KPSC KAS 2017-18 (Prelims) Exam Official Paper-I (Held On: 24 Aug, 2020) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV).

Key Points

• Under Article 268(1) in the Constitution Of India, stamp duties and such duties of excise on medicinal and toilet preparations as are mentioned in the Union List shall be levied by the Government of India but shall be collected:
• a) in the case where such duties are leviable within any Union territory, by the Government of India, and
• b) in other cases, by the States within which such duties are respectively leviable.
• Under Article 269(1) of the Constitution Of India, Duties on succession to property other than agricultural land shall be levied and collected by the Government of India but shall be assigned to the States.
• Under Article 270 of the Constitution Of India, Taxes on income other than agricultural income shall be levied and collected by the Government of India and distributed between the Union and the States.
• Medicinal and Toilet Preparations (Excise Duties) Act, 1955 is an act to provide for the levy and collection of duties of excise on medicinal and toilet preparations containing alcohol, (narcotic drug or narcotic).
• Article 270: All taxes and duties referred to in the Union List, except the duties and taxes referred to in articles 268 and 269, respectively, a surcharge on taxes and duties referred to in Article 271 and any cess levied for specific purposes under any law made by Parliament shall be levied and collected by the Government of India and shall be distributed between the Union and the States in the manner provided in clause (2).
• (2) Such percentage, as may be prescribed, of the net proceeds of any such tax or duty in any financial year shall not form part of the Consolidated Fund of India, but shall be assigned to the States within which that tax or duty is leviable in that year, and shall be distributed among those States in such manner and form such time as may be prescribed in the manner provided in clause (3).
• (3) In this article, “Prescribed” means -
• (i) until a Fin  ance Commission has been constituted, prescribed by the President by order, and
• (ii)after a Finance Commission has been constituted, prescribed by the President by order after considering the recommendations of the Finance Commission.’]  ​

The correct answer is Delhi.

Key Points

• The Delhi government has launched a booklet on the life and teachings of Dr BR Ambedkar for students of class 6-8 in all the Delhi government schools.
• It was launched in the year 2019 by Delhi CM Arvind Kejriwal.
• The booklet was launched on Ambedkar's 63rd death anniversary.
• The Social Welfare department of the Delhi government prepared the booklet with the help of three scholars and experts from Delhi University — Mani Sagar, Shashi Rani, and N Sukumar.
• It is a three-part booklet.
• While the first part of the booklet, ‘Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar: A Short Biography’, for Class 6 explores the life and education of Ambedkar and his social reforms, contributions to women empowerment and framing the Constitution of India, the second part for Class 7 details his contributions to social justice, and gender justice.
• The third part of the booklet for Class 8 elucidates Ambedkar’s body of work for Parliamentary democracy and government.

The correct answer is Valley glacier.

Key Points

• Kame Terraces:
• It is the landform associated with meltwater from glaciers.
• Fluvioglacial landforms are those that are created by the work of meltwater streams in front of an often retreating glacier.
• Fluvioglacial landforms include meltwater channels, kames, eskers, braided streams and outwash plains.
• They are composed of sands and gravel but form along the sides of the glacier valley rather than at its snout.
• They are produced when a meltwater stream deposits its sediments between the ice mass and the valley sides.
• Niche glaciers represent the early stages of glacier development.
• Alpine glaciers, also known as mountain glaciers form on the crests and slopes of mountains and travel through valleys.
• Plucking is type of glacial erosion that is formed when melt water from a glacier freezes around lumps of cracked and broken rock.

The correct answer is B and C only.

Key Points

• The Nayanars and Alvars were the Tamil poet-saints.
• The Nayanars were devotees of Shiva while the Alvars were the devotees of Vishnu.
• Nayanars and Alvars played a crucial role in propagating the Bhakti Movement in Southern India.
• They are 12 Alvars and 63 Nayanars in all.
• The Nayanars were a group of 63 saints who lived during the 6th to 8th centuries CE.
• Nayanars composed devotional hymns in honour of the Hindu god Shiva.
• Nayanars collective devotional poetry is known as the Thirumurai, also known as the Tamil Veda.
• Nayanar Saints:
• ​Tiru Neelakanta
• Meiporul
• Viralminda
• Amaraneedi
• Eripatha
• Yenathinathar

The correct answer is Sethuraman Panchanathan.

Key Points

• National Science Foundation (NSF):
• It is an independent federal agency created by Congress in 1950 "to promote the progress of science; to advance the national health, prosperity, and welfare; to secure the national defence."
• NSF is the only federal agency whose mission includes support for all fields of fundamental science and engineering, except for medical sciences.
• Sethuraman Panchanathan is the current director of NSF, as of June 2021.
• NSF is vital because we support basic research and people to create knowledge that transforms the future. This type of support:
• Is a primary driver of the U.S. economy.
• Enhances the nation's security.
• Advances knowledge to sustain global leadership.

The correct answer is Only C is true.

Key Points

• Corporation tax:
• Corporation Tax or Corporate Tax is a direct tax levied on the net income or profit of a corporate entity from their business, foreign or domestic.
• The rate at which the tax is imposed as per the provisions of the Income Tax Act, 1961 is known as the Corporate Tax Rate.
• The Corporate Tax rate is based on a slab rate system depending on the type of corporate entity and the different revenues earned by each of the corporate entities
• It is a tax levied on the income of corporate firms and corporations.
• Companies, both private and public which are registered in India under the Companies Act 1956, are liable to pay corporate tax. Hence, Statements C is true and A is not true.
• A Hindu Undivided Family is taxed on the same slab rates that are applicable to an individual income tax assessee. Hence, statement B is not true.
• Hindu Undivided Family ('HUF') is treated as a 'person' under section 2(31)​ of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

The correct answer is ETRSS-1.

Key Points

• ETRSS-1 (Ethiopian Remote Sensing Satellite):
• A Chinese Long March 4B rocket hoisted the first Ethiopian Remote Sensing Satellite (ETRSS-1) aloft from the Taiyuan space base in northern China on 20 December 2019.
• The satellite was developed by the China Academy of Space Technology (CAST), in collaboration with 21 Ethiopian scientists, trained on the project as part of the technology-transfer agreement between Beijing and the Ethiopian Space Science Technology Institute (ESSTI).
• It is an Earth Observation Satellite.
• It is operated by the Ethiopian Space Science and Technology Institute in Addis Ababa.
• It will provide data on changes in climate and weather-related phenomena.

The correct answer is Naleds.

Key Points

• A layer of freezing/frozen water on the top of a river, ice, or land is termed as Naleds.
• A sheet-like mass of layered ice that forms from successive flows of groundwater during freezing temperatures is termed as Naleds.
• A snow line is a boundary between a snow-covered surface and a snow-free surface.
• Cirque:
• Cirque is a type of glacial erosional landform.
• They are mountain valley heads that have been shaped into deep hollows by the erosional activity of small glaciers

The correct answer is A, C, and D.

Key Points

• Punch Marked Coins:
• They are the earliest coins available in India, which are largely in silver, with few in copper as well. Hence, statements A and D are correct.
• They were called punch-marked coins because of their manufacturing techniques.
• They are found in various shapes, sizes, and weights.
• They were marked with symbols, representing animals, hills, trees, and human figures, issued by royal authority.
• Symbols can be found on one or both sides of these coins. Hence, statement C is correct.
• The first coins in India may have been minted around the 6th century BCE by the Mahajanapadas of the Indo-Gangetic Plain.
• Several hoards of punch-marked coins have been reported from across. the country, including south India. Hence, statement B is not correct.

​

The correct answer is Ecuador.

Key Points

• Ecuador declared the State of Emergency in 2019 after Oil Spills in waters off Galapagos Islands.
• The emergency has been declared to contain the environmental impact of a fuel spill in the Galapagos Islands.
• The accident occurred in San Cristóbal Island, on Sunday, December 23, 2019.
• The crane that was trying to carry a container into the barge toppled and fell onto the barge which was destabilized and overturned leading to the oil spillage.
• The Galapagos archipelago, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, is one of the most fragile ecosystems on the planet.

The correct answer is Article 72, Part V.

Key Points

• Article 72, Part V of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence.
• Article 72 provides:
• (1) The President shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence—
• in all cases where the punishment or sentence is by a Court Martial;
• in all cases where the punishment or sentence is for an offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the Union extends;
• in all cases where the sentence is a sentence of death.
• Thus, Article 72 empowers the President to grant pardons, etc., and to suspend, remit or commute sentences in certain cases.
• As per the Constitutional framework in India, a mercy petition to the President is the last constitutional resort a convict can take when he is sentenced by the court of law.
• A convict can present a mercy petition to the President of India under Article 72 of the Constitution of India.
• ​Pardoning powers of the President come under Article 72 of the constitution.
• Pardon: To free the criminal from all Punishments.
• Commutation: To substitute one form of punishment with another without changing the sentence i.e reduction of a judicial sentence, especially a sentence of death to another less severe
• Respite: Change the nature of punishment due to some special condition i.e awarding lesser punishment due to pregnancy of women offenders.
• Reprieve: Temporarily deferred punishment.
• Remission: Reducing the period of a sentence without changing its character.

The correct answer is Structural unemployment.

Key Points

• Frictional unemployment:
• It is a type of unemployment that occurs as a result of workers switching from one job to another in searching for new jobs.
• Frictional unemployment is considered search unemployment.
• Structural unemployment:
• It is a type of unemployment that arises from the mismatch between the jobs available in the market and the available worker's skills in the market.
• This type of unemployment is caused by changes in the economy, such as deindustrialization, which leaves some unemployed workers unable to find work in new industries with different skill requirements.
• Cyclical unemployment:
• It is a type of unemployment that occurs as a result of the business cycle, where unemployment rises during recessions and declines with economic growth.
• Open unemployment is the situation when a person is willing to work, is educated but is unable to get a job and work.

The correct answer is K.C. Wheare.

Key Points

• According to KC Wheare, in practice, the Constitution of India is quasi-federal in nature and not strictly federal.
• Dr Ambedkar has said that “Our Constitution would be both unitary as well as federal according to the requirements of time and circumstances”.
• Ivor Jennings declared that India's Constitution was “far too large and therefore far too rigid”, too caged by its history, and too unwieldy to be moulded into something useful through judicious interpretations.
• Morris Jones described Indian federalism as “bargaining federalism”.

​

 

• Quasi-federalism means an intermediate form of state between a unitary state and a federation.
• It combines the features of a federal government and the features of a unitary government.
• India is regarded as a semi-federal state or a quasi-federal state as described by Prof. K.C. Wheare.
• The Supreme Court of India also describes it as a federal structure with a strong bias towards the Centre.
• Quasi-federal nature of Indian Constitution:
• Article 1 of the Constitution of India states that ‘India that is Bharat shall be a union of states’.
• The Indian model of federalism is called the quasi-federal system as it contains major features of both a federation and union.

The correct answer is 5th.

Key Points

• Global Climate Risk Index 2020:
• India was the fifth most climate-affected country in 2018, according to the Global Climate Risk Index 2020.
• India’s high rank is due to severe rainfalls, followed by heavy flooding and landslide that killed over 1000 people.
• The Global Climate Risk Index 2020 is published by International Environmental think tank Germanwatch.
• Japan, the Philippines, and Germany were found to be the most climate-affected countries in 2018 followed by Madagascar, India, and Sri Lanka.
• The Global Climate Risk Index 2020 analyses the extent to which countries and regions have been affected by weather-related events such as severe rainfall, storms, floods, and heatwaves.
• The 2020 Global Climate Risk Index is the 15th edition of the Climate Risk Index.

The correct answer is Demographic Transition Model.

Key Points

• The Migration Transition Theory put forth by Zelinsky is based upon the Demographic Transition Model.
• According to Zelinsky Migration Transition Theory, the type of migration that occurs within a country depends on how developed it is or what type of society it is.
• As per Zelinsky, the following are the five stages of migration:
• Stage 1: Premodern traditional society
• Stage 2: Early transitional society
• Stage 3: late transitional society
• Stage 4: Advanced society
• Stage 5: Future super-advanced society

The correct answer is Forms of Vishnu identified on the basis of attributes in his four hands.

 

• In the context of Hindu iconography, the term “Chaturvimsati Murti” refers to forms of Vishnu identified on the basis of attributes in his four hands.
• Vishnu can be identified by the attributes he holds in his four hands. 
• His two raised arms hold a mace or club and a discus.
• His lower hands hold a conch shell and seed; his lower right hand is in the gift-giving gesture (varada mudra).
• More lotuses are visible beneath his lower hands.

The correct answer is Sub - Lieutenant Shivangi Swaroop from Bihar.

Key Points

• Sub - Lieutenant Shivangi Swaroop:
• Sub-Lieutenant Shivangi became the first woman pilot of the Indian Navy on 2 December 2019.
• She joined operational duties at the naval base in Kerala’s Kochi.
• The sub-lieutenant, who was born in Bihar’s Muzaffarpur, currently flying the Dornier surveillance aircraft of the Indian Navy.

The correct answer is Total domestic and foreign output claimed by residents of a country

• Gross National Product (GNP) measures the value of all final goods and services produced by the residents of a country, whether the production takes place within the country (domestic output) or outside the country (foreign output).
• So, the answer is "Total domestic and foreign output claimed by residents of a country".

Key Points

• GNP represents the total value of all final goods and services produced by the residents of a country in a given year.
• The goods and services that are produced by the foreigners living in the country are excluded from GNP.
• Gross National Product (GNP) is Gross Domestic Product (GDP) plus net factor income from abroad.
• GNP takes into account the investments made by the businesses and residents of the country, living both inside and outside the country. It also takes into account the value of the products produced by the industries of domestic origin.
• GNP does not take into consideration the incomes earned by the foreign nationals in the country or any products produced by a foreign company in the manufacturing units in the country.
• GDP is the final value of the goods and services produced within the geographic boundaries of a country during a given year.

The correct answer is The President.

Key Points

• Attorney General of India:
• R. Venkataramani is the incumbent Attorney-General for India
• The Attorney General (AG) of India is a part of the Union Executive.
• AG is the highest law officer in the country.
• He is appointed by the President under Article 76 of the Constitution.
• He has the right to speak and take part in all the proceedings of both the houses of parliament including joint sittings.
• He has no right to vote.
• Qualification to become an Attorney General of India:
• He/She must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court, i.e. he/she must be a citizen of India and must have been a judge of some high court for five years or an advocate of some high court for ten years or an eminent jurist, in the opinion of the President.
• Term of the Office: Not fixed by the Constitution.
• Removal: Procedures and grounds for the removal of AG are not stated in the Constitution. S/he holds office during the pleasure of the President (may be removed by the President at any time).

The correct answer is Emigration Act, 1983.

Key Points

• The Emigration Bill, 2019, will replace the existing Emigration Act, 1983:
• According to India's Ministry of External Affairs, the new bill seeks to ensure the safety and welfare of Indians in Gulf countries and will replace the current laws under the Emigration Act of 1983.
• The Emigration Bill 2019 proposes to constitute an Emigration Management Authority (EMA) by the Centre to ensure the overall welfare and protection of emigrants.
• The draft bill proposes a three-tier institutional framework, with the MEA as the nodal ministry.
• At the top, a central Emigration Management Authority (EMA) has been proposed for policy guidance and supervision.
• In the middle, a Bureau of Emigration Policy and Planning, and a Bureau of Emigration Administration shall handle day-to-day operational matters and oversee the welfare of emigrants.
• At the bottom, nodal authorities in states and union territories shall coordinate aspects of management related to both emigrants and returnees.
• The Bill makes mandatory registration/intimation of all categories of Indian nationals proceeding for overseas employment as well as students pursuing higher studies abroad.

The correct answer is South Africa.

Key Points

• Rare earth elements
• It is also called rare earth metals, which are a group of 17 chemical elements.
• The largest subgroup within it is the 15 lanthanides.
• The two other elements are scandium and yttrium.
• Based on the quantity, the lanthanides cerium, lanthanum, and neodymium are the most produced rare earth elements.
• Yttrium, one of the rare earth that was explored first, got its name from the town where it was discovered – Ytterby, Sweden.
• Nowadays, rare earth elements are crucial for several key technologies such as medical technology and energy technology.
• They are used, among many other things, for lasers, battery electrodes, magnets, MRI contrast agents, catalysts, alloys, etc.
• It is expected that soon, most of the rare earth metals produced will be needed for manufacturing magnets and metal alloys.
• With over 140,000 metric tons produced from mines in 2020, China was also the world's largest producer of rare-earth.
• China produces most of its rare earth in the southeastern part of the country, such as in the provinces Jiangxi and Fujian, however, the production also occurs in other parts of the country such as Inner Mongolia and Sichuan.
• The United States, which is the second-largest producer of rare earth from mines, extracted some 38,000 metric tons of these mineral commodities in the same year.
• Steenkampskraal mine, which is the world's highest-grade rare earth elements mine, is located in the West Cape Province of South Africa.
• The underground mine is owned by Steenkampskraal Monazite Mine (SMM). Steenkampskraal Holdings and Steenkampskraal Worker's Trust hold respectively hold 74% and 26% stake in SMM.
• 
• Hence, Option 1 is correct.

The correct answer is A, B, and D only.

Key Points

• The study of coinage in history is called numismatics.
• The beginning of ancient Indian coinage can be traced between the 1^st millennium BCE to the 6^th Century BCE. This stage was comprised of coins that were made of copper and silver.
• The coins found in ancient Indian history were mainly stamped bars of metal.
• The metal stamped bars were inspired by the currency that was in circulation during the Janpadas in the early historical phase and evolved further with the emergence of different dynasties.
• Coinage by the Indo-Greeks
• Coins that were issued belong to the 2^nd/1^st century BCE by the Indo-Greeks.
• The Indo-Greeks system of coinage becomes significant because the minting was executed in a more refined manner.
• The coins were mostly made of silver, usually round, with exceptions too few rectangular or circular) bore the name of the issuing ruler along with depicting legends.
• For example, the coins of Menander and Strabo I show them passing through different stages of life, suggesting their long reigns.
• The language on these coins was Prakrit, inscribed mostly in Kharoshthi script.
• The Kushana type coins
• The Kushanas (1^st-4^th Centuries CE) were the first dynasty in the subcontinent that issued a large number of gold coins.
• The lower denomination was usually found in copper coins.
• The coins usually bore the figure, name, and title of the ruler on the obverse and the deities on the reverse.
• The legends are either entirely in Greek, or some cases in Kharoshthi on the reverse.
• Common to the coins issued by Indo - Greek and Kushana rulers are:
• Effigies of Greek and Indian deities
• Bilingual coins
• Portraits of Kings
• Hence, Option 3 is correct.

The correct answer is the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food, and Public Distribution.

Key Points

• Central Consumer Protection Authority
• Union Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution has recently announced to set up the Central Consumer Protection Authority. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
• The authority is being constituted under Section 10(1) of The Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
• The Act replaced The Consumer Protection Act, 1986, and seeks to widen its scope in addressing consumer concerns.
• The CCPA, introduced in the new Act, aims to protect the rights of the consumer by cracking down on unfair trade practices, and false and misleading advertisements that are detrimental to the interests of the public and consumers.
• The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 establishes the Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) whose primary objective will be to promote, protect and enforce the rights of consumers.
• It is empowered to:
• Conduct investigations into violations of consumer rights and institute complaints/prosecution.
• Order recall of unsafe goods and services.
• Order discontinuance of unfair trade practices and misleading advertisements.
• Impose penalties on manufacturers/endorsers/publishers of misleading advertisements.

The correct answer is Interest tax.

Key Points

• Revenue Receipt
• It is made up of two words revenue and receipts.
• Any income that does not generate a liability is revenue. For example, if the Government borrows money from World Bank, it will increase its liabilities (because this money has to be paid back)- so cannot be called revenue.
• However, if the government gets the same money as the grant (donation), its revenue receipt because grants are not to be paid back.
• Taxes are the most important revenue receipts of the governments.
• However, some revenue receipts are non-tax revenues such as grants. On this basis, revenue receipts are of two types viz. Tax Revenue and Non-tax revenue.
• Non-Tax Revenue
• Non Tax Revenue Receipts are those revenue receipts that are not generated by Taxing the public.
• Money which the Government earns as Dividends and profits from its profit-making public enterprises (PSUs).
• The interest which the Government earns on the money lent by it to external or internal borrowers.
• Thus these revenue receipts may be in foreign currency as well as Indian Rupees.
• The money which the government receives out of its financial services such as stamp printing, currency printing, metal printing, etc.
• Money which the Government earns from its General Services such as power distribution, irrigation, banking services, insurance, and community services, etc. which make the part of the Government business.
• Money which the government accrues as fees, fines, penalties, etc.
• Grants the Government of India receives from external sources. In the case of the State Governments, it may be the internal grant from the central Government.
• In recent times, spectrum auctions have been one of the major sources of non-tax revenues for the government. We note here, that despite its looks that the spectrum amount should be a capital receipt, it is shown as a non-tax revenue receipt  in budget documents as one-time spectrum charges levied on telecom players.
• Tax Revenues
• Tax revenues are either from direct taxes or indirect taxes.
• Direct tax generally means a tax paid directly to the government by the persons on whom it is imposed.
• Income Tax, Gift Tax, Wealth Tax, and Property tax, etc. are direct taxes.
• Interest tax is tax revenue. Hence, Option 1 is correct.

The correct answer is Reforming the existing institutions.

Key Points

• A political party
• It is a group of people who share similar political views, come together to contest elections, and try to hold power in the government.
• The members of the political parties agree on some policies and programs for the society intending to promote the collective good.
• Political parties that wish to contest local, state, or national elections are required to be registered by the Election Commission of India (EC).
• Currently, there are 6 national parties in India.
• A political party has three components: the leaders, the active members, and the followers.
• In a modern political system, there are four types of political parties:
• Reactionary political parties, which believe in old political and socio-economic systems.
• Conservative political parties believe in maintaining the status quo.
• Liberal parties believe in reforming the existing system gradually. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• Radical parties believe in changing the system very quickly and drastically, sometimes, even by overthrowing the existing institutions. Radical parties are called leftist, liberal as a centrist, and conservative and reactionaries as rightists.
• The Liberal Party seeks to advance its aims at every level of decision-making.
• It works outside as well as inside existing political structures and encourages people and communities to take and use power.
• The Liberal Party strives to translate its beliefs and aims into policies and programs which are kept under review to ensure that they meet changing circumstances. To this end, it fosters debate and discussion, both inside and outside the Party.
• To put its policies into effect, the Liberal Party seeks to identify suitable candidates from among its membership to stand for public office. It supports these candidates with briefings and training and by improving political campaigning methods.
• From time to time the Liberal Party campaigns on specific issues, and in doing so it may make common cause with other groups and organizations whose aims are compatible.
• The Liberal Party is an open and outward-looking organization, always seeking new members and encouraging the growth of Local Associations.

The correct answer is Watermelon.

Key Points

• A crop is a plant that is cultivated or grown on a large scale. In general, crops are grown so they can be commercially traded. In other words, a crop is any plant that is grown and harvested extensively for for-profit purposes.
• Types of Crops
• Two major types of crops grow in India. Namely, Kharif and Rabi. Let us take a look at these.
• Kharif Crops
• The word Kharif is Arabic for autumn since the season coincides with the beginning of autumn or winter.
• As cultivation of these crops happens in the monsoon season, another name for Kharif crop is monsoon crop.
• The Kharif season differs in every state of the country but is generally from June to September.
• We sow the crop at the beginning of the monsoon season around June and harvest by September or October. Rice, maize, bajra, ragi, soybean, groundnut, cotton are all Kharif crops.
• Rabi Crops
• The Arabic translation of the word Rabi is spring.
• As these crops harvest in the springtime hence the name.
• The Rabi season usually starts in November and lasts up to March or April.
• Cultivation of Rabi crop is mainly through irrigation since monsoons are already over by November.
• In fact, unseasonal showers in November or December can ruin the crop.
• Farmers sow the seeds at the beginning of autumn, which results in a spring harvest.
• Wheat, barley, mustard, and green peas are some of the major rabi crops that grow in India.
• Zaid Crops
• In between the rabi and the Kharif seasons, there is a short season during the summer months known as the Zaid season.
• Some of the crops produced during zaid are watermelon, muskmelon, cucumber, vegetables, and fodder crops. Sugarcane takes almost a year to grow. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• There is a short season between Kharif and Rabi season from March to July. In general, Zaid crops are crops that grow in this season.
• Also, these grow on irrigated lands. So we do not have to wait for monsoons to grow them.

The correct answer is A and C only.

Key Points

• Samudragupta 
• He was the first significant ruler of the Gupta Dynasty.
• Having come to the throne, he decided to extend the boundaries of his empire to cover the multiple kingdoms and republics that existed outside its pale.
• Known as the Napoleon of India for his conquests, he was also a man of many talents and laid a firm foundation for the empire.
• The rise of the Gupta Empire and the beginning of its prosperity are attributed to him, his military conquests, and his policies.
• Samudragupta court poet and minister Harisena composed the Allahabad pillar Inscription or Prayag Prasasti. The Pillar was an Asokan Pillar erected by Asoka six centuries before him. This Inscription is a eulogy of Samudragupta and mentions the conquests of Samudragupta and the boundaries of the Gupta Empire. As per this inscription, Samudragupta defeated 9 kings in the North, 12 Kings in the South, reduced all the Atavika states to vassalage.
• Samudragupta was defeated, captured, and later released by the kings of Palakkad, Kottura, and Avamukta. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• Violent destruction was not the only means adopted by Samudragupta.
• He made the kings of the forest states in central India his servants.
• For some other kings, it was considered sufficient if they paid tribute and gave obeisance to the Gupta emperor.
• Historical and literary evidence suggests that Chandragupta II achieved military successes against the Western Kshatrapas (also known as Shakas), who ruled in west-central India. The Allahabad Pillar inscription of Chandragupta's father Samudragupta names the Shaka-Murundas among the kings who tried to appease him. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
• The southern conquests and his northern victories enhanced Samudra Gupta’s prestige and led to several republican states like Malavas, Arjunayanas, Yaudheyas, Abiras, Madrakas, Prarjunas, Kakas, Sanakanikas, and Kharaparikas to establish friendship with him by offering tributes. Hence, Statement 4 is incorrect.
• The rulers of these states ruled over territories like Punjab, Rajasthan, Garhwal, Rohilkhand, and a large tract of Madhya Pradesh.
• So also the rulers of the north like Kartripura (Kartarpur in Jullundar district of Punjab), the ruler of Nepal and rulers of north-eastern parts of India like Samatata (which consists of valley of Brahmaputra), Kamarupa (Assam), and Davaka (Nowgong district of Assam) hastened to establish friendly relations with him. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• The Allahabad Pillar inscription mentions that the Kushana rulers of North-West India and the Saka satraps of western India also submitted to him.
• The Kushan ruler by name of Shahanushahi is said to have personally appeared before Samudra Gupta and tendered voluntary submission and agreed to accept and circulate the imperial coins as currency in his territories and offered his daughter in marriage to the emperor.
• The empire of Samudra Gupta probably extended from Afghanistan in the west to Assam in the east and from Nepal in the north to Kanchi in the south.
• To commemorate his victories he performed Ashvamedha Yaga and donated liberally to Brahmins, the poor, and the needy.

The correct answer is Dibang valley and Lohit valley.

Key Points

• The Diffo Bridge
• The Union Defence Minister Nirmala Sitharaman inaugurated the 426.60 m long Pre Stressed Concrete Box Girder type Diffo Bridge over Diffo river on Roing-Koronu-Paya road in Arunachal Pradesh.
• The construction of the bridge was undertaken by the Project Udayak of the Border Roads Organisation (BRO).
• The Diffo Bridge will provide for uninterrupted access between Dibang Valley and Lohit valley region of Eastern Arunachal Pradesh together with providing an all-weather road to our troops deployed on the China border. Hence, Option 1 is correct.

Additional Information 

• Project Udayank:
• Project Udayank of the Border Roads Organisation was raised in June 1990 at Doomdooma Assam.
• The name of the project Udayank is synonymous with the land of the rising sun which fits appropriately to the area it operates.
• It consists of two border road taskforces undertaking construction activities in the North-Eastern region.
• Border Roads Organisation (BRO):
• Border Roads Organisation (BRO) develops and maintains road networks in India’s border areas and friendly neighboring countries. Border Road Organisation has also undertaken infrastructure development activities in neighboring countries such as Afghanistan, Bhutan, Myanmar, and Sri Lanka. The Border Roads Organisation works under the Ministry of Defence. Develop & Maintain the operational road infrastructure of General Staff (GS) in the border areas. Contribute to the socio-economic development of the border states. Developing & Maintaining roads to keep the line of control through in Original Sectors and Re-deployed Sectors.
• Executing additional tasks as laid down by the government contributing to the war effort.

The correct answer is A, B, C, and D.

Key Points

• Indo-Roman trade during the early centuries of the Current Era
• The regional ports of Barbaricum (modern Karachi), Sounagoura (central Bangladesh), Barygaza (Bharuch in Gujarat), Muziris (present-day Kodungallur), Korkai, Kaveripattinam, and Arikamedu (Tamil Nadu) on the southern tip of present-day India were the main centers of this trade, along with Kodumanal, an inland city. In Bengal, the port of Tāmralipti or Tamluk was the chief trade center since very early times and was known for its exports of good-quality muslin cloth and tortoise shells. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
• Although the volume of trade between India and Rome seems to have been large, it was not carried on its articles of daily use for the commerce people there was brisk commerce in luxury goods.
• The Romans mainly imported spices for which south India was famous.
• They imported muslin, pearls, jewels, and precious stones from central and south India.
• Iron goods, especially cutlery, formed an important item of export to the Roman empire.
• Silk was directly sent from China to the Roman Empire through north Afghanistan in Iran. But the establishment of the Parthian rule in Iran and the neighboring are created difficulties
• Therefore silk had to be diverted to the western Indian ports through the northwest part of the subcontinent.
• Sometimes it also found its way from China to India via the east coast of India.
• From there was considerable transit trade in silk between India and the Roman empire.
• The Romans exported to India wine, wine-amphorae, and various other types of pottery.
• Roman writer Pliny, who wrote his account called Natural History in Latin in A.D. 77, believed that Rome was being drained of gold on account of her trade with India.
• Since the Westerners were very much fond of Indian pepper, it is called yavanpriyai
• The concept of the balance of trade may not have been known to the people.
• But numerous finds of Roman coins and pottery in the peninsula leave no doubt that India was a gainer in its trade with the Roman Empire.
• The loss of Roman money was felt so much that eventually, steps had to be taken Rome to ban its trade with India in pepper and steel goods.
• Although Roman traders resided in south India, there is little evidence for Indians residing in the Roman empire.

The correct answer is She won the Right Livelihood Award.

• The annual Right Livelihood Award
• It was created in 1980 by Swedish-German philanthropist Jakob von Uexkull.
• It honors courageous people and organizations offering solutions to the root causes of global problems, that the prize founder, felt were being ignored by the Nobel Prizes.
• Unlike most other international prizes, the Right Livelihood Award has no categories.
• It is usually shared by four Recipients but may vary from year to year.
• This year, The four laureates will receive a cash award of 1 million Swedish crowns ($103,000) each.
• Not always all Laureates receive a cash award. Often an Honorary Award is given to a person or group whose work the Jury wishes to recognize but who is not primarily in need of monetary support.
• It is Presented annually in Stockholm, Sweden.
• Although it is promoted as an "Alternative Nobel Prize", it is not a Nobel prize and does not have any organizational ties to the awarding institutions of the Nobel Prize or the Nobel Foundation.
• The Swedish teenage climate activist Greta Thunberg was recently awarded the Right Livelihood Award-2019, also known as Sweden's alternative Nobel Prize. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• She shares her award with the three other global leaders namely:
• Brazilian indigenous leader Davi Kopenawa secured the land rights of the Yanomami people.
• Chinese women's rights lawyer Guo Jianmei.
• Western Sahara human rights defender Aminatou Haidar.
• She won the award for her inspiring, unending, and amplifying efforts that demanded urgent global action from the world’s political leaders regarding climate change.
• Her FridaysForFuture campaign inspired millions of young people throughout the world to come onto the streets and demand suitable necessary actions from their respective governments.

The correct answer is Bidar and Kalaburagi.

Key Points

• The varying geographic and physiographic conditions of the State are responsible for the climatic variation in the State from arid to semi-arid in the plateau region, subhumid to humid tropical in the Ghats, and humid tropical monsoon type in the west coast plains. For meteorological purposes, the State has been divided into three sub-divisions:-
• Coastal Karnataka consisting of Dakshina Kannada, Udupi, and Uttara Kannada districts.
• North interior Karnataka consisting of Belgaum, Bidar, Bagalkote, Bijapur, Dharwad, haveri, Gadag, Gulbarga, Koppal, and Raichur districts.
• South interior Karnataka consisting of Bangalore Rural, Bangalore Urban, Bellary, Chikmagalur, Chitradurga, Kodagu, Hassan, Kolar, Mysore, Chamrajnagar, Shimoga, and Tumkur districts.
• Stations(Zones): Districts
• North East Transition Zone(Bidar): Bidar
• Northeastern Dry Zone(Raichur): Kalaburgi, Raichur, Bellary, Yadgir, Koppala
• Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• Northern Dry Zone(Vijapur): Vijayapura,Gadag,Bagalakot
• Central Dry Zone(Tumkur): Tumkur,Chitradurga, Davanagere
• Eastern Dry Zone(Bengaluru): Bangalore Rural, Bangalore Urban•, Kolar, Ramnagar, Chickballapur
• Southern Dry Zone(Mysuru): Mysore, Kodagu, Chamarajanagar, Mandya
• Southern Transition Zone(Shivamogga ): Hassan, Shimoga, Chickmagalur
• North Transition Zone(Dharwad): Dharwad, Belgaum, Haveri
• Hill Zone(Uttara Kannada ): Uttara Kannada
• Coastal Zone(Dakshin Kannada): Dakshina Kannada, Udupi

The correct answer is All four banks were established in Karnataka.

Key Points

• Corporation Bank
• It was a public-sector banking company headquartered in Mangalore, India.
• The bank had a pan-Indian presence. Presently, the bank has a network of 2,432 fully automated CBS branches, 3,040 ATMs, and 4,724 branchless banking units across the country.
• Successor: Union Bank of India
• Headquarters: Mangalore
• Founder: Khan Bahadur Haji Abdullah Haji Kasim Saheb Bahadur
• Founded: 12 March 1906, Udupi. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• Canara Bank
• It is one of the largest Indian government-owned banks. It is under the ownership of the Ministry of Finance, Government of India. It is headquartered in Bengaluru. It was established at Mangalore in 1906 by Ammembal Subba Rao Pai and later the government nationalized the bank in 1969.
• Headquarters: Bengaluru
• Founder: Ammembal Subba Rao Pai. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• Subsidiaries: Syndicate Bank
• Corporation Bank
• It was a public-sector banking company headquartered in Mangalore, India. The bank had a pan-Indian presence. Presently, the bank has a network of 2,432 fully automated CBS branches, 3,040 ATMs, and 4,724 branchless banking units across the country.
• Successor: Union Bank of India
• Headquarters: Mangalore
• Founder: Khan Bahadur Haji Abdullah Haji Kasim Saheb Bahadur. Hence, Statement 4 is correct.
• Founded: 12 March 1906, Udupi
• ​Union Bank of India
• It is one of the largest Indian government-owned banks.
• It is under the ownership of the Ministry of Finance with 120+ million customers and a total business of US$106 billion.
• Headquarters: Mumbai. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.
• Founded: 11 November 1919
• Subsidiaries: Union Bank of India (UK) Ltd
• Parent organizations: Government of India, Ministry of Finance

The correct answer is The act of RBI selling or buying government bonds from commercial banks.

• Open Market Operations (OMOs)
• This is conducted by RBI by way of sale/purchase of government securities to/from the market to adjust the rupee liquidity conditions in the market on a durable basis. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• If there is excess liquidity, RBI resorts to the sale of securities and sucks out the rupee liquidity.
• Similarly, when the liquidity conditions are tight, RBI buys securities from the market, thereby releasing liquidity into the market.
• It is one of the quantitative (to regulate or control the total volume of money) monetary policy tools that are employed by the central bank of a country to control the money supply in the economy.

 

• Long-term Repo Operations
• Under LTRO, RBI will conduct a term repo of one-year and three-year tenors of appropriate sizes for up to a total amount of Rs 1 lakh crore at the prevailing repo rate.
• As banks get long-term funds at lower rates, their cost of funds falls. In turn, they reduce interest rates for borrowers.
• LTRO helps RBI to ensure that banks reduce their marginal cost of funds-based lending rates, without reducing policy rates.
• Objectives of LTRO
• To assure banks about the availability of durable liquidity at a reasonable cost relative to prevailing market conditions.
• Further, encourage banks to undertake maturity transformation smoothly and seamlessly to augment credit flows to productive sectors.
• Maturity transformation is when banks take short-term sources of finance, such as deposits from savers, and turn them into long-term borrowings, such as mortgages.

The correct answer is August 1952.

Key Points

• National Development Council
• National Development Council (NDC) or the Rashtriya Vikas Parishad is the apex body for decision making and deliberations on development matters in India presided over by the Prime Minister.
• National Development Council was set up on August 6, 1952, to strengthen and mobilize the effort and resources of the nation in support of the Plan, to promote common economic policies in all vital spheres, and to ensure the balanced and rapid development of all parts of the country. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
• It is Non-constitutional and non-statutory.
• It is Also known as Rashtriya Vikas Parishad.
• NDC’s objective is to strengthen and mobilize the effort and resources of the nation in support of the Plan.
• The National Development Council is presided over by the Prime Minister of India and includes all Union Ministers, Chief Ministers of all the States, and Administrators of Union Territories and Members of the Planning Commission. Ministers of State with independent charge are also invited to the deliberations of the Council.

The correct answer is B and C only.

Key Points

• U.K. Sinha Committee on MSME: Hence, Pair 1 is incorrectly matched.
• Reserve Bank of India (RBI) formed a committee headed by former SEBI Chairman U.K. Sinha to study the problems faced by MSMEs.
• Form a ₹5,000 crore stressed asset fund for MSMEs which will assist units in a cluster becoming sick due to changes in external factors such as plastic ban, which had resulted in a large number of such entities becoming non-performing.
• RBI should increase the limit for non-collateralized loans to ₹20 lakh.
• It also suggested revision in the loan limit sanctioned under MUDRA by the Finance Ministry to ₹20 lakh from ₹10 lakh.
• Banks that wish to specialize in MSME lending, their sub-targets for farm loans under the priority sector lender could be waived off, and instead can be given a target for loans to the SME sector. The targets could be 50% of the net bank credit for universal banks and 80% for small finance banks.
• To provide loan portability seamlessly to MSMEs, RBI should come out with measures on the portability of MSME loans with a lock-in period of one year.
• On August 14, 2019, a committee headed by former RBI governor Bimal Jalan recommended transferring a sum of ~1,76,051 crore to the government, comprising ~1,23,414 crore of surplus for the year 2018-19 and ~52,637 crores of excess provisions identified as per the revised Economic Capital Framework (ECF).
• Nandan Nilekani Committee on Deepening digital payments: Hence, Pair 2 is correctly matched.
• To encourage digital payments, the Nandan Nilekani committee has suggested a host of measures, including elimination of charges, round-the-clock RTGS and NEFT facility, and duty-free import of point-of-sales machines.
• Bimal Jalan Committee on Economic capital framework: Hence, Pair 3 is correctly matched.
• Reserve Bank of India (RBI) accepted the Bimal Jalan panel recommendations, set up to review the Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI’s) economic capital framework.
• Following these recommendations, RBI decided to transfer Rs 1.76 lakh crore in dividend and surplus reserves to the government.
• The objective of the economic capital framework is to build harmony between the central bank’s need for autonomy and the Government's objectives of the development.
• The Bimal Jalan-led panel recommended holistic risk capital frameworks to assess the adequacy of RBI reserves.

The correct answer is Mysuru.

Key Points

• The density of Karnataka state in the current decade is 825 per sq mile. Karnataka is a state of India with a population of Approximate 6.11 Crores. The population of Karnataka state is 61,095,297. The density of Karnataka state is 319 per sq km.
• Karnataka State has spread over 191,791 Sq Km.
• Mysuru
• In 2011, Mysore had a population of 3,001,127 of which male and female were 1,511,600 and 1,489,527 respectively. In the 2001 census, Mysore had a population of 2,641,027 of which males were 1,344,670 and the remaining 1,296,357 were females.
• There was a change of 13.63 percent in the population compared to the population as of 2001. In the previous census of India 2001, Mysore District recorded an increase of 15.75 percent to its population compared to 1991.
• The initial provisional data released by census India 2011, shows that the density of the Mysore district for 2011 is 476 people per sq. km. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• Dharwad
• This city is located in the northwestern part of the Indian state of Karnataka. It is the headquarters of the Dharwad district of Karnataka and forms a contiguous urban area with the city of Hubballi. It was merged with Hubballi in 1962 to form the twin cities of Hubballi-Dharwad.
• The district has a population density of 434 inhabitants per square kilometer (1,120/sq mi).
• Its population growth rate over the decade 2001–2011 was 15.13%. Dharwad has a sex ratio of 967 females for every 1000 males, and a literacy rate of 80.3%.
• Davanagere
• In 2011, Davanagere had a population of 1,945,497 of which male and female were 986,400 and 959,097 respectively.
• There was a change of 8.63 percent in the population compared to the population as of 2001. In the previous census of India 2001, Davanagere District recorded an increase of 14.86 percent to its population compared to 1991.
• The initial provisional data released by census India 2011, shows that the density of Davanagere district for 2011 is 328 people per sq. km.
• Dakshina Kannada
• In 2011, Dakshina Kannada had a population of 2,089,649 of which males and females were 1,034,714 and 1,054,935 respectively. In the 2001 census, Dakshina Kannada had a population of 1,897,730 of which males were 938,434 and the remaining 959,296 were females.
• There was a change of 10.11 percent in the population compared to the population as of 2001. In the previous census of India 2001, Dakshina Kannada District recorded an increase of 14.59 percent to its population compared to 1991.
• The initial provisional data released by census India 2011, shows that the density of Dakshina Kannada district for 2011 is 430 people per sq. km.

The correct answer is Nagavi, Lakkundi, Salotagi, Hariharapura.

Key Points

• Agraharas
• Agraharas were exclusive townships founded by kings, queens, big officers, and philanthropic rich men to further the cause of education.
• Scholars were invited and were made to settle at these places by donating them with land for their living.
• Although the Agraharas consisted of Brahmin settlements, others also used to live there. Otherwise, they would live in the nearby hamlets, known as Kaluvallis, carved out of the land donated for scholars, who were known as Mahajanas.
• The famous agraharas of Karnataka are Nagavi, Lakkundi, Salotagi, Hariharapura. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• Agraharas were centers of higher learning, and the Brahmins living there were expected to pursue with earnestness, the Shatkarmas (Yajana, Yaajana, Adhyayana, Adhyaapana, Daana, and Pratigraha) and master the fourteen branches of learning, starting with the Vedas.
• Such Agraharas could be found all over the country. The word Agrahara connotes the settlement of scholars. Ghatikasthanas were examination centres for the candidates trained in these Agraharas. Gadag, Lakshmeshwara, Potteyuru, Kotumachigi, and others had such Ghatikasthanas. They used to house Traipurusha temples.
• While the Agraharas were exclusive settlements for Brahmins, Brahmapuris were rows of houses of scholars doing the same duties as the Brahmins of the Agraharas. Mutts were established in the vicinity of temples, where both the teacher and the taught lived together. One of the Brahmins among those who lived in the Agrahara would be appointed on .akkariga vritti. to teach young children.
• Those Agraharas, which were established when Shaivism became dominant, came to be known as Shivapuris. After the advent of Veerashaivism, there was a prolific establishment of Mutts, which became centers of Primary Education. Such Mutts were in existence even at the beginning of this century. Apart from these, there were private teaching centers, which were known as Odisuva Mutt, Kooli Mutt, and Sali Mutt.

The correct answer is Rs.69,000 Crores.

Key Points

• Allocated to the Healthcare sector in the Union Budget 2020 - 21.
• The total allocation of Rs 69,000 crore for the health sector in Union Budget 2020-21 fiscal, with Rs 6,400 crore earmarked for the Centre's flagship health insurance scheme Prime Minister Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY). Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• In the Union budget, Rs 65,011.8 crore has been allocated to the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, up from Rs 62,659.12 crore in 2019-20.
• An allocation of Rs 2,100 crore has been made to the Department of Health Research in the 2020-21 Budget.
• The Ministry of AYUSH has been allocated Rs 2,122.08 crore for the next fiscal.
• TB Harega Desh Jeetega campaign has been launched to end Tuberculosis by 2025.
• The Finance Minister also announced the expansion of the Jan Aushadhi Kendra Scheme to all districts, offering 2,000 medicines and 300 surgical by 2024.
• The government, to give impetus to domestic industry and to generate resources for health services, has proposed to impose a nominal health cess of 5 percent on imports of specified medical equipment.
• FIT India movement is a vital part of the fight against non-communicable diseases coming out of lifestyle issues, she said.
• A very focused safe water (JalJeevan Mission) and comprehensive sanitation program (Swachch Bharat Mission) have been launched to support the health vision.

The correct answer is A.

Key Points

• The Lodh Falls 
• It is also known as Budha Ghagh is a waterfall in a mid forest of Palamu Tiger Reserve, South division of Latehar district ( 14 km from mahua dand) in Jharkhand state in India.
• It is the highest waterfall in Jharkhand and the 21st highest waterfall in India.
• It is located on the Burha River, deep in the forest of the Latehar district the Chota Nagpur Plateau. Hence, Pair 1 is incorrectly matched.
• It is also part of India's only sanctuary for the conservation of Indian Grey Wolf, known as Mahuadanr Wolf Sanctuary.
• The Lodh Falls is a tiered waterfall with multiple distinct drops in relatively close succession. It is 143 meters (469 ft) high. The thundering sound of the fall is audible even 10 km away.
• The Dhuandhar Falls
• It is a waterfall in the Jabalpur district in the Indian state of Madhya Pradesh.
• The Dhuandhar Falls are located on the Narmada River in Bhedaghat and are 30 meters high. Hence, Pair 2 is correctly matched.
• The Narmada River, making its way through the world-famous Marble Rocks, narrows down and then plunges in a waterfall known as Dhuandhaar. The plunge, which creates a bouncing mass of mist, is so powerful that its roar is heard from a far distance.
• The best time to visit Dhuandhar falls is during Sharad Purnima when Narmada Mahotsava gets celebrated.
• The white marble appears spectacular when the moonlight falls on it and gives it a silver appearance. Once in Dhuandhar don't forget to have a pleasure boat ride in the valley of white marble which appears yellow during sunsets.
• Dudhsagar Falls
• It is a four-tiered waterfall located on the Mandovi River in the Indian state of Goa. Hence, Pair 3 is correctly matched.
• It is 60 km from Panaji by road and is located on the Belgaum–Vasco da Gama rail route about 46 km east of Madgaon and 80 km south of Belagavi.
• Gokak
• The Gokak Falls is a waterfall located on the Ghataprabha River in the Belagavi district of Karnataka, India. Hence, Pair 4 is correctly matched.
• The waterfall is six and a half kilometers away from Gokak town.
• 

The correct answer is Secondary market.

Key Points

• Capital Market
• Capital Market is an institutional arrangement for borrowing medium and long-term funds and which provides facilities for marketing and trading of securities.
• So it constitutes all long-term borrowings from banks and financial institutions, borrowings from foreign markets, and raising of capital by issue various securities such as shares, debentures, bonds, etc.
• The securities market has two different segments namely-
• Primary markets
• Secondary markets
• The primary market consists of arrangements for procurement of long-term funds by companies by the fresh issue of shares and debentures.
• The secondary market or stock exchange provides a ready market for existing long-term securities.
• The stock exchange is the secondary market, which provides a place for regular sale and purchase of different types of securities like shares, debentures, bonds & government securities.
• It is an organized market where all transactions are regulated by the rules and laws of the concerned stock exchanges.
• Hence, Option 2 is correct.

Additional Information

• Secondary Markets or Stock Exchanges :
• The functions of stock exchanges are to provide a ready and continuous market for securities, information about prices and sales, safety to dealings and investment, helps mobilization of savings and capital formation.
• It acts as a barometer of economic and business conditions and helps in better allocation of funds.
• Stock exchanges provide many benefits to companies, investors, and society as a whole.
• But they also suffer from limitations like exclusive speculation and fluctuation in prices due to rumours and unpredictable events.
• There are 21 stock exchanges in India presently, including BSE, NSE, and OTCEI. Stock Exchanges are regulated by the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act and by SEBI.
• SEBI has initiated several reforms in the primary and secondary markets to regulate the stock market.

The correct answer is Khangchendzonga Biosphere Reserve.

Key Points

• Khangchendzonga Biosphere Reserve:
• In 2018, the Khangchendzonga Biosphere Reserve became the 11th Biosphere Reserve from India that has been included in the UNESCO designated World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR). Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The decision to include Khangchendzonga Biosphere Reserve in WNBR was taken at the 30th Session of the International Coordinating Council (ICC) of Man and Biosphere (MAB) Programme of UNESCO
• Khangchendzonga Biosphere Reserve in Sikkim is one of the highest ecosystems in the world, reaching elevations of 1,220 meters above sea level.
• It includes a range of ecolines, varying from sub-tropic to the Arctic, as well as natural forests in different biomes, that support an immensely rich diversity of forest types and habitats.
• The core zone – Khangchendzonga National Park was designated a World Heritage Site in 2016 under the ‘mixed’ category.

Additional Information

• India has 18 Biosphere Reserves and with the inclusion of Khangchendzonga, the number of internationally designated World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR) has become 12, with 6 Biosphere Reserves being domestic Biosphere Reserves.
• Internationally designated Biosphere Reserves in India and the year of their inclusion are:
• Nilgiri, 2000
• Gulf of Mannar, 2001
• Sunderban, 2001
• Nanda Devi, 2004
• Nokrek, 2009
• Pachmarhi, 2009
• Similipal, 2009
• Achanakmar-Amarkantak, 2012
• Great Nicobar, 2013
• Agasthyamala, 2016
• Khangchendzonga, 2018
• Panna biosphere reserve, 2020
• The World network of biosphere reserves is part of the UNESCO Man and Biosphere Project.
• Man and the Biosphere Programme (MAB) is an intergovernmental scientific program, launched in 1971 by UNESCO.
• The World Network of Biosphere Reserves currently counts 714 sites in 129 countries all over the world, including 21 transboundary sites.
• The main objective of the Man and the Biosphere Programme is:-
• To identify and assess the changes in the biosphere resulting from human and natural activities and the effects of these changes on humans and the environment, in particular in the context of climate change.
• To study and compare the dynamic interrelationships between natural/near-natural ecosystems and socio-economic processes, in particular in the context of the accelerated loss of biological and cultural diversity with unexpected consequences that impact the ability of ecosystems to continue to provide services critical for human well-being.
• To ensure basic human welfare and a liveable environment in the context of rapid urbanization and energy consumption as drivers of environmental change.
• To promote the exchange and transfer of knowledge on environmental problems and solutions, and to foster environmental education for sustainable development.

The correct answer is A, B, C and D are correct

Key Points

• There are four major types of coal:
• Anthracite: The highest rank of coal. It is a hard, brittle, and black lustrous coal, often referred to as hard coal, containing a high percentage of fixed carbon and a low percentage of volatile matter. Hence, statement A is correct.
• Bituminous:
• Bituminous coal also called soft coal is middle-rank coal between sub-bituminous and anthracite. Hence, statement C is correct.
• It is the most abundant type and one of the longest buried fossil fuels—with an age of approximately 300 million years old.
• The high carbon and low moisture content of this particular type of coal make it ideal in the production of steel and cement, as well as in electricity generation and coke production. Hence, statement D is correct.
• It is the most popular coal used for metallurgy. Hence, statement B is correct.
• Subbituminous: Subbituminous coal is black in color and is mainly dull (not shiny). Subbituminous coal has low-to-moderate heating values and is mainly used in electricity generation.
• Lignite: Lignite coal, also known as brown coal, is the lowest grade coal with the least concentration of carbon. Lignite has a low heating value and a high moisture content and is mainly used in electricity generation.

• Coal is the most abundantly found fossil fuel.
• It is used as a domestic fuel, in industries such as iron and steel, steam engines and to generate electricity. Electricity from coal is called thermal power.
• The coal which we are using today was formed millions of years ago when giant ferns and swamps got buried under the layers of earth. Coal is therefore referred to as Buried Sunshine.
• The leading coal producers of the world are China, the USA, Germany, Russia, South Africa, and France. The coal-producing areas of India are Raniganj, Jharia, Dhanbad, and Bokaro in Jharkhand.

The correct answer is S. R. Rao.

Key Points

• Dr. Shikaripur Ranganatha Rao (1st July,1922-January 3, 2013) was a scientist and a former Director of the Archaeological Survey of India.
• Among his projects, two excavations have received much attention. The first was at Lothal in present-day Gujarat which is considered a port from the Harappan civilization and the second was at Bet Dwaraka (also in present-day Gujarat) wherein Rao unearthed what he claimed were parts of a submerged city that was built by Krishna from the Mahabharata.
• Dr. S. R.Rao excavated about fifty Harappan, Late Harappan, and Post Harappan sites in India.
• He opined that ‘Indus Valley cities received the gold from Kolar and Hatti gold mines’

Important Points

• Indus Valley Civilisation is the earliest known urban culture of the Indian subcontinent.
• The nuclear dates of the civilization appear to be about 2500-1700 BCE, though the southern sites may have lasted later into the 2nd millennium BCE.
• The civilization was first identified in 1921 at Harappa in the Punjab region and then in 1922 at Mohenjo-Daro (Mohenjodaro), near the Indus River in the Sindh (Sind) region.

The correct answer is Directive Principles of State Policy.

Key Points

• The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution from Articles 36 to 51.
• The framers of the Constitution borrowed this idea from the Irish Constitution of 1937, which had copied it from the Spanish Constitution.
• Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described these principles as ‘novel features’ of the Indian Constitution.
• The Directive Principles along with the Fundamental Rights contain the philosophy of the Constitution and are the soul of the Constitution.
• Granville Austin has described the Directive Principles and the Fundamental Rights as the ‘Conscience of the Constitution.

Important Points

• Directive Principles of State Policy as mentioned in the constitution:

The correct answer is All of the above.

Important Points

• United Nations' Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem (IBPES) Global Assessment Report on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services:
• It is the most comprehensive report ever completed, Compiled by 145 expert authors from 50 countries over the past three years, with inputs from another 310 contributing authors, the Report assesses changes over the past five decades, providing a comprehensive picture of the relationship between economic development pathways and their impacts on nature.
• Key Findings of the report:-
• The report finds that around 1 million animal and plant species are now threatened with extinction, many within decades, more than ever before in human history.
• 75%: terrestrial environment “severely altered” to date by human actions (marine environments 66%)
• Less than 85% of wetlands present in 1700 had been lost by 2000 – loss of wetlands is currently three times faster, in percentage terms than forest loss.
• Climate change and rising sea levels eventually may wipe out one of the world’s last and largest tiger strongholds. Hence, statement A is correct.
• Less than 500,000 (+/-9%) share of the world’s estimated 5.9 million terrestrial species with insufficient habitat for long-term survival without habitat restoration.
• 25%: average proportion of species threatened with extinction across terrestrial, freshwater, and marine vertebrate, invertebrate, and plant groups that have been studied in sufficient detail.
• 30%: reduction in global terrestrial habitat integrity caused by habitat loss and deterioration.
• The cats are among 5,00,000 land species where survival is in question because of threats to their natural habitats. Hence, statement C is correct.

Additional Information

• The Sundarbans mangrove forest, the largest of such forests in the world (10,000 square kilometers), lies on the delta of the Ganges, Brahmaputra, and Meghna rivers on the Bay of Bengal.
• The area is known for its wide range of fauna, including 260 bird species, the Bengal tiger, and other threatened species such as the estuarine crocodile and the Indian python. Hence, statement B is correct.

The correct answer is March 1992

Key Points

• The Indian government introduced the Liberalised Exchange Rate Management System (LERMS) in March 1992.
• The new system was announced by Manmohan Singh in the 1992 budget and, in early March, by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
• This was the initial step to enable a transition to a market-determined exchange rate system.
• It opened up the way for exporters to realize 60% of their proceeds or earnings at the market rate while surrendering the rest at the official rate.
• In other words, India moved from a fixed to a dual exchange rate system.
• Foreign exchange surrendered at the official rate was made available for importing essential items or products, including petroleum, fertilizers, and life-saving drugs.

Important Points

• An exchange rate is the value of one nation's currency versus the currency of another nation or economic zone.
• Exchange rates can be either fixed or floating.
• Fixed exchange rates are decided by the central banks of a country whereas floating exchange rates are decided by the mechanism of market demand and supply.

The correct answer is 2016 - National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA) - Union Minister of Jal Shakti.

Key Points

• National Ganga River Basin Authority(NGRBA) was constituted under the provisions of the Environment Protection Act (EPA), 1986.
• NGRBA has since been dissolved with effect from the 7th October 2016, consequent to the constitution of the National Council for Rejuvenation, Protection, and Management of River Ganga (referred to as National Ganga Council). Hence, option 3 is correct.
• The Prime Minister is the ex-officio Chairperson for the National Ganga Council.

Important Points

• The Empowered Task Force (ETF) on the River Ganga was constituted by the government of India in 2016.
• It is under the chairmanship of the erstwhile Union Minister for Water Resources, River Development & Ganga Rejuvenation (now union minister of Jal shakti). Hence, option 3 is correct.
• It consists of the Secretary of concerned Ministries and Chief Secretary of State and CEO, NITI Aayog.

The correct answer is Dr. A. S. Altekar.

Key Points

• Dr. A.S. Altekar (24 September 1898 - 25 November 1960) was a historian, archaeologist, and numismatist from Maharashtra, India.
• He was the head of the Department of Ancient Indian History and Culture at Banaras Hindu University in Varanasi.
• In his book 'Rashtrakuṭas and their times' he argued that Rastrakutas were of Kannada origin, contrary to the argument that Rastrakutas were of Maharashtrian or Telugu origin.
• He also wrote a book named The Vakataka-Gupta Age.

Important Points

• The Rashtrakuta Dynasty ruled parts of South India from the 8th to the 10th century CE.
• At its zenith, their kingdom included the modern state of Karnataka in its entirety along with parts of the current Indian states of Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Maharashtra, and Gujarat.
• Dantidurga (735–756 AD) is considered the founder of the Rashtrakuta Empire of Manyakheta.

The correct answer is Both A and B are correct.

Key Points

• Population structure refers to the number of females and males in different age groups. Hence statement A is correct.
• A population pyramid is used to show the age-sex structure of the population. Hence statement B is correct.
• The shape of the population pyramid reflects the characteristics of the population.
• In a population pyramid, the size of the population under investigation is depicted on the horizontal axis, and age is aligned on the vertical axis.
• The result is a series of bars stacked on top of one another, each representing an age category, with the youngest age group represented by the bottom bar and the oldest age group by the uppermost bar.

Additional Information

Age Structure:

• Age structure represents the number of people of different age groups.
• This is an important indicator of population composition since a large size of the population in the age group of 15- 59 indicates a large working population.
• A greater proportion of the population above 60 years represents an aging population that requires more expenditure on health care facilities.
• Similarly, a high proportion of the young population would mean that the region has a high birth rate and the population is youthful.

The correct answer is Madakari Nayaka V.

Key Points

• Madakari Nayaka V was the son of Bharamappa Nayaka of Janakal Durga and succeeded Kasturi Rangappa Nayaka as the ruler of Chitradurga in 1754.
• Chitradurga at that time was caught between two major powers like Mysore under Hyder Ali and the Marathas.
• In 1762 after subduing the palegars of Rayadurga and Harapanahalli, Hyder Ali asked Madakari Nayaka to submit.
• When Madakari Nayaka procrastinated, Hyder’s cavalry overran the whole principality of Chitradurga, and Madakari was forced to compromise.
• Madakari Nayaka V joined Maratha Peshwa Madhav Rao in the battle of Annavati and defeated the Mysore force led by Hyder Ali. But the Hyder Ali attacked and defeated Chitradurga.
• King Madakari Nayaka V was imprisoned in Srirangapatna in 1779 AD.

Important Points

• Hyder Ali was the ruler of Mysore princely state and military commander who played an important part in the wars in southern India in the mid-18th century.
• In a series of wars involving the British with some French assistance, the Marathas and the Nizam of Hyderabad he gained and lost territory.
• He was succeeded by his son Tipu Sultan.

The correct answer is Madhuri Kanitkar and Rajiv Kanitkar.

Key Points

• Lieutenant General Dr. Madhuri Kanitkar was promoted to the post of Lieutenant General from the post of Major General.
• This is the third-highest rank in the Army and she is the third woman officer to attain this position.
• She was formerly the Dean of the Armed Forces Medical College.
• She also holds the unique distinction of being the first woman pediatrician to be elevated to this rank for Indian Army Doctors and is the only doctor on the Prime Minister’s STIAC (S&T) Innovation Advisory Committee.
• Dr. Kanitkar is also the first trained pediatric nephrologist of the armed forces.
• Lieutenant General Dr. Madhuri Kanitkar and her husband, Lt. Gen. Rajeev Kanitkar, are the only couple in the Indian Armed Forces’ history to have reached this rank of Lieutenant General.

Important Points

• Ranks in the Indian army (top to bottom):

1. Field Marshal
2. General
3. Lieutenant General
4. Major General
5. Brigadier
6. Colonel
7. Lieutenant Colonel
8. Major
9. Captain
10. Lieutenant
11. Subedar Major
12. Subedar
13. Naib Subedar
14. Havaldar
15. Naik
16. Lance Naik
17. Sepoy

The correct answer is Legal Right.

Key Points

• Legal rights are the rights that exist under the rules of legal systems or by virtue of decisions of suitably authoritative bodies within them.
• Protection of women from Domestic Violence is a legal right because it is recognized by the 'The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005'.
• Protection of women from Domestic Violence is neither provided in the chapter of fundamental rights in the constitution nor it is provided as a Constitutional Right.

Important Points

• The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005
• The Act, in a bold break from prior legislation, gives a very expansive definition to the term domestic violence, a term hitherto not even used in legal parlance.
• Domestic violence is defined in a comprehensive way in the Act, comprising physical, mental, verbal, emotional, sexual, and economic abuse, harassment for dowry, acts of threatening to abuse the victim or any other person related to her.
• An important addition to the law ensures that an aggrieved wife, who takes recourse to the law, cannot be harassed for doing so.
• A woman who is the victim of domestic violence will have the right to the services of the police, shelter homes, and medical establishments.
• She also has the right to simultaneously file her own complaint under Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code.
• The Act is an extremely progressive one not only because it recognizes women who are in a live-in relationship but also extends protection to other women in the household, including sisters and mothers thus the Act includes relations of consanguinity,

The correct answer is D.

Key Points

The correct answer is Stop Soil Erosion, Save our Future.

Key Points

• Every year, December 5 is celebrated as World Soil Day.
• The day highlights the soil's importance on Earth.
• The day was first celebrated on December 5, 2012, corresponding with the birthday of Thai King Bhumibol Adulyadej, who officially sanctioned the event.
• However, back in 2002, the International Union of Soil Sciences (IUSS) made a resolution to propose December 5 as World Soil Day.
• The theme for World Soil Day, 2019: Stop Soil Erosion, Save our Future.
• The theme for World Soil Day, 2020: Keep soil alive, protect soil biodiversity.

Additional Information

• International Union of Soil Sciences (IUSS) is the global union of soil scientists.
• The objectives of the IUSS are to promote all branches of soil science and to support all soil scientists across the world in the pursuit of their activities.
• The International Union of Soil Sciences (IUSS) was founded as the International Society of Soil Science (ISSS) on 19th May 1924.
• Headquarters: Vienna
• President: Laura Bertha Reyes Sánchez

The correct answer is 1992.

Key Points

• Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is a statutory body and a market regulator, which controls the securities market in India.
• The basic functions of SEBI are to protect the interests of investors in securities and to promote and regulate the securities market.
• SEBI is run by its board of members. The board consists of a Chairman and several other whole time and part-time members. The chairman is nominated by the union government.
• Before SEBI came into existence, the Controller of Capital Issues was the regulatory authority; it derived authority from the Capital Issues (Control) Act, 1947.
• In 1988, SEBI was constituted as the regulator of capital markets in India.
• Initially, SEBI was a non-statutory body without any statutory power. Following the passage of the SEBI Act by Parliament in 1992, it was given autonomous and statutory powers.

Additional Information

• Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT):
• SEBI also appoints various committees, whenever required to look into the pressing issues of that time.
• Further, a Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) has been constituted to protect the interest of entities that feel aggrieved by SEBI’s decision.
• SAT consists of a presiding officer and two other members.

The correct answer is Bangla.

Key Points

• Renaming of West Bengal
• The West Bengal assembly in 2018 passed a resolution to rename the state as Bangla.
• The central government refused the West Bengal assembly's demand to change West Bengal's name to Bangla.
• The Centre had in the past rejected the state government’s proposal of having three names i.e. Bangla (in Bengali), Bengal (in English) and Bangal (in Hindi).
• The West Bengal state government’s move to rename West Bengal as ‘Paschim Bango’ in 2011 was also turned down by the Centre.

• Renaming of states:
• The renaming of a state requires Parliamentary approval under Articles 3 and 4 in schedule 1 of the Constitution, and the President has to refer the same to the relevant state legislature for its views.
• When the fresh proposal comes to the home ministry, it will prepare a note for the Union cabinet for an amendment to Schedule 1 of the constitution.
• After that, the constitution amendment Bill will be introduced in parliament, which has to approve it with a simple majority, before the president gives his assent to it.

The correct answer is The Chairman and members of the Commission hold office for a term of 5 years.

Key Points

Union Public Service Commission (UPSC): 

• The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is the central recruiting agency in India.
• It is an independent constitutional body in the sense that it has been directly created by the Constitution.
• Articles 315 to 323 in Part XIV of the Constitution contain elaborate provisions regarding the composition, appointment, and removal of members along with the independence, powers, and functions of the UPSC.
• The tenure of Chairman as well as other members of UPSC is of 6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier. Hence, option 1 is not correct.

• Composition of UPSC: 
• The UPSC consists of a chairman and other members appointed by the president of India.
• The chairman and members of the Commission hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
• However, they can relinquish their offices at any time by addressing their resignation to the president.
• They can also be removed before the expiry of their term by the president in the manner provided in the Constitution.
• The President can remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC from the office under the following circumstances:
• If he is adjudged an insolvent (that is, has gone bankrupt);
• If he engages, during his term of office, in any paid employment outside the duties of his office; or
• If he is, in the opinion of the president, unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body.
• In addition to these, the president can also remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC for misbehaviour.
• Current Chairman of UPSC: Dr. Manoj Soni

The correct answer is Reservation for economically weaker sections in government jobs and education.

Key Points

• The 124th Constitution Amendment Bill, 2019: 
• The Bill seeks to provide for the advancement of “economically weaker sections” of citizens.
• The Bill seeks to amend Article 15 to additionally permit the government to provide for the advancement of “economically weaker sections”.
• Further, up to 10% of seats may be reserved for such sections for admission in educational institutions.
• Such reservation will not apply to minority educational institutions.
• The Bill seeks to amend Article 16 to permit the government to reserve up to 10% of all posts for the “economically weaker sections” of citizens.
• The reservation of up to 10% for “economically weaker sections” in educational institutions and public employment will be in addition to the existing reservation.
• The central government will notify the “economically weaker sections” of citizens on the basis of family income and other indicators of economic disadvantage.

Additional Information

• Article 15 of the Constitution prohibits discrimination against any citizen on the grounds of race, religion, caste, sex, or place of birth. However, the government may make special provisions for the advancement of socially and educationally backward classes, or for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
• Article 16 of the Constitution prohibits discrimination in employment in any government office. However, the government can allow reservation for any “backward class of citizens”, if they are not adequately represented in the services under the state.

The correct answer is Andaman & Nicobar.

Key Points

• Andaman & Nicobar has 9 national parks.
• Arunachal Pradesh has 2 national parks.
• Assam has 6 national parks.
• Meghalaya has 2 national parks.

  

• National parks in Andaman & Nicobar:

The correct answer is ​Rs. 6,000/year.

Key Points

• Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN):
• The Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi Yojana (PM-Kisan Yojana) is a government scheme through which, all small and marginal farmers will get up to Rs 6,000 per year as minimum income support.
• The PM Kisan Yojana came into effect on December 1, 2018.
• Under the PM Kisan Yojana, income support of Rs 6000 per annum is provided to all eligible farmer families across the country in three equal installments of Rs 2,000 each every four months.
• The scheme defines a family as a husband, wife, and minor children.
• The fund of Rs 2,000 is directly transferred to the bank accounts of the farmers/farmer's family.

Additional Information

• Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maandhan Yojana: 
• Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maandhan Yojana is a government scheme meant for old age protection and social security of Small and Marginal Farmers (SMF).
• All Small and Marginal Farmers having cultivable landholdings up to 2 hectares falling in the age group of 18 to 40 years, whose names appear in the land records of States/UTs as of 01.08.2019 are eligible to get benefit under the Scheme.
• Under this scheme, the farmers would receive a minimum assured pension of Rs 3000/- per month after attaining the age of 60 years and if the farmer dies, the spouse of the farmer shall be entitled to receive 50% of the pension as a family pension.
• Family pension is applicable only to spouses.

The correct answer is Raichur Doab region.

Key Points

• Raichur Doab region:
• It is a triangular region of land in the southern Indian states of Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka lying between the rivers Tungabhadra and Krishna.
• The doab had been an area of contention between the Bahmani kingdom and the Vijayanagar empire.
• Claims and counterclaims of victory show that neither side gained effective and lasting control over the doab, and the struggle extended eventually into the Konkan and Andhra regions.

• Vijayanagar empire:
• Harihar and Bukka founded this independent kingdom in the region between the river Krishna and Tungabhadra in 1336.
• The most famous king of the Vijaynagara Empire was Krishnadeva Raya. The Vijayanagar kingdom reached the pinnacle of its glory during his reign.
• The decline of the Vijayanagar kingdom began with the death of Krishnadeva Raya in 1529.
• The kingdom came to an end in 1565, when Ramrai was defeated at Talikota by the joint efforts of Adilshahi, Nizamshahi, Qutubshahi, and Baridshahi.
• Bahmani Kingdom:
• The Muslim kingdom of Bahmani was established by some nobles of the Deccan who revolted against the repressive policies of Sultan Muhammed Tughlaq.
• In 1347, Hasan became the king under the title Abdul Muzaffar Ala-Ud-Din Bahman Shah and founded the Bahmani dynasty.
• This dynasty lasted for about 175 years and had 18 rulers.

The correct answer is International Year of Plant Health (IYPH).

Key Points

• In December 2018, the United Nations General Assembly adopted a Resolution declaring 2020 as the International Year of Plant Health (IYPH). Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The year is a once-in-a-lifetime opportunity to raise global awareness on how protecting plant health can help end hunger, reduce poverty, protect the environment, and boost economic development.
• To support the IYPH proclamation, the Commission on Phytosanitary Measures established the International Plant Protection Convention (IPPC) IYPH Steering Committee in 2016, which currently serves as IYPH Technical Advisory Board (IYPH TAB).
• In 2019, the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) and the IPPC Secretariat established the IYPH International Steering Committee (ISC).

• United Nations General Assembly: 
• United Nations General Assembly, one of the six principal organs of the United Nations (UN) and the only body in which every member of the organization is represented and allowed to vote.
• The first session of the assembly convened on Jan. 10, 1946, in London, with 51 countries represented.
• Numerous nonmembers, such as states, organizations, and other entities (e.g., the Vatican, the African Union, the International Committee of the Red Cross, and Palestine), maintain observer status, enabling them to participate in the work of the General Assembly.
• Headquarters:- New York
• President:- Abdulla Shahid

The correct answer is B.

Key Points

• Varna/Warna river:
• It is a tributary of the river Krishna. Hence pair B is incorrectly matched.
• Warna River and Yerla River converge with the River Krishna in the Sangli district of Maharashtra.
• The floods of the Warna River causes damage to the region it flows through every year.
• The four villages namely Aitawad Khurd, Kanegaon, Koregaon, and Shigaon are the worst affected ones, along with Walwa taluka and three villages; namely the Sawalwadi, Dudhgaon, and Samdoli.

• Tributaries of Godavari river:

The correct answer is Ranchi – Chaibasa region.

Key Points

• Ranchi – Chaibasa region: 
• This region falls under the Chotanagpur Industrial Region which extends over Jharkhand, Northern Orissa, and the Western part of West Bengal.
• The birth and growth of this region are linked with the discovery of coal in Damodar Valley and iron ore in the Jharkhand-Orissa mineral belt. As both are found in close proximity, the region is known as the ‘Ruhr of India’.
• This region is known for its heavy metallurgical industries.
• It has a large percentage of mineral-based industries in its industrial structure.
• Important centres are Ranchi, Dhanbad, Chaibasa, Sindri, Hazaribag, Jamshedpur, Bokaro, Rourkela, Durgapur, Asansol, and Dalmianagar.

Additional Information

• Industrial regions in India:
• Major Industrial Regions: 1. Mumbai-Pune Region, 2. Hugli Region, 3. Bengaluru-Tamil Nadu Region, 4. Gujarat Region, 5. Chotanagpur Region, 6. Vishakhapatnam-Guntur Region, 7. Gurgaon-Delhi-Meerut Region, and 8. Kollam-Thiruvananthapuram Region.
• Minor Industrial Regions: 1. Ambala-Amritsar, 2. Saharanpur-Muzaffarnagar-Bijnor, 3. Indore-Dewas-Ujjain, 4. Jaipur-Ajmer, 5. Kolhapur-South Kannada, 6. Northern Malabar, 7. Middle Malabar, 8. Adilabad-Nizamabad, 9. Allahabad-Varanasi-Mirzapur, 10. Bhojpur-Munger, 11. Durg-Raipur, 12. Bilaspur-Korba, and 13. Brahmaputra valley.
• Industrial Districts: 1. Kanpur, 2. Hyderabad, 3. Agra, 4. Nagpur, 5. Gwalior, 6. Bhopal, 7. Lucknow, 8. Jalpaiguri, 9. Cuttack, 10. Gorakhpur, 11. Aligarh, 12. Kota, 13. Purnia, 14. Jabalpur, and 15. Bareilly.

The correct answer is A and B only.

Key Points

• System of Air Quality Forecasting And Research (SAFAR): 
• The Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), Government of India, has introduced the System of Air Quality Forecasting And Research (SAFAR) to provide location-specific information on air quality in near real-time and its forecast 1-3 days in advance in major metropolitan cities such as Delhi and Pune. Hence statement A is correct.
• This system benefits the general population by increasing awareness of climate-related events and forecasting adverse environmental effects.
• The system is indigenously developed by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune, and is operationalized by the India Meteorological Department (IMD).  Hence statement B is correct.
• It monitors all weather parameters like temperature, rainfall, humidity, wind speed, and wind direction, UV radiation, and solar radiation.  Hence statement C is incorrect.
• Pollutants monitored by the SAFAR system are PM2.5, PM10, Ozone, Carbon Monoxide (CO), Nitrogen Oxides (NOx), Sulfur Dioxide (SO2), Benzene, Toluene, Xylene, and Mercury.

Additional Information

• Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune:
• The Institute was founded as the Institute of Tropical Meteorology (ITM) on 17 November 1962 at Pune (the then Poona), as a distinct unit of the India Meteorological Department (IMD).
• Consequent to the recommendation of the Committee for Organization of Scientific Research (COSR) appointed by the Government of India the Institute was transformed into an autonomous organization on 1st April 1971 under the name Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM).
• In the initial years, along with the IMD, the Institute functioned under the Ministry of Tourism and Civil Aviation, but later in 1985, it was brought under the Department of Science and Technology (DST) of the Ministry of Science & Technology, and now, with effect from 12 July 2006 the IITM has been under the administrative control of the specially formed Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES).

The correct answer is Different.

Key Points

• Theory of Comparative Advantage of International Trade by David Ricardo:
• It states that a country tends to specialize in and export those commodities in the production of which it has maximum comparative cost advantage or minimum comparative disadvantage. Similarly, the country’s imports will be of goods having relatively less comparative cost advantage or greater disadvantage.
• According to the theory, if the comparative Cost Ratio of goods is the same for both countries, there is no reason for undertaking specialization. Hence, trade between the two countries will not take place.
• If there is cost ratio for commodities is different for both countries then one of them will have specialization in the production of that commodity and hence, the trade between the two countries can be useful.

Important Points

Example:

• It follows that country A has an absolute advantage over В in the production of X while В has an absolute advantage in producing Y.
• As such, when the trade takes place, A specializes in X and exports its surplus to В and В specializes in У and exports its surplus to A.

The correct answer is Dhruv.

Key Points

• Pradhan Mantri Innovative Learning Programme - DHRUV:
• It has been started by the Ministry of Human Resource Development, Government of India to identify and encourage talented children to enrich their skills and knowledge.
• In centers of excellence across the country, gifted children will be mentored and nurtured by renowned experts in different areas, so that they can reach their full potential.
• The program is named after a pole star called Dhruv Tara.
• The main objective of the program is to allow students to realize their complete potential and contribute to society.
• The program aims to cover two areas namely Science and Arts.
• The program is to be launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
• Around 60 students are selected broadly from Class 9 to Class 12 all over the country.

Additional Information 

• NISHTHA:
• The Department of School Education and Literacy has launched a National Mission to improve learning outcomes at the elementary level through an Integrated Teacher Training Programme called NISHTHA under the Centrally Sponsored Scheme of Samagra Shiksha in 2019-20.
• NISHTHA is a capacity-building program for "Improving Quality of School Education through Integrated Teacher Training".
• It aims to build competencies among all the teachers and school principals at the elementary stage.
• ShaGun:
• The Human Resource Development (HRD) Ministry launched a school education portal ‘Shagun’ with an aim to integrate over 2.3 lakh educational websites.
• The web portal links 15 lakh schools across the country and provides teachers, students, and parents all the information that they need on school education.
• YUVIKA - Yuva Vigyani Karyakram (Young Scientist Programme):
• It is an ISRO young scientist program, with the broad objective of imparting basic knowledge of space technology, space science, and space applications to younger ones.
• 3 students, studying in 9thStd, from each state and UT of India shall be selected.
• The program includes 2 weeks of residential training, involving 4 centers of ISRO viz. VSSC, URSC, SAC, and NESAC and a visit to SDSC, SHAR as a part of the program.

The correct answer is A, B and C are correct.

Key Points

• Christina Koch:
• She launched on March 14, 2019, from the Baikonur Cosmodrome on a Soyuz spacecraft with NASA  Astronaut Nick Hague and Russian Cosmonaut Alexey Ovchinin.
• She returned to Earth on February 6, 2020, on a Soyuz spacecraft with ESA Astronaut Luca Parmitano and Russian Cosmonaut Alexander Skvortsov. Hence statement B is correct.
• The crews she served on contributed to hundreds of experiments in biology, Earth science, human research, physical sciences, and technology development.
• Some of the scientific highlights from her missions include improvements to the Alpha Magnetic Spectrometer, which studies dark matter, growing protein crystals for potential use in treatment for Parkinson’s and Alzheimer’s, and testing 3D biological printers to print tissues in microgravity. Hence statement C is correct.
• Koch conducted six spacewalks, including the first three all-women spacewalks, totaling 42 hours and 15 minutes.
• She has spent a total of 328 days in space. Hence statement A is correct.

Additional Information

• International Space Station (ISS):
• The International Space Station (ISS) is a multi-nation project that is the largest single structure humans ever put into space.
• Its main construction was completed between 1998 and 2011, although the station continually evolves to include new missions and experiments.
• The ISS includes contributions from 15 nations. NASA (United States), Roscosmos (Russia), and the European Space Agency are the major partners of the space station who contribute most of the funding; the other partners are the Japanese Aerospace Exploration Agency and the Canadian Space Agency.

The correct answer is A and C only.

Key Points

• British East India Company:
• In 1599, a group of English merchants calling themselves the ‘Merchant Adventurers’ formed the British East India Company. Hence statement A is correct.
• On December 31, 1600, Queen Elizabeth I issued a charter with rights of exclusive trading to the company named the ‘Governor and Company of Merchants of London trading into the East Indies.
• Initially, a monopoly of fifteen years was granted, which in May 1609 was extended indefinitely by a fresh charter. Hence statement B is incorrect.
• The Company had sent Captain Hawkins to the court of the Mughal Emperor, Jahangir in 1608 to secure permission to establish a “factory” (storehouse of goods) at Surat. Hence statement C is correct.
• The Charter Act of 1813 ended the trade monopoly of East India Company in India. Hence statement D is incorrect.

Additional Information

• French East India Company:
• During the reign of Louis XIV, the king’s famous minister Colbert laid the foundation of the Compagnie des Indes Orientales (French East India Company) in 1664, in which the king also took a deep interest.
• The Compagnie des Indes Orientales was granted a 50-year monopoly on French trade in the Indian and Pacific Oceans.

The correct answer is Chang’e 4.

Key Points

• China's Chang'e 4 was the first mission to land on the far side of the Moon.
• Chang'e-4 consists of a lander and a rover, as well as a relay satellite
• The lander and rover communicate with Earth via the Queqiao relay satellite.
• The lander and rover landing touched down in Von Ksrman crater on Jan. 3, 2019.
• Chang'e 4 will collect compositional measurements of the farside basaltic rocks.

China National Space Administration (CNSA):

• China National Space Administration (CNSA), is a Chinese government organization founded in 1993 to manage national space activities.
• The organization is composed of four departments: General Planning; System Engineering; Science, Technology, and Quality Control; and Foreign Affairs.
• Its headquarters is in Beijing.
• The CNSA operates three launch facilities: Jiuquan, in Gansu province; Taiyuan, in Shanxi province; and Xichang, in Sichuan province.

Additional Information 

• Moon has a 'near side' that is perpetually Earth-facing and a 'far side', which always faces away from Earth.
• The far side is almost entirely craters; craters piled within other craters, with rough terrain.

The correct answer is Atal Bihari Vajpayee.

Key Points

• Bharat Ratna Award 2019
• President Ramnath Kovind conferred the Bharat Ratna, on former President Pranab Mukherjee, along with social activist Nanaji Deshmukh (posthumous), and Assamese musician Bhupen Hazarika (posthumous).
• The Bharat Ratna (Jewel of India), instituted in 1954 is the highest civilian award of the Republic of India.
• It is awarded in recognition of exceptional service/performance of the highest order in any field of human endeavor.
• The recommendations for the Bharat Ratna are made by the Prime Minister to the President with a maximum of three nominees being awarded per year.
• Recipients receive a Sanad (certificate) signed by the President and a peepal-leaf–Shaped medallion; there is no monetary grant associated with the award.
• Bharat Ratna recipients rank seventh in the Indian order of precedence.
• Atal Bihari Vajpayee (Awarded Bharat Ratna in 2015). Hence, Option 3 is correct.
• Vajpayee was the Prime Minister of India during the years 1996, 1998, and 1999 to 2004. From 1977 to 1979, he was the External Affairs Minister. In 1994, he was given the Best Parliamentarian Award.

Additional Information 

• Bharat Ratna
• It is the highest civilian honor,
• It is given for exceptional service towards the advancement of Art, Literature and Science, and in recognition of Public Service of the highest order.
• It is also not mandatory that Bharat Ratna be awarded every year.
• The original specifications for the award called for a circular gold medal, 35 mm in diameter, with the sun and the Hindi legend Bharat Ratna above and a floral wreath below.
• The reverse was to carry the state emblem and motto.
• It was to be worn around the neck from a white ribbon.
• This design was altered after a year.
• The provision of Bharat Ratna was introduced in 1954.
• The first-ever Indian to receive this award was the famous scientist, Chandrasekhara Venkata Raman, C. Rajagopalachari, and Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan.
• Since then, many dignitaries have received this coveted award.
• The Bharat Ratna medals are produced at Kolkata's Alipore Mint, along with the other prestigious awards such as Padma Vibushan, Padma Bhushan, Padma Shri, and Param Veer Chakra.
• There is no written provision that Bharat Ratna should be awarded to Indian citizens only. A naturalized Indian citizen, Agnes Gonxha Bojaxhiu, better known as Mother Teresa (1980), and non-Indians, Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan and Nelson Mandela (1990), were the recipients of this coveted award.

The correct answer is Iraq.

Key Points

• India’s top crude oil supplier
• Iraq has, for the second year in a row, become India’s top crude oil supplier, meeting more than a fifth of the country’s oil needs in the 2018-19 fiscal year. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• According to data sourced from the Directorate General of Commercial Intelligence and Statistics, Iraq sold 46.61 million tonnes (mt) of crude oil to India during April 2018 and March 2019, 2% more than 45.74 mt it had supplied in the 2017-18 fiscal.
• India provisionally imported 207.3 mt of crude oil in 2018-19, down from 220.4 mt in the previous financial year.
• Saudi Arabia has traditionally been India’s top oil source, but it was for the first time dethroned by Iraq in the 2017-18 fiscal year.
• In 2018-19, Saudi exported 40.33 mt of crude oil, up from 36.16 mt of oil sold in the previous year.
• While India stopped importing crude oil from Iran following the reimposition of economic sanctions this month by the U.S., the Persian Gulf nation was the third-largest crude oil supplier to India. It sold 23.9 mt of crude in 2018-19, up from 22.59 mt in the previous year, according to the data.
• UAE topped Venezuela to become India’s fourth-largest crude supplier.
• It sold 17.49 mt of crude oil to India. In 2017-18, Venezuela had supplied 18.34 mt and UAE 14.29 mt.
• Nigeria was the next biggest supplier with 16.83 mt of exports in 2018-19, down from 18.11 mt in the previous year. Kuwait supplied 10.78 mt of oil and Mexico another 10.28 mt.
• The U.S., which began selling crude oil to India in 2017, is fast becoming a major source.
• Supplies from the U.S. jumped more than fourfold to 6.4 mt in the 2018-19 fiscal year. In 2017-18, the first year of imports from the U.S., the supplies were at 1.4 mt.
• Iran was India’s second-biggest supplier of crude oil after Saudi Arabia till 2010-11, but western sanctions over its suspected nuclear program relegated it to the seventh spot in subsequent years.

The correct answer is British and Dutch.

Key Points

• Protestants
• Protestantism is a derivation of Christianity.
• Roughly around 1 billion people in the world follow it.
• It began in the 16th century.
• British and Dutch belongs to Protestants. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• It was thought to be a powerful movement against the Catholic Church since many believers found faults in the practices of the Church.
• One of the major differences between Catholics and Protestants is their deviant views regarding bread and wine during religious ceremonies.
• Martin Luther was a German monk in the 15th century. Many of his followers became protestants.
• Today there are many types of Protestant Churches. For example, Baptist is currently the largest denomination in the United States but there are many dozens more.
• To understand the Protestant Reform movement, we need to go back in history to the early 16th century when there was only one church in Western Europe - what we would now call the Roman Catholic Church - under the leadership of the Pope in Rome.
• Today, we call this Roman Catholic because there are so many other types of churches (for example, Methodist, Baptist, Lutheran, Calvinist, Anglican)
• They worship the same God, but the principles of their faith are different.
• Five hundred years after the Reformation, there are still painful divisions between Protestants and Catholics.
• It all started when Reformation took place, 500 years ago, as Martin Luther (1483-1546) tried to reform the Catholic Church. His attempt to do so instead led to a schism in the church.
• On October 31, 1517, the publication of his Ninety-Five Theses, which outlined various abusive practices of the church, is considered the founding event that led to this division in Germany and the creation of the Evangelical Church.

The correct answer is 28 July.

Key Points

• World Nature Conservation Day
• It is celebrated every year on July 28, to create and increase awareness about the importance of natural resources. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• The day encourages people to protect Earth’s natural resources and lead a sustainable lifestyle.
• It also educates people to use the resources judiciously without exploiting the natural Earth.
• Ministry of Culture has said that Worshipping Nature is a part of Indian culture.
• The history and origin of World Nature Conservation Day are unknown but the main aim of celebrating it on 28 July is to come together and support nature, don't exploit it. Conservation of nature is the wise management and utilization of natural resources.
• We know that due to natural imbalance, we are facing several problems like global warming, various diseases, natural disasters, increased temperature, etc.
• Therefore, for the next generation, it is necessary to preserve it.
• So, it is important to raise awareness among people all over the world to understand the importance of saving resources, recycle it, preserve it, and also understand the consequences of damaging them.

The correct answer is An immediate depreciation of a currency.

Key Points

• Currency depreciation
• It is a fall in the value of a currency in terms of its exchange rate versus other currencies.
• Currency depreciation can occur due to factors such as economic fundamentals, interest rate differentials, political instability, or risk aversion among investors.
• Currency depreciation is a fall in the value of a currency in a floating exchange rate system.
• In an efficient foreign exchange rate market, an unexpected increase in domestic money supply growth can lead to an immediate depreciation of a currency. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• Economic fundamentals, interest rate differentials, political instability, or risk aversion can cause currency depreciation.
• Orderly currency depreciation can increase a country’s export activity as its products and services become cheaper to buy.
• The Federal Reserve's quantitative easing programs used to stimulate the economy in the aftermath of the 2007-2008 financial crisis caused U.S. dollar depreciation.
• Currency depreciation in one country can spread to other countries.

Additional Information

• Foreign Exchange Reserves:
• Foreign exchange reserves are assets held on reserve by a central bank in foreign currencies, which can include bonds, treasury bills, and other government securities.
• It needs to be noted that most foreign exchange reserves are held in U.S. dollars.
• These assets serve many purposes but are most significantly held to ensure that the central bank has backup funds if the national currency rapidly devalues or becomes altogether insolvent.
• India’s Forex Reserves include:
• Foreign Currency Assets
• Gold
• Special Drawing Rights
• Reserve position with the International Monetary Fund (IMF)

The correct answer is the Golaknath v/s State of Punjab.

Key Points

• Golaknath Case
• Fundamental Rights are given a transcendental position in the constitution and are not amenable to the Parliamentary restriction as stated in Article 13.
• A place of permanence is given to the Fundamental Rights in the Constitution.
• in order to amend Fundamental Rights, a new Constituent Assembly is necessary.
• Article 368 provides the procedure to amend the Constitution but does not confer power on Parliament to amend the Constitution.
• In the Golaknath case (1967), the Supreme Court held that Parliament could not amend Fundamental Rights, and this power would be only with a Constituent Assembly. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
• The Court held that an amendment under Article 368 is "law" within the meaning of Article 13 of the Constitution and therefore if an amendment "takes away or abridges" a Fundamental Right conferred by Part III, it is void.
• To get over the judgments of the Supreme Court in the Golaknath case (1967), RC Cooper case (1970), and Madhavrao Scindia case (1970), the then government headed by Prime Minister Indira Gandhi had enacted major amendments to the Constitution (the 24th, 25th, 26th and 29th).
• All four amendments brought by the government were challenged in the Kesavananda Bharati case.
• After the Golaknath case, the SC held that the Parliament cannot amend Fundamental rights, whereas, after the Kesavanada Bharti case, the SC upheld the validity of the 24th amendment holding amendment to Fundamental Rights as constitutional but simultaneously putting a caveat of maintaining the basic structure.

The correct answer is Bengaluru.

Key Points

• Light Combat Helicopters
• Light Combat Helicopter production was started at the HAL complex in Bengaluru. The project is a part of the Make in India initiative. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
• The Light Combat Helicopters (LCH) were completely designed by HAL.
• It has 2 engines and several latest technical features.
• The helicopters are to be deployed at the Siachen base which is 4,700 meters above sea level.
• It has the capacity to carry 500 kg of load.
• India has been taking several steps to strengthen the Indian Air Force and also to increase Defence Exports.
• India has set a target of achieving Rs 35,000 crores of Defence Exports by 2024.
• Manufacturing of the Light Combat Helicopter will help India achieve the above goals.
• The need for the production of Light Combat Helicopters came from the Kargil war.
• The LCH is a derivative of HAL Dhruv that was developed during the 1990s.

The correct answer is Compound coasts.

Key Points

• The boundary between the coast and the shore is known as the coastline; it marks the seaward limit of the coast.
• The outline of the coast may be modified by sea waves.
• Submergence of the shoreline may take place because of a rise in sea level or a downward adjustment of the land surface; from a geometrical point of view, the two are indistinguishable.
• According to D.W. Johnson, coastlines can be divided into the following classes:
• Coastline of Emergence
• Coastline of Submergence
• Neutral coastline
• Compound coastline
• Fault coastline
• This classification has two bases:
• The change of levels, i.e., if sea level falls, the shores emerge,
• The nature of shorelines, because it is necessary to know the nature of seashore before emergence and submergence, whether the shore was upland or downland, for instance.
• Compound Coastlines:
• Such coastlines show the forms of two of the previous classes combined, for example, submergence followed by emergence or vice versa. The coastlines of Norway and Sweden are examples of compound coastlines. Hence, Option 1 is correct.

The correct answer is the Diwani Rights of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa.

Key Points

• Treaty of Allahabad, 1765
• In 1765, two Treaties were concluded by Robert Clive at Allahabad with Nawab Shuja-ud-Daulah and Emperor Shah Alam II.
• Under the first treaty with the Nawab of Awadh:
• Allahabad and Kara were surrendered by the Nawab to Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II.
• A sum of Rs 50 lakh was paid to the Company as war indemnity.
• Balwant Singh, the Zamindar of Banaras, was given full possession of his estate.
• Under the second treaty with Shah Alam II:
• The emperor was asked to reside at Allahabad under the Company’s protection.
• The Diwani of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa were granted to the East India Company instead of an annual payment of Rs 26 lakh. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• An amount of Rs 53 lakh was to be given by the Mughal Emperor to the Company in return for nizamat functions (military defense, police, and administration of justice) of the said provinces.

Additional Information 

• The major difference in the significance of the Carnatic Wars (1740-48, 1749-53, and 1758-63), Battle of Plassey (1757), and Battle of Buxar (1764) is:
• The Carnatic Wars established British supremacy in trade in India.
• The Battle of Plassey laid the foundation of the British Empire in India.
• The Battle of Buxar established the British as masters of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa and made them great power of Northern India and contenders for the supremacy of the whole country.

The correct answer is 31st January 2020.

Key Points

• Brexit
• Britain has officially left the European Union (EU) and has become the first country to leave the 28-member bloc.
• The UK stopped being a member of the European Union (EU) after 23:00 GMT on 31 January 2020. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
• The EU is an economic and political union involving 28 European countries. It allows free trade, which means goods can move between member countries without any checks or extra charges. The EU also allows free movement of people, to live and work in whichever country they choose.
• The UK joined in 1973 (when it was known as the European Economic Community) and it will be the first member state to withdraw.
• After the UK formally leaves the EU, there is still a lot to talk about and months of negotiation will follow.
• While the UK has agreed on the terms of its EU departure, both sides still need to decide what their future relationship will look like.
• During the 11-month transition period, the UK will continue to follow all of the EU’s rules and its trading relationship will remain the same.
• The transition period is meant to give both sides some breathing space while a new free trade agreement is negotiated.
• This is needed because the UK will leave the single market and customs union at the end of the transition. A free trade agreement allows goods to move around the EU without checks or extra charges.
• If a new one cannot be agreed on in time, then the UK faces the prospect of having to trade with no deal in place. That would mean tariffs (taxes) on UK goods traveling to the EU and other trade barriers.

The correct answer is Article 279A.

Key Points

• GST Council
• It is a constitutional body under Article 279A. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
• It makes recommendations to the Union and State Government on issues related to Goods and Service Tax and was introduced by the Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016.
• The GST Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister and other members are the Union State Minister of Revenue or Finance and Ministers in charge of Finance or Taxation of all the States.
• It is considered as a federal body where both the center and the states get due representation.
• Every decision of the Goods and Services Tax Council shall be taken at a meeting by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting, under the following principles, namely:
• The vote of the Central Government shall have a weightage of one-third of the total votes cast, and
• The votes of all the State Governments taken together shall have a weightage of two-thirds of the total votes cast, in that meeting.
• Economic Survey 2017-18 also hailed the GST Council for its cooperative federalism technology which brings together the Center and States and can be applied to many other policy reforms.

Additional Information

• Goods and Services Tax
• The Goods and Services Tax (GST) is a value-added tax levied on most goods and services sold for domestic consumption.
• The GST is paid by consumers, but it is remitted to the government by the businesses selling the goods and services.
• It is a tax levied when a consumer buys a good or service. It is meant to be a single, comprehensive tax that will subsume all the other smaller indirect taxes on consumption like service tax, etc.
• It is a single tax on the supply of goods and services, right from the manufacturer to the end consumer
• This is how it is done in most developed countries. More than 160 countries have implemented this system of taxation.
• GST does not tax or get into specific commodities.

The correct answer is A, C, and D only.

Key Points

• Intra-Zonal Soils
• The intra-zonal soils possess, in general, the characteristics which mark them out as distinct and different from zonal soils.
• In other words, the effect of the local factors, topography, drainage, etc., is superimposed on that of the active soil-forming agents.
• The important intra-zonal soils are:
• Saline and alkaline soils
• Generally, these soils develop in arid and semi-arid regions. These also develop in low-lying areas where the water table is high. Soluble sodium salts are accumulated on the surface of the soil due to capillary rise. In saline soils, the salts usually present are chloride, sulfate, carbonates, etc. The soil reaction is alkaline (pH is more than 7.0).
• In saline soils, generally, no horizon differentiation and the whole profile looks more or less uniform. The soil is poor in humus and is devoid of structure. If rainfall is sufficient to wash down the soluble salts of saline soil, it gives rise to alkali or black alkali soil. Organic matter dissolves in sodium carbonate and moves down along with clay particles into the lower layer. Horizon-B develops a well-defined columnar structure, becomes very compact and almost impervious to water, and acquires a dark color (black).
• Meadow Soil
• This soil is found in flood-prone areas where water drainage is better than that in the marshes.
• This soil remains covered with a thin layer of humus which supports the growth of grasses.
• Rendzina soils
• Rendzina (or rendzina) is a soil type recognized in various soil classification systems, including those of Britain and Germany as well as some obsolete systems. They are humus-rich shallow soils that are usually formed from carbonate- or occasionally sulfate-rich parent material.
• In temperate regions, rendzina soils are very often formed from calcareous limestone. The clay remains saturated with calcium and the soil is neutral in reaction. Horizon-A (upper layer), is dark grey in color while the lower layer, horizon-C, is light grey or even white in color. Horizon-B is usually absent.
• Bog or marsh soils.
• In tropical and sub-tropical regions, these soils developed in the presence of a high water table in the podsol zone, these soils are formed under swampy conditions in the presence of large quantities of organic matter. The profile usually consists of two horizons i.e., A and C. The presence of underground water impedes the process of eluviation and illuviation with the result that horizon-B is absent or very weak in development.
• Horizon-A is the dark-colored layer (or black), the mixture of humus and mineral matter; often contains un-decomposed plant remains; fairly deep; acidic reaction. Horizon-C is bluish or greenish-grey; very often mottled; rusty streaks very prominent, almost continually saturated with groundwater.
• Hence, Option 3 is correct.

Additional Information

• Laterite Soils 
• In humid tropical and sub-tropical regions, both temperature and rainfall are high (80-100 inches or more).
• The soluble products of weathering are completely washed out due to heavy leaching.
• Considerable eluviation takes place there is no horizon differentiation as the eluviated substances are not re-deposited in the lower layers. Hence, no true B-horizon is formed.
• As the alkali and alkaline earth bases are removed from the seat of formation, the residual soil is acid in reaction.
• Vegetation is very profuse.
• The decomposition of organic matter is rapid due to the great microbial activity brought about by heavy precipitation and high temperature.
• The organic matter content of these soils is, therefore, low.
• The process of lateritic soil formation is called lateralization. These soils are characterized by their red, yellow, and orange colors due to the presence of iron oxides in various degrees of hydration.

The correct answer is Anshula Kant.

Key Points

• Anshula Kant
• Anshula Kant, SBI Managing Director, has been appointed as the Managing Director and Chief Financial Officer of the World Bank. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• Anshula Kant will be responsible for World Bank’s financial and risk management.
• The announcement was made by World Bank President David Malpass on July 12, 2019.
• Anshula Kant, in her new role as World Bank MD, CFO, will work closely with World Bank CEO on the mobilization of the International Development Association (IDA) and other financial resources.
• The IDA is the part of the World Bank that works in the interest of the world’s poorest countries.
• Kant’s main work would include oversight of financial reporting and risk management.
• Anshula Kant brings to World Bank more than 35 years of experience in the field of finance, banking, and innovative use of technology through her work as SBI CFO. As SBI CFO, Anshula Kant managed USD 38 billion of revenues and total assets of USD 500 billion.
• She played a huge role in improving the capital base of SBI with a key focus on long-term sustainability.
• Being responsible for SBI's Risk, Compliance, and Stressed Asset Portfolio, Kant was in charge of the creation of investment opportunities and risk management throughout SBI.
• 

Additional Information

• World Bank Group
• With 189 member countries, the World Bank Group is a unique global partnership: five institutions working for sustainable solutions that reduce poverty and build shared prosperity in developing countries.
• The Bank Group works with country governments, the private sector, civil society organizations, regional development banks, think tanks, and other international institutions on issues ranging from climate change, conflict, and food security to education, agriculture, finance, and trade.
• A Group of Institutions
• Together, the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) and International Development Association (IDA) form the World Bank, which provides financing, policy advice, and technical assistance to governments of developing countries. While the World Bank Group consists of five development institutions.
• International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) provides loans, credits, and grants.
• International Development Association (IDA) provides low- or no-interest loans to low-income countries.
• The International Finance Corporation (IFC) provides investment, advice, and asset management to companies and governments.
• The Multilateral Guarantee Agency (MIGA) insures lenders and investors against political risk such as war.
• The International Centre for the Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID) settles investment disputes between investors and countries.
• All of these efforts support the Bank Group’s twin goals of ending extreme poverty by 2030 and boosting shared prosperity of the poorest 40% of the population in all countries.

The correct answer is Cubbon.

• Growth of coffee in Karnataka
• Chikamagalur, the lesser-known, quaint hill town, became the first recorded place in India to cultivate coffee when it was introduced to hillsides from Yemen around the mid to late 1600s.
• As the story goes, seven beans of coffee were smuggled out of Yemen’s town of Mocha by an Indian hermit named Baba Budan.
• Baba Budan then planted these in the hills of Chikmagalur.
• No one is sure of how much and how well these foreign beans grew in the time following, but coffee cultivation was seriously undertaken in the 18th Century by British entrepreneurs who turned forests in Southern India into commercial coffee plantations.
• In fact, coffee was cultivated long before tea, mainly in Northern India.
• This is a relatively unknown fact, as India is perceived to be a tea-drinking nation and does have excellent tea gardens in Darjeeling, Bengal, and Assam.
• Lieutenant-General Sir Mark Cubbon was a British army officer with the East India Company who became the British Commissioner of Mysore state in 1834. During his tenure, he established a law and order system, introduced judicial and economic reforms, and through action in all spheres of governance helped develop the economy of Mysore.
• During his tenure Growth of coffee was encouraged. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
• He resigned from his office in 1860 due to ill-health and left for England for the first time since his arrival in India as a cadet in 1800.
• The administration of the Kingdom of Mysore under his leadership ensured that the 1857 rebellion had almost no impact on the region.
• He died in 1861 onboard a ship at Suez. Cubbon Road and Cubbon Park in Bangalore is named after him.

The correct answer is France.

Key Points

• International Solar Alliance
• The International Solar Alliance was launched jointly by the Indian Prime Minister and the French President during the 2015 United Nations Climate Change Conference, or COP21, in Paris. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• It is an Indian initiative that was launched by the Prime Minister of India and the President of France on 30^th November 2015 in Paris, France on the side-lines of the Conference of the Parties (COP-21), with 121 solar resource-rich countries lying fully or partially between the tropic of Cancer and tropic of Capricorn as prospective members.
• Objective: To collectively address key common challenges to the scaling up of solar energy in ISA member countries.
• Members: Till now, 87 countries have signed the Framework Agreement of the ISA, and of these 67 have deposited their instruments of ratification.
• Nicaragua, a Central American country is the 87^th and the latest country to sign the agreement.
• The Government of India has allotted 5 acres of land to the ISA in the National Institute of Solar Energy (NISE) campus, Gurugram, and has released a sum of Rs. 160 crore for creating a corpus fund, building infrastructure, and meeting day-to-day recurring expenditure of the ISA up to the year 2021-22.

The correct answer is Rio de Janeiro.

Key Points

• Rio de Janeiro
• The Brazilian city of Rio de Janeiro has been named the World Capital of Architecture for 2020 by UNESCO (United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organization). Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• Rio will be the first city to receive the title under a program launched together by UNESCO and the International Union of Architects (UIA) in 2018.
• The city will host the 27th edition of the World Congress of the International Union of Architects (UIA) in July 2020, an event that occurs every three years. According to UNESCO, the World Capital of Architecture is intended to become an international forum for debates about pressing global challenges from the perspectives of culture, cultural heritage, urban planning, and architecture.
• As one of the oldest cities in Brazil, Rio has a mix of modern and colonial architecture, with world-renowned sites like the statue of Jesus Christ and contemporary constructions like the Museum of Tomorrow.
• 

​ 

• UNESCO
• United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations (UN). It seeks to build peace through international cooperation in Education, Sciences, and Culture.
• It is also a member of the United Nations Sustainable Development Group (UNSDG), a coalition of UN agencies and organizations aimed at fulfilling the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
• UNESCO’s Headquarter is located in Paris and the Organization has more than 50 field offices around the world.
• It has 193 Members and 11 Associate Members (As of April 2020) and is governed by the General Conference and the Executive Board.
• Three UNESCO member states are not UN members: Cook Islands, Niue, and Palestine.
• While three UN member states (Israel, Liechtenstein, United States) are not UNESCO members.

The correct answer is It was inserted into Article 75 of the Indian Constitution through Clause (1A) by the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003.

Key Points

• 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003:
• Made the following provisions to limit the size of Council of Ministers, to debar defectors from holding public offices, and to strengthen the anti-defection law:
• The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the CentralCouncil of Ministers, shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the LokSabha.
• A member of either house of Parliament belonging to any political party who is disqualified on the ground of defection shall also be disqualified to be appointed as a minister. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• The total number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a state shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly of that state. But, the number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, in a state shall not be less than 12.
• A member of either House of a state legislature belonging to any political party who is disqualified on the ground of defection shall also be disqualified to be appointed as a minister.
• A member of either House of Parliament or either House of a State Legislature belonging to any political party who is disqualified on the ground of defection shall also be disqualified to hold any remunerative political post. The expression “remunerative political post” means
• Any office under the central government or a state government where the salary or remuneration for such office is paid out of the public revenue of the concerned government; or
• Any office under a body, whether incorporated or not, which is wholly or partially owned by the central government or a state government, and the salary or remuneration for such office is paid by such body, except where such salary or remuneration paid is compensatory in nature.
• The provision of the Tenth Schedule (anti-defection law) about the exemption from disqualification in case of split by one-third of members of the legislature party has been deleted. It means that the defectors have no more protection on grounds of splits.
• Article 75:
• They are appointed by the President on the advice of Prime Minister
• They along with the Prime Minister of India form 15% of the total strength of the lower house i.e. Lok Sabha. (The number cannot exceed 15%)
• 91st Amendment Act provided for the disqualification of the minister when he stands disqualified as a member of Parliament.
• A Minister ceased to exist as one if he is not a member of either house of Parliament for six consecutive months.
• Parliament decides the salary and allowances of the council of ministers.

The correct answer is SWAYAM.

Key Points

• SWAYAM
• SWAYAM (meaning 'Self') is a Sanskrit acronym that stands for Study Webs of Active-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds is an Indian Massive open online course (MOOC) platform.
• SWAYAM is an initiative launched by the then Ministry of Human Resource Development (M.H.R.D.)
• Study Webs of Active Learning for Young Aspiring Minds (SWAYAM), was launched on July 9, 2017, by the Ministry of Human Resource Development to provide one integrated platform and portal for online courses.
• This covers all higher education subjects and skill sector courses.
• The objective is to ensure that every student in the country has access to the best quality higher education at an affordable cost.
• Academicians from hundreds of institutions throughout the country are involved in developing & delivering Massive open online courses (MOOCs) through SWAYAM in almost all disciplines from senior schooling to Post Graduation. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
• Massive Open Online Courses (MOOC) 
• It is a free Web-based distance learning program that is designed for the participation of large numbers of geographically dispersed students.
• They are changing the world of education by providing free online courses for higher education, executive education, and employee development. These courses are provided by well-qualified lecturers from some of the most renowned institutes in the world.
• These courses provide virtual education to people from any corner of the world where the internet is accessible. Massive open online courses are expected to complement the future of higher education in the world.
• MOOC has indeed played an important role in democratizing education.
• Example: The government recently launched the SWAYAM platform for open online courses.
• India is one of the largest countries in terms of MOOC learners, and MOOCs provide an efficient way to bridge the Industry-University divide and upskilling for better opportunities.
• India has become the second-largest market after the US.

The correct answer is Privilege Motion, Rule No. 222 in Chapter XX of the Lok Sabha Rule Book and Rule 187 in Chapter XVI of the Rajya Sabha Rule Book.

Key Points

• Parliamentary privileges
• Parliamentary privileges are certain rights and immunities enjoyed by members of Parliament, individually and collectively, so that they can effectively discharge their functions.
• Parliamentary privileges are defined in Article 105 of the Indian Constitution and those of State legislatures in Article 194.
• When any of these rights and immunities are disregarded, the offense is called a breach of privilege and is punishable under the law of Parliament.
• Besides, Rule No 222 in Chapter 20 of the Lok Sabha Rule Book and correspondingly Rule 187 in Chapter 16 of the Rajya Sabha rulebook govern privilege. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• Privileges of Parliamentarians:
• Freedom of Speech: According to the Indian Constitution, the members of Parliament enjoy the freedom of speech and expression. No member can be taken to task anywhere outside the four walls of the House (e.g. court of law) or cannot be discriminated against for expressing his/her views in the House and its Committees.
• Freedom from Arrest: It is understood that no member shall be arrested in a civil case 40 days before and after the adjournment of the House (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha) and also when the House is in session. It also means that no member can be arrested within the precincts of the Parliament without the permission of the House to which he/she belongs.
• Exemption from attendance as witnesses: The members of Parliament also enjoy freedom from attendance as witnesses.
• Privileges of Parliament:

​​

Additional Information

• Right to publish debates and proceedings:
• Right to exclude strangers:
• Each house of Parliament enjoys the right to exclude strangers (no-members or visitors) from the galleries at any time and to resolve to debate with closed doors.
• Right to punish members and outsiders for breach of its privileges:
• In India, the Parliament has been given punitive powers to punish those who are adjudged guilty of contempt of the House.
• Such contempt can be committed by the members of any House or any outsider. When a member of the House is involved in parliamentary misbehavior or commits contempt he can be expelled from the House.
• Right to regulate the internal affairs of the House:
• The House has the right to regulate its internal affairs. A member of the House is free to say whatever he likes subject only to the internal discipline of the House or the Committee concerned.
• Privileges committee
• In the Lok Sabha, the Speaker nominates a committee of privileges consisting of 15 members as per respective party strengths. A report is then presented to the House for its consideration. The Speaker may permit a half-hour debate while considering the report. The Speaker may then pass final orders or direct that the report be tabled before the House.
• A resolution may then be moved relating to the breach of privilege that has to be unanimously passed. In the Rajya Sabha, the deputy chairperson heads the committee of privileges, which consists of 10 members.

The correct answer is Five.

Key Points

• Chola bronzes
• The bronze casting technique and the making of bronze images of traditional icons reached a high stage of development in South India during the medieval period.
• Among the Pallava period bronze of the 8th century, the best one is the icon of Shiva seated in Ardhaparyanka asana (one leg kept dangling). The right hand is in the Achamana Mudra gesture, suggesting that he is about to drink poison.
• Although bronze images were modeled and cast during the Pallava period in the 8th and 9th centuries, some of the most beautiful statues were produced during the Chola period in Tamil Nadu from the 10th to 12th century AD.
• The technique of art fashioning bronze images is still skilfully practiced in South India, particularly in Kumbakonam.
• The distinguished patron during the 10th century was the widowed Chola Queen, Sembiyan Maha Devi.
• Chola bronze images are the most sought-after collectors’ items by art lovers all over the world.
• The well-known dancing figure of Shiva as Nataraja was evolved and fully developed during the Chola period and since then many variations of this complex bronze image have been modeled.
• Sometimes an alloy of five metals gold, silver, copper, brass, and lead is used to cast bronze images. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• A wide range of Shiva iconography was evolved in the Tanjore region of Tamil Nadu.
• The 9th century Kalyanasundaram Murti is highly remarkable for how panigrahana (ceremony of marriage) is represented by two separate statuettes.
• Shiva with his extended right hand accepts Parvati’s (the bride’s) right hand, who is depicted with a bashful expression and taking a step forward.
• The union of Shiva and Parvati is very ingeniously represented in the Ardhanarisvra in a single image. Beautiful independent figurines of Parvati have also been modeled, standing in the graceful tribhanga posture.
• During the 16th century known as the Vijayanagara period in Andhra Pradesh, the sculptors experimented with portrait sculpture to preserve the knowledge of the royal patrons for prosperity. At Tirupati, the life-size standing portrait statue was cast in bronze, depicting Krishnadevaraya with his two queens, Tirumalamba and Chinnadevi.
• The sculpture has combined the likeness of the facial features with certain elements of idealization.
• The idealization is further observed in the manner the physical body is modeled to appear imposing as well as graceful.
• The standing King and Queens are depicted in a praying posture, that is, both hands in the Namaskara mudra.

The correct answer is ​“Belt” refers to the overland routes and “road” refers to the sea routes. The initiative aims at improving connectivity among Asia, Africa, and Europe.

Key Points

• One Belt One Road (OBOR)
• It is an ambitious project that focuses on connectivity and cooperation among multiple countries spread across the continents of Asia, Africa, and Europe.
• OBOR spans about 78 countries.
• One Belt, One Road (OBOR) is China’s much-touted new foreign and economic policy. It is a development strategy to connect China with Central Asia, Europe, and Indo-Pacific littoral countries. This policy has two components:
• Belt– The “One Belt” refers to the land-based “Silk Road Economic Belt”. Here Beijing aims to connect the country’s underdeveloped hinterland to Europe through Central Asia.
• Road – The “One Road” references the ocean-going “Maritime Silk Road”. It is to connect the fast-growing Southeast Asian region to China’s southern provinces through ports and railways.
• Hence, Option 3 is correct.
• The plan is to connect the Pacific Ocean and the Indian Ocean.
• This will connect the Chinese coastline with South East Asia, South Asia, the Gulf, and the East coast of Africa.
• China will build hard and soft maritime infrastructure. It will include custom coordination, the formation of SEZ, new ports, e-commerce, trade liberalization, and policy coordination.
• OBOR covers countries throughout the Asian continent from China to the rest of Eurasia.
• The geographical stretch makes it comparable with the Silk Road or Silk Route, an ancient network of trade routes connecting the East and West around 120 BCE to 1450s CE that is famous for the profitable silk (and horses) trade.
• That is why it is also called as “New Silk Road” initiative.
• Initially announced in the year 2013, the project involves building networks of roadways, railways, maritime ports, power grids, oil and gas pipelines, and associated infrastructure projects.
• The project covers two parts.
• Silk Road Economic Belt: It is land-based and is expected to connect China with Central Asia, Eastern Europe, and Western Europe.
• 21st Century Maritime Silk Road: It is sea-based and is expected to connect China’s southern coast to the Mediterranean, Africa, South-East Asia, and Central Asia.

The correct answer is Zanskar River.

Key Points

• ​The Chadar trek
• It is an annual winter event in Ladakh, popular among adventure tourists, wherein the trek is undertaken on the frozen Zanskar river over a period of 4-5 days, with halts in between. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
• The Chadar Trek or the Zanskar Gorge is a winter trail over the frozen Zanskar River, which lies in the Indian union territory of Ladakh.
• It is traditionally the only means of travel in the area during the harsh winter months. The trail has become popular with international adventure tourists.
• The walls are near vertical cliffs up to 600 m high and the Zanskar River (a tributary of the Indus) is only 5 meters (16 ft) in places.
• The overall distance is approximately 105 kilometers (65 mi) – an average trekker walks 16 kilometres (10 mi) per day.
• The best time to do the Chadar trek is January to February when the temperature during the winters drops sometimes to -30 to -35 degrees.
• Chadar trek starts from Chilling however with time the organizers tend to drive ahead to about 1 km away from the first camp at Tilad Sumdo (10,390 ft).
• Over the next days, the trek moves to higher camps until Nerak (11,150 ft).
• This is the frozen waterfall and the return point of the trek.
• There are other variations of the trek which go until Lingshed, while a bigger version goes to Padum over almost 14 days.

Additional Information

• The Shyok River
• It a tributary of the Indus River that flows through northern Ladakh and enters Gilgit–Baltistan, spanning some 550 km.
• The Shyok River originates at the Rimo Glacier, one of the tongues of Siachen Glacier.
• The Nubra River
• It is a river in the Nubra Valley of Ladakh in India. It is a tributary of the Shyok River and originates from the Siachen Glacier, the second-longest non-polar glacier in the world.
• In earlier Tibetan maps, it was referred to as Yarma Tsangpo.
• The Zanskar River
• It is the first major tributary of the Indus River, equal or greater in volume than the main river, which flows entirely with Ladakh, India.
• It originates northeast of the Great Himalayan range and drains both the Himalayas and the Zanskar Range within the region of Zanskar.
• The Galwan River
• It flows from the disputed Aksai Chin region administered by China to the Ladakh region of India.
• It originates near the caravan campsite Samzungling on the eastern side of the Karakoram range and flows west to join the Shyok River.
• The point of confluence is 102 km south of Daulat Beg Oldi.

The correct answer is A volunteer organization, of the ‘Syrian Civil Defence’ formed to rescue the wounded in the Syrian airstrike.

Key Points

• The White Helmets
• The White Helmets comprise an unarmed, neutral organization of more than 3,000 volunteer rescue workers operating in opposition-held areas of Syria. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• The White Helmets carry out search-and-rescue operations to save as many lives as possible.
• In addition to lifesaving, White Helmets deliver public services such as securing damaged buildings, reconnecting electrical cables, and offering safety information to children.
• The group, also known as the Syria Civil Defence, takes its nickname from the color of its personnel’s protective hard hats.
• Their motto is “To save one life is to save all of humanity.
• Emerged in 2013, they were nominated for the Nobel Peace Price in 2016 but didn’t win.
• Their short documentary won an Oscar award in 2017
• They work in rescue operations during Bombing, medical evacuation, evacuation of civilians from dangerous areas, and other service work.

The correct answer is All of the above.

Key Points

• Subordinate Courts in India
• The District Courts of India are the district courts of the State governments in India for every district or one or more districts together taking into account the number of cases, population distribution in the district. They administer justice in India at a district level. These courts are under the administrative control of the High Court of the State to which the district concerned belongs. The decisions of the District court are subject to the appellate jurisdiction of the High court.
• The provisions related to subordinate courts are provided in the 6th part of the Indian Constitution. Articles 233-237 deal with the subordinate courts.
• Control over Subordinate Courts –
• This is an extension of the above supervisory and appellate jurisdiction. It states that the High Court can draw a case pending before any subordinate court if it involves the substantial question of law. The case can be disposed of itself or solve the question of law and return to the same court.
• The high court has complete authority and control over its officers and employees.
• Appointment of the District Judges as per Article 233,
• Appointments and promotion of district judges in any state shall be made by the Governor of the state in consultation with the high court exercising jurisdiction concerning such state
• A person not already in the service of the Union or of the state shall only be eligible to appoint a district judge if he has been for not less than 7 years an advocate or a pleader and is recommended by the high court for appointment.
• Control over subordinate courts is the collective and individual responsibility of the High Court as it is the head of the judiciary in the state and has got administrative control over the subordinate courts in respect of certain matters.
• Article 236 of the Constitution of India
• The expression district judge includes judge of a city civil court, additional district judge, joint district judge, assistant district judge, chief judge of a small cause court, chief presidency magistrate, additional chief presidency magistrate, sessions judge, additional sessions judge, and assistant sessions judge: Hence, Option 4 is correct.
• The expression judicial service means a service consisting exclusively of persons intended to fill the post of district judge and other civil judicial posts inferior to the post of the district judge.

The correct answer is Chandrabhaga beach.

Key Points

• The Chandrabhaga beach
• The Chandrabhaga beach on the Konark coast of Odisha has become Asia's first beach to get the Blue Flag certification the tag given to environment-friendly and clean beaches, equipped with amenities of international standards for tourists. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• The beach was awarded the honor on World Environment Day (WED) on June 5, 2018.
• Apart from this, 12 more Indian beaches are being developed by the Society for Integrated Coastal Management (SICOM), an Environment Ministry’s body working for the management of coastal areas, under the Blue Flag certification standards.
• Among them are the Chiwla and Bhogave beaches in Maharashtra and one beach each from Puducherry, Goa, Daman and Diu, Lakshadweep, and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
• The Blue Flag beach standards were established by the Copenhagen-based Foundation for Environmental Education (FEE) in 1985. To get the Blue Flag tag, a beach has to be plastic-free and be equipped with a waste management system.

Additional Information

• Marina Beach is a natural urban beach in Chennai, Tamil Nadu, India, along the Bay of Bengal. The beach runs from near Fort St. George in the north to Foreshore Estate in the south, a distance of 6.0 km, making it the longest natural urban beach in the country.
• Gopalpur is a coastal town and a Notified Area Council on the Bay of Bengal coast in Ganjam district in the southern part of Odisha, India. Today it is a commercial port, a famous sea beach, a tourist destination. Gopalpur is around 15 km from Berhampur. The reconstruction of an all-weather port including new berths is under development.
• Gokarna is known as one of the seven important Hindu pilgrimage centers. It is on what was once an unspoiled beach near the estuary of the river Aghanashini. Recently, due to the influx of tourists, the character of the town has changed; it is no longer just a center of pilgrimage, though large numbers of devotees visit to offer prayers and worship to Shiva

The correct answer is Human Poverty Index.

Key Points

• The Human Poverty Index
• The Human Poverty Index (HPI) was first introduced into the Human Development Report by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) in 1997.
• It is an attempt to bring together a composite index of the different features of deprivation in the quality of life to arrive at an aggregate judgment on the extent of poverty in a community. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• The Human Poverty Index (HPI) measures deprivation in basic human development by combining basic dimensions of poverty and reveals the differences between human poverty and income poverty.
• It uses indicators of the most basic dimensions of deprivation, namely, a short life, lack of basic education, and lack of access to public and private resources.

 

• Multidimensional Poverty Index
• The Multidimensional Poverty Index was launched by the UNDP and the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) in 2010.
• MPI is based on the idea that poverty is not unidimensional (not just depends on income and one individual may lack several basic needs like education, health, etc.), rather it is multidimensional.
• The index shows the proportion of poor people and the average number of deprivations each poor person experiences at the same time.
• MPI uses three dimensions and ten indicators which are:
• Education: Years of schooling and child enrollment (1/6 weightage each, total 2/6);
• Health: Child mortality and nutrition (1/6 weightage each, total 2/6);
• Standard of living: Electricity, flooring, drinking water, sanitation, cooking fuel, and assets (1/18 weightage each, total 2/6)
• A person is multidimensionally poor if she/he is deprived in one-third or more (means 33% or more) of the weighted indicators (out of the ten indicators). Those who are deprived in one half or more of the weighted indicators are considered living in extreme multidimensional poverty.
• MPI is significant as it recognizes poverty from different dimensions compared to the conventional methodology that measures poverty only from income or monetary terms.

Additional Information

• Human Development Index
• Published by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), it is a statistical tool used to measure a country’s overall achievement in its social and economic dimensions. The social and economic dimensions of a country are based on the health of people, their level of educational attainment, and their standard of living.
• For the first time, the United Nations Development Programme introduced a new metric to reflect the impact caused by each country’s per-capita carbon emissions and its material footprint, which measures the number of fossil fuels, metals, and other resources used to make the goods and services it consumes.
• This metric is called- the Planetary Pressures-adjusted HDI, or PHDI.
• The Human Freedom Index 2020
• Released recently placed India at the 111th spot out of 162 countries.
• India ranked 94 on the index in 2019.
• Published by: American think tank Cato Institute and Fraser Institute in Canada.

The correct answer is (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III).

Key Points

• Rajni Kothari 
• He was an Indian political scientist, political theorist, academic, and writer.
• He was the founder of the Centre for the Study of Developing Societies (CSDS) in 1963, a social sciences and humanities research institute, based in Delhi and Lokayan (Dialogue of the People), started in 1980 as a forum for interaction between activists and intellectuals.
• He was also associated with the Indian Council of Social Science Research, International Foundation for Development Alternatives, and People's Union for Civil Liberties.
• One of the great political thinkers of the 20th-century, amongst his noted works, includes Politics in India (1970), Caste in Indian Politics (1973), and Rethinking Democracy (2005).
• In 1985, Lokayan was awarded the Right Livelihood Award for linking and strengthening local groups working to protect civil liberties, women's rights, and the environment.
• The Indian State Since Independence: 70 Years written by C.P. Bhambri
• Mohit Bhattacharya
• He was an academic and former vice-chancellor of Burdwan University.
• Bhattacharya, a leading name in the field of public administration, was suffering from multiple ailments for a long time.
• Public administration is authored by Mohit Bhattacharya.
• Working A Democratic Constitution
• A History Of The Indian Experience is a non-fiction book that deals with the four decades of the Indian Constitution.
• Granville Austin presents a monumental work in Working A Democratic Constitution: A History Of The Indian Experience.
• Hence, Option 1 is correct.

The correct answer is 13 April

Key Points

• Akhila - Karnataka Satyagraha Day
• In 1930, after the success of Mahatma Gandhi's Salt Satyagraha, Karnataka decided to conduct its own.
• On 13 April, in the presence of about 40,000 people M.P. Nadakarni broke the salt law in Ankola. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• Revu Honnappa Naik, Honnappa Mangeshkar bought the first packet of salt auctioned for 30 rupees.
• After the auction, Swami Vidyananda addressed the gathering in which leaders like Karnad Sadashiva Rao, Smt Umabai Kundapur, Dr. Hardikar, T.S. Naikand and others participated.
• The police promptly arrested the leaders but the Sathyagraha continued for 45 days with full tempo.
• Salt Sathyagraha was offered in nearly 30 centers like Mangalore, Kundapur, Udupi, Puttur, Padubidre, etc. in Karnataka.
• Students came out in large numbers to prepare salt and sell it from house to house.
• When Gandhiji decided to raid the salt depot at Dharsana, a similar raid was undertaken in Karnataka at Sanikatte.
• A group of volunteers led by Sridhar Panduranga Balaji collected a few maunds of salt and carried it to Kumta, where the whole stock was sold in 15 minutes.
• Four taluks in Karnataka namely Hirekerur in Dharwad district and Ankola, Sirsi, and Siddapura in North Kanara district were selected for organizing the no-tax campaign.
• Despite repressive measures by the authorities, the campaign was a huge success.
• More than 1500 activists were arrested in Karnataka for participating in the Civil-Disobedience Movement during 1930-31.
• These historic events led to Ankola being named the Bardoli of Karnataka.

Additional Information

• ANKOLA
• It is a Taluk is in Uttara Kannada district of Karnataka state. It is a place of rich antiquity, beaches, and old temples.
• Ankola is also known as the Bardoli of Karnataka, for the role it played in the freedom movement.
• It is a small town on the west coast of India.
• Ankola is famous for its native breed of mango called ishaad and for cashew harvesting.
• It is also known for the treatment of Paralysis. Belambar is a small village 7 km. from Ankola, where Mahatma Gandhi was treated for paralysis.
• Even today the place is on record.

The correct answer is a Letter of Credit.

Key Points

• Letter of Credit
• A letter of credit (L/C) is a type of documentary credit or a non-fund-based credit.
• It is a document issued by a bank or financial institution at the request of a buyer whereby the bank or financial institution gives assurance of payment to a seller if the terms and conditions specified in the document are fulfilled. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
• This means that a Letter of Credit is a promise made by the Bank to pay to the exporter/seller on behalf of the importer/buyer.
• The seller receives the payment only when all the requirements specified in the L/C are met including the documents, delivery dates, product specification, etc.
• Thus, a Letter of Credit has three parties:
• Buyer / Importer: Also known as Opener, as he opens the credit
• Bank / Financial Institution: Also known as Issuer, as it opens the letter of credit
• Seller / Exporter: Also known as the beneficiary as credit is opened in favor of him
• It is a guarantee in the form of a letter, issued by a buyer’s bank. Suppose you want to buy or sell some goods from or to a foreign country.
• It is very much possible that you don’t know the seller or buyer. And also the laws regulating the trade may be different.
• Therefore, both the seller and the buyer need some kind of guarantee to seamlessly perform the trade. Here Letter of Credit comes into action.
• A Letter of Credit is a letter from a bank that guarantees that the payment due by the buyer to a seller will be made timely and for the given amount.
• In case the buyer cannot make payment, the bank will cover the entire or remaining portion of the payment.

Additional Information

• Open account.
• An open account transaction is a sale where the goods are shipped and delivered before payment is due.
• Obviously, this option is the most advantageous for the importer in terms of cash flow and cost, but it is consequently the highest risk option for an exporter.
• An open account transaction in international trade is a sale where the goods are shipped and delivered before payment is due, which is typically in 30, 60, or 90 days. Obviously, this option is advantageous to the importer in terms of cash flow and cost, but it is a risky option for an exporter.
• A foreign draft 
• It is basically a bill of exchange that is drawn in one country and made payable in another country.
• A bill of exchange is a written order, used mostly in international trade, that binds one party to pay a fixed sum of money to another party on demand, or at a predetermined date.
• A Bill of Lading 
• It is a document that the Carrier of goods issues to the Shipper of the goods.
• It's a document to provide evidence or proof of shipment.
• This is extremely important in International Trade as it provides 'title' as to who legally owns the cargo.

The correct answer is Ravva structure.

Key Points

• Ravva structure
• The Ravva offshore block is in the Krishna–Godavari basin of Andhra Pradesh. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
• It is the area of a great reserve of petroleum and natural gas.
• Krishna Godavari Basin is a peri-cratonic passive margin basin in India.
• It is spread across more than 50,000 square kilometers in the Krishna River and Godavari River basins in Andhra Pradesh.
• The site is known for the D-6 block where Reliance Industries discovered the biggest natural gas reserves in India in 2003.
• Ravva oil and gas field is located in the shallow offshore area of the Krishna-Godavari basin on the eastern coast of India.
• It lies in Block PKGM-1. The field is operated by Cairn India which holds a 22.5% stake in it. Its partners in the field include ONGC (40%), Videocon Petroleum (25%), and Ravva Oil (12.5%).
• The Ravva field was initially estimated to produce 100 million barrels of crude oil. It has, however, produced more than 225 million barrels till 2011.
• The output from the field accounts for 8% of total domestic oil production in India.

 

• Ravva field was discovered by the state-owned Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC) in 1987.
• It brought out the first oil from the field in March 1993.
• International tenders were called in the same year for the development of the field.
• The Government of India signed a 25-year production sharing contract (PSC) with Ravva JV in October 1994. The contract is effective until 2019.
• Cairn became the operator of the field in 1996. A 4D seismic acquisition survey was conducted in 2010-11 to find the remaining oil zones within the field and conduct future infill drilling.
• ONGC drilled 30 discovery wells in 331.26km² in 1987.
• Oil and gas reserves were found in 21 wells. Ravva JV drilled 29 more wells including two sidetracks, from 1996 to 2002.
• Offshore infill development and exploration drilling program was undertaken in October 2006.
• Five new infill wells including a horizontal well were drilled to increase the oil production.
• The drilling of the horizontal well was completed using sliding sleeves, standalone screens, screens with inflow control devices, and swell packers. Production wells were drilled using open-hole methods.

Additional Information

• Batholiths
• These are large granitic rock bodies formed due to the solidification of hot magma inside the earth.
• They appear on the surface only after the denudation processes remove the overlying materials.
• Batholiths form the core of huge mountains and may be exposed on the surface after erosion.
• Laccoliths
• These are large dome-shaped intrusive bodies connected by a pipe-like conduit from below.
• These are intrusive counterparts of an exposed domelike batholith.
• The Karnataka plateau is spotted with dome hills of granite rocks. Most of these, now exfoliated, are examples of laccoliths or batholiths.
• A syncline
• It is a fold with younger layers closer to the center of the structure. Synclines are typically a downward fold, termed a synformal syncline (i.e. a trough); but synclines that point upwards, or perched, can be found when strata have been overturned and folded (an antiformal syncline).
•