DSSSB PA Grade II Official Paper (Held on:26 Feb 2022 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

The logic in the given series is:

It is clear from the arrangement that each first letter is increased by +5 and each second letter is increased by +7.

And, Sum of positional values of each letter + 10 = Given Number.

Therefore the correct arrangement will be:

Hence, the correct answer is "GI28".

The arrangement of all the given words in the order in which they appear in an English dictionary is as shown below:

The two letters D and O are common in all words, so we will start arranging the word from third letter as per alphabetical order.

5. DOCILE
6. DOCTOR
7. DOLLAR
8. DOMAIN
9. DOUBLE

Hence, the correct answer is "53124​".

According to given information:

Thus, 'makes' is coded as "9".

Hence, the correct answer is "9".

The logic followed here is:

1^st word is "a person who designs the product" and 2^nd word is "the product".

Engineer : Bridge → Engineer designs the Bridge.

Similarly,

Carpenter : Chair → Carpenter designs the Chair**.**

Hence, the correct answer is "Carpenter : Chair".

Mistake Points Note:- In option(3) Shoes : Cobbler → Shoes is "the product" and Cobbler is "a person who designs the product" but it is in reverse order.

Marks of 6 students G, H, K, L, M and N are compared.

Now check all the given statements:

 

Hence, “Both I and II” is the correct answer.

Statement : Pointing to a boy Shweta said "He is the only son of my father's wife's sister".

Here, the boy is the only son of my (Shweta) father's wife sister i.e. Shweta's mother's sister means Shweta's maternal aunt which means Shweta will be the cousin of the boy.

The final arrangement will be -

<br>

Therefore, Shweta is the cousin of the boy.

Hence, the correct answer is "Cousin".

Given:

Six boys A, F, J, P, T and W are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre

1. P is second to the right of T.

2. J is the immediate neighbour of A and T.

3. W is to the immediate left of A.

Only F is left so final sitting arrangment is:

Now, check all the options:

Option (1): PT → P is the second to the right of T. 

Option (2): JA → J is the immediate to the right of A. 

Option (3): WF → W is the second to the right of F. 

Option (4): AP → A is the second to the right of P. 

Hence,  "JA" pair doesn't belong to that group.

The pattern followed here is:

1. VXAEJ

2. OQTXC

3. UWZDI

4. EGJMT

Therefore it does not follow the same logic that is being followed by the other options thus this is the odd letter series.

Hence, the correct answer is "EGJMT".

The logic followed here is:

'POSITIVE' is written as 'KHJXOBMT'

• The series follows a repeated pattern of -5, -7, -9, and -11.

'FOUNTAIN' will be written as,

Hence, the correct answer is "AHLCOTZC".

The logic followed here is:

• All the objects are ornaments that a human wears, except orange.
• It is a fruit or a color.

​Hence, the correct answer is "Orange"

The logic followed here is:

ACEF

EGIK

FHJL

BDFH

All follow the same pattern, except ACEF.

Hence, the correct answer is "ACEF"

The logic followed here is:

• The series is increased by n where n = 3,8,13, 18.
• As we can see the n is increasing by +5.
• So the following number will be +23.

​Hence, the correct answer is "XU".

According to the given information,

• Only 4 persons are sitting between I and A.
• There are 2 possibilities for this.

• Only A, B, D, C, and E are sitting towards the left of H.
• So 2nd case gets eliminated.
• E is the immediate neighbor of C and H.

• F is sitting at one of the end.
• So G sits between I and F.

​There are 2 possibilities for the final arrangement.

Conclusions - 

I. B is not the immediate neighbor of C - False (There is a possibility that B is a neighbor of C)

II. Either 3 or 1 person will sit between E and B - True 

III. 5 persons are sitting between H and A - False ( 4 persons are sitting between A and H)

Hence, the correct answer is "Only II".

The logic followed here is:

PMARV: RKCPX

Similarly, 

Only VTLRQ: XRNPS follows the same relation as above.

Hence, the correct answer is "VTLRQ: XRNPS".

The logic followed here is:

LMTV: MNUW 

Similarly, 

ZBDR is related to,

Hence, the correct answer is "ACES".

According to the given information,

• Two Tyres are kept between T5 and T3.

• T8 is kept just above T3
• There is no Tyre above T8.
• Thus, the second statement gets eliminated.

• Two Tyres are kept between T5 and T2.
• ​It is already mentioned that no Tyre is above T8. So, there should be two Tyres between T5 and T2 such that there are three Tyres below T5.
• T1 and T4 are kept below T7.
• Tyre having even number smaller than 6 is kept between T3 and T5.
• This means T6 cannot be placed between T3 and T5.
• Places of Tyres T6 and T1 are not defined. Thus, the final arrangement has 2 possibilities.

​

All options satisfy the final arrangement except option 1.

Hence, the correct answer is "T1 can be just below T4".

The least possible diagram is as follows:

Conclusions:

I. Some blue are not red. - True (From the figure we can clearly see that some part of Blue intersects with cars will not intersect with Red).

II. Some car are not red.- True (From the figure we can clearly see that no part of car intersects with red).

​Hence, the correct answer is "Both conclusion I and Il follows".

The least possible diagram is as follows

Conclusions:

I. No M is F. - False (There is no direct relation between M and F. But it may be possible).

 

II. Some M are Q. - True (From the figure we can clearly see that some part of M intersects with Q).

​Hence, the correct answer is "Only conclusion II follows".

The logic followed here is:

 'RIGEL' is written as 'RKMOX'

The opposite letters are written by adding 6 in the initial letters.

'DICOT' will be written as,

Hence, the correct answer is "ZUIOJ"

According to the given information:

From the above image, we can conclude that,

So, the code for "lovely was" is ei sf.

Hence, the correct answer is "ei sf".

The logic followed here is:

• Diagonal dark figure are same.
• Upper left side and lower right side figure are same.

​Option (1): 

 → Follow both logics.

Option (2): 

 → Follow both logics.

Option (3): 

 → Not follow the logic the diagonal dark figure are not same.

Option (4): 

 → Follow both logics.

Hence, "option (3)" is the odd figure.

The logic here is :

Two different shaped figures in the square. 

1. 

 Two Different Shaped Figures in the square.

2. 

Two Same Shaped Figure and second is mirror image of one

3. 

Two Different Shaped Figures in the square.

4. 

Two Different Shaped Figures in the square.

So, all options follow the same logic except option 2.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Statements:

I. All F are A.

II. Some Z are A.

The least possible diagram for the given statements is as follows

Conclusions:

I. No Z is F → False (because no direct relationship is given between Z and F so it may be possible but not definite)

II. Some A are Z → True (because some Z are A, so some A are also Z)

Ill. Some F are Z → False (because no direct relationship is given between Z and F so it may be possible but not definite)

Hence, “Only conclusion II follows".

Given:

I. Total number of boys are 37 → True

The shaded part represents the total number of boys.

 

The total number of boys  = 14 + 6 + 14 + 3 = 37

II. Number of teachers who are only boys are 0 → Ture

The shaded part represents the number of teachers who are boys.

 

But this shaded part also represents the students

So, the number of teachers who are only boys = 0

Note:- Both statements are correct but the question is asking not correct statements so the answer is "Neither I nor II"

Hence, 'Neither I nor II’ option is the correct answer**.**

The figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series is shown below:

• The dark circle rotates one step in anticlockwise direction.
• The light circle rotates one step in clockwise direction.

Final series is:

Hence, ‘option 3’ is the correct answer.

The image obtained when the paper is unfolded is,

Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

Confusion PointsIn option 2, the middle figure is not a rhombus, so it is not the correct answer.

In option 3, the lower right figure is not a rhombus, so it is not the correct answer.

In option 4, the upper right figure is not a rhombus, so it is not the correct answer.

The number of triangles in the given figure is:

 

So, there are a total of 8 triangles in the figure.

Hence, ‘8’ is the correct answer.

The shaded part represents the number of clothes are vegetables.

 

The number of clothes are vegetables  = 9 + 8 + 3 = 20

Hence, ‘20’ is the correct answer.

Confusion Points

• The question asks about the number of clothes who are vegetables, not about the number of clothes who are only vegetables.
• So, The clothes who are both vegetables and fruits are also included.

The shaded part represents the number of bike are tyre.

 

The number of bike are tyre  = 2 + 3 = 5

Hence, ‘5’ is the correct answer.

Confusion PointsThe question asks about the number of bike who are tyre, not about the number of bike who are only tyre.

So, The bikes who are both Yellow and Tyre are also included.

The Venn diagrams best represent the relationship between - 

     ♦   Pen, Pencil, Sharpener figures are shown below:

Pen, Pencil and sharpener are stationary but different types.

Hence, ‘option 2’ is the correct answer.

Decoding the information, 

Option 1 : 6 - 8 + 24 > 16 ÷ 86 + 76 - 38

After replacing the signs from left to right and using the BODMAS rule,

6 × 8 ÷ 24 > 16 + 86 ÷ 76 × 38

6 × 0.34 > 16 + 1.13 × 38

2 > 16 + 43

2 > 59 (Not possible)

Option 2 : 18 - 7 × 16 < 8 ÷ 76 + 19 × 11

After replacing the signs from left to right and using the BODMAS rule,

18 × 7 – 16 < 8 + 76 ÷ 19 – 11

18 × 7 – 16 < 8 + 4 – 11

126 – 16 < 8 + 4 – 11

126 – 16 < 12 – 11

110 < 1**(Not possible)**

Option 3 : 18 ÷ 96 + 8 × 11 < 7 - 96 + 6

After replacing the signs from left to right and using the BODMAS rule,

18 + 96 ÷ 8 - 11 < 7 × 96 ÷ 6

18 + 12 - 11 < 7 × 16

18 + 12 – 11 < 112

30 – 11 < 112

19 < 112 (Ture)

Option 4 : 55 + 11 ÷ 3 - 2 < 3 × 9 - 2

After replacing the signs from left to right and using the BODMAS rule,

55 ÷ 11 + 3 × 2 < 3 - 9 × 2

5 + 3 × 2 < 3 - 9 × 2

5 + 6 < 3 - 18

11 < - 15 (Not possible)

Hence, the correct answer is “18 ÷ 96 + 8 × 11 < 7 - 96 + 6”.

The number of quadrilaterals in the given figure is:

 

So, there are a total of 12 quadrilaterals in the figure.

Hence, ‘12’ is the correct answer.

Given:

I. Number of square which are only rectangle are 0 → True

The shaded part represents the number of square which are rectangle.

 

But Pentagon is also represented.

So the number of square which are only rectangle are 0.

II. Number of pentagon which are neither square and nor rectangle are 9 → False

The shaded part represents the numbers pentagon which are neither square and nor rectangle.

 

The numbers pentagon which are neither square and nor rectangle are = 9 + 5 = 14

Hence, 'Only II’ statement is not correct.

Logic: If two dice have the same face value in the given image then their clockwise or anticlockwise wise number are known as opposite numbers in dice.

       ♦  If we rotate the first dice in a anticlockwise direction.

We get,

In first dice and second dice.

The number '7' is common.

      ♦  The left letter will be opposite to each other writing them clockwise starting from 7.

The face opposite to the 8 is “6”.

       ♦  If we rotate the second dice in a anticlockwise direction.

We get,

In second dice and third dice.

The number '2' is common.

      ♦  The left letter will be opposite to each other writing them clockwise starting from 2.

The face opposite to the A is “7”.

Hence, "7, 6" will come opposite to face containing 'A' and '8' respectively.

Statements:

I. No T is V.

II. All M are K.

III. No V is K.

The least possible diagram for the given statements is as follows

Conclusions:

I. Some M are not V → True (Because No V is K and all M are K so definitely some M are not V)

II. Some V are not K → True (Because no V is K so definitely some V are not K)

III. Some T are not M → False (Because direct relationship between T and M is not given so it may be possible but not definite)

Hence, “Both conclusion I and II follows".

Let,

R = “+”

The logic follows here,

Sum of all number × 3 = RHS

Given:

• 27 R 18 R 8 = 159

Putting “+” in the place of R and apply logic,

Sum of all number × 3

(27 + 18 + 8) × 3 = 53 × 3 = 159 = RHS

And

• 64 R 12 R 11 = 261

Putting “+” in the place of R and apply logic,

Sum of all number × 3

(64 + 12 + 11) × 3 = 87 × 3 = 261 = RHS

Similarly,

• 39 R 4 R 14 =?

Putting “+” in the place of R and apply logic,

The sum of all number × 3

(39 + 4 + 14) × 3 = 57 × 3 = 171 = RHS

Hence, “171” is the correct answer.

Here the pattern followed in each column is:

1st number + 2nd number + 3rd number = 4th number

Column 1: 13, 6, 2, 21

= 13 + 6 + 2

= 21 = 2nd number

Column 2: 11, 5, 9, 25

= 11 + 5 + 9

= 25 = 2nd number

Similarly,

Column 3: 8, 4, 3, ?

= 8 + 4 + 3

= 15 = 2nd number

Hence, “15” is the correct answer.

Statements:

I. Some C are F.

II. All J are G.

Ill. Some J are C.

The least possible diagram for the given statements is as follows

Conclusions:

I. Some C are G → True (because some J are C and all J are G so some C are also G)

II. No J is F → False (because no direct relationship is given between J and F so it may be possible but not defined)

III. Some F are G → False (because no direct relationship is given between F and G so it may be possible but not defined)

Hence, “Only conclusion I follows".

The logic followed here is:

• Inside and outside figures increase on one side and become a new shape.

Similarly, 

• Inside and outside figures increase on one side and become a new shape.

 

Hence "Option (1)" is the correct answer.

Decoding the information, 

Option 1 : 8Q76R19P11 < 95R19Q27

After replacing the signs from left to right and using the BODMAS rule,

8 + 76 ÷ 19 - 11 < 95 ÷ 19 + 27

8 + 4 - 11 < 5 + 27

12 – 11 < 32

1 < 32 (True)

Option 2 : 88R11P4S2 > 9S2Q93

After replacing the signs from left to right and using the BODMAS rule,

88 ÷ 11 – 4 × 2 > 9 × 2 + 93

8 – 4 × 2 > 9 × 2 + 93

8 – 8 > 111

0 > 111 (Not possible)

Option 3 : 18Q45R36S72 > 95R19Q41

After replacing the signs from left to right and using the BODMAS rule,

18 + 45 ÷ 36 × 72 > 95 ÷ 19 + 41

18 + 1.25 × 72 > 5 + 41

18 + 90 > 5 + 41

108 > 46 (True)

Option 4 : 25Q75R25 < 33R31S62Q19

After replacing the signs from left to right and using the BODMAS rule,

25 + 75 ÷ 25 < 33 ÷ 31 × 62 + 19

25 + 3 < 1.06 × 62 + 19

25 + 3 < 66 + 19

28 < 85 (True)

Hence, the correct `answer is Option 2: “88R11P4S2 > 9S2Q93”.

The correct answer is Both I and II

Key Points

​Iron ore deposits and producers in the world​

Deposits and Reserves :

• Seven countries with the largest crude iron ore reserves in the world:

1. Australia – 48 billion tonnes.
2. Brazil – 29 billion tonnes.
3. Russia – 25 billion tonnes.
4. China – 20 billion tonnes.
5. Ukraine – 6.5 billion tonnes.
6. Canada – 6 billion tonnes.
7. India – 5.5 billion tonnes.

Producers:

• The top three iron ore-producing countries (Australia, Brazil, and China) accounted for 69% of global production.
• In 2020, Canada was the eighth-largest producer of iron ore in the world.
• The primary use of iron ore is to make steel, which is 100% recyclable.

​Iron ore deposits and producers in India ​

Deposits:

• The prominent ores of iron found in India are Hematite and Magnetite.
• About 79% of hematite ore deposits are found in the Eastern Sector (Assam, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Odisha & Uttar
• Pradesh)
• About 93% of magnetite ore deposits occur in Southern Sector (Andhra Pradesh, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, & Tamil Nadu).

Producers:

• In India, iron ore is found in four regions.
• The highest producer is the Odisha Jharkhand belt, followed by the Durg Bastar Chandrapur belt.
• The third belt is Bellary- Chitradurga-Chikmagalur-Tumkur belt followed by the Maharashtra Goa belt.

The correct answer is Exchange Rate

Key Points

• In finance, an exchange rate is a rate at which one currency will be exchanged for another currency.
• The exchange rate is also regarded as the value of one country's currency in relation to another currency.
• Each country determines the exchange rate regime that will apply to its currency. For example, a currency may be floating, pegged (fixed), or a hybrid.

Additional Information

• Interest rate is the amount charged over and above the principal amount by the lender from the borrower.
• The borrowing rate is the interest rate at which money may be borrowed, esp an official rate set by a central bank.
• The lending rate is the other depository corporation rate that usually meets the short- and medium-term financing needs of the private sector.

The correct answer is  6.022 ×  1023 

Key Points

• one mole of oxygen atoms represents 6.022 × 1023 particles.
• Apart from oxygen, any element with 1 mole has the Avogadro number of particles, which are 6.022 × 1023.
• The molecules like carbon dioxide, and CO2 also contain 6.022 × 1023 particles in 1 mole of their quantity.

Additional Information

• The mole, symbol mol, is the SI base unit of the amount of substance.
• The quantity amount of substance is a measure of how many elementary entities of a given substance are in an object or sample.
• The number of elementary entities in 1 mole is known as the Avogadro number.

The correct answer is New Delhi

Key Points

• Rahim - Khane - Khanam Tomb is in New Delhi.
• Abdul Rahim popularly known as simply Rahim and titled Khan-i-Khanan was a poet who lived in India during the rule of Mughal emperor Akbar, who was his mentor.
• He was one of the nine important ministers (dewan) in his court, known as the Navaratnas.
• Rahim was known for his Hindi Dohe (couplets) and his books on astrology.
• Red Fort, Chandni Chowk, Humayun’s Tomb, Qutub Minar, and Mehrauli are famous monuments in Delhi.

Additional Information

Agra:

• Agra was the capital of the Mughal Empire under Mughal emperors Babur, Humayun, Akbar, Jahangir and Shah Jahan.
• Agra Fort is a majestic sandstone built by Mughal emperor Akbar in 1565 AD.
• The Taj Mahal and Agra Fort received UNESCO World Heritage Sites in 1983.
• Other monuments are: Tomb of Itimad-ud-Daulah, Akbar's Tomb, Sikandra, Sheesh Mahal, Jahangir Mahal, Deewan-E- Khas, Jama Masjid, Moti Masjid.

Mumbai:

• Mumbai is the financial, commercial, and entertainment capital of India.
• Mumbai lies on the Konkan coast on the west coast of India and has a deep natural harbour.
• In 2008, Mumbai was named an alpha world city.
• Mumbai is home to three UNESCO World Heritage Sites**: the Elephanta Caves, Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Terminus, and the city's distinctive ensemble of Victorian and Art Deco buildings.**

Bikaner:

• Bikaner in Rajasthan situated in the middle of the Thar desert was founded by Rao Bika in 1488 CE and was earlier known as Jangladesh.
• The city is known for its intricately carved jharokhas.
• The city boasts of the largest camel research and breeding farm in the world.
• The city is most famous for its savoury snack Bikaneri bhujia which is sold worldwide.
• Monuments in Bikaner: Junagarh Fort, Laxmi Niwas Palace, Rao Bikaji's Fort, Karni Mata Temple, etc.

The correct answer is Both I and II

Key Points 

• Primitive subsistence agriculture is practiced on small patches of land with the help of primitive tools like hoe, dao and digging sticks, and family/ community labour.
• This type of farming depends upon monsoon, natural fertility of the soil, and suitability of other environmental conditions to the crops grown.
• Commercial farming is farming in which an agricultural crop is grown for sale to return a profit.
• A commercial crop is typically purchased by parties separate from a farm. Tobacco is an example of commercial farming.

Additional Information 

• Agriculture or farming is the practice of cultivating plants and livestock.
• Pastoralism – Pastoralism involves the herding of animals
• Shifting Cultivation – It involves the rotation of crops
• Subsistence farming – It is a practice of growing crops and raising livestock sufficient only for one’s own use, without any surplus for trad
• Intensive farming – Intensive farming focus on increasing the input and the resultant output per unit of agricultural land.

The correct answer is Net National Product

Key Points

• Net national product (NNP) is gross national product (GNP), the total value of finished goods and services produced by a country's citizens overseas and domestically, minus depreciation.
• NNP is often examined on an annual basis as a way to measure a nation's success in continuing minimum production standards.
• Depreciation describes the devaluation of fixed capital through wear and tear associated with its use in productive activities.

Additional Information

Gross Domestic Product (GDP):

• GDP or Gross Domestic Product is referred to by economists as the size of an economy.
• The total value of goods produced and services rendered within a country during a year is its Gross Domestic Product.
• Further, GDP is calculated at market price and is defined as GDP at market prices. Different constituents of GDP are:
• Wages and salaries, Rent, Interest, Undistributed profits, Mixed-income, Direct taxes, Dividend.

National Income:

• National income is the total value of final goods and services produced by the normal residents during an accounting year, after adjusting depreciation.
• It is Net National Product (NNP) at Factor Cost (FC)
• It does not include taxes, depreciation, and non-factor inputs (raw materials)

Personal Income:

• Personal income is the total income received by the individuals of a country from all sources before direct taxes in one year.

The correct answer is Smaller but higher.

Key Points

• The Indus Valley civilization (IVC), also known as the Harappan civilization was a Bronze Age civilization in the northwestern regions of South Asia.
• The cities of the ancient Indus were noted for their urban planning, baked brick houses, elaborate drainage systems, water supply systems, clusters of large non-residential buildings, and techniques of handicraft and metallurgy.
• The mature phase of the Harappan civilization lasted from c. 2600–1900 BCE.

Additional Information

• Dholavira is one of the two largest Harappan sites in India and 5th largest in the subcontinent.
• It was discovered in 1968 by archaeologist Jagat Pati Joshi.
• UNESCO has announced the Harappan city of Dholavira in Gujarat as India’s 40th world heritage site. It is the first site of Indus Valley Civilisation (IVC) in India to be included on the coveted list.

Important Points

• Manda- It was discovered in 1976. It is the northernmost site of the Harappan civilization. This site was used to collect wood for the Harappan people.
• Daimabad- It was discovered in 1958. It is the southernmost site of the Harappan civilization. Many bronze goods were recovered from this site,
• Alamgirpur- It was discovered in 1959. It is the easternmost site and shows the presence of the Harappan civilization to the east of the Yamuna river.
• Sutkagendor- This is the trading post located in the Baluchistan area bordering Iran(current map of the world). This trading post was supporting the trade with the Persian Gulf.

The correct answer is Only I.

Key Points

Methanoic Acid:

• Formic acid is systematically named as methanoic acid.
• Formic acid, although not widely used as a solvent, is of interest as an example of a protic solvent with high acidity.
• Formic acid and its salts are corrosive and skin sensitizers. Sodium formate is mildly irritating to the eyes.

Nettle sting:

• Stinging nettle, or Urtica dioica, is a common plant that primarily grows in damp, fertile soil.
• The nettle has sharp hairs on its leaves.
• These hairs contain chemicals, such as formic acid and histamine that can irritate the skin and cause stinging, itching, and redness.

Tartaric Acid:

• Tartaric Acid is an organic acid found in many vegetables and fruits such as bananas, and grapes, but also in bananas, citrus, and tamarinds.
• It is also known as 2,3-dihydroxysuccinic acid or Racemic acid.
• It is used to generate carbon dioxide.
• It is a diprotic aldaric acid that is crystalline white.
• It is widely used in the field of pharmaceuticals. A high dose of tartaric acid can lead to paralysis or death.

The correct answer is Only I

Key Points

• Capital receipts are receipts that create liabilities or reduce financial assets.
• They also refer to incoming cash flows.
• Capital receipts can be both non-debt and debt receipts.
• Loans from the general public, foreign governments and the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) form a crucial part of capital receipts.

Additional Information

• Revenue receipts can be defined as those receipts that neither create any liability nor cause any reduction in the assets of the government.
• They are regular and recurring in nature and the government receives them in the normal course of activities.
• The revenue budget consists of items that do not result in a change in the government's assets or liabilities.
• The capital budget includes items that cause a change in the government's assets or liabilities.

The correct answer is Neither I nor II.

Key Points

• Sound is a vibration that propagates as an acoustic wave, through a transmission medium such as a gas, liquid or solid.
• Sound travels at one of the fastest rates through aluminium.
• The speed of sound in air is 330m/s and the speed of sound in glass is 220 m/s.

Additional Information

• Only acoustic waves that have frequencies lying between about 20 Hz and 20 kHz, the audio frequency range, elicit an auditory percept in humans.
• Sound waves above 20 kHz are known as ultrasound and are not audible to humans.
• Sound waves below 20 Hz are known as infrasound.

The correct answer is Only II

Key Points

• The blackbuck (Antilope cervicapra), also known as the Indian antelope, is an antelope native to India and Nepal.
• It inhabits grassy plains and lightly forested areas with perennial water sources.
• The IUCN Red List designated the blackbuck as 'least concerned.
• In India, hunting of blackbuck is prohibited under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972.
• The pink-headed duck is a large diving duck that was once found in parts of the Gangetic plains of India, Bangladesh, and in the riverine swamps of Myanmar but feared extinct since the 1950s.

Additional Information

• The International Union for Conservation of Nature IUCN is an international organization (NGO) working in the field of nature conservation and sustainable use of natural resources.
• Headquarters: Gland, Switzerland.
• Red list
• The IUCN compiled and published the IUCN Red List which assesses the conservation status of species worldwide.
• Grouping of three categories

1. Lower risk
2. Threatened

• Vulnerable
• Endangered
• Critically endangered

3. Extinct

• Nine groups of the IUCN Red List
• Extinct: No known individuals remaining.
• Extinct in the wild: Known only to survive in captivity.
• Critically endangered: Extremely high risk of extinction in the wild.
• Endangered: High risk of extinction in the wild.
• Vulnerable: High risk of endangerment in the wild.
• Near Threatened: Likely to become endangered in the near future.
• Least concern: lowest risk.
• Data deficient: not enough data to assess its risk.
• Not evaluated: has not yet been evaluated against the criteria.

The correct answer is 2900 km

Key Points

• A mantle is a layer inside a planetary body bounded below by a core and above by a crust.
• Mantles are made of rock or ices and are generally the largest and most massive layer of the planetary body.
• The Earth's mantle is a layer of silicate rock between the crust and the outer core.
• Its mass of 4.01 × 1024 kg is 67% the mass of the Earth.

Additional Information

• The earth is made up of three different layers: the crust, the mantle, and the core.
• The crust is the outside layer of the earth and is made of solid rock, mostly basalt, and granite.
• The mantle lies below the crust and is up to 2900 km thick.  It consists of hot, dense, iron and magnesium-rich solid rock.
• The core is the centre of the earth and is made up of two parts: the liquid outer core and the solid inner core.
• The outer core is made of nickel, iron, and molten rock.

The correct answer is Only I

Key Points

Real GDP :

• Real GDP is said to be the value of all goods and services determined in an economy after taking into account the rate of inflation.
• In other words, it is the inflation-adjusted value of goods and services produced in an economy in a year; therefore it is also known as inflation-adjusted gross domestic product.
• Real GDP in addition to inflation, also takes into account deflation.
• The Real GDP formula can be represented as,
• Real GDP = Nominal GDP / Deflator

Nominal GDP:

• Nominal gross domestic product (GDP) is the value of all the final goods and services at current market prices.
• In other words, it is the GDP calculated at the current market prices.
• It takes into account factors such as inflation, price changes, changing interest rates, and money supply at the time of determining GDP.
• The rise in inflation increases the nominal GDP.
• The Nominal GDP formula can be represented as,
• Nominal GDP = Real GDP x GDP Deflator

Important Points

• Deflator:
• Reduction of the general level of prices in an economy.
• A time of the high level of unemployment.
• A sign of a weakening economy.
• Inflation:
• A rate of increase in prices over a given period of time.
• A decrease in the purchasing power of money.

The correct answer is Delhi

Key Points

• The Iron Pillar is located in Mehrauli, Delhi.
• This pillar was established by Chandragupta-ll of the Gupta dynasty and contains inscriptions of Chandragupta II.
• It is also known as Vishnupada in the honor of Lord Vishnu.
• The pillar is famous for the rust-resistant composition of the metals used in its construction.
• Red Fort, Humayun's Tomb, Qutub Minar, India Gate, Hauz Khas Fort, Jama Masjid, Rashtrapati Bhavan, etc are famous monuments in Delhi.

Additional Information Madhya Pradesh:

• MP was formed on 1st November 1956 and Bhopal was made the capital city. It is called the very heart of India.
• Kanha National park which is also a tiger reserve is the largest National Park of MP.
• The highest peak of MP is Dhupgarh (Satpura rage) with an altitude of 1,350 m.
• Amarkantak, Asirgarh, Khajuraho, Bhimbaithaka, Bhojpur, Sanchi, etc are the famous places of MP.
• The main rivers of MP are Chambal, Betwa, Sindh, Narmada, Tapti, Mahanadi and Indravati.
• Madhya Pradesh has the largest strength of tribals among the Indian States.

Punjab:

• Punjab State, the Land of Five Rivers, is situated in the North Western region of India.
• It is the only state in India with a majority of Sikh people.
• The land of Punjab is very fertile. It is also known as Golden Harvests.
• Golden Templeimages, Jallianwala Bagh, Akal Takht, Tara Taran Sahib, Maharaja Ranjit Singh Panorama, Wagah Border, and Maharaja Ranjit Singh Museum are famous places and monuments in Punjab.

Telangana:

• Telangana is one of the 29 states in India, located in southern India.
• Formation - 2 June 2014
• Bhadrachalam Temple, Charminar, Golkonda, Hussain Sagar, and Mecca Masjid are famous monuments and places in Telangana.
• The region of Telangana is drained by two main rivers Godavari and Krishna.
• Rice is the major and staple food crop of the state.
• Kakatiya Rudreshwara (Ramappa) Temple is the first UNESCO World Heritage Site of Telangana.

The correct answer is I and III

Key PointsCharminar:

• The Charminar is a monument located in Hyderabad, Telangana, India.
• The fifth ruler of the Qutub Shah dynasty, Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, built the Charminar in 1591 after shifting his capital from Golkonda to the newly formed city of Hyderabad.
• The Charminar is situated on the east bank of the Musi river.
• Bhadrachalam Temple, Charminar, Golkonda, Hussain Sagar, and Mecca Masjid are other famous monuments in Telangana.

 

Krishnagiri Fort:

• Krishnagiri fort was built by King Krishnadevarayar of the Vijayanagar Empire.
• It is located in the Krishnagiri district which was carved out of Dharmapuri district, Tamilnadu.
• During the Chola period, the Krishnagiri region was called 'Nigarili Chola Mandlam' and 'Vidhugadhazhagi Nallur'.
• Krishnagiri is known as the "Mango Capital of India" as mangoes are cultivated as the main crop.
• Tamil Nadu has five UNESCO declared world heritage monuments viz. Mamallapuram monuments, Brihadeeswarar Temple – Thanjavur, Brihadeeswarar Temple – Gangaikonda Cholapuram, Airavatheeswarar Temple – Darasuram and Nilgiri Mountain Railway.

​Warangal Fort:

• The Warangal Fort is most famous for its graceful and finitely carved arches and pillars.
• It is located in Warangal District, Telangana, India.
• The fort was built by Kakateya King Ganapathi in the 13th century and completed by his daughter Rudrama.
• In 1309, Malik Kafur, the general of Alauddin Khalji, attacked and destroyed the fort.
• Kakatiya Rudreshwara (Ramappa) Temple is the first UNESCO World Heritage Site of Telangana.

The correct answer is Both I and II

Key Points 

• Under Section 49 of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, the Bank Rate has been defined as "the standard rate at which the Reserve Bank is prepared to buy or re-discount bills of exchange or other commercial paper eligible for purchase under the Act."
• Bank Rate is now aligned to Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) rate, the penal rate at which banks can borrow money from the central bank over and above what is available to them through the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) window.
• In other words, MSF assumed the role of bank rate, once the latter became operational in 2011.

Additional Information

• The bank rate is the rate at which the central bank lends money to the commercial banks by buying their eligible rated securities - bills of exchange or commercial paper.
• The MSF is maintained at 25 bps higher than the repo rate.
• The Bank Rate is published under Section 49 of the RBI Act, 1934.

The correct answer is Bhortal

Key Points  

• Bhortal is the most popular dance form in the state of Assam.
• Bhortal dance is believed to have been developed by Narhari Burha devotees.
• This Bhortal dance of the Barpeta district is said to have originated from the classical dance form of the state.
• Bihu is the most popular folk dance in Assam.

Additional Information

• Folk dances of Assam include the Bihu and the Bagurumba (both danced during festivals held in the spring), the Bhortal, and the Ojapali dance.
• Laho dance is performed by the women folk of Meghalaya.
• The Paika dance is performed by the Munda tribe in the Mayurbhanj district of Jharkhand. It's a one-of-a-kind folk dance that's a portrayal of martial arts.
• Kannur and its related northern districts of Kerala are known for the Theyyam performances. It is a famous ritual form of worship involving ancient traditions, customs, and rituals.

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh

Key Points

• The tomb of General Lord Cornwallis is located in Ghazipur, a small town in the eastern part of Uttar Pradesh.
• The tomb consists of a dome supported by 12 erected columns on a high circular platform, overlooking the Ganges River.
• This memorial is a protected monument under the Archaeological Survey of India.

Additional Information

Lord Cornwallis:

• Lord Cornwallis was the Governor-General of Fort William (Bengal) and the Commander-in-Chief of British India.
• The Third Anglo-Mysore War took place in his tenure.
• Cornwallis introduced the Permanent Settlement of land revenue in Bengal and other parts of India.
• He established thanas to maintain law and order.
• He founded a Sanskrit College at Benaras for Hindus and this is today the Government Sanskrit College in Benares.
• He also established a mint at Calcutta.

Uttar Pradesh:

• The state of Uttar Pradesh lies in the northern part of India.
• The British combined Agra and Oudh into one province and called it the United Province of Agra and Oudh. In January 1950 the United Province was renamed Uttar Pradesh.
• Capital: Lucknow
• Judiciary Capital: Allahabad
• Wheat, rice, pulses, oilseeds, and potatoes are the major agricultural products.
• Sugarcane is the most important cash crop throughout the state.
• Rivers: Ganges, Yamuna, Gomti, Chambal, Ramganga, Sarayu, Son, etc.
• Famous Places: Taj Mahal, Agra Fort, Fatehpur Sikri, Bara Imambara, Lucknow Museum, Kasha Vishwanath Temple, Sarnath, Dwarkadhish Temple, etc.
• Dudhwa National Park, Amangarh, Dudhwa and Pilibhit Tiger Reserve are located in UP.

The correct answer is Both I and II

Key Points

• The Sundarban Delta is situated adjacent to the Bay of Bengal formed by a concourse of the Ganges, Padma, Hooghly, Brahmaputra, and Meghna rivers.
• It is the world’s largest delta.
• ‘Sundari’ is the most abundant tree in this region.
• These trees can grow up to a height of 60 feet with a girth of six feet.
• The timber obtained from this tree is used for boatbuilding and joinery, bridge-building, house construction, utility poles and tool handle.
• In Bengali, the word ‘Sundari’ means beautiful and ‘ban’ means forest. Hence, the name ‘Sunderban’.

The correct answer is Both I and II

Key Points

• Inertia is the ability of a body by virtue of which it opposes a change.
• It depends upon the mass.
• The momentum of an isolated system of particles is conserved.
• The forces are internal in nature and sum up to zero for the entire system.
• As the external force is zero on the system its momentum remains conserved.

Additional Information Isolated System: (as given in statement I)

• In an isolated system, the total momentum remains constant.
• The Law of Conservation of momentum states that the sum of momenta (A plural form of Momentum) of two objects before the collision is equal to the sum of momenta of two objects after the collision provided that there is no external force acting on it.
• In an isolated system as there is no external force, hence total momentum will remain constant.

Law of Motion:

• According to Newton's first law of motion, an object will remain at rest or in uniform motion in a straight line unless acted upon by an external force.
• Newton's second law of motion: The time rate of change of the momentum of a body is equal in both magnitude and direction to the force imposed on it.

The correct answer is Both I and II

Key Points

• Naval, military, Airforce, arms, firearms, Ammunition and Explosives are subject to the Union list.
• The legislative section is divided into three lists: the Union List, State List and Concurrent List.
• Union List or List-I is a list of 100 numbered items given in the Seventh Schedule in the Constitution of India on which Parliament has exclusive power to legislate.
• Residual powers remain with the Union Government, as with the Canadian federal government.

Additional Information

Union List:

• Union List includes subjects of national importance such as the defence of the country, foreign affairs, banking, communications and currency.
• They are included in this list because we need a uniform policy on these matters throughout the country.
• The Union Government alone can make laws relating to the subjects mentioned in the Union List.

State List:

• The State List or List-II is a list of 61 items.
• The Concurrent List or List-III (Seventh Schedule) is a list of 52 items given in the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India.
• Uniformity is desirable but not essential on items in the concurrent list.

The correct answer is Part XV

Key Points

• Part XV of the Constitution of India consists of the Articles on Elections.
• Articles 324 – 329 are mentioned under Part 15 of the Constitution.
• Article 324 of the Constitution provides that the power of superintendence, direction and control of elections to parliament, state legislatures, the office of president of India and the office of vice-president of India shall be vested in the Election Commission.

Additional Information

• Part X of the Constitution of India consists of Articles on the scheduled and Tribal Areas.
• Part XII of the constitution of India is a compilation of laws pertaining to Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits for the Republic of India.
• Part XVI of the Constitution of India establishes that certain castes and tribes shall be represented in the Lok Sabha in proportion to their population.

The correct answer is World Economic Forum

Key Points

• The Global Gender Gap Report was first published in 2006 by the World Economic Forum.
• The Global Gender Gap Index is an index designed to measure gender equality.
• Recently, the World Economic Forum (WEF) ranked India at 135 out of 146 countries in its Global Gender Gap (GGG) Index for 2022.
• In 2021, India was ranked 140 out of 156 countries.

Additional Information

• The World Economic Forum (WEF) is an international non-governmental and lobbying organisation based in Cologny, canton of Geneva, Switzerland.
• The World Bank is an international financial institution that provides loans and grants to the governments of low- and middle-income countries for the purpose of pursuing capital projects.
• The Asian Development Bank is a regional development bank established on 19 December 1966, which is headquartered in  Manila, Philippines.
• The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is an international financial institution, headquartered in Washington, D.C., consisting of 190 countries.

The correct answer is Khushwant Singh.

Key Points

• Khushwant Singh was an Indian author, lawyer, diplomat, journalist and politician.
• His experience in the 1947 Partition of India inspired him to write Train to Pakistan in 1956 which became his most well-known novel.
• Khushwant Singh was awarded the Padma Bhushan in 1974.
• In 2007 he was awarded the Padma Vibhushan, the second-highest civilian award in India.

Additional Information

• Manmohan Singh is an Indian economist and statesman who was the 13th prime minister of India from 2004 to 2014.
• Salman Rushdie is an Indian-born British-American novelist and essayist.
• Shashi Tharoor is an Indian former international diplomat, politician, writer and public intellectual who has served as a Member of Parliament for Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala, since 2009.

The correct answer is Bhopal

Key Points

• India's 1st e-waste clinic was inaugurated in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh.
• The e-waste clinic is used for segregating, processing, and disposal of waste from household and commercial units.
• It is an Electronic waste or e-waste that forms discarded electrical or electronic devices.
• The clinic is being conceived in compliance with the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016.

Important Points

• The E-waste clinic was signed between the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and the Bhopal Municipal Corporation (BMC) for its establishment.
• The CPCB will provide technical support at the unit and the collected hazardous waste will then be sent to Bengaluru for recycling.
• Waste electrical and electronic items are termed e-wastes. Such wastes when disposed of or recycled carelessly can cause damage to health and the environment and hence for regulation of e-wastes.

Additional Information

• When electronic waste is thrown away in landfills their toxic materials seep into groundwater, affecting both land and sea animals.
• Only 10 per cent of cell phones are recycled in the United States and most Americans get new cell phones every 12 to 18 months.
• In Guiyu, China, many of the residents exhibit substantial digestive, neurological, respiratory, and bone problems.
• Computers and most electronics contain toxic materials such as lead, zinc, nickel, flame retardants, barium, and chromium.

The correct answer is Both I and II

 Key Points

• Handball and Sailing both were played in the 2018 Asian Games.
• The Asian Games 2018 event was the first time the games were held in two separate cities (Jakarta & Palembang, Indonesia) in the hosting country.
• China will host the 2022 Asian Games in 2023, organisers said on July 19, after postponing the event in Hangzhou because of Covid-19.

Additional Information

Asian Games:

• The inaugural Asian Games were held in 1951, and India’s capital New Delhi bears the honour of being the first nation to host the event.
• Since the 1982 Games, they have been organized by the Olympic Council of Asia (OCA).
• The Games are recognized by the International Olympic Committee (IOC).
• Asian Games mascots - Bhin Bhin the bird of paradise, Atung the deer and Kaka the rhino.
• China is the best performing participant in the Asian Games’ history with a record of 1473 gold medals and 3187 total medals.

The correct answer is Prithviraj Chauhan

Key Points

• Prithviraj Chauhan was a king from the Chauhan dynasty and was also known as Rai Pithora.
• He ruled over Sapadalaksha, with his capital at Ajmer (at present-day Rajasthan).
• Prithviraj led a coalition of several Rajput kings and defeated the Ghurid army led by Muhammad Ghori near Taraori in 1191 AD.
• However, in 1192 CE, Ghori returned with an army of Turkish mounted archers and defeated the Rajput army on the same battlefield.

Additional Information

• Qutb ud-Din Aibak, was a general of the Ghurid king Muhammad Ghori. He became the ruler of an independent kingdom that evolved into the Delhi Sultanate ruled by the Mamluk dynasty.
• Anangpal II, popularly known as Anangpal Tomar, was a ruler from the Tomara dynasty. He is known to have established and populated Delhi in the 11th century.
• Razia Sultana was a ruler of the Delhi Sultanate in the northern part of the Indian subcontinent. She was the first female Muslim ruler of the subcontinent, and the only female Muslim ruler of Delhi.

The correct answer is Only II

Key PointsBrendan Taylor:

• Brendan Ross Murray Taylor is a Zimbabwean former international cricketer and a former Zimbabwean captain, who played all formats of the game.
• In July 2021, during Zimbabwe's home series against Bangladesh, Taylor played in his 200th ODI match.
• In September 2021, ahead of Zimbabwe's third ODI match against Ireland, Taylor announced that he would retire from international cricket following the match.

Sikandar Raza:

• Sikandar Raza Butt is a Pakistani-born Zimbabwean international cricketer, who plays all formats primarily as a batsman.
• In February 2018, the International Cricket Council (ICC) named Raza as one of the ten players to watch ahead of the 2018 Cricket World Cup Qualifier tournament.
• In January 2020, in the second Test against Sri Lanka, Raza took the second-best bowling figures in an innings for a Zimbabwe bowler in Test cricket, with 7 for 113 from 43 overs.

The correct answer is Neither I nor II

Key Points

• Goal and Goalkeeper both are related to Football.
• Football is a family of team sports that involve, to varying degrees, kicking a ball to score a goal.
• The biggest and the most famous international tournament of Football is The World Cup which is organized by FIFA.
• This competition takes place once in every four years.

Additional Information

• Founded in 1904 to provide unity among national soccer associations, the Federation Internationale de Football Association (FIFA) boasts 209 members.
• FIFA is an international governing body of association football, beach football, and futsal.
• Diego Maradona is a famous football player.
• Oliver Kahn is the only goalkeeper in the history of FIFA World to have won the Golden Ball trophy.
• India withdrew from the 1950 World Cup when they realized that according to FIFA regulations players had to wear football boots and would not be allowed to play barefoot.
• The FIFA World Cup 2015 (Women’s) has its own mascot—a female snowy owl named Shuéme. Her name was inspired by the French word chouette, which means owl.

The correct answer is 24th November, 2021

Key Points

• PRAGATI is a unique integrated and interactive platform through which Hon'ble Prime Minister oversees the implementation of various government schemes, grievances, state and central related projects & programmes by directly interacting with all stake holders through Videoconferencing on a single platform.
• PRAGATI (Pro-Active Governance And Timely Implementation), as the name suggests, is aimed at starting a culture of Pro-Active Governance and Timely Implementation.
• The platform was launched on March 25, 2015.

Additional Information

• The PRAGATI platform uniquely bundles three latest technologies: Digital data management, video-conferencing and geo-spatial technology.
• It is a three-tier system (PMO, Union Government Secretaries, and Chief Secretaries of the States).

The correct answer is Both I and II

Key Points

Habeas corpus:

• The "Great Writ" of habeas corpus is a fundamental right in the Constitution that protects against unlawful and indefinite imprisonment.
• Habeas Corpus literally means “to have a body of”.
• Any prisoner, or another person acting on his or her behalf, may petition the court, or a judge, for a writ of habeas corpus.

Mandamus:

• Mandamus writ of command is issued by the Supreme Court or High court when any government, court, corporation or public authority has to do a public duty but fails to do so.
• The writ of Mandamus can be used to order a job to be done, or it may allow an operation to be stopped in other situations.

Additional Information

• The term writ refers to a formal, legal document that orders a person or entity to perform or to cease performing a specific action or deed.
• The five types of writs are:

1. Habeas Corpus.
2. Mandamus.
3. Prohibition.
4. Certiorari.
5. Quo-Warranto.

The correct answer is Both I and II

Key PointsRigveda:

• Rig Veda is the oldest of the four Vedas. It is a religious text, composed in Sanskrit.
• The Rigveda is divided into ten books which are known as Mandalas.
• It is a collection of 10,600 verses and 1,028 hymns.
• It is the oldest text in any Indo-European language.
• It has originated from early as 1700 BC.
• The Angiras (rishi family) has composed 35% of the hymns and the Kanva family who has composed 25% of Rig Veda.
• The hymns are known as Sukta that were composed to be used in rituals.
• Indra is the chief deity cited in the Rig Veda.
• The sky God Varuna, fire God Agni, and the Sun God Surya were some of the other chief deities who were important in the Rig Veda beside older Aryan deities.

Additional Information The Four Vedas are:

• Rig Veda contains hymns about their mythology.
• The Sama Veda consists mainly of hymns about religious rituals.
• The Yajur Veda contains instructions for religious rituals
• The Atharva Veda consists of spells against enemies, sorcerers, and diseases.
• Rig, Yajur, and Sama—are known as the trayi-vidya (“threefold knowledge”).

The correct answer is Victor Banerjee

Key Points

• Prabha Atre, Radheshyaam Khemka, Kalyan Singh and Bipin Rawat were awarded Padma Vibhushan in 2022.
• Prabha Atre is an Indian classical vocalist from the Kirana Gharana.
• Radheshyam Khemka was a journalist who was the editor of Kalyan published by Gita Press for 38 years.
• Kalyan Singh was an Indian politician and a member of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP).
• Victor Banerjee is an Indian actor who appears in English, Hindi, Bengali and Assamese language films.
• Banerjee is the only person in India who has won the National Award in three categories: As a cinematographer, as a director and as an actor.

Additional Information

• The Padma Vibhushan is the second-highest civilian award of the Republic of India, after the Bharat Ratna. Instituted on 2 January 1954.
• All persons without distinction of race, occupation, position or sex are eligible for these awards.
• The first recipients of the award were Satyendra Nath Bose, Nand Lal Bose, Zakir Hussain, Balasaheb Gangadhar Kher, Jigme Dorji Wangchuck, and V. K. Krishna Menon, who were honoured in 1954.

The correct answer is 73rd.

Key Points

• Part IX of the Indian Constitution is the section of the Constitution relating to the Panchayats.
• Panchayati Raj system was inserted into the Constitution of India by the 73rd constitutional amendment in 1992.
• Three tier system is proposed under this system,
• The Gram Panchayats at the village level.
• The Mandal Parishad or Block Samiti or Panchayat Samiti at the block level and the Zila Parishad at the district level.

Additional Information

• Articles under 243-243 O are mentioned in Part 9 of the Constitution related to Panchayat.
• It has a total of 29 subjects given under Schedule eleven.

   42nd Amendment Act:

• 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 is one of the most important amendments to the Indian Constitution.
• It was enacted by the Indian National Congress headed by Indira Gandhi then.
• Due to the large number of amendments this act has brought to the Indian Constitution, it is also known as the ‘Mini-Constitution.’
• This amendment made Parliament the supreme body in the country.
• The powers of the judiciary were curtailed. It removed election disputes from the purview of the courts.
• It also gave the Parliament the power to enact constitutional amendments without judicial review.
• This amendment also made laws created to pursue the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) safe from the scrutiny of the Supreme Court.

The correct answer is P. R. Deshmukh

Key PointsP. R. Deshmukh:

• Panjabrao Shamrao Deshmukh, also known as Bhausaheb Deshmukh was a social activist and a leader of farmers in India.
• He was elected thrice to the Lok Sabha.
• Dr. Deshmukh was selected by Jawaharlal Nehru as India's first agriculture minister in 1952.

N C Sen Gupta:

• Nirmal Chandra Sen Gupta was the eleventh Governor of the Reserve Bank of India from 19 May 1975 to 19 August 1975.
• He was the secretary to the Department of Banking of the Ministry of Finance.
• Even though his tenure was short, his signature appears on the Indian rupee note of 1000 denomination.
• This is the only note that bears his signature.

Dr. C Rangarajan:

• Chakravarthi Rangarajan is an Indian economist, a former Member of Parliament and the 19th Governor of the Reserve Bank of India.
• In 2002, the Government of India awarded him the Padma Vibhushan, India's second highest civilian award.
• From 2005 to 2008, he was the chairman of the Prime Minister's Economic Advisory Council.

Dr. Bimal Jalan:

• Bimal Jalan is a former Governor of the Reserve Bank of India.
• He was the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India for two terms (1997-2002) and (2002-2004)
• He was a nominated member of the Upper House of India's Parliament, the Rajya Sabha during 2003–2009.
• During his tenure the Indian Rupee note of 1000 denomination was introduced.

Additional Information

• The governor of the Reserve Bank of India is the chief executive officer of India's central bank and the ex-officio chair of its Central Board of Directors.
• Indian Rupee currency notes, issued by the Reserve Bank of India, bear the governor's signature.
• RBI was established in 1935.
• The governor of the Reserve Bank of India is a member of the Strategic Policy Group headed by a National Security Advisor.

The correct answer is The Promise

Key Points

• The Booker Prize 2021 was awarded to Damon Galgut for his novel, "The Promise".
• He is the third South African to win the prize.
• The Booker Prize, formerly known as the Booker Prize for Fiction (1969–2001) and the Man Booker Prize (2002–2019), is a literary prize awarded each year for the best novel written in English and published in the United Kingdom or Ireland.

Additional Information

Shuggie Bain:

• Shuggie Bain is an autobiographical novel set in Glasgow in the 1980s.
• It follows the life of Shuggie, an impoverished boy struggling to look after his single mother, Agnes, an alcoholic, even as he grapples with his own sexuality.

The New Wilderness:

• The New Wilderness (2020),a debut novel of Diane Marie Cook was shortlisted for the 2020 Booker Prize.
• He is an American writer currently based in New York.

Burnt Sugar:

• Girl in White Cotton is the debut novel by Avni Doshi, an American writer of Indian origin.
• The novel was first published in India in August 2019.
• It was published in the United Kingdom under the title "Burnt Sugar" in July 2020.

The correct answer is England

Key Points

• The 2022 Commonwealth Games (officially known as the XXII Commonwealth Games) will be held in Birmingham, England.
• This will be held in Alexander stadium from 28 July until 8 August 2022.
• The 72 nations and territories were invited to take part.
• Motto: Games for Everyone
• This is the third Commonwealth Games to be hosted in England following London in 1934 and Manchester in 2002.
• The event was first held in 1930, and, with the exception of 1942 and 1946, has taken place every four years since then.
• The next Commonwealth Games will hold in-

1. 2026 - The State of Victoria, Australia
2. 2030 - Hamilton, Canada
3. 2034 - Riyadh, Saudi Arabia

Additional Information

• The 1966 British Empire and Commonwealth Games were held in Kingston, Jamaica, from 4 to 13 August 1966. This was the first time that the Games had been held outside the so-called White Dominions.
• Scotland has hosted the Commonwealth Games three times, Edinburgh in 1970 and 1986, and Glasgow in 2014.

 Commonwealth Nations:

• The Commonwealth of Nations is an association of independent sovereign states, most of which are former colonies of the United Kingdom.
• The British Monarch remains the head of the Commonwealth.
• Hence, the Queen of the United Kingdom, Elizabeth II is given the title of Head of the Commonwealth.
• With 54 member states, the Commonwealth of Nations encompasses up to 30% of the total population in the world.
• In terms of area, the Commonwealth holds about one-fourth of the world’s land area.

The correct answer is 1

Key Points

• Indian Olympians won 7 medals (1 gold, 2 silver and 4 bronze) in Summer Olympics 2020.
• India has appeared in every edition of the Summer Olympics since 1920, although it made its official debut at the 1900 Summer Olympics in Paris.
• India ranked 48th in medal tally.
• In the men's javelin throw, Neeraj Chopra won India's first-ever gold medal in athletics.

Additional Information

• The Summer Olympic Games, also known as the Games of the Olympiad, are a major international multi-sport event normally held once every four years.
• The inaugural Games took place in 1896 in Athens.
• The International Olympic Committee (IOC) organises the Games and oversees the host city's preparations.

The correct answer is 1922

Key Points

• The Chauri Chaura incident took place on 4th February 1922 at Chauri Chaura in the Gorakhpur district of the United Provinces.
• After this incidence Gandhi withdrew the Non - Cooperation Movement.

Additional Information

Non-Cooperation Movement :

• The Non-cooperation movement was a political campaign launched on 1 August 1920, by Mahatma Gandhi to have Indians revoke their cooperation from the British government, with the aim of inducing the British to grant self-governance.
• This came as result of the Indian National Congress (INC) withdrawing its support for British reforms following the Rowlatt Act of 18 March 1919.
• The movement was one of Gandhi’s first organized acts of large-scale satyagraha (civil disobedience).

The correct answer is Las Vegas

Key Points

• The 64th Annual Grammy Awards ceremony was held at the MGM Grand Garden Arena in Las Vegas on April 3, 2022.
• It recognized the best recordings, compositions, and artists of the eligibility year, running from September 1, 2020, to September 30, 2021.

Additional Information

• The Grammy Award (originally called Gramophone Award), or just Grammy, is an award presented by the Recording Academy to recognize the "Outstanding Achievement in the music industry" of the United States.
• The Grammy is considered one of the four major annual American entertainment awards, along with the Academy Awards (for film achievements), the Emmy Awards (for television achievements), and the Tony Awards (for theatre achievements).
• The first Grammy Awards ceremony was held on May 4, 1959.

List of Winner at 64th Annual Grammy Awards:

Given:

Price of a car decreased every year by 25 percent

The value of the car after 2 years will be Rs. 112500

Formula used:

Value after increase or decrease =  Present value × $\frac{100±(Decrease\%\ or\ Increase\%)}{100}$ 

Calculation:

Let P be the Present value of the car

Value of the car after 2 years = Present value × $\frac{100-Decrease\%}{100}$ × $\frac{100-Decrease\%}{100}$

112500= P × $\frac{100-25}{100}$ × $\frac{100-25}{100}$

112500= P × $\frac{75}{100}$ × $\frac{75}{100}$

$\frac{112500}{0.75×0.75}$ = P

P = 200000

Present value of the car is Rs. 200000

Answer is Rs. 200000.

Given:

Ratio of number of boys and girls in a class is 5 ∶ 6

Average weight of boys and girls in the class is 33 kg and 44 kg

Formula used:

Average = $\frac{Total\ Sum}{Number\ Of\ Terms}$

Calculation:

let the number of boys and girls be 5 and 6

Total weight of boys = 33 × 5 

= 165 kg

Total weight of girls = 44 × 6

= 264 kg

Total weight of boys and Girls = 165 + 264

= 429 kg

Average = $\frac{Total\ Sum}{Number\ Of\ Terms}$

= $\frac{429}{5+6}$

= 429 / 11

= 39

Answer is 39 kg.

Alternate MethodGiven:

Ratio of number of boys and girls in a class is 5 ∶ 6

Average weight of boys and girls in the class is 33 kg and 44 kg

Calculation:

Lets take the the base average of the class is 33 kg

Average weight of boys is equal to base average 

But, Average weight of girls(44 kg) is 11 kg more than base average

Number of girls is 6 

11 kg is more than base average for every six girls = 11 × 6

= 66 kg

To find the Whole average,

this extra 66 kg is divided among all boys and girls in the class = 66 / 11

= 6 kg

So, the Total Average of the class is 6 kg more than base average

= 33 + 6

= 39 kg

Answer is 39 kg.

Given:

The ratio of first and second is 2 ∶ 3

Ratio of second and third is 3 ∶ 4 

Product of first and third is 1152

Calculation:

According to the question,

Let the 3 numbers be 2x , 3x and 4x

Product of first and third is 1152

2x × 4x = 1152

8x² = 1152

x² = 144

x = 12

Sum of the three numbers = 2x + 3x + 4x

= 9x 

= 9 × 12

= 108 

Answer is 108.

 Alternate MethodGiven:The ratio of first and second is 2 ∶ 3

Ratio of second and third is 3 ∶ 4 

Product of first and third is 1152

Calculation:

According to the question,

Let the 3 numbers be 2x , 3x and 4x

Question asked is sum of the three numbers,

Sum of the three numbers = 2x + 3x + 4x

= 9x

then the Answer will be a multiple of 9

From the option, 108 is the only option that is multiple of 9

Answer is 108.

Formula used:

Discount % = $\frac{Marked\ Price - Selling\ Price}{Marked Price}$ × 100

Calculation:

From the option,

Step 1: OPTION 1

Marked price : Cost price = 3 ∶ 2  -----(1)

Cost price : Selling price = 4 ∶ 5 ------(2)

multiply (1) × 2 to make the Cost Price equal

Marked Price : Cost Price : Selling Price = 6 : 4 : 5 

Let the value of Marked Price , Cost Price and Selling Price be 6x , 4x and 5x respectively

Discount % = $\frac{6x - 5x}{6x}$ × 100

= $\frac{100}{6}$

= 16.67%(approx.)

Step 2: OPTION 2

Marked price : Cost price = 11 ∶ 3  -----(1)

Cost price : Selling price = 1 ∶ 3 ------(2)

multiply (2) × 3 to make the Cost Price equal

Marked Price : Cost Price : Selling Price = 11 : 3 : 9 

Let the value of Marked Price , Cost Price and Selling Price be 11x , 3x and 9x respectively

Discount % = $\frac{11x - 9x}{11x}$ × 100

= $\frac{200}{11}$

= 18.19%(approx.)

Step 3: OPTION 3

Marked price : Cost price = 4 ∶ 3  -----(1)

Cost price : Selling price = 5 ∶ 6 ------(2)

multiply (1) × 5 and (2) × 3  to make the Cost Price equal

Marked Price : Cost Price : Selling Price = 20 : 15 : 18 

Let the value of Marked Price , Cost Price and Selling Price be 20x , 15x and 18x respectively

Discount % = $\frac{20x - 18x}{20x}$ × 100

= $\frac{200}{20}$

= 10%

Step 4: OPTION 4

Marked price : Cost price = 7 ∶ 6  -----(1)

Cost price : Selling price = 8 ∶ 9 ------(2)

multiply (1) × 4 and (2) × 3 to make the Cost Price equal

Marked Price : Cost Price : Selling Price = 28 : 24 : 27 

Let the value of Marked Price , Cost Price and Selling Price be 28x , 24x and 27x respectively

Discount % = $\frac{28x - 27x}{28x}$ × 100

= $\frac{100}{28}$

= 3.57%(approx.)

Hence, Option 2 has the highest discount

Answer is Marked price : Cost price = 11 ∶ 3 and Cost price : Selling price = 1 ∶ 3 .

Given:

Sales of an article increases by 30 percent every month

Difference in the sales of the article in second and third months is 5070

Calculation:

Let 100x be the Present sales

Sales of the article after one month = 100x × (100 + 30)%

= 100x × 1.30

= 130x

Sales after second month = 130x × (100 + 30)%

= 130x × 1.30

= 169x

Sales after Third month = 169x × (100 + 30)%

= 169x × 1.30

= 219.7x

Difference in sales of the article in second and third month = 5070

219.7x - 169x = 5070

50.7x = 5070

x = 100

Sales of the article after third month = 219.7x

= 219.7 × 100

= 21970 

Answer is 21970.

Given:

Mukesh earns profit of Rs. 32 by selling an article for Rs. 82

Formula used:

Cost Price = Selling Price - Profit

Profit % = $\frac{Selling\ Price-Cost\ Price}{Cost\ Price}$ %

Calculation:

Cost Price = Selling Price - Profit

Cost Price = 82 - 32

= 50

Profit % = $\frac{Selling\ Price-Cost\ Price}{Cost\ Price}$ %

Profit % = $\frac{32}{50}$ %

= $\frac{32}{50}$ × 100

= 64%

Profit is 64%

Answer is 64 percent.

Additional Information Loss = Cost Price - Selling Price

Loss% = $\frac{Cost\ Price \ -\ Selling\ Price}{Cost\ Price}$ × 100

Given:

Marked Price = 52800

Discount % = 56

Formula used:

Selling Price = Marked Price (100 - Discount)%

Calculation:

Selling Price = Marked Price (100 - Discount)%

= 52800 (100 - 56)%

= 52800 (44)%

= 52800 × 0.44

= 23232

Selling Price = Rs. 23232

Answer is Rs.23232.

Additional Information Marked Price(100 - Discount%) = Cost Price(100 + Profit%)

Given:

Distance = 36 km

Speed of the four persons A, B, C, D are 6 km/hr, 9 km/hr, 12 km/hr and 15 km/hr respectively

Formula used:

Distance = Speed × Time taken

Calculation:

Time Take by A = $\frac{36}{6}$ 

= 6 hours

Time Take by B = $\frac{36}{9}$ 

= 4 hours

Time Take by C = $\frac{36}{12}$ 

= 3 hours

Time Take by D = $\frac{36}{15}$ 

= 2.4 hours

They meet again at the starting point is LCM ( Time Taken by A , Time Take by B , Time Take by C , Time Take by D )

LCM ( 6 , 4 , 3 , 2.4)

= 12

They meet after 12 hours at the starting point.

Answer is 12 hours.

Additional Information Ratio of the speed is always inversely proportional to Ratio of Time taken

For eg:

Ratio of Speed = 3:4

Ratio of Time Taken = 4:3

Given:

A certain sum becomes 6 times of itself in 9 years at a rate of simple interest

Formula used:

Amount = Principal + $\frac{Principal×Rate×Time}{100}$

Calculation:

Let P be the Principal

Amount in 9 years is 6P

6P = P + $\frac{P×Rate×9}{100}$

6P - P = 0.09P × Rate

5P =  0.09P × Rate

Rate = $\frac{500}{9}$%

Amount in 18 years is 

Amount = P + $\frac{P×500×18}{9×100}$

= P + 10P

= 11P

Amount becomes 11 times of itself in 18 years

Answer is 11.

Given:

The respective ratio of two numbers is 5 ∶ 7

sum of both the numbers is 84

Calculation:

let 5x and 7x be the two numbers

sum of both the numbers is 84

5x + 7x = 84

12x = 84

x = 7

Largest number is 7x

7x = 7 × 7

= 49

Largest number is 49

Answer is 49.

Given:

Valid votes = 75% of total votes

Winning Candidate = 70% of Valid votes

He won by a majority of 3630 votes

Losing Candidate = 30% of Valid votes

Calculation:

Let 100x be the total number of votes polled

Valid votes = 75% of total votes

= 0.75 × 100x

= 75x

Majority of the Winning Candidate is 3630

Then, Difference between Winning and Losing Candidate = (70 % - 30 %) of valid votes

= 40% of the valid votes

Valid Votes = 75x

Then,

= 0.40 × 75x

= 30x

Hence, 30x is Majority of winning candidate

30x = 3630

x = 121

Total number of votes is 100x

= 100 × 121

= 12100

Answer is 12100.

Given:

Due to Increase in price of apple 40%, a customer can purchase 4 apples less for Rs. 70

Amount = Rs. 70 

Increase % = 40%

Quantity = 4 apples

Formula used:

Original Price = $\frac{Amount\ ×\ (increase\% \ or \ decrease\%)}{(100\ ±\ increase\%\ or\ decrease\%)\ ×\ Quantity}$  ( + for increase and - for decrease)

Calculation:

Original Price = $\frac{70\ ×\ (40)}{(100\ +\ 40)\ ×\ 4}$

= $\frac{2800}{560}$

= 5

Original Price is Rs. 5

Answer is Rs. 5

Alternate MethodGiven:

Due to Increase in price of apple 40%, a customer can purchase 4 apples less for Rs. 70

Amount = Rs. 70 

Increase % = 40%

Quantity = 4 apples

Calculation:

Let the Original Price and Original Quantity be P and Q

Total Price of the Apples = P ×  Q

70 = P × Q -----(1)

Price is increased by 40% = P × $\frac{140}{100}$

= $\frac{7}{5}$ P

Quantity is decreased by 4 apples = Q - 4

70 =  $\frac{7}{5}$ P × (Q - 4)

From(1), Q = 70 / P

70 =  $\frac{7}{5}$ P × ($\frac{70}{P}$ - 4)

70 = $\frac{7}{5}$ × (70 - 4P)

50 = 70 - 4P

20 = 4P

P = 5

Original Price is Rs. 5

Answer is Rs. 5

Given:

Profit obtained on selling an article for Rs. 300 is equal to the loss incurred on selling that article for Rs. 200

Formula used:

Profit = Selling Price - Cost Price

Loss = Cost Price - Selling Price

Loss% = $\frac{Cost\ Price \ -\ Selling\ Price}{Cost\ Price}$ × 100

Calculation:

Profit Amount = Loss Amount

300 - Cost Price = Cost Price - 200

2 Cost Price = 500

Cost Price = 250

Loss amount if Selling Price is Rs. 150

Loss = Cost Price - Selling Price

Loss = 250 - 150

= 100

Loss% = $\frac{100}{250}$ × 100

= 40%

Loss is 40% 

Answer is 40%.

Given:

x = 5

Concept used:

n^-1 = $\frac{1}{n^1}$

Calculation:

x = 5

= (1/5) + (5²) + (5^-2)

= (1/5) + 25 + (1/25)

= $\frac{5+625+1}{25}$

= 631 / 25

Answer is 631/25 .

Shortcut Trick

50% of the number − 10 = 110

50% of the number = 110 + 10 = 120

Full value (100%) = 120 × 2 = 240

∴ The correct answer is 240.

Alternate Method

Given:

Percentage of number = 50%

Subtracted value = 10

Result = 110

Formula Used:

(Percentage ÷ 100) × Number − Subtracted Value = Result

50% (x/2) 50% (x/2)

−10

Result = 110 Total Number (x = 100%)

Let the required number be x.

⇒ 50% of x − 10 = 110

⇒ (50/100) × x − 10 = 110

⇒ (1/2)x − 10 = 110

⇒ x/2 = 110 + 10

⇒ x/2 = 120

⇒ x = 120 × 2

⇒ x = 240

∴ The correct answer is 240.

Additional Information

Percentage to Fraction Conversion

To simplify calculations, remember basic fractions: 50% = 1/2, 25% = 1/4, 20% = 1/5, and 75% = 3/4.

Reverse Percentage Calculation

If P percent of a number is A, then the number is (A × 100) ÷ P.

Percentage Increase/Decrease

Final Value = Initial Value × (100 ± Change%) ÷ 100.

Given:

3A = 4B

3B = 4C

Calculation:

Ratio of Cards A : B is 4 : 3  ---(1)

Ratio of Cards B : C is 4 : 3 ----(2)

Multiply (1) by 4 and (2) by 3 to make the B cards equal

(1) × 4 ⇒ Ratio of Cards A : B is 16 : 12

(2) × 3 ⇒ Ratio of Cards B : C is 12 : 9

Then,

Ratio of Cards A , B and C is 16 : 12 : 9

Minimum value of the total number of cards is

= 16 + 12 + 9

= 37

Total number of cards is 37

Answer is 37.

Given:

$\dfrac{3}{5} \times \left[ {\left( {\dfrac{9}{{14}} + \dfrac{3}{7}} \right) \times \dfrac{7}{{15}}} \right] - \dfrac{3}{5}$

Formula used:

BODMAS Rule

Calculation:

$\dfrac{3}{5} \times \left[ {\left( {\dfrac{9}{{14}} + \dfrac{3}{7}} \right) \times \dfrac{7}{{15}}} \right] - \dfrac{3}{5}$

⇒ $\dfrac{3}{5} \times \left[ {\left( {\dfrac{9 + 6}{14}} \right) \times \dfrac{7}{{15}}} \right] - \dfrac{3}{5}$

⇒ $\dfrac{3}{5} \times \left[ {\dfrac{15}{14} \times \dfrac{7}{15}} \right] - \dfrac{3}{5}$

⇒ $\dfrac{3}{5} \times \left[ \dfrac{1}{2} - \dfrac{3}{5} \right]$

⇒ $\dfrac{3}{5} \times \left[ \dfrac{5 - 6}{10} \right]$

⇒ $\dfrac{3}{5} \times \dfrac{-1}{10}$

⇒ $\dfrac{-3}{50}$

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Given:

Largest four digit number which when divided by 9, 12, 18 and 21 leaves remainder 6 in each case

Formula used:

Dividend = Quotient × Divisor + Remainder

Calculation:

LCM ( 9, 12, 18 and 21 ) = 252

Lets take the last number of the 4 digit numbers,

9999 is the last number of the 4 digit numbers

if we divide 9999 by 252 we get,

9999(dividend) = 39(Quotient) × 252 (divisor) + 171(Remainder)

we get 171 as remainder

So subtract 171 from 9999 to get the largest 4 digit number that is completely divisible by 9,12,18 and 21

9999 - 171 = 9828

According to question, If we divide by the numbers 9,12,18 and 21 it gives 6 as a remainder in each case

Hence, 9828 + 6(Remainder) = 9834

9834 is the largest four digit number which when divided by 9, 12, 18 and 21 leaves remainder 6 in each case

Answer is 9834.

Additional Information Smallest Four Digit number is 1000