Official Paper

Delhi Police Constable Driver (Male) 21 Oct 2022 Shift 2 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)

100 questions · 90 minutes · with answers · free

General Awareness (20 questions)

1

What is included in the Capital Account of the Government?

  1. ((a))

    Revenue of the Government

  2. ((b))

    Assets and Liabilities of the Government

  3. ((c))

    Assets and Liabilities of the Private Sector

  4. ((d))

    Revenue of the Private Sector 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Assets and Liabilities of the Government

The Correct answer is Assets and Liabilities of the Government.

Key Points

  • The Capital Account of the government is part of its accounting system and reflects changes in the government’s financial assets and liabilities.
  • It includes transactions that result in the creation, acquisition, or disposal of assets and liabilities.
  • Examples of assets include buildings, machinery, infrastructure, and land.
  • The Capital Account also records liabilities such as government debt, including loans taken from foreign entities or internal sources.
  • It is distinct from the Revenue Account, which deals with day-to-day income and expenditure.
  • The Capital Account helps assess the long-term financial sustainability of the government and impacts its ability to finance large-scale projects.
  • In the context of national accounts, this section is crucial for evaluating the government’s role in investments and development activities.
  • In India, the Capital Account is maintained under the guidelines provided by the Ministry of Finance and audited by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG).

Additional Information

  • Revenue of the Government
  • The Revenue Account deals with current income and expenditures, including taxes, fees, and other forms of revenue generation.
  • It reflects the short-term financial activities of the government rather than long-term investments.
  • Examples include income tax, GST, customs duties, and expenditures on salaries, subsidies, and maintenance costs.
  • This account does not deal with the creation or disposal of assets.
  • Assets and Liabilities of the Private Sector
  • This term pertains to the accounting activities of private entities, not the government.
  • It includes the financial dealings of private businesses, corporations, and individuals.
  • Private sector accounts are managed independently and are not part of government accounting systems.
  • Revenue of the Private Sector
  • This refers to the income generated by private entities through businesses, investments, and other sources.
  • It does not contribute directly to the government’s Capital Account.
  • Examples include profits from industries, services, and agricultural activities.
2

In October 2021, the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment launched a platform providing reemployment opportunities for senior citizens on the occasion of International Day of Elder Persons 2021. What is the name of one of the portals?

  1. ((a))

     SACRED

  2. ((b))

    SAKAR 

  3. ((c))

    SAMADHAN

  4. ((d))

    SAMRIDH

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

 SACRED

The Correct answer is SACRED

Key Points

  • The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment launched the SACRED portal in October 2021.
  • SACRED stands for Senior Able Citizens for Re-Employment in Dignity.
  • It was launched on the occasion of the International Day of Elder Persons 2021.
  • The platform aims to provide re-employment opportunities to senior citizens, ensuring their active participation in the workforce.
  • It enables senior citizens to connect with employers for suitable job opportunities based on their skills and experience.
  • This initiative aligns with the government's efforts to support elderly citizens and utilize their valuable expertise in productive ways.
  • The SACRED portal is intended to promote dignity and self-reliance among senior citizens.

Additional Information

  • SAKAR
  • The term SAKAR does not refer to a specific government portal related to re-employment opportunities for senior citizens.
  • It might be used in other contexts, but it is not associated with the initiative described in the question.
  • SAMADHAN
  • SAMADHAN is generally associated with grievance redressal systems or solutions but does not pertain to the specific re-employment platform for senior citizens.
  • It might be used in contexts like dispute resolution or problem-solving frameworks.
  • SAMRIDH
  • SAMRIDH refers to Startup Accelerators of MeitY for Product Innovation, Development, and Growth, an initiative by the Ministry of Electronics and IT aimed at supporting startups.
  • It is unrelated to re-employment opportunities for senior citizens.
  • The portal focuses on innovation and entrepreneurship rather than senior citizen welfare.
3

Which is the correct order of money evolution?

  1. ((a))

    Commodity Money, Metal Money, Paper Money, Credit Money

  2. ((b))

    Paper Money, Credit Money, Metal Money, Commodity Money

  3. ((c))

    Credit Money, Paper Money, Commodity Money, Metal Money 

  4. ((d))

    Metal Money, Paper Money, Credit Money, Commodity Money

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Commodity Money, Metal Money, Paper Money, Credit Money

The correct answer is Commodity Money, Metal Money, Paper Money, Credit Money.

Key Points

  • Money evolution refers to the gradual development of various forms of money over time to meet the needs of trade and economic transactions.
  • The correct order of money evolution is: Commodity Money → Metal Money → Paper Money → Credit Money.
  • Commodity Money: This was the earliest form of money where goods like grain, cattle, or salt were used as a medium of exchange. These were items of intrinsic value.
  • Metal Money: As trade expanded, metals such as gold, silver, and copper were used as money due to their durability, divisibility, and intrinsic value.
  • Paper Money: With the growth of economies, carrying metal money became inconvenient. Paper money, backed by a guarantee from a government or authority, became a widely accepted medium of exchange.
  • Credit Money: In modern economies, money evolved into credit forms like bank deposits, cheques, and digital payments, which are promises to pay rather than physical currency.
  • This evolutionary process highlights the transition from tangible goods to more abstract and convenient forms of money in human history.

Additional Information

  • Paper Money, Credit Money, Metal Money, Commodity Money
  • This sequence is incorrect because Commodity Money and Metal Money are earlier forms of money compared to Paper Money and Credit Money.
  • Historically, societies first relied on tangible items with intrinsic value before transitioning to paper and credit systems.
  • Credit Money, Paper Money, Commodity Money, Metal Money
  • This order is incorrect as it places Credit Money before both Commodity Money and Metal Money, which contradicts the historical progression of money.
  • Credit Money is a modern innovation, whereas Commodity Money and Metal Money were used in ancient times.
  • Metal Money, Paper Money, Credit Money, Commodity Money
  • This sequence is inaccurate as it places Commodity Money, the earliest form of money, at the end of the progression.
  • The correct evolution starts with Commodity Money, followed by Metal Money, Paper Money, and finally Credit Money.
4

Who was appointed as India’s first Minister of Cooperation?

  1. ((a))

    Amit Shah

  2. ((b))

    Rajnath Singh

  3. ((c))

    Dharmendra Pradhan 

  4. ((d))

    Nirmala Sitharaman

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Amit Shah

The Correct answer is Amit Shah.

Key Points

  • Amit Shah was appointed as India’s first Minister of Cooperation in July 2021.
  • The Ministry of Cooperation was created by the Government of India with the aim to provide a separate administrative framework to strengthen the cooperative movement in the country.
  • Its objective is to support the development of multi-state cooperatives, facilitate ease of doing business, and promote transparency in the cooperative sector.
  • Amit Shah, who also holds the position of Union Home Minister, was entrusted with the responsibility to oversee the functioning of this newly formed ministry.
  • The cooperative sector in India plays a significant role in areas like agriculture, banking, housing, and rural development.
  • Under his leadership, the Ministry is expected to enhance the governance and accountability of cooperative societies through policy reforms, digitization, and capacity building.
  • The establishment of this ministry aligns with the principles of ‘Sabka Saath, Sabka Vikas, Sabka Vishwas’, aiming for inclusive development through cooperative efforts.

Additional Information

  • Rajnath Singh
  • Rajnath Singh is the current Union Minister of Defence of India.
  • He has previously served as the Union Home Minister and is known for his contributions in national security and defense policies.
  • He is a senior leader of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) and has held several important positions in the government over the years.
  • Dharmendra Pradhan
  • Dharmendra Pradhan is the current Union Minister of Education and Skill Development & Entrepreneurship.
  • He has also served as the Union Minister of Petroleum and Natural Gas.
  • He is actively involved in improving education policies and promoting vocational training and skill development in India.
  • Nirmala Sitharaman
  • Nirmala Sitharaman is the current Union Minister of Finance and Corporate Affairs.
  • She is the first full-time female finance minister of India and plays a crucial role in formulating economic policies and managing the country’s financial system.
  • She has also served as the Union Minister of Defence, making her one of the key leaders in the Indian government.
5

Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched? 

  1. ((a))

    Education Town – Puri

  2. ((b))

    Tourist Town - Jaisalmer

  3. ((c))

    Religious Town – Ayodhya

  4. ((d))

    Cantonment Town - Babina

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Education Town – Puri

The Correct answer is Education Town – Puri.

Key Points

  • Puri is primarily known as a Religious Town, not an Education Town.
  • Puri is famous for the Jagannath Temple, one of the Char Dham pilgrimage sites in India.
  • The town is located in the Indian state of Odisha.
  • Puri attracts millions of devotees and tourists annually due to its religious significance and cultural heritage.
  • It is also popular for its beaches, including the renowned Puri Beach.
  • Though it has educational institutions, its primary identity is associated with religion and tourism, not education.

Additional Information

  • Tourist Town – Jaisalmer
  • Jaisalmer is located in the state of Rajasthan.
  • It is famously known as the "Golden City" due to its yellow sandstone architecture.
  • The town is a major tourist destination because of its historical forts, such as the Jaisalmer Fort, and its proximity to the Thar Desert.
  • It offers unique attractions such as camel rides and desert safaris.
  • Religious Town – Ayodhya
  • Ayodhya is situated in the state of Uttar Pradesh.
  • It holds immense significance in Hindu mythology as the birthplace of Lord Rama.
  • The town is associated with the Ramayana, one of India's ancient epics.
  • Ayodhya has recently gained attention due to the construction of the Ram Mandir.
  • Cantonment Town – Babina
  • Babina is located in the state of Uttar Pradesh.
  • It is primarily known as a military cantonment town.
  • The town is home to the Babina Military Station, one of the largest and most important cantonments in India.
  • Babina plays a critical role in India's defense and military operations.
6

On which day was National Mourning Day observed in protest against the partition of Bengal?

  1. ((a))

    16 October 1905

  2. ((b))

    19 November 1905

  3. ((c))

    19 July 1905

  4. ((d))

    16 August 1905

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

16 October 1905

The Correct answer is Mon Oct 16 1905.

Key Points

  • National Mourning Day was observed on October 16, 1905, as a protest against the partition of Bengal.
  • The partition of Bengal was announced by Lord Curzon, the then Viceroy of India, and implemented on the mentioned date.
  • The partition divided Bengal into Eastern Bengal and Assam and West Bengal, citing administrative convenience but was widely perceived as an attempt to divide and weaken nationalist movements.
  • This day was marked by widespread mourning and protests, with people wearing black badges and engaging in various forms of resistance.
  • The day also saw the emergence of the Swadeshi Movement, which emphasized the boycott of British goods and the promotion of indigenous products.
  • The partition of Bengal led to significant political awakening and catalyzed the rise of Indian nationalism.
  • The protests against the partition eventually compelled the British to revoke the decision in 1911.

Additional Information

  • Sun Nov 19 1905
  • This date does not hold any significance in the context of the partition of Bengal or the observation of National Mourning Day.
  • Wed Jul 19 1905
  • The formal announcement of the partition of Bengal was made on this date by the British government.
  • However, the actual implementation and observation of National Mourning Day occurred later, on October 16, 1905.
  • Wed Aug 16 1905
  • This date is unrelated to the key events surrounding the partition of Bengal or the observation of National Mourning Day.
7

India's first intranasal Covid vaccine is introduced by which of the following companies?

  1. ((a))

    Cadila Pharmaceuticals

  2. ((b))

    Bharat Biotech

  3. ((c))

    Cipla Limited

  4. ((d))

    Serum Institute of India

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Bharat Biotech

The Correct answer is Bharat Biotech.

Key Points

  • Bharat Biotech, a renowned Indian biotechnology company, developed India’s first intranasal Covid vaccine named iNCOVACC.
  • The vaccine was approved by the Drug Controller General of India (DCGI) for primary immunization and as a heterologous booster dose for adults.
  • It is the world’s first intranasal vaccine for Covid-19 to receive approval for both primary and booster doses.
  • The vaccine is administered through the nasal route, eliminating the need for injections, which makes it needle-free, pain-free, and easy to administer.
  • iNCOVACC is based on a recombinant adenoviral vector platform and has been developed in collaboration with the Washington University School of Medicine in St. Louis, USA.
  • This vaccine is designed to create an immune response in the mucosal lining of the nasal passages, which is the entry point of the virus, thereby preventing infection at the source.
  • It has been made available on Co-WIN, India’s vaccine registration portal, for seamless access to the public.
  • Bharat Biotech has previously developed the COVAXIN vaccine for Covid-19, demonstrating its significant contribution to India’s fight against the pandemic.

Additional Information

  • Cadila Pharmaceuticals
  • Cadila Pharmaceuticals is one of the largest privately-held pharmaceutical companies in India.
  • It has developed the world’s first DNA-based vaccine for Covid-19 named ZyCoV-D, which is administered using a needle-free injector.
  • The company specializes in the development of generic medicines, vaccines, and active pharmaceutical ingredients (APIs).
  • Cipla Limited
  • Cipla Limited is a leading Indian multinational pharmaceutical company focused on generic medications.
  • It has been instrumental in the production of antiviral drugs for the treatment of Covid-19, such as Remdesivir and Favipiravir.
  • Cipla is widely recognized for its efforts in affordable healthcare solutions.
  • Serum Institute of India
  • The Serum Institute of India (SII) is the world’s largest vaccine manufacturer by volume.
  • It developed the COVISHIELD vaccine for Covid-19 in collaboration with AstraZeneca and Oxford University.
  • SII has played a pivotal role in global immunization programs, producing vaccines for diseases such as measles, polio, and influenza.
8

How many Fundamental Rights are given under the Constitution of India?

  1. ((a))

    7

  2. ((b))

    8

  3. ((c))

    5

  4. ((d))

    6

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

6

The correct answer is 6.

Key Points

  • The Constitution of India originally provided for seven Fundamental Rights. However, the Right to Property was removed as a Fundamental Right by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 and made a legal right under Article 300A.
  • Currently, there are six Fundamental Rights enshrined in Part III of the Indian Constitution, from Articles 12 to 35.
  • These rights are considered essential for the development of individuals and the maintenance of dignity, equality, and freedom.
  • The six Fundamental Rights are:
  • Right to Equality (Articles 14–18): Ensures equality before the law, prohibits discrimination, and abolishes untouchability and titles.
  • Right to Freedom (Articles 19–22): Provides for various freedoms such as speech, assembly, association, movement, residence, and profession.
  • Right against Exploitation (Articles 23–24): Prohibits human trafficking, forced labor, and child labor.
  • Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles 25–28): Guarantees religious freedom and the right to practice, propagate, and manage religious affairs.
  • Cultural and Educational Rights (Articles 29–30): Protects the rights of minorities to preserve their culture and establish educational institutions.
  • Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32): Empowers individuals to move the Supreme Court or High Courts for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
  • These rights are justiciable, meaning individuals can approach the judiciary in case of violations.
  • They aim to ensure justice (social, economic, and political) and promote fraternity, dignity, and unity in the nation.

Additional Information

  • Key Points Recap
  • The Fundamental Rights were inspired by the Bill of Rights in the United States Constitution.
  • They are applicable to all citizens of India, irrespective of their race, religion, caste, gender, or place of birth.
  • The Fundamental Rights are subject to reasonable restrictions imposed by the state to ensure public order, morality, and health.
  • The Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32) is often referred to as the "heart and soul of the Constitution", as described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
9

Choose the INCORRECT pair from the following options

  1. ((a))

    Fourth Five-Year Plan - Indo-Pak War

  2. ((b))

    Fifth Five-Year Plan - Garibi Hatao

  3. ((c))

    Sixth Five-Year Plan - Nationalisation of 14 banks

  4. ((d))

    Seventh Five-Year Plan - first time private sector got priority

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Sixth Five-Year Plan - Nationalisation of 14 banks

The Correct answer is Sixth Five-Year Plan - Nationalisation of 14 banks.

Key Points

  • The Sixth Five-Year Plan of India (1980-1985) focused on poverty alleviation, modernization, and self-reliance, and aimed at a broader economic growth with emphasis on rural development.
  • The Nationalisation of 14 banks did not happen during the Sixth Five-Year Plan but was a significant event of 1969, during the tenure of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi. This occurred much earlier, during the Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-74).
  • Nationalisation was a critical financial reform aimed at bringing the banking sector under government control to ensure that credit facilities were provided to the rural and agricultural sectors.
  • The key objective of the nationalisation of banks was to boost the economy by prioritizing social and economic welfare over profit.
  • Thus, associating the nationalisation of 14 banks with the Sixth Five-Year Plan is historically and contextually incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Fourth Five-Year Plan - Indo-Pak War
  • The Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-1974) was disrupted by the Indo-Pak War of 1971 and the Bangladesh Liberation War.
  • The plan focused on stability and progress with the aim to reduce inflation and strengthen the industrial and agricultural sectors.
  • Fifth Five-Year Plan - Garibi Hatao
  • The Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-1979) emphasized the slogan “Garibi Hatao” (Remove Poverty) introduced by Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.
  • This plan aimed at alleviating poverty, achieving self-reliance, and bringing about economic growth.
  • Seventh Five-Year Plan - first time private sector got priority
  • The Seventh Five-Year Plan (1985-1990) marked a turning point with the involvement of the private sector being prioritized for the first time.
  • It focused on generating employment, improving productivity, and fostering modernization and self-reliance.
10

The ‘Charbagh’ designs are a part of which of the following architectural styles?

  1. ((a))

    Persian

  2. ((b))

    Dravida

  3. ((c))

    Nagara

  4. ((d))

    Vesara

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Persian

The Correct answer is Persian.

Key Points

  • The Charbagh is an important feature of Persian architecture, symbolizing the four gardens of paradise described in the Quran.
  • This design consists of a rectangular layout divided into four symmetrical parts by water channels or pathways, representing the four rivers of paradise.
  • The concept of Charbagh was brought to India by the Mughals, who adopted and further developed it in their architectural projects.
  • It is commonly seen in Mughal gardens, tombs, and palaces, such as the famous Shalimar Bagh in Srinagar and the gardens surrounding the Taj Mahal.
  • The use of water channels, fountains, and lush greenery in the Charbagh design emphasizes the importance of nature and serenity in Persian architectural philosophy.
  • The Charbagh layout reflects a blend of aesthetic beauty, practicality, and religious symbolism.
  • This design influenced not only Indian architecture but also the architectural styles of other regions like Central Asia and the Middle East.

Additional Information

  • Dravida
  • Dravida architecture is a style of temple architecture that originated in South India.
  • It is characterized by pyramidal towers (vimanas), intricate carvings, and large temple complexes.
  • Examples include the Brihadeshwara Temple in Tamil Nadu and the Meenakshi Temple in Madurai.
  • Nagara
  • Nagara architecture is a style of temple architecture prevalent in North India.
  • It is characterized by curvilinear shikharas, smaller temple complexes, and the absence of elaborate gateways.
  • Examples include the Khajuraho temples and Konark Sun Temple.
  • Vesara
  • Vesara architecture is a mixed style combining elements of Dravida and Nagara architectures.
  • It is commonly seen in the temples of the Deccan region, especially under the Chalukya dynasty.
  • Examples include the Virupaksha Temple at Pattadakal.
11

In July 2021, who among the following resigned as the Union Social Justice and Empowerment Minister to join as the Governor of Karnataka?

  1. ((a))

    Mangubhai Chhaganbhai Patel

  2. ((b))

    Thawarchand Gelhot

  3. ((c))

    PS Sreedharan Pillai 

  4. ((d))

    Satyadev Narayan Arya

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Thawarchand Gelhot

The Correct answer is Thawarchand Gehlot.

Key Points

  • Thawarchand Gehlot resigned as the Union Social Justice and Empowerment Minister in July 2021 to take up the position of Governor of Karnataka.
  • He served as the Union Minister for Social Justice and Empowerment from 2014 to 2021.
  • Thawarchand Gehlot is a senior politician from the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP).
  • He was a member of the Rajya Sabha and also served as the Leader of the House in the Rajya Sabha.
  • Gehlot's tenure as Union Minister focused on initiatives for the welfare of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes, along with empowering persons with disabilities.
  • His appointment as Governor reflects the trust placed in him by the government, as Governors play a key constitutional role in the functioning of Indian states.

Additional Information

  • Mangubhai Chhaganbhai Patel
  • Mangubhai Patel is a senior BJP leader from Gujarat.
  • He was appointed as the Governor of Madhya Pradesh in July 2021.
  • He has been associated with the BJP for several decades and has served as a Member of the Gujarat Legislative Assembly.
  • Mangubhai Patel is known for his work in the tribal areas of Gujarat, focusing on social welfare and development.
  • PS Sreedharan Pillai
  • PS Sreedharan Pillai is a politician and former President of the BJP's Kerala unit.
  • He was appointed as the Governor of Goa in July 2021.
  • Earlier, he served as the Governor of Mizoram.
  • He is also a lawyer and author, with a significant contribution to legal and political literature.
  • Satyadev Narayan Arya
  • Satyadev Narayan Arya is a veteran BJP leader from Bihar.
  • He served as the Governor of Haryana before being appointed as the Governor of Tripura in July 2021.
  • He has a long history of active participation in politics and governance.
12

The ‘Desert Festival’ takes place annually at ________ in Rajasthan. 

  1. ((a))

    Jaipur

  2. ((b))

    Jaisalmer

  3. ((c))

    Kota

  4. ((d))

    Bikaner

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Jaisalmer

The correct answer is Jaisalmer.

Key Points

  • The Desert Festival is an annual cultural event held in Jaisalmer, Rajasthan.
  • It celebrates the rich heritage, traditions, and culture of Rajasthan, particularly the desert region.
  • The festival takes place in the month of February, attracting tourists from across the globe.
  • It features a variety of activities including folk music and dance performances, camel races, turban-tying competitions, and traditional crafts exhibitions.
  • Jaisalmer, known as the Golden City of India, is famous for its sand dunes, forts, and vibrant culture, making it the perfect location for this festival.
  • The festival provides an opportunity to experience the unique desert lifestyle and enjoy the captivating beauty of the Thar Desert.
  • It is a platform to showcase local artists and craftsmen, contributing to the promotion of Rajasthan's cultural economy.

Additional Information

  • Jaipur
  • Jaipur, also known as the Pink City, is the capital of Rajasthan.
  • It is renowned for its historical monuments such as the Amber Fort, Hawa Mahal, and City Palace.
  • Jaipur hosts the famous Jaipur Literature Festival, which is a global literary event.
  • Kota
  • Kota is located in the southeastern region of Rajasthan and is known for its engineering coaching institutes.
  • It lies on the banks of the Chambal River and is famous for its Kota Doria sarees.
  • The city is an industrial hub and has historical attractions like the Kota Fort and Chambal Garden.
  • Bikaner
  • Bikaner is known for its Junagarh Fort, camel breeding farm, and Karni Mata Temple.
  • The city is famous for its Bikaneri Bhujia, a popular snack.
  • Bikaner hosts the annual International Camel Festival, showcasing camel races, performances, and cultural activities.
13

As per the 2011 census, which of the following Union Territories had the lowest population density?

  1. ((a))

    Dadra and Nagar Haveli

  2. ((b))

    Andaman and Nicobar Islands

  3. ((c))

    Lakshadweep

  4. ((d))

    Daman and Diu

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Andaman and Nicobar Islands

The Correct answer is Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Key Points

  • As per the 2011 Census, the Andaman and Nicobar Islands recorded the lowest population density among the Union Territories of India.
  • The population density in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands is only 46 persons per square kilometer, which is significantly lower compared to other Union Territories.
  • This low population density is due to the geographical isolation of the islands and their vast forest cover, making large portions of the territory unsuitable for habitation.
  • The islands are located in the Bay of Bengal and consist of approximately 572 islands, of which only a few are inhabited.
  • The tribal population forms a significant portion of the residents, and many areas are protected for the preservation of indigenous tribes.
  • The islands are also a part of the Andaman and Nicobar Biosphere Reserve, which contributes to limited human settlement due to conservation efforts.

Additional Information

  • Dadra and Nagar Haveli
  • Dadra and Nagar Haveli had a higher population density compared to the Andaman and Nicobar Islands as per the 2011 Census.
  • This Union Territory is located in Western India, situated between Gujarat and Maharashtra, and has seen higher population growth due to industrial development.
  • Lakshadweep
  • Lakshadweep, despite being an island territory, has a higher population density of around 2,013 persons per square kilometer, as per the 2011 Census.
  • This is due to its smaller geographical area and relatively concentrated settlements across its inhabited islands.
  • Daman and Diu
  • Daman and Diu had a significantly higher population density of over 2,169 persons per square kilometer, as per the 2011 Census.
  • This higher density is attributed to its small geographical area and higher urbanization levels.
14

Which medicinal plant found in India is used for the treatment of blood pressure?

  1. ((a))

    Mint

  2. ((b))

    Tulsi

  3. ((c))

    Aloe vera

  4. ((d))

    Sarpagandha

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Sarpagandha

The Correct answer is Sarpagandha.

Key Points

  • Sarpagandha is a medicinal plant commonly found in India, especially in regions like Himalayas, Western Ghats, and Eastern India.
  • Its scientific name is Rauvolfia serpentina.
  • This plant is highly regarded in Ayurveda for its ability to treat various ailments, including high blood pressure.
  • The root of the Sarpagandha plant contains reserpine, which is a natural alkaloid known for its antihypertensive properties.
  • Reserpine works by reducing nerve impulses and causing the blood vessels to relax, thus lowering blood pressure levels.
  • Traditional use: In ancient Indian medicine, Sarpagandha was used to treat insomnia, mental disorders, and snake bites.
  • It is also recognized for its ability to calm the mind and reduce anxiety, contributing further to its use in managing hypertension.
  • Global recognition: The medicinal benefits of Sarpagandha have been studied globally, and its active compounds are used in modern pharmaceutical formulations for hypertension.

Additional Information

  • Mint
  • Mint is widely known for its use in culinary applications and for its refreshing flavor.
  • It possesses medicinal properties such as aiding digestion, relieving headaches, and reducing nausea.
  • However, it is not primarily used for treating blood pressure.
  • Tulsi
  • Tulsi, also known as Holy Basil, is revered in India for its spiritual and medicinal properties.
  • It is effective for boosting immunity, managing diabetes, and reducing stress.
  • Tulsi can help with mild blood pressure regulation but is not as effective as Sarpagandha for treating hypertension.
  • Aloe Vera
  • Aloe Vera is a succulent plant known for its healing and soothing properties.
  • It is commonly used for skin care, treating burns, and promoting digestion.
  • Although it has some benefits for cardiovascular health, it is not specifically used for blood pressure treatment.
15

In February 2022, who among the following won the women’s 52 kg final at the 73rd Strandja Memorial Boxing Tournament?

  1. ((a))

    Kavita Chahal

  2. ((b))

    Nikhat Zareen

  3. ((c))

    Simranjit Kaur

  4. ((d))

    Pooja Ran

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Nikhat Zareen

The Correct answer is Nikhat Zareen.

Key Points

  • Nikhat Zareen, an Indian boxer, won the women’s 52 kg final at the 73rd Strandja Memorial Boxing Tournament held in February 2022.
  • This tournament is one of the oldest and most prestigious boxing events, held annually in Sofia, Bulgaria.
  • Nikhat defeated Ukraine’s Tetiana Kob in the final to claim the gold medal, showcasing her exceptional skills and determination.
  • She is known for her aggressive boxing style and has been a prominent figure in Indian boxing.
  • Nikhat Zareen has represented India in various international tournaments and is considered one of the top female boxers in the country.
  • Her victory at the Strandja Memorial Tournament further solidifies her reputation as a promising athlete in the sport of boxing.
  • This achievement is significant as it adds to India's growing presence and success in global boxing championships.

Additional Information

  • Kavita Chahal
  • Kavita Chahal is a renowned Indian boxer who has won multiple medals in international boxing competitions.
  • She specializes in the heavyweight category and has been honored with the Arjuna Award for her contribution to Indian boxing.
  • Simranjit Kaur
  • Simranjit Kaur is another celebrated Indian boxer who has represented India in various international tournaments.
  • She competes in the lightweight category and is known for her resilience and technical prowess.
  • Simranjit has won a bronze medal at the 2018 AIBA Women's World Boxing Championships.
  • Pooja Rani
  • Pooja Rani is an Indian boxer specializing in the middleweight category.
  • She has been a consistent performer and won a gold medal at the 2021 Asian Boxing Championships.
  • Pooja has also represented India in the Tokyo Olympics, showcasing her skills on the global stage.
16

In which of the following years, India adopted the Infant Milk Substitutes, Feeding Bottles, and Infant Foods (IMS) Act?  

  1. ((a))

    1992

  2. ((b))

    1990

  3. ((c))

    1989

  4. ((d))

    1991

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1992

The Correct answer is 1992.

Key Points

  • The Infant Milk Substitutes, Feeding Bottles, and Infant Foods (IMS) Act was adopted in India in the year 1992.
  • The Act is officially titled as "The Infant Milk Substitutes, Feeding Bottles and Infant Foods (Regulation of Production, Supply, and Distribution) Act, 1992."
  • This legislation was enacted to protect and promote breastfeeding and to ensure the proper use of infant foods.
  • It aims to regulate the production, supply, and distribution of infant milk substitutes and related products.
  • The Act prohibits the advertisement of infant milk substitutes and feeding bottles, thereby discouraging practices that undermine breastfeeding.
  • It mandates manufacturers to provide clear information and labeling about the products and their appropriate use.
  • The legislation plays a critical role in raising awareness about the benefits of breastfeeding and the potential risks associated with infant milk substitutes.
  • India's adoption of this Act aligns with the global efforts to promote breastfeeding under initiatives like the World Health Organization (WHO) and UNICEF's International Code of Marketing of Breast-Milk Substitutes.

Additional Information

  • 1990
  • No significant legislation related to infant milk substitutes was enacted in 1990. However, globally, there were discussions and initiatives to promote breastfeeding during this time.
  • 1989
  • In 1989, the Convention on the Rights of the Child was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly, which emphasized the importance of proper nutrition for children, including breastfeeding.
  • 1991
  • In 1991, the Baby-Friendly Hospital Initiative (BFHI) was launched globally by WHO and UNICEF to promote breastfeeding practices. However, this initiative does not directly relate to the IMS Act.
17

Which of the following is an example of a rock-cut temple? 

  1. ((a))

    Kailash temple, Ellora

  2. ((b))

    Vishwanath temple, Banaras 

  3. ((c))

    Kamakhya temple, Guwahati 

  4. ((d))

    Somnath temple, Gujarat

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kailash temple, Ellora

The Correct answer is Kailash temple, Ellora.

Key Points

  • The Kailash Temple, located in Ellora, Maharashtra, is a remarkable example of a rock-cut temple.
  • It is one of the largest monolithic structures in the world and was carved out of a single massive rock.
  • The temple is dedicated to Lord Shiva and showcases intricate carvings and detailed architecture.
  • The construction of the Kailash Temple is attributed to the Rashtrakuta dynasty under the reign of King Krishna I during the 8th century CE.
  • It is part of the Ellora Caves, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, which consists of 34 caves representing Hindu, Buddhist, and Jain traditions.
  • The temple is designed to represent Mount Kailash, the abode of Lord Shiva, and features a multi-tiered structure with a central shrine, pillared halls, and elaborate sculptures.
  • The Kailash Temple is an excellent example of ancient Indian engineering and craftsmanship, showcasing the use of vertical excavation to carve the structure from top to bottom.

Additional Information

  • Vishwanath temple, Banaras
  • The Kashi Vishwanath Temple, located in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh, is one of the most famous temples dedicated to Lord Shiva.
  • It is not a rock-cut temple but a constructed structure with historical and spiritual significance.
  • The temple is part of the Kashi Vishwanath Corridor project initiated by the government.
  • Kamakhya temple, Guwahati
  • The Kamakhya Temple, located in Assam, is one of the most important Shakti Peethas dedicated to the goddess Kamakhya.
  • This temple is not rock-cut but constructed and is associated with Tantric practices.
  • It is located on the Nilachal Hill in Guwahati.
  • Somnath temple, Gujarat
  • The Somnath Temple, located in Gujarat, is one of the twelve Jyotirlingas dedicated to Lord Shiva.
  • It is a constructed temple and has been rebuilt multiple times throughout history.
  • The temple is known for its historical significance and architectural beauty.
18

The Sultan who was also known as ‘Lakh Baksh’ is:

  1. ((a))

    Muhammad bin Tughlaq

  2. ((b))

    Iltutmish

  3. ((c))

    Qutbuddin Aibak

  4. ((d))

    Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Qutbuddin Aibak

The Correct answer is Qutbuddin Aibak.

Key Points

  • Qutbuddin Aibak was the founder of the Slave Dynasty and the first ruler of the Delhi Sultanate.
  • He was known as "Lakh Baksh", which translates to "Giver of Lakhs," due to his reputation for being extremely generous and charitable.
  • He was a slave of Mohammad Ghori and later became his trusted general and commander.
  • Qutbuddin Aibak was instrumental in establishing Muslim rule in North India after the death of Mohammad Ghori.
  • He commissioned the construction of the iconic Qutb Minar in Delhi, which was completed by his successor, Iltutmish.
  • He also built the Quwwat-ul-Islam Mosque, one of the earliest mosques in India.
  • He ruled for a short period (1206–1210) and died in an accident while playing polo.

Additional Information

  • Muhammad bin Tughlaq
  • Muhammad bin Tughlaq was the second ruler of the Tughlaq dynasty and reigned from 1325 to 1351.
  • He is known for his ambitious but often impractical policies, such as the introduction of token currency and the shifting of the capital from Delhi to Daulatabad.
  • His reign is often remembered for economic experiments that had both successes and failures.
  • Iltutmish
  • Iltutmish was the third ruler of the Slave Dynasty and is considered one of its most capable rulers.
  • He is credited with consolidating the Delhi Sultanate and introducing Iqta system of land revenue administration.
  • Iltutmish completed the construction of the Qutb Minar, which had been started by Qutbuddin Aibak.
  • Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
  • Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq was the founder of the Tughlaq dynasty and reigned from 1320 to 1325.
  • He is known for his military campaigns, including the conquest of Warangal and Bengal.
  • He built the city of Tughlaqabad near Delhi as his capital.
19

The High Court and Supreme Court Judges (Salaries and Conditions of Service) Amendment Bill, 2021, was introduced in the Lok Sabha on ___________. 

  1. ((a))

    5 December 2021

  2. ((b))

    13 December 2021 

  3. ((c))

    8 December 2021

  4. ((d))

    30 November 2021

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

30 November 2021

The Correct answer is Tue Nov 30 2021 00:00:00 GMT+0530 (India Standard Time).

Key Points

  • The High Court and Supreme Court Judges (Salaries and Conditions of Service) Amendment Bill, 2021 was introduced in the Lok Sabha on 30 November 2021.
  • This amendment bill sought to revise the salaries and conditions of service for judges of the High Court and the Supreme Court of India.
  • The bill primarily aimed to align the pensions and allowances of retired judges with the changes introduced in recent financial regulations.
  • The introduction of this bill reflects the government’s efforts to ensure financial security for judges, maintaining the independence of the judiciary.
  • The amendment was significant for addressing concerns raised by retired judges and legal experts regarding adequate compensation.
  • It is part of broader reforms aimed at strengthening the judiciary, ensuring better working conditions, and improving the overall judicial system in India.

Additional Information

  • Sun Dec 05 2021 00:00:00 GMT+0530 (India Standard Time)
  • This date does not correspond to the introduction of the bill but may be confused due to proximity to other legislative activities.
  • 13 December 2021
  • This date might be associated with later debates or discussions in the Lok Sabha regarding the bill but is not the date of its introduction.
  • Wed Dec 08 2021 00:00:00 GMT+0530 (India Standard Time)
  • This date could refer to subsequent proceedings or other legislative measures in Parliament but is not the introduction date.
20

Odissi dance in its rudimentary form was performed as a part of temple service by which of the following?

  1. ((a))

    Nritta

  2. ((b))

    Maharis

  3. ((c))

    Nartakis

  4. ((d))

    Dasi

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Maharis

The Correct answer is Maharis.

Key Points

  • Maharis were temple dancers in Odisha who performed the Odissi dance as a form of devotion to the deities, particularly Lord Jagannath.
  • The term Mahari is derived from the Sanskrit word "Mahanari," meaning a great woman.
  • These dancers were closely associated with the Jagannath Temple in Puri and other temples in Odisha.
  • The Maharis performed Odissi dance as part of ritualistic offerings to the deities, making it a significant component of temple worship.
  • The Mahari tradition is believed to date back to the second century BCE, reflecting the ancient roots of the Odissi dance form.
  • The dance performed by Maharis included elements of spirituality, storytelling, and expressiveness, focusing on themes from Hindu mythology, particularly the Vaishnavite tradition.
  • Over time, the tradition of Maharis declined due to colonial influence and the gradual shift of dance performances from temples to public stages.

Additional Information

  • Nritta
  • Nritta refers to the purely technical aspect of Indian classical dance, focusing on rhythmic movements and patterns.
  • It is devoid of any expression or storytelling and is used to showcase the dancer's technical mastery.
  • While Nritta is an important aspect of Odissi dance, it is not performed as a temple service by itself.
  • Nartakis
  • Nartaki is a generic term in Sanskrit that means a female dancer.
  • It does not specifically refer to temple dancers like the Maharis but can denote performers in various settings, including royal courts and public gatherings.
  • Dasi
  • Dasi is a term that refers to a female servant or attendant, and in the context of temple culture, it can denote women who served the temple in various capacities.
  • However, the Maharis were not merely attendants; they were devotional dancers with a distinct cultural and spiritual role.

General Intelligence (20 questions)

21

‘A % B’ means ‘A is the father of B’.

‘A @ B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’.

‘A & B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’.

‘A # B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’.

If E @ M # N % Q @ R & P, then how is N related to P?

  1. ((a))

    Son

  2. ((b))

    Wife

  3. ((c))

    Husband

  4. ((d))

    Son-in-law

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Husband

A is
Symbol%@&#
MeaningFatherBrotherDaughterMother
of B

Given E×pression: E @ M # N % Q @ R & P

E @ M: E is the brother of M.

M # N: M is the mother of N.

N % Q: N is the father of Q.

Q @ R: Q is the brother of R.

R & P: R is the daughter of P.

 

  • R is the daughter of P.
  • R is also the daughter of N.

This implies that N and P are the parents of R. Since N is a male and P is a female, N is the husband of P.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

22

Which of the option figures is the exact mirror image of the given problem figure when the mirror is held at the right side?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

23

Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

15, 20, 17, 22, 19, 24, ?

  1. ((a))

    20

  2. ((b))

    23

  3. ((c))

    25

  4. ((d))

    21

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

21

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

24

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the given sets.

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(29, 52, 16)

(35, 44, 24)

  1. ((a))

    (28, 35, 15)

  2. ((b))

    (30, 66, 16)

  3. ((c))

    (32, 84, 11)

  4. ((d))

    (34, 60, 21) 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(32, 84, 11)

The logic followed in the given sets is:

Logic: Middle number = (First number - Last number) × 4.

(29, 52, 16)

→ (29 - 16) × 4

→ 13 × 4

→ 52 

(35, 44, 24)

→ (35 - 24) × 4

→ 11 × 4

→ 44 

Now, let's apply this logic to the given options:

1) (28, 35, 15)

→ (28 - 15) × 4

→ 13 × 4

→ 52 ≠ 35. Incorrect.

2) (30, 66, 16)

→ (30 - 16) × 4

→ 14 × 4

→ 56 ≠ 66. Incorrect.

3) (32, 84, 11)

→ (32 - 11) × 4

→ 21 × 4

→ 84 = 84. This holds.

4) (34, 60, 21)

→ (34 - 21) × 4

→ 13 × 4

→ 52 ≠ 60. Incorrect.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

25

A # B means ‘A is the sister of B’.

A @ B means ‘A is the son of B’.

A & B means ‘A is the husband of B.

’ A % B means ‘A is the wife of B’.

If G & H # I % J @ K & L, then how is I related to L?

  1. ((a))

    Mother-in-law

  2. ((b))

    Daughter

  3. ((c))

    Daughter-in-law

  4. ((d))

    Granddaughter

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Daughter-in-law

A is
Symbol#&@%
MeaningSisterFatherWifeMother
of B

Given Expression: G & H # I % J @ K & L

G & H: G is the father of H.

This confirms G is male.

H # I: H is the sister of I.

This confirms H is female. G is the father of both H and I.

I % J: I is the mother of J.

This confirms I is female.

J @ K: J is the wife of K.

This confirms J is female and K is male.

K & L: K is the father of L.

This means K and J are the parents of L.

 

  • L's mother is J.
  • J's mother is I.

Therefore, I is the Daughter-in-law, of L.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

26

Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (Rotation is NOT allowed). 

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The hidden image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

27

Select the figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the given figure series. 

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The logic followd here is:

Logic: In the each next step a "V" get inverted.

Hence, thr correct answer is "Option 4".

28

Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to sequentially replace the * signs and to balance the given equation.

14 * 15 * 5 * 7 * 2 = 47

  1. ((a))

    ×, ÷, +, -

  2. ((b))

    -, ×, ÷, +

  3. ((c))

    +, -, ×, ÷ 

  4. ((d))

    ÷, -, +, × 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

×, ÷, +, -

BODMAS Rule:

The given equation is:

14 * 15 * 5 * 7 * 2 = 47

Let's check each option by replacing the * signs with the given operators to find the one that balances the equation.

1) ×, ÷, +, −

Equation: 14 × 15 ÷ 5 + 7 − 2 = 47

210 ÷ 5 + 7 − 2 = 47

42 + 7 − 2 = 47

⇒ 49 − 2 = 47

⇒ 47 = 47 (Correct)

2) −, ×, ÷, +

Equation: 14 − 15 × 5 ÷ 7 + 2 = 47

⇒ 14 − 75 ÷ 7 + 2 = 47

⇒ 14 − 10.71 + 2 = 47

⇒ 5.29 = 47 (Incorrect)

3) +, −, ×, ÷

Equation: 14 + 15 − 5 × 7 ÷ 2 = 47

14 + 1535 ÷ 2 = 47

⇒ 29 − 17.5 = 47

⇒ 11.5 = 47 (Incorrect)

4) ÷, −, +, ×

Equation: 14 ÷ 15 − 5 + 7 × 2 = 47

⇒ 0.93 − 5 + 14 = 47

⇒ 9.93 = 47 (Incorrect)

Hence, the correct set of signs is "Option 1".

29

In a certain code language, 'FIG' is written as '9' and 'PEAR' is written as '12'.How will 'ALMOND' be written in that language?

  1. ((a))

    18

  2. ((b))

    22

  3. ((c))

    16

  4. ((d))

    12

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

18

Solution:

The logic is to multiply the number of letters in the word by 3.

For FIG:

Number of letters = 3

 3 × 3 = 9

For PEAR:

Number of letters = 4

4 × 3 = 12

Similarly, 

For ALMOND:

Number of letters = 6

6 × 3 = 18

Therefore, 'ALMOND' will be written as 18.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

30

Based on the position in the English alphabetical order, three of the following letterclusters are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the odd letter-cluster.

  1. ((a))

    SUWY

  2. ((b))

    JMOP

  3. ((c))

    NQST

  4. ((d))

    TWYZ

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

SUWY

The letter-cluster that does not belong to the group is SUWY.

The logic followed here is that in each letter-cluster, the letters are placed with a decreasing difference of +3, +2, and +1.

Option (1): SUWY

                                   

Option (2): JMOP

 

                                 

Option (3): NQST

  

Option (4): TWYZ

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

31

Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster.

EXISTENCE : SIXETECNE :: DIFFERENT : FFIDETNER :: INVENTIVE : ?

  1. ((a))

    VEINNEVIT

  2. ((b))

    EVNINEVIT

  3. ((c))

    ENVINVETI

  4. ((d))

    VENINEIVT

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

EVNINEVIT

The logic followed here is:

For, EXISTENCE : SIXETECNE

For,  DIFFERENT : FFIDETNER

Similarly,

For, INVENTIVE : ?

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

32

If the given sheet is folded to form a cube, which of the following figures are possible? 

  1. ((a))

    Only A, C and D

  2. ((b))

    Only C and D

  3. ((c))

    Only A and C

  4. ((d))

    Only B and C

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Only C and D

If the given sheet is folded to form a cube,

Opposite numbers:

3 ⇒ 1 

6 ⇒ 5

4 ⇒ 2

Lets check each figure and verify which is/are possible:

Figure A 

→ Can not be made, because 1 and 3 are the opposite faces,

Figure B 

 → Can not be made, because 6 and 5 are the opposite faces,

Figure C 

 → Can be made, because all the surfaces are adjacent faces,

Figure D 

 → Can be made, because all the surfaces are adjacent faces,

Thus, Only C and D are possible.

Hence, 'option 1' is the correct answer.

33

The second number in the given number pairs is obtained by performing certain mathematical operation(s) on the first number. The same operation(s) are followed in all the number pairs except one. Find that odd number pair. 

  1. ((a))

     44 : 22

  2. ((b))

    16 : 8

  3. ((c))

    32 : 16

  4. ((d))

    20 : 4

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

20 : 4

The logic followed here is:

  1. 44 : 22 → 22 = 44 ÷ 2

  2. 16 : 8 → 8 = 16 ÷ 2

  3. 32 : 16 → 16 = 32 ÷ 2

Whereas,

4) 20 : 4 → 4 = 20 ÷ 5 (not ÷ 2)

So, 20 : 4 is the odd pair.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

34

In a certain code language, ‘TEA’ is written as ‘78’, and ‘WATER’ is written as ‘335’. How will ‘MILK’ be written in that language?

  1. ((a))

    184

  2. ((b))

    188

  3. ((c))

    172

  4. ((d))

    180

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

180

Solution:

The logic is to multiply the sum of the positional values of the letters by the number of letters in the word.

For TEA: 78

Positional values: T(20), E(5), A(1)

Sum of values = 20 + 5 + 1 = 26

Number of letters = 3

 26 × 3 = 78 

For WATER: 335

Positional values: W(23), A(1), T(20), E(5), R(18)

Sum of values = 23 + 1 + 20 + 5 + 18 = 67

Number of letters = 5

 67 × 5 = 335 

Similarly, 

For MILK:

Positional values: M(13), I(9), L(12), K(11)

Sum of values = 13 + 9 + 12 + 11 = 45

Number of letters = 4

45 × 4 = 180

The code for 'MILK' is 180.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

35

Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The logic followed here is:

Logic:

Step I: Element "

" moved to the forward in the each next step and get unshaded in the alternate step.

Step II: Element "

" Moved to the forward with the rotation of 90º anticlockwise in the each next step.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

36

Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series

222, 223, 214, ?, 190, 271

  1. ((a))

    230

  2. ((b))

    242

  3. ((c))

    234

  4. ((d))

    239

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

239

The logic followed here is:

Thus, the missing number in the series is 239.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

37

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the given sets.

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed)

(225, 570, 361)

(121, 462, 441)

  1. ((a))

    (169, 143, 484)

  2. ((b))

    (81, 207, 529) 

  3. ((c))

    (49, 70, 100) 

  4. ((d))

    (64, 272, 289)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

(64, 272, 289)

The logic followed in the given sets is:

Logic: Middle number = (Square root of the First number) × (Square root of the Last number) × 2.

(225, 570, 361)

→ (√225) × (√361) × 2

→ 15 × 19 × 2

→ 285 × 2

→ 570

(121, 462, 441)

→ (√121) × (√441) × 2

→ 11 × 21 × 2

→ 231 × 2

→ 462 

Now, let's apply this logic to the given options:

1) (169, 143, 484)

→ (√169) × (√484) × 2

→ 13 × 22 × 2

→ 572 ≠ 143. Incorrect.

2) (81, 207, 529)

→ (√81) × (√529) × 2

→ 9 × 23 × 2

→ 414 ≠ 207. Incorrect.

3) (49, 70, 100)

→ (√49) × (√100) × 2

→ 7 × 10 × 2

→ 140 ≠ 70. Incorrect.

4) (64, 272, 289)

→ (√64) × (√289) × 2

→ 8 × 17 × 2

→ 272 = 272. Correct

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

38

Three statements are given followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

Some strawberries are oranges.

Some strawberries are mangoes.

All mangoes are peaches.

Conclusions:

I. Some peaches are mangoes.

II. Some peaches are orange.

III. Some peaches are strawberries

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusions I and III follow

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusions II and III follow

  3. ((c))

    Only conclusions I and II follow

  4. ((d))

    All conclusions follow

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only conclusions I and III follow

The least possible venn diagram is given:

Conclusions:

I. Some peaches are mangoes - True(because all mangoes are peach it implies that some peach are mangoes).

II. Some peaches are orange - False(because, there is np direct relation is given between them so, it can be possible only).

III. Some peaches are strawberries - True(because some strawberries are mango ans all mangoes are peach it implies that some peach are strawberries).

Thus, Only conclusions I and III follow.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

39

The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown below. Choose the figure that would most closely resemble the unfolded form of the paper. 

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The unfolded form of the paper. 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

40

Which two signs and numbers need to be interchanged to make the following equation correct?

(7)2 – (56 ÷ 8) + (9 × 6) = 18

  1. ((a))

    8 and 6, ÷ and + 

  2. ((b))

    7 and 6, + and −

  3. ((c))

    7 and 9, − and +

  4. ((d))

    7 and 8, − and + 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

7 and 8, − and + 

The given equation is:

(7)2 – (56 ÷ 8) + (9 × 6) = 18

Let's test the options to find the correct interchange that balances the equation.

Option 1: Interchange 8 and 6, and ÷ and +

The new equation becomes:

(7)2 – (56 + 6) ÷ (9 × 8)

= (7)2(56 + 6) ÷ (9 × 8)

= 49 – 62 ÷ 72

= 49 – 0.86

= 48.14 ≠ 18

This option is incorrect.

Option 2: Interchange 7 and 6, and + and –

The new equation becomes:

(6)2 + (56 ÷ 8) – (9 × 7) = 18

= (6)2 + (56 ÷ 8)(9 × 7)

= 36 + 7 – 63

= 43 – 63

= −20 ≠ 18

This option is incorrect.

Option 3: Interchange 7 and 9, and – and +

The new equation becomes:

(9)2 + (56 ÷ 8) – (7 × 6) = 18

= (9)2 + (56 ÷ 8)(7 × 6)

= 81 + 7 – 42

= 88 – 42

= 46 ≠ 18

This option is incorrect.

Option 4: Interchange 7 and 8, and – and +

The new equation becomes:

(8)2 + (56 ÷ 7) − (9 × 6) = 18

= (8)2 + (56 ÷ 7)(9 × 6)

= 64 + 8 − 54

= 72 − 54

= 18

Since 18 = 18, the equation is correct.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Numerical Ability (10 questions)

41

Average of four consecutive odd numbers A, B, C and D is 14. What will be the product of A and D?

  1. ((a))

    143

  2. ((b))

    195

  3. ((c))

    165

  4. ((d))

    187

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

187

Given:

Average of four consecutive odd numbers A, B, C, and D = 14

Formula used:

Average = (Sum of all numbers) / (Number of terms)

For four consecutive odd numbers: A, B, C, D, we can represent them as:

A = x, B = x + 2, C = x + 4, D = x + 6

Calculation:

Average = (A + B + C + D) / 4

⇒ 14 = (x + (x + 2) + (x + 4) + (x + 6)) / 4

⇒ 14 = (4x + 12) / 4

⇒ 14 × 4 = 4x + 12

⇒ 56 = 4x + 12

⇒ 4x = 56 - 12

⇒ 4x = 44

⇒ x = 11

Now, A = x = 11, D = x + 6 = 11 + 6 = 17

Product of A and D = A × D

⇒ Product = 11 × 17

⇒ Product = 187

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

42

A diamond necklace is sold for Rs.26,650 at a loss of 18%. What is the cost price of the diamond necklace? 

  1. ((a))

    Rs.30,500

  2. ((b))

    Rs.31,500

  3. ((c))

    Rs.34,500

  4. ((d))

    Rs.32,500

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Rs.32,500

Given:

Selling Price (SP) = ₹26,650

Loss Percentage = 18%

Formula used:

Cost Price (CP) = \(\frac{SP}{1-\frac{\text{Loss %}}{100}}\)

Calculation:

CP = 26,650118100\frac{26,650}{1-\frac{18}{100}}

⇒ CP = 26,65010.18\frac{26,650}{1-0.18}

⇒ CP = 26,6500.82\frac{26,650}{0.82}

⇒ CP = ₹32,500

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

43

A can do a piece of work in 7 days of 9 hours each, whereas B can do same work in 6 days of 7 hours each. How long will they take to do the work together, working 4154\frac{1}{5} hours a day?

  1. ((a))

    4 days

  2. ((b))

    5 days

  3. ((c))

    2 days

  4. ((d))

    6 days

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

6 days

Given:

A finishes work in 7 days of 9 h/day ⇒ 7 × 9 = 63 h

B finishes work in 6 days of 7 h/day ⇒ 6 × 7 = 42 h

Working time per day together = 4 1/5 h = 4.2 h

Formula used:

Rate = Work ÷ Time

Calculations:

LCM method: Take LCM(63, 42) as total work (units).

⇒ LCM(63, 42) = 126 units

⇒ A’s rate = 126 ÷ 63 = 2 units/h

⇒ B’s rate = 126 ÷ 42 = 3 units/h

⇒ Together = 2 + 3 = 5 units/h

⇒ Time for full work = 126 ÷ 5 = 25.2 h

⇒ Days at 4.2 h/day = 25.2 ÷ 4.2 = 6

∴ They will finish in 6 days.

44

The monthly income of Mukesh is Rs.75,000. If his income is increased by 29%, then what will be his new monthly income?

  1. ((a))

    Rs.82,230

  2. ((b))

    Rs.79,750

  3. ((c))

    Rs.96,230

  4. ((d))

    Rs.96,750

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Rs.96,750

Given:

Monthly income of Mukesh = ₹75,000

Increase in income = 29%

Formula used:

New income = Original income × (1 + Percentage increase/100)

Calculations:

New income = 75,000 × (1 + 29/100)

⇒ New income = 75,000 × (1 + 0.29)

⇒ New income = 75,000 × 1.29

⇒ New income = ₹96,750

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

45

A household appliances store owner allows two successive discounts of 10% and 20% on each item. As an incentive, if the net payment after the discounts is above Rs.20,000, the customer gets an additional discount of 10% on the discounted price. How much does a customer pay (in Rs. ) if his bill is for Rs.30,000?

  1. ((a))

    23,080

  2. ((b))

    19,440

  3. ((c))

    20,250

  4. ((d))

    17,430

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

19,440

Given:

Initial Bill = ₹30,000

First Discount = 10%

Second Discount = 20%

Additional Discount = 10% (if net payment after first two discounts > ₹20,000)

Formula used:

Net Price after Discount = Price × (1 - Discount/100)

Calculation:

Apply the first discount of 10% on ₹30,000

⇒ Net Price = ₹30,000 × (1 - 10/100)

⇒ Net Price = ₹30,000 × 0.9

⇒ Net Price = ₹27,000

Apply the second discount of 20% on ₹27,000

⇒ Net Price = ₹27,000 × (1 - 20/100)

⇒ Net Price = ₹27,000 × 0.8

⇒ Net Price = ₹21,600

Check if the net price after two discounts is greater than ₹20,000

Since ₹21,600 > ₹20,000, apply an additional discount of 10%

⇒ Final Price = ₹21,600 × (1 - 10/100)

⇒ Final Price = ₹21,600 × 0.9

⇒ Final Price = ₹19,440

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

46

The fourth proportional to 27, 108 and165 is:

  1. ((a))

    360

  2. ((b))

    460

  3. ((c))

    660

  4. ((d))

    560

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

660

Given:

First number = 27

Second number = 108

Third number = 165

Formula used:

If a, b, c are given, the fourth proportional (x) is calculated using the formula:

(a : b = c : x) ⇒ x = (b × c) / a

Calculation:

x = (108 × 165) / 27

⇒ x = 17820 / 27

⇒ x = 660

∴ The fourth proportional to 27, 108, and 165 is 660.

47

The sum of two numbers is 60, and their HCF and LCM are 5 and 175, respectively. The sum of the reciprocals of the two numbers is:

  1. ((a))

    12175\frac{12}{175}

  2. ((b))

    7175\frac{7}{175}

  3. ((c))

    17512\frac{175}{12}

  4. ((d))

    5175\frac{5}{175}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12175\frac{12}{175}

Given:

The sum of two numbers is 60.

HCF = 5

LCM = 175

Formula used:

If HCF × LCM = Product of two numbers, then the numbers can be expressed as:

Let numbers = 5a and 5b, where a and b are co-prime.

Sum of reciprocals of two numbers = 1Number 1+1Number 2\dfrac{1}{\text{Number 1}} + \dfrac{1}{\text{Number 2}}.

Calculation:

HCF × LCM = Product of two numbers

⇒ 5 × 175 = 875

Let numbers = 5a and 5b

Product = 5a × 5b = 875

⇒ a × b = 35

Sum of numbers = 5a + 5b = 60

⇒ a + b = 12

From a × b = 35 and a + b = 12:

⇒ a and b are roots of the equation x2 - 12x + 35 = 0

⇒ (x - 7)(x - 5) = 0

⇒ x = 7, 5

Numbers are 5a = 35 and 5b = 25.

Sum of reciprocals:

135+125\dfrac{1}{35} + \dfrac{1}{25}

5+7175\dfrac{5 + 7}{175}

12175\dfrac{12}{175}

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

48

The dimensions of a piece of iron in the shape of a cuboid are 256 cm × 135 cm × 50 cm. If it is melted and recast into a cube, find the surface area of the cube. 

  1. ((a))

    68,600 cm2

  2. ((b))

    68,400 cm2

  3. ((c))

    86,400 cm2

  4. ((d))

    84,600 cm2

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

86,400 cm2

Given:

Dimensions of the cuboid:

Length (l) = 256 cm

Breadth (b) = 135 cm

Height (h) = 50 cm

The cuboid is melted and recast into a cube.

Formula used:

Volume of cuboid = l × b × h

Volume of cube = a3, where a = side of the cube

Surface area of cube = 6a2

Calculation:

Volume of cuboid = 256 × 135 × 50

⇒ Volume of cuboid = 1,728,000 cm3

Volume of cube = Volume of cuboid

⇒ a3 = 1,728,000

⇒ a = ∛1,728,000 = 120 cm

Surface area of cube = 6a2

⇒ Surface area = 6 × 120 × 120

⇒ Surface area = 86,400 cm2

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

49

The difference between the simple interest and compound interest on a certain sum of money for 2 years at 20% interest per annum is ₹964. What is the sum (in ₹)?

  1. ((a))

    24,100

  2. ((b))

    19,600

  3. ((c))

    24,000

  4. ((d))

    19,200

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

24,100

Given:

Difference (CI − SI) = ₹964

Rate (r) = 20% per annum

Time (t) = 2 years

Formula used:

Difference for 2 years = P × (r/100)2

Calculations:

⇒ 964 = P × (20/100)2

⇒ 964 = P × (400/10000)

⇒ 964 = P × (1/25)

⇒ P = 964 × 25

⇒ P = 24,100

∴ The sum is ₹24,100.

50

Sita, Geeta and Reeta decide to race a distance of y m. Reeta completes the race 28 m ahead of Sita. Geeta completes the race 40 m ahead of Reeta and 64 m ahead of Sita. What is the value of y?

  1. ((a))

    260 m

  2. ((b))

    320 m

  3. ((c))

    300 m

  4. ((d))

    280 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

280 m

Given:

Reeta finishes 28 m ahead of Sita.

Geeta finishes 40 m ahead of Reeta.

Geeta finishes 64 m ahead of Sita.

Formula used:

For uniform speeds, distances covered are proportional to times; ratios of distances remain constant.

Calculations:

Let total distance = y m.

When Geeta finishes: Geeta = y, Reeta = y − 40, Sita = y − 64.

Ratio Reeta : Sita = (y − 40) : (y − 64)

When Reeta finishes: Reeta = y, Sita = y − 28.

Ratio Reeta : Sita = y : (y − 28)

⇒ (y − 40)/(y − 64) = y/(y − 28)

⇒ (y − 40)(y − 28) = y(y − 64)

⇒ y2 − 28y − 40y + (40 × 28) = y2 − 64y

⇒ y2 − 68y + 1120 = y2 − 64y

⇒ −68y + 1120 = −64y

⇒ 1120 = 4y

⇒ y = 1120 ÷ 4 = 280

∴ The race distance y = 280 m.

Road Safety & Vehicle Maintenance (50 questions)

51

You should not overtake ________

  1. ((a))

    when there is no signal to overtake from the vehicle ahead 

  2. ((b))

    when the road ahead is visible 

  3. ((c))

    when you cannot see vehicles comes from the other side 

  4. ((d))

    when the road ahead is not visible 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

when the road ahead is not visible 

The Correct answer is when the road ahead is not visible.

Key Points

  • Overtaking is a critical maneuver that requires clear visibility of the road ahead to ensure safety.
  • It is dangerous to overtake when the road ahead is not visible, as it increases the risk of collision with oncoming vehicles.
  • This situation often arises on sharp curves, hilly terrains, blind spots, or areas with dense fog, where visibility is severely limited.
  • Overtaking in such conditions can lead to accidents due to the inability to predict the movement of other vehicles or obstacles.
  • Adherence to traffic rules and exercising caution while overtaking is essential for road safety.
  • In many countries, including India, traffic laws explicitly prohibit overtaking in areas where visibility is obstructed or limited.
  • Maintaining a safe distance and waiting for the road ahead to become visible is a prudent decision while driving.

Additional Information

  • When there is no signal to overtake from the vehicle ahead
  • While it is courteous to wait for a signal from the vehicle ahead, it is not mandatory in all driving conditions.
  • Drivers should rely on their judgment, road conditions, and visibility while overtaking, rather than solely waiting for a signal.
  • When the road ahead is visible
  • Overtaking is generally considered safe when the road ahead is clearly visible and free from obstacles.
  • Drivers need to ensure there is sufficient space and time to complete the maneuver safely.
  • When you cannot see vehicles coming from the other side
  • Inability to see vehicles from the opposite direction can be a result of poor visibility or road obstructions.
  • This condition is closely related to the correct answer and emphasizes the importance of clear visibility before overtaking.
52

When school buses are stopped for picking up or setting down students? 

  1. ((a))

    Proceed slowly and cautiously since there is chance of students suddenly crossing the road 

  2. ((b))

    No special care is required 

  3. ((c))

    Blow horn and proceed 

  4. ((d))

    Move fast  

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Proceed slowly and cautiously since there is chance of students suddenly crossing the road 

The Correct answer is Proceed slowly and cautiously since there is chance of students suddenly crossing the road.

Key Points

  • When a school bus is stopped for picking up or setting down students, it is important to be extremely cautious to ensure the safety of children.
  • Children are often unpredictable and may suddenly cross the road without looking for oncoming traffic.
  • Drivers must proceed slowly and cautiously to minimize the risk of accidents and allow students to cross the road safely.
  • Stopping or slowing down near a school bus ensures compliance with road safety regulations in many countries, which prioritize the protection of young pedestrians.
  • School buses often display warning signs or flashing lights while stopped, indicating drivers to exercise caution and reduce speed.
  • Being attentive and vigilant in such situations helps to prevent accidents and promotes a safer environment for both students and other pedestrians.
  • Road safety awareness campaigns often emphasize the importance of cautious driving near school zones or buses.

Additional Information

  • No special care is required
  • This option is incorrect because special care is always required when driving near school buses to protect children, who are vulnerable and less aware of traffic rules.
  • Children may be impulsive and not follow standard pedestrian behavior, making careful driving essential.
  • Blow horn and proceed
  • Blowing the horn near a school bus may and is not a recommended safety practice.
  • Instead, drivers are advised to be calm and cautious without causing unnecessary noise or disturbance.
  • Move fast
  • Moving fast near stopped school buses can be extremely and lead to accidents involving students crossing the road.
  • This behavior violates basic and can result in legal penalties in many regions.
53

What is the full form of MPFI? 

  1. ((a))

    Multi-Port Fuel Injection System 

  2. ((b))

    Multi Point Fuel Injection System 

  3. ((c))

    Multi-Port Fuel Ignition System 

  4. ((d))

    Multi Point Fuel Ignition System 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Multi Point Fuel Injection System 

The Correct answer is Multi Point Fuel Injection System.

Key Points

  • Multi Point Fuel Injection (MPFI) System is a technology used in modern automobiles.
  • It involves the precise injection of fuel into each cylinder of the engine using multiple injectors.
  • MPFI systems enhance the engine's efficiency, fuel economy, and performance.
  • This system ensures an optimized air-fuel mixture, leading to better combustion and reduced emissions.
  • It is commonly used in vehicles powered by petrol engines.
  • The MPFI system is controlled by an Electronic Control Unit (ECU), which regulates the fuel injection timing and quantity based on various inputs like engine speed, temperature, and load.
  • Compared to older technologies like carburetors, MPFI systems provide greater precision and are more suitable for meeting stringent emission norms.
  • Examples of vehicles equipped with MPFI technology include modern passenger cars and light commercial vehicles.

Additional Information

  • Multi-Port Fuel Injection System
  • While the term is similar, "Multi-Port" often refers to the location or arrangement of the injectors at multiple intake ports. However, the correct term for the technology widely used in automobiles is Multi Point Fuel Injection System.
  • Multi-Port Fuel Ignition System
  • This term incorrectly mixes "Fuel Injection" with "Ignition." Ignition systems are separate mechanisms designed for sparking fuel combustion rather than injecting fuel.
  • Multi Point Fuel Ignition System
  • Similar to the previous option, this term combines "Fuel Injection" and "Ignition," which are fundamentally different processes.
  • In an engine, Fuel Injection deals with delivering fuel, while Ignition triggers combustion through spark plugs.
54

Instant combustion of the fuel in the combustion chamber produces a sudden rise of pressure in the cylinder and the shock goes to the bearings through the piston, gudgeon pin and the _______ This shock is then absorbed by the layer of oil present in the main bearings. 

  1. ((a))

    connecting rod 

  2. ((b))

    camshaft 

  3. ((c))

    flywheel 

  4. ((d))

    crankshaft 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

connecting rod 

The Correct answer is connecting rod.

Key Points

  • The connecting rod is a crucial component in an internal combustion engine that transmits motion from the piston to the crankshaft.
  • It acts as a link between the piston, which moves linearly, and the crankshaft, which rotates.
  • When the fuel undergoes combustion inside the cylinder, it produces a sudden rise in pressure, which pushes the piston downwards.
  • The connecting rod transfers this linear motion of the piston to the rotational motion of the crankshaft.
  • During this process, the connecting rod also transmits the shock caused by the sudden rise in pressure to the crankshaft.
  • The layer of oil in the main bearings absorbs this shock, ensuring smooth operation and reducing wear and tear.
  • Connecting rods are typically made of strong materials like forged steel or aluminum alloys to withstand high pressure and temperature conditions.
  • Proper lubrication of the connecting rod bearings is essential to prevent friction and overheating, which could lead to engine failure.

Additional Information

  • Camshaft
  • The camshaft is responsible for controlling the timing of the opening and closing of the engine's valves.
  • It does not play a role in transmitting the force generated by combustion; rather, it synchronizes the operation of the intake and exhaust valves with the movement of the piston.
  • The camshaft is typically connected to the crankshaft via a timing belt or chain.
  • Flywheel
  • The flywheel is a rotating mechanical device that stores rotational energy and helps maintain a steady speed of the crankshaft.
  • It is not directly involved in transmitting the combustion force but helps in evening out the power strokes in the engine cycle.
  • Flywheels are commonly found in both internal combustion engines and electric motors.
  • Crankshaft
  • The crankshaft converts the reciprocating motion of the piston (via the connecting rod) into rotational motion.
  • It is connected to the connecting rod and is a key component in transmitting the engine's power to the drivetrain.
  • The crankshaft is generally made from forged steel or cast iron to ensure durability and strength.
55

When your vehicle skid while driving you should? 

  1. ((a))

    Turn the steering wheel when in the direction of the car is skidding 

  2. ((b))

    Put on the brake first 

  3. ((c))

    Accelerate vehicle 

  4. ((d))

    Do nothing  

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Turn the steering wheel when in the direction of the car is skidding 

The Correct answer is Turn the steering wheel in the direction the car is skidding.

Key Points

  • When a vehicle starts to skid, it is often due to loss of traction between the tires and the road surface, which can be caused by slippery conditions such as rain, ice, or snow.
  • Turning the steering wheel in the direction the car is skidding helps to regain control of the vehicle by aligning the tires with the direction of motion.
  • This technique is effective because it reduces the imbalance and helps the vehicle to stabilize, preventing further spinning or swerving.
  • It is important to avoid making sudden or jerky movements with the steering wheel, as this can worsen the skid.
  • Drivers should remain calm during a skid and gently turn the wheel while keeping their focus on where they want the car to go.
  • The method is widely recommended by driving experts and included in defensive driving courses globally.
  • This action also works best when combined with releasing the accelerator and refraining from braking, as braking can cause further loss of traction.

Additional Information

  • Put on the brake first
  • Applying brakes during a skid can worsen the situation as it leads to further loss of traction.
  • Braking abruptly can lock the wheels, especially in vehicles without anti-lock braking systems (ABS), making it harder to regain control.
  • Accelerate vehicle
  • Accelerating during a skid is not recommended as it can cause the vehicle to lose even more control.
  • Acceleration increases the force and momentum, worsening the skid in slippery conditions.
  • Do nothing
  • Doing nothing during a skid is dangerous because it allows the vehicle to continue spinning or sliding uncontrollably.
  • Inaction prevents corrective measures from being taken, increasing the likelihood of an accident.
56

You want to overtake a vehicle near a hospital. 

  1. ((a))

    You will not blow horn. 

  2. ((b))

    You cannot overtake a vehicle near a hospital.  

  3. ((c))

    You will Blow the horn continuously. 

  4. ((d))

    You will blow the horn only intermittently. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

You will not blow horn. 

The Correct answer is You will not blow horn.

Key Points

  • Blowing the horn near a hospital is generally prohibited in many countries, including India, to maintain a silent zone and avoid disturbing patients.
  • Hospitals are declared as no-horn zones under traffic rules to ensure a peaceful environment conducive to the recovery and treatment of patients.
  • Unnecessary honking can cause noise pollution, which may lead to stress and discomfort for patients, caregivers, and medical staff.
  • Driving rules emphasize the importance of being a responsible driver and adhering to regulations that prioritize the safety and well-being of society.
  • In some jurisdictions, violating the no-honking rule in areas like hospitals or schools can result in fines or penalties.

Additional Information

  • You cannot overtake a vehicle near a hospital
  • While this option may not always be explicitly restricted, overtaking near a hospital is discouraged as it can lead to road safety hazards.
  • It is important to drive cautiously in areas with frequent pedestrian movement, such as hospitals.
  • You will Blow the horn continuously
  • Continuous honking is a form of noise pollution and is generally considered illegal and disruptive, especially in sensitive zones like hospitals.
  • It can also cause stress and panic for both drivers and pedestrians in the vicinity.
  • You will blow the horn only intermittently
  • Intermittent honking, while less disruptive, still contributes to noise pollution and is not suitable in silent zones like hospitals.
  • This approach does not align with the rules and guidelines set for no-horn zones.
57

Which of the following is a part of the starting system of electric system of a vehicle?

  1. ((a))

    Fog Lamps 

  2. ((b))

    Battery 

  3. ((c))

    Fuel gauges 

  4. ((d))

    Headlight 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Battery 

The Correct answer is Battery.

Key Points

  • The Battery is a crucial component of the starting system in a vehicle's electric system.
  • It provides the initial electric power required to start the engine by powering the starter motor.
  • The battery stores electrical energy in the form of chemical energy and converts it to electrical energy when needed.
  • Modern vehicles primarily use lead-acid batteries due to their reliability and cost-effectiveness.
  • In addition to starting the engine, the battery also powers other electrical systems when the engine is off, such as the lights, music system, and alarms.
  • The battery is recharged by the alternator during engine operation to ensure it remains functional.
  • Proper maintenance of the battery, such as checking electrolyte levels and cleaning terminals, is essential for optimal performance and longevity.

Additional Information

  • Fog Lamps
  • Fog lamps are auxiliary lights used to improve visibility in adverse weather conditions, such as fog, heavy rain, or dust storms.
  • They are mounted low on the vehicle to reduce glare and illuminate the road directly ahead.
  • Fog lamps are not a component of the starting system but rather a part of the lighting system.
  • Fuel Gauges
  • The fuel gauge is an instrument that displays the amount of fuel left in the vehicle's tank.
  • It is part of the dashboard instrumentation and helps the driver monitor fuel levels.
  • While important, it is not involved in the starting process of the vehicle.
  • Headlight
  • Headlights are the primary lighting system used to illuminate the road at night or in low-light conditions.
  • They are powered by the vehicle's electrical system but are not part of the starting system.
  • Headlights are essential for driver visibility and road safety.
58

In which of the following cases, is the use of horn prohibited? 

  1. ((a))

    Near a Police Station 

  2. ((b))

    Near religious establishments 

  3. ((c))

    Near highways 

  4. ((d))

    Near Hospital, Courts of Law 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Near Hospital, Courts of Law 

The Correct answer is Near Hospital, Courts of Law.

Key Points

  • The use of horns is prohibited near hospitals and courts of law to ensure a peaceful and quiet environment.
  • Hospitals require silence to allow patients to recover without unnecessary disturbances caused by loud noises.
  • Courts of law are places where legal proceedings take place, and maintaining silence is crucial for proceedings to occur without interruptions.
  • The prohibition is part of broader noise pollution control measures under various environmental and traffic regulations.
  • Noise pollution can have detrimental effects on health and cognitive functions, especially in sensitive areas like hospitals and courts.
  • Many countries, including India, have implemented laws and guidelines under acts such as the Motor Vehicles Act and the Environment Protection Act to control noise pollution.
  • In India, the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) has categorized silence zones (e.g., around hospitals, schools, and courts) where honking is strictly prohibited.

Additional Information

  • Near a Police Station
  • Honking near police stations is not strictly prohibited, but it may be discouraged to avoid disrupting officers' focus and concentration on critical tasks.
  • Police stations are not officially designated as silence zones under noise pollution regulations.
  • Near Religious Establishments
  • While honking near religious establishments may be frowned upon out of respect, it is not legally prohibited unless designated as part of a silence zone.
  • These areas might implement specific rules during religious events to minimize disturbances.
  • Near Highways
  • Highways are generally areas where honking is permissible for safety and communication between vehicles, especially during overtaking or emergencies.
  • There are no restrictions on the use of horns on highways unless explicitly mentioned by local authorities.
59

Nowadays, in case of  ______ engine the common rail direct injection system (CRDI) is used for better engine performance.  

  1. ((a))

    both petrol and diesel

  2. ((b))

    CNG 

  3. ((c))

    petrol 

  4. ((d))

    diesel 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

diesel 

The Correct answer is diesel engine.

Key Points

  • The Common Rail Direct Injection (CRDI) system is a modern fuel injection technology used primarily in diesel engines.
  • CRDI ensures precise control of fuel injection timing and quantity, improving fuel efficiency, engine performance, and reducing emissions.
  • In diesel engines, the CRDI system uses a common rail to deliver pressurized fuel to individual injectors, enabling high-pressure injection and fine atomization of fuel.
  • This system is essential for achieving better combustion efficiency, minimizing engine noise, and reducing vibrations.
  • CRDI is preferred in diesel engines due to their higher compression ratios, which demand precise fuel injection systems for optimal functioning.
  • Modern vehicles with diesel engines equipped with CRDI technology comply with stringent emission norms like BS-VI (in India) and Euro 6 (globally).
  • CRDI systems also allow for multiple injections during a single combustion cycle, improving the overall smoothness and power delivery of diesel engines.

Additional Information

  • Both petrol and diesel
  • While the CRDI system is primarily used in diesel engines, petrol engines utilize a different fuel injection technology called Gasoline Direct Injection (GDI).
  • Petrol engines require lower fuel pressure for injection compared to diesel engines due to their lower compression ratios.
  • CNG
  • Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) engines use a separate injection mechanism designed to handle gaseous fuels rather than liquid fuels like diesel or petrol.
  • CNG engines focus on reducing carbon emissions and improving the environmental friendliness of vehicles.
  • Petrol engines
  • Petrol engines typically use port fuel injection or Gasoline Direct Injection (GDI), which are suited for the combustion requirements of petrol.
  • These systems operate at lower fuel pressures compared to the CRDI system in diesel engines.
60

What does this sign indicate?

  1. ((a))

    Compulsory Keep Left 

  2. ((b))

    Compulsory Ahead 

  3. ((c))

    Compulsory Ahead or Turn Left/Right  

  4. ((d))

    Compulsory Turn Left/Right  

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Compulsory Ahead 

The Correct answer is Compulsory Ahead.

Key Points

  • The sign shown is a mandatory traffic sign represented by a blue circular board with a white upward arrow.
  • It indicates that the vehicle must go straight ahead compulsorily and is not allowed to turn left or right at that junction.
  • This sign ensures unidirectional traffic movement and helps prevent road accidents or confusion at intersections.
  • It is most commonly placed at crossroads, T-junctions, and areas with restricted turns to regulate smooth vehicle movement.
  • Mandatory signs are enforced under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 in India, and violation can lead to penalties.
  • Such signs are part of international traffic conventions and are used in most countries to ensure uniform driving rules.
  • The use of a blue background in signs indicates compulsion, while red-bordered signs usually indicate prohibition.
  • These rules contribute to better road discipline and traffic safety management in urban as well as rural areas.

Additional Information

  • Compulsory Keep Left
  • This sign directs drivers to keep their vehicle strictly on the left-hand side of the road or traffic island.
  • It is generally seen near road dividers, construction areas, or medians to ensure safety.
  • Compulsory Ahead or Turn Left/Right
  • This sign allows vehicles either to go straight or take a left/right turn depending on the arrow direction shown.
  • It is mostly placed at intersections where turning is permitted along with moving ahead.
  • Compulsory Turn Left/Right
  • This sign directs vehicles to take a compulsory left or right turn, disallowing any forward movement.
  • It is generally installed at dead ends, restricted areas, or where straight movement is unsafe.
61

Air pollutants harmfully effect ______ of humans and animals. 

  1. ((a))

    nervous system 

  2. ((b))

    integumentary system  

  3. ((c))

    digestive system 

  4. ((d))

    respiratory system 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

respiratory system 

The Correct answer is respiratory system.

Key Points

  • Air pollutants have a significant adverse impact on the respiratory system of both humans and animals.
  • The respiratory system includes critical components such as the lungs, trachea, and bronchi.
  • Exposure to air pollutants like particulate matter (PM2.5 and PM10), sulfur dioxide (SO₂), nitrogen oxides (NOₓ), carbon monoxide (CO), and ozone (O₃) can lead to respiratory illnesses.
  • Prolonged exposure can result in conditions such as asthma, bronchitis, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and lung cancer.
  • Air pollutants can also weaken the immune response of the respiratory system, making individuals more vulnerable to infections.
  • Inhalation of polluted air affects oxygen exchange in the lungs, leading to reduced oxygen levels in the bloodstream.
  • Particularly vulnerable groups include children, the elderly, and individuals with pre-existing respiratory or cardiovascular conditions.
  • Urban areas with high levels of vehicular emissions and industrial activities are at a greater risk of air pollution-related respiratory issues.

Additional Information

  • Nervous System
  • The nervous system can also be affected by air pollutants, particularly through long-term exposure to toxic substances like lead, mercury, and certain volatile organic compounds (VOCs).
  • However, its impact is usually secondary compared to the direct effects on the respiratory system.
  • Pollutants can interfere with neurotransmitter function, leading to behavioral and cognitive issues.
  • Integumentary System
  • The integumentary system (skin, hair, and nails) can be indirectly affected by air pollution, causing skin irritation, premature aging, and aggravation of skin conditions like eczema.
  • However, this system is not as critically impacted as the respiratory system.
  • Digestive System
  • The digestive system is typically less affected by air pollutants since they are inhaled rather than ingested.
  • However, some pollutants like microplastics or heavy metals can enter the digestive tract indirectly through contaminated food or water.
62

As per Indian traffic rule what is the right path for a driver to be followed in normal 

  1. ((a))

    Right 

  2. ((b))

    Centre 

  3. ((c))

    Left 

  4. ((d))

    Both side 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Left 

The Correct answer is Left.

Key Points

  • In India, vehicles are required to drive on the left-hand side of the road as per the Indian Motor Vehicles Act and traffic rules.
  • Following the left-hand driving system ensures smooth and organized flow of traffic across the country.
  • This rule aligns with other countries such as United Kingdom, Australia, Japan, and several African nations, which also follow the left-hand traffic system.
  • The rationale behind driving on the left is rooted in historical practices, where horse riders preferred the left side to keep their right hand free for defense in case of attacks.
  • The left-hand driving system is designed to enhance safety and prevent collisions, especially at intersections.
  • Pedestrians are encouraged to walk on the right side of the road to face oncoming traffic, ensuring better visibility and safety.

Additional Information

  • Right
  • Right-hand driving is followed in countries like USA, Canada, Germany, France, and China.
  • This system is based on historical reasons and the design of vehicles in these regions.
  • Countries with right-hand driving systems have roads and vehicles designed accordingly, with the driver's seat positioned on the left side.
  • Centre
  • Driving in the center of the road is strictly prohibited as it disrupts the organized flow of traffic and increases the risk of accidents.
  • However, some emergency vehicles, like ambulances or police cars, may use the center lane temporarily for quicker movement.
  • Both sides
  • Driving on both sides of the road is neither allowed nor practical, as it leads to confusion and chaos.
  • This option would violate traffic rules and compromise road safety.
63

The ______ removes out the burnt gases from the combustion chamber after power stroke. 

  1. ((a))

    inlet valve 

  2. ((b))

    exhaust valve 

  3. ((c))

    cylinder valve 

  4. ((d))

    cylinder 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

exhaust valve 

The correct answer is exhaust valve.

Key Points

  • The exhaust valve is responsible for removing the burnt gases from the combustion chamber after the power stroke in an engine.
  • It opens at the end of the power stroke and allows the high-pressure exhaust gases to escape into the exhaust system.
  • The proper functioning of the exhaust valve ensures a clean and efficient combustion cycle, which is essential for engine performance.
  • The exhaust valve is typically made of materials like heat-resistant alloys to withstand the high temperatures and pressures inside the engine.
  • In a four-stroke engine, the exhaust valve works in coordination with the intake valve during the exhaust stroke, where the piston moves upward to expel the burnt gases.
  • The precise timing of valve opening and closing is controlled by the camshaft, which is connected to the crankshaft.
  • The exhaust valve plays a critical role in maintaining the engine's efficiency, durability, and emission standards.

Additional Information

  • Inlet Valve
  • The inlet valve, also known as the intake valve, is responsible for allowing the air-fuel mixture to enter the combustion chamber during the intake stroke.
  • It closes during the compression and power strokes to ensure the mixture stays in the chamber for combustion.
  • It is usually made of similar heat-resistant materials as the exhaust valve but operates at comparatively lower temperatures.
  • Cylinder Valve
  • The term cylinder valve is a generic term that may refer to either the inlet or exhaust valve. It is not a specific component by itself.
  • It plays a role in regulating the flow of gases in and out of the engine cylinder.
  • Cylinder
  • The cylinder is the part of the engine where the air-fuel mixture is compressed and combusted to produce power.
  • It houses components like the piston, valves, and spark plug (in petrol engines).
  • The exhaust valve and inlet valve are mounted on the cylinder head to control gas flow.
64

Which of the following is controlled by foot in a car?

  1. ((a))

    Head light 

  2. ((b))

    Steering 

  3. ((c))

    Wiper 

  4. ((d))

    Clutch  

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Clutch  

The correct answer is Clutch.

Key Points

  • The clutch is a mechanical device in a car that is controlled by the foot pedal.
  • It allows the driver to engage or disengage the engine from the transmission system, thereby controlling the power flow from the engine to the wheels.
  • The clutch pedal is located on the floor of the car near the brake and accelerator pedals.
  • It is primarily used in cars with a manual transmission system.
  • The clutch is essential for smooth gear shifting and ensures the engine is not directly connected to the wheels when stationary or during gear changes.
  • Modern clutches typically use a to transmit torque from the engine to the drivetrain.
  • Proper use of the clutch prevents wear and tear and increases the longevity of the transmission system.

Additional Information

  • Headlight
  • The headlight is operated using a switch or lever located on the dashboard or steering column.
  • It provides illumination for driving in low-light conditions such as night or fog.
  • Modern cars may include automatic headlights that adjust based on ambient light levels.
  • Steering
  • The steering wheel is operated manually by the driver using their hands.
  • It is essential for controlling the direction of the car and is connected to the steering mechanism.
  • Modern steering systems often use power steering technology to reduce effort required by the driver.
  • Wiper
  • The wiper system is controlled via a switch or lever on the dashboard or steering column.
  • It is used for clearing water, snow, or debris from the windshield to maintain visibility.
  • Many vehicles now come equipped with rain-sensing wipers for automatic operation during rainfall.
65

A cautionary traffic sign is in shape of 

  1. ((a))

    Square 

  2. ((b))

    Rectangular 

  3. ((c))

    Triangular 

  4. ((d))

    Circular  

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Triangular 

The Correct answer is Triangular.

Key Points

  • A cautionary traffic sign is typically in the shape of a triangle, indicating warnings or potential hazards ahead.
  • The triangular shape is universally recognized as a symbol for warning, making it easier for drivers to identify from a distance.
  • These signs are often colored with a red border and have a white background to ensure high visibility.
  • Examples of cautionary signs include sharp turn, steep slope, slippery road, pedestrian crossing, and animal crossing.
  • Triangular cautionary signs are used globally as per international traffic regulations to ensure uniformity in road safety measures.
  • In India, cautionary signs are governed under the Motor Vehicles Act, ensuring safety on roads by warning drivers of potential dangers.
  • These signs play a crucial role in preventing accidents by alerting drivers to adjust their speed and driving behavior accordingly.

Additional Information

  • Square
  • Square-shaped signs are typically used for informational purposes, like indicating directions or locations.
  • These signs often include road names, parking information, or zone restrictions.
  • Rectangular
  • Rectangular traffic signs are generally used for guidance or regulatory information.
  • Examples include speed limit signs, parking regulations, or route markers.
  • Circular
  • Circular signs are mostly used for mandatory signs, indicating actions that drivers must follow.
  • Examples include speed limits, no entry, or turn restrictions.
66

The sale certificate for permanent registration of a motor vehicle should be accompanied by form number ______

  1. ((a))

    22

  2. ((b))

    21

  3. ((c))

    20

  4. ((d))

    22 A

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

21

The Correct answer is Form 21.

Key Points

  • Form 21 is known as the sale certificate for the registration of a motor vehicle.
  • It is issued by the dealer of the vehicle and is a crucial document for obtaining the permanent registration of a motor vehicle.
  • The form contains details such as the engine number, chassis number, and sale details of the vehicle.
  • It certifies that the vehicle has been sold and is ready for registration under the Central Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989.
  • Without the submission of Form 21, the registering authority cannot process the permanent registration of the vehicle.
  • This form is mandatory for both new and pre-owned vehicles during the process of registration.

Additional Information

  • Form 20
  • Form 20 is the application form for the registration of a motor vehicle.
  • It is submitted to the Registering Authority and contains the owner's details, vehicle details, and other relevant information.
  • This form is required at the time of initial registration of the vehicle.
  • Form 22
  • Form 22 is a certificate of compliance with pollution standards, safety standards, and roadworthiness.
  • It is issued by the manufacturer of the vehicle and certifies that the vehicle meets the standards set under the Central Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989.
  • This form is required during the registration process to ensure environmental and safety compliance.
  • Form 22A
  • Form 22A is similar to Form 22 but is specifically issued for vehicles that are altered or modified.
  • It ensures that the modified vehicle complies with the required safety and pollution standards.
67

In a vehicle, the cut-out switch is a component of _____.

  1. ((a))

    ignition system 

  2. ((b))

    charging system 

  3. ((c))

    lighting system 

  4. ((d))

    starting system 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

charging system 

The Correct answer is Charging System.

Key Points

  • The cut-out switch is an essential component of the charging system in vehicles.
  • Its primary function is to ensure that the vehicle battery is not overcharged or discharged unnecessarily.
  • The cut-out switch works by disconnecting the dynamo or alternator from the battery once the battery is fully charged.
  • This mechanism prevents damage to the battery and ensures its longevity.
  • It is an automatic device that operates based on the voltage levels of the battery and the output from the alternator or dynamo.
  • The charging system includes components such as the alternator, voltage regulator, battery, and cut-out switch, all of which work in synchronization to maintain the battery's charge.
  • The cut-out switch is especially important in older vehicles, where manual regulation of battery charging was not possible.
  • Modern vehicles use advanced electronics, but the concept of controlling battery charging remains integral to the design of the vehicle's electrical system.

Additional Information

  • Ignition System
  • The ignition system is responsible for generating the spark needed to ignite the air-fuel mixture in the engine's combustion chamber.
  • Key components of the ignition system include the spark plugs, ignition coil, distributor, and control module.
  • This system plays a crucial role in starting the engine and maintaining its operation.
  • The cut-out switch is not related to this system as its function pertains to battery charging, not ignition.
  • Lighting System
  • The lighting system in a vehicle includes headlights, taillights, indicators, and interior lights.
  • Its purpose is to provide illumination for safe driving and visibility of the vehicle.
  • This system operates on the power supplied by the battery and alternator but does not involve a cut-out switch.
  • Starting System
  • The starting system enables the engine to start by using the battery's electrical energy to turn the engine's crankshaft.
  • Components include the starter motor, solenoid, and ignition switch.
  • The cut-out switch does not play a role in the starting process, as it is part of the charging system.
68

New vehicle registration is done at RTO. What is the full form of RTO?  

  1. ((a))

    Regional Transport Office 

  2. ((b))

    Regional Travel Office

  3. ((c))

    Recovery Transport Office 

  4. ((d))

    Road Transport Organization  

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Regional Transport Office 

The Correct answer is Regional Transport Office.

Key Points

  • The Regional Transport Office (RTO) is a government agency responsible for managing the registration and regulation of vehicles in India.
  • It operates under the provisions of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, which governs vehicle-related rules and regulations in the country.
  • The RTO is primarily responsible for issuing driving licenses, registering new vehicles, and maintaining vehicle-related records.
  • It ensures compliance with road safety rules and regulations by enforcing traffic laws and conducting vehicle inspections.
  • The RTO plays a crucial role in collecting various taxes and fees related to vehicles, such as road taxes, registration fees, and pollution control certificates.
  • The agency also manages the issuance of permits for commercial vehicles and monitors their adherence to transportation guidelines.
  • RTO offices are established in every district and city across India to provide localized services to citizens.
  • The functioning of the RTO contributes to the overall improvement of traffic management, road safety, and transportation infrastructure in the country.

Additional Information

  • Regional Travel Office
  • This term does not exist as a formal government entity or organization.
  • It may sound similar to RTO, but it does not have any relevance in the context of vehicle registration and transport management.
  • Recovery Transport Office
  • This term does not align with the functions or responsibilities of an RTO.
  • It might be misunderstood as an office handling vehicle recovery, but this is not the role of RTOs.
  • Road Transport Organization
  • Although this term relates to transportation, it is not the official name or function of RTO.
  • RTOs specifically handle vehicle registration and transport regulation rather than broad organizational roles.
69

In an IC engine, during the suction stroke, fresh charge enters the engine cylinder through _______.

  1. ((a))

    rotary valve 

  2. ((b))

    inlet valve 

  3. ((c))

    exhaust valve 

  4. ((d))

    sleeve valve 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

inlet valve 

The Correct answer is inlet valve.

Key Points

  • In an internal combustion (IC) engine, the suction stroke is the first stroke in the operation cycle.
  • During the suction stroke, the piston moves downward, creating a vacuum in the engine cylinder.
  • The inlet valve opens, allowing the fresh charge (a mixture of air and fuel in a petrol engine, or only air in a diesel engine) to enter the engine cylinder.
  • The opening of the inlet valve is synchronized with the movement of the piston and controlled by the camshaft mechanism.
  • The correct functioning of the inlet valve is critical for ensuring proper air-fuel mixture intake, which directly affects the engine's efficiency and performance.
  • Once the suction stroke is completed, the inlet valve closes, and the next strokes (compression, power, and exhaust) follow in the engine's operational cycle.

Additional Information

  • Rotary valve
  • A rotary valve is a type of valve that rotates to control the flow of fluids or gases.
  • In IC engines, rotary valves are used in high-performance applications, but they are less common compared to poppet valves like the inlet valve.
  • They are known for their compact size and ability to handle high-speed engine operations.
  • Exhaust valve
  • The exhaust valve is responsible for releasing burnt gases from the engine cylinder after the power stroke.
  • It opens during the exhaust stroke of the engine cycle and remains closed during the suction stroke.
  • Improper functioning of the exhaust valve can lead to backpressure and reduced engine efficiency.
  • Sleeve valve
  • A sleeve valve is a type of valve mechanism where a cylindrical sleeve moves inside the engine cylinder to control the intake and exhaust of gases.
  • This technology was used in some older engines but has largely been replaced by poppet valves due to better sealing and lower maintenance requirements.
  • Sleeve valves are known for their smooth operation and reduced noise levels but are less efficient in modern engine designs.
70

Which of the following is not a component of standard job card? 

  1. ((a))

    Favourite colour of the customer 

  2. ((b))

    Job card number 

  3. ((c))

    Name, address and phone number of the customer 

  4. ((d))

    Name, address and phone number of the service center 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Favourite colour of the customer 

The correct answer is Favourite colour of the customer.

Key Points

  • A job card is a detailed document used in various industries, especially in service centers, to record and manage customer service activities.
  • The components of a standard job card typically include essential details such as the job card number, customer information (name, address, phone number), and details of the service center.
  • The purpose of a job card is to ensure efficient record-keeping, streamline operations, and provide a clear summary of services rendered.
  • The favourite colour of the customer is not relevant to the standard job card format, as it has no functional utility or significance in the service process.
  • Including non-essential information like the customer’s favourite colour would deviate from the professional nature of a job card and clutter the document unnecessarily.
  • Job cards focus on functional and actionable data that assist in tracking service history, costs, and customer requirements directly related to the job.

Additional Information

  • Job card number
  • A unique identifier assigned to each job card for easy tracking and reference.
  • It ensures that all activities related to a particular job are recorded and retrieved efficiently.
  • Name, address, and phone number of the customer
  • This information is critical for maintaining customer communication and ensuring personalized service.
  • It helps in follow-ups and in maintaining a comprehensive service history for the customer.
  • Name, address, and phone number of the service center
  • This data ensures that the job card is linked to the correct service center for accountability and contact purposes.
  • It is particularly useful for customers when locating or contacting the service center for inquiries.
71

Tn an internal combustion engine, the main body of an engine is _______

  1. ((a))

    cylinder 

  2. ((b))

    connecting rod 

  3. ((c))

    piston 

  4. ((d))

    cylinder head 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

cylinder 

The Correct answer is cylinder.

Key Points

  • The cylinder is the main body of the internal combustion engine where the combustion process occurs.
  • It provides a confined space for the movement of the piston, which converts the thermal energy generated during combustion into mechanical energy.
  • The cylinder is generally made from durable materials like cast iron or aluminum alloy to withstand high temperatures and pressures during engine operation.
  • In multi-cylinder engines, multiple cylinders are arranged in configurations such as inline, V-type, or flat, depending on the design and application of the engine.
  • The inner surface of the cylinder is often coated or finished to reduce friction and improve the efficiency of piston movement.
  • Cylinders are crucial for housing other components like the piston, piston rings, and connecting rod.
  • The sealing of the cylinder is ensured by the cylinder head, which prevents leakage of gases during the combustion process.
  • Cylinder design plays a vital role in determining the engine's performance, efficiency, and power output.

Additional Information

  • Connecting Rod
  • The connecting rod is a component that links the piston to the crankshaft.
  • It transmits the reciprocating motion of the piston into rotational motion at the crankshaft.
  • It is typically made of strong materials like steel, aluminum, or titanium to endure high stress and load.
  • Piston
  • The piston is a cylindrical component that moves back and forth inside the cylinder.
  • It plays a critical role in compressing the fuel-air mixture and transmitting the force generated during combustion to the connecting rod.
  • Made of lightweight and heat-resistant materials like aluminum alloys.
  • Cylinder Head
  • The cylinder head is mounted on top of the cylinder and encloses the combustion chamber.
  • It houses components like valves, spark plugs, and fuel injectors.
  • Ensures proper sealing of the cylinder and facilitates the fuel combustion process.
72

_____ is used in automobiles to obtain different torques and speeds. 

  1. ((a))

    Differential 

  2. ((b))

    Clutch 

  3. ((c))

    Steering 

  4. ((d))

    Gearbox 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Gearbox 

The Correct answer is Gearbox.

Key Points

  • A gearbox, also known as a transmission, is a mechanical device used to transfer power and control the torque and speed from the engine to the wheels of an automobile.
  • It allows the vehicle to operate under different conditions by providing various gear ratios for different speeds and loads.
  • The gearbox enables the vehicle to achieve high torque at low speeds (useful during starts or climbing hills) and low torque at high speeds (for efficient cruising).
  • It consists of a set of gears and gear trains that can be manually or automatically shifted to regulate the speed and torque of the car.
  • The use of gearboxes allows the engine to run within its optimal RPM (Revolutions Per Minute) range, ensuring better performance and fuel efficiency.
  • Modern vehicles may have either a manual gearbox, requiring the driver to shift gears, or an automatic gearbox, which adjusts gears automatically based on driving conditions.
  • Some advanced systems also use Continuously Variable Transmissions (CVTs) or dual-clutch systems for better performance and smoother driving experiences.
  • Key components of a gearbox include the input shaft, output shaft, gear selector, and gear teeth.

Additional Information

  • Differential
  • A differential is another key component in automobiles, located between the drive wheels, allowing them to rotate at different speeds, especially while turning.
  • It ensures smooth and stable turning by compensating for the difference in distance each wheel travels during a turn.
  • It is not directly responsible for controlling torque and speed, as that is the function of the gearbox.
  • Clutch
  • The clutch is a mechanical device used to connect and disconnect the engine's power to the gearbox.
  • It is primarily used in manual transmission vehicles to facilitate smooth gear changes and stop the car without stalling the engine.
  • Although essential for gear engagement, it does not modify torque and speed.
  • Steering
  • The steering system is responsible for controlling the direction of a vehicle.
  • It has no role in managing the torque and speed of the vehicle.
  • It consists of components like the steering wheel, steering column, and linkages.
73

______ is employed in most of the IC engines, whether they are used in automobiles or elsewhere. 

  1. ((a))

    Liquid cooling 

  2. ((b))

    Solid cooling 

  3. ((c))

    No cooling 

  4. ((d))

    Gaseous cooling  

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Liquid cooling 

The correct answer is Liquid Cooling.

Key Points

  • Liquid Cooling is widely employed in most IC (Internal Combustion) engines, whether used in automobiles or other applications.
  • It uses a circulating liquid (such as water or coolant) to remove the excess heat generated during the operation of the engine.
  • Liquid cooling systems generally consist of components like a radiator, water pump, coolant reservoir, hoses, and sometimes a thermostat.
  • Liquid cooling is highly efficient in maintaining a consistent temperature across the engine, preventing overheating.
  • This cooling system is preferred for its durability and ability to handle engines with higher power outputs.
  • Liquid cooling also helps enhance the lifespan of the engine by reducing wear and tear caused by excessive heat.
  • Most modern automobiles, including cars, motorcycles, and trucks, use liquid cooling due to its efficiency and ability to work in various environmental conditions.
  • Liquid cooling is especially useful for engines that generate a significant amount of heat, such as those found in heavy-duty vehicles or performance-oriented engines.

Additional Information

  • Solid Cooling
  • Solid Cooling is not a practical method for cooling IC engines.
  • It might refer to using solid materials to dissipate heat, but this approach is not viable for engines due to their high heat generation.
  • No Cooling
  • No Cooling is not an option for IC engines because they generate a significant amount of heat during operation.
  • Without cooling, the engine would overheat, leading to damage or even failure.
  • Gaseous Cooling
  • Gaseous Cooling involves using air or gas to cool the engine.
  • This method is less efficient compared to liquid cooling and is usually employed in smaller engines like motorcycles or lawnmowers.
  • Air-cooled engines depend on fins or fans to dissipate heat, but they cannot handle engines with higher power outputs effectively.
74

You are moving straight on a road. You see a right turn ahead and want to take that right turn. Which of the following should you do?  

  1. ((a))

    foe the left turn signal, move to the centre of the road and turn to the right. 

  2. ((b))

    Show the right turn signal, keep to the right side of the road and turn to the right.  

  3. ((c))

    Slow down, move to extreme left, increase the speed move sharply to right turn 

  4. ((d))

    Increase the speed and take a sharp right turn while blowing the horn. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Show the right turn signal, keep to the right side of the road and turn to the right.  

The Correct answer is Show the right turn signal, keep to the right side of the road and turn to the right.

Key Points

  • Signaling is an important aspect of road safety. Showing the right turn signal alerts other drivers and pedestrians about your intention to turn.
  • Keeping to the right side of the road ensures that you align yourself properly for the turn and avoid interference with vehicles traveling straight on the road.
  • This method helps in maintaining a smooth flow of traffic and minimizes the risk of accidents.
  • Following this approach is consistent with standard traffic rules and regulations that emphasize safety and clarity while maneuvering.
  • By adhering to this strategy, you ensure that you take the turn safely without disrupting the movement of others on the road.

Additional Information

  • Foe the left turn signal, move to the centre of the road and turn to the right
  • This option is incorrect as showing a left turn signal while intending to turn right creates confusion for other drivers.
  • Moving to the center of the road may cause disruption to vehicles traveling in both directions and increases the risk of collisions.
  • Slow down, move to extreme left, increase the speed, move sharply to right turn
  • This option is unsafe as moving to the extreme left before turning right can obstruct vehicles traveling straight and lead to accidents.
  • Sudden speed increase and sharp turns compromise control of the vehicle and violate basic traffic safety rules.
  • Increase the speed and take a sharp right turn while blowing the horn
  • Increasing speed while taking a turn is dangerous as it reduces your ability to react to unexpected obstacles.
  • Blowing the horn excessively can cause confusion rather than ensuring safety.
  • This behavior is inconsistent with safe driving practices and road etiquette.
75

What does this sign indicate?

  1. ((a))

    Right Turn Prohibited 

  2. ((b))

    U-Turn Prohibited 

  3. ((c))

    Overtaking Prohibited 

  4. ((d))

    Left Turn Prohibited 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Overtaking Prohibited 

The Correct answer is U-Turn Prohibited.

Key Points

  • This is a prohibitory traffic sign represented by a black U-shaped arrow on a white background with a red circular border and a diagonal slash.
  • It indicates that taking a U-turn is strictly prohibited at that particular junction or road stretch.
  • Such signs are usually placed in areas with high traffic volume, intersections, bridges, or highways where sudden U-turns can cause accidents.
  • The prohibition helps in maintaining smooth traffic flow and preventing head-on collisions or rear-end crashes.
  • Disobeying this sign is considered a traffic violation under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 and can attract fines or penalties.
  • This sign is standardized as per the Indian Road Congress (IRC) and is also recognized in international traffic rules under the Vienna Convention on Road Signs and Signals.
  • By enforcing this restriction, road authorities reduce the risk of traffic congestion and improve road safety.
  • It is important for drivers to follow this sign strictly to ensure discipline and accident-free travel on busy roads.

Additional Information

  • Right Turn Prohibited
  • This sign indicates that taking a right turn is not allowed at the specified point.
  • It is generally installed at intersections where right turns may cause traffic obstruction or accidents.
  • Overtaking Prohibited
  • This sign prohibits vehicles from overtaking other vehicles on that section of the road.
  • It is mostly placed on narrow roads, hilly areas, bridges, or accident-prone zones to ensure safety.
  • Left Turn Prohibited
  • This sign indicates that taking a left turn is not allowed at that junction.
  • It is placed where a left turn may be dangerous or disrupt traffic flow.
76

What is the ambient Air Quality Standards in respect of Noise in industrial area in day time? 

  1. ((a))

    45 dB(A) Leq

  2. ((b))

    55 dB(A) Leq 

  3. ((c))

    65 dB(A) Leq 

  4. ((d))

    75 dB(A) Leq  

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

75 dB(A) Leq  

The Correct answer is 75 dB(A) Leq.

Key Points

  • The Ambient Air Quality Standards regarding noise are set to regulate acceptable noise levels in different areas such as industrial, commercial, and residential zones.
  • The permissible noise level for industrial areas during daytime is 75 dB(A) Leq, where "Leq" signifies the equivalent continuous noise level.
  • Daytime is defined as the period between 6 AM and 10 PM, as per the guidelines.
  • These standards are laid down by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), which operates under the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change, Government of India.
  • The noise limit is higher in industrial areas compared to residential and commercial areas due to the nature of activities such as manufacturing, heavy machinery operations, and industrial processes.
  • Maintaining noise levels within prescribed limits is crucial to minimizing the adverse effects on human health, wildlife, and the environment.
  • Excessive noise can lead to problems like hearing loss, stress, sleep disturbances, and reduced productivity.

Additional Information

  • 45 dB(A) Leq
  • This noise level is typically applicable for silent zones, such as areas around hospitals, educational institutions, and courts.
  • Silent zones are designed to ensure minimal noise pollution to support sensitive activities or individuals.
  • 55 dB(A) Leq
  • This noise level is applicable to residential areas during daytime, as residential zones require quieter environments to support daily living activities.
  • It helps ensure the health and well-being of residents by reducing the impact of noise pollution.
  • 65 dB(A) Leq
  • This noise level is typically applicable to commercial areas during daytime, where moderate noise levels are permissible due to business activities.
  • Commercial areas include markets, shopping centers, and office spaces where economic activities take place.
77

This sign means 

  1. ((a))

    Stop  

  2. ((b))

    Compulsory horn  

  3. ((c))

    No horn 

  4. ((d))

    Go ahead 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Compulsory horn  

The Correct answer is Compulsory Horn.

Key Points

  • This sign is a mandatory traffic sign represented by a blue circular board with a white horn symbol in the center.
  • It indicates that drivers must use their horn compulsorily while passing through the marked area.
  • Such signs are commonly installed at sharp curves, blind turns, hilly roads, and narrow passages where visibility is poor.
  • The purpose is to alert vehicles coming from the opposite direction, thereby reducing the chances of head-on collisions.
  • This sign is particularly important in mountainous regions like Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Jammu & Kashmir, and North-Eastern states where roads are winding and narrow.
  • The use of a compulsory horn helps in ensuring road safety and provides a warning signal to pedestrians and other vehicles.
  • According to the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, failure to follow a mandatory sign is a punishable offense and can attract penalties.
  • This sign is recognized as per the guidelines of the Indian Road Congress (IRC) and is in line with international traffic conventions.
  • It is important for drivers to note that this sign does not mean unnecessary honking, but a compulsory alert system in designated zones for safety.

Additional Information

  • No Horn
  • This sign is a prohibitory sign shown with a horn symbol crossed with a red line.
  • It is placed in areas like hospitals, schools, and silence zones where honking may cause disturbance.
  • Stop Sign
  • The Stop sign is usually an octagonal red board with the word STOP written in white.
  • It is placed at intersections, railway crossings, and pedestrian crossings to ensure vehicles halt completely before proceeding.
78

Which of the following is correct regarding the road markings in India? 

  1. ((a))

    White is generally used for kerb and object marking 

  2. ((b))

    Centre lines are used for a two-way road 

  3. ((c))

    White or yellow together with black are used for kerb and object marking 

  4. ((d))

    Yellow markings are used for carriageway markings 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Centre lines are used for a two-way road 

The Correct answer is Centre lines are used for a two-way road.

Key Points

  • Centre lines are crucial for road safety and are used to denote a two-way road, ensuring vehicles stay on their respective sides of the road.
  • The markings are typically in the form of a broken white line or a continuous white line, depending on the specific road conditions.
  • These lines help in regulating traffic flow, especially on roads where vehicles move in opposite directions.
  • Centre lines also provide a clear visual guide to drivers, ensuring lane discipline and preventing head-on collisions.
  • The use of centre lines is prescribed under the Indian Roads Congress (IRC) guidelines, which define road markings for different types of roads in India.

Additional Information

  • White is generally used for kerb and object marking
  • White color is used for marking kerbs and objects to enhance visibility and provide a visual guide to drivers.
  • It is commonly applied on road edges, traffic islands, and other structures for better night-time visibility.
  • White or yellow together with black are used for kerb and object marking
  • Black and yellow or white and black stripes are also used for highlighting obstructions, especially in critical areas such as turns or intersections.
  • These markings provide a contrast against the road surface, making them more noticeable.
  • Yellow markings are used for carriageway markings
  • Yellow lines are generally used to indicate no overtaking zones or to separate traffic in opposite directions.
  • They are often found on highways or roads with high-speed limits to ensure lane discipline.
79

When you are approaching a round to which you are about to enter you should? 

  1. ((a))

    Give way to the vehicles coming from the right direction 

  2. ((b))

    Continue into the circular traffic at slow speed 

  3. ((c))

    Use the outside lane only 

  4. ((d))

    Use the inside lane only 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Give way to the vehicles coming from the right direction 

The Correct answer is Give way to the vehicles coming from the right direction.

Key Points

  • When approaching a roundabout, vehicles within the roundabout have the right of way. This is a key rule in traffic systems across most countries.
  • The rule to give way to vehicles coming from the right direction ensures the smooth flow of traffic and reduces the likelihood of accidents.
  • Drivers entering the roundabout must yield to vehicles already circulating, which helps maintain a systematic movement of vehicles.
  • This rule is based on the principle of lane discipline and traffic flow priority to avoid confusion and congestion.
  • Roundabouts are designed to improve traffic efficiency, and this rule helps prevent collisions and ensures that traffic moves in a controlled and predictable manner.
  • Adhering to this rule is particularly important during peak hours, when traffic volume increases, to avoid bottlenecks.
  • This practice is part of global traffic safety standards and is incorporated into the Highway Code or similar traffic laws in various countries.

Additional Information

  • Continue into the circular traffic at slow speed
  • This option is incorrect as entering the roundabout without giving way can cause collisions with vehicles already in the roundabout.
  • Even if moving at slow speed, the lack of yielding disrupts the right of way principle and can create confusion among other drivers.
  • Use the outside lane only
  • Using a specific lane depends on the exit you are taking from the roundabout, not just the outside lane.
  • Sticking exclusively to the outside lane could lead to lane discipline violations and cause accidents, especially in multi-lane roundabouts.
  • Use the inside lane only
  • Similar to the outside lane, the lane choice depends on the intended exit and should align with road markings and signs.
  • Using only the inside lane can block other vehicles trying to exit the roundabout, leading to traffic congestion.
80

Ina vehicle, as the temperature of the coolant in the engine cylinder rises to ______ degrees centigrade, the thermostat valve opens and sends water to the radiator to radiate heat.  

  1. ((a))

    61 to 72 

  2. ((b))

    51 to 62 

  3. ((c))

    41 to 52 

  4. ((d))

    71 to 82 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

71 to 82 

The Correct answer is 71 to 82.

Key Points

  • A thermostat valve is used in a vehicle's cooling system to regulate the flow of coolant between the engine and the radiator.
  • The thermostat valve remains closed when the engine is cold, ensuring that the engine warms up to its optimal operating temperature quickly.
  • When the temperature of the coolant in the engine cylinder reaches around 71 to 82 degrees Celsius, the thermostat valve opens.
  • This opening allows coolant to flow to the radiator, where the excess heat is dissipated, preventing the engine from overheating.
  • Maintaining this temperature range ensures that the engine operates efficiently and avoids potential damage due to overheating.
  • Using a thermostat valve is critical for enhancing the performance, fuel efficiency, and longevity of the engine.
  • Different vehicles may have variations in thermostat specifications, but the range of 71 to 82 degrees Celsius is common in most modern engines.

Additional Information

  • Thermostat Function
  • The thermostat ensures that the engine operates within its optimal temperature range, preventing overcooling or overheating.
  • Overcooling can lead to inefficient fuel combustion, while overheating can cause engine failure.
  • Coolant System Design
  • The coolant system includes components like the water pump, radiator, fan, and thermostat to manage heat dissipation effectively.
  • Proper maintenance of the cooling system is necessary to ensure its efficiency and reliability.
  • Importance of Temperature Regulation
  • Operating an engine at its ideal temperature improves fuel economy and reduces emissions.
  • It also prevents wear and tear on engine components, extending their lifespan.
81

Which is the part of steering system? 

  1. ((a))

    Clutch 

  2. ((b))

    Odometer 

  3. ((c))

    Brake drum 

  4. ((d))

    Steering wheel  

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Steering wheel  

The correct answer is Steering Wheel.

Key Points

  • The steering wheel is an integral component of the steering system in vehicles.
  • It is the primary interface between the driver and the steering mechanism.
  • Through the steering wheel, the driver can control the direction of the vehicle by transmitting rotational movements to the steering column and other linked components.
  • The movement of the steering wheel is facilitated by either a mechanical, hydraulic, or electric power steering system.
  • Modern steering systems often feature power-assisted mechanisms to reduce the effort required by the driver.
  • In addition to controlling the vehicle's direction, many steering wheels come equipped with controls for various features like audio systems, cruise control, and phone connectivity.
  • Most vehicles use a rack-and-pinion mechanism to convert the rotational movement of the steering wheel into linear motion for turning the wheels.

Additional Information

  • Clutch
  • The clutch is a component of the transmission system in vehicles and is used to engage and disengage the power transmission from the engine to the gearbox.
  • It helps in changing gears smoothly and is primarily used in manual transmission vehicles.
  • Odometer
  • An odometer is an instrument used to measure the total distance traveled by a vehicle.
  • It is usually displayed on the vehicle's dashboard and can be either analog or digital.
  • Brake Drum
  • The brake drum is a component of the braking system in vehicles.
  • It works with brake shoes to slow down or stop the vehicle by creating friction.
  • Brake drums are commonly found in rear braking systems of vehicles.
82

When a vehicle approaches an unprotected railway level crossing, what should the driver do before crossing it? 

  1. ((a))

    Wait till all the trains of the day have passed 

  2. ((b))

    Stop the vehicle on the left side of the road, and ensure that no train or trolley is coming from either side 

  3. ((c))

    Wait till hearing the horn of train and then cross 

  4. ((d))

    Sound the horn and cross the track as fast as possible 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Stop the vehicle on the left side of the road, and ensure that no train or trolley is coming from either side 

The Correct answer is Stop the vehicle on the left side of the road, and ensure that no train or trolley is coming from either side.

Key Points

  • Railway level crossings are areas where a road intersects with railway tracks, and safety precautions are vital to prevent accidents.
  • The correct safety practice is to stop the vehicle on the left side of the road and carefully check both sides for any approaching trains or trolleys.
  • This ensures that the driver has a clear view of the railway tracks and can make a safe decision to proceed.
  • Stopping and observing is particularly important because trains have long braking distances, and it is challenging for train operators to halt quickly in case of emergencies.
  • Unprotected railway crossings lack barriers or warning systems, making it necessary for drivers to personally ensure there is no immediate risk.
  • Following this protocol minimizes the chances of collisions and ensures the safety of passengers, pedestrians, and train operators.
  • It is also important to proceed cautiously after confirming that the crossing is clear.
  • In many countries, such practices are mandated by traffic regulations to ensure public safety at railway crossings.

Additional Information

  • Wait till all the trains of the day have passed
  • This option is impractical as it would lead to unnecessary delays for drivers and passengers.
  • Trains run throughout the day, and waiting for all trains would disrupt daily transportation and activities.
  • Wait till hearing the horn of train and then cross
  • Trains might not always use their horn, especially if they are far from the crossing. Relying solely on hearing the horn can be unsafe.
  • Environmental factors such as noise pollution can also make it difficult to hear the horn clearly.
  • Sound the horn and cross the track as fast as possible
  • Sounding the horn does not alert train operators effectively or guarantee safety.
  • Crossing tracks hastily can lead to accidents, especially if there is an approaching train or trolley.
83

Which of the following is not component of lighting system of a car? 

  1. ((a))

    Horn 

  2. ((b))

    Headlight  

  3. ((c))

    Rear light

  4. ((d))

    Side light

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Horn 

The Correct answer is Horn.

Key Points

  • The Horn is not a component of the lighting system of a car. Instead, it is an integral part of the car's auditory warning system.
  • The primary purpose of the horn is to emit sound to alert other drivers, pedestrians, or animals to the vehicle's presence, especially in potential collision scenarios.
  • The horn operates using an electric circuit that generates sound waves when activated.
  • It is typically located on the steering wheel for easy access and is regulated by laws and guidelines to ensure it is not overly loud or disruptive.
  • Horns are essential for road safety, but they are not related to the car's lighting system, which is primarily designed for visibility and signaling.

Additional Information

  • Headlight
  • Headlights are a crucial part of a car's lighting system. They are mounted at the front of the vehicle to provide illumination during low-light conditions, such as nighttime driving or fog.
  • They come in various types, such as halogen, LED, and xenon (HID), with LED being the most energy-efficient.
  • Headlights have dual modes: high beam for long-distance visibility and low beam for nearby illumination, minimizing glare to oncoming traffic.
  • Rear Light
  • Rear lights are mounted at the back of the vehicle and play a critical role in ensuring the vehicle is visible to others from behind.
  • They include brake lights, which light up when the brake is applied, and indicator lights for signaling turns or lane changes.
  • Rear lights enhance road safety by preventing rear-end collisions.
  • Side Light
  • Side lights, also known as parking lights, are positioned on the sides of a car to provide visibility when parked or during low-light conditions.
  • They are smaller and dimmer than headlights, primarily used to mark the presence of a vehicle.
  • In some regions, side lights are a legal requirement for parking on narrow or dimly lit roads.
84

As per BS-VI emission norms, diesel vehicles will have to reduce their HC + NOx (hydro carbon + nitrogen oxides) by ______ percent.  

  1. ((a))

    95

  2. ((b))

    82

  3. ((c))

    43

  4. ((d))

    68

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

43

The Correct answer is 43%.

Key Points

  • The BS-VI emission norms, implemented in India from April 1, 2020, represent a significant upgrade in the country's vehicular emissions standards.
  • Under BS-VI norms, diesel vehicles are required to reduce their Hydrocarbons (HC) and Nitrogen Oxides (NOx) emissions by 43% compared to the previous BS-IV standards.
  • The transition from BS-IV to BS-VI involves the use of advanced engine technologies, such as Selective Catalytic Reduction (SCR) and Diesel Particulate Filters (DPF), which help reduce emissions.
  • BS-VI fuel has a significantly lower sulfur content (10 parts per million) compared to BS-IV fuel (50 parts per million), which enables better emission control.
  • BS-VI norms aim to reduce vehicular pollution and align India's emission standards with global benchmarks like the Euro 6 standards.
  • The reduction of HC + NOx emissions is critical as these pollutants contribute to smog formation and have adverse effects on human health and the environment.
  • BS-VI norms also mandate the introduction of On-Board Diagnostic (OBD) systems to monitor and control emissions in real-time.

Additional Information

  • BS-VI Norms
  • BS-VI stands for Bharat Stage VI, the Indian equivalent of Euro 6 emission standards.
  • It was implemented in a leapfrogging manner, skipping the intermediate BS-V stage entirely, to address the severe air pollution issues in India.
  • BS-VI standards require a significant reduction in emissions of Particulate Matter (PM) and NOx, especially for diesel vehicles.
  • BS-VI also introduces Real Driving Emissions (RDE) testing to measure a vehicle's emissions in real-world conditions.
  • Hydrocarbons (HC) and Nitrogen Oxides (NOx)
  • Hydrocarbons (HC) are volatile organic compounds that contribute to the formation of ground-level ozone and smog.
  • Nitrogen Oxides (NOx) are gases that cause acid rain, respiratory problems, and contribute to the formation of fine particulate matter and ozone.
  • Reduction of HC + NOx emissions is crucial for improving air quality and mitigating climate change.
85

The technician checks the cooling system of the vehicle by topping up the ______.

  1. ((a))

    oil 

  2. ((b))

    normal water 

  3. ((c))

    acid 

  4. ((d))

    coolant

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

coolant

The Correct answer is coolant.

Key Points

  • The coolant is a specially formulated liquid used in the cooling systems of vehicles to regulate the engine temperature.
  • It prevents the engine from overheating during operation and protects it from freezing in cold climates.
  • Coolants are typically composed of a mixture of ethylene glycol or propylene glycol and water, along with additives to prevent corrosion and improve efficiency.
  • Using a coolant ensures the optimal performance of the engine by maintaining a consistent temperature range.
  • It also helps in prolonging the lifespan of the vehicle’s engine and other components by protecting them from extreme thermal stress.
  • Coolants are available in different types, such as Inorganic Acid Technology (IAT), Organic Acid Technology (OAT), and Hybrid Organic Acid Technology (HOAT), depending on the specific requirements of the vehicle.
  • Regularly checking and replacing the coolant is part of essential vehicle maintenance to avoid overheating or engine damage.

Additional Information

  • Oil
  • Oil is used for lubricating the engine and its components to reduce friction and wear.
  • It is not used in the cooling system, but it plays a vital role in maintaining the engine’s health and performance.
  • Common types of oil include synthetic oil, conventional oil, and semi-synthetic oil, depending on the vehicle type.
  • Normal Water
  • Though normal water can be used in emergencies, it is not recommended for long-term use in cooling systems.
  • Water lacks the necessary anti-corrosion and anti-freezing properties provided by coolants, which can lead to damage over time.
  • It may also cause mineral deposits and scale formation inside the cooling system, affecting efficiency.
  • Acid
  • Acid is not suitable for cooling systems as it can damage the engine components by causing corrosion.
  • Acids are typically used in industrial applications or chemical processes but are not relevant to vehicle cooling systems.
86

Temporary registration of a motor vehicle is valid for a maximum of ________.

  1. ((a))

    6 months 

  2. ((b))

    3 months 

  3. ((c))

    1 months 

  4. ((d))

    2 months 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1 months 

The Correct answer is 1 month.

Key Points

  • Temporary registration of a motor vehicle is issued to facilitate its usage before obtaining permanent registration.
  • This type of registration is valid for a maximum of 1 month as per the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988.
  • The temporary registration is usually provided by the dealer or authority where the vehicle is purchased.
  • It is intended to allow the owner sufficient time to complete the formalities for permanent registration.
  • Permanent registration is mandatory for a vehicle to legally operate on Indian roads.
  • If the vehicle owner fails to obtain permanent registration within the temporary registration validity period, they may face legal penalties as per the guidelines of state transport authorities.
  • The Central Motor Vehicles Rules (CMVR) govern the registration process for vehicles in India.
  • Temporary registration can only be extended under specific circumstances, and such extensions require approval from the concerned Regional Transport Office (RTO).
  • This provision is in place to ensure compliance with traffic laws and prevent misuse of temporary registration.

Additional Information

  • 6 months:
  • In India, there is no provision under the Motor Vehicles Act for temporary registration to be valid for 6 months.
  • The maximum validity is restricted to 1 month to ensure timely compliance with permanent registration requirements.
  • 3 months:
  • Temporary registration for 3 months is not applicable under Indian laws. The Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 clearly limits the validity period to 1 month.
  • 2 months:
  • Temporary registration for 2 months is also not allowed under current legal frameworks in India. Only exceptional cases may allow for extensions, subject to approval from RTO authorities.
87

After the expiry of period of _______ from the date of first registration, every motor vehicle is required to carry a valid PUC Certificate. 

  1. ((a))

    two years 

  2. ((b))

    six months 

  3. ((c))

    eighteen months 

  4. ((d))

    one year 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

one year 

The Correct answer is one year.

Key Points

  • According to the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, it is mandatory for all motor vehicles to have a valid Pollution Under Control (PUC) Certificate.
  • After the expiry of one year from the date of first registration, every motor vehicle must carry a valid PUC Certificate to ensure compliance with emission norms.
  • The PUC Certificate certifies that the emissions of the vehicle are within permissible limits set by the government to prevent air pollution.
  • Vehicles are subjected to emission tests at authorized PUC centers, and the certificate is issued only if the vehicle passes these tests.
  • Non-compliance with this regulation can result in penalties as per the provisions of the Motor Vehicles Act.
  • This rule is part of India's efforts to combat environmental degradation and ensure sustainable transportation.
  • The renewal period for a PUC Certificate after the first year depends on the vehicle type and its compliance with emission standards.

Additional Information

  • Two years
  • A PUC Certificate is not valid for two years after the first registration. The actual validity period is one year, as mentioned in the Motor Vehicles Act.
  • Six months
  • Six months is the renewal period for certain vehicles, especially those that are older or emit higher levels of pollutants, but it is not the initial validity period.
  • Eighteen months
  • There is no provision in the Motor Vehicles Act for a PUC Certificate to be valid for eighteen months.
88

This sign means 

  1. ((a))

    Hospital 

  2. ((b))

    No entry 

  3. ((c))

    Stop 

  4. ((d))

    No parking  

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

No entry 

The Correct answer is No Entry.

Key Points

  • The No Entry sign is a prohibitory traffic sign represented by a red circular border with a white horizontal line across it.
  • This sign indicates that entry of vehicles is not allowed from the direction in which the sign is facing.
  • It is generally installed at one-way roads, restricted areas, and security zones where the movement of traffic is prohibited from one side.
  • The main purpose of this sign is to ensure smooth traffic regulation and prevent head-on collisions or congestion.
  • Violation of this sign can lead to penalties under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 in India.
  • This traffic rule is standardized by the Indian Road Congress (IRC) and is also in alignment with international traffic conventions.
  • Such signs are especially important in high-density urban areas to maintain safe and organized traffic flow.
  • It is crucial for drivers to obey this sign to avoid legal consequences and ensure road safety.

Additional Information

  • Hospital
  • A hospital sign is an informative traffic sign usually represented with the symbol "H" on a blue background.
  • It indicates the presence of a medical facility nearby for emergencies and treatments.
  • This helps drivers identify places to seek medical assistance in case of accidents or health issues on the road.
  • Stop
  • The Stop sign is a mandatory traffic sign usually shaped as an octagon in red color with the word "STOP" written in white.
  • It requires drivers to halt completely at intersections, pedestrian crossings, or railway crossings before proceeding.
  • No Parking
  • The No Parking sign is a prohibitory sign with a red circular border and a crossed "P" symbol inside.
  • It indicates that vehicles cannot be parked at the designated spot but they may be allowed to halt temporarily for loading/unloading passengers or goods.
89

How can we reduce the air pollutions from vehicle?

I. Maintaining vehicles regularly

II. Replace old vehicles

III. Car pooling

  1. ((a))

    Only III

  2. ((b))

    I, II and III

  3. ((c))

    I and II only

  4. ((d))

    Only I

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

I, II and III

The Correct answer is I, II and III.

Key Points

  • Maintaining vehicles regularly helps in reducing emissions from vehicles. Regular servicing ensures that the vehicle's engine, exhaust system, and fuel system are working efficiently. Inefficient vehicles tend to emit higher levels of harmful gases like carbon monoxide (CO), nitrogen oxides (NOx), and hydrocarbons.
  • Replacing old vehicles is an effective measure as older vehicles tend to have outdated technology and lack advanced emission control systems. Modern vehicles are equipped with technologies such as catalytic converters and comply with stricter emission norms, which help in reducing air pollution.
  • Carpooling significantly reduces the number of vehicles on the road, thereby lowering the overall emissions. Fewer vehicles mean reduced fuel consumption and less emission of harmful pollutants like particulate matter (PM), sulfur dioxide (SO2), and greenhouse gases.
  • By adopting these measures, we can contribute to a cleaner environment and reduce the negative effects of air pollution, such as respiratory diseases, climate change, and environmental degradation.

Additional Information

  • Maintaining vehicles regularly
  • Regular vehicle maintenance involves tasks like checking tire pressure, changing engine oil, cleaning air filters, and tuning the engine.
  • Proper maintenance improves fuel efficiency, reduces emissions, and extends the vehicle's lifespan.
  • It is recommended to follow the manufacturer's service schedule for optimal results.
  • Replacing old vehicles
  • Older vehicles contribute significantly to air pollution due to their low fuel efficiency and lack of modern emission control systems.
  • Government initiatives like the Vehicle Scrappage Policy in India encourage the phasing out of old and polluting vehicles.
  • Replacing old vehicles with electric vehicles (EVs) or hybrid vehicles can further reduce emissions.
  • Carpooling
  • Carpooling is a practice where multiple people share a single vehicle for commuting, thereby reducing the number of vehicles on the road.
  • It not only helps in reducing air pollution but also decreases traffic congestion and saves fuel costs.
  • Several mobile applications and platforms facilitate carpooling by connecting commuters traveling on the same route.
90

When a traffic light is on red, you should 

  1. ((a))

    Keep to the left of the road and slow down 

  2. ((b))

    Ignore and move 

  3. ((c))

    Stop the vehicle 

  4. ((d))

    Speedup your vehicle 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Stop the vehicle 

The Correct answer is Stop the vehicle.

Key Points

  • When a traffic light is on red, it is a universal signal to stop the vehicle. This rule is followed globally to ensure road safety and prevent accidents.
  • Red lights are a part of the traffic signal system and are designed to regulate the movement of vehicles and pedestrians at intersections or road crossings.
  • Stopping at a red light allows other vehicles, pedestrians, or cyclists to safely cross the junction or intersection.
  • Failure to stop at a red light can lead to serious legal consequences, including fines, license suspension, and increased insurance premiums.
  • Stopping at a red light helps maintain traffic discipline, ensuring that every road user gets their turn to proceed.
  • It is a crucial practice for avoiding traffic congestion and ensuring the smooth flow of vehicles.
  • The red light system is also part of broader road safety laws and guidelines, which are enforced by traffic authorities worldwide.
  • Not adhering to the red light signal can lead to accidents, endangering the lives of drivers, passengers, and pedestrians.

Additional Information

  • Keep to the left of the road and slow down
  • While it is important to keep to the left and slow down in certain situations, this is not the correct response to a red traffic light.
  • This action is typically applicable in scenarios like approaching a roundabout, merging lanes, or when there is a "Give Way" sign.
  • Ignore and move
  • Ignoring a red traffic light is a traffic violation and can lead to accidents, fines, and legal consequences.
  • This action goes against the principles of road safety and traffic discipline.
  • Speed up your vehicle
  • Speeding up the vehicle at a red light is extremely dangerous and can result in collisions at intersections.
  • It is a reckless action that violates traffic rules and endangers the lives of other road users.
91

In diesel engines the fuel is atomized by the _____

  1. ((a))

    engine pump 

  2. ((b))

    fuel pump 

  3. ((c))

    fuel feed pump 

  4. ((d))

    fuel injector 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

fuel injector 

The Correct answer is Fuel Injector.

Key Points

  • A fuel injector is responsible for atomizing the fuel in diesel engines.
  • It ensures the precise and controlled delivery of atomized fuel into the combustion chamber.
  • The fuel injector sprays the fuel at a high pressure, which allows the fuel to mix effectively with air for efficient combustion.
  • In diesel engines, the combustion process relies on compression ignition, where the atomized fuel is ignited by the heat generated during compression.
  • The design of a fuel injector includes nozzles to create fine droplets of fuel for better mixing with air.
  • Fuel injectors play a critical role in enhancing the performance, fuel efficiency, and emission control of diesel engines.
  • Modern fuel injectors are designed to be highly precise, reducing fuel wastage and contributing to cleaner emissions.
  • Fuel injectors are integral components in common rail diesel engines, which are widely used in automobiles and heavy machinery.

Additional Information

  • Engine Pump
  • The term engine pump is generic and can refer to various types of pumps used in an engine, such as an oil pump or coolant pump, but it is not involved in fuel atomization.
  • Its primary function is to circulate fluids like oil or coolant to maintain engine operations and temperature control.
  • Fuel Pump
  • The fuel pump is responsible for transferring fuel from the fuel tank to the engine.
  • It does not atomize fuel but ensures that the fuel reaches the injector at the required pressure.
  • Fuel pumps are commonly found in both diesel and gasoline engines, supporting the fuel delivery system.
  • Fuel Feed Pump
  • The fuel feed pump is a type of pump used to transfer fuel from the tank to the injection pump in diesel engines.
  • Its function is limited to moving fuel through the system and does not involve atomization.
  • Fuel feed pumps are typically used in older diesel engine designs.
92

Which of the following is not part of the exhaust emission of vehicle? 

  1. ((a))

    Cl

  2. ((b))

    Nox

  3. ((c))

    Hydrocarbons  

  4. ((d))

    CO

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cl

The correct answer is Cl.

Key Points

  • Cl, or Chlorine, is not a part of the typical exhaust emissions of a vehicle.
  • Vehicle exhaust emissions primarily consist of substances that result from the combustion of fossil fuels in internal combustion engines.
  • Chlorine is not involved in the fuel combustion process and is not released as a byproduct.
  • Instead, substances like carbon monoxide (CO), nitrogen oxides (NOx), hydrocarbons, and others are common in exhaust emissions.
  • The presence of Chlorine in significant quantities in vehicle exhaust would indicate an unusual or external source, such as a malfunction or contamination.
  • Hence, Cl is not a natural component of vehicle emissions.

Additional Information

  • NOx (Nitrogen Oxides)
  • Nitrogen Oxides (NOx) are one of the major pollutants in vehicle exhaust.
  • They are formed when nitrogen and oxygen in the air react at high temperatures during fuel combustion.
  • NOx contributes to air pollution issues such as smog and acid rain.
  • Hydrocarbons
  • Hydrocarbons are unburnt or partially burnt fuel components released in vehicle emissions.
  • They are a significant contributor to the formation of ground-level ozone and smog.
  • Hydrocarbons are a result of incomplete combustion in the engine.
  • CO (Carbon Monoxide)
  • Carbon Monoxide (CO) is a colorless, odorless gas produced by the incomplete combustion of fuel.
  • It is highly toxic to humans as it interferes with the body's ability to transport oxygen.
  • CO is one of the primary pollutants regulated by emission standards worldwide.
93

A flashing yellow signal light indicate 

  1. ((a))

    Maintain current speed 

  2. ((b))

    Accelerate vehicle  

  3. ((c))

    Take left turn 

  4. ((d))

    Slow down speed and proceed safely 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Slow down speed and proceed safely 

The Correct answer is Slow down speed and proceed safely.

Key Points

  • A flashing yellow signal light is a warning signal that indicates drivers should exercise caution.
  • It advises drivers to slow down their vehicles and proceed through the intersection or area with heightened awareness of potential hazards.
  • Unlike a red light, it does not require a full stop unless necessary for safety.
  • This signal is commonly used in areas with low traffic density or at non-critical intersections.
  • The purpose of the flashing yellow light is to remind drivers to be mindful of their surroundings and to ensure safety for pedestrians and other vehicles.
  • Such signals are often installed in areas where the traffic flow needs to be maintained but with a lower speed to prevent accidents.
  • This signal is an internationally recognized traffic regulation and is part of road safety measures in most countries, including India.

Additional Information

  • Maintain current speed
  • Maintaining the current speed without slowing down is not advisable when encountering a flashing yellow signal. It may lead to accidents if hazards or other vehicles are present.
  • This option overlooks the precautionary nature of a flashing yellow light.
  • Accelerate vehicle
  • Accelerating at a flashing yellow signal is dangerous and against traffic regulations.
  • It increases the risk of collisions, as the signal is meant to warn drivers to be cautious.
  • Take left turn
  • While a flashing yellow signal does not prohibit a left turn, it does not specifically indicate that drivers must take one.
  • This option misinterprets the general purpose of the flashing yellow light, which is to proceed with caution.
94

As per BS-VI emission norms, petrol vehicles will have to effect a _____ percent reduction in their NOx or nitrogen oxide emissions. 

  1. ((a))

    50

  2. ((b))

    25

  3. ((c))

    10

  4. ((d))

    35

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

25

The correct answer is 25% reduction.

Key Points

  • BS-VI emission norms represent the stringent pollution control standards introduced by the Government of India to reduce vehicular emissions.
  • The mandate under BS-VI norms requires petrol vehicles to reduce their nitrogen oxide (NOx) emissions by 25% compared to the previous BS-IV norms.
  • Nitrogen oxides (NOx) are harmful pollutants that contribute to smog formation, acid rain, respiratory issues, and climate change.
  • The reduction of NOx emissions under BS-VI norms is achieved through improved technologies such as advanced catalytic converters, better fuel injection systems, and engine recalibration.
  • The implementation of BS-VI norms began on April 1, 2020, in India, and it marked a significant leap from BS-IV norms, skipping BS-V altogether.
  • BS-VI fuel contains 10 ppm sulfur, which is significantly lower than BS-IV fuel, thereby supporting cleaner combustion and reduced emissions.
  • The introduction of BS-VI norms aligns with India's commitment to mitigating climate change and improving air quality as part of its environmental policies and sustainable development goals.

Additional Information

  • BS-VI Norms
  • BS-VI stands for Bharat Stage VI, which is a set of regulations modeled after European emission standards.
  • These norms aim to curb pollution by controlling the emissions from internal combustion engines in vehicles.
  • BS-VI norms enforce limits on pollutants such as carbon monoxide (CO), hydrocarbons (HC), particulate matter (PM), and nitrogen oxides (NOx).
  • Impact of NOx Emissions
  • Nitrogen oxides are produced during high-temperature combustion processes, primarily in vehicles.
  • These emissions contribute to the formation of ground-level ozone, which is harmful to human health.
  • NOx also plays a role in forming fine particulate matter (PM2.5), which is linked to cardiovascular and respiratory diseases.
  • Fuel Improvement
  • BS-VI fuel contains lower sulfur levels, reducing the formation of harmful pollutants during combustion.
  • The use of cleaner fuel is a critical aspect of achieving the emission reduction targets set by BS-VI norms.
95

In a four wheeler vehicle _____ is fitted inside the vehicle for the safety of the driver and the passenger. 

  1. ((a))

    Airbag 

  2. ((b))

    Hand gloves 

  3. ((c))

    Helmet 

  4. ((d))

    Face shields 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Airbag 

The Correct answer is Airbag.

Key Points

  • Airbags are an essential safety feature fitted inside modern four-wheeler vehicles.
  • The primary function of an airbag is to provide a cushioning effect during a collision or accident, reducing the risk of severe injuries to the driver and passengers.
  • Airbags are designed to deploy rapidly in case of a crash, using sensors that detect impact intensity.
  • They help prevent direct contact between the occupants and the vehicle's interior components like the dashboard, steering wheel, and windows.
  • Airbags are usually installed in the front (driver and passenger side), and some vehicles also include side airbags, curtain airbags, and knee airbags for enhanced protection.
  • The use of airbags is mandated in many countries due to their proven effectiveness in reducing fatalities and injuries during road accidents.
  • Airbags work in conjunction with seat belts, and both are necessary for optimal safety during a collision.
  • According to global and regional road safety standards, airbags are a critical component of passive safety systems in vehicles.

Additional Information

  • Hand Gloves
  • Hand gloves are primarily used for protection during activities such as riding bikes, handling chemicals, or performing industrial tasks.
  • They are not relevant to the safety of passengers or drivers in a four-wheeler vehicle.
  • Helmet
  • Helmets are essential safety gear for two-wheeler riders and are not typically used in four-wheelers.
  • Helmets protect the head from injuries during accidents but are not applicable for four-wheeler vehicles equipped with airbags and seat belts.
  • Face Shields
  • Face shields are used for protection against hazards such as flying debris, chemical splashes, or infectious agents.
  • They are not a component of automobile safety systems, especially in four-wheeler vehicles.
96

When a pedestrian step on to a zebra line Infront of you to cross the road 

  1. ((a))

    Stop before stop line and treat it as a stop signal 

  2. ((b))

    Continue moving by ignoring him 

  3. ((c))

    You have to proceed before him 

  4. ((d))

    Sound horn and speedup your vehicle to cross before him 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Stop before stop line and treat it as a stop signal 

The Correct answer is Stop before stop line and treat it as a stop signal.

Key Points

  • Stopping before the stop line ensures the safety of the pedestrian, as it allows them to cross without interference.
  • The zebra crossing is specifically designed for pedestrian use and gives them the right of way to cross the road safely.
  • By treating the situation as a stop signal, drivers demonstrate responsible driving practices and adhere to traffic rules.
  • This behavior reduces the risk of accidents and ensures compliance with the Motor Vehicles Act or equivalent traffic regulations in the respective region.
  • Stopping at the stop line also serves as a visual indicator for other drivers, encouraging them to slow down and respect the pedestrian crossing.
  • It promotes a culture of road safety and mutual respect between pedestrians and drivers.

Additional Information

  • Continue moving by ignoring him
  • Ignoring a pedestrian on a zebra crossing is a violation of traffic rules and can lead to penalties.
  • This action puts the pedestrian's safety at significant risk.
  • You have to proceed before him
  • Proceeding before the pedestrian contradicts the purpose of a zebra crossing, which grants the pedestrian the right of way.
  • This behavior can result in legal consequences and endanger lives.
  • Sound horn and speed up your vehicle to cross before him
  • Honking and speeding up to cross before a pedestrian is reckless driving and is strictly prohibited by traffic regulations.
  • This action creates unnecessary panic for the pedestrian and increases the chances of an accident.
97

In terms of transport, what is the full form of PUC? 

  1. ((a))

    Pollution Under Control  

  2. ((b))

    Pupil Under Control 

  3. ((c))

    Population Under Control 

  4. ((d))

    People Under Control 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pollution Under Control  

The correct answer is Pollution Under Control.

Key Points

  • Pollution Under Control (PUC) is a certification issued to vehicles to ensure that their emissions comply with the prescribed norms.
  • It is mandated by the Government of India under the Central Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989 to regulate and control vehicular pollution.
  • The PUC certificate is issued after conducting an emission test on the vehicle to check levels of pollutants such as carbon monoxide (CO) and hydrocarbons (HC).
  • Vehicles that fail to meet the prescribed limits are required to undergo necessary repairs and retest to obtain a valid PUC certificate.
  • The certificate is valid for a limited period, typically 6 months, after which it needs to be renewed.
  • Having a valid PUC certificate is mandatory for all vehicles, including private and commercial vehicles, to ensure compliance with environmental standards.
  • The initiative aims to reduce air pollution, which is a significant concern in urban areas due to the increasing number of vehicles.

Additional Information

  • Pupil Under Control
  • This term is not related to transportation; it could be a hypothetical or educational term referring to managing or disciplining students in an educational setting.
  • Population Under Control
  • This refers to measures taken to manage or stabilize population growth, often achieved through family planning programs or government policies.
  • It has no direct relevance to vehicular or transport-related topics.
  • People Under Control
  • This phrase might imply a situation of governance or societal regulation but is unrelated to transportation or vehicular emissions.
98

Clutch is a part of the _______ system. 

  1. ((a))

    cooling 

  2. ((b))

    emission 

  3. ((c))

    transmission 

  4. ((d))

    lubrication 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

transmission 

The Correct answer is transmission.

Key Points

  • The clutch is an essential component of the transmission system in vehicles.
  • The primary function of the clutch is to engage and disengage the engine's power from the transmission system, allowing the driver to change gears smoothly.
  • It helps in the transfer of power from the engine to the wheels of the vehicle.
  • A clutch is typically used in manual transmission systems, where the driver operates it to change gears.
  • It plays a crucial role in starting, stopping, and shifting gears while driving.
  • The clutch mechanism generally consists of a clutch plate, pressure plate, release bearing, and flywheel.
  • By disengaging the clutch, the engine can run independently without transmitting power to the wheels.

Additional Information

  • Cooling System
  • The cooling system is designed to regulate the engine's temperature and prevent it from overheating.
  • It typically includes components like the radiator, water pump, thermostat, and coolant.
  • By dissipating excess heat generated during combustion, the cooling system ensures the engine operates efficiently.
  • Emission System
  • The emission system is responsible for reducing harmful pollutants released by the vehicle.
  • It includes components such as the catalytic converter, exhaust manifold, and oxygen sensors.
  • This system ensures compliance with emission standards set by regulatory authorities.
  • Lubrication System
  • The lubrication system ensures that engine components are properly lubricated to reduce friction and wear.
  • It includes components such as the oil pump, oil filter, and oil pan.
  • This system also helps in cooling engine parts and preventing corrosion.
99

In the year _______ Euro | emission standards were implemented nationwide in India.  

  1. ((a))

    1999

  2. ((b))

    2001

  3. ((c))

    2000

  4. ((d))

    1998

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2000

The Correct answer is 2000.

Key Points

  • Euro emission standards are a set of regulatory measures aimed at controlling the emission of pollutants from vehicles.
  • The implementation of these standards is essential for reducing the environmental impact of vehicular emissions.
  • India adopted the Euro I standards in the year 2000 as a part of its efforts to combat air pollution.
  • These standards were introduced nationwide in India, marking a significant move towards improving air quality and ensuring compliance with global environmental norms.
  • The Euro norms regulate the emission of critical pollutants such as carbon monoxide (CO), hydrocarbons (HC), nitrogen oxides (NOx), and particulate matter (PM).
  • Adoption of Euro standards in India also led to advancements in automobile technology, promoting the use of cleaner fuels and improved engine designs.
  • The implementation of Euro norms paved the way for subsequent iterations, including Bharat Stage emission standards, which are modeled on Euro standards.

Additional Information

  • 1999
  • No significant nationwide emission standard was introduced in India in 1999.
  • 2001
  • India implemented stricter emission standards after 2000, but 2001 was not the year of initial implementation.
  • 1998
  • Emission standards were not implemented on a nationwide scale in India during 1998.
100

The spark ignition engine can be differentiated from the compression ignition engine as per certain factors. Which of the following is not one of those factors? 

  1. ((a))

    The type of fuel used. 

  2. ((b))

    The way the fuel enters in the combustion chamber.  

  3. ((c))

    The type of tyres used. 

  4. ((d))

    The way in which fuel is ignited. 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The type of tyres used. 

The Correct answer is The type of tyres used.

Key Points

  • The type of tyres used is not a relevant factor in differentiating between a spark ignition (SI) engine and a compression ignition (CI) engine.
  • Tyres are a part of the vehicle's design, not the engine's operational mechanism.
  • The differentiation between SI and CI engines is based on factors such as fuel type, fuel entry mechanism, and ignition method, not external components like tyres.
  • Both SI and CI engines can use the same tyre types depending on the vehicle's design and purpose, making this parameter unrelated to engine differences.
  • This question highlights the importance of focusing on the engine's internal workings rather than unrelated vehicle components.

Additional Information

  • The type of fuel used
  • Spark Ignition (SI) engines typically use fuels like gasoline, which are more volatile and require an external ignition source (spark plug).
  • Compression Ignition (CI) engines use fuels like diesel, which ignite due to high-pressure compression without the need for a spark plug.
  • This fuel distinction is a key difference between the two engine types.
  • The way the fuel enters the combustion chamber
  • In SI engines, fuel enters the combustion chamber via a carburetor or fuel injection system that mixes air with fuel before delivering it.
  • In CI engines, fuel is injected directly into the combustion chamber under high pressure, ensuring proper atomization and mixing.
  • This mechanism is a critical factor in engine operation and efficiency.
  • The way in which fuel is ignited
  • SI engines rely on a spark plug to ignite the air-fuel mixture.
  • CI engines ignite fuel through compression ignition, where high pressure and temperature cause spontaneous combustion.
  • This ignition difference is a primary distinction between the two engine types.

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