DSSSB PRT Official Paper (Held On: 10 Apr, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The logic followed here is:

For USN,

For FCY,

For LIE,

For OLH

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The pattern for USN is −2 and −5, which does not match the other three letter-clusters (−3 and −4).

Hence, the correct answer is "option 1"

Given: L, A, Y, E, R, S and T each have their exam on a different day of the same week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday.

1. Only three persons have exam between A and Y.
2. Only three persons have exam between T and S.
3. L has his exam on a day before Y and on a day after E.
4. Only R has his exam before S

The Final Arrangement is,

There are 4 (Four) persons who have their exam after A.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Given number: 3754826

According to the question,

• The new digits formed are: 1 8 6 2 9 3 4
• The highest digit is: 9
• The lowest digit is: 1
• So, the difference between the highest and the lowest digits is: 9 − 1 = 8.

Hence, the correct answer is  'Option 2'.

The water image of the given figure :

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

Logic followed here is.

Given Letter Series:  Left  B G N T A P Q E K I S M J W Y X D F O R U  Right 

Required Pattern: Vowel − Consonant − Vowel

​Left  B G N T A P Q E K I S M J W Y X D F O R U  Right 

There are exactly two such consonants that satisfy the condition.

Hence, the correct answer is "option 2"

Given:  Seven people, H, I, S, T, O, R and Y, are sitting in a row, facing north.

1. Only O sits to the left of T.
2. Only four people sit between O and Y.
3. Only H sits between I and R, and I is not an immediate neighbor of Y

The Final Arrangement is, 

According to the final arrangement, S sits at the extreme right of the row.

Hence, the correct answer is "option 1".

The Family Tree Diagram,

• S is the brother of A.
• A is the father of Y, so Y is S's niece (Brother's daughter).
• W is the son of Y.

Therefore, W is the son of S's brother's daughter. In other words, W is the Brother's daughter's son of S.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The logic followed here is to modify each letter based on whether it is a vowel or a consonant.

Given word : BRIQUET.

• Vowels: I, U, E
• Consonants: B, R, Q, T

All letters in the group AQJPVFS appear only once. There are no letters that appear exactly twice.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic follows here, 

Given word is: CREATING

The only letter that remains at the same position is E.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

The mirror image of the given figure,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

Given: H, U, S, B, A, N and D each have their exam on a different day of the same week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday.

1. No one has an exam before U.
2. Only three people have an exam between U and H.
3. Only one person has an exam between H and B.
4. A has an exam on Wednesday.
5. D has an exam one of the days after N but before S.

The Final Arrangement is,

H has his exam on Friday.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given Series: 11, 18, 32, 53, 81, ?

• 11 + 7 = 18
• 18 + 14 = 32
• 32 + 21 = 53
• 53 + 28 = 81
• 81 + 35 = 116

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = (First Number × 7) − 8

For the first pair 9 : 55

⇒ (9 × 7) − 8

⇒ 63 − 8 = 55.

For the second pair 13 : 83

⇒ (13 × 7) − 8

⇒ 91 − 8 = 83.

Applying the same logic to the third pair

15 : ?

⇒ (15 × 7) − 8

⇒ 105 − 8 = 97.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The logic followed in this pattern is a consistent alphabetical shift where each letter is moved backward by 4 positions in the English alphabetical order.

For 'QPRO' related to 'MLNK':

For 'HGIF' related to 'DCEB':

Applying the same logic to 'XWYV':

Thus, XWYV is related to TSUR.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The logic follows here,

• The new group of letters formed is: Q, J, L, E, V, J, B, P.
• J will appear exactly twice in the new group of letters thus formed

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

Given Expression: 30 − 3 × 12 + 2 ÷ 18

Signs Interchange:

• '+' and '−' are interchanged.
• '×' and '÷' are interchanged.

After Expression and Applying BODMAS rule,

= 30 ÷ 3 + 12 × 2 − 18

= 10 + 12 × 2 − 18

= 10 + 24 − 18

= 34 − 18

= 16

Therefore, the value that will come in the place of ‘?’ is 16.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The logic followed here

The code for D is 4.

Hence, the correct answer is "option 4"

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second letter = First letter + 4; Third letter = Second letter − 2.

 For GKI,

For  BFD,

For  QUR

This cluster does not follow the rule.

For  LPN,

Therefore, the letter cluster that is different from the others is QUR.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Given: E, F, G, H, Q, R and S each have their exam on a different day of the same week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday.

1. F has his exam on Thursday.
2. E has his exam on one of the days after Q and before G.
3. H has his exam on one of the days after R and before S.
4. R has his exam on one of the days after F

The Final Arrangement is,

Three people have their exam between H and E

Hence, the correct answer is " Option 3"

The logic followed here is:

Combining the results, the next term in the series is JUR.

Hence, the correct answer is "option 4

The correct answer is Rajasthan.

Key Points

• Exercise Desert Hunt 2025 was an integrated Tri-Service Special Forces training exercise conducted in the state of Rajasthan.
• This high-intensity drill was held at the strategically vital Air Force Station Jodhpur from February 24 to 28, 2025.
• The exercise was organized by the Indian Air Force to evaluate joint operational readiness and maximize interoperability, coordination, and synergy among India's elite commandos in desert terrains.
• It witnessed active participation from three premier special operations units: the Indian Army's Para (Special Forces), the Indian Navy's Marine Commandos (MARCOS), and the Indian Air Force's Garud Special Forces.
• Critical operations tested during the exercise included airborne insertion, precision strikes, hostage rescue, counter-terrorism drills, combat free falls, and urban warfare simulations under realistic combat scenarios.

 Additional Information

• Elite Participating Units:
• Para (SF): The tactical special forces unit of the Indian Army, highly trained for unconventional warfare, hostage rescue, and direct tactical action.
• MARCOS: The marine commando unit of the Indian Navy, specialized in amphibious warfare, maritime counter-terrorism, and special reconnaissance.
• Garud Commandos: The specialized unit of the Indian Air Force, primarily trained for airfield defense, combat search and rescue, and counter-insurgency operations.
• Air Force Station Jodhpur:
• Located in the Thar desert of Rajasthan, this airbase serves as a crucial strategic hub for defending India's western airspace.
• Key Desert Exercises in India:
• Exercise Desert Cyclone: A bilateral military exercise between India and the UAE, focusing on joint desert operations.
• Exercise Al Najah: A joint military exercise conducted between the armies of India and Oman.

The correct answer is Availability of cheap land in deserts.

Key Points

• The Iron and Steel Industry is categorized as a weight-losing industry because the raw materials used are bulky and heavy, losing weight during the smelting process. Consequently, these industries are traditionally located near Iron Ore and Coal Mines to minimize logistics expenses.
• Water Supply is an indispensable requirement for the industrial process, used extensively for cooling Blast Furnaces and steam generation. Deserts are characterized by extreme water scarcity, making them geographically unsuitable for such water-intensive operations.
• The Chota Nagpur Plateau serves as the primary hub for this industry in India, encompassing states like Jharkhand, West Bengal, Odisha, and Chhattisgarh, where raw materials and water from rivers like the Damodar and Subarnarekha are abundant.
• Market Accessibility and Infrastructure play secondary but crucial roles, ensuring that finished products reach manufacturing sectors like automobiles, construction, and heavy machinery efficiently via Railways and Navigable Rivers.

 Additional Information

• Core Locational Factors:
• Raw Material Proximity: Most Indian steel plants like TISCO (Jamshedpur) and Bhilai Steel Plant are situated close to Hematite iron ore deposits and Coking Coal fields of Jharia and Raniganj.
• Transport Network: Integration with the Indian Railways and proximity to ports (e.g., Visakhapatnam Steel Plant) allows for the import of high-quality coal and the export of finished steel.
• Power Resources: Reliable electricity from thermal power plants located near coal belts or hydroelectric projects is a prerequisite for operating electric arc furnaces.
• Constraints of Desert Regions:
• Arid regions like the Thar Desert lack the integrated transport connectivity and the perennial water bodies (like the Kharkai or Brahmani rivers) that are foundational to the Metallurgical Industry.

The correct answer is Malaysia.

Key Points

• The ICC U19 Women’s T20 World Cup 2025 is the second edition of the premier international cricket tournament for women under the age of 19, organized by the International Cricket Council (ICC).
• Malaysia was officially designated as the host for this event, scheduled to take place in January and February 2025, marking a significant milestone for cricket in the Southeast Asian region.
• The tournament will feature 16 national teams competing in 41 matches across several venues, providing a global platform for young female cricketers to showcase their talent.
• The selection of Malaysia as the host aligns with the ICC’s objective to globalize the sport and promote women's cricket within Associate Member nations.
• This edition follows the success of the inaugural tournament, maintaining the biennial cycle established for the U19 World Cup format.

 Additional Information

• South Africa:
• Served as the host for the inaugural ICC U19 Women’s T20 World Cup in 2023.
• The final of the first edition was held at Potchefstroom, where India defeated England to become the first-ever champions.
• India:
• Enters the 2025 tournament as the defending champions after winning the title in January 2023.
• The Indian team, led by Shafali Verma in the first edition, historically secured the trophy by 7 wickets.
• Future Hosting:
• The 2027 edition is scheduled to be co-hosted by Bangladesh and Nepal, further expanding the footprint of women's youth cricket in Asia.
• Tournament Structure:
• The competition utilizes a format involving Group Stages, followed by a Super Six round, and concluding with Semi-finals and a Final match.

The correct answer is Aatmanirbhar Bharat Rojgar Yojana.

Key Points

• The Aatmanirbhar Bharat Rojgar Yojana (ABRY) was launched by the Ministry of Labour and Employment to incentivize employers for the creation of new employment opportunities and the restoration of loss of employment during the COVID-19 pandemic.
• The scheme was operationalized with effect from 1 October 2020 and the registration for beneficiaries was open until 31 March 2022.
• It was introduced as a part of the Aatmanirbhar Bharat Package 3.0 stimulus to boost the formal sector economy and provide social security benefits.
• Under the scheme, the Government of India provides a subsidy for two years for new employees who joined during the eligibility period and earned a monthly wage of less than 15,000 rupees.
• For establishments having up to 1000 employees, the central government pays both the 12% employee contribution and the 12% employer contribution (total 24% of wages) towards EPF.
• For establishments with more than 1000 employees, the government pays only the 12% employee contribution to the EPF account of the new employees.

 Additional Information

• Garib Kalyan Rojgar Abhiyaan:
• Launched on 20 June 2020 to provide immediate employment and livelihood opportunities to migrant workers who returned to their villages during the lockdown.
• The scheme focused on 116 districts across 6 states for a duration of 125 days.
• Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP):
• A credit-linked subsidy scheme launched in 2008 by the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME).
• It was formed by merging the Prime Minister’s Rozgar Yojana (PMRY) and the Rural Employment Generation Programme (REGP).
• Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY):
• Launched on 8 April 2015 to provide loans up to 10 lakh rupees to non-corporate, non-farm small/micro enterprises.
• Loans are classified as Shishu (up to 50,000), Kishore (50,001 to 5 lakh), and Tarun (5,00,001 to 10 lakh).

Therefore, the correct option is 2.

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• Madhya Pradesh became the first state in India to enact and implement the Right to Public Service Act.
• The legislation, officially titled the Madhya Pradesh Lok Sewaon Ke Pradan Ki Guarantee Adhiniyam, 2010, was passed by the state assembly and received the Governor’s assent on August 18, 2010.
• The primary objective of this landmark legislation is to ensure the time-bound delivery of essential government services to the citizens, thereby enhancing administrative accountability and reducing corruption.
• The act provides a legal guarantee for services such as caste certificates, income certificates, domicile certificates, and land records within a stipulated period.
• A critical feature of the act is the provision for monetary penalties on designated officers if they fail to provide the requested service within the prescribed timeline without a valid justification.
• Therefore, the correct option is 2.

 Additional Information

• Following the success of the Madhya Pradesh model, several other Indian states introduced similar citizen-centric laws:
• Bihar: Enacted the Bihar Right to Public Services Act, 2011, which came into effect on August 15, 2011, making it the second state to adopt such a framework.
• Rajasthan: Implemented the Rajasthan Guaranteed Delivery of Public Services Act, 2011, covering various departments including Police, Revenue, and Medical Health.
• Punjab: Passed the Punjab Right to Service Act, 2011, and established a Right to Service Commission to monitor the implementation of the act.
• Purpose: These acts empower citizens by creating a statutory right to receive services and provide a two-tier grievance redressal mechanism through appellate authorities.

The correct answer is To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.

Key Points

• The concept of Fundamental Duties is enshrined in Part IV-A of the Indian Constitution under Article 51A. This specific provision was not part of the original Constitution but was added later to balance citizens’ rights with their obligations toward the state.
• According to Article 51A(d), it is the duty of every citizen of India to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so. This implies a moral and civic obligation to prioritize national security and contribute to the country’s needs during emergencies or required service periods.
• The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 introduced these duties based on the recommendations of the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee. The committee suggested that citizens should be aware that while they enjoy fundamental rights, they also have certain duties to perform.
• These duties are non-justiciable in nature, meaning they cannot be directly enforced by courts through writs, though they serve as a guide for interpreting laws and determining the constitutionality of legislative acts.

 Additional Information

• Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) vs. Fundamental Duties:
• To maintain just and honourable relations between nations is a principle found under Article 51, which is part of the DPSP in Part IV, guiding the state’s foreign policy rather than citizen duties.
• To ensure the right to an adequate means of livelihood is covered under Article 39(a) of the DPSP, emphasizing the state’s responsibility to ensure economic justice.
• Legal and Political Rights:
• To vote in public elections is a constitutional/legal right under Article 326 but is not explicitly listed as a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A, despite suggestions by the Swaran Singh Committee to include it.
• Growth of Fundamental Duties:
• Initially, 10 duties were added in 1976. The 11th Fundamental Duty, which pertains to providing opportunities for education to children aged 6−14 years, was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.

The correct answer is Himalayas.

Key Points

• The Himalayas are geologically classified as young fold mountains because they were formed during the most recent phase of mountain building in Earth's history, known as the Alpine orogeny.
• The formation of this range began approximately 50 to 65 million years ago during the Cenozoic Era, resulting from the massive collision between the Indo-Australian Plate and the Eurasian Plate.
• Due to the ongoing northward movement of the Indian Plate, the Himalayas are still rising in height and are considered tectonically active, which explains the high frequency of earthquakes in the region.
• Unlike ancient ranges that have been leveled by millions of years of erosion, the Himalayas exhibit high topographic relief, sharp peaks, and deep V-shaped valleys, which are characteristic features of geologically young landscapes.

 Additional Information

• Aravalli Hills
• These are among the oldest fold mountain systems in the world, having formed during the Pre-Cambrian era over 2 billion years ago.
• Located primarily in Rajasthan, they have been significantly reduced in height due to prolonged weathering and erosion processes.
• Eastern Ghats
• This range consists of ancient, discontinuous hills along India's eastern coast, dating back to the assembly of the ancient supercontinent Rodinia.
• They are much older than the Himalayas and have been extensively eroded by major peninsular rivers like the Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri.
• Satpura Range
• Situated in central India, these are primarily block mountains (horsts) formed between the rift valleys of the Narmada and Tapti rivers.
• While younger than the Aravallis, they predate the final Himalayan uplift and represent an older structural feature of the Indian Peninsular Plateau.

CONCEPT:

Bohr’s Atomic Model

• In 1913, Niels Bohr proposed a model for the atom to explain why atoms are stable and why they emit discrete spectra.
• This model was a modification of the Rutherford model and incorporated Quantum Theory.
• The primary challenge Bohr addressed was the failure of Classical Physics to explain the behavior of subatomic particles.

EXPLANATION:

• According to Classical Electromagnetic Theory (Maxwell’s theory), any accelerated charged particle must continuously emit energy in the form of electromagnetic radiation.
• In the planetary model of the atom, an electron moving in a circular orbit undergoes centripetal acceleration.
• If Classical Electromagnetic Theory were applied, the electron would lose energy constantly, its orbital radius would decrease, and it would eventually spiral into the nucleus, making the atom highly unstable.
• Additionally, the continuous loss of energy would result in a continuous emission spectrum, which contradicted the observed line spectra of elements like Hydrogen.
• Niels Bohr challenged these classical views by postulating that:
• Electrons revolve in specific discrete orbits (stationary states) without radiating energy.
• Radiation is only emitted or absorbed when an electron jumps from one orbit to another.

Therefore, the theory that Bohr challenged to explain atomic spectra is Classical electromagnetic theory.

The correct answer is In any court or before any authority except the Supreme Court and other High Courts.

Key Points

• The restriction on the legal practice of retired permanent judges is governed by Article 220 of the Constitution of India.
• According to this article, any person who has held office as a permanent Judge of a High Court after the commencement of the Constitution (January 26, 1950) is prohibited from pleading or acting in any court or before any authority within the territory of India.
• However, an explicit exception is provided: such individuals are permitted to practice in the Supreme Court and in High Courts other than the one(s) where they served as a permanent judge.
• This provision was substituted by the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956. Prior to this amendment, there was a complete ban on practice for retired judges to ensure the independence of the judiciary and prevent potential bias or influence in the courts where they formerly presided.
• The term other High Courts refers to any High Court in India where the individual did not hold the post of a permanent judge, thereby maintaining the dignity of the judicial office.

 Additional Information

• Article 124(7) of the Constitution:
• This article imposes a much stricter restriction on judges of the Supreme Court.
• A person who has been a Judge of the Supreme Court is barred from pleading or acting in any court or before any authority within the territory of India, with no exceptions.
• Additional and Acting Judges:
• The restrictions mentioned in Article 220 apply strictly to permanent judges.
• Individuals who served only as Additional Judges or Acting Judges (under Articles 223 and 224) and did not become permanent are not subject to these practice restrictions.
• Judicial Independence:
• These constitutional bars are designed to prevent the 'reasonable apprehension of bias' and to ensure that retired judges do not use their former status to influence the subordinate judiciary or administrative authorities.

The correct answer is Garba.

Key Points

• Garba is a vibrant and devotional folk dance originating from the state of Gujarat, India, performed to honor the feminine form of divinity.
• The term is derived from the Sanskrit word Garbha (meaning womb) and is traditionally performed around a centrally placed perforated earthenware lamp called the Garbha Deep or an image of Goddess Shakti.
• This dance is the hallmark of the Navratri festival, which spans nine nights of worship and celebration, symbolizing the cyclical nature of life from birth to death to rebirth.
• The performance involves participants moving in concentric circles, clapping in rhythm, and sometimes using Dandiya (sticks), though the circular motion remains the core structural element.
• In December 2023, Garba of Gujarat was inscribed on the UNESCO Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity, highlighting its role as a unifying social force.

 Additional Information

• Charba:
• It is a traditional folk dance performed in Himachal Pradesh.
• The dance is specifically associated with the celebration of the Dussehra festival in the region.
• Bhangra:
• A high-energy folk dance that originated in the Majha region of Punjab.
• It was traditionally performed by farmers to celebrate the Baisakhi festival and the arrival of the harvest season.
• Kalbelia:
• An ancient dance form from Rajasthan performed by the Kalbelia tribe, traditionally known as snake charmers.
• The dance involves sensuous movements that mimic the swaying of a cobra and was recognized by UNESCO as intangible heritage in 2010.

The correct answer is Kol Insurrection.

Key Points

• The Kol Insurrection of 1831-32 was a major tribal uprising against the British East India Company and oppressive Zamindars in the Chotanagpur plateau, covering regions like Singhbhum, Ranchi, Palamau, and Hazaribagh.
• Bindrai Manki, along with Sui Munda, provided pivotal leadership during the revolt. The movement was triggered when traditional land rights of tribal Manki (village heads) and Munda chiefs were transferred to Dikus (outsiders), specifically Sikh and Muslim farmers.
• The revolt was a response to the dispossession of land, high taxation, and the exploitation of tribal women by outsiders. The rebels utilized traditional weapons like bows and arrows to target the property of moneylenders and government officials.
• Other notable leaders included Buddhu Bhagat, who led the resistance in Sillay and sacrificed his life alongside hundreds of followers during a fierce battle against British troops led by Captain Impey.

 Additional Information

• Santhal Rebellion (1855-56):
• Led by Sidhu Murmu and Kanhu Murmu in the Daman-i-Koh region (Rajmahal Hills).
• It was directed against the Zamindari system and the Mahajans (moneylenders) who exploited the Santhal tribal community.
• Munda Uprising (Ulgulan):
• The most significant phase occurred between 1899-1900 under the leadership of Birsa Munda.
• It aimed at establishing Munda Raj and regaining Khuntkatti land rights against the intrusion of colonial authorities and missionaries.
• Rangpur Peasant Revolt (1783):
• Occurred in Bengal against the harsh revenue collection methods of Debi Singh.
• It saw unity between Hindu and Muslim peasants to oppose the East India Company's revenue demands.

The correct answer is Itimad-ud- Daula Tomb.

Key Points

• The Itimad-ud-Daula Tomb was commissioned by Empress Nur Jahan between 1622 and 1628 AD in memory of her father, Mirza Ghiyas Beg, who served as the Wazir (Chief Minister) under Emperor Jahangir.
• Located on the eastern bank of the Yamuna River in Agra, it is famously known as the Baby Taj because its design and ornamentation served as a prototype for the Taj Mahal.
• This structure is historically significant for being the first Mughal building constructed entirely of white marble, marking a major shift from the red sandstone architectural tradition of the Akbar era.
• The tomb is most renowned for its extensive use of pietra dura (parchin kari), a decorative technique where highly polished semi-precious stones like lapis lazuli, cornelian, jasper, and onyx are inlaid into marble to form delicate floral and geometric motifs.
• The layout follows the Charbagh (four-gardens) pattern, with the central tomb structure featuring four hexagonal minarets at the corners, reflecting a refined transition in Indo-Islamic architecture.

 Additional Information

• Safdarjung Tomb
• Built in 1754 in Delhi, this tomb was constructed for Nawab Safdarjung of Awadh during the late Mughal Empire period.
• It is often described as the last monumental garden-tomb of the Mughals, though it lacks the precision and scale of 17th-century architecture.
• Khan-i-Khana Tomb
• Located in Nizamuddin, Delhi, it is the resting place of Abdul Rahim Khan-i-Khana, one of the Navaratnas (nine gems) in Akbar’s court.
• The tomb’s design originally inspired the structure of the Taj Mahal, though much of its original marble was later stripped for other buildings.
• Isa Khan Tomb
• This tomb is part of the Humayun’s Tomb complex in Delhi and was built in 1547-48 AD for Isa Khan Niyazi, a noble in the court of Sher Shah Suri.
• It features an octagonal architectural style, which was characteristic of the Lodi and Suri dynasties.

The correct answer is Kurnool, Andhra Pradesh.

Key Points

• In April 2025, the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) achieved a significant milestone by successfully testing a 30-kilowatt (kW) laser-based Directed Energy Weapon (DEW).
• The test was conducted in Kurnool, Andhra Pradesh, utilizing a specialized testing range developed to facilitate advanced trials for electronic warfare and precision energy-based systems.
• The 30kW laser is designed to provide point-defense capabilities against Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), loitering munitions, and other small aerial threats by focusing intense thermal energy to incinerate or disable the target.
• The success of this trial validates India's progress in non-kinetic weaponry, which allows for engagement at the speed of light with extreme precision and minimal collateral damage.
• This indigenous technology is part of a broader roadmap to integrate high-power lasers into mobile platforms, such as tanks and naval destroyers, for real-time battlefield protection.

 Additional Information

• Directed Energy Weapons (DEW):
• These systems utilize concentrated electromagnetic energy, including High-Energy Lasers (HEL) and High-Power Microwaves (HPM), to damage or destroy enemy equipment.
• Advantages include a low cost-per-shot compared to traditional missiles and a virtually infinite magazine as long as power is supplied.
• LASTEC (Laser Science and Technology Centre):
• Based in Delhi, this DRDO laboratory is the lead agency responsible for the conceptualization and development of laser-based weapon systems like DURGA II.
• Geographic Context:
• While Chandipur and Balasore in Odisha are primary sites for missile testing (ITR), Kurnool has emerged as a strategic hub for drone and electronic warfare testing due to its vast, open topography.
• Pokhran in Rajasthan remains the primary site for nuclear and heavy artillery trials.

The correct answer is Parvati Valley.

Key Points

• The experimental geothermal power project in Himachal Pradesh is located in the Parvati Valley at a place called Manikaran, situated in the Kullu district.
• Manikaran is famous for its natural hot springs, where the surface temperature of water reaches nearly 96°C, making it a primary site for geothermal energy exploration in India.
• The Geological Survey of India (GSI) and the National Hydroelectric Power Corporation (NHPC) have conducted extensive studies in this region to establish the feasibility of a pilot geothermal plant.
• The Parvati Valley geothermal field is part of the North-West Himalayan geothermal belt, characterized by high heat flow and tectonic activity that allows magmatic heat to warm the subsurface aquifers.
• The project aims to utilize the thermal energy from the earth's interior to generate clean electricity, providing a sustainable alternative to traditional fossil fuels in the Himalayan region.

 Additional Information

• Geothermal Energy:
• It is a non-conventional energy source that taps into the heat stored beneath the Earth's surface.
• Apart from Manikaran, the Puga Valley in Ladakh and Tattapani in Chhattisgarh are other major potential sites for geothermal energy in India.
• Kangra Valley:
• Located in the Dhauladhar range, it is primarily known for Kangra Tea, the historical Kangra Fort, and Dharamshala, the seat of the Dalai Lama.
• Solang Valley:
• Situated near Manali, it is a renowned destination for adventure tourism, including skiing, paragliding, and mountaineering.
• Spiti Valley:
• Known as the Cold Desert, it is a high-altitude valley famous for its Tibetan Buddhist culture and the Key Monastery.

The correct answer is Bairam Khan.

Key Points

• Bairam Khan was a brilliant military commander and statesman who served as the Regent (Vakil) of the Mughal Empire from 1556 to 1560.
• Following the accidental death of Emperor Humayun in January 1556, Akbar was crowned at Kalanaur, Punjab, at the young age of 13.
• Due to Akbar's minority, Bairam Khan was appointed as his guardian and Ataliq (tutor-preceptor), exercising supreme civil and military authority.
• Bairam Khan led the Mughal forces to a decisive victory against Hemu (the commander of the Sur dynasty) at the Second Battle of Panipat on November 5, 1556, which saved the fledgling Mughal state from collapse.
• During his four-year regency, he consolidated the empire's boundaries and suppressed various internal rebellions, effectively acting as the de facto ruler until Akbar dismissed him in 1560 to take personal charge of the government.

 Additional Information

• Abul Fazl:
• He was the Grand Vizier and a close friend of Akbar, but he joined the court much later, around 1574.
• He is famous for writing the Akbarnama and the Ain-i-Akbari, which are the primary historical accounts of Akbar's reign.
• Munim Khan:
• A prominent Mughal general who served under both Humayun and Akbar.
• He was appointed as the Vakil (Prime Minister) in 1560 after the downfall of Bairam Khan and later served as the Governor of Bengal.
• Mirza Hakim:
• He was the half-brother of Akbar and the ruler of Kabul.
• Instead of acting as a regent, he often posed a challenge to Akbar's authority and even supported a major rebellion against him in 1581.

CONCEPT:

Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics

• The Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics states that if two thermodynamic systems are each in thermal equilibrium with a third system, then they are in thermal equilibrium with each other.
• This law is fundamental because it allows us to define the concept of temperature as a measurable property of a system.
• Thermal equilibrium means there is no net flow of heat between the systems when they are brought into thermal contact.

EXPLANATION:

• According to the statement:
• If system A is in thermal equilibrium with system C, they both have the same temperature (T_A = T_C).
• If system B is also in thermal equilibrium with system C, they both have the same temperature (T_B = T_C).
• Consequently, it follows that T_A = T_B, meaning system A and B are in thermal equilibrium with each other.
• This principle is the basis for the construction and use of thermometers. If the thermometer (System C) shows the same reading for two different objects (Systems A and B), those objects are at the same temperature.
• Other laws of thermodynamics focus on different aspects:
• First Law: Deals with the conservation of energy (Internal energy, heat, and work).
• Second Law: Deals with the entropy and the direction of spontaneous processes.
• Third Law: States that the entropy of a perfect crystal at absolute zero is zero.

Therefore, the law described is the Zeroth law of thermodynamics.

The correct answer is 1605 AD.

Key Points

• The Dutch East India Company, known as Vereenigde Oost-Indische Compagnie (VOC), was formed in 1602 through a charter granted by the Dutch Parliament.
• Admiral Steven van der Hagen reached the Coromandel Coast and established the first Dutch factory at Masulipattanam in 1605 AD.
• The port of Masulipattanam (modern-day Machilipatnam) was situated in the kingdom of Golkonda and served as a vital hub for the textile trade.
• The Dutch received trade privileges and permission from the Qutb Shahi ruler to set up their commercial base to export Indian textiles to the Malay Archipelago.
• The establishment at Masulipattanam marked the beginning of Dutch commercial expansion in India, specifically targeting the profitable spice and cloth trade.

 Additional Information

• Dutch Settlements in India:
• Following Masulipattanam, the Dutch founded factories at Pulicat (1610), Surat (1616), Bimilipatnam (1641), and Chinsura (1653).
• Pulicat served as the Dutch headquarters until 1690, after which Negapatam became their main center.
• The Dutch were the first to introduce Gold Pagoda coins in India at their Pulicat mint.
• Their primary exports from India included indigo, saltpetre, raw silk, and cotton textiles.
• The Dutch power in India was significantly diminished after their defeat by the British in the Battle of Bedara (also known as the Battle of Hooghly) in 1759.

The correct answer is Rashtriya Raksha University.

Key Points

• The Asmita Khelo India Wushu League 2025 was hosted by Rashtriya Raksha University (RRU) at its main campus located in Lavad, Gandhinagar, Gujarat.
• The ASMITA initiative stands for Achieving Stride in Milestones by Inspiring Women Through Action, which is a dedicated component of the Khelo India program aimed at promoting women's participation in competitive sports.
• The league was organized in collaboration with the Wushu Association of India and received technical and financial support from the Sports Authority of India (SAI).
• The primary objective of hosting this league at Rashtriya Raksha University was to provide a professional platform for female Wushu athletes to improve their national rankings and prepare for international events like the Asian Games and World Championships.
• As an Institution of National Importance under the Ministry of Home Affairs, RRU utilized its specialized sports infrastructure and School of Physical Education and Sports to facilitate the event.

 Additional Information

• Rashtriya Raksha University (RRU):
• It is India's first internal security university, established to meet the needs of the Police, Security Forces, and Paramilitary agencies.
• The university was upgraded to an Institution of National Importance through an Act of Parliament in 2020.
• It hosts various national-level combat sports competitions due to the synergy between martial arts and security training.
• Sports Authority of India (SAI):
• Established in 1984, SAI is the nodal agency for promoting excellence in sports in India.
• It implements the Khelo India Scheme, which includes the Asmita Women's League across various sporting disciplines like Wushu, Judo, and Archery.
• Wushu:
• Wushu is a hard and soft and complete martial art, as well as a full-contact sport derived from traditional Chinese martial arts.
• In India, the sport is governed by the Wushu Association of India, which is recognized by the International Wushu Federation (IWUF).

The correct answer is World Health Organization.

Key Points

• The World Health Organization (WHO) is the specialized agency of the United Nations responsible for international public health, and it has been the primary facilitator for the development of a global pandemic treaty.
• The Pandemic Agreement, formally known as the WHO Pandemic Accord, was envisioned to strengthen global prevention, preparedness, and response to future health emergencies following the lessons learned from the COVID-19 pandemic.
• In May 2025, during the 78th World Health Assembly (WHA), the member states reached a consensus to adopt this landmark agreement after years of deliberations by the Intergovernmental Negotiating Body (INB).
• The WHO leadership, in July 2025, specifically lauded the Heads of State and Government for their high-level political intervention, which was crucial in resolving complex issues related to pathogen access and benefit-sharing (PABS).
• The recognition highlighted that without the direct involvement of national leaders, the treaty could have faced further delays beyond the 2025 deadline established by the 77th World Health Assembly.

 Additional Information

• The World Health Organization (WHO):
• Founded on April 7, 1948, which is celebrated annually as World Health Day.
• Headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, and currently led by Director-General Dr. Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus.
• Its primary mandate includes coordinating international health responses, setting health standards, and monitoring global health trends.
• Other organizations mentioned in the options:
• The International Monetary Fund (IMF) focuses on global monetary cooperation, financial stability, and international trade, rather than health-related legal frameworks.
• The World Bank provides loans and grants to low- and middle-income countries for developmental projects, including health infrastructure, but does not govern international health treaties.
• UNESCO focuses on building peace through international cooperation in Education, the Sciences, and Culture.

The correct answer is NNP at Factor Cost.

Key Points

• Net National Product at Factor Cost (NNP FC) is traditionally defined as the National Income of a country, representing the total value of final goods and services produced by normal residents after accounting for capital wear and tear.
• The component Net indicates that the Consumption of Fixed Capital (Depreciation) has been subtracted from the Gross National Product (GNP) to reflect the true addition to the economy.
• The term National signifies that the aggregate includes income earned by normal residents of a country, regardless of whether they are located within the domestic territory or abroad, by adding Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA).
• Factor Cost refers to the total payments made to factors of production (Land, Labor, Capital, and Entrepreneurship) in the form of rent, wages, interest, and profit.
• It is calculated by deducting Net Indirect Taxes (Indirect Taxes − Subsidies) from the Net National Product at Market Price to arrive at the actual cost of production.

 Additional Information

• GDP at Market Price:
• It is the Gross market value of all final goods and services produced within the domestic boundary of a country during a specific period.
• It does not account for Depreciation or the nationality of the producers, focusing solely on the geographical territory.
• NDP at Market Price:
• It represents the Net Domestic Product, which is derived by subtracting Depreciation from the GDP at Market Price.
• It focuses on the net output generated strictly within the domestic borders.
• GNP at Market Price:
• This aggregate measures the Gross value of goods and services produced by normal residents, including income from abroad.
• Unlike NNP, it remains a Gross concept because it still includes the cost of capital consumption.

Given:

Expression = 2.4̅ + 1.27̅ − 1.7̅

Formula used:

For a repeating decimal with one digit: x.y̅ = (xy − x) / 9

For a repeating decimal with two digits: x.yz̅ = (xyz − x) / 99

Calculation:

Convert the bar decimals into fractions:

2.4̅ = (24 − 2) / 9 = 22/9

1.27̅ = (127 − 1) / 99 = 126/99

1.7̅ = (17 − 1) / 9 = 16/9

Now, substitute these fractional values into the given expression:

⇒ 22/9 + 126/99 − 16/9

Group the fractions with the same denominator:

⇒ (22/9 − 16/9) + 126/99

⇒ 6/9 + 126/99

Simplify the first fraction 6/9 to 2/3:

⇒ 2/3 + 126/99

To add the fractions, find the LCM of 3 and 99, which is 99:

⇒ (2 × 33) / 99 + 126 / 99

⇒ 66/99 + 126/99

⇒ (66 + 126) / 99

⇒ 192/99

Divide both the numerator and the denominator by their common factor 3:

⇒ 192 ÷ 3 = 64

⇒ 99 ÷ 3 = 33

⇒ 64/33

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Profit = (Capital × Time) for each partner.

Mansi : Neha : Utsavi = (8 × 12) : (7 × 12) : (7 × 6)

Divide the entire ratio by 6 ⇒ (8 × 2) : (7 × 2) : (7 × 1)

Simplified Profit Ratio = 16 : 14 : 7.

∴ The correct answer is 16 : 14 : 7.

Alternate Method

Given:

Investment ratio of Mansi and Neha = 8 : 7

Investment of Utsavi = Investment of Neha = 7 units

Total time duration of business = 12 months (1 year)

Mansi and Neha invested for 12 months.

Utsavi joined after 6 months, so her investment time = 12 − 6 = 6 months.

Formula Used: Profit Share Ratio = (Investment₁ × Time₁) : (Investment₂ × Time₂) : (Investment₃ × Time₃)

⇒ Profit Ratio (Mansi : Neha : Utsavi) = (8 × 12) : (7 × 12) : (7 × 6)

⇒ Profit Ratio = 96 : 84 : 42

⇒ Dividing by the greatest common divisor (6):

⇒ Mansi's share = 96 ÷ 6 = 16

⇒ Neha's share = 84 ÷ 6 = 14

⇒ Utsavi's share = 42 ÷ 6 = 7

⇒ Resultant Ratio = 16 : 14 : 7

∴ The correct answer is 16 : 14 : 7.

Additional Information

Partnership Investment Rule

Profit is distributed based on the weighted investment (Capital × Time). If investments are C₁, C₂ for times T₁, T₂, then Profit Ratio = C₁T₁ : C₂T₂.

Active vs. Sleeping Partner

An active partner manages the business and may receive a salary/commission before profit distribution, while a sleeping partner only contributes capital.

Ratio Simplification

A ratio a : b : c can be simplified by dividing all terms by their Highest Common Factor (HCF) to represent it in the simplest form.

Shortcut Trick

Direct Calculation: (30 × 80) − (25 × 35)

Step 1: 30% of 80 = 24

Step 2: 25% of 35 = 1/4 of 35 = 8.75

Step 3: Difference = 24 − 8.75 = 15.25

∴ The correct answer is 15.25.

Alternate Method

Given:

First value = 30% of 80

Second value = 25% of 35

Formula Used:

Percentage value = (Percentage / 100) × Number

Calculations:

⇒ First value = (30 / 100) × 80

⇒ First value = 0.3 × 80 = 24

⇒ Second value = (25 / 100) × 35

⇒ Second value = 0.25 × 35 = 8.75

⇒ Required difference = 24 − 8.75

⇒ Required difference = 15.25

∴ The correct answer is 15.25.

Additional Information

Percentage to Fraction Conversion

Standard percentages can be simplified as fractions: 25% = 1/4, 50% = 1/2, 75% = 3/4, and 20% = 1/5.

Commutative Property of Percentage

x% of y is always equal to y% of x. For example, 30% of 80 is the same as 80% of 30, both equaling 24.

Percentage Change Formula

To find the percentage increase or decrease: Percentage Change = [(New Value − Original Value) / Original Value] × 100.

Shortcut Trick

Total weighted time in terms of original speed x (in minutes) = (16 × 1) + (22 × 2) + (12 × 1) = 16 + 44 + 12 = 72 speed-minutes.

Since Distance = (Speed × Time) / 60, we have: 30 = (72 × x) / 60.

⇒ 72x = 1800

⇒ x = 1800 ÷ 72 = 25 kmph.

∴ The correct answer is 25 kmph.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total Distance = 30 km

Total Time = 50 min

Phase 1: Speed = x kmph, Time = 16 min

Phase 2: Speed = 2x kmph, Time = 22 min

Phase 3: Speed = x kmph, Time = 50 − (16 + 22) = 12 min

Formula: Distance = Speed × Time

To use kmph and minutes together, Time must be divided by 60.

⇒ Total Distance = (x × 16/60) + (2x × 22/60) + (x × 12/60)

⇒ 30 = (16x/60) + (44x/60) + (12x/60)

⇒ 30 = (16x + 44x + 12x) ÷ 60

⇒ 30 × 60 = 72x

⇒ 1800 = 72x

⇒ x = 1800 ÷ 72

⇒ x = 25

∴ The correct answer is 25 kmph.

Additional Information

Speed-Distance-Time Relationship

Basic formula: Speed = Distance ÷ Time. Ensure units are consistent (e.g., convert minutes to hours by dividing by 60).

Average Speed

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time. For this journey, Average Speed = 30 / (50/60) = 36 kmph.

Unit Conversion

To convert kmph to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert m/s to kmph, multiply by 18/5.

Shortcut Trick

Total steel sheet area = Number of basins × Curved surface area of one basin

Curved Surface Area = 2 × π × r²

Total Area = 1000 × 2 × (22/7) × 21 × 21 = 27,72,000 cm²

Conversion: 1 m² = 10,000 cm² → 27,72,000 ÷ 10,000 = 277.2 m²

∴ The correct answer is 277.2 m².

Alternate Method

Given:

Number of hemispherical basins (n) = 1000

Radius (r) = 21 cm

Value of π = 22/7

Formula Used:

The surface area of a thin hemispherical basin is its Curved Surface Area (CSA) = 2πr²

Calculations:

⇒ Surface area of one basin = 2 × (22/7) × 21 × 21

⇒ Surface area of one basin = 2 × 22 × 3 × 21

⇒ Surface area of one basin = 44 × 63 = 2772 cm²

⇒ Total area for 1000 basins = 1000 × 2772 = 27,72,000 cm²

⇒ Area in m² = Total Area in cm² ÷ 10,000

⇒ Area in m² = 27,72,000 ÷ 10,000 = 277.2 m²

∴ The correct answer is 277.2 m².

Additional Information

Surface Area of a Sphere

The total surface area of a full sphere is 4πr².

Total Surface Area (TSA) of a Solid Hemisphere

For a solid hemisphere, the total area includes the curved surface and the flat circular base: TSA = 3πr².

Volume of a Hemisphere

The space occupied by a hemisphere is given by the formula: Volume = (2/3)πr³.

Unit Conversion for Area

To convert cm² to m², divide by 10,000 (since 1 m = 100 cm, 1 m² = 100² cm²).

Shortcut Trick Prime numbers between 50 and 70 are 53, 59, 61, 67 → Average = 240 ÷ 4 = 60. Multiples of 2 between 20 and 80 are 22, 24, ..., 78 → Average = (22 + 78) ÷ 2 = 50. Required Difference = 60 − 50 = 10. ∴ The correct answer is 10.

Alternate Method Given: Range 1: Prime numbers between 50 and 70. Range 2: Multiples of 2 (even numbers) between 20 and 80. Formula Used: Average = (Sum of all observations) ÷ (Total number of observations) Average of an Arithmetic Progression (AP) = (First term + Last term) ÷ 2

Calculations: ⇒ Prime numbers between 50 and 70: 53, 59, 61, 67 ⇒ Sum = 53 + 59 + 61 + 67 = 240 ⇒ Average1 = 240 ÷ 4 = 60 ⇒ Multiples of 2 between 20 and 80: 22, 24, 26, ..., 78 ⇒ This is an Arithmetic Progression with first term (a) = 22 and last term (l) = 78 ⇒ Average2 = (22 + 78) ÷ 2 = 100 ÷ 2 = 50 ⇒ Required Difference = Average1 − Average2 ⇒ Difference = 60 − 50 = 10 ∴ The correct answer is 10.

Additional Information Prime Numbers A prime number is a natural number greater than 1 that has no positive divisors other than 1 and itself. Example: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11... Arithmetic Progression (AP) Average For any series with a constant difference, the average is simply the mean of the first and last terms: (a + l) ÷ 2. Range Interpretation The term between X and Y typically excludes the boundary values X and Y themselves, considering only values n such that X < n < Y.

Shortcut Trick

Identify given values: Radius (r) = 14 cm and Height (h) = 50 cm.

Apply the direct Volume formula: V = πr²h.

V = (22/7) × 14 × 14 × 50 = 22 × 2 × 14 × 50 = 44 × 700 = 30800 cm³.

∴ The correct answer is 30800 cm³.

Alternate Method

Given:

Radius of the cylinder (r) = 14 cm

Height of the cylinder (h) = 50 cm

Formula Used:

Volume of a cylinder = πr²h

Calculations:

⇒ Volume = (22/7) × (14)² × 50

⇒ Volume = (22/7) × 14 × 14 × 50

⇒ Volume = 22 × 2 × 14 × 50

⇒ Volume = 44 × 700

⇒ Volume = 30800 cm³

∴ The correct answer is 30800 cm³.

Additional Information

Curved Surface Area (CSA)

The area of the side surface of the cylinder, excluding the bases, is given by 2πrh.

Total Surface Area (TSA)

The sum of the area of the two circular bases and the curved surface area: 2πr(r + h).

Volume of a Cone

A cone with the same radius and height as a cylinder has exactly one-third of its volume: (1/3)πr²h.

Shortcut Trick

Net multiplier for 24% Profit = 1 + 24/100 = 1.24

Selling Price (SP) = 1200 × 1.24

⇒ 12 × 124 = 1488

∴ The correct answer is ₹1488.

Alternate Method

Given:

Cost Price (CP) = ₹1,200

Profit Percentage = 24%

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = CP × (100 + Profit%) ÷ 100

Calculations:

⇒ SP = 1200 × (100 + 24) ÷ 100

⇒ SP = 1200 × (124 ÷ 100)

⇒ SP = 1200 × 1.24

⇒ SP = 1488

∴ The correct answer is ₹1488.

Additional Information

Profit and Loss Calculation

Profit is realized when SP > CP. Profit = SP − CP. Profit % = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100.

Marked Price and Discount

Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price (MP). SP = MP × (100 − Discount%) ÷ 100.

Successive Discounts

Equivalent discount for two successive discounts a% and b% is given by (a + b − ab/100)%.

Shortcut Trick

The difference between a single discount of (x + y)% and successive discounts of x% and y% is always (xy/100)% of the Marked Price.

Here, x = 30 and y = 10 (Note: 30 + 10 = 40, which matches the single discount).

Difference in Percentage = (30 × 10) ÷ 100 = 3%

Difference in Amount = 3% of ₹10,000 = ₹300

∴ The correct answer is ₹300.

Alternate Method

Given:

Marked Price (MP) = ₹10,000

Case 1: Single Discount = 40%

Case 2: Successive Discounts = 30% and 10%

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = MP × (100 − Discount%) ÷ 100

Effective Successive Discount = x + y − (xy ÷ 100)

Calculations:

⇒ Selling Price in Case 1 (SP₁) = 10,000 × (100 − 40) ÷ 100

⇒ SP₁ = 10,000 × 0.60 = ₹6,000

⇒ Effective Discount in Case 2 = 30 + 10 − (30 × 10 ÷ 100)

⇒ Effective Discount = 40 − 3 = 37%

⇒ Selling Price in Case 2 (SP₂) = 10,000 × (100 − 37) ÷ 100

⇒ SP₂ = 10,000 × 0.63 = ₹6,300

⇒ Difference in SP = SP₂ − SP₁ = 6,300 − 6,000

⇒ Difference = ₹300

∴ The correct answer is ₹300.

Additional Information

Successive Discount Formula

For two successive discounts x% and y%, the net discount is x + y − (xy ÷ 100)%.

Successive vs Single Discount

A single discount of (x+y)% is always greater than the successive discounts of x% and y% by the amount (xy/100)% of the MP.

Selling Price and Marked Price

The Selling Price is the final amount paid after subtracting the Discount from the Marked Price: SP = MP − Discount.

Shortcut Trick

Assume a base value (Assumed Mean) as 50 kg.

Calculate deviations from 50: (40−50), (49−50), (57−50), (76−50), (39−50) → −10, −1, +7, +26, −11.

Net Deviation = −10 − 1 + 7 + 26 − 11 = +11.

Average Deviation = +11 ÷ 5 = +2.2.

Actual Average = Assumed Mean + Average Deviation = 50 + 2.2 = 52.2 kg.

∴ The correct answer is 52.2 kg.

Alternate Method

Given: Weights of five members are 40 kg, 49 kg, 57 kg, 76 kg, and 39 kg.

Formula Used: Average = (Sum of all observations) ÷ (Total number of observations)

Calculations:

⇒ Sum of weights = 40 + 49 + 57 + 76 + 39

⇒ Sum of weights = 261 kg

⇒ Number of members = 5

⇒ Average weight = 261 ÷ 5

⇒ Average weight = 52.2 kg

∴ The correct answer is 52.2 kg.

Additional Information

Average of First n Natural Numbers

The average of the first n natural numbers is calculated as (n + 1) ÷ 2.

Weighted Average

When groups have different sizes, the combined average is (∑n_ix_i) ÷ ∑n_i, where n is the number of items and x is the average of each group.

Change in Average

If every observation is increased or decreased by a constant 'k', the new average also increases or decreases by 'k'.

Shortcut Trick

Total Simple Interest percentage for 2 years = 20% × 2 = 40%.

According to the question, 40% of the Principal = ₹1680.

1% of the Principal = 1680 ÷ 40 = 42.

100% (Total Sum) = 42 × 100 = ₹4200.

∴ The correct answer is ₹4200.

Alternate Method

Given Data:

Simple Interest (SI) = ₹1680

Time (T) = 2 years

Rate of Interest (R) = 20% per annum

Formula Used:

Principal (P) = (SI × 100) ÷ (R × T)

Calculation:

⇒ P = (1680 × 100) ÷ (20 × 2)

⇒ P = 168000 ÷ 40

⇒ P = 16800 ÷ 4

⇒ P = 4200

∴ The correct answer is ₹4200.

Additional Information

Amount in Simple Interest

The total amount (A) is the sum of the Principal and the Simple Interest. Formula: A = P + SI = P(1 + RT/100).

SI vs CI for 2 Years

The difference between Compound Interest and Simple Interest for 2 years is given by the formula: Diff = P(R/100)².

Rate of Interest

The Rate of interest is the percentage of the principal charged as interest for a specific period, usually a year (per annum).

Shortcut Trick

Net filling time = (x × y) ÷ (y − x), where x = filling time and y = emptying time.

Net time = (12 × 18) ÷ (18 − 12)

Net time = 216 ÷ 6 = 36 hr

∴ The correct answer is 36 hr.

Alternate Method

Given: Filling pipe time = 12 hr, Emptying pipe time = 18 hr

To find the total capacity, we take the LCM of 12 and 18.

⇒ Total capacity of the tank = LCM(12, 18) = 36 units.

⇒ Net Efficiency when both pipes are open = 3 + (−2) = 1 unit/hr

⇒ Time taken to fill the tank = Total Work ÷ Net Efficiency

⇒ Time = 36 ÷ 1 = 36 hr

∴ The correct answer is 36 hr.

Additional Information

Inlet and Outlet Pipes

An inlet pipe fills the tank (positive work), while an outlet pipe empties the tank (negative work).

Combined Rate Formula

If pipe A fills in 'a' hours and pipe B empties in 'b' hours (where a), the tank is filled in (a × b) ÷ (b − a) hours.

Pipes and Cisterns Basics

Efficiency is inversely proportional to time: Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time.

Shortcut Trick

First, simplify the LHS: √(1 + 29/196) = √(225/196) = 15/14.

Now, write 15/14 as a mixed fraction: 1 + 1/14.

By comparing 1 + 1/14 with the RHS (1 + x/14), we directly see that x = 1.

∴ The correct answer is 1.

Alternate Method

Given: √(1 + 29/196) = 1 + x/14

Formula Used: √(a/b) = √a / √b and basic algebraic simplification.

⇒ √((196 + 29) / 196) = 1 + x/14

⇒ √(225 / 196) = 1 + x/14

⇒ 15 / 14 = (14 + x) / 14

⇒ 15 = 14 + x

⇒ x = 15 − 14

⇒ x = 1

∴ The correct answer is 1.

Additional Information

Square Root of Fractions

The square root of a fraction is calculated by taking the square root of the numerator and denominator separately: √(a/b) = √a / √b.

Important Squares

Memorizing squares like 14² = 196 and 15² = 225 is essential for solving simplification problems in competitive exams.

BODMAS in Algebra

Always prioritize operations inside a radical sign or bracket before performing addition or subtraction outside it.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of goods: 36% : (25% of 64%) : (Rest) → 36 : 16 : 48 → 9 : 4 : 12 (Total units = 25).

Apply Weighted Average: Overall % = (9 × 36% + 4 × 11% − 12 × 14%) ÷ 25

Overall % = (324 + 44 − 168) ÷ 25 = 200 ÷ 25 = 8%

The value of x is the magnitude of the overall profit percentage.

∴ The correct answer is 8.

Alternate Method

Given:

First part of goods = 36%

Second part = 25% of (100% − 36%) = 25% of 64% = 16%

Third part (Rest) = 100% − 36% − 16% = 48%

Let the total cost price (CP) of the goods be ₹100.

⇒ CP of first part = ₹36; Profit₁ = 36% of 36 = 12.96

⇒ CP of second part = ₹16; Profit₂ = 11% of 16 = 1.76

⇒ CP of third part = ₹48; Loss₃ = 14% of 48 = 6.72

⇒ Total Net Profit = 12.96 + 1.76 − 6.72

⇒ Total Net Profit = 14.72 − 6.72 = ₹8

⇒ Overall Profit % = (Total Profit ÷ Total CP) × 100

⇒ Overall Profit % = (8 ÷ 100) × 100 = 8%

⇒ x = 8

∴ The correct answer is 8.

Additional Information

Weighted Average Profit

When different parts of goods are sold at different profit/loss rates, the overall profit % = (w₁p₁ + w₂p₂ + ... + w_np_n) ÷ (w₁ + w₂ + ... + w_n), where w is the weight/quantity and p is the profit rate.

Profit and Loss Basics

Profit = SP − CP; Profit % = (Profit/CP) × 100. Always remember that profit and loss percentages are calculated on the Cost Price (CP) unless stated otherwise.

Successive Percentage Application

If the remaining quantity is mentioned, multiply the percentages sequentially: Remaining = Total × (1 − first fraction).

Given:

Formula Used:

Percentage Decline = [(Previous Year Value − Current Year Value) ÷ Previous Year Value] × 100

Calculation:

We need to identify the years where there was a decline in tourist arrivals and calculate the Percentage Decline for both USA and Canada.

For USA:

Decline occurred only in 2020 (relative to 2019).

⇒ Percentage Decline in 2020 = [(15.12 − 3.94) ÷ 15.12] × 100

⇒ Percentage Decline in 2020 = [11.18 ÷ 15.12] × 100 ≈ 73.94%

For Canada:

Decline occurred in 2020 and 2021.

1. Percentage Decline in 2020 (relative to 2019):

⇒ Percentage Decline = [(3.51 − 1.22) ÷ 3.51] × 100

⇒ Percentage Decline = [2.29 ÷ 3.51] × 100 ≈ 65.24%

2. Percentage Decline in 2021 (relative to 2020):

⇒ Percentage Decline = [(1.22 − 0.80) ÷ 1.22] × 100

⇒ Percentage Decline = [0.42 ÷ 1.22] × 100 ≈ 34.43%

Comparing the calculated percentage declines:

⇒ USA (2020): 73.94%

⇒ Canada (2020): 65.24%

⇒ Canada (2021): 34.43%

The maximum percentage decline is 73.94%, which occurred for the USA in the year 2020.

∴ The correct answer is USA, 2020.

Shortcut Trick

Rise in water level (h) = (Speed of flow × Time × r²) ÷ R²

Speed = 5 m/s = 500 cm/s | Time = 26 × 60 = 1560 s

Pipe radius (r) = 1 cm | Tank radius (R) = 100 cm

h = (500 × 1560 × 1²) ÷ 100² ⇒ 780000 ÷ 10000 = 78 cm

∴ The correct answer is 78 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Internal diameter of pipe = 2 cm ⇒ Radius (r) = 1 cm

Speed of water = 5 m/sec = 500 cm/sec

Radius of cylindrical tank (R) = 100 cm

Time (t) = 26 min = 26 × 60 = 1560 seconds

Formula Used:

Volume of cylinder = πR²h

Volume of water flowing through pipe = Area of cross-section × Speed × Time

Calculations:

⇒ Volume of water from pipe = π × r² × Speed × t

⇒ Volume = π × (1)² × 500 × 1560 cm³

⇒ Let the rise in water level in the tank be h cm.

⇒ Volume of water in the tank = π × R² × h

⇒ Volume = π × (100)² × h

⇒ Equating both volumes:

⇒ π × 10000 × h = π × 1 × 500 × 1560

⇒ 10000 × h = 780000

⇒ h = 780000 ÷ 10000

⇒ h = 78 cm

∴ The correct answer is 78 cm.

Additional Information

Volume of Cylinder

The volume of a cylinder with radius R and height h is given by V = πR²h.

Flow Rate Principle

The volume of liquid flowing through a pipe per unit time is the Area of Cross-section × Velocity of the liquid.

Unit Conversion

Always ensure all dimensions (radius, speed, time) are in the same system of units (e.g., all in cm and seconds) before calculation. 1 m = 100 cm.

Shortcut Trick

Rate for Year 1 (R₁) = 4% and Rate for Year 2 (R₂) = 4 + 4 = 8%.

Effective interest rate for 2 years = R₁ + R₂ + (R₁ × R₂)/100

Effective Rate = 4 + 8 + (4 × 8)/100 = 12 + 0.32 = 12.32%

Compound Interest = 12.32% of ₹57,500 = 57,500 × 0.1232 = ₹7,084

∴ The correct answer is ₹7,084.

Alternate Method

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹57,500

Time (n) = 2 years

First year rate (R₁) = 4%

Second year rate (R₂) = 4% + 4% = 8%

Formula Used:

Amount (A) = P × (1 + R₁/100) × (1 + R₂/100)

Compound Interest (CI) = Amount − Principal

Calculations:

⇒ A = 57,500 × (1 + 4/100) × (1 + 8/100)

⇒ A = 57,500 × (104/100) × (108/100)

⇒ A = 57,500 × 1.04 × 1.08

⇒ A = 57,500 × 1.1232

⇒ A = ₹64,584

⇒ CI = 64,584 − 57,500

⇒ CI = ₹7,084

∴ The correct answer is ₹7,084.

Additional Information

Compound Interest with Variable Rates

When the rate of interest changes every year, the amount is calculated as A = P(1 + r₁/100)(1 + r₂/100)...(1 + r_n/100).

Effective Rate Method

For two years with rates x% and y%, the total effective interest rate is (x + y + xy/100)%.

Difference between SI and CI

The difference between CI and SI for 2 years is P(R/100)² when the rate is constant.

Shortcut Trick

Assume Total Capacity of the tank = LCM of 6 and 24 = 24 units.

Efficiency of filling pipe = 24 ÷ 6 = 4 units/hr.

Efficiency of emptying pipe = 24 ÷ 24 = 1 unit/hr.

Combined Efficiency (when both open) = 4 − 1 = 3 units/hr.

Total Time required = Total Capacity ÷ Combined Efficiency = 24 ÷ 3 = 8 hr.

∴ The correct answer is 8 hr.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by Filling Pipe = 6 hr

Time taken by Emptying Pipe = 24 hr

Formula Used:

If a pipe can fill a tank in x hours and another can empty it in y hours, the net work done in 1 hour = (1/x) − (1/y).

⇒ Total Capacity of the tank = LCM(6, 24) = 24 units

⇒ Rate of filling = 24 ÷ 6 = 4 units/hr

⇒ Rate of emptying = 24 ÷ 24 = 1 unit/hr

⇒ Net rate when both pipes are open = 4 − 1 = 3 units/hr

⇒ Time to fill the tank = 24 ÷ 3 = 8 hr

∴ The correct answer is 8 hr.

Additional Information

Net Filling Time Formula

For a filling pipe (x) and an emptying pipe (y), the time taken is (x × y) ÷ (y − x). Here, (6 × 24) ÷ (24 − 6) = 144 ÷ 18 = 8 hr.

Inlet and Outlet Pipes

An Inlet pipe performs positive work, while an Outlet pipe performs negative work in terms of tank volume.

Efficiency and Time Relation

Efficiency is the reciprocal of the time taken to complete the work. Efficiency = 1 ÷ Time.

Shortcut Trick

For the proportion a : b :: c : x, the product of extremes equals the product of means.

Formula: x = (b × c) ÷ a

Given: a = 18, b = 30, c = 30

x = (30 × 30) ÷ 18 = 900 ÷ 18 = 50

∴ The correct answer is 50.

Alternate Method

Given: The terms are in proportion 18 : 30 :: 30 : x.

Formula Used: If four quantities are in proportion (a : b :: c : d), then a/b = c/d.

⇒ 18 / 30 = 30 / x

⇒ 18 × x = 30 × 30

⇒ 18x = 900

⇒ x = 900 ÷ 18

⇒ x = 50

∴ The correct answer is 50.

Additional Information

Mean Proportional

The mean proportional between two numbers a and b is √(a × b).

Third Proportional

If a : b :: b : c, then c is called the third proportional to a and b, where c = b² ÷ a.

Fourth Proportional

If a : b :: c : d, then d is called the fourth proportional, calculated as d = (b × c) ÷ a.

Continued Proportion

Three numbers a, b, and c are in continued proportion if a/b = b/c.

Shortcut Trick

Convert Speed from km/hr to m/min directly.

Speed = 69 × (1000 ÷ 60) = 69 × (50 ÷ 3) = 1150 m/min.

Time = Distance ÷ Speed = 4600 ÷ 1150 = 4 min.

∴ The correct answer is 4 min.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed (S) = 69 km/hr

Distance (D) = 4600 m = 4.6 km

Formula Used:

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Calculations:

⇒ Time in hours = 4.6 ÷ 69

⇒ Time in hours = 46 ÷ 690 = 1 ÷ 15 hours

⇒ To convert hours to minutes, multiply by 60:

⇒ Time = (1 ÷ 15) × 60

⇒ Time = 4 min

∴ The correct answer is 4 min.

Additional Information

Unit Conversion for Speed

To convert km/hr to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert km/hr to m/min, multiply by 50/3.

Basic Relation

Speed = Distance ÷ Time | Distance = Speed × Time | Time = Distance ÷ Speed.

Average Speed

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time. For two equal distances at speeds x and y, Average Speed = 2xy ÷ (x + y).

The correct answer is 'in'.

 

Key Points

• The word interested is an adjective that is typically followed by the fixed preposition in.
• The phrase interested in means having a desire to know or learn about a particular subject, activity, or person.
• In the given sentence, the subject is expressing a curiosity or passion for learning foreign languages and cultures, making in the grammatically correct choice.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: "She is deeply interested in learning foreign languages and cultures."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: about is incorrect because interested does not collocate with about (though one can be 'curious about' something).
• Option 2: at is incorrect as it is used for skills or locations (e.g., 'good at', 'staying at').
• Option 4: for is incorrect because it is used to indicate purpose or duration (e.g., 'waiting for'), not interest.

The correct answer is: praise.

Key Points

• The word 'belittle' means to make a person or an action seem as if they are not important or not worth much. (छोटा समझना/कम आंकना)
• Example: It is unkind to belittle her efforts when she has worked so hard on the project.
• 'Praise' means to express warm approval, admiration, or commendation for someone's achievements or qualities. (प्रशंसा करना)
• Example: The principal was happy to praise the students for their excellent performance in the exams.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'belittle' is 'praise'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: praise.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Demand (मांग करना): To ask for something forcefully, in a way that shows that you do not expect to be refused.
• Example: The customers demand a full refund for the faulty product.
• Belief (विश्वास): An acceptance that a statement is true or that something exists.
• Example: His belief in honesty guided him throughout his career.
• Insist (आग्रह करना): To state or demand something forcefully, especially in spite of opposition.
• Example: They insist that all visitors must wear a mask inside the building.

The correct answer is Option(1) i.e. turned it around.

Key Points

• The phrase 'successfully improved it despite the odds' means to take a situation, business, or project that was failing and make it successful again through effort. (कठिन परिस्थितियों के बावजूद स्थिति को सुधारना)
• Example: After many failures, the scientist successfully improved the formula and achieved the desired result.
• 'Turned it around' is an idiom that means to cause a situation or organization to change from a state of failure or decline to a state of success and growth. (किसी असफल स्थिति को सफलता में बदलना)
• Example: The new coach turned the team around, leading them to a victory after a long losing streak.
• Hence, we can infer that the correct idiom to replace the underlined phrase is 'turned it around'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- turned it around.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Went the extra mile (अतिरिक्त प्रयास करना): To do more than what is expected or required in order to help someone or achieve something.
• Example: The hotel staff went the extra mile to ensure that our anniversary celebration was perfect.
• Turned the tables (पासा पलट देना): To reverse a situation so that you now have an advantage over someone who previously had an advantage over you.
• Example: She was being bullied, but she turned the tables by reporting the behavior to the principal.
• Burned the midnight oil (देर रात तक कड़ी मेहनत करना): To work or study very late into the night.
• Example: I had to burn the midnight oil for an entire week to prepare for my final exams.

The correct answer is time saves nine.

Key Points

• The underlined segment must be replaced with the standard English proverb 'A stitch in time saves nine' to ensure the sentence is idiomatically correct.
• This proverb emphasizes the principle of preventative maintenance; it suggests that fixing a small tear in a garment immediately with one stitch prevents the hole from growing, which would eventually require nine stitches to repair.
• Historically, this expression was first recorded in Thomas Fuller’s Gnomologia in 1732 and has since become a fundamental aphorism regarding efficiency and proactive problem-solving.
• In the given context, the 'small leak' is the minor issue that requires immediate intervention to avoid a larger, more costly failure, making the phrase 'time saves nine' the only logically and linguistically sound choice.

 Additional Information

• Functions of Proverbs
• Proverbs act as cultural artifacts that transmit communal wisdom and moral values through concise, rhythmic language.
• They often employ metaphors—in this case, sewing—to represent broader life situations involving procrastination and consequence.
• Analysis of Incorrect Phrases
• 'Timely saves mine': This is a nonsensical variation that lacks the necessary rhyming scheme and numerical contrast (1 vs 9) essential to the original idiom.
• 'Time saves the leak': This phrase is contextually contradictory; time does not save a leak, rather, taking action in time stops a leak from worsening.
• 'Morning saves time': While 'morning' implies an early start, it is not part of the established literary canon of English proverbs and fails to complete the stitch metaphor.

The correct answer is: Astronomer.

Key Points

• The phrase 'A person who studies the stars and planets' describes a scientist who observes and interprets celestial phenomena and the physical universe beyond the Earth atmosphere. (सितारों और ग्रहों का अध्ययन करने वाला व्यक्ति)
• Example: Throughout history, any person who studies the stars and planets has helped humanity understand our place in the cosmos.
• 'Astronomer' refers to an expert in the branch of science that deals with celestial objects, space, and the physical universe. (खगोलशास्त्री)
• Example: The astronomer spent years tracking the trajectory of the newly discovered planet.
• Hence, we can infer that the one-word substitute for the given group of words is 'Astronomer'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Astronomer.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Geologist (भूवैज्ञानिक): A scientist who studies the solid, liquid, and gaseous matter that constitutes the Earth and other terrestrial planets.
• Example: The geologist examined the layers of rock to understand the volcanic history of the region.
• Meteorologist (मौसम विज्ञानी): A specialist who uses scientific principles to explain, understand, observe, or forecast the Earth atmospheric phenomena and how the atmosphere affects the Earth and life on the planet.
• Example: According to the meteorologist, there is a high probability of heavy rainfall tomorrow.
• Biologist (जीवविज्ञानी): A scientist who studies life and living organisms, including their physical structure, chemical processes, molecular interactions, physiological mechanisms, development, and evolution.
• Example: The biologist conducted a study on the migration patterns of local bird species.

The correct answer is PQRS.

Key Points

• The fixed segment S1 ends with the preposition of, which necessitates a noun phrase to function as its object. Segment P ('the meeting with the employees,') immediately fulfills this requirement, completing the introductory prepositional phrase that establishes the temporal context. Hence, statement P is correct.
• Following the comma in segment P, the sentence requires an independent clause. Segment Q ('the manager asked a few') introduces the subject ('the manager') and a transitive verb ('asked') in the simple past tense, which sets up the main action. Hence, statement Q is correct.
• The verb 'asked' in segment Q needs an object. Segment R ('of them to leave') completes the partitive phrase 'a few of them' and provides the infinitive complement ('to leave') that defines the specific request made by the manager. Hence, statement R is correct.
• Segment S ('while the rest stayed back for further discussion.') begins with the subordinating conjunction 'while', which is used here to show contrast or simultaneous action between the group that left and the group that remained. Hence, statement S is correct.

 Additional Information

• The sentence follows a logical narrative flow typical of professional or formal communication:
• Prepositional Openers: Starting a sentence with a phrase like 'At the end of' is a common stylistic choice to provide background information before the main clause.
• Verb Patterns: The verb 'ask' often follows the pattern Verb + Object + To-infinitive (e.g., 'asked them to leave'), which is precisely what is formed by segments Q and R.
• Pronoun Antecedents: The pronoun 'them' in segment R refers back to the 'employees' mentioned in segment P, ensuring cohesion within the sentence structure.
• Clausal Balance: The use of the conjunction 'while' creates a balanced structure, allowing the speaker to describe the fate of two different subsets of the original group ('a few' vs 'the rest').

The correct answer is 'effectively'.

 

Key Points

• The sentence defines Digital Literacy as a set of skills required to use digital technology.
• The adverb 'effectively' means in a way that is successful in producing a desired result. (प्रभावी रूप से)
• In the context of literacy or a skill set, one must be able to navigate and use tools successfully and efficiently to be considered literate in that field.
• Therefore, 'effectively' is the most appropriate fit for describing the ability to utilize digital tools.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Complete Sentence: Digital Literacy refers to the ability to effectively navigate, understand and utilise digital tools and information.

Additional Information

• Eventually (अंततः): means in the end, especially after a long delay or series of problems.
• Sarcastically (व्यंग्यात्मक रूप से): means in a way that uses irony to mock or convey contempt.
• Particularly (विशेष रूप से): means to a higher degree than is usual or average; especially.

The correct answer is: reimbursement.

Key Points

• The word 'reimbusment' as used in the original sentence is misspelt. It is intended to refer to the act of paying back money to someone who has spent it for a particular purpose. (प्रतिपूर्ति का अशुद्ध रूप)
• Example: The draft document was sent back for correction because the word 'reimbusment' was written incorrectly.
• 'reimbursement' is the correct spelling of the word, which refers to the compensation or repayment for money already spent or losses incurred. (प्रतिपूर्ति)
• Example: The school offers reimbursement for any supplies the teachers buy for their classrooms.
• Hence, we can infer that the correct spelling to rectify the sentence is 'reimbursement'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: reimbursement.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• companey (कंपनी): This is an incorrect spelling. The correct spelling is company, which refers to a commercial business or organization.
• Example: He has been working for the same company for over twenty years.
• programe (कार्यक्रम): This is an incorrect spelling. The correct spellings are program (American English) or programme (British English).
• Example: The government has launched a new program to improve literacy in rural areas.
• expences (खर्चों): This is an incorrect spelling. The correct spelling is expenses, which refers to the costs required for something or the money spent on something.
• Example: Business expenses such as travel and meals are usually tax-deductible.

The correct answer is 1-D-C-B-A.

Key Points

• The fixed segment 1 ends with the word best, which creates an idiomatic opening for the superlative phrase best known as. Segment D contains the word known and establishes the primary subject of the sentence, which is the status of Mount Everest as the highest mountain globally. Hence, statement D is correct.
• Segment C follows Segment D by using a present participle phrase boasting an impressive elevation. This phrase acts as a modifier for the mountain mentioned in the preceding segment, transitioning the focus from its general reputation to its specific physical attributes. Hence, statement C is correct.
• Segment B provides the quantitative detail for the elevation introduced in Segment C. The preposition of connects the noun to its measurement of 29,000 feet, while the phrase above sea level provides the standard geographical reference point for altitude. Hence, statement B is correct.
• Segment A serves as the concluding resultative clause. By using the phrase making it, it links the massive height described in Segment B to the logical conclusion that the mountain is the tallest peak on Earth, effectively completing the statement. Hence, statement A is correct.

 Additional Information

• Mount Everest:
• It is located in the Mahalangur Himal sub-range of the Himalayas, spanning the international border between Nepal and China.
• The official elevation of Mount Everest was recently revised to 8,848.86 meters (approximately 29,031.7 feet) following a joint survey by both nations in 2020.
• In Nepal, the mountain is known as Sagarmatha, while in Tibet, it is called Chomolungma.
• The peak is named after Sir George Everest, a British Surveyor General of India, despite his initial objections to the honor.
• It is classified as an eight-thousand-meter peak and attracts numerous professional climbers and tourists, contributing significantly to the economy of the Himalayan region.

The correct answer is 'the'.

 

Key Points

• The definite article 'the' is used to refer to a specific or particular noun that is already known to the listener or has been clearly identified.
• In the given sentence, the noun 'projector' is not just any general projector; it is specified by the relative clause 'that we use in the office.'
• Since the identity of the projector is defined and specific, the definite article 'the' is the most appropriate choice.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: "Priyansh fixed the projector that we use in the office."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: 'a' is an indefinite article used for non-specific, singular countable nouns starting with a consonant sound. It does not fit here because the projector is specific.
• Option 4: 'an' is an indefinite article used for non-specific, singular countable nouns starting with a vowel sound. 'Projector' starts with a consonant sound (/p/).
• Option 1: 'no article' is incorrect because singular countable nouns generally require an article when they are being identified.

The correct answer is 'correctly, defensively'.

 

Key Points

• In the given sentence, both blanks require adverbs because they modify the verbs 'answered' and 'reacted' respectively.
• An adverb is a word that modifies a verb, an adjective, or another adverb, typically expressing manner, place, time, or degree.
• The word 'correctly' is the adverb form of the adjective 'correct,' and it describes the manner in which he answered.
• The word 'defensively' is the adverb form of the adjective 'defensive,' and it describes the manner in which he reacted to criticism.
• Since both parts of the sentence describe actions (answering and reacting), the adverb-adverb pair is grammatically necessary.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Complete Sentence: "Although he answered correctly, he reacted defensively to criticism."

 

Additional Information

• Adjectives like 'correct' and 'defensive' are used to modify nouns or pronouns (e.g., 'a correct answer' or 'a defensive player').
• Option 1: Both words are adjectives, which cannot modify the verbs in this context.
• Option 2: 'Correct' is an adjective, while the first blank requires an adverb.
• Option 3: 'Defensive' is an adjective, while the second blank requires an adverb.

The correct answer is: Option (1) i.e. Pacifist.

Key Points

• The phrase 'a person who believes in the total abolition of war' refers to an individual who opposes the use of military force and war as a means of resolving conflicts. (शांतिवादी)
• Example: During the height of the conflict, he remained a committed pacifist, preaching non-violence to all who would listen.
• 'Pacifist' means a person who believes that war and violence are unjustifiable and that all disputes should be settled by peaceful means. (शांतिवादी)
• Example: As a pacifist, she refused to take up arms even when her country was under threat.
• Hence, we can infer that the one-word substitute for the given group of words is 'pacifist'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Pacifist.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Anarchist (अराजकतावादी): A person who believes in or tries to bring about anarchy, typically by seeking to abolish all forms of government.
• Example: The anarchist argued that society would function better without the constraints of centralized authority.
• Fatalist (भाग्यवादी): A person who believes that all events are predetermined by fate and are therefore inevitable.
• Example: Being a fatalist, he didn't worry about the outcome of the surgery, believing it was already decided.
• Narcissist (आत्ममुग्ध): A person who has an excessive interest in or admiration of themselves and their physical appearance.
• Example: The narcissist spent hours in front of the mirror, ignoring the needs of everyone around him.

The correct answer is: admit.

Key Points

• The word deny means to state that one refuses to admit the truth or existence of something; it is the act of declaring something to be untrue. (अस्वीकार करना)
• Example: He will likely deny any involvement in the scandal to protect his reputation.
• admit refers to acknowledging or confessing that something is true, especially when it is embarrassing or difficult to accept; it is the direct antonym of deny. (स्वीकार करना)
• Example: It took a lot of courage for him to admit his mistake in front of the whole team.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of deny is admit.

Therefore, the correct answer is- admit.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• refuse (मना करना): To indicate that one is not willing to do something or to accept something.
• Example: She had to refuse the job offer because the commute was too long.
• overlook (अनदेखा करना): To fail to notice something or to choose to ignore a mistake or fault.
• Example: A good leader should not overlook the small contributions of their employees.
• reject (अस्वीकार करना): To dismiss as inadequate, inappropriate, or not meeting the requirements.
• Example: The committee decided to reject the proposal due to a lack of funding.

The correct answer is 'a'.

 

Key Points

• The phrase 'a few' is an idiomatic quantifier used with plural countable nouns (like groceries) to mean 'some' or 'a small number of'.
• In this context, the speaker expresses a need to buy a small quantity of items for dinner, making the positive quantifier 'a few' necessary.
• Options 1, 2, and 3 are grammatically or contextually incorrect.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Complete Sentence: 'I need to buy a few groceries for dinner.'

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: 'No article required' is incorrect because using 'few' alone conveys a negative meaning (hardly any), which does not fit the context of needing to buy something.
• Option 2: 'an' is used before words that begin with a vowel sound. Since 'few' starts with a consonant sound (/f/), 'an' cannot be used.
• Option 3: 'the' is the definite article used for specific items known to both the speaker and listener. Here, the groceries are not specific or previously mentioned.

The correct answer is: Manoevre.

Key Points

• The word 'Manoevre' is the incorrectly spelled word in the given options as it is missing the letter 'u' in its British English spelling. (गलत वर्तनी)
• Example: He noticed a spelling error in the word 'manoevre' while proofreading the document.
• 'Manoeuvre' (correct spelling) refers to a movement or series of moves requiring skill and care, or a carefully planned scheme. (पैंतरेबाज़ी)
• Example: The pilot had to perform a difficult manoeuvre to avoid the storm clouds.
• Hence, we can infer that the incorrectly spelt word is 'Manoevre'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Manoevre.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Harassment (उत्पीड़न): Subjecting someone to aggressive pressure or intimidation.
• Example: The company has strict policies in place to prevent any form of workplace harassment.
• Connoisseur (विशेषज्ञ/पारखी): An expert judge in matters of taste, especially in fine arts, cuisines, or music.
• Example: As a connoisseur of Italian cuisine, he could distinguish between different regional olive oils.
• Rendezvous (मिलन स्थल): A meeting at an agreed time and place, typically between two people.
• Example: They decided that the local cafe would be their rendezvous point for the afternoon.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The central theme of the passage is a direct comparison between the lives of modern humans and those of their forefathers.
• The author highlights how advancements in science and technology have made contemporary life more comfortable, rational, and longer through better medical facilities.
• Conversely, the passage describes the ancestors' era as one marked by superstition, illiteracy, and restricted movement due to a lack of communication and conveyance.
• Since the passage consistently weighs the advantages of the present against the limitations of the past, the title Modern Life vs. Life of Forefathers best encapsulates the content.

Therefore, the correct answer is Modern Life vs. Life of Forefathers.

 

Additional Information

• Development of Human Civilization – This title is too broad; the passage focuses specifically on the technological and lifestyle shift rather than the entire history of civilization.
• The Progress of Medical Science – This is a sub-point mentioned in the text but does not cover other aspects like transportation, education, and household amenities.
• Comforts of Modern Living – While the passage discusses modern comforts, it primarily uses them as a point of contrast against the hardships faced by previous generations.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• In the passage, the word luxurious is used to describe a life that is highly comfortable, convenient, and filled with modern amenities provided by science.
• An antonym is a word that has the opposite meaning of another word.
• Miserable refers to a state of being wretchedly unhappy, uncomfortable, or living in poor conditions.
• Because luxurious represents a high standard of living and comfort, while miserable represents a lack of it, they are direct antonyms.

Therefore, the correct answer is Miserable.

 

Word Usage in Context: 'Today, with the advancement of science, we are leading a luxurious life and enjoying all the amenities...'

 

Additional Information

• Lavish – This means sumptuously rich, elaborate, or luxurious; it serves as a synonym.
• Elegant – This means graceful and stylish in appearance or manner; it is a related term (synonym) for high quality.
• Extravagant – This means lacking restraint in spending money or using resources; it is also a synonym in terms of high-cost living.

The correct answer is Reflective and appreciative.

Key Points

• The passage is Reflective because the author contemplates the life of our forefathers, contrasting their struggles with the luxurious life enjoyed by the modern generation.
• The tone is Appreciative as the author acknowledges the significant changes brought by the advancement in science and technology, labeling them as a gift of science that makes life worth living.
• The author expresses a positive outlook by highlighting how medical science and hygienic conditions have prevented premature deaths and extended the human life span.
• By mentioning that education has enabled rational thinking and solved life-related problems, the author shows deep gratitude for the amenities and rationality of the contemporary era.
• The conclusion that the man of today is definitely in a better position and far happier reinforces a tone of admiration and satisfaction with modern progress.

 Additional Information

• Doubtful and ironic:
• A doubtful tone expresses uncertainty or lack of conviction, while ironic involves using language that normally signifies the opposite. The passage is direct and certain about the benefits of science, making this option incorrect.
• Humorous and sarcastic:
• Humorous content aims to amuse, and sarcastic tone uses irony to mock or convey contempt. The passage is serious and factual in its comparison, lacking any intent to mock.
• Harsh and judgmental:
• A harsh tone is unpleasantly rough or cruel, often being judgmental by expressing critical opinions. Although the author notes superstition and illiteracy of the past, the overall focus is on the positive evolution of society rather than a condemning critique.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• The overall structure of the passage is Comparative because it systematically draws parallels and contrasts between the lives of modern humans and their forefathers.
• It highlights differences in medical facilities, modes of communication, rational thinking, and general comfort to show how life has evolved over time.
• The passage is also Expository as its primary purpose is to inform and explain the impact of science and technology on human life.
• The author uses factual comparisons to explain why the present generation is in a better position and leads a more luxurious life.

Therefore, the correct answer is Comparative and expository.

 

Additional Information

• Narrative: This structure is used for storytelling, involving characters, a setting, and a plot sequence. The given passage does not follow a story format.
• Descriptive: A descriptive structure focuses on vividly portraying a person, place, or thing using sensory details. While the passage mentions amenities, its core is comparison, not just description.
• Argumentative: This structure seeks to persuade the reader through logic and evidence to accept a particular point of view, often addressing counterclaims. The passage is more of a factual explanation (expository) than a formal debate.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• The passage primarily focuses on the advancement in science and technology and its role in making modern life significantly better than that of our forefathers.
• It highlights that modern man is happier because of improved medical facilities, fast-moving planes, and luxurious amenities like air-conditioners and refrigerators.
• The text also emphasizes the role of education, which has enabled man to think rationally and solve life-related problems more effectively.
• The conclusion drawn is that the man of today is in a better position, enjoying a longer span of life and greater comfort.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: This is incorrect because the passage states that education helps solve problems rationally, but it does not claim that education has completely removed all problems.
• Option 3: This is incorrect as it contradicts the passage, which argues that science has made life comfortable and worth living, not stressful.
• Option 4: This is incorrect because the passage describes the life of forefathers as restricted by superstition, illiteracy, and a lack of communication.

सही उत्तर है - ईमानदार

Key Points

• वह एक ईमानदार नेता है।
• वाक्य में 'ईमानदार' शब्द का प्रयोग 'नेता' (संज्ञा) की विशेषता बताने के लिए किया गया है, जो व्याकरणिक रूप से एक गुणवाचक विशेषण है।
• 'ईमानदार' का अर्थ - जो अपने कर्तव्यों के प्रति सच्चा और निष्ठावान हो; जैसे- लाल बहादुर शास्त्री एक ईमानदार व्यक्ति थे।

Additional Informationगाना-

• अर्थ: स्वर, लय और ताल के साथ शब्दों का उच्चारण करना।
• जैसे - कोयल का मधुर गाना सभी को अच्छा लगता है।

देखना-

• अर्थ: आँखों से किसी वस्तु या दृश्य का अवलोकन करना।
• जैसे - हमें प्रतिदिन सूर्योदय देखना चाहिए।

बोलना-

• अर्थ: मुख से शब्दों का उच्चारण कर अपने विचार व्यक्त करना।
• जैसे - सभा में स्पष्ट बोलना एक कला है।

सही उत्तर है - की

Key Points

• समाजशास्त्र की नवीनतम अवधारणाएँ ग्रामीण समुदायों के व्यवहार को समझने में सहायक हैं।
• प्रस्तुत वाक्य में 'समाजशास्त्र' और 'नवीनतम अवधारणाएँ' के बीच सम्बन्ध स्थापित करने के लिए सम्बन्ध कारक की विभक्ति 'की' का प्रयोग किया गया है।
• 'की' का अर्थ - यह सम्बन्ध कारक का एक चिन्ह है जिसका प्रयोग तब किया जाता है जब सम्बन्धित संज्ञा (यहाँ 'अवधारणाएँ') स्त्रीलिंग हो।

Additional Informationने-

• अर्थ: यह कर्ता कारक की विभक्ति है, जो क्रिया को करने वाले के साथ प्रयुक्त होती है।
• जैसे - विकास ने अपना गृहकार्य समय पर पूरा कर लिया।

से-

• अर्थ: यह करण कारक (साधन) या अपादान कारक (अलगाव) की विभक्ति है।
• जैसे - मजदूर शहर से गाँव की ओर लौट रहे हैं।

में-

• अर्थ: यह अधिकरण कारक की विभक्ति है, जो क्रिया के आधार या स्थान का बोध कराती है।
• जैसे - पुस्तक अलमारी में रखी हुई है।

सही उत्तर है - जल्दीबाजी करने से कोई कार्य नहीं होता है।

Key Points

• 'उकताने से गूलर नहीं पकता है' का अर्थ - किसी भी कार्य को सिद्ध होने में एक निश्चित समय लगता है, केवल व्याकुलता या जल्दीबाजी दिखाने से फल की प्राप्ति नहीं होती है।
• वाक्य प्रयोग - फसल को पकने में समय लगेगा, तुम चाहे जितना शोर मचाओ, पर याद रखो 'उकताने से गूलर नहीं पकता'।
• लोकोक्ति - जब कोई पूरा कथन किसी प्रसंग विशेष में उद्धृत किया जाता है, तो उसे लोकोक्ति या कहावत कहते हैं। यह स्वतंत्र वाक्य के रूप में प्रयुक्त होती है।
• उदाहरण - 'हथेली पर सरसों नहीं जमती' का अर्थ - प्रत्येक कार्य पूर्ण होने में समय लेता है। वाक्य प्रयोग - रातों-रात अमीर बनने का सपना मत देखो, क्योंक�� 'हथेली पर सरसों नहीं जमती'।

अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Information

‘अवसर के अनुरूप बदल जाने वाला’ वाक्यांश के लिए सार्थक शब्द है - अवसरवादी।

Key Points

• ‘अवसर के अनुरूप बदल जाने वाला’ वाक्यांश के लिए सही सार्थक शब्द ‘अवसरवादी’ है।
• ‘अवसरवादी’ का अर्थ होता है — वह व्यक्ति जो अपने स्वार्थ की सिद्धि के लिए किसी भी स्थिति या अवसर का लाभ उठाने हेतु अपनी विचारधारा या पक्ष को बदल लेता है।
• जब किसी विस्तृत वाक्यांश या विचार को एक शब्द में व्यक्त किया जाता है, तो उसे ‘वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द’ या ‘अनेक शब्दों के लिए एक शब्द’ कहते हैं।
• इससे भाषा संक्षिप्��, प्रभावशाली और सटीक बनती है।

अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Information

कुछ महत्वपूर्ण वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द -

सही उत्तर है - बिना सिद्धांत का आदमी

Key Points

• 'थाली का बैंगन' मुहावरे का सही अर्थ बिना सिद्धांत का आदमी होता है।
• इसका प्रयोग ऐसे व्यक्ति के लिए किया जाता है जिसका विचार या पक्ष स्थिर नहीं रहता और वह अपनी सुविधानुसार बदलता रहता है।
• वाक्य प्रयोग - उस नेता का कोई भरोसा नहीं किया जा सकता, वह तो 'थाली का बैंगन' है।
• मुहावरा - मुहावरा एक ऐसा वाक्यांश है जो अपने साधारण अर्थ को छोड़कर किसी विशेष और विलक्षण अर्थ को व्यक्त करता है।
• उदाहरण - 'अपने पैरों पर खड़ा होना' का अर्थ - स्वावलंबी होना। वाक्य प्रयोग - प्रत्येक युवक को विवाह से पूर्व 'अपने पैरों पर खड़ा' होना चाहिए।

अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Information

'अधिक दौड़ो' वाक्य में उपयुक्त परिमाणवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण शब्द है: अधिक

Key Points

• 'अधिक दौड़ो' वाक्य में 'अधिक' शब्द परिमाणवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण है। यह 'दौड़ना' क्रिया की मात्रा या परिमाण का बोध करा रहा है।
• जिन अविकारी शब्दों से क्रिया के परिमाण, नाप-तोल या मात्रा का ज्ञान होता है, उन्हें परिमाणवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण कहते हैं।
• जैसे- कम, पर्याप्त, काफी, थोड़ा, बहुत, तनिक, जरा, इतना, उतना, कितना, जितना, भारी, केवल आदि।
• उदाहरण - रमेश कम बोलता है।

Important Pointsअर्थ के आधार पर क्रिया-विशेषण के भेद-

• स्थानवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण
• कालवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण
• परिमाणवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण
• रीतिवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण

Additional Information

‘रंगमंच के पर्दे के पीछे का स्थान’ वाक्यांश के लिए सार्थक शब्द है - नेपथ्य।

Key Points

• ‘रंगमंच के पर्दे के पीछे का स्थान’ वाक्यांश के लिए सही एक शब्द ‘नेपथ्य’ है।
• ‘नेपथ्य’ वह गुप्त स्थान होता है जहाँ कलाकार अभिनय से पूर्व अपनी वेशभूषा और साज-सज्जा करते हैं।
• जब किसी विस्तृत कथन या भाव को व्यक्त करने के लिए एक प्रभावशाली संक्षिप्त शब्द का प्रयोग किया जाता है, तो उसे ‘वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द’ कहा जाता है।
• यह शब्द भाषा में संक्षिप्तता, स्पष्टता और सुंदरता लाने में सहायक होते हैं।

अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Information

कुछ महत्वपूर्ण वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द -

सही उत्तर है- के लिए

Key Points

• दिए गए वाक्य 'माँ ने मोहन के लिए खीर बनायी है' में 'के लिए' सही कारक चिह्न है क्योंकि यहाँ कार्य किसी अन्य (मोहन) के लाभ के लिए किया जा रहा है।
• वाक्य में जिस संज्ञा या सर्वनाम के लिए कुछ किया जाए या जिसे कुछ दिया जाए, वहाँ संप्रदान कारक होता है। इसका मुख्य विभक्ति चिह्न 'के लिए' है।
• उदाहरण 1: पिताजी बालकों के लिए फल लाए।
• उदाहरण 2: वह पढ़ने के लिए शहर गया।

अन्य विकल्प -

Important Points 
 कारक के भेद-

1. कर्ता कारक (ने)
2. कर्म कारक (को)
3. करण कारक (से, के द्वारा)
4. संप्रदान कारक (के लिए, को)
5. अपादान कारक (से - अलग होने में)
6. संबंध कारक (का, के, की)
7. अधिकरण कारक (में, पर)
8. संबोधन कारक (हे, अरे)

Additional Information

सही उत्तर है - अयोग्य व्यक्ति के पास स्तरीय वस्तु का होना

Key Points

• 'छछूंदर के सिर चमेली का तेल' लोकोक्ति का अर्थ - किसी अयोग्य व्यक्ति को बहुत मूल्यवान अथवा श्रेष्ठ वस्तु प्राप्त हो जाना।
• वाक्य प्रयोग - अनपढ़ रामू का विवाह एक उच्च शिक्षित कन्या से हो गया, इसे कहते हैं 'छछूंदर के सिर चमेली का तेल'।
• लोकोक्ति - लोकोक्ति का अर्थ है 'लोक में प्रचलित उक्ति'। जब कोई पूरा कथन किसी प्रसंग विशेष में उद्धृत किया जाता है, तो उसे लोकोक्ति कहते हैं। इसे 'कहावत' भी कहा जाता है।
• उदाहरण - 'अधजल गगरी छलकत जाए' का अर्थ - ओछा या कम गुण वाला व्यक्ति बहुत दिखावा करता है। वाक्य प्रयोग - सुरेश को थोड़ा सा ज्ञान क्या हुआ, वह तो सबको उपदेश देने लगा; सच है 'अधजल गगरी छलकत जाए'।

अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Information

सही उत्तर है: कटुभाषी

Key Points

• 'मृदुभाषी' शब्द का समानार्थी शब्द 'मधुरभाषी' है।
• 'मृदुभाषी' शब्द का सही विलोम शब्द 'कटुभाषी' होगा।
• 'मृदुभाषी' शब्द का अर्थ है — मीठी या कोमल वाणी बोलने वाला।
• 'कटुभाषी' शब्द का अर्थ — कड़वी या अप्रिय वाणी बोलने वाला।
• विलोम - जो शब्द किसी एक शब्द के विपरीत अर्थ का बोध कराते हैं, उन्हें विलोम या विपरीतार्थक शब्द कहा जाता है।

अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Information कुछ अन्य महत्वपूर्ण विलोम शब्द -