DSSSB MTS Official Paper (Held On: 20 Apr, 2026 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

Solution

Family Chart:

Symbol Reference:

Given: M − F + K = L × N: M is the brother of F, F is the wife of K, K is the father of L, and L is the mother of N.

⇒ Therefore, M is the mother's mother's brother of N.

∴ The correct answer is Mother's mother's brother.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given Series:

(Left) R S @ Y F € V % T P O & % M € G * O € # & Z (Right)

Required pattern: Letter → Letter → Letter

Checking the series:

(Left) R S @ Y F € V % T P O & % M € G * O € # & Z (Right)

Letters satisfying the condition:

→ P in (T P O) 

Therefore, there is 1 such letter.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3 — 1.

Given Series:

(Left) 4 6 3 6 9 3 5 2 3 4 6 4 9 9 6 1 9 7 6 2 9 9 6 4 9 6 6 (Right)

Required pattern: Odd Number → Even Number → Odd Number

Checking the series:

(Left) 4 6 3 6 9 3 5 2 3 3 4 6 4 9 9 6 1 9 7 6 2 9 9 6 4 9 6 6 (Right)

Even numbers satisfying the condition:

→ 2 in (5 2 3)

→ 6 in (9 6 1)

→ 6 in (9 6 4)

Therefore, there are 3 such even numbers.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3 — 3.

Given:

PUSH is coded as '8624'

HUTS is coded as '4816'

Therefore, the code for the letter T is 1.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Based on the given information, we can determine the arrangement of the seven people (S, T, U, V, X, Y, and Z) sitting in a straight line facing North:

Only T sits to the right of X. This means X is at the second position from the right end, and T is at the extreme right end (position 7).

Only one person sits between U and X. Since T is to the right of X, U must be to the left of X at position 4.

Only two people sit between S and U. Moving three places to the left from U (since the right side is occupied), S must be at position 1.

Y sits at some place to the right of Z but at some place to the left of V. The remaining positions are 2, 3, and 5. To satisfy the condition Z < Y < V, the arrangement must be:

Looking at the final arrangement:

People between Z (position 2) and V (position 5) are Y and U.

Total number of people = 2.

Therefore, Two people sit between V and Z.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Based on the information provided, we can determine the floor arrangement for A, E, I, O, U, and V from floor 6 (topmost) to floor 1 (lowermost).

1) Only I lives above A: This implies that A is on the 5th floor and I is the only person on the 6th floor.

2) V lives immediately below A: Since A is on floor 5, V must be on floor 4.

3) Only U lives below O: This implies that there is only one person below O, who is U. Thus, O is on floor 2 and U is on floor 1.

4) The remaining person: The only floor left is floor 3, and the only person left is E. Therefore, E lives on floor 3.

The final arrangement is as follows:

From the above table, it is clear that E lives on floor number 3.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Solution

Family Chart:

Symbol Reference:

Given: R # S T @ U − V

It means: R is the son of S, S is the wife of T, T is the father of U, and U is the brother of V.

⇒ S is the wife of T, making them a married couple.

⇒ R is the son of S (and also T).

⇒ T is the father of U, and U is the brother of V.

⇒ Since R, U, and V are all children of S and T, they are siblings.

⇒ R is a male child (son).

⇒ Therefore, R is related to V as a brother.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given statement: T > S > G < D ≤ K

Conclusions:

i) G < K → True (As T > S > G < D ≤ K. We know that G < D and D ≤ K. Therefore, G is definitely less than K. Hence, the conclusion follows.)

ii) D < T → False (As T > S > G < D ≤ K. We know that both T and D are greater than G, but the exact relationship between D and T cannot be determined. Therefore, D < T does not definitely follow.)

So, only Conclusion I is true.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given Series:

(Left) 6 3 3 £ * 9 € £ € $ 9 @ 7 4 5 # 9 2 1 £ 7 5 (Right)

Required pattern: Number → Symbol → Symbol

Checking the series:

(Left) 6 3 3 £ * 9 € £ € $ 9 @ 7 4 5 # 9 2 1 £ 7 5 (Right)

Symbols satisfying the condition:

→ £ in (9 £ €)

→ € in (£ € $)

Therefore, there are 2 such symbols.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3 — 2.

Logic followed here is to arrange the individuals on their respective floors (1 to 6) by analyzing the given positional constraints step-by-step.

Only B lives above D.

N lives immediately below D.

Only C lives below M.

The remaining floor and person.

The only floor left is the 3rd floor, and the only person remaining is A. Thus, A lives on the 3rd floor.

Final Floor Arrangement:

Therefore, A lives on the floor numbered 3.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given statement: C > R > K < O ≤ Z

Conclusions:

i) K < Z → True (As C > R > K < O ≤ Z. We know that K < O and O ≤ Z. Therefore, K is definitely less than Z. Hence, the conclusion follows.)

ii) O < C → False (As C > R > K < O ≤ Z. We know that both C and O are greater than K, but the exact relationship between O and C cannot be determined. Therefore, O < C does not definitely follow.)

So, only Conclusion I is true.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Logic followed here is arranging the seven boxes (A, C, D, P, Q, R, and T) one over the other based on the given constraints.

Only T is kept above R. This implies that T is at the topmost position and R is the second box from the top.

Only A is kept below C. This means A is at the bottom-most position and C is the second box from the bottom.

Only two boxes are kept between R and D. Since R is at the 6th position, counting two boxes down (5th and 4th), D must be placed at the 3rd position.

Q is not kept immediately above D. The remaining vacant positions are 5th and 4th. The position immediately above D (3rd) is the 4th position. Therefore, Q cannot be at the 4th position, so Q must be at the 5th position.

The only remaining box, P, will occupy the 4th position.

Final Arrangement:

The question asks for the number of boxes between P and A.

From the table, P is at the 4th position and A is at the 1st position. The boxes between them are D (3rd position) and C (2nd position).

Total number of boxes between P and A = 2.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Solution

Given Statements:

All wings are cars.

All wings are bats.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some cars are bats - Follow (Since all wings are cars and all wings are bats, the portion of cars that are wings will definitely be bats.)

II. All bats are wings - Does not follow (We are given that all wings are bats, but the reverse is a possibility and not a definite conclusion.)

So, only conclusion I follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is to arrange the letters of the given word in English alphabetical order and then compare the result with the original word to identify letters that have not changed their positions.

Original Word: OBSERVER

By comparing the letters at each position:

1. O → B (Changed)

2. B → E (Changed)

3. S → E (Changed)

4. E → O (Changed)

5) R → R (Unchanged)

6. V → R (Changed)

7. E → S (Changed)

8. R → V (Changed)

We can see that only one letter, R (at the 5th position), remains in the same position as in the original word.

Therefore, the position of One letter will remain unchanged.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given:

GOLD is coded as '5286'

IDOL is coded as '8325'

Therefore, the code for the letter I is 3.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given Series:

(Left) Z F U T O F K I C U M U K Y B S O Z Q E Y I (Right)

Required pattern: Consonant → Consonant → Vowel

Checking the series:

(Left) Z F U T O F K I C U M U K Y B S O Z Q E Y I (Right)

Consonants satisfying the condition:

→ K in (F K I)

→ C in (K C U)

→ B in (Y B S O)

→ S in (B S O)

The consonants that satisfy the condition are: K, C, M, S.

Therefore, there are 4 such consonants.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1 — 4.

Given Series:

(Left) J G C K J R E G W W P H P R Q F H O K E X (Right)

Required pattern: Vowel → Consonant → Vowel

Checking the series:

(Left) J G C K J R E G W W P H P R Q F H O H O K E X (Right)

Consonants satisfying the condition:

→ K in (O K E)

Therefore, there is 1 such consonant.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1 — One.

Solution

⇒ 7 persons D, E, F, P, Q, R and T are facing the centre. T is placed at the top, and D sits third to the left of T. Facing the centre, left is clockwise.

⇒ Only T sits between R and Q. Q sits second to the left of F. This means R and Q are at the immediate sides of T. Testing Q at the immediate right of T (position 6), F must be at position 4 to satisfy Q being second to the left of F.

⇒ P is not an immediate neighbour of D. The only remaining positions are between R and D, and between F and Q. Since P cannot be next to D, P sits between F and Q. The remaining person E sits between R and D.

⇒ Counting from the right of E (anti-clockwise direction):

⇒ Next to E is R.

⇒ Next to R is T.

⇒ Next to T is Q.

⇒ Therefore, there are 2 people (R and T) between E and Q when counted from the right of E.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The scheduling logic follows the constraints provided for the seven individuals and the days of the week from Monday to Sunday.

Step-by-step arrangement:

1. I has an exam on the last day of the week, which is Sunday.
2. Only three people have an exam between Z and I. Counting back from Sunday, the three people would be on Saturday, Friday, and Thursday. Thus, Z must have the exam on Wednesday.
3. E has an exam before A, and there is only one person between them. Possible slots for E and A are (Monday and Wednesday) or (Tuesday and Thursday) or (Thursday and Saturday).

• If E is on Monday and A is on Wednesday, it is not possible because Z is already on Wednesday.
• If E is on Thursday and A is on Saturday, then the remaining people (U, X, O) must fit into Monday, Tuesday, and Friday. Since X is immediately before O, they would be on Monday and Tuesday, leaving Friday for U. However, the condition states U cannot be on Friday.
• If E is on Tuesday and A is on Thursday, the remaining days are Monday, Friday, and Saturday. X and O must be consecutive, so they take Friday and Saturday. This leaves Monday for U.

4. U on Monday satisfies the condition that U does not have an exam on Friday.

Final Arrangement:

The question asks how many people have an exam after U.

U has an exam on Monday. The people after U are E, Z, A, X, O, and I.

Total number of people = 6.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given:

JACK is coded as '1853'

CASK is coded as '1485'

Therefore, the code for 'S' is 4.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given Equation: (69 − 51 + 72) − (36 ÷ 3) + 7 × 4 − 21 = 95

By interchanging 51 and 36, we get the following expression:

= (69 − 36 + 72) − (51 ÷ 3) + 7 × 4 − 21 = 95

= (141 - 36) - 17 + 28 - 21 = 95

= 105 - 17 + 28 - 21 = 95

= 133 - 38 = 95

= 95 = 95

Therefore, the numbers to be interchanged are 51 and 36.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given Number:

8392047

Arrange the digits in ascending order:

8392047 → 0, 2, 3, 4, 7, 8, 9

New number formed:

0234789

Find the required digits:

→ Second digit from the left = 2

→ Second digit from the right = 8

Required Sum:

2 + 8 = 10

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4 — 10.

Solution

Given Statements:

All dams are cups.

No cup is a plate.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. No dam is a plate - Follow (Since all dams are inside cups and no cup is a plate, it is certain that no dam can be a plate.)

II. Some plates are cups - Does not follow (The statements clearly specify that no cup is a plate, so there can be no intersection between plates and cups.)

So, only conclusion I follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The common pattern is: Word 1 to Word 2: The letters are rearranged from (1, 2, 3, 4) to (4, 1, 3, 2). 2. Word 2 to Word 3: The letters of Word 2 are rearranged by swapping the 1st and 2nd positions and swapping the 3rd and 4th positions.

For ECHO - (4-1-3-2) OEHC - (2-1-4-3)EOCH

For KING - GKNI - KGIN

Option 3) DUST - TDSU - DTUS

This triad follows the same logic perfectly.

Thus, the triad DUST - TDSU - DTUS follows the same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Decoding the signs:

Given expression:

4 B 7 C 9 D 15 A 5 = ?

After replacing the letters with their respective mathematical signs:

= 4 × 7 + 9 − 15 ÷ 5

= 4 × 7 + 9 − 3

= 28 + 9 - 3

= 37 - 3

= 34

Therefore, the value that will come in place of the question mark is 34.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is based on the principle of Water Reflection.

Logic: A water image is a vertical inversion of an object. In this process, the top and bottom parts of the figure are swapped, while the left and right sides remain in their original positions.

Therefore, the correct water reflection is Option (4).

Given: X : 47 :: 33 : Y

Logic: 2nd number = (1st number × 2) - 1

(1) X = 24 ; Y = 65 → 24 : 47 :: 33 : 65

24 × 2 - 1 = 48 - 1 = 47

33 × 2 - 1 = 66 - 1 = 65

Both pairs follow the same logic.

(2) X = 25 ; Y = 66 → 25 : 47 :: 33 : 66

25 × 2 - 1 = 50 - 1 = 49 ≠ 47

33 × 2 - 1 = 65 ≠ 66

(3) X = 23 ; Y = 65 → 23 : 47 :: 33 : 65

23 × 2 - 1 = 46 - 1 = 45 ≠ 47

33 × 2 - 1 = 66 - 1 = 65

(4) X = 25 ; Y = 64 → 25 : 47 :: 33 : 64

25 × 2 - 1 = 49 ≠ 47

33 × 2 - 1 = 65 ≠ 64

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The common pattern is: 1) Word 2 is formed by taking letters at positions 2, 3, 1, 4 of Word 1. 2) Word 3 is the reverse of Word 1 (positions 4, 3, 2, 1).

For HOME - OMHE - EMOH

Applying this logic to FING - INFG - GNIF:

Now, let us check Option 4) REAP - EARP - PAER

For REAP to EARP

This triad follows the exact same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Logic followed here is:

Therefore, the value of the '?' is 19.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 2".

Logic followed here is.

Logic: The difference between consecutive numbers in the series increases by a constant value of 6.

Therefore, the missing number in the series is 13.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

For XBY to VZW

For LPM to JNK

The common pattern is a constant letter shift of −2 for each letter in the group.

Option 1) WZV to UYV

The logic is not followed here as the shifts are −2, −1, 0.

Option 2) WZV to TXU

The logic is not followed here as the shifts are −3, −2, −1.

Option 3) WAX to TYU

The logic is not followed here as the shifts are −3, −2, −3.

Option 4) JNK to HLI

This pair follows the same constant −2 letter shift pattern.

Thus, the pair JNK : HLI follows the same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Logic followed here is.

Logic: In each pair (except the odd one), the second letter-cluster is obtained by adding 2 to the positional value of each letter in the first letter-cluster.

1. GK − IM:

2. JN − LP:

3. PT − RV:

4) DH − LH:

In the pair DH − LH, the expected cluster is FJ, but the given cluster is LH. Therefore, this pair does not belong to the group.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Logic: In three out of the four letter clusters, the difference between consecutive letters is +3.

Checking the letter clusters:

For KNQ:

For ORU:

For TWZ:

Checking the odd cluster:

For DGS:

The letter cluster DGS does not follow the +3, +3 pattern observed in the other groups.

Therefore, the odd one out is DGS.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Logic followed here is.

Logic: (First number + 1) × 4 = Second number.

For (15, 64) →

First number = 15

(15 + 1) × 4 = 16 × 4 = 64

For (8, 36) →

First number = 8

(8 + 1) × 4 = 9 × 4 = 36 

Similarly, let's check Option 1) (4, 20) →

First number = 4

(4 + 1) × 4 = 5 × 4 = 20

Therefore, the pair that follows the same logic is (4, 20).

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

According to the question, the signs are interchanged as follows:

Given Expression:

11 ÷ 3 + 55 × 5 − 6 = ?

Expression after interchanging the signs:

= 11 × 3 − 55 ÷ 5 + 6

= 11 × 3 - 11 + 6

= 33 - 11 + 6

= 39

Therefore, the value that will come in place of the question mark is 28.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: In each pair, the first letter of the first cluster is increased by 5 to get the first letter of the second cluster, and the second letter of the first cluster is increased by 8 to get the second letter of the second cluster.

Option 1: SW - XE

Option 2: AE - FM

Option 3: WA - VI

Option 4: VZ - AH

The pattern followed in SW-XE, AE-FM, and VZ-AH is (+5, +8), whereas WA-VI follows (−1, +8).

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Operator Substitutions:

The given original equation is:

18 × 3 + 7 − 2 ÷ 20 = ?

After replacing the signs according to the table above, the new equation becomes:

= 18 ÷ 3 − 7 × 2 + 20

= 6 - 7 × 2 + 20 

= 6 - 14 + 20

= 26 - 14

= 12 

Therefore, the value that will come in place of the question mark is 12.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Logic followed here is:

Therefore, the value that should come in place of the question mark is 899.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Logic followed here is.

Logic: First Number × 3 = Second Number.

For the pair (18, 54) →

18 × 3 = 54

For the pair (41, 123) →

41 × 3 = 123 

Similarly, let us check the given options:

Checking Option (1): 15, 45

15 × 3 = 45

Checking other options:

Option (2): 22, 88 → 22 × 4 = 88 (Does not follow × 3 pattern)

Option (3): 17, 57 → 17 × 3 = 51 ≠ 57

Option (4): 19, 87 → 19 × 3 = 57 ≠ 87

Therefore, the pair 15, 45 is related in the same way as the given pairs.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is to identify the option figure that contains the exact same structure as the given Figure (X). According to the rules, rotation is NOT allowed, meaning the figure must appear in the same orientation as shown.

Therefore, Figure (X) is embedded in Option (3).

The correct answer is Nitish Kumar.

Key Points

• Nitish Kumar, the leader of the Janata Dal (United) [JD(U)], continued his tenure as the Chief Minister of Bihar following the 2025 Assembly elections.
• He has the distinction of being the longest-serving Chief Minister of the state, having held the office for multiple terms since 2005 (with a brief interruption in 2014-15).
• The 2025 Bihar Legislative Assembly election was held to fill 243 seats, where a coalition or party required a minimum of 122 seats to form a government.
• Nitish Kumar leading the National Democratic Alliance (NDA) secured the necessary mandate to remain the head of the state executive, maintaining his focus on the Sushasan (Good Governance) model.
• His administration is historically associated with the Saat Nischay (Seven Resolves) program, aimed at improving infrastructure, women empowerment, and rural electrification across Bihar.

 Additional Information

• Tejashwi Yadav:
• A prominent leader of the Rashtriya Janata Dal (RJD) and the son of former CM Lalu Prasad Yadav.
• He has served as the Deputy Chief Minister of Bihar and the Leader of the Opposition in the state assembly.
• Chirag Paswan:
• The President of the Lok Janshakti Party (Ram Vilas) and a Union Minister in the central government.
• He represents the Hajipur constituency and is a significant figure in the NDA coalition.
• Sushil Kumar Modi:
• A veteran leader of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) who served as the Deputy Chief Minister and Finance Minister of Bihar for several years.
• He played a crucial role in the state's GST implementation and fiscal management.

The correct answer is Frictional unemployment.

Key Points

• Frictional unemployment is a type of unemployment that arises when workers are in the process of transitioning from one job to another or are entering the labor force for the first time.
• It represents the time lag or search period required for workers to find a position that matches their skills, preferences, and salary expectations.
• This form of unemployment is usually short-term and voluntary, as it involves individuals choosing to leave a current job to seek better opportunities or relocate.
• It is a natural component of a dynamic economy, indicating that the labor market is flexible and that workers are seeking the most productive allocation of their talents.
• Common causes include job searching, re-entering the workforce after a hiatus, or geographical mobility where a person moves to a different city before securing a new role.

 Additional Information

• Structural Unemployment:
• Occurs when there is a fundamental mismatch between the skills workers offer and the skills demanded by employers.
• It is often caused by technological changes, automation, or shifts in the economy that make certain job roles obsolete.
• Seasonal Unemployment:
• Happens when the demand for labor fluctuates depending on the time of year.
• It is most common in sectors like agriculture, tourism, and holiday retail.
• Cyclical Unemployment:
• Related to the business cycle and occurs during periods of economic recession or downturns.
• When aggregate demand for goods and services falls, businesses reduce production and lay off workers.

The correct answer is Vikram-3201.

Key Points

• In 2025, the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and the Semiconductor Laboratory (SCL), located in Mohali, collaborated to develop Vikram-3201, marking a historic achievement for India's electronics sector.
• The Vikram-3201 is India's first fully indigenous space-grade microprocessor, designed to handle the complex computations required for satellite subsystems and rocket guidance systems.
• This microprocessor is a 32-bit high-performance chip specifically engineered for onboard computers (OBC), capable of executing critical mission commands without external dependencies.
• The development of this chip represents a major leap toward Atmanirbhar Bharat (Self-reliant India) in the strategic space sector, reducing the heavy reliance on imported processors like the RAD6000.
• It is built to withstand Single Event Upsets (SEU) and Single Event Latch-ups (SEL), which are common failures caused by high-energy particles in space environments.

 Additional Information

• ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation):
• Founded in 1969 and headquartered in Bengaluru, it functions under the Department of Space (DoS).
• The agency is renowned for cost-effective missions like Mars Orbiter Mission (Mangalyaan) and the Chandrayaan series.
• Semiconductor Laboratory (SCL):
• An autonomous body under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), it is the premier hub for microelectronics research in India.
• SCL provides the necessary cleanroom facilities and fabrication processes (foundry services) for VLSI (Very Large Scale Integration) designs used in defense and space.
• Space-Grade Components:
• Unlike standard commercial chips, space-grade microprocessors must be radiation-hardened to function reliably amidst cosmic rays and solar radiation.
• They undergo rigorous testing for thermal vacuum endurance and mechanical vibration resistance to survive the intense conditions of a rocket launch.

The correct answer is Aurobindo Ghosh.

Key Points

• The Alipore Bomb Conspiracy Case, also known as the Manicktolla Bomb Case or Muraripukur Conspiracy, was a high-profile criminal trial held in India in 1908.
• The case was launched following the attempted assassination of Douglas Kingsford, the Chief Presidency Magistrate of Calcutta, by Khudiram Bose and Prafulla Chaki in Muzaffarpur.
• Aurobindo Ghosh and his brother Barindra Kumar Ghosh were arrested among 38 others on charges of 'waging war against the King-Emperor' and manufacturing explosives at the Manicktolla garden house.
• The trial took place at the Alipore Sessions Court, where the prominent lawyer Chittaranjan Das (C.R. Das) defended Aurobindo Ghosh with great brilliance.
• While Barindra Kumar Ghosh and Ullaskar Dutt were initially sentenced to death (later commuted to transportation for life), Aurobindo Ghosh was acquitted in 1909 due to lack of direct evidence linking him to the conspiracy.

 Additional Information

• Revolutionary Figures and Leaders:
• Lala Lajpat Rai: Known as Sher-e-Punjab, he was a key extremist leader in the Lal-Bal-Pal trio. He was deported to Mandalay in 1907 but was not a defendant in the Alipore case.
• Bal Gangadhar Tilak: The father of Indian Unrest, he was arrested in 1908 for seditious writings in his newspaper Kesari regarding the Muzaffarpur bombing, leading to a 6-year sentence in Burma.
• Subhas Chandra Bose: A charismatic nationalist leader who rose to prominence much later, particularly during the 1920s and 1930s, and was not active during the 1908 conspiracy.
• Anushilan Samiti: The secret revolutionary organization in Bengal that spearheaded the activities leading to the Alipore trial, focusing on militant nationalism.

The correct answer is Famine.

Key Points

• The 1896-97 Famine was one of the most severe natural disasters in late 19th-century India, caused by the total failure of the South-West Monsoon in 1896, leading to widespread crop failure across the Bombay Presidency.
• The No Tax Campaign in Thane District was a direct political response to the colonial government's insistence on collecting land revenue despite the peasants having no harvest or income.
• The movement was spearheaded by the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha under the militant leadership of Bal Gangadhar Tilak, who aimed to transform the agrarian distress into a nationalist struggle.
• The campaign urged farmers to invoke their legal rights under the Famine Code of 1883, which provided for the suspension of taxes if the yield was less than 25 percent of the average.
• Activists and volunteers, known as Tilak's emissaries, toured rural Thane and Colaba, distributing pamphlets and organizing meetings to instill courage in the peasantry to resist illegal tax extraction.

 Additional Information

• Bal Gangadhar Tilak:
• Popularly known as Lokmanya, he used his Marathi newspaper Kesari to criticize the British Raj for its failure to provide adequate relief during the Great Famine.
• He famously asserted that it was the duty of the government to protect its subjects and that the people should not pay taxes if the government failed in its duty.
• Poona Sarvajanik Sabha:
• Founded in 1870 by Mahadev Govind Ranade and G.V. Joshi, it was a premier socio-political organization in Maharashtra.
• By 1896, Tilak gained control of the Sabha, shifting its approach from petitioning to active mass mobilization and rural agitation.
• Statistical Impact:
• The famine of 1896-97 affected an area of approximately 307,000 square miles and a population of 62 million, leading to the appointment of the Lyall Commission in 1898 to review famine relief policies.
• Other Calamities:
• While Floods, Earthquakes, and Cyclones have historically caused localized damage in the Konkan region, they did not lead to a structured, district-wide No Tax Campaign during the 1896-97 period.

The correct answer is Bhopal.

Key Points

• The National Divyangjan Cricket Sports Festival-2026 is scheduled to be hosted in Bhopal, the capital city of Madhya Pradesh, marking a significant milestone in the promotion of para-sports in Central India.
• This event is specifically designed to provide a national platform for physically challenged cricketers, including those with visual impairments and orthopedic disabilities, to showcase their professional skills.
• The organization of this festival in Bhopal aligns with the objectives of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act, 2016, which mandates the government to take steps to promote sports for Divyangjan.
• The tournament serves as a talent identification hub for the Indian National Divyangjan Cricket Team, helping athletes transition from regional levels to international representations.
• By hosting the 2026 edition, Bhopal emphasizes its infrastructure readiness and its role as a leader in fostering inclusive sports culture through accessible stadiums and specialized training facilities.

 Additional Information

• Bhopal:
• Known as the City of Lakes, it is home to the Aishbagh Stadium and the Tatya Tope (TT) Nagar Stadium, which are central to the state's sports development.
• The city has a long history of supporting hockey and cricket, often serving as a training ground for national-level athletes.
• Indore:
• Recognized as the Commercial Capital of Madhya Pradesh, it houses the Holkar Cricket Stadium, one of the prominent international cricket venues in India.
• The city is famous for its clean environment and robust sports administration under the Madhya Pradesh Cricket Association (MPCA).
• Gwalior:
• Historically famous for the Captain Roop Singh Stadium, where the first-ever double century in One Day Internationals (ODI) was scored by Sachin Tendulkar.
• It is also the site for the newly developed Atal Bihari Vajpayee Training Centre for Disability Sports.
• Jabalpur:
• Often called the Sanskardhani (Cultural Capital) of the state, it is known for the Wright Town Stadium.
• The city is a major hub for military and administrative activities, located near the iconic Bhedaghat marble rocks.

The correct answer is Raipur.

Key Points

• The Senior and Master National Kickboxing Championship 2025 was hosted in Raipur, the capital city of Chhattisgarh, during August 2025.
• This prestigious event was organized under the aegis of the WAKO India Kickboxing Federation, which is the recognized national body for the sport.
• The primary venue for the championship was the Balbir Singh Juneja Indoor Stadium, a major sporting hub in the state capable of accommodating high-intensity combat sports.
• Athletes from across the country represented various State Associations and Union Territories, competing for top honors and ranking points.
• The championship serves as a critical platform for the selection of the Indian National Kickboxing Team for upcoming international tournaments sanctioned by the World Association of Kickboxing Organizations (WAKO).

 Additional Information

• WAKO India Kickboxing Federation:
• It is affiliated with the World Association of Kickboxing Organizations (WAKO), which is the sole governing body for kickboxing recognized by the International Olympic Committee (IOC).
• The federation oversees both tatami sports like Point Fighting, Light Contact, and Kick Light, as well as ring sports including Full Contact, Low Kick, and K1 Style.
• Significance of the Event:
• The Master category specifically targets veterans and senior practitioners, promoting the sport as a lifelong fitness discipline.
• Raipur has emerged as a significant venue for national martial arts events due to its growing sports infrastructure and the proactive support of the Chhattisgarh Sports Department.

The correct answer is 71.

Key Points

• The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Centre (IN-SPACe) serves as a single-window, autonomous nodal agency under the Department of Space to promote and authorize space activities by non-governmental entities.
• As of 31 January 2026, a total of 71 technology transfers from the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) have been successfully facilitated to the private sector, including startups and MSMEs.
• These technology transfers (ToT) are critical for enhancing the commercial space ecosystem in India, allowing private players to leverage decades of research and development conducted by ISRO.
• The process involves Technology Transfer Agreements (TTAs) that cover various domains such as electronics, mechanical systems, satellite subsystems, and advanced materials.
• This initiative is a core part of the Space Sector Reforms intended to increase India's share in the Global Space Economy from approximately 2% to a significant double-digit figure by the end of the decade.

 Additional Information

• IN-SPACe and ISRO synergy:
• IN-SPACe was established in June 2020 to provide a level playing field for private companies to use ISRO facilities and assets.
• It acts as an interface between ISRO and Non-Governmental Entities (NGEs), ensuring that technical expertise is efficiently transitioned to industry partners.
• The Indian Space Policy 2023 further solidified the roles of IN-SPACe, ISRO, and NSIL (NewSpace India Limited) to streamline commercial operations and technology dissemination.
• Commonly transferred technologies include Li-ion battery manufacturing, satellite-based navigation systems (NavIC), and remote sensing data processing tools.

The correct answer is Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

Key Points

• Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, often referred to as the Iron Man of India and the Bismarck of India, served as the country’s first Deputy Prime Minister and Home Minister.
• He was the primary architect of India’s geographical integration, tasked with the monumental challenge of unifying 565 princely states that existed at the time of independence in 1947.
• Working through the States Ministry alongside Secretary V.P. Menon, Patel used a policy of persuasion, diplomacy, and stern warnings to convince rulers to sign the Instrument of Accession.
• He successfully integrated problematic states such as Junagadh, where a plebiscite was eventually held, and Hyderabad, which was integrated through military intervention known as Operation Polo in 1948.
• Patel’s efforts were crucial in preventing the balkanization of the Indian subcontinent, ensuring that the diverse princely territories merged into a single, cohesive Indian Union.
• He introduced the concept of the Privy Purse, a financial grant given to the former rulers as compensation for losing their states and revenues, which facilitated a peaceful transition.

 Additional Information

• Subhas Chandra Bose:
• A radical nationalist leader who formed the All India Forward Bloc and led the Indian National Army (INA) to fight British forces.
• He advocated for total independence through armed struggle rather than the integration of states post-1947.
• Jawaharlal Nehru:
• The first Prime Minister of independent India, he focused on industrialization, scientific progress, and the Non-Aligned Movement in foreign policy.
• While he oversaw the government, the specific operational charge of the States Department was under Patel.
• Mahatma Gandhi:
• The spiritual leader of the independence movement who championed Non-violence (Ahimsa) and Truth (Satyagraha).
• His influence was moral and social, focusing on communal harmony and rural upliftment during the transition to independence.

The correct answer is Shibnote, Jammu and Kashmir.

Key Points

• The 6th National Rafting Championship, themed 'The Ultimate River Battle', was organized in February 2026 at Shibnote in the Doda district of Jammu and Kashmir.
• The competition took place on the turbulent waters of the Chenab River, which is renowned for its world-class white-water rapids and challenging navigational technicalities.
• The event was a collaborative effort involving the Directorate of Tourism, Jammu, and district authorities to showcase the Chenab Valley as a premier destination for adventure sports.
• The championship featured participation from numerous teams representing national sports clubs and defense organizations, fostering a spirit of competition and boosting local tourism in the Jammu region.
• A primary objective of this championship was to promote the 'Adventure Tourism' potential of the Chenab River, which offers a unique topographical advantage for professional rafting and kayaking.

 Additional Information

• Rishikesh, Uttarakhand:
• Commonly identified as the Adventure Capital of India, it hosts major rafting events on the Ganges River, particularly around Shivpuri.
• Tehri, Uttarakhand:
• Home to the Tehri Dam, this location is a major site for water sports like jet-skiing and lake-based rowing within the Tehri Lake.
• Manali, Himachal Pradesh:
• A significant destination for rafting on the Beas River, often hosting state and national-level trials in the Kullu Valley.
• Chenab River:
• Formed by the confluence of the Chandra and Bhaga rivers in Lahaul and Spiti, it is a critical river for both hydroelectric power and recreational sports in North India.

The correct answer is Monetary units.

Key Points

• In economics, the value of goods and services is expressed in Monetary units to provide a common denominator for measurement. This allows for the comparison and aggregation of vastly different items, such as kilograms of grain and hours of legal consulting.
• Money serves as a Standard Unit of Account, which is a numerical unit used to measure the market value of goods, services, and other transactions. This function is essential for National Income Accounting.
• The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of a country is calculated by summing the market value of all final goods and services produced within a specific period. This summation is only possible when all items are converted into monetary terms (e.g., Rupees, Dollars, or Euros).
• Using Monetary units eliminates the incommensurability problem found in barter systems, where there is no single scale to determine how much of one good is worth another.
• The value of a product in monetary terms is its Price, which is determined by the intersection of market demand and supply. Economists use these values to track inflation and economic growth over time.

 Additional Information

• Physical quantities:
• These refer to units like liters, tons, or meters. While useful for inventory management, they cannot be added together to measure a total economy (the 'adding apples and oranges' problem).
• The total economic output is calculated as Price × Quantity, where the result is always in monetary terms.
• Volume of customers:
• This reflects market reach or consumer demand but does not define the unit value of a good. A luxury car and a loaf of bread have different values despite the number of people buying them.
• Number of producers:
• This relates to Market Structure (such as Monopoly or Perfect Competition). It influences the Price but is not the unit used to express the value of the output itself.
• Real vs. Nominal Value:
• Nominal value is expressed in current monetary units, while Real value is adjusted for inflation using indices like the Consumer Price Index (CPI).

The correct answer is Market Price.

Key Points

• Gross Domestic Product (GDP) represents the total monetary or market value of all finished goods and services produced within a country's geographical boundaries during a specific period, usually a financial year.
• The Market Price is the price at which goods and services are actually sold in the market; it includes product taxes (such as GST or excise duty) and excludes product subsidies provided by the government.
• The formula to derive GDP at market prices is: GDP at Market Price = GDP at Factor Cost + Net Indirect Taxes, where Net Indirect Taxes equals Indirect Taxes − Subsidies.
• Measuring GDP at market prices allows for a realistic assessment of the purchasing power and the total expenditure incurred by consumers within the economy.
• In 2015, India's Central Statistics Office (CSO) updated its methodology to make GDP at Market Price the primary indicator for economic growth, replacing the previous focus on GDP at factor cost to align with global standards.

 Additional Information

• Cost Price (Factor Cost):
• Refers to the total cost of all factors of production used in the process, including land, labor, capital, and entrepreneurship.
• It represents the income received by the owners of these factors and does not include indirect taxes or subsidies.
• Nominal vs. Real GDP:
• Nominal GDP is the market value of goods and services produced in a year, calculated using current year prices.
• Real GDP is calculated using constant prices from a designated base year, effectively removing the impact of inflation to show actual volume growth.
• Final Goods and Services:
• GDP only counts final goods intended for the end consumer to avoid the error of double counting intermediate goods used during production.

The correct answer is Yumnam Khemchand Singh.

Key Points

• Yumnam Khemchand Singh assumed the office of the Chief Minister of Manipur in February 2026. This transition followed the revocation of President’s Rule, which is mandated under Article 356 of the Indian Constitution when the state administration cannot function according to constitutional provisions.
• He represents the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) and has previously served as the Speaker of the Manipur Legislative Assembly. His appointment was a strategic move to provide political stability to the state after a period of direct central governance.
• The formation of the new government restored the legislative powers of the 60-member assembly. In the Indian Federal System, the Chief Minister acts as the real executive head of the state, while the Governor remains the ceremonial head.
• The appointment process involves the Governor inviting the leader of the party or coalition with a majority to form the government, ensuring the democratic process is upheld in the sensitive Northeast India region.

 Additional Information

• N. Biren Singh:
• A former national-level footballer and journalist, he served as the Chief Minister of Manipur from March 2017 until the period leading up to the constitutional crisis. He was the first BJP Chief Minister in the state.
• Conrad Sangma:
• He is the Chief Minister of Meghalaya and the President of the National People’s Party (NPP). He is a prominent political figure in the North-East Democratic Alliance (NEDA).
• Pema Khandu:
• He holds the position of Chief Minister of Arunachal Pradesh. Since taking office in 2016, he has been instrumental in the BJP’s expansion in the easternmost state of India.

The correct answer is Sree Narayana Guru.

Key Points

• Sree Narayana Guru (1856–1928) was a visionary social reformer, philosopher, and spiritual leader from Kerala who spearheaded a movement against the caste system and social inequality.
• He famously gave the slogan 'Oru Jati, Oru Matham, Oru Daivam, Manushyanum' (One Caste, One Religion, One God for Mankind) to advocate for the universal brotherhood of all human beings, regardless of their birth or creed.
• In 1888, he performed the historic Aruvipuram Consecration by installing a Shivalinga, challenging the Brahminical hegemony and asserting that the right to worship was a universal human right.
• He founded the Sree Narayana Dharma Paripalana Yogam (SNDP) in 1903, which became a powerful tool for the social and educational upliftment of the Ezhava community and other marginalized groups.
• His teachings emphasized self-reliance and progress through his call to 'get enlightened through education and strengthen through organization', significantly altering the socio-political landscape of modern Kerala.

 Additional Information

• Vakkom Moulavi
• Known as the father of Islamic reform in Kerala, he established the 'Swadeshabhimani' newspaper and the 'Muslim' journal to promote rationalism and modern education.
• He founded the Travancore Muslim Mahajana Sabha to work for the socio-economic development of the Muslim community.
• Ayyankali
• A revolutionary leader of the Dalit community in Travancore, he led the Villuvandi (bullock cart) protest in 1893 to claim the right of untouchables to use public roads.
• In 1907, he established the Sadhujana Paripalana Sangham to fight for the educational rights and labor welfare of marginalized workers.
• Chattampi Swamikal
• A contemporary scholar and reformer who critiqued the caste hierarchy and advocated for the revival of Vedic knowledge for all Hindus.
• His notable literary works include 'Prachina Malayalam' and 'Vedadhikara Nirupanam', which challenged the ritualistic dominance of the upper castes.

The correct answer is A lot of job opportunities.

Key Points

• Vulnerability to poverty is a measure which describes the greater probability of certain communities (such as members of a backward caste) or individuals (such as a widow or a physically handicapped person) of becoming, or remaining, poor in the coming years.
• An abundance of job opportunities acts as a safeguard against poverty by providing steady income streams, enhancing financial security, and improving the standard of living for households. Hence, it cannot be a cause of vulnerability.
• Vulnerability is determined by the options available to different communities for finding an alternative living in terms of assets, education, health, and job prospects.
• It also accounts for the risks these groups face during natural disasters like earthquakes, tsunamis, or terrorist attacks, where those with fewer resources are more likely to fall below the poverty line.

 Additional Information

• Factors that significantly increase vulnerability to poverty include:
• Natural Disasters: Environmental shocks such as floods or droughts can destroy crops and property, leading to a total loss of livelihood for rural populations.
• Sudden Drop in Income: Economic crises, recessions, or the loss of a primary breadwinner create immediate financial instability, pushing vulnerable groups deeper into deprivation.
• Lack of Job Opportunities: A stagnant labor market prevents individuals from earning wages, making them unable to afford basic necessities like food, shelter, and healthcare.
• Social Exclusion: This occurs when certain individuals or groups are excluded from facilities and benefits that others enjoy, often based on caste, religion, or gender.

The correct answer is Providing affordable banking to underserved populations.

Key Points

• Financial Inclusion is defined as the process of ensuring access to financial products and services—such as deposits, withdrawals, fund transfers, and credit—to all sections of society, especially the vulnerable and low-income groups.
• The primary objective is to provide these services at an affordable cost to individuals who are currently 'unbanked' or 'underbanked,' thereby bringing them into the formal financial system.
• It involves a multi-pronged approach including the provision of savings accounts, low-cost insurance, and remittance facilities to help households manage their finances and plan for emergencies.
• By providing timely and adequate credit, financial inclusion empowers small-scale entrepreneurs and rural farmers to invest in their livelihoods, which is essential for achieving sustainable and inclusive economic growth.
• Institutional bodies like the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the World Bank view financial inclusion as a key enabler to reduce extreme poverty and boost shared prosperity.

 Additional Information

• Related Concepts and Initiatives:
• Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY): Launched in 2014, this is one of the world's largest financial inclusion initiatives aimed at providing at least one basic banking account to every household in India.
• Digital Financial Inclusion: Uses fintech and mobile technology to provide services, significantly reducing the transaction costs and physical barriers to banking.
• Capital Markets for Urban Firms: This refers to financial deepening and investment banking, which focuses on sophisticated financial instruments for established businesses rather than grassroots inclusion.
• Foreign Investment: Includes Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI), which are macroeconomic tools to bring in international capital rather than individual banking access.
• Tax Minimization: This is a fiscal strategy used by taxpayers to reduce liability and does not serve the social objective of expanding banking coverage.

The correct answer is Depreciation.

Key Points

• Depreciation refers to the gradual decrease in the economic value of fixed capital assets, such as machinery, buildings, and equipment, over their useful life.
• The primary causes for this reduction include normal wear and tear from continuous use, the passage of time, and expected obsolescence due to technological advancements.
• In the context of National Income Accounting, depreciation is also known as the Consumption of Fixed Capital, as it represents the value of capital consumed during the production process.
• It is a non-cash expense, meaning it does not involve an immediate outflow of cash but is recorded for accounting and tax purposes to reflect the true value of assets.
• The relationship between investment types is defined by the formula: Net Investment = Gross Investment − Depreciation.

 Additional Information

• Investment:
• In macroeconomics, this refers to Capital Formation, which is the addition to the existing stock of physical assets like infrastructure, inventories, and new plants to enhance future productivity.
• Amortisation:
• This term describes the systematic reduction in the book value of intangible assets, such as patents, copyrights, trademarks, and goodwill, over a specific period.
• Subsidy:
• A Subsidy is a financial grant or transfer payment made by the government to producers or consumers to lower the market price of essential goods like LPG, food, or fertilizers.

The correct answer is Rajendra Vishwanath Arlekar.

Key Points

• Rajendra Vishwanath Arlekar was sworn in as the Governor of Bihar on February 17, 2023, succeeding Phagu Chauhan. He is widely recognized as the 41st Governor of the state.
• The oath of office was administered by Justice Chakradhari Sharan Singh, who was the Acting Chief Justice of the Patna High Court, during a ceremony at the Raj Bhavan in Patna.
• His appointment was formalized by the President of India, Droupadi Murmu, under Article 155 of the Constitution of India, as part of a significant gubernatorial reshuffle across 13 states and union territories.
• Prior to his tenure in Bihar, Arlekar served as the 28th Governor of Himachal Pradesh from July 2021 to February 2023.
• He is a veteran politician from Goa and served as the Speaker of the Goa Legislative Assembly from 2012 to 2015. He is credited with making the Goa Assembly the first paperless legislative body in India.
• In the Goa Government, he also held portfolios as the Minister for Environment and Forest and Panchayati Raj between 2015 and 2017.

 Additional Information

• Arif Mohammad Khan:
• He is currently the Governor of Kerala, having been appointed in September 2019.
• A former Union Minister, he has held various portfolios including Energy and Civil Aviation and is known for his advocacy in social and educational reforms.
• Phagu Chauhan:
• He served as the 40th Governor of Bihar from July 2019 until February 2023.
• Following his tenure in Bihar, he was transferred to serve as the Governor of Meghalaya.
• L.A. Ganesan:
• He is currently serving as the Governor of Nagaland.
• He previously served as the Governor of Manipur and held the additional charge of West Bengal following the resignation of Jagdeep Dhankhar.

The correct answer is Khajuraho Temple, Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• The Khajuraho Group of Monuments is a cluster of Hindu and Jain temples located in the Chhatarpur district of Madhya Pradesh and is recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
• These temples were constructed by the Chandela Dynasty between 950 and 1050 AD and are considered the finest examples of the Nagara style of architecture in Northern India.
• The Nagara style is distinguished by its beehive-shaped tower, known as the Shikhara, which is topped by a circular stone disc called the Amalaka and a finial called the Kalasha.
• Architecturally, these temples are built on a high platform called a Jagati and typically follow a Panchayatana layout, where a central main shrine is surrounded by four smaller corner shrines.
• The Kandariya Mahadeva Temple, dedicated to Lord Shiva, is the most magnificent and largest structure within this group, showcasing intricate carvings and the characteristic curvilinear tower of the Nagara school.

 Additional Information

• Dravidian Style: This architectural school is prevalent in South India, characterized by massive entrance gateways called Gopurams and a pyramidal tower over the sanctum known as the Vimana.
• Meenakshi Temple: Located in Madurai, Tamil Nadu, this temple is a landmark of Dravidian architecture, famous for its 14 Gopurams covered in colorful figures of deities and mythical creatures.
• Guruvayur Temple: Situated in Kerala, it follows the local Kerala style, which is a subtype of the Dravidian tradition utilizing sloping roofs and extensive woodwork to accommodate the region's heavy rainfall.
• Vesara Style: This is a hybrid style combining features of both Nagara and Dravidian schools, primarily found in the Deccan region.
• Virupaksha Temple: Located in Hampi, Karnataka, it is part of the Vijayanagara Empire. While predominantly Dravidian in design, it exhibits the evolutionary artistic shifts characteristic of the Deccan architectural landscape.

The correct answer is Partition of Bengal announced by the British government.

Key Points

• The Partition of Bengal was officially announced by Lord Curzon, the then Viceroy of India, in July 1905 and was implemented on October 16, 1905. This decision was the immediate catalyst for the Swadeshi Movement.
• The British claimed the partition was for administrative convenience, as Bengal was a massive province with a population of about 78 million. However, the real motive was to divide the political nerve center of Indian nationalism and create a communal rift between Hindus and Muslims.
• On August 7, 1905, a massive protest meeting was held at the Calcutta Town Hall, where the formal proclamation of the Swadeshi Movement was made. The movement called for the boycott of foreign goods, especially British-made salt and cloth.
• The movement transformed the nationalist struggle from a middle-class agitation into a mass movement. People demonstrated unity by tying Rakhi on each other's wrists and singing Vande Mataram, which became the theme song of the resistance.

 Additional Information

• Other Reactionary Measures by Lord Curzon:
• Calcutta Corporation Act (1899): This act reduced the number of elected Indian members in the corporation, effectively giving British members a majority.
• Indian Universities Act (1904): This legislation placed Calcutta University under tighter government control and reduced the number of elected fellows in the Senate, aiming to suppress student-led political activism.
• Impact and Annulment:
• The Swadeshi Movement led to the establishment of indigenous industries like Bengal Chemicals and promoted National Education through institutions like the Bengal National College.
• Due to relentless protests and revolutionary activities, the Partition of Bengal was eventually annulled in 1911 by Lord Hardinge during the Delhi Durbar, though Bihar and Odisha were separated from Bengal.

The correct answer is Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India(IRDAI).

Key Points

• The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) is a statutory body established under the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 1999.
• It serves as the apex body for the supervision and development of the insurance sector in India, covering both Life Insurance and General Insurance companies.
• The primary mandate of the authority is to protect the interests of policyholders and ensure the orderly growth of the insurance industry through stringent monitoring and licensing.
• The IRDAI consists of a ten-member body including a Chairman, five whole-time members, and four part-time members, all appointed by the Government of India.
• While initially based in New Delhi, the headquarters of the regulator was shifted to Hyderabad in 2001.

 Additional Information

• Reserve Bank of India (RBI):
• Established on April 1, 1935, it is India's central bank.
• It regulates the banking sector, manages monetary policy, and issues the national currency.
• Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI):
• A statutory body formed in 1992 to protect the interests of investors in securities.
• It regulates the stock exchanges, commodity markets, and other financial intermediaries.
• Association of Mutual Funds in India (AMFI):
• Incorporated in 1995, it is a non-profit organization representing all registered Asset Management Companies (AMCs).
• It aims to maintain high professional standards and ethical practices in the Mutual Fund industry but does not function as a statutory government regulator like IRDAI.

The correct answer is Draksharama Temple, with its shiva linga.

Key Points

• The Draksharama Bhimeswara Swamy Temple is situated in the East Godavari district of Andhra Pradesh and is revered as one of the Pancharama Kshetras.
• This architectural marvel was constructed by the Eastern Chalukya king Chalukya Bhima I between the late 9th century and early 10th century CE.
• The temple architecture follows the Dravidian style but incorporates transitional features, such as a two-storeyed garbhagriha and a heavy prakara wall system.
• The main sanctum houses a massive crystal Shiva Linga (known as Sphatika Linga) which is approximately 15 feet tall, requiring priests to perform rituals from a pedestal on the second floor.
• In addition to being a Saivite center, it is also a Shakti Peetha dedicated to Goddess Manikyamba, making it a unique pilgrimage site for both traditions.

 Additional Information

• Pancharama Kshetras:
• These are five holy shrines dedicated to Lord Shiva in Andhra Pradesh, believed to have originated from a single Shiva Linga owned by the demon Tarakasura.
• Khajuraho Temple:
• Located in Madhya Pradesh and built by the Chandela Dynasty, these temples are famous for their Nagara style and intricate shikharas.
• Meenakshi Temple:
• Situated in Madurai, it is a classic example of Dravidian architecture, specifically the Pandyan and Nayak phases, known for its towering gopurams.
• Chennakesava Temple:
• Found in Belur, it was built by King Vishnuvardhana and represents the peak of Hoysala architecture with its complex soapstone carvings.

The correct answer is Protein.

Key Points

• Proteins are large, complex biological macromolecules that play many critical roles in the body, including providing structural support and acting as enzymes to catalyze biochemical reactions.
• They are composed of monomers called amino acids, which are organic compounds containing an amino group (−NH₂), a carboxyl group (−COOH), and a unique side chain known as the R-group.
• There are 20 standard amino acids that combine in various sequences to form diverse protein structures; the specific order is determined by the gene sequence in an organism's DNA.
• Amino acids are linked together by covalent peptide bonds, which form through a dehydration synthesis reaction, resulting in a long chain called a polypeptide.
• Once a polypeptide chain is formed, it folds into a specific three-dimensional shape (secondary, tertiary, and sometimes quaternary structures), which is essential for its biological function.

 Additional Information

• Nucleic Acid:
• These are polymers made of nucleotides, which consist of a pentose sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base.
• Examples include DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid) and RNA (Ribonucleic acid), which are responsible for storing and transmitting genetic information.
• Carbohydrate:
• Composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms, usually in a ratio of 1:2:1.
• Their basic building blocks are monosaccharides (e.g., glucose, fructose), and they serve as the primary energy source for living organisms.
• Lipid:
• A diverse group of hydrophobic molecules including fats, oils, phospholipids, and steroids.
• They are primarily made of fatty acids and glycerol, serving functions in long-term energy storage and cell membrane formation.

The correct answer is Vitamin A.

Key Points

• Vitamin A, also known by its chemical name Retinol, is a fat-soluble vitamin essential for maintaining healthy vision, immune function, and skin health.
• The deficiency of Vitamin A primarily affects the eyes, leading to Night Blindness (scientifically termed Nyctalopia), where the retina fails to adapt to low-light conditions.
• Within the eye, Vitamin A is a precursor for Rhodopsin, a light-sensitive pigment located in the rod cells of the retina that enables vision in dim light.
• Severe and prolonged deficiency can lead to Xerophthalmia, a progressive eye disease that causes the cornea to become dry, cloudy, and eventually ulcerated, potentially leading to permanent blindness.
• Primary dietary sources of Vitamin A include carrots, spinach, sweet potatoes, liver, fish oils, and green leafy vegetables.

 Additional Information

• Vitamin C:
• Chemically known as Ascorbic Acid, it is a water-soluble antioxidant required for collagen synthesis and wound healing.
• Its deficiency results in Scurvy, characterized by weakness, anemia, and bleeding gums.
• Vitamin B12:
• Known as Cobalamin, it is vital for red blood cell formation, neurological health, and DNA synthesis.
• Deficiency often leads to Pernicious Anemia and various nerve-related issues.
• Vitamin D:
• Referred to as Calciferol or the sunshine vitamin, it regulates the absorption of calcium and phosphorus in the body.
• Deficiency causes Rickets in children (softening of bones) and Osteomalacia in adults.

The correct answer is Any Indian court or authority.

Key Points

• According to Article 124(7) of the Constitution of India, any person who has held the office of a Judge of the Supreme Court is prohibited from pleading or acting in any court or before any authority within the territory of India.
• The primary objective of this constitutional restriction is to ensure the independence of the judiciary and to prevent retired judges from utilizing their former influence or prestige to sway proceedings in lower courts or statutory bodies.
• The scope of this prohibition extends to all judicial and quasi-judicial bodies, including High Courts, District Courts, and various statutory tribunals located within the Indian borders.
• This provision ensures that the impartiality of the judicial system remains intact, as it avoids any potential conflict of interest or perception of favoritism that might arise if a former Supreme Court judge appeared as an advocate.

 Additional Information

• Supreme Court of India:
• The Supreme Court was inaugurated on January 28, 1950, and it replaced the Federal Court of India established under the Government of India Act 1935.
• The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President of India and hold office until they attain the age of 65 years.
• A judge can only be removed from office by an order of the President after an address by each House of Parliament supported by a special majority on the grounds of proved misbehavior or incapacity.
• Comparison with High Courts:
• Under Article 220, a retired permanent judge of a High Court is prohibited from practicing in the same High Court or courts subordinate to it where they served.
• However, unlike Supreme Court judges, retired High Court judges are permitted to practice in the Supreme Court and other High Courts in which they have not held a permanent position.
• International Courts:
• The constitutional bar in Article 124(7) specifically mentions 'within the territory of India'; therefore, retired judges are not constitutionally barred from serving in International Courts, such as the International Court of Justice (ICJ), provided they meet the international selection criteria.

The correct answer is Appellate jurisdiction.

Key Points

• The Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India allows it to hear appeals against judgments from the High Courts and other tribunals.
• Under Article 132 of the Indian Constitution, an appeal lies to the Supreme Court from any judgment, decree, or final order of a High Court if it involves a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution.
• The High Court must grant a certificate of fitness under Article 134A for the case to be eligible for appeal under this jurisdiction.
• This specific jurisdiction ensures that the Supreme Court remains the final arbiter and interpreter of the Constitution of India, maintaining legal uniformity across States.
• In cases where the High Court refuses to grant a certificate, the aggrieved party can still seek Special Leave to Appeal under Article 136, which is a discretionary power of the Supreme Court.

 Additional Information

• Original Jurisdiction
• Defined under Article 131 of the Constitution.
• It covers exclusive disputes between the Government of India and one or more States, or between two or more States.
• Advisory Jurisdiction
• Governed by Article 143, allowing the President of India to refer matters of law or public importance to the Supreme Court.
• The court provides its opinion, but it is not legally binding on the President.
• Supervisory Jurisdiction
• Primarily associated with Article 227, which grants High Courts the power of superintendence over all subordinate courts and tribunals within their territorial limits.
• The Supreme Court maintains oversight through its status as a Court of Record and powers under Article 141.

The correct answer is six.

Key Points

• According to Article 75(5) of the Indian Constitution, a Minister who for any period of six consecutive months is not a member of either House of Parliament shall at the expiration of that period cease to be a Minister.
• This provision allows the President, on the advice of the Prime Minister, to appoint an individual to the Council of Ministers who is not currently a member of the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha.
• The constitutional mandate requires such a non-member to obtain a seat in either house through direct election, by-election, or nomination within the specified six-month window.
• Failure to comply with this requirement leads to the automatic termination of the ministerial position, ensuring the principle of parliamentary accountability is upheld.

 Additional Information

• Constitutional Framework:
• Article 164(4): Provides a mirrored provision for State Governments, where a Minister in a State Legislative Assembly or Council must be elected within six months.
• Collective Responsibility: Under Article 75(3), the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
• Judicial Rulings:
• In the case of S.R. Chaudhuri v. State of Punjab (2001), the Supreme Court ruled that a non-member cannot be reappointed as a minister immediately after the six-month period ends without getting elected, as it would be a fraud on the Constitution.
• Membership Requirements:
• To remain a minister, the individual must satisfy the qualifications for Parliamentary membership as defined under Article 84, including being a citizen of India and meeting the minimum age of 25 years for Lok Sabha or 30 years for Rajya Sabha.

The correct answer is 1967.

Key Points

• The Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India lists the official languages recognized by the Indian government for various administrative and educational purposes.
• Sindhi was formally included in the Eighth Schedule through the 21st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1967.
• Before this amendment, the schedule contained only 14 languages that were recognized at the time of the Constitution's adoption in 1950.
• Sindhi became the 15th language to be added to the list, marking the first time the schedule was expanded since the commencement of the Constitution.
• The inclusion was primarily driven by the need to protect the linguistic identity and cultural heritage of the Sindhi-speaking community, many of whom migrated to India during the Partition of 1947.

 Additional Information

• Evolution of the Eighth Schedule:
• 71st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992: This amendment further expanded the list by adding Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali.
• 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003: Four more languages, namely Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali, were added, bringing the total to 22 languages.
• 96th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011: This act substituted the term 'Oriya' with Odia in the schedule.
• Constitutional Significance:
• Article 344(1): Provides for the creation of an Official Languages Commission to make recommendations regarding the progressive use of Hindi and restrictions on English.
• Article 351: Mandates the Union government to promote the spread and development of the Hindi language so that it may serve as a medium of expression for India's composite culture.
• Candidates appearing for competitive exams, such as UPSC or SSC, are eligible to write their examinations in any of the languages listed in the Eighth Schedule.

The correct answer is Sclerenchyma.

Key Points

• Sclerenchyma is a simple permanent tissue primarily responsible for providing mechanical support, rigidity, and structural strength to the plant, especially in stems and vascular bundles.
• The cells of this tissue are dead at maturity and lack protoplasm, allowing them to function purely as a skeletal framework.
• The cell walls are heavily and uniformly thickened with lignin, a complex organic polymer that provides extreme tensile strength and makes the cells waterproof.
• Sclerenchyma occurs in two forms: Fibers, which are long, narrow, and tapering cells, and Sclereids (stone cells), which provide hardness to fruit walls and seed coats.
• It is commonly located in the hypodermis of monocot stems, around the veins of leaves, and in the hard covering of nuts and seeds.

 Additional Information

• Parenchyma
• Consists of living cells with thin cellulosic walls and large intercellular spaces.
• Functions mainly in food storage, photosynthesis (when containing chlorophyll, called chlorenchyma), and providing buoyancy (aerenchyma).
• Xylem
• A complex permanent tissue responsible for the conduction of water and dissolved minerals from the roots to the leaves.
• Composed of tracheids, vessels, xylem parenchyma, and xylem fibers.
• Phloem
• A complex permanent tissue that facilitates the translocation of organic nutrients (food) from leaves to other parts of the plant.
• Consists of sieve tubes, companion cells, phloem parenchyma, and phloem fibers.

The correct answer is Wheat.

Key Points

• The Great Indian Plains, also known as the Indo-Gangetic-Brahmaputra Plains, are primarily composed of alluvial soil, which is extremely fertile and rich in minerals like potash and lime.
• Wheat is the second most important cereal crop in India and serves as the staple food for millions in the north and north-western regions.
• As a Rabi crop, it requires a cool growing season followed by bright sunshine during the ripening period to ensure high-quality grain development.
• The crop typically demands annual rainfall ranging between 50 cm and 75 cm, making the irrigation facilities in Punjab, Haryana, and Uttar Pradesh ideal for its cultivation.
• The vast, level topography of the Northern Plains allows for extensive mechanized farming, contributing significantly to India's Green Revolution success.

 Additional Information

• Rubber:
• It is an equatorial crop that requires a moist and humid climate with temperatures above 25°C.
• In India, it is mainly grown in Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, rather than the northern plains.
• Coffee:
• Requires a warm and wet climate with well-drained loamy soils found primarily on hill slopes.
• Its cultivation is largely confined to the Western Ghats, specifically in Karnataka (the largest producer), Kerala, and Tamil Nadu.
• Tea:
• An evergreen plantation crop that thrives in deep, fertile, well-drained soil rich in humus and organic matter.
• Major production centers include the hills of Assam, Darjeeling, and Jalpaiguri, where high rainfall is evenly distributed throughout the year.

The correct answer is Article 21.

Key Points

• Article 21 of the Constitution of India declares that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.
• This right is available to both citizens and non-citizens, ensuring a foundational safeguard against arbitrary state action.
• The Supreme Court of India, through the landmark Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978) case, interpreted this article broadly, ruling that the 'procedure' must be just, fair, and reasonable (incorporating the doctrine of substantive due process).
• Under the umbrella of Article 21, the right to live with human dignity is a core component, which explicitly includes protection from torture, custodial violence, and cruel or inhuman treatment.
• The scope of this article has been expanded to include various rights such as the Right to Privacy, Right to Education, and the Right to a Clean Environment.
• Significantly, under Article 359, the rights guaranteed by Article 21 and Article 20 cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency.

 Additional Information

• Article 19:
• Guarantees six democratic freedoms including freedom of speech, assembly, association, movement, residence, and profession.
• These rights are exclusive to Indian citizens and can be restricted on grounds of sovereignty and public order.
• Article 20:
• Provides protection against arbitrary and excessive punishment to an accused person.
• It includes three safeguards: protection against ex-post-facto laws, protection against double jeopardy, and protection against self-incrimination.
• Article 22:
• Grants protection to persons who are arrested or detained.
• It covers punitive detention (post-trial) and preventive detention (without trial), ensuring the right to be informed of grounds and the right to consult a legal practitioner.

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.

Key Points

• The Narora Atomic Power Station (NAPS) is located in Narora, Bulandshahr district, in the northern state of Uttar Pradesh.
• It is situated on the banks of the Ganga River, which serves as the primary source of water for the cooling requirements of the reactors.
• The facility houses two units of Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors (PHWR), each with an installed capacity of 220 MW, bringing the total capacity of the station to 440 MW.
• Unit 1 of the plant began commercial operations on January 1, 1991, while Unit 2 was commissioned on July 1, 1992.
• The plant is owned and operated by the Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL), a Public Sector Undertaking under the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE).
• NAPS was the first nuclear power plant in India to receive the ISO-14001 environmental certification and is known for its advanced safety systems and seismic resistance designs.

 Additional Information

• Nuclear power infrastructure in other states mentioned:
• Gujarat: This state hosts the Kakrapar Atomic Power Station (KAPS), which recently saw the commissioning of India’s first indigenous 700 MW PHWR unit.
• Rajasthan: It is home to the Rajasthan Atomic Power Station (RAPS) located at Rawatbhata, which was established with Canadian collaboration.
• Madhya Pradesh: A proposed nuclear power project known as the Chutka Nuclear Power Plant is planned for the Mandla district of this state.
• Maharashtra: Houses the Tarapur Atomic Power Station (TAPS), which is the oldest nuclear facility in India, commissioned in 1969.
• Tamil Nadu: Features the Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant, the largest nuclear power station in India in terms of capacity, built with Russian assistance.

The correct answer is Maru-Shri.

Key Points

• The Desert Festival, also known as Maru Mahotsav, is an annual cultural extravaganza held in the Golden City of Jaisalmer, Rajasthan, typically during the Hindu month of Magh (February).
• The Maru-Shri competition is the premier title for the Mr. Desert contest, where male participants are judged on their traditional Rajasthani attire, physical personality, and the quality of their turbans and moustaches.
• This event serves as a platform to showcase the vibrant heritage of the Thar Desert, attracting thousands of domestic and international tourists to the Sam Sand Dunes.
• The selection process for Maru-Shri emphasizes the preservation of folk traditions and the iconic cultural identity of the men of Western Rajasthan.

 Additional Information

• Miss Moomal:
• This is the title awarded to the winner of the beauty pageant for women held during the Desert Festival, named after the legendary Princess Moomal of Lodurva.
• Rajasthan Tourism Development Corporation (RTDC):
• The festival is organized and managed by the RTDC and the District Administration of Jaisalmer to promote regional tourism.
• Major Attractions:
• The festival features unique events such as Camel Polo, Turban Tying competitions, Gair dance performances, and folk music by the Manganiyar and Langa communities.
• The concluding ceremony usually takes place on Purnima (Full Moon Night) with a grand display of fireworks and folk melodies amidst the sand dunes.

The correct answer is Two groups.

Key Points

• The Indian drainage system is primarily classified into two major groups based on the discharge of water and its orientation toward the surrounding seas.
• The first major division is the Bay of Bengal drainage, which receives approximately 77 percent of the total surface runoff from the Indian subcontinent. Major river systems contributing to this group include the Ganga, the Brahmaputra, the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna, and the Cauvery.
• The second major division is the Arabian Sea drainage, which accounts for nearly 23 percent of the water discharge. Prominent rivers in this category include the Indus, the Narmada, the Tapi, the Mahi, and the Periyar.
• These two drainage orientations are separated by a natural Water Divide that extends along the Delhi Ridge, the Aravalli Range, and the Sahyadris (Western Ghats), preventing the mixing of waters from these two basins before they reach the sea.

 Additional Information

• Bay of Bengal Drainage Characteristics:
• Most rivers in this group flow in an easterly direction across the Indian peninsula or the northern plains.
• Due to the gentler slope of the Eastern Coastal Plains and high sediment loads, these rivers typically form massive deltas, such as the Sunderbans and the Krishna-Godavari delta.
• Arabian Sea Drainage Characteristics:
• Rivers in this group generally flow in a westerly direction.
• Many rivers, particularly those originating in the Western Ghats, have steep gradients and short courses, leading to the formation of estuaries rather than deltas at their mouths.
• The Narmada and Tapi are unique as they flow through rift valleys created by tectonic activities.
• Catchment Area Classification:
• In addition to sea orientation, Indian river basins are often grouped by size into Major River Basins (catchment area > 20,000 sq km), Medium River Basins (2,000 to 20,000 sq km), and Minor River Basins (catchment area < 2,000 sq km).

The correct answer is Article 16.

Key Points

• Article 16 of the Indian Constitution guarantees equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State. It is a fundamental right categorized under the Right to Equality (Articles 14 to 18).
• Article 16(1) establishes the general principle that there shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of public employment. This ensures that every citizen has an equal chance to apply for and be considered for government positions without arbitrary barriers.
• Article 16(2) specifically prohibits discrimination in employment on seven grounds: religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence, or any of them. No citizen can be rendered ineligible for any office under the State solely based on these criteria.
• Article 16(4) serves as an enabling provision that allows the State to make reservations in appointments or posts in favor of any backward class of citizens which, in the opinion of the State, is not adequately represented in the services under the State.
• Article 16(4A) and Article 16(4B), introduced via the 77th and 81st Amendment Acts respectively, deal with reservations in matters of promotion and the carry-forward of unfilled reserved vacancies, ensuring the advancement of Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs).
• Article 16(6) was inserted by the 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019, providing for up to 10 percent reservation for the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) of citizens, other than the classes mentioned in clauses (4) and (5).

 Additional Information

• Article 10:
• Concerns the Continuance of the rights of citizenship.
• It stipulates that every person who is or is deemed to be a citizen of India under the preceding articles shall continue to be such citizen, subject to any law that may be made by the Parliament.
• Article 24:
• Pertains to the Prohibition of employment of children in factories, mines, or other hazardous activities.
• It strictly mandates that no child below the age of 14 years shall be engaged in any hazardous employment, supporting the Right against Exploitation.
• Article 34:
• Relates to restrictions on fundamental rights while martial law is in force in any area within the territory of India.
• It empowers the Parliament to indemnify any person in the service of the Union or a State for any act done for the maintenance or restoration of order.