्ता, भार्या, वल्लभा, अर्द्धागिनी, वामा, दारा, गृहिणी,वामांगी, बहू, बधू, कलत्र आदि होते है।
  • 'कामिनी' - इस शब्द का अर्थ सुंदरी या आकर्षक स्त्री से है, जरूरी नहीं कि यह किसी की पत्नी हो। इसलिए, यह पत्नी का पर्यायवाची नहीं है।
  • अन्य विकल्प-
  • 'गृहिणी' - इस शब्द का सीधा संबंध किसी घर की महिला मुखिया या पत्नी से है, जो घर को संभालती है। यह पत्नी का पर्यायवाची है।
  • 'दारा' - यह शब्द प्राचीन संस्कृत में पत्नी के लिए प्रयुक्त होता है। इसलिए, यह भी 'पत्नी' का एक पर्यायवाची है।
  • 'वामांगी' - यह शब्द 'पत्नी' के लिए एक और पर्यायवाची है, जिसका प्रयोग उस स्थिति को व्यक्त करने के लिए किया जाता है,
  • जब पत्नी पति के बाईं ओर बैठी होती है।
  • इसलिए, दिए गए विकल्पों में 'कामिनी' ही एकमात्र शब्द है जो 'पत्नी' के अर्थ में पूरी तरह से फिट नहीं बैठता और 'पत्नी' का पर्यायवाची नहीं है।

Additional Informationपर्यायवाची के अन्य उदाहरण-

शब्दपर्यायवाची
आँखदृष्टि , अक्षि , नयन , नेत्र , विलोचन , चक्षु , लोचन , अक्षि , नैन , अंबक , दृग।
आनंदआह्राद , प्रमोद , उल्लास , प्रसन्नता सुख मोद आमोद हर्ष।
आमसहकार , सहुकार , मादक , आम्र , अतिसौरभ , रसाल।
अतिक्रमणअवज्ञा उल्लघंन , उत्क्रमण।
आक्रोशक्रोध , खीझ , कोप , रोष।
93

निम्नलिखित में से स्वर संधि वाला शब्द नहीं है :

  1. ((a))

    उमेश

  2. ((b))

    जगन्नाथ

  3. ((c))

    परोपकार

  4. ((d))

    परमेश्वर

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

जगन्नाथ

जगन्नाथ, स्वर संधि वाला शब्द नहीं है, अन्य सभी विकल्प स्वर संधि के उदाहरण है।

अत: विकल्प 2 इस प्रश्न का सही उत्तर है।

Key Points 

  • स्वर संधि- दो स्वरों के मेल से उत्पन्न होने वाले विकार को स्वर संधि कहते हैं।
  • इसके पाँच भेद हैं- दीर्घ, गुण, वृद्धि, यण, अयादि
  • उदाहरण- महाशय = महा + आशय।
  • जगन्नाथ का संधि विच्छेद = जगत् + नाथ होगा।
  • जगन्नाथ में व्यंजन संधि होगी।
  • अन्य विकल्पों के संधि विच्छेद-
  • उमेश = उमा + ईश।
  • परोपकार = पर + उपकार।
  • परमेश्वर = परम + ईश्वर।

Additional Information

संधि - दो शब्दों के मेल से जो विकार (परिवर्तन) होता है, उसे संधि कहते हैं। संधि के तीन प्रकार हैं - 1. स्वर, 2. व्यंजन और 3. विसर्ग
संधिपरिभाषाउदाहरण
स्वर संधिदो स्वरों के मेल से उत्पन्न होने वाले विकार को स्वर संधि कहते हैं। इसके इसके पाँच भेद हैं- दीर्घ, गुण, वृद्धि, यण, अयादि।महाशय = महा + आशय।
व्यंजन संधिव्यंजन के बाद किसी स्वर या व्यंजन के आने से उस व्यंजन में जो परिवर्तन होता है, वह व्यंजन संधि कहलाता है।दिग्गज = दिक् + गज।
विसर्ग संधिविसर्ग के साथ स्वर अथवा व्यंजन के मिलने से जो विकार उत्पन्न होता है, उसे विसर्ग संधि कहते हैं।शिरोमणि = शिर: + मणि।
94

'पीपर पात सरिस मन डोला' पंक्ति में अलंकार है :

  1. ((a))

    रूपक

  2. ((b))

    उपमा

  3. ((c))

    उत्प्रेक्षा

  4. ((d))

    यमक

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

उपमा

उपर्युक्त विकल्पों में से विकल्प "उपमा" सही है तथा अन्य विकल्प असंगत है।

Key Points 

  • पीपर पात सरिस मन डोला।
  • इस वाक्य में 'सरिस' शब्द का प्रयोग हुआ है।
  • अतः यह “उपमा अलंकार” है।
  • सरिस, सम, समान, -सा, -सी, इत्यादि का प्रयोग हो तो वह उपमा अलंकार होता है।

Additional Information  

  • यमक अलंकार
  • जब एक शब्द प्रयोग दो बार होता है और दोनों बार उसके अर्थ अलग-अलग होते हैं तब यमक अलंकार होता है।
  • उदाहरण
  • ऊँचे घोर मन्दर के अन्दर रहन वारी, ऊँचे घोर मन्दर के अन्दर रहाती हैं।
  • रूपक अलंकार
  • जब उपमेय का उपमान मे अभेद हों, तब रूपक अलंकार होता है।
  • उदाहरण- पायो जी मैंने राम रतन धन पायो।
  • उत्प्रेक्षा अलंकार
  • जहाँ उपमेय में उपमान होने की संभावना या कल्पना की जाती है, वहाँ उत्प्रेक्षा अलंकार होता है।
  • उदाहरण- सोहत ओढ़े पीत पर, स्याम सलोने गात। मनहु नील मनि सैण पर, आतप परयौ प्रभात।
95

निम्नलिखित में से अशुद्ध वाक्य है :

  1. ((a))

    वह पुस्तक मैंने पढ़ी है।

  2. ((b))

    उसकी माताजी दिल्ली में रहती हैं।

  3. ((c))

    वह धीमे स्वर में बोला।

  4. ((d))

    वे अभी - अभी गाना गाए हैं।

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

वे अभी - अभी गाना गाए हैं।

वे अभी - अभी गाना गाए हैं, अशुद्ध वाक्य है, अत: विकल्प 4 सही उत्तर होगा।

Key Points

  • अशुद्ध वाक्य- वे अभी - अभी गाना गाए हैं।
  • शुद्ध वाक्य- उन्होनें अभी - अभी गाना गाया है।
  • अन्य विकल्पों में शुद्ध वाक्य दिए गए है।
  • शब्द शुद्धि के साथ वाक्य शुद्धि का भी भाषा में महत्त्वपूर्ण स्थान होता है।
  • वाक्य में अनावश्यक (पुनरुक्ति) शब्द प्रयोग से, अनुपयुक्त शब्द के प्रयुक्त होने से, सही क्रम या अन्विति न होने से,
  • लिंग, वचन,कारक का सही प्रयोग नहीं होने से, सही सर्वनाम एवं क्रिया का प्रयोग न होने से वाक्य अशुद्ध हो जाता है।
  • जो अर्थ के साथ भाषा सौन्दर्य को हानि पहुँचाता है।

Additional Informationवाक्य अशुद्धि के कुछ उदाहरण-​

  • अशुद्ध वाक्य - मेरे को कुछ याद नहीं आ रहा। (सर्वनाम संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ)
  • शुद्ध वाक्य - मुझे कुछ याद नहीं आ रहा।
  • अशुद्ध वाक्य - यह सबसे सुन्दरतम साड़ी है। (विशेषण संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ)
  • शुद्ध वाक्य - यह सुन्दरतम साड़ी है।
  • अशुद्ध वाक्य - आज उसके गुप्त रहस्य का राज खुला। (विशेषण संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ)
  • शुद्ध वाक्य - आज उसके रहस्य का राज खुला।
  • अशुद्ध वाक्य - राम और सीता वन को गई। (क्रिया संबंधी अशुद्धि)
  • शुद्ध वाक्य - राम और सीता वन को गए।
96

वर्तनी की दृष्टि से अशुद्ध शब्द है:

  1. ((a))

    मध्याह्न

  2. ((b))

    उपलक्ष्य

  3. ((c))

    उज्जवल

  4. ((d))

    स्टेशन

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

उज्जवल

उज्जवल वर्तनी की दृष्टि से अशुद्ध शब्द है।

Key Points

  • उज्जवल की शुद्ध वर्तनी उज्ज्वल है।
  • अन्य विकल्पों में शुद्ध वर्तनी दी गई है।
  • मध्याह्न का अर्थ- दोपहर होता है।
  • उपलक्ष्य का अर्थ- लक्ष्य करने योग्य।
  • स्टेशन- रेलगाड़ियों के ठहरने का स्थान।

Additional Informationशुद्ध- अशुद्ध वर्तनी के अन्य उदाहरण-

अशुद्धशुद्ध
अंगुरअंगूर
अतिथीअतिथि
तिथीतिथि
प्रतिनिधप्रतिनिधि
पत्निपत्नी
97

'आप भला तो जग भला' लोकोक्ति का निम्नलिखित में से सटीक अर्थ है:

  1. ((a))

    अच्छे को सभी अच्छे लगते हैं

  2. ((b))

    सबका भला करना चाहिए

  3. ((c))

    सबको समान समझना चाहिए

  4. ((d))

    संसार हमारी तरह है

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

अच्छे को सभी अच्छे लगते हैं

'आप भला तो जग भला' लोकोक्ति का अर्थ अच्छे को सभी अच्छे लगते हैं होगा, अन्य विकल्प अंसगत है।

अत: विकल्प 1 सही उत्तर है।

Key Points 

  • अच्छे को सभी अच्छे लगते हैं, सही उत्तर है।
  • वाक्य प्रयोग - तुम्हारे पिताजी बहुत ईमानदार हैं इसलिए सबको ईमानदार समझते हैं।
  • इसलिए कहा जाता है - "आप भले तो जग भल"
  • जब कोई पूरा कथन किसी प्रसंग विशेष में उद्धत किया जाता है तो लोकोक्ति कहलाता है।
  • इसी को कहावत कहते है। लोकोक्ति वाक्यांश न होकर स्वतंत्र वाक्य होते हैं।

Additional Informationकुछ अन्य महत्वपूर्ण लोकोक्ति एवं उनका अर्थ:-

  • गए रोजे छुड़ाने नमाज गले पड़ी- उपकार करने के बदले स्वयं दुःख भोगना

          वाक्य प्रयोग- गली में लड़ाई हो रही थी मामले को सुलझाने गया था तो पुलिस मुझे ही पकड़ कर ले गई यह तो गये थे "गए रोजा छुड़ाने, नमाज पड़ी गले वाली बात होगी"।

  • कहे खेत की, सुने खलिहान की- कहा कुछ गया और समझा कुछ गया

          वाक्य प्रयोग- राम का स्वभाव समझ नहीं आता। उससे कहो "खेत की तो वह सुनता है खलिहान की"।

  • तेते पाँव पसारिए, जैती लाँबी सौर- आय के अनुसार ही व्यय करना चाहिए

          वाक्य प्रयोग- आमदनी से ज्यादा खर्च करोगे तो कर्ज में डूबे रहोगे और रहोगे हमेशा परेशान, "तेते पाँव पसारिये जैती लम्बी सौर"। 

  • धोबी से पार न पावे, गधे के कान उमेठे - बलवान पर वश न चले तो निर्धन पर गुस्सा निकालना

           वाक्य प्रयोग - रमेश अपने साहब के सामने तो गिड़गिड़ाता रहता है और चपरासी पर रौब डांटता है - "धोबी से पार न पावे, गधे के कान उमेठे"।

  • टके की हांडी गई, कुत्ते की जात पहचानी गई - थोड़े ही खर्च में किसी के चरित्र को जान लेना

           वाक्य प्रयोग - जब रमेश ने पैसे वापस नहीं किए तो सोहन ने सोच लिया कि अब वह उसे दोबारा उधार नहीं देगा- "टके की हांडी गई, कुत्ते की जात पहचानी गई"।

98

‘तुलसीकृत' शब्द में समास है : 

  1. ((a))

    कर्मधारय

  2. ((b))

    तत्पुरुष

  3. ((c))

    द्वन्द्व

  4. ((d))

    अव्ययीभाव

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

तत्पुरुष

दिए गए विकल्पों में से सही उत्तर विकल्प 2 ‘तत्पुरुष समास’ है। अन्य विकल्प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

  • दिए गए विकल्पों में से 'तुलसीकृत' का उचित समास विग्रह 'तुलसी द्वारा रचित' या 'तुलसी द्वारा कृत' होगा।
  • 'तुलसीकृत' शब्द में बीच की विभक्ति 'द्वारा' का लोप होने के कारण यह तत्पुरुष समास का उदाहरण है।
  • जिस समास में प्रथम पद गौण और उत्तर पद की प्रधानता होती है,
  • और समास करते वक्त बीच की विभक्ति का लोप हो जाता है, वहा तत्पुरुष समास होता है।

अन्य विकल्प: 

समासपरिभाषाउदाहरण
कर्मधारय समासपहला पद विशेषण और दूसरा पद विशेष्य होता है अथवा इसके पूर्वपद और उत्तर पद में उपमान और उपमेय का संबंध होता है।नव है जो युवक  = नवयुवक
द्वंद्व समासजिस समास में दोनों पद प्रधान हों तथा विग्रह करने पर उनके बीच ‘तथा’, ‘या’, ‘अथवा’, ‘एवं’, ‘और’ का प्रयोग होता है ।माता और पिता = माता-पिता
अव्ययीभाव समासजिसका पहला पद अव्यय होता है और उसका अर्थ प्रधान होता है। (उसमें कोई परिवर्तन नहीं किया जा सकता)जन्म से लेकर = आजन्म

Additional Information 

  • 'संक्षिप्तिकरण' को समास कहते हैं।
  • दूसरे शब्दों में समास, संक्षेप करने की एक प्रक्रिया है।
  • दो या दो से अधिक शब्दों का परस्पर सम्बन्ध बताने वाले शब्दों अथवा कारक चिह्नों का लोप होने पर उन दो अथवा दो से अधिक शब्दों के मेल से बने एक स्वतन्त्र शब्द को समास कहते हैं।
99

निम्नलिखित में से विसर्ग संधि वाला शब्द नहीं है :

  1. ((a))

    दुरुपयोग

  2. ((b))

    दिगंबर

  3. ((c))

    बहिर्मुख

  4. ((d))

    निराशा

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

दिगंबर

दिगंबर, विसर्ग संधि वाला शब्द नहीं है, अत: विकल्प 2 सही उत्तर है।

Key Points

  • दिगंबर में व्यंजन संधि है।
  • दिगंबर का संधि विच्छेद होगा-  'दिक् + अम्बर' होगा।
  • अन्य विकल्प विसर्ग संधि के नियमों से बने निर्मित शब्द है।
  • अन्य विकल्पों और संधि विच्छेद-
विकल्पसंधि विच्छेद
दुरुपयोगदुः + उपयोग
बहिर्मुखबहि : + मुख
निराशानिः + आशा

Additional Information

संधि - दो शब्दों के मेल से जो विकार (परिवर्तन) होता है उसे संधि कहते हैं। संधि के तीन प्रकार हैं - 1. स्वर, 2. व्यंजन 3. विसर्ग.
संधिपरिभाषाउदाहरण
स्वरस्वर वर्ण के साथ स्वर वर्ण के मेल से विकार उत्पन्न होता है।विद्या + अर्थी = विद्यार्थी महा + ईश = महेश
व्यंजनएक व्यंजन से दूसरे व्यंजन या स्वर के मेल से विकार उत्पन्न होता है।अहम् + कार = अहंकार उत् + लास = उल्लास
विसर्गविसर्ग के साथ स्वर या व्यंजन के मेल से विकार उत्पन्न होता है।दुः + आत्मा =दुरात्मा निः + कपट =निष्कपट
100

निम्नलिखित में से असंगत विलोमार्थी शब्द - युग्म है :

  1. ((a))

    जीवित - मृत

  2. ((b))

    ताप - शीत

  3. ((c))

    जटिल - सरल

  4. ((d))

    दुर्जन - सजन

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

दुर्जन - सजन

दुर्जन - सजन, असंगत विलोमार्थी शब्द - युग्म है, अत: विकल्प 4 सही उत्तर है।

Key Points

  • दुर्जन का विलोम सज्जन होता है।
  • दुर्जन का अर्थ दुष्ट व्यक्ति, सज्जन का अर्थ- भला आदमी होता है।
  • अन्य विकल्पों में सही विलोम युग्म दिए गए है।
  • विलोम शब्द- वे शब्द जो अपने सामने वाले शब्द के सर्वदा विपरीत अर्थ प्रकट करता हो उसे विलोम शब्द कहा जाता है|
  • उदाहरण-  1) आरोह – अवरोह   2)आविर्भाव – तिरोभाव आदि।

Additional Informationविलोम शब्द के अन्य उदाहरण-

शब्दविलोम
ऊसरउर्वरा
आस्तिकनास्तिक
गणतंत्रराजतंत्र
कर्कशमधुर
नवीनप्राचीन

Basic Knowledge of Computer Operation (30 questions)

101

________ is used to quickly apply the same formatting, such as colour, font style and size, or border style, to multiple pieces of text or graphics.

  1. ((a))

    Format Painter

  2. ((b))

    Format Stamp

  3. ((c))

    Format Move

  4. ((d))

    Format Copy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Format Painter

The correct answer is Format Painter.

Key Points

  • The Format Painter is a useful tool found in various software applications, especially in productivity tools like Microsoft Office (such as Microsoft Word, Excel, and PowerPoint)
  • The Format Painter is a feature that allows you to quickly copy formatting (such as font styles, colors, borders, and alignment) from one part of a document or object to another.
  • It simplifies the process of applying consistent formatting across different elements within the same document.
102

Tarunji Sen is planning to buy a new smartphone. Which one of the following aspects should he not be bothered about?

  1. ((a))

    Operating System

  2. ((b))

    Camera Pixels

  3. ((c))

    Ethernet Port

  4. ((d))

    Internal Memory

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Ethernet Port

The correct answer is Ethernet Port.

Key Points

  • When considering a new smartphone, Ethernet Port is an aspect that Arunji Sen should not be bothered about.
  • Unlike computers, smartphones typically do not come with Ethernet ports.
  • Instead, they rely on wireless technologies such as Wi-Fi and mobile data for internet connectivity.
  • An Ethernet port, also known as an Ethernet jack or Ethernet connector, is a physical interface on a device (such as a computer, router, or switch) that allows it to connect to a wired local area network (LAN).
  • It is typically used for high-speed data transmission over twisted-pair cables

Additional Information

  • Operating System (OS):
  • The operating system is the software that runs on a smartphone and manages its hardware and software resources.
  • Common mobile operating systems include Android, iOS (used by iPhones), and occasionally other specialized OSes.
  • Camera Pixels
  • This refers to the resolution of the smartphone’s camera sensor. It is usually measured in megapixels (MP).
  • Higher megapixel counts do not always guarantee better image quality; factors like sensor size, lens quality, and image processing also play a crucial role.
  • Internal Memory
  • Internal memory (often referred to as storage) determines how much data (apps, photos, videos, etc.) a smartphone can hold.
  • It is usually measured in gigabytes (GB) or terabytes(TB).
103

Which out of the following is the correct full form of VoIP?

  1. ((a))

    Voice over Internet Protocol

  2. ((b))

    Voice on Internet Protocol

  3. ((c))

    Voice over Internetwork Protocol

  4. ((d))

    Video over Internet Protocol

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Voice over Internet Protocol

The correct answer is Voice over Internet Protocol.

Key Points

  • Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) is a method and group of technologies for the delivery of voice communications and multimedia sessions over Internet Protocol (IP) networks, such as the Internet.
  • The terms Internet telephony, broadband telephony and broadband phone service refer specifically to the provision of communication services (voice, fax, SMS, voice messaging) over the Internet rather than over the public switched telephone network (PSTN).
  • VoIP technology converts the voice signal used in traditional phone calls into a digital signal that travels via the Internet rather than analog phone lines.
  • Because calls are being made over the Internet, they are essentially free when made wherever the Internet is available.
  • The traditional telephone industry was hit hard by the VoIP boom, with many users abandoning it as some of its services have become nearly obsolete.
  • During the COVID-19 pandemic, VoIP became essential to modern workplaces as telecommuting replaced the office.
104

Which out of following is not a file extension of a video file?

  1. ((a))

    .mp4

  2. ((b))

    .avi

  3. ((c))

    .pdf

  4. ((d))

    .mov

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

.pdf

The correct answer is Pdf.

Key Points

  • PDF is not a file extension of a video File
  • PDF stands for Portable Document Format and is a file format used for representing documents in a consistent manner across different devices and operating systems.
  • PDF files can contain text, images, links, and other elements.
  • PDFs support various image formats (JPEG, PNG, GIF, etc.). Images can be embedded within the document or linked externally.
  • Images can be part of the document content (e.g., diagrams, photos) or used for decorative purposes (e.g., logos, watermarks)

Additional Information

  • AVI (Audio Video Interleave) - introduced by Microsoft, uses less compression than other video formats, very large file sizes
  • .MOV (QuickTime multimedia) - designed by Apple, high-quality video format, compatible across different versions of QuickTimePlayer, both for Mac and Windows
  • .FLV ( Flash Live Video) - a file format used by Adobe Flash Player, for online video streaming platforms like YouTube, relatively small file siz
  • MP4:
  • The MP4 format, also known as MPEG-4 Part 14, is a digital multimedia container format most commonly used to store video and audio.
  • It can also hold other data like subtitles and still images.
  • Renowned for its high compression while maintaining quality, MP4 is compatible with a wide range of devices and software.
105

An Operating System is an example of: 

  1. ((a))

    Utility Software

  2. ((b))

    Language Processor

  3. ((c))

    System Software

  4. ((d))

    Application Software

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

System Software

The correct answer is System Software.

Key Points

  • An Operating System (OS) is an interface between a computer user and computer hardware.
  • Some popular Operating Systems include Linux Operating System, VMS, OS/400, AIX, z/OS, Apple macOS, Unix Operating System, Microsoft Windows, Google's Android OS, Linux Operating System, and Apple iOS.
  • Apple macOS is found on Apple personal computers such as the Apple Macbook, Apple Macbook Pro, and Apple Macbook Air.
  • UNIX is an operating system that was first developed in the 1960s and has been under constant development ever since.
  • By operating system, we mean the suite of programs that make the computer work.
  • It is a stable, multi-user, multi-tasking system for servers, desktops, and laptops.

Additional Information

  • Following are some of the important functions of an operating system:
  • Memory Management
  • Processor Management
  • Device Management
  • File Management
  • Security
  • Control over system performance
  • Job accounting
  • Error detecting aids
  • Coordination between other software and users
106

The first supercomputer developed in India is

  1. ((a))

    ARYABHATTA

  2. ((b))

    PARAM

  3. ((c))

    VISHAL

  4. ((d))

    BUDDHA

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

PARAM

The correct answer is PARAM.

Key Points

  • PARAM is considered to be the first supercomputer developed in India.
  • PARAM is a series of supercomputers developed by C-DAC in Pune.
  • PARAM supercomputers developed under the leadership of Vijay P Bhatkar.
  • Supercomputers developed by India are EKA, PARAM, Kabru, Blue Gene.
  • Pratyush is India's fastest supercomputer.

Additional Information

  • Some notable PARAM supercomputers include:
  • PARAM 8000: India's first supercomputer, introduced in 1991.
  • PARAM 8000 Plus: An upgraded version of PARAM 8000, released in 1994.
  • PARAM 8600: A supercomputer launched in 1998, which utilized a distributed memory architecture.
  • PARAM 10000: Introduced in 1998, PARAM 10000 was designed for weather forecasting and other scientific applications.
  • PARAM Padma: A supercomputer launched in 2002, featuring high computational power and network bandwidth.
  • PARAM Yuva: A supercomputer unveiled in 2009, offering significant computing capabilities for research and development.
  • PARAM Shakti: A series of indigenous supercomputers based on RISC-V architecture, developed by C-DAC and announced in 2018. This series aims to promote the development and adoption of the indigenous processor architecture in India.
  • PARAM Siddhi-AI: An artificial intelligence-focused supercomputer unveiled in 2020, designed to accelerate research in AI and machine learning applications.
107

Which out of the following is not an example of IP Address?

  1. ((a))

    202.54.256.30

  2. ((b))

    10.10.10.120

  3. ((c))

    25.16.25.100

  4. ((d))

    198.168.30.9

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

202.54.256.30

The correct answer is 202.54.256.30

Key Points

  • 202.54.256.30: This is not an Example of IP Address because The third octet has a value of 256, which is outside the valid range (0 to 255).
  • When a user wants to download or upload a file to the Internet or tries to access web pages then the computer uses an address.
  • It will help other computers to search and locate the specified computer to send that particular file or webpage that the user is requesting. This address is referred to as IP Address or Internet Protocol Address.
  • The range of the full IP address belongs from 0.0.0.0 to 255.255.255.255.
  • Valid Examples of IP Address :
  • 10.10.10.120: This is a valid private IP address (Class A) used within local networks.
  • 25.16.25.100: This is a valid IP address within the specified range.
  • 198.168.30.9: This is a valid private IP address (Class C) commonly used for local network devices.

Additional Information

  • There are Two types of IP addresses which are IPv4 and IPv6.
  • IPv4: The full form of IPv4 is Internet Protocol version 4. It is a 32-bit address.
  • IPv6: The full form of IPv6 is Internet Protocol version 6. It is a 128-bit address.
108

________ are the visual effects which appear in PowerPoint when one slide moves to next.

  1. ((a))

    Slide Effects

  2. ((b))

    Slide Transitions

  3. ((c))

    Slide Frames

  4. ((d))

    Slide Movements

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Slide Transitions

The correct answer is Slide Transitions.

Key Points

  • Slide transitions are visual effects that occur when moving from one slide to the next during a presentation.
  • Add movement or style when moving from one slide to another.
  • Offer a range of effects like fades, wipes, zooms, etc.
  • Can adjust speed, direction, and timing.
  • Demonstrate attention to detail and presentation finesse.

Additional Information

  • Slide Effects:
  • This term refers to visual changes or animations applied to individual elements within a slide, such as text, images, or shapes.
  • It can include animations like entrance effects (e.g., fly-in, fade-in), emphasis effects (e.g., grow, pulse), and exit effects (e.g., fly-out, fade-out).
  • They are used to add visual interest and dynamism to specific slide elements during a presentation.
  • Slide Frames:
  • Slide frames typically refer to the boundaries or containers that hold the content of each slide within a presentation.
  • They define the dimensions and layout of the slide, including the placement of text, images, and other elements.
  • It helps organize and structure the content on a slide, ensuring clarity and visual appeal.
  • Slide Movements:
  • Slide movements could refer to the physical movement or transitions between slides during a presentation.
  • This term might encompass both slide transitions (the visual effects between slides) and the navigation or progression from one slide to the next.
  • It refers to animations applied to slide elements, like moving text or images, to emphasize points or enhance storytelling.
109

Which out of the following is the combination of keys used to copy a selected text in word processing software?

  1. ((a))

    Ctrl + P

  2. ((b))

    Ctrl + Y

  3. ((c))

    Alt + C

  4. ((d))

    Ctrl + C

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Ctrl + C

The correct answer is Ctrl + C.

Key Points

  • Ctrl + C: Shortcut for copying selected text.
  • Provides a fast method to duplicate text.
  • Works in most word-processing software.
  • Eliminates the need for using menus or mouse clicks.
  • Can be used within or between documents and applications.

Additional Information

  • Ctrl + X:
  • Shortcut for cutting selected text.
  • Removes the selected text and places it in the clipboard for pasting elsewhere.
  • Useful for moving text rather than duplicating it.
  • Ctrl + V:
  • Shortcut for pasting copied or cut text.
  • Inserts the content stored in the clipboard at the cursor's location.
  • Completes the copy-cut-paste sequence for transferring text within or between documents.
  • Ctrl + Z:
  • Shortcut for undoing the most recent action.
  • Reverses the effects of the last operation, whether it's typing, formatting, or editing text.
  • Provides a quick way to correct mistakes or revert changes.
110

Which out of the following is the correct full form of TCP?

  1. ((a))

    Transmission Central Protocol

  2. ((b))

    Transportation Control Protocol

  3. ((c))

    Transport Control Protocol

  4. ((d))

    Transmission Control Protocol

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Transmission Control Protocol

The correct answer is Transmission Control Protocol.

Key Points

  • Transmission Control Protocol (TCP):
  • TCP is a fundamental protocol of the Internet protocol suite.
  • It provides reliable, ordered, and error-checked delivery of data packets over networks.
  • TCP breaks data into packets and ensures they reach their destination without errors or loss.
  • It manages the flow of data between computers or devices connected to the Internet.
  • TCP is widely used for applications such as web browsing, email, file transfer, and more.
  • It works in conjunction with the Internet Protocol (IP) to form the TCP/IP protocol suite.

Important Points

  • Various Protocols and the layers on which they work in TCP/IP model are shown:

111

Which of the following is not a file extension of an image file?

  1. ((a))

    .tiff

  2. ((b))

    .jpg

  3. ((c))

    .png

  4. ((d))

    .wav

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

.wav

The correct answer is .wav.

Key Points

  • .tiff:
  • Stands for Tagged Image File Format, commonly used for high-quality images and graphics.
  • .jpg:
  • Represents the JPEG (Joint Photographic Experts Group) format, widely used for compressed images with lossy compression.
  • .png:
  • Denotes the Portable Network Graphics format, known for its lossless compression and support for transparency.
  • .wav:
  • This is not an image file extension; it stands for Waveform Audio File Format, commonly used for storing audio data in a lossless format.

Additional Information

  • Examples of image file formats are: 
  • JPEG (or JPG) - Joint Photographic Experts Group.
  • PNG - Portable Network Graphics.
  • GIF - Graphics Interchange Format.
  • TIFF - Tagged Image File.
  • PSD - Photoshop Document.
  • PDF - Portable Document Format.
  • EPS - Encapsulated Postscript.
  • AI - Adobe Illustrator Document.
  • INDD - Adobe Indesign Document.
  • RAW - Raw Image Formats.
112

Gafoor Shanty is planning to connect 24 computers in his office using Ethernet Cable as part of a Local Area Network. Which one of the following devices should he use for the same?

  1. ((a))

    Repeater

  2. ((b))

    Switch

  3. ((c))

    HDMI Splitter

  4. ((d))

    Booster

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Switch

The correct answer is Switch.

Key Points

  • Switch:
  • A networking device used to connect multiple devices within a local area network (LAN).
  • Provides multiple Ethernet ports to connect computers, printers, servers, and other network devices.
  • Manages data traffic efficiently by directing data packets only to the intended recipient device.
  • Offers full-duplex communication, allowing simultaneous data transmission and reception.
  • Supports higher data transfer speeds and better network performance compared to older devices like hubs or repeaters.

Additional Information

  • Repeater:
  • Extends the range of a network by amplifying and retransmitting signals.
  • Used to overcome signal degradation over long distances in a network.
  • HDMI Splitter:
  • Duplicates a single HDMI signal to multiple displays simultaneously.
  • Allows the same audio and video content to be shown on multiple screens.
  • Booster:
  • Generally refers to devices that enhance signal strength or performance.
  • In networking, it may amplify Wi-Fi or cellular signals.
113

Which out of the following ports will be most suitable for connecting High Quality Audio - Video output on a PC / laptop ?

  1. ((a))

    HDMI

  2. ((b))

    PS2

  3. ((c))

    VGA

  4. ((d))

    USB

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

HDMI

The correct answer is HDMI.

Key Points

  • HDMI (High-Definition Multimedia Interface):
  • Designed for transmitting high-quality audio and video signals.
  • Supports uncompressed digital audio and video data.
  • Provides a single cable solution for connecting devices such as PCs/laptops, TVs, monitors, and projectors.
  • Delivers superior audio and video quality compared to other ports like VGA or USB.
  • Offers support for high-definition resolutions, including 4K and beyond.

Additional Information

  • PS2:
  • PS2 ports are primarily used for connecting peripherals such as keyboards and mice to a computer.
  • PS2 ports are gradually being phased out in favour of USB ports for peripheral connectivity.
  • VGA (Video Graphics Array):
  • VGA ports are analog video ports commonly found on older computers and monitors.
  • VGA cables transmit analog signals, which may result in lower image quality compared to digital interfaces like HDMI.
  • USB (Universal Serial Bus):
  • USB ports connect keyboards, mice, printers, and storage to computers.
  • USB mainly transfers data, not high-quality audio video.
  • USB ports can transmit video with adapters but aren't as good as HDMI for high-def audio video.
114

Which out of the following is not an example of a Relational Database Management System (RDBMS) ?

  1. ((a))

    MS Excel

  2. ((b))

    MS SQL Server

  3. ((c))

    IBM DB2

  4. ((d))

    MySQL

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

MS Excel

The correct answer is MS Excel.

Key Points

  • MS Excel is not an example of a Relational Database Management System (RDBMS).
  • Excel uses spreadsheets, while RDBMS uses tables.
  • Excel is suitable for small to medium-sized datasets, while RDBMS can handle large volumes of data.
  • Excel allows single-user editing, while RDBMS supports multi-user access.
  • Excel lacks a full-fledged query language like SQL, which RDBMS provides.

Additional Information

  • MS SQL Server:
  • Developed by Microsoft, it's a robust RDBMS designed for enterprise-level data management.
  • Offers advanced features like transaction processing, data warehousing, and business intelligence.
  • Provides high availability, scalability, and security features for mission-critical applications.
  • IBM DB2:
  • Developed by IBM, it's a powerful RDBMS with a long history in the enterprise space.
  • Supports various operating systems including Windows, Linux, and UNIX.
  • Known for its reliability, scalability, and performance in handling large-scale databases.
  • MySQL:
  • An open-source RDBMS, widely used for web applications and small to medium-sized databases.
  • Offers features such as multi-user access, data security, and transaction support.
  • Known for its ease of use, flexibility, and strong community support.
115

What does 's' stand for in https?

  1. ((a))

    Stream

  2. ((b))

    Security

  3. ((c))

    Space

  4. ((d))

    Secure

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Secure

The correct answer is Secure.

Key Points

  • HTTPS is the secure form of HTTP.
  • The 's' at the end of "https" stands for secure.
  • It means all communications between the browser and the website are encrypted.
  • It is commonly used for protecting highly confidential online transactions.
  • URL begins with https://.

Additional Information

  • HTTP is the acronym for Hypertext Transfer Protocol.
  • http is a stateless protocol.
  • The main goal of secure internet communication is to authenticate websites and protect the privacy and integrity of exchanged data.
  • https prevents hackers from reading and modifying the data during the data transfer.
  • It uses port 443 by default.
  • Secured using SSL technology.

116

Which out of the following cannot be reported as Cyber Crime ?

  1. ((a))

    Sharing of pornographic content online

  2. ((b))

    Theft of a brand new hard disk from a showroom

  3. ((c))

    Entering into someone's online bank account and transferring money from there

  4. ((d))

    Threatening someone on social media platform

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Theft of a brand new hard disk from a showroom

The correct answer is Theft of a brand new hard disk from a showroom.

Key Points

  • Involves physical theft from a physical location (showroom), not directly related to Cyber Crime.
  • Falls under conventional criminal law rather than cybercrime law.
  • Investigated and prosecuted through traditional legal channels

Additional Information

  • Sharing of pornographic content online:
  • Involves the distribution of illicit material through digital platforms.
  • Considered a cybercrime due to the use of online channels for dissemination.
  • Can violate laws related to obscenity, child exploitation, and online content distribution.
  • Entering into someone's online bank account and transferring money from there:
  • Involves unauthorized access to digital banking systems, constituting cybercrime.
  • Known as online banking fraud or unauthorized access.
  • Violates laws related to unauthorized access, fraud, and financial crimes.
  • Threatening someone on a social media platform:
  • Involves harassment, intimidation, or coercion conducted through digital platforms.
  • Considered cyberbullying or online harassment, falling under cybercrime laws.
  • Can violate laws related to cyberstalking, harassment, and online threats.

Important Points

  • Identity Theft: Punishable under Section 66C of the IT Act, 2000.
  • Software Piracy: Punishable under Section 63B of the IT Act, 2000.
  • Hacking: Punishable under section Section 66 of the IT Act, 2000.
117

Which out of the following is true about cell range in MS Excel?

  1. ((a))

    Collection of values

  2. ((b))

    Collection of formulae

  3. ((c))

    Collection of occupied cells

  4. ((d))

    Collection of chosen cells

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Collection of chosen cells

The correct answer is option 4: Collection of chosen cells

Key Points

  • Cell Range in MS Excel:
  • A cell range refers to a group of selected or highlighted cells in a spreadsheet.
  • It can be a single cell, a row, a column, or a block of cells.
  • The range is written as the address of the first cell and the last cell separated by a colon. Example: A1:C5
  • It does not necessarily mean only occupied or only formula cells—it can include empty, value, or formula cells.

Additional Information

  • Shortcut to select a range: Click on a cell and drag the mouse or use Shift + Arrow keys.
  • You can also use Ctrl + Click to select non-contiguous cells to form a range.

Hence, the correct answer is: option 4: Collection of chosen cells

118

Which out of the following is the extension of MS PowerPoint file?

  1. ((a))

    .pwpt

  2. ((b))

    .pdocx

  3. ((c))

    .ppoint

  4. ((d))

    .pptx

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

.pptx

The correct answer is .pptx.

Key Points

  • .pptx:
  • This is the file extension used for MS PowerPoint presentations created in versions 2007 and later.
  • It stands for "PowerPoint XML," indicating that the file is saved in XML-based format.
  • .pptx files can contain slides, text, images, multimedia elements, animations, and more.
  • They work on many platforms and can be shared and opened in PowerPoint and other presentation tools.

Additional Information

  • .pdf - PDF stands for "portable document format".
  • .jpg - JPEG stands for Joint Photographic Experts Group. The JPEG file type is one of the world's most widely used image file formats.
  • .doc - file extension refers to a word-processing document format.
119

Which out of the following is the correct file extension of an Excel file?

  1. ((a))

    .xcl

  2. ((b))

    .xlsx

  3. ((c))

    .xelx

  4. ((d))

    .excel

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

.xlsx

The correct answer is .xlsx.

Key Points

  • Microsoft Excel is an electronic spreadsheet that runs on a personal computer.
  • Microsoft Excel 2007 is a version of Excel developed by Microsoft.
  • Files created in MS Excel are known as Workbook.
  • The extension used in MS Excel 2007 is '.xlsx'

Additional Information

ExtensionFormat
.aacAdvanced Audio Coding,Windows audio file
.emlEmail files created by Outlook Express, Windows Live Mail, and other programs.
.exeExecutable program file
jpg, jpegJoint Photographic Experts Group photo file
.pngPortable Network Graphics File
.ppsxMicrosoft PowePoint slide show
.docxMicrosoft Word document
120

Mohak Shangle is interested in making a digital presentation for marketing his company's new product using an Open Source Software. Which of the following software will you suggest for the same ?

  1. ((a))

    Writer

  2. ((b))

    Cale

  3. ((c))

    PowerPoint

  4. ((d))

    Impress

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Impress

The correct answer is Impress.

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Key Points

  • Impress is a component of the LibreOffice suite, which is an open-source software suite.
  • It is designed specifically for creating presentations, much like Microsoft PowerPoint, and offers a range of features for creating professional and engaging presentations.

Additional Information 

  • Microsoft PowerPoint
  • It is a powerful slide show presentation program.
  • It is a standard component of the company's Microsoft Office suite software
  • It is bundled together with Word, Excel, and other office productivity tools.
  • The program uses slides to convey information rich in multimedia.
  • MS PowerPoint was released on April 20, 1987, initially for Macintosh computers only.
  • Microsoft PowerPoint, virtual presentation software developed by Robert Gaskins and Dennis Austin for the American computer software company Forethought, Inc.
  • Basic PowerPoint Features are:
  • Design: The design features of PowerPoint allow you to customize the appearance and format of the slides.
  • Animation: PowerPoint animation is divided between slide transitions and element animation.
  • Presentation.
  • Integration.
121

What is the full form of bps in terms of computer networking?

  1. ((a))

    bits per system

  2. ((b))

    bytes per second

  3. ((c))

    bytes per system

  4. ((d))

    bits per second

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

bits per second

The correct answer is bits per second.

Key Points

  • Bit rate is commonly measured in bits per second (bit/s) and often includes a prefix, such as 'kilo', 'mega', 'Giga', or 'Tera'.
  • One kilobit per second (kbit/s) is the equivalent of 1000 bits per second.
  • Bandwidth is the maximum rate at which data can be transferred over a network or internet connection in a given amount of time.
  • Bandwidth is often confused with Internet speed, which is actually the rate at which data is transferred over a connection.
  • Bandwidth is important because it determines what is sent and received at any given time.
  • A higher bandwidth means that more data can be sent and received in a shorter time, leading to faster loading times and better performance.

Additional Information

  • Voice-band: 
  • The voice-band technology is designed for transmitting voice information.
  • It uses the voice spectrum for transmitting data.
  • The voice spectrum is a narrow band of frequencies which transfers 0–3,500 Hz amount of data.
  • The voice band is designed for telephone networks. An example of a voiceband modem is a dial-up 56-Kbps modem.
  • Broadband: 
  • A technology used in telecommunication for accessing the high-speed Internet
  • It is known as Broadband.
  • In this technology, multiple channels send and receive digital signals simultaneously.
  • Broadband connection transmits data over cables like coaxial cable, fiber optic, and twisted-pair cable.
122

Which out of the following is not an example of Operating System?

  1. ((a))

    Linux

  2. ((b))

    MS Windows

  3. ((c))

    Mozilla Firefox

  4. ((d))

    MacOS

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Mozilla Firefox

The correct answer is Mozilla Firefox.

Key Points 

  • Mozilla Firefox or simply Firefox is a free and open-source web browser.
  • It is developed by the Mozilla Foundation and its subsidiary, the Mozilla Corporation.
  • Firefox uses the Gecko rendering engine to display web pages.
  • Firefox was created in 2002 under the code name "Phoenix" by the Mozilla community members.

Additional Information

  • An Operating System (OS) is an interface between a computer user and computer hardware.
  • An operating system performs tasks like file management, memory management, process management, handling input and output, and controlling peripheral devices.
  • Some popular Operating Systems include Linux Operating System, VMS, OS/400, AIX, z/OS, Apple macOS, Unix Operating System, Microsoft Windows, Google's Android OS, Linux Operating System, and Apple iOS.
  • Apple macOS
  • Apple macOS is found on Apple personal computers such as the Apple Macbook, Apple Macbook Pro, and Apple MacBook Air.
  • The Linux operating system
  • The Linux operating system is a free and open-source operating system (OS).
  • An operating system is software that controls the hardware and resources of a computer, such as the CPU, memory, and storage.
  • The operating system lies between applications and hardware, connecting all of your software to the actual resources that perform the work.
  • Linux was created to be similar to UNIX, but it has since grown to run on a wide range of hardware, including phones and supercomputers.
  • MS Windows
  • ​It is an operating system is a system software or an interface between a computer user and computer hardware.
  • It basically communicates with the computer.
  • In 1985, Microsoft’s Windows operating system was first introduced.
  • Microsoft introduced Windows as a graphical operating system shell for MS-DOS in response to the growing interest in graphical user interfaces.
123

Which out of the following companies are not known for developing Antivirus software?

  1. ((a))

    McAfee

  2. ((b))

    Tally

  3. ((c))

    Kaspersky

  4. ((d))

    Norton

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Tally

The correct answer is Tally.

Key Points

  • Tally is a business software used for accounting, inventory management, payroll processing, taxation, and more.
  • ​It Provides a wide range of tools for efficient accounting and business management.
  • It is Developed by Tally Solutions, based in India.
  • It is Widely used by small and medium-sized enterprises (SMEs).
  • It offers a single platform for managing financial transactions, sales, purchases, and other business operations.

Additional Information

  • An antivirus is a utility software meant for preventing those malicious programs which may harm the computer.E.g. Kaspersky, AVG, McAfee, Quick Heal, etc.
  • Anti-virus helps in saving computers from viruses.
  • It is a software program that identifies and eliminates any threats that can damage a computer system.​
  • It is a set of programs that are designed to prevent, search for, detect, and remove software viruses.
  • Antivirus software begins operating by checking computer programs and files against a database of known types of malware.
  • Most antivirus programs incorporate both automated and manual filtering abilities.
  • F-Prot, McAfee, and NPAV are antivirus software.
  • McAfee Corp. is a San Jose, California-based global computer security software corporation.
  • Norton AntiVirus is an anti-virus or anti-malware software product, developed and distributed by NortonLifeLock
  • Kaspersky Lab is a Russian multinational cybersecurity and anti-virus provider headquartered in Moscow, Russia.
  • COBOL stands for Common Business Oriented Language.
  • It is first developed in 1960 by the CODASYL Committee (Conference on Data Systems Languages).
  • Avast Antivirus is a cross-platform internet security suite created by Avast for Microsoft Windows, macOS, Android, and iOS.
  • Avira Operations GmbH & Co. KG is a German multinational computer security software firm best known for its Avira Free Security antivirus software.
124

Which out of the following is not an input device?

  1. ((a))

    Joystick

  2. ((b))

    Plotter

  3. ((c))

    Barcode Scanner

  4. ((d))

    Touchpad

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Plotter

The correct answer is Plotter.

Key Points

  • A plotter is a graphics printer that draws images with ink pens.
  • Plotters actually draw point-to-point lines directly from vector graphics files.
  • The plotter was the first computer output device that could print graphics as well as accommodate full-size engineering and architectural drawings.
  • There are two main types of plotters – drum and flatbed plotters.
  • Drum plotters (also called roller plotters) spin the paperback and forth on a cylindrical drum while the ink pens move left and right. By combining these two directions, lines can be drawn in any direction.
  • Flatbed plotters have a large horizontal surface on which the paper is placed. A traveling bar draws lines on the paper as it moves across the surface.

Additional Information

  • Input Device
  • Input devices are the component of the computer system that accepts incoming data and instructions.
  • It converts them into a pattern of electrical signals in binary code that is understandable to a digital computer.
  • Output Devices
  • Output devices are the component of a computer system that converts the digitized signals into a form understandable to the user.
  • The output devices are generally known as the reverse of input devices.
  • Output devices also send data from one computer system to another.
  • The basic difference between Input and Output devices:
INPUT DEVICEOUTPUT DEVICE
It accepts data from the user.It reflects processed data to the user.
It is directly commanded by the user.It is commanded by the processor.
It converts user-friendly instruction into a machine friendly.It converts the machine’s instructions to user intelligible.
It takes the data from the user and sends it to the processor for execution.It takes the processed data from the processor and sends it back to the user.
It helps the computer is accepting the data.It helps the computer is displaying the data.
The design of input devices is more complex.The design of output devices is less complex.
Ex: Keyboard, Image Scanner, Microphone, Pointing device, Graphics tablet, Joystick, MouseEx: Monitor, Printers, Plotters, Projector, Speakers.
125

Which out of the following is the largest memory unit?

  1. ((a))

    Exabyte

  2. ((b))

    Petabyte

  3. ((c))

    Gigabyte

  4. ((d))

    Kilobyte

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Exabyte

The correct answer is Exabyte.

Key Points

  • An exabyte (EB) is a unit of measurement for computers.
  • One Exabyte is equal to 1024 petabytes.
  • CPU consists of Memory or storage units that can store instructions, data, and intermediate results.
  • This unit supplies information to other units of the computer when needed.
  • It is also known as an internal storage unit or the main memory or primary storage or Random Access Memory (RAM).
  • Storage capacity is expressed in terms of Bytes.
  • The data is represented as binary digits.

Additional Information

  • Storage Measurement Chart
UnitExpansion
1 BitSingle Binary Digit (0 or 1)
1 Nibble4 bits (half a byte)
1 Byte (1B)8 bits
1 Kilobyte (1KB)1024 Bytes
1 Megabyte (1MB)1024 Kilobytes
1 Gigabyte (1GB)1024 Megabytes
1 Terabyte (1GB)1024 Gigabytes
1 Petabyte (1PB)1024 Terabytes
1 Exabyte (1EB)1024 Petabytes
1 Zettabyte (1ZB)1024 Exabytes
1 Yottabyte (1YB)1024 Zettabytes
126

Eena Khande is creating her project report as a document and is interested in typing the same in an easy - to - use software with facility of formatting, page setting and styling features. Which out of the following software will be ideal for the same?

  1. ((a))

    Notepad

  2. ((b))

    Calc

  3. ((c))

    Acrobat Reader

  4. ((d))

    MS Word

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

MS Word

The correct answer is MS Word.

Key Points

  • MS Word, or Microsoft Word, is a Word Processor.
  • It's a software application developed by Microsoft as a part of its Office Suite.
  • It offers robust tools for creating, editing, formatting, and printing documents in a variety of formats, including letters, resumes, reports, and more.
  • MS Word comes with many features, including spell check, grammar check, text and font formatting, HTML support, image support, advanced page layout, and more.
  • Over the years, it has become one of the most widely used word processing programs due to its user-friendly interface and advanced features.

Additional Information

  • Notepad 
  • Notepad is a text editor or a program for editing plain text.
  • It can edit text files (with the ".txt" file extension) as well as other suitable formats including batch files, INI files, and log files.
  • It is compatible with both left-to-right and right-to-left languages.
  • Acrobat Reader
  • It is an application developed by Adobe Inc. to view, create, print and manage files in Portable Document Format (PDF).
  • This software is available for desktop as well as mobile.
  • The Adobe Acrobat was first released on 15th June 1993.
127

Which of the following in not valid about an email address?

  1. ((a))

    Email Address cannot have space in it

  2. ((b))

    Email Address can have multiple dot (.) operators 

  3. ((c))

    Email Address can have any number of @ symbols

  4. ((d))

    Email Address should have one @ symbol

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Email Address can have any number of @ symbols

The correct answer is Email Address can have any number of @ symbols.

Key Points

  • Compelling valid email address characters consist of an email prefix and valid email domains, both in acceptable formats.
  • For example, in the address, "[email protected]",
  • "support" is the email prefix, and
  • "@nik.com" is the domain.
  • Similarly, in the address "[email protected]",
  • Nik.james555" is the email prefix, and
  • "@gmail.com" is the domain.
  • "Nik [email protected]" is an invalid e-mail id because there is a space between Nik and james.
  • Email Address cannot have space in it.
  • In the above example we can add Dot(.), numeric digits(555)
  • Capital letter(N) as email address are not case sensitive.​
  • Email Address should have one @ symbol

Additional Information

  • An email address is a unique identifier for an email account.
  • It is used to both send and receives email messages over the Internet.
  • Similar to physical mail, an email message requires an address for both the sender and recipient in order to be sent successfully.
  • The Three Parts of an Email Address:
  • Username. The first part of an email address is the username.
  • @ Symbol. An “at,” or “@,” symbol is the second part of an email address.
  • Domain. The last part of an email address is the domain, which can be broken down into two portions: the mail server and the top-level domain.
128

What is the full form of CPU?

  1. ((a))

    Central Primary Unit

  2. ((b))

    Central Process Unit

  3. ((c))

    Center Processing Unit

  4. ((d))

    Central Processing Unit

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Central Processing Unit

The correct answer is central processing unit

Key Points

  • A central processing unit (CPU), also called a central processor, main processor or just processor.
  • It is the electronic circuitry that executes instructions comprising a computer program.
  • The CPU performs basic arithmetic, logic, controlling, and input/output (I/O) operations specified by the instructions in the program.
  • This contrasts with external components such as main memory and I/O circuitry, and specialized processors such as graphics processing units.

Additional Information 

  • Principal components of a CPU include:
  • Control Unit:
  • A control unit that orchestrates the fetching (from memory) and execution of instructions by directing the coordinated operations of the ALU, registers and other components.
  • The control unit (CU) is a component of a computer's central processing unit (CPU) that directs the operation of the processor.
  • It tells the computer's memory, arithmetic logic unit and input and output devices how to respond to the instructions that have been sent to the processor.
  • ALU:
  • The arithmetic logic unit (ALU) performs arithmetic and logic operations.
  • In computing, an arithmetic logic unit is a combination digital circuit that performs arithmetic and bitwise operations on integer binary numbers. This is in contrast to a floating-point unit, which operates on floating-point numbers.
  • Registers:
  • Processor registers that supply operands to the ALU and store the results of ALU operations.
  • A processor register is a quickly accessible location available to a computer's processor.
  • Registers usually consist of a small amount of fast storage, although some registers have specific hardware functions, and maybe read-only or write-only.
129

Which of the following is the correct full form of HTTP ?

  1. ((a))

    HyperText Transfer Protocol

  2. ((b))

    Higher Text Transfer Protocol

  3. ((c))

    HyperText Transmission Protocol

  4. ((d))

    Hyper Transfer Text Protocol

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

HyperText Transfer Protocol

The correct answer HyperText Transfer Protocol.

Key Points

  • HTTP stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol.
  • Hypertext Transfer Protocol is an application protocol used for data communication.
  • It is the base of data communication in the World Wide Web.
  • It provides a standard for web browsers that facilitates users to exchange information over the internet.
  • HTTP is used by most websites to access any file or page. HTTP is a request-response protocol in the client-server computing model.
  • Hypertext - A text containing a link within it, is known as hypertext.
  • If a word on a webpage is clicked and it redirects you to a new page, it signifies that a hypertext has been clicked on.
  • It is the protocol where encrypted HTTP data is transferred over a secure connection.
  • It ensures data security over the network - mainly public networks like Wi-Fi.

Additional Information

  • HTTPS is HTTP with encryption.
  • The only difference between the two protocols is that HTTPS uses TLS (SSL) to encrypt normal HTTP requests and responses.
  • As a result, HTTPS is far more secure than HTTP.
  • A website that uses HTTP has http:// in its URL,while a website that uses HTTPS has https://.
130

Which out of the following represents STAR topology of Network?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

  • Star topology is an arrangement of the network, in which every node is connected to the central hub, switch, or a central computer.
  • Topology defines the structure of the network of how all the components are interconnected to each other.
  • There are two types of topology: 
  • physical and logical topology.
  • Physical topology is the geometric representation of all the nodes in a network.

Additional Information

  • The different types of physical topologies are Bus, Mesh, Ring, Star, and Tree.
  • Star
  • Star topology is an arrangement of the network in which every node is connected to the central hub, switch, or a central computer.
  • The central computer is known as a server, and the peripheral devices attached to the server are known as clients.
  • Coaxial cable or RJ-45 cables are used to connect the computers.
  • Hubs or Switches are mainly used as connected devices in a physical star topology.
  • Star topology is the most popular topology in network implementation.
  • Mesh
  • Mesh technology is an arrangement of the network in which computers are interconnected with each other through various redundant connections.
  • There are multiple paths from one computer to another computer.
  • It does not contain the switch, hub, or any central computer which acts as a central point of communication.
  • The Internet is an example of mesh topology.
  • Mesh topology is mainly used for WAN implementations where communication failures are a critical concern.
  • Mesh topology is mainly used for wireless networks.
  • Ring
  • Ring topology is like a bus topology, but with connected ends.
  • The node that receives the message from the previous computer will retransmit to the next node.
  • The data flows in one direction, i.e., it is unidirectional.
  • The data flows in a single loop continuously known as an endless loop.
  • It has no terminated ends, i.e., each node is connected to another node and having no termination point.
  • The data in a ring topology flow in a clockwise direction.
  • The most common access method of the ring topology is token passing.
  • Bus
  • The bus topology is designed in such a way that all the stations are connected through a single cable known as a backbone cable.
  • Each node is either connected to the backbone cable by drop cable or directly connected to the backbone cable.
  • The bus topology is mainly used in 802.3 (ethernet) and 802.4 standard networks.
  • The configuration of a bus topology is quite simpler as compared to other topologies.
  • The backbone cable is considered as a "single lane" through which the message is broadcast to all the stations.
  • The most common access method of the bus topologies is CSMA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access).
  • Tree
  • A tree topology combines the characteristics of bus topology and star topology.
  • A tree topology is a type of structure in which all the computers are connected with each other in a hierarchical fashion.
  • The top-most node in tree topology is known as a root node, and all other nodes are the descendants of the root node.
  • There is only one path that exists between two nodes for the data transmission. Thus, it forms a parent-child hierarchy.

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