BPSC Assistant Official Paper (Held On : 28 April 2023) (Previous Year Paper)

Here, we use the table given below:

As per the given information:

Z Y X W V U T S R Q P O N M L K J I H G F E D C B A

Here, the letter 'K' is the sixteenth letter from your left and the letter 'W' is the twelfth to the left of the letter 'K'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

As per the given data:

Total students = 500

Do not play cricket = 10%, Play cricket = 90%

Do not play Football = 20%, Play football = 80%

Play neither football nor cricket = 4%

Do not play cricket and football = [(10 + 20) - 4] = 26%

Play Both cricket and football = (100 - 26) = 74%

The Venn diagram for:

Play cricket = 90%

Play football = 80%

Play Both cricket and football = 74%

Play only football = [500 × 6%] = 30

Hence, the correct answer is "30".

Given:

3, 4, 5, 8, 7, 16, 9, 32, x, y

The logic followed in the given series:

Here, the values of x and y are 11 and 64.

Hence, the correct answer is "11, 64".

Logic:

 → [{15 × (12 ÷ 2)}] = (15 × 6) = 90

 → [{13 × (10 ÷ 2)}] = (13 × 5) = 65

Similarly,

 → [{14 × (14 ÷ 2)}] = (14 × 7) = 98

Here, the missing term is '14'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

Logic:

Column wise → [{(First no.) × (Second no.)} + (First no.)] = Third Number

First column → [{(1) × (2)} + 1] = 3

Second column → [{(7) × (14)} + 7] = 105

Similarly,

Third column → [{(9) × (12)} + 9] = 117

Here, the missing number is '12'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

Shortcut Trick

Time ratio for the first third and the rest is given as 2 : 1.

Since the first part takes h hr, then 2 units = h ⇒ 1 unit = h/2.

Total Time = h + h/2 = 1.5h hr.

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time = 75 ÷ 1.5h = 50/h.

∴ The correct answer is 50/h km/hr.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total distance = 75 km

Time for first third (T₁) = h hr

Formula Used:

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time

Calculations:

⇒ First third distance = 1/3 × 75 = 25 km

⇒ Remaining distance = 75 − 25 = 50 km

⇒ Time for first third (T₁) = h hr

⇒ According to question, T₁ = 2 × T₂ (where T₂ is time for rest of the journey)

⇒ h = 2 × T₂ ⇒ T₂ = h/2 hr

⇒ Total Time = T₁ + T₂ = h + h/2 = 3h/2 hr or 1.5h hr

⇒ Average Speed = 75 ÷ (3h/2) = (75 × 2) ÷ 3h

⇒ Average Speed = 150 ÷ 3h = 50/h km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 50/h km/hr.

Additional Information

Average Speed Formula

Average Speed is the total distance covered divided by the total time taken: V_avg = D_total ÷ T_total.

Special Case: Equal Distances

If a journey is divided into two equal distances with speeds x and y, the average speed is 2xy ÷ (x + y).

Speed-Time Relationship

For a constant distance, speed is inversely proportional to time (S ∝ 1/T).

Calculation:

a, b, c, d, e are five consecutive odd number

b = a + 2

c = a + 4

d = a + 6

e = a + 8

Average = $\dfrac{\text{a+b+c+d+e}}{5}$

⇒ $\dfrac{\text{a+b + 2+c + 4+d + 6+e + 8}}{5}$

⇒ $\dfrac{\text{5a+20}}{5}$ = a + 4

∴ Option (2) is the correct answer.

Given:

A + B > C + D

A + C = B + D

A = $\dfrac{\text{(B + D)}}{2}$

Calculation:

A + B > C + D →(1)

A + C = B + D →(2)

A = $\dfrac{\text{(B + D)}}{2}$

From Eqn (2), We have

$\dfrac{\text{(B + D)}}{2}$ + C = B + D

C = (B + D) - $\dfrac{\text{(B + D)}}{2}$ = $\dfrac{\text{(B + D)}}{2}$ = A

Substituting A nad C in (1) we get,

B > D

From Eqn (1) and (2), we conclude that C < B

So, B > C = A and B > D

Hence, B's income is the highest.

Given:

($\dfrac{a}{b}$ > 50) where (a) and (b) are natural numbers and (a, b < 100).

Calculation:

Since (a/b > 50), it implies (a > 50b).

Given that (a, b < 100), and both are natural numbers, the possible values for (b) can start from 1 because for (b ≥ 2), (a) would have to be at least (2 × 50 = 100), which is not less than 100.

For (b = 1), (a) can range from 51 to 99 (inclusive) because (51/1 > 50) and (99/1 > 50).

Thus, for (b = 1), there are (99 - 51 + 1 = 49) possible values for (a).

Considering the constraints:

(b) must be 1 for (a/b > 50) to be true under the condition (a, b < 100).

∴ There are 49 pairs of (a) and (b) possible.

Given:

Total age of 45 boys and 40 girls = 1540 years

Total age of 50 boys and 20 girls = 1320 years

Formula used:

Average = Total age / Number of people

Calculation:

Let the average age of boys = B years

Let the average age of girls = G years

For 45 boys and 40 girls, 45B + 40G = 1540 ⇒ (1)

For 50 boys and 20 girls, 50B + 20G = 1320 ⇒ (2)

Multiplying equation (1) by 1 and equation (2) by 2 to eliminate G,

45B + 40G = 1540

100B + 40G = 2640

Subtracting the first modified equation from the second,

⇒ 100B - 45B = 2640 - 1540

⇒ 55B = 1100

⇒ B = 20

∴ The average age of the boys is 20 years.

Given:

Ratio of ages of A and B four years ago = 13 : 9

Ratio of their ages after eight years = 4 : 3

Calculation:

According to the question,

$\dfrac{\text{A - 4}}{\text{B - 4}}$ = $\dfrac{13}{9}$

⇒ 9A - 36 = 13B - 52

⇒ 9A - 13B = - 52 + 36 = - 16 →(1)

Now, $\dfrac{\text{A+8}}{\text{B+8}}$ = $\dfrac{4}{3}$

⇒ 3A + 24 = 4B + 32

⇒ 3A - 4B = 32 - 24 = 8 →(2)

From Eqn (1) and (2), we have:

9A - 13B = - 16 →(1)

3A - 4B = 8 →(2) × 3

9A - 12B = 24 →(3)

From Eqn (1) and (3), we get

B = 40 years

A = 56 years

The difference of their present ages = 56 - 40 = 16 years

∴ The difference of their present ages is 16 years.

Given:

Age of A = (5/4) × Age of B

Age of B = (4/3) × Age of C

Age of M = Age of (A + B + C)

Age of C = 15 years

Calculation:

A/B = 5/4 →(1)

B/C = 4/3 →(1)

From Equation (1) and (2), we have:

⇒ A : B : C = 5 : 4 : 3

Now, Age of C = 15 years

Ratio of C = 3 ratio = 15 years

⇒ 1 ratio = 5

⇒ Age of M = (25 + 20 + 15) = 60 years

∴ The age of M is 60 years.

Shortcut Trick

Let the Cost Price (CP) of the toy be 100 units.

First Selling Price (SP₁) = 130 units (30% more than CP).

Final Selling Price (SP₂) = 70% of 130 = 91 units.

Loss = CP − SP₂ = 100 − 91 = 9 units.

Given: 9 units = ₹54 ⇒ 1 unit = ₹6 ⇒ CP (100 units) = ₹600.

∴ The correct answer is ₹600.

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial SP = 130% of Cost Price (CP)

Final SP = 70% of Initial SP

Loss = ₹54

Let the purchase price (CP) be ₹x.

⇒ Initial SP = 130% of x = 1.3x

⇒ Actual SP = 70% of 1.3x

⇒ Actual SP = 0.7 × 1.3x = 0.91x

⇒ Loss = CP − Actual SP

⇒ ₹54 = x − 0.91x

⇒ 0.09x = 54

⇒ x = 54 ÷ 0.09

⇒ x = 5400 ÷ 9 = 600

Therefore, the correct option is 4.

∴ The correct answer is ₹600.

Additional Information

Loss and Profit Percentage

Loss % = (Loss ÷ Cost Price) × 100. Similarly, Profit % = (Profit ÷ Cost Price) × 100.

Successive Percentage Change

If a value changes by a% and then by b%, the net change is [a + b + (ab ÷ 100)]%.

Selling Price Formula

SP = CP × (100 ± Change%) ÷ 100, where plus is for profit and minus is for loss.

The number of rectangles:

The number of rectangles is '24'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

The number of triangle in the given figure:

Here, the number of triangle is '18'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

As per the given information:

Pigeon is the symbol of peace.

Similarly,

White flag is the symbol of surrender.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

As per the given information:

'Knowledge' is achieved by 'Studying' in the same way 'Experience' is achieved by 'Work'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

As per the given Venn diagram:

The sector which represents young, uneducated and non-employed persons:

Hence, the correct answer is "3".

As per the given Venn diagram:

Football and Cricket:

⇒ [(5 + 6 + 7 + 9)] = 27

Volleyball and Tennis:

⇒ [(13 + 7 + 11 + 2)] = 33

Players who play either football and cricket or volleyball and tennis:

⇒[(27 + 33) - 7] = 60 - 7 = 53 (7 counted two times)

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

As per the given positions of dice:

 

The opposite face:

Here, the number '1' is to the opposite face of '4'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

The suitable Venn diagram for 'anti-social elements, pickpockets and blackmailers':

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

As per the given data:

The colour of human blood is red, red means violet , which means the colour of human blood is Violet.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

As per the given information:

Here, the code for 'closed' is 'ma'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

Given:

Evaporation : Cloud : Precipitation → Cloud forms due to evaporation and then Precipitation (rain) occurs.

In the same way,

Accident : Injury : Pain → Injury is caused by an accident and then pain occurs.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Given:

Shoe: Shoemaker → Work of shoemaker is making shoes.

Similarly,

Glasses : Optician → An optician is a person who makes or fits glasses.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

Logic:

[(Second no. - 1) × 2] = First no.

Given:

⇒ (20 : 11) →

⇒ [(11 - 1) × 2]

⇒ (10 × 2) = 20

Similarly,

⇒ (102 : ?) →

⇒ [(x - 1) × 2)] = 102

⇒ (x -1) = 51

⇒ x = 52

Here, '102 : 52' is the correct pair.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Checking the given options:

1. Indigo → A plant
2. Red → Colour
3. Green → Colour
4. Yellow → Colour

Here, 'Indigo' is different from the rest.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

Given:

13, 32, 24, 43, 35, (__), 46, 65, 57, 76

The logic followed in the given series:

Here, the missing term is '54'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

Given:

3, 4, 10, 32, 136, 685, 4116

The logic followed in the given series:

Here, the wrong term is '32'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

Here, we use the table given below:

The logic followed here is: Consonant + 1 and Vowel - 1

'MANIA' is written as 'NZOHZ' →

'PROUD' is written as 'QSNTE' →

Similarly,

Here, 'DONKEY' is written as 'ENOLDZ'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Given:

Q _ T _ S _ K _ R _ _ K _ RS

Checking all the given options:

1. KRTRSQT → QKTRS / TKRRS / QKTRS 2. KRQTSQT → QKTRS / QKTRS / QKTRS 3. KRQTSKT → QKTRS / QKTRS / KKTRS 4. KRQTSQR → QKTRS / QKTRS / QKRRS

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

Given:

1. Frog
2. Garuda
3. Grasshopper
4. Snake
5. Grass

The meaningful order according their size will be:

Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Garuda

Here, the correct order is '5, 3, 1, 4, 2'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

BODMAS RULE:

We have checked each option one by one,

Option (1):

Given equation : 26 + 21 × 15 ÷ 3 - 14 = 108

After interchanging the number 15 and 21,

New equation: 26 + 15 × 21 ÷ 3 - 14 = 108

⇒ 26 + 15 × 21 ÷ 3 - 14 = 108

​⇒ 26 + 15 × 7 - 14 = 108

​⇒ 26 + 105 - 14 = 108

​⇒ 117 ≠ 108

Option (2):

Given equation : 24 - 21 ÷ 3 + 15 - 7 = 23

After interchanging the number 15 and 21,

New equation: 24 - 15 ÷ 3 + 21 - 7 = 23

⇒ 24 - 15 ÷ 3 + 21 - 7 = 23

⇒ 24 - 5 + 21 - 7 = 23

⇒ 33 ≠ 23

Option (3):

Given equation : 62 ÷ 31 - 21 + 15 × 3 = 80

After interchanging the number 15 and 21,

New equation: 62 ÷ 31 - 15 + 21 × 3 = 80

⇒ 62 ÷ 31 - 15 + 21 × 3 = 80

⇒ 2 - 15 + 21 × 3 = 80

⇒ 2 - 15 + 63 = 80

⇒ 50 ≠ 80

Option (4):

Given equation : 63 ÷ 15 + 21 × 5 - 4 = 74

After interchanging the number 15 and 21,

New equation: 63 ÷ 21 + 15 × 5 - 4 = 74

⇒ 63 ÷ 21 + 15 × 5 - 4 = 74

⇒ 3 + 15 × 5 - 4 = 74

⇒ 3 + 75 - 4 = 74

⇒ 74 = 74

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Given:

$\dfrac{x}{x+1}+\dfrac{y}{y+1}+\dfrac{z}{z+1}$ = a   

Calculation:

$\dfrac{x}{x+1}+\dfrac{y}{y+1}+\dfrac{z}{z+1}$ = a

⇒ $\dfrac{x}{x+1}+\dfrac{y}{y+1}+\dfrac{z}{z+1}$ - 3 = a - 3

⇒ $\dfrac{x}{x+1} - 1+\dfrac{y}{y+1} - 1+\dfrac{z}{z+1} - 1$ = a - 3

⇒ $\dfrac{-1}{x+1}+\dfrac{-1}{y+1}+\dfrac{-1}{z+1}$ = a - 3

⇒ $\dfrac{1}{x+1}+\dfrac{1}{y+1}+\dfrac{1}{z+1}$ = 3 - a

∴ The value of  $\dfrac{1}{x+1}+\dfrac{1}{y+1}+\dfrac{1}{z+1}$ will be 3 - a.

Given:

Number of singers = 20

Number of dancers = 40

20% of singers are below 25 years

40% of the entire group is below 25 years

Calculation:

There are total 20 singers.

20% of singers below 25 years = $\dfrac{20}{100}$ × 20 = 4 Singers

Total number of singers and dancers = 20 + 40 = 60

40% of the entire group below 25 year = $\dfrac{40}{100}$ × 60 = 24 People

Number of dancers less than 25 year old = 24 - 4 = 20

Percentage of the dancers are under 25 years = $\dfrac{20}{40}$ × 100 = 50%.​

∴ 50% of the dancers are under the age of 25.

Here, we use the BODMAS table given below:

<br>

As per the given information:

Given:

⇒ 6a7b8c8d2

⇒ (6 + 7 - 8 × 8 ÷ 2)

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 6 + 7 - 8 × 4

⇒ 6 + 7 - 32

⇒ 13 - 32 = (-19)

Hence, the correct answer is "-19".

Here, we use the BODMAS table given below:

Given:

⇒ 12 _ 4 _ 2 _ 1 = 24

Checking the given options:

1. +, ×, ÷

⇒ 12 _ 4 _ 2 _ 1 = 24

⇒ 12 + 4 × 2 ÷ 1

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 12 + 4 × 2

⇒ 12 + 8 = 20

Here, the equation is not satisfied.

2. +, ÷, ×

⇒ 12 _ 4 _ 2 _ 1 = 24

⇒ 12 + 4 ÷ 2 × 1

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 12 + 2 × 1

⇒ 12 + 2 = 14

Here, the equation is not satisfied.

3. -, ÷, ×

⇒ 12 _ 4 _ 2 _ 1 = 24

⇒ 12 - 4 ÷ 2 × 1

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 12 - 2 × 1

⇒ 12 - 2 = 10

Here, the equation is not satisfied.

4. ×, ÷, ×

⇒ 12 _ 4 _ 2 _ 1 = 24

⇒ 12 × 4 ÷ 2 × 1

Apply BODMAS rule:

⇒ 12 × 2 × 1

⇒ 12 × 2 = 24

⇒ '12 × 4 ÷ 2 × 1 = 24'

Here, the equation is satisfied.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Logic:

⇒ (First no.)² + (Second no.)² = (Third no.)²

Given:

(1) 3 × 4 = 5

⇒ [(3)² + (4)²]

⇒ (9 + 16) = 25

⇒ 25 = (5)²

(2) 5 × 12 = 13

⇒ [(5)2 + (12)2]

⇒ [25 + 144] = 169

⇒ 169 = (13)²

Similarly, for '9 × ? = 41'

⇒ [(9)2 + (x)2] = (41)2

⇒ [(81 + (x)2] = 1681

⇒ (x)2 = (1681 - 81)

⇒ (x)2 = 1600

⇒ x = 40

⇒ '9 × 40 = 41'

Here, the missing value in the equation is '40'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

As per the given information:

Rummy = 320

Tambola = 350

Rummy and Tambola = 220

As per the given information, all the members participate in either Tambola or Rummy then,

All participants = [(320 + 350) - 220] = 450

Hence, the correct answer is "450".

Given:

Total students = 230

Failed in English = 162

Failed in Hindi = 152

Failed in Both English and Hindi = 124

Total failed = [(162 + 152) - 124] = 190

The number of passed students = (230 - 190) = 40

Hence, the correct answer is "40".

Preparing the family tree diagram by using the following symbols:

As per the given information:

Here, the woman is the sister of that man.

Hence, the correct answer is "Sister".

Preparing the family tree diagram by using the following symbols:

As per the given information the family tree diagram:

Here, Arun is the father-in-law of that girl.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Preparing the family tree diagram by using the following symbols:

As per the given information:

1. P is the brother of Q and R.

2. S is the mother of R and T is the father of P.

Checking the given options:

1. Q is the son of T. → False 2. P is the son of S. → True 3. T is the father of Q. → True 4. T is the husband of S. → True

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

As per the given information:

1. A and B are from Delhi while C, D, E and F are from Patna.
2. D and F → Tall and A, B, C and E → Short
3. A, C, D → Girls and B, E, and F → Boys

4. Tall girls from Patna → D

Hence, the correct answer is "D".

The sitting arrangement as per the given information:

1. P is second to the left of R.

2. Q is not at the end of any row, O is the neighbour of Q and sits diagonally opposite to P.

3. N is the neighbour of R.

Here, Q is in front of N.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

As per the given information:

1. Mahesh is senior or equal in rank to Nitin.

Mahesh ≥ Nitin

2. Raman is junior or equal in rank to Shiva.

Shiva  ≥ Raman

3. Nitin is senior in rank to Shiva.

Mahesh ≥ Nitin > Shiva  ≥ Raman

Checking the given options:

1. Mahesh is senior to Raman. → True 2. No such conclusion can be drawn. → False 3. Shiva is senior to Raman. → False (It can be possible but not definitely true because Shiva is senior or equal in rank to Raman) 4. Nitin is junior to Mahesh. → False (Because Mahesh is senior or equal in rank to Nitin)

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

Given:

Shilpa's position from left = 8th

Reena's position from Right = 17th

After interchanging:

Shilpa from the left = 14th

Total girls = [{(Position of Shilpa from the left) + (Position of Reena from the Right)} - 1]

⇒ Total girls = [(17 +14) - 1]

⇒ Total girls = 30

Hence, the correct answer is "30".

The direction and distance diagram as per the given information:

The endpoint is in the South, 5 km away from the starting point.

Hence, the correct answer is "5 km, south".

As per the given information, the directions at noon:

When the clock is rotated at an angle of 135° in the anti-clockwise direction then the minute hand at 8:45 pm:

Here, the minute hand is in the South direction.

Hence, the correct answer is "South".

Given:

Sajewat, Segvan, Sajevar, Sajewet, Sangwan

We know that names are arranged in dictionary order in telephone directory.

Arranging in the order of dictionary:

1. Sajevar 2. Sajewat 3. Sajewet 4. Sangwan 5. Segvan

Here, 'Sajewet' appears in the middle of a telephone directory.

Hence, the correct answer is "Sajewet".

The Correct Answer is Rajasthan.

Key Points

• Panchayati Raj​
• In January 1957, the Government of India appointed a committee to examine the working of the Community Development Programme (1952) and the National Extension Service (1953) and to suggest measures for their better working.
• The chairman of this committee was Balwant Rai G Mehta. The committee submitted its report in November 1957 and recommended the establishment of the scheme of ‘democratic decentralization, which ultimately came to be known as Panchayati Raj.
• It recommended the establishment of a three-tier Panchayati raj system—gram panchayat at the village level, panchayat samiti at the block level and zila parishad at the district level.
• Rajasthan was the first state to establish Panchayati Raj.
• The scheme was inaugurated by the prime minister on October 2, 1959, in Nagaur district Rajasthan followed by Andhra Pradesh, which also adopted the system in 1959.
• Thereafter, most of the states adopted the system.
• 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 which came into force on 24 April 1993 gave constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj Institutions.
• It has brought them under the purview of the justiciable part of the Constitution. In other words, the state governments are under constitutional obligation to adopt the new Panchayati raj system in accordance with the provisions of the act.
• Consequently, neither the formation of panchayats nor the holding of elections at regular intervals depending on the will of the state government anymore. ​​

Important Points

• Panchayati Raj is the system of local self-government of villages in rural India as opposed to urban and suburban municipalities.
• It consists of the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) through which the self-government of villages is realized.
• They are tasked with "economic development, strengthening social justice and implementation of Central and State Government Schemes including those 29 subjects listed in the 11th Schedule."
• Those 29 subjects are:

1. Agriculture, including agricultural extension.
2. Land improvement, implementation of land reforms, land consolidation and soil conservation.
3. Minor irrigation, water management and watershed development.
4. Animal husbandry, dairying and poultry.
5. Fisheries.
6. Social forestry and farm forestry.
7. Minor forest produces.
8. Small scale industries, including food processing industries.
9. Khadi, village and cottage industries.
10. Rural housing.
11. Drinking water.
12. Fuel and fodder.
13. Roads, culverts, bridges, ferries, waterways and other means of communication.
14. Rural electrification, including distribution of electricity.
15. Non-conventional energy sources.
16. Poverty alleviation programme.
17. Education, including primary and secondary schools.
18. Technical training and vocational education.
19. Adult and non-formal education.
20. Libraries.
21. Cultural activities
22. Markets and fairs.
23. Health and sanitation, including hospitals, primary health centres and dispensaries.
24. Family welfare.
25. Women and child development.
26. Social welfare, including welfare of the handicapped and mentally retarded.
27. Welfare of the weaker sections, and in particular, of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
28. Public distribution system.
29. Maintenance of community assets.

The Correct Answer is Rural Areas.

Key Points

• Panchanyati Raj​
• Panchayati Raj is the system of local self-government of villages in rural India as opposed to urban and suburban municipalities.
• It consists of the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) through which the self-government of villages is realized.
• They are tasked with "economic development, strengthening social justice and implementation of Central and State Government Schemes including those 29 subjects listed in the 11th Schedule."
• Those 29 subjects are:

1. Agriculture, including agricultural extension.
2. Land improvement, implementation of land reforms, land consolidation and soil conservation.
3. Minor irrigation, water management and watershed development.
4. Animal husbandry, dairying and poultry.
5. Fisheries.
6. Social forestry and farm forestry.
7. Minor forest produces.
8. Small scale industries, including food processing industries.
9. Khadi, village and cottage industries.
10. Rural housing.
11. Drinking water.
12. Fuel and fodder.
13. Roads, culverts, bridges, ferries, waterways and other means of communication.
14. Rural electrification, including distribution of electricity.
15. Non-conventional energy sources.
16. Poverty alleviation programme.
17. Education, including primary and secondary schools.
18. Technical training and vocational education.
19. Adult and non-formal education.
20. Libraries.
21. Cultural activities
22. Markets and fairs.
23. Health and sanitation, including hospitals, primary health centres and dispensaries.
24. Family welfare.
25. Women and child development.
26. Social welfare, including welfare of the handicapped and mentally retarded.
27. Welfare of the weaker sections, and in particular, of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
28. Public distribution system.
29. Maintenance of community assets.

Additional Information

• The Panchayati Raj system is a three-tiered administration for rural development in India.
• The development of local self-governments in districts, zones, and villages is the goal of the Panchayati Raj.
• One of the primary goals of Panchayati Raj is rural development, which has been implemented in all Indian states with the exception of Nagaland, Meghalaya, and Mizoram, as well as all Union Territories with the exception of Delhi.
• ​The Panchayat Raj system of India has three levels or tiers​
• The Gram Panchayat runs village affairs.
• The Block level is where Panchayat Samiti operates.
• Zilla Parishad is a district-level organization.

The Correct Answer is Rajni Kothari.

Key Points

• The Indian National Congress
• ​The Indian National Congress is the oldest and historically the most important force in Indian polity. Having been seen as synonymous with the national movement, the Party has been an integral part of the country in the pre-and post-independence eras.

1. The rise of coalition politics in 1989 had put an end to the Congress System, altering the party system in the country. But it is difficult to imagine Indian politics without the Congress, which still continues to remain an important political force.
2. After the assassination of Rajiv Gandhi, the party did witness a political vacuum, but it formed the government at the Centre with P.V. Narasimha Rao as the prime minister.
3. The Congress also supported the United Front government in 1997–98.
4. The arrival of Mrs Sonia Gandhi and Rahul Gandhi changed the face of the Congress and filled the loss that the party incurred after Rajiv Gandhi’s death. The party led the UPA coalition government at the Centre in 2004 and thereafter again in 2009 when the party won 206 seats.
5. The Congress also formed governments in the states of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Haryana, etc
6. The part, however, received a huge blow in the 2014 general elections and was decimated. The party did not win a single seat in seven states. The party, however, won 44 LS seats. It proved to be the worst-ever performance by the Congress.

Important Points

• The Prime Minister of India is the head of government of the Republic of India.
• Executive authority is vested in the Prime Minister and his elected Council of Ministers, although the President of India is the constitutional, nominal and ceremonial head of state.
• The prime minister is often the leader of the party or coalition with a majority in the Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Parliament of India.
• The Prime Minister and his cabinet are always responsible to the Lok Sabha.

The Correct Answer is There is 'a sack of credit'.

Key Points

• The Indian Constitution can be subjected to many criticisms of which three may be briefly mentioned: first, that it is unwieldy; second, that it is unrepresentative and third, that it is alien to our conditions.
• The criticism that it is unwieldy is based on the assumption that the entire constitution of a country must be found in one compact document.
• A second criticism of the Constitution is that it is unrepresentative. At that time, the adult franchise was not yet granted and most members came from the advanced sections of the society.
• A final criticism alleges that the Indian Constitution is entirely an alien document, borrowed article by article from western constitutions and sits uneasily with the cultural ethos of the Indian people.
• This criticism is often voiced by many. Even in the Constituent Assembly itself, there were some voices that echo this concern
• The framers of the constitution made necessary modifications in the features borrowed from other constitutions for their suitability to the Indian conditions, at the same time avoiding their faults.
• It was never a blind borrowing. It was innovative borrowing.

Important Points

• According to BR. Ambedkar Fundamental rights are part of one of the criticisms of Indian Constitutions.​
• As many people criticised the Indian constitution by saying that Articles are borrowed from the western constitutions.
• It is true that the Indian Constitution is modern and partly western. However, it was never a blind borrowing.

Additional Information

• Major Sources of Indian Constitution
• Constitution of the United States
• British constitution
• Canadian constitution
• Irish constitution (Ireland)
• French constitution
• Australian constitution
• Constitution of Soviet Union (USSR)
• Constitution of South Africa
• Constitution of Germany
• Constitution of Japan

The Correct Answer is Bihar.

In News

• The index of mineral production of mining and quarrying sector for the month of JANUARY, 2024 (Base: 2011-12=100) at 144.1 is 5.9 % higher as compared to the level in the month of JANUARY, 2023.​

Key Points

• The most striking feature of the >Indian minerals is their uneven distribution. Some areas are very rich in minerals while some others are completely devoid of this valuable asset.
• India is endowed with a rich variety of mineral resources due to its varied geological structure.
• A mineral is a natural substance of organic or inorganic origin with definite chemical and physical properties

Important Points

• Chhota Nagpur Belt​
• This belt comprising of Chota Nagpur plateau and Orissa Plateau in the states of Jharkhand, West Bengal and Orissa is the richest mineral belt of India.
• It contains large quantities of coal, iron ore, manganese, mica, bauxite, copper, kyanite, chromite, beryl, apatite and many more minerals.
• In fact, if you ask for any major mineral of India and you will find it in this belt.
• Thus it is a mineral region par excellence.
• The Chota Nagpur plateau is known as the  mineral heartland of India.
• According to Wadia, this region possesses India’s 100 per cent Kyanite, 93 per cent iron ore, 84 per cent coal, 70 per cent chromite, 70 per cent mica, 50 per cent fire clay, 45 per cent asbestos, 45 per cent china clay, 20 per cent limestone and 10 per cent manganese.
• However, many changes have taken place in the recent years.
• the Chhotanagpur belt in India is famous for the production of iron ore and coal.

Additional Information

• The North-Western Region:
• This belt extends along Aravali in Rajasthan and parts of Gujarat.
• Copper, zinc are the major minerals.
• Rajasthan is rich in building stones i.e. sandstone, granite, marble.
• Gujarat is known for its petroleum deposits.
• Southern belt:
• It covers mostly the Karnataka plateau but extends over the contiguous Tamil Nadu upland.
• Deposits of ferrous minerals and bauxite are concerned but it lacks coal deposits except for lignite at Neyveli.
• It also does not have mica and copper deposits.

The Correct Answer is Subarnarekha and Kharkai.

Key Points

• Jamshedpur Steel Plant/Tata Iron and Steel Company Limited:
• Located in Jamshedpur, Jharkhand.
• This steel plant has a strategic location at the confluence of the Subarnarekha River and Kharkai River.
• It is also known as Tata Steel which is a subsidiary of the Tata Group.
• It was set up in August 26, 1907 by Jamsetji Tata.
• Among the first steel plants in Asia, which continuously produce steel at the same site for over 100 years.
• Formerly known as Tata Iron and Steel Company Limited (TISCO)
• TISCO started pig iron production in 1911 and began producing steel in 1912 as a branch of Jamsetji's Tata Group.
• Subarnarekha River
• ​The Subarnarekha River, also recognized as the Swarnarekha River, flows through the Indian states of Jharkhand, West Bengal, and Odisha.
• It is a rain-fed river sustaining millions of people residing in the areas it traverses.
• The river has its origin near the village of Nagri, located close to the city of Ranchi in the state of Jharkhand.
• One of the notable features of the Subarnarekha River is the Hundru Waterfall, where the river takes a plunge down a 74m high cliff.
• An interesting fact about its name: "Subarnarekha" translates to "streak of gold".
• This name is believed to come from the tradition of gold panning that was allegedly practiced near the origin of the river, specifically at a village named Piska.
• The river ultimately flows into the Bay of Bengal near the town of Kirtania in Odisha.

Additional Information

• Major Iron and Steel Industry in Jharkhand

The Correct Answer is up to food and commercial Crops.

Key Points

• Green Revolution​
• The green revolution is the rise in agricultural productivity**, particularly in developing nations, made possible by the use of novel crops and farming techniques.**
• Given that he started the Green Revolution in India, M. S. Swaminathan is regarded as its father. He was motivated by Norman Borlaug's effort.
• Norman Borlaug started the Green Revolution movement in the 1960s. He is referred to as the "Father of the Green Revolution" globally. For his efforts in creating High Yielding Varieties (HYVs) of wheat, it resulted in him being awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 1970.
• In order to enhance food production and reduce hunger and poverty, high-yielding cultivars of rice and wheat were first introduced in India in the 1960s.
• In Punjab, the Green Revolution in India was first implemented in late 1966 or early 1967 as a part of a development initiative launched by international donor organisations and the Indian government.
• One of the innovative techniques created during the Green Revolution was drip irrigation, This technology allowed water to drop slowly and steadily to the roots of plants, saving water and promoting more sustainable agriculture.
• India has achieved significant progress thanks to the Green Revolution, which has brought about a previously unheard-of level of food security.
• It has helped many non-poor people avoid the poverty and hunger they would have otherwise faced while lifting a significant number of poor people out of poverty

Important Points

• The Green Revolution started in the 1960s
• It is  an effort to increase agricultural production
• using industrial agriculture technologies like hybrid seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, and irrigation.
• The first phase of the green revolution took place during the period ranging from the mid-1960s up to the mid-1970s.
• During the first phase, the use of HYV seeds was restricted to the more affluent states like Punjab, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu.
• During the second phase of the green revolution (the mid-1970s to mid-1980s),
• the HYV technology spread to a larger number of states and benefitted more variety of crops.
• The adoption of green revolution technology enabled India to achieve self-sufficiency in the production of food grains.
• The Green Revolution focused on technological advancements in crop production, it did not specifically emphasize extensive use of cattle.
• Instead, it primarily centered around seed varieties, fertilizers, and irrigation methods.

The Correct Answer is All of the above.

Key Points

• Well, Canals, lakesponds are ;important sources of water in India.
• India receives 2nd highest rainfall for a country of its size after Brazil.
• Water availability is 2000 cum/person/year and by 2050 it will be 3500 cum/person/year but availability shall be 1200 cum/person/year.

Important Points

• In India, 45% of the total irrigation and 80% of domestic water comes from the groundwater reserves.
• Groundwater is a replenishable resource.
• The agriculture, industrial and domestic sectors majorly depend on groundwater in India. The main source of groundwater is the recharge from monsoon precipitation (about 58%).
• Other sources of recharge of groundwater in India include - seepage from canals, tanks, ponds, and other water structures and irrigation accounts for about 32%.
• Uttar Pradesh has the highest net annual groundwater availability while Delhi has the least.

The Correct Answer is China.

Key Points

• Hybrid Technology
• ​Hybrid technology systems combine two or more technologies with the aim to achieve efficient systems.
• Possible combinations are wind-solar photovoltaic (PV) hybrid systems, wind-diesel hybrid systems, fuel cell-gas turbine hybrid systems, wind-fuel cell hybrid systems, etc.
• As Per the Green 500 list, Supercomputer Param Yuva-II was rated first in India, 9th in the Asia Pacific Region and 44th in the world among the most Power efficient computer system.
• It was developed by the Centre for Development of Advance Computing (C-DAC) and It uses hybrid technology, processor, co-processor and hardware accelerators.

Additional Information

• The FAME (Faster Adoption and Manufacture of Electric Vehicles) was launched in 2015 to promote electric and hybrid vehicle technology to ensure growth.
• The two phases of the scheme: 
• Phase I: 2015 to March 31st, 2019
• Phase II: April 1st, 2019, and will be completed by March 31st, 2022
• The Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises launched this scheme to incentivize the production and promotion of eco-friendly vehicles including electric vehicles and hybrid vehicles.
• Objective:
• To encourage Faster adoption of Electric and hybrid vehicle by way of offering upfront Incentive on purchase of Electric vehicles and also by way of establishing a necessary charging Infrastructure for electric vehicles.
• It will help in addressing the issue of environmental pollution and fuel security.
• RISE (Revitalising Infrastructure and Systems in Education) scheme was announced in Union Budget 2017-18. It aims to lend low-cost funds to government higher educational institutions

The Correct Answer is All of the Above.

Key Points 

• A volcano is a landform, a mountain, where molten rocks erupt through the surface of the planet.
• The volcano mountain opens downwards to a pool of molten rocks below the surface of the earth.
• A volcano is a landform, a mountain, where molten rocks erupt through the surface of the planet.
• The volcano mountain opens downwards to a pool of molten rocks below the surface of the earth.
• Volcanoes are categorised into three main categories.
• ​Active volcano
• Dormant volcano
• Extinct volcano​

Important Points 

• Volcanoes are  classified based on the nature of eruption and the form developed at the surface.
• Shield Volcanoes are the largest of all the volcanoes on the earth, which are not steep and are mostly made up of basalt.
• Composite Volcanoes are characterized by outbreaks of cooler and more viscous lavas than basalt and are constructed from numerous explosive eruptions.
• Calderas are known as the most explosive volcanoes on Earth and when they erupt, they incline to collapse on themselves rather than constructing any structure.
• Flood Basalt Provinces volcanoes discharge highly fluid lava that flows for long distances.
• Mid-Ocean Ridge Volcanoes are found in the oceanic areas and the central region of this ridge gets frequent eruptions.

Additional Information 

• An Active volcano is one which has recently erupted and there is a possibility that it may erupt soon.
• A dormant volcano is one that has not erupted in a long time but there is a possibility it can erupt in the future.
• An extinct volcano is one which has erupted thousands of years ago and there’s no possibility of an eruption.

​             

The Correct Answer is Africa.

Key Points

• Extreme poverty leads to hunger in Africa: More than a quarter of the hungry in the world live on the African continent.
• One-fifth of people living in Africa are considered malnourished.
• This gives the continent the highest rate of malnourished people worldwide.
• More than 30 per cent of African children suffer from growth disorders such as stunting due to their chronic malnutrition.
• This disease causes physical and mental underdevelopment in children.
• Sub-Saharan Africa is the region with the highest infant mortality.
• On average, one in 11 children dies before his fifth birthday.
• Three of the four countries with the highest infant mortality worldwide are on the African continent:
• Ethiopia, Nigeria and Kenya.
• In addition to complications at birth and malnutrition, there are diseases such as pneumonia, diarrheal diseases and malaria, which lead to the early death of many children.
• In sub-Saharan Africa, 59 million children between the ages of 5 and 17 work instead of playing and going to school.
• They fight poverty for their families. In Africa, every fifth child is cheated out of childhood and forced into child labor.
• 25 million Africans are infected with the HIV virus, including approximately 2.9 million children.
• Many have lost one or even both parents and live as AIDS orphans on the street.
• Child labor is a common problem.
• Population growth on the African continent is rapid, despite numerous prevention and education campaigns. Developmental success and economic growth cannot keep pace with this. The result: more and more Africans live in poverty. According to a recent study by UNICEF, the population of Africa will double by 2050 to two billion people.

Additional Information 

• New Zealand
• It is located near the centre of the water hemisphere and is made up of two main islands and more than 700 smaller islands.
• The two main islands (the North Island, or Te Ika-a-Māui, and the South Island, or Te Waipounamu) are separated by Cook Strait, 22 kilometres (14 mi) wide at its narrowest point.
• Asia
• It is the largest and most populous continent, home to the largest (Russia) and most populous (China) nations.
• Asia is the largest of the world's continents, covering approximately 30 percent of the Earth's land area.
• It is also the world's most populous continent, with roughly 60 percent of the total population.
• Lattin America - 
• Latin America designates the set of countries in the Americas where a Romance language (a language derived from Latin) predominates: Spanish, Portuguese, or French.
• Thus, it includes Mexico; most of Central and South America; and in the Caribbean, Cuba, the Dominican Republic, and Haiti.

The Correct Answer is in the central and southern regions of India.

Key Points

• Godavari, Krishna, Kaveri, and Vaigai are flowing in the direction of the East.
• Godavari river-
• Godavari river is India's second-largest river after the Ganga, it originates from the Triambakeshwar, Maharastra and ends at the way of Bengal.
• Krishna river-
• The river Krishna is the 3rd longest river India after the Brahmaputra, Ganga and Godavari.
• The source of this river is Mahabaleshwar, Maharastra and ends at the Bay of Bengal, it is also called the Krishnaveni.
• Kaveri-
• This the third-longest river in south India after the Godavari and Krishna, this river originates from Tala Kaveri and ends at the Bay of Bengal.

The Correct Answer is in the areas of Punjab and Haryana.

Key Points

• Murrah is the most important breed of buffaloes, whose home is Rohtak, Hisar and Jind of Haryana and Nabha and Patiala districts of Punjab.
• Mehsana is a dairy breed of buffalo which is commonly found in Mehsana town in Gujarat and Maharastra state.
• The Murrah is the main buffalo breed for milk production.
• It produces around 1800-2500 L of milk per lactation period.
• This breed is originally from Punjab and Haryana.

The Correct Answer is 22%.

Key Points

• BPL is Below Poverty Line.
• India's government has set this economic standard so it can identify the lower-income people in the community who need urgent assistance from the government.
• The government has placed an income limit.
• Individuals whose earnings fall below the limit are listed as BPL.
• The percentage of persons below the Poverty Line in 2011-12 has been estimated as 25.7% in rural areas, 13.7% in urban areas and 21.9% for the country as a whole.
• As per the methodology of the Suresh Tendulkar Committee report, the population below the poverty line in India was 354 million (29.6% of the population) in 2009–2010 and was 269 million (21.9% of the population) in 2011–2012.
• The population of the country as per the provisional figures of Census 2011 is 1210.19 million of which 623.72 million (51.54%) are males and 586.46 million (48.46%) are females.
• According to the methodology authorized by the Union Cabinet, the BPL income limit in India is around Rs. 27,000 per year.
• A benchmark known by the Indian government as “below the poverty line” is used to reflect economic losses and to identify people and households in need of support and assistance.

The Correct Answer is China.

Key Points

• In 2020 the global population reached 7.8 billion people.
• The global population is currently increasing at a low single-digit annual rate.
• The population is expected to rise at a rate of 81 million people every year.
• Between 1959 and the 2000s, the world's population more than doubled.
• In the late 1960s, the annual population growth rate peaked.
• Since then, the rate of increase has practically halved, and it is predicted to continue to fall in the future years around the world.

1. China,
2. India,
3. US,
4. Indonesia,
5. Pakistan,
6. Brazil,
7. Nigeria,
8. Bangladesh,
9. Russia, and
10. Mexico were among the top ten most populous countries in the world in 2020.

Additional Information

China

• The country had a population of 1.41 billion in 2020, according to GlobalData estimates. During 2017–2020, the population of the country grew at an average annual rate of 0.3% and the population growth rate is expected to slowdown from 0.3% in 2021 to 0.1% by 2024, as per GlobalData.
• The population density of China stood at 149.4 people per square kilometer in 2021. The population is forecast to grow at an average annual rate of 0.1% during the period 2022–2024.

India

• Between 2017-2020, the population of India was highest in 2020, reaching 1,330,970,208 people.
• The country witnessed significant growth in total population in 2020 when compared to the previous years among both the male and female population.
• The population of India has exponentially increased since the 1960s.

Factors Affecting Population Growth of a Country 

• Population growth of a country depends on multiple factors including the economy, female fertility rates, birth rates, death rates, healthcare facilities, increasing urbanization, immigration & emigration rates, education, and other social & cultural aspects.

The Correct Answer is in 1951.

Key Points

• Though the planned economic development in India began in 1951 with the inception of First Five Year Plan, theoretical efforts had begun much earlier , even prior to the independence.
• Setting up of National Planning Committee by Indian National Congress in 1938 , The Bombay Plan & Gandhian Plan in 1944, Peoples Plan in 1945 (by post war reconstruction Committee of Indian Trade Union).
• Sarvodaya Plan in 1950 by Jaiprakash Narayan were steps in this direction.
• Five-Year Plans (FYPs) are centralized and integrated national economic programs.
• Joseph Stalin implemented the first FYP in the Soviet Union in the late 1920s.
• Most communist states and several capitalist countries subsequently have adopted them.
• China and India both continue to use FYPs, although China renamed its Eleventh FYP, from 2006 to 2010, a guideline (guihua), rather than a plan (jihua), to signify the central government’s more hands-off approach to development.
• After independence, India launched its First FYP in 1951, under socialist influence of first Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru.
• The process began with setting up of Planning Commission in March 1950 in pursuance of declared.
• Objectives of the Government are to
• promote a rapid rise in the standard of living of the people by efficient exploitation of the resources of the country,
• increasing production and offering opportunities to all for employment in the service of the community.
• The Planning Commission was charged with the responsibility of making assessment of all resources of the country, augmenting deficient resources, formulating plans for the most effective and balanced utilisation of resources and determining priorities.

The Correct Answer is after World War I.

Key Points

• The first organized Trade Union in India the Madras Labour Union was established in 1918.
• Followed the organisational principles of the industrialised world.
• The first world war along with increased communication and better awareness of the global players contributed to the development of the movement.
• Recognised as the early phase of Labour Unionism.
• Some important Unions were -the Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association (1917), All India Postal and the RMS Association.
• All India Trade Union Congress is the oldest trade union federation, founded in 1920, under the leadership of Lala Lajpat Rai, Joseph Baptista, N.M Joshi and Diwan Chaman Lall.
• Lala Lajpat Rai was the first president.

Additional Information

• World War II, conflict that involved virtually every part of the world during the years 1939–45.
• The principal belligerents were the
• Axis powers—Germany, Italy, and Japan—and
• The Allies—France, Great Britain, the United States, the Soviet Union, and, to a lesser extent, China.

The Correct Answer is Dadabhai Naoroji.

Key Points

Dadabhai Naroji: 

• He was also known as the "Grand Old Man of India" and ‘Father of Indian Nationalism’.
• He was characterized the nature of economic policies between 1880–1905 as 'the era of economic nationalism in India'.
• He was the first Indian to be elected as a member of the British Parliament.
• He was the founder of ;Indian National Congress, Zoroastrian Trust Funds of Europe, National Congress, London Indian Society.It has his famous drain of wealth theory.
• This theory explained the constant flow of wealth from India to England for which India didn’t get any type of return.
• Some other books and notes written by Dadabhai Naoroji were: Poverty of India, Admission of educated natives into the Indian Civil Service and Condition of India.

Additional Information

• Romesh Chunder Dutt was an Indian civil servant, economic historian, translator of Ramayana and Mahabharata.
• He was one of the prominent proponents of Indian economic nationalism.
• Chandra was a sectional president and then the general president of the Indian History Congress in 1985.
• He was chairperson of the Centre for Historical Studies, Jawaharlal Nehru University, New Delhi.
• He became a member of the University Grants Commission in 1993.
• Rajani Palme Dutt was born at Cambridge to Upendra Krishna Dutt and Anna Palme.
• Dutt's family household was a meeting place for visiting Indian nationalist leaders and leading figures in the British labour movement.
• Educated at the Perse School, Cambridge (1907) and Balliol College, Oxford.

The Correct Answer is Peace.

Key Points

• The first railway line in India was started from Bombay (now Mumbai) to Thane in 1853.
• This railway line was constructed by the Great Indian Peninsular Railway (GIPR), which was later renamed as the Central Railway.
• The distance between Bombay and Thane is around 34 km and the first train on this route was hauled by three steam locomotives named Sahib, Sindh and Sultan.
• The inauguration of this railway line was done by Lord Dalhousie, who was the Governor-General of India at that time.
• This railway line was an important milestone in the development of transportation infrastructure in India and it paved the way for the growth of railways in the country.

Additional Information

• Palghar is a town located in the Palghar district of Maharashtra.​​
• ​There was no railway line between Bombay and Palghar in 1853.
• Poona (now Pune) is a city located in the state of Maharashtra.
• ​There was no railway line between Bombay and Poona in 1853.
• Karjat is a town located in the Raigad district of Maharashtra.
• ​There was no railway line between Bombay and Karjat in 1853.

The Correct Answer is Dadabhai Naoroji.

Key Points

• The book titled 'Poverty and Un-British Rule in India' was written by Dadabhai Naoroji.
• It has his famous drain of wealth theory.
• This theory explained the constant flow of wealth from India to England for which India didn’t get any type of return.
• Some other books and notes written by Dadabhai Naoroji were: Poverty of India, Admission of educated natives into the Indian Civil Service and Condition of India.
• Dadabhai Naroji: 
• He was also known as the "Grand Old Man of India" and ‘Father of Indian Nationalism’.
• He was the first Indian to be elected as a member of the British Parliament.
• He was the founder of ;Indian National Congress, Zoroastrian Trust Funds of Europe, National Congress, London Indian Society.

Additional Information

• William Digby
• He was born in Wisbech, Cambridgeshire on 1 May 1849.
• He did his apprenticeship with the Isle of Ely and Wisbech Advertiser.
• He was employed at the Sussex Advertiser from 1864 to 1871.
• He was married twice – first to Ellen Amelia Little in 1874 (who died in 1878) and then to Sara Maria Hutchinson in 1879.
• M.G. Ranade - 
• Mahadev Govind Ranade was born in Niphad, Nashik in a middle-class Maharashtrian family on 18 January 1842.
• He studied in a Marathi school in Kolhapur and later shifted to an English medium school.
• At age 14, he went to study at the Elphinstone College, Bombay.
• Surendranath Banerjeen - 
• Banerjee was in the forefront of the movement and organized protests, petitions and extensive public support across Bengal and India,
• Which finally compelled the British to reverse the bifurcation of Bengal in 1912.
• Banerjee became the patron of rising Indian leaders like Gopal Krishna Gokhale and Sarojini Naidu.

The correct answer is Kerala

Key Points

• Kerala had the highest sex ratio in India, with 1084 females per 1000 males, according to the 2011 Census.
• This indicates that there were more women than men in Kerala, which is a positive indicator of gender equality
• Kerala’s high sex ratio can be attributed to its high literacy rate, social development, and efforts towards gender equality

Additional Information

• Census 2011:
• Census 2011 was the 15th National Census of India conducted by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India under the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
• The census was conducted in two phases:
• The first phase was conducted in April 2010
• Covered states are 
• Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Kerala, Manipur, Mizoram, Nagaland, Punjab, Rajasthan, Sikkim, Tamil Nadu, Tripura, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, and West Bengal, along with the Union Territories of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Chandigarh, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Daman and Diu, Lakshadweep, Delhi, and Puducherry.
• The second phase was conducted in February-March 2011 and covered the remaining states and Union Territories.
• The main objective of Census 2011 was to provide comprehensive and reliable data on population characteristics, such as size, distribution, and socio-economic and demographic characteristics.
• The census collected information on various parameters, such as age, sex, literacy, education, occupation, migration, religion, and housing.

The correct answer is all of the above

Key Points

• Waterborne diseases have significant direct effects on human health
• Exposure to contaminated water can lead to gastrointestinal illnesses
• Common examples include Typhoid, Paratyphoid, and Diarrheal diseases.
• Typhoid Fever is  Caused by the bacterium Salmonella typhi and is characterized by high fever, abdominal pain, and weakness.
• Typhoid is usually spread through contaminated food or water.
• Typhoid remains a public health problem in many developing areas.
• Lack of access to safe water and sanitation increases the risk.

Additional Information

• Diarrheal diseases
• Diarrheal disease is a significant health concern, particularly for young children.
• It is the third leading cause of death in children under 5 years old.
• Usually a symptom of an infection in the intestinal tract.
• It can be caused by various bacterial, viral, and parasitic organisms.

The correct answer is To help farmers

Key Points

• Agricultural reforms in India were initiated with the aim of supporting and improving the livelihoods of farmers
• These reforms aim to boost agricultural productivity, improve market access, and promote sustainable farming practices.
• Agriculture is the practice of cultivating plants and livestock.
• It is one of the oldest and most important industries in the world
• In India, agriculture is a major source of livelihood for about 58% of the population and contributes to about 17-18% of the country's GDP.

Additional Information

• Some of the main agricultural reforms that have been implemented in India include:
• Land reforms:
• These reforms aim to change the way land is owned and used in India.
• They have included redistributing land from large landowners to small farmers, and they have also included changing the rules about who can own land.
• Market reforms:
• These reforms aim to make agricultural markets in India more efficient.
• They have included removing price controls, and they have also included opening up agricultural markets to foreign competition.
• Technological reforms:
• These reforms aim to introduce new technologies to the agricultural sector in India.
• They have included the development of new seeds, fertilizers, or pesticides.
• They have also included the adoption of new farming practices.
• Institutional reforms:
• These reforms aim to improve the way that agricultural policies are made and implemented in India.
• They have included strengthening the role of agricultural research and extension services, and they have also included improving the governance of agricultural markets.

The correct answer is a decade

Key Points

• The census in India is conducted once every decade
• It provides crucial demographic data and helps in planning and policy formulation
• The primary purpose is to collect accurate and comprehensive information about the population.
• It includes details such as age, sex, marital status, occupation, education, and household composition.
• Census data determines the number of seats in legislative bodies.
• It helps in delimiting constituencies for fair representation.

Additional Information

• Census comes under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
• The Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, under MHA, conducts the census.
• The first census was conducted non- synchronously in 1872.
• The first official census was conducted in the year 1881.
• The First Census Commissioner was Mr. W.W. Plowden.
• The Census Act was enacted in 1948.

The correct answer is Samudragupta

Key Points

• Samudragupta was called Napoleon of India'
• He was the second emperor of the Gupta dynasty and is regarded among the greatest rulers of India.
• Born around 318 CE in Pataliputra (modern Patna, Bihar, India)
• He greatly expanded his dynasty’s political and military power during his reign (335 CE to 375 CE)
• Famous historian V.A. Smith aptly named him the Napoleon of India

Additional Information

• Skandagupta-
• Reigned from 455 AD – 467 AD
• Was a ‘Vaishnavite‘
• Son of Kumaragupta
• Repulsed an attack by the Hunas but this strained his empire’s coffers
• Chandragupta I-
• Reigned from 319 CE to 335/336 CE
• Started the Gupta Era
• He assumed the title of ‘Maharajadhiraja‘
• Married Lichchavi princess Kumaradevi
• Chandragupta II-
• Reigned from 376-413/415 CE
• Navratnas (9 Gems in his Court)
• He had marked victory over the Shakas and assumed the title of Vikramaditya.

The correct answer is All the above

Key Points

• During the Mauryan period, the spread of material culture was facilitated by various groups such as businessmen, Buddhist monks and administrators.
• The Mauryas created for the first time a well-organized state machinery which operated at the heart of the empire.
• Their administrative contacts helped in connecting different regions and fostering cultural exchange.
• It led to the spread of the material culture of the Gangetic basin to areas situated on the periphery of the empire.
• Buddhist religious figures travelled extensively, spreading not only spiritual teachings but also cultural practices.
• Their interactions with local communities led to the exchange of knowledge and artistic techniques

Additional InformationThe new material culture in the Gangetic basin during this period included:

• Intensive use of iron:
• People utilized iron tools like axes, hoes, spades, and ploughshares.
• Writing and punch-marked coins:
• Evidence of a developed script and currency system.
• Northern Black Polished Ware:
• Beautiful pottery prevalent in the region.
• Burnt bricks and ring wells:
• Innovations in construction techniques.
• Towns in north-eastern India:
• Urban centers emerged, fostering cultural growth.

The correct answer is Cultivators

Key Points

• During the reign of Sultan Firuz Shah Tughlaq (1309–1388), the construction and maintenance of canals were funded through a system known as cultivators
• Firuz Shah built a network of smaller canals in regions like Doab, Haryana, and Rohtak.
• These canals transformed arid areas into fertile lands, ensuring better agricultural productivity
• To ensure proper upkeep of these canals, Firuz Shah imposed an irrigation tax called “Sharb”.
• Peasants who utilized water from these canals had to pay a portion of their produce as this tax.
• Specifically, they contributed 1/10th of their agricultural yield to support canal maintenance
• Firuz Shah’s focus on infrastructure development, including canals, contributed significantly to the prosperity of his realm during his rule.

'Ain-e-Akbari' was written by Abul Fazal.

Key Points

• The Ain-i-Akbari or 'Akbar's Administration', is a detailed 16th-century document detailing the administration of the Mughal Empire under Emperor Akbar.
• It was written in Persian language by his court historian Abul Fazl.
• Abu'l-Fazal ibn Mubarak, also known as Abul Sharma, Abul Fadl and Abu-
• Fadl 'Allami, was the chief vizier of the Mughal emperor Akbar from his appointment in 1579 until his death in 1602.
• Abul Fazal was knowledgeable in literature. His works are a mirror reflection of his views towards patriotism and secularism.

Additional Information

• Ain-e-Akbari is the third volume of Akbarnama.
• It was written by Abul Fazal in the 16th century.
• It contains rich statistical details about crops, prices, revenues and wages etc.
• It also describes details about the traditions and cultures of the people of India.
• Ain-e-Akbari is divided into five books.

The correct answer is in 1793 AD

Key Points

• Permanent Settlement, also known as the Permanent Settlement of Bengal, was a significant land revenue system
• It was implemented in 1793 AD by the British East India Company
• Its primary objective was to permanently fix the land revenue demand in British India
• Under this system, landlords or Zamindars were recognized as the owners of the land.
• Peasants had to give the rent of land directly to Zamindars.
• Lord Cornwallis introduced the Zamindari system in India.

Additional Information

• Ryotwari System:
• The Ryotwari System in Madras was a revenue- collecting scheme of the British.
• Sir Thomas Munro introduced the Ryotwari System in Madras in 1820.
• Sir Thomas Munro was the governor of Madras from 1820-1827.
• Under the Ryotwari System in Madras revenue was collected from cultivators of agricultural land.
• Mahalwari System:
• This system was mainly introduced in Uttar Pradesh, central India and Punjab.
• Holt Mackenzie introduced the Mahalwari System in India.
• This system was introduced in 1833.
• In this system, the village headmen collected the land tax from farmers.
• This system forced farmers to grow commercial crops only.

The correct answer is Lord Minto.

Key Points 

• That was Lord Minto, the then Viceroy of India (1905–1910).
• After the Surat Split of 1907, where the Congress divided into the Moderates (led by Gopal Krishna Gokhale) and the Extremists (led by Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Lala Lajpat Rai, and Bipin Chandra Pal), British authorities felt relieved.
• The unity of the nationalist movement was broken, making it easier for them to govern.
• Lord Minto happily described it as “a great victory for us.”
• The Surat session of the INC in 1907 was held on the banks of the Tapti River in Surat.
• Dr. Rash Behari Ghosh was elected as the session president, but the extremists objected to this election.
• During this time, the Congress was divided into two factions: the Moderates and the Extremists.
• Led by Gopal Krishna Gokhale, the moderates advocated for gradual reforms, constitutional methods, and cooperation with the British government.
• They believed in a step-by-step approach toward achieving self-governance.
• Led by Lal Bal Pal (Lala Lajpat Rai, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, and Bipin Chandra Pal), the extremists demanded more radical action.
• They called for swaraj (self-rule), boycotts, and mass movements.

 

Additional Information

• ​Sir Andrew Fraser
• ​Sir Andrew Henderson Leith Fraser was a distinguished British officer of the Indian Civil Service
• It served as the Lieutenant Governor of Bengal between 1903 and 1908
• Lord Minto​
• Lord Minto succeeded Lord Curzon as the Viceroy of India in 1905.
• His tenure witnessed important events, including the Partition of Bengal in 1905.
• He played a crucial role in shaping India’s administrative landscape during this period.
• Lord Curzon
• Lord Curzon was known for his reforms, including the Indian Universities Act and the establishment of the Statistical Survey of India.
• His tenure as Viceroy of India from 1899 to 1905.

The Correct answer is Dadabhai Naoroji

Key Points

• He was born in Bombay on 4 September 1825 in a priestly Parsi family.
• In 1867, he founded the East India Association in London.
• On 31 January 1885, when the Bombay Presidency Association came into being, he was elected as one of its Vice - Presidents.
• In 1902, he was elected as a Member of the Liberal Party in the House of Commons, representing Central Finsbury, he was the first British Indian MP.
• He is known in the history of Indian economic thought for his pioneering work in assessing India's national income.
• He also gave the Drain of Wealth Theory.
• He is known as ‘Congress
• A staunch moderate within the congress, he was a mentor to Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Gopal Krishna Gokhale, and Mohandas Karamchand (Mahatma) Gandhi. ​

Additional Information

• Gopal Krishna Gokhale:
• Born on May 9, 1866, in Ratnagiri district, India.
• .A senior leader of the Indian National Congress and a social reformer during the Indian independence movement.
• Founded the Servants of India Society to work for the relief of the underprivileged in India.
• Served as a mentor to Mahatma Gandhi and advocated for moderate and constitutional methods of agitation for Indian self-rule.
• Surendranath Banerjee:
• Born on November 10, 1848, in Calcutta, India.
• Known as Rashtraguru or ‘Teacher of the Nation’, he was a prominent Indian nationalist leader during British rule.
• Co-founded the Indian National Association and later became a senior leader of the Indian National Congress.
• Advocated for home rule within the British Raj and played an influential role in India’s independence movement.

The Correct answer is Krishnadevaraya

Key Points

• Krishnadevaraya was the ablest emperor of Vijayanagara empire.
• He belongs to Tuluva dynasty.
• Balakrishna temple was built by the ruler Krishnadevaraya of the Vijayanagara period in the year 1513 A.D.
• He erected this temple in honour of winning the battle and subsequent annexure of Utkala or the eastern reign of Udayagiri. This place is currently known as Orissa.
• Krishnadevaraya led the Vijayanagara armies against the Bahamani sultans and the Gajapatis of Odisha.
• He crowned the Bahmani sultan at Gulbarga and assumed the title “Establisher of Yavana Kingdom”( Yavana raja Pratishtapaka).
• He wrote Amuktamalyada in Telugu and Jambavati Kalyana in Sanskrit.
• In his court eight great scholars were present, known as Ashtadiggajas.​

Additional Information Vijayanagara Empire(1336-1672):

• Founders- Harihara and Bukka.
• The four important dynasties are Sangama, Saluva, Tuluva and Aravidu.
• Devaraya 2 was the greatest ruler of sangama dynasty.
• Venkata 1 belongs to Tuluva dynasty.
• Ramaraya of Aravidu dynasty was an able commander.
• During his reign the great battle of Rakkasa-Tangadi (1565) took place.
• In 1586 Venkata 2 came to throne.
• He shifted his capital to Chandragiri and beautified it.
• Foreign travellers who visited Vijayanagara
• Nicolo De conti(Italian) 1420- Devaraya 1
• Abdurr Razzak(Persian) 1443- Devaraya 2
• Dominigo paes(Portugese) 1520- Krishnadevaraya
• Nuniz(Portugese) 1535- Achyutadevaraya

The Correct answer is Ibn Battuta.

Key Points

• Ibn Battuta was a Moroccan traveller who left his home at a young age of 21 back in the 13th century to travel across the world.
• During his 30 years of travelling exploration, he visited around 44 countries, including India.
• His travelling accounts are published in the book ‘Rihla’ – My travels, a part of which is devoted to his experience in India.
• Ibn Battuta came to India in 1333 AD through the high mountains of Afghanistan (Hindu Kush Mountains) and the Indus river on 12 September and made his way to Delhi at the time when the Tughlaq dynasty was at its height.
• Ibn Battuta reached the royal court of Mohammad Bin Tughlaq, the then ruler of Delhi, presented him with precious gifts and in return Battuta was given a furnished house, a job of Qazi (Judge) in the royal court by the king and stayed for around seven years.

Additional Information

• ​Ziauddin Barani:
• Barani was a Muslim political thinker and historian during the Delhi Sultanate, particularly under the reigns of Muhammad bin Tughlaq and Firuz Shah Tughlaq.
• He is known for his works “Tarikh-i-Firoz Shahi” and “Fatwa-i-Jahandari”, which provide insights into medieval India’s history and political thought.
• Born in 1285, Barani hailed from a family with a strong tradition of serving in high government posts under the Sultan of Delhi.
• Ameer Khusro:
• Khusro was a Sufi singer, musician, poet, and scholar, living during the Delhi Sultanate period.
• Often referred to as the “Parrot of India”, he is considered the “father of Urdu literature” and introduced the ghazal style of song into India.
• His contributions to music include the development of the qawwali, and he was a disciple of the Sufi saint Nizamuddin Auliya.
• Muhammad Hasan Nizami:
• Hasan Nizami was a Persian poet and historian who lived in the 12th and 13th centuries.
• He migrated from Nishapur to Delhi, where he wrote “Tajul-Ma’asir”, the first official history of the Delhi Sultanate.
• Nizami’s work is valued for its detailed descriptions and is considered trustworthy by medieval historians.

The Correct answer is Theosophical Society

Key Points

• The Theosophical Society was formally established on November 17, 1875.
• In New York City, New York, by Helena Petrovna Blavatsky, Colonel Henry Steel Olcott, William Quan Judge, and other individuals.
• In a few years, Olcott and Blavatsky established the International Headquarters at Adyar in Madras (currently Chennai).
• They did so because they thought that spreading the theosophical movement in India was a good idea.
• Theosophical society played a significant role in the Indian Renaissance.
• It emphasized the depth of Indian religious concepts in the Western world.
• It brought back to life a number of philosophical, occult, religious, and other texts.
• India’s political and social awakening was greatly aided by its contributions to women’s empowerment and education.

 Additional Information​

• Arya Samaj
• ​ It was a monotheistic Hindu reform movement in India that promotes principles and practices based on the belief in the Vedas' infallible authority.
• Maharishi Dayanand Saraswati established the samaj on April 10, 1875.
• The Arya Samaj adheres to the belief that there is only one God and that idol worship is not appropriate.
• The Arya Samaj was the first Hindu organization to promote proselytization​
• Brahmo Samaj-
• ​It was founded in Calcutta in 1828 by Ram Mohan Roy as Brahmo Sabha.
• The Brahmo Samaj was a monotheistic sect of Hinduism
• The samaj was dedicated to the "worship and adoration of the Eternal, the Unsearchable, the Immutable Being, who is the Author and Preserver of the Universe".
• The Samaj was open to all without distinction of color, creed, caste, nation, or religion.
• It denounced polytheism, image worship, and the caste system.
• It also discarded meaningless Hindu rituals.
• Raja Rammohun Roy is also called the father of the Indian renaissance.

The Correct answer is 14 years

Key Points

• The Indian Constitution emphasizes on providing free education to children in the age group of six to fourteen years.
• This is enshrined under Article 21-A, as a result of the Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002, and further detailed in the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009.

Additional Information 86TH AMENDMENT

• ​Spurred by the Unnikrishnan judgment and a public demand to enforce the right to education, successive governments from 1993 worked towards bringing a constitutional amendment to make education a fundamental right.
• That led to the 86th amendment in December 2002 which inserted the following articles in the Constitution:​
• Insertion of new article 21A - After article 21 of the Constitution, the following article shall be inserted, namely Right to education.-"21A. The State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may, by law, determine."
• Substitution of new article for article 45 - For article 45 of the Constitution, the following article shall be substituted, namely:"Provision for early childhood care and education to children below the age of six years."". The State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years."
• Amendment of article 51A - In article 51A of the Constitution, after clause (J), the following clause shall be added, namely-(k) who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years."

Right to Education Act, 2009

• ​Every child between the ages of 6 to 14 years has the right to free and compulsory education.
• This is stated as per the 86th Constitution Amendment Act via Article 21A.
• The Right to Education Act seeks to give effect to this amendment.
• The government schools shall provide free education to all the children and the schools will be managed by School Management Committees (SMC).
• Private schools shall admit at least 25% of the children in their schools without any fee.
• The National Commission for Elementary Education shall be constituted to monitor all aspects of elementary education including quality.

The Correct answer is Member of Legislative Assembly (MLA)

Key Points

• MLAs are elected directly by the voters of an electoral district (constituency) within a state.
• Elections are held after the expiry of the current assembly’s tenure, generally every five years.
• Any number of candidates can stand for elections from a constituency, provided they meet the eligibility criteria.
• The candidate with the most votes in a constituency is declared the winner.

Additional Information The election procedures of different entities are listed below-

• Member of Rajya Sabha:
• Rajya Sabha members are elected indirectly by the elected members of each state’s Legislative Assembly using the proportional representation system with a single transferable vote.
• The Rajya Sabha seat quota for each state is fixed as per Schedule 4 of the constitution.
• Elections to one-third of these seats occur every 2 years.
• President of India:
• The President is elected indirectly by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both houses of Parliament, and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of states and Union territories.
• The election process uses a single transferable vote through a secret ballot.
• Vice President of India:
• The Vice President is also elected indirectly by an electoral college consisting of both elected and nominated members of both houses of Parliament.
• The election is conducted using the proportional representation system and a single transferable vote.
• The voting is held through a secret ballot.

The Correct answer is Parliament

Key Points

• The process for amending the Constitution of India is detailed in Article 368 of Part XX of the Constitution. Here’s an overview of the amendment process:
• Initiation: An amendment can be initiated by the introduction of a Bill in either House of Parliament.
• Special Majority: The Bill must be passed in each House by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting.
• Ratification by States: In certain cases, such as changes to the federal structure, the amendment must also be ratified by at least half of the state legislatures.
• Presidential Assent: After being passed by both Houses of Parliament and, if necessary, ratified by the states, the Bill is presented to the President for assent. Upon the President’s assent, the Constitution stands amended as per the terms of the Bill.

Additional Information

• It’s important to note that while the President’s role is to give assent to the amendment, they do not have the power to initiate constitutional amendments.
• Similarly, states and the people cannot directly amend the Constitution; they can only play a role in the process through their elected representatives in Parliament and, for certain amendments, through state legislatures.

The Correct answer is Vinoba Bhave.

Key Points

• Vinoba Bhave was known for his critical views on dominant party politics and electoral procedures.
• He raised his voice against the corruption in electoral procedures and parliamentary democracy in India, advocating for a society based on truth, justice, and people’s rights.

Additional Information

• Jai Prakash Narayan: Jai Prakash Narayan, also known as JP, was a significant figure in Indian politics and a proponent of decentralization.
• Dr. B.R. Ambedkar:
• Dr. B.R. Ambedkar had a complex view of village Panchayats. Initially, he was apprehensive about the continuation of caste Hindus’ hegemony in village Panchayats and was concerned about the villages being caste-ridden.
• However, he did not specifically oppose the partnership of political parties in Panchayat elections.
• His concerns were more about the social structure and functioning of the villages themselves.

The Correct answer is the Indian Parliament.

Key Points

• The Parliament has the exclusive authority to reorganize the boundaries, names, and territories of existing states or to create new states or union territories.
• This power is derived from Article 3 of the Indian Constitution.
• The process involves the introduction of a bill in either house of Parliament, which must be passed by a simple majority in both houses.
• The President’s assent is required for the bill to become law.
• While the President must give prior recommendation for the bill to be introduced and refer it to the state legislature concerned for comments, the views of the state legislature are not binding on the President or Parliament.

Additional Information

• Supreme Court of India- The Supreme Court does not have the power to reorganize states. Its role is to interpret the Constitution and serve as the highest court of appeal.
• President of India:
• The President plays a role in the reorganization process by giving the prior recommendation for the introduction of the bill and providing assent for the bill to become law.
• However, the President does not have the power to independently reorganize states.
• Prime Minister of India:
• The Prime Minister, as the head of the government, may influence the legislative agenda, including the reorganization of states.
• However, the actual power to reorganize states lies with the Parliament, not with the Prime Minister individually.

The Correct answer is Metropolitan Cities.

Key Points

• Municipal corporations are typically established for the administration of metropolitan cities, which are large cities with substantial populations that require a complex governance structure to manage urban planning, public utilities, and essential services.
• Municipal Corporation is a type of local government in India that administers urban areas with a population of more than one million.
• The area administered by a municipal corporation is known as a municipal area.
• Each municipal area is divided into territorial constituencies known as wards.
• Each ward has one seat in the ward's committee.
• Members of the wards are elected to the wards committee on the basis of adult franchise for a term of five years.
• These members are known as councilors or corporators.

 Additional Information

• The 74th Amendment Act of 1992 provides for the constitution of the following three types of Municipalities in every State:
• Nagar Panchayat- For a transitional area, i.e., an area in transition from a rural area to an Urban area.
• Municipal Council- For a smaller Urban Area. i.e., an Area of Population of more than 100,000.
• Municipal Corporation- For a larger Urban Area i.e., an area with a population of more than 1 million.

Important Points 

• 74th Amendment Act of 1992:
• This Act added a new Part IX-A- 'The Municipalities' to the constitution of India.
• The new part consists of Provisions from Articles 243-P to 243-ZG.
• The Act also added a new Twelfth Schedule to the Constitution.
• This schedule contains 18 functional items of Municipalities and deals with Article 243-W.

CONCEPT:

Hydrogen Production from Carbon-Free Nuclear Energy

• Hydrogen can be produced using various energy sources. When it is generated using nuclear energy, it is termed as "pink hydrogen."
• This type of hydrogen production is considered carbon-free because nuclear reactors do not emit carbon dioxide during their operation, making it an environmentally friendly option.

EXPLANATION:

• In the context of hydrogen colors:
• "Green hydrogen" is produced using renewable energy sources such as wind or solar power.
• "Blue hydrogen" is produced from natural gas with carbon capture and storage (CCS) technology.
• "Grey hydrogen" is produced from fossil fuels without any CCS, leading to carbon emissions.
• When hydrogen is produced using nuclear energy:
• The energy required for water electrolysis or other hydrogen production methods comes from nuclear power.
• Since nuclear power is a low-carbon energy source, the resulting hydrogen does not contribute to greenhouse gas emissions.
• This type of hydrogen is referred to as "pink hydrogen" to distinguish it from other colors of hydrogen based on its production method.

Therefore, the name of hydrogen produced from carbon-free nuclear energy is "pink hydrogen."

The correct answer is Chhattisgarh.

Key Points

• Chhattisgarh assembly passed bill increasing state reservation to 76%.
• State government recommended Ninth Schedule inclusion to avoid legal scrutiny.
• Proposed reservation: 32% for STs, 13% for SCs, 27% for OBCs, 4% for EWS.
• Previous reservation: 32% for STs, 12% for SCs, 14% for OBCs based on 2001 census.
• Bilaspur High Court rejected previous reservation system in 2012.

Additional Information

• Haryana
• Sex Ratio:- 924 females for every 1000 males.
• Tamil Nadu
• Sex Ratio:- 996 females for every 1000 males.
• Odisha
• Sex Ratio:- 979 females for every 1000 males.

The correct answer is Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.

Key Points

• Chaitya Bhoomi is the memorial of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, located in Mumbai, India.
• Memorial and tribute to Dr. Ambedkar, key figure in Indian independence movement and Constitution architect.
• "Chaitya" denotes Buddhist shrine, reflecting Dr. Ambedkar's later embrace of Buddhism.
• Significant site for followers of Ambedkar's teachings and Dalit community, advocating social justice.
• Draws thousands of visitors, particularly on Dr. Ambedkar's birth and death anniversaries.

Additional Information

• Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel:
• Key leader in Indian independence movement.
• Instrumental in integrating princely states into independent India.
• Mahatma Gandhi:
• Leader of nonviolent resistance against British rule.
• Advocate for truth, nonviolence, and civil disobedience.
• Sarojini Naidu:
• Prominent freedom fighter, poet, and politician.
• First Indian woman to become President of Indian National Congress and serve as a governor in independent India.

The correct answer is United States of America.

Key Points

• Agreement signed between the United States and the European Union on responsible advancements in Artificial Intelligence (AI).
• Described as the first sweeping AI agreement between the US and Europe.
• Accelerate and enhance AI usage in agriculture, healthcare, emergency response, climate forecasting, and electric grid management.
• Collaboration outlined in the US-EU Trade and Technology Council (TTC) commitment.
• Alignment with the Declaration for the Future of the Internet (DFI) vision for an open, free, reliable, and secure Internet and digital technologies worldwide.

Additional Information

• China
• Capital:- Beijing
• Currency:- Chinese Yuan (CNY) and Renminbi (RMB)
• New Zealand
• Capital:- Wellington
• Currency:- New Zealand dollar (NZD)
• Japan
• Capital:- Tokyo
• Currency:- Japanese yen

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

• Model G20 Summit organized by Indian Institute of Democratic Leadership (IIDL) on January 30-31, 2023.
• Venue: Rambhau Mhalgi Prabodhini’s Uttan campus near Mumbai.
• India’s G20 Sherpa Amitabh Kant to inaugurate, with Dr. Vinay Sahasrabuddhe and Ming Foong Cheong present.
• Chief Guest at Valedictory: Ming Foong Cheong, Consulate General of Singapore in Mumbai.
• MILM Theme: Orienting youth towards international relations, focusing on the G20 Presidency.
• Topics: Discussions on political, sand social issues, global peace, world economic order.
• Awards: Best delegates receive cash prizes of Rs 15,000 and Rs 10,000.

Additional Information

• G-21:
• G21 stands for Group of Twenty-one countries.
• International forum comprising 19 countries and the European Union and African Union(Add in 2023).
• Established in 1999 in response to financial crises.
• Members represent major economies worldwide.
• Aims to discuss and coordinate policies related to global economic stability.
• G21 accounts for approximately 85% of global GDP and two-thirds of the world's population.

The correct answer is Shailesh Pathak.

Key Points

• Shailesh Pathak was appointed as the new Secretary General of FICCI.
• 37 years of experience as bureaucrat and in private sector.
• Climbed a 6831-metre peak in Himalayas, extensive trekking experience.
• Arun Chawla, Director General, to retire on June 30, 2023.

Additional Information

• Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI)
• FICCI Founded: 1927.
• FICCI Headquarters: New Delhi.
• FICCI Founder: Ghanshyam Das Birla.
• FICCI President: Dr Anish Shah.

The correct answer is 128.

Key Points

• 128 people honored for 2022 Padma awards.
• Awards conferred in three categories: Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan, and Padma Shri.
• Home Ministry announced recipients on 25 January 2022.
• Padma awards are among the highest civilian honours in India.
• Singer Sonu Nigam and Olympic gold-medalist Neeraj Chopra were awarded Padma Shri.

Additional Information

• Padma Vibhushan(4)

 

• Padma Bhushan(17)

The correct answer is Spain.

Key Points

• Spain won the FIFA U-17 Women's World Cup, in 2022.
• FIFA U-17 Women's World Cup is organized by FIFA for players under 17.
• New Zealand has never won the tournament, despite participating six times.
• Japan won twice, in 2014 and 2018.
• Japan lost to Spain in the quarter-finals in the 2022 edition.

Additional Information

• Spain is located in southwest Europe with land in Africa, the Mediterranean Sea, and the Atlantic Ocean.
• Fourth most populous EU member state, largest in Southern Europe.
• Territory includes the Iberian Peninsula, Canary Islands, Balearic Islands, Melilla, and Ceuta.
• Bounded by Bay of Biscay, France, Andorra to the north; Gibraltar, Mediterranean Sea to the east and south; Portugal, Atlantic Ocean to the west.
• Capital and largest city: Madrid.

The correct answer is  Egypt.

Key Points

• Egypt to host COP27 in November 2022.
• Event: UN Climate Change Conference, COP27.
• Location: Sharm el-Sheikh International Convention Centre, Egypt.
• Objective: Address urgent climate action with global collaboration.
• Focus: Multilateral action for climate crisis mitigation.
• Launch of the Green Jobs for Youth Pact.
• Discussion on lifecycle-based sustainable practices.

Additional Information

• COP1 (1995): First international climate conference in Berlin, Germany.
• Kyoto Protocol (1997): Adoption of legally binding emission reduction targets at COP3 in Kyoto, Japan.
• COP6 (2000): Attempt to finalize Kyoto Protocol details in The Hague, Netherlands.
• COP7 (2001): Marrakech, Morocco, resulted in Marrakech Accords, outlining Kyoto Protocol implementation rules.
• COP15 (2009): Copenhagen, Denmark, aimed for a Kyoto Protocol successor but produced the non-binding Copenhagen Accord.
• COP21 (2015): Paris, France, led to the adoption of the Paris Agreement to limit global warming.
• COP26 (2021): Glasgow, Scotland, focused on Paris Agreement implementation and enhancing climate ambition.

The correct answer is Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.

Key Points

• The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs initiated the Smart Solutions Challenge and Inclusive Cities Award.
• Aim: Promote innovative and inclusive urban development solutions nationwide.
• Smart Solutions Challenge: Identifies and rewards effective urban solutions.
• Inclusive Cities Award: Recognizes cities with inclusive practices for societal well-being.
• Goals: Encourage smart and inclusive urban planning for sustainable and livable environments.

Additional Information

• Ministry of Science and Technology:
• This ministry is responsible for coordinating and promoting scientific and technological activities in India.
• It oversees various departments and organizations involved in scientific research, development, and innovation.
• Initiatives under this ministry focus on advancing scientific knowledge, technological innovation, and research infrastructure.
• Ministry of Rural Development:
• This ministry is tasked with implementing rural development programs and policies to improve the quality of life in rural areas of India.
• It oversees initiatives related to rural infrastructure, employment generation, poverty alleviation, and social welfare.
• Programs under this ministry aim to address challenges faced by rural communities and promote sustainable rural development.
• Home Ministry:
• The Home Ministry is responsible for internal security, law and order, and administration within India.
• It oversees various agencies such as the police, paramilitary forces, intelligence agencies, and disaster management organizations.
• Initiatives under this ministry focus on ensuring public safety, maintaining law and order, and protecting national security.

The correct answer is Elephants like to rest more due to their heavy weight.

Key Points

• Elephants are the largest land animals on Earth, with African elephants typically being larger than their Asian counterparts.
• Both male and female African elephants have tusks,
• while only male Asian elephants usually have them.
• Tusks are actually elongated incisor teeth and are used for various purposes, including digging, lifting objects, and defense.
• Elephants are highly social creatures, living in tight-knit family groups led by the oldest and often largest female, known as the matriarch. These groups, or herds, can consist of up to 20 to 30 individuals, including mothers, aunts, sisters, and their offspring.
• Elephants communicate with each other through a variety of vocalizations, body language, and infrasound—low-frequency sounds that are below the range of human hearing but can travel long distances through the ground.
• Elephants can remember the locations of water sources, feeding grounds, and other important landmarks over vast distances and many years.
• Both African and Asian elephants are listed as endangered species.

Additional Information

• Mandated by COP resolution of CITES, the MIKE program started in South Asia in the year 2003.
• The main objectives of the MIKE are:
• To measure levels and trends in the illegal hunting of elephants.
• To determine changes in these trends over time.
• To determine the factors causing or associated with such changes, and to try and assess in particular to what extent observed trends are a result of any decisions taken by the Conference of the Parties to CITES.

The correct answer is Pigeon.

Key Points

• Pigeon belongs to a group of Aves.
• Pigeon are warm-blooded animals.
• They have 4 chambered hearts
• Two auricles and
• Two ventricles
• It stops the mixing of the blood.

Additional Information

• Thermoregulation
• Thermoregulation is the ability of an organism to maintain a core body temperature, which is 37° C (98°F) within an optimal physiological range.
• The hypothalamus, a portion of the brain which plays an important role in regulating body temperature by acting as a thermostat.
• Thermoregulation is also called heat regulation.
• Ectothermic Animals
• They are commonly called cold-blooded animals.
• They gain most of their heat from external sources.
• They produce a very less amount of heat to keep their body warm and have a low metabolic rate.
• Examples of ectothermic animals include amphibians, fish, lizards, other reptiles, etc.
• Endothermic Animals
• They are commonly called warm-blooded animals.
• They develop most of the heat mainly from their body’s metabolisms and produce a required amount of heat to keep their body warm.
• These animals have a very high metabolic rate.
• Examples of Endothermic animals include all mammals and birds.

The correct answer is Fish oil.

Key Points

• Fish oil is a good source of Vitamin A.
• Plant sources of vitamin A include mangos, papaya, many squashes, carrots, sweet potatoes, and maize (but not the white varieties).
• Other good sources of vitamin A are red palm oil and brute palm oil.
• Deficiency of Vitamin A leads to

Additional Information

• Here are some vitamins along with their scientific names:
• Vitamin A - Retinol
• Vitamin B1 - Thiamine
• Vitamin B2 - Riboflavin
• Vitamin B3 - Niacin
• Vitamin B5 - Pantothenic acid
• Vitamin B6 - Pyridoxine
• Vitamin B7 - Biotin
• Vitamin B9 - Folic acid
• Vitamin B12 - Cyanocobalamin
• Vitamin C - Ascorbic acid
• Vitamin D - Cholecalciferol
• Vitamin E - Tocopherol
• Vitamin K - Phylloquinone

The correct answer is CO₂ production.

Key Points

• Water and baking soda are added to the flour to make the dough.
• As baking soda on heating produces carbon dioxide gas
• This carbon dioxide gas gets stuck into the dough and bubbles out which causes the dough to rise to make it soft and spongy.

Additional Information

• Fermentation:
• Fermentation is an anaerobic process where oxygen is absent, and energy can be released from glucose.
• It occurs in yeast cells, bacteria, and the muscles of animals.
• It is an anaerobic pathway in which glucose is broken down.
• Louis Pasteur discovered the fermentation process.
• Alcoholic fermentation is the process of using yeast to convert sugar into alcohol.
• Some examples of fermentation are bread, yogurt, alcoholic beverages, etc.

The correct answer is Tomato - Oxalic Acid.

Key Points

• Oxalic acid is a chemical compound that occurs naturally in almost every plant to some degree, including fruit, vegetable and grain plants.
• Tomato contains more than 10 types of acids such as citric acid, malic acid, ascorbic acid, and oxalic acid etc.
• The oxalic acid content of tomatoes is about 50 mg per 100 g serving.
• Very ripe tomatoes generally contain higher oxalate amounts than less mature fruit.

Additional Information

• Some natural sources of acid:
• Vinegar - Acetic acid
• Orange - Citric acid
• Tamarind - Tartaric acid
• Tomato - Oxalic acid
• Sour milk (Curd) - Lactic acid
• Lemon - Citric acid
• Ant sting - Methanoic acid
• Nettle sting - Methanoic acid

The correct answer is The growth of bacteria increases with the increase in temperature.

Key Points

• Milk turns into curds faster in summer due to the increase in the growth of bacteria with the rise in temperature.
• High-temperature conditions are favourable for bacterial growth.
• Bacteria multiply faster in the summer season.
• Curd contains several microorganisms, the bacterium Lactobacillus promotes the formation of curd.
• Bacteria are also involved in the making of cheese, pickles, and many other food items.
• The use of oil and vinegar prevents spoilage of pickles because bacteria cannot live in such an environment.

Important Points

• The ideal temperature for curd formation is 37 - 45^oC, which is available in summer thus, it can be easily understood why milk turns into curd faster in summer as the temperature is higher in summer which promotes the bacterial growth

The correct answer is lacrimal.

Key Points

• The lacrimal gland is a tear-producing gland located above the outer corner of each eye.
• Tears produced by the lacrimal gland contain water, electrolytes, proteins, and enzymes that help maintain the health of the eye.
• When a person blinks, tears from the lacrimal gland are spread across the surface of the eye, providing lubrication and nourishment to the cornea and conjunctiva.
• Excessive tear production can occur due to various factors such as irritation, emotion, or certain medical conditions, while reduced tear production can lead to dry eye syndrome.

Additional Information

• Endocrine glands: The glands which secrete hormones and other substances directly into the bloodstream are called endocrine glands.
• Eg. Pituitary, Pineal, Thyroid, Thymus, Gonads, etc.
• Exocrine glands: The glands which secrete substances on the epithelial surface through the ducts are called exocrine glands.
• Eg. sweat, salivary, mammary, ceruminous, lacrimal, sebaceous, prostate, and mucous glands.
• The exocrine glands are of three types:-
• Holocrine Glands,
• Merocrine  (Eccrine Glands), and
• Apocrine Glands.

The correct answer is Smith and Nathans.

Key Points

• Restriction enzyme: 
• It is also called restriction endonuclease.
• It is a protein produced by bacteria that cleaves DNA at specific sites along the molecule.
• In the bacterial cell, restriction enzymes cleave foreign DNA, thus eliminating infecting organisms.
• Restriction enzymes can be isolated from bacterial cells and used in the laboratory to manipulate fragments of DNA.
• Restriction enzymes were discovered and characterized by molecular biologists Werner Arber, Hamilton O. Smith, and Daniel Nathans.
• Work of  Restriction enzyme:
• A bacterium uses a restriction enzyme to defend against bacterial viruses called bacteriophages, or phages.
• When a phage infects a bacterium, it inserts its DNA into the bacterial cell so that it might be replicated.
• The restriction enzyme prevents replication of the phage DNA by cutting it into many pieces.
• Restriction enzymes were named for their ability to restrict, or limit, the number of strains of bacteriophage that can infect a bacterium.

Additional Information

• Hans Berge: 
• He invented an electroencephalogram.
• It is an instrument that measures and records brain-wave patterns.
• electroencephalogram, commonly abbreviated EEG.
• Alexander Fleming:
• He was a Scottish physician-scientist.
• He was recognized for discovering penicillin.
• He won the 1945 Nobel Prize in Physiology/Medicine.

The correct answer is Smell.

Key Points

• ​Olfaction, or the sense of smell, relies on odorants—small molecules in the air—binding to receptor molecules on cells in the nose.
• Within the human genome, approximately 1,000 genes encode olfactory-type receptors.
• These receptors are expressed in olfactory sensory neurons.
• Olfactory sensory neurons are specialized cells responsible for detecting odors.
• The diversity of olfactory receptors allows humans to detect a wide range of odors.
• Olfaction plays a crucial role in various aspects of human life, including taste perception, memory formation, and emotional responses.

Additional Information

• There are many different types of sensory receptors, each specialized to detect a specific type of stimulus.
• Photoreceptors: These receptors detect light. They are found in the retina of the eye and are responsible for vision
• Mechanoreceptors: These receptors detect mechanical stimuli, such as touch, pressure, and vibration. They are found throughout the skin, as well as in the muscles, joints, and inner ear.
• Chemoreceptors: These receptors detect chemicals. They are found in the nose (smell) and taste buds (taste).
• Thermoreceptors: These receptors detect temperature changes. They are found throughout the skin and help to regulate body temperature.
• Nociceptors: These receptors detect pain. They are found throughout the body and are responsible for sending pain signals to the brain

The correct answer is all of the above.

Key Points

• The brain is the most important and critical organ of the body.
• The main function is to control and regulate knowledge, intelligence, reasoning, memory, thought decisions, personality, etc.
• The brain is located in the skull. It is the place of consciousness and memory.
• The brain is made up of a special type of cell called neuron cells.
• It is known as structural and functional units of the brain.
• There are 100 billion neurons in the brain.
• Neurons send information to other nerve cells or muscles through electrical and chemical signals.
• If all neurons generate electricity at once, they generate such an amount of electricity that a bulb can be lit.

Additional Information

• The brain can be divided into three basic units: the forebrain, the midbrain, and the hindbrain.
• Forebrain :
• The forebrain consists of the cerebrum, thalamus and hypothalamus.
• The cerebrum forms the major part of the human brain.
• A deep cleft divides the cerebrum longitudinally into two halves, which are termed the left and right cerebral hemispheres.
• The hemispheres are connected by a tract of nerve fibres called the corpus callosum.
• Midbrain:
• The midbrain is located between the thalamus/hypothalamus of the forebrain and the pons of the hindbrain.
• A canal called the cerebral aqueduct passes through the midbrain.
• The dorsal portion of the midbrain consists mainly of four round swellings (lobes) called corpora quadrigemina.
• Hindbrain:
• The hindbrain comprises the pons, cerebellum and medulla (also called the medulla oblongata).
• Pons consists of fibre tracts that interconnect different regions of the brain.
• Cerebellum has a very convoluted surface in order to provide additional space for many more neurons.
• The medulla of the brain is connected to the spinal cord.

The correct answer is DDT.

Key Points Non-biodegradable materials are substances that cannot be naturally broken down by organisms and contribute to environmental pollution.

• Biodegradable Material:
• Refers to any substance that can quickly decay or break down naturally.
• Agents facilitating this process include bacteria, microorganisms, sunlight, air, soil, water, ozone, and other natural factors.
• Biodegradable materials are generally natural substances and are non-toxic.
• Biodegradable materials include organic matter, which can become part of the soil after decomposition.
• Decomposition of biodegradable materials benefits the soil, increasing its fertility and improving its structure.
• Examples of Biodegradable substances are -
  

Human feces, Manure, Sludge from sewage treatment plants, waste that come from slaughterhouses, Animal, and plants that have died, wooden plants, books, cotton cloths, fruit peels, and rotten fruits.

• Non-Biodegradable Material:
• Non-biodegradable substances do not break down naturally in the environment and remain for a long time if untreated.
• For example, plastics can persist in the environment for several thousand years without degrading
• Examples of Non-biodegradable substances are -
  

Glass, Plastics, Metals, Pesticides, Aluminium cans, E-wastes, Styrofoam, Razors, Carbon paper, Polythene.