Official Paper

Bihar Police Constable Memory Based Paper (Held On: 21 Aug 2024) (Previous Year Paper)

100 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

Test (100 questions)

1

Usha Uthup of West Bengal won the Padma Shri for which field?

  1. ((a))

    Literature

  2. ((b))

    Social Work

  3. ((c))

    Arts

  4. ((d))

    Theatre

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Arts

The Correct Answer is Option 3 i.e Arts.

  • Usha Uthup:
  • She is a famous Indian pop and playback singer, currently a resident of West Bengal.
  • She won the Padma Shri Award in the field of Arts in the year 2011.
  • She also received the Rajiv Gandhi Purashkar for national integration for quality music.
2

The first case of COVID-19 in India was confirmed in the State of

  1. ((a))

    Karnataka

  2. ((b))

    Maharashtra

  3. ((c))

    Delhi

  4. ((d))

    Kerala

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Kerala

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

  • The first case of COVID-19 in India was confirmed in Kerala.
  • It was confirmed on 27th January 2020.
  • It was a 20-year-old female.
  • She disclosed that she had returned to Kerala from Wuhan city, China, on January 23, 2020, owing to the COVID-19 outbreak situation there.
  • COVID-19 was first reported from Wuhan, China, on 31 December 2019.

Additional Information

  • World Health Organisation (WHO)
  • It aims to achieve better health for everyone, everywhere.
  • Total members- 194
  • Founded- 7 April 1948.
  • It is celebrated as world health day.
  • Headquarters- Geneva, Switzerland
  • Director-General- Dr. Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus
  • WHO Regional Director for South-East Asia- Dr Poonam Khetrapal Singh
StateCapitalChief MinisterGovernor
KeralaThiruvananthapuramPinarayi VijayanArif Mohammad Khan
KarnatakaBengaluruBasavaraj BommaiThawar Chand Gehlot
MaharashtraMumbaiEknath ShindeBhagat Singh Koshyari
3

Which state is the largest producer of Silver in the country?

  1. ((a))

    Andhra Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Madhya Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    West Bengal

  4. ((d))

    Rajasthan

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Rajasthan

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. Rajasthan.

Rajasthan leads India in the production of Silver.

  • Zawar mines in Udaipur, Rajasthan is the largest silver producing mine in India.
  • It is operated by the Hindustan Zinc Limited.
  • The Tundoo Lead Smelter in Dhanbad district of Jharkhand is another producer. It is also operated by the Hindustan Zinc Limited.
  • India is not a major producer of silver and hence imports it.
  • Silver occurs generally with lead, zinc, copper and gold ores and is extracted as a byproduct of electrolysis or chemical methods.
  • It is also produced by Kolar Gold Fields and Hutti gold mines in Karnataka during the refining of gold, the Hindustan Copper Ltd. at Maubhandar smelter in Singhbhum district of Jharkhand obtains it from copper slimes.
  • At the Vizag Zinc smelter in Andhra Pradesh, it is obtained from lead concentrates.
4

The first opium war ended by the treaty of

  1. ((a))

    Nanking

  2. ((b))

    Tienntsin

  3. ((c))

    Peking

  4. ((d))

    Tianjin

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Nanking

The correct answer is Nanking.

Key Points

  • Treaty of Nanking.
  • The first opium war ended by the Treaty of Nanking.
  • It was signed between the Great Britain and China in 1842.​
  • Under this treaty, China paid an indemnity to the British, ceded the territory of Hong Kong to the British, and also agreed to establish a "fair and fair" tariff.
  • The treaty allowed British merchants, who were previously only allowed to trade in Guangzhou (Canton), now also allowed to trade at five "treaty ports".

Additional Information

  • The first opium war is also known as Anglo-Chinese War.
  • It was a series of military engagements fought between Britain and the Qing dynasty.
  • It was fought between 1839 and 1842.
5

Which amendment act added the Fundamental duties in the constitution?

  1. ((a))

    44th Constitutional Amendment Act

  2. ((b))

    42nd Constitutional Amendment Act

  3. ((c))

    51st Constitutional Amendment Act

  4. ((d))

    38th Constitutional Amendment Act

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

42nd Constitutional Amendment Act

The correct answer is 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act.

Key Points 

  • 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act - Explanation: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, is significant for adding the Fundamental Duties to the Indian Constitution.

Additional Information 

  • These duties, listed under Article 51A, were incorporated to remind the citizens of their responsibilities towards the nation. This amendment was inspired by the Constitution of the Soviet Union and aimed at strengthening the fabric of Indian democracy by making citizens active participants in the country's progress. -
  • 44th Constitutional Amendment Act: This act, passed in 1978, is primarily known for reversing several changes made by the 42nd Amendment during the Emergency period. It restored civil liberties by amending provisions relating to preventive detention, habeas corpus, and the President's rule. It did not add the Fundamental Duties.
  • 51st Constitutional Amendment Act: Enacted in 1984, this amendment provided for the reservation of seats in the House of the People for the Scheduled Tribes in Meghalaya, Nagaland, Mizoram, and Arunachal Pradesh. It was focused on representation for these communities, not Fundamental Duties. -
  • 38th Constitutional Amendment Act: This act, passed in 1975, made certain proclamations of emergency and orders issued under Article 359 (whereby the rights to move any court for the enforcement of rights conferred by Part III of the Constitution are suspended) immune from judicial review. It was part of the changes made during the Emergency period and had no relation to the addition of Fundamental Duties
6

When is the World Population Day observed?

  1. ((a))

    8 July

  2. ((b))

    9 July

  3. ((c))

    10 July

  4. ((d))

    11 July

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

11 July

The correct answer is 11 July.

Key Points

  • The United Nations observes the 11th July of every year as World Population Day.
  • This year’s World Population Day calls for global attention to the unfinished business of the 1994 International Conference on Population and Development.

Important Points

  • United Nations Headquarters - New York, USA.
  • Founded on - 24 October 1945.
  • Secretary-General - Antonio Guterres.
7

'Nilgiri Hills' are known as the _______.

  1. ((a))

    Tea Treasures

  2. ((b))

    Roof of the World

  3. ((c))

    King of hills

  4. ((d))

    Blue Mountains

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Blue Mountains

The correct answer is Blue Mountains.

Key Points

  • Nilgiri hills are a part of the Western Ghats down in the south and Doda Beta is the highest peak here.
  • The hills are located at the tri-junction of the states Karnataka, Kerela and Tamil Nadu.
  • These mountains are named after the Neelakurunji flowers (purplish-blue flowers) found in Shola forests of Nilgiri hills.
  • The vegetation ranges from the Evergreen forests to the Shola Grasslands and thorny bushes.
  • It is the habitat of the endangered species, the Nilgiri Tahr.
  • Todas, Kurumbas, Paniyas and Adiyans are the tribes living here.
  • The Mudumalai and Waynad wildlife sanctuaries, Bandipore National park, Nagarhole national park, Mukurthi national park and Silent valley national park are a part of Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.
  • Bhavani, Moyar, Kabini, Chaliyar and Punampuzha rivers drain these mountains.
  • Pamir Knot (Tibet) is known as the 'Roof of the world'.
8

The resolution for removal of Vice President of India should be moved in:

  1. ((a))

    Lok Sabha

  2. ((b))

    Rajya Sabha

  3. ((c))

    Either of the Houses

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Rajya Sabha

The correct option is 2 i.e. Rajya Sabha.

  • The resolution for removal of the Vice President of India should be moved in Rajya Sabha.
  • The Vice-President of India is the second-highest constitutional office in the country.
  • The Vice-President of India is the chairman of Rajya Sabha.
  • The Indian Vice President is modelled on the lines of American Vice-President.
  • In Article 63 of the Indian Constitution, mentioned the post of Vice-President.
  • The principle of election used for electing Vice president is Proportional Representation by means of Single Transferable Vote.
  • Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan was the first vice president of India.
9

The Kosi river joins the river Ganga in _______ district of Bihar.

  1. ((a))

    Bhojpur

  2. ((b))

    Gaya

  3. ((c))

    Katihar

  4. ((d))

    Jamui

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Katihar

The correct answer is Katihar district.

Key Points

  • The Kosi river joins Ganga in the Katihar district of Bihar.
  • Kosi is also known as the sorrow of Bihar as this causes a flood in the region.
  • The Kosi River is also known as SaptaKosi because of its seven tributaries.
  • The main tributaries of the Kosi river are Tamor River, Arun River, and Sun Koshi, Tamakoshi River, LikhuKhola.

Additional Information

  • Kosi river is a trans-boundary river that flows through Tibet, Nepal, and India.
  • The Kosi river is 720 km long.
  • The Kosi alluvial fan is one of the largest in the world.
  • It drains the northern slopes of the Himalayas in Tibet and the southern slopes in Nepal.
10

The famous ‘Sonepur Cattle Fair’ of Bihar is organised at the confluence of which two rivers?

  1. ((a))

    Ganges and Gandak

  2. ((b))

    Ganges and Kosi

  3. ((c))

    Mahananda and Gandak

  4. ((d))

    Gandak and Kosi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ganges and Gandak

The correct answer is Ganges and Gandak.

  • Sonepur Cattle Fair is held on Kartik Poornima in the month of November- December in Sonepur, Bihar, on the confluence of river Ganges and Gandak.

Key Points

  • It is also known as Harihar Kshetra Mela and it attracts visitors from all over Asia.
  • To date, it is the biggest cattle fair in Asia and stretches from fifteen days to one month.
  • It historically began when Chandragupta Maurya (340 - 297 BCE) bought elephants and horses across the river Ganges.
  • The Sonepur Cattle Fair used to attract traders from places as far away as Central Asia.
11

Which of the following lake is an example of 'Crater Lake'?

  1. ((a))

    Nainital

  2. ((b))

    Lonar Lake

  3. ((c))

    Tso Moriri Lake

  4. ((d))

    Asthamudi Lake

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Lonar Lake

The correct answer is Lonar Lake.

Key Points

Concept:

Lake:

  • A lake is a body of water encircled by land developed in the hollow of the land.
  • Lakes can arise naturally or through man-made.

Explanation:

Crater Lake:

  • A body of water contained within a nearly circular, steep-sided volcanic crater or caldera.

Lonar lake:

  • Lonar Lake is located in the Maharashtra district of Buldhana.
  • During the Pleistocene Epoch, a meteorite impact formed Lonar lake.
  • It's considered a crater lake.
  • It is the world's third natural saltwater lake.

Thus, Lonar lake is an example of 'Crater Lake.

Additional InformationNainital:

  • Nainital Lake is a natural freshwater body in the Indian state of Uttarakhand.
  • It has tectonic origins.

Tso Moriri:

  • Tso Moriri, also known as Lake Moriri, is a lake in Ladakh's Changthang Plateau.
  • It is the world's highest Ramsar site.

Asthamudi Lake:

  • Ashtamudi Lake is located in the Kollam District of Kerala, India.
  • The lake is also known as the "Gateway to Kerala's Backwaters."
12

In which of the following states is Atal Setu bridge located that was inaugurated in 2024?

  1. ((a))

    West Bengal

  2. ((b))

    Goa

  3. ((c))

    Maharashtra

  4. ((d))

    Madhya Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Maharashtra

The correct answer is Mumbai

Key Points

  • Atal Setu, also known as the Mumbai Trans Harbour Link (MTHL) or the Atal Bihari Vajpayee Sewri Nhava Sheva Atal Setu, is located in Maharashtra, connecting Mumbai to Navi Mumbai.
  • MHTL is India’s longest sea bridge covering 21.8 km, with 16.5 km over the sea, reducing the Mumbai-Navi Mumbai commute to 20 minutes.
  • It was inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
  • This project involved around 17,000 laborers and 1,500 engineers, showcasing India's infrastructural capabilities.
  • The bridge is expected to facilitate the movement of more than 70,000 vehicles every day.

Additional Information

  • This bridge is a significant step towards enhancing the connectivity between Mumbai and its neighboring regions, including Pune, Goa, and South India.
  • It also provides faster connectivity to the Mumbai International Airport and the upcoming Navi Mumbai International Airport.
  • The project not only improves transportation but also generates employment opportunities in the transport and construction sectors.
  • The use of a large amount of steel and other resources indicates the scale and importance of the project.
13

Where is the Sambhar Lake situated?

  1. ((a))

    Uttar Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Rajasthan

  3. ((c))

    Gujarat

  4. ((d))

    Madhya Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Rajasthan

The correct answer is Rajasthan.

Key Points

  • Sambhar Salt Lake is situated in east-central Rajasthan state, west of Jaipur.
  • It represents a depression of the Aravalli Range with 230 square km in area.
  • It is also known as the salt lake of Rajasthan.

Important Points

  • It taps water from four seasonal rivers; the Mendha, the Rupangarh, the Kharian, and the Khandel, and other numerous streams.
  • It is also declared as one of the Ramsar sites in 1990 by the Government of India and the Ramsar Bureau.
  • It is also the source of Rajasthan's most salt production and produces about 9% of total India's salt per year.

Additional Information

  • There are two salt lakes in Rajasthan:
  1. Sambhar Lake.
  2. Pachpadra Lake.
  • Freshwater lakes of the Rajasthan:
  1. Jaisamand Lake
  2. Rajsamand Lake
  3. Lake Pichola
  4. Ana Sagar Lake
  5. Silishedh Lake
  6. Nakki Lake
  7. Fatehsagar Lake
  8. Pushkar Lake
  9. Lake Foy Sagar
  10. Rangsagar Lake
  11. Balsamand Lake
  12. Swaroop Sagar Lake
  13. Gajner Lake
  14. Kolayat Lake
  15. Dugari Lake
  16. Talwara Lake
  17. Buddha Johad Lake
  18. Kadila and Mansarovar Lakes
  19. Pithampuri Lake
14

Vishnupada Mandir is situated on the bank of which of the following river?

  1. ((a))

    Shipra

  2. ((b))

    Koshi

  3. ((c))

    Falgu

  4. ((d))

    PunPun

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Falgu

  • Vishnupada Mandir is an ancient temple in Gaya, India. It is a temple of Lord Vishnu.
  • This temple is located along the Falgu River.
  • ​It is located in the southern part of Bihar.
  • Gaya is one of the most visited tourist destinations in Bihar famous for Bodhgaya and Pind Daan(funeral offerings).
15

The largest irrigation canal in India is _______.

  1. ((a))

    Upper Bari Doab Canal

  2. ((b))

    Indira Gandhi Canal

  3. ((c))

    Sirhind canal

  4. ((d))

    Yamuna canal

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Indira Gandhi Canal

The correct answer is the Indira Gandhi canal.

Key Points

  • Indira Gandhi canal:
  • This Canal is India's longest canal and the world's biggest irrigation project. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
  • Indira Gandhi Canal is 649 km long and consists of the Rajasthan feeder canal and Rajasthan main canal and runs 167 km in Punjab and Haryana and 492 km in Rajasthan.
  • It is a huge canal in northwestern India that carries water from the Harike Barrage on the Sutlej River to the Thar Desert of Rajasthan.

Additional Information

  • Upper Bari Doab canal :
  • Originates at Madhopur, near Pathankot.
  • It was the first canal to be excavated for irrigation purposes in Punjab; at that time, however, it was simply known as the Bari Doab Canal system.
  • The prefix Upper was only added when a second canal was dug, known as the Lower Bari Doab Canal. Emperor Shah Jahan dug this 130-mile-long canal to carry water from the River Ravi to his garden in Lahore.
  • Yamuna canal:
  • Satluj Yamuna Link Canal or SYL, as it is popularly called, is a 214 kilometer (133 mi) long canal under construction in India to connect the rivers Sutlej and Yamuna.
  • The plan did, however, face challenges and was referred to the Supreme Court of India.
  • River water sharing between the states of Punjab and Haryana is established.
  • Sirhind canal:
  • The Sirhind Canal is a large irrigation canal in Punjab state, India that carries water from the Sutlej River.
  • It is one of the Indus river system's oldest and largest irrigation works and was inaugurated in 1882 CE.
  • The canal, which was built between 1958 and 1961, is 149.53 km long in the Punjab districts of Ferozepur, Muktsar, and Faridkot.
  • To be agriculturally viable, Rajasthan requires extensive irrigation.
  • The state receives a great deal of water from the Punjab Rivers, from the Western Yamuna Canal in Haryana and the Agra Canal in Uttar Pradesh, and from the Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh projects of Sabarmati and Narmada Sagar.

Important Points

  • A canal:
  • It is a man-made waterway that enables the movement of boats and ships from one body of water to another.
  • Canals are also used for irrigation and other human uses to convey water.
  • Canals can be divided into two categories, waterways used for navigation or transport, and water ducts used for irrigation and consumption of drinking water and other general uses.
  • The canal is also known as navigation when it parallels the river and separates part of its waters and drainage basin and leverages its resources by constructing dams and locks to raise and lengthen its slow water levels while remaining in its valley.
16

Jhoom agriculture is also known as _____.

  1. ((a))

    Shifting

  2. ((b))

    Pastoral livestock

  3. ((c))

    Commercial Farming

  4. ((d))

    Mixed Farming

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Shifting

The correct answer is Shifting.

  • Jhoom agriculture is also known as Shifting.

Key Points

  • Shifting Agriculture:
  • It is practised by the tribals in the forest areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Manipur, Tripura, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand and Andhra Pradesh.
  • In this type of agriculture, a piece of forest land is cleared mainly by tribal people by felling and burning of trees and crops are grown.
  • Jhoom is the name of Shifting Agriculture in the north-east region of India.
  • Podu, Dabi, Koman or Bringa in Orissa
  • Kumari in the Western Ghats.
  • Watra in southeast Rajasthan,
  • Penda, Bewar or Dahia and Deppa or Kumari in the Bastar district of Madhya Pradesh.

Additional Information

  • Names of shifting agriculture around the world:
AgricultureCountry
LadangMalaysia
TaungyaBurma
TamraiThailand
CainginPhilippines
HumahJava
ChenaSri Lanka
MilpaAfrica and Central America
17

Industrial Revolution started in which of the following country?

  1. ((a))

    America

  2. ((b))

    England

  3. ((c))

    France

  4. ((d))

    Russia

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

England

The correct answer is England.

Key Points

  • The Industrial Revolution
  • It refers to the greatly increased output of machine-made goods that began in England during the 18th century. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
  • Before the Industrial Revolution, people wove textiles by hand.
  • Beginning in the middle 1700s, machines did this and other jobs as well.
  • The Industrial Revolution started in England and soon spread to Continental Europe and North America.
  • It brought economic changes which took place in the eighteenth and the nineteenth centuries and completely transformed European society.
  • The Industrial Revolution brought about two main changes, viz. it replaced the domestic system by factory system and small scale production by mass production.
  • The Industrial Revolution marked a period of development in the latter half of the 18th century that transformed largely rural, agrarian societies in Europe and America into industrialized, urban ones.
  • Goods that had once been painstakingly crafted by hand started to be produced in mass quantities by machines in factories, thanks to the introduction of new machines and techniques in textiles, iron making, and other industries.
  • The Industrial Revolution began in Britain and spread to the rest of the world, including the United States, by the 1830s and 1840s.
  • Britain had a long history of producing textiles like wool, linen, and cotton.
  • But before the Industrial Revolution, the British textile business was a true “cottage industry,” with the work performed in small workshops or even homes by individual spinners, weavers, and dyers.

Additional Information

18

The Spirit of the Laws was written by whom?

  1. ((a))

    Blaise Pascal

  2. ((b))

    Montesquieu

  3. ((c))

    Denis Diderot

  4. ((d))

    Voltaire

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Montesquieu

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Montesquieu.

'The Spirit of the Laws' was written by Montesquieu in 1748.

  • The book proposed a division of power within the government between the legislative, the executive and the judiciary.
  • Montesquieu spent 21 years in research before he published the book.
  • He was a nobleman but had sympathy for the common people.
  • The book had an impact on the French Revolution, where people longed for freedom and equality and end the king's abuses.
  • The ideas in the book were used in creating the French and American constitutions. While the Americans used it entirely, the French did not.
19

As per census 2011 the percentage of urban population in India was __________.

  1. ((a))

    31.16

  2. ((b))

    41.8

  3. ((c))

    25.8

  4. ((d))

    21.8

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

31.16

The correct answer is 31.16.

Key Points

  • The total urban population in the country as per Census 2011 is more than 377 million forming 31.16% of the total population.
  • The data shows that Goa is the most urbanised state with 62.17% of the population living in urban areas. But if one goes by geographical area and total population , Tamil Nadu is the most urbanised state followed by Kerala (47.7 per cent) upstaging Maharashtra (45.2 per cent).

Important Points

  • The total rural population in the country as per the census of 2011 is 833.1 million. 
  • Himachal Pradesh becomes the most rural state with 89.97 per cent of the rural population followed by Bihar.

Additional Information

  • The responsibility of conducting the decennial Census rests with the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India under the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
20

73rd Amendment to the Constitution of India provides for:

  1. ((a))

    Two tiers of Panchayati Raj institutions at the village and district levels

  2. ((b))

    Two tiers of Panchayati Raj institutions at the village and block levels

  3. ((c))

    Two tiers of Panchayati Raj institutions at the block and district levels

  4. ((d))

    Three tiers of Panchayati Raj institutions at the village, block and district levels.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Three tiers of Panchayati Raj institutions at the village, block and district levels.

The correct answer is Three tiers of Panchayati Raj institutions at the village, block, and district levels.

Key Points

  • Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was the first to recommend a three-tier structure for Panchayati Raj Institutions in India.
  • L.M. Singhvi Committee recommended granting constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions.
  • Panchayati Raj Institutions were given constitutional status by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act,1992.

Important Points

  • 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act,1992 added Article 243 to Article 243O and a new part Part IX to the constitution of India.
  • Salient features of this Act:
  • Gram Sabha (Article 243A):
  • A body of all persons registered in the electoral roll of that Panchayat.
  • Three-Tier System (Article 243B):
  • Panchayat at the village, intermediate, and district level.
  • Election of members and chairpersons are given under Article 243C.
  • Reservation of seats for SC/ST is provided at all three levels under Article 243D.
  • The duration of Panchayats is given under Article 243E, it is constituted for five years.
  • Grounds of disqualification are given under Article 243F.
  • Powers, authorities, and responsibilities are given in Article 243G and enlisted in the 11th schedule of the constitution.
  • State Election Commission (243K) for superintendence, control, and direction of the election in Panchayats.
21

Which of the following books has been written by Munshi Premchand?

  1. ((a))

    Gitanjali

  2. ((b))

    Gora

  3. ((c))

    Chokher Bali

  4. ((d))

    Nirmala

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Nirmala

The correct answer is Nirmala.

Key Points

  • Soz-e-Watan was his first collection of five short stories in the book. Godaan, Karmabhoomi, Gaban, Mansarovar, Nirmala are some of his Novels.
  • His real name was Dhanpat Rai Shrivastav.
  • He is referred to as 'Upanyas Samrat'.​

Additional Information 

  • Seva Sadan has been written by Munshi Premchand. In 1919, Premchand's first major novel Seva Sadan was published in Hindi.
  • The novel was originally written in Urdu under the title Bazaar-e-Husn but was published in Hindi first by the name Sevasadan a Calcutta-based publisher.
  • An English translation of this book was released by Oxford University Press, India in New Delhi in 2005.
  • Sewasadan deals with poor conditions of women in society, child marriage, and dowry. It tells us about the Indian upper class and the opportunities they got from the British government. The novel was a shift from fantasy to a serious reflection of life.
  • Gitanjali, Gora, and Chokher Bali are written by   Rabindranath Tagore.
22

Inflation is caused by-

  1. ((a))

    Decrease in money supply

  2. ((b))

    Decrease in demand

  3. ((c))

    Increase in money supply

  4. ((d))

    Tightens interest rates

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Increase in money supply

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. Increase in money supply.

Key Points

  • Increase in money supply results in Inflation.
  • Inflation is just a price rise.
  • The reason is that there is more money chasing the same numbers of goods.
  • In India, RBI regulates the money supply and controls inflation through monetary policy.
  • A decrease in Money Supply would lead to deflation.
  • The tightening of interest rates can be an effective tool to control inflation.
23

The Dhola-Sadiya Bridge, dedicated to the nation by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, is built across which river?

  1. ((a))

    Ganges River

  2. ((b))

    Lohit River

  3. ((c))

    Narmada River

  4. ((d))

    Yamuna River

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Lohit River

The correct answer is Lohit River

Key Points

  • Inaugurated in 2017, Dhola-Sadiya bridge or referred to as Bhupen Hazarika Setu connects northeastern states of Assam and Arunachal Pradesh which was dedicated to the nation by Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
  • This bridge was built across Lohit River ,which is a tributary of the Brahmaputra river. Hence option 2 is correct.
  • With its length around 9.15 km, it is the longest bridge in India over water.
  • The construction of this bridge began in 2011 under the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways in collaboration with Navayuga Engineering Company Ltd, Hyderabad.
  • Bhupen Hazarika was an Indian playback singer, lyricist and politician from Assam who was honoured with Bharat Ratna in 2019.

Additional Information

  • The Ganges is the largest river system in India that origins in the Gangotri glacier, Himalayas.
  • Here, it is referred to as Bhagirathi.
  • Bhagirathi and Alakananda congruence is called Devprayag.
  • The Ganga river mainly passes through the states of Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, and West Bengal and drains into the Bay of Bengal.
  • Narmada is the largest west-flowing river and fifth largest river system in India which originates near the Amarkantak range in Madhya Pradesh and drains into the Gulf of Cambay in Gujarat.
  • It passes through Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra and Gujarat.
  • Yamuna river originates at Yamunotri in the Himalayas, passes through Delhi, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh and finally merges with the Ganga at a sacred place called Triveni Sangam in Allahabad, Uttar Pradesh.
24

Who was the leader of Bolshevik Revolution in Russia?

  1. ((a))

    Lenin

  2. ((b))

    Stalin

  3. ((c))

    Bulganin

  4. ((d))

    Rousseau

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Lenin

The correct answer is Lenin.

Key Points

  • Russian Revolution
  • Vladimir Lenin, also called Vladimir Ilich Lenin, original name Vladimir Ilich Ulyanov founder of the Russian Communist Party (Bolsheviks), inspirer, and leader of the Bolshevik Revolution (1917), and the architect, builder, and first head (1917–24) of the Soviet state. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
  • He was the founder of the organization known as Comintern (Communist International) and the posthumous source of Leninism, the doctrine codified and conjoined with Karl Marx’s works by Lenin’s successors to form Marxism-Leninism, which became the Communist worldview.
  • The Russian Revolution of 1917 was one of the most significant events of the twentieth century that ended centuries of monarchy in Russia and brought forth the first constitutionally communist state in the world.
  • The Russian Revolution was made in October 1917.
  • It is also known as the Bolshevik Revolution. It was a proletarian-socialist revolution, inspired by the ideals of communism the Russian Revolution aimed at the creation of a socialist society in Russia.
  • Leadership to this revolution was provided by the Russian Social Democratic Labour Party, particularly the Bolsheviks.
  • The peasantry also played a significant role. In fact, the Russian Revolution was brought about by the working people of Russia, because they were the most oppressed and therefore most interested in a total transformation of the social and political system which exploited them.

Additional Information

  • Joseph Vissarionovich Stalin
  • He was a Georgian revolutionary and political leader who governed the Soviet Union from 1924 until he died in 1953.
  • He served as both General Secretary of the Communist Party of the Soviet Union and Chairman of the Council of Ministers of the Soviet Union.
  • Nikolai Alexandrovich Bulganin
  • He was a Soviet politician who served as Minister of Defense and Premier of the Soviet Union under Nikita Khrushchev, following service in the Red Army and as defense minister under Joseph Stalin.
  • Jean-Jacques Rousseau
  • He was a Genevan philosopher, writer, and composer.
  • His political philosophy influenced the progress of the Enlightenment throughout Europe, as well as aspects of the French Revolution and the development of modern political, economic, and educational thought.
25

The ‘Vikramshila University’ in Bihar was founded by which of the following kings?

  1. ((a))

    Gopala II

  2. ((b))

    Devapala

  3. ((c))

    Gopala I

  4. ((d))

    Dharampala

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Dharampala

The correct answer is Dharampala.

Key Points​​

  • Dharampala
  • Buddhism enjoyed the enormous support of Dharmapala.
  • He restored Nalanda University and gave it 200 villages.
  • He established the Vikramashila monastery, which later developed into a significant Buddhist study centre.
  • One of the finest kings of the Pala dynasty, Dharmapala (770–810 AD), also went by the names Paramabhattaraka, Paramesvara, and Maharajadhiraja.
  • One of the biggest Buddhist universities was Vikramashila, which had over a hundred lecturers and over a thousand pupils.
  • It produced great academics who were frequently invited by other nations to spread Buddhist knowledge, culture, and religion.
  • During the Pala Empire, the two most significant centers of learning in India were Nalanda and Vikramshila.
  • In the year 1193, an army under the command of Sultan Bakhtiyar Khilji of Turkey destroyed Vikramashila University.

Additional Information​

  • Gopala II
  • Gopala II, the sixth king of the Pala line to govern for at least four years, succeeded the Pala monarch Shurapala I in the Bengal-Bihar region of the Indian subcontinent.
  • Devapala
  • The Pala Empire of Bengal, located in the Indian Subcontinent, was ruled by Devapala, who was its most powerful king.
  • He succeeded his father Dharamapala as the third king in the line.
  • In the Indian Subcontinent's Bihar and Bengal provinces, Gopala founded the Pala dynasty.
  • His name Pala's final morpheme, which signifies "protector," was also adopted as the name's ending for all Pala kings.
26

The first attempt to calculate national income in India was made by:

  1. ((a))

    Dadabhai Naoroji

  2. ((b))

    VKRV Rao

  3. ((c))

    PC Mahalanobis

  4. ((d))

    SD Tendulkar

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dadabhai Naoroji

The correct answer is Dadabhai Naoroji.

  • The first attempt to calculate national income in India was made by Dadabhai Naoroji.

Key Points

  • The first attempt to calculate the national income of India was made by Dadabhai Naoroji.
  • He estimated a National Income of Rs.340 crore and per capita income of Rs.20 in the year 1867-68.
  • Dadabhai Naoroji:
  • He was also known as the Indian Gladstone and Grand Old Man of India.
  • He was the first Indian to be elected to the House of Commons on a Liberal Party ticket.
  • He highlighted the draining of wealth from India by the British and its effect in his book Poverty and unBritish Rule in India (1901).
  • He was the first Indian to demand Swaraj in the Calcutta Session of INC, 1906.

Additional Information

  • The first scientific method was made by Prof. V.K.R.V. Rao in the year 1931.
  • The results of which were unsatisfactory.
  • The first official attempt was made by the National Income Committee headed by Prof. P.C. Mahalanobis in 1949.

Important Points

  • The Central Statistical Organization (CSO) calculates the National Income.
27

84th Amendment extended the ban on readjustment of seats in the Lok Sabha and the state legislative assemblies for another _____ years.

  1. ((a))

    25

  2. ((b))

    15

  3. ((c))

    20

  4. ((d))

    30

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

25

The correct answer is Option 1, i.e 25.

  • 84th Amendment extended the ban on the readjustment of seats in the Lok Sabha and the state legislative assemblies for 25 years.
  • 84th Amendment Act was passed in 2001.
  • 86th Amendment Act of 2002 made compulsory elementary education a fundamental right under Article 21A.
  • 91st Amendment Act of 2003 states that the total number of ministers in the Central Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.
28

Where was the headquarters of International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA) set up in India in April 2020?

  1. ((a))

    Bhopal

  2. ((b))

    Bengaluru

  3. ((c))

    Mumbai

  4. ((d))

    Gandhinagar

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Gandhinagar

The correct answer is Gandhinagar.

Key Points

  • The International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA) was established in April 2020.
  • International Financial Services Centre Authority is a statutory body that was established through IFSCA Act 2019.
  • It was established on April 27, 2020, and is headquartered in Gandhinagar Gujarat.
  • It consists of a total of 9 members appointed for a term of three years.
  • There will be one member nominated by RBI, IRDA, SEBI, and PFRDA each.
  • It also consists of two members from the central government and the other two members are nominated by a selection committee.
29

World water day is observed on -

  1. ((a))

    March 24

  2. ((b))

    March 26

  3. ((c))

    March 20

  4. ((d))

    March 22

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

March 22

The correct answer is 22 March.

Key Points

  • World Water Day is observed on 22 March around the world.
  • The theme is 'Groundwater: Making the Invisible Visible', recognizes the crucial role of healthy ecosystems in maintaining water supplies around the world.
  • The objective of observing this day is to raise awareness of the global water crisis, and a core focus is to support the achievement of the Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) which is to ensure water and sanitation for all by 2030.

Additional Information

  • Important days observed in March: 
  • World Wildlife Day- 3 March
  • International Women's Day- 8 March
  • World Consumer Rights Day- 15 March
  • World Sparrow Day- 20 March
  • International Day of Forests- 21 March
  • Bihar Divas-22 March
  • World Meteorological Day- 23 March
  • World Tuberculosis(TB) Day- 24 March
30

In which year the Central Information Commission was established?

  1. ((a))

    2005

  2. ((b))

    2006

  3. ((c))

    2007

  4. ((d))

    2008

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2005

The correct answer is 2005.

Key Points 

Central Information Commission:

Established:

  • ​The Central Information Commission was established by the Central Government in 2005, under the provisions of the Right to Information Act (2005).
  • It is a Statutory Body.

Members:

  • The Commission consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than Ten Information Commissioners.

Appointment:

  • They are appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee consisting of the Prime Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister.

Tenure:

  • ​The Chief Information Commissioner and an Information Commissioner shall hold office for such term as prescribed by the Central Government or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.

Additional Information

Right to Information (Amendment) Act, 2019

  • It provided that the Chief Information Commissioner and an Information Commissioner (of Centre as well as States) shall hold office for such term as prescribed by the Central Government.
  • Before this amendment, their term was fixed for 5 years.
  • It provided that the salary, allowances and other service conditions of the Chief Information Commissioner and an Information Commissioner (of Centre as well as States) shall be such as prescribed by the Central Government.
  • It removed the provisions regarding deductions in salary of the Chief Information Commissioner, an Information Commissioner, the State Chief Information Commissioner and a State Information Commissioner due to pension or any other retirement benefits received by them for their previous government service.
  • The RTI (Amendment) Act, 2019 was criticized on grounds of diluting the law and giving more powers to the central government.
31

Arrange the following books in their chronological order of publication.

A. Hemchandra Raychaudhuri - Political History of Ancient India.

B. R. C. Majumdar - Ancient India.

C. A. S. Altekar - The Position of Women in Hindu Civilization

D. K. P. Jayaswal - Hindu Polity

E. P. T. S. Aiyangar - History of Tamils to 600 A. D.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A, B, C, E, D

  2. ((b))

    A, C, E, D, B

  3. ((c))

    A, D, E, C, B

  4. ((d))

    B, C, D, E, A

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A, D, E, C, B

The correct chronology is A, D, E, C, B.

Key Points

  • Hemchandra Raychaudhuri:
  • ​Hemchandra Raychaudhuri's book "Political History of Ancient India" was first published in 1923 by the University of Calcutta Press.
  • The book is considered to be a pioneering work in the field of ancient Indian history and covers the political history of India from the earliest times up to the end of the Gupta period.
  • The book is widely regarded as a seminal work and has been influential in shaping the way scholars understand ancient Indian history.
  • Raychaudhuri was a renowned historian who specialized in ancient Indian history and also wrote several other books on the subject.
  • K. P. Jayaswal:
  • ​Kashi Prasad Jayaswal's book "Hindu Polity" was first published in 1924 by the University of Calcutta.
  • The book is a significant contribution to the field of Indian history and politics and deals with the evolution of Hindu polity from the Vedic period to the end of the medieval period.
  • The book provides a detailed analysis of the political institutions, theories of statecraft, and administrative systems of ancient India.
  • The book also deals with the role of religion in ancient Indian politics and the relationship between the state and society.
  • K. P. Jayaswal was a renowned historian and scholar who specialized in the study of ancient Indian history, culture, and politics.
  • P. T. S. Aiyangar:
  • ​P. T. S. Aiyangar's book "History of Tamils to 600 A. D." was first published in 1929 by Oxford University Press.
  • The book is a comprehensive account of the history of the Tamil people from the earliest times up to 600 A. D.
  • The book covers a wide range of topics, including the political, social, cultural, and economic history of the Tamils.
  • It also provides a detailed analysis of the evolution of the Tamil language, literature, and art.
  • The book is considered to be a seminal work in the field of Tamil history and has been influential in shaping the way scholars understand the Tamil civilization.
  • P. T. S. Aiyangar was a renowned scholar and historian who specialized in the study of Tamil culture and history.
  • A. S. Altekar:
  • A. S. Altekar's book "The Position of Women in Hindu Civilization" was first published in 1938 by Motilal Banarsidass Publishers.
  • The book is an important contribution to the study of women's history and the role of women in ancient Indian society.
  • The book covers a wide range of topics, including the position of women in the Vedic period, the status of women in the epics, the impact of Buddhism and Jainism on women's rights, and the condition of women in the medieval period.
  • The book is considered to be a pioneering work in the field of women's studies in India and has been influential in shaping the way scholars understand the status of women in ancient Indian society.
  • A. S. Altekar was a renowned historian and scholar who specialized in the study of ancient Indian history and culture.
  • R. C. Majumdar :
  • ​R. C. Majumdar's book "Ancient India" was first published in 1972 by Motilal Banarsidass Publishers.
  • The book is a comprehensive survey of the political, social, economic, and cultural history of ancient India from prehistoric times to the end of the Gupta period.
  • The book covers a wide range of topics, including the Indus Valley Civilization, the Vedic period, the Mauryan Empire, the Gupta Empire, and the advent of Islam in India.
  • The book is considered to be a seminal work in the field of Indian history and has been influential in shaping the way scholars understand ancient Indian civilization.
  • R. C. Majumdar was a renowned historian and scholar who specialized in the study of Indian history and culture.

Hence we can conclude that the correct chronology is A, D, E, C, B.

32

Agriculture and fishing activities belong to which sector?

  1. ((a))

    Organized sector

  2. ((b))

    Tertiary sector

  3. ((c))

    Primary sector

  4. ((d))

    Secondary sector

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Primary sector

The correct answer is Primary sector.

Key Points

  • Products and services are produced as a result of economic activity, and sectors are collections of economic activities categorised according to certain standards.
  • Based on ownership, labour conditions, and the type of activity, the Indian economy can be divided into several sectors.
  • Economic sector types according to the type of activity:
  • Primary Sector
  • Secondary Sector
  • Tertiary Sector
  • Quaternary Sector
  • Primary Sector:
  • Activities in the primary sector of the economy involve the direct use of natural resources.
  • Some examples of this industry are agriculture, mining, fishing, forestry, dairy, and so on.
  • It is thus named because it serves as the foundation for all other goods.
  • It is also known as the "agriculture and allied sector" because the majority of the natural products we use come from forestry, fishery, dairy, and agriculture.
  • Because primary activities require working outside, those who engage in them are referred to as red-collar workers.

Additional Information

  • Secondary Sector:
  • It encompasses the sectors in which natural resources generated in the primary sector are used to create final goods.
  • This sector includes operations such as sugar cane production, cotton fabric production, and industrial production.
  • Therefore, manufacturing is the sector of a nation's economy that produces goods as opposed to raw materials.
  • This sector is also known as the industrial sector because it is connected to several industries.
  • Blue collar workers are those who perform auxiliary tasks.
  • Tertiary Sector:
  • The primary and secondary sectors benefit from the activity of this sector.
  • Economic activity in the tertiary sector assists or supports production rather than producing commodities on its own.
  • It is also known as Service Sector.
  • The industry includes things like banking, insurance, finance, and truck or train-borne freight.
  • It adds value to a product in the same way as the secondary sector.
  • White collar jobs are those in this industry.
  • Economic sector types depending on labour conditions:
  • Organised Sector
  • Unorganised Sector
  • Organised Sector:
  • Employees in this industry are guaranteed employment and social security, and job terms are regular and set.
  • It may also be described as an industry that is registered with the government and to which certain acts are applicable to the businesses.
  • The organized sector includes hospitals and schools.
  • Employees in the organized industry are guaranteed a job. They have a set amount of hours that they are required to work. The company must give them extra pay if they put in more hours.
33

Article 44 is concerned with

  1. ((a))

    Right to freedom of movement

  2. ((b))

    Powers of Supreme Court

  3. ((c))

    Prohibition

  4. ((d))

    Uniform Civil Code

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Uniform Civil Code

The correct answer is Uniform Civil Code.

Key Points

  • The title of Article 44 is the Uniform Civil Code for the citizens.
  • Uniform Civil Code will replace personal laws based on the holy books and customs of each major religious community in India
  • Under Article 18 abolition of titles is provided.

<br>

Additional Information

Article 141Powers of Supreme Court. The law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all courts in the country.
Article 19Right to freedom of movement
34

__________ are foreign currency assets held by the central banks of countries.

  1. ((a))

    Rate exchange

  2. ((b))

    Foreign exchange Reserves

  3. ((c))

    Credit control

  4. ((d))

    Local exchange

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Foreign exchange Reserves

The correct answer is Foreign exchange Reserves.

Key Points

  • The correct answer is option 2, foreign exchange reserves are foreign currency assets held by central banks.
  • Foreign exchange reserves are an important tool for central banks to manage their country's currency and maintain stability in the foreign exchange market.
  • These reserves are usually held in the form of foreign currencies, government bonds, and gold.
  • They can be used to intervene in the market by buying or selling currencies to influence their value or to provide liquidity to banks during times of financial stress.
  • Countries with large foreign exchange reserves are often seen as more stable and attractive to investors, as they have the ability to weather economic shocks and maintain the value of their currency.
  • Rate exchange, credit control, and local exchange are not equivalent to foreign exchange reserves and do not refer to the same concept.
  • Hence, options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Rate exchange refers to the rate at which one currency can be exchanged for another.
  • It is determined by the foreign exchange market and influenced by various factors such as economic conditions and political events.
  • Credit control refers to the measures taken by a central bank to regulate the availability and cost of credit in the economy.
  • This includes setting interest rates and reserve requirements for banks.
  • Local exchange refers to the exchange of one currency for another within a specific country or region.
35

Who was the major leader of Darbhanga Peasant Movement in 1919-20?

  1. ((a))

    Babu Krishna Singh

  2. ((b))

    Sahajanand Saraswati

  3. ((c))

    Swami Vidyanand

  4. ((d))

    Babu Ramdayalu Singh

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Swami Vidyanand

The correct answer is Swami Vidyanand.

  • Swami Vidyanand was the major leader of the Darbhanga Peasant Movement in 1919-20.
  • The protest was focused on Darbhanga Raj, Bihar's largest zamindari.
  • It was also one of the largest estates in British India.
  • The protest led by Swami Vidyanand developed in the context of economic and demographic pressure.

Reference:https://journals.sagepub.com/doi/abs/10.1177/001946467901600103?journalCode=iera

36

Which of the following states has the highest poverty rate in India, according to the Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) 2021?

  1. ((a))

    Madhya Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    Jharkhand

  3. ((c))

    Uttar Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Bihar

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Bihar

The correct answer is Bihar.

Key Points

  • According to the Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) 2021, Bihar has the highest poverty rate in India.
  • The MPI is a measure of acute poverty that captures the various deprivations experienced by individuals at the same time.
  • Bihar has consistently ranked among the poorest states in India, with a high percentage of people living below the poverty line.
  • The state has also been affected by various socio-economic challenges such as low literacy rates, lack of access to basic amenities, and limited job opportunities.
  • Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, and Uttar Pradesh are also among the poorest states in India, but they have a relatively lower poverty rate compared to Bihar.

Additional Information

  • India's MPI value decreased by almost half between 2015–16 and 2019–21, from 0.117 to 0.066.
  • Madhya Pradesh:
  • The state has made significant progress in reducing poverty in recent years, but still faces challenges related to malnutrition, low literacy rates, and inadequate infrastructure.
  • Jharkhand:
  • The state has a high poverty rate and faces challenges related to low literacy rates, lack of basic amenities, and limited job opportunities.
  • However, it has made progress in reducing poverty through various government initiatives.
  • Uttar Pradesh:
  • The state has a large population and a high poverty rate, with a significant proportion of people living in rural areas.
  • It faces challenges related to low literacy rates, inadequate infrastructure, and limited job opportunities.
  • However, the state government has launched several poverty alleviation programs to address these issues.
37

Who among the following is considered as the founder of Islam?

  1. ((a))

    Prophet Noah

  2. ((b))

    Prophet Yusuf

  3. ((c))

    Prophet Muhammad

  4. ((d))

    Prophet Abraham

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Prophet Muhammad

The correct answer is 'Prophet Muhammad'.

Key Points

  • The rise of Islam is intrinsically linked with the Prophet Muhammad.
  • It was believed by Muslims to be the last in a long line of prophets that includes Moses and Jesus.
  • Because Muhammad was the chosen recipient and messenger of the word of God through the divine revelations,
  • Muslims from all walks of life strive to follow his example.
  • After the holy Qur'an, the sayings of the Prophet (hadith) and descriptions of his way of life (sunna) are the most important Muslim texts.
38

The ‘Prayag Prashasti’ also known as the Allahabad Pillar Inscription was composed by whom in Sanskrit?

  1. ((a))

    Harishena

  2. ((b))

    Chanakya

  3. ((c))

    Panini

  4. ((d))

    Banabhatta

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Harishena

The correct answer is ​Harishena.

Key Points

  • Allahabad Prashasti:
  • It is also known as Prayag Prashasti.
  • It is a pillar inscription of Samudragupta found at Allahabad and written in Sanskrit.
  • It was composed by Harisena.
  • It is one of the important epigraphic sources to know about the political history of the Guptas.
  • There are thirty-three lines in total.
  • Line 22 of the inscription especially describes the conquests of Samudragupta over the frontier states.
  • Lines 13-15 of the inscription refer to the conquests of Samudragupta in his first Aryavarta war in which he defeated three important rulers namely, Achyuta, Nagasena, and Ganapatinaga of the Naga Dynasty.
  • Lines 19-20 described his South India Campaign.
  • Line 23 refers to Samudragupta violently exterminating a number of kings of Aryavarta.

Additional Information

  • Samudragupta (335-380 AD):
  • He was the son of Chandragupta-I.
  • Harishena was the court poet of Samudragupta
  • Allahabad Pillar Inscription (Prayag Prasasti) was issued by Samudragupta and was composed by Harishena.
  • It was composed in Sanskrit.
  • Panini was a Sanskrit grammarian who gave a comprehensive and scientific theory of phonetics, phonology, and morphology.
  • Banabhatta was the court poet of  Harshvardhana and he composed the Harshacharita which gives an account of Harsha’s life and deeds.
  • ChanakyaChandragupta Maurya became the king of Magadha with the help of Chanakya, also known as Vishnu Gupta.
  • The Arthashastra is an ancient Indian treatise on statecraft, economic policy, and military strategy, written in Sanskrit by Chanakya.
39

The oxygen evolved during photosynthesis comes from splitting of

  1. ((a))

    water

  2. ((b))

    carbon dioxide

  3. ((c))

    oxygen

  4. ((d))

    light

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

water

Photosynthesis is the process where plants transform solar energy into chemical energy which is stored in the bonds of sugar molecules.

Key Points

  • During the process of photosynthesis, oxygen that gets released comes from the splitting of water molecules in the presence of a light-dependent reaction.
  • Products hence are Adenosine Triphosphate and NADPH.
  • The overall process of photosynthesis is represented by the following equation

6CO2 + 6H20 + (energy) → C6H12O6 + 6O2 Carbon dioxide + water + energy from light produces glucose and oxygen.

40

Which chemical is present in the cells of cork of tree which makes them impervious to gases and water?

  1. ((a))

    Cellulose

  2. ((b))

    Suberin

  3. ((c))

    Pectin

  4. ((d))

    Lignin

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Suberin

The correct answer is Suberin

Key Points

  • Suberin functions as a physical barrier, preventing water loss from the tissues.
  • It surrounds as well as providing protection against pathogens.
  • It also forms a significant component of the wound healing process in plants.

Additional Information

CelluloseIt is the major part of plant cell wall
SuberinIt works as a hurdle for the flow of water and gases in plants.
PectinIt helps to hold the cells together and found in primary cell walls.
LinginIt consolidates the wood and bark of plants.
41

The escape velocity at the earth’s surface is

  1. ((a))

    11.2 km/s

  2. ((b))

    112 km/s

  3. ((c))

    1.12 km/s

  4. ((d))

    11.2 m/s

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

11.2 km/s

Explanation:

Escape velocity

  • The minimum velocity of the body that should be given to the body to enable it to escape away from the earth’s gravitational field is called escape velocity.
  • Its value on the earth’s surface is 11.2 km/s.
  • Escape velocity is 21/2 times the orbital velocity i.e. Ve=21/2Vo.
  • Escape velocity from Sun = 614 km/s
  • Escape velocity from moon = 2.4 km/s
42

The pH of rain water, is approximately:

  1. ((a))

    5.6

  2. ((b))

    7.5

  3. ((c))

    7.0

  4. ((d))

    6.5

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5.6

Concept:

In clean air, rain water picks up some acidic oxides like CO2 and SO2 obtained from volcanic eruption. These substances make the rain slightly acidic with the pH of 5.6 to 6.

The technical definition of pH is a measure of the activity of the hydrogen ion (H+). It is essentially a measure of acidity. The pH scale ranges from 0 to 14. In the scale, the reading `7' denotes the neutral point. A substance can be rated acidic or basic depending on its pH value. It will be rated as acidic if it has a pH of less than 7 and basic if it is greater.

Normal rain water has a pH of 5.6 (slightly acidic). This is because it is exposed to the carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. The carbon dioxide gets dissolved in the rain water and forms carbonic acid.

Rain water with pH value below 5.6 is considered as acid rain. There are both natural and non-natural sources of materials that cause pH of rain water to change. The pH of rain water centres around this value then it is fit for drinking. Also, the pH of rain water differs from place to place. This is due to heavy pollution in one area and clean air in another.

Rainfall made so acidic by atmospheric pollution that it causes environmental harm, chiefly to forests and lakes. The main cause is the industrial burning of coal and other fossil fuels, the waste gases from which contain sulphur and nitrogen oxides which combine with atmospheric water to form acids.

But, when the rain falls through polluted air, it consumes oxides of sulphur (SOx) and oxides of nitrogen (NOx) mists of HCl etc. They make the rain more acidic called acid rain with the pH range 3.5 to 5.6.

43

Which of the following animals is not an example of mammal?

  1. ((a))

    Cow

  2. ((b))

    Platypus

  3. ((c))

    Penguin

  4. ((d))

    Dolphin

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Penguin

The correct answer is Penguin.

Key Points

  • Mammals are a class of Chordates with the following features:
  • They are warm-blooded animals and give birth to their young ones, except the monotremes.
  • They have mammary glands which help them to feed their babies.
  • Their skin possesses hair and has sebaceous glands and sweat glands.
  • They possess cervical vertebrae, their skull is dicondylic, and have 12 pairs of cranial nerves.
  • Cow, platypus, and Dolphin belong to the mammal category.

Additional Information

  • Penguins are a group of aquatic flightless birds.
  • The penguin's body is adapted for swimming.
  • Its body is fusiform (tapered at both ends) and streamlined.
  • A penguin has a large head, short neck, and elongated body.
  • The legs and webbed feet are set far back on the body, which gives penguins their upright posture on land.

Therefore penguins do not belong to the mammal category.

44

The absolute refractive index of air is:

  1. ((a))

    1.03

  2. ((b))

    1.00003

  3. ((c))

    1.003

  4. ((d))

    1.0003

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1.0003

The correct answer is 1.0003.

Key Points

The absolute refractive index of some material media: 

Material mediaRefractive index
Air1.0003
Water1.33
Alcohol1.36
Glass1.52
Rock salt1.54
Ruby1.71
Diamond2.42

Important Points 

  • The absolute refractive index of a medium : 
  • The ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to the speed of light in the given medium is called the absolute refractive index of the medium.
  • μ = c / v
  • μ is the absolute refractive index, c is the speed of light in vacuum, v is the speed of light in the given medium
  • Relative refractive index: 
  • The ratio of the speed of light in a transparent medium 1 to the speed of light in transparent medium 2 is called the refractive index of medium 2 with respect to medium 1.
  • In general, the refractive index is the term used for absolute refractive index.
45

What will be the focal length of a concave lens of power of −4 dioptre (D)?

  1. ((a))

    50 cm

  2. ((b))

    -25 cm

  3. ((c))

    -50 cm

  4. ((d))

    25 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

-25 cm

The correct answer is - 25 CM

Key Points

Power of Lens:

  • The inverse of the focal length is known as the power of the lens.
  • It shows the bending strength of the light ray of the lens.
  • The unit of power of a lens is Dioptre when the focal length of the lens is taken in meter (m).
  • P= 1/f  where P is the power of the lens and f is the focal length of the lens**.**

Concave lens:

  • It is a diverging lens that diverges the parallel beam of light.
  • It can also gather light from all directions and project it as a parallel beam.
  • The focal length of the concave lens is negative.
  • It has a virtual focus from the diverging rays of light that seem to converge.

Convex lens:

  • The lens whose refracting surface is upside is called a convex lens.
  • The convex lens is also called a converging lens.
  • The focal length of a convex lens is positive.

CALCULATION:

  • Given that P = -4D
  • Focal length (f) = 1/P = 1/(-4) = -1/4 = -0.25 m = -25 cm
  • The focal length of a concave lens is negative.
46

What is the genetic makeup of normal human female?

  1. ((a))

    XX Chromosome

  2. ((b))

    XY Chromosome

  3. ((c))

    XXY Chromosome

  4. ((d))

    XO Chromosome

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

XX Chromosome

The correct answer is XX Chromosome.

Key Points

  • Humans have one pair of allosomes.
  • X and Y are one pair of sex chromosomes.
  • These chromosomes contain genes that determine the biological sex of an organism.
  • In the XY sex-determination system, the female-provided ovum contributes an X chromosome.
  • The male-provided sperm contributes either an X chromosome or a Y chromosome.
  • Thus resulting in female (XX) or male (XY) offspring, respectively.
  • Thus the genetic makeup of a normal human female is XX chromosome.

Describe the sex determination in a human being. How does it differ from  that of drosophila?

Additional Information

  • An autosome is any of the numbered chromosomes, as opposed to the sex chromosomes.
  • All the chromosomes other than the sex hormones are autosomes.
  • Chromosomes is a thread-like structure found in the nucleus. It becomes visible during cell division.
  • In Humans, there are 23 pairs of  chromosomes in total (46 chromosomes)
  • 22 pairs of autosomes (total 44) and one pair of allosomes.
  • An allosome is a sex chromosome that differs in size, form, and behaviour from an autosome.

Important Points

  • XXY Chromosome: Klinefelter syndrome.
  • A genetic condition in which a male is born with an extra copy of the X chromosome.
  • XO Chromosome: Turner syndrome.
  • A chromosomal disorder in which a female is born with only one X chromosome.
  • Symptoms include short stature, delayed puberty, infertility, heart defects and certain learning disabilities.
47

The full form of DNA is:

  1. ((a))

    deoxyribeneutral acid

  2. ((b))

    deltanucleic acid

  3. ((c))

    deoxyribonucleic acid

  4. ((d))

    dyoxyenucleic acid

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

deoxyribonucleic acid

The correct option is 3 i.e Deoxyribonucleic acid.

Key Points

  • The full form of DNA is Deoxyribonucleic acid.
  • DNA is the carrier of genetic material. Genes present as series of ATGC sequences and packed as helical structure are coherently called as DNA.
  • DNA is also responsible for introducing mutations in the species by random rearrangement of gene sequences or "recombination" during reproduction.
  • DNA structure was given in 1953 by Dr James Watson and Dr Francis Crick with the help of Rosalind Franklin via X-ray crystallography of DNA molecule.
  • DNA is a genetic carrier in human beings animals, bacteria etc.
48

Which of the following plant hormones inhibits growth?

  1. ((a))

    Cytokinins

  2. ((b))

    Abscisic acid

  3. ((c))

    Gibberellins

  4. ((d))

    auxins 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Abscisic acid

The correct answer is Abscisic acid.

Key Points

  • The plant hormone, Abscisic acid inhibits the growth of the plant.
  • Auxin, Gibberellins, and cytokinins promote the growth of the plant.
  • Abscisic Acid (ABA) is involved in the closure of stomata, seeds dormancy, and inhibit other hormonal actions.
  • It plays an important role in seed maturation.
  • It also has an important role in the synthesis of proteins and compatible osmolytes, which enable plants to tolerate stresses due to environmental or biotic factors.

Additional Information

  • Cytokinins, Gibberellins, Auxins are responsible for plant growth.
  • They are produced within the plant and occur in very low concentrations.
  • They control all aspects of plant growth and development, regulation of organ size, embryogenesis, stress tolerance, etc.
49

The movement of water molecules through a semipermeable membrane is called:

  1. ((a))

    Diffusion

  2. ((b))

    Osmosis

  3. ((c))

    Contraction

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Osmosis

The correct answer is Osmosis

Key Points

Osmosis:

  • Osmosis is the process by which solvent molecules pass from a solution of lower concentration to a solution of higher concentration through a semipermeable membrane.
  • It is a passive process that takes place without any expenditure of energy.
  • Osmosis is the passage of water from the region of higher concentration to the region of lower concentration through a semi-permeable membrane.
  • A plasma membrane or a cell membrane is a semipermeable or selectively permeable membrane that lets only certain molecules pass through it while keeping other molecules
  • Movement is controlled by the osmolarity of two compartments.
  • Sodium regulator of extracellular osmolarity.
  • Potassium regulator of intracellular osmolarity.

Additional Information Diffusion

  • Diffusion is the process of particles moving from a highly concentrated region to a low concentrated region.
  • The rate of diffusion of gases is higher when compared to liquids and solids as gases can move freely from one region to another.
  • Diffusion is only possible if the matter moves continuously as diffusion means the moving of particles from a high concentration to a low concentration region.
50

Which instrument is used to measure blood pressure ?

  1. ((a))

    Barometer

  2. ((b))

    Hygrometer

  3. ((c))

    Sphygmomanometer

  4. ((d))

    Thermometer

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Sphygmomanometer

A sphygmomanometer, also known as a blood pressure meter, blood pressure monitor, or blood pressure gauge, is a device used to measure blood pressure, composed of an inflatable cuff to collapse and then release the artery under the cuff in a controlled manner, and a mercury or mechanical manometer to measure the pressure.

51

In 1820, who found that electric current causes a nearby magnetic needle to move and thus discovered electromagnetism?

  1. ((a))

    Benjamin Franklin

  2. ((b))

    James Clerk Maxwell

  3. ((c))

    Hans Christian Oersted

  4. ((d))

    Andre-Marie Ampere

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Hans Christian Oersted

The correct answer is Hans Christian Oersted.

Key Points

  • Hans Christian Oersted began a new scientific epoch when he discovered that electricity and magnetism are linked.
  • He showed by experiment that an electric current flowing through a wire could move a nearby magnet.
  • Hans Christian Oersted was a Danish physicist and chemist born on August 14, 1777 – died on Mach 09, 1851.
  • Oersted is still known today for Oersted's Law, electric current, electromagnetism, piperine discovery, and finally formulation of metallic aluminum.​

Additional Information

  • One of the leading figures of early American history, Benjamin Franklin (1706-1790) was a statesman, author, publisher, scientist, inventor, and diplomat. Benjamin Franklin was many things in his lifetime: a printer, a postmaster, an ambassador, an author, a scientist, and a Founding Father. Above all, he was an inventor, creating solutions to common problems, innovating new technology, and even making life a little more musical.
  • James Clerk Maxwell is most famous for his theory of electromagnetism, which showed that light was electromagnetic radiation. His theory is considered to have paved the way for both quantum mechanics and Einstein's theory of special relativity.
  • Andre-Marie Ampere the astatic needle, a critical component of the modern astatic galvanometer, and was the first to demonstrate that a magnetic field is generated when two parallel wires are charged with electricity. He is generally credited as one of the first to discover electromagnetism.
52

Each trait in the child can be influenced by ______ DNA.

  1. ((a))

    only paternal

  2. ((b))

    only maternal

  3. ((c))

    both paternal and maternal

  4. ((d))

    neither paternal nor maternal

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

both paternal and maternal

The correct answer is both paternal and maternal.

Key Points

  • A child develops from a zygote.
  • A zygote is formed by the fusion of a male gamete (sperm) and a female gamete (ovum) in the process of fertilization.
  • The genetic material contained in the male and female gametes is responsible for influencing the trait of the child.
  • So, both paternal and maternal DNA influence the traits in a child. Hence, the correct answer is ‘Both paternal and maternal’.
53

What is the process by which autotrophs take in substances from the outside and convert them into stored form of energy?

  1. ((a))

    Respiration

  2. ((b))

    Photosynthesis

  3. ((c))

    Ingestion

  4. ((d))

    Transpiration

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Photosynthesis

  • Photosynthesis is the process by which autotrophs take inorganic substances from the outsideand convert them into organic substanceswhich are stored form of energy.
  • Plants use light energy from the sun to convert carbon dioxide and water into simple sugars which are a source of energy.
  • The equation for photosynthesis:
<br>

      6CO2 + 6H2O + light energy = C6H12O6 + 6O2

54

The unique ability of carbon to form bonds with other atoms of carbon is called as ________. 

  1. ((a))

    Ionization

  2. ((b))

    Catenation

  3. ((c))

    Acidification 

  4. ((d))

    No option is correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Catenation

The correct answer is Catenation.

Key Points

  • Catenation is the linkage of atoms of the same element into longer chains.
  • Catenation mostly occurs in Carbon which forms covalent bonds.
  • Due to Catenation, carbon compounds have a long chain of carbon.

Additional Information

  • Ionization is the process in which electrically neutral atoms are converted into electrically charged atoms or molecules.
  • Acidification is the process of becoming an acid.
55

A plant that does NOT grow through vegetative propagation is ________.

  1. ((a))

    Rose

  2. ((b))

    Papaya

  3. ((c))

    Banana

  4. ((d))

    Orange

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Papaya

The Correct Answer is Option 2 i.e Papaya.

  • Vegetative propagation is a form of asexual reproduction of a plant wherein a new plant grows from stems, roots, and leaves.
  • Vegetative propagation can be natural and also can be done artificially.
  • Example: Rose, Banana, Orange, Mango, Sugarcane, etc.
  • Papaya is commercially propagated by seed and tissue culture plants. It is not grown through vegetative propagation.
56

Gaseous exchange takes place in leaves through tiny pores for the purpose of photosynthesis. What are these pores?

  1. ((a))

    Chloroplast

  2. ((b))

    Stomata

  3. ((c))

    Chlorophyll

  4. ((d))

    Vacuole

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Stomata

.The correct answer is Stomata.

Key Points

  • Stomata are tiny openings or pores on the surface of the plant leaves that allow gas exchange.
  • In botany, the stoma ('stomata') is a pore located throughout the epidermis of leaves, roots, and other organs that promotes the flow of water.
  • The pore is bordered by a pair of specialized parenchymal cells known as guard cells, which are responsible for controlling the size of the stomatal opening.
  • The term is generally used collectively to refer to the entire stomatal complex, consisting of the paired guard cells and the pore itself, which is referred to as the stomatal opening.
  • Air enters the plant by gaseous diffusion through these openings and contains carbon dioxide which is used in photosynthesis and oxygen which is used in respiration.

Additional Information 

  • Chloroplast
  • Chloproplast is semiautonomous organelles.
  • It is a double membrane organelle.
  • It consists of the outer and inner membranes.
  • It consists of chlorophyll pigment.
  • It has ribosomes and is 70s-type.
  • Flattened membranous sacs in the chloroplasts are termed the thylakoid.
  • It is the site of light reactions.
  • Chlorophyll
  • It is a green pigment present in the chloroplasts of the plant cell and in the mesosomes of cyanobacteria.
  • By allowing plants to absorb energy from sunlight, this green colour pigment plays a crucial role in photosynthetic activity. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
  • Chlorophyll is a chlorophyll-a and chlorophyll-b combination.
  • Chlorophyll absorbs mostly in the blue and to a lesser extent red portions of the electromagnetic spectrum, hence its intense green colour.
  • Green substance in producers that traps light energy from the sun, which is then used to combine carbon dioxide and water into sugars in the process of photosynthesis Chlorophyll is vital for photosynthesis, which helps plants get energy from light.
  • Chlorophyll molecules are specifically arranged in and around pigment-protein complexes called photosystems, which are embedded in the thylakoid membranes of chloroplasts.
  • Vacuoles:
  • It occupies a large area in plant cells.
  • It contains water, sap, and excretory product.
  • It maintains the water balance inside the plant.
57

Which of the following gets activated upon illumination and generates electrical signal?

  1. ((a))

    Light sensitive cell

  2. ((b))

    Optic nerve

  3. ((c))

    Ciliary muscles

  4. ((d))

    Vitreous humour

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Light sensitive cell

The light sensitive cells are present in the retina of the human eye which get activated upon illumination and generate electric signals. These signals are then sent to the brain through optic nerves which are then interpreted as an information to see the objects.

58

Mendel worked on:

  1. ((a))

    Edible pea

  2. ((b))

    Wild pea

  3. ((c))

    Garden pea

  4. ((d))

    Pigeon Pea

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Garden pea

Explanation:

About Gregor Mendel:

  • Gregor Mendel, a 19th-century Augustinian monk.
  • He was born in a poor farmer’s family in Austria in 1822.
  • He is called the father of modern genetics.
  • He found that the pea plant has some traits which come in pairs (called an allele).
  • Mendel's pea plant experiments conducted between 1856 and 1863 established many of the fundamental laws of heredity.
  • It is now referred to as the laws of Mendelian inheritance.

Important Points

Gregor Johann Mendels Theory:

  • Mendel used a number of contrasting visible characters of garden peas- round/wrinkled seeds, tall/short plants, white/violet flowers, and so on.
  • He took pea plants with different characteristics- a tall plant and a short plant, produced progeny from them and calculated the percentages of tall or short progeny.
  • Mendel conducted such artificial pollination/cross-pollination experiments using several true-breeding pea lines.
  • A true-breeding line is one that, having undergone continuous self-pollination.
  • It shows the stable trait inheritance and expression for several generations.
  • Mendel selected 14 true-breeding pea plant varieties, as pairs that were similar except for one character with contrasting traits.
  • Some of the contrasting traits selected were smooth or wrinkled seeds, yellow or green seeds, inflated (full) or constricted green or yellow pods and tall or dwarf plants.

Thus, Mendel worked on garden pea.

59

A current of 0.5 A is drawn by a filament of an electric bulb for 20 minutes, find the amount of electric charge that flows through the circuit.

  1. ((a))

    300 Coulomb

  2. ((b))

    600 Coulomb

  3. ((c))

    2400 Coulomb

  4. ((d))

    20 Coulomb

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

600 Coulomb

The answer is 600 Coulomb.

Explanation:

Given,

Current, I = 0.5 Ampere; Time, t = 20 minutes = 20 × 60 sec = 1200 sec

Electric Charge = Current × Time

Q = I × t

Q = 0.5 A × 1200 sec

Q = 600 Coulomb

60

What percentage of carbon does the Earth's crust have in the form of minerals?

  1. ((a))

    8%

  2. ((b))

    15%

  3. ((c))

    2%

  4. ((d))

    0.02%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

0.02%

The correct answer is 0.02%.

Key Points

  • Only 0.02% of the carbon in the crust of the Earth is present as carbonates, hydrogen carbonates, coal, and petroleum.
  • Mineral elements include carbon.
  • In order for fossil fuels like coal and petroleum to function, carbon must be present.
  • All of the carbonate minerals that make up limestone and dolomite, as well as the minerals made entirely of carbon, such as graphite and diamond, contain it.

Additional Information

  • Formation of Earth Crust.
  • The most prevalent elements in the crust are oxygen and silicon.
  • Both oceanic and continental crusts make up the surface of the Earth.
  • Despite being the most prevalent minerals in both crusts, silicates nonetheless have some unique features.
  • Shale, sandstone, and limestone make up the remaining 4%, 0.75%, 0.75, and 95 percent of the crust of the Earth. Igneous and metamorphic rocks make up the remaining 4%.
  • The Earth's crust is made up of 90 different elements, with oxygen, silicon, aluminum, and iron making up 88.1% of its mass.
61

________ is the main thinking part of the brain-

  1. ((a))

    Medulla

  2. ((b))

    Forebrain

  3. ((c))

    Spinal cord

  4. ((d))

    Middle brain

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Forebrain

The correct answer is Forebrain.

Key Points 

  • The forebrain is the main thinking part of the brain.
  • The cerebrum (a major part of the forebrain) is the main thinking part of the brain.
  • It has sensory, motor, and association areas.

orebrain, Midbrain and Hindbrain

Additional Information

  • The human brain is the central organ of the human nervous system, and the spinal cord makes up the central nervous system.
  • The brain consists of the cerebrum, the brainstem, and the cerebellum.
  • The cerebrum, the largest part of the human brain, consists of two cerebral hemispheres.
  • Forebrain (also known as the prosencephalon), midbrain (mesencephalon), and hindbrain (rhombencephalon).
62

The centre of curvature of a concave mirror lies ________.

  1. ((a))

    below the mirror

  2. ((b))

    behind the mirror

  3. ((c))

    above the mirror

  4. ((d))

    in front of the mirror

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

in front of the mirror

The correct answer is in front of the mirror.

Key Points:

  • A spherical shell's concave or convex mirrors can be polished from the inside to become convex mirrors.
  • The mirror that results from polishing the spherical shell from the inside is a concave mirror.
  • A concave mirror will give the impression that light rays parallel to the principal axis are converging on a point in front of the mirror.
  • The focal point or focus of the concave mirror is the location at which all of the rays converge.

Additional Information:

  • The convex mirror's centre of curvature is located behind the mirror.
  • They are collinear points because the pole, focus, and centre of curvature all lie on the same line.
  • The centre of curvature is outside the mirror and is not a part of it.
  • A single piece of round glass can be cut into concave and convex mirrors by polishing the slices in opposite directions after each cut.
63

The metals can be beaten into thin sheets, the property is called _______.

  1. ((a))

    Sonority 

  2. ((b))

    Malleability

  3. ((c))

    Ductility 

  4. ((d))

    Lustre

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Malleability

Concept:

Malleability

  • Malleability is the property by virtue of which a material may be hammered or rolled into thin sheets without rupture. This property generally increases with the increase of temperature.
  • Malleability is the ability of a metal to exhibit large deformation or plastic response when being subjected to a compressive force.
  • Lead, soft steel, wrought iron, copper, and aluminium are some materials in order of diminishing malleability.

Ductility

  • Ductility is the property of the material that enables it to be drawn out or elongated to an appreciable extent before rupture occurs.
  • The percentage elongation or percentage reduction in the area before the rupture of a test specimen is the measure of ductility. Normally if a percentage elongation exceeds 15% the material is ductile and if it is less than 5% the material is brittle.
  • Lead, copper, aluminium, mild steel are typical ductile materials.

Sonority: It is the property of a metal which associates with producing sound.

Lustre

  • The lustre of metals is because of the reflection of light due to the presence of free electrons.
  • When metals are in their pure form they have shining surface and it is called metallic lustre.
  • Metals have a lot of free moving electrons on their surface hence when light strikes the surface of metal they will be reflected by free electrons in a specular reflection (Light reflected in a pointed direction rather than diffused reflection).
  • When these metals are in the open air they tend to react with elements like carbon, oxygen and form a thin layer of coating on the surface of metals.
  • Thus metals lose their lustre.
  • This lustre can be brought back by either polishing the surface of metal or treating it with suitable chemicals.
64

In how many parts is the human brain divided?

  1. ((a))

    2

  2. ((b))

    3

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    5

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

3

The brain has three major parts or regions, namely the fore-brain, mid-brain, and hind-brain.

The fore-brain:

  • It is the main thinking part of the brain.
  • It is considered to be the most important part of the brain because it performs all cognitive, emotional, and motor activities.
  • Separate areas of the fore-brain are specialized for hearing, smell, sight, and so on.

The mid-brain:

  • The midbrain is relatively small in size and it connects the hindbrain with the forebrain.
  • A few neural centers related to some special reflexes and visual and auditory sensations are found here.
  • An important part of the midbrain, known as the Reticular Activating System (RAS), is responsible for our arousal. It makes us alert and active by regulating sensory inputs.

The Hind Brain:

  • Its main components are medulla oblongata, cerebellum, and pons.
  • This part of the brain regulates basic life-supporting activities like breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure.
  • It also maintains and controls posture and equilibrium of the body.

65

In pea, a pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with a short plant (tt). What will be the ratio of pure tall plants to short plants in the F2 generation ?

  1. ((a))

    1 : 1

  2. ((b))

    1 : 3

  3. ((c))

    3 : 1

  4. ((d))

    2 : 1

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1 : 1

The correct answer is 1: 1.

Key Points

  • '​Pure' plants refer to the homozygous condition in plants and 'hybrid' refers to the heterozygous plants.
  • Homozygous - It is the condition in which the pair of alleles determining a phenotype is identical, either both dominant (TT) or both recessive (tt).
  • Heterozygous - It is the condition where 2 different types of alleles are present, one dominant and one recessive (Tt).
  • When a pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with a pure short plant (tt), the F1 generation produces heterozygous tall (Tt) plants.
  • Upon selfing the F1 generation, that is, crossing two heterozygous tall plants, the following numbers of the F2 generation are obtained phenotypically:
  • Three tall plants and one short plant
  • Whereas, genotypically, the following ratio is obtained:
  • One pure tall plant, two heterozygous tall plants, and one pure short plant.
  • Therefore, considering the genotype, the ratio of pure tall plants to pure short plants in the F2 generation is 1:1. Hence, Option 1 is correct.

Mistake Points

  • Please note here that the question asks about the ratio of "pure" tall plants to short plants in F2 generation.
  • The usual ratio of 3:1 is for "all" tall plants to short plants.
  • Pure Tall plants : Hybrid Tall plants : Short/Dwarf plants = TT : Tt : tt = 1:2:1
  • Therefore, Pure tall : Pure short = 1:1
66

Why does silver chloride turn white in sunlight?

  1. ((a))

    Due to rusting of silver in the presence of oxygen

  2. ((b))

    Due to redox reaction

  3. ((c))

    Due to decomposition of silver chloride into silver and chlorine by light.

  4. ((d))

    Due to displacement of silver chloride into silver oxide

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Due to decomposition of silver chloride into silver and chlorine by light.

The correct answer is Due to decomposition of silver chloride into silver and chlorine by light.

Key Points

  • Silver chloride is a photosensitive compound, which means it reacts to light by decomposing.
  • When silver chloride is exposed to sunlight, the energy from the light causes the compound to break down into silver and chlorine ions.
  • The silver ions combine with other substances in the environment to form a white precipitate, which gives the appearance of the silver chloride turning white.
  • This process is reversible, and the white precipitate can turn back into silver chloride when removed from sunlight.

Additional Information

  • Application of this phenomenon:
  • As this process is reversible, as the grey color can fade when the silver chloride is shielded from light or heated.
  • This property has historical significance in photography, as it was used in the early photographic process known as the daguerreotype.
  • Redox reaction:
  • Redox reactions are chemical processes involving oxidation and reduction in which the oxidation states of the reactants change.
  • In a chemical reaction, the material that is being reduced is referred to as the oxidizing agent, and the substance that is being oxidized is referred to as the reducing agent.
  • Displacement reaction:
  • When an atom in a molecule is displaced by another atom, this is known as a displacement reaction.
67

The disease Kala-Azar is caused by

  1. ((a))

    Escherichia coli

  2. ((b))

    Leishmania

  3. ((c))

    Amoeba

  4. ((d))

    Clostridium

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Leishmania

The disease Kala-Azar is caused by the protozoan Leishmania donovani

Leishmania donovani: 

  • It is a parasitic protozoan belonging to the class Mastigophora or flagellata.
  • It is a human parasite that is dimorphic (i.e. shows two forms) & digenetic in nature
  • It causes the disease Kala-azar or Dumdum fever by sand fly (phelobotomus)
  • The disease is spread by the bite of infected sand-fly
  • It can affect the Skin (Cutaneous Leishmaniasis), the mucous membrane of the mouth, throat, and nose (Mucocutaneous Leishmaniasis), Liver, lymph nodes, spleen, and bone marrow (Visceral Leishmaniasis)
  • Symptoms include: Cutaneous Leishmaniasis - Skin ulcers
  • Mucocutaneous Leishmaniasis - Ulcers in mouth, throat, and nose, Nosebleed, Difficulty in breathing.
  • Visceral Leishmaniasis - Weakness, weight loss, loss of appetite, enlarged spleen, liver, lymph nodes, a decrease in the production of blood cells.

Diagram showing the two different forms of Leishmania donovani

OrganismDisease Caused
AmoebaAmoebiasis or Amoebic dysentery
Escherichia coliBacterial infections, including cholecystitis, bacteremia, cholangitis, urinary tract infection (UTI), and traveller's diarrhoea
Clostridium TetaniTetanus
Clostridium botulinumBotulism
68

Covalent bonds are formed by the sharing of electrons between two atoms so that both can achieve a completely filled _______ shell.

  1. ((a))

    outermost

  2. ((b))

    innermost

  3. ((c))

    centre

  4. ((d))

    proper

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

outermost

The correct answer is outermost.

  • Covalent bonds are formed by the sharing of electrons between two atoms so that both can achieve a completely filled outermost shell.

Additional Information

  • Covalent Bond
  • When two atoms share one electron pair they are said to be joined by a single covalent bond.
  • In many compounds, we have multiple bonds between atoms. The formation of multiple bonds envisages the sharing of more than one electron pair between two atoms.
  • If two atoms share two pairs of electrons, the covalent bond between them is called a double bond. For example, in the carbon dioxide molecule, we have two double bonds between the carbon and oxygen atoms. Similarly in the ethene molecule, the two carbon atoms are joined by a double bond.
  • When combining atoms share three electron pairs as in the case of two nitrogen atoms in the N2 molecule and the two carbon atoms in the ethyne molecule, a triple bond is formed.
69

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

Radha always plays the sitar.

  1. ((a))

    The sitar is always played by Radha.

  2. ((b))

    The sitar was always played by Radha.

  3. ((c))

    The sitar is always play by Radha.

  4. ((d))

    The sitar is always being played by Radha.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The sitar is always played by Radha.

The correct answer is 'The sitar is always played by Radha.'

Key Points

  • The given sentence is in Active Voice. As per the question we have to change it into Passive Voice.
  • The structure of the given sentence is as follows:
  • Subject + V1 + Object. (Active Voice)
  • Subject (Objective Case) + is/am/are + V3 + Object (Subjective Case). (Passive Voice)
  • Example:
  • Aastha teaches English. (Active Voice)
  • English is taught by Aastha. (Passive Voice)
  • The subject of the given sentence is 'Radha'.
  • The object of the given sentence is 'the sitar'.
  • The subject will be put in place of the object and the object will be put in place of the subject.
  • 'plays' will be changed into 'is played'.

Correct Sentence: The sitar is always played by Radha.

70

Choose the correct article for the sentence below

"Many ______ flower is born to blush unseen."

  1. ((a))

    an

  2. ((b))

    the

  3. ((c))

    a

  4. ((d))

    No article

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

a

The correct answer is- a.

Key Points

  • ​In a sentence, the verb is used according to person and number.
  • In the case of the following words, the verbs used will be singular:
  • Each, every/everyone, someone/somebody, none/ nobody, one, any, Many a, more than one, etc.​​
  • For example:
  • Everyone are addicted to smartphones nowadays.

  • Everyone is addicted to smartphones nowadays.

  • The phrase 'Many a' is always followed by a singular noun i.e. flower (in this case).
  • As per the rule and phrases given above, 'a' will be used in the blank part of the given question.

Correct Sentence: "Many a flower is born to blush unseen."

71

(a) The voice said, "I am a Yaksha".

(b) He says, 'Laws die, books never'.

(c) Shakespeare says : Do wrong to none.

Identify the sentence/s punctuated correctly.

  1. ((a))

    Only (a) and (b)

  2. ((b))

    Only (b) and (c)

  3. ((c))

    Only (a) and (c)

  4. ((d))

    Only (b)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only (a) and (b)

The correct answer is 'Only (a) and (b)'.

Key Points

  • A punctuation mark is used to separate elements in a sentence or a phrase in order to clarify the meaning .
  • Inverted commas are used to show speech or when a quotation begins and ends.
  • A comma is used to introduce a quote and it appears before a speaking verbs such as said, replied or stated.
  • A full stop or a period is used to mark the end of a sentence.
  • From the above statements, it is evident that sentence a (The voice said, "I am a Yaksha".)  and sentence b (He says, 'Laws die, books never'.) are punctuated correctly.

Thus, option 1 is the correct answer.

72

The sentence given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word. Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For the sentence, choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it.

There is an ocean of difference between _________ childhood of our parents and ours.

  1. ((a))

    a

  2. ((b))

    the

  3. ((c))

    an

  4. ((d))

    of

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

the

The given blank needs an article as 'childhood' is an abstract noun qualified by the preposition of + noun phrase. Since it is obvious that the mentioned abstract noun is of a particular nature, the article 'the' is the best fit answer for the given blank. Thus, option 2 is the correct answer.

73

Fill in the blank with the correct preposition. 

The boy looked uncomfortable and out ____ place among the adults.

  1. ((a))

    off

  2. ((b))

    in

  3. ((c))

    from

  4. ((d))

    of

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

of

The correct answer is 'of'.

Key Points

  • Here, in the given fill-in-the-blank the most appropriate Option is 'of'.
  • The word 'out' should be followed by 'of' because 'out of place' is an idiomatic expression.
  • It means not comfortable in or not suitable for a situation.
  • Example: The picture looks out of place here.
  • Therefore, as per the point mentioned above, we find that the correct answer is Option 4.

Correct Sentence: The boy looked uncomfortable and out of place among the adults.

  • यहाँ, दिए गए रिक्त स्थान की पूर्ति में सबसे उपयुक्त विकल्प है 'of'.
  • 'Out' शब्द के बाद 'of' आना चाहिए क्योंकि 'Out of place' एक 'मुहावरेदार अभिव्यक्ति' है।
  • इसका अर्थ है 'किसी स्थिति में सहज या उपयुक्त नहीं'।
  • Example: The picture looks out of place here.
  • इसलिए, ऊपर वर्णित बिंदु के अनुसार, हम पाते हैं कि सही उत्तर विकल्प 4 है।
74

Parts of the following sentence are given as options. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

They were completely taking unawares by the shocking remarks of Mr. Sharma about the security of the colony.

  1. ((a))

    of the colony

  2. ((b))

    by the shocking remarks

  3. ((c))

    about the security

  4. ((d))

    were completely taking unawares

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

were completely taking unawares

The correct sentence is- 'were completely taking unawares'

Key Points

  • In the given sentence, the verb 'taking' is incorrectly used.
  • As the given sentence is in the passive voice. So after the helping verb (were), we need the third form of the main verb (taken).
  • ​Example: The chair was broken by him.
  • The third form of the verb take is taken. But in this given sentence present participle (taking) is used.
  • So to make the sentence correct replace the verb taking with taken.
  • Thus option 4 is the correct answer.

And the correct sentence is: They were completely taken unawares by the shocking remarks of Mr Sharma about the security of the colony. 

Additional Information

  • Let's learn the meaning of the phrase 'take something unawares':
  • Take something unawares means to surprise someone to something unexpected.
  • Example: She was taken unawares by the sudden change in plans.
75

Complete the sentence with the correct option:

"My brother goes for a walk daily. He walks very ________.

  1. ((a))

    Fast

  2. ((b))

    Quick

  3. ((c))

    Slow

  4. ((d))

    Fastly

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Fast

The correct answer is 'Fast'.

Key Points

  • We need an adverb to qualify verb 'walks'.
  • Let's discuss the marked option:
  • Fast (adverb): quickly
  • Ex: You'll have to act fast. ('fast' is modifying verb 'act')
  • It's clear that 'fast' is the correct word to complete the sentence.

 

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1).

Complete sentence: "My brother goes for a walk daily. He walks very fast."

Important Points

  • Fast is both an adjective and an adverb.

Additional Information

  • Let's discuss the other options:
  • Quick (adjective): happening or done with great speed, or lasting only a short time
  • Slow (adjective): moving, happening, or doing something without much speed
  • Fastly: doesn't exist

Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Research published in the journal Hindawi in 2018 stated that 11 percent of the total Indian population (that accounts for around 42 million people) is suffering from hypothyroidism. It’s an alarming situation as that means that more than one in every 10 Indians is suffering from a dysfunctioning thyroid.

The thyroid is a butterfly-shaped gland located at the front of the neck, right below Adam’s apple. It helps regulate many body functions by constantly releasing a steady amount of thyroid hormones into the bloodstream.

Thyroid dysfunction can present itself either as hyperthyroidism or as hypothyroidism. Hyperthyroidism occurs when your thyroid gland produces too much of the hormone thyroxine which accelerates the body’s metabolism and may lead to various changes in the body including weight loss. Hypothyroidism is marked with decreased production of thyroxine leading to slowing down of the metabolism, thus, causing weight gain and cold insensitivity.

Scientists believe that thyroid dysfunction may alter carbohydrate metabolism by influencing insulin in such a way that it results in the development of type 2 diabetes mellitus and vice versa. They also believe that for individuals who have prediabetes and low thyroid function, diabetes treatment or lifestyle adjustments (like proper diet and exercise) could be prompted in an earlier stage.

They further stated that thyroid treatment should be started for people with both subclinical hypothyroidism and prediabetes to prevent the chances of getting type 2 diabetes.

76

Which of the following statement is NOT true about hypothyroidism as per the given passage?

  1. ((a))

    Hypothyroidism accelerates the metabolism of the body.

  2. ((b))

    It also increases the cold insensitivity.

  3. ((c))

    It causes weight gain in the person.

  4. ((d))

    It is marked with decreased production of thyroxine.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Hypothyroidism accelerates the metabolism of the body.

The correct answer is "Hypothyroidism accelerates the metabolism of the body."

Key Points

  • Refer to the following lines from the passage:
  • Line 2 of paragraph 3: Hypothyroidism is marked with decreased production of thyroxine leading to slowing down of the metabolism, thus, causing weight gain and cold insensitivity.
  • Thus, option 1 is incorrect, however, it also proves that options 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
  • From the highlighted part in the above mentioned line, it is clear that only option 1 is incorrect.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

77

What is the central idea of the passage?

  1. ((a))

    To understand the complexity of the thyroid gland in our body.

  2. ((b))

    To give a brief idea about thyroid dysfunction and its types

  3. ((c))

    To inform about various consequences of thyroid dysfunction on our body.

  4. ((d))

    To analyze various researches conducted for thyroid dysfunction.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

To give a brief idea about thyroid dysfunction and its types

The correct answer is "To give a brief idea about thyroid dysfunction and its types."

Key Points

  • In the given passage, refer to the following lines:
  • Line 1 of paragraph 3: Thyroid dysfunction can present itself either as hyperthyroidism or as hypothyroidism. ​
  • Also, in the passage, the author discusses the various types of thyroid dysfunction and the two types of it.
  • The passage also mentions the effects of the mentioned thyroid dysfunction.

Hence, it can be concluded that the correct answer is option 2.

78

What can be concluded from the given passage?

  1. ((a))

    Thyroid dysfunction should be taken seriously.

  2. ((b))

    Hypothyroidism needs more attention than hyperthyroidism.

  3. ((c))

    Proper diet is mandatory in thyroid dysfunction.

  4. ((d))

    Type 2 diabetes is harmful for health.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Thyroid dysfunction should be taken seriously.

The correct answer is "Thyroid dysfunction should be taken seriously."

Key Points

  • In the given passage , "thyroid dysfunction" and its effect is discussed.
  • Now, refer to the following lines of the passage:
  • Line 1 of paragraph 4: Scientists believe that thyroid dysfunction may alter carbohydrate metabolism by influencing insulin in such a way that it results in the development of type 2 diabetes mellitus and vice versa.
  • Line 1 of paragraph 5: They further stated that thyroid treatment should be started for people with both subclinical hypothyroidism and prediabetes to prevent the chances of getting type 2 diabetes.
  • From the above stated lines, it can be inferred that the passage discusses the effects of thyroid dysfunction and further mentions that one should start the treatment to prevent chances of getting other associated diseases.
  • Thus, it can be concluded that the given passage states that thyroid dysfunction should be taken seriously.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

79

निम्नलिखित में से निश्चयवाचक सर्वनाम है :

  1. ((a))

    यह

  2. ((b))

    कौन

  3. ((c))

    क्या

  4. ((d))

    कुछ

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

यह

सही उत्तर है - 'यह'

  • "यह एक अच्छा छात्र है" वाक्य में निश्चयवाचक सर्वनाम है - यह
  • यहाँ 'यह' शब्द एक निश्चित छात्र की और संकेत कर रहा है।
  • इसलिए यह एक निश्चयवाचक सर्वनाम है।

Key Points 

  • जो सर्वनाम निकट या दूर की किसी वस्तु की ओर संकेत करे, उसे निश्चयवाचक सर्वनाम कहते हैं।

जैसे-

  • यह लड़की है।
  • वह पुस्तक है।
  • इन वाक्यों में यह, वह शब्द निश्चयवाचक सर्वनाम हैं।

Additional Information 

  • सर्वनाम उन शब्दों को कहा जाता है, जिन शब्दों का प्रयोग संज्ञा अर्थात किसी व्यक्ति, वस्तु, स्थान आदि,के नाम के स्थान पर करते हैं।
  • इसके अंतर्गत मैं, तुम, तुम्हारा, आप, आपका, इस, उस, यह, वह, हम, हमारा ,आदि शब्द आते हैं।
  • पुरूषवाचक - मैं, तू, वह, हम, मैंने
  • निजवाचक - आप
  • निश्चयवाचक - यह, वह
  • अनिश्चयवाचक - कोई, कुछ
  • संबंधवाचक - जो, सो
  • प्रश्नवाचक - कौन, क्या
80

'अन्वेषण' शब्द का सही संधि-विच्छेद है-

  1. ((a))

    अनु + एषण

  2. ((b))

    अनू + एषण

  3. ((c))

    अन + एषण

  4. ((d))

    अन + ऐषण

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

अनु + एषण

'अन्वेषण' शब्द का सही संधि-विच्छेद है- 'अनु + एषण'

  • ये यण स्वर संधि का उदाहरण है
  • अनु + एषण = अन्वेषण (उ + ए = व् + ए), यहाँ 'उ' और 'ए​' के मेल से 'व् + ए' बना है।

यण स्वर संधि - 

  • जब संधि करते समय इ, ई के साथ कोई अन्य स्वर हो तो ' य ' बन जाता है, जब उ, ऊ के साथ कोई अन्य स्वर हो तो ' व् ' बन जाता है , जब ऋ के साथ कोई अन्य स्वर हो तो ' र ' बन जाता है।
  • 'अन्वेषण' अर्थ- खोजबीन करना

Key Pointsसंधि-विच्छेद- संधि के नियम के द्वारा मिले हुए वर्णों को फिर उसी अवस्था में ले जाने को संधि-विच्छेद कहते है।

  • जैसे- नवागत= नव+आगत।
  • वधूपकार= वधू+उपकार।

अन्य उदाहरण;- 

  1. उत्तमांग= उत्तम + अंग।
  2. जानकीश जानकी + ईश।
  3. महीश = मही + ईश।
  4. पृथ्वीश = पृथ्वी + ईश।
  5. मंजूषा = मंजु + ऊषा।
  6. सिन्धूर्मि = सिन्धु + ऊर्मि।
  7. समुद्रोर्मि = समुद्र+ऊर्मि।
  8. दीर्घोपल = दीर्घ+ऊपल।

Additional Information'संधि'- 'दो वर्णों के मेल से जो विकार उत्पन्न होता है, उसे संधि कहते है।

  • जैसे- अन्न + अभाव = अन्नाभाव।
  • वधू + उत्सव = वधूत्सव।

संधि के भेद- वर्ण के आधार पर संधि के 3 भेद होते है।

स्वर संधि- दो स्वर के मेल से जो विकार उत्पन्न होता है, स्वर संधि कहलाता है।

  • उदाहरण- महा + आत्मा = महात्मा।

व्यंजन संधि- व्यंजन के बाद स्वर या व्यंजन आने से जो विकार उत्पन्न होता है, व्यंजन संधि कहलाता है।

  • उदाहरण- वाक्+ईश= वागीश।

विसर्ग संधि- विसर्ग के बाद स्वर या व्यंजन आने से विसर्ग में विकार उत्पन्न होता है, उसे विसर्ग संधि कहते।

  • उदाहरण- निः+आहार= निराहार। निः+फल= निष्फल। तपः+भूमि= तपोभूमि।

Mistake Points

  • 'अन्वेषण' शब्द का सही संधि-विच्छेद है- 'अनु + एषण' (उ + ए = वे) । क्योंकि, 'अन्वेषण' शब्द में उ + अ = 'व' नियम के अनुसार संधि-विच्छेद हुई है। अन्य संधि विच्छेद, संधि के नियम के अनुसार उचित नहीं है।
81

'मितभाषी' शब्द किस वाक्यांश के लिए उपयुक्त है?

  1. ((a))

    जो मीठा बोलता हो।

  2. ((b))

    जो बिना विचारे बोलता हो।

  3. ((c))

    जो कम बोलता हो।

  4. ((d))

    जो धीरे-धीरे बोलता हो।

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

जो कम बोलता हो।

सही उत्तर 'जो कम बोलता हो।' है। 

Key Points 

  • 'जो कम बोलता हो।' के लिए 'मितभाषी' शब्द उचित है।
  • मितभाषी 'अल्पभाषी' का पर्यायवाची होगा।
  • जो मीठा बोलता हो। - मृदुभाषी।

Additional Information 

  • जो शब्द अनेक शब्दों के स्थान पर अकेले ही प्रयोग किये जाते हैं , वे वाक्यांश बोधक शब्द कहलाते हैं |
  • कम से कम शब्दोँ मेँ अधिकाधिक अर्थ को प्रकट करने के लिए 'वाक्यांश या शब्द–समूह के लिए एक शब्द' का विस्तृत ज्ञान होना आवश्यक है।

82

निम्नलिखित शब्दों में गुणवाचक विशेषण शब्द है :

  1. ((a))

    ताज़ा

  2. ((b))

    सब

  3. ((c))

    बहुत

  4. ((d))

    चार

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

ताज़ा

गुणवाचक विशेषण शब्द है - 'ताज़ा'

  • यहाँ पर ताज़ा शब्द किसी की दशा को बता रहा है। अत: यहाँ गुणवाचक विशेषण होगा। 
  • जैसे - नहा-धोकर मैं तरो-ताज़ा महसूस करता हूँ।
  • जो शब्द किसी संज्ञा या सर्वनाम का गुण, दोष, आकार-प्रकार रंग रूप गंध आदि बताते हैं, वे शब्द गुणवाचक विशेषण कहलाते है।
  • जैसे - सुंदर, बलवान, बुरा, लालची, दुष्ट, अनुचित,पीला, सफेद, नीला, लम्बा, पतला, अस्वस्थ, खट्टा, मीठा, चौकोर, सुडौल, दायाँ, बायाँ, नया, पुराना, ताजा, निचला, गर्म, कायर, वीर, डरपोक आदि।
  • बैंगलोर एक स्वच्छ नगर है।

Key Points

  • निश्चित संख्यावाचक - चार
  • अनिश्चित संख्यावाचक - सब, बहुत

Additional Information

संख्यावाचक विशेषण:- - ऐसे विशेषण शब्द जो किसी संज्ञा या सर्वनाम की संख्या का बोध कराते हैं, वे संख्यावाचक विशेषण कहलाते हैं। इसके दो भेद हैं - - निश्चित संख्यावाचक - दो, तीन, ढाई, पहला, दूसरा, इकहरा, दुहरा आदि। - अनिश्चित संख्यावाचक - कई, सब, कुछ, काफी, कम, ज्यादा, बहुत आदि। जैसे - - मैं रोज़ चार केले खाता हूँ।
83

बहुवचन है:

  1. ((a))

    प्राण

  2. ((b))

    पृथ्वी

  3. ((c))

    ईश्वर

  4. ((d))

    प्रजा

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

प्राण

सही उत्तर है - "प्राण" l

Key Points

  • प्राण बहुवचन शब्द है l
  • शब्द के जिस रूप से किसी व्यक्ति या वस्तु के एक से अधिक अथवा अनेक होने का बोध हो, उसे बहुवचन कहते है।
  • जैसे - लड़के, गायें, कपड़े, टोपियाँ, मालाएँ, माताएँ, पुस्तकें, वधुएँ l
  • 'प्राण' का वाक्य प्रयोग जिससे पता चलता है कि प्राण बहुवचन शब्द है :-
  • सैनिक सीमा पर लड़ते-लड़ते अपने प्राण गँवा देते हैं।
  • निर्धनता से पीड़ित बेचारे मोहन के प्राण निकल गए l
  • अन्य विकल्प:-
  • पृथ्वी, ईश्वर, प्रजा - एकवचन शब्द है l

Additional Information

  • शब्द के जिस रूप से एक ही वस्तु का बोध हो, उसे एकवचन कहते हैं।
  • जैसे - लड़का, गाय, सिपाही, बच्चा, कपड़ा, माता, माला, पुस्तक l
  • वाक्य प्रयोग जिनसे पता चलता है कि अन्य विकल्प एकवचन शब्द है :-
  • पृथ्वी सौरमंडल का एकलौता ऐसा ग्रह है जहां जीवन का अस्त्तिव है।
  • ईश्वर एक है, किंतु उसके रूप अनेक हैं।
  • प्रजा सब तरह से सुखी थी l
84

‘नवरत्न’ शब्द में निम्न में से कौन सा समास है?

  1. ((a))

    तत्पुरुष समास

  2. ((b))

    द्विगु समास

  3. ((c))

    कर्मधारय समास

  4. ((d))

    बहुव्रीहि समास

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

द्विगु समास

दिए गए विकल्पों के अनुसार नवरत्न शब्द में द्विगु समास है l अन्य विकल्प असंगत है l अतः विकल्प 2 ‘द्विगु समास’ सही उत्तर होगा।

Key Points

नवरत्न शब्द में द्विगु समास है l क्योंकि जिस समस्त पद का पहला पद (पूर्वपद संख्यावाचक विशेषण) हो वह द्विगु समास कहलाता है।

समास का नामपरिभाषाउदाहरण
द्विगु समासजिस समस्त पद का पहला पद (पूर्वपद) संख्यावाचक विशेषण हो वह द्विगु समास कहलाता है। द्विगु समास दो प्रकार के होते हैं – 1) समाहार द्विगु तथा 2) उपपद प्रधान द्विगु समास।नवरात्रि – नवरात्रियों का समूह सप्तऋषि – सात ऋषियों का समूह

अन्य विकल्प:

समास का नामपरिभाषाउदाहरण
तत्पुरुष समासजिस समास में उत्तरपद प्रधान हो तथा समास करने के उपरांत विभक्ति (कारक चिन्ह) का लोप हो।राम का अनुज= रामानुज, धर्म का ग्रन्थ = धर्मग्रन्थ, तुलसीदास द्वारा कृत = तुलसीदासकृत।
बहुब्रीहि समासजिस समास में दोनों पद प्रधान नहीं होते हैं और दोनों पद मिलकर किसी अन्य विशेष अर्थ की ओर संकेत कर रहे होते हैं।जो परिवार के साथ है= सपरिवार जो महान वीर है = महावीर अर्थात हनुमान, तीन आँखों वाला = त्रिलोचन अर्थात शिव।
कर्मधारय समासजिस समास के दोनों शब्दो��� के बीच विशेषण-विशेष्य अथवा उपमान-उपमेय का सम्बन्ध हो, पहचान: विग्रह करने पर दोनों पद के मध्य में 'है जो', 'के समान' आदि आते हैं।कमल के समान नयन = कमलनयन, महान है जो देव = महादेव।

Additional Information

समास - समास उस प्रक्रिया को कहते हैं, जिसमें दो शब्द मिलाकर उनके बीच के संबंधसूचक आदि का लोप करके नया शब्द बनाया जाता है। समास से तात्पर्य 'संक्षिप्तीकरण' से है। समास के माध्यम से कम शब्दों में अधिक अर्थ प्रकट किया जाता है। जैसे - राजा का पुत्र – राजपुत्र।
85

'कर्मभूमि' पुस्तक के लेखक कौन है?

  1. ((a))

    मुंशी प्रेमचंद

  2. ((b))

    हज़ारीप्रसाद द्विवेदी

  3. ((c))

    रामचन्द्र शुक्ल

  4. ((d))

    चतुरसेन शास्त्री

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

मुंशी प्रेमचंद

'कर्मभूमि' पुस्तक के लेखक मुंशी प्रेमचंद है।

अत: विकल्प 1 सही उत्तर है, अन्य सभी विकल्प असंगत है।

Key Points

  • मुंशी प्रेमचंद-
  • जन्म- 1880,  **मृत्यु -**1936 ।
  • मुंशी प्रेमचंद हिंदी और उर्दू साहित्य के प्रसिद्ध लेखक हैं।
  • वे मूलतः भारतीय समाज की विभिन्न सम���्याओं और पहलुओं पर लिखते थे।
  • 'कर्मभूमि' उनकी एक महत्वपूर्ण कृति है जिसमें समाजिक परिवर्तन और उसके अनेक दिशाओं पर चर्चा की गई है।
  • मुंशी प्रेमचंद की प्रमुख रचनाएं- कर्मभूमि, सेवासदन, रंगभूमि, गोदान, गबन आदि।
  • अन्य विकल्प-
रचनाकाररचनाएं
हज़ारीप्रसाद द्विवेदीअशोक के फूल, कल्‍पलता, विचार और वितर्क, विचार प्रवाह, कुटज, आलोक पर्व आदि।
रामचन्द्र शुक्लचिंतामणि, हिंदी शब्द सागर, नागरी प्रचारिणी पत्रिका आदि।
चतुरसेन शास्त्रीगोली, सोमनाथ, वयं रक्षामः और वैशाली की नगरवधू आदि।

निर्देश : निम्नलिखित अवतरण को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़िए और पूछे गए प्रश्नों के सही विकल्प चुनकर उत्तर पत्रक में चिह्नित कीजिए।

संस्कृति और सभ्यता की समानता और असमानता को इस प्रकार समझा जा सकता है कि मानवीय मेधा और प्राणशक्ति का विकास दो ही स्तरों पर घटित होता है। 1. भौतिक स्तर पर और 2. मानसिक स्तर पर। मानसिक स्तर पर यहाँ अभिप्राय मन, बुद्धि और आत्मा - इन तीनों की सम्मिलित सत्ता से है। सभ्यता मनुष्य के भौतिक स्तर का विकास है तो संस्कृति मनुष्य के मानसिक विकास का। जहाँ एक ओर सभ्यता का अर्थ मनुष्य के दैनिक जीवन की आवश्यकताओं तथा सुख-सुविधा की अतृप्त लालसा की पूर्ति के लिए निर्मित विराट तंत्र संस्थान (Techniques) से है तो दूसरी ओर सभ्यता का कार्य है एक ऐसी सामाजिक व्यवस्था को जन्म देना जो नीतियों और नियमों पर आधारित हो । प्रत्येक राष्ट्र की निजी संस्कृति होती है जो उसको एक सूत्र में पिरोये रखती है- रीति-रिवाज, साहित्य, शिक्षा, कला, रहन-सहन, जीवन- दर्शन एवं मान्यताओं सभी का समाहार संस्कृति के अंतर्गत हो जाता है। संस्कृति मानव के जीवन-वृक्ष का पुष्प है। उसकी सुगंध में राष्ट्र की अस्मिता अंतर्निहित होती है।

86

उपर्युक्त अवतरण का उपयुक्त शीर्षक है-

  1. ((a))

    संस्कृति और सभ्यता

  2. ((b))

    संस्कृति और साहित्य

  3. ((c))

    संस्कृति और आत्मा

  4. ((d))

    संस्कृति और कला

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

संस्कृति और सभ्यता

उपर्युक्त अवतरण का उपयुक्त शीर्षक है - संस्कृति और सभ्यता

Key Points

  • अवतरण के अनुसार-
  • संस्कृति और सभ्यता की समानता और असमानता को इस प्रकार समझा जा सकता है
  • कि मानवीय मेधा और प्राणशक्ति का विकास दो ही स्तरों पर घटित होता है।

Additional Informationअन्य विकल्प-

  • संस्कृति और साहित्य - अवतरण में संस्कृति को मानव के जीवन-वृक्ष का पुष्प कहा गया है
  • जबकि साहित्य का उल्लेख राष्ट्र की निजी संस्कृति के एक सूत्र के रुप में हुआ है।
  • संस्कृति और आत्मा - अवतरण में संस्कृति को मानव के जीवन-वृक्ष का पुष्प कहा गया है​
  • जबकि आत्मा का उल्लेख मानसिक स्तर के तीनों अभिप्रायों मन, बुद्धि और आत्मा के सम्मिलित सत्ता के रुप में हुआ है।
  • संस्कृति और कला- अवतरण में संस्कृति को मानव के जीवन-वृक्ष का पुष्प कहा गया है
  • जबकि कला का उल्लेख राष्ट्र की निजी संस्कृति के एक सूत्र के रुप में हुआ है।
87

आत्मा किस आधार पर खड़ी है ?

  1. ((a))

    चारों ओर का वातावरण

  2. ((b))

    भौतिक सुख

  3. ((c))

    बाह्य जीवन

  4. ((d))

    आंतरिक आधार

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

आंतरिक आधार

आत्मा आंतरिक आधार पर खड़ी है।

Key Points

  • अवतरण के अनुसार-
  • मानसिक स्तर पर यहाँ अभिप्राय मन, बुद्धि और आत्मा - इन तीनों की सम्मिलित सत्ता से है।​
  • अर्थात अवतरण में 'मानसिक स्तर' से अभिप्राय मस्तिष्क के अंदर (आंतरिक भाग) से है जिस पर मन, बुद्धि और आत्मा खड़ी है।

Additional Informationअन्य विकल्प -

  • चारों ओर का वातावरण : अवतरण में इस शब्द की चर्चा कही भी नही की गयी है।
  • भौतिक सुख : अवतरण में जहाँ एक ओर सभ्यता का अर्थ मनुष्य के दैनिक जीवन की आवश्यकताओं

                तथा सुख-सुविधा की अतृप्त लालसा की पूर्ति के लिए निर्मित विराट तंत्र संस्थान (Techniques) से है।

  • बाह्य जीवन : अवतरण में भौतिक स्तर को बाह्य जीवन और  मानसिक स्तर को आतंरिक जीवन के रुप में किया गया है।
88

सामाजिक नियम का आधार है -

  1. ((a))

    भावना

  2. ((b))

    बुद्धि

  3. ((c))

    लालसा

  4. ((d))

    नीति

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

नीति

सामाजिक नियम का आधार है - नीति

Key Points

  • अवतरण के अनुसार- जहाँ एक ओर सभ्यता का अर्थ मनुष्य के दैनिक जीवन की आवश्यकताओं
  • तथा सुख-सुविधा की अतृप्त लालसा की पूर्ति के लिए निर्मित विराट तंत्र संस्थान (Techniques) से है
  • तो दूसरी ओर सभ्यता का कार्य है एक ऐसी सामाजिक व्यवस्था को जन्म देना जो नीतियों और नियमों पर आधारित हो।

Additional Informationअन्य विकल्प-

  • बुद्धि - अवतरण में मानसिक स्तर के अभिप्राय मन, बुद्धि और आत्मा - इन तीनों में से एक सम्मिलित सत्ता से है।​
  • भावना - अवतरण में इस शब्द की चर्चा कही भी नही की गयी है।
  • लालसा - अवतरण में  दैनिक जीवन की आवश्यकताओं तथा सुख-सुविधा की

                      अतृप्त लालसा की पूर्ति के लिए निर्मित विराट तंत्र संस्थान (Techniques) से है।

89

The value of 5 + (12 - 3 × 4) - 6 ÷ 2 is :

  1. ((a))

    6

  2. ((b))

    -2

  3. ((c))

    2

  4. ((d))

    -6

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2

Given:

5 + (12 - 3 × 4) - 6 ÷ 2 = ? 

Concept used:

BODMAS rule:

Calculation:

Now, using BODMAS rule

5 + (12 - 3 × 4) - 6 ÷ 2

5 + (12 - 12) -  6 ÷ 2 

= 5 + 0 -  6 ÷ 2 

= 5 + 0 - 3

= 5 - 3

= 2

Hence, the correct answer is "option 3".

90

A train travelling at 72 km/h crosses a post in 12 seconds. What is the length of the train?

  1. ((a))

    240 m

  2. ((b))

    200 m

  3. ((c))

    180 m

  4. ((d))

    225 m

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

240 m

Given :

Speed (S) of the train = 72 km/h

Time (T) taken to cross post = 12 seconds

Formula used:

S = DT\frac{D}{T}

Concept used :

Convert the speed of the train from km/h to m/s.

S=72×10003600=72×518\Rightarrow S = 72 \times \frac {1000}{3600} = 72 \times \frac 5 {18}

⇒ 4 x 5 = 20 m/s​

Calculation :

According to the question,

⇒ 20 = D12\frac{D}{12}

⇒ D = 20 x 12

⇒ D = 240 m.

∴ The length of the train is 240 m.

Key Points

Assume the train is stationary and the post is moving at a speed of 72 km/h and the length of the train is the distance traveled by the post.

91

Sumit's salary was reduced by 40% and thereafter it was increased by 40%. Find the final loss% in his salary.

A. 16%

B. 45%

C. 44%

D. 66%

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    D

  3. ((c))

    B

  4. ((d))

    C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

Given:

salary reduced = 40%

salary increased = 40%

Calculation:

Let initial salary be 100%

After reduction = 100 - (40/100) ×100 = 60% 

Taking the reduced salary for increament

After increment = 60 + (40/100) × 60 = 84%

Loss % in salary = Initial salary - Final salary = 100 - 84 = 16%

∴ The final loss% in his salary is 16%

92

The curved surface area of a cylinder is 1848 cm2 and its base radius is 19.6 cm. The height of the cylinder is :

  1. ((a))

    13 cm

  2. ((b))

    15 cm

  3. ((c))

    14 cm

  4. ((d))

    17 cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

15 cm

Shortcut Trick

Direct formula for Curved Surface Area (CSA) of a cylinder: 2πrh

Given: CSA = 1848, r = 19.6

1848 = 2 × (22/7) × 19.6 × h

1848 = 44 × 2.8 × h ⇒ h = 1848 / 123.2 = 15

∴ The correct answer is 15 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Curved Surface Area (CSA) = 1848 cm2

Base Radius (r) = 19.6 cm

Formula Used:

Curved Surface Area of a cylinder = 2 × π × r × h

Calculations:

⇒ 1848 = 2 × (22/7) × 19.6 × h

⇒ 1848 = 44 × (19.6 ÷ 7) × h

⇒ 1848 = 44 × 2.8 × h

⇒ 1848 = 123.2 × h

⇒ h = 1848 ÷ 123.2

⇒ h = 15 cm

∴ The correct answer is 15 cm.

Additional Information

Total Surface Area (TSA) of Cylinder

The sum of the area of the curved surface and the two circular bases: TSA = 2πr(h + r).

Volume of Cylinder

The capacity of the cylinder calculated as: Volume = πr2h.

Hollow Cylinder

Volume of a hollow cylinder with outer radius R and inner radius r is V = πh(R2 − r2).

93

What is the product of LCM and HCF of 18 and 42?

  1. ((a))

    736

  2. ((b))

    746

  3. ((c))

    756

  4. ((d))

    766

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

756

Given: 

Numbers = 18 and 42

Concept used:

LCM × HCF = The Product of two numbers

Calculation:

The product of LCM and HCF of 18 and 42 = 18 × 42 = 756 

∴ The product of LCM and HCF of 18 and 42 is 756.

94

A trader gives two successive discounts of 18% and 20%. If the marked price is ₹11,000, then the selling price is:

  1. ((a))

    ₹6,926

  2. ((b))

    ₹6,716

  3. ((c))

    ₹7,926

  4. ((d))

    ₹7,216

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

₹7,216

Given Data:

First Discount = 18%

Second Discount = 20%

Marked Price = ₹11,000

Concept: We can calculate the effective discount on the product using the formula of successive discount, which can't be simply added.

Calculation:

⇒ After first discount, Price = 82% of 11,000 = ₹9,020

⇒ After second discount, Price = 80% of ₹9,020 = ₹7,216

Therefore, the selling price is ₹7,216.

95

What is the simple interest of the sum of 1200 at 6% per annum for 5 years?

  1. ((a))

    360

  2. ((b))

    460

  3. ((c))

    560

  4. ((d))

    660

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

360

Given:

The sum = 1200

The rate of the interest = 6%

The time = 5 years

Formula used:

SI = (PRT)/100     Where, SI = The simple interest, P = The principle, R = The rate, and T = The time

Calculation:

Let us assume the simple interest be X

⇒ X = (1200 × 6 × 5)/100 = 12 × 6 × 5 = 360

∴ The required result will be 360.

96

If Rs. 87 was divided between James and Radha in the ratio 1 : 2, how much money did Radha get?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 29

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 57

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 59

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 58

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Rs. 58

Shortcut Trick

Total units in the ratio = 1 + 2 = 3 units.

Total money assigned to 3 units = ₹87.

Value of 1 unit = 87 ÷ 3 = ₹29.

Radha's share (2 units) = 2 × 29 = ₹58.

∴ The correct answer is ₹58.

Alternate Method

Given: Total amount = ₹87, Ratio of James to Radha = 1 : 2.

Formula: Share of a person = (Person's ratio share ÷ Sum of ratio parts) × Total Amount.

⇒ Sum of ratio parts = 1 + 2 = 3

Radha's share = (2 ÷ 3) × 87

Radha's share = 2 × (87 ÷ 3)

Radha's share = 2 × 29

Radha's share = ₹58

∴ The correct answer is ₹58.

Additional Information

Concept of Ratio Division

When a quantity X is divided in the ratio a : b, the first part is [a / (a + b)] × X and the second part is [b / (a + b)] × X.

Proportion

An equation that states that two ratios are equal is called a proportion. If a : b = c : d, then a × d = b × c.

Unitary Method Application

In ratio problems, the unitary method is used to find the value of one 'part' or 'unit' before calculating the specific required share.

97

Find the sum of 6 + 8 + 10 + 12 + 14 + ............. + 40.

  1. ((a))

    424

  2. ((b))

    400

  3. ((c))

    1600

  4. ((d))

    414

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

414

Shortcut Trick

Identify the series as an Arithmetic Progression (AP) where the first term is 6 and the last term is 40.

Average of an AP = (First term + Last term) ÷ 2 = (6 + 40) ÷ 2 = 23.

Number of terms (n) = [(Last − First) ÷ Common Difference] + 1 = [(40 − 6) ÷ 2] + 1 = 18.

Sum of the series = Average × n = 23 × 18 = 414.

∴ The correct answer is 414.

Alternate Method

Given series: 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, ............., 40

First term (a) = 6

Last term (l) = 40

Common difference (d) = 8 − 6 = 2

Formula for the nth term of an AP: l = a + (n − 1)d

⇒ 40 = 6 + (n − 1) × 2

⇒ 40 − 6 = (n − 1) × 2

⇒ 34 = (n − 1) × 2

⇒ n − 1 = 17

⇒ n = 18

Formula for the Sum (Sn) of an AP: Sn = (n/2) × (a + l)

⇒ S18 = (18 ÷ 2) × (6 + 40)

⇒ S18 = 9 × 46

⇒ S18 = 414

∴ The correct answer is 414.

Additional Information

Arithmetic Progression (AP)

A sequence where the difference between consecutive terms is constant. nth term Tn = a + (n − 1)d.

Sum of First n Natural Numbers

The sum of the first n positive integers is calculated as [n × (n + 1)] ÷ 2.

Sum of First n Even Numbers

The sum of the first n even natural numbers starting from 2 is given by n × (n + 1).

General Sum Formula

For any AP, the sum is also Sn = (n/2) × [2a + (n − 1)d].

98

The average marks scored by a student in 4 subjects is 75. But when the marks of English are added to it, the overall average became 70. How much did he score in English?

  1. ((a))

    50

  2. ((b))

    60

  3. ((c))

    55

  4. ((d))

    65

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

50

Given: 

Average marks=75

Formula used:

Average = sum of observationtotal number of observation\frac{sum\ of\ observation}{total\ number\ of\ observation}

Calculation:

Total marks scored by a student in 4 subjects = Average × 4

Total marks of 4 subjects = 75 × 4 = 300

Let the marks in English be 'x'

New Average = 70

⇒ 300+x5\frac{300+x}{5} = New Average

⇒ 300+x5\frac{300 + x}{5} = 70

⇒ x = 50

∴ The mark scored by students in English is 50.

99

During Quit India Movement, who among the following escaped from the Hazaribagh Jail?

  1. ((a))

    Sachchidananda Sinha

  2. ((b))

    Jayaprakash Narayan

  3. ((c))

    Jagjivan Ram

  4. ((d))

    Rafi Ahmed Kidwai

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Jayaprakash Narayan

The correct answer is Jayaprakash Narayan.

Key Points

  • During the Quit India Movement of August 1942, Jayaprakash Narayan along with Ram Manohar Lohia and Aruna Asaf Ali, took charge of the ongoing stir when all the senior leaders had been arrested.
  • However, he also could not remain outside the jail for a long time and was soon arrested under Defence of India Rules, a preventive detention law that did not require a trial.
  • He was put in Hazari Bagh Central Jail.
  • Jayaprakash Narayan along with his accomplices started making plans to escape from the Jail. Their chance came soon on a Diwali day in November 1942 when a large number of guards were on leave because of the festival. It was a daring escape which made Jayaprakash Narayan into a folk hero.
  • Jayaprakash Narayan organised an “Azaad Dasta” (freedom brigade) in Nepal.
  • He is the main leader of the Total Revolution Movement against Indira Gandhi.
  • On June 5, 1974, Jayaprakash Narayan gave the slogan of Sampurn Kranti (total revolution) against Indira Gandhi.
  • Jayaprakash Narayan was Posthumously awarded Bharat Ratna in 1999.
100

The 'split system' in the Indian administration relates to

  1. ((a))

    Audit/Accounts

  2. ((b))

    Union/States

  3. ((c))

    Policy/Implementation

  4. ((d))

    All India Services/Central Services

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Policy/Implementation

The correct answer is Policy/Implementation. 

Key Points

  • The Secretariat's operation in our country has mostly been guided by two ideas.
  • First, the notion of policy separation from implementation—the administration in action—so that the latter can be delegated to a distinct agency with some execution flexibility.
  • Second, the viability of the administrative system as a whole requires a transitory cadre of officers selected from States Cadres, operating on a tenure system of staff supervising a permanent staff.
  • The policy-making functions are the ones who are most likely to suffer.
  • Routine business is always more pressing and necessitates fewer intellectual resources than policymaking.
  • Because the human mind prefers the least amount of opposition.
  • It is only possible to ensure for careful and successful planning by creating a separate policy department general staff, free of the administration as a whole.
  • This system is known as split system.

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