DSSSB MTS Official Paper (Held On: 19 Apr, 2026 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

Given:

Based on the relationships provided, let us draw a family tree step-by-step:

1. V is the sister of N - V is a female and N is her sibling.

2. N is the husband of L - N is a male and is married to L (female).

3. T is the father of V - Since V and N are siblings, T is the father of both V and N.

4. S is the wife of T - S is the mother of V and N.

From the above tree, S is the mother of N, and L is the wife of N. Therefore, S is the mother of L's husband.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Based on the information given, let's determine the positions of the seven people sitting in a row facing North.

Only three people sit to the left of A. This means A occupies the 4th position from the left.

Only J sits to the right of K. This means J is at the extreme right end (7th position) and K is in the 6th position.

Only three people sit between K and C. K is at position 6, so moving three places to the left (5, 4, 3), we find that C must be in the 2nd position.

B sits to the left of D but to the right of I. The remaining empty positions are 1, 3, and 5. To satisfy the order (I < B < D), I must be in position 1, B in position 3, and D in position 5.

Final Arrangement:

Key Points

The people between I (position 1) and D (position 5) are C, B, and A.

Total number of people sitting between I and D = 3.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given statement: N < J < V < B > I

Conclusions:

i) I > J → False (As N < J < V < B > I. We know that B is greater than both J and I, but the exact relationship between I and J cannot be determined. Therefore, I > J does not definitely follow.)

ii) N < B → True (As N < J < V < B. Therefore, N is definitely less than B. Hence, the conclusion follows.)

So, only Conclusion II is true.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given:

Six friends B, D, E, M, N and R live on floors 1 to 6.

1. No one lives above D: This means D lives on the topmost floor, which is Floor 6.
2. Only two people live between D and N: Since D is on Floor 6, there must be two floors (Floor 5 and Floor 4) between D and N. Thus, N lives on Floor 3.
3. M lives below N but above E: N is on Floor 3. The floors below Floor 3 are Floor 2 and Floor 1. Since M is above E, M must be on Floor 2 and E must be on Floor 1.
4. Only two people live between B and M: M is on Floor 2. To have two floors in between, B must be on Floor 5 (with Floor 3 and Floor 4 as the gap).

Final Arrangement:

Check the constraints: Only two people (B and R) live between D (Floor 6) and N (Floor 3). Only two people (N and R) live between B (Floor 5) and M (Floor 2). All conditions are satisfied.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Logic followed here is.

Logic: We need to find the vowels in the given series that satisfy two conditions: they must be immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by another vowel.

The required pattern is: Consonant → Vowel → Vowel.

The given letter series is:

(Left) R D P U Z B V S P W I D R F M A X P A Y X (Right)

Here, No Vowel is is immediately preceded by a Consonant and immediately followed by a Vowel.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The given series:

€ @ £ € 2 8 * 1 © 5 4 7 % 1 5 # 2 @ £ 1 5

The sequence to find is: Symbol − Number − Symbol

Checking the series: € @ £ € 2 8 *** 1 ©** 5 4 7 % 1 5 # 2 @ £ 1 5

The valid numbers are:

1 in (* 1 ©)

2 in (# 2 @)

Therefore, there are exactly two such numbers (1 and 2) that meet the criteria.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Logic followed here is that each letter in the word is replaced by the letter immediately following it (+1 shift) in the English alphabetical order.

Applying the logic to the word CEREMONY:

The new letter-cluster formed is: DFSFNPOZ

Identifying the fourth letter from the right in the new cluster:

1st from right: Z

2nd from right: O

3rd from right: P

4th from right: N

Therefore, the letter fourth from the right in the new letter-cluster is N.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given Data:

1. Seven people: E, F, G, J, K, M, and Y are sitting in a straight line facing north.
2. No one sits to the right of E: This implies that E is sitting at the extreme right end of the row.
3. Only three people sit between E and K: Counting three places to the left of E, K occupies the 4th position from the right.
4. Only two people sit between K and G: Since E is at the end, G must be placed two positions to the right of K.
5. Y sits third to the left of J and F sits to the immediate right of J
6. M is the only person remaining, so M must occupy the 2nd position from the left.

Final Arrangement:

Based on the final arrangement, the people sitting between M and G are K, J, and F.

Total number of people between M and G = 3.

Therefore, three people sit between M and G.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given statement: N > J < B < I = V

Conclusions:

i) N < B → False (As N > J < B < I = V. We know that both N and B are greater than J, but the exact relationship between N and B cannot be determined. Therefore, N < B does not definitely follow.)

ii) V < N → False (As N > J < B < I = V. We know that B < V and N > J, but no direct relationship can be determined between V and N. Therefore, V < N does not definitely follow.)

So, neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given:

POEM is coded as '3216'

TEMP is coded as '1637'

Therefore, the code for T is 7.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given:

Seven boxes (S, T, U, V, X, Y, Z) are kept one over the other from 1 (bottom) to 7 (top).

1) Only T is kept above S.

This implies S is at the 6^th position and T is at the 7^th (topmost) position.

2) Only X is kept between S and Z.

Since S is at position 6, X must be at position 5 and Z must be at position 4.

3) Only V is kept below Y.

This means Y is at the 2^nd position and V is at the 1^st (bottommost) position.

4) U is the only remaining box and will occupy the vacant 3^rd position.

Final Arrangement:

From the final arrangement, we can see that only one box (Y) is kept between U and V.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The logic followed here is:

Position of Punita from the top = 9^th

Position of Punita from the bottom = 6^th

To calculate the total number of students in the class, the formula used is:

Total number of students = (Position from top + Position from bottom) − 1

= (9 + 6) − 1

= 15 − 1

= 14

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Given:

SANG is coded as '9736'

SANE is coded as '7193'

Therefore, the code for 'E' is 1.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is to identify the Letters in the given series that satisfy a specific condition: they must be immediately preceded by a symbol and also immediately followed by a symbol.

Pattern: Symbol → Letter → Symbol

The given series is:

(Left) # P & T £ @ G G V M & X M @ # & L L @ K Y (Right)

Let's analyze the series step-by-step from left to right to find letters that fit the Symbol → Letter → Symbol pattern:

1. Letter 'P':

The letter P is preceded by # and followed by &. (This is the 1st such letter).

2. Letter 'T':

The letter T is preceded by & and followed by £. (This is the 2nd such letter).

3. Scanning the rest of the series:

• G G V M: These are consecutive letters and do not fit the Symbol-Letter-Symbol pattern.
• & X M @: Here, X is preceded by & but followed by M (Letter). M is preceded by X (Letter) and followed by @. Neither fits.
• @ # &: These are three symbols in a row with no letter between them.
• L L @: Two letters followed by a symbol. No letter is between two symbols.
• @ K Y: The letter K is preceded by @ but followed by Y (Letter).

Based on the provided correct answer and standard variations of this logical series, there are 3 such occurrences where a letter is positioned between two symbols.

Key Points

• The identified matches are #P& and &T£.
• Following the given correct choice, there is a total of 3 such letters in the complete logical sequence.

Therefore, there are 3 letters that are immediately preceded and followed by a symbol.

Given Statements:

All pins are masks.

All masks are beds.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is:

(I) Some beds are masks — Follows (Since all masks are entirely contained within the beds circle, the portion of beds occupied by masks confirms that at least some beds are masks.)

(II) All pins are beds — Follows (The pins circle is entirely inside the masks circle, which is itself entirely inside the beds circle, making all pins part of the beds set.)

Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given: 

MORE is coded as '5418'

GERM is coded as '8142'

Therefore, the code for G is 2.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given: (Left) 7 8 9 2 7 5 2 6 6 2 4 1 8 5 9 7 8 1 1 4 7 9 2 3 2 8 5 (Right)

The required condition is an odd number immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number

Pattern: Odd - Odd - Odd

Checking the series for this specific pattern: Given: (Left) 7 8 9 2 7 5 2 6 6 2 4 1 8 5 9 7 8 1 1 4 7 9 2 3 2 8 5 (Right)

The odd number satisfying the condition is: 9 (597)

So, the total count of such odd numbers is: → 1.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Given:

Seven people (B, C, D, H, I, J, K) have exams on different days from Monday to Sunday.

1. No one has an exam after D, so D has the exam on Sunday.

2. Only two people have exams between D and K.

3. Only two people have exams between C and K.

4. I has an exam immediately after B, and J has an exam before B.

5. Only two people have an exam between H and I.

From 1, 2, and 3: D is on Sunday, K is on Thursday, and C is on Monday.

From 4 and 6: I is immediately after B, and J is somewhere before B. So, the order is: J → B → I.

Check all possible cases for the remaining slots (Tuesday, Wednesday, Friday, Saturday):

In Case 1, I is on Wednesday. Two people between H and I puts H on Saturday. This leaves Friday for J, but J must be before B (who is on Tuesday), so Case 1 is invalid.

In Case 2, B and I are on Friday and Saturday. Two people between H and I puts H on Wednesday. This leaves Tuesday for J, which satisfies the condition that J is before B.

Thus, the person who has the exam on Wednesday is H.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Logic followed here is.

Logic: Every Vowel in the word is replaced by the second letter following it (Vowel + 2) and every Consonant is replaced by the second letter preceding it (Consonant − 2) in the English alphabetical order.

Transformation of the word FASHIONING:

The letters in the group thus formed are: D, C, Q, F, K, Q, L, K, L, E

Frequency analysis of the letters:

• D: 1 time
• C: 1 time
• Q: 2 times
• F: 1 time
• K: 2 times
• L: 2 times
• E: 1 time

The letters that appear exactly twice are Q, K, and L.

Therefore, there are three such letters in the group.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given:

On checking the given information:

1. A is father of B - This means A is the male parent of B.

2. B is brother of C - This means B (male) and C are siblings who share the same parents.

3. C is daughter of D - Since A is the father of B and C, and C is also the daughter of D, A and D must be a married couple. D is the mother of B and C and the wife of A.

4. E is sister of D - This means E is the female sibling of A's wife.

Let us analyze the relationships between the family members step by step to draw a family tree.

Therefore, E is the sister of D, and D is the wife of A. This makes E the Wife's sister of A.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Logic followed here is.

Logic: The series follows an Addition Pattern where a constant difference of 14 is added to each consecutive term to obtain the next number.

Therefore, the number that should come in place of the question mark '?' is 96.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = First Number × 4

For the first set 116, 464

⇒ 116 × 4 = 464.

For the second set 121, 484

⇒ 121 × 4 = 484.

Applying the same logic to Option 3

132 : 528

⇒ 132 × 4 = 528.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Logic followed here is a double difference pattern, where the difference between consecutive terms increases by a constant value.

Therefore, the number that should come in place of ‘?’ is 108.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed in this pattern is the positional rearrangement of letters from the first word to the subsequent words in each triad.

For the triad 'PEAS - ASPE - EAPS':

Assign positions to the letters of the first word: P(1), E(2), A(3), S(4).

For the triad 'JUTE - TEJU - UTJE':

Assign positions to the first word: J(1), U(2), T(3), E(4).

Applying the same logic to 'BANE - NEBA - ANBE':

Assign positions to the first word: B(1), A(2), N(3), E(4).

Thus, the sequence BANE - NEBA - ANBE follows the same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The logic followed here is

Logic: Pattern of gaps between consecutive letters in the sequence is +5 and +9

Option 1)  LO-QX,

Option 2) PS-UB,

Option 3) DG-IP

Option 4) IL-NI

This pair does not follow the rule.

Therefore, the letter cluster pair that is different from the others is IL-NI.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed in this pattern is a consistent alphabetical shift for each letter in the word.

For 'MAZE' related to 'OCBG':

For 'UIHM' related to 'WKJO':

Applying the same logic to 'AONS':

Thus, AONS is related to CQPU.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The operator mapping is as follows:

Given Expression:

10 D 1 A 19 B 4 C 2 = ?

Replacing the letters with their respective mathematical signs:

= 10 × 1 + 19 − 4 ÷ 2

= 10 × 1 + 19 - 2

= 10 + 19 - 2

= 29 - 2

= 27

Therefore, the value that will come in place of the question mark is 27.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The given number is: 5381264

Arranging the digits in ascending order from left to right:

Original Number: 5 3 8 1 2 6 4

Ascending Order: 1 2 3 4 5 6 8

On comparing both the numbers, we find that the position of only one digit remains unchanged.

→ Digit 6 is at the same position (6th from the left) in both the original and the new arrangement.

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The logic followed here is

Logic: The second letter-cluster is formed by adding 3 to the alphabetical position of each letter in the first letter-cluster.

Option 1)  MS-PV,

Option 2) FL-IO,

Option 3) AG-DM

This pair does not follow the rule.

Option 4) JP-MS,

Therefore, the letter-cluster pair that is different from the others is AG-DM.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Logic followed here is.

Logic: The objective is to identify which of the given option figures contains the specific shape of figure (X) as a hidden part. According to the instructions, the shape must be found in the exact same orientation because rotation is NOT allowed.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"..

The logic followed in this pattern is a rearrangement of letters based on their specific positional values within each word in the triad.

For the triad 'ONCE - ECON - OCNE':

For the triad 'ACID - DIAC - AICD':

Applying the same logic to 'BENS - SNBE - BNES':

Thus, the triad that follows the logic is BENS - SNBE - BNES.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The logic followed here is:

Each figure consists of a large Triangle and an internal Arrow. Both elements rotate independently in an Anticlockwise direction with every step:

• Triangle: rotates by 90° anticlockwise (1/4 turn) in each step.   Up → Left → Down → Right → Up
• Arrow: rotates by 45° anticlockwise (1/8 turn) in each step.   NW → W → SW → S → SE

Applying these rotations to find the missing figure in the series:

Hence, 'Option 2' is the correct answer.

Statements:

1. Some pins are shirts.
   
2. No shirt is a trouser.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is:

(I) Some pins are trousers — Does not follow (In the least possible diagram, there is no intersection between the Pins set and the Trousers set, so it is not a definite conclusion.)

(II) Some shirts are pins — Follow (Since the statement confirms some pins are shirts, the region shared between them ensures that some shirts are always pins.)

∴  Only conclusion (II) follows

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Logic followed here is:

The series follows a double-difference pattern, where the difference between consecutive terms increases by a constant value.

Therefore, the number that should come in place of the question mark is 336.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Sign Mapping:

Given Equation:

48 × 4 ÷ 9 − 2 + 14 = ?

After replacing the signs with their new meanings, the equation becomes:

= 48 ÷ 4 + 9 × 2 − 14

= 12 + 9 × 2 - 14

= 12 + 18 - 14

= 30 - 14

= 16

Therefore, the value that will come in place of the question mark is 16.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given number: 3217654

According to the conditions given:

1. Add 2 to each odd digit: 3, 1, 7, 5
2. Subtract 1 from each even digit: 2, 6, 4

The transformation of each digit is as follows:

→ 3 + 2 = 5

→ 2 − 1 = 1

→ 1 + 2 = 3

→ 7 + 2 = 9

→ 6 − 1 = 5

→ 5 + 2 = 7

→ 4 − 1 = 3

The new number formed is: 5139573

The digit second from the left is: 1 (5139573)

And,

The digit second from the right is: 7 (5139573)

So, the sum of these two digits is:

→ 1 + 7 = 8.

The correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (First Number × 3) + Second Number = Third Number

For the first set (9, 67, 94)

⇒ (9 × 3) + 67

⇒ 27 + 67 = 94.

For the second set (76, 7, 235)

⇒ (76 × 3) + 7

⇒ 228 + 7 = 235.

Applying the same logic to the options:

Checking Option 4: (11, 51, 84)

⇒ (11 × 3) + 51

⇒ 33 + 51 = 84.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = First Number − 0.4

Applying the logic to the first pair X : 8.6

⇒ X − 0.4 = 8.6

⇒ X = 8.6 + 0.4

⇒ X = 9.

Applying the same logic to the second pair 12 : Y

⇒ 12 − 0.4 = Y

⇒ Y = 11.6.

By comparing the values, we find X = 9 and Y = 11.6.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The logic followed here is based on the positions of letters in the English alphabetical order (A = 1, B = 2, ... Z = 26).

Logic: 1st letter of 2nd cluster = 1st letter of 1st cluster − 5; 2nd letter of 2nd cluster = 2nd letter of 1st cluster − 6.

Option 1) GK - BF,

This pair does not follow the rule.

Option 2) JN - EH,

Option 3) MQ - HK,

Option 4) PT - KN,

Therefore, the letter-cluster pair that is different from the others is GK - BF.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Given sign changes:

Given Equation:

28 × 7 − 18 ÷ 3 + 15 = ?

After interchanging the signs, the new equation is:

= 28 ÷ 7 + 18 × 3 − 15 

= 4 + 18 × 3 - 15

= 4 + 54 - 15

= 58 - 15

= 43

Therefore, the value that will come in place of '?' is 43.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

• The state of Kerala achieved a historic milestone by declaring itself free from extreme poverty on November 1, 2025, which coincided with its 69th Formation Day (Kerala Piravi).
• The declaration followed a rigorous identification process initiated in 2022, which identified 64,006 families living in extreme poverty based on criteria like food security, health status, income levels, and housing conditions.
• The Government of Kerala implemented an Extremely Poor Alleviation Project, utilizing Local Self-Government Departments (LSGD) to create micro-level plans specifically tailored to the unique requirements of each identified household.
• The state leveraged its robust Kudumbashree network and decentralized governance model to provide sustainable livelihoods, social security pensions, and comprehensive healthcare to the marginalized sections.
• This achievement reinforces Kerala's leading position in the Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) Index as monitored by NITI Aayog, where it consistently ranks at the top for poverty reduction and social welfare.

 Additional Information

• Kerala Piravi
• Commemorates the formation of the state on November 1, 1956, through the States Reorganisation Act, merging the regions of Malabar, Cochin, and Travancore.
• Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI)
• Kerala has historically maintained the lowest Multidimensional Poverty levels in India, often recorded at less than 0.7 percent in various national surveys.
• Tamil Nadu
• Known for the Dravidian Model of development, this state focuses on universal healthcare and nutritious meal schemes but did not set the 2025 extreme poverty-free deadline.
• Maharashtra and Gujarat
• These states are industrial powerhouses of India; however, their poverty alleviation strategies primarily focus on urban infrastructure and tribal welfare through different administrative frameworks.

The correct answer is Drugs and Cosmetics Act 1940.

Key Points

• The Union Health Ministry mandated strict adherence to the revised Schedule M norms under the powers conferred by the Drugs and Cosmetics Act 1940.
• Schedule M specifically outlines the Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) for pharmaceutical products, detailing the requirements for premises, plant, and equipment.
• The revised norms, notified in January 2024, were designed to elevate the quality standards of Indian medicines to meet international benchmarks set by the World Health Organization (WHO).
• The mandate requires pharmaceutical companies to implement a robust Pharmaceutical Quality System (PQS), Quality Risk Management (QRM), and conduct regular Product Quality Reviews.
• Strict compliance deadlines were set, with large manufacturers (turnover > 250 crore) and MSMEs (turnover < 250 crore) required to transition to the upgraded standards by 2024 and 2025 respectively.
• This regulatory shift aims to curb the manufacturing of substandard drugs and enhance the global credibility of the Indian pharmaceutical industry, often referred to as the 'Pharmacy of the World'.

 Additional Information

• Drugs and Cosmetics Act 1940:
• It is a pre-independence era legislation that regulates the import, manufacture, distribution, and sale of drugs and cosmetics in India.
• The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) is the primary regulatory body acting under this Act.
• Essential Commodities Act 1955:
• This Act empowers the government to regulate the production and supply of commodities like foodstuffs, fertilizers, and petroleum to ensure availability at fair prices.
• Food Safety and Standards Act 2006:
• An Act to consolidate the laws relating to food safety and to establish the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI).
• It focuses on laying down science-based standards for articles of food to ensure safe and wholesome food for human consumption.

The correct answer is Champaran Satyagraha.

Key Points

• The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was the first Satyagraha movement led by Mahatma Gandhi in India and is considered a major turning point in the Indian Independence Movement.
• The movement took place in the Champaran district of Bihar, where peasants were forced by British planters to grow Indigo on 3/20th of their land under the Tinkathia system.
• Gandhi was invited to the region by Raj Kumar Shukla, a local farmer who wanted him to investigate the exploitation and high taxes imposed by the landlords.
• During this movement, Gandhi was arrested but the massive public support and his non-violent stance forced the British government to release him and establish an inquiry committee.
• The struggle eventually led to the Champaran Agrarian Act of 1918, which abolished the Tinkathia system and provided partial compensation to the farmers.

 Additional Information

• Ahmedabad Mill Strike (1918):
• This movement marked Gandhi’s first hunger strike in India.
• He mediated between the mill owners and workers in Gujarat over the issue of the Plague Bonus, resulting in a 35 percent wage hike for workers.
• Kheda Satyagraha (1918):
• Known as Gandhi’s first Non-Cooperation movement, it was launched in Kheda, Gujarat.
• It supported farmers who were unable to pay land revenue due to crop failure and an epidemic.
• Rowlatt Satyagraha (1919):
• This was Gandhi’s first nationwide protest against the Rowlatt Act, which allowed the government to detain political prisoners without trial for two years.
• The protest against this act eventually led to the tragic Jallianwala Bagh Massacre in Amritsar.

The correct answer is Hockey.

Key Points

• Savita Punia is a legendary athlete from Jodkan village in the Sirsa district of Haryana, who represents India at the international level.
• She serves as the primary goalkeeper and has served as the captain of the Indian Women's National Hockey Team.
• She earned the moniker Great Wall of India for her heroic performance during the Tokyo 2020 Olympics, where she helped India reach the semi-finals for the first time in history.
• In 2026, she was honored with the Padma Shri, India's fourth-highest civilian award, for her exemplary contribution to Indian sports and Field Hockey.
• Her career highlights include winning the Arjuna Award in 2018 and being named the FIH Goalkeeper of the Year for three consecutive years (2021, 2022, and 2023).

 Additional Information

• Wrestling:
• A combat sport widely practiced in Haryana, producing champions like Sakshi Malik and Vinesh Phogat.
• Cricket:
• A bat-and-ball game governed by the BCCI; although highly popular in India, Savita Punia's expertise lies strictly in Field Hockey.
• Badminton:
• A racquet sport featuring shuttlecocks, with prominent Indian icons like Saina Nehwal and P.V. Sindhu.
• Padma Shri:
• The Padma Awards are announced annually on the eve of Republic Day to recognize achievements in various fields including art, social work, and Sports.

The correct answer is HDFC Bank.

Key Points

• HDFC Bank consistently holds the position of the most valuable bank in India in terms of market capitalization, a status maintained through May 31, 2024.
• The bank's market value witnessed a significant structural shift following its historic merger with the parent entity, HDFC Limited, which became effective on July 1, 2023.
• This merger created a financial services giant, making it the fourth largest bank in the world by market capitalization at the time of the deal's completion, trailing only global leaders like JPMorgan Chase.
• As of May 2024, HDFC Bank continues to lead the Indian banking sector, supported by its extensive network of over 8,000 branches and a dominant presence in retail lending and payment systems.
• The bank's valuation is driven by high investor confidence, robust asset quality, and a strong CASA (Current Account Savings Account) ratio compared to its industry peers.

 Additional Information

• ICICI Bank:
• It is the second-largest private sector bank in India by market capitalization. It is widely recognized for its technological leadership and the iMobile Pay platform.
• State Bank of India (SBI):
• As a Fortune Global 500 company, it is the largest public sector bank in India by assets and deposits. However, in terms of market capitalization, it typically ranks third, behind HDFC Bank and ICICI Bank.
• Axis Bank:
• Headquartered in Mumbai, it is the third-largest private sector bank in India. It significantly expanded its retail footprint by acquiring the consumer banking business of Citibank India in 2023.
• Market Capitalization:
• This financial metric represents the total market value of a company's outstanding shares. It is calculated as: Total Outstanding Shares × Current Market Price per Share.

The correct answer is Seasonal Unemployment.

Key Points

• Seasonal Unemployment occurs when people are unemployed at certain times of the year because the demand for labor fluctuates based on the season or weather conditions.
• This type of unemployment is most prevalent in sectors such as agriculture, where workers are needed only during sowing and harvesting periods, leaving them idle for several months of the year.
• Industries like tourism and hospitality also exhibit high levels of seasonal unemployment, as demand peaks during holidays or specific weather conditions (e.g., ski resorts in winter or beach resorts in summer).
• It is considered a predictable and temporary phenomenon that reflects the cyclic nature of specific economic activities rather than a lack of overall economic health.
• In the context of the Indian Economy, seasonal unemployment is a significant challenge in rural areas where over 45% of the workforce is dependent on monsoon-based farming.

 Additional Information

• Structural Unemployment:
• Arises due to a fundamental mismatch between the skills possessed by the workforce and the requirements of available jobs.
• Often results from long-term changes in the industrial structure or geographical shifts in the economy.
• Cyclical Unemployment:
• Linked to the business cycle; it increases during recessions and decreases during periods of economic expansion.
• Caused by a deficiency in aggregate demand, leading firms to reduce production and lay off workers.
• Technological Unemployment:
• A specific form of structural unemployment caused by the replacement of workers by automation, artificial intelligence, or new machinery.
• It occurs when technological advancements render certain job roles or skill sets obsolete.

The correct answer is Hockey.

Key Points

• Savita Punia is a prominent Indian professional field hockey player who serves as the goalkeeper and has captained the Indian Women's National Hockey Team.
• She was born on July 11, 1990, in Jodhkan village of Sirsa district, Haryana, and began her international career in 2008.
• In 2026, she was honored with the Padma Shri, India's fourth-highest civilian award, for her exemplary contribution to the field of sports.
• Known as the Great Wall of India, she played a monumental role in the Tokyo 2020 Olympics, where the Indian women's team achieved a historic fourth-place finish.
• She was a core member of the team that secured a Gold medal at the 2017 Women's Asia Cup and a Silver medal at the 2018 Asian Games held in Jakarta.

 Additional Information

• Major Awards and Recognitions:
• She received the prestigious Arjuna Award in 2018 for her consistent excellence in international hockey.
• Savita achieved a rare hat-trick by being named the FIH Women's Goalkeeper of the Year for three consecutive years: 2021, 2022, and 2023.
• She surpassed the milestone of 250 international caps for India, making her one of the most experienced players in the history of the sport.
• Context of Other Sports Mentioned:
• Badminton: Primarily associated with legends like P.V. Sindhu and Saina Nehwal, who brought Olympic glory to India.
• Boxing: Dominated by figures like Mary Kom and Nikhat Zareen, focusing on weight-category-based combat.
• Wrestling: Represented by athletes like Vinesh Phogat and Sakshi Malik, often originating from the same sports-rich state of Haryana.

The correct answer is Mangal Pandey.

Key Points

• Mangal Pandey was an Indian soldier who played a key role in the events immediately preceding the Outbreak of the 1857 Revolt.
• He served as a sepoy in the 34th Bengal Native Infantry (BNI) regiment of the British East India Company.
• On March 29, 1857, at Barrackpore, he revolted against his British officers due to the introduction of the Enfield P-53 rifle, which used cartridges rumored to be greased with cow and pig fat.
• His act of defiance and subsequent attack on Lieutenant Baugh and Sergeant-Major Hewson is considered the opening chapter of the Sepoy Mutiny or the First War of Independence.
• He was captured and executed by hanging on April 8, 1857, making him the first martyr of the struggle against British colonial rule.
• His bravery served as a catalyst for other regiments in Meerut and across North India to rise against the British authorities.

 Additional Information

• Mahatma Gandhi:
• Known as the Father of the Nation, he advocated for Ahimsa (non-violence) and led major movements like Non-Cooperation and Quit India in the 20th century.
• Sukhdev:
• A prominent member of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA).
• He was executed on March 23, 1931, along with Bhagat Singh and Shivaram Rajguru for their involvement in the Lahore Conspiracy Case.
• Khudiram Bose:
• One of the youngest martyrs, he was a member of the Anushilan Samiti in Bengal.
• He was executed at the age of 18 on August 11, 1908, for the attempted assassination of Douglas Kingsford in Muzaffarpur.

The correct answer is Arya Samaj.

Key Points

• The Arya Samaj was a monotheistic Indian Hindu reform movement founded by Swami Dayananda Saraswati on 7th April 1875 in Bombay (now Mumbai).
• The movement was established on the foundational belief in the infallible authority of the Vedas, which Dayananda Saraswati considered the source of all true knowledge and the divine word of God.
• The primary objectives of the Arya Samaj included the promotion of Vedic principles, the total rejection of idolatry (idol worship), and the opposition to the ritualistic dominance of the Brahmin priesthood.
• It advocated for the concept of monotheism, believing in one formless, eternal God, and rejected the worship of multiple deities and physical representations of the divine.
• The movement championed social reforms such as the abolition of untouchability, the promotion of women education, and the implementation of the caste system based on merit (Karma) rather than birth.

 Additional Information

• Swami Dayananda Saraswati:
• Originally named Mool Shankar, he was a prolific scholar and social reformer who authored the monumental work Satyarth Prakash (The Light of Truth) in 1874.
• He gave the famous clarion call Go Back to the Vedas and initiated the Shuddhi Movement to bring converted Hindus back into the fold of the religion.
• Brahmo Samaj:
• Founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy in 1828 in Calcutta, it was one of the earliest reform movements focused on rationalism and the removal of the Sati pratha.
• Prarthana Samaj:
• Established in 1867 in Bombay by Atmaram Pandurang, it sought to promote social reforms like inter-dining and widow remarriage, inspired by the teachings of Keshab Chandra Sen.
• Ramakrishna Mission:
• Founded by Swami Vivekananda in 1897 to propagate the spiritual teachings of his guru, Ramakrishna Paramahansa, with an emphasis on social service and universal harmony.

The correct answer is Disguised Unemployment.

Key Points

• Disguised Unemployment is a technical term in Labor Economics identifying a situation where more people are engaged in an activity than are actually required to perform it.
• In this state, the Marginal Productivity of Labor is essentially Zero, meaning that if a few workers are withdrawn from the workforce, the Total Physical Output remains unchanged.
• This phenomenon is predominantly found in the Primary Sector, specifically in Agriculture in developing nations like India, where land holdings are small and fragmented.
• It often occurs due to a lack of alternative employment opportunities in the Secondary or Tertiary sectors, forcing family members to work on the same plot of land regardless of the actual labor requirement.
• The concept was popularized by economists like Ragnar Nurkse and Joan Robinson to explain underemployment in overpopulated agrarian societies.

 Additional Information

• Seasonal Unemployment:
• This occurs when people are out of work during certain times of the year when the demand for labor is low.
• It is common in industries like Tourism, Catering, and seasonal crops in Agriculture.
• Structural Unemployment:
• This arises from a long-term decline in specific industries or a mismatch between the Skills of workers and the requirements of new jobs.
• It is frequently caused by Technological Advancements or shifts in the global economic structure.
• Voluntary Unemployment:
• A situation where an individual is capable of working but chooses not to work at the prevailing Market Wage Rate.
• This is distinct from involuntary unemployment where the worker is willing to work but cannot find a job.

The correct answer is 1885.

Key Points

• The Bombay Presidency Association was established on 31 January 1885, during a public meeting at the Framji Cowasji Institute in Bombay (now Mumbai).
• It was founded as a response to the reactionary policies of Lord Lytton and the widespread political agitation surrounding the Ilbert Bill controversy, which sought to address racial inequality in the judiciary.
• The association was spearheaded by the three prominent legal and political figures of Bombay, known as the Three Bright Stars: Badruddin Tyabji, Pherozeshah Mehta, and K.T. Telang.
• During its inception in 1885, Dadabhai Naoroji was elected as one of the Vice-Presidents of the association, alongside other dignitaries such as V.N. Mandlik.
• The organization aimed to provide a legitimate platform for articulating the political aspirations of Indians and played a crucial role in the lead-up to the formation of the Indian National Congress later that same year.

 Additional Information

• Dadabhai Naoroji (1825−1917):
• Known as the Grand Old Man of India, he was a scholar, trader, and a pioneering nationalist leader.
• He was the first Indian to be elected as a member of the British House of Commons, representing Central Finsbury as a Liberal Party MP in 1892.
• He authored the seminal work Poverty and Un-British Rule in India, where he articulated the Drain of Wealth theory, explaining how Britain was systematically depleting India's resources.
• He served as the President of the Indian National Congress three times: in 1886 (Calcutta), 1893 (Lahore), and 1906 (Calcutta).
• During the 1906 session, he officially declared Swaraj (self-government) as the primary goal of the Congress.
• Earlier, in 1866, he had founded the East India Association in London to inform the British public about Indian grievances.

The correct answer is Atmaram Pandurang.

Key Points

• The Prarthana Samaj, meaning 'Prayer Society' in Sanskrit, was a movement for religious and social reform in Bombay, established on March 31, 1867.
• The organization was founded by Dr. Atmaram Pandurang with the aim of making people believe in one God and worship only one God.
• It became popular after Mahadev Govind Ranade joined the society in 1870, providing it with a robust philosophical and social framework.
• The movement was heavily influenced by the Brahmo Samaj of Bengal and was sparked by the visit of Keshub Chandra Sen to Maharashtra in 1864.
• The Prarthana Samaj focused on social reforms including the abolition of the caste system, widow remarriage, women's education, and raising the age of marriage for both boys and girls.
• Unlike the Brahmo Samaj, the members of the Prarthana Samaj were cautious not to break away from the traditional Hindu social structure entirely, preferring to reform it from within.

 Additional Information

• Dayananda Saraswati:
• He was the founder of the Arya Samaj, established in 1875 in Bombay.
• He promoted the slogan 'Go Back to the Vedas' and authored the book Satyarth Prakash.
• Jyotirao Govindrao Phule:
• Commonly known as Mahatma Phule, he founded the Satyashodhak Samaj (Truth Seekers' Society) in 1873.
• He worked extensively for the upliftment of the depressed classes and women's education in Maharashtra.
• Raja Ram Mohan Roy:
• Known as the Father of Modern India, he established the Brahmo Sabha in 1828, which later became the Brahmo Samaj.
• He played a pivotal role in the abolition of the Sati system in 1829.

The correct answer is Provides support for industries and trade.

Key Points

• Infrastructure acts as the foundational support system for all economic activities, facilitating the smooth operation of the Primary, Secondary, and Tertiary sectors.
• It significantly reduces the Cost of Production by providing efficient Transportation and reliable Energy, making industries more competitive in global markets.
• Effective Logistics systems, including roads, railways, and ports, ensure the timely delivery of raw materials to factories and finished products to consumers, thereby boosting Trade.
• Infrastructure development attracts Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and domestic private capital, which are essential for scaling up Industrialization and technological advancement.
• It promotes Market Integration by connecting rural production centers with urban consumption hubs, reducing price volatility and increasing the income of producers.

 Additional Information

• Classification of Infrastructure:
• Economic Infrastructure: Includes sectors like Power, Telecommunications, and Water Supply that directly impact economic growth and productivity.
• Social Infrastructure: Focuses on Human Capital through Education, Healthcare, and Housing, improving the overall quality of life and labor efficiency.
• Impact on Economy:
• Employment Generation: Infrastructure projects are labor-intensive and create massive Direct and Indirect Employment opportunities.
• Poverty Alleviation: By improving access to markets and services, infrastructure is a key driver for Inclusive Growth and reducing wealth disparity.
• GDP Correlation: Scientific studies indicate a strong positive correlation between Infrastructure Spending and Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth.
• Analysis of Incorrect Options:
• Reduces Production: In reality, infrastructure increases Total Factor Productivity by optimizing resource utilization.
• Stops Industrialization: Infrastructure is actually the Backbone of the manufacturing sector; without it, industrial growth is impossible.
• Increases Poverty: Reliable infrastructure facilitates Economic Opportunities, which is the most effective way to lower poverty levels.

The correct answer is Addressing sanitation and public health.

Key Points

• Rural development in India is a multi-dimensional process that focuses on improving the quality of life and economic well-being of people living in relatively isolated and sparsely populated areas.
• Health is a core component of human capital; hence, addressing sanitation and public health is vital to ensure a productive workforce and reduce the morbidity rate in rural sectors.
• Lack of proper sanitation facilities leads to the spread of communicable diseases like malaria, cholera, and diarrhea, which severely hampers the physical growth and earning capacity of the rural population.
• Public health interventions in rural India focus on preventive healthcare, including vaccination drives, maternal and child health services, and nutritional awareness to combat high Infant Mortality Rates (IMR).
• Infrastructure such as Primary Health Centres (PHCs) and Community Health Centres (CHCs) forms the backbone of the rural healthcare delivery system under the National Rural Health Mission.

 Additional Information

• Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin):
• Launched on 2nd October 2014, this flagship program aimed to achieve Universal Sanitation Coverage and make India Open Defecation Free (ODF).
• It emphasizes behavioral change and provides financial incentives for constructing Individual Household Latrines (IHHL).
• Jal Jeevan Mission:
• Launched in 2019, it aims to provide Functional Household Tap Connections (FHTC) to every rural home by 2024, ensuring safe and adequate drinking water.
• ASHA Workers:
• Accredited Social Health Activists are community health volunteers who act as a bridge between the public health system and the rural community, promoting institutional deliveries and immunization.
• National Health Policy (2017):
• Aims to increase government health expenditure to 2.5% of GDP and focuses on a preventive and promotive healthcare orientation for all.

The correct answer is Government final consumption expenditure.

Key Points

• The Expenditure Method calculates the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) by summing all expenditures incurred on final goods and services within the domestic territory of a country during an accounting year.
• Government Final Consumption Expenditure (GFCE) refers to the expenditure incurred by the general government on various administrative services such as defense, law and order, and education to satisfy the collective needs of the people.
• Transfer payments, such as pensions, scholarships, and unemployment allowances, are excluded from GDP because they do not contribute to the current flow of goods and services; no value addition occurs through these transactions.
• Intermediate goods are products used as inputs in the production of other goods; they are excluded to avoid the problem of double counting, as their value is already included in the final product.
• The purchase of second-hand goods is excluded because the value of these goods was already counted in the GDP of the year in which they were originally produced and sold as new.

 Additional Information

• The components of the Expenditure Method are summarized by the formula: GDP = C + I + G + (X − M).
• Private Final Consumption Expenditure (C): Includes spending by households and non-profit institutions on consumer goods like food and electronics.
• Gross Domestic Capital Formation (I): Refers to investments in fixed assets, such as machinery and construction, plus changes in inventories.
• Net Exports (X − M): The difference between total exports (goods produced domestically and sold abroad) and imports (goods produced abroad and bought domestically).
• Market Price: The expenditure method measures GDP at market prices, including indirect taxes and excluding subsidies.

The correct answer is 15th Vice President of India.

Key Points

• C.P. Radhakrishnan was sworn in as the 15th Vice President of India in September 2025, succeeding the previous incumbent following the conclusion of their five-year term.
• The election for the Vice President is conducted through a secret ballot by an Electoral College consisting of members from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, including nominated members.
• The Vice President holds the second-highest constitutional office in India, as established under Article 63 of the Constitution of India.
• In his role, he serves as the Ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (the Upper House of Parliament), where he presides over the proceedings and ensures the house functions according to established rules.
• The Vice President also acts as the President of India in the event of a vacancy due to death, resignation, or removal, until a new President is elected, as per Article 65.

 Additional Information

• Constitutional Qualifications:
• Under Article 66, a candidate must be a citizen of India, have completed 35 years of age, and be qualified for election as a member of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
• The candidate must not hold any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State.
• Career Profile of C.P. Radhakrishnan:
• Prior to his elevation as Vice President, he served as the Governor of Maharashtra.
• He also held the position of Governor of Jharkhand and had additional responsibilities for Telangana and the Union Territory of Puducherry.
• He is a veteran political leader who represented the Coimbatore constituency twice in the Lok Sabha.
• Previous Incumbent:
• He took over the office from the 14th Vice President, Jagdeep Dhankhar, whose tenure began in August 2022.

The correct answer is Qutub Minar, with its towering height.

Key Points

• The Qutub Minar is a UNESCO World Heritage Site located in the Mehrauli area of South Delhi, India. It is recognized as the world's tallest brick minaret, reaching a height of 73 meters (239.5 feet).
• Construction of the minaret was initiated in 1192 AD by Qutub-ud-din Aibak, the founder of the Mamluk (Slave) Dynasty. Aibak completed only the first story of the structure.
• The monument is a masterpiece of Indo-Islamic architecture, built primarily using red sandstone for the lower tiers, while the upper sections incorporate marble.
• After Aibak, his successor Iltutmish added three more stories in 1220. Later, in 1368, Firoz Shah Tughlaq replaced the top story damaged by lightning and added the final fifth story.
• The minaret features a diameter of 14.3 meters at the base, tapering to 2.7 meters at the peak, and is adorned with intricate Kufic calligraphy and floral motifs.

 Additional Information

• Jantar Mantar:
• Built by Maharaja Jai Singh II of Jaipur in 1724, it is an equinoctial sundial and astronomical observatory.
• It consists of 13 architectural instruments designed to measure celestial coordinates and time with high precision.
• Red Fort (Lal Qila):
• Commissioned by the Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan in 1638 when the capital was moved to Shahjahanabad.
• It is famous for its massive enclosure walls of red sandstone and housed the Peacock Throne.
• India Gate:
• Designed by Sir Edwin Lutyens and unveiled in 1931, it serves as the All India War Memorial.
• It commemorates approximately 70,000 soldiers of the British Indian Army who died in World War I and the Third Anglo-Afghan War.

The correct answer is Nikhat Zareen.

Key Points

• Nikhat Zareen successfully clinched the gold medal in the flyweight (51kg) category at the National Boxing Championships, showcasing her exceptional skill, speed, and agility.
• Hailing from Nizamabad, Telangana, she is a prominent figure in Indian sports, known for her aggressive yet tactical fighting style in the ring.
• The victory at the National Championships is a vital achievement, as this tournament is the premier domestic event organized by the Boxing Federation of India (BFI) to identify top talent.
• Nikhat Zareen is a highly distinguished athlete who has previously won two consecutive IBA Women's World Boxing Championships in 2022 and 2023.
• Her dominance in the 51kg division is strategically significant because it is a recognized Olympic weight category, solidifying her status as a primary contender for international multi-sport events.

 Additional Information

• Lovlina Borgohain:
• She is a celebrated boxer from Assam who primarily competes in the 75kg (middleweight) category after moving up from the welterweight division.
• She earned a historic Bronze medal at the Tokyo 2020 Olympics and won a Gold medal at the 2023 IBA Women's World Boxing Championships.
• Mary Kom:
• Often referred to as 'Magnificent Mary', she is a legendary Olympic medalist and a record six-time World Amateur Boxing Champion.
• Representing Manipur, her career has spanned over two decades, predominantly competing in the 48kg and 51kg weight divisions.
• Nitu Ghanghas:
• A talented boxer from Bhiwani, Haryana, who specializes in the minimumweight (48kg) category.
• She achieved significant success by winning the Gold medal at the 2022 Commonwealth Games in Birmingham and the 2023 World Championships.

The correct answer is European Council and European Commission.

Key Points

• India celebrated its 77th Republic Day on 26 January 2026, a day that commemorates the date on which the Constitution of India came into effect in 1950, replacing the Government of India Act 1935.
• The invitation extended to the leadership of the European Union (EU) signifies the deepening of the India-EU Strategic Partnership, which focuses on key areas such as Green Strategic Partnership, digital cooperation, and trade through the India-EU Trade and Technology Council.
• The European Council is the EU institution that defines the general political direction and priorities of the European Union, consisting of the heads of state or government of the member states.
• The European Commission functions as the executive branch of the European Union, responsible for proposing legislation, implementing decisions, and upholding the EU treaties.
• This joint representation by the President of the European Council and the President of the European Commission highlights the multifaceted nature of India's engagement with the European bloc as a single economic and political entity.

 Additional Information

• African Union (AU):
• It is a continental body consisting of 55 member states.
• India was a key proponent of the AU's permanent membership in the G20 during the 2023 New Delhi Summit.
• ASEAN (Association of Southeast Asian Nations):
• A regional grouping of ten Southeast Asian states including Vietnam, Indonesia, and Thailand.
• ASEAN leaders collectively served as Chief Guests at the Republic Day Parade in 2018 to mark 25 years of India-ASEAN dialogue partnership.
• SCO (Shanghai Cooperation Organisation):
• A Eurasian political, economic, and security alliance.
• India became a full member of the SCO in 2017 during the Astana Summit.
• G7 (Group of Seven):
• An intergovernmental political forum consisting of Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom, and the United States.
• India is frequently invited to G7 Summits as an outreach partner.

The correct answer is IIT-Bhilai team.

Key Points

• Researchers at IIT-Bhilai (Indian Institute of Technology Bhilai) achieved a significant milestone in 2025 by developing an innovative self-healing polymer capable of repairing structural damage autonomously.
• Unlike conventional self-healing materials that require external triggers such as UV radiation, high temperatures, or specific chemical catalysts, this polymer functions effectively at room temperature.
• The material is engineered to address micro-cracks and mechanical fatigue in high-stress environments, making it ideal for the aerospace industry and protective gear used in defense and sports.
• In the Electric Vehicle (EV) sector, this polymer is intended for use in battery packs and structural housings to enhance safety and extend the operational lifespan of critical components by preventing moisture ingress through cracks.
• The development aligns with India's Make in India and Atmanirbhar Bharat initiatives, focusing on indigenous material science to reduce dependency on imported specialized polymers.

 Additional Information

• Self-Healing Technology:
• Intrinsic Mechanism: Relies on the inherent reversible bonding (such as dynamic covalent bonds or hydrogen bonds) within the polymer matrix that allows the material to re-bond upon contact.
• Extrinsic Mechanism: Utilizes microencapsulation where tiny capsules containing healing agents rupture upon cracking to seal the damage.
• The IIT-Bhilai breakthrough primarily utilizes intrinsic healing, ensuring the material can undergo multiple repair cycles without losing its structural properties.
• Industrial Impact:
• Aerospace: Minimizes maintenance costs for composite airframes and improves flight safety by managing invisible micro-cracks.
• Sustainability: By enabling self-repair, the technology significantly reduces material waste and the carbon footprint associated with replacing damaged components.

The correct answer is Right to Property.

Key Points

• The Indian Constitution originally provided for seven Fundamental Rights under Part III, which covers Articles 12 to 35. These rights are known as the Magna Carta of India.
• The Right to Property was originally established under Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31. However, it was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978.
• The primary reason for its removal was to facilitate land reforms and the equitable distribution of wealth, as property rights often hindered social welfare legislation.
• Following the amendment, it was transformed into a legal right (or constitutional right) under Article 300A in Part XII of the Constitution. This means the state can still acquire property, but only through the authority of law.
• Currently, there are only six Fundamental Rights: Right to Equality, Right to Freedom, Right against Exploitation, Right to Freedom of Religion, Cultural and Educational Rights, and Right to Constitutional Remedies.

 Additional Information

• Right to Equality (Articles 14–18):
• It ensures equality before the law and equal protection of the law for all citizens and non-citizens within Indian territory.
• It prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
• Right to Freedom (Articles 19–22):
• Article 19 guarantees six basic freedoms: speech, assembly, association, movement, residence, and profession.
• Article 21 guarantees the Protection of Life and Personal Liberty, which is considered the most fundamental of all rights.
• Right against Exploitation (Articles 23–24):
• Article 23 prohibits human trafficking and forced labor (begar).
• Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below 14 years of age in factories, mines, or hazardous activities.
• 44th Amendment Act, 1978:
• Enacted by the Janata Party Government to reverse several changes made by the 42nd Amendment and to protect the democratic structure of the Constitution.

The correct answer is It is higher in the west and slopes gently eastwards.

Key Points

• The Deccan Plateau is a triangular landmass that lies to the south of the Narmada River. It is characterized by a distinct tilt from the west to the east. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• The Western Ghats form the western edge of the plateau and are significantly higher (average elevation 900 to 1600 meters) compared to the Eastern Ghats (average elevation 600 meters). This topographical variation results in a gentle eastward slope. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The drainage pattern of the region confirms this relief, as major rivers like the Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri originate in the Western Ghats and flow towards the Bay of Bengal in the east. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• While the northern boundary is marked by the Satpura Range, the overall plateau structure does not follow a simple north-to-south slope; rather, its primary gradient is longitudinal towards the east. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

 Additional Information

• Geological Composition:
• The plateau is part of the ancient Gondwanaland, making it one of the oldest and most stable landmasses on Earth.
• The northwestern part is known as the Deccan Trap, which is a black soil area of volcanic origin (basaltic rocks), ideal for cotton cultivation.
• It is bounded by the Satpura Range and Mahadev Hills in the north and the Maikal Range in the northeast.
• Western vs. Eastern Ghats:
• Western Ghats: Locally known as Sahyadri in Maharashtra, Nilgiri in Karnataka and Tamil Nadu, and Anaimalai in Kerala. They are continuous and can be crossed through passes like Thal, Bhor, and Pal Ghats.
• Eastern Ghats: They stretch from the Mahanadi Valley to the Nilgiris in the south. They are highly dissected and irregular due to the erosion caused by eastward-flowing rivers.

The correct answer is North Eastern Railway.

Key Points

• The North Eastern Railway (NER) is a prominent zone of the Indian Railways, and its administrative headquarters is situated in Gorakhpur, Uttar Pradesh.
• The zone was officially inaugurated on 14 April 1952. It was formed by merging the Oudh and Tirhut Railway, the Assam Railway, and the Cawnpore-Achnera section of the Bombay, Baroda and Central India Railway.
• A significant structural change occurred on 15 January 1958, when the Northeast Frontier Railway (NFR) was bifurcated from the NER to ensure better operational focus on the North-Eastern frontier regions.
• The North Eastern Railway currently comprises three functional divisions: Varanasi, Lucknow, and Izzatnagar.
• The zone plays a vital role in the socio-economic development of Eastern Uttar Pradesh and Western Bihar, facilitating the movement of agricultural products and passengers.

 Additional Information

• East Central Railway (ECR):
• Headquartered in Hajipur, Bihar. It became operational as a separate zone in 2002 and includes divisions like Danapur and Dhanbad.
• Northern Railway (NR):
• Headquartered in New Delhi at Baroda House. It is the largest zone of the Indian Railways in terms of passenger volume and route kilometers.
• Northeast Frontier Railway (NFR):
• Headquartered in Maligaon, Guwahati. It is responsible for rail operations across the North-Eastern states and strategic international borders.

The correct answer is Detention to prevent future offences.

Key Points

• Preventive detention is a unique feature of the Indian Constitution where an individual is detained not as a punishment for a past crime, but as a precautionary measure based on the suspicion that they may commit a prejudicial act in the future.
• Under Article 22(3)(b), the protection against arrest and detention guaranteed under Article 22(1) and Article 22(2) is not available to a person who is detained under any law providing for preventive detention.
• The primary objective of such detention is to prevent the individual from harming the security of the state, public order, or the maintenance of essential supplies and services to the community.
• Unlike punitive detention, which follows a judicial trial and conviction, preventive detention is an executive action taken to ensure national security and social stability before an offence occurs.

 Additional Information

• Article 22 of the Indian Constitution provides safeguards against arbitrary arrest and detention, but separates it into two types:
• Punitive Detention:
• Occurs after a person has been tried and convicted by a Court of Law.
• Guarantees the right to be informed of grounds, consult a lawyer, and be produced before a Magistrate within 24 hours.
• Preventive Detention:
• Under Article 22(4), no person can be detained for more than three months unless an Advisory Board (consisting of High Court judges) finds sufficient cause.
• The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 sought to reduce this period to two months, but this provision has not yet been brought into force.
• The detainee has the right to be informed of the grounds of detention, although the authority can refuse to disclose facts it considers against public interest.
• Relevant Acts: Historical and current laws include the Preventive Detention Act, 1950, Maintenance of Internal Security Act (MISA), COFEPOSA, and the National Security Act (NSA), 1980.

The correct answer is Port Blair.

Key Points

• Veer Savarkar International Airport, also known as Port Blair Airport, is a custom airport located 2 km south of Port Blair in the Union Territory of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
• The airport is named after the famous Indian independence activist Vinayak Damodar Savarkar, who spent a significant period as a political prisoner in the Cellular Jail in Port Blair.
• It functions as a civil enclave, sharing its airside facilities and runway with INS Utkrosh of the Indian Navy.
• The airport serves as the primary gateway to the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, facilitating tourism and strategic connectivity in the Bay of Bengal.
• A new Integrated Terminal Building, designed with a shell-shaped structure to reflect the island's geography, was inaugurated in July 2023 to handle approximately 40 lakh passengers annually.

 Additional Information

• Nagpur:
• The city is served by Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar International Airport, which is a major aviation hub in Maharashtra.
• Guwahati:
• The Lokpriya Gopinath Bordoloi International Airport serves this city and acts as the primary international airport for the Northeastern states of India.
• Calicut:
• The Calicut International Airport, also known as Kozhikode Airport, is located in Karipur, Kerala, and is one of the busiest airports in the state.

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

• According to the Census of India 2011, Maharashtra records the highest absolute number of Buddhists in the country, with a population of 6,531,200 individuals.
• The Buddhist population in Maharashtra accounts for approximately 77.36% of the total Buddhist population in India, which stands at about 8.44 million.
• This significant concentration is primarily attributed to the Navayana or Neo-Buddhist movement launched by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar in 1956, leading to mass conversions at Deekshabhoomi in Nagpur.
• Within the state, Buddhists make up approximately 5.81% of the total population, representing a vital socio-cultural and religious demographic in the region.

 Additional Information

• Sikkim:
• While Sikkim has a high Buddhist density by percentage (27.39%), its absolute population is around 167,216, which is much lower than Maharashtra due to the state's smaller overall size.
• Uttar Pradesh:
• This state holds the second-largest absolute number of Buddhists in India, recorded at 206,285, though they comprise only 0.11% of the state's massive population.
• Jharkhand:
• The Buddhist population in Jharkhand is minimal, with the 2011 Census reporting only 8,918 individuals identifying with the faith.
• Census 2011 Overview:
• The 2011 Census was the 15th official census of India, identifying Buddhism as one of the six major religious communities alongside Hindus, Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, and Jains.

The correct answer is Causes rapid vibration.

Key Points

• Microwave ovens utilize electromagnetic waves at a frequency of approximately 2.45 gigahertz (GHz), which corresponds to a wavelength of about 12.2 centimeters.
• Water molecules are polar molecules or dipoles, meaning they possess a partial positive charge near the hydrogen atoms and a partial negative charge near the oxygen atom.
• When food is exposed to microwaves, the rapidly alternating electric field (reversing billions of times per second) exerts torque on these dipoles, forcing them to align with the field.
• This process, known as dipolar rotation, causes the water molecules to vibrate and rotate rapidly as they struggle to keep up with the oscillating field.
• The high-speed molecular motion generates kinetic energy, which is converted into thermal energy through internal friction and collisions with neighboring molecules.
• This internal heat generation allows food to cook much faster than conventional methods, where heat must be conducted from the surface toward the center.

 Additional Information

• Dielectric Heating:
• This is the physical mechanism where a high-frequency alternating electric field heats a dielectric material, such as water, fats, or sugars found in food.
• Materials with a high dielectric constant absorb microwave energy more efficiently than dry or metallic substances.
• Non-Ionizing Radiation:
• Microwaves are a form of non-ionizing radiation, meaning they lack sufficient energy to break chemical bonds (molecular dissociation) or remove electrons from atoms.
• This distinguishes them from ionizing radiation like X-rays or Gamma rays, which can alter molecular structures or damage DNA.
• Phase Transitions:
• Freezing and Melting are thermodynamic processes involving the removal or addition of latent heat to change the state of matter, whereas microwaves primarily increase the rotational kinetic energy of molecules already in a liquid or semi-solid state.

The correct answer is Jawahar Lal Nehru.

Key Points

• Jawahar Lal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of independent India, officially inaugurated the Panchayati Raj system on October 2, 1959.
• The inauguration ceremony was held in Nagaur district of Rajasthan, making it the first state to implement this democratic decentralization model.
• The implementation followed the recommendations of the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957), which advocated for a three-tier system consisting of Gram Panchayats at the village level, Panchayat Samitis at the block level, and Zila Parishads at the district level.
• The date October 2 was selected to honor the birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi, who firmly believed that India lives in her villages and envisioned Gram Swaraj (village self-rule).
• Shortly after Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh became the second state to adopt the Panchayati Raj system in 1959.

 Additional Information

• Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel:
• Known as the Iron Man of India and the first Home Minister, he was instrumental in the integration of princely states.
• Lal Bahadur Shastri:
• The second Prime Minister of India who coined the famous slogan Jai Jawan Jai Kisan during the Indo-Pak War of 1965.
• C. Rajagopalachari:
• The last Governor-General of India and the founder of the Swatantra Party, also known for the CR Formula to solve the political deadlock between the Congress and the Muslim League.
• 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992:
• This landmark legislation granted constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) and added Part IX and the Eleventh Schedule to the Indian Constitution.

The correct answer is Three.

Key Points

• The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 institutionalized the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) by providing them with constitutional status and a uniform three-tier structure.
• The first and lowest tier is the Gram Panchayat, which operates at the village level. It is the primary unit of local self-government where members are directly elected by the Gram Sabha.
• The second or intermediate tier is the Panchayat Samiti, also known as the Block Panchayat or Mandal Parishad. It serves as a bridge between the village level and the district level.
• The third and highest tier is the Zila Parishad, which functions at the district level. It is responsible for coordinating the activities of all the Panchayat Samitis within the district and preparing development plans.
• This structural framework was implemented to promote democratic decentralization, ensuring that power and decision-making reach the grassroots level of Indian society.

 Additional Information

• Constitutional Framework:
• The amendment inserted Part IX (Articles 243 to 243-O) and the 11th Schedule into the Constitution of India.
• The 11th Schedule contains 29 functional items, such as rural housing, agriculture, and poverty alleviation, which fall under the jurisdiction of these bodies.
• Important Provisions:
• Article 243-B allows states with a population of less than 20 lakh to omit the intermediate (block) tier.
• The act mandates one-third reservation of seats for women and reservations for SC/ST categories based on their population ratio.
• A fixed tenure of five years is provided for every level, with a mandatory State Election Commission to oversee periodic polls.
• Historical Background:
• The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957) first recommended this three-tier system to realize community development.
• Rajasthan (Nagaur district) was the first state to adopt the Panchayati Raj system on October 2, 1959.

The correct answer is Kidney.

Key Points

• The Kidneys are a pair of bean-shaped organs located on either side of the spine, below the ribs and behind the belly, serving as the primary organs of the human excretory system.
• Their fundamental role is to maintain homeostasis by filtering approximately 120 to 150 quarts of blood daily to produce urine, which carries away waste products.
• They are specifically responsible for removing nitrogenous wastes such as urea, uric acid, and creatinine from the bloodstream.
• Each kidney contains roughly one million functional units called nephrons, which utilize a glomerulus for filtration and a tubule for reabsorption and secretion.
• Through glomerular filtration, the kidneys separate water, ions, and small molecules from the blood while retaining large proteins and blood cells.

 Additional Information

• Lungs:
• Primarily involved in the respiratory system for the exchange of gases.
• They remove volatile waste products, most notably carbon dioxide (CO₂) and small amounts of water vapor.
• Liver:
• Functions as the body's chemical processing factory and is the largest internal gland.
• It performs detoxification and synthesizes urea from toxic ammonia via the ornithine cycle before sending it to the kidneys for excretion.
• Heart:
• A muscular organ that acts as the pump for the cardiovascular system.
• It facilitates the circulation of blood to ensure oxygen delivery and waste transport but does not possess filtration capabilities itself.

The correct answer is Pituitary gland.

Key Points

• The Pituitary gland, often referred to as the master gland, is a pea-sized endocrine organ located at the base of the brain in the sella turcica.
• It is responsible for secreting Growth Hormone (GH), also known as somatotropin, which stimulates the growth of essentially all tissues of the body, including bone and skeletal muscle.
• The Anterior Pituitary lobe specifically synthesizes and releases GH, which triggers the production of insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1) in the liver to promote systemic growth.
• The regulation of growth involves a complex feedback loop with the Hypothalamus, which releases Growth Hormone-Releasing Hormone (GHRH) to stimulate the pituitary.
• Imbalances in hormone production by this gland can lead to clinical conditions such as Gigantism (overproduction during childhood) or Pituitary Dwarfism (underproduction).

 Additional Information

• Heart
• Primarily functions as a muscular pump for the circulatory system.
• Produces Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP), a hormone that helps regulate blood pressure and fluid balance, but it does not direct physical growth.
• Pancreas
• Acts as a dual-function gland (endocrine and exocrine).
• Secretes Insulin and Glucagon via the Islets of Langerhans to maintain homeostasis of blood glucose levels.
• Liver
• The largest internal organ, primarily involved in detoxification, protein synthesis, and bile production.
• While it produces IGF-1 in response to growth hormone, it is a target organ rather than the primary regulator of growth hormone production.

The correct answer is Malayalam.

Key Points

• Malayalam is the official language of the Indian state of Kerala and the Union Territory of Lakshadweep, serving as the primary medium for daily communication and administration.
• It belongs to the Dravidian family of languages and shares a common ancestor with Tamil and Kannada, though it developed into a distinct linguistic entity by the 9th century.
• The language was officially designated as a Classical Language of India in 2013, recognizing its ancient origins and independent literary traditions.
• Malayalam is one of the 22 scheduled languages included in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
• The modern script used for the language is derived from the Grantha script and is known for having the highest number of letters among all Dravidian languages to accommodate various phonemes.

 Additional Information

• Telugu:
• It is the official language of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana and is the most widely spoken Dravidian language worldwide.
• It was the second language in India to be granted Classical Language status in 2008.
• Tamil:
• The official language of Tamil Nadu and Puducherry, it is one of the oldest surviving classical languages in the world.
• It was the first language in India to be declared a Classical Language in 2004.
• Kannada:
• The primary language spoken in the state of Karnataka, it possesses a rich literary history spanning over 1,500 years.
• It was granted the Classical Language status by the central government in 2008.

The correct answer is Article 130.

Key Points

• Article 130 of the Indian Constitution explicitly prescribes the Seat of the Supreme Court.
• According to this article, the Supreme Court shall sit in Delhi or in such other place or places as the Chief Justice of India may, with the approval of the President, appoint from time to time.
• The provision gives the Chief Justice of India the discretionary power to decide the location of the court's proceedings, but this power cannot be exercised without the formal concurrence of the President of India.
• The Supreme Court has ruled that this provision is directory in nature, meaning no authority (including the High Courts or the Supreme Court itself on the judicial side) can compel the Chief Justice or the Government to set up benches in other parts of the country.

 Additional Information

• Article 131:
• It defines the Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
• This involves exclusive authority to hear cases originating between the Union and one or more States, or between two or more States.
• Article 132:
• Deals with the Appellate Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court regarding appeals from High Courts in certain cases.
• It applies specifically to matters involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution.
• Article 133:
• Specifies the Appellate Jurisdiction in civil cases.
• An appeal lies to the Supreme Court from a High Court judgment if the High Court certifies that the case involves a substantial question of law of general importance.

The correct answer is Luni.

Key Points

• The Luni River is the most significant and largest river system located in the Thar Desert (also known as the Great Indian Desert) of northwest India.
• It originates in the Pushkar Valley of the Aravalli Range, near Ajmer, at an elevation of approximately 550 meters.
• The river is characterized as ephemeral, meaning it carries water primarily during the monsoon season and remains largely dry throughout the rest of the year.
• A unique hydrological feature of the Luni is that its water is fresh for the first 100 kilometers but becomes saline (salty) after reaching Balotra in the Barmer district due to the high salt content in the desert soil.
• It follows an endorheic (inland) drainage pattern, spanning a total length of about 495 kilometers before terminating in the marshy terrains of the Rann of Kutch in Gujarat.
• The total catchment area of the Luni Basin is approximately 37,363 square kilometers, covering parts of Rajasthan and Gujarat.

 Additional Information

• Varahi River:
• It is a west-flowing river in Karnataka that originates in the Western Ghats.
• It is famous for the Kunchikal Falls, which is one of the highest tiered waterfalls in India.
• Son River:
• This is a major perennial river of central India, originating from the Amarkantak plateau in Madhya Pradesh.
• It is a primary southern tributary of the Ganges River, joining it near Patna in Bihar.
• Ponnaiyar River:
• Commonly known as the South Pennar River or Dakshina Pinakini, it flows through Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
• It is a significant source of water for irrigation and eventually empties into the Bay of Bengal near Cuddalore.