Previous Year Paper

BSSC CGL Previous year Official Paper 1 (Held on : 16 Feb 2015)

150 questions · 135 minutes · with answers · free

Full Test (150 questions)

1

If A's salary is 25% less than B's, then how much B's salary is more than A's?

  1. ((a))

    25%

  2. ((b))

    30%

  3. ((c))

    3313%33 \frac{1}{3}\%

  4. ((d))

    36%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

3313%33 \frac{1}{3}\%

Calculation:

Let salary of B = 100

The salary of A = 75 (According to the question)

percentage difference in salary = (100 - 75) × 100/75

⇒ 2500/75 = 33 (1/3)%

The salary of B is 33(1/3)% more than salary of A.

2

An item is sold at a fixed price. Had it been sold at 2/3 the fixed price, there would have been a 10% loss. Accordingly how much profit would there be on selling at a fixed price?

  1. ((a))

    15%

  2. ((b))

    25%

  3. ((c))

    35%

  4. ((d))

    45%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

35%

Given:

SP = 2/3 Fixed Price 

Formula used:

Profit % = ((SP - CP)/CP)× 100

Calculation:

Let the cost price of item = 100x

The article is sold at 10% loss , then SP = 90x

Fixed price = 3/2 × 90x = 135x

Profit percentage, when article is sold at fixed price

⇒ [(135x -100x) × 100]/100x

Profit percentage = 35%

∴ The profit percentage would be 35%. 

Alternate Method Let the fixed price = F

And cost price = C

According to the question when the item is sold at 2/3 of fixed price, there would have been a 10% loss.

So, 2F3=C × 90100\frac{2F}{3} = \frac{C\ \times\ 90}{100}

⇒ F = C × 90 × 3100 × 2\frac{C\ \times\ 90\ \times\ 3}{100\ \times\ 2} = 135 × C100\frac{135\ \times\ C}{100}

The fixed price is 135% of the cost price.

Hence, when the item is sold at the fixed price there will be a profit of 35%.

3

If a person sells 2 horses at Sonpur fair for Rs. 14,000 each, on one he gains 15% but he sells the other for 15% loss. Accordingly how much profit / loss did he have in the entire trade?

  1. ((a))

    No gain or loss

  2. ((b))

    1% gain

  3. ((c))

    1% loss

  4. ((d))

    2.25% loss

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

2.25% loss

Given:

Sale price of both horses is same,

Profit on 1 horse = 15%

Loss on other horse = 15%

Formula used:

If two articles are sold at same price, one at a loss of R% and another at a profit of R%, there will always be a net loss. 

Net percentage loss = (R2/100)% 

Calculation:

Net loss = (152/100)%

⇒ Net loss = 2.25%

There will be a loss of 2.25 %.

4

The average temperature on Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday is 40°C. Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday have an average temperature of 41°C. If Thursday's temperature was 42°C, what was the temperature on Monday?

  1. ((a))

    30°C

  2. ((b))

    33°C

  3. ((c))

    36°C

  4. ((d))

    39°C

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

39°C

Given:

The average temperature on Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday = 40°C 

Temperature of Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday = 41°C 

Temperature of Thursday = 42°C

Formula used: 

Mean = Sum of no. observation/No. of observation 

Calculation:

Average temperature for Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday = 40°C

Total temperature = 3 × 40 = 120°C

Average temperature for Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday = 41°C

Total temperature = 41 × 3 = 123°C

Temperature on Thursday = 42°C

⇒ (Tuesday + Wednesday + Thursday) - (Monday + Tuesday + Wednesday) = 123° - 120° 

Thursday - Monday = 3° 

Monday = 42° - 3° = 39°C

∴ The temperature on Monday is 39°C.

5

If the value of sugar falls by 10%, then how much% of sugar consumption in a house should be increased so that expenditure on sugar does not fall.

  1. ((a))

    10%

  2. ((b))

    9%

  3. ((c))

    9111%9 \frac{1}{11}\%

  4. ((d))

    1119%11 \frac{1}{9}\%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1119%11 \frac{1}{9}\%

Given;

The value of sugar falls = 10%

Increase of consumption = ?

Formula used:

Increase of consumption = (r/(100 - r) × 100) 

Calculation:

(10/100 - 10) × 100)

⇒ 100/9 = 11(1/9)%

∴ 11(1/9)% of sugar consumption should be increased 

 

We know that 10% = 1/10

Let the original price of sugar be 10 units 

Reduced price = 5 - 1 = 9 units 

Price is inversely proportional to consumption 

Original consumption = 9 units 

Increased consumption = 10 units 

Consumption in sugar so that expenditure does not fall 

⇒ 1/9 × 100 = 1119%11 \frac{1}{9}\%

6

If there are 32 girls in the class and the ratio of girls to boys is 16 : 9, then what percentage (%) of the girls are in the class?

  1. ((a))

    32%

  2. ((b))

    48%

  3. ((c))

    64%

  4. ((d))

    80%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

64%

Given:

Number of girls = 32 

The ratio of girls and Boys = 16 : 9

Concept:

percentage = (part/whole) × 100

Solution: 

Let the number = y 

Then,

Girls : boys = 16y : 9y

⇒ 16y = 32 

⇒ y = 2 

Now (put the value of y) boys = 9 × 2 = 18 

Total number girls and boys = 32 + 18 = 50 

Percentage = (32/50) × 100 = 64%

∴ The % of girls is 64%

7

A tailor has 37.5 meters of cloth and has to cut 8 pieces in one meter. Accordingly how many pieces will be made in the whole cloth?

  1. ((a))

    320

  2. ((b))

    360

  3. ((c))

    400

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

None of these

Given:

Length of cloth = 37.5 meters 

1 meter  = 8 pieces

Calculation:

1 meter = 8 pieces 

Then, pieces in 37.5 meters cloth  = 37.5 × 8 = 300

∴ 300 pieces will be made in the whole cloth

8

A monkey can climb 6 meters in a minute on a circular pole, which is 21 meters high. But it slips 3 meters in the next one minute. How long will it take for the monkey to reach the top of the pole?

  1. ((a))

    10 minutes

  2. ((b))

    11 minutes

  3. ((c))

    12 minutes

  4. ((d))

    13 minutes

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

11 minutes

Given:

The height of a pole = 21 meters

A monkey covers distance in 1 minute = 6 meters 

Calculation:

Net distance travelled by monkey in 2 min = 3 meters

In 10 min. distance travelled (climbed) = 15 meters

As, it is given in the question that in first minute it climbed 6 meters and in other minute it slips down 3 meters 

And this happens alternately.

So monkey will travel remaining 6 meters in next minute.

∴ Total time taken is (10 + 1) = 11 minute.

9

If Rs 680 is divided between A, B and C in such a way that A gets 2/3 of B and B gets 1/4 of C. Then, how much amount did they get respectively?

  1. ((a))

    A - Rs. 75, B - Rs. 325, C - Rs. 280

  2. ((b))

    A - Rs. 80, B - Rs. 120, C - Rs. 480

  3. ((c))

    A - Rs. 90, B - Rs. 200, C - Rs. 400

  4. ((d))

    A - Rs. 100, B - Rs. 200, C - Rs. 380

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

A - Rs. 80, B - Rs. 120, C - Rs. 480

Given:

Total amount = 680 Rs.

A gets = 2/3 of B

B gets =1/4 of C

Calculation:

A = 2/3 B

⇒ A/B = 2/3

A : B = 2 : 3

B = 1/4 C

⇒ B/C = 1/4

B : C = 1 : 4 = 3 : 12

So, A : B : C = 2 : 3 : 12

A gets  = 2/(2 + 3 + 12) × 680 Rs.

⇒ 2 × 680/17 Rs. = 80 Rs.

B gets = 3 × 680/17 Rs. = 120 Rs.

C gets =12 × 680/17 Rs. = 480 Rs.

∴ A, B and C gets Rs.80, Rs.120 and Rs.480 respectively

10

If 20% of another number is added to a number, then that number increases by 50%. Then what is the ratio of those two numbers?

  1. ((a))

    3 : 2

  2. ((b))

    2 : 3

  3. ((c))

    5 : 2

  4. ((d))

    Cannot be found.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

5 : 2

Given:

The required number must be added = 20%

Then, the number is increased = 50%

Calculation:

Let the first number be (a) and the second number be (b) 

So, 20% of a + b = b + 50% of b which implies 

⇒ 20% of a = 50% of b

⇒ (20/100) × a = (50/100) × b

⇒ a/b = 50/20 = 5/2

∴ The ratio of the first to the second = 5 : 2

11

The ratio of the speed of the three cars is 2: 3: 4, accordingly what will be the ratio of the time taken by the three cars to cover the same distance?

  1. ((a))

    2 : 3 : 4

  2. ((b))

    4 : 3 : 2

  3. ((c))

    4 : 3 : 6

  4. ((d))

    6 : 4 : 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

6 : 4 : 3

Given:

The ratio of the speed of 3 cars = 2 : 3 : 4

Formula used:

Speed = distance/time 

Calculation:

If the distance = d, time taken to cover the distance will be inversely proportional to its speed,

⇒  (x/2) : (x/3) : (x/4) = (6x/12) : (4x/12) : (3x/12) = 6 : 4 : 3

∴ The ratio of the time taken by the 3 cars to cover the same distance is 6 : 4 : 3

12

A takes 50% more time than B to complete a task. If both work together, they take 18 days to complete the task. Accordingly, if B works alone then in how many days will he complete the work?

  1. ((a))

    30 days

  2. ((b))

    35 days

  3. ((c))

    40 days

  4. ((d))

    45 days

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30 days

Given:

Time taken to complete a piece of work by B = x 

Time taken to complete same work  by A = x + 50%

Formula used:

Efficiency = Work/Time

Calculation:

Let us consider the number of days B requires to complete the work = x days 

So, number of days A requires to complete the work = x + (50/100)x = 1.5x

We can calculate, work done by A in 1 day = 1/1.5x = 2/3x

And work done by B in 1 day = 1/x

We know that the number of days A and B together requires to do work = 18 days 

So, work done by both A and B in 1 day = 1/18

⇒ 2/3x + 1/x = 1/18

⇒ 5/3x = 1/18

⇒ x = (5× 18)/3

⇒ x = 30

∴ B requires 30 days to complete the work.

13

A tap fills the tank with water in 2 hours. But due to the leakage of water due to a leakage in the tank, the tank fills in 2132 \frac{1}{3}​​ hours. In how many hours will the leakage empty the tank?

  1. ((a))

    2132 \frac{1}{3} hours

  2. ((b))

    7 hours

  3. ((c))

    8 hours

  4. ((d))

    14 hours

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

14 hours

Given:

Time taken by a tap fills the tank with water = 2 hours

Time taken by a leakage = 2,1/3

Formula used:

Efficiency = Work/Time

Calculation:

Part of the tank filled by the pump in 1 hour = 1/2

Total part of the tank filled by the pump and leak in 1 hour = 1/(7/3)  = 3/7

so part of the tank emptied by the leak in 1 hour = 1/2 - 3/7

⇒ (7 - 6)/14 = 1/14 

∴ The leak will empty the tank in 14 hours

14

AB : ZY :: CD : ?

  1. ((a))

    WX

  2. ((b))

    UV

  3. ((c))

    XW

  4. ((d))

    VU

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

XW

The following diagram consists of English alphabets and their positional values:

As, the positional value of A = 1

and the positional value of B = 2

Inverse positional value of Z = 27 - Positional value of Z = 27 - 26 = 1

and, Inverse positional value of Y = 27 - Positional value of Y = 27 - 25 = 2

Therefore AB is related to ZY.

Similarly,

Positional value of C = 3

positional value of D = 4

Inverse positional value of X = 27 - 24 = 3

Inverse positional value of W = 27 - 23 = 4

So, CD is related to XW

Hence, "XW" is the correct answer.

15

Sheep : Mutton :: Deer : ?

  1. ((a))

    Meat

  2. ((b))

    Flesh

  3. ((c))

    Venison

  4. ((d))

    Veal

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Venison

As Sheep's meat is known as Mutton. Similarly, Deer's meat is known as Venison.

Hence, "Venison" is the correct answer.

16

Cobbler : Leather :: Tailor : ?

  1. ((a))

    Cloth

  2. ((b))

    Shirt

  3. ((c))

    Bajaj

  4. ((d))

    Thread

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cloth

As Cobbler uses Leather to make shoes. Similarly, Tailor uses Cloth to make dresses.

Hence, Cloth is the correct answer.

17

SOCIAL : OCIALS :: DRIVEN : ?

  1. ((a))

    VENRID

  2. ((b))

    NEVIRD

  3. ((c))

    RIVEND

  4. ((d))

    VIREND

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

RIVEND

The pattern followed here is, the first Alphabet is place at the last position and rest Alphabets are kept as it is.

So, DRIVEN must be equal to RIVEND

Hence, "RIVEND" is the correct answer.

18

11 : 132 :: __ : __

  1. ((a))

    10 : 100

  2. ((b))

    9 : 90

  3. ((c))

    13 : 169

  4. ((d))

    15 : 250

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

9 : 90

The pattern followed here is, square of the first number plus the number itself.

(11)2 + 11 = 121 + 11 = 132

Similarly,

(9)2 + 9 = 81 + 9 = 90

Hence, "9 : 90" is the correct answer.

Alternate MethodLogic: Number ×  (Number + 1)

⇒ 11 × (11 + 1)

⇒ 11 × 12

⇒ 132

Similarly,

⇒ 9 × (9 + 1)

⇒ 9 × 10

90

19

19:181,113: ?\frac{1}{9}: \frac{1}{81}, \frac{1}{13} : \ ?

  1. ((a))

    1169\frac{1}{169}

  2. ((b))

    1125\frac{1}{125}

  3. ((c))

    1120\frac{1}{120}

  4. ((d))

    1127\frac{1}{127}

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1169\frac{1}{169}

The pattern followed here is, In the first fraction the square of the denominator is taken in the next fraction. Following this pattern the fraction that is related to 113\frac{1}{13} must be 1169\frac{1}{169} as (13)2 = 169.

Hence, 1169\frac{1}{169} is the correct answer.

20

Directions: Choose the odd word/letter/number from the given alternatives.

  1. ((a))

    Autobiography

  2. ((b))

    Malayalam

  3. ((c))

    Novel

  4. ((d))

    Dictionary

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Malayalam

As Autobiography, Novel and Dictionary are all books but Malayalam is a Dravidian language spoken in the Indian State of Kerala and Union territories of Lakshadweep and Puducherry.

So, Malayalam is odd from the given alternatives.

Hence, **"**Malayalam" is the correct answer.

21

Directions: Choose the odd word/letter/number from the given alternatives.

  1. ((a))

    MIGE

  2. ((b))

    XTQO

  3. ((c))

    RNKI

  4. ((d))

    HDAY

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

MIGE

The following diagram contains English alphabets and their positional values:

The pattern followed here is shown below:

The positional value of First alphabet - 4 = Second alphabet, Positional value of 2nd alphabet - 3 = Third alphabet and positional value of third alphabet - 2 = forth alphabet

XTQO → Positional value of X - 4 = Positional value of T i.e. 20, Positional value of T - 3 = 17 i.e. positional value of Q and positional value of Q - 2 = Positional value of O i.e. 15. 

RNKI → Positional value of R - 4 = Positional value of N i.e. 14, Positional value of N - 3 = 11 i.e. positional value of K and positional value of K - 2 = Positional value of I i.e. 9. 

HDAY →  Positional value of H - 4 = Positional value of D i.e. 4, Positional value of D - 3 = 1 i.e. positional value of A and positional value of A - 2 = Positional value Y I i.e. 25.

The only option that doesn't follow this pattern is option 1 i.e. MIGE

Hence, "MIGE" is the correct answer.

22

Directions: Choose the odd word/letter/number from the given alternatives.

  1. ((a))

    42 : 4

  2. ((b))

    48 : 6

  3. ((c))

    32 : 2

  4. ((d))

    15 : 5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

42 : 4

Here In each option except option 1 the second number is a factor of 1st number. But, 4 is not a factor of 42.

Hence, "42 : 4" is the correct answer.

23

Directions: Choose the odd word/letter/number from the given alternatives.

  1. ((a))

    Year 2012

  2. ((b))

    Year 1998

  3. ((c))

    Year 2005

  4. ((d))

    Year 1997

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Year 2012

Here, out of the four alternatives given above the odd one is option 1 i.e. Year 2012 as It is a leap year and rest other options are normal Years.

So, Year 2012 is the odd one here.

Hence, "Year 2012" is the correct answer.

Important Points A leap year is a year which comes every four years and in which February has 29 days instead of 28. To check whether the Year is a Leap Year or not we simply divide it by 4. If the remainder comes zero then it is a leap year.

24

Directions: Choose the odd word/letter/number from the given alternatives.

  1. ((a))

    Square

  2. ((b))

    Trapezium

  3. ((c))

    Cylinder

  4. ((d))

    Parallelogram

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Cylinder

Here, except Cylinder all other figures are 2 dimensional figures and cylinder is a 3 dimensional figure.

So, Cylinder is the odd one here.

Hence, "Cylinder"  is the correct answer.

Important Points 

2 Dimensional and 3 Dimensional Figures → In geometry a figure is said to be 2 dimensional it it has two dimensions i.e. length and breadth and a figure is said to be 3 dimensional if it has 3 dimensions i.e. length, breadth and height.

25

Directions: Choose the odd word/letter/number from the given alternatives.

  1. ((a))

    Ferry

  2. ((b))

    Submarine

  3. ((c))

    Boat

  4. ((d))

    Ship

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Submarine

Here, except Submarine all other things run above the surface of water but Submarine runs inside the water.

So, Submarine is the odd one here.

Hence, "Submarine" is the correct answer.

26

Write the following words in the order given in the dictionary.

  1. Euphrasy
  2. Eupepsy
  3. Euphonics
  4. Eugenics
  5. Euphony
  1. ((a))

    4, 3, 2, 1, 5

  2. ((b))

    3, 4, 1, 2, 5

  3. ((c))

    4, 2, 3, 5, 1

  4. ((d))

    3, 5, 2, 4, 1

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

4, 2, 3, 5, 1

The words that will come in order given in the dictionary are as follows:

1. Eugenics 2. Eupepsy 3. Euphonics 4. Euphony 5. Euphrasy

Hence, sequence 4, 2, 3, 5, 1 is the correct answer.

27

Which of the following options represents a meaningful sequence of words given below?

  1. Absorption
  2. Digestion
  3. Nutrition
  4. Emissions
  1. ((a))

    3, 1, 2, 4

  2. ((b))

    2, 1, 3, 4

  3. ((c))

    3, 4, 2, 1

  4. ((d))

    3, 2, 1, 4

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

3, 2, 1, 4

The correct meaningful sequence of the above given words is:

Nutrition → Digestion → Absorption → Emissions

Hence, sequence 3, 2, 1, 4 is the correct answer.

28

Directions: Below is a sequence in which one term is missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

ACE, BDF, CEG, ?

  1. ((a))

    DEF

  2. ((b))

    DFH

  3. ((c))

    DEH

  4. ((d))

    DFE

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

DFH

The following diagram consists English alphabets and their positional values:

The pattern followed here is:

Each alphabet's positional value is increased by +1 in the next term in the series. So, First alphabet in the first term is A , in the second term first alphabet would be positional value of A + 1 = B , third term's first alphabet would be positional value of B + 1 = C and first term in the next term would be positional value of C + 1 = D . On following this pattern, the next term in the series would be DFH

Hence, "DFH" is the correct answer.

29

Directions: Below is a sequence in which one term is missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

ABC, PQR, DEF, STU, ?

  1. ((a))

    VWX

  2. ((b))

    GHI

  3. ((c))

    IJK

  4. ((d))

    GKL

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

GHI

The following diagram consists of English alphabets and their positional values:

Logic: Here in alternate pair Each alphabet's positional value is increased by +3

The pattern followed here is shown below:

 

Hence, "GHI" is the correct answer.

30

Directions: Below is a sequence in which one term is missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

2, 3, 5, 9, 17, ?

  1. ((a))

    31

  2. ((b))

    32

  3. ((c))

    33

  4. ((d))

    34

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

33

Logic: Here, the difference between the two numbers is doubled in each step.

The pattern followed here is:

So, the next number that would come in the series would be 33

Hence, "33" is the correct answer.

31

Directions: Below is a sequence in which one term is missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

7, 12, 22, 42, 82, ?

  1. ((a))

    122

  2. ((b))

    162

  3. ((c))

    182

  4. ((d))

    142

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

162

Logic : the difference between two number is doubled in each step.

The pattern followed here is shown below:

Hence, "162" is the correct answer.

32

Find the missing number from the given alternatives.

  1. ((a))

    0

  2. ((b))

    125

  3. ((c))

    100

  4. ((d))

    144

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

144

The pattern followed here is shown below:

7 - 3 =  4 → 4 × 2 =  8 → (8)2 = 64

5 - 5 = 0 → 0 × 2 = 0 → (0)2 = 0

11 - 8 = 3 → 3 × 2 = 6 → (6)= 36

Similarly,

8 - 2 = 6 → 6 × 2 = 12 → (12)2 = 144

So, the missing number is 144

Hence, "144" is the correct answer.

33

Find the missing number from the options given below.

967
8?3
358
216900168
  1. ((a))

    30

  2. ((b))

    55

  3. ((c))

    60

  4. ((d))

    70

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

30

The pattern followed here is shown below:

From the first column,

9 × 8 × 3 = 216

Similarly,

6 × ? × 5 = 900

30 × ? = 900

? = 900 ÷ 30

? = 30

So, the missing number is 30

Hence, "30" is the correct answer.

34

Directions: Below is a sequence in which one term is missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

4, 10, ?, 82, 244, 730

  1. ((a))

    24

  2. ((b))

    28

  3. ((c))

    77

  4. ((d))

    56

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

28

The pattern followed here is shown below:

4 × 3 - 2 = 12 - 2 = 10

10 × 3 - 2 = 30  - 2 = 28

28 × 3 - 2 = 84 - 2 = 82

82 × 3 - 2 = 246 - 2 = 244 

244 × 3 - 2 = 732 - 2 = 730

So, 28 will complete the series.

Hence,"28"  is the correct answer.

35

Directions: Below is a sequence in which one term is missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

10000, 11000, 9900, 10890, 9801, ?

  1. ((a))

    10261

  2. ((b))

    10425

  3. ((c))

    10781

  4. ((d))

    10771

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

10781

The pattern followed here is shown below:

⇒ 10000 + (110\frac{1}{10 }× 10000) = 10000 + 1000 = 11000

⇒ 11000 - (110\frac{1}{10 } × 11000) = 11000 - 1100 = 9900

⇒ 9900 + ( 110\frac{1}{10 } × 9900) = 9900 + 990 = 10890

⇒ 10890 - ( 110\frac{1}{10 } × 10890) = 10890 - 1089 = 9801

 = 9801 + 980.1 = 10781.1 which is equivalent to 10781

Hence, "10781" is the correct answer.

36

Directions: Below is a sequence in which one term is missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

4, 8, 28, 80, 244, ?

  1. ((a))

    252

  2. ((b))

    428

  3. ((c))

    628

  4. ((d))

    728

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

728

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "728".

Alternate Method

(3)1 + 1 = 3 + 1 = 4

(3)2 - 1 = 9 - 1 = 8

(3)3 + 1 = 27 + 1 = 28

(3)4 - 1 = 81 - 1 = 80

(3)+ 1 = 243 + 1 = 244

(3)6 - 1 = 729 - 1 = 728

So, In place of '?' 728 will come.

Hence, "728" is the correct answer.

37

Directions: Below is a sequence in which one term is missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

165, 195, 255, 285, 345, ?

  1. ((a))

    375

  2. ((b))

    390

  3. ((c))

    420

  4. ((d))

    405

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

375

The pattern followed here is as follows:

Hence, "375" is the correct answer.

38

Which group of letters will complete the given letter series by placing them at empty places in sequence.

_ _ aba_ _ ba _ ab

  1. ((a))

    abbba

  2. ((b))

    abbab

  3. ((c))

    baabb

  4. ((d))

    bbaba

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

abbab

Option 1)  ab aba bb ba a ab

Option 2)  ab ab / abab /abab

Option 3) ba aba ab ba b ab

Option 4)  bb aba ab ba a ab

Hence, "abbab" is the correct answer.

39

If A is sister of B. C is the mother of B. D is the father of C. E is the mother of D. Accordingly what is the relationship between A and D?

  1. ((a))

    Grandmother 

  2. ((b))

    Paternal Grandfather 

  3. ((c))

    Grandson 

  4. ((d))

    Granddaughter 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Granddaughter 

By using the symbols in the table given below, we can draw the following family tree:

Clearly, A is granddaughter of D or D is maternal grandfather of A.

Hence, ‘granddaughter’ is the correct answer.

40

Which group of letters will complete the given letter series by placing them in empty places sequentially?

op_mo_n pnmop

  1. ((a))

    mnpmon

  2. ((b))

    mpnmop

  3. ((c))

    mnompn

  4. ((d))

    mnpomn

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

mnpmon

1)mopnmopnmopnmopn
2)moppmonnmopnmopp
3)mopnmoonmppnmopn
4)mopnmopnompnmopn

The sequence is mopn mopn mopn mopn.

Hence, ‘mnpmon’ is the correct set of letters.

41

If (i) M is brother of N. (ii) B is brother of N and (iii) M is brother of D, then which of the following statements is definitely true?

  1. ((a))

    N is brother of B.

  2. ((b))

    N is brother of D.

  3. ((c))

    M is brother of B.

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

M is brother of B.

By using the symbols in the table given below, we can draw the following family tree:

1) N is brother of B. → False (As, gender of ‘N’ is not known)

2) N is brother of D. → False (As, gender of ‘N’ is not known)

3) M is brother of B. → True

4) None of these → False (As ‘3’ is true)

Hence, ‘M is brother of B’ is the correct answer.

42

What is the next term in this series?

BMO, EOQ, HQS, ?

  1. ((a))

    KSU

  2. ((b))

    LMN

  3. ((c))

    SOV

  4. ((d))

    None of the above 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

KSU

The pattern followed here is:

According to the alphabetical positions of the letters,

Hence, ‘KSU’ is the correct answer.

43

Find the missing term in this sequence.

ADVENTURE, DVENTURE, DVENTUR, ?, VENTU

  1. ((a))

    VENTUR

  2. ((b))

    DVENT

  3. ((c))

    DVETNU

  4. ((d))

    None of the above 

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

VENTUR

The logic is:

ADVENTURE

DVENTURE → ‘A’, the letter at the extreme left end is eliminated.

DVENTUR → ‘E’, the letter at the extreme right end is eliminated.

VENTUR → ‘D’, the letter at the extreme left end is eliminated.

VENTU → ‘R’, the letter at the extreme right end is eliminated.

Hence, ‘VENTUR’ is the correct answer.

44

If the word 'MACHINE' is coded as 19-7-9-14-15-20-11, then choose the option which is the correct code for the word 'DANGER'?

  1. ((a))

    11-7-20-16-11-24

  2. ((b))

    10-7-20-13-11-24

  3. ((c))

    13-7-20-9-11-25

  4. ((d))

    13-7-20-10-11-25

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

10-7-20-13-11-24

The pattern followed here is:

According to the alphabetical positions of the letters,

Similarly,

Hence, ‘10-7-20-13-11-24’ is the correct answer.

45

If NOIDA is written 39658 in a code language, then how to write INDIA?

  1. ((a))

    36568

  2. ((b))

    63568

  3. ((c))

    63569

  4. ((d))

    65368

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

63568

The logic is:

NOIDA
39658

 

Similarly,

INDIA
63568

 

Hence, ‘63568’ is the correct answer.

46

If ZIP = 198 and ZAP = 246, how will VIP be written in the same code language accordingly?

  1. ((a))

    174

  2. ((b))

    222

  3. ((c))

    888

  4. ((d))

    990

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

174

The pattern followed here is:

According to the alphabetical positions of the letters,

ZIP = [Z (26) - I (9) + P (16)] × 6 = (26 - 9 + 16) × 6 = 33 × 6 = 198

ZAP = [Z (26) - A (1) + P (16)] × 6 = (26 - 1 + 16) × 6 = 41 × 6 = 246

Similarly,

VIP = [V (22) - I (9) + P (16)] × 6 = (22 - 9 + 16) × 6 = 29 × 6 = 174

Hence, ‘174’ is the correct answer.

47

In a code language TEACHER is written as VGCEJGT, so how to write CHILDREN in the same code script?

  1. ((a))

    EJKNEGTP

  2. ((b))

    EGKNITPO

  3. ((c))

    EJKNFGTO

  4. ((d))

    EJKNFTGP

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

EJKNFTGP

The pattern followed here is:

According to the alphabetical positions of the letters,

Similarly,

 

Hence, ‘EJKNFTGP’ is the correct answer.

48

Four dice conditions are displayed below:

When there is 1 above the dice, what will be the number in the bottom?

  1. ((a))

    6

  2. ((b))

    3

  3. ((c))

    2

  4. ((d))

    5

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2

In the two dice shown above, '1' is the common face on both the dice which implies that 4, 5, 3 and 6 are adjacent to '1' and the remaining face '2' is opposite to '1'.

Clearly, when there is 1 above the dice, then the number '2' will be in the bottom.

Hence, ‘2’ is the correct answer.

49

In a code language GOLD is written as HOME, COME as DONE and CORD as DOSE, so what will be written to SONS in the same code language?

  1. ((a))

    TPOT

  2. ((b))

    TOOT

  3. ((c))

    TOOS

  4. ((d))

    TONT

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

TOOT

The pattern followed here is:

Logic:- Consonant + 1, Vowel +0

According to the alphabetical positions of the letters,

Similarly,

Hence, ‘TOOT’ is the correct answer.

50

6720 is written as RED in a code language, so how will GREEN be written in that code language?

  1. ((a))

    1677199

  2. ((b))

    1677209

  3. ((c))

    16717209

  4. ((d))

    9207716

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1677209

The pattern followed here is:

According to the alphabetical positions of the letters,

The code for RED is obtained when the numbers are written from right end to left end.

Similarly,

The numbers when written from right end to left end, the code obtained for GREEN is 1677209.

Hence, ‘1677209’ is the correct answer.

51

How many triangles are there in the picture below?

  1. ((a))

    11

  2. ((b))

    14

  3. ((c))

    16

  4. ((d))

    22 or more

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

22 or more

The total number of triangles in the given figure is shown below:

Hence, ‘22 or more’ is the correct answer.

52

Which of the letters in the following diagram represents the students who play football as well as hockey along with cricket?

  1. ((a))

    S + T + U

  2. ((b))

    V

  3. ((c))

    S

  4. ((d))

    P + R + U

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

S

The letters in the diagram which represents the students who play football as well as hockey along with cricket is shown below:

Hence, ‘S’ is the correct answer.

53

Direction: Two statements are given followed by two conclusions I and II. Which of the four options is correct?

Statement:

I. All teachers are elderly.

II. Some women are teachers.

Conclusions:

I. All the elderly are women.

II. Some women are elderly.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follows.

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows.

  3. ((c))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

  4. ((d))

    Both conclusions I and II follow.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Only conclusion II follows.

The least possible Venn diagram is:          

Conclusions:

I. All the elderly are women. → False (As, All teachers are elderly and some women are teachers → Some elderly are women)

II. Some women are elderly. → True (As, All teachers are elderly and some women are teachers → Some women are elderly)

Hence, only conclusion II follows.

54

Direction: Two statements are given followed by two conclusions I and II. Which of the four options is correct?

Statement:

I. All skaters are good swimmers.

II. All good swimmers are runners.

Conclusions:

I. Some runners are skaters.

II. Some skaters are good swimmers.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follows.

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows.

  3. ((c))

    Both conclusions I and II follow.

  4. ((d))

    Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Both conclusions I and II follow.

The least possible Venn diagram is:          

 

Conclusions:

I. Some runners are skaters. → True (As, All skaters are good swimmers and All good swimmers are runners → Some runners are skaters)

II. Some skaters are good swimmers. → True (As, All skaters are good swimmers and All good swimmers are runners → Some skaters are good swimmers)

Hence, both conclusions I and II follow.

55

Direction: Which one of the following Venn diagrams correctly represents the relationship between classes?

Humans, Birds, Animals

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The Venn diagram that correctly represents the relationship between Humans, Birds, and Animals is shown below:

All Humans are Animals: Biologically, humans belong to the species Homo sapiens, which is a part of the Animal Kingdom.

All Birds are Animals: Birds belong to the class Aves, which is also a major group within the Animal Kingdom.

Hence, ‘option 1’ is the correct answer.

56

Direction: Which one of the following Venn diagrams correctly represents the relationship between classes?

Fruits, Apples, Oranges

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The Venn diagram that correctly represents the relationship between Fruits, Apples, and Oranges is shown below:

Apple and Oranges are name of fruits.

Hence, ‘option 2’ is the correct answer.

57

If a mirror is placed on the MN line, then which of the given answer figures will be the correct reflection image of the question figure?

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

When the mirror is placed on the MN line, then the answer figure which is the correct reflection of the image of the question figure is shown below:

Hence, ‘option 3’ is the correct answer.

58

Question figure:

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The answer figure that will complete the pattern in the question figure is shown below:

Hence, 'option 1’ is the correct answer.

59

Question figure:

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The answer figure that will complete the pattern in the question figure is shown below:

Hence, 'option 3’ is the correct answer.

60

Question figure:

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The answer figure that will complete the pattern in the question figure is shown below:

Hence, 'option 3’ is the correct answer.

61

Directions: The given question figure can be made from the given pieces in which of the four answer figures below?

Question figure:

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

The question figure can be made by using the answer figure 4, which is shown below:

Put the two dots at the center of the circle, the 'V' shaped image below the two circles and the two curves at the top of the two circles, we get a figure similar to that of the question figure.

Hence, ‘option 4’ is the correct answer.

62

Directions: The given question figure can be made from the given pieces in which of the four answer figures below?

Question figure:

  1. ((a))

  2. ((b))

  3. ((c))

  4. ((d))

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The given question figure can be made from the given pieces of answer figure 2, which is shown below:

Join the four triangles at each corner of the octagon and put the dot and circle in the middle of the octagon. Also, attach the four lines at the four sides of the octagon, we get the question figure.

Hence, ‘option 2’ is the correct answer.

63

A word is represented by only one set of numbers, as given in one of the alternatives. The set of numbers given in the alternatives is represented by two classes of letters, as in the two matrices given below. The number of rows on the column side of matrix I is given from 0 to 4 and that of matrix II from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and later by the column number. For example, "T" can be represented by 31, 86 etc. and "S" can be represented by 14, 69 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the group for the word MANGO.

Matrix - I

01234
0GVEAC
1RONGS
2MNESI
3OTITA
4NSNEP

 

Matrix - II

56789
5GVEAC
6RONGS
7MNESI
8OTITA
9NSNEP
  1. ((a))

    75, 86, 12, 67, 99

  2. ((b))

    20, 97, 42, 14, 56

  3. ((c))

    75, 34, 58, 13, 30

  4. ((d))

    20, 03, 21, 00, 30

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

20, 03, 21, 00, 30

The word formed by each option is shown below:

  1. 75, 86, 12, 67, 99 → M, T, N, N, P

  2. 20, 97, 42, 14, 56 → M, N, N, S, V

  3. 75, 34, 58, 13, 30 → M, A, A, G, O

  4. 20, 03, 21, 00, 30 → M, A, N, G, O

Hence, ‘20, 03, 21, 00, 30’ is the correct answer.

64

Which of the following is the green substance that performs photosynthesis in plants?

  1. ((a))

    Chlorophyll

  2. ((b))

    Chloroplast

  3. ((c))

    Chloroform

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Chlorophyll

The correct answer is Chlorophyll.

  • Chlorophyll is the green substance that performs photosynthesis in plants.

Key Points

  • Photosynthesis:
  • In the presence of water, light, chlorophyll, and carbon dioxide, the formation of carbohydrates in the plant is called photosynthesis.
  • Terrestrial plants take CO2 from the atmosphere whereas aquatic plants use carbon dioxide mixed in water.
  • Water enters into cells of the leaves through osmosis and CO2 through diffusion from the atmosphere or released during respiration.
  • The green colour of the plants is due to the presence of chlorophyll.
  • There is an atom of magnesium in the centre of chlorophyll.
  • Chlorophyll absorbs the violet, blue, and red colour of light.
  • The rate of photosynthesis is maximum in red light and is minimum in violet light.
  • The process of photosynthesis is a reaction of oxidation and reductions.
65

In which state is 'Silent Valley' or 'Mook Ghati' located?

  1. ((a))

    Tamilnadu

  2. ((b))

    Goa

  3. ((c))

    Jammu and Kashmir

  4. ((d))

    Kerala

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Kerala

The correct answer is Kerala.

  • The 'Silent Valley' or 'Mook Ghati' is located in Kerala.

Key Points

  • Silent Valley is located in the Palakkad district of Kerala.
  • British coined the name 'Silent Valley' in 1847 because of a perceived absence of noisy s.
  • The valley is famous for Silent Valley National Park.
  • It was established in December 1984.
66

Goa is situated on which river?

  1. ((a))

    Narmada River

  2. ((b))

    Mandovi River

  3. ((c))

    Tapi River

  4. ((d))

    Pennar River

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Mandovi River

The correct answer is Mandovi River.

  • Goa is situated on the Mandovi River.

Key Points

  • Mandovi river:
  • It is also known as the Mahadayi river.
  • The Mandovi and the Zuari are the two primary rivers in Goa and are called the Lifeline of Goa.
  • The river originates in the Western Ghats.
  • It drains in the Arabian Sea.

Additional Information

  • Narmada River:
  • Origin: Amarkantak
  • Drainage: Arabian Sea
  • Cities on its bank: Jabalpur, Hoshangabad, Omkareshwar, Maheshwar.
  • Tapi River:
  • Origin: Satpura Range
  • Drainage: Gulf of Khambhat
  • Cities on its bank: Surat, Burhanpur,  Akola, Buldhana, Washim, Jalgaon and Dhule.
  • Pennar River:
  • Origin: Nandi Hills
  • Drainage: Bay of Bengal.
  • Cities on its bank: Chikkaballapur, Gauribidanur, Hindupur, Ananthapur, Tadipatri Proddatur, Kadapa and Nellore
67

Which vitamin deficiency causes rickets in humans?

  1. ((a))

    Vitamin - K

  2. ((b))

    Vitamin - D

  3. ((c))

    Vitamin - A

  4. ((d))

    Vitamin - C

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Vitamin - D

The deficiency of Vitamin - D causes rickets in humans.

Key Points

Vitamin-D:

  • The chemical name of Vitamin D is Cholecalciferol.
  • Its deficiency causes rickets.
  • It was discovered by Edward Mellanby.
  • It is fat-soluble.
  • It is found in Fish, eggs, liver, mushrooms.

Additional Information

VitaminsChemical NameDeficiencySource
Vitamin - KPhylloquinoneBleeding diathesisLeafy green vegetables, egg yolks
Vitamin - ARetinolNight blindnessOrange,
leafy vegetables, carrots,
pumpkin, fish, soymilk, milk
Vitamin - CAscorbic acidScurvyCitrus fruits
68

Protein-calorie malnutrition results in

  1. ((a))

    Marasmus

  2. ((b))

    Rickets

  3. ((c))

    Beri-Beri

  4. ((d))

    Valk-Skin

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Marasmus

The correct answer is Marasmus.

  • Protein-calorie malnutrition results in Marasmus.

Key Points

  • Protein-calorie malnutrition results in kwashiorkor and marasmus.
  • Kwashiorkor is an acute**, severe protein-calorie malnutrition** that results in oedema and hair changes.
  • Marasmus is the chronic form of kwashiorkor and causes apathy and growth failure.

Additional Information

  • Rickets and Valk-Skin are caused due to deficiency of Vitamin D.
  • Beri-Beri is caused due to deficiency of Vitamin B1.
69

In which of the following areas will the value of 'g' (gravity) be the highest?

  1. ((a))

    On top of mount everest

  2. ((b))

    Over the Qutub Minar

  3. ((c))

    At the equator

  4. ((d))

    In the Antarctic Camp

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

In the Antarctic Camp

The correct answer is In the Antarctic Camp.

  • In the Antarctic Camp, the value of 'g' (gravity) is the highest.

Key Points

  • Gravity:
  • The acceleration due to gravity is the rate of increase of velocity of a body falling freely towards the earth.
  • It is represented by g=GMeRe2g= {GM_e \over R^2_e}.

where Me is the mass of the earth and Re is the radius of the earth.

  • The value of g at the surface of the earth is 9.8 m/s2.
  • Variation in g:
  • Value of g decreases with height or depth from the earth’s surface.
  • g is maximum at poles. Hence, it will be maximum at the Camp in Antarctica
  • g is minimum at the equator.
  • g decreases due to the rotation of the earth.
  • g decreases if the angular speed of earth increases and increases if the angular speed of earth decreases

Additional Information

  • The value of g on the Moon is 1/6th of that on the earth.
70

Malfunction of which part of the body causes diabetes?

  1. ((a))

    Liver

  2. ((b))

    Pancreas

  3. ((c))

    Kidney

  4. ((d))

    Heart

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Pancreas

The correct answer is Pancreas.

  • Malfunction of the pancreas causes diabetes.

Key Points

  • Pancreas:
  • It is the second-largest gland of the human body.
  • It acts simultaneously as an endocrine and exocrine type of gland.
  • Groups of pancreatic cells are called Islets of Langerhans
  • Insulin is secreted by β-Cells of islets of Langerhans.
  • It controls the process of making glycogen from glucose.
  • Diabetes is caused due to the deficiency of insulin.
  • Excessive flow of insulin causes hypoglycemia in which one loses the producing capacity and vision deterioration.

Additional Information

  • Liver:
  • It is the largest gland of the human body.
  • Bile juice is secreted through the liver.
  • Kidney:
  • The function of the kidneys is the purification of blood plasma, i.e. to excrete the unwanted nitrogenous waste substances through urination.
  • Heart:
  • The function of the heart is to deliver blood to every part of your body.
71

What is Ebola?

  1. ((a))

    Virus

  2. ((b))

    Bacteria

  3. ((c))

    Protozoa

  4. ((d))

    Fungi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Virus

The correct answer is Virus.

  • Ebola is a virus.

Key Points

  • Virus:
  • The virus was discovered by Russian scientist Dmitri Ivanovsky.
  • Viruses are ultra-microscopic particles.
  • They are a connecting link between the living and nonliving organisms.
  • Characteristics of a Virus:
  • They become active inside living cells.
  • Nucleic acids replicate themselves and reproduce rapidly.
  • They cause diseases like bacteria and fungi.
  • Ebola Virus:
  • It is also known as the Ebola virus disease (EVD) or Ebola hemorrhagic fever (EHF).
  • Ebola is named after the river in Africa where the disease was first recognized in 1976.
  • Diseases caused due to viruses:
  • Small Pox, Measles, Mumps, Herpes, Dengue, Common Cold and AIDS.

 

Additional Information

  • Bacteria:
  • It was discovered by Antonie van Leeuwenhoek.
  • Diseases caused due to bacteria:
  • Diphtheria, Pneumonia, Cholera, Tetanus, Tuberculosis, Plague and Gonorrhoea
  • Fungi:
  • Fungi are chlorophyll-less, central carriers, tissueless, Thalophytes.
  • Diseases caused due to Fungi:
  • ​Ringworm and Athlete’s Foot.
  • Protozoa:
  • It is unicellular.
  • Diseases caused due to Protozoa:  
  • Malaria, dysentery, Diarrhoea, Kala Azar.
72

Goitre disease is caused by iodine deficiency. In which of the following areas can it be spread?

  1. ((a))

    Coastal areas

  2. ((b))

    Mountainous areas

  3. ((c))

    Desert areas

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Mountainous areas

The correct answer is Mountainous areas.

Key Points

  • Iodine is an essential component of the hormones produced by the thyroid gland.
  • Iodine is widely but unevenly distributed in the earth’s environment.
  • Most iodide is found in the oceans (≈50 μg/L), and iodide ions in seawater are oxidized to elemental iodine, which volatilizes into the atmosphere and is returned to the soil by rain, completing the cycle.
  • However, iodine cycling in many regions is slow and incomplete, and soils and groundwater become deficient in iodine.
  • Crops grown in these soils will be low in iodine, and humans and animals consuming food grown in these soils become iodine deficient.
  • Iodine deficient soils are most common in inland regions, mountainous areas, and areas of frequent flooding.
  • Iodine deficiency in populations residing in these areas will persist until iodine enters the food chain through the addition of iodine to foods (e.g. iodization of salt) or dietary diversification introduces foods produced in iodine-sufficient areas.

Additional Information

  • A goitre is a swelling in the neck resulting from an enlarged thyroid gland.
  • A goitre can be associated with a thyroid that is not functioning properly.

73

Where is Vitamin-A mainly stored?

  1. ((a))

    Lung

  2. ((b))

    Kidney

  3. ((c))

    Chest

  4. ((d))

    Liver

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Liver

The correct answer is Liver.

  • Vitamin-A mainly stored in the liver.

Key Points

  • Liver:
  • It is the largest gland of the human body.
  • Bile juice is secreted through the liver.
  • It converts excess amino acid into ammonia by deamination.
  • The ammonia is further converted into urea by the ornithine cycle.
  • The liver converts some quantity of protein into glucose during the defecation of carbohydrate.
  • It regulates the quantity of glucose in the blood.
  • It reserves some quantity of iron, copper and vitamin A.

Additional Information

  • Vitamin A is called Retinol.
  • Its deficiency causes night blindness.
74

Female culex mosquito is the carrier of which of the following diseases?

  1. ((a))

    Malaria

  2. ((b))

    Filaria

  3. ((c))

    Ring-worm

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Filaria

Diseases:

  • It is any harmful deviation from the normal structural or functional state of an organism, generally associated with certain signs and symptoms and differing in nature from physical injury.
  • A diseased organism commonly exhibits signs or symptoms indicative of its abnormal state.

Explanation:

Types of diseases:

  • There are four main types of disease:
  • infectious diseases,
  • deficiency diseases,
  • hereditary diseases (including both genetic diseases and non-genetic hereditary diseases), and
  • physiological diseases.

​Filariasis:

  • ​Filariasis is an infectious tropical disease.
  • It is caused by any one of several thread-like parasitic roundworms.
  • The two species of worms most often associated with this disease are Wuchereria bancrofti and Brugia malayi.
  • The larval form of the parasite transmits the disease to humans by the bite of female culex mosquito.
  • It causes the human body to swell.

The correct answer is Filaria.

75

Isobar lines represent which of the following?

  1. ((a))

    Uniform humidity area

  2. ((b))

    Uniform temperature

  3. ((c))

    Uniform rainfall

  4. ((d))

    Uniform atmospheric pressure

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Uniform atmospheric pressure

The correct answer is Uniform atmospheric pressure.

  • Isobar lines represent Uniform atmospheric pressure.

Key Points

  • Isobar is a line drawn on a weather map connecting points of equal pressure.
  • It is generated from mean sea level pressure reports and the pressure values are given in millibars.

Isobars: lines of constant pressure

 

Additional Information

  • Isohume represents the line of equal humidity.
  • Isotherm represents the line of equal temperature.
  • Isohyets represents the line of uniform rainfall.
76

Which of these rivers falls into the Rann of Kutch?

  1. ((a))

    Sabarmati

  2. ((b))

    Luni

  3. ((c))

    Betwa

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Luni

The correct answer is Luni.

  • Luni river falls into the Rann of Kutch.

Key Points

  • Luni River:
  • The river originates in the Pushkar valley of the Aravalli Range.
  • It is the largest river in the Thar Desert.
  • The river flows through Rajasthan and Gujarat
  • The river falls into Rann of Kutch.
  • Luni is also called the Salt River.
  • Rann of Kutch:
  • The Rann of Kutch is a salt marsh in the Thar Desert in the Kutch District of Gujarat.

Additional Information

  • Sabarmati River:
  • Origin: Dhebar Lake.
  • Drain:  Arabia Sea.
  • Betwa River:
  • Origin: Vindhya Range
  • Drain: Yamuna River.
77

Where is the location of thyroid gland?

  1. ((a))

    Liver

  2. ((b))

    Neck

  3. ((c))

    Underarms

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Neck

The correct answer is Neck.

  • The thyroid gland is located in the neck.

Key Points

  • Thyroid Gland:
  • It produces hormones that regulate the body's metabolic rate-controlling like heart, muscle and digestive function, brain development and bone maintenance.
  • Its good functioning depends on a good supply of iodine from the diet.

Where Is the Thyroid Gland Located in Your Body? - Thyroid Sydney

78

Which of the following is the chemical name of common salt?

  1. ((a))

    Calcium carbonate

  2. ((b))

    Sodium carbonate

  3. ((c))

    Sodium chloride

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Sodium chloride

The correct answer is Sodium chloride.

  • Sodium chloride is the chemical name of common salt.

Key Points

  • Common salt is chemically called Sodium chloride.
  • Its formula is NaCl.

 

Additional Information

  • Calcium carbonate is the chemical name of chalk and lime.
  • Its formula is CaCO3.
  • Sodium Carbonate is the chemical name of washing soda.
  • Its formula is Na2CO3.
79

The color of the stars depends-

  1. ((a))

    On their temperature

  2. ((b))

    On their pressure

  3. ((c))

    On their age

  4. ((d))

    On their distance from solar system

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

On their temperature

The correct answer is On their temperature.

  • The colour of the stars depends on their temperature.

Key Points

  • Stars:
  • Stars are made of hot burning gases.
  • They emit light of their own and are very large.
  • Light takes about 4.3 years to reach us from the next nearest star Proxima Centauri.
  • The colour of the stars depends on their temperature.
  • It is as following:
  • Small stars are cool having a temperature less than 3000°C with a red-ish appearance.
  • Heavy stars are hot, having a temperature over 30,000°C, and have a blue-ish glow.
80

Dr. Norman E. Borlaug was from which country?

  1. ((a))

    Spain

  2. ((b))

    Mexico

  3. ((c))

    America

  4. ((d))

    Austria

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

America

The correct answer is America.

  • Dr Norman E. Borlaug was from America.

Key Points

  • Norman Borlaug and Green Revolution:
  • Norman Ernest Borlaug was an agronomist from America.
  • Green Revolution was launched in the year 1966 and was the brainchild of Norman Borlaug.
  • In India, it was made successful by Dr M.S. Swaminathan.
  • The term ‘Green Revolution' was coined by Dr William Gaud.
  • The achievements of the Green Revolution were the rise in cereal production especially wheat and rice, a change in cropping pattern in favour of wheat, and an increase in employment opportunities.
  • In 1970 Norman E. Borlaug was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize for a lifetime of work to feed a hungry world.

Dr. Norman E. Borlaug Honored with Padma Vibhushan in India

81

Iodine test is used to check the presence of

  1. ((a))

    Cholesterol

  2. ((b))

    Fat

  3. ((c))

    Protein

  4. ((d))

    Carbohydrates

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Carbohydrates

The correct answer is carbohydrates.

Key Points

  • An iodine test is used to check the presence of carbohydrates.
  • Carbohydrates are organic compounds in which the ratio of Carbon, Hydrogen, and Oxygen is 1: 2: 1.
  • Carbohydrates are classified into three major groups:
  • Monosaccharides
  • Oligosaccharides
  • Polysaccharides
  • In the iodine test if the sample contains carbohydrates then the sample turns blue-black in colour with a few drops of a potassium iodide solution.

Additional Information

  • Proteins are tested using the Biuret test for proteins.
  • Tests to determine fats are the Acrolein test, Baudouin test, and Hubble's test.
82

Which article of Indian constitution is related to abolition of untouchability?

  1. ((a))

    Article - 14

  2. ((b))

    Article - 15

  3. ((c))

    Article - 17

  4. ((d))

    Article - 18

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Article - 17

The correct answer is Article - 17.

Key Points

  • Article 17 ensures the Abolition of Untouchability.
  • Untouchability is a social stigma that was and is imposed on certain classes of people by reason of their birth in certain castes.

Additional Information

  • Article 15 deals with the Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
  • Article 16 guarantees equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
  • Article 18 ensures the Abolition of titles.
83

The chemical name of Plaster of Paris is ___________.

  1. ((a))

    Calcium Chloride

  2. ((b))

    Calcium Nitrate

  3. ((c))

    Calcium Sulfate hemihydrate

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Calcium Sulfate hemihydrate

The correct answer is Calcium Sulfate hemihydrate.

  • The chemical name of Plaster of Paris is Calcium Sulfate hemihydrate.

Key Points

  • Plaster of Paris
  • It is chemically called calcium sulfate hemihydrate.
  • Its formula is (CaSO4) ½H2O.
  • It is formed from gypsum, which is CaSO4. 2H2O.
  • It is used to plaster fractured bones, for making toys, materials for decoration, and for making surfaces smooth.

Additional Information

  • Calcium Chloride is a salt, white-colored crystalline solid.
  • Its formula is CaCl2.
  • Calcium Nitrate is also known as Norgessalpeter.
  • Its chemical formula is Ca(NO3)2.
84

Which of the following cow species is not native?

  1. ((a))

    Holstein-Friesian

  2. ((b))

    Gir

  3. ((c))

    Red-Sindhi

  4. ((d))

    Tharparkar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Holstein-Friesian

The correct answer is Holstein-Friesian.

  • Holstein-Friesian is the world's highest-producing dairy animal.
  • They are also known as Holstein Cattle.
  • They originated from Netherlands, Germany, Denmark, Austria, France,  Switzerland, and Belgium.
  • They are a dual-purpose breed used for both dairy and meat.
  • They have horns but as calves, they are dehorned.
  • They have black and white patched coat and occasionally they can even have a red and white patched coat on their body.
  • The gestation period is about nine and a half months.
  • Gir cow species are found in India and used for dairy purposes.
  • Red-Sindhi is found in India/Pakistan and is used for both dairy and meat purposes.
  • Tharparkar cow species are found in India and Pakistan and are used for dairy purposes.

Image of Holstein-Friesian:

See the source image

85

In Bihar Panchayati Raj Act, the duration of Gram Panchayat is fixed for five years. Its counting-

  1. ((a))

    is done from the date of the notification of Panchayat election.

  2. ((b))

    is done from the date of the first meeting of the Panchayat.

  3. ((c))

    is done from the date of declaration of results of Panchayat election.

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

is done from the date of the first meeting of the Panchayat.

The correct answer is done from the date of the first meeting of the Panchayat.

  • Panchayati Raj system is the system that ensures the participation of individuals at the grass-root level.
  • 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 is related to the Panchayati Raj system.
  • Part IX (Schedule 11) of the Constitution of India deals with the Panchayati Raj system.
  • Rajasthan is the first state to implement the Panchayati Raj system on 2nd October 1959 in its Nagaur district.
  • Haryana and Rajasthan are the state which requires minimum educational qualification to contest the Panchayat elections.
  • Arunanchal Pradesh does not reserve seats for Scheduled castes in Panchayati Raj Institutions.
  • The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee recommended 3- tier structure consisting of
  • Zilla Parishad at the District Level
  • Panchayat Samiti at the Block Level
  • Gram Panchayat at the Village Level.
  • Ashok Mehta Committee appointed in December 1977 by Janata Party Government in 1978 submitted its report stating replacement of 3-tier system by a 2-tier system consisting of Mandal Panchayats at the base and Zila Parishad at the top.
  • After the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, the Government of Bihar enacted the Bihar Panchayati Raj Act, 1993 and a 3-tier system of Panchayati Raj institutions started functioning in Bihar.
  • The Bihar Panchayati Raj Act 1993 was replaced by the Bihar Panchayati Raj Act 2006 and a 3-tier system came into existence after the first general elections held in April/May 2001.
  • There are currently 8,406 Panchayats in Bihar. (May 2021)
  • The elected body comprising of Gram Sabha members is called Gram Panchayat.
  • It is a basic village governing institute in Indian villages.
  • It acts as a cabinet of the village and it is a political institute.
  • The Gram Panchayats consists of
  • Sarpanch
  • Panches minimum 6 and maximum 13.
  • The chairman of the Gram Panchayat at the village level is called Pradhan.
  • The Pradhan is directly elected by the Gram Sabha.
  • In Bihar Panchayati Raj Act, the duration of Gram Panchayat is fixed for five years.
  • Its counting is done from the date of the first meeting of the Panchayat.
  • Article 243E. Duration of Panchayats, etc.—(1) Every Panchayat, unless sooner dissolved under any law for the time being in force, shall continue for five years from the date appointed for its first meeting and no  longer.
86

Which of the following statements is correct with reference to Rajya Sabha?

  1. ((a))

    The Council of Ministers is responsible to the Rajya Sabha.

  2. ((b))

    A vote of confidence can be brought in the Rajya Sabha.

  3. ((c))

    Parliament can legislate on any subject of the State List if the Rajya Sabha passes by a two-thirds majority that the relevant subject of the State List has become of national importance.

  4. ((d))

    Money bill can be brought in Rajya Sabha.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Parliament can legislate on any subject of the State List if the Rajya Sabha passes by a two-thirds majority that the relevant subject of the State List has become of national importance.

The correct answer is  Parliament can legislate on any subject of the State List if the Rajya Sabha passes by a two-thirds majority that the relevant subject of the State List has become of national importance.

  • Article 79 to 122 in Part V of the Constitution of India deals with the Parliament.
  • The Parliament consists of 
  • President
  • Council of States (Rajya Sabha)
  • House of the People (Lok Sabha).
  • The President is the first citizen of India.
  • The current president of India - Droupadi Murmu
  • Article 52 to Article 78 in part V of the Constitution of India is related to the Union Executive which includes:
  • President
  • Vice President
  • Prime Minister
  • Council of Ministers
  • Attorney General of India.
  • The President is elected by the method called Electoral College.
  • The election of President will take place by Secret Ballot.
  • in the election of the President of India, only the elected members of both the houses of parliament i.e the Loksabha, the Rajya Sabha, and the State Legislative Assembly can participate.
  • in Lok Sabha, two members are nominated by a President who belongs to the Anglo Indian community ( those people whose either mother or father or ancestors are from British).
  • According to the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019 In January 2020 the Anglo-Indian reserved seats in the Parliament and State Legislatures of Indian were abolished.
  • The minimum age required to become a member of the Lok Sabha is 25 years.
  • Article 110 of the Constitution of India deals with the money bill.
  • The Speaker of Lok Sabha decides whether a bill is a money bill or not.
  • it is introduced only in the Lok Sabha on the recommendation of the President.
  • in Rajya Sabha, twelve members are nominated by the President who is having a great contribution in the field of arts, literature, science, and social service.
  • The minimum age required to become a member of the Rajya Sabha is 30 years.
  • The Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
  • In Rajya Sabha, he can cast votes only in case of an equality of votes. Otherwise, he has no voting rights because he is not a member of the Rajya Sabha.
  • Jagdeep Dhankhar is the current Vice President of India. (August 2022)
  • Parliament can legislate on any subject of the State List if the Rajya Sabha passes by a two-thirds majority that the relevant subject of the State List has become of national importance.
87

Which of the statements given below regarding national symbols is not correct?

  1. ((a))

    The ratio of width and length of the national flag of India is 2 ∶ 3.

  2. ((b))

    In the wheel of the national flag, the number of sticks are 24.

  3. ((c))

    The national emblem Lauria is derived from the Lion-head of Nandgarh.

  4. ((d))

    The full official duration of playing the national tune is 52 seconds.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The national emblem Lauria is derived from the Lion-head of Nandgarh.

The correct answer is The national emblem Lauria is derived from the Lion-head of Nandgarh.

  • Facts about the national symbols of India:
  • The ratio of width and length of the national flag of India is 2 ∶ 3.
  • On the wheel of the national flag, the number of sticks is 24 representing 24 hours of the day.
  • The Lauria Nandangarh is a location name in the East Champaran District of the state of Bihar of India.
  • The full official duration of playing the national tune is 52 seconds. It was composed by Rabindranath Tagore in the Bengali language.
  • The song Vande Mataram was composed by Bakimchandra Chatterji in Sanskrit and it is a part of the novel Anand Math (1882).
  • The State Emblem is adapted from the Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka.
  • Peacock is the national bird of India. Its Scientific name is Pavo Cristatus.
  • Mango is the king of all fruits. Its Scientific name is Mangifera Indica.
  • Tiger is the national animal of India. Its Scientific name is Panthera Tigris.
  • Lotus is the national flower of India. Its Scientific name is Nelumbo Nucifera Gaertn.
  • The national tree of India is the Banyan tree. its Scientific name is Ficus Benghalensis.
88

In the election to the Lok Sabha or the Legislative Assembly, a candidate shall lose the amount of his bail if he is voted by ______ of total valid votes.

  1. ((a))

    less than 1/5 votes.

  2. ((b))

    less than 1/7 votes.

  3. ((c))

    less than 1/6 votes.

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

less than 1/6 votes.

The correct answer is less than 1/6 votes.

  • In Lok Sabha, two members are nominated by a President who belongs to the Anglo-Indian community ( those people whose either mother or father or ancestors are from British).
  • According to the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019 In January 2020 the Anglo-Indian reserved seats in the Parliament and State Legislatures of Indian were abolished.
  • The minimum age required to become a member of the Lok Sabha is 25 years.
  • The first speaker of the Lok Sabha is Ganesh Vasudeo Mavalankar (1952-1956) and the first female speaker was Meira Kumar (2009-2014).
  • Article 110 deals with the money bill.
  • The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to decide whether a bill is a money bill or not.
  • It is introduced only in the Lok Sabha on the recommendation of the President.
  • As per Section 34 1 (a) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 it is compulsory for the general candidates to deposit a security amount of Rs. 25,000 in case of Parliamentary Constituency and Rs. 10,000 in case of Assembly Constituency.
  • As per Section 34 1 (b) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 it is compulsory for the Scheduled Caste/ Scheduled Tribe candidates to deposit a security amount of Rs. 12,500 in case of Parliamentary Constituency and Rs. 5,000 in case of Assembly Constituency.
  • In the election to the Lok Sabha or the Legislative Assembly, a candidate shall lose the amount of his bail if he is voted by less than 1/6 votes of total valid votes.
89

Where was the first session of the Indian National Congress held in December 1885?

  1. ((a))

    Calcutta

  2. ((b))

    Bombay

  3. ((c))

    Lahore

  4. ((d))

    Madras

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Bombay

The correct answer is Bombay.

Key Points

  • The Indian National Congress (INC) was founded by Allan Octavian Hume on 28th December 1885.
  • The first session of INC was held in Bombay at Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit Collegeram.
  • The first President of the INC session held in Bombay was Womesh Chandra Banerjee.
  • 72 delegates attended the session.
  • The important leaders during the foundation of INC were Dadabhai Naoroji, Badruddin Tyyabji, Anand Mohan Bose, R.C Dutt, Pherozshah Mehta, G.K Gokhale, G. Subramaniyam Aiyyar, Dinshaw Vacha, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Mahadev Govind Ranade, Madan Mohan Malviya, etc.
  • Formerly Indian National Congress was known as Indian National Union.
  • The INC was formed during the tenure of Lord Dufferin (Viceroy of India from 1884-1888).
Sessions of INC Held atYearPresident
Bombay1885Womesh Chandra Banerjee
Calcutta1896Rahimtullah Sayani
Lucknow1899Romesh Chandra Dutt
Benaras1905Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Calcutta1906Dadabhai Naoroji
Surat1907Rash Bihari Ghosh
Lucknow1916A. C. Majumdar
Calcutta (Special Session)1920Lala Lajpat Rai
Nagpur1920C. Vijayaraghavachariar
Madras1927Dr. M. A. Ansari
Bombay1934Rajendra Prasad
Tripuri1939Rajendra Prasad
90

One party claims to be the opposition party in the Lok Sabha. How many minimum MPs should it have in the Lok Sabha?

  1. ((a))

    55

  2. ((b))

    65

  3. ((c))

    40

  4. ((d))

    100

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

55

The correct answer is 55.

  • In Lok Sabha, two members are nominated by a President who belongs to the Anglo-Indian community ( those people whose either mother or father or ancestors are from British).
  • According to the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019 In January 2020 the Anglo-Indian reserved seats in the Parliament and State Legislatures of Indian were abolished.
  • The minimum age required to become a member of the Lok Sabha is 25 years.
  • The first speaker of the Lok Sabha is Ganesh Vasudeo Mavalankar (1952-1956) and the first female speaker was Meira Kumar (2009-2014).
  • Article 110 deals with the money bill.
  • The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to decide whether a bill is a money bill or not.
  • It is introduced only in the Lok Sabha on the recommendation of the President.
  • One party claims to be the opposition party in the Lok Sabha if it has a  minimum of 55 (10% of the total seats of 545) MPs (Member of Parliaments) in the Lok Sabha.
91

A member of the Gram Panchayat may resign and submit a handwritten application to the Mukhiya. How many days after submitting the application will the resignation be considered effective?

  1. ((a))

    Seven days later

  2. ((b))

    15 days later

  3. ((c))

    21 days later

  4. ((d))

    28 days later which does not include Sunday.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Seven days later

The correct answer is seven days later.

  • The elected body comprising of Gram Sabha members is called Gram Panchayat.
  • It is a basic village governing institute in Indian villages.
  • It acts as a cabinet of the village and it is a political institute.
  • The Gram Panchayats consists of 
  • Sarpanch
  • Panches minimum 6 and maximum 13.
  • The chairman of the Gram Panchayat at the village level is called Pradhan.
  • The Pradhan is directly elected by the Gram Sabha.
  • A member of the Gram Panchayat may resign and submit a handwritten application to the Mukhiya.
  • Seven days later after submitting the application will the resignation be considered effective.
  • The following are the mandatory functions of a Gram Panchayat:
  • Levying and collecting local taxes.
  • Executing Government schemes that are related to employment.
  • Maintaining and Constructing water resources, village roads, drainage, school buildings, and common property resources (CPR).
  • Various issues are discussed in Gram Panchayat which is as follows:
  • Below Poverty Line Benefits (BPL).
  • Tracking misuse of money.
  • The undue favor was done to the group of people.
  • Social issues and water problems.
92

When were the first general elections held after independence in India?

  1. ((a))

    1947

  2. ((b))

    1948

  3. ((c))

    1951

  4. ((d))

    1956

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1951

The correct answer is 1951.

Key Points

  • The first general elections held after independence in India were held from 25th October 1951 to 21st February 1952.
  • It was the largest election conducted at the time.
  • A total of 53 parties and 533 independent candidates contested the 489 seats in the election.
  • There were 17,32,00,000 voters excluding the state of Jammu and Kashmir in the general election of 1951.
  • Out of the 489 seats in the Lok Sabha 245 seats were needed for a majority.
  • Indian National Congress won 364 out of 489 seats and 45% of the total votes polled.
  • Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru became the first democratically elected Prime Minister of India.
  • The elections in India are conducted by the independent constitutional body called the Election Commission of India.
  • Sukumar Sen was the First Chief Election Commissioner of India and the current Chief Election Commissioner of India is Sushil Chandra. (May 2021)
93

In what ratio is the expenditure of the NREGA scheme shared between the center and the state?

  1. ((a))

    90 ∶ 10

  2. ((b))

    50 ∶ 50

  3. ((c))

    75 ∶ 25

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

75 ∶ 25

The correct answer is 75 ∶ 25

  • The expenditure of the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) scheme is shared between the Central Government and the State Governments in the following manner:
  • Wages for unskilled manual workers: 100% funded by the Central Government.
  • Material costs and administrative expenses: Shared in a 75:25 ratio, where the Central Government contributes 75%, and the State Government contributes 25%.

Additional Information

  • The NREGA (National Rural Employment Guarantee Act) is also known as Mahatma Gandhi Employment Guarantee Act 2005.
  • The NREGA was renamed as MNREGA (Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act).
  • It guarantees the right to work and is an Indian labor law and social security measure.
  • The UPA (United Progressive Alliance) Government of Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh passed the act in September 2005.
  • The act was passed on 22nd June 2005 and the bill was published on 22nd March 2005.
  • The act was introduced by the Minister of Rural Development Raghuvansh Prasad Singh.
  • The act was launched on 2nd February 2006 and it is still in force.
  • The objective of the act is to enhance security and livelihood in rural areas by providing at least a hundred days of wage employment in a financial year to every household whose adult members is volunteer to do unskilled manual work.
  • The act was first proposed in the year 1991 by P. V. Narasimha Rao.
94

Which of the following five-year plans was affected due to drought and two wars?

  1. ((a))

    First Five-Year Plan

  2. ((b))

    Third Five-Year Plan

  3. ((c))

    Fifth Five-Year Plan

  4. ((d))

    Sixth Five-Year Plan

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Third Five-Year Plan

The correct answer is Third Five-Year Plan.

Key Points

  • First five-year plan was launched from 1951-1956 under the leadership of Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru.
  • It was based on the Harrod-Domar model.
  • The targeted growth rate of the plan was 2.1%.
  • The plan was successful and achieved a growth rate of 3.6% which was more than its target.
  • The agricultural development of the country was the major objective of the plan.
  • At the end of this plan, five IITs were set up in the country.

Additional Information

  • The third Five Year Plan was launched from 1961-1966 under the leadership of Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru.
  • The Deputy Chairman of the Planning commission at the time of the third five-year plan was D. R. Gadgil.
  • The plan was also known as the Gadgil Yojana.
  • The independent economy, agriculture, and improvement in the production of wheat were the major objectives of the plan.
  • The third Five Year Plan was affected due to drought and two wars (Sino-India war of 1962 and Indo-Pakistani war of 1965).
  • The fifth Five year Plan was launched from 1974-1978.
  • Eradication of poverty, employment, and justice was the major objective of the Fifth Five Year Plan.
  • The plan was successful and achieved a growth rate of 4.8%.
  • Indian National Highway system was introduced.
  • The newly elected Morarji Desai Government in 1978 terminated the plan.
  • The seventh Five Year Plan was launched from 1985-1990 under the leadership of Rajiv Gandhi.
  • The private sector was given priority over the public sector for the first time.
  • The targeted growth rate of the plan was 5%.
  • The plan was successful and achieved a growth rate of 6.01%.
  • The establishment of a self-sufficient economy, opportunities for productive employment, up-gradation of technology, accelerating food grain production, raising productivity with a focus on food work and productivity were the major objectives of the Seventh Five Year Plan.
95

Kisan Sabha was established in Bihar by whom?

  1. ((a))

    Dr. Rajendra Prasad

  2. ((b))

    Sahajanand Saraswati

  3. ((c))

    Jai Prakash Narayan

  4. ((d))

    Swami Agnivesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Sahajanand Saraswati

The correct answer is Sahajanand Saraswati.

  • Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha was formed by Sahajanand Saraswati in year 1929.
  • It was formed to mobilize the grievances of peasants against the attacks of Zamindars on their rights of occupancy and thus sparking India's farmer's movement.
NamePlaceFounder
Kisan SabhaBiharSahajanand Saraswati
Atmiya SabhaCalcuttaRaja Ram Mohan Roy
Dharma SabhaCalcuttaRadha Kanta Deb
Manav Dharma SabhaSuratDurgaram Manchharam Mehta
Tattvabodhini SabhaCalcuttaDebendranath Tagore
Bahiskrit Hitkarni SabhaBombayDr. Babasaheb Ambedkar
Singh sabhaAmritsarThakur Singh Sandhawalia and Giani Gian Singh
Paramhansa SabhaBombayDadoba pandurang
Poona Sarvajanik SabhaPuneMahadev Govind Ranade, Ganesh Vasudev Joshi, S. H. Chiplunkar
Prathana SamajBombayAatmaram Pandurang

Additional Information

NameFounder
Brahmo SamajRaja Ram Mohan Roy
Gandiya SabhaRadha Kant Deb
Rehnumai Mazadayasan SabhaFurdonji, Dadabhai Naoroji, and S. S. Bangalee
Brahmo Samaj of IndiaKeshub Chander Sen
Hindu MahasabhaMadan Mohan Malviya
Arya SamajSwami Dayananda Saraswati
Sadharan Brahmo SamajAnanda Mohan Bose, Sib Chandra Deb, and Umesh Chandra Dutta
Deva SamajShiv Narayan Agnihotri
Satyasodhak SamajJyotiba Phule
Ram Krishna MissionSwami Vivekananda

Image of Sahajanand Saraswati:

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96

The 'Neel Darpan' published in 1860 portrays the plight of indigo cultivators. Who was the creator of Neel Darpan?

  1. ((a))

    Michael Madhusudan Dutt

  2. ((b))

    James Long

  3. ((c))

    Deenbandhu Mitra

  4. ((d))

    Bankim Chandra

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Deenbandhu Mitra

The correct answer is Deenbandhu Mitra.

  • The 'Neel Darpan' published in 1860 portrays the plight of indigo cultivators was created by Deenbandhu Mitra.
  • The first play ever commercially staged was Neel Darpan in 1872.
  • It was translated by Micheal Madhusudan Dutta and it was published by Reverend James Long.
WriterWorks
Ravi KeertiAihole Inscription
KalidasAbhijnana shakuntalam, Meghaduta, Raghuvamsa, Kumarasambhava, Malavikagnimitram, Rtusamhara
TulsidasRamcharitra Manas
JaydevaGita Govinda
BanabhattaHarshacharitra, Kadambari
VishakhadattaMudrarakhshasa
GautamaNyaya Sutras
Amara SimhaAmarakosha
AsvaghosaBuddhacharitra
Chanakya/ Kautilya/ VishnuguptaArthashastra

Additional Information

WriterWorks
Harsha VardhanaRatnavali, Nagananda, Priyadarsika
KalhanaRajatarangini
Rati Ram SahibBhagvad Gita
ValmikiRamayana
Vishnu SharmaPanchatantra
Ved VyasaMahabharata
VarahamihiraBrihat Jataka, Pancha-Siddhantika
VirasenaDhavala
CharakaCharaka Samhita
MadhavNidana
97

Which of the following committees is related to Panchayati Raj?

  1. ((a))

    Balwant Rai Mehta Committee

  2. ((b))

    Shah Commission

  3. ((c))

    M C Joshi Committee

  4. ((d))

    Justice (Retd.) Mukul Mudgal Committee

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Balwant Rai Mehta Committee

The correct answer is Balwant Rai Mehata Committee.

Key Points

  • Panchayati Raj system is the system that ensures the participation of individuals at the grass-root level.
  • The Panchayati Raj system is included in the State List of the Constitution of India.
  • 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 is related to the Panchayati Raj system.
  • Rajasthan is the first state to implement the Panchayati Raj system on 2nd October 1959 in its Nagaur district.
  • Balwant Rai Mehta Committee recommended the Panchayati Raj system for the first time in India.
  • The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee recommended 3- tier structure consisting of
  • Zilla Parishad at the District Level
  • Panchayat Samiti at the Block Level
  • Gram Panchayat at the Village Level.
  • Ashok Mehta Committee appointed in December 1977 by Janata Party Government in 1978 submitted its report stating replacement of 3-tier system by a 2-tier system consisting of Mandal Panchayats at the base and Zila Parishad at the top.
  • 24th April every year Panchayati Raj day is celebrated.
  • Part IX (Article 243 to 243O) of the Constitution of India deals with the Panchayati Raj system.
  • Arunanchal Pradesh does not reserve seats for Scheduled castes in Panchayati Raj Institutions.
  • The Panchayati Raj system applies to all States and Union Territories of India except the state of Meghalaya, Mizoram, and Nagaland, and Union Territory Delhi.

Additional Information

CommitteeRelated to
Abhijit Sen CommitteeLong Term Food Policy.
C. Rangarajan CommitteeTo review the Methodology for Measurement of Poverty.
Basel CommitteeBanking Supervision.
Kothari CommissionTo examine all aspects of the educational sector in India.
Narasimhan CommitteeBanking Sector Reforms.
Sarkaria CommissionCentral-State Relationship.
Radha Krishnan CommissionEstablishment of the University Grant Commission (UGC).
Shivraman CommitteeEstablishment of NABARD (National Bank for Agricultural and Rural Development).
Suresh Tendulkar CommitteeRedefining Poverty Line and its Calculation Formula.
98

The essence of the Community Development Program was-

  1. ((a))

    Construction of roads

  2. ((b))

    Family planning

  3. ((c))

    Public participation

  4. ((d))

    Irrigation

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Public participation

the correct answer is Public participation.

Community development programmes

  • CDPs base themselves on the involvement of people in formulating and executing programmes.
  • It also means the development and use of a large number of local institutions and voluntary groups local and voluntary groups, the use of group work techniques and the development of local leadership, development of administration which is development-oriented rather than bureaucratic in approach.
  • Local self-help village groups are promoted and actively involved in the development of the village, Mohalla, hamlet, in mobilizing natural and human resources for making improvements in various aspects of life with the active involvement of government and non-government agencies.
  • These community development programmes are aimed at achieving certain goals such as  Collectively working to bring about social change and justice, by working with communities to
  • Identify their needs, opportunities, rights and responsibilities
  • Plan, organise and take action
  • Evaluate the effectiveness and impact of the action
  • Challenge oppression and tackle inequalities.
  • The Government of India initiated the development of the community through Community Development Programme (CDP).
  • The Community Development Program was started on 2nd October 1952.
  • The 55 community projects were launched.
  • The Community Development Programmes focussed on the development of rural areas.
  • The members of the Community were involved in decision-making and solving problems related to any issues concerning the community.
  • The program provided improvement in systems of communication, the substantial increase in the country's agricultural program, rural health, hygiene, and education, etc.
  • The primary objective of the Community Development Programme was to promote, sustain, maintain and support the community action.
  • The main objective of the program was to improve the standard of living of the village people.
  • The village people have been provided with opportunities to set up industries, various employment facilities, and training to improve their agricultural production.
  • It was a holistic approach grounded in principles.
  • The five principles of Community Development were
  • Social Justice
  • Self Determination
  • Empowerment
  • Human Rights
  • Collective Action.
99

In which field is the Dronacharya Award given?

  1. ((a))

    Literature

  2. ((b))

    Peace

  3. ((c))

    Sports training

  4. ((d))

    Valor

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Sports training

The correct answer is Sports training.

Key Points

  • The first winner of the Dronacharya Award in 1985 was Balchandra Bhaskar Bhagwat (Wrestling), Om Prakash Bhardwaj (Boxing), and O. M. Nambiar (Athletics) and the winner in 2020 was Yogesh Malviya (Mallakhamb), Jaspal Rana (Shooting), Kuldeep Kumar Handoo (Wushu), Jude Sebastian (Hockey) and Gaurav Khanna (Badminton).
AwardsField
Dronacharya AwardOutstanding Coaches in Sports and games
Bharat RatnaAny field of Human Endeavour
Padma BhushanDistinguished service of a high order
Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna AwardSports
Saraswati SammanPoetry
Vyas SammanHindi Literature
Dadasaheb Phalke AwardOutstanding contribution to the growth and development of Indian cinema.
Nobel PrizeLiterature, Medicine, Chemistry, Physics, Peace, Economic Sciences
R. D. Birla AwardPhysics
Grammy AwardOutstanding achievements in the music industry

Additional Information

AwardsField
Lal Bahadur Shastri National AwardExcellence in public administration Academics and Management
Manthan AwardOutstanding contributions in digital content creation
Padma VibhushanExceptional and distinguished service
Padma ShriDistinguished Service
Jnanpith AwardLiterature
Sahitya Akademi AwardLiterature (24 Indian languages)
Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar PrizeScience and technology
sterling PrizeExcellence in Architecture
Abel PrizeOutstanding scientific work in the field of mathematics
Green Star AwardExcellence in preventing, preparing, preparing for, and responding to environmental emergencies

Image of Dronacharya Award:

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100

National Sports Day is celebrated on 29 August. To whom is it related?

  1. ((a))

    Dhyanchand

  2. ((b))

    Milkha Singh

  3. ((c))

    Dalip Singh

  4. ((d))

    C.K. Naidu

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dhyanchand

The correct answer is Dhyanchand.

  • Major Dhyan Chand Singh was born on 29th August 1905.
  • On the birth anniversary of hockey player Major Dhyan ChandNational Sports Day is celebrated in India.
  • He won gold medals in Olympics in the year 1928, 1932, and 1936 for India.
  • According to the autobiography of major Dhyan Chand, he scored 570 goals in his career from 1926 to 1949.
DateDays
15th JanuaryNational Army Day.
28th FebruaryNational Science Day.
8th MarchInternational Women's Day.
22nd AprilEarth Day.
1st MayLabour Day.
24th AprilPanchayati Raj Day.
5th JuneWorld Environment Day.
11th JulyWorld Population Day.
29th AugustNational Sports Day.
15th SeptemberInternational Day of Democracy.
10th OctoberWorld Mental Day.
16th NovemberInternational Day for Tolerance.

Additional Information

DateDays
January 30Martyrs Day.
28th FebruaryNational Science Day.
27th MarchWorld Theatre Day.
30th AprilAyushman Bharat Diwas.
31st MayAnti-tobacco Day.
26th JuneInternational Day against Drug Abuse and Illicit Trafficking.
28th JulyWorld Hepatitis Day.
30th SeptemberInternational Translation Day.
31st OctoberNational Unity Day.
24th DecemberNational Consumer's Day.

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101

The Magsaysay Award is given in the name of Ramone Magsaysay. He was the President of which country?

  1. ((a))

    Myanmar

  2. ((b))

    Malaysia

  3. ((c))

    Philippines

  4. ((d))

    Sweden

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Philippines

The correct answer is Phillippines​.

  • The Ramon Magsaysay Award is awarded for outstanding contributions in
  • International Understanding between Countries
  • Emerging Leadership
  • Peace and Arts
  • Services of Government
  • Creative Communication
  • Public Service
  • Literature
  • Community Leadership
  • Journalism.
  • The award was established to Perpetuate memories of former Philippines President Ramon Magsaysay.
  • The trustees of the Rockefeller Brothers Fund located in New York City with the harmony of the Phillippine Government established the prize.
  • The award is presented by the Ramon Magsaysay Award Foundation.
  • The award was first awarded in the year 1958.
  • The capital of Phillippines is Manila and the Current President of the country is Rodrigo Duterte. (May 2021)
  • The text capital of the world is Phillippines because approximately 450 million text messages are sent daily by the 35 million mobile users in the country.
  • The rice terraces of the Phillippines Cordilleras are a UNESCO (United Nations Educational, Social, and Cultural Organisation) world heritage site.
  • Bigney fruit grown in Phillippines is known as a medicinal fruit and it is the smallest fruit in Phillippines.

Image of Ramon Magsaysay Award:

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102

In which country was the XXIIth Winter Olympic Games held?

  1. ((a))

    Russia

  2. ((b))

    South Korea

  3. ((c))

    United Kingdom

  4. ((d))

    Switzerland

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Russia

The correct answer is Russia.

  • The major international multi-sport event held once every four years for sports practiced on snow and ice is the Winter Olympic Games.
  • The first Winter Olympic Games were held in the year 1924 in Chamonix in France.
  • The International Olympic Committee (IOC) was founded by Baron Pierre de Coubertin in 1894.
  • The first Olympic Games were held in Athens, Greece in the year 1896.
  • The Olympic Games are governed by the International Olympic Committee.
  • The Olympic Games consist of five rings colored blue, yellow, black, red, and green.
  • Alpine Skiing, luge, short track speed skating, freestyle skiing, skeleton, and snowboarding are the permanent sports included in the Winter Olympics.
  • The 2022 Winter Olympic Games will be hosted by Beijing China and 2026 will be hosted by Milan and Cortina d'Ampezzo, Italy.
  • The United States of America is the only country to have won a gold medal at every Winter Olympic Games.
  • The XXIIth Winter Olympic Games were held in Sochi, Russia (2014).
  • The  XXIIth Winter Olympic Games took place from 7 to 23rd February.

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103

In which continent is the Sahara Desert located?

  1. ((a))

    Asia

  2. ((b))

    Europe

  3. ((c))

    Africa

  4. ((d))

    Australia

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Africa

The correct answer is Africa.

Key Points

  • The Sahara desert is the largest hot desert behind the Arctic and Antarctica which are both cold deserts.
  • During the summer season, the average temperature of the desert is between 38-46 degrees Celcius.
  • It is spread over 86 lakhs square kilometres area.
  • The desert got its name from the Arabic word Sahra which means desert.
  • There are sand dunes, sand sheets, salt flats, gravel plains, plateaus, and mountains in the desert.
  • The highest point of the mountain is the extinct volcano Mount Koussi in Chad, which elevates 3,415 meters.
  • The variety of animals found in this dessert are camels, goats, cheetah, gazelles, ostrich, fennec fox, monitor lizards, deathstalker scorpion, and sand viper.

Additional Information

Name of the DesertLocated in
Taklimakan DesertChina
Dasht-e-Loot DesertIran
Mojave DesertUnited States of America
Dasht-e Margo DesertAfghanistan
Colorado Plateau DesertUnited States of America
Antarctica DesertAntarctica
Chihuahuan DesertMexico
Gobi DesertChina and Mongolia
Namib DesertAfrica
Sahara DesertAfrica
Sonoran DesertUSA/ Mexico
Rub'al KhaliSaudi Arabia
Atacama DesertChile and Peru
Great Victoria DesertAustralia
Great Basin DesertUnited States of America

Important Points

Name of the DesertLocated in
Dasht-e KavirIran
Columbia Basin DesertUnited States of America
Registan DesertAfghanistan
Karakum DesertTurkmenistan
Patagonian DesertArgentina
Kyzylkum DesertKazakhstan, Turkmenistan, and Uzbekistan
Puntland DesertAfrica
Ferlo DesertSenegal, Africa
Thar DesertIndia/ Pakistan
Tabernas DesertSpain

Image of Sahara Desert:

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104

With which sport is the Durand Cup related?

  1. ((a))

    Tennis

  2. ((b))

    Football

  3. ((c))

    Hockey

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Football

The correct answer is Football.

Key Points 

  • The Durand Cup or Durand Football Tournament was founded in 1888.
  • It is a football competition in India.
  • It was first held in Annadale, Shimla.
  • It was co-hosted by the Durand Football Tournament Society and Asians.
  • It is the oldest existing football tournament in Asia.
  • It is named after its founder Sir Mortimer Durand the foreign secretary in charge of India from 1884-1894.
SportsCup associated
GolfWalker Cup
FootballDurand Cup
Yacht RacingAmerican Cup
Football (India, Pakistan, Srilanka, and Myanmar)Colombo Cup
Tennis (Men)Davis Cup
Tennis (Women)Billi Jean King Cup
World Football (Soccer)Jules Rimet Trophy
Golf (Men)Ryder Cup
BadmintonSudirman Cup
World Table Tennis (Men)Swaythling cup
Asian BadmintonTunku Abdul Rahman Cup

Additional Information

SportsCup Associated
Badminton (Women)Uber Cup
Basket BallWilliam Jones Cup
CricketPrudential World Cup
PoloEzra Cup
Lifetime Achievement Sporting Honour in IndiaDhyan Chand Award
First Class CricketDuleep Trophy
HockeyGuru Nanak Dev Gold Cup Maharaja Ranjit Singh Gold Cup
FootballRovers Cup
Boat RaceNehru Trophy
Hockey (National Championship)Rangaswami Cup
<br>

Image of Durand Cup:

105

Who is the Nobel Peace Prize winner of 2014?

  1. ((a))

    Barack Obama

  2. ((b))

    Ban-ki-Moon

  3. ((c))

    Malala Yusufzai and Kailash Satyarthi

  4. ((d))

    European Union

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Malala Yusufzai and Kailash Satyarthi

The correct answer is Malala Yusufzai and Kailash Satyarthi.

  • Nobel Prizes are given in the name of Sir Alfred Nobel the inventor of dynamite (an explosive device).
  • It is not a single prize but 5 separate prizes that are given to those people who have conferred the greatest benefit to humankind in the areas of
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Physiology
  • Medicine
  • Literature
  • Peace.
  • Nobel Prizes in all fields are given in Stockholm, Sweden country except the Peace Prize which is awarded in Norway.
  • It was first awarded in the year 1901.
  • The first person to receive the Nobel Prize was Henry Dunant for his role in founding the International Red Cross Movement and initiating the Geneva Convention.
  • The first Indian person to receive a Nobel Prize was Rabindranath Tagore in the field of Literature i.e for his contribution to a collection of 104 poems called Gitanjali in 1913.
  • The first Indian female to receive Nobel Prize was Mother Teresa in 1979 and the first woman to receive Nobel Prize was Marie Curie in 1903 and she won the prize twice.
  • Amartya Sen was the first Indian person to receive a Nobel Prize in the field of Economics in the year 1998.
  • The Nobel Peace Prize is awarded annually to those who have done their best or exceptional work for peace.
  • The 2014 Nobel Peace Prize was shared equally in two parts between Malala Yousafzai and Kailash Satyarthi for their struggle against the defeating of children and young people and for the right of all children to education.

Image of Malala Yusuzai:

d

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Image of Kailash Satyarthi:

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106

'Bihu' is a folk dance of which state?

  1. ((a))

    Assam

  2. ((b))

    Odisha

  3. ((c))

    West Bengal

  4. ((d))

    Tripua

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Assam

The correct answer is Assam.

Key Points

  • The folk dance is a dance that is developed by people that reflects the life of the people of a certain region or country.
  • All ethnic dances are not folk dances.
  • Bihu dance is an important part of Assamese Culture and it is related to the Bihu festival.
  • The Bihu Festival is celebrated thrice in Assam.
  • It is observed in mid-April, mid-January, and the last week of October.
  • The young men and young Women perform Bihu dance in groups and the dancing style is characterized by brisk steps and rapid hand movements.
  • The traditional costume of dancers is colourful and centred around the red colour theme, signifying joy and vigour.
  • The Bihu dance was invented by the Bodo-Kacharis tribal community of Assam.
  • The capital of Assam is Dispur and the current Chief Minister of Assam is Sarbananda Sonowal and its Governor is Prof. Jagdish Mukhi.
  • The world's largest River Island Majuli is located on the Brahmaputra river near Jorhat.

Additional Information

Folk and Tribal DancesStates
Kathakeertan, Dasavtar, Lezin, Mauni, Dandaniya, Lavani, Tamasha,  Dahikala, GafaMaharashtra
Bihu, Canoe, Khel Gopal, Tabal Chongli, Rash LilaAssam
Jata Jatin, Jatra Natna, Jadur, Karma, Chhau, Samochakwa, Kathaputli, Jhihiya, BakhoBihar
Hikat, RaufJammu and Kashmir
Nautanki, Kajri, Thora, Raslilia, ChappeliUttar Pradesh
Tappattikkali, Kaikottikali, KaliyattamKerala
Ginad, Suisini, Chakri, Jhuma, Gangore, Jhulan leela, Terahtaal, KhayalRajasthan
Giddha (Women), Bhangra (Men)Punjab
Jhumar, Gagor, Ras Leela, Khoria, Phag, Gugga, Daph, Dhamal, LoorHaryana
Lama, Jatra, Kathi, Chhau, Kirtan, BaulWest Bengal

Image of Bihu dance:

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107

The capital of Peru is-

  1. ((a))

    La Paz

  2. ((b))

    Quito

  3. ((c))

    Lima

  4. ((d))

    Bogota

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Lima

The correct answer is Lima.

  • The official language of Peru is Spanish.
  • The current President of Peru is Francisco Sagasti and Prime Minister is Violeta Bermudez. (May 2021)
  • Machu Picchu is an astronomical observatory located in Peru.
  • It has the highest sand dunes in the world known as Cerro Blanco dunes which tower over the Sechura Dessert at 3,860 feet.
  • The world's highest lake Titicaca is located between Bolivia and Peru which has an elevation of 11,436 feet.
CountryCapitalCurrency
AfghanistanKabulAfghani
BangladeshDhakaTaka
ChinaBeijingYuan
East TimorDiliUS Dollar
IranTehranRiyal
JordanAmmanJordan Dinar
DenmarkCopenhagenDanish Krone
FinlandHelsinkiEuro
GermanyBerlinEuro
HungaryBudapestForint

Additional Information

CountryCapitalCurrency
IrelandDublinEuro
KenyaNairobiKenya Shilling
LiberiaMonroviaLiberian Dollar
MauritaniaNouakchottOuguiya
NigerNiameyFranc
UgandaKampalaShilling
JamaicaKingstonJamaican Dollar
PeruLimaNuevosol
FijiSuvaFiji Dollar
ZimbabweHarareUS Dollar
108

Where is the Chernobyl nuclear plant, which is now closed, located?

  1. ((a))

    Russia

  2. ((b))

    Ukraine

  3. ((c))

    Belarus

  4. ((d))

    Georgia

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Ukraine

The correct answer is Ukraine.

Key Points

  • The Chernobyl nuclear plant which is now closed is located near the abandoned city of Pripyat in northern Ukraine.
  • It is also known as Vladimir Ilyich Lenin Nuclear Power Plant.
  • The construction of the plant was begun on 15th August 1972 and it was commissioned on 26th September 1977.
  • The thermal capacity of the plant was 12,800 Mega Watt.
  • The plant was operated by the State Agency of Ukraine on Exclusive Zone Management (SAUEZM).

Additional Information

Nuclear Power StationLocation
KaigaKarnataka
TarapurMaharashtra
KakraparGujarat
RajasthanRajasthan
KundankulamTamilnadu
NaroraUttar Pradesh
KalpakkamTamil Nadu
ChutkaMadya Pradesh
GorakhpurHaryana
HaripurWest Bengal
<br>

Image of Chernobyl Nuclear Plant:

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109

What is the currency of Japan?

  1. ((a))

    Dirham

  2. ((b))

    Kronor

  3. ((c))

    Yuan

  4. ((d))

    Yen

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Yen

The Correct Answer is Yen.

Key Points

  • Japan's official currency is the Yen. After the US dollar and the Euro, it is the third most exchanged currency in the foreign exchange market.
  • The yen was conceived as part of Japan's late-nineteenth-century Meiji government's economic modernization programme, which envisioned a standardised currency structure in the world modelled after the European decimal currency system.
  • The yen banknotes were first issued in 1872, two years after the currency was introduced.
  • The denominations have ranged from 10 yen to 10,000 yen throughout its history; the 1,000 yen note has been the lowest-valued banknote since 1984.

Important Points

CurrenciesCountries
DirhamUnited Arab Emirates
KronorSweden
YuanRepublic of China
110

Which of the following cyclones did not affect the east coast of India?

  1. ((a))

    Nilofar

  2. ((b))

    Hud Hud

  3. ((c))

    Lehar

  4. ((d))

    Helen

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Nilofar

The Correct Answer is Nilofar.

Key Points

  • Cyclone Nilofar did not affect the east coast of India.
  • Storm Cyclone Nilofar was the third-strongest cyclone in the Arabian Sea at the time.
  • It attained peak maximum sustained winds of between 205 km/h (125 mph) and 215 km/h (125 mph) in late October 2014.
  • It was given the name Nilofar by the India Meteorological Department (IMD), which was suggested by Pakistan and refers to the water lily.
  • Nilofar arose from a low-pressure zone that existed between India and the Arabian Peninsula. On October 25, it became depression and pushed northward into a region of favourable conditions.
  • The storm quickly weakened due to high wind shear, and Nilofar degraded into a remnant low-pressure area on October 31 off the coast of Gujarat, India.

Important Points

  • Extremely Severe Cyclonic Storm Hudhud was a powerful tropical cyclone that wreaked havoc in eastern India and Nepal in October 2014.
  • Cyclonic Storm Lehar was a tropical cyclone that mainly impacted the Indian state of Andhra Pradesh and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
  • Helen was a weak tropical cyclone that formed on the 18th of November 2013 in the Bay of Bengal region from the remnants of Tropical Storm Podul.
111

Who has written the book 'Train to Pakistan'?

  1. ((a))

    Mulk Raj Anand

  2. ((b))

    Shobha Singh

  3. ((c))

    Ruskin Bond

  4. ((d))

    Khushwant Singh

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Khushwant Singh

The Correct Answer is Khushwant Singh.

Key Points

  • Khushwant Singh's historical novel Train to Pakistan was released in 1956.
  • It tells the storey of India's partition in August 1947 through the eyes of Mano Majra, a fictional border village.
  • In 1998, a film based on this novel with the same title, Train to Pakistan, was released.
  • A play based on this novel with the same title "Train to Pakistan" was staged at Lamakaan, an open cultural space in Hyderabad, India, with the first chapter "Dacoity."

Important Points

  • Khushwant Singh was an Indian politician, author, lawyer, diplomat, and diplomat.
  • Khushwant Singh received the Padma Bhushan in 1974 but returned it in 1984 in protest of the Indian Army's attack on Amritsar during Operation Blue Star.
  • In 2007, he received the Padma Vibhushan, India's second-highest civilian honour.

Additional Information

  • Mulk Raj Anand was an English-language Indian author known for portraying the lives of the lower castes in traditional Indian society.
  • Ruskin Bond is a British-born Indian poet. In 1992, he received the Sahitya Academy Award for his novel in English, Our Trees Still Grow in Dehra. In 1999, he received the Padma Shri, and in 2014, he received the Padma Bhushan.
112

Who is the author of the book "Wings of Fire"?

  1. ((a))

    Abul Kalam Azad

  2. ((b))

    Abdul Kalam

  3. ((c))

    Arundhati Roy

  4. ((d))

    Chetan Bhagat

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Abdul Kalam

The Correct Answer is Abdul Kalam.

Key Points

  • Former Indian President A P J Abdul Kalam's autobiography, Wings of Fire, was published in 1999.
  • Dr Abdul Kalam and Arun Tiwari collaborated on it. Hindi, English, Bangla Bengali, Telugu, Tamil, Kannada, Malayalam, Odia, Marathi, and Gujarati are among the 13 languages in which the autobiography has been translated and written.
  • Wings of Fire was translated into Chinese (titled Huo Yi by Ji Peng) and French by various translators outside of the major Indian languages.

Important Points 

  • From 2002 to 2007, Avul Pakir Jainulabdeen Abdul Kalam (APJ Abdul Kalam) served as India's 11th President.
  • He was an Indian aerospace scientist. He worked as a scientist and science administrator for the next four decades, mostly at the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), where he was active in India's civilian space programme and military missile development efforts.
  • Kalam collapsed and died of an apparent cardiac arrest on July 27, 2015, while giving a lecture at the Indian Institute of Management in Shillong.

Additional Information

NameBooks
Abul Kalam AzadIndia Wins Freedom Ghubar-e-Khatir
Arundhati RoyThe God of Small Things The Ministry of Utmost Happiness The cost of living
Chetan BhagatFive Point Someone The 3 Mistakes of My Life Revolution 2020
113

The book 'Bharat Ek Khoj' was written during imprisonment in Ahmednagar Fort Jail. Who was the author of 'Bharat Ek Khoj'?

  1. ((a))

    Swami Vivekananda

  2. ((b))

    Mahatma Gandhi

  3. ((c))

    Subhash Chandra Bose

  4. ((d))

    Jawaharlal Nehru

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Jawaharlal Nehru

The Correct Answer is Jawaharlal Nehru.

Key Points

  • Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, India's first Prime Minister, wrote The Discovery of India while imprisoned by colonial authorities at Ahmednagar fort in the present-day Indian state of Maharashtra from 1942 to 1945, prior to India's independence.
  • While the book was written in 1944, it was published in 1946. Some of the book's material is credited to Nehru's fellow inmates at the Ahmednagar jail.
  • Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, Govind Ballabh Pant, Narendra Deva, and Asaf Ali are among those he mentions specifically.
  • Bharat Ek Khoj (1988), a 53-episode Indian television series directed by Shyam Benegal and first broadcast in 1988 on the state-run Doordarshan channel, was based on the novel.

Important Points

  • Jawaharlal Nehru was an Indian independence leader and, later, the country's first Prime Minister, as well as a key figure in Indian politics both before and after independence.
  • He rose to prominence as an eminent leader of the Indian independence movement, serving as Prime Minister of India from its independence in 1947 until his death in 1964.
  • The Congress became a catch-all party under Nehru's leadership, dominating national and state politics and winning three consecutive elections in 1951, 1957, and 1962.
  • Despite political difficulties and leadership failures in his final years, he remained influential with the Indian people.
  • Despite political difficulties in his later years and a leadership failure during the 1962 Sino-Indian War, he remained popular with the Indian people. Children's Day is observed on his birthday in India.
114

Which country is known as the 'Sugar Bowl of the World'?

  1. ((a))

    Cuba

  2. ((b))

    India

  3. ((c))

    Brazil

  4. ((d))

    U. S. A

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cuba

The Correct Answer is Cuba.

Key Points

  • The sugar bowl of the world' is referred to as Cuba. It has the world's largest sugar industry, which is now in decline, and Brazil has taken its place.
  • It is a Caribbean island with a population of around 200,000 people.
  • The Cuban sugar economy is the country's most important agricultural sector.
  • Cuba was the world's largest sugar exporter until 1960, earning it the nickname "Sugar Bowl of the World."
  • However, in the 2017-2018 year, Brazil took the lead in sugar production, with a total of 38.9 million metric tonnes.

Important Points

  • The state of Uttar Pradesh is known as India's "sugar bowl."
  • Uttar Pradesh ranks first in sugar cane production and is the most important wheat-growing state.
  • Sugar mills abound in the state's major cities, including Bareilly, Meerut, Saharanpur, Sitapur, and Buland Shahar.
  • In India, sugarcane is a critical crop. Sugarcane is used to make a variety of other things, including sugar and jaggery.
  • As of 2013-14, it accounted for about 38.61 per cent of total sugarcane production. In terms of sugarcane production, India ranks second in the world.

Additional Information

  • Cuba:
  • Capital: Havana
  • Official languages: Spanish
  • Currency: Cuban peso
115

At what temperature is the density of water highest?

  1. ((a))

    0°C

  2. ((b))

    0°F

  3. ((c))

    4 K

  4. ((d))

    4°C

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

4°C

The Correct Answer is 4°C.

Key Points

  • At 4°C, the density of water is the highest.
  • The volume of a certain quantity of water shrinks as the temperature drops below 4 degrees Celsius, and the speed of molecular motions slows.
  • As a result, the density steadily rises. When in a liquid state, the density reaches its limit at 4 degrees Celsius.
  • Water molecules begin to inhabit crystal structure below 4 degrees Celsius, and when they enter a solid-state, their distance from one another increases.
  • As a result, as the temperature drops below 4 degrees Celsius, the volume increases marginally while the density decreases.
116

In which year was the United Nations formed?

  1. ((a))

    1945

  2. ((b))

    1947

  3. ((c))

    1954

  4. ((d))

    1919

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1945

The Correct Answer is 1945.

Key Points

  • The United Nations (UN) is an intergovernmental organisation whose mission is to facilitate international cooperation, maintain international peace and stability, and serve as a focal point for coordinating national actions.
  • The United Nations has primary offices in Geneva, Nairobi, Vienna, and The Hague, all of which are on foreign territory.
  • Following World War II, the United Nations was created with the aim of preventing future wars, replacing the ineffective League of Nations.
  • The Cold War between the United States and the Soviet Union, as well as their respective allies, complicated the organization's mission to maintain world peace in its early decades.
  • The General Assembly, the Security Council, the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC), the Trusteeship Council, the International Court of Justice, and the UN Secretariat are the six main organs of the UN.
  • The World Bank Group, the World Health Organization, the World Food Programme, UNESCO, and UNICEF are among the UN System's many specialist organisations, funds, and programmes.

Important Points

  • Secretary‑General: António Guterres
  • Deputy Secretary-General: Amina J. Mohammed
  • General Assembly: President Volkan Bozkır
  • Economic and Social Council President: Munir Akram
  • Security Council Presidency: China
117

Who was the Viceroy of India at the time of India's independence?

  1. ((a))

    Lord Wavell

  2. ((b))

    Lord Curzon

  3. ((c))

    Lord Mountbatten

  4. ((d))

    C. Rajagopalachari

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Lord Mountbatten

The Correct Answer is Lord Mountbatten.

Key Points

  • Lord Mountbatten was the Viceroy of India at the time of India's independence.
  • Admiral of the Fleet Louis Francis Albert Victor Nicholas Mountbatten, 1st Earl Mountbatten of Burma was a British Royal Navy officer and statesman, a maternal uncle of Prince Philip, Duke of Edinburgh, and second cousin once removed by Queen Elizabeth II.
  • He served as Supreme Allied Commander, South East Asia Command, during WWII.
  • He was India's last Viceroy and the country's first governor-general after independence. Mountbatten was appointed Viceroy of India in March 1947, and he presided over the partition of British India into India and Pakistan.
  • From June 1948 to June 1949, he was India's first Governor-General.

Important Points

  • The governor-general of India was the British monarch's representative and, after India's independence in 1947, the Indian head of state's representative.
  • The office of governor-general of the Presidency of Fort William was established in 1773. Only Fort William was under his direct command, but he oversaw other East India Company officials in India.
  • In 1833, the official was given complete authority over all of India, earning him the title of "governor-general of India."
  • Warren Hastings was the first governor-general of India (of Bengal), Lord William Bentinck was the first official governor-general of British India, and Lord Mountbatten was the first governor-general of the Dominion of India.
118

Which ICS officer was involved in the formation of the Indian National Congress in 1885?

  1. ((a))

    Macaulay

  2. ((b))

    Lord Simon

  3. ((c))

    Lord Irwin

  4. ((d))

    Allan Octavian Hume

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Allan Octavian Hume

The Correct Answer is Allan Octavian Hume.

Key Points

  • Allan Octavian Hume, a retired British Indian Civil Service (ICS) officer, created the Indian National Congress (British India to Free India) to create a forum for civil and political dialogue among educated Indians.
  • The power of India passed from the East India Company to the British Empire after the Indian Rebellion of 1857.
  • Hume set out on a mission to establish a charitable organization by contacting a group of University of Calcutta alumni.
  • In May 1885, Hume obtained the viceroy's permission to establish a "Indian National Union," which would be allied with the government and serve as a forum for Indian public opinion.
  • The Indian National Congress was established on December 28, 1885, at Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College in Bombay, with 72 delegates in attendance.
  • Womesh Chunder Bonnerjee of Calcutta was elected president, and Hume was appointed General Secretary.

Important Points

  • Allan Octavian Hume was a political reformer, ornithologist, and botanist who served in British India as a member of the Imperial Civil Service (later the Indian Civil Service).
  • He was one of the Indian National Congress members.
  • Hume, a noted ornithologist, has been called "the Father of Indian Ornithology" and "the Pope of Indian Ornithology" by those who considered him dogmatic.
119

The new capital of Myanmar is-

  1. ((a))

    Yangon

  2. ((b))

    Mandalay

  3. ((c))

    Naypyidaw

  4. ((d))

    Kachin

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Naypyidaw

The Correct Answer is Naypyidaw.

Key Points

  • Myanmar's capital and the third-largest city is Naypyidaw.
  • The city is situated in the Naypyidaw Union Territory's core.
  • It is unique among Myanmar's cities in that it is a completely planned city that exists independently of any state or territory.
  • On November 6, 2005, the region, then known only as Pyinmana District, officially replaced Yangon as Myanmar's administrative capital; its official name was revealed to the public on March 27, 2006, on Armed Forces Day.
  • The Union Parliament, the Supreme Court, the Presidential Palace, the official residences of Myanmar's Cabinet, and the headquarters of government ministries and the military are all located in Naypyidaw, the country's capital.

Important Points 

  • Myanmar:
  • Largest city: Yangon
  • Official languages: Burmese
  • Currency: Kyat
120

Who is the author of the novel 'Tamas'?

  1. ((a))

    Bhishma Sahni

  2. ((b))

    Balraj Sahni

  3. ((c))

    Premchand

  4. ((d))

    Amrita Pritam

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bhishma Sahni

The Correct Answer is Bhishma Sahni.

Key Points

  • Bhishma Sahni is the author of the novel 'Tamas'.
  • Bhisham Sahni was an Indian novelist, actor, and playwright best known for his novel and television screenplay Tamas, a strong and passionate account of India's partition.
  • In 1998, he received the Padma Bhushan for literature, and in 2002, he received the Sahitya Akademi Fellowship.
  • He was the younger brother of Balraj Sahni, a well-known Hindi film star.
  • He served as General Secretary of the All India Progressive Writers Association (1975–85) and Acting General Secretary of the Afro-Asian Writers Association, as well as editor of the Lotus journal.
  • He was the founder and chairman of 'SAHMAT,' a cross-cultural understanding organisation named after the assassinated theatre artist and activist Safdar Hashmi.

Important Points

  • Tamas, a novel by Bhisham Sahni, is based on the riots that occurred during India's 1947 Partition, which he experienced in Rawalpindi. Tamas depicts the horrors of irrational communal politics of aggression and hate, as well as the tragic consequences – death, devastation, forced displacement, and nation partition.
  • It has been translated into many Indian languages, including Tamil, Gujarati, Malayalam, Kashmiri, and Manipuri.
  • Tamas received the Sahitya Akademi Award for Literature in 1975, and Govind Nihalani turned it into a television film in 1987.
121

Which team won the Ranji Trophy in the year 2013-14?

  1. ((a))

    Maharashtra

  2. ((b))

    Railways

  3. ((c))

    Karnataka

  4. ((d))

    Punjab

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Karnataka

The Correct Answer is Karnataka.

Key Points

  • The Ranji Trophy was played for the 80th time in the 2013–14 season. It also featured Sachin Tendulkar's final domestic match.
  • Karnataka won the competition after defeating Maharashtra in the final.
  • The Ranji Trophy is an Indian domestic first-class cricket competition in which various teams representing regional and state cricket associations compete.
  • There are currently 38 teams in the competition, with representatives from each of India's 28 states and four of the eight union territories.
  • The game is named after Ranjitsinhji, also known as 'Ranji,' the first Indian cricketer to play international cricket.

Important Points

  • The Karnataka State Cricket Association (KSCA) is the Indian state of Karnataka's cricket governing body.
  • The Karnataka cricket team is governed by the association, which is affiliated with the Board of Control for Cricket in India.
  • Since its inception in 1933, the organisation has been affiliated with the BCCI.
122

Who was the Prime Minister of England at the time of Indian independence?

  1. ((a))

    Harold Wilson

  2. ((b))

    Winston Churchill

  3. ((c))

    Clement Attlee

  4. ((d))

    Macmillan

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Clement Attlee

The Correct Answer is Clement Attlee.

Key Points

  • On February 20, 1947, Prime Minister Clement Attlee of the United Kingdom announced:
  • The British Government will grant absolute self-government to British India by June 30, 1948, at the latest.
  • After the date of final transition is determined, the future of the Princely States will be decided.
  • Lord Mountbatten discussed the issue of the princely states, of which there were over 565, at a press conference on June 4, 1947.
  • The treaty ties between Britain and the Indian States would come to an end, and the British Crown's suzerainty would expire on August 15, 1947.
  • The Indian leaders requested Lord Mountbatten of Burma, the last Viceroy, to continue as Governor-General of India.
  • India's Prime Minister was Jawaharlal Nehru, and the Home Minister was Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

Important Points

  • Clement Richard Attlee, 1st Earl Attlee, was a British politician who led the Labour Party from 1935 to 1955 and served as Prime Minister of the United Kingdom from 1945 to 1951.
  • He served as Deputy Prime Minister in Winston Churchill's wartime coalition government and as Leader of the Opposition twice, from 1935 to 1940 and 1951 to 1955.

Additional Information

England Prime MinistersPeriod
Harold Wilson4 March 1974 – 5 April 1976 16 October 1964 – 19 June 1970
Winston Churchill26 October 1951 – 5 April 1955 10 May 1940 – 26 July 1945
Macmillan10 January 1957 – 18 October 1963
123

Who is the current Governor of Reserve Bank of India? (As of 2015)

  1. ((a))

    Shaktikanta Das

  2. ((b))

    U. K. Sinha

  3. ((c))

    Raghuram Rajan

  4. ((d))

    Nandan Neelkeni

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Raghuram Rajan

The Correct Answer is Raghuram Rajan.

Key Points

  • The current Governor is Shaktikanta Das
  • Raghuram Rajan was the 23rd Governor of the Reserve Bank of India
  • The organizational structure of RBI is via the Central Board of Directors (CBD). The Transfer of Public Ownership Act provides for the constitution of CBD and Local Board by the Central Government. The CBD can have a maximum of 20 members. Besides these members, RBI has one Governor, and four Deputy Governors appointed by the Central Government. Their tenure in office is 5 years for Governor and 4 years for Deputy governor. Also in the organizational structure are Executive Directors.
  • Presently Shri Shaktikanta Das is the 25th Governor of the Reserve Bank of India since December 2018, who took over the charge from Dr. Urjit Patel. To start with the first person appointed as the Governor of RBI was Sir Osborne Smith.
  • The RBI Act provides that CBD conducts one meeting every quarter and at least 6 meetings in a year.
  • Important details about the Governors of RBI:
  • Shaktikanta Das: He is the current Governor of RBI. He took office on 12th December 2018. He is the 25th governor of RBI.
  • Raghuram Rajan: He was the former governor of RBI from 4 September 2013 to 4 September 2016.
  • Y.V Reddy: He was the former governor of RBI from 6 September 2003 to 5 September 2008.
  • Urjit Patel: He was the former governor of RBI  from 4 September 2016 to 11 December 2018.
124

Who is the current chairperson of the National Commission for Women of India?

  1. ((a))

    Mamta Sharma

  2. ((b))

    Anita Sharma

  3. ((c))

    Girija Vyas

  4. ((d))

    Rekha Sharma

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Rekha Sharma

The Correct Answer is Rekha Sharma.

Key Points

  • Rekha Sharma is the current chairperson of the National Commission for Women of India.
  • The National Commission for Women (NCW) is a legislative body of the Indian government tasked with providing advice to the government on all policy issues concerning women.
  • It was created on January 31, 1992, under the Indian Constitution, as specified by the National Commission for Women Act of 1990.
  • Jayanti Patnaik was the commission's first chairperson.
  • Rekha Sharma is the chairperson as of November 30, 2018.
  • The NCW's mission is to advocate for women's rights in India and to give a voice to their issues and concerns.

Important Points 

  • Mamta Sharma was the former chairperson of the National Commission for Women of India in India.
  • Girija Vyas is a politician, poet, and author from India. She was a former president of the National Commission for Women of India and a member of the 15th Lok Sabha, India's lower house of Parliament, from the Chittorgarh constituency.
125

When was the Panchsheel Agreement signed between India and China?

  1. ((a))

    1949

  2. ((b))

    1962

  3. ((c))

    1954

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1954

The Correct Answer is 1954.

Key Points

  • The Panchsheel was first signed between India and China's Tibet area on April 29, 1954.
  • Jawaharlal Nehru, former Prime Minister of India, and Chou En-Lai, the first Chinese Prime Minister, signed the deal.
  • One of the most successful agreements between India and China to improve economic and security cooperation was the Panchsheel agreement.
  • The Five Principles' fundamental premise was that newly independent states would be able to establish a new and more principled approach to foreign affairs after decolonization.
  • The five principles of peaceful coexistence, known as the Panchsheel Treaty, are a collection of principles to regulate relations between states.
  • They include non-interference in other internal affairs and respect for the territorial integrity of the unity and sovereignty of the other.
  • The Five Principles' underlying premise was that after decolonization, newly independent states would be able to adopt a new strategy more faithful to international relations principles.
126

Who was the father of Green Revolution in India?

  1. ((a))

    Prakash Singh Kairon

  2. ((b))

    A. P.J. Abdul Kalam

  3. ((c))

    M. S. Swaminathan

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

M. S. Swaminathan

The Correct Answer is M. S. Swaminathan.

Key Points

  • Mankombu Sambasivan Swaminathan is an Indian geneticist and administrator who is best known for his role in the Green Revolution, a programme that saw high-yield wheat and rice varieties planted across the country.
  • For his role in introducing and further cultivating high-yielding wheat varieties in India, Swaminathan has been dubbed the "Father of the Green Revolution in India."

Important Points

  • Swaminathan is a proponent of moving India towards sustainable development, especially through environmentally sustainable agriculture, food security, and biodiversity protection, which he refers to as an "evergreen revolution."
  • He was the director-general of the Indian Council of Agricultural Research from 1972 to 1979. From 1979 to 1980, he served as the Principal Secretary of the Ministry of Agriculture.
  • From 1982 to 1988, he was Director-General of the International Rice Research Institute, and in 1988, he was elected President of the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources.
127

Aung San Suu Kyi, the leader of the NLD, belongs to which country?

  1. ((a))

    South Korea

  2. ((b))

    Sri Lanka

  3. ((c))

    Thailand

  4. ((d))

    Myanmar

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Myanmar

The Correct Answer is Myanmar.

Key Points

  • Aung San Suu Kyi is a Nobel Peace Prize winner and a Burmese politician who served as Myanmar's State Counsellor and Minister of Foreign Affairs from 2016 to 2021.
  • She has been the president of the National League for Democracy (NLD) since 2011, after a stint as its General Secretary from 1988 to 2011.
  • In the 2010s, she was a key figure in Myanmar's transition from military rule to partial democracy.
  • Aung San, modern-day Myanmar's Father of the Nation, and Khin Kyi's youngest daughter.

Important Points

  • On March 30, 2016, she was named to President Htin Kyaw's cabinet as Minister for the President's Office, Foreign Affairs, Education, and Electric Power and Energy.
  • She later relinquished the latter two ministries, and President Htin Kyaw appointed her State Counsellor, a position that was created especially for her and is equivalent to Prime Minister.
128

When was the Poona Pact signed between Mahatma Gandhi and Baba Saheb Ambedkar?

  1. ((a))

    1919

  2. ((b))

    1932

  3. ((c))

    1937

  4. ((d))

    1935

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1932

The Correct Answer is 1932.

Key Points

  • The Poona Pact, signed in 1932 by Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. B. R. Ambedkar on behalf of the poor and upper-caste Hindu leaders, provided for the allocation of electoral seats for the poor in the British India legislature.
  • It was made on September 24, 1932, at Poona's Yerwada Central Jail.
  • It was signed by Ambedkar on behalf of the depressed classes, Madan Mohan Malviya on behalf of Hindus, and Gandhi as a way to end Gandhi's fast in jail in protest of British Prime Minister Ramsay MacDonald's decision to grant depressed classes separate electorates for the election of members of provincial legislative assemblies in British India.
  • They came to an agreement on 148 electoral seats in the end.
129

The forest of Gir is famous for lions. In which state is it located?

  1. ((a))

    Jharkhand

  2. ((b))

    Chhattisgarh

  3. ((c))

    Gujarat

  4. ((d))

    Assam

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Gujarat

The Correct Answer is Gujarat.

Key Points

  • Gir National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary, located near Talala Gir in Gujarat, India, is a forest and wildlife sanctuary.
  • It is 43 kilometres north of Somnath, 65 kilometres south of Junagadh, and 60 kilometres south of Amreli.
  • It was established in 1965 in the private hunting area of the Nawab of Junagarh, with a total area of 1,412 km2, of which 258 km2 is completely protected as a national park and 1,153 km2 as a wildlife sanctuary.
  • It is part of the Khathiar-Gir ecoregion of dry deciduous forests.
  • Junagadh District had 268 lions, Gir Somnath District had 44, Amreli District had 174, and Bhavnagar District had 37.
  • Every year, from June 16 to October 15, Gir National Park is closed.
130

The famous painter Raja Ravi Varma was associated with which princely state?

  1. ((a))

    Mysore

  2. ((b))

    Travancore

  3. ((c))

    Coorg

  4. ((d))

    Cooch-Behar

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Travancore

The Correct Answer is Travancore.

Key Points

  • Raja Ravi Varma was a well-known Indian artist and painter. He is regarded as one of the greatest painters in Indian art history.
  • One of the best examples of the convergence of European academic art with a purely Indian sensibility and iconography are his works.
  • Raja Ravi Varma was related to the royal family of Travancore, which is now the state of Kerala in India.
  • Two of his granddaughters were adopted into the royal family later in life, and their descendants now make up the entirety of Travancore's current royal family, including the most recent three Maharajas (Marthanda Varma III, Balarama Varma III and Rama Varma VII).
  • The Viceroy and Governor-General of India bestowed the title Raja as a personal title.

Important Points

  • From about 1729 to 1949, the Kingdom of Travancore was an Indian kingdom. From Padmanabhapuram and later Thiruvananthapuram, it was ruled by the Travancore Royal Family.
  • The state's official flag was red with a dextrally-coiled silver conch shell (Turbinella pyrum) in the centre.
  • Two elephants stood to the left and right of the conch shell (Turbinella pyrum) in the middle of the coat of arms. The Devanagari script was written in black on the white ribbon.
131

Which of the following rivers in Bihar originates in Amarkantak?

  1. ((a))

    Koyal

  2. ((b))

    Son

  3. ((c))

    Punpun

  4. ((d))

    Karo

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Son

The Correct Answer is Son.

Key Points

  • The Son River is a seasonal river in India's central region.
  • It begins near Amarkantak Hill in Madhya Pradesh's Annupur district and ends near Patna, Bihar, where it merges with the Ganges river.
  • After the Yamuna River, the Sone River is the Ganges' southern and second-largest tributary.
  • The Koilwar Bridge, which spans the Sone River and connects Arrah and Patna, is India's oldest river bridge.
  • The first dam on the Son was built at Dehri in 1873–74.

Important Points

  • The Koel River is a 285-kilometre (177-mile) long river in India that flows through the states of Jharkhand and Odisha.
  • The Ganges has a tributary called the Punpun River. It rises in the Jharkhand district of Palamu and flows through the districts of Chatra, Aurangabad, Gaya, and Patna in the Indian states of Jharkhand and Bihar.
  • In the Indian states of Odisha and Jharkhand, the Karo River flows through Sundergarh and Keonjhar districts, as well as West Singhbhum.
132

Which is the largest four digit number, which is fully divisible by 12, 15, 18 and 27?

  1. ((a))

    9690

  2. ((b))

    9720

  3. ((c))

    9930

  4. ((d))

    9960

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

9720

Given:

The largest four digit number = 9999

Required number must be divisible = 12, 15, 18, 27

Calculation:

Required number must be divisible by L.C.M. of 12, 15, 18, and 27 = 540

On dividing 9999 by 540 , we get 279 as remainder

Required number = 9999 - 279 = 9720 

∴ 9720 is required number

133

Who among the following studied at Nalanda University?

  1. ((a))

    Megasthenes

  2. ((b))

    Hiuen Tsang

  3. ((c))

    Ibn Batuta

  4. ((d))

    Al-Buruni

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Hiuen Tsang

The Correct Answer is Hiuen Tsang.

Key Points

  • Hiuen Tsang travelled to India to research and collect Buddhist texts at Nalanda University in Bihar's Nalanda district.
  • During the reign of Harshvardhan, he came to India.
  • At the time of Hansang's studies, Acharya Shilabhadra was the Vice-Chancellor of the University of Nalanda.

Additional Information

  • During the Hellenistic period, Megasthenes was an ancient Greek historian, diplomat, Indian ethnographer, and explorer.
  • In his book Indika, which is now lost, he identified India, which has been partially reconstructed from literary fragments discovered in later writers.
  • Megasthenes is known as the "Father of Indian History" because he was the first person to characterise ancient India.
  • Ibn Battuta was a Muslim Moroccan scholar, jurist, and explorer who traversed Afro-Eurasia extensively. He would have attended a Sunni Maliki madhhab (Islamic jurisprudence school), which was North Africa's dominant form of education at the time.
  • During the Islamic Golden Age, Abu Rayhan al-Biruni was an Iranian scholar and polymath. Al-Biruni studied Islamic jurisprudence, theology, grammar, mathematics, astronomy, medicine, philosophy, and dabbled in physics and several other sciences for the first twenty-five years of his life in Khwarezm.
134

When was the resolution of Purna Swaraj passed by the Congress?

  1. ((a))

    26 February 1930, Karachi

  2. ((b))

    26 January 1930, Lahore

  3. ((c))

    26 November 1931, Calcutta

  4. ((d))

    26 January 1930, Bombay

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

26 January 1930, Lahore

The Correct Answer is 26 January 1930, Lahore.

Key Points

  • The Indian National Congress issued the Purna Swaraj declaration on January 26, 1930, resolving the Congress and Indian nationalists to fight for Purna Swaraj or full independence from the British Empire.
  • Jawaharlal Nehru raised the Indian flag on the banks of the Ravi River in Lahore, Pakistan, on December 31, 1929.
  • The Congress had requested that India's people commemorate January 26th as Independence Day.
  • The Indian flag was raised in public around the country by Congress volunteers, nationalists, and the general public.
  • The Congress designated January 26 as India's Independence Day, honouring those who fought for the country's independence.
  • The British decided to hand over power and political clout to India in 1947, and 15 August was designated as India's official Independence Day.
  • The new Constitution of India, as drafted and approved by the Constituent Assembly, was to take effect on January 26, 1950, to commemorate the 1930 declaration.
  • India became a republic on that day in 1950. Every year, the 26th of January is observed as India's Republic Day.
135

A farmer divides the herd of n cows among his four sons in such a way that the first son gets half the herd, the second son gets one-fourth, the third son gets gets 1/5 share and the fourth son gets 7 cows. What is the value of n accordingly?

  1. ((a))

    240

  2. ((b))

    100

  3. ((c))

    180

  4. ((d))

    140

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

140

Given:

Number of cow = n cows

First son gets = n/2 cows

Second son gets = n/4 cows

Third son gets = n/5 cows

Forth son gets = 7 cows

Calculation:

Sum of cows each son gets equals the total number of cows

(n/2) + (n/4) + (n/5) + 7 = n

⇒ 19n/20 + 7 = n

⇒ 19n + 7 × 20 = n20

⇒ n = 140

∴ The value of n is 140

136

What is the minimum number which is when divided by 48, 64, 90, 120 leaves 38, 54, 80, 110 respectively?

  1. ((a))

    2870

  2. ((b))

    2860

  3. ((c))

    2890

  4. ((d))

    2880

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2870

Calculation 

48 - 38 = 10

64 - 54 = 10 

90 - 80 = 10 

120 - 110 = 10 

10 is remaining after subtraction

LCM of 48, 64, 90 and 120 = 2880 

Then Required number = 2880 - 10 = 2870 

∴ The required answer is 2870

137

The average of 7 numbers is 8. If a number is added to them, the average becomes 9. What is the number added accordingly?

  1. ((a))

    12

  2. ((b))

    11

  3. ((c))

    16

  4. ((d))

    14

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

16

Given:

The average of 7 number = 8 

The average of 8 number  = 9

Calculation:

The total sum of 7 number = 7 × 8 = 56 

The total sum of 8 number = 8 × 9 = 72

then,

The added number = total sum of 8 no.-  total sum of 7 no.

72 - 56 = 16

∴The added number is 16 .

138

HCF and LCM of any two whole positive numbers are 35 and 525 respectively. If a whole number is 105, what will be the second whole number?

  1. ((a))

    350

  2. ((b))

    210

  3. ((c))

    175

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

175

Given:

HCF = 35

LCM = 525

A whole number = 105

Formula used:

HCF × LCM = First number × Second number

Calculation:

35 × 525 = 105 × second number 

⇒ Second number = (35 × 525)/105

⇒ Second number = 175 

∴ The second whole number is 175 .

139

The four prime numbers are written in ascending order. The product of first three is 385 and the product of last three is 1001. What is the first prime number?

  1. ((a))

    5

  2. ((b))

    7

  3. ((c))

    11

  4. ((d))

    17

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5

Calculation 

From the option 

So let first prime no. is 5 

then another prime no.s are 7, 11, 13 

Product of 1st 3 prime no. = 385

⇒ 5 × 7 × 11 = 385 

satisfy the condition 

Product of last 3 no. = 1001

⇒ 7 × 11 × 13 = 1001 

This condition is also satisfied 

∴ The first prime no. is 5

140

If a ∶ b = 2∶ 3; b ∶ c = 4 ∶ 5 and c ∶ d = 6 ∶ 7, then a ∶ d = ?

  1. ((a))

    12 ∶ 35

  2. ((b))

    24 ∶ 35

  3. ((c))

    16 ∶ 35

  4. ((d))

    24 ∶ 25

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

16 ∶ 35

Calculation 

a : b = 2 : 3 

b : c = 4 : 5 

c : d = 6 : 7 

a : b : c : d = 2 × 4 × 6 : 3 × 4 × 6 : 3 × 5 × 6 : 3 × 5 × 7

a : d = 16 : 35 

∴ The required answer is 16 : 35

141

The average age of a woman and her daughter is 21 years. The ratio of their ages is 5 ∶ 1 respectively. What will be the ratio of their ages after 5 years?

  1. ((a))

    10 ∶ 3

  2. ((b))

    5 ∶ 2

  3. ((c))

    4 ∶ 1

  4. ((d))

    3 ∶ 1

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

10 ∶ 3

Given 

The average age of women and daughter = 21 years 

Formula Used 

Average = Sum of observation/No. of observation

Calculation 

Sum of age of women and her daughter = 21 × 2 = 42 years 

⇒ 5x + x = 42 

⇒ x = 7 

After 5 years, Women : Daughter = 5x + 5 : x + 5 

⇒ 40 : 12 = 10 : 3 

∴ The required answer is 10 : 3

142

If 12 men or 18 women can complete the harvesting of a field in 14 days, then in how many days can 8 men and 16 women complete the harvesting of the same farm, working at the same speed?

  1. ((a))

    9

  2. ((b))

    5

  3. ((c))

    7

  4. ((d))

    8

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

9

Formula Used 

Work = Time × Efficiency 

Calculation 

Let efficiency of men and women be M and W

Total work by 12 men = Total work by 18 women 

⇒ 12M × 14 = 18W × 14 

⇒ Ratio of efficiency of M : W = 3 : 2 

Total work = Number of men × their efficiency × time = 12 × 3 × 14 = 504

Work done by 8 Men =  8 × Eff of Men = 8 × 3 = 24

Work done by 16 Women = 16 × Eff. of women = 16 × 2 = 32

So, 8 men and 16 women can do work in days = 504/(24 + 32) 

⇒ 504/56 = 9 days 

∴ The required answer is 9 days

143

A mixture of liquids A and B in a jar is in the ratio of 4 ∶ 1. If 10 liters are taken out of that mixture and the same amount of liquid B is added in its place, then the ratio of the mixture will be 2 ∶ 3. Accordingly, what was the amount of liquid A in the initial mixture in the jar?

  1. ((a))

    20 liters

  2. ((b))

    10 liters

  3. ((c))

    16 liters

  4. ((d))

    15 liters

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

16 liters

Given 

Ratio of liquids A and B in jar = 4 : 1 

After addition of liquid B the ratio become = 2 : 3 

Calculation 

Initially (A : B) = 4 : 1 --(1)

Final (A : B) = 2 : 3 ---(2)

In both condition the amount of A is same 

So, eq (2) multiplied by 2 

Final (A : B) = 4 : 6

change in B = 10 L

⇒ 6x - x = 10 

⇒ x = 2 

So Total liquid in jar = 10x = 20 litres 

then Amount of A in jar(initially) = 20/5 × 4 = 16 litres 

∴ the required answer is 16 litres

Alternate Method

Let liquid B in the mixture be x

liquid A in the mixture= 4x

amount of liquid A in 10-litre mixture = (4/5) × 10 = 8 litre

amount of liquid B in 10 litres of mixture=10–8= 2 litre

So, the remaining amount of liquid A and B in the mixture 4x-8, x-2 litre

After adding 10 litres of liquid B to the mixture the ratio of the amount of A and B

= (4x-8)/(x-2+10) =(4x-8)/(x+8) = 2/3

=> 12x - 24 = 2x + 16 => 12x - 2x = 16 + 24

=> 10x = 40 => x = 40/10= 4 lit

amount of liquid A in the mixture

= 4x = 4 × 4=16 litre

144

If the average of four consecutive odd whole numbers A, B, C, D is 42, then what is the product of B and D?

  1. ((a))

    1860

  2. ((b))

    1890

  3. ((c))

    1845

  4. ((d))

    1677

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1845

Given 

The average of four consecutive number = 42

Formula used 

Average = Sum of observation/No. of observation 

Calculation 

Let the four consecutive odd number be x, x + 2, x + 4, x + 6

Sum of four consecutive number = 42 × 4 = 168

⇒ 4x + 12 = 168 

⇒ x = 39 

So, B = x + 2 = 41 

and D = x + 6 = 45 

Product of B and D = 41 × 45 = 1845

∴ The required answer is 1845

145

Which one of the following numbers is exactly divisible by 99?

  1. ((a))

    42767

  2. ((b))

    31781

  3. ((c))

    21187

  4. ((d))

    53658

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

53658

Concept used 

Divisibility rule of 99 : Number should be divisible by 9 and 11 

Divisibility of 9 = sum of digit should be divisible by 9 

Divisibility of 11 = Difference in sum of even place digit and sum of odd place digit is 0 or multiple of 11

Calculation 

From option 

Now option (1) 42767

⇒ 42767 = 4 + 2 + 7 + 6 + 7 = 26 

26 is not divisible by 9 

Now check for 11 

⇒ (4 + 7 + 7) - (2 + 6) = 10

10 is not divisible by 11 

So number is not divisible by 99

Now option (2) 31781 

⇒ 31781 = 3 + 7 + 1 + 8 + 1 = 20 

20 is not divisible by 9 

So number is not divisible by 99 

Now Option (3) 21187 

⇒ 21187 = 2 + 1 + 1 + 8 + 7 = 19 

19 is not divisible by 9 

So number is not divisible by 99 

Now option (4) 

⇒ 53658 = 5 + 3 + 6 + 5 + 8 = 27 

27 is divisible by 9 

Now check for divisibility of 11 

⇒ (5 + 6 + 8) - (3 + 5) = 11

So, number is divisible by 99 

∴ 53658 is divisible by 99

146

Which of the following fractions will be the fourth if the fractions 45\dfrac{4}{5}, 67\dfrac{6}{7}, 29\dfrac{2}{9}911\dfrac{9}{11} and 38\dfrac{3}{8} are ordered in descending order of their values?

  1. ((a))

    911\dfrac{9}{11}

  2. ((b))

    45\dfrac{4}{5}

  3. ((c))

    38\dfrac{3}{8}

  4. ((d))

    67\dfrac{6}{7}

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

38\dfrac{3}{8}

Calculation 

⇒ 4/5 = 0.8  

⇒ 6/7 = 0.85

⇒ 2/9 = 0.22

⇒ 9/11 = 0.81

⇒ 3/8 = 0.375

Arrange in descending order:- 6/7, 9/11, 4/5, 3/8, 2/9

So, clearly seen 3/8 is 4th is descending order 

∴ The required answer is 3/8

147

A person completes 215\frac{2}{15}th of his total journey by rail, 920\dfrac{9}{20}th by car and the remaining 10 km by walking. Accordingly how many kilometers is his entire journey?

  1. ((a))

    36

  2. ((b))

    40

  3. ((c))

    30

  4. ((d))

    24

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

24

Given 

Covered by rail = 2/15 of his total journey

Covered by car = 9/20 of his journey 

Formula used 

Distance = speed × Time

Calculation 

Let the total distance be x 

Distance covered by walking = 10 km 

⇒ (x - 2x/15 - 9x/20) = 10 

⇒ (60x - 8x - 27x) = 10 × 60 

⇒ x = 10 × 60/25  = 24 km

∴ The total distance covered by him is 24 km

148

The average of 25 results ​is 18. The average of the first 12 is 14 and the last 12 is 17. What is the 13th result

  1. ((a))

    71

  2. ((b))

    75

  3. ((c))

    72

  4. ((d))

    78

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

78

Given:

Average of 25 results = 18 

Formula Used:

Average = Sum of observation/No. of observation 

Calculation:

Let 13th result be x

Total result of 25 = 25 × 18 = 450 

Total of first 12 result = 12 × 14 = 168

Total of last 12 result = 12 × 17 = 204

⇒ 450 = 168 + 204 + x 

⇒ x = 78 

∴ The 13th result is 78.

149

In a division question, the factor is ten times the quotient and five times the remainder. If the remainder is 46, what is the dividend?

  1. ((a))

    4236

  2. ((b))

    4306

  3. ((c))

    4336

  4. ((d))

    5336

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

5336

Given 

Divisor = 10 times of Quotient

Remainder = 46

Formula Used 

Dividend = Divisor × Quotient + Remainder 

Calculation

Remainder = 46

Divisor = 46 × 5 = 230 

Quotient = 1/10 × 230 = 23 

Dividend = 230 × 23 + 46 = 5290 + 46 = 5336

∴ The required answer is 5336

150

The following diagram shows the percentage of engineers, laborers and managers working in a multinational company. If the total number of engineers is 75, what will be the total number of laborers?

  1. ((a))

    100

  2. ((b))

    150

  3. ((c))

    175

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

100

From the figure 

Total number of engineer = 37.5% of total employees

⇒ Total employees = (75/37.5)× 100  = 200 

Total number of laborers = 50% of 200 = 100 

∴ The required answer is 100

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