DSSSB PRT Official Paper (Held On: 18 Feb, 2026 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

Logic followed here is

By comparing the words and their respective codes, we can identify the code for each letter.

Thus, the code for L is 3.

Hence, the correct answer is "option 1"

The logic followed here is:

• Total number of students in the row = 63
• Position of Ashna from the right end = 22^nd
• Sona is 28^th to the left of Ashna. Since the students are facing North, moving to the left from a position already measured from the right increases the rank from the right end.

Position of Sona from the right end = Position of Ashna from the right end + 28

= 22 + 28

= 50^th

Position from the left end = Total number of students − Position from the right end + 1

= 63 − 50 + 1

= 13 + 1

= 14^th

So, Sona is 14^th from the left end.

Hence, the correct answer is '14th'.

Given Word: POLARISE

According to the given conditions:

• Each vowel - changed to the letter immediately following it.
• Each consonant - changed to the second letter preceding it.

 

• New group of letters: N, P, J, B, P, J, Q, F
• Therefore, 2 letters appear exactly twice.

​Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The logic followed in this series is that each subsequent term is calculated based on the previous term using a specific mathematical operation.

Logic: (Previous number × 2) − 1 = Next number

The missing number in the series is 257.

Hence, he correct answer is option 1

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (First Number × 7) = Second Number; (Second Number × 2) = Third Number; (Third Number + 2) = Fourth Number

For the first set 31 − 217 − 434 − 436

⇒ 31 × 7 = 217

⇒ 217 × 2 = 434

⇒ 434 + 2 = 436

For the second set 11 − 77 − 154 − 156

⇒ 11 × 7 = 77

⇒ 77 × 2 = 154

⇒ 154 + 2 = 156

Applying the same logic to **Option 3 (**20 − 140 − 280 − 282)

20 − 140 − 280 − 282

⇒ 20 × 7 = 140

⇒ 140 × 2 = 280

⇒ 280 + 2 = 282

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Given: Seven people C, D, E, F, G, H and I are sitting in a straight row, facing north.

1. D sits fifth to the left of I.
2. C sits fifth to the left of H.
3. Only three people sit to the right of F.
4. H sits second to the right of F.
5. E sits third to the left of H

The final arrangement is, 

Thus, G sits third to the right of D.

Hence, the correct answer is "option 2".

BODMAS Rule:

Signs to be interchanged:

• + and −
• × and ÷

Given Equation: 14 ÷ 6 + 9 × 3 − 2 = ?

Equation after interchanging the signs and using BODMAS rule:14 × 6 − 9 ÷ 3 + 2 = ?

= 14 × 6 − 9 ÷ 3 + 2 

= 14 × 6 − 3 + 2 

= 84 − 3 + 2

= 84 + 2 − 3

= 86 − 3

= 83

Hence, the correct answer is "option 2"

The logic follows here,

For WALK − AWLK − WLKA

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For SLIT − LSIT − SITL,

Applying the same logic For BUSH − UBSH − BSHU

Hence, the correct answer is "option 1"

Given: Q, U, I, L, T and S live on six different floors of the same building. The lowermost floor in the building is numbered 1, the floor above it is numbered 2 and so on till the topmost floor is numbered 6.

1. Q lives on the topmost floor.
2. Only three people live between Q and L.
3. T lives on a floor below L.
4. U lives on an even numbered floor.
5. I lives on an odd numbered floor but not on floor number 5

The Final Arrangement is,

Thus, there are two people living between S and L.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Given:  (Left) * I $ @ K @ M & Q L L * I V & L # E Z * & E (Right)

Required Condition: Letter − Letter − Symbol 

(Left) *** I $ @ K @ M & Q L L * I V & L # E Z * & E** (Right)

There are exactly 3 such letters in the given series that satisfy the criteria.

Hence, the correct answer is "option 1"

Given Series:  (Left) 1 ^ 4 6 * ? * 5 1 & $? ^ + \%$ ? ^ % 1 & (Right)

Required pattern : Symbol-Symbol-Number

(Left) 1 ^ 4 6 * ? * 5 1 & $? ^ + \%$ ? ^ % 1 & (Right)

There are two such symbols there, each of which is immediately preceded by another symbol and also immediately followed by a number

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

The logic followed here is,

The correct answer is option 4

F is the father of I. I is the brother of G. W is the father of Z. Z is the son of G

The Family Tree Diagram,

Based on the tree, G is the daughter of F, and Z is the son of G. Therefore, Z is the Daughter's son of F.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second letter − First letter = 3 and Third letter − Second letter = 5.

Option 1) NQV,

Option 2) KNT,

This cluster does not follow the rule of +3, +5.

Option 3) EHM,

Option 4) BEJ,

Therefore, the letter cluster that is different from the others is KNT.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given: Each of E, F, G, I, K, L and M has an exam on a different day of a week, starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week.

1. F has an exam on Friday.
2. Only two people have exams between K and F.
3. Only four people have exams between E and K.
4. L has an exam immediately after G.
5. I does not have an exam on Monday

Final arrangement table:

 

Thus, there are four people between I and M.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given Word: PRONOUNS

Condition

• Each vowel → replaced by the letter immediately following it.
• Each consonant → replaced by the letter 2 places preceding it (i.e., the letter immediately preceding the consonant is skipped).

The letter that appears exactly twice is L.

Hence, the correct answer is "option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) RQ - UT,

Option 2) ON - RQ,

Option 4) ED - HG,

Option 3) TS - BH,

This pair does not follow the rule.

Therefore, the letter-cluster pair that is different from the others is TS - BH.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The loigc follows here, 

Hence, the correct asnswer is "Option 3"

BODMAS Rule:

Given Operator Mapping:

• A stands for Division (÷)
• B stands for Multiplication (×)
• C stands for Addition (+)
• D stands for Subtraction (−)

**Given :**143 C 208 A 13 B 4 D 125 = ?

Replace the letters with operators and apply the BODMAS rule:

= 143 + 208 ÷ 13 × 4 − 125

 

= 143 + 16 × 4 − 125

= 143 + 64 − 125

= 207 − 125

= 82

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

The correct answer is Krishna and Holi.

Key Points

• Dhamar is a prominent vocal genre of Hindustani Classical Music that is structurally and stylistically related to the ancient Dhrupad tradition.
• The lyrical content of Dhamar compositions almost exclusively centers on the playful and romantic descriptions of Lord Krishna and his celebrations of the Holi festival in the region of Braj.
• The style is characterized by the use of the Dhamar Taal, a rhythmic cycle consisting of 14 beats (divided into sections of 5, 2, 3, and 4 beats).
• Unlike the more somber and spiritual Dhrupad, Dhamar focuses on Shringar Rasa (the aesthetic of love and beauty), depicting the throwing of colors, the playing of the flute, and the interaction between Krishna and the Gopis.
• It is often referred to as Hori-Dhamar because of its thematic dedication to the spring festival of Holi.

 Additional Information

• Musical Context:
• Dhrupad: The oldest surviving form of Hindustani Classical Music, known for its austere, devotional, and meditative character, usually set to Chautal (12 beats).
• Braj Bhasha: The literary dialect of Hindi used in Dhamar lyrics, which is traditionally associated with the Krishna bhakti movement.
• Nom-Tom Alap: Before singing the Dhamar composition, performers typically execute a rhythmic Alap using abstract syllables, similar to the Dhrupad style.
• Hori: While Dhamar is the strictly classical version, Hori is a semi-classical genre (often sung in Thumri style) that also celebrates Holi and Krishna but allows for more melodic flexibility and ornamentation.

The correct answer is कुतुबुद्दीन ऐबक.

Key Points

• सन् 1206 ईस्वी में मुहम्मद गोरी की मृत्यु के बाद, उसके साम्राज्य का कोई स्पष्ट उत्तराधिकारी नहीं था, जिसके कारण उसके वफादार तुर्क गुलाम जनरलों ने अलग-अलग क्षेत्रों पर नियंत्रण प्राप्त कर लिया।
• कुतुबुद्दीन ऐबक, जो गोरी का सबसे विश्वसनीय सेनापति और उसके भारतीय अभियानों का मुख्य वास्तुकार था, ने भारतीय विजित क्षेत्रों पर अपना आधिपत्य स्थापित किया।
• ऐबक ने भारत में ममलुक वंश या गुलाम वंश की स्थापना की, जो दिल्ली सल्तनत का पहला राजवंश बना।
• उसका औपचारिक राज्याभिषेक 24 जून 1206 को लाहौर में हुआ था, जिसे उसने अपनी शुरुआती राजधानी बनाया।
• यद्यपि उसने कभी 'सुल्तान' की उपाधि धारण नहीं की और स्वयं को 'मलिक' और 'सिपहसालार' के रूप में ही संतुष्ट रखा, लेकिन वह भारत में मुस्लिम शासन का वास्तविक संस्थापक माना जाता है।

 Additional Information

• कुतुबुद्दीन ऐबक:
• उसे उसकी अत्यधिक उदारता के कारण लाख बख्श (लाखों का दान देने वाला) के नाम से जाना जाता था।
• उसने दिल्ली में कुव्वत-उल-इस्लाम मस्जिद और अजमेर में अढ़ाई दिन का झोंपड़ा का निर्माण करवाया।
• उसने सूफी संत ख्वाजा कुतुबुद्दीन बख्तियार काकी की याद में कुतुब मीनार का निर्माण शुरू करवाया था।
• शमशुद्दीन इल्तुतमिश:
• यह ऐबक का दामाद और उत्तराधिकारी था, जिसे दिल्ली सल्तनत का वास्तविक संस्थापक माना जाता है क्योंकि उसने राजधानी को दिल्ली स्थानांतरित किया था।
• गियासुद्दीन बलबन:
• यह गुलाम वंश का एक शक्तिशाली शासक था जिसने 'लौह और रक्त' की नीति अपनाई और सिजदा और पाइबोस जैसी प्रथाएं शुरू कीं।
• अलाउद्दीन खिलजी:
• यह खिलजी वंश का सबसे शक्तिशाली शासक था, जिसने 1296 से 1316 ईस्वी तक शासन किया और अपने बाजार नियंत्रण सुधारों के लिए प्रसिद्ध था।

CONCEPT:

• The f-block elements consist of two series of elements placed at the bottom of the periodic table: the lanthanoids and the actinoids.
• The actinoid series (or actinides) consists of elements where the 5f orbitals are being progressively filled.
• These elements are typically radioactive and include well-known elements like Uranium and Plutonium.

EXPLANATION:

• The elements with atomic numbers 90 to 103 belong to the actinoid series.
• Atomic number 90 is Thorium (Th).
• Atomic number 103 is Lawrencium (Lr).
• Other classifications mentioned in the options:
• Lanthanoids: These are the elements from atomic number 58 (Cerium) to 71 (Lutetium).
• Transition metals: These are the d-block elements located in Groups 3 to 12 of the periodic table.
• Alkali metals: These are the Group 1 elements (excluding Hydrogen), such as Lithium (Li), Sodium (Na), and Potassium (K).
• Therefore, based on the specific range of atomic numbers provided (90 to 103), the correct classification is Actinoids.

Therefore, elements from atomic number 90 to 103 are classified as Actinoids.

The correct answer is Himachal Pradesh.

Key Points

• Jhoori is a celebrated form of folk music traditional to the state of Himachal Pradesh, specifically popular in the Sirmaur and Mahasu (Shimla) regions.
• The word Jhoori literally refers to a couplet or a short poem; the music is characterized by its rhythmic delivery and lyrical depth.
• The primary theme of this music is romance and extramarital love, often expressing the intense feelings of longing, beauty, and the emotional connection between lovers.
• It is typically performed in an open-air setting, frequently accompanied by a dance of the same name, where the performers move in a circular motion.
• The songs are composed in a question-and-answer format or as direct addresses to a beloved, making it a unique lyrical poetry tradition of the Himalayan foothills.

 Additional Information

• Bihar folk music:
• Includes Sohar, which is sung during childbirth, and Chaita, performed during the month of Chait.
• Bideshiya is another famous form, created by Bhikhari Thakur, focusing on social issues and migration.
• Gujarat folk music:
• Known for Garba and Doha, which are integral to cultural festivals like Navratri.
• Sugam Sangeet and Dayro are also significant oral traditions in the state.
• Rajasthan folk music:
• Famous for the Maand style, which is a sophisticated form of folk singing developed in the royal courts.
• Instruments like the Kamayacha, Sarangi, and Khartal are extensively used by communities like the Manganiyars and Langas.
• Other Folk Songs of Himachal Pradesh:
• Laman: A distinctive folk song from the Kullu Valley dedicated to romantic themes.
• Chhanjoti: A traditional song often associated with the Chamba district.

The correct answer is Indian Association.

Key Points

• The Indian Association was the first avowedly nationalist organization founded in British India, established on 26 July 1876 at Albert Hall in Calcutta (now Kolkata).
• It was co-founded by Surendranath Banerjea and Ananda Mohan Bose with the primary objective of creating a powerful public opinion on political issues and unifying Indians under a common political program.
• The organization served as a more democratic and representative alternative to the British Indian Association, which was largely seen as a body representing the interests of the landed aristocracy and Zamindars.
• The association played a significant role in organizing the All-India Civil Services Agitation after the British Government reduced the maximum age for appearing in the Indian Civil Service (ICS) exam from 21 to 19 years in 1877.
• It was instrumental in mobilizing opposition against repressive colonial legislations such as the Vernacular Press Act and the Arms Act of 1878, which restricted the freedom of the Indian press and public.

 Additional Information

• Indian National Congress (INC):
• Founded in December 1885 by retired officer A.O. Hume, the Indian Association eventually merged with the INC in 1886 during its second session in Calcutta.
• The merger was intended to consolidate nationalist forces and avoid a split in the burgeoning political movement.
• Surendranath Banerjea:
• Known as the Indian Burke or Rashtraguru, he was a teacher, journalist, and the first Indian to pass the ICS exam (though later dismissed), and he edited the newspaper The Bengalee.
• Ananda Mohan Bose:
• He was the first Indian Wrangler at the University of Cambridge and later served as the President of the Indian National Congress at the Madras session in 1898.

The correct answer is To transform India into a digitally empowered society and economy.

Key Points

• Launched on July 1, 2015, by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), the Digital India initiative is a flagship program designed to prepare India for a knowledge-based transformation.
• The core vision focuses on Digital Infrastructure as a Core Utility, ensuring that high-speed internet and a digital identity like Aadhaar are accessible to every citizen as a basic right.
• It emphasizes Governance and Services on Demand, aiming to integrate services across various government departments and make them available in real-time on mobile and online platforms.
• The initiative targets the Digital Empowerment of Citizens by promoting digital literacy and making digital resources and collaborative platforms available in diverse Indian languages to bridge the socio-economic gap.
• The program acts as an umbrella scheme that covers multiple government ministries and departments, weaving together a large number of ideas and thoughts into a single, comprehensive vision.

 Additional Information

• The initiative is structured around Nine Pillars that define its scope and implementation:
• Broadband Highways: Implementing the National Optical Fibre Network (NOFN), now BharatNet, to connect 2.5 lakh Gram Panchayats.
• e-Kranti: Focuses on the Electronic Delivery of Services, covering domains such as e-Education, e-Healthcare, Technology for Farmers, and e-Courts.
• IT for Jobs: Aims to train 1 crore students in smaller towns and villages for Information Technology sector jobs.
• Electronics Manufacturing: Targets Net Zero Imports by incentivizing domestic production of electronics, including mobile phones and medical devices.
• Early Harvest Programmes: Includes immediate impact projects like Biometric Attendance in government offices and Wi-Fi in all Universities.

The correct answer is The country is exporting more goods and services than it is importing..

Key Points

• The Balance of Payments (BoP) is a comprehensive statistical statement that summarizes all economic transactions between residents of a country and the rest of the world over a specific period, typically a year or a quarter.
• The Current Account is a major component of the BoP that records the net flow of money arising from visible trade (merchandise goods), invisible trade (services like shipping and banking), primary income (interest and dividends), and secondary income (transfers).
• A Current Account Surplus specifically indicates that the total value of exports (credits) of goods and services is greater than the total value of its imports (debits).
• In macroeconomic terms, a surplus signifies that the country is a net lender to the rest of the world, as it earns more foreign currency through trade and income than it spends.
• The fundamental identity for the current account can be represented as: Current Account = (Exports − Imports) + Net Income + Net Transfers. A positive result confirms a surplus.

 Additional Information

• Current Account Deficit (CAD):
• This occurs when the value of goods and services imported exceeds the value of those exported.
• A CAD implies that the nation is a net borrower, requiring a surplus in the Capital Account (such as through Foreign Direct Investment or external loans) to balance the overall BoP.
• Borrowing and the Capital Account:
• Borrowing from foreign countries is recorded in the Capital and Financial Account, not the current account.
• Heavy borrowing (as mentioned in incorrect options) is usually a result of a Current Account Deficit, as the country needs to finance its excess consumption and investment.
• Economic Implications:
• A consistent Current Account Surplus leads to an accumulation of Foreign Exchange Reserves.
• It reflects a high level of National Savings relative to domestic investment, indicating that domestic production exceeds domestic absorption (Consumption + Investment + Government Spending).
• Common components of invisible trade include Software Services, Tourism, and Remittances from workers abroad.

The correct answer is Shukrayaan-1.

Key Points

• Shukrayaan-1 is the tentative name for the Venus Orbiter Mission (VOM), a proposed interplanetary mission by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) to explore Venus, the hottest planet in our solar system.
• The mission aims to study the Venusian atmosphere, which is thick and dominated by carbon dioxide, and to examine the planet's surface for volcanic activity and stratigraphy.
• Key scientific instruments planned for the orbiter include a Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) for high-resolution mapping and a Ground Penetrating Radar (GPR) to study the subsurface layers.
• The mission is scheduled for a potential launch window in 2028 or 2031, coinciding with the optimal planetary alignment between Earth and Venus to minimize fuel consumption.

 Additional Information

• Chandrayaan-3:
• It was India's third Lunar mission, which successfully executed a soft landing on the Lunar South Pole on August 23, 2023, making India the first nation to achieve this feat.
• The mission included the Vikram lander and the Pragyan rover to conduct on-site chemical analysis of the lunar surface.
• Aditya L-1:
• This is India's first dedicated solar mission, launched in September 2023 to study the Sun from the Lagrange Point 1 (L1).
• It carries seven payloads to observe the photosphere, chromosphere, and the corona of the Sun.
• Mangalyaan-2:
• Also known as Mars Orbiter Mission 2 (MOM-2), it is a planned follow-up mission to further explore Mars with advanced scientific payloads.
• It aims to build upon the success of the first Mangalyaan mission launched in 2013.

The correct answer is Italy.

Key Points

• India is the sixth-largest producer of coffee in the world, and according to the Coffee Board of India data for the year 2020-21, Italy was the leading destination for Indian coffee exports.
• During the fiscal year 2020-21, Italy imported the highest quantity of coffee from India, amounting to approximately 60,453 metric tonnes.
• The export value to Italy accounted for a significant portion of India's total coffee export earnings, driven by the high demand for Indian Robusta and Arabica varieties in the European espresso market.
• The Coffee Board of India, which functions under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, tracks these export shipments to monitor trade patterns and support domestic growers.
• While global demand fluctuated during the pandemic, the trade relationship with Italy remained robust, solidifying its position as the top importer ahead of other European and Asian nations.

 Additional Information

• Germany:
• Historically the second-largest importer of Indian coffee, Germany primarily imports raw green coffee for high-tech processing and re-exporting purposes within the European Union.
• Russian Federation:
• This market is a major consumer of Indian Instant Coffee (Soluble coffee). It frequently ranks among the top three destinations due to the high preference for processed coffee over green beans.
• Poland:
• A significant emerging market in Eastern Europe for Indian exporters, focusing largely on Robusta beans used in commercial blends and local retail brands.
• Coffee Varieties in India:
• India produces two main varieties: Arabica (grown at higher altitudes like Baba Budan Giri) and Robusta (which constitutes the majority of the export volume due to its strong flavor and body).

The correct answer is Eastern Ghats are higher in elevation than the Western Ghats.

Key Points

• The Eastern Ghats are described as discontinuous and irregular because they have been eroded and dissected by several major rivers like the Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri that drain into the Bay of Bengal. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The Western Ghats are significantly higher than the Eastern Ghats, with an average elevation ranging between 900 and 1600 metres, compared to the much lower average of the Eastern Ghats. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The Eastern Ghats form the eastern edge of the Deccan Plateau and stretch geographically from the Mahanadi Valley in the north to the Nilgiris in the south. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The Western Ghats have a higher elevation than the Eastern Ghats, which average only about 600 metres in height; therefore, the claim that the Eastern Ghats are higher is factually inaccurate. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

 Additional Information

• Western Ghats (Sahyadri):
• They are continuous and can be crossed through passes like the Thal, Bhor, and Pal Ghats.
• The height of these mountains increases from north to south, with Anai Mudi (2,695 m) being the highest peak.
• They cause orographic rain by facing the rain-bearing moist winds from the Arabian Sea.
• Eastern Ghats:
• The highest peak in the Eastern Ghats is Mahendragiri, which stands at an elevation of 1,501 metres.
• They are older than the Western Ghats and have a complex geological structure featuring Charnockites and Khondalites.
• The Shevaroy Hills and the Javadi Hills are important mountain ranges located to the southeast of the Eastern Ghats.

The correct answer is Nitanshi Goel.

Key Points

• Nitanshi Goel secured the award for Best Leading Role (Female) at the 25th International Indian Film Academy (IIFA) Awards, which was celebrated as the Silver Jubilee edition in 2025.
• She won this prestigious accolade for her lead performance as Phool Kumari in the satirical comedy-drama film Laapataa Ladies, directed by Kiran Rao and produced by Aamir Khan.
• The 2025 IIFA Awards ceremony was held in Jaipur, Rajasthan, marking a significant return of the event to India to honor cinematic excellence from the year 2024.
• At approximately 17 years of age, Nitanshi Goel became one of the youngest actresses in the history of the IIFA Awards to win in the Best Actress category, following the film's massive success on streaming platforms and at the box office.

 Additional Information

• Laapataa Ladies:
• The film was officially announced as India's official entry for the 97th Academy Awards (Oscars) in the Best International Feature Film category.
• It tells the story of two young brides who get swapped during a train journey, exploring themes of women's empowerment and social reform.
• Pratibha Ranta:
• A talented actress who co-starred with Nitanshi Goel in Laapataa Ladies, portraying the character of Jaya/Pushpa Rani, and also gained fame for her role in the series Heeramandi: The Diamond Bazaar.
• Janki Bodiwala:
• An actress primarily known for her work in Gujarati cinema, she made her significant Bollywood debut in 2024 with the supernatural thriller Shaitaan, starring alongside Ajay Devgn.
• IIFA Awards:
• First held in London in 2000, the International Indian Film Academy Awards aim to promote Indian Cinema globally and have been hosted across various continents.

CONCEPT:

Thermodynamic systems are classified into three types based on the exchange of matter and energy with their surroundings:

• Open System: A system that can exchange both matter and energy (usually in the form of heat or work) with its surroundings.
• Closed System: A system that can exchange energy with its surroundings but cannot exchange matter.
• Isolated System: A system that can exchange neither matter nor energy with its surroundings.

EXPLANATION:

• In the case of hot coffee held in a cup:
• Matter exchange: Since the cup is open at the top, water molecules can escape into the air as steam/water vapor.
• Energy exchange: The coffee loses heat to the cooler surrounding air through the surface and the walls of the cup.
• Because it exchanges both matter and energy, it is a classic example of an open system.
• Other examples provided for context:
• A sealed pressure cooker and a closed bottle of soda are closed systems because the lids prevent matter from escaping, though heat can still pass through the containers.
• A thermos flask with a tight lid is designed to act as an isolated system by minimizing the transfer of both heat and matter.

Therefore, hot coffee held in a cup is an example of an open system.

The correct answer is Equity.

Key Points

• Equity is one of the four essential pillars of human development, fundamentally concerned with the concept of distributive justice.
• It dictates that every individual must have equal access to opportunities, ensuring that systemic barriers such as gender, race, income, or caste do not prevent people from realizing their potential.
• In the context of sustainable development, equity ensures that the benefits of progress are shared fairly across all segments of society, particularly reaching marginalized communities.
• By promoting an even playing field, equity seeks to eliminate the structural inequalities that historically limit the choices available to certain groups of people.

 Additional Information

• Sustainability:
• Refers to the continuity in the availability of opportunities over time.
• It implies that current resources must be used responsibly so that future generations are not deprived of the same opportunities.
• Productivity:
• Focuses on human labor productivity and the enrichment of human capital.
• It involves increasing the capabilities and efficiency of people through continuous investments in education and healthcare.
• Empowerment:
• Refers to the power to make choices and the ability to influence one's own destiny.
• It is achieved through capacity building, good governance, and policies that increase the freedom of the individual.

The correct answer is Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan.

Key Points

• Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan (1890−1988) was a prominent Pashtun leader and a close associate of Mahatma Gandhi, which led to him being widely known as the Frontier Gandhi or Sarhadi Gandhi.
• He was a devout practitioner of non-violence (Ahimsa) and successfully applied Gandhian principles in the tribal regions of the North-West Frontier Province (NWFP).
• In 1929, he founded the Khudai Khidmatgar (Servants of God), a non-violent movement that played a significant role in the Civil Disobedience Movement against British rule.
• The members of the Khudai Khidmatgar were also known as the Red Shirts because they wore uniforms dyed in a distinct brick-red color.
• In 1987, he became the first non-Indian citizen to be honored with the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian award, in recognition of his lifelong struggle for freedom and Hindu-Muslim unity.

 Additional Information

• Subhas Chandra Bose:
• Popularly known as Netaji, he led the Indian National Army (INA) and founded the All India Forward Bloc in 1939 to secure India's independence.
• Maulana Abul Kalam Azad:
• A distinguished scholar and leader of the Indian National Congress, he served as the first Education Minister of independent India.
• Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel:
• Known as the Iron Man of India, he was the first Deputy Prime Minister and played a pivotal role in the political integration of the princely states into the Indian Union.

The correct answer is Sydney McLaughlin-Levrone.

Key Points

• Sydney McLaughlin-Levrone made history at the World Athletics Championships held in Tokyo, Japan, by winning the gold medal in the women’s 400 metres flat event.
• On September 18, 2025, she recorded a sensational time of 47.78 seconds, which stands as one of the fastest times ever clocked in the history of the event.
• This performance brought her remarkably close to the long-standing world record of 47.60 seconds set by Marita Koch in 1985, further cementing her legacy as a versatile sprint sensation.
• The victory marked a successful expansion of her dominance from the 400m hurdles, where she had previously set multiple world records and won gold at both the Tokyo 2020 Olympics and the Paris 2024 Olympics.
• Her achievement in Tokyo 2025 underscored her athletic transition, proving her ability to dominate both the hurdles and the flat 400m discipline at the highest international level.

 Additional Information

• Serena Williams:
• She is a legendary American professional tennis player who has won 23 Grand Slam singles titles, the most by any player in the Open Era. She is not associated with track and field sprinting.
• Nadia Comaneci:
• A famous Romanian gymnast, she became the first person in Olympic history to be awarded a perfect score of 10.0 at the 1976 Montreal Olympics.
• Martina Navratilova:
• A Czech-American former professional tennis player and coach, she is widely considered one of the greatest all-format tennis players with 18 Grand Slam singles titles and 31 major women’s doubles titles.

The correct answer is Odisha.

Key Points

• According to the Indian Minerals Yearbook 2023, Odisha continues to be the leading producer of bauxite in India, accounting for over 70% of the total domestic production.
• The state possesses the largest reserves of bauxite in the country, predominantly concentrated in the East Coast Bauxite deposits.
• Major mining operations are centered in the Koraput, Rayagada, Kalahandi, and Bolangir districts.
• The Panchpatmali bauxite mine, operated by NALCO (National Aluminium Company Limited) in the Koraput district, is one of the most significant and largest bauxite mines in Asia.
• The high concentration of aluminum refineries and smelters in the region, such as those belonging to Hindalco and Vedanta, is directly linked to the abundance of this mineral resource.

 Additional Information

• Bauxite:
• It is the primary ore used for the commercial production of aluminum.
• It is a sedimentary rock formed by the leaching of silica from rocks containing aluminum silicates in tropical and subtropical regions.
• Main constituent minerals include gibbsite, boehmite, and diaspore.
• Gujarat:
• It is the second-largest producer, contributing approximately 9% to 10% of national output, with major deposits in Jamnagar, Kachchh, and Devbhumi Dwarka.
• Jharkhand:
• Significant production occurs in the Lohardaga and Gumla districts, which are known for high-grade bauxite used in chemical and refractory industries.
• Madhya Pradesh:
• Major bauxite reserves are located in the Amarkantak plateau and the Katni-Jabalpur region.

Therefore, the correct option is 2.

The correct answer is A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv.

Key Points

• Right to work, to education and to public assistance in certain cases: As per Article 41, the State shall, within the limits of its economic capacity and development, make effective provision for securing the right to work, education, and assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, and sickness. Hence, A matches with ii.
• Organisation of agriculture and animal husbandry: Article 48 directs the State to organize agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines, specifically focusing on preserving breeds and prohibiting the slaughter of cows and calves. Hence, B matches with i.
• Living wage, etc., for workers: Article 43 mandates that the State shall endeavour to secure a living wage, decent working conditions, and full enjoyment of leisure and social-cultural opportunities for all workers in the agricultural or industrial sectors. Hence, C matches with iii.
• Promotion of international peace and security: Article 51 outlines the State’s responsibility to promote international peace, maintain just relations between nations, foster respect for international law, and encourage the settlement of disputes by arbitration. Hence, D matches with iv.

 Additional Information

• Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP):
• Contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India, spanning from Article 36 to Article 51.
• The concept was borrowed from the Irish Constitution of 1937, which had copied it from the Spanish Constitution.
• These principles are non-justiciable, meaning they are not enforceable by any court, but they are fundamental in the governance of the country.
• The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 added four new DPSPs: Article 39 (opportunities for healthy development of children), Article 39A (equal justice and free legal aid), Article 43A (participation of workers in management), and Article 48A (protection of environment).
• The 86th Amendment Act of 2002 changed the subject matter of Article 45 to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years.

The correct answer is March 3-6, 2025.

Key Points

• The Mobile World Congress (MWC) 2025 is scheduled to be held from March 3 to March 6, 2025.
• The event is recognized as the largest and most influential gathering for the connectivity ecosystem, attracting over 2,400 exhibitors and approximately 100,000 attendees from around the globe.
• It is traditionally hosted at the Fira Gran Via exhibition center in Barcelona, Spain, which provides over 240,000 square meters of space across multiple halls for technology showcases.
• The GSMA (Global System for Mobile Communications Association) serves as the primary organizer, utilizing this platform to define the future of mobile technology and digital transformation.
• The 2025 dates represent a slight shift in the calendar compared to the 2024 edition, which took place in late February, reflecting the scheduling logistics of the global trade show circuit.

 Additional Information

• GSMA Organization:
• The GSMA represents the interests of nearly 800 mobile operators worldwide and more than 400 companies in the broader mobile ecosystem, including software firms and equipment providers.
• Beyond Barcelona, the association organizes regional events such as MWC Shanghai, MWC Kigali, and MWC Las Vegas.
• Core Themes and Features:
• The 2025 edition is expected to focus on 5G-Advanced, Humanising AI, Manufacturing DX (Digital Transformation), and the Game Changers in the tech industry.
• The event hosts the prestigious GLOMO Awards (Global Mobile Awards), which recognize extraordinary achievements and innovations within the telecommunications sector.
• It incorporates 4YFN (Four Years From Now), a dedicated space for startups, investors, and entrepreneurs to foster growth in the digital economy.
• The Ministerial Programme brings together government ministers and regulatory heads to discuss telecom policy and digital legislation.

The correct answer is Cultural heritage principles.

Key Points

• The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution of India under Articles 36 to 51. These principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and are used as guidelines for the State to create laws and policies.
• The Constitution does not explicitly classify these principles into specific categories; however, based on their content and direction, they are academically classified into three main ideologies: Socialistic Principles, Gandhian Principles, and Liberal-Intellectual Principles.
• Economic and Social Principles (Socialistic): These aim at providing social and economic justice and establishing a welfare state. Key articles include Article 38 (promoting social order), Article 39 (securing livelihoods), and Article 41 (right to work and education).
• Gandhian Principles: These are based on the ideology of Mahatma Gandhi and his program of reconstruction during the national movement. They include Article 40 (organization of village panchayats), Article 43 (promotion of cottage industries), and Article 46 (promotion of interests of SCs, STs, and other weaker sections).
• Principles relating to International Peace and Security: This specific category is derived from Article 51, which mandates the State to promote international peace, maintain honorable relations between nations, and encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration.
• There is no distinct category known as Cultural heritage principles. While Article 49 directs the State to protect monuments and places of national importance, it is classified under the Liberal-Intellectual Principles rather than a standalone cultural category.

 Additional Information

• Constitutional Significance:
• The concept of DPSP was borrowed from the Irish Constitution of 1937, which had itself borrowed it from the Spanish Constitution.
• Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described these principles as Novel Features of the Indian Constitution, emphasizing their role in achieving Economic Democracy.
• Unlike Fundamental Rights, DPSPs are non-justiciable, meaning they are not legally enforceable by the courts for their violation as per Article 37.
• The Sapru Committee in 1945 suggested two categories of individual rights: justiciable (Fundamental Rights) and non-justiciable (Directive Principles).
• The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles: Article 39 (opportunities for healthy development of children), Article 39A (equal justice and free legal aid), Article 43A (participation of workers in management), and Article 48A (protection of environment).

The correct answer is Maulana Abul Kalam Azad.

Key Points

• National Education Day is celebrated every year on 11 November in India to commemorate the birth anniversary of Maulana Abul Kalam Azad.
• The Ministry of Human Resource Development (now the Ministry of Education) declared 11 November as National Education Day on 11 September 2008.
• Maulana Abul Kalam Azad was a renowned scholar, freedom fighter, and the first Education Minister of independent India, serving from 1947 to 1958.
• He played a pivotal role in shaping the modern Indian education system and was instrumental in the establishment of the University Grants Commission (UGC) and the Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs).
• He was posthumously awarded India's highest civilian honor, the Bharat Ratna, in 1992 for his invaluable contributions to the nation.

 Additional Information

• A.P.J. Abdul Kalam:
• Commonly known as the Missile Man of India, he served as the 11th President of India.
• His birth anniversary on 15 October is celebrated as World Students' Day.
• Dr. S. Radhakrishnan:
• He was the first Vice-President and the second President of India.
• His birth anniversary on 5 September is observed as Teachers' Day in India to honor his contribution as a philosopher and teacher.
• Rabindranath Tagore:
• A Nobel laureate in Literature (1913) and a polymath who reshaped Bengali literature and music.
• He established Visva-Bharati University in Shantiniketan, focusing on an education system deeply rooted in nature and humanism.

Shortcut Trick

The Divisibility Rule of 9 states that the sum of the digits must be a multiple of 9.

Sum of digits of 16131p13 = 1 + 6 + 1 + 3 + 1 + p + 1 + 3 = 16 + p.

The smallest multiple of 9 greater than 16 is 18.

For divisibility, 16 + p = 18 ⇒ p = 2.

∴ The correct answer is 2.

Alternate Method

Given: The 8-digit number is 16131p13 and it is divisible by 9.

Formula Used: A number is divisible by 9 if the sum of its digits is exactly divisible by 9.

⇒ Sum of digits = 1 + 6 + 1 + 3 + 1 + p + 1 + 3

⇒ Sum of digits = 16 + p

⇒ For the number to be divisible by 9, (16 + p) mod 9 = 0

⇒ Possible values for (16 + p) are 18, 27, 36, ...

⇒ Case 1: 16 + p = 18 ⇒ p = 18 − 16 = 2

⇒ Case 2: 16 + p = 27 ⇒ p = 27 − 16 = 11 (Not possible as p is a single digit)

⇒ The minimum value of p is 2.

∴ The correct answer is 2.

Additional Information

Divisibility by 3

A number is divisible by 3 if the sum of its digits is a multiple of 3.

Divisibility by 11

The difference between the sum of digits at odd positions and even positions must be 0 or a multiple of 11.

Divisibility by 8

A number is divisible by 8 if its last three digits are divisible by 8.

Digit Sum Concept

The remainder when a number is divided by 9 is the same as the remainder when the sum of its digits is divided by 9.

Shortcut Trick

Total Volume = Volume of Cone + Volume of Hemisphere

Given radius (r) = 1 cm and height (h) = 1 cm.

Volume = (1/3)πr²h + (2/3)πr³

Since h = r = 1, Volume = (1/3)π(1)³ + (2/3)π(1)³ = (1/3 + 2/3)π = 1π

∴ The correct answer is π cm³.

Alternate Method

Given:

Radius of the hemisphere (r) = 1 cm

Radius of the cone (r) = 1 cm

Height of the cone (h) = 1 cm

Formula Used:

Volume of Cone = (1/3) × π × r² × h

Volume of Hemisphere = (2/3) × π × r³

Calculations:

⇒ Volume of Cone = (1/3) × π × (1)² × 1 = π/3 cm³

⇒ Volume of Hemisphere = (2/3) × π × (1)³ = 2π/3 cm³

⇒ Total Volume of Solid = Volume of Cone + Volume of Hemisphere

⇒ Total Volume = π/3 + 2π/3

⇒ Total Volume = (1 + 2)π / 3

⇒ Total Volume = 3π / 3 = π cm³

∴ The correct answer is π cm³.

Additional Information

Volume of a Sphere

The total volume of a full sphere is twice that of a hemisphere, given by V = (4/3)πr³.

Slant Height of a Cone

The slant height (l) is the distance from the apex to any point on the base circle: l = √(r² + h²).

Surface Area of Solid

Total Surface Area = Curved Surface Area of Cone (πrl) + Curved Surface Area of Hemisphere (2πr²).

Shortcut Trick

Effective Cost Price (CP) = 18,000 + 2,000 = ₹20,000.

Selling Price (SP) = ₹23,000.

Profit = 23,000 − 20,000 = ₹3,000.

Profit % = (3,000 ÷ 20,000) × 100 = 15%.

∴ The correct answer is 15%.

Alternate Method

Given: Buying Price = ₹18,000, Repair Cost = ₹2,000, Selling Price (SP) = ₹23,000.

Formula Used: Total CP = Buying Price + Repairs; Profit % = (Profit ÷ Total CP) × 100.

⇒ Total Cost Price (CP) = ₹18,000 + ₹2,000 = ₹20,000

⇒ Profit = Selling Price − Total Cost Price

⇒ Profit = ₹23,000 − ₹20,000 = ₹3,000

⇒ Profit Percentage = (3,000 ÷ 20,000) × 100

⇒ Profit Percentage = 3/20 × 100 = 15%

∴ The correct answer is 15%.

Additional Information

Overhead Expenses

Any extra expenditure incurred on an item like repairs, freight, or transportation is added to the original purchase price to calculate the effective Cost Price.

Profit and Loss Calculation

Both Profit % and Loss % are always calculated on the Total Cost Price. Profit % = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100 and Loss % = (Loss ÷ CP) × 100.

Selling Price for Desired Profit

To find the SP for a required profit percentage P, the formula is SP = CP × (100 + P) ÷ 100.

Shortcut Trick

Profit Ratio (M : N) = (3175 + 635) : (3175 − 635) = 1905 : 1270 = 3 : 2

Investment Ratio = (Profit / Time) = (3 / 7) : (2 / 5) = 15 : 14

Difference in investment ratio = 15 − 14 = 1 unit → ₹89,000

M’s investment = 15 units = 15 × 89,000 = ₹13,35,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹1335000.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total profit = ₹3,175

Difference in profit (M − N) = ₹635

Time for M (T_M) = 7 months, Time for N (T_N) = 5 months

Difference in investment = ₹89,000

Formula Used:

Profit Ratio = (Investment₁ × Time₁) : (Investment₂ × Time₂)

Calculations:

⇒ M’s share (P_M) = (Total Profit + Difference) / 2 = (3175 + 635) / 2 = 1905

⇒ N’s share (P_N) = Total Profit − P_M = 3175 − 1905 = 1270

⇒ P_M : P_N = 1905 : 1270 = 3 : 2

⇒ (I_M × 7) / (I_N × 5) = 3 / 2

⇒ 14 × I_M = 15 × I_N

⇒ I_M / I_N = 15 / 14

⇒ Let I_M = 15k and I_N = 14k

⇒ Difference = 15k − 14k = k = 89,000

⇒ M’s investment = 15k = 15 × 89,000

⇒ M’s investment = ₹13,35,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹1335000.

Additional Information

Partnership Basic Law

The profit earned by partners is always distributed in the ratio of the product of their capital and time: P₁ : P₂ = (C₁ × T₁) : (C₂ × T₂).

Investment Calculation

If profits and time periods are known, the ratio of investments can be found as: C₁ : C₂ = (P₁ / T₁) : (P₂ / T₂).

Active vs Sleeping Partner

An active partner receives a fixed percentage or amount from the total profit for managing the business before the remaining profit is divided among all partners.

Shortcut Trick

Identify Total Work as LCM of 60, 80, and 48 = 240 units.

Calculate combined efficiencies: (M+S) = 4, (S+R) = 3, (R+M) = 5.

Total efficiency of 2(M+S+R) = 4 + 3 + 5 = 12 units/day.

Efficiency of (M+S+R) = 12 ÷ 2 = 6 units/day.

Required Time = 240 ÷ 6 = 40 days.

∴ The correct answer is 40 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time for Manisha and Seema = 60 days

Time for Seema and Reena = 80 days

Time for Reena and Manisha = 48 days

Formula Used:

Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time Taken

Total Work = LCM of the time taken by different groups.

Calculations:

⇒ Adding the efficiencies: (M + S) + (S + R) + (R + M) = 4 + 3 + 5

⇒ 2 × (Manisha + Seema + Reena) = 12

⇒ Efficiency of (Manisha + Seema + Reena) = 12 ÷ 2 = 6 units/day

⇒ Time taken by all three = Total Work ÷ Combined Efficiency

⇒ Time = 240 ÷ 6 = 40 days

∴ The correct answer is 40 days.

Additional Information

Total Work and Efficiency

The Total Work is always assumed to be a constant value, usually the LCM of given time intervals, to simplify efficiency calculations.

Paired Work Rule

When people work in pairs (A+B, B+C, C+A), the sum of their efficiencies is 2 × (A+B+C) because each individual is counted twice in the summation.

Work and Wages Relationship

If multiple people work together for the same duration, their Wages are distributed in the direct ratio of their individual Efficiencies.

Shortcut Trick

Net percentage increase = a + b + (a × b / 100)

Net % increase = 15 + 30 + (15 × 30 / 100) = 45 + 4.5 = 49.5%

Final Population = 1,80,000 × (100 + 49.5)% = 1,80,000 × 149.5 / 100

Final Population = 1,800 × 149.5 = 2,69,100

∴ The correct answer is 2,69,100.

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial Population (P) = 1,80,000

Increase in first year (r₁) = 15%

Increase in second year (r₂) = 30%

Calculations:

⇒ Population after 1st year = 1,80,000 × (115 / 100)

⇒ Population after 1st year = 1,800 × 115 = 2,07,000

⇒ Population after 2nd year = 2,07,000 × (130 / 100)

⇒ Population after 2nd year = 2,070 × 130

⇒ Final Population = 2,69,100

∴ The correct answer is 2,69,100.

Additional Information

Successive Percentage Change

When a value changes by a% and then by b%, the effective change is [a + b + (ab/100)]%.

Population Growth Formula

Population after 'n' years is P_n = P₀(1 + r₁/100)(1 + r₂/100)... where r is the rate of increase.

Percentage to Fraction

15% = 3/20 and 30% = 3/10. Multiplying factors become 23/20 and 13/10 respectively.

Shortcut Trick

In a cuboid, the sum of products of adjacent sides equals half the total surface area.

(Length × Breadth) + Height × (Length + Breadth) = Surface Area ÷ 2

(8 × 6) + h × (8 + 6) = 292 ÷ 2

48 + 14h = 146 ⇒ 14h = 98 ⇒ h = 7 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 7 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total Surface Area (TSA) of cuboid = 292 cm²

Length (l) = 8 cm

Breadth (b) = 6 cm

Formula Used:

Total Surface Area = 2(lb + bh + hl)

Calculations:

⇒ 2 × (l × b + b × h + h × l) = 292

⇒ 2 × (8 × 6 + 6 × h + 8 × h) = 292

⇒ 48 + 14h = 292 ÷ 2

⇒ 48 + 14h = 146

⇒ 14h = 146 − 48

⇒ 14h = 98

⇒ h = 98 ÷ 14

⇒ h = 7 cm

∴ The correct answer is 7 cm.

Additional Information

Volume of Cuboid

The total space occupied by the cuboid is calculated as V = l × b × h.

Lateral Surface Area

The area of the four side walls of the cuboid is given by LSA = 2h(l + b).

Diagonal of a Cuboid

The longest rod that can be placed inside a cuboid is d = √(l² + b² + h²).

Shortcut Trick

Tap 1 (fills in 3 hr) and Tap 3 (empties in 3 hr) have the same rate and cancel each other out.

Net filling rate = Rate of Tap 2 = 1/32 of the cistern per hour.

Time to fill the full cistern = 32 hours.

Time to fill three-fourth of the cistern = 32 × (3/4) = 24 hours.

∴ The correct answer is 24 hr.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by Tap 1 = 3 hr (Inlet)

Time taken by Tap 2 = 32 hr (Inlet)

Time taken by Tap 3 = 3 hr (Outlet)

Formula Used:

Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time Taken

Time = Work ÷ Net Efficiency

Calculations:

⇒ Let the total capacity of the cistern (LCM of 3 and 32) = 96 units.

⇒ Net efficiency when all taps are open = 32 + 3 − 32 = 3 units/hr.

⇒ Three-fourth of the empty cistern = 96 × (3/4) = 72 units.

⇒ Time required to fill 72 units = 72 ÷ 3 = 24 hours.

⇒ Therefore, the time required to fill the specified part is 24 hours, which corresponds to option (2).

∴ The correct answer is 24 hr.

Additional Information

Pipes and Cisterns

Inlet pipes fill the tank (positive efficiency), while outlet pipes empty the tank (negative efficiency).

Net Efficiency Rule

If an inlet pipe fills a tank in x hours and an outlet empties it in y hours (y > x), the net part filled in 1 hour is (1/x − 1/y).

Work-Efficiency Relation

Total Work = Time taken × Efficiency. For pipes, work is often represented by the volume or capacity of the cistern.

Shortcut Trick

Total distance to cover is the sum of train lengths: 319 + 377 = 696 m.

Relative speed in same direction is the difference: 37 − 25 = 12 m/s.

Time = Total Distance ÷ Relative Speed.

Time = 696 ÷ 12 = 58 sec.

∴ The correct answer is 58 sec.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length of first train (L₁) = 319 m

Length of second train (L₂) = 377 m

Speed of first train (V₁) = 25 m/s

Speed of second train (V₂) = 37 m/s

Formula Used:

Time = (Sum of Lengths) ÷ (Relative Speed in same direction)

Relative Speed (Same Direction) = |V₁ − V₂|

Calculations:

⇒ Total Distance = L₁ + L₂ = 319 + 377 = 696 m

⇒ Relative Speed = 37 − 25 = 12 m/s

⇒ Time required to clear each other = 696 ÷ 12

⇒ Time = 58 sec

∴ The correct answer is 58 sec.

Additional Information

Relative Speed Concepts

When two objects move in the same direction, relative speed is the difference (u − v). When they move in opposite directions, it is the sum (u + v).

Train Crossing Logic

To completely clear/cross each other, two trains must cover a total distance equal to the sum of their lengths (L₁ + L₂).

Unit Conversion

To convert Speed from km/hr to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18/5.

Given:

Formula Used:

Total participants = Number of students in Music + Number of students in Art

Calculation:

According to the given table,

⇒ Number of students who participated in Music = 30

⇒ Number of students who participated in Art = 25

To find the total number of students who participated in Music and Art together:

⇒ Total students = 30 + 25

⇒ Total students = 55

∴ The correct answer is 55, which corresponds to Option (3).

Shortcut Trick

Work backward from the Final Selling Price to the Initial Cost Price.

Total CP × 125/100 × 65/100 = 3133

Total CP × 5/4 × 13/20 = 3133

Total CP × 13/16 = 3133

Total CP = (3133 × 16) ÷ 13 = 241 × 16 = 3856

∴ The correct answer is ₹3,856.

Alternate Method

Given:

Repair Expenses = ₹97

Anand Profit = 25%

Bharath Selling Price = ₹3,133

Bharath Loss = 35%

Calculating Bharath's Cost Price (CP_B):

⇒ SP = CP_B × (100 − Loss %)/100

⇒ 3,133 = CP_B × (100 − 35)/100

⇒ 3,133 = CP_B × 65/100

⇒ CP_B = (3,133 × 100) ÷ 65 = ₹4,820

Calculating Anand's Total Cost Price (CP_A):

⇒ Anand's Selling Price = Bharath's Cost Price = ₹4,820

⇒ SP = CP_A × (100 + Profit %)/100

⇒ 4,820 = CP_A × (100 + 25)/100

⇒ 4,820 = CP_A × 1.25

⇒ CP_A = 4,820 ÷ 1.25 = ₹3,856

∴ The correct answer is ₹3,856.

Additional Information

Total Cost Price Concept

The Total Cost Price includes the actual purchase price plus all overhead expenses like repairs, transportation, and taxes. Profit or Loss is always calculated on this total value.

Successive Profit and Loss

When an item passes through multiple hands, the final value is found by: Final SP = Initial CP × (100 ± r₁)/100 × (100 ± r₂)/100... where r is the profit or loss percentage.

Effective Percentage Change

For two successive changes a% and b%, the effective change is [a + b + (a × b)/100]%. Use positive for profit and negative for loss.

Shortcut Trick

To find the average of a set of numbers, simply divide the Total Sum by the Total Count of numbers.

Since we are dividing by 10, we just need to shift the decimal point of 576 one place to the left.

Calculation: 576 ÷ 10 = 57.6.

∴ The correct answer is 57.6.

Alternate Method

Given:

Sum of 10 numbers = 576

Total count (n) = 10

Formula Used:

Average = (Sum of all observations) ÷ (Total number of observations)

Calculations:

⇒ Average = 576 ÷ 10

⇒ Average = 57.6

By calculating the result, we find that the average is exactly 57.6, which corresponds to Option (3).

∴ The correct answer is 57.6.

Additional Information

Properties of Average (Arithmetic Mean)

If every observation in a data set is multiplied by a constant k, the new average will be the old average × k.

Relationship between Sum and Average

The total Sum can always be calculated if the average and the number of items are known: Sum = Average × Number of items.

Average of First 'n' Natural Numbers

The average of the first n natural numbers is given by the formula: (n + 1) ÷ 2.

Shortcut Trick

आशीष और प्रमोद की आयु का अंतर 17 − 16 = 1 वर्ष है।

चूंकि उन्हें 25 वर्ष की आयु में समान धनराशि प्राप्त होती है, उनके हिस्सों का अनुपात = (1 + 10/100)¹ : 1 = 11 : 10 होगा।

बड़ा व्यक्ति (आशीष) अधिक हिस्सा प्राप्त करेगा क्योंकि उसके पास ब्याज के लिए 1 वर्ष कम समय है।

अनुपात का योग = 11 + 10 = 21 इकाई ⇒ ₹25,200 | 1 इकाई = ₹1,200

आशीष का हिस्सा = 11 × 1,200 = ₹13,200

∴ The correct answer is ₹13,200.

Alternate Method

दिया गया है:

कुल धनराशि = ₹25,200

ब्याज दर (R) = 10% वार्षिक चक्रवृद्धि ब्याज

प्रमोद की वर्तमान आयु = 16 वर्ष | समय (t₁) = 25 − 16 = 9 वर्ष

आशीष की वर्तमान आयु = 17 वर्ष | समय (t₂) = 25 − 17 = 8 वर्ष

सूत्र: मिश्रधन (A) = P(1 + R/100)ⁿ

माना प्रमोद का हिस्सा P और आशीष का हिस्सा A है।

⇒ P(1 + 10/100)⁹ = A(1 + 10/100)⁸

⇒ P(1.1)⁹ = A(1.1)⁸

⇒ P(1.1) = A

⇒ A / P = 1.1 / 1 = 11 / 10

⇒ कुल भाग = 11 + 10 = 21

⇒ 21 भाग = ₹25,200

⇒ 1 भाग = 25,200 ÷ 21 = ₹1,200

⇒ आशीष का हिस्सा = 11 × 1,200 = ₹13,200

∴ The correct answer is ₹13,200.

Additional Information

चक्रवृद्धि ब्याज (Compound Interest)

यह वह ब्याज है जो मूलधन और पिछले अवधियों के संचित ब्याज दोनों पर गणना किया जाता है। सूत्र: A = P(1 + r/n)^nt

समान मिश्रधन का वितरण

यदि दो व्यक्तियों को अलग-अलग समय (t₁, t₂) के लिए समान मिश्रधन मिलता है, तो उनके मूलधन का अनुपात (1 + r/100)^t₂ : (1 + r/100)^t₁ होता है।

प्रभावी दर (Effective Rate)

यदि ब्याज वार्षिक के बजाय अर्धवार्षिक संयोजित होता है, तो दर आधी (r/2) और समय दोगुना (2t) हो जाता है।

Shortcut Trick

Effective Multiplier = (1 − 20/100) × (1 − 5/100)

Effective Multiplier = 0.80 × 0.95 = 0.76

Final Amount = Listed Price × 0.76

Final Amount = 10,000 × 0.76 = ₹7,600

∴ The correct answer is ₹7,600.

Alternate Method

Given:

Listed Price (LP) = ₹10,000

Trade Discount = 20%

Cash Discount = 5% (on reduced price)

Formula Used:

Final Price = Listed Price × (100 − d₁)/100 × (100 − d₂)/100

Calculations:

⇒ Price after Trade Discount = 10,000 − (20% of 10,000)

⇒ Price after Trade Discount = 10,000 − 2,000 = ₹8,000

⇒ Cash Discount is applied on the reduced price (₹8,000)

⇒ Cash Discount = 5% of 8,000 = (5/100) × 8,000 = ₹400

⇒ Final amount paid by retailer = 8,000 − 400

⇒ Final amount paid = ₹7,600

∴ The correct answer is ₹7,600.

Additional Information

Successive Discounts Formula

The single equivalent discount for two successive discounts d₁% and d₂% is given by [d₁ + d₂ − (d₁ × d₂)/100]%.

Trade Discount vs Cash Discount

Trade discount is deducted from the catalog/listed price to determine the actual selling price, while cash discount is offered on the net price to encourage prompt payment.

Successive Percentage Change

When a value is decreased by a% and then further decreased by b%, the final value = Initial Value × (1 − a/100) × (1 − b/100).

Shortcut Trick

Assume the base average is 74.

Deviation of 17 students from assumed average = 70 − 74 = −4 per student.

Total deviation = 17 × (−4) = −68.

Average correction = −68 ÷ 75 ≈ −0.906.

Actual Average = 74 − 0.906 = 73.094 ≈ 73.1.

∴ The correct answer is 73.1.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total students = 75

Group 1 = 17 students with average 70

Group 2 = 75 − 17 = 58 students with average 74

Formula Used:

Average = (Sum of all observations) ÷ (Total number of observations)

Calculations:

⇒ Sum of scores of 17 students = 17 × 70 = 1190

⇒ Sum of scores of 58 students = 58 × 74 = 4292

⇒ Total sum of scores for the class = 1190 + 4292 = 5482

⇒ Average score of the class = 5482 ÷ 75

⇒ Average score ≈ 73.0933...

⇒ Rounding off to one decimal place, we get 73.1.

∴ The correct answer is 73.1.

Additional Information

Weighted Average Formula

Weighted Average = (n₁x₁ + n₂x₂ + ... + n_kx_k) ÷ (n₁ + n₂ + ... + n_k), where n is the number of items and x is the average of those items.

Deviation Method for Averages

New Average = Assumed Average + (Net Deviation ÷ Total Number of items). This method simplifies calculations with large numbers.

Rounding Rule

To round to one decimal place, look at the second decimal digit. If it is 5 or more, round up; if less than 5, keep the first decimal digit as it is.

Shortcut Trick

Relative speed when moving in opposite directions = Sum of speeds.

Relative speed = (Length₁ + Length₂) ÷ Time = (162 + 162) ÷ 12 = 324 ÷ 12 = 27 m/s.

Divide relative speed in ratio 1 : 2 (since one is twice as fast): 27 × (2 ÷ 3) = 18 m/s.

Convert 18 m/s to km/hr: 18 × 18 ÷ 5 = 324 ÷ 5 = 64.8 km/hr.

∴ The correct answer is 64.8 km/hr.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length of each train = 162 m

Time taken to cross = 12 seconds

Speed of faster train = 2 × Speed of slower train

Formula Used:

Relative Speed (Opposite Direction) = Speed₁ + Speed₂

Speed = Distance ÷ Time

Calculations:

⇒ Total distance to be covered = 162 + 162 = 324 m

⇒ Let the speed of the slower train be v m/s.

⇒ Speed of the faster train = 2v m/s.

⇒ Relative speed = v + 2v = 3v m/s.

⇒ 3v = 324 ÷ 12

⇒ 3v = 27

⇒ v = 9 m/s

⇒ Speed of faster train = 2v = 2 × 9 = 18 m/s.

⇒ Speed in km/hr = 18 × (18 ÷ 5) = 324 ÷ 5 = 64.8 km/hr.

∴ The correct answer is 64.8 km/hr.

Additional Information

Relative Speed in Opposite Direction

When two objects move toward each other, the relative speed is the sum of their individual speeds (S₁ + S₂).

Crossing Distance

When two trains of lengths L₁ and L₂ cross each other, the total distance covered is always L₁ + L₂, regardless of direction.

Unit Conversion

To convert speed from m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18/5. To convert from km/hr to m/s, multiply by 5/18.

Shortcut Trick

When a solid is melted and recast, its volume remains constant.

Volume ratio: (1/3) × r_cone² × h_cone = r_cylinder² × h_cylinder

(1/3) × 8² × 51 = r² × 17

64 × 17 = r² × 17 ⇒ r = 8 cm

Diameter = 2 × 8 = 16 cm

∴ The correct answer is 16 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Radius of cone (r) = 8 cm

Height of cone (h) = 51 cm

Height of cylinder (H) = 17 cm

Formula Used:

Volume of cone = (1/3) × π × r² × h

Volume of cylinder = π × R² × H

Calculations:

⇒ Volume of cone = Volume of cylinder

⇒ (1/3) × π × (8)² × 51 = π × R² × 17

⇒ (1/3) × 64 × 51 = R² × 17

⇒ 64 × (51 ÷ 3) = R² × 17

⇒ 64 × 17 = R² × 17

⇒ R² = 64

⇒ R = √64 = 8 cm

⇒ Diameter of cylinder = 2 × R = 2 × 8 = 16 cm

∴ The correct answer is 16 cm.

Additional Information

Volume of Sphere

The amount of space occupied by a sphere is given by V = (4/3) × π × r³.

Total Surface Area of Cone

The total area including the base and slanted side is A = πr(r + l), where l is the slant height √(r² + h²).

Curved Surface Area of Cylinder

The area of the curved part of a cylinder is CSA = 2 × π × r × h.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of numbers = 2 : 3 : 5

Condition: (1^st + 3^rd) − 2^nd = (2 + 5) − 3 = 4 units

Equating units to value: 4 units = 156 ⇒ 1 unit = 39

Total sum of three numbers = (2 + 3 + 5) = 10 units

Total Sum = 10 × 39 = 390

∴ The correct answer is 390.

Alternate Method

Given:

Ratio of three numbers = 2 : 3 : 5

Condition: Sum of first and third number = Second number + 156

Let the three numbers be 2x, 3x, and 5x respectively.

According to the question:

⇒ (2x + 5x) = 3x + 156

⇒ 7x = 3x + 156

⇒ 7x − 3x = 156

⇒ 4x = 156

⇒ x = 156 ÷ 4

⇒ x = 39

The numbers are:

⇒ 2 × 39 = 78

⇒ 3 × 39 = 117

⇒ 5 × 39 = 195

Sum of all three numbers = 2x + 3x + 5x = 10x

⇒ Sum = 10 × 39 = 390

∴ The correct answer is 390.

Additional Information

Ratio and Proportion

A ratio indicates how many times one number contains another. If a : b = c : d, then a, b, c, d are in proportion, and a × d = b × c.

Mean Proportional

The mean proportional between two numbers a and b is calculated as √(a × b).

Duplicate and Triplicate Ratio

Duplicate ratio of a : b is a² : b², and the triplicate ratio is a³ : b³.

Componendo and Dividendo

If a/b = c/d, then by Componendo and Dividendo, (a + b)/(a − b) = (c + d)/(c − d).

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of three numbers = 3 : 2 : 13

Since 3, 2, and 13 are co-prime to each other, we use the property:

LCM = HCF × (Product of ratio parts)

6318 = HCF × (3 × 2 × 13) ⇒ 6318 = HCF × 78

HCF = 6318 ÷ 78 = 81

∴ The correct answer is 81.

Alternate Method

Given:

Ratio of numbers = 3 : 2 : 13

LCM of numbers = 6318

Formula Used:

If numbers are in ratio a : b : c, they can be written as ax, bx, and cx, where x is their HCF.

Calculations:

⇒ Let the numbers be 3x, 2x, and 13x.

⇒ LCM (3x, 2x, 13x) = x × LCM (3, 2, 13)

⇒ Since 3, 2, and 13 have no common factors other than 1, their LCM is their product.

⇒ LCM = x × 3 × 2 × 13 = 78x

⇒ According to the question: 78x = 6318

⇒ x = 6318 ÷ 78

⇒ x = 81

∴ The correct answer is 81.

Additional Information

HCF and LCM Relation

For any two numbers A and B: A × B = HCF(A, B) × LCM(A, B). This rule does not directly apply to more than two numbers in the same way.

Co-prime Numbers

Two or more numbers are said to be co-prime if their HCF is 1. For co-prime numbers, the LCM is always equal to their product.

HCF of Fractions

HCF of Fractions = (HCF of Numerators) ÷ (LCM of Denominators).

LCM of Fractions

LCM of Fractions = (LCM of Numerators) ÷ (HCF of Denominators).

Shortcut Trick

The effective rate of simple interest for 2 years at 4% per annum is 4% × 2 = 8%.

Given that this 8% corresponds to the interest of ₹1680.

The Principal (100%) can be calculated as: (1680 ÷ 8) × 100.

Principal = 210 × 100 = 21000.

∴ The correct answer is ₹21000.

Alternate Method

Given:

Simple Interest (SI) = ₹1680

Time (T) = 2 years

Rate of Interest (R) = 4% per year

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Calculations:

⇒ 1680 = (P × 4 × 2) ÷ 100

⇒ 1680 = (8 × P) ÷ 100

⇒ 8 × P = 1680 × 100

⇒ 8 × P = 168000

⇒ P = 168000 ÷ 8

⇒ P = 21000

∴ The correct answer is ₹21000.

Additional Information

Total Amount Formula

The total amount (A) after T years is the sum of Principal and Simple Interest: A = P + SI = P(1 + RT/100).

Effective Rate of Interest

In Simple Interest, the effective rate for the entire period is simply the product of the annual rate and the number of years (R × T).

Simple Interest vs Compound Interest

Unlike Compound Interest, Simple Interest is calculated only on the initial Principal amount for every year of the term.

Question 1: Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words. A man who dislikes women in particular

The correct answer is: Misogynist.

Key Points

• The phrase 'A man who dislikes women in particular' refers to an individual who harbors a strong prejudice, contempt, or deep-seated hatred toward females. (एक व्यक्ति जो विशेष रूप से महिलाओं से घृणा करता है)
• Example: The antagonist in the play was a man who dislikes women in particular, which led him to treat his sisters with utter disrespect.
• 'Misogynist' is a person who dislikes, despises, or is strongly prejudiced against women. (स्त्री-द्वेषी)
• Example: His misogynist attitude was evident when he claimed that women were not suited for leadership roles.
• Hence, we can infer that the one-word substitute for the given phrase is 'misogynist'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Misogynist.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Misogamist (विवाह-द्वेषी): A person who has an aversion to or hates marriage.
• Example: Being a confirmed misogamist, he never intended to settle down or have a wedding ceremony.
• Mishandle (गलत तरीके से संभालना): To manage or deal with something in a wrong, neglectful, or ineffective way.
• Example: The authorities were criticized for the way they continued to mishandle the investigation.
• Misologist (तर्क-द्वेषी): A person who has a distrust or hatred of logic, reasoning, or enlightenment.
• Example: The debate became impossible because the opponent acted like a misologist, ignoring all rational facts presented to him.

The correct answer is 'had already started'.

 

Key Points

• The phrase 'By the time' followed by a verb in the simple past tense ('arrived') indicates a sequence of events where one action was completed before another occurred in the past.
• To describe the action that happened earlier, the past perfect tense (had + past participle) must be used.
• In this sentence, the movie starting is the earlier event, making 'had already started' the grammatically appropriate choice.
• Options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect because they do not follow the rules of past perfect narrative structure.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: 'By the time we arrived, the movie had already started.'

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: 'have already been starting' is the present perfect continuous tense, which cannot be used to describe a sequence set entirely in the past.
• Option 3: 'has already started' is the present perfect tense; it is used for past actions with a connection to the present, not for actions preceding another past event.
• Option 4: 'was already starting' is the past continuous tense, which would imply the action was in progress at that moment, but 'by the time' typically requires the completion of the action (perfect tense).

The correct answer is ACBD.

Key Points

• Segment A acts as the independent clause and the logical starting point of the statement. It introduces the central subject, rituals, and provides a universal context by stating they occur across cultures to mark significant transitions in life.
• Segment C follows segment A to provide a functional description of the rituals. By using the relative pronoun 'which', it creates a direct link to the preceding noun phrase, explaining that these practices serve to reinforce communal bonds and a shared identity within a group.
• Segment B serves as a participial phrase that elaborates on the internal mechanism of these rituals. It describes the active process of embedding values into the participants through the medium of symbolic acts.
• Segment D concludes the sentence by offering descriptive details regarding the composition of the symbolic acts mentioned in segment B. It highlights the multidisciplinary nature of rituals, which typically integrate myth, music, and movement to achieve their intended purpose.

 Additional Information

• Syntactic Cohesion:
• The sentence follows a hierarchical structure, moving from a general premise (rituals mark transitions) to a sociological effect (reinforcement of bonds), followed by a methodological explanation (embedding values), and ending with artistic components.
• The use of punctuation and modifiers (like 'which' and 'often combining') ensures that each segment expands upon the noun or idea immediately preceding it, a hallmark of coherent sentence construction.
• Sociological Context:
• In anthropology, these rituals are often referred to as rites of passage, a term coined by Arnold van Gennep in 1909 to describe ceremonies that move individuals from one social status to another.
• The inclusion of myth and music emphasizes the cultural transmission aspect of rituals, which helps in maintaining social stability and intergenerational continuity.

The correct answer is PQSR.

Key Points

• The sentence begins with an introductory clause defining the components of the Solar System. Part P acts as a direct continuation by using the conjunction and to connect the Sun with other celestial objects. Hence, statement P is correct.
• Part Q functions as an appositive or a detailed list that specifies exactly what the celestial objects mentioned in P consist of, including eight planets, moons, asteroids, and comets. Hence, statement Q is correct.
• Part S provides a participial phrase, all orbiting, which describes the state of all the entities listed in P and Q. It introduces the strong gravitational pull of the Sun as the governing force. Hence, statement S is correct.
• Part R concludes the sentence by using the relative pronoun which to refer back to the gravitational pull mentioned in S, explaining its ultimate function in maintaining balance and order within the system. Hence, statement R is correct.

 Additional Information

• Composition of the Solar System:
• The Sun is a Yellow Dwarf star that contains approximately 99.8% of the system's mass.
• The Eight Planets are divided into Terrestrial (Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars) and Jovian or Gas Giants (Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune).
• Gravity is the fundamental force defined by Newton's Law of Universal Gravitation, which states that every mass exerts an attractive force on every other mass.
• Celestial Objects: This category encompasses Natural Satellites (moons), Dwarf Planets (like Pluto), and Small Solar System Bodies such as Meteoroids and Kuiper Belt objects.

The correct answer is: confront the consequences.

Key Points

• The idiom 'face the music' means to accept the unpleasant consequences of one's actions, especially to face criticism or punishment for something wrong that has been done. (परिणाम भुगतना / गलती स्वीकार करना)
• Example: After failing the exam because he didn't study, he had to face the music when his parents saw the report card.
• 'Confront the consequences' means to deal with the results of a situation or action, typically an unpleasant one, in a direct way without trying to avoid them. (परिणामों का सामना करना)
• Example: Since he accidentally broke the window, he decided to confront the consequences and offered to pay for the repairs.
• Hence, we can infer that the phrase that conveys a similar meaning to 'face the music' is 'confront the consequences'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- confront the consequences.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Avoid all responsibility (पूरी जिम्मेदारी से बचना): To refuse to take accountability for one's actions or duties.
• Example: By blaming his team, the manager tried to avoid all responsibility for the project's failure.
• Escape the situation (स्थिति से भागना): To get away from a difficult, dangerous, or unpleasant set of circumstances.
• Example: He tried to escape the situation by leaving the room as soon as the argument started.
• Start celebrating (उत्सव मनाना): To begin performing joyful activities or festivities in honor of an event.
• Example: Once the final whistle blew, the fans started celebrating their team's victory.

The correct answer is: Burn my fingers.

Key Points

• The phrase 'get into trouble' means to find oneself in a difficult, unpleasant, or dangerous situation where one might be punished or face problems. (मुसीबत में पड़ना)
• Example: He often gets into trouble with his teachers for not completing his assignments on time.
• The idiom 'Burn my fingers' (or 'get one's fingers burnt') means to suffer unpleasant results or financial loss as a consequence of one's own actions, especially by meddling in something or taking a risk. (स्वयं का नुकसान कर बैठना)
• Example: I burnt my fingers by investing all my savings in the stock market without any research.
• Therefore, the correct answer is- Burn my fingers.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Come to a standstill (ठप हो जाना): A situation in which all movement or activity has completely stopped.
• Example: Traffic came to a standstill due to the heavy snowfall.
• Dig the grave (विनाश का कारण बनना): To do something that will eventually cause the failure or downfall of oneself or someone else.
• Example: By refusing to adapt to new technology, the company was digging its own grave.
• Blow hot and cold (अनिश्चित रहना): To keep changing one's mind or feelings about something; to be inconsistent.
• Example: She keeps blowing hot and cold about the wedding, which is making her partner very anxious.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The sentence requires the use of indefinite articles to precede the singular countable nouns pencil and pen.
• The article 'a' is used before words that begin with a consonant sound.
• The word 'pencil' starts with the consonant sound /p/, so it is preceded by 'A' (capitalized as the first word of the sentence).
• The word 'pen' also starts with the consonant sound /p/, so it is preceded by 'a'.
• Thus, the correct combination to complete the sentence is A / a.

Therefore, the correct answer is A / a.

 

Correct Sentence: 'A pencil is no good. You need a pen to write neatly.'

 

Additional Information

• 'A' vs 'An': While both are indefinite articles, 'an' is used specifically before words starting with a vowel sound (e.g., an apple, an hour), which does not apply to pencil or pen.
• 'Those': This is a plural demonstrative and cannot be used with the singular noun 'pencil'. If the noun were 'pencils', then 'those' could be appropriate.
• The choice of article depends on the phonetic sound at the beginning of the word, not just the letter. Since both objects in this sentence start with a consonant sound, 'a' is the only grammatically correct choice for both.

The correct answer is: dilligence → diligence.

Key Points

• The word 'dilligence' as used in the given sentence is misspelt; it incorrectly includes a double 'l' where only a single 'l' is required. (अशुद्ध वर्तनी)
• Example: The editor circled the word 'dilligence' in the draft as it was a spelling error.
• 'Diligence' is the correct spelling, which refers to the quality of working carefully and with steady, earnest effort. (परिश्रम/लगन)
• Example: The student’s diligence in his studies was evident from his excellent grades.
• Hence, we can infer that the misspelt word 'dilligence' should be replaced by its correct form 'diligence'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: dilligence → diligence.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• diligance (अशुद्ध वर्तनी): This is an incorrect spelling of diligence where the letter 'e' is wrongly replaced with 'a'.
• Example: Writing 'diligance' in your application may leave a poor impression on the recruiter.
• deligence (अशुद्ध वर्तनी): This is an incorrect spelling where the first 'i' is replaced by 'e'.
• Example: The auto-correct feature often fixes common mistakes like 'deligence'.
• diligense (अशुद्ध वर्तनी): This is an incorrect spelling where the 'c' is replaced by 's'.
• Example: Phonetically, 'diligense' might sound correct, but it is orthographically wrong.

The correct answer is: persistance.

Key Points

• The word 'persistance' is misspelt in the given sentence. In English, the correct spelling of this noun uses the suffix '-ence' rather than '-ance'. (गलत वर्तनी)
• Example: The student was corrected for writing 'persistance' instead of the correct form in his essay.
• 'Persistence' is the correct spelling, which refers to the quality of continuing firmly in a course of action in spite of difficulty or opposition. (दृढ़ता)
• Example: His persistence in his studies despite many obstacles finally led to his graduation.
• Hence, we can infer that the misspelt word in the sentence is 'persistance'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- persistance.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Breakthrough (महत्वपूर्ण खोज): A sudden, dramatic, and important discovery or development.
• Example: The scientists celebrated a major breakthrough in cancer research.
• Eventually (अंततः): In the end, especially after a long delay, dispute, or series of problems.
• Example: Although it took several years, they eventually finished building the bridge.
• Diligence (परिश्रम): Careful and persistent work or effort.
• Example: The teacher praised the student for the diligence shown in her science project.

The correct answer is: Affable.

Key Points

• The phrase 'pleasant and at ease when talking to others' refers to someone who is friendly, sociable, and approachable in their interactions. (दूसरों से बात करने में सुखद और सहज)
• Example: Despite his fame, the actor was pleasant and at ease when talking to others, making him very popular with his fans.
• 'Affable' is an adjective used to describe a person who is friendly, good-natured, and easy to talk to. (मिलनसार)
• Example: The affable manager always took the time to listen to his employees' concerns and offer support.
• Hence, we can infer that the word 'affable' is the most suitable synonym for the given phrase.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Affable.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Arbitrary (मनमाना): Based on random choice or personal whim, rather than any reason or system.
• Example: The company's decision to fire several employees seemed arbitrary and lacked a clear explanation.
• Ideological (वैचारिक): Based on or relating to a system of ideas and ideals, especially concerning political or economic policy.
• Example: The debate was fueled by deep ideological differences between the two political factions.
• Immoral (अनैतिक): Not conforming to accepted standards of morality or honesty.
• Example: It is considered immoral to cheat others for personal gain.

The correct answer is 'devised'.

 

Key Points

• The verb 'devised' is the simple past tense form of the verb 'devise,' which means to plan or invent a complex procedure, system, or mechanism.
• In the given sentence, the action of creating a new strategy was completed in preparation for the upcoming match, making the past tense the most appropriate choice.
• The sentence structure indicates a finished action that serves as the foundation for a future event.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Complete Sentence: 'The team devised a new strategy for the upcoming match.'

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: 'devise' is the base form or present tense plural; it does not fit here as the subject 'team' usually takes a singular verb or requires a modal like 'will' for future context.
• Option 2: 'devises' is the simple present tense (third-person singular); while grammatically possible for habitual actions, it is less common than the past tense for describing a specific preparation.
• Option 3: 'devising' is the present participle; it cannot function as the main verb without an auxiliary verb like 'is' or 'was.'

The correct answer is: pungent.

Key Points

• The word 'trenchant' refers to something that is vigorous or incisive in expression or style; it describes remarks that are sharp, biting, or very effective. (तीखा/प्रभावशाली)
• Example: The professor offered a trenchant critique of the new economic policy.
• 'Pungent' refers to something that has a sharp and caustic quality, especially when describing comments, criticism, or humor. It is a synonym for trenchant as both imply a sharp, biting nature. (कटु/मर्मभेदी)
• Example: Her pungent satire often targeted the social injustices of the era.
• Hence, we can infer that the synonym of 'trenchant' is 'pungent'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: pungent.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Vague (अस्पष्ट): Thinking or communicating in an unfocused or imprecise way.
• Example: The instructions provided by the manager were too vague to follow.
• Mild (सौम्य): Not sharp, pungent, or strong; gentle in nature or effect.
• Example: The curry had a mild flavor that everyone enjoyed.
• Hesitant (हिचकिचानेवाला): Tentative, unsure, or slow in acting or speaking.
• Example: She was hesitant to sign the contract without reading the fine print.

The correct answer is 'the'.

 

Key Points

• The word 'best' is the superlative degree of the adjective 'good' (good - better - best).
• In English grammar, the definite article 'the' must be used before superlative adjectives when they are followed by a noun or refer to a specific person or thing within a group.
• The phrase 'in the class' specifies the group being compared, indicating that she is a specific, unique individual at the top of that group.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: 'She is the best student in the class.'

 

Additional Information

• Options 1 (an) and 4 (a) are indefinite articles. They are used to refer to non-specific nouns and are never used with superlative forms like 'best'.
• Option 2 (No article) is incorrect because singular countable nouns like 'student' require a determiner, and superlative adjectives specifically require 'the' in this context.

The correct answer is: Endorsed.

Key Points

• The word 'admonished' means to warn or reprimand someone firmly; to express formal disapproval or criticism of someone's actions. (धिक्कारना / डांटना)
• Example: The coach admonished the players for their lack of discipline during the training session.
• 'Endorsed' refers to the act of declaring one's public approval or support for something; to support or sanction an action or idea, which is the opposite of criticizing or reprimanding. (समर्थन करना)
• Example: The committee endorsed the new policy after a long discussion about its benefits.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'admonished' is 'endorsed'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Endorsed.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Inspired (प्रेरित करना): To fill someone with the urge or ability to do or feel something, especially to do something creative.
• Example: The artist was inspired by the beautiful landscapes of the countryside.
• Slammed (कड़ी आलोचना करना): To criticize someone or something severely.
• Example: The movie was slammed by critics for its poor plot and acting.
• Reprimanded (फटकारना): To express sharp disapproval or criticism of someone because of their behavior or actions.
• Example: He was reprimanded by his boss for failing to meet the project deadline.

The correct answer is 'joyful'.

 

Key Points

• The word joyful is an adjective used to describe something that causes or shows great happiness and pleasure.
• In the given sentence, the phrase made everyone smile is a clear contextual clue that the movie ending was happy and positive.
• Therefore, joyful is the most suitable adjective to fill the blank as it logically connects the nature of the ending to the reaction of the audience.
• Options 1, 2, and 4 do not fit the context of causing a universal smile as effectively as joyful.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: "The movie had a joyful ending that made everyone smile."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: thoughtful refers to showing consideration for others or being absorbed in serious reflection.
• Option 2: ironical refers to something characterized by irony or happening in a way opposite to what is expected, often in a sharp or funny way, but not necessarily leading to a happy smile.
• Option 4: painful describes something that causes physical or emotional distress, which would likely make people cry rather than smile.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• According to the passage, ultraviolet radiation is specifically linked to skin cancer.
• The text mentions that this radiation is invisible to the human eye and is one of the environmental factors that can damage the eyes and the body.
• The other types of cancer listed, such as liver, blood, and bone, are not mentioned anywhere in the provided text.
• Thus, based strictly on the passage, the correct type of cancer caused by ultraviolet radiation is skin cancer.

Therefore, the correct answer is Skin.

 

Additional Information

• Cataract Overview: It is a major cause of blindness where the lens of the eye hardens and becomes opaque, obstructing light rays.
• Aging: Cataracts occur more frequently in old age as the eye lens loses its transparency over time.
• Smoking: Researchers believe that inhaled smoke contains substances that internally damage the eyes.
• Symptoms: The onset leads to blurred vision, and sometimes the patient sees multiple images instead of a single object.
• Other Causes: Besides UV rays and age, cataracts can be caused by eye injuries or hereditary defects (present in children at birth).

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The word Complex is used in the passage to describe a process that is intricate, complicated, or consisting of many interconnected parts.
• An antonym is a word that expresses the opposite meaning of a given word.
• The word Simple refers to something that is basic, uncomplicated, or easy to understand, making it the direct antonym of Complex.
• In the text, the development of cataract is identified as a complex process, implying it involves multiple factors and stages.

Therefore, the correct answer is simple.

 

Correct Sentence: 'The development of cataract is a simple process.'

 

Additional Information

• Adjustable: This refers to something that is capable of being modified or adapted to suit different conditions or requirements.
• Gradual: This term describes a change or progression that happens slowly or by degrees; the passage uses this to describe the gradual development of vision loss.
• Enhance: This word means to improve, increase, or further the quality, value, or extent of something.

The correct answer is Informative.

Key Points

• The tone of a passage refers to the author's attitude or the general character of the writing style. An Informative tone is utilized when the primary objective is to provide facts, data, and logical explanations to educate the reader on a specific subject. Hence, the statement regarding an Informative tone is correct.
• The provided text offers detailed medical and physiological information about Cataracts, explaining technical aspects such as how the eye lens becomes opaque and hardens, obstructing light. Hence, the factual nature of the text supports an informative classification.
• It systematically lists symptoms like blurred vision or the perception of multiple images, and categorizes various causes including aging, hereditary defects, eye injuries, and environmental triggers like smoking. Hence, the structured explanation of causes and effects is correct.
• The passage also draws scientific links between Ultraviolet radiation and skin cancer, further establishing its purpose as a source of health-related information rather than personal reflection or imagination. Hence, the inclusion of scientific correlations confirms the tone.

 Additional Information

• Pensive:
• This tone describes writing that is deeply or dreamily thoughtful, often reflecting melancholy or serious meditation.
• The passage lacks personal emotions or philosophical reflections, focusing instead on biological processes.
• Fictitious:
• This relates to fiction, imaginary stories, or fabricated events.
• Since the passage discusses real health conditions and documented environmental risks, it cannot be classified as fictitious.
• Boring:
• This is a subjective judgment of interest level rather than a formal literary tone used to describe an author’s objective methodology.
• Cataract Characteristics:
• It is the major cause of blindness globally.
• Development is described as a complex process resulting in the lens losing transparency.
• Ultraviolet radiation is noted as an invisible environmental factor damaging both the eyes and the skin.

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• The passage provides a comprehensive overview of cataracts, detailing how the eye lens hardens and loses transparency, which leads to blindness or blurred vision.
• It explores multiple causative factors including aging, hereditary defects, eye injuries, and environmental factors like ultraviolet radiation and smoking.
• The mention of skin cancer in relation to UV radiation and the internal damage caused by inhaled smoke indicates that the text connects eye health with broader health status and systemic risks.
• Therefore, the title Beyond Vision: Cataract and Health Status is the most appropriate as it encompasses the biological, environmental, and broader health aspects discussed in the text.

Therefore, the correct answer is Beyond Vision: Cataract and Health Status.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1 & 3: These options are incorrect because the passage does not discuss medical treatments like pharmacotherapy or surgical techniques and advances in surgery.
• Option 2: This is incorrect because the text does not specifically focus on Cortical Cataracts, nor does it provide a detailed list of medical solutions; it focuses primarily on causes and symptoms.
• The passage highlights that the lens becomes opaque, obstructing light, which eventually leads to a complex process where the world becomes dark for the individual.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The passage presents information about cataracts in a specific logical and chronological order, starting from its physical development to symptoms and then to specific causes.
• Statement II: 'In cataract, the lens hardens and becomes opaque' is found in the third sentence of the first paragraph. This describes the initial physical change in the eye.
• Statement I: 'A person with cataract sees multiple images' is found in the sixth sentence of the first paragraph. This is described as a symptom following the initial blurring of vision.
• Statement IV: 'Children can be born with cataract' appears in the second paragraph (tenth sentence) when the author begins discussing specific factors like hereditary defects.
• Statement III: 'Smoking results in cataract' is mentioned towards the end of the passage (thirteenth sentence), where researchers explain the internal damage caused by inhaled smoke.
• By tracking the flow of the text, the sequence of these facts is II, I, IV, and then III.

Therefore, the correct answer is II, I, IV, III.

 

Correct Order: 'II. Lens hardens/opaque → I. Multiple images → IV. Children born with cataract → III. Smoking impact.'

 

Additional Information

• Cataract Symptoms: The passage highlights that the gradual development of the condition leads to blurred vision and eventually a total loss of sight where the world becomes dark.
• Causative Factors: Apart from old age and smoking, the text mentions eye injuries and prolonged exposure to sunrays (ultraviolet radiation) as significant risks.
• Ultraviolet Radiation: The text also links UV radiation, which is invisible to the human eye, to skin cancer.

दिए गए विकल्पों में वर्तनी की दृष्टि से शुद्ध वाक्य है- संजय अमेरिका से वापस आ गया

Key Points

• 'संजय अमेरिका से वापस आ गया' वाक्य वर्तनी की दृष्टि से पूर्णतः शुद्ध है क्योंकि इसमें 'वापस' शब्द का मानक रूप में प्रयोग किया गया है।
• वाक्य शुद्धि के अंतर्गत शब्दों की वर्तनी, लिंग, वचन, कारक और पदक्रम का सही होना अनिवार्य है। बोलचाल में अक्सर लोग 'वापिस' का प्रयोग करते हैं, जो व्याकरणिक रूप से अशुद्ध है।
• उदाहरण 1: 'क्या तुम कल वापस जाओगे?'
• उदाहरण 2: 'पुस्तकालय से ली गई पुस्तक समय पर वापस कर देनी चाहिए।'

अन्य विकल्प -

Important Pointsवाक्य अशुद्धि के मुख्य भेद-

1. वर्तनी संबंधी अशुद्धि
2. स्वर/मात्रा संबंधी अशुद्धि
3. उच्चारण संबंधी अशुद्धि
4. व्यंजन संबंधी अशुद्धि

Additional Information

सही उत्तर है - नकेल हाथ में होना - ज्ञान और अनुभव न होना

Key Points

• 'नकेल हाथ में होना' का सही अर्थ - 'पूर्ण नियंत्रण में होना' या 'वश में होना' होता है। प्रश्न में दिया गया अर्थ (ज्ञान और अनुभव न होना) गलत है।
• वाक्य प्रयोग - इस विभाग की पूरी 'नकेल अब मुख्य सचिव के हाथ में है', इसलिए काम समय पर हो रहे हैं।
• मुहावरा - मुहावरा एक ऐसा वाक्यांश होता है जो अपने साधारण अर्थ को छोड़कर किसी विशेष या विलक्षण अर्थ को व्यक्त करता है। इसका प्रयोग भाषा को प्रभावशाली और आकर्षक बनाने के लिए किया जाता है।
• उदाहरण - 'गागर में सागर भरना' का अर्थ - थोड़े शब्दों में बहुत बड़ी बात कहना। वाक्य प्रयोग - बिहारी जी ने अपने दोहों के माध्यम से 'गागर में सागर भर दिया' है।

अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Information

‘जिसके पास कुछ भी न हो’ वाक्यांश के लिए सार्थक शब्द है - अकिंचन।

Key Points

• ‘जिसके पास कुछ भी न हो’ वाक्यांश के लिए सही एक शब्द ‘अकिंचन’ है।
• ‘अकिंचन’ का अर्थ है — अत्यंत दरिद्र, निर्धन या वह व्यक्ति जिसके पास आजीविका का कोई साधन या धन-संपत्ति उपलब्ध न हो।
• जब किसी विस्तृत वाक्यांश, कथन या भाव को कम से कम शब्दों में व्यक्त किया जाता है, तो उसे ‘वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द’ या ‘अनेक शब्दों के लिए एक शब्द’ कहा जाता है।
• यह शब्द ‘किंचन’ (कुछ) में ‘अ’ (नहीं) उपसर्ग जुड़ने से बना है, जो पूर्ण अभाव की स्थिति को दर्शाता है।

अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Information

कुछ महत्वपूर्ण वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द -

इसका सही उत्तर 'नीली' है।

Key Points

दिए गए वाक्य के अनुसार:

• वाक्य 'पंखुरी की शर्ट नीली है' में रिक्त स्थान के लिए सबसे उपयुक्त शब्द 'नीली' है।
• विशेषण: वे शब्द जो संज्ञा या सर्वनाम की विशेषता बताते हैं। यहाँ 'नीली' शब्द शर्ट (संज्ञा) के रंग की विशेषता बता रहा है।
• 'नीली' एक गुणवाचक विशे���ण है, जो रंग का बोध कराता है।
• हिंदी व्याकरण में 'शर्ट' एक स्त्रीलिंग शब्द है, इसलिए इसके साथ विशेषण का स्त्रीलिंग रूप 'नीली' प्रयुक्त हुआ है।
• अतः सही विकल्प 'नीली' है।

Additional Information अन्य विकल्प:

उद्यमी:

• इसका अर्थ परिश्रमी होता है। यह अक्सर किसी व्यक्ति या सजीव प्राणी की विशेषता बताने के लिए उपयोग किया जाता है।

न्यायी:

• इसका अर्थ न्याय करने वाला होता है। यह किसी व्यक्ति के चारित्रिक या नैतिक गुण को दर्शाता है, निर्जीव वस्तु के लिए इसका प्रयोग अनुचित है।

गोल:

• यह किसी वस्तु के आकार को दर्शाता है। यद्यपि यह भी एक विशेषण है, लेकिन शर्ट जैसी पोशाक के वर्णन के लिए रंगबोधक विशेषण अधिक सटीक और सार्थक है।

सही उत्तर है - पहुँच न सकना

Key Points

• 'पर न मारना' का अर्थ - पहुँच न सकना अथवा किसी स्थान पर प्रवेश की अनुमति न होना।
• वाक्य प्रयोग - इस भवन की सुरक्षा व्यवस्था इतनी अभेद्य है कि यहाँ परिंदा भी 'पर नहीं मार सकता'।
• मुहावरा - जब कोई वाक्यांश अपने सामान्य अर्थ को छोड़कर किसी विशेष या विलक्षण अर्थ को व्यक्त करता है, तो उसे मुहावरा कहते हैं।
• उदाहरण - 'लोहे के चने चबाना' का अर्थ - कठिन संघर्ष करना। वाक्य प्रयोग - भारतीय सेना के सामने टिकना दुश्मनों के लिए 'लोहे के चने चबाने' जैसा है।

अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Information

'वह हमेशा समय पर विद्यालय जाता है' वाक्य में रिक्त स्थान के लिए सही विकल्प है: हमेशा

Key Points

• 'वह हमेशा समय पर विद्यालय जाता है' वाक्य में 'हमेशा' एक कालवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण है। यह क्रिया (जाना) के होने के समय या निरंतरता का बोध करा रहा है।
• जिन अविकारी शब्दों से क्रिया के होने के समय का पता चलता है, उन्हें कालवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण कहते हैं। इसके ���्वारा यह पता चलता है कि क्रिया कब हुई या कितनी बार हुई।
• जैसे- आज, कल, परसों, अभी, सदा, प्रतिदिन, अक्सर, बार-बार, निरंतर, सायंकाल, रोज, कभी-कभी आदि।
• उदाहरण - वह प्रतिदिन व्यायाम करता है।
• अतः, दिए गए वाक्य के संदर्भ में 'हमेशा' शब्द क्रिया की नियमितता को दर्शाने के लिए सबसे उपयुक्त है। इसलिए, सही उत्तर विकल्प (2) है।

Important Pointsअर्थ के आधार पर क्रिया-विशेषण के भेद-

• स्थानवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण
• कालवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण
• परिमाणवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण
• रीतिवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण

Additional Information

'महात्मा जी सामने खड़े थे' वाक्य के रिक्त स्थान के लिए सर्वाधिक उपयुक्त क्रिया-विशेषण शब्द सामने है।

Key Points

• "महात्मा जी सामने खड़े थे" वाक्य में "सामने" शब्द स्थानवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण का उदाहरण है। यह शब्द क्रिया (खड़े होना) के होने के स्थान या स्थिति का बोध करा रहा है।
• जो अविकारी शब्द क्रिया के होने के स्थान, दिशा या स्थिति का बोध कराते हैं, उन्हें स्थानवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण कहते हैं।
• जैसे- यहाँ, वहाँ, कहाँ, जहाँ, ऊपर, नीचे, बाहर, भीतर, इधर, उधर, सर्वत्र, पास, दूर, अन्यत्र आदि।
• उदाहरण - बालक बाहर खेल रहा है।

Important Pointsअर्थ के आधार पर क्रिया-विशेषण के भेद-

• स्थानवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण
• कालवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण
• परिमाणवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण
• रीतिवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण

Additional Information

सही उत्तर है - समय पर धोखा देना

Key Points

• 'अंगूठा दिखाना' का अर्थ - ऐन वक्त पर मना कर देना या समय पर धोखा देना।
• वाक्य प्रयोग - जब मैंने अपने मित���र से उधार माँगा, तो उसने मुझे 'अंगूठा दिखा दिया'।
• मुहावरा - मुहावरा एक ऐसा वाक्यांश है जो अपने साधारण अर्थ को छोड़कर किसी विशेष अर्थ को व्यक्त करता है।
• उदाहरण - 'अपना उल्लू सीधा करना' का अर्थ - अपना स्वार्थ सिद्ध करना। वाक्य प्रयोग - आजकल के नेता केवल अपना 'उल्लू सीधा करना' जानते हैं।

अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Information

सही उत्तर है - दबाव पड़ने पर सब कुछ करना पड़ता है

Key Points

• 'अटका बनिया देय उधार' का अर्थ - जब व्यक्ति किसी मजबूरी में होता है या उस पर दबाव होता है, तब वह अपनी इच्छा के विरुद्ध भी कार्य करने के लिए तैयार हो जाता है।
• वाक्य प्रयोग - जब मकान मालिक ने रामू को घर खाली करने की धमकी दी, तब उसे न चाहते हुए भी पुराना कर्ज चुकाना पड़ा, सच ही कहा है- 'अटका बनिया देय उधार'।
• लोकोक्ति - लोकोक्ति का शाब्दिक अर्थ है 'लोक में प्रचलित उक्ति'। यह किसी विशेष प्रसंग या घटना पर आधारित एक पूर्ण कथन होता है जो जीवन के अनुभवों को संक्षिप्त रूप में व्यक्त करता है।
• उदाहरण - 'ऊँट के मुँह में जीरा' का अर्थ - आवश्यकता से बहुत कम। वाक्य प्रयोग - बड़े पहलवान की खुराक के आगे एक रोटी तो "ऊँट के मुँह में जीरे" के समान है।

अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Information