DSSSB MTS Official Paper (Held On: 14 May, 2026 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

Seven boxes, A, B, C, P, Q, R and S, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.

1. Only three boxes are kept above R.
2. Only one box is kept between B and R.
3. Only three boxes are kept between B and P.
4. P is kept at some place above R.
5. A is kept immediately below P.
6. S is kept at one of the places above C.
7. Q is not kept immediately above or below B.

Final Arrangement:

Box C is kept at the lowermost position.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given series:

(Left) U S X + ^ M = Z S F V # B P T ? B V * (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Letter ← Letter → Symbol

Checking the series:

(Left) U S X + ^ M = Z S F V # B P T ? **B V *** (Right)

There are four such letters that satisfy the given condition.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Family Chart:

Symbol Reference:

Given: N # G # L + T # E

It means: N is the daughter of G, G is the daughter of L, L is the mother of T, and T is the daughter of E.

E is related to N as Mother's father.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given word: FUSTIGATION

The resulting group of letters is: D, W, Q, R, K, E, C, R, K, Q, L.

Now, let's count the frequency of each letter in this group:

• D: 1 time
• W: 1 time
• Q: 2 times
• R: 2 times
• K: 2 times
• E: 1 time
• C: 1 time
• L: 1 time

The letters that appear exactly twice are Q, R, and K.

Therefore, there are three such letters.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given Statement:

L > F ≤ R > Z = K

Conclusions:

I. R < L → False (From the statement, both L and R are greater than F, but no definite relationship can be established between L and R.)

II. K < R → True (Since R > Z and Z = K, therefore R > K, i.e., K < R.)

Therefore, only conclusion II is true.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Six people S, T, U, V, C and D are sitting around a circular table, facing the center of the table.

1. Only two people sit between D and C when counted from the left of C.
2. T sits third to the left of V.
3. V sits to the immediate right of C.
4. S is not an immediate neighbour of T.

Three people sit between S and T when counted from the right of T.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given series:

(Left) A T D E B R C L M Q O N P J M Q E A O Z W F U K S L (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Consonant ← Vowel → Consonant

Checking the series:

(Left) A T D E B R C L M Q O N P J M Q E A O Z W F U K S L (Right)

There are three such vowels that are immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a consonant.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given Statement:

R > C < D < E = A

Conclusions:

I: R > E → False (From the given statement, R > C and E > C, but no definite relationship can be established between R and E.)

II: C > A → False (Since D < E = A and C < D, therefore C < A. Hence, C > A is false.)

Therefore, neither I nor II is true.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Family Chart:

Symbol Reference:

Given: R × E % N % G − C

It means: R is the wife of E, E is the father of N, N is the father of G, and G is the brother of C.

R is related to C as father's mother.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given word: ANALYST

Arrange the letters in alphabetical order:

A, A, L, N, S, T, Y

First letter from the left = A

Second letter from the right = T

Count the letters between A and T in the English alphabetical series:

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T

The letters between A and T are: B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S

Number of letters between A and T = 18

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Seven boxes A, B, C, I, J, K and L are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.

1. B is kept second from the bottom.
2. Only three boxes are kept between B and I.
3. K is kept at one of the positions below B.
4. Only A is kept between I and C.
5. L is kept at one of the positions above I.

The final arrangement from top to bottom is as follows:

Two boxes kept between J and I.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Seven boxes C, D, E, U, V, W and X are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.

1. Only two boxes are kept below C.
2. Only one box is kept above D.
3. Only one box is kept between D and U.
4. E is kept immediately above W.
5. X is kept at some place below V.

For the final arrangement of the seven boxes →

There are Four boxes kept between V and E.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given:

SAVE is coded as 5428

VICK is coded as 6149

Therefore, the code for V is 4.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given:

‘very good movie’ is coded as 'vn rj am'  

‘movie was liked’ is coded as ‘fy jv rj’. 

Code for "movie" is "rj".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given:

‘VIEW’ is coded as ‘3641’  

‘WIRE’ is coded as ‘6149’. 

Code for "R" is "9".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

X, Y, Z, W, V, and U are sitting around a circular table, facing the center.

1. W sits second to the left of Z.
2. X sits second to the right of Y.
3. V is on the immediate left of X. 

W is sitting to the immediate left of U.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Seven boxes, C, D, E, U, V, W and X, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.

1. D is kept second from the bottom.
2. Only three boxes are kept between D and W.
3. X is kept at one of the positions below D.
4. Only C is kept between W and E.
5. U is kept at one of the positions above W.​

The final arrangement from top to bottom is:

Five boxes are kept between X and U.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given series:

(Left) ? H G ^ P # R M B Q / ^ P V Z E + (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Symbol ← Symbol → Letter

Checking the series:

(Left) ? H G $ ^ P # R M B Q / ^ P V Z $ E + (Right)

There are 2 such symbols that satisfy the given condition.

Hence, the correct answer is "3".

Given series:

(Left) R W ? X % J K / M / U K % W ? P N * U (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Symbol ← Letter → Symbol

Checking the series:

(Left) R W ? X % J K / M / U K % W ? P N * U (Right)

There are 3 such letters in the series.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given Statements:

Some brinjals are vegetables.

Some vegetables are carrots.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some brinjals are carrots → Does not follow (There is no definite intersection or direct relationship between brinjals and carrots in the least possible Venn diagram.)

II. All carrots are vegetables → Does not follow (It is only given that some vegetables are carrots, so we can only conclude that some carrots are vegetables, not all.)

So, neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

For ST - XY →

For FI - KP →

For NO - ST →

For MN - RS →

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 9 C 4 A 91 D 13 B 13 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 9 × 4 + 91 ÷ 13 - 13 = ?

⇒ 9 × 4 + 91 ÷ 13 - 13 = ?

⇒ 36 + 91 ÷ 13 - 13 = ?

⇒ 36 + 91 ÷ 13 - 13 = ?

⇒ 36 + 7 - 13 = ?

⇒ 36 + 7 - 13 = ?

⇒ 43 - 13 = ?

⇒ 30.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The pattern observed is: (First number × 5) + 5 = Second number.

51, 260  →

51 × 5 + 5 = 255 + 5 = 260

31, 160 →

31 × 5 + 5 = 155 + 5 = 160

Similarly, 

Option (4): 29, 150 →

29 × 5 + 5 = 145 + 5 = 150

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

The pattern observed is: (First number × 11) + 3 = Second number.

For (26, 289) →

26 × 11 = 286

286 + 3 = 289

For (31, 344) →

31 × 11 = 341

341 + 3 = 344

Similarly, 

Option (1): (33, 366) →

33 × 11 = 363

363 + 3 = 366

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

The option in which the given figure is embedded,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Logic: (First number × 5) + 1 = Second number

For the set (81, 406):

(81 × 5) + 1 = 405 + 1 = 406

For the set (75, 376):

(75 × 5) + 1 = 375 + 1 = 376

Similarly, 

Option (3): (64, 321)

(64 × 5) + 1 = 320 + 1 = 321

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

The logic followed here is a constant addition of +4 to the positional value of each letter.

For MWE to QAI

For XIO to BMS

Now we check the options to find the pair with a +4, +4, +4 pattern.

Option 1) LFR to PJV

This pair follows the same +4 logic for all letters.

Option 2) LER to PIO

The logic is not followed as the third shift is −3.

Option 3) LEA to PIV

The logic is not followed as the third shift is −5.

Option 4) LRE to PIV

The logic is not followed.

Thus, the pair LFR : PJV follows the same logic of +4, +4, +4.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The logic followed here is:

For EHTK to ILXO

For YXBC to CBFG

The common pattern is a constant letter shift of +4 for each successive letter in the group.

Applying the same logic to LGYR:

Thus, LGYR is related to PKCV following the same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The option in which the given figure is embedded,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 198 − 448 × 16 + 15 ÷ 6 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 198 + 448 ÷ 16 - 15 × 6 = ?

⇒ 198 + 448 ÷ 16 - 15 × 6 = ?

⇒ 198 + 28 - 15 × 6 = ?

⇒ 198 + 28 - 90 = ?

⇒ 198 + 28 - 90 = ?

⇒ 226 - 90 = ?

⇒ 136.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: (15 ÷ 3) − 14 + 4 ÷ 2 − 17 − 18 × 2 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ (15 × 3) + 14 − 4 × 2 + 17 + 18 ÷ 2 = ?

⇒ (15 × 3) + 14 − 4 × 2 + 17 + 18 ÷ 2 = ?

⇒ 45 + 14 − 4 × 2 + 17 + 18 ÷ 2 = ?

⇒ 45 + 14 − 4 × 2 + 17 + 18 ÷ 2 = ?

⇒ 45 + 14 − 8 + 17 + 18 ÷ 2 = ?

⇒ 45 + 14 − 8 + 17 + 18 ÷ 2 = ?

⇒ 45 + 14 − 8 + 17 + 9 = ?

⇒ 45 + 14 − 8 + 17 + 9 = ?

⇒ 59 − 8 + 17 + 9 = ?

⇒ 59 − 8 + 17 + 9 = ?

⇒ 51 + 17 + 9 = ?

⇒ 51 + 17 + 9 = ?

⇒ 68 + 9 = ?

⇒ 68 + 9 = ?

⇒ 77.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Logic followed here is,

54 + 3² = 54 + 9 = 63

63 + 5² = 63 + 25 = 88

88 + 7² = 88 + 49 = 137

137 + 9² = 137 + 81 = 218

218 + 11² = 218 + 121 = 339

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

The logic followed here is:

**For DMB to **GPE

**For TYU to **WBX

The common pattern is a constant letter shift of +3 for each letter in the set.

Option 1**) ASL to **DVO

This pair follows the same +3 logic for all letters.

Option 2**) ASV to **DVO

The logic is not followed here as the shifts are +3, +3, −7.

Option 3**) ASP to **QWE

The logic is not followed here as the shifts are +16, +4, −11.

Option 4**) ASL to **DAO

The logic is not followed here as the shifts are +3, +8, +3.

Thus, the pair ASL : DVO follows the same pattern.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Bodmas Rule:

Given:

We need to find which option results in 40.

Let's check each option one by one:

Option 1) 16 Q 2 S 6 P 3 R 14

Replacing the symbols:

16 × 2 − 6 ÷ 3 + 14

= 32 − 2 + 14

= 30 + 14

= 44

Since 44 ≠ 40, this option is incorrect.

Option 2) 16 P 2 Q 6 R 4 S 12

Replacing the symbols:

16 ÷ 2 × 6 + 4 − 12

= 8 × 6 + 4 − 12

= 48 + 4 − 12

= 52 − 12

= 40

Since 40 = 40, this option is correct.

Option 3) 16 R 2 P 6 S 4 Q 12

Replacing the symbols:

16 + 2 ÷ 6 − 4 × 12

= 16 + 0.33 − 48

= −31.67 (approx.)

Since −31.67 ≠ 40, this option is incorrect.

Option 4) 16 P 2 S 6 Q 3 R 14

Replacing the symbols:

16 ÷ 2 − 6 × 3 + 14

= 8 − 18 + 14

= −10 + 14

= 4

Since 4 ≠ 40, this option is incorrect.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

For Option (1): HD−ZV

For Option (2): AW−RQ

For Option (3): RN−JF

For Option (4): UQ−MI

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 51 D 3 A 7 C 9 B 18 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 51 ÷ 3 + 7 × 9 - 18 = ?

⇒ 51 ÷ 3 + 7 × 9 - 18 = ?

⇒ 17 + 7 × 9 - 18 = ?

⇒ 17 + 63 - 18 = ?

⇒ 17 + 63 - 18 = ?

⇒ 80 - 18 = ?

⇒ 62.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Logic followed here is,

1 + 25 = 26

26 + 30 = 56

56 + 35 = 91

91 + 40 = 131

131 + 45 = 176

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given Statements:

All vans are cars.

All aeroplanes are cars.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some vans are aeroplanes → Does not follow (There is no definite intersection between vans and aeroplanes in the least possible diagram, so it does not follow.)

II. Some cars are aeroplanes → Follow(Since all aeroplanes are cars, there is a portion of cars that is aeroplanes, so it definitely follows.)

So, only conclusion II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Logic followed here is,

5 + 200 = 205

205 + 250 = 455

455 + 300 = 755

755 + 350 = 1105

1105 + 400 = 1505

1505 + 450 = 1955

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

The correct answer is 1918.

Key Points

• The Kheda Satyagraha of 1918 was a significant peasant revolt in the Kheda district of Gujarat, organized by Mahatma Gandhi to support farmers struggling against British tax policies.
• The movement was necessitated by a crop failure and a subsequent famine, along with a plague epidemic, which left the peasants financially incapable of paying the land revenue.
• According to the Revenue Code of the time, if the crop yield was less than 25 percent, the farmers were entitled to a complete remission of the land tax; however, the British Government ignored these rules and insisted on full payment.
• Mahatma Gandhi and Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel led the agitation, urging farmers to refuse revenue payments despite the government seizing their cattle and property as a penalty.
• This movement is historically regarded as the first non-cooperation movement led by Gandhi in India, demonstrating the effectiveness of Satyagraha in addressing agrarian grievances.

 Additional Information

• Early Satyagraha Movements:
• Champaran Satyagraha (1917): Gandhi’s first Satyagraha in India, launched in Bihar to protest the Tinkathia system of forced Indigo cultivation.
• Ahmedabad Mill Strike (1918): A dispute between mill owners and workers regarding the Plague Bonus, where Gandhi used his first hunger strike to demand a 35 percent wage increase.
• Satyagraha Philosophy: A method of non-violent resistance based on Truth (Satya) and Non-violence (Ahimsa), which became the cornerstone of the Indian Independence Movement.
• Role of Sardar Patel: The Kheda Satyagraha marked the emergence of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel as a prominent leader who dedicated himself to the national cause under Gandhi’s mentorship.

The correct answer is Ranchi.

Key Points

• The 64^th National Open Athletics Championships was hosted in Ranchi, the capital city of Jharkhand, from September 27 to 30, 2025.
• The primary venue for this prestigious national event was the Birsa Munda Athletics Stadium, located within the Mega Sports Complex at Hotwar.
• Sanctioned by the Athletics Federation of India (AFI), the championship is one of the most significant annual track and field competitions in the country.
• The event witnessed high-level participation from athletes representing various state associations and powerhouse institutional boards such as Services (SSCB) and Railways (RSPB).
• This 64^th edition served as a crucial qualifying window for athletes aiming to secure berths in upcoming international competitions and national training camps.

 Additional Information

• Athletics Federation of India (AFI):
• It is the apex governing body for athletics in India, established in 1946 and headquartered in New Delhi.
• The AFI is responsible for organizing the Indian Grand Prix, Federation Cup, and selecting the national team for the Olympic Games and World Athletics Championships.
• Ranchi as a Sporting Destination:
• The city possesses world-class infrastructure developed primarily for the 34^th National Games held in 2011.
• The Mega Sports Complex in Hotwar includes specialized venues for multiple disciplines, making Jharkhand a frequent host for national-level track and field meets.
• Championship Significance:
• The National Open Athletics Championships allows institutional teams to compete, unlike the National Inter-State Championships where athletes only represent their respective states.
• Performance data from this meet is used by the AFI to monitor the progress of elite athletes under the Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS).

सही उत्तर असम है।

मुख्य बिंदु

• नवनिर्मित इमरजेंसी लैंडिंग फैसिलिटी (ELF) का उद्घाटन भारत के असम राज्य में कुमार भास्कर वर्मा सेतु के पास किया गया है।
• यह सामरिक सुविधा राष्ट्रीय राजमार्ग-27 (NH-27) के एक हिस्से पर विकसित की गई है, जो नालबाड़ी जिले में स्थित है।
• यह संरचना ब्रह्मपुत्र नदी की एक सहायक नदी पर निर्मित पुल के निकट स्थित है, जो पूर्वोत्तर क्षेत्र में सैन्य गतिशीलता को बढ़ावा देने के लिए डिजाइन की गई है।
• यह सुविधा मुख्य रूप से भारतीय वायु सेना (IAF) के लड़ाकू विमानों और परिवहन विमानों को युद्ध, प्राकृतिक आपदा या नागरिक हवाई पट्टियों की अनुपलब्धता के दौरान सुरक्षित लैंडिंग की अनुमति देती है।
• यह बुनियादी ढांचा भारत के सड़क परिवहन और राजमार्ग मंत्रालय तथा भारतीय वायु सेना के बीच समन्वय का एक उत्कृष्ट उदाहरण है, जो राष्ट्रीय सुरक्षा को सुदृढ़ करता है।

 अतिरिक्त जानकारी

• कुमार भास्कर वर्मा और असम का ऐतिहासिक संदर्भ:
• इस सेतु का नाम कामरूप साम्राज्य के 7वीं शताब्दी के महान शासक कुमार भास्कर वर्मा के सम्मान में रखा गया है।
• वह वर्धन राजवंश के सम्राट हर्षवर्धन के समकालीन और मित्र थे।
• भारत में अन्य आपातकालीन लैंडिंग सुविधाएं:
• देश की पहली ऐसी सुविधा उत्तर प्रदेश में आगरा-लखनऊ एक्सप्रेसवे पर स्थापित की गई थी।
• राजस्थान के बाड़मेर में NH-925A पर भी एक महत्वपूर्ण ELF का उद्घाटन किया गया है, जिसका उपयोग अंतरराष्ट्रीय सीमा के निकट परिचालन के लिए किया जाता है।
• इन हवाई पट्टियों का निर्माण विशेष मानदंडों के तहत किया जाता है ताकि ये सुखोई-30 MKI और C-130J सुपर हरक्यूलिस जैसे भारी विमानों का भार सहन कर सकें।

The correct answer is Residence for monks arranged around a courtyard.

Key Points

• A Vihara is a Sanskrit and Pali term that refers to a monastery for Buddhist renunciates, serving as their permanent residence and center for religious work.
• Historically, these structures evolved from temporary shelters used by Bhikshus (monks) during the Varshavasa (rainy season retreat) into sophisticated stone and brick complexes.
• The architectural plan of a Vihara typically consists of a central open courtyard or hall surrounded by several small individual sleeping cells for the monks.
• Early Viharas were often rock-cut caves carved into cliffs, particularly in the Western Ghats of India, featuring simple stone beds and niches for lamps.
• Major archaeological sites showcasing these structures include the Ajanta Caves, Ellora Caves, and Kanheri Caves, where they exist alongside prayer halls.
• By the Gupta and Pala periods, Viharas transformed into massive Mahaviharas (university monasteries) like Nalanda, Vikramshila, and Odantapuri, which housed thousands of scholars.

 Additional Information

• Stupa:
• A Stupa is a hemispherical dome-like structure used to house relics of the Buddha or other high-ranking monks.
• It serves as a site for circumambulation (Pradakshina) and veneration, symbolizing the Parinirvana of the Buddha.
• Chaitya:
• Unlike the Vihara, a Chaitya or Chaitya-griha is a congregational prayer hall containing a Stupa at the apsidal end.
• These halls were designed for collective worship and meditation, often featuring magnificent vaulted roofs and pillars.
• Sangha:
• The Sangha refers to the community of ordained monks and nuns whose daily discipline was governed by the Vinaya Pitaka within the Vihara.

सही उत्तर आगतों में वृद्धि की तुलना में निर्गत में आनुपातिक रूप से कम वृद्धि होती है। है।

मुख्य बिंदु

• ह्रासमान पैमाने का प्रतिफल (Decreasing Returns to Scale - DRS) उत्पादन के उस चरण को संदर्भित करता है जहाँ सभी आगतों (Inputs) में एक निश्चित अनुपात में वृद्धि करने पर, कुल निर्गत (Output) में होने वाली वृद्धि उस अनुपात से कम होती है।
• यह अवधारणा मुख्य रूप से दीर्घकाल (Long-run) उत्पादन फलन का हिस्सा है, क्योंकि दीर्घकाल में श्रम और पूंजी जैसे उत्पादन के सभी कारकों को बदला जा सकता है।
• यदि किसी फर्म के सभी संसाधनों को 100% बढ़ा दिया जाए और उसका कुल उत्पादन केवल 40% या 80% बढ़े, तो इस स्थिति को ह्रासमान पैमाने का प्रतिफल माना जाता है।
• यह स्थिति तब उत्पन्न होती है जब उत्पादन का पैमाना इतना अधिक बढ़ जाता है कि फर्म के लिए प्रभावी नियंत्रण और प्रबंधकीय समन्वय स्थापित करना कठिन हो जाता है, जिससे उत्पादन लागत बढ़ती है।
• तकनीकी रूप से, यदि एक उत्पादन फलन f(x, y) है और f(kx, ky) < kf(x, y) की स्थिति बनती है (जहाँ k > 1), तो यह DRS को दर्शाता है।

 अतिरिक्त जानकारी

• पैमाने के प्रतिफल के अन्य दो प्रमुख प्रकार निम्नलिखित हैं:
• स्थिर पैमाने का प्रतिफल (CRS): यह तब होता है जब आगतों में वृद्धि के समान ही निर्गत में भी आनुपातिक वृद्धि होती है। उदाहरण के लिए, साधनों को दुगुना करने पर उत्पादन भी ठीक दुगुना हो जाता है।
• वर्धमान पैमाने का प्रतिफल (IRS): यह तब होता है जब आगतों में वृद्धि की तुलना में निर्गत में अधिक आनुपातिक वृद्धि होती है। यह अक्सर विशिष्टीकरण और बेहतर तकनीकी दक्षता के कारण होता है।
• DRS के कारण:
• मुख्य कारण पैमाने की अशुद्धियाँ (Diseconomies of Scale) हैं, जिनमें संचार अंतराल, निर्णय लेने में जटिलता और संसाधनों के उपयोग में अक्षमता शामिल है।
• यह अक्सर कॉब-डगलस उत्पादन फलन में तब देखा जाता है जब घातांकों का योग (alpha + beta) 1 से कम होता है।

The correct answer is Dehradun.

Key Points

• The 28^th All India Forest Sports Meet (AIFSM) was scheduled to be hosted in Dehradun, the capital city of Uttarakhand, in 2025.
• This prestigious national event is organized to encourage physical fitness, sportsmanship, and professional camaraderie among the personnel of the Forest Departments across all Indian States and Union Territories.
• Dehradun is historically significant as the Forest Capital of India, housing top-tier institutions that provide the necessary infrastructure for large-scale athletic competitions involving over 2,500 participants.
• The meet features approximately 23 to 25 sporting disciplines, including track and field, archery, rifle shooting, badminton, and swimming, specifically designed to test the endurance of forest staff.
• The selection of Dehradun follows the successful completion of the 27^th edition held in Raipur, Chhattisgarh, maintaining the tradition of rotating the host state to promote regional sports tourism and infrastructure development.

 Additional Information

• All India Forest Sports Meet (AIFSM):
• The initiative was launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) in 1993, with the inaugural event held in Hyderabad.
• It aims to provide a much-needed break and recreational outlet for field staff like Range Officers and Guardians who work in high-stress wildlife conservation zones.
• Forest Research Institute (FRI):
• Located in Dehradun, FRI is a premier forestry research institution in India, established in 1906.
• The campus is a major tourist attraction known for its Greco-Roman architecture and its role as the nodal center for the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE).
• Indira Gandhi National Forest Academy (IGNFA):
• Also situated in Dehradun, it is the primary training institute for officers of the Indian Forest Service (IFS).

The correct answer is To foster scientific temper and awareness among the general public and students.

Key Points

• The Scheme for Promotion of Culture of Science (SPoCS) is a significant central sector initiative launched by the Ministry of Culture, Government of India, to bridge the gap between science and society.
• Its primary goal is to popularize Science and Technology by establishing a nationwide network of interactive facilities including Science Cities, Science Centres, and Innovation Hubs.
• The scheme is designed to create a creative and non-formal learning environment for the general public and students, encouraging them to develop a scientific temper, which is a fundamental duty under Article 51A (h) of the Constitution of India.
• By using interactive exhibits and hands-on demonstrations, the program aims to supplement formal science education in schools and colleges, fostering curiosity and a spirit of inquiry.
• The implementation of this scheme is overseen by the National Council of Science Museums (NCSM), which serves as the nodal agency for designing and managing these scientific landmarks.

 Additional Information

• National Council of Science Museums (NCSM):
• It is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Culture, headquartered in Kolkata.
• It is the largest network of science centers and museums in the world under a single administrative umbrella.
• Infrastructure Components:
• Science Cities: Large-scale projects involving an investment of up to 100 Crores, intended for major cities with a population of more than 50 Lakhs.
• Science Centres: Categorized into Category I (State level) and Category II (District level) to ensure accessibility in smaller regions.
• Innovation Hubs: Specialized laboratories within science centers where students can engage in STEM (Science, Technology, Engineering, and Math) experiments and problem-solving.

The correct answer is उच्च सरकारी राजस्व के कारण प्रत्यक्ष वृद्धि.

Key Points

• निवल राष्ट्रीय प्रयोज्य आय (NNDI) वह कुल आय है जो किसी देश के पास उपभोग या बचत के लिए उपलब्ध होती है। इसकी गणना बाजार मूल्य पर निवल राष्ट्रीय उत्पाद (NNP at MP) और शेष विश्व से प्राप्त निवल वर्तमान हस्तांतरण को जोड़कर की जाती है।
• आयात शुल्क सरकार द्वारा एकत्रित किया जाने वाला एक महत्वपूर्ण अप्रत्यक्ष कर है। जब आयात शुल्कों में उल्लेखनीय वृद्धि होती है, तो यह सरकारी खजाने में राजस्व संग्रहण को प्रत्यक्ष रूप से बढ़ा देता है।
• चूँकि NNDI में बाजार मूल्य पर गणना शामिल होती है, जिसमें शुद्ध अप्रत्यक्ष कर (अप्रत्यक्ष कर - सब्सिडी) जुड़े होते हैं, इसलिए करों में किसी भी वृद्धि से राष्ट्रीय स्तर पर प्रयोज्य आय में वृद्धि होती है।
• यह वृद्धि सरकार की व्यय क्षमता को बढ़ाती है, जिससे देश के कुल आर्थिक संसाधनों में विस्तार होता है।

 Additional Information

• निवल राष्ट्रीय प्रयोज्य आय (NNDI) के मुख्य घटक:
• कारक लागत पर एनएनपी: इसमें उत्पादन के कारकों द्वारा अर्जित आय शामिल होती है।
• शुद्ध अप्रत्यक्ष कर: इसमें जीएसटी, सीमा शुल्क और उत्पाद शुल्क जैसे कर शामिल हैं।
• निवल वर्तमान हस्तांतरण: इसमें विदेशों से प्राप्त उपहार, प्रेषण (Remittances) और दान शामिल होते हैं जिनके लिए कोई आर्थिक सेवा प्रदान नहीं की जाती है।
• आयात शुल्क का प्रभाव:
• यह न केवल राजस्व बढ़ाता है, बल्कि स्थानीय उद्योगों को विदेशी प्रतिस्पर्धा से संरक्षण भी प्रदान करता है।
• अत्यधिक उच्च आयात शुल्क से आयात की मात्रा घट सकती है, लेकिन प्रति इकाई उच्च कर की दर प्रारंभिक त��र पर राजस्व वृद्धि में योगदान देती है।

The correct answer is Palamu Tiger Reserve.

Key Points

• The Vanjeevi Didi initiative was officially launched in the South Division of the Palamu Tiger Reserve (PTR) in February 2026 to strengthen community-based conservation.
• This program specifically recruits and trains local women from forest-fringe villages to act as Vanjeevi Didis (Sisters of the Forest), serving as a vital link between the Forest Department and the local population.
• The primary roles of these women include monitoring forest fires, reporting illegal grazing or poaching activities, and educating villagers on wildlife conservation.
• The initiative is designed to mitigate man-animal conflict by providing early warnings and fostering a sense of ownership and stewardship among the local tribal communities.
• By formalizing the role of women in biodiversity management, the project provides sustainable livelihood opportunities and promotes gender empowerment within the ecological framework of the reserve.

 Additional Information

• Palamu Tiger Reserve (PTR):
• It is located in the Latehar and Palamu districts of Jharkhand.
• It holds historical significance as one of the first nine tiger reserves established in India in 1973 under Project Tiger.
• The reserve is drained by the North Koel River and its tributaries, such as the Auranga and Burha rivers.
• Other Tiger Reserves mentioned:
• Kanha Tiger Reserve: Located in Madhya Pradesh, it is the first tiger reserve in India to officially introduce a mascot, Bhoorsingh the Barasingha.
• Bandipur Tiger Reserve: Situated in Karnataka, it is a key part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve and shares borders with Nagarahole and Wayanad.
• Sundarbans Tiger Reserve: Found in West Bengal, it is a UNESCO World Heritage Site famous for its mangrove ecosystem and the Royal Bengal Tiger.

सही उत्तर किसी एक निविष्टि में वृद्धि होने पर, उस निविष्टि का सीमांत उत्पाद घट जाएगा है।

मुख्य बिंदु

• किसी एक निविष्टि में वृद्धि करने पर, सभी निविष्टियों के सीमांत उत्पाद में वृद्धि होना आवश्यक नहीं है, क्योंकि यह नियम केवल एक परिवर्तनीय कारक और शेष स्थिर कारकों के अनुपात पर आधारित है। इसलिए, कथन 1 गलत है।
• जब किसी एक निविष्टि में वृद्धि की जाती है, तो कुल उत्पाद (Total Product) शुरुआत में घटता नहीं है, बल्कि यह तब तक बढ़ता रहता है जब तक कि सीमांत उत्पाद शून्य या ऋणात्मक न हो जाए। इसलिए, कथन 2 गलत है।
• ह्रासमान प्रतिफल का नियम (Law of Diminishing Returns) यह स्पष्ट करता है कि यदि उत्पादन के अन्य सभी साधनों को स्थिर रखकर किसी एक परिवर्तनीय कारक (जैसे श्रम) की मात्रा बढ़ाई जाती है, तो उस कारक का सीमांत उत्पाद (अतिरिक्त उत्पादन) अंततः घटने लगता है। इसलिए, कथन 3 सही है।
• एक निश्चित बिंदु के बाद, किसी निविष्टि में वृद्धि होने पर औसत उत्पाद (Average Product) भी कम होने लगता है, क्योंकि सीमांत उत्पाद में गिरावट इसे नीचे खींचती है। इसलिए, कथन 4 गलत है।

 अतिरिक्त जानकारी

• उत्पादन की तीन अवस्थाएँ:
• बढ़ते प्रतिफल की अवस्था: जहाँ संसाधनों के बेहतर उपयोग से सीमांत उत्पाद (MP) बढ़ता है।
• घटते प्रतिफल की अवस्था: जहाँ MP गिरता है लेकिन सकारात्मक रहता है, और कुल उत्पाद धीमी गति से बढ़ता है।
• ऋणात्मक प्रतिफल की अवस्था: जहाँ MP शून्य से कम हो जाता है और कुल उत्पाद गिरने लगता है।
• नियम की मान्यताएँ:
• यह नियम मुख्य रूप से अल्पकाल (Short-run) में प्रभावी होता है।
• उत्पादन की तकनीक में कोई परिवर्तन नहीं होना चाहिए।
• परिवर्तनीय कारक की सभी इकाइयाँ समान रूप से कुशल (Homogeneous) होनी चाहिए।

The correct answer is Colin Campbell.

Key Points

• Sir Colin Campbell (later known as Lord Clyde) was the Commander-in-Chief of the British forces who led the final operations to suppress the Revolt of 1857 in Lucknow.
• The rebellion in Lucknow broke out on May 30, 1857, and was led by Begum Hazrat Mahal, who acted as the regent for her minor son, Birjis Qadr.
• Campbell successfully evacuated the besieged British Residency in November 1857 and later returned with a massive force, including Gurkha soldiers from Nepal, to completely recapture the city in March 1858.
• His systematic military strategy involved securing the Alambagh and the Dilkusha Palace before launching the final assault on the rebel strongholds within the city.
• The fall of Lucknow was a major blow to the revolutionaries, as it was one of the most significant political and military centers of the Great Uprising.

 Additional Information

• Hugh Rose:
• He was the commander of the Central India Field Force.
• He is famous for suppressing the revolt in Jhansi and Gwalior and famously praised Rani Lakshmibai for her bravery.
• John Nicholson:
• A British officer known for his ruthless and decisive role in the Siege of Delhi.
• He died in September 1857 due to injuries sustained during the storming of the Kashmir Gate in Delhi.
• Henry Lawrence:
• He was the Chief Commissioner of Awadh at the start of the rebellion.
• He died early in the Siege of Lucknow in July 1857 after being hit by a rebel shell while defending the Residency.

The correct answer is Motilal Nehru and Chittaranjan Das.

Key Points

• The Non-Cooperation Movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1920 to protest against the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre, the Rowlatt Act, and the Khilafat injustice.
• One of the primary facets of the movement was the boycott of British legal courts, urging lawyers to give up their practices and litigants to settle disputes through National Panchayats.
• Motilal Nehru, a distinguished and wealthy advocate at the Allahabad High Court, was among the first to renounce his lucrative legal career to join the national cause.
• Chittaranjan Das, also known as Deshbandhu, was a prominent barrister from Bengal who famously sacrificed his immense income and legal practice to lead the movement in the east.
• Their decision to abandon the legal profession served as a powerful symbolic act of defiance against colonial administrative machinery and inspired thousands of students and professionals to join the struggle.
• The movement sought to achieve Swaraj (self-rule) within one year through non-violent means and total non-cooperation with the state.

 Additional Information

• Other Notable Participants:
• Prominent leaders like C. Rajagopalachari, Vallabhbhai Patel, Asaf Ali, Saifuddin Kitchlew, and Rajendra Prasad also gave up their legal practices during this period.
• Formation of Swaraj Party:
• Following the suspension of the movement in 1922, Motilal Nehru and Chittaranjan Das formed the Swaraj Party in January 1923 to contest elections and wreck the councils from within.
• Key Figures in Options:
• Bal Gangadhar Tilak: He passed away on August 1, 1920, the same day the Non-Cooperation Movement was officially launched.
• M.A. Jinnah: He disagreed with the strategy of non-cooperation and the mixing of religion (Khilafat) with politics, leading to his resignation from the Indian National Congress in 1920.
• Jawaharlal Nehru: While he joined the movement wholeheartedly, he was early in his career compared to his father, Motilal Nehru, who was already a legal titan.
• End of Movement:
• Mahatma Gandhi abruptly called off the movement in February 1922 after the Chauri Chaura incident, where a violent mob set fire to a police station.

The correct answer is India.

Key Points

• India achieved a landmark success at the World Boxing Cup 2025 held in Almaty, Kazakhstan, by winning a record 11 medals in the women’s category.
• This performance stands as the best-ever medal haul for the Indian women's boxing team in the history of the World Boxing Cup series.
• The tournament featured top-tier global competition, where Indian pugilists secured medals across multiple weight categories, demonstrating the country’s increasing depth in women’s boxing.
• The contingent included both seasoned champions and emerging talents, contributing to a mix of Gold, Silver, and Bronze medals that placed India among the top-performing nations.
• The success in Kazakhstan is a testament to the rigorous training programs conducted at the National Centres of Excellence (NCOE) and the strategic support from the Boxing Federation of India (BFI).

 Additional Information

• World Boxing Cup:
• It is a prestigious international boxing circuit managed by World Boxing, aimed at maintaining the sport's high standards and its place in the Olympic Games.
• The 2025 Almaty edition served as a crucial event for determining world rankings and scouting talent for the next Olympic cycle.
• Host Nation Kazakhstan:
• Kazakhstan is widely regarded as a boxing powerhouse, known for producing numerous Olympic and World Champions, making it a challenging venue for visiting athletes.
• Indian Sports Initiatives:
• The performance was significantly aided by the Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS), which provides specialized financial and technical support to elite athletes.
• Regular exposure trips to international training camps in countries like Uzbekistan and Kazakhstan have helped Indian boxers adapt to various styles of play.

The correct answer is 1924.

Key Points

• Mahatma Gandhi presided over the 39^th session of the Indian National Congress (INC) held in Belgaum (now Belagavi, Karnataka) in 1924.
• This was the only time in his political career that Gandhiji served as the President of an Indian National Congress session.
• The Belgaum session was crucial as it followed the suspension of the Non-Cooperation Movement and focused on maintaining unity between the Swarajists and the No-Changers within the party.
• During this session, Gandhi emphasized the importance of the constructive program, which included the promotion of Khadi, the removal of untouchability, and fostering Hindu-Muslim unity.
• The session also saw the formal endorsement of the Gandhi-Das Pact, which allowed the Swaraj Party to work within the legislative councils while remaining part of the Congress.

 Additional Information

• The other mentioned years are associated with different presiding officers:
• 1917: This session was held in Calcutta and was presided over by Annie Besant, who became the first woman President of the INC.
• 1921: This session was held in Ahmedabad. Hakim Ajmal Khan was the Acting President because the elected president, Chittaranjan Das, was in prison at that time.
• 1934: This session was held in Bombay and was presided over by Rajendra Prasad, who later became the first President of India.
• The Indian National Congress was founded in December 1885 at Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College in Bombay, with Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee as its first president.

The correct answer is World Bank.

Key Points

• The Poverty and Equity Briefs (PEBs) are semi-annual reports published by the World Bank to provide the latest data on poverty, shared prosperity, and inequality for over 160 economies.
• In the April 2025 update, the reports highlighted a significant global recovery, noting that 171 million people successfully moved out of extreme poverty, which is defined by the International Poverty Line of $2.15 per person per day.
• These briefs rely on the Poverty and Inequality Platform (PIP), the World Bank’s interactive tool for monitoring global poverty metrics based on 2017 Purchasing Power Parity (PPP).
• The PEBs are crucial for monitoring progress toward Sustainable Development Goal 1 (SDG 1), which targets the total eradication of extreme poverty by the year 2030.
• The analysis covers the Gini Index and the growth of the bottom 40 percent of the population to evaluate the extent of income distribution within various nations.

 Additional Information

• World Bank:
• Established in 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference, it is headquartered in Washington, D.C.
• It comprises the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) and the International Development Association (IDA).
• United Nations Development Programme (UNDP):
• Focuses on the Human Development Index (HDI) and the Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI), which measures health, education, and living standards.
• International Monetary Fund (IMF):
• Primary focus is on international monetary cooperation, financial stability, and facilitating global trade through policy advice and Balance of Payments support.
• Asian Development Bank (ADB):
• A regional financial institution founded in 1966, headquartered in Mandaluyong, Philippines, focusing on poverty reduction specifically in the Asia-Pacific region$.

सही उत्तर इसके लिए आंतरिक साहस और दृढ़ इच्छाशक्ति की आवश्यकता होती है है।

मुख्य बिंदु

• सत्याग्रह का शाब्दिक अर्थ है सत्य के लिए आग्रह करना। महात्मा गांधी का मानना था कि सत्य की शक्ति में वह सामर्थ्य है जो किसी भी भौतिक बल को पराजित कर सकती है।
• गांधीजी ने सत्याग्रह को 'वीरों का शस्त्र' कहा क्योंकि यह कायरता का नहीं बल्कि सर्वोच्च साहस का प्रतीक है। उनके अनुसार, हिंसा करना आसान है, लेकिन बिना प्रतिशोध के अहिंसक बने रहना कठिन है।
• सत्याग्रह के लिए बाहरी शारीरिक शक्ति की तुलना में बहुत अधिक आंतरिक साहस और दृढ़ इच्छाशक्ति की आवश्यकता होती है, ताकि व्यक्ति स्वयं कष्ट सहकर भी सत्य के मार्ग से न डिगे।
• यह एक नैतिक बल है जिसका उद्देश्य शत्रु को नष्ट करना नहीं, बल्कि उसकी आत्मा को जगाना और उसका हृदय परिवर्तन करना है।

 अतिरिक्त जानकारी

• सत्याग्रह का इतिहास और प्रयोग:
• गांधीजी ने सत्याग्रह का सर्वप्रथम प्रयोग 1906 में दक्षिण अफ्रीका में पंजीकरण कानून (एशियाई अधिनियम) के विरोध में किया था।
• भारत में पहला प्रमुख प्रयोग 1917 का चंपारण सत्याग्रह था, जो नील की खेती करने वाले किसानों के अधिकारों के लिए था।
• सत्याग्रह के स्तंभ:
• सत्य और अहिंसा इसके दो मूल आधार हैं। गांधीजी का मानना था कि बिना सत्य के अहिंसा संभव नहीं है।
• सत्याग्रही को निर्भयता (डर का अभाव) का पालन करना चाहिए, क्योंकि एक डरा हुआ व्यक्ति कभी सत्य के मार्ग पर नहीं चल सकता।
• यह 'निष्क्रिय प्रतिरोध' से भिन्न है क्योंकि इसमें घृणा के बजाय प्रेम और नैतिक श्रेष्ठता का स्थान होता है।

The correct answer is Tracking and comparing the progress of electric mobility across different states.

Key Points

• NITI Aayog has launched the India Electric Mobility Index (IEMI) to promote the electric vehicle (EV) ecosystem in India, with the primary objective of analysing the performance of states.
• The index provides a data-driven framework to compare the adoption rate of electric mobility, implementation of policies, and development of infrastructure among different states and Union Territories.
• The objective of IEMI is to foster a spirit of competitive federalism among states, enabling them to learn from each other's best practices and accelerate clean-energy transportation in their respective regions.
• The assessment model is primarily based on parameters such as charging infrastructure, state-level incentives, the number of EV registrations, and the electrification of public transport.
• Through this index, NITI Aayog aims to make states accountable for achieving the national target of having electric vehicles account for 30 percent of total vehicle sales in India by 2030.

Additional Information

• NITI Aayog:
• It is the Government of India's premier policy 'think tank', established on 1 January 2015, replacing the Planning Commission.
• Its objective is to achieve the Sustainable Development Goals and actively involve states in economic policymaking.
• FAME-II Scheme:
• It is a major Central Government scheme for the rapid adoption and manufacturing of electric vehicles in India, administered by the Ministry of Heavy Industries.
• IEMI helps measure the grassroots-level impact of this scheme and efforts to reduce carbon emissions.

The correct answer is 3.2%.

Key Points

• The Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) is an annual assessment conducted by the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) to track employment indicators.
• According to the Seventh Annual Report (July 2023 – June 2024), the Unemployment Rate (UR) for persons aged 15 years and above in India, based on the usual status (ps+ss), was 3.2%.
• The usual status (ps+ss) approach measures employment based on a long reference period of 365 days, combining both Principal Status (ps) (the activity on which a person spent relatively long time) and Subsidiary Status (ss) (economic activity pursued for at least 30 days).
• This figure of 3.2% highlights a stable trend in the labour market, remaining unchanged from the 2022-23 report, and shows a significant improvement compared to the 6.6% recorded during the first PLFS cycle in 2017-18.
• Statistically, the unemployment rate in rural areas was lower at 2.5%, while in urban areas, the rate was higher at 5.1% for the same period.

 Additional Information

• Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR):
• The LFPR represents the percentage of the population that is either working or seeking work. For the 2023-24 period, it rose to 60.1% from 57.9% in the previous year.
• Worker Population Ratio (WPR):
• The WPR is defined as the percentage of employed persons in the total population. In 2023-24, the WPR for persons aged 15 years and above reached 58.2%, up from 56.0% in 2022-23.
• Gender-based Metrics:
• For the year 2023-24, the unemployment rate for both males and females at the all-India level was identical at 3.2%.
• In rural areas, female unemployment was only 1.2%, while in urban areas, it was significantly higher at 6.7%.

The correct answer is निम्न-स्तरीय सेवा कार्यों में 'अल्परोज़गार' में वृद्धि.

मुख्य बिंदु

• जब किसी अर्थव्यवस्था की GDP मुख्य रूप से सेवा क्षेत्र के माध्यम से बढ़ती है, लेकिन रोजगार सृजन मुख्य रूप से असंगठित क्षेत्र तक सीमित रहता है, तो यह आर्थिक विकास और रोजगार की गुणवत्ता के बीच असंतुलन को दर्शाता है।
• संगठित क्षेत्र में उच्च-उत्पादकता वाले रोजगार की कमी के कारण, कार्यबल का एक बड़ा हिस्सा मजबूरी में निम्न-स्तरीय सेवाओं (जैसे कि छोटी खुदरा दुकानें, सड़क किनारे विक्रेता, या घरेलू काम) में संलग्न हो जाता है।
• यह स्थिति अल्परोज़गार (Underemployment) को जन्म देती है, जहाँ श्रमिक अपनी योग्यता और कौशल के अनुरूप कार्य नहीं प्राप्त कर पाते या उन्हें अपनी क्षमता से कम घंटों के लिए कार्य करना पड़ता है।
• ऐसी आर्थिक संरचना में, उत्पादन में वृद्धि तो होती है, लेकिन श्रम की आय और जीवन स्तर में आनुपातिक सुधार नहीं होता क्योंकि असंगठित क्षेत्र में उत्पादकता और मजदूरी दोनों ही कम बनी रहती हैं।
• यह समष्टि-अर्थशास्त्र परिणाम इंगित करता है कि सेवा क्षेत्र का विस्तार 'समावेशी' नहीं है और यह मुख्य रूप से अनौपचारिक अर्थव्यवस्था को बढ़ावा दे रहा है।

 अतिरिक्त जानकारी

• अल्परोज़गार (Underemployment):
• यह एक ऐसी स्थिति है जहाँ श्रमिक अपनी शिक्षा, अनुभव और कौशल के स्तर से कम वाली नौकरियों में कार्यरत होते हैं।
• इसमें वे लोग भी शामिल हैं जो पूर्णकालिक (Full-time) रोजगार की तलाश में हैं लेकिन केवल अंशकालिक (Part-time) काम ही पा रहे हैं।
• प्रच्छन्न बेरोजगारी (Disguised Unemployment):
• यह मुख्य रूप से प्राथमिक क्षेत्र (कृषि) में पाई जाती है जहाँ आवश्यकता से अधिक लोग कार्यरत होते हैं।
• यदि सेवा क्षेत्र का विकास केवल असंगठित स्तर पर होता है, तो यह इस समस्या को हल करने के बजाय केवल इसका स्वरूप बदल देता है।
• असंगठित क्षेत्र (Unorganized Sector):
• इसमें वे छोटे उद्यम और श्रमिक शामिल हैं जो सरकार के पास पंजीकृत नहीं हैं और जहाँ सामाजिक सुरक्षा (पेंशन, बीमा) का अभाव होता है।
• भारत जैसे विकासशील देशों में, श्रम बल का लगभग 90% हिस्सा इसी क्षेत्र में कार्यरत है, जो रोजगार की असुरक्षा को बढ़ाता है।
• सेवा क्षेत्र (Service Sector):
• इसमें व्यापार, परिवहन, बैंकिंग, संचार और सूचना प्रौद्योगिकी जैसे क्षेत्र शामिल हैं।
• यदि यह क्षेत्र केवल पूंजी-प्रधान (Capital-intensive) है, तो यह GDP तो बढ़ाता है लेकिन व्यापक स्तर पर संगठित रोजगार सृजित करने में विफल रहता है।

Concept

• The discovery of new species is a crucial part of biodiversity research in India, particularly in the Himalayan biodiversity hotspots.
• The North-East India region, especially Arunachal Pradesh, is known for its unique and rare flora and fauna.
• Rare biological traits like blue bones and green blood are often caused by the accumulation of a bile pigment called biliverdin in the body tissues.

Explanation

Researchers from the University of Delhi (Delhi University), led by the renowned biologist Professor S.D. Biju (often known as the 'Frogman of India'), discovered a unique species of frog in Arunachal Pradesh.

The discovery was made in the Namdapha-Kamlang landscape. This species belongs to the genus Nidirana and is characterized by distinct morphological features, most notably its blue-colored bones and green blood. These unusual features are rare among vertebrates and signify a specialized evolutionary adaptation or physiological process.

The discovery team included scientists from the Systematics Lab at the Department of Environmental Studies, Delhi University, in collaboration with other international institutions and local wildlife authorities. This finding underscores the ecological importance of the Eastern Himalayas and the need for continued conservation efforts in the region.

Hence, the researchers who discovered the rare frog species belong to Delhi University, Delhi.

The correct answer is Sodium benzoate.

Key Points

• Sodium benzoate is a chemical preservative with the formula C₆H₅COONa, serving as the sodium salt of benzoic acid.
• It is categorized as a bacteriostatic and fungistatic agent, meaning it inhibits the growth of bacteria, molds, and yeasts rather than necessarily killing them.
• The preservative is most effective in acidic foods where the pH is below 4.5, as the acidity converts the salt into undissociated benzoic acid, which penetrates microbial cell walls.
• Common applications include carbonated drinks, fruit juices, pickles, jams, and salad dressings to extend shelf life and ensure food safety.
• In the body, sodium benzoate is processed by the liver, conjugated with glycine, and excreted as hippuric acid in the urine.

 Additional Information

• Artificial Sweeteners:
• Aspartame: A low-calorie artificial sweetener approximately 200 times sweeter than sucrose; it is a methyl ester of the aspartic acid/phenylalanine dipeptide.
• Alitame: A high-intensity sweetener about 2,000 times sweeter than table sugar; it is more thermally stable than aspartame, making it suitable for baked goods.
• Sodium Rosinate:
• It is the sodium salt of rosin acid (abietic acid) and is primarily used as an emulsifier in the manufacture of synthetic rubbers, soaps, and paper sizing.
• It is not intended for use as a food preservative but is vital in industrial chemical processing.

सही उत्तर उच्च न्यायालय के न्यायाधीश है।

मुख्य बिंदु

• भारतीय संविधान का अनुच्छेद 127 सर्वोच्च न्यायालय में तदर्थ न्यायाधीशों (Ad-hoc Judges) की नियुक्ति के संबंध में विशेष प्रावधान करता है।
• जब सर्वोच्च न्यायालय के किसी भी सत्र को आयोजित करने या जारी रखने के लिए स्थायी न्यायाधीशों की गणपूर्ति (कोरम) की कमी होती है, तब तदर्थ न्यायाधीशों की नियुक्ति की आवश्यकता पड़ती है।
• भारत के मुख्य न्यायाधीश (CJI), किसी भी उच्च न्यायालय के न्यायाधीश को जो सर्वोच्च न्यायालय के न्यायाधीश के रूप में नियुक्त होने के लिए आवश्यक अर्हता रखता हो, एक निश्चित अवधि के लिए तदर्थ न्यायाधीश के रूप में नामित कर सकते हैं।
• ऐसी नियुक्ति के लिए भारत के राष्ट्रपत�� की पूर्व सहमति और संबंधित उच्च न्यायालय के मुख्य न्यायाधीश के साथ परामर्श करना अनिवार्य संवैधानिक प्रक्रिया है।
• तदर्थ न्यायाधीश के रूप में नियुक्त व्यक्ति का यह सर्वोच्च कर्तव्य होता है कि वह अपने पद के अन्य कर्तव्यों की तुलना में सर्वोच्च न्यायालय की बैठकों में उपस्थिति को प्राथमिकता प्रदान करे।
• बैठकों में भाग लेने के दौरान, तदर्थ न्यायाधीश के पास सर्वोच्च न्यायालय के न्यायाधीश के समान ही न्यायाधिकार, शक्तियाँ और विशेषाधिकार होते हैं।

 अतिरिक्त जानकारी

• सर्वोच्च न्यायालय की संरचना:
• भारतीय संविधान के भाग V में अनुच्छेद 124 से 147 तक सर्वोच्च न्यायालय के कार्यों, स्वतंत्रता और शक्तियों का उल्लेख किया गया है।
• वर्तमान में, सर्वोच्च न्यायालय में मुख्य न्यायाधीश सहित कुल 34 न्यायाधीश हो सकते हैं।
• न्यायाधीशों की सेवानिवृत्ति की आयु 65 वर्ष निर्धारित है।
• न्यायाधीश बनने हेतु योग्यताएं:
• वह भारत का नागरिक होना चाहिए।
• कम से कम 5 वर्ष तक किसी उच्च न्यायालय का न्यायाधीश रहा हो, या कम से कम 10 वर्ष तक उच्च न्यायालय में अधिवक्ता रहा हो, या राष्ट्रपति की दृष्टि में एक प्रतिष्ठित विधिवेत्ता हो।
• अन्य विकल्प:
• एडवोकेट-ऑन-रिकॉर्ड (AOR): ये वे अधिवक्ता होते हैं जिन्हें सर्वोच्च न्यायालय में याचिका दायर करने का विशेष अधिकार प्राप्त होता है, लेकिन वे सीधे न्यायाधीश नियुक्त नहीं किए जा सकते।
• संसद सदस्य और सरकारी अधिकारी: ये राजनीतिक और प्रशासनिक पद हैं और न्यायिक अर्हताओं के बिना इन्हें सर्वोच्च न्यायालय का न्यायाधीश नहीं बनाया जा सकता है।

The correct answer is 12.

Key Points

• According to Article 80 of the Constitution of India, the President is empowered to nominate 12 members to the Rajya Sabha.
• These individuals are selected based on their special knowledge or practical experience in specific fields including Literature, Science, Art, and Social Service.
• The primary objective of this nomination process is to provide a platform for eminent personalities and experts who may not wish to contest Direct Elections but whose expertise is valuable to the legislative process.
• Nominated members enjoy the same rights and privileges as elected members, including participation in proceedings, though they do not have the right to vote in the Election of the President of India.

 Additional Information

• Rajya Sabha Structure:
• The Rajya Sabha, also known as the Upper House or the Council of States, has a maximum sanctioned strength of 250 members.
• Currently, the house has 245 seats, where 233 members are elected by the State Legislative Assemblies and 12 are nominated by the President.
• It is a Permanent Body and is not subject to Dissolution; however, one-third of its members retire every two years.
• The Vice-President of India acts as the Ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, presiding over its sessions.
• Members of the Rajya Sabha are elected for a term of six years.
• The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the Allocation of Seats in the Rajya Sabha to the States and Union Territories.

सही उत्तर राजस्थान है।

मुख्य बिंदु

• मल्लीनाथ पशु मेला राजस्थान के सबसे पुराने और सबसे बड़े पशु मेलों में से एक माना जाता है, जो राज्य की समृद्ध पशुपालन संस्कृति को प्रदर्शित करता है।
• यह मेला प्रतिवर्ष बाड़मेर जिले के तिलवाड़ा गाँव में लूनी नदी के किनारे आयोजित किया जाता है।
• इस मेले का आयोजन मारवाड़ के प्रसिद्ध लोक देवता राव मल्लीनाथ की स्मृति में किया जाता है, जिन्हें पश्चिमी राजस्थान में एक सिद्ध पुरुष और रक्षक के रूप में पूजा जाता है।
• यह मेला हिंदू कैलेंडर के अनुसार चैत्र कृष्ण एकादशी से शुरू होकर चैत्र शुक्ल एकादशी तक, यानी कुल पंद्रह दिनों तक चलता है।
• मेले का मुख्य आकर्षण पशुओं का व्यापार है, जहाँ विशेष रूप से थारपारकर, कांकरेज और सांचोरी नस्ल के बैल तथा प्रसिद्ध मालानी नस्ल के घोड़ों की बड़ी संख्या में खरीद-फरोख्त होती है।

 अतिरिक्त जानकारी

• राव मल्लीनाथ और क्षेत्रीय प्रभाव:
• मल्लीनाथ जी 14वीं शताब्दी के मारवाड़ के एक प्रतापी योद्धा थे, जिनके नाम पर बाड़मेर के क्षेत्र को मालानी के नाम से भी जाना जाता है।
• श्रद्धालुओं का मानना है कि इस मेले के दौरान तिलवाड़ा में लूनी नदी के किनारे पूजा करने से पशुओं की बीमारियाँ दूर होती हैं।
• आर्थिक एवं सांस्कृतिक महत्व:
• यह मेला न केवल राजस्थान बल्कि पड़ोसी राज्यों जैसे गुजरात और मध्य प्रदेश के व्यापारियों को भी आकर्षित करता है।
• मेले के दौरान पशुओं की शारीरिक दक्षता और सुंदरता को परखने के लिए घुड़दौड़ और अन्य पशु प्रतियोगिताएं आयोजित की जाती हैं, जो ग्रामीण पर्यटन को बढ़ावा देती हैं।

The correct answer is Bombay.

Key Points

• The first successful modern cotton textile mill in India was established in Bombay (now Mumbai) in 1854.
• This venture, known as the Bombay Spinning and Weaving Company, was founded by the Parsi entrepreneur Cowasjee Nanabhoy Davar.
• The establishment of the mill marked the transition from manual handloom production to mechanized factory production in the Indian textile sector.
• Bombay was selected due to its strategic location as a major port city, which facilitated the easy import of heavy machinery and coal from Britain.
• The city served as a primary export hub for raw cotton to China and England, ensuring that the necessary raw materials were readily available in the local market.
• By the late 1850s and early 1860s, the industry saw rapid expansion, and Bombay earned the nickname Cottonopolis of India due to the high density of textile mills.

 Additional Information

• Ahmedabad:
• The first cotton mill in Ahmedabad, the Shahpur Mill, was established later in 1861 by Ranchhodlal Chhotalal.
• It eventually became a massive textile hub, often referred to as the Manchester of India.
• Geographical Factors:
• The Black Soil (Regur soil) of the Deccan Plateau provided the ideal environment for growing long-staple cotton, feeding the mills in Western India.
• The humid climate of coastal Bombay was naturally suited for spinning cotton thread without it breaking frequently.
• Surat:
• While Surat was an ancient center for Zari work and silk, its transition to a modern powerloom and synthetic textile giant occurred much later than Bombay.

The correct answer is Andaman & Nicobar.

Key Points

• The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are a group of 572 islands located in the Bay of Bengal, extending from 6°45' N to 13°41' N latitude.
• The Nicobar group is the southernmost part of the archipelago, with the Great Nicobar island containing the southernmost tip of the Indian Union, known as Indira Point.
• Indira Point is situated at approximately 6°45' N latitude, which is only about 876 kilometers away from the Equator (0° latitude).
• In contrast, the mainland of India starts at Kanyakumari, which is located at 8°4' N latitude, making the island group significantly closer to the equatorial line than the peninsula.
• The Ten Degree Channel separates the Andaman islands from the Nicobar islands, further emphasizing the southern reach of this territory toward the Equator.

 Additional Information

• Lakshadweep:
• This island group is located in the Arabian Sea and consists of 36 islands.
• The southernmost island of this group is Minicoy, situated at roughly 8°17' N latitude, which is further north compared to the southern tip of the Nicobar islands.
• New Moore:
• It was a small, uninhabited offshore sandbar island in the Bay of Bengal near the Ganges-Brahmaputra Delta.
• Located at approximately 21° N latitude, it was far north of the Equator and was eventually submerged due to rising sea levels.
• Sriharikota:
• This is a barrier island located off the coast of Andhra Pradesh in the Nellore district.
• Situated at about 13°43' N latitude, it is known for housing the Satish Dhawan Space Centre, India's premier satellite launch facility.

The correct answer is Calcium carbonate.

Key Points

• In the process of whitewashing, a solution of slaked lime or Calcium hydroxide is applied to the walls of a building.
• Calcium hydroxide reacts slowly with the Carbon dioxide (CO₂) present in the air to produce a thin layer of Calcium carbonate.
• The chemical reaction involved is: Ca(OH)₂ + CO₂ → CaCO₃ + H₂O.
• This Calcium carbonate layer forms after about two to three days of drying, providing the walls with a characteristic white shiny finish.
• Calcium carbonate is chemically identical to marble, which is also known for its durability and luster in construction.

 Additional Information

• Magnesium oxide (MgO):
• It is an alkaline earth metal oxide formed when magnesium burns in air.
• It is primarily used as a refractory material and in medicine as an antacid or laxative.
• Calcium sulphate (CaSO₄):
• It occurs naturally as Gypsum (CaSO₄·2H₂O).
• When partially dehydrated, it forms Plaster of Paris, commonly used in orthopedics and ornamental plasterwork.
• Sodium hydroxide (NaOH):
• Commonly known as Caustic soda, it is a strong alkali.
• It is extensively used in the manufacture of pulp and paper, textiles, drinking water, and soaps and detergents.

The correct answer is They are the eastern hills formed beyond the Dihang gorge, made mainly of sedimentary rocks.

Key Points

• The Purvanchal or Eastern Hills are a southward extension of the Himalayan mountain system located in the northeastern part of India.
• At the Dihang gorge, the Himalayas take a sharp southward bend and spread along the eastern boundary of India, bordering Myanmar.
• These mountain ranges are primarily composed of strong sandstones, which are sedimentary rocks formed by the accumulation of lithified sediments over geological periods.
• The region is characterized by dense forests and high rainfall, with the ranges typically running parallel to each other in a north-to-south direction.
• The Purvanchal includes several distinct hill tracts such as the Patkai Bum, the Naga Hills, the Manipur Hills, and the Mizo Hills (Lushai Hills).

 Additional Information

• Geographical Context of Options:
• Karakoram Range: This is a major mountain range in the Trans-Himalayan region, located in the Ladakh territory and northern Pakistan; it is not part of the Purvanchal.
• Western Ghats: These are a UNESCO World Heritage Site running parallel to India’s western coast, primarily formed by the subduction and faulting of the Deccan Plateau.
• Central Plateau: Often refers to the Malwa Plateau or the Vindhyan Range, which are part of the ancient Peninsular Block of India, consisting mainly of igneous and metamorphic rocks.
• Dihang Gorge: This is the deep canyon carved by the Brahmaputra River (known as the Siang or Dihang in Arunachal Pradesh) as it enters India from Tibet.

The correct answer is Article 131.

Key Points

• Article 131 of the Indian Constitution establishes the Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, functioning as a Federal Court to resolve disputes between different units of the federation.
• This jurisdiction is exclusive, meaning no other court (such as High Courts) has the authority to hear such cases in the first instance.
• It specifically applies to disputes involving the Government of India and one or more States, or between two or more States, provided the dispute involves a question of law or fact on which a legal right depends.
• It excludes matters arising out of pre-Constitution treaties, agreements, or covenants that are still in force, as well as Inter-State Water Disputes (under Article 262) and matters referred to the Finance Commission (under Article 280).
• The Supreme Court acts as an arbiter to maintain the federal equilibrium by ensuring that the Center and States operate within their constitutional boundaries.

 Additional Information

• Article 315:
• Mandates the establishment of a Public Service Commission for the Union and a Public Service Commission for each State.
• It facilitates the recruitment of officers for All India Services and State Civil Services through competitive examinations.
• Article 324:
• Vests the superintendence, direction, and control of all elections to Parliament and State Legislatures in the Election Commission of India.
• It also covers elections for the offices of the President and Vice-President of India.
• Article 360:
• Empowers the President to declare a Financial Emergency if the financial stability or credit of India, or any part of its territory, is threatened.
• During such an emergency, the Union can direct States to observe specific canons of financial propriety, including the reduction of salaries.

The correct answer is Dravidian.

Key Points

• Tamil is the oldest and one of the most prominent members of the Dravidian language family. This family includes around 80 varieties spoken by nearly 250 million people, primarily in Southern India and parts of Sri Lanka.
• The language boasts a continuous literary history of over 2,000 years, beginning with the Sangam literature (circa 300 BCE to 300 CE). It was the first language in India to be designated as a Classical Language by the Government of India in 2004.
• Geographically, Tamil serves as the official language for the state of Tamil Nadu and the Union Territory of Puducherry. Internationally, it holds official status in Sri Lanka and Singapore, and it is widely spoken by the diaspora in Malaysia and South Africa.
• Linguistically, Tamil is classified under the South Dravidian branch. It is known for its agglutinative morphology, where grammatical relations are expressed through suffixes added to roots, a hallmark of the Dravidian group.
• The Dravidian family is distinct from the Indo-European family and contains major literary languages such as Telugu, Kannada, and Malayalam, alongside smaller languages like Tulu, Kodava, and the northern outlier Brahui found in Pakistan.

 Additional Information

• Indo-Aryan Family:
• This is a major subgroup of the Indo-European family. It includes languages like Hindi, Sanskrit, Marathi, Bengali, and Punjabi, which are dominant in the Northern, Western, and Eastern regions of India.
• Austroasiatic Family:
• These languages are spoken in Southeast Asia and specific pockets of Central and Eastern India. Notable examples include Santali, Khasi, and Munda, often associated with tribal populations.
• Tibeto-Burman Family:
• Part of the Sino-Tibetan family, these languages are spoken in the Himalayan belt and Northeast India. This group includes languages like Meitei (Manipuri), Bodo, and Garo.
• Classical Languages in India:
• Following Tamil in 2004, several other languages received the Classical status, including Sanskrit (2005), Kannada (2008), Telugu (2008), Malayalam (2013), and Odia (2014).

The correct answer is To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood.

Key Points

• Fundamental Duties were not part of the original Constitution; they were added to Part IV-A via the 42^nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
• The inclusion of these duties was based on the recommendations of the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee, which suggested that citizens should have certain obligations in exchange for their fundamental rights.
• Article 51A(e) explicitly mandates that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all people, transcending religious, linguistic, and regional or sectional diversities.
• This specific clause also includes a provision to renounce practices that are derogatory to the dignity of women, emphasizing social equality and respect.
• While the 42^nd Amendment introduced 10 duties, the 11^th Fundamental Duty (providing education opportunities to children aged 6-14) was added by the 86^th Amendment Act, 2002.

 Additional Information

• Other Relevant Concepts:
• Right to Vote: Although a pillar of democracy, voting in elections is a Constitutional Right under Article 326 and a Statutory Right, but it is not listed as a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A.
• Education: Article 21A makes free and compulsory education a Fundamental Right for children aged 6 to 14. The corresponding duty in Article 51A(k) applies to parents and guardians, regardless of whether they belong to BPL families or not.
• Right to Work: The provision for employment and the Right to Work is a Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP) under Article 41, which directs the State to ensure employment, rather than making it a duty for citizens.
• Non-Justiciability: Unlike Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be enforced by writs through courts, though they can be promoted through legislative enactments.

The correct answer is Acetic acid.

Key Points

• Vinegar is essentially a dilute aqueous solution of acetic acid, which gives it its characteristic pungent smell and sour taste.
• Acetic acid, also known by its IUPAC name ethanoic acid, has the chemical formula CH₃COOH.
• The production of vinegar occurs through a two-step fermentation process: first, yeast converts sugar into ethanol, and then acetic acid bacteria (such as Acetobacter) oxidize the ethanol into acetic acid.
• Commercial vinegar typically contains 4% to 8% acetic acid by volume, though specialty vinegars used for pickling may have higher concentrations.
• It serves multiple roles in the food industry, acting as a preservative by lowering pH levels to inhibit microbial growth, a flavoring agent, and a cleaning component.

 Additional Information

• Formic acid (Methanoic acid):
• Identified by the formula HCOOH, it is the simplest carboxylic acid.
• It is naturally found in red ants and bee stings, contributing to the irritation caused by their bites.
• Industrially, it is used in leather tanning and as a preservative in livestock feed.
• Propanoic acid:
• Often referred to as propionic acid (CH₃CH₂COOH), it is a liquid with a sharp, unpleasant odor.
• Its salts are frequently used as mold inhibitors in bread and other bakery products to extend shelf life.
• Glacial Acetic Acid:
• This refers to undiluted or anhydrous acetic acid, which forms ice-like crystals at temperatures below 16.6 °C.

The correct answer is Aluminium.

Key Points

• Aluminium is widely used for manufacturing cooking utensils because it possesses a very high thermal conductivity, which is approximately 235 W/m·K. This allows heat to spread quickly and evenly, ensuring food is cooked uniformly.
• It is a non-toxic metal that naturally forms a protective layer of Aluminium Oxide (Al₂O₃) on its surface. This passivation layer prevents the metal from reacting with food and protects the utensil from corrosion.
• The low density of aluminium (about 2.70 g/cm³) makes the utensils lightweight and easy to handle in a kitchen environment compared to heavier metals like iron.
• It has a high melting point of about 660.3°C, which is significantly higher than the temperatures reached during standard domestic cooking, ensuring structural stability.
• From an economic perspective, aluminium is abundant in the Earth's crust and relatively inexpensive to process, making high-quality cookware affordable for mass consumption.

 Additional Information

• Insulators:
• Wood and Plastic are thermal insulators. They are used for making handles of utensils to protect the user from burns, as they do not conduct heat from the body of the pan.
• Plastic cannot be used for the main body of cookware because most polymers have a low melting point and can release toxic fumes when exposed to direct heat.
• Zinc: Although it is a metal, it is not suitable for cookware because it is relatively brittle at room temperature and has a lower melting point (419.5°C) compared to aluminium, making it less durable for high-heat applications.
• Comparison: While Copper has an even higher thermal conductivity (401 W/m·K), it is much more expensive and requires frequent maintenance to prevent the formation of toxic verdigris.

The correct answer is Ministry of Culture.

Key Points

• The Ministry of Culture is the primary authority responsible for the preservation, promotion, and formal recognition of Classical Languages in India.
• The process of granting classical status is initiated through a Linguistic Experts Committee constituted by the Sahitya Akademi, which is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Culture.
• To qualify for this status, a language must demonstrate a high antiquity of its early texts and recorded history over a period of 1500 to 2000 years.
• The language must possess a body of ancient literature and texts considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers, and the literary tradition must be original and not borrowed.
• As of October 2024, the Government of India has officially recognized eleven languages with this status: Tamil (2004), Sanskrit (2005), Kannada (2008), Telugu (2008), Malayalam (2013), Odia (2014), and the recently added Marathi, Pali, Prakrit, Assamese, and Bengali.

 Additional Information

• Ministry of Home Affairs
• It oversees the Department of Official Language, which is concerned with the implementation of Article 343 of the Constitution of India and the Official Languages Act, 1963.
• Its primary role is the use of Hindi and English for official purposes of the Union, rather than the heritage-based classification of classical tongues.
• Benefits of Classical Status
• Recipients receive two major international awards annually for distinguished scholars of the language.
• A Centre of Excellence for Studies in the specific classical language is established.
• The University Grants Commission (UGC) is requested to create Professional Chairs for these languages in Central Universities to promote research and academic growth.

The correct answer is Article 32 of the Indian Constitution.

Key Points

• Article 32 confers the Right to Constitutional Remedies, which allows an individual to approach the Supreme Court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Part III of the Constitution.
• Dr. B.R. Ambedkar famously described Article 32 as the Heart and Soul of the Constitution, asserting that without this remedy, all other rights would be meaningless.
• The Supreme Court is empowered to issue five types of writs for the protection of these rights: Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Quo Warranto, and Certiorari.
• Unlike other fundamental rights, Article 32 is itself a fundamental right, ensuring that the power of Judicial Review remains a Basic Structure of the Indian Constitution.
• While the Supreme Court handles enforcement under Article 32, Article 226 grants similar powers to the High Courts to issue writs for fundamental rights and other legal purposes.

 Additional Information

• Article 19:
• Guarantees six democratic freedoms to citizens: speech and expression, peaceful assembly, forming associations, free movement, residence, and practicing any profession.
• Article 21:
• States that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. Its scope has been expanded by the judiciary to include the right to privacy and right to education.
• Article 51A:
• Introduced by the 42^nd Amendment Act, 1976 based on the Swaran Singh Committee recommendations, it lists the 11 Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens.

The correct answer is 49.10%..

Key Points

• According to the Census of India 2011, the total number of female literates in the country rose from 224.15 million in 2001 to 334.25 million in 2011.
• The absolute increase in the number of female literates during the decade was 110.1 million, which represents a percentage growth of 49.10%.
• This growth rate significantly outperformed the male literacy growth rate, which stood at 31.98% during the same decadal period.
• The total literacy rate of India as per the 2011 Census was 74.04%, reflecting a steady improvement in education across the nation.
• While the male literacy rate was recorded at 82.14%, the female literacy rate reached 65.46%, narrowing the gender gap in education compared to the previous census.

 Additional Information

• Census of India 2011:
• The 2011 Census was the 15^th National Census of the country and the 7^th Census after Independence.
• The Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India responsible for the 2011 data collection was C. Chandramouli.
• The official motto of the census was 'Our Census, Our Future'.
• State-wise Literacy Trends:
• Kerala retained its position as the most literate state with a literacy rate of 94.00%.
• Bihar recorded the lowest literacy rate in the country at 61.80%.
• A person aged 7 years and above who can read and write with understanding in any language is considered literate by census standards.