DSSSB PRT Official Paper (Held On: 19 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

Given Series : (Left) F W N V N F A S A C P A H H W X J J Z (Right)

Required Condition: Consonant — Vowel — Consonant

(Left) F W N V N F A S A C P A H H W X J J Z (Right)

F A S  S A C P A H

Hence, the correct answer is "option 3"

Given: Seven boxes, F, I, L, T, E, R and S, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.

1. Only S is kept above I.
2. Only F is kept between I and E.
3. Only L is kept below T.

Final Arrangement:

• The boxes between R  and L  is T .
• Thus, only one box is kept between R and L.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The logic followed here is:

• Position of Faisal from the top = 20^th
• Position of Faisal from the bottom = 20^th

Total number of students in the class = (Position of Faisal from the top + Position of Faisal from the bottom) − 1

= 20 + 20 − 1

= 39

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The logic followed here is:

• Position of Piyush from the right end = 11^th
• Position of Krishna from the right end = 20^th
• Number of person between Piyush and Krishna = 20 − 11 = 9
• Krishna is exactly between Piyush and Jackie, number of person between Krishna and Jackie must also be 9 units.
• Position of Jackie from the right end = Position of Krishna from the right + 9
• 20 + 9
• 29^th from the right end.
• Total number of people in the row = (Position of Jackie from the right end + Position of Jackie from the left end) − 1
• 29 + 4 − 1
• 32

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4**"**.

BODMAS Rule:

Given equation: 16 ÷ 4 + 8 - 3 × 2 = 31

After replacing the letters with their respective operators and applying BODMAS rule, the expression becomes:

=15 × 3 − 6 ÷ 3 + 7

= 15 × 3 − 2 + 7

= 45 − 2 + 7

= 45 + 7 − 2

= 52 − 2

= 50

The final value of the expression is 50.

Hence, the correct answer is "option 1"

The correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at PQ as shown below.

Hence, the correctv answer is "Option 4"

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) EGJ

Option 2) LNQ

Option 3) QST

Option 4) TVY

Therefore, the letter cluster that is different from the others is QST.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second letter-cluster = First letter-cluster letters − 6 (positional values).

Option 1)  RK - LE,

Option 2) UN - OH,

Option 3) OH - IB,

Option 4) QJ - LP

This pair does not follow the rule.

Therefore, the letter-cluster pair that is different from the others is QJ - LP.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The logic follows here,

Pattern:

• 4 × 3 − 1 = 11
• 11 × 3 − 1 = 32
• 32 × 3 − 1 = 95
• 95 × 3 − 1 = 284
• 284 × 3 − 1 = 851

The missing term is 11

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (First Number + 8) = Second Number; (Second Number × 8) = Third Number; (Third Number − 7) = Fourth Number

For the first set 21 − 29 − 232 − 225

⇒ 21 + 8 = 29

⇒ 29 × 8 = 232

⇒ 232 − 7 = 225

For the second set 18 − 26 − 208 − 201

⇒ 18 + 8 = 26

⇒ 26 × 8 = 208

⇒ 208 − 7 = 201

Applying the same logic to Option 3 (39 − 47 − 376 − 369)

⇒ 39 + 8 = 47

⇒ 47 × 8 = 376

⇒ 376 − 7 = 369

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Given Series:  (Left) £ B % K H & @ & J © J € O X $N$ J @ & P O (Right)

Required pattern: Letter → Letter → Symbol

(Left)   £ B % K H & @ & J © J € O X $N$ J @ & P O    (Right)

There is only 2 such letter in the series.

Hence, the correct answer is "option 4"

Given: (left) 287 846 241 726 468 (right)

• The second digit of the second-highest number is: 2 (726)
• The second digit of the third-lowest number is: 6 (468)
• So, the multiplication of the second digit of the second-highest number and the second digit of the third-lowest number is: 2 × 6 = 12.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The logic follows here ,

Therefore, the code for P is 3.

Hence ,the correct answer is "option 1"

Logic followed here is:

For the word AWAITING:

• The new group of letters formed is: B, V, B, J, S, J, M, F
• There are Two such letters that appear exactly twice are B and J.

Hence, the correct answer is "option 2"

S is the brother of A.

A is the father of Y.

B is the father of W.

W is the son of Y

The Family tree Diagram,

From the family tree, it is clear that Y is the mother of W, A is the father of Y, and S is the brother of A. Therefore, S is the Mother's father's brother of W.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed in this pattern is a consistent alphabetical shift for each letter in the sequence.

For 'HIKH' related to 'LMOL':

For 'DEGD' related to 'HIKH':

Applying the same logic to 'ABDA':

Thus, ABDA is related to EFHE.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The logic followed here is:

By combining the letters and the number, the cluster that replaces the question mark is STV115.

Hence,the correct answer is "option 2"

Given number: 46812597

Arranged in ascending order from left to right, the number thus formed is:

Left 1  2  4  5  6  7  8  9 Right 

• Third digit from the left of the new number is: 4
• Fourth digit from the right of the new number is: 6
• So, the sum of the digit which is third from the left and the digit which is fourth from the right is: 4 + 6 = 10.

Hence .the correct answer is  'Option 4'.

Given: Seven people, R, O, A, M, I, N and G, are sitting in a row, facing north.

1. Only two people sit to the left of N.
2. Only three people sit between N and A.
3. Only one person sits between A and R.
4. O sits to the immediate left of I.
5. G is not an immediate neighbor of A.

The Final Arrangement is,

Therefore, one person sits to the right of M.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

The correct answer is Despite the 42nd Amendment, the Supreme Court in Minerva Mills reaffirmed the basic structure doctrine, limiting constitutional amendments..

Key Points

• The Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) judgment established the Basic Structure Doctrine, asserting that while Parliament has wide powers to amend the Constitution under Article 368, it cannot alter its 'basic structure' or essential features.
• The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, was a direct attempt by Parliament to assert supremacy by inserting clauses (4) and (5) into Article 368, which declared that there shall be no limitation on the constituent power of Parliament and barred Judicial Review of such amendments.
• In the Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980) case, the Supreme Court struck down these specific clauses, ruling that Parliament’s power to amend is a 'limited power' and it cannot use that limited power to grant itself 'unlimited power' to destroy the Constitution.
• The long-term consequence was the restoration of the balance of power, ensuring that the Basic Structure Doctrine remains a permanent check on legislative overreach and safeguarding the supremacy of the Constitution over Parliament.

 Additional Information

• Article 368:
• This article outlines the procedure for amending the Constitution of India. Post-1980, it is interpreted as granting a power that is restricted by the judicial oversight of the 'basic features'.
• Constitutional Supremacy vs. Parliamentary Sovereignty:
• Unlike the British system of Parliamentary Sovereignty, India follows Constitutional Supremacy, where the judiciary acts as the guardian of the document.
• Waman Rao v. Union of India (1981):
• This case further clarified the application of the doctrine, establishing a 'cut-off' date of April 24, 1973 (the date of the Kesavananda judgment), for testing the validity of laws placed in the Ninth Schedule.

The correct answer is President of India.

Key Points

• According to Article 155 of the Constitution of India, the Governor of a State is appointed by the President of India by warrant under his hand and seal. This means the appointment is made directly by the Executive Head of the Union.
• The Governor serves as the Constitutional Head of the State and acts as a vital bridge between the Central Government and the State Government, ensuring the state administration follows constitutional norms.
• Although the Governor is the executive head, the Supreme Court ruled in 1979 that the office of the Governor is an independent constitutional office and is not subordinate to or under the control of the Central Government.
• The Governor exercise powers based on the aid and advice of the State Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister, except in specific situations where they exercise discretionary powers.
• India adopted the Canadian model of appointing Governors through the Centre, rather than the American model of direct elections, to maintain national unity and avoid potential conflicts between a popularly elected Governor and the Chief Minister.

 Additional Information

• Constitutional Framework:
• Article 153: Mandates a Governor for each state. The 7th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 allows one person to be the Governor of two or more states simultaneously.
• Article 156: Specifies that the Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President. The usual term is five years, but they can be removed or resign earlier.
• Article 157 and 158: Define qualifications, including being a citizen of India and at least 35 years of age. They must not be members of any Legislature or hold an office of profit.
• Article 159: Clarifies that the Oath of Office is administered by the Chief Justice of the High Court of the respective state, not by the President.
• Other Entities:
• Prime Minister of India: Heads the Union Council of Ministers which advises the President on the appointment but does not hold the formal power of appointment.
• Chief Justice of India: Heads the Judiciary; while they administer the oath to the President, they have no constitutional role in the Governor's appointment.
• Chief Minister: The head of the elected state government who is himself appointed by the Governor under Article 164.

The correct answer is Brazil.

Key Points

• The 30th Conference of the Parties (COP30) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) is scheduled to be held in November 2025.
• The city of Belém, which is the capital of the state of Pará in Brazil, has been officially designated as the host city. This marks a symbolic choice as Belém is located at the mouth of the Amazon River, placing the preservation of the Amazon Rainforest at the heart of the summit.
• The proposal for Brazil to host the summit was led by President Luiz Inácio Lula da Silva, who emphasized the importance of discussing climate solutions while physically present in the biome most critical to the world's biodiversity and carbon cycle.
• The COP30 summit is considered a critical milestone for the Paris Agreement, as countries are expected to present their updated and more ambitious Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) for 2035 to meet the global goal of limiting temperature rise to 1.5 degrees Celsius.

 Additional Information

• Germany:
• Germany hosted COP23 in 2017 in the city of Bonn. Bonn is significant because it houses the UNFCCC Secretariat and serves as a recurring venue for technical climate negotiations.
• India:
• India hosted COP8 in New Delhi in 2002, which resulted in the Delhi Ministerial Declaration. Recently, at COP28, India proposed hosting COP33 in 2028.
• Canada:
• Canada was the host for COP11 in 2005, held in Montreal. This summit was particularly important as it included the first meeting of the parties to the Kyoto Protocol.

The correct answer is Sediment deposition.

Key Points

• The Great Indian Plains, also known as the Indo-Gangetic-Brahmaputra Plains, were formed due to the filling of a deep geosyncline or depression that was created during the upliftment of the Himalayas.
• This vast depression was located between the rising Himalayan mountains to the north and the stable Peninsular Plateau to the south.
• The primary geological process involved was the continuous sediment deposition by the three major river systems—the Indus, the Ganga, and the Brahmaputra—and their numerous tributaries.
• Over millions of years, these perennial rivers transported massive quantities of alluvium (silt, sand, and clay) from the mountains and deposited them in the basin, gradually transforming it into a level and fertile land.
• The thickness of these alluvial deposits varies across the region, reaching depths of 1,000 to 2,000 meters in some parts, making it one of the world's largest and most fertile alluvial tracts.

 Additional Information

• Glacial Erosion
• This process involves the wearing away of the Earth's surface by moving ice. While it shaped the U-shaped valleys and peaks of the high Himalayas, it did not contribute to the creation of the massive southern plains.
• Volcanic Eruption
• This geological process is associated with the formation of the Deccan Plateau in Southern India, where fissure-based eruptions created the Deccan Traps composed of basaltic rocks, rather than the sedimentary northern plains.
• Tectonic Uplift
• This refers to the rising of the Earth's crust due to plate movements. It was the fundamental process behind the birth of the Himalayan Mountain Range through the collision of the Indian Plate and the Eurasian Plate.
• Geographical Extent
• The plains span approximately 2,400 kilometers in length and cover an area of nearly 7 lakh square kilometers, supporting a high population density due to water availability and rich soil.

The correct answer is Punjab.

Key Points

• Article 359A was a special, temporary provision inserted into the Indian Constitution specifically to deal with the extraordinary situation of militancy in the state of Punjab.
• The article was introduced via the 59th Amendment Act, 1988, which authorized the President of India to proclaim a National Emergency in Punjab on the grounds of internal disturbance.
• A critical and controversial feature of Article 359A was that it permitted the suspension of the Right to Life and Personal Liberty (Article 21) within the territory of Punjab during an emergency.
• This provision deviated from the 44th Amendment Act, 1978, which had previously ensured that Article 20 and Article 21 could never be suspended, even during a National Emergency.

 Additional Information

• The 63rd Amendment Act, 1989:
• Following significant legal and political opposition, the 63rd Amendment Act was enacted in 1989 to repeal Article 359A.
• This amendment restored the Constitution to the state it was in prior to the 59th Amendment, ensuring that Article 21 remains non-suspendable across all states.
• Constitutional Context of Other States:
• Jammu & Kashmir: Was historically governed by the special provisions of Article 370 and Article 35A, but never Article 359A.
• Assam and Meghalaya: Are primarily associated with the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution, which provides for Autonomous District Councils to protect tribal interests.
• Emergency Provisions:
• The general Article 359 empowers the President to suspend the enforcement of Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency declared under Article 352.
• The 59th Amendment was unique because it reintroduced the ground of internal disturbance specifically for Punjab, a term that had been replaced by armed rebellion for the rest of the country.

The correct answer is OncoMark.

Key Points

• The artificial intelligence tool OncoMark was officially launched in November 2025 by a dedicated team of Indian researchers specializing in computational oncology and bioinformatics.
• This sophisticated AI-driven platform was primarily developed by scientists at the Satyendra Nath Bose National Centre for Basic Sciences (SNBNCBS) in Kolkata to address the critical need for rapid and affordable cancer screening and prognostic analysis.
• The tool utilizes advanced machine learning algorithms to analyze complex biological data, including histopathological images and genomic sequences, to detect malignancy with high precision.
• It is designed to identify specific biomarkers that indicate the stage and aggressiveness of various cancers, significantly reducing the turnaround time for diagnostic reports from days to just a few minutes.
• By leveraging deep learning models trained on diverse Indian patient datasets, OncoMark aims to provide personalized treatment recommendations and predict the likelihood of cancer recurrence.

 Additional Information

• The Satyendra Nath Bose National Centre for Basic Sciences (SNBNCBS) is an autonomous research institute under the Department of Science and Technology (DST), Government of India.
• Core Objectives: It focuses on fundamental research in mathematical sciences, chemical sciences, and biological physics.
• Technological Impact: The development of OncoMark represents a major milestone in integrating quantum computing principles and artificial intelligence into the healthcare sector under the Digital India initiative.
• Healthcare Significance: The tool is expected to be integrated into the Ayushman Bharat digital mission to enhance early detection at primary health centers across rural India.
• Other concepts relevant to cancer AI in India:
• Precision Medicine: AI tools help in tailoring medical treatment to the individual characteristics of each patient.
• Biomarker Discovery: Identifying protein signatures or genetic mutations that serve as early warning signs of cellular abnormalities.

The correct answer is Taj Mahal.

Key Points

• The Taj Mahal was commissioned by the Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan in 1632 to house the tomb of his beloved wife, Mumtaz Mahal (Arjumand Banu Begum).
• Located on the southern bank of the Yamuna River in Agra, Uttar Pradesh, it is widely recognized as the pinnacle of Mughal architecture, blending Persian, Islamic, and Indian styles.
• It was designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1983 and is cited as 'the jewel of Muslim art in India' and a universally admired masterpiece.
• The project employed roughly 20,000 artisans and was led by a board of architects, with Ustad Ahmad Lahauri generally credited as the principal designer.
• The main mausoleum was completed in 1648, utilizing white marble inlaid with semi-precious stones (pietra dura), while the entire complex was finished around 1653.

 Additional Information

• Red Fort:
• Constructed by Shah Jahan in 1638 when he moved the capital from Agra to Shahjahanabad (Delhi).
• It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site characterized by its massive enclosing walls of red sandstone.
• Qutub Minar:
• A 73-meter tall tapering tower built in Delhi, started by Qutb-ud-din Aibak in 1192 and completed by his successors Iltutmish and Firoz Shah Tughlaq.
• It is the tallest brick minaret in the world and part of the Qutb Complex, a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
• Humayun's Tomb:
• Built in 1570, it was commissioned by Empress Bega Begum for her husband, Emperor Humayun.
• It was the first garden-tomb on the Indian subcontinent and served as an architectural inspiration for the Taj Mahal.

The correct answer is Full independence.

Key Points

• The Indian National Congress (INC) was established in December 1885 at Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College in Bombay, under the foundational leadership of A. O. Hume, Dinshaw Wacha, and Dadabhai Naoroji.
• From its foundational roots, the ultimate and definitive driving ambition of the organization was to initiate a unified political movement aimed at achieving Full independence for India from colonial rule.
• Although early strategies involved moderate petitions, the long-term vision of organizing diverse regional factions under one national platform was designed to foster the collective consciousness necessary to demand complete sovereignty.

 Additional Information

• Limited reforms:
• This term refers to the early administrative and constitutional demands raised by the Moderate faction of the Congress, serving as initial tactical steps toward eventual self-rule.
• Armed rebellion:
• This method of active militant resistance was pursued by revolutionary nationalist groups, distinct from the constitutional and peaceful political avenues prioritized by the early Congress.
• Religious unity:
• While the Congress maintained a secular outlook to bring all Indian communities together, its primary mission was political liberation and national sovereignty.

The correct answer is NASM-SR naval anti-ship missile.

Key Points

• On February 27, 2025, the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and the Indian Navy successfully carried out a flight test of the indigenous Naval Anti-Ship Missile-Short Range (NASM-SR).
• The flight trial was conducted from the Integrated Test Range (ITR), Chandipur, off the coast of Odisha, validating the missile's advanced flight control and guidance systems.
• The mission achieved all objectives, confirming the performance of the imaging infrared (IIR) seeker, which allows the missile to identify and strike maritime targets with extreme precision.
• This test represents a significant step towards achieving Aatmanirbharta (self-reliance) in naval warfare technology, as it is the first indigenously developed air-launched anti-ship missile system for the Indian Navy.

 Additional Information

• NASM-SR Characteristics:
• It is designed to be launched from naval helicopters such as the MH-60R and the Sea King.
• The missile has an operational range of approximately 55 kilometers and travels at high subsonic speeds.
• It utilizes a solid propellant rocket motor and is equipped with state-of-the-art avionics and Indigenous Navigation Systems.
• BrahMos II:
• A hypersonic cruise missile currently under joint development by India and Russia, expected to reach speeds of Mach 7 to 8.
• Pralay tactical missile:
• A surface-to-surface short-range ballistic missile (SRBM) developed by DRDO for battlefield use, with a range of 150 to 500 km.
• Agni-P (Agni-Prime):
• A two-stage canisterized solid propellant ballistic missile with a range of 1,000 to 2,000 km, designed for high mobility and rapid deployment.

The correct answer is Business Process Outsourcing.

Key Points

• Business Process Outsourcing (BPO) is a strategic management practice where an organization contracts specific business processes or operations to an external third-party service provider.
• The primary objective of BPO is to achieve cost reduction, improve operational efficiency, and allow the core management to focus on primary business strategies rather than routine administrative tasks.
• BPO is broadly categorized into two types: Back-office outsourcing, which involves internal functions like finance, accounting, and human resources, and Front-office outsourcing, which includes customer-facing services like technical support and telemarketing.
• The industry relies heavily on Information Technology (IT) infrastructure, which is why it is often referred to as Information Technology Enabled Services (ITES).
• BPO services can be offshore (contracted to a company in a different country), nearshore (contracted to a neighboring country), or onshore (contracted within the same country).

 Additional Information

• Knowledge Process Outsourcing (KPO):
• A higher-end subset of BPO involving the outsourcing of core information-related activities that require specialized domain expertise.
• Common examples include legal research, intellectual property services, market research, and data analytics.
• India as a BPO Hub:
• India is a global leader in the BPO sector due to its vast pool of English-speaking graduates and competitive labor costs.
• Major IT-BPO hubs include Bengaluru, Pune, Gurugram, and Hyderabad, contributing significantly to India's GDP and foreign exchange earnings.
• Benefits of BPO:
• Scalability: Companies can quickly scale their operations up or down based on market demand without heavy capital investment.
• Specialization: Outsourcing to experts ensures that specific tasks are handled with higher precision and advanced technology that the parent company might not possess.

The correct answer is An Earth observation satellite for environmental monitoring.

Key Points

• EOS-05, also known as GISAT-2 (Geo-Imaging Satellite-2), is an advanced Earth Observation Satellite developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) to provide near real-time imaging of the Indian subcontinent.
• The satellite is designed to be placed in a Geostationary Orbit (GEO), allowing it to maintain a fixed position relative to the Earth and provide continuous surveillance of specific geographical regions.
• The primary objective of this mission is to facilitate environmental monitoring, including the tracking of natural disasters like floods and cyclones, monitoring of agriculture health, and assessment of forest cover changes.
• It utilizes high-resolution cameras and sensors to capture data across various spectral bands, which is critical for disaster management, oceanography, and climatology research.

 Additional Information

• EOS Naming Convention:
• In 2020, ISRO shifted to a generic naming system for its remote sensing satellites, moving away from thematic names like RISAT, CARTOSAT, and RESOURCESAT to the EOS (Earth Observation Satellite) series.
• EOS-01 was the first in this series, launched in November 2020 for applications in agriculture, forestry, and disaster management support.
• EOS-03 (GISAT-1) was intended for similar purposes but faced a mission failure during launch in August 2021 due to a cryogenic stage anomaly.
• Mission Capabilities:
• Unlike satellites in Low Earth Orbit (LEO) that pass over a location periodically, EOS-05 provides high-frequency imaging, making it indispensable for rapid response during emergencies.
• It aids in mineralogy, spectral signatures analysis, and monitoring dynamic land-use changes across the Indian mainland.

The correct answer is Promotion of transshipment hubs.

Key Points

• The Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) was launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) in June 2015 to improve the quality of life in 500 selected cities.
• The mission is designed to ensure that every household has access to a tap with an assured supply of water and a sewerage connection.
• The project focuses on five thrust areas: Water Supply, Sewerage and Septage Management, Storm Water Drainage, Non-Motorised Urban Transport, and the creation of Green Spaces and Parks.
• Promotion of transshipment hubs is not a component of AMRUT; instead, it is a strategic priority for the maritime and logistics sectors, primarily under initiatives like the Sagarmala Programme or the National Logistics Policy to enhance port-led development.

 Additional Information

• Non-Motorised Urban Transport:
• Includes construction of footpaths, pedestrian crossings, and cycling tracks.
• Aims to reduce urban pollution and traffic congestion by promoting eco-friendly commuting.
• Sewerage and Septage Management:
• Focuses on the decentralization of sewage treatment plants (STPs) and mechanical cleaning of sewers.
• Ensures efficient waste disposal to prevent the contamination of water bodies.
• Green spaces and parks:
• Mandates the development of open spaces specifically designed for children and senior citizens.
• Helps in improving the micro-climate and increasing the aesthetic value of urban centers.
• AMRUT 2.0:
• Launched in October 2021, it targets making cities water secure and aims for 100% water supply coverage in all 4,700 statutory towns.

The correct answer is 55.

Key Points

• Klaus Schwab, the founder and Executive Chairman of the World Economic Forum (WEF), announced his transition to a non-executive role in 2025, concluding a historic tenure of 55 years.
• He founded the institution in January 1971, originally named the European Management Forum, and served as its leader for over five decades.
• The tenure of 55 years spans from the organization's inception in 1971 to the formal leadership handover in April 2025, during which the forum evolved from a regional management meeting to a global powerhouse.
• Under his stewardship, the Geneva-based institution became the primary global platform for public-private cooperation, famously hosting its annual summit in Davos, Switzerland.
• Schwab is widely recognized for developing the Stakeholder Capitalism theory, which postulations that companies should be accountable to all stakeholders, including employees, customers, and the environment, rather than just shareholders.

 Additional Information

• World Economic Forum (WEF):
• Founding and Headquarters: Established in 1971 as a non-profit foundation, it is headquartered in Cologny, Geneva.
• Evolution: It was renamed the World Economic Forum in 1987 to reflect its broader global mission and role in mediating international disputes.
• Major Reports: The forum is responsible for publishing key global indices, including the Global Risks Report, the Global Gender Gap Report, and the Global Competitiveness Report.
• Klaus Schwab's Contributions:
• Academic Background: He holds doctorates in Economics and Engineering and served as a professor of business policy at the University of Geneva.
• The Davos Manifesto: Authored in 1973, it set the ethical standards for modern corporate governance.
• Fourth Industrial Revolution: Schwab popularized this term in 2016 to describe the current era of technological convergence between physical, digital, and biological spheres.

The correct answer is Wattal.

Key Points

• The Dumhal is a famous folk dance originating from the Kashmir Valley in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
• This traditional dance is exclusively performed by the men of the Wattal tribe, who have historically preserved this art form as part of their cultural heritage.
• The performance is typically held on special occasions and at shrines (Ziarats) to offer prayers, celebrate harvest festivals, or seek divine intervention.
• A central feature of the Dumhal dance involves a long banner that is ceremoniously dug into the ground; the dancers then form a circle and perform rhythmic movements around it.
• The dancers wear striking costumes consisting of long, colorful robes and tall conical caps that are elaborately decorated with beads, shells, and small mirrors.

 Additional Information

• Gujjars and Bakarwals:
• These are the two largest nomadic tribes of Jammu and Kashmir.
• The Gujjars are primarily cattle herders, while the Bakarwals are traditional nomadic pastoralists who migrate with their flocks of sheep and goats across the Himalayan ranges.
• Bhil Tribe:
• The Bhil is one of the most populous tribal groups in India, predominantly found in the central and western states such as Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and Rajasthan.
• They are well-known for folk dances like Ghoomar and Gair, but they are not the practitioners of the Dumhal dance.
• Musical Elements of Dumhal:
• The dance is accompanied by the rhythmic beat of the Nagada (a drum) and traditional Kashmiri folk songs sung by the performers themselves.
• The choreography is characterized by high energy, jumps, and synchronized clapping that accelerates as the music reaches its crescendo.

The correct answer is Growth of highly specialized and knowledge-based services.

Key Points

• In advanced economies, the tertiary sector undergoes a significant transformation from providing basic consumer services to complex knowledge-based services that require high levels of human capital.
• This sector comprises the Quaternary and Quinary activities, which focus on information technology, Research and Development (R&D), financial services, and specialized consultancy.
• The growth of this sector is driven by the Information Revolution, where data processing and technical expertise become the primary drivers of economic value rather than physical labor or manufacturing output.
• Advanced nations like the United States, Germany, and Japan typically see the tertiary sector contributing over 70 percent of their total Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
• This stage of economic development is often referred to as a Post-Industrial Economy, where the demand for high-end professional services like software engineering, legal advice, and biotechnology outweighs traditional services like retail or personal grooming.

 Additional Information

• Primary and Secondary Sectors:
• The Primary Sector involves raw material extraction such as agriculture and mining. In advanced economies, its share of employment is usually less than 5 percent due to extreme mechanization.
• The Secondary Sector involves manufacturing and construction. While advanced economies still produce goods, they often experience Deindustrialization, shifting factory-based jobs to developing nations with lower labor costs.
• Labor Characteristics:
• Unlike developing economies that may rely on low-skilled labor in the service sector (e.g., street vending or basic domestic work), advanced economies prioritize White-Collar and Gold-Collar professionals who possess advanced degrees and technical certifications.
• The Clark-Fisher Model describes this structural shift where labor moves from agriculture to manufacturing and eventually dominates the service sector as per capita income rises.

The correct answer is Surendranath Banerjee.

Key Points

• The Anti-Partition Movement was launched in response to the decision of Lord Curzon to partition Bengal, which was officially announced in July 1905.
• During the initial phase of the movement (1903−1905), the leadership was provided by Moderates like Surendranath Banerjee, Krishna Kumar Mitra, and Ananda Mohan Bose.
• Surendranath Banerjee, a prominent leader of the Indian National Association, used his newspaper, The Bengalee, to mobilize public opinion and organize protests against the division.
• The formal proclamation of the Swadeshi Movement was made on August 7, 1905, at a massive meeting held in the Calcutta Town Hall, where the Boycott Resolution was passed under the guidance of moderate leaders.
• The Moderates relied on constitutional methods, including petitions to the government, public meetings, and propaganda through pamphlets and newspapers to pressure the British authorities to rescind the partition.

 Additional Information

• Bhagat Singh
• He was a prominent Revolutionary Socialist who founded the Naujawan Bharat Sabha in 1926.
• He was a key member of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) and was not active during the 1905 movement.
• Mahatma Gandhi
• In 1905, he was actively leading the struggle against racial discrimination in South Africa.
• He returned to India in January 1915 and took command of the nationalist movement much later during the Non-Cooperation Movement.
• Jawaharlal Nehru
• He entered active Indian politics in the 1910s and rose to prominence during the late 1920s.
• He presided over the historic Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress in 1929, where the resolution for Purna Swaraj (Complete Independence) was passed.

The correct answer is 1739 AD.

Key Points

• Nadir Shah, the founder of the Afsharid dynasty of Persia (modern-day Iran), launched an invasion of the Mughal Empire during the winter of 1738−1739.
• The invasion culminated in the Battle of Karnal on February 24, 1739, where Nadir Shah's smaller but technologically superior force defeated the massive army of the Mughal Emperor Muhammad Shah.
• Nadir Shah entered Delhi in March 1739; following a local riot that resulted in the death of some Persian soldiers, he ordered the infamous Qatl-e-Aam (general massacre) of the city's inhabitants.
• The city was systematically plundered for several weeks, resulting in the seizure of an enormous treasury that effectively drained the Mughal Empire of its centuries-old accumulated wealth.

 Additional Information

• Impact of the Invasion:
• The loot carried back to Iran was so massive that Nadir Shah halted taxation for his subjects for a period of three years.
• The most famous items taken included the Peacock Throne (Takht-i-Taus) and the legendary Koh-i-Noor and Darya-i-Noor diamonds.
• The invasion dealt a terminal blow to the Mughal Empire's prestige, leaving it vulnerable to subsequent invasions by Ahmad Shah Abdali and the expansion of the Maratha Empire.
• Muhammad Shah, often called Rangeela for his leisure-loving nature, was forced to cede all territories west of the Indus River to the Persian ruler.
• Military Superiority:
• Nadir Shah utilized Zamburaks (swivel guns mounted on camels) and advanced musketry, which proved far more effective than the Mughals' traditional reliance on war elephants.

CONCEPT:

Litmus is a natural acid-base indicator used in chemistry to determine the acidity or alkalinity of a substance. It is a water-soluble mixture of different dyes that changes color depending on the pH level of the solution it is placed in.

EXPLANATION:

• Litmus is extracted from Lichens, which are unique organisms arising from a symbiotic relationship between a fungus and an alga (or cyanobacterium).
• The most common species of lichens used for extracting litmus include Roccella tinctoria, Lecanora tartarea, and Roccella fuciformis.
• The extraction process typically involves crushing the lichens and fermenting them in the presence of ammonia, potassium carbonate, and lime, which results in the characteristic dye.
• Functioning as an Indicator:
• In acidic conditions (pH below 4.5), litmus paper or solution turns red.
• In basic or alkaline conditions (pH above 8.3), litmus paper or solution turns blue.
• In neutral conditions, litmus is generally purple in color.
• While algae and fungi are components of lichens, it is the combined organism known as the Lichen that is specifically harvested and processed to produce litmus dye.

Therefore, the natural substance used to produce litmus is Lichens.

The correct answer is - C-terminal

Key Points

• C-terminal
• The C-terminal (also known as the carboxyl-terminus) is the end of an amino acid chain (protein or polypeptide) that is terminated by a free carboxyl group (-COOH).
• In any protein sequence, the last amino acid added during the process of translation is the one that contains this free carboxyl group.
• By chemical and biological convention, a polypeptide sequence is always written and read from the N-terminal (start) to the C-terminal (end).

Additional Information

• N-terminal (Amino-terminal)
• The N-terminal is the beginning of a polypeptide chain, characterized by a free amino group (-NH₂).
• The first amino acid of a protein corresponds to the N-terminal end.
• Peptide Bond Formation
• Proteins are formed when amino acids link together via peptide bonds.
• This bond forms between the carboxyl group of one amino acid and the amino group of the next amino acid.
• Because of this specific bonding pattern, the resulting chain always has one end with a free amino group and the other end with a free carboxyl group.
• Protein Synthesis (Translation)
• During translation in the ribosome, proteins are synthesized in the direction from the N-terminus to the C-terminus.
• The primary structure of a protein is defined by this specific linear sequence of amino acids.

The correct answer is Increased adoption of modern technologies.

Key Points

• The Trade and Investment Policy Reforms were initiated in July 1991 as a core component of the New Economic Policy (NEP) to address the Balance of Payments crisis and stimulate economic growth.
• A primary objective of these reforms was to facilitate the transfer of technology from developed nations to India by encouraging Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and removing restrictions on foreign collaborations.
• By relaxing import licensing and reducing customs duties, the government enabled domestic industries to import sophisticated capital goods and machinery, which were essential for upgrading production processes.
• The reforms aimed to increase the international competitiveness of Indian goods, ensuring that local manufacturers could match global standards through the modernization of their infrastructure.
• The liberalization of the investment regime was designed to shift the economy from a state-led model to a market-driven model, where technological innovation acts as a catalyst for industrial efficiency.

 Additional Information

• Foreign Direct Investment (FDI):
• Refers to investment made by a firm or individual in one country into business interests located in another country.
• It serves as a major channel for technological spillover and enhances managerial expertise within the host nation.
• Trade Barriers:
• These include tariffs, quotas, and non-tariff barriers used to restrict imports.
• The 1991 reforms focused on the dismantling of these barriers to integrate the Indian economy with the global market.
• Industrial Efficiency:
• The removal of the License Raj and the introduction of global competition forced local industries to improve their operational efficiency and cost-effectiveness.
• This contradicts the notion of reduced efficiency, as exposure to global players typically drives innovation and productivity.
• Economic Liberalization:
• Involves the deregulation of government restrictions in the economy to allow for greater participation by private entities and foreign investors.

Shortcut Trick

Equivalent discount = [d₁ + d₂ − (d₁ × d₂ / 100)]%

Net Discount = [15 + 20 − (15 × 20 / 100)]% = [35 − 3]% = 32%

Selling Price = (100 − 32)% of 4000 = 68% of 4000

SP = 0.68 × 4000 = 2720

∴ The correct answer is ₹2,720.

Alternate Method

Given:

Marked Price (MP) = ₹4,000

First Discount (d₁) = 15%

Second Discount (d₂) = 20%

Step 1: Calculate the price after the first 15% discount.

⇒ Discount 1 = 15% of 4000 = (15/100) × 4000 = 600

⇒ Price after first discount = 4000 − 600 = ₹3,400

Step 2: Calculate the final selling price after the second 20% discount.

⇒ Discount 2 = 20% of 3400 = (20/100) × 3400 = 680

⇒ Final Selling Price = 3400 − 680 = ₹2,720

∴ The correct answer is ₹2,720.

Additional Information

Successive Discounts Formula

For two successive discounts of a% and b%, the single equivalent discount is given by [a + b − (ab/100)]%.

Relationship between MP and SP

Selling Price (SP) = Marked Price (MP) × [ (100 − d₁)/100 ] × [ (100 − d₂)/100 ] for successive discounts.

Successive Percentage Change

The concept of successive discounts is an application of the general successive percentage change rule where values decrease over time.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of matches = 21 : 15 = 7 : 5.

Assume a base average of 13 runs.

Deviation in average = (7 × (40 − 13)) ÷ (7 + 5)

Deviation = (7 × 27) ÷ 12 = 189 ÷ 12 = 15.75 runs.

Final Average = 13 + 15.75 = 28.75 runs.

∴ The correct answer is 28.75 runs.

Alternate Method

Given:

Number of matches (n₁) = 21, Average runs (A₁) = 40

Number of matches (n₂) = 15, Average runs (A₂) = 13

Formula Used:

Combined Average = (n₁ × A₁ + n₂ × A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂)

Calculations:

⇒ Total runs in first 21 matches = 21 × 40 = 840

⇒ Total runs in next 15 matches = 15 × 13 = 195

⇒ Total runs in all 36 matches = 840 + 195 = 1035

⇒ Total matches = 21 + 15 = 36

⇒ Average runs = 1035 ÷ 36

⇒ Average runs = 28.75

∴ The correct answer is 28.75 runs.

Additional Information

Weighted Average Formula

It is calculated as A_weighted = (n₁x₁ + n₂x₂ + ...) ÷ (n₁ + n₂ + ...), where n represents frequency and x represents values.

Alligation Rule

The ratio of quantities is inversely proportional to the deviation of their averages from the mean: (n₁ / n₂) = (A₂ − A_mean) / (A_mean − A₁).

Average Property

If every value in a set is increased or decreased by a constant k, the mean also increases or decreases by k.

Shortcut Trick

Apply the successive percentage change formula: x + y + (xy/100).

Net Change = 8 − 8 − (8 × 8)/100 = −0.64% (Decrease).

Remaining population percentage = 100% − 0.64% = 99.36%.

If 99.36% = 34776, then 100% = (34776 ÷ 99.36) × 100 = 35000.

∴ The correct answer is 35000.

Alternate Method

Given:

Increase in 1^st year = 8% | Decrease in 2^nd year = 8% | Final population = 34776

Formula Used:

Final Value = Initial Value × (1 + R₁/100) × (1 − R₂/100)

Calculations:

⇒ Let the initial population be P.

⇒ P × (1 + 8/100) × (1 − 8/100) = 34776

⇒ P × (108/100) × (92/100) = 34776

⇒ P × (27/25) × (23/25) = 34776

⇒ P × (621 / 625) = 34776

⇒ P = (34776 × 625) ÷ 621

⇒ P = 56 × 625

⇒ P = 35000

∴ The correct answer is 35000.

Additional Information

Successive Percentage Rule

When a value is changed by x% and then by y%, the net change is given by (x + y + xy/100)%.

Equal Increase and Decrease

If a quantity increases by x% and then decreases by x%, there is always a net decrease of (x/10)² %.

Population Growth Formula

Future population P_n = P(1 ± R/100)ⁿ, where P is the initial population and R is the rate of change.

Shortcut Trick

Volume of metallic sphere = Volume of cylindrical wire.

(4/3) × R³ = r² × L (where π cancels out).

R = 3 cm, r = 0.1 cm ⇒ (4/3) × 27 = 0.01 × L.

36 = 0.01 × L ⇒ L = 3600 cm.

L = 3600 ÷ 100 = 36 m.

∴ The correct answer is 36 m.

Alternate Method

Given:

Diameter of the metallic sphere = 6 cm ⇒ Radius (R) = 3 cm.

Diameter of the wire (cylinder) = 0.2 cm ⇒ Radius (r) = 0.1 cm.

Formula Used:

Volume of Sphere = (4/3) × π × R³

Volume of Cylinder = π × r² × L

Calculations:

⇒ Volume of sphere = (4/3) × π × 3³ = (4/3) × π × 27

⇒ Volume of sphere = 36π cm³

⇒ Volume of wire = π × (0.1)² × L = 0.01πL cm³

⇒ 36π = 0.01πL

⇒ L = 36 ÷ 0.01

⇒ L = 3600 cm

⇒ Length in metres = 3600 ÷ 100 = 36 m

∴ The correct answer is 36 m.

Additional Information

Conservation of Volume

When a solid object is melted and recast into a different shape, its total volume remains constant, provided there is no wastage during the process.

Volume of Cylinder

For a cylinder (wire) with radius r and length (or height) h, the volume is given by V = πr²h.

Unit Conversion

Always ensure all dimensions are in the same unit. To convert centimetres to metres, divide by 100 (1 m = 100 cm).

Radius vs Diameter

Radius is always half of the diameter (r = d/2). Using the diameter directly in volume formulas instead of the radius is a common error.

Shortcut Trick

Apply the Rule of Alligation to find the ratio directly.

Ratio of Cheaper Pulses to Dearer Pulses = (Dearer CP − Mean Price) : (Mean Price − Cheaper CP)

Ratio = (22 − 19.50) : (19.50 − 18)

Ratio = 2.50 : 1.50 = 25 : 15 = 5 : 3

∴ The correct answer is 5 : 3.

Alternate Method

Given:

Cost Price of cheaper pulses (C) = ₹18/kg

Cost Price of dearer pulses (D) = ₹22/kg

Mean Price of the mixture (M) = ₹19.50/kg

Using the Alligation formula:

⇒ Quantity of Cheaper / Quantity of Dearer = (D − M) / (M − C)

⇒ Ratio = (22 − 19.50) / (19.50 − 18)

⇒ Ratio = 2.50 / 1.50

⇒ Ratio = 25 / 15

⇒ Ratio = 5 / 3

∴ The correct answer is 5 : 3.

Additional Information

Alligation Rule

It is a rule that enables us to find the ratio in which two or more ingredients at the given price must be mixed to produce a mixture of a specified price.

Mean Price

The cost price of a unit quantity of the mixture is called the mean price. It always lies between the price of the cheaper and the dearer variety.

Ratio Formula

Quantity of Cheaper / Quantity of Dearer = (CP of Dearer − Mean Price) / (Mean Price − CP of Cheaper).

Shortcut Trick

Sum of the cubes of the side ratios: 2³ + 3³ + 4³ = 8 + 27 + 64 = 99 units³.

Volume of the cylinder: πr²h = (22/7) × 6 × 6 × 7 = 792 cm³.

Equating the volumes: 99 units³ = 792 cm³ ⇒ 1 unit³ = 8 cm³.

Taking the cube root: 1 unit = 2 cm.

Sides of the cubes: 2 × 2 = 4 cm, 3 × 2 = 6 cm, and 4 × 2 = 8 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 4 cm, 6 cm and 8 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Ratio of sides of three cubes = 2 : 3 : 4

Radius of cylinder (r) = 6 cm, Height of cylinder (h) = 7 cm

Formula Used:

Volume of cube = a³ | Volume of cylinder = πr²h

Calculations:

⇒ Let the sides of the cubes be 2x, 3x, and 4x.

⇒ Total volume of the three cubes = (2x)³ + (3x)³ + (4x)³

⇒ Total volume = 8x³ + 27x³ + 64x³ = 99x³

⇒ Volume of the cylinder = (22/7) × 6² × 7

⇒ Volume of the cylinder = 22 × 36 = 792 cm³

⇒ 99x³ = 792

⇒ x³ = 792 ÷ 99 = 8

⇒ x = √8 (cube root) = 2

⇒ Side 1 = 2 × 2 = 4 cm

⇒ Side 2 = 3 × 2 = 6 cm

⇒ Side 3 = 4 × 2 = 8 cm

∴ The correct answer is 4 cm, 6 cm and 8 cm.

Additional Information

Melting and Recasting

When solid objects are melted and recast into a different shape, the total volume remains unchanged provided there is no wastage during the process.

Volume of Basic Solids

For a cube with side a, Volume = a³. For a cylinder with radius r and height h, Volume = πr²h.

Cube Root Calculation

If x³ = V, then x = V^(1/3). For example, if x³ = 8, then x = 2 since 2 × 2 × 2 = 8.

Shortcut Trick

Remaining work duration for 5 workers = 12 − 4 = 8 days.

Total units of remaining work = 5 × 8 = 40 units.

New group size = 5 + 2 = 7 workers.

Time for remaining work = 40 ÷ 7 = 5(5)/(7) days.

∴ The correct answer is 5(5)/(7) days.

Alternate Method

Given: Initial workers = 5, Total planned days = 12, Workers added = 2, Days passed = 4.

Formula: Total Work = Number of Workers × Time

⇒ Total work capacity = 5 × 12 = 60 units

⇒ Work completed in 4 days = 5 × 4 = 20 units

⇒ Remaining work = 60 − 20 = 40 units

⇒ New number of workers = 5 + 2 = 7

⇒ Time to finish remaining work = 40 ÷ 7 = 5(5/7) days

∴ The correct answer is 5(5)/(7) days.

Additional Information

Work-Worker Relationship

Total work is directly proportional to the product of the number of workers and the time spent (M × D = Constant for the same work).

The Chain Rule

For varying workers, days, and hours, the relation is M₁D₁H₁ / W₁ = M₂D₂H₂ / W₂, where W is the amount of work.

Efficiency and Time

The time taken to complete a task is inversely proportional to the efficiency or the number of people working on it (Time ∝ 1/Efficiency).

Shortcut Trick

Length of one part of the rod = Body Diagonal of a cube

Body Diagonal = Side × √3

Using the approximation √3 ≈ 1.7 for exam calculations:

Length of each part = 5 × 1.7 = 8.5 m

Total Length of rod = 4 × 8.5 = 34 m

∴ The correct answer is 34 m.

Alternate Method

Given:

⇒ Number of equal parts of the rod = 4

⇒ Number of cubes formed = 4

⇒ Side length of each cube (a) = 5 m

Formula Used:

⇒ Distance between the two most distant vertices of a cube (Body Diagonal) = √(a² + a² + a²) = a√3

Calculations:

⇒ In these types of practical geometry problems, the length of a rod part required to span the internal framework of a cube is its body diagonal.

⇒ Length of 1 part = 5 × √3

⇒ Taking the standard numerical value √3 ≈ 1.7 for integer-based options:

⇒ Length of 1 part = 5 × 1.7 = 8.5 m

⇒ Total length of the rod = 4 × Length of one part

⇒ Total length = 4 × 8.5 = 34 m

∴ The correct answer is 34 m.

Additional Information

Cube Diagonals

A cube has two types of diagonals: the face diagonal (a√2) and the body diagonal (a√3), which is the longest possible distance within the cube.

Surface Area and Volume

For a cube of side 'a', the Total Surface Area = 6a² and the Volume = a³.

Common Approximations

In competitive exams, √2 is often approximated as 1.4 and √3 as 1.7 to arrive at simplified integer options.

Shortcut Trick

Total percentage difference between 7% loss and 18% gain = 7% + 18% = 25%.

According to the question, this 25% gap is equal to the price increase of ₹120.

25% of Cost Price (CP) = ₹120

100% of Cost Price (CP) = 120 × 4 = ₹480

∴ The correct answer is ₹480.

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial Loss = 7%

Required Gain = 18%

Increase in Selling Price (SP) = ₹120

Formula Used:

SP = CP × (100 ± Profit or Loss %)/100

CP = (Difference in SP ÷ Difference in % Profit/Loss) × 100

Let the Cost Price of the book be ₹100x.

⇒ Initial Selling Price (SP₁) = 100x − 7% of 100x = ₹93x

⇒ New Selling Price (SP₂) = 100x + 18% of 100x = ₹118x

⇒ Difference in Selling Prices = 118x − 93x = 25x

⇒ Given, 25x = ₹120

⇒ x = 120 ÷ 25 = 4.8

⇒ Cost Price (100x) = 100 × 4.8 = ₹480

∴ The correct answer is ₹480.

Additional Information

Percentage Change in SP

If an item is shifted from a loss of L% to a profit of P%, the total change in SP is (P + L)% of the CP.

Cost Price and Selling Price

CP is the base (100%) for calculating profit and loss. SP = CP + Profit or SP = CP − Loss.

Marked Price and Discount

Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price (MP). SP = MP − Discount.

Shortcut Trick Total Cost Price (CP) = 2400 + 100 = ₹2,500 Ratio of CP : SP = 2500 : 3000 = 5 : 6 Profit = 6 − 5 = 1 unit Profit % = (Profit ÷ CP units) × 100 = (1 ÷ 5) × 100 = 20% ∴ The correct answer is 20%.

Alternate Method Given: Purchase Price = ₹2,400 Overhead (Transportation) = ₹100 Selling Price (SP) = ₹3,000

Formula: Total CP = Purchase Price + Overhead Expenses Profit % = [(SP − CP) ÷ CP] × 100 Calculations: ⇒ Total CP = 2400 + 100 = ₹2,500 ⇒ Profit = 3000 − 2500 = ₹500 ⇒ Profit % = (500 ÷ 2500) × 100 ⇒ Profit % = (1 ÷ 5) × 100 = 20% ∴ The correct answer is 20%.

Additional Information Total Cost Price The Total Cost Price includes the actual price paid plus all additional overhead expenses like transportation, repairs, tax, or labor costs. Profit and Loss Percentage Both Profit and Loss percentages are always calculated on the Total Cost Price unless specified otherwise. Profit % = (Profit/CP) × 100. Relationship between SP and CP If SP > CP, there is a profit. If SP < CP, there is a loss. If SP = CP, it is a break-even point (no profit, no loss).

Shortcut Trick

Total interest percentage = Rate × Time

Total Interest = 16% × 2 = 32%

Given, 32% of Principal = ₹1560

100% (Principal) = (1560 ÷ 32) × 100 = 48.75 × 100 = ₹4875

∴ The correct answer is ₹4875.

Alternate Method

Given:

Simple Interest (SI) = ₹1560

Time (T) = 2 years

Rate (R) = 16% per annum

Formula Used:

Principal (P) = (SI × 100) ÷ (R × T)

Calculations:

⇒ P = (1560 × 100) ÷ (16 × 2)

⇒ P = 156000 ÷ 32

⇒ P = 19500 ÷ 4

⇒ P = ₹4875

∴ The correct answer is ₹4875.

Additional Information

Simple Interest Components

The formula for Simple Interest is SI = (P × R × T) ÷ 100, where P is Principal, R is Rate, and T is Time.

Amount Calculation

Total Amount (A) is the sum of the Principal and the interest earned: A = P + SI = P × (1 + (R × T) ÷ 100).

Rate and Time Relationship

If the Rate is given per annum, the Time must be in years. If time is in months, divide by 12; if in days, divide by 365.

Shortcut Trick

To check if a product is divisible by a number, check if any of its individual factors are divisible by that number.

For divisibility by 9, the sum of the digits must be a multiple of 9.

Sum of digits of 2007 = 2 + 0 + 0 + 7 = 9 (which is divisible by 9).

Since one factor is divisible by 9, the entire product is exactly divisible by 9.

∴ The correct answer is 9.

Alternate Method

Given: Expression = 281 × 926 × 2007

Property Used: A product A × B × C is divisible by n if any factor or the product of their remainders is divisible by n.

Checking each option for the expression 281 × 926 × 2007:

⇒ For Option (1) - 7: 2007 ÷ 7 = 286 with remainder 5. None of the factors are divisible by 7.

⇒ For Option (2) - 5: Last digits are 1, 6, and 7. Since none end in 0 or 5, the product is not divisible by 5.

⇒ For Option (3) - 9: Sum of digits of 2007 = 9. Since 9 is divisible by 9, 2007 is divisible by 9.

⇒ ∴ 281 × 926 × 2007 is exactly divisible by 9.

⇒ For Option (4) - 11: For 2007, (7+0) − (0+2) = 5 (Not divisible by 11).

∴ The correct answer is 9.

Additional Information

Divisibility Rule of 9

A number is divisible by 9 if the sum of its digits is a multiple of 9.

Divisibility Rule of 3

Similar to 9, a number is divisible by 3 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 3.

Divisibility Rule of 11

The difference between the sum of digits at odd places and the sum of digits at even places must be 0 or a multiple of 11.

Divisibility Rule of 7

Double the last digit and subtract it from the remaining number; the result should be divisible by 7.

Shortcut Trick

Note that for 5 − 2√6, the difference of squares is 5² − (2√6)² = 25 − 24 = 1.

When the difference of squares is 1, the reciprocal 1/(a − b) is simply the conjugate (a + b).

Thus, 1/(5 − 2√6) = 5 + 2√6.

Substituting this: (5 + 2√6) + (5 + 2√6) − (10 + 4√6) = 10 + 4√6 − 10 − 4√6 = 0.

∴ The correct answer is 0.

Alternate Method

Given: (5 + 2√6) + 1/(5 − 2√6) − (10 + 4√6)

Formula Used: Rationalization of 1/(a − b) = (a + b) / (a² − b²)

⇒ First, we rationalize the term 1/(5 − 2√6) by multiplying numerator and denominator by (5 + 2√6):

⇒ 1/(5 − 2√6) × (5 + 2√6)/(5 + 2√6) = (5 + 2√6) / [5² − (2√6)²]

⇒ (5 + 2√6) / (25 − 24) = (5 + 2√6) / 1 = 5 + 2√6

⇒ Now, substitute this result back into the original expression:

⇒ (5 + 2√6) + (5 + 2√6) − (10 + 4√6)

⇒ (5 + 5 + 2√6 + 2√6) − (10 + 4√6)

⇒ (10 + 4√6) − (10 + 4√6) = 0

∴ The correct answer is 0.

Additional Information

Rationalizing Factor

If the product of two surds is a rational number, then each surd is called the rationalizing factor of the other. For (a + √b), the factor is (a − √b).

Algebraic Identity

The identity (a − b)(a + b) = a² − b² is used to eliminate square roots from the denominator during rationalization.

Conjugate Surds

Surds like (a + √b) and (a − √b) are called conjugate surds. Their sum and product are always rational numbers.

Shortcut Trick

Total work (LCM of 12, 28) = 84 units.

Efficiency of A = 84 ÷ 12 = 7 units/day; Efficiency of B = 84 ÷ 28 = 3 units/day.

Work done by A and B in 3 days = (7 + 3) × 3 = 30 units.

Remaining work = 84 − 30 = 54 units.

Time taken by B to finish = 54 ÷ 3 = 18 days.

∴ The correct answer is 18 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by A = 12 days

Time taken by B = 28 days

Work duration together = 3 days

Formula used:

Total Work = Efficiency × Time

Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time

Calculations:

⇒ Combined efficiency of A and B = 7 + 3 = 10 units/day

⇒ Work completed in 3 days = 10 × 3 = 30 units

⇒ Remaining work to be done by B = 84 − 30 = 54 units

⇒ Time taken by B = 54 ÷ 3 = 18 days

∴ The correct answer is 18 days.

Additional Information

Efficiency and Time Relationship

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken to complete the work (E ∝ 1/T).

Total Work Calculation

Total work is generally assumed to be the Least Common Multiple (LCM) of the individual days to simplify efficiency calculations.

Work and Wages

When people work together, the total wage is distributed in the ratio of the total work done by each individual (Efficiency × Time).

Given:

Formula Used:

Total cycles sold by Showroom Q (2020−2023) = Cycles in 2020 + Cycles in 2021 + Cycles in 2022 + Cycles in 2023

Calculation:

According to the data provided in the table for Showroom Q:

⇒ Number of cycles sold in 2020 = 350

⇒ Number of cycles sold in 2021 = 400

⇒ Number of cycles sold in 2022 = 470

⇒ Number of cycles sold in 2023 = 410

To find the total number of cycles sold by Showroom Q during these years:

⇒ Total = 350 + 400 + 470 + 410

⇒ Total = 750 + 470 + 410

⇒ Total = 1220 + 410

⇒ Total = 1630

∴ The correct answer is 1630.

Shortcut Trick Compare the amount of juice by multiplying the capacity ratio with the juice fraction for each container. Container M juice = 6 × (2/5) = 2.4 units Container N juice = 5 × (3/10) = 1.5 units Container O juice = 4 × (4/9) = 1.77 units Comparing 2.4, 1.5, and 1.77, the value 1.5 is the least. ∴ The correct answer is N.

Alternate Method Given: Juice : Water in M = 2 : 3 (Total = 5) Juice : Water in N = 3 : 7 (Total = 10) Juice : Water in O = 4 : 5 (Total = 9) Ratio of Capacities (M : N : O) = 6 : 5 : 4

Formula Used: Amount of Juice = Total Capacity × (Juice parts / Total parts) Calculations: ⇒ Juice in M = 6 × (2 / (2 + 3)) = 6 × (2 / 5) = 12 / 5 = 2.4 units ⇒ Juice in N = 5 × (3 / (3 + 7)) = 5 × (3 / 10) = 15 / 10 = 1.5 units ⇒ Juice in O = 4 × (4 / (4 + 5)) = 4 × (4 / 9) = 16 / 9 ≈ 1.78 units ⇒ Comparing the quantities: 1.5 < 1.78 < 2.4 ⇒ The least amount of juice is in container N. ∴ The correct answer is N.

Additional Information Ratio Comparison To compare fractions like a/b and c/d, cross-multiply: if a×d < b×c, then a/b < c/d. Mixture Concentration The concentration of a component is given by (Specific Part / Total Mixture Parts). Total quantity = Concentration × Total Volume. LCM Method for Ratios When combining multiple ratios, making the sum of ratio parts equal to the LCM of all sums helps in easier calculation across different containers.

Shortcut Trick

Total distance to cover = Length of Train 1 + Length of Train 2 + Distance apart

⇒ Total Distance = 200 m + 400 m + 150 m = 750 m

Given relative speed of the trains = 75 m/s

Time taken = Total Distance ÷ Relative Speed = 750 ÷ 75 = 10 sec

∴ The correct answer is 10 sec.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length of the first train (L₁) = 200 m

Length of the second train (L₂) = 400 m

Distance apart (d) = 150 m

Combined relative speed of the trains (V_rel) = 75 m/s

Formula Used:

Total Distance = L₁ + L₂ + d

Time = Total Distance ÷ Relative Speed

Calculations:

⇒ Total Distance to cover = 200 + 400 + 150 = 750 m

⇒ Time taken = 750 ÷ 75 = 10 sec

∴ The correct answer is 10 sec.

Additional Information

Relative Speed (Opposite Direction)

When two objects move in opposite directions, their relative speed is the sum of their individual speeds: Relative Speed = S₁ + S₂.

Relative Speed (Same Direction)

When two objects move in the same direction, their relative speed is the difference of their individual speeds: Relative Speed = |S₁ − S₂|.

Speed Unit Conversion

To convert speed from km/h to m/s, multiply by 5 ÷ 18. To convert m/s to km/h, multiply by 18 ÷ 5.

Shortcut Trick

To find the Fourth Proportional (d) of three numbers a, b, and c, use the direct relation: d = (b × c) ÷ a.

Given numbers: a = 24, b = 32, c = 42

Fourth Proportional = (32 × 42) ÷ 24

Fourth Proportional = (4 × 42) ÷ 3 = 4 × 14 = 56

∴ The correct answer is 56.

Alternate Method

Given: Three numbers are 24, 32, and 42.

Formula Used: If four numbers a, b, c, and x are in proportion, then a : b = c : x, which implies a × x = b × c.

Let the fourth proportional be x.

⇒ 24 : 32 :: 42 : x

⇒ 24 ÷ 32 = 42 ÷ x

⇒ 3 ÷ 4 = 42 ÷ x

⇒ 3 × x = 42 × 4

⇒ x = (42 × 4) ÷ 3

⇒ x = 14 × 4

⇒ x = 56

∴ The correct answer is 56.

Additional Information

Mean Proportional

The mean proportional between two numbers a and b is calculated as √(a × b).

Third Proportional

If a, b, and c are in continued proportion (a:b = b:c), then c is the third proportional, where c = b² ÷ a.

Basic Property of Proportion

In any proportion a : b :: c : d, the product of extremes (a × d) is always equal to the product of means (b × c).

Shortcut Trick

Rate of 5% in fraction = 1/20. Population becomes 21/20 each year.

For 2 years, population becomes (21/20)² = 441/400 of the original.

Population 2 years ago = 1,86,102 × (400/441)

Population 2 years ago = 422 × 400 = 1,68,800

∴ The correct answer is 1,68,800.

Alternate Method

Given:

Present population (P) = 1,86,102

Annual growth rate (R) = 5%

Time period (n) = 2 years

Formula Used:

P = P₀ × (1 + R/100)ⁿ

Where P = Present Population and P₀ = Population n years ago.

Calculations:

⇒ 1,86,102 = P₀ × (1 + 5/100)²

⇒ 1,86,102 = P₀ × (1 + 1/20)²

⇒ 1,86,102 = P₀ × (21/20) × (21/20)

⇒ 1,86,102 = P₀ × (441 / 400)

⇒ P₀ = (1,86,102 × 400) / 441

⇒ P₀ = 422 × 400

⇒ P₀ = 1,68,800

∴ The correct answer is 1,68,800.

Additional Information

Population Increase Formula

When population increases at rate R% annually, Population after n years = P(1 + R/100)ⁿ.

Population Decrease Formula

When population decreases at rate R% annually, Population after n years = P(1 − R/100)ⁿ.

Successive Percentage Change

If population changes by a% and then b%, the net effective change is (a + b + ab/100)%.

Shortcut Trick

Identify common factors for the downstream distances (260 and 208): HCF(260, 208) is 52. Try divisors of 52 like 13.

If Downstream Speed (v) = 13 km/hr, then 260/13 = 20 hours.

Remaining time for upstream = 46 − 20 = 26 hours. So, Upstream Speed (u) = 130/26 = 5 km/hr.

Verify with second case: 90/5 + 208/13 = 18 + 16 = 34 hours. (Condition Satisfied)

Speed in still water = (v + u) ÷ 2 = (13 + 5) ÷ 2 = 9 km/hr.

∴ The correct answer is 9 km/hr.

Alternate Method

Given:

Case 1: Upstream distance = 130 km, Downstream distance = 260 km, Total time = 46 hr

Case 2: Upstream distance = 90 km, Downstream distance = 208 km, Total time = 34 hr

Formula Used:

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Upstream Speed (u) = x − y | Downstream Speed (v) = x + y

Speed in still water (x) = (v + u) ÷ 2

Calculations:

Let 1/u = a and 1/v = b.

⇒ 130a + 260b = 46 → (Eq. 1)

⇒ 90a + 208b = 34 → (Eq. 2)

Divide Eq. 1 by 2: 65a + 130b = 23

Divide Eq. 2 by 2: 45a + 104b = 17

Multiplying Eq. 1 simplified by 4 and Eq. 2 simplified by 5 to equate 'b' coefficients:

⇒ 260a + 520b = 92

⇒ 225a + 520b = 85

Subtracting the equations:

⇒ 35a = 7

⇒ a = 7/35 = 1/5 ∴ u = 5 km/hr

Substitute a = 1/5 in 65a + 130b = 23:

⇒ 65(1/5) + 130b = 23

⇒ 13 + 130b = 23

⇒ 130b = 10 ⇒ b = 1/13 ∴ v = 13 km/hr

⇒ Speed in still water (x) = (13 + 5) ÷ 2

⇒ x = 18 ÷ 2 = 9 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 9 km/hr.

Additional Information

Upstream and Downstream Velocities

Downstream speed (v) is the sum of the boat speed (x) and stream speed (y), whereas upstream speed (u) is the difference: v = x + y and u = x − y.

Speed of Still Water and Stream

The speed of the object in still water is x = (v + u) ÷ 2 and the speed of the stream is y = (v − u) ÷ 2.

Average Speed in Boats

If a boat travels a certain distance and returns to the starting point, the average speed is given by (u × v) ÷ x, where u is upstream and v is downstream speed.

The correct answer is The spy hacked the system to steal data..

Key Points

• The original sentence follows a specific logical structure: Agent (Thief) + Subversive Action (Broke) + Security Barrier (Lock) + Illicit Purpose (to enter the house). It describes an unauthorized individual bypassing a physical security measure to achieve a specific, often illegal, objective.
• In the sentence The spy hacked the system to steal data, the relationship is identical. The Agent (Spy) performs a Subversive Action (Hacked) on a Digital Security Barrier (System) with the Illicit Purpose of obtaining information (to steal data).
• Both sentences utilize a transitive verb expressing force or technical subversion (broke/hacked) to overcome an obstacle (lock/system). The motive in both cases is clandestine in nature, involving unauthorized access.
• The grammatical construction in both sentences employs an infinitive phrase (to enter/to steal) to indicate the ultimate intent behind the primary action.

 Additional Information

• The other options do not share this specific adversarial relationship:
• The player trained hard for the match: This describes preparation and dedication for a legitimate sporting event rather than bypassing security.
• The author revised the manuscript again: This indicates improvement or iteration of a creative work, lacking any element of conflict or unauthorized entry.
• The gardener watered the plants in the morning: This is a routine maintenance task and does not involve a motive of overcoming a barrier.
• In linguistic analogies, it is crucial to match the semantic roles (Agent, Patient, Goal) and the connotation (positive, negative, or neutral) of the actions described.
• The terms Thief and Spy are both roles associated with stealth and secrecy, further strengthening the connection between the base sentence and the correct option.

The correct answer is 'the'.

Key Points

• The definite article 'the' is used before singular or plural nouns when the noun is specific or particular.
• In this sentence, 'theory of relativity' refers to a specific, well-known scientific theory established by Albert Einstein.
• When a noun is followed by a qualifying phrase (often starting with 'of'), it usually becomes definite and requires the article 'the'.
• Since we are talking about a unique and specific theory, 'the' is the correct choice.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Complete Sentence: 'She read about the theory of relativity in the physics textbook.'

Additional Information

• Option 1: 'a' is an indefinite article used for non-specific singular countable nouns starting with a consonant sound.
• Option 4: 'an' is an indefinite article used for non-specific singular countable nouns starting with a vowel sound.
• Option 2: 'No article required' is incorrect because the specificity of the scientific theory necessitates a definite article.

The correct answer is courteous.

Key Points

• The word insolent is an adjective used to describe behavior that is boldly disrespectful, impudent, or arrogant. It originates from the Latin term insolens, which initially meant unaccustomed or excessive, eventually evolving to describe a lack of social deference or civility.
• The term courteous serves as the direct antonym, signifying behavior that is polite, respectful, and considerate. It is derived from the Old French word corteis, which referred to the refined manners and etiquette expected within a royal court.
• In the given sentence, the individual was criticised because their behavior lacked decency or respect (insolent). Therefore, a behavior that is the exact opposite would be one characterized by graciousness and proper manners (courteous).

 Additional Information

• • Unethical: This refers to actions that violate moral principles or professional codes of conduct. While insolence is a matter of poor manners, unethical behavior involves a lack of integrity or honesty.
• Aggressive: This describes a hostile or violent attitude characterized by a readiness to attack or confront. It focuses on the intensity and forcefulness of an action rather than the disrespectful nature of it.
• Warranted: This is a participial adjective meaning justified or sanctioned. It indicates that a particular reaction (like criticism) was deserved based on the circumstances, but it does not describe a personality trait or mannerism.

The correct answer is 1-C-B-D-A.

Key Points

• The fixed segment 1 introduces the subject (The innovative scientist) and the principal action (conducted a series of experiments), establishing the narrative foundation of the statement.
• Segment C provides the spatial context by specifying the location (in her state-of-the-art laboratory) where the experiments took place, creating a logical transition from the action to the environment. Hence, statement C is correct.
• Segment B functions as an adverbial phrase of manner, describing the methodology and precision (with meticulous attention to detail) applied during the conduct of the experiments. Hence, statement B is correct.
• Segment D utilizes a present participle phrase (leading to ground breaking discoveries) to indicate the direct outcome or consequence of the scientific process described in the previous segments. Hence, statement D is correct.
• Segment A acts as a relative clause modified by the relative pronoun that, which identifies the significance and potential impact of the discoveries mentioned in segment D. Hence, statement A is correct.

 Additional Information

• Sentence Rearrangement Fundamentals:
• Subject-Verb-Object (SVO): Most coherent sentences in English follow a structure where the subject and verb are followed by prepositional phrases or adverbs that define where, how, and why.
• Modifier Placement: Adjectival clauses or relative clauses (like segment A) must be placed immediately after the noun they modify (discoveries) to avoid syntactic ambiguity.
• Logical Progression: A professional scientific statement typically moves from the actor to the action, then the environment, the method, and finally the result.
• Grammatical Clues: The use of the participle 'leading' in segment D provides a bridge between the action and the resultant noun phrase, which is then further qualified by the clause in segment A.

The correct answer is Theology.

Key Points

• Theology is defined as the systematic and rational study of the nature of the divine, religious truths, and faith traditions. It focuses on understanding God or the ultimate reality through intellectual inquiry and scriptural analysis.
• The term is derived from the Greek words theos (meaning God) and logos (meaning discourse or study), effectively translating to the science of things divine.
• Historically, theologians use logic and philosophical methods to explain, justify, or critique religious doctrines, ethics, and spiritual experiences within a specific belief system.
• Unlike the purely secular observation of religions, theology often bridges the gap between reason and revelation, seeking to provide a coherent framework for religious life.

 Additional Information

• Sociology
• It is the scientific study of society, including patterns of social relationships, social interaction, and culture that surrounds everyday life.
• Anthropology
• This field involves the holistic study of humanity, focusing on human biological characteristics, evolutionary history, and cultural diversity across different civilizations.
• Mythology
• It refers to a collection of myths, especially those belonging to a particular religious or cultural tradition, which often feature supernatural beings and explain the origins of the world.

The correct answer is lagging.

Key Points

• The word expeditious is an adjective derived from the Latin expeditio, meaning characterized by promptness, speed, and efficiency. When applied to a disaster response, it implies that actions were taken swiftly to mitigate the crisis.
• The term lagging refers to the act of falling behind, moving slowly, or failing to maintain a prescribed pace. It denotes a temporal delay or a gap between an event and the subsequent reaction.
• In linguistic semantics, an antonym must represent the opposite quality of the target word. While expeditious emphasizes quickness, lagging emphasizes sluggishness or retardation in progress, making it the most appropriate antonym.
• The context of the sentence highlights a positive attribute of the government (being fast); therefore, the opposite must reflect a negative attribute regarding the timing of the intervention.

 Additional Information

• Coordinated:
• Refers to the organization of different elements of a complex body or activity so as to enable them to work together effectively.
• It focuses on structural harmony rather than the speed of execution.
• Haphazard:
• Defines something that lacks any obvious principle of organization or is characterized by randomness.
• While it can be a critique of a response, it refers to the manner of work rather than the velocity.
• Decentralised:
• A political or administrative term where authority is transferred from a central government to local or regional administrations.
• It describes the hierarchy or distribution of power and is unrelated to the concept of speed or delay.

The correct answer is 'tirelessly'.

Key Points

• The word 'tirelessly' is an adverb that means working with great effort and energy without getting tired.
• In the context of a team trying to finish a project before a deadline, it implies a high level of dedication and hard work.
• The other options do not fit the context: 'reluctantly' implies unwillingness, 'rarely' implies it almost never happened, and 'randomly' implies a lack of organization.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Complete Sentence: The team worked tirelessly to finish the project before the deadline.

Additional Information

• Reluctantly: means doing something in an unwilling or hesitant way.
• Rarely: means not often; seldom.
• Randomly: means in a way that lacks a definite plan, purpose, or pattern.

The correct answer is: It’s no use crying over spilt milk.

Key Points

• The phrase 'there was no point worrying about what had already happened' suggests that once an event has occurred and cannot be changed, being anxious or regretful about it is futile. (जो बीत गया उस पर चिंता करने का कोई लाभ नहीं होना)
• Example: After failing to catch the flight, he sat down and realized there was no point worrying about what had already happened.
• 'It’s no use crying over spilt milk' is a proverb which means it is useless to feel sorry or complain about a mistake or misfortune that has already happened and cannot be undone. (बीती बातों पर पछताना या दुखी होना व्यर्थ है)
• Example: I know you are upset about breaking the vase, but it’s no use crying over spilt milk; let’s just clean it up.
• Hence, the highlighted text can be perfectly replaced by this proverb as it carries the exact same sentiment of moving forward after a loss.

Therefore, the correct answer is- It’s no use crying over spilt milk.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• A stitch in time saves nine (समय पर किया गया सुधार भविष्य की बड़ी परेशानियों से बचाता है): It means that dealing with a problem immediately will save a lot of work and trouble later.
• Example: You should fix that small leak in the roof now because a stitch in time saves nine.
• Actions speak louder than words (कथनी से करनी भली): What someone actually does is more important and more revealing than what they say they will do.
• Example: He keeps promising to help the poor, but actions speak louder than words.
• Empty vessels make [the most noise] (ओछा आदमी बहुत दिखावा करता है / थोथा चना बाजे घना): People who have the least knowledge or least substance often talk the most or the loudest.
• Example: Don’t be fooled by his constant boasting; we all know that empty vessels make the most noise.

The correct answer is Q R T P S.

Key Points

• The sentence begins with the fixed subject phrase The cleanliness drive in India, which establishes the central topic regarding sanitation efforts within the country.
• Segment Q (under the Swachh Bharat Abhiyan) serves as a prepositional phrase that provides specific context by identifying the national mission under which this drive is organized. Hence, statement Q is the first logical part.
• Segment R (has become a nationwide movement) provides the main verb phrase has become and the subject complement. It describes the current status and scale of the drive. Hence, statement R follows Q.
• Segment T (led by enthusiastic volunteers) is a participial phrase that modifies the noun movement. It explains the driving force behind the campaign's success. Hence, statement T follows R.
• Segment P (for spreading awareness) introduces the purpose or objective of the initiative led by these volunteers. Hence, statement P follows T.
• Segment S (among school and college students) is a prepositional phrase that identifies the target audience for the awareness efforts, completing the logical flow of the sentence. Hence, statement S is the final part.

 Additional Information

• Swachh Bharat Abhiyan (Clean India Mission):
• It was officially launched on October 2, 2014, at Rajghat, New Delhi, to commemorate the birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi.
• The mission is divided into two sub-missions: SBM (Gramin) for rural areas and SBM (Urban) for cities.
• Its primary goals include achieving Open Defecation Free (ODF) status and implementing scientific solid waste management across all statutory towns.
• The campaign is considered the largest behavioral change program in the world, relying heavily on community mobilization and public participation.
• Role of Volunteers and Students:
• Swachhagrahis are the grassroots level volunteers who motivate communities to build and use toilets.
• Educational institutions play a critical role through National Service Scheme (NSS) and National Cadet Corps (NCC) units in promoting hygiene and environmental sustainability.

The correct answer is Prioritizes.

Key Points

• The original sentence contains an orthographic error in the word priorritizes, where an unnecessary double r was used.
• The word is a verb derived from the noun Priority, which refers to the state of being more important than others.
• To form the third-person singular present tense, the suffix -ize is added to the root, followed by -s. The correct spelling maintains the single r found in the root word.
• The spelling Prioritizes follows standard English lexicon rules, ensuring the word remains phonetically and structurally accurate.
• By replacing the misspelled word with Prioritizes, the sentence becomes grammatically and orthographically sound.

 Additional Information

• Analysis of other underlined terms:
• Someone: A singular indefinite pronoun used to refer to an unspecified person; it is correctly spelled in the original sentence.
• Important: An adjective used to describe something of great significance or value; the spelling provided in the sentence is correct.
• Things: The plural form of the noun thing, referring to objects or entities; it is correctly spelled.
• Incorrect options like Thinngs, Somaone, and Immportant introduce new spelling errors by adding or changing letters unnecessarily.

The correct answer is: Deterreed.

Key Points

• The word 'Deterreed' is incorrectly spelled in the given options. The extra 'e' before the final 'd' makes it a misspelt word. (गलत वर्तनी)
• Example: The student realized he had written deterreed instead of the correct spelling in his essay.
• 'Deterred' is the correct spelling, which is the past tense of the verb 'deter', meaning to discourage someone from doing something by instilling doubt or fear of the consequences. (रोकना या हतोत्साहित करना)
• Example: The high cost of the project deterred the committee from moving forward with the plan.
• Hence, we can infer that the misspelt word among the choices is 'Deterreed'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Deterreed.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Casualty (हताहत / दुर्घटना में घायल या मृत व्यक्ति): A person killed or injured in a war or accident.
• Example: There was only one minor casualty reported after the building was evacuated.
• Binocular (दूरबीन संबंधी / दो आँखों वाला): Involving or adapted for or using both eyes at once.
• Example: The birdwatcher adjusted his binocular focus to get a clearer view of the eagle.
• Cowardice (कायरता): Lack of bravery or courage to face danger or pain.
• Example: He was accused of cowardice for abandoning his teammates during the crisis.

The correct answer is: add fuel to the fire.

Key Points

• The phrase 'aggravate the situation' means to make a problem, a bad situation, or a negative feeling worse or more serious. (स्थिति को और अधिक बिगाड़ना)
• Example: His refusal to apologize will only aggravate the situation between the two families.
• The idiom 'add fuel to the fire' refers to saying or doing something that makes an already difficult situation, argument, or bad mood even worse. (आग में घी डालना)
• Example: The manager's harsh criticism only added fuel to the fire during the heated discussion.
• Hence, we can infer that 'add fuel to the fire' is the correct idiomatic replacement for 'aggravate the situation'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: add fuel to the fire.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Kick up a row (हंगामा खड़ा करना): To make a great deal of noise, fuss, or cause a scene by complaining loudly.
• Example: The customer kicked up a row when he found out the item was out of stock.
• Break loose (छूट जाना): To escape from confinement, restraint, or someone's hold.
• Example: The horse broke loose from the stable and ran into the fields.
• Break the ice (चुप्पी तोड़ना): To say or do something that makes people feel more relaxed in a social setting.
• Example: He told a funny story to break the ice at the beginning of the dinner party.

The correct answer is 'opened'.

Key Points

• The word 'opened' means to move a cover or part of something so that it is no longer closed, making the contents accessible.
• In the context of a lecture, it is natural for students to have opened their notebooks to take notes or read existing material.
• The verb 'opened' correctly describes the action performed on a notebook to facilitate writing or reading during a session.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Complete Sentence: The students opened their notebooks during the lecture.

Additional Information

• Narrated: This means to give a spoken or written account of a story or event. (बयान करना)
• Discarded: This means to get rid of someone or something as no longer useful or desirable. (निकाल देना)
• Published: This means to prepare and issue a book, journal, or piece of music for public sale. (प्रकाशित करना)

The correct answer is 'balanced'.

Key Points

• The word 'balanced' refers to something that is treated in a fair and objective way, considering all aspects without bias.
• The sentence states that the portrayal of rural life neither idealises (presents as perfect) nor condemns (expresses complete disapproval of) it.
• Since it avoids both extremes, the portrayal is fair and neutral, making 'balanced' the most appropriate fit for the blank.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Complete Sentence: The novel offers a balanced portrayal of rural life, neither idealising nor condemning it.

Additional Information

• Superficial: Lacking depth or thoroughness; shallow.
• Distorted: Giving a misleading or false account or impression; warped.
• Sentimental: Prompted by feelings of tenderness, sadness, or nostalgia, often in an exaggerated way.

The correct answer is 'an / an'.

Key Points

• The indefinite article 'an' is used before singular countable nouns that begin with a vowel sound (a, e, i, o, u).
• In the first part of the sentence, the word 'incredible' starts with the vowel sound 'i', so 'an' is the appropriate article.
• In the second part of the sentence, the word 'amusing' starts with the vowel sound 'a', so 'an' is required there as well.
• The sentence is describing a non-specific story and a non-specific incident for the first time, hence the use of indefinite articles.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Complete Sentence: 'Meera narrated an incredible story about her travels and shared an amusing incident from her childhood.'

Additional Information

• Article 'A': Used before words beginning with a consonant sound (e.g., a book, a university, a European).
• Article 'An': Used before words beginning with a vowel sound (e.g., an apple, an hour, an honest man).
• Article 'The': The definite article is used when we refer to a specific noun that is already known to the speaker and the listener.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• According to the passage, the disappearance of Flight MH370 was highly unusual because it occurred without any prior indication of trouble or emergency.
• The pilot provided a calm, routine sign-off at 1:19 a.m., saying, 'Good night, Malaysian three-seven zero.'
• Immediately following this routine communication, the aircraft vanished from radar without sending any distress signal or final call, leaving only silence.
• This complete lack of communication during a catastrophic event is a primary reason why the incident remains one of aviation’s greatest mysteries.
• Thus, the correct answer is that it vanished from radar without any warning or final communication.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Additional Information

• Option 2 is incorrect because the passage states that despite a massive and expensive search, only a few debris pieces were ever found, not the entire plane shortly after crashing.
• Option 3 is incorrect because the text clearly mentions the plane had begun its scheduled journey from Kuala Lumpur to Beijing.
• Option 4 is incorrect because the passage explicitly emphasizes that there was 'No distress signal' sent before the plane disappeared.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• According to the passage, satellite data suggested that MH370 veered off course and flew for hours into the remote Indian Ocean.
• The text explicitly mentions that despite the largest and most expensive search effort in aviation history, the vastness and isolation of this location resulted in only a few pieces of debris being recovered.
• The remote location is presented as a primary factor that prevented search teams from locating the main wreckage or the flight recorders (black boxes).
• Thus, the difficulty in accessing and scanning the deep, remote waters of the Indian Ocean is identified as a significant challenge in solving the mystery.

Therefore, the correct answer is The remote location where the plane is believed to have crashed.

Additional Information

• The absence of eyewitnesses in the cockpit: While the lack of visual evidence from inside the cockpit adds to the mystery, the passage focuses on the physical search in the ocean as the primary logistical hurdle.
• The clear recordings of the final moments of the flight: This is factually incorrect according to the passage, which states there was no distress signal and only silence after the final radio call.
• The overwhelming amount of evidence collected: This is also incorrect as the passage states that the truth remained elusive and only a few debris pieces were ever found, indicating a severe lack of evidence.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• The passage emphasizes that despite living in an age of technology, the disappearance of Flight MH370 remains a mystery, highlighting the limitations of current tracking systems.
• It mentions that the aircraft veered off course and flew into the remote Indian Ocean, an area so vast that the plane simply vanished from radar.
• The fact that the largest and most expensive search effort in aviation history recovered only a few debris pieces underscores the extreme difficulty of locating aircraft in deep, open waters.
• Therefore, the incident serves as a chilling reminder of the significant challenges of tracking planes across the world's vast oceans.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Additional Information

• Option 2: This is incorrect because the passage explicitly states that technology failed to prevent the plane from disappearing or to track its final location effectively.
• Option 3: This is incorrect as the disappearance of MH370 exposed vulnerabilities and gaps in aviation safety protocols rather than demonstrating their efficiency.
• Option 4: This is incorrect because the passage focuses on technical tracking and search efforts; passenger cooperation was not mentioned as a factor in the disappearance or the subsequent search.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• In the context of the passage, the word elusive is used to describe the truth regarding the disappearance of Flight MH370.
• Elusive is defined as something that is difficult to find, catch, achieve, or remember. Because search teams and investigators could not find a definitive answer for years, the truth remained elusive.
• An antonym is a word that has the opposite meaning of another word.
• Obvious means easily perceived or understood; quite self-evident or apparent. This is the direct opposite of something that is difficult to find or pin down.
• Therefore, while the MH370 investigation remains a mystery, if the cause were easily known or evident, it would be described as obvious.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Additional Information

• Hidden: This is a synonym for elusive in certain contexts, meaning kept out of sight or concealed.
• Unclear: This is a synonym; it refers to something that is not easy to see, hear, or understand.
• Mysterious: This is also a synonym in this context; it refers to something that is difficult or impossible to understand or explain, much like the fate of MH370.

The correct answer is Mysterious and tragic.

Key Points

• The tone of a passage reflects the author's attitude toward the subject matter. In this text, the author describes the disappearance of Flight MH370 using evocative descriptors like greatest mysteries, vanished, and elusive, which immediately establish a mysterious atmosphere. Hence, the mysterious aspect is correct.
• The tragic element is emphasized through the poignant description of the 239 passengers and crew, the sudden panic that ensued after the silence, and the profound grief of families who waited for answers that never came. Hence, the tragic aspect is correct.
• The concluding lines, mentioning how the event haunts the world and remains a chilling reminder of a massive aircraft disappearing, solidify the somber, sorrowful, and haunting nature of the narrative. Hence, the overall tone is Mysterious and tragic.
• Hopeful and optimistic is incorrect because the passage focuses on a lack of answers and the finality of the disappearance. Aggressive and confrontational is incorrect as the writing is reflective and investigative rather than accusatory. Humorous and lighthearted is entirely inappropriate given the context of a major aviation disaster. Hence, these statements are incorrect.

 Additional Information

• Malaysia Airlines Flight 370:
• The flight disappeared on March 8, 2014, while flying from Kuala Lumpur International Airport to Beijing Capital International Airport.
• The search for the aircraft became the most expensive search in the history of aviation, involving multiple countries and advanced underwater technology.
• The incident led to significant changes in aviation safety regulations, including requirements for more frequent position reporting for aircraft traveling over remote oceans.

सही उत्तर है- 2, 4, 1, 3

Key Points

• दिए गए वाक्यों का तार्किक और सार्थक क्रम '2, 4, 1, 3' है।
• वाक्य व्यवस्था (Sentence Rearrangement) में सबसे पहले विषय प्रवेश करने वाले वाक्य को रखा जाता है, उसके बाद उससे संबंधित विवरण और अंत में निष्कर्ष आता है।
• इस क्रम का विश्लेषण इस प्रकार है:
• वाक्य 2: 'मनुष्य की समस्याएँ दो प्रकार की हैं' - यह मुख्य विषय का परिचय देता है।
• वाक्य 4: 'एक समस्या शरीर की है' - यह पहली समस्या का विवरण देता है।
• वाक्य 1: 'दूसरी मस्तिष्क की' - यह दूसरी समस्या का उल्लेख करता है।
• वाक्य 3: 'किन्तु प्रत्येक मनुष्य की अंतिम परिणति मृत्यु है' - यह अंत में एक सार्वभौमिक सत्य के साथ बात समाप्त करता है।

अन्य विकल्प -

Important Points 
 वाक्य संरचना के मुख्य अंग-

1. आकांक्षा: पद के अर्थ को जानने की इच्छा।
2. योग्यता: पदों में अर्थबोध की क्षमता।
3. आसक्ति (समीपता): पदों का निरंतर उच्चारण।
4. पदक्रम: वाक्यों में शब्दों का निश्चित स्थान।

Additional Information

'माँ' का पर्यायवाची शब्द नहीं है: पूजनीय

Key Points

• 'माँ' शब्द का पर्यायवाची शब्द 'पूजनीय' नहीं होगा क्योंकि पूजनीय का अर्थ 'पूजा के योग्य' या 'आदरणीय' होता है।
• 'माँ' के प्रमुख पर्यायवाची शब्द - माता, जननी, मैया, अम्बा, जनयित्री, धात्री, प्रसू, प्रसूता, अम्मा, अम्ब।
• पर्यायवाची - ऐसे शब्द जिनके अर्थ समान हों, पर्यायवाची शब्द कहलाते हैं।

अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Information कुछ महत्वपूर्ण पर्यायवाची शब्द -

परोक्ष का सही उत्तर है: प्रत्यक्ष

Key Points

• 'परोक्ष' शब्द का समानार्थी शब्द 'अप्रत्यक्ष' या 'अगोचर' है।
• 'परोक्ष' शब्द का विलोम शब्द 'प्रत्यक्ष' होगा।
• 'परोक्ष' शब्द का अर्थ है — जो आँखों से ओझल हो या जो प्रत्यक्ष न हो।
• 'प्रत्यक्ष' शब्द का अर्थ — जो आँखों के सामने हो या साक्षात्।
• विलोम - जो शब्द किसी एक शब्द के विपरीत अर्थ को व्यक्त करते हैं, वे विलोम शब्द कहलाते हैं।

अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Information कुछ अन्य महत्वपूर्ण विलोम शब्द -

सही उत्तर है- 4 1 3 2 5

Key Points

• दिए गए शब्दों को सही क्रम में व्यवस्थित करने पर सार्थक वाक्य 'हमें रोज व्यायाम करना चाहिए' प्राप्त होता है।
• हिंदी व्याकरण में वाक्य रचना का मूलभूत नियम कर्ता + कर्म + क्रिया होता है। इस वाक्य में 'हमें' कर्ता है, 'व्यायाम' कर्म है और 'करना चाहिए' क्रिया पद है।
• वाक्य में 'रोज' शब्द क्रियाविशेषण के रूप में प्रयुक्त हुआ है जो क्रिया की समय संबंधी विशेषता को दर्शाता है।

अन्य विकल्प -

Important Points 
 वाक्य संरचना के मुख्य अंग-

1. उद्देश्य (Subject): वाक्य में जिसके बारे में कुछ कहा जाता है।
2. विधेय (Predicate): वाक्य में उद्देश्य के बारे में जो कुछ कहा जाता है।

Additional Information

सही उत्तर है - लड़ने के लिए ललकार देना

Key Points

• 'ताल ठोकना' का अर्थ - लड़ने के लिए ललकार देना अथवा चुनौती देना।
• वाक्य प्रयोग - अखाड़े में उतरते ही भारतीय पहलवान ने विदेशी पहलवान के सामने 'ताल ठोक' दी।
• मुहावरा - ऐसे वाक्यांश, जो अपने सामान्य अर्थ को छोड़कर किसी विशेष अर्थ को प्रकट करते हैं, उन्हें मुहावरा कहते हैं। मुहावरा पूर्ण वाक्य नहीं होता, इसलिए इसका प्रयोग स्वतंत्र रूप से नहीं किया जा सकता।
• उदाहरण - 'नाक रगड़ना' का अर्थ - दीनतापूर्वक प्रार्थना करना। वाक्य प्रयोग - चोरी पकड़े जाने पर चोर पुलिस के सामने 'नाक रगड़ने' लगा।

अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Information

दिए गए वाक्य में वर्तनी की दृष्टि से अशुद्ध शब्द और उसका शुद्ध रूप है- भरत (अशुद्ध: भरथ)

Key Points

• दिए गए वाक्य में 'भरथ' शब्द की वर्तनी अशुद्ध है। भगवान श्री राम के भाई का नाम 'भरत' है, जिसमें 'थ' के स्थान पर 'त' वर्ण का प्रयोग होता है।
• वाक्य शुद्धि का अर्थ है वाक्य को व्याकरण और वर्तनी के नियमों के अनुसार दोषरहित बनाना। शुद्ध वाक्य में शब्दों का वर्तनीगत और व्याकरणिक रूप सही होना चाहिए।
• उदाहरण 1: 'कालिदास' (शुद्ध) - 'कालीदास' (अशुद्ध)।
• उदाहरण 2: 'कवयित्री' (शुद्ध) - 'कवियत्री' (अशुद्ध)।

अन्य विकल्प -

Important Pointsवाक्य अशुद्धि के मुख्य भेद-

1. वर्तनी संबंधी अशुद्धि
2. संज्ञा संबंधी अशुद्धि
3. लिंग संबंधी अशुद्धि
4. वचन संबंधी अशुद्धि
5. कारक संबंधी अशुद्धि

Additional Information

दिए गए विकल्पों में वर्तनी की दृष्टि से शुद्ध वाक्य का सही उदाहरण है- अत्यधिक दुःख सहा नहीं जाता ।

Key Points

• 'अत्यधिक दुःख सहा नहीं जाता' वाक्य वर्तनी और व्याकरण की दृष्टि से पूर्णतः शुद्ध है। इसमें 'अत्यधिक' (अति + अधिक) शब्द में यण् स्वर संधि का सही प्रयोग हुआ है और 'दुःख' की वर्तनी भी मानक है।
• वाक्य शुद्धि का तात्पर्य वाक्य को व्याकरणिक नियमों, सही वर्तनी और उचित पदक्रम के अनुसार लिखने से है। शुद्ध वाक्य में शब्दों का वर्तनी दोष रहित होना अनिवार्य है।
• उदाहरण 1: 'उज्ज्वल भविष्य के लिए परिश्रम करो।'
• उदाहरण 2: 'कवयित्री ने सुंदर कविता सुनाई।'

अन्य विकल्प -

Important Points वाक्य अशुद्धि के मुख्य भेद-

1. वर्तनी संबंधी अशुद्धि
2. संधि संबंधी अशुद्धि
3. समास संबंधी अशुद्धि
4. उपसर्ग और प्रत्यय संबंधी अशुद्धि
5. लिंग और वचन संबंधी अशुद्धि

Additional Information

'कल अचानक से बारिश होने लगी थी' वाक्य उदाहरण है: रीतिवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण का

Key Points

• 'कल अचानक से बारिश होने लगी थी' वाक्य में 'अचानक' रीतिवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण है। यह क्रिया (होने लगी थी) के होने के ढंग या आकस्मिकता को प्रकट करता है।
• जिस क्रिया-विशेषण शब्द से क्रिया के होने की रीति या विधि का ज्ञान होता है, उसे रीतिवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण कहते हैं।
• जैसे- एकाएक, सहसा, कदाचित, अवश्य, शांतिपूर्वक, सुखपूर्वक, यथाशक्ति, फटाफट, तेजी से, ध्यानपूर्वक आदि।
• उदाहरण - बस एकाएक रुक गई।

Important Pointsअर्थ के आधार पर क्रिया-विशेषण के भेद-

• स्थानवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण
• कालवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण
• परिमाणवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण
• रीतिवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण

Additional Information

सही उत्तर है - सोने का घर मिट्टी कर देना - आने-जाने की जल्दी मचाना

Key Points

• 'सोने का घर मिट्टी कर देना' मुहावरे का अर्थ 'बनी-बनाई गृहस्थी या धन-संपत्ति को नष्ट कर देना' होता है, न कि 'आने-जाने की जल्दी मचाना'।
• वाक्य प्रयोग - आलसी और व्यसनी पुत्र ने अपने पिता के 'सोने के घर को मिट्टी कर दिया'।
• मुहावरा - जब कोई वाक्यांश अपने सामान्य अर्थ को छोड़कर किसी विशेष और लाक्षणिक अर्थ को व्यक्त करने लगता है, तो उसे मुहावरा कहते हैं।
• उदाहरण - 'गागर में सागर भरना' का अर्थ - थोड़े शब्दों में बहुत कुछ कह देना। वाक्य प्रयोग - बिहारी कवि ने अपने दोहों के माध्यम से 'गागर में सागर भर दिया' है।

अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Information

सही उत्तर है- उड़ा

Key Points

• दिए गए वाक्य में रिक्त स्थान के लिए 'उड़ा' सबसे उपयुक्त क्रिया है।
• यहाँ 'उड़ा देना' एक संयुक्त क्रिया के रूप में प्रयुक्त हुआ है, जिसका अर्थ है किसी पक्षी को स्वतंत्र करना या पिंजड़े से मुक्त करना।
• वाक्य के संदर्भ में, सानिया द्वारा तोते को पिंजड़े से बाहर निकालने की क्रिया का बोध हो रहा है, इसलिए 'उड़ा' शब्द व्याकरण की दृष्टि से शुद्ध है।
• उदाहरण:

1. उसने सारे कबूतर उड़ा दिए।
2. पिंजड़ा खुलते ही पक्षी उड़ गया।

अन्य विकल्प -

Important Points 
 क्रिया के मुख्य भेद-

1. सकर्मक क्रिया
2. अकर्मक क्रिया

Additional Information

दिए गए वाक्य में रेखांकित शब्द ‘चाँद’ का पर्यायवाची शब्द इन्दु होगा।

Key Points

• वाक्य में 'चाँद' का पर्यायवाची शब्द 'इन्दु' है।
• 'चाँद' के अन्य प्रमुख पर्यायवाची शब्द - चंद्रमा, शशि, मयंक, विधु, सुधांशु, राकेश, हिमांशु, निशाकर, सोम, रजनीश, शशांक।
• पर्यायवाची शब्द: वे शब्द जिनका अर्थ समान होता है, उन्हें पर्यायवाची शब्द कहा जाता है।
• अतः, वाक्य के अनुसार इन्दु सही विकल्प है।

अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Information कुछ महत्वपूर्ण पर्यायवाची शब्द -