Official Paper

Bihar Police Constable Memory Based Paper (Held On: 18 Aug 2024) (Previous Year Paper)

100 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

Test (100 questions)

1

The People's Republic of China was founded in 1949, following the ________ revolution under the leadership of Mao.

  1. ((a))

    Socialist

  2. ((b))

    Democratic

  3. ((c))

    Fascist

  4. ((d))

    Communist

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Communist

  • The People's Republic of China came into existence on 1st October 1949 after the Communist Revolution in the country.
  • This was led by Mao Zedong.
  • The revolution started in 1946 after the Second Sino-Japanese War.
2

Which of the following is related to the concurrent list of the seventh schedule of the Indian constitution?

  1. ((a))

    Taxes on agricultural income

  2. ((b))

    Tolls

  3. ((c))

    Factories

  4. ((d))

    Taxes on income other than agricultural income

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Factories

The correct answer is Factories.

Key Points

  • The seventh schedule of the Indian constitution deals with the division of powers between the central government and the state governments through three lists: the Union List, the State List, and the Concurrent List.
  • The Concurrent List consists of subjects on which both the central government and state governments have the power to legislate, such as criminal law, marriage and divorce, bankruptcy and insolvency, factories, education, forests, and more. Hence option c is correct.
  • Both the central and state governments can make laws, regulate, and govern the subjects mentioned in the Concurrent List simultaneously, subject to certain limitations and guidelines.
  • In case of a conflict between central and state laws on Concurrent List subjects, the law made by the central government prevails, provided it receives the President's assent.
  • Any amendment to the Concurrent List requires the approval of the Parliament, and state legislatures can also make laws on these subjects unless they conflict with existing central laws.

Additional Information

  • Union List:
  • The Union List consists of around 100 items over which the central government has exclusive legislative authority, including defence, foreign affairs, atomic energy, banking, and telecommunications.
  • The central government has the power to make laws, regulate, and govern the subjects mentioned in the Union List uniformly across all states and union territories in India.
  • Items in the Union List ensure the central government's authority in critical areas such as national security, inter-state trade and commerce, currency, copyright, air and water pollution, and more.
  • Any amendment to the Union List requires the approval of the Parliament through a prescribed legislative process, ensuring that changes to these subjects are made at the national level.
  • State List:
  • The State List consists of subjects over which state governments have exclusive legislative authority, including public order, police, public health, local government, agriculture, state taxation, and more.
  • State governments exercise their legislative and executive powers to make laws, regulate, and govern the subjects mentioned in the State List within their respective states.
  • Subjects in the State List allow state governments to address regional and local concerns, implement policies specific to their states, and ensure effective governance at the state level.
  • Any amendment to the State List requires the approval of the state legislature concerned and does not require the consent of the Parliament, providing states with autonomy in making changes to these subjects.
3

The Human Development Index (HDI) is published by the ____________.

  1. ((a))

    World bank

  2. ((b))

    UNDP

  3. ((c))

    IMF

  4. ((d))

    NITI Aayog

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

UNDP

The correct answer is UNDP.

  • The Human Development Index (HDI) is an index that is published by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
  • It measures key dimensions of human development. The three key dimensions are - 
  • A long and healthy life
  • Access to education
  • A decent standard of living
DimensionIndicatorMinimumMaximum
HealthLife Expectancy (years)2085
EducationExpected years of schooling (years)018
Mean years of schooling (years)015
Standard of livingGross National Income Per Capita (2011 PPP $)10075,000

About UNDP

  • Headquarters - New York, United States
  • Administrator - Achim Steiner
  • Member Countries - 170 (Oct-2020)
4

PM Modi inaugurated 200th birth anniversary event of which famous personality?

  1. ((a))

    Dayanand Saraswati

  2. ((b))

    Swami Vivekanand

  3. ((c))

    Ramkrishna Paramhans

  4. ((d))

    Raja Rammohan Ray

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dayanand Saraswati

The correct answer is Dayanand Saraswati.

In News

  • PM Modi inaugurated Dayanand Saraswati's 200th birth anniversary event.

Key Points

  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the year-long celebrations commemorating the 200th birth anniversary of Maharishi Dayanand Saraswati on 12 February 2023.
  • Maharishi Dayanand Saraswati, born on February 12, 1824, was a social reformer who founded Arya Samaj in 1875 to counter the prevalent social inequities.
  • The book 'Satyarth Prakash' was written by Dayanand Saraswati in 1875.

Additional Information

  • Arya Samaj:
  • Believes in the infallibility of the Vedas and regards them as the ultimate source of all truth and knowledge.
  • It was believed that post-Vedic books such as Puranas were to blame for the contamination of the Vedic religion.
  • Opposes God's idolatry and reincarnation idea, but supports the notion of 'Karma' and soul transmigration.
  • Dayanand also rejected the doctrine of fate/destiny Niyati.
5

The Vernacular Press Act was enacted during the regime of which viceroy of India?

  1. ((a))

    Lord Dalhousie

  2. ((b))

    Lord Hasings

  3. ((c))

    Lord Ripon

  4. ((d))

    Lord Lytton

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Lord Lytton

The correct answer is Lord Lytton.

Key Points

Vernacular Press Act 1878:

  • ​British India passed the Vernacular Press Act (1878) to restrict press freedom and discourage criticism of British policy, notably the opposition that had risen since the commencement of the Second Anglo-Afghan War (1878–80).
  • The Act was submitted by Lytton, the Viceroy of India at the time, and on March 14, 1878, the Viceroy's Council unanimously approved it. In order to "better control" the vernacular press and effectively penalize and prohibit "seditious literature" in "publications in oriental languages," the Vernacular Press Act (VPA) was passed.
  • As a result, the British had nothing but hatred for the (non-English speaking) Indian press.
  • It was also known as the Gagging Act.
  • It was an act for the better control of publication in oriental languages.
  • It was primarily targeted against Amrit Bazar Patrika.
  • The act was repealed by Lord Ripon.

Additional Information

  • Lord Dalhousie was the Governor-General of India from 1848 to 1856. He was known for his policies of annexation and modernization, including the Doctrine of Lapse and the construction of railways and telegraph lines.
  • Lord Hastings was the Governor-General of India from 1813 to 1823. He was known for his military campaigns, including the Anglo-Nepalese War and the First Anglo-Burmese War.
  • Lord Ripon was the Viceroy of India from 1880 to 1884. He was known for his liberal policies, including the repeal of the Vernacular Press Act and the introduction of local self-government.
6

Who among the following started the newspaper Shome Prakash?

  1. ((a))

    Dayanand Saraswati

  2. ((b))

    Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

  3. ((c))

    Raja Rammohan Roy

  4. ((d))

    Surendranath Banerjee

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

Shome Prakash or SomPrakash was a trend setting Bengali weekly newspaper published by Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

7

Swarnajayanthi Gram Swarozgar Yojana was launched in the year:

  1. ((a))

    2014

  2. ((b))

    2009

  3. ((c))

    2005

  4. ((d))

    1999

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

1999

The correct answer is option 4 i.e., 1999.

  • Swarnajayanthi Gram Swarozgar Yojana was launched in the year 1999.
  • It was launched by the Ministry of Rural Development, Government of India.
  • SGSY is a holistic Scheme covering all aspects of self-employment such as the organization of the poor into Self Help Groups, training, credit, technology, infrastructure, and marketing.
  • The scheme is funded by the financial institutions, Panchayat Raj Institutions, District Rural Development Agencies (DRDAs).
  • The scheme aims at establishing a large number of micro-enterprises in rural areas.
  • The objective of SGSY is to bring assisted family above the poverty line by providing them income-generating assets through a mix of bank credit and Government subsidy.

"Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana" was made by restructuring the existing schemes namely:

  • Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP).
  • Training of Rural Youth for Self Employment (TRYSEM).
  • Development of Women & Children in Rural Areas (DWCRA).
  • Supply of Improved Toolkits to Rural Artisans (SITRA).
  • Ganga Kalyan Yojana (GKY).
  • Million Wells Scheme (MWS).
8

How many Lok Sabha constituencies are there in India?

  1. ((a))

    553

  2. ((b))

    523

  3. ((c))

    543

  4. ((d))

    533

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

543

The correct answer is 543.

Key Points

  • The Lok Sabha, also known as the House of the People, is the lower house of India's bicameral Parliament.
  • Its members are chosen by direct election on the basis of adult suffrage to represent their respective constituencies, and they serve terms of five years or until the body is dissolved by the President on the recommendation of the council of ministers.
  • The Lok Sabha is composed of representatives of people chosen by direct election on the basis of Universal Adult Suffrage.
  • The Constitution of India allows for a maximum of 550 members in the House, with 530 members representing the States and 20 representing the Union Territories.
  • At present, the Lok Sabha has 543 seats filled by elected representatives. The term of the Lok Sabha, unless dissolved, is five years from the date appointed for its first meeting.
  • However, while a proclamation of emergency is in operation, this period may be extended by Parliament by law for a period not exceeding one year at a time and not extending in any case, beyond a period of six months after the proclamation has ceased to operate.
  • There are now 543 Lok Sabha constituencies in India, with the most constituencies being in Uttar Pradesh (80).

Additional Information

  • The President, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha together make up the Parliament of India.
  • The Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha are both essential parts of India's parliament. The Lok sabha has 543 members, whereas the Rajya sabha has 250 members .
  • The majority of state-related decisions are made based on votes cast by Rajya sabha members, but no decision may be made for the state without the consent of the Lok Sabha members.
  • Both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha are chosen by a simple majority of the members present and voting to serve as the House's presiding authorities. The Constitution merely stipulates that the Speaker must be a member of the House; no other requirements are set forth for election as Speaker.
9

The tomb of Sher Shah Suri is located in _____.

  1. ((a))

    Buxar

  2. ((b))

    Gaya

  3. ((c))

    Jehanabad

  4. ((d))

    Sasaram

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Sasaram

The correct answer is Sasaram.

Key Points

  • Sher Shah Suri was a Pathan from Bihar who founded the Suri empire after defeating the Mughal empire.
  • In his memory, a tomb designed by Mir Muhammad Aliwal Khan was built in Sasaram, Bihar and it is an example of Indo-Islamic Architecture.

Important Points 

  • Sher Shah Suri died in a gunpowder explosion in the fort of Kalinjar.
  • The tomb of Sher Shah Suri is also known as the Second Taj Mahal of India as it is built in between an artificial lake.

Mistake Points 

  • In Delhi, the construction of Purana Qila was begun during the time of Humayun which continued till the time of Sher Shah Suri.
  • The son of Suri, Salim Shah Suri built the Salimgarh fort in Delhi.
  • Grand Trunk Road connecting Central Asia and India was built by Sher Shah Suri.

Sher Shah Suri tomb in Sasaram, Bihar

10

Lothal, a prominent city of the ancient Indus Valley Civilisation, is situated in which of the following states?

  1. ((a))

    Gujarat

  2. ((b))

    Himachal Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Rajasthan

  4. ((d))

    Punjab

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gujarat

The correct answer is Gujarat.

Key Points

  • The Indus Civilization city Lothal is in the Gujarat state of India.
  • Lothal was one of the southernmost cities of the ancient Indus Valley Civilization.
  • Archaeologist S.R. Rao led teams who discovered a number of Harappan sites, including the port city of Lothal in 1954-63.
  • Lothal is located between the Sabarmati river and its tributary Bhogavo, in the Saurashtra region.
  • The people of Lothal made significant contributions to human civilization in the Indus era, in city planning, art, architecture, science, pottery, etc.
  • Features of Lothal:
  • Evidence of double burial.
  • Remains of Rice Husk.
  • Evidence of terracotta figurine of a horse.
  • Dockyard.
  • Terracotta model of a ship.

Additional Information

  • Other Important Indus Valley Civilisation sites:
StatesFeatures
Kalibangan
- Evidence of furrowed land. - Evidence of wooden furrow. - Evidence of seven fire altars. - Plowed field surface.
Surkotada
- Bones of the horse. - Oval grave. - Pot burials. - Bead making shops
Mohenjodaro- Great bath. - Great granary. - Assembly hall. - Steatite image of a bearded man. - Seal of Pashupati
Dholavira- A unique water management system. - Only site to be divided into 3 parts.
11

Tehri Dam is constructed on which river of Uttrakhand?

  1. ((a))

    Alaknanda

  2. ((b))

    Yamuna

  3. ((c))

    Bhagirathi

  4. ((d))

    Pabbar

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Bhagirathi

The correct answer is Bhagirathi.

Key Points

  • The Tehri Dam is the highest dam in India.
  • It has been constructed near Tehri, Uttrakhand.
  • Tehri Dam is a multi-purpose rock and earth-fill embankment dam.
  • Bhagirathi river is considered as the source stream of the Holy river Ganges.
  • The Tehri Dam is an embankment, earth and rock-fill, it retains a reservoir for the generation of 1,000 megawatts of hydroelectricity, irrigation and municipal water supply.
  • The height of the dam is 260.5 m, length 575 m, and width (crest) 20 m.
  • It is located near Tehri district in the Uttarakhand state of India. It started operations in 2006.
  • Gaumukh at Gangotri glacier in the Garhwal Himalaya is the headwaters of Bhagirathi River.
  • Maneri Dam, Joshiyara (Bhali) Dam, and Koteshwar Dam are some other important dams in the Bhagirathi River.
12

As we go North to South, mountain ranges are encountered in the following order.

  1. Satpura
  2. Dhaula Dhar
  3. Vindhya
  4. Shivalik
  1. ((a))

    1 2 3 4

  2. ((b))

    2 4 1 3 

  3. ((c))

    2 4 3 1

  4. ((d))

    4 2 1 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2 4 3 1

The Correct Answer is 2, 4, 3, 1.

Key PointsThe Dhaoula Dhar Range - Himachal Pradesh

  • The Dhauladhar range is part of a mountain chain of Himalayan.
  • It rises north of Kangra and Mandi, from the Indian plains.
  • Dharamsala, the district headquarters of Kangra, sits above the Kangra Valley on its southern slope, separating it from Chamba.

Shiwalik Range- Outer Himalayas.

  • Located in between the Great Plains and Lesser Himalayas.
  • The altitude varies from 600 to 1500 meters.
  • Runs for a distance of 2,400 km from the Potwar Plateau to the Brahmaputra valley.
  • The southern slopes are steep while the northern slopes are gentle.
  • The width of the Shiwaliks varies from 50 km in Himachal Pradesh to less than 15 km in Arunachal Pradesh.

Vindhya Range

  • It is the oldest mountain range of Madhya Pradesh.
  • Vindhya Range is the broken range of hills forming the southern escarpment of the central upland of India.
  • From Gujarat state on the west, it extends about 1,086 km across Madhya Pradesh state to adjoining on the Ganga River valley near Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh.
  • Kaimur hills are the easternmost hill of the Vindhya Range.
  • kakrabardi hills are the westernmost hill of the Vindhya Range.

The Satpura Range

  • In central India, Satpura hills are located in the states of Maharashtra, Gujarat, Chattisgarh, and Madhya Pradesh the hill expands.
  • In Vindhya Range in the north, the Satpura range runs parallel to it.
  • Vindhya Range divides North India from South India.
  • In Amarkantak hills in the Satpura ranges, the River Narmada rises.
  • From the eastern and central part of the Satpura, the Tapti River is originated.
  • The Chota Nagpur plateau is met by Satpura Ranges on the eastern side.
  • In the north, the Satpura hills are flanked by the Narmada River.

Mountain ranges and highest peak in India ~ Target UPSC and UP PCS

13

Which one of the following animals is NOT carved on the Pashupati seal discovered from Mohenjodaro?

  1. ((a))

    Elephant

  2. ((b))

    Rhino

  3. ((c))

    Tiger

  4. ((d))

    Bull/Ox

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Bull/Ox

The Bull/Ox is not carved on the Pashupati seal discovered from Mohenjodaro.

Key Points

  • Mohenjodaro is an archaeological site of Indus Valley Civilization located in the Larkana district of Sind on the banks of river Indus.
  • The Pashupati Seal is a steatite seal that was discovered at the Mohenjo-daro.
  • It shows a three-faced deity wearing a buffalo-horned head dress, seated cross-legged on a throne surrounded by an elephant, a tiger, a buffalo, a rhinoceros with two deer at his feet.
  • This seal shows that perhaps the people of the Indus Valley Civilisation believed in Lord Shiva.
  • The seal is also inscribed with the Indus Valley civilization script, which has still not been deciphered.
  • The exact functional purpose of the seal is still unknown, but according to some experts, such seals were used during the trade.

Hence, we can conclude that Bull/Ox is not carved on the Pashupati seal discovered from Mohenjodaro.

14

The French Revolution led to the end of which form of government in France?

  1. ((a))

    Oligarchy

  2. ((b))

    Monarchy

  3. ((c))

    Aristocracy

  4. ((d))

    Democracy

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Monarchy

The correct answer is Monarchy.

  • The French Revolution was a period of radical political and societal change in France that began with the Estates-General of 1789 and ended with the formation of the French Consulate in November 1799.
  • Many of its ideas are considered fundamental principles of liberal democracy.

Important Points

  1. A monarchy is a form of government in which a person, the monarch, is head of state for life or until abdication.
  2. The political legitimacy and authority of the monarch may vary from restricted and largely symbolic, to fully autocratic, and can expand across the domains of the executive, legislative, and judicial.
  3. France before 1789 was an absolute monarchy ruled by the Bourbons. This meant that the authority of the French Crown was not limited by any representative body, such as an elected parliament.
  4. The King was responsible only to God and answerable to no one on Earth. This system of government is also known as absolutism.

Hence, The French revolution led to the end of the Monarchy.

15

Through which district the Ganga river enters the state of Uttar Pradesh.

  1. ((a))

    Meerut

  2. ((b))

    Bulandshahr

  3. ((c))

    Mathura

  4. ((d))

    Bijnor

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Bijnor

Concept:

Drainage systems of India:

  • The Indian drainage system consists of a large number of small and big rivers.
  • The major two types of the Drainage system of India are :
  • The Himalayan Drainage System.
  • The Peninsular Drainage System.
  • The major rivers of the Himalayan river system are the Indus, the Ganga, and the Brahmaputra.

Explanation:

Ganga River System :

  • The Ganga is the most important river in India.
  • It rises in the Gangotri glacier near Gaumukh (3,900 m) in the Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand.
  • Here, it is known as the Bhagirathi.
  • It cuts through the central and the lesser Himalayas in narrow gorges.
  • At Devprayag, the Bhagirathi meets the Alaknanda, hereafter, it is known as the Ganga.
  • The Ganga enters the plains at Haridwar.
  • The river has a length of 2,525 km.
  • It is shared by Uttarakhand (110 km) and Uttar Pradesh (1,450 km), Bihar (445 km), and West Bengal (520 km).
  • The important left bank tributaries are the Ramganga, the Gomati, the Ghaghara, the Gandak, the Kosi and the Mahananda.
  • The river finally discharges itself into the Bay of Bengal near Sagar Island.
  • The Yamuna, the westernmost and the longest tributary of the Ganga.
  • The Ganga river enters the state of Uttar Pradesh in the district of Bijnor.

Thus, the Ganga river enters the Bijnor District of Uttar Pradesh.

16

Of the following Harappan Civilization sites, which one provides the evidence of a large open area with terraced stands, identified as ‘stadium’? 

  1. ((a))

    Kalibangan

  2. ((b))

    Chanhudaro

  3. ((c))

    Mohanjodaro

  4. ((d))

    Dholavira

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Dholavira

The correct answer is Dholavira.

Key Points

  • The evidence of a large open area with terraced stands, identified as ‘stadium’ was found at Dholavira.
  • The City of Dholavira is situated in Khadir island of the Rann of Kutch belonged to matured Harappan phase.
  • Today it is seen as a fortified quadrangular city set in a harsh arid land, was once a thriving metropolis for 1200 years (3000 BCE-1800 BCE), and had an access to the sea prior to a decrease in sea level.
  • Dholavira was founded in 1968-68 by architect J.P. Joshi.
  • It was the fifth largest site among the 8 major sites discovered during the Harappan Civilization.

Additional Information

  • The excavation revealed the urban planning and architecture and unearthed large numbers of old materials such as animal bones, gold, silver, terracotta ornaments, pottery, and bronze vessels.
  • Archaeologists believed that Dholavira was a vital center of trade between settlements in south Gujarat, Sindh, and Punjab, and Western Asia.
17

The "SUMAN" scheme launched by the Union Government aims to provide

  1. ((a))

    Healthcare to old age

  2. ((b))

    Healthcare to Pregnant women

  3. ((c))

    Education to women

  4. ((d))

    Skills to unemployed

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Healthcare to Pregnant women

The correct answer is Healthcare to Pregnant women.

Key Points

  • The Union Government has launched Surakshit Matritva Aashwasan (SUMAN) to provide quality healthcare at zero cost to pregnant women, new mothers and newborns.
  • It aims to provide quality health care at no cost to every woman and newborn visiting a public health facility.
  • Under the scheme, the beneficiaries visiting public health facilities are provided several free services.
  • These include at least four ante natal checkups that also includes one checkup during the 1st trimester, at least one checkup under Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan, Iron Folic Acid supplementation, Tetanus diptheria injection.
  • All pregnant women, newborns and mothers up to 6 months of delivery will be able to avail several free health care services.

Additional Information Janani Suraksha Yojane:

  • JSY aims at reduction in maternal and infant mortality rates and to increase the institutional deliveries of BPL and SC/ST families.
  • Under this scheme, besides ensuring maternity services like 4 antenatal check-upsand referrals, transport, cash assistance is provided for deliveries taking place both in health institutions and home.
  • In rural areas, cash assistance to the mother for institutional delivery is Rs 700 per case whereas, in urban areas cash assistance to the mother is Rs 600 for institutional delivery is given.
  • Cash assistance is for women delivering at home with an amount of Rs 500 being given per case.
  • If specialists are not available in Government-run health centres or hospitals, the institution can hire such specialists to manage complications or for caesarean section.

Mathru Poorna:

  • Under Mathru Poorna Scheme pregnant women and breastfeeding mothers get one hot cooked full meal at Anganwadi centres.
  • The scheme was launched in 2 October, 2017.
  • The poor and rural women get one nutritious meal daily for 25 days in a month.
  • The food will be provided for 15 months, from the start of pregnancy up to six months after delivery.
  • Iron Folic Acid (IFA) tablets will be administered and gestational weight will be monitored of pregnant women.
18

Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India states that 'The President, or the Governor or Rajpramukh of a State, shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office'?

  1. ((a))

    Article 361

  2. ((b))

    Article 396

  3. ((c))

    Article 352

  4. ((d))

    Article 384

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Article 361

The correct answer is Article 361.

Key Points

  • According to Article 361, the President, or the Governor or Rajpramukh of a State, shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office or for any act done or purporting to be done by him in the exercise and performance of those powers and duties.
  • Article 361, which comes under Part 19 of the Indian constitution.
  • No criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continued against the President, or the Governor of a State, in any court during his term of office.
  • No process for the arrest or imprisonment of the President, or the Governor of a State, shall issue from any court during his term of office.

Additional Information

  • Article 352 of the Indian Constitution gives the right to the Central government/ president to declare a national emergency if there is a threat to the security of India or any part thereof, any of the following three conditions are present: War. External aggression.
  • A Proclamation issued under clause (I) may be or revoked by a subsequent proclamation.
19

According to the Census 2011, the child sex ratio of Bihar is

  1. ((a))

    935

  2. ((b))

    938

  3. ((c))

    918

  4. ((d))

    925

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

935

The correct answer is 935.

Key Points

  • The sex ratio is the ratio of males and females in a population.
  • The ideal sex ratio is 1:1.
  • As per details from Census 2011, Bihar has a population of 10.4 crores.
  • The total population growth in the decade between 2001-2011 was 25.4%
  • The population of Bihar forms 8.6% of India's population.
  • The sex ratio of Bihar in 2011 is 918 females per 1000 males. Which was 919 in the 2001 census.
  • According to the Census 2011, the child sex ratio of Bihar is 935

Additional Information

  • Bihar is located in the eastern region of India.
  • It is an entirely land-locked state.
  • Bihar shares geographical boundaries with
  • West Bengal in the east.
  • Uttar Pradesh in the west.
  • Jharkhand in the South.
  • It also shares an international border in the north with Nepal.
20

How many ministers can be included in the council of Ministers of the Union?

  1. ((a))

    Ten to fifteen percent of the total number of members of the House of People

  2. ((b))

    Fifty percent of the total number of members of the House of People

  3. ((c))

    As many as wished by the Prime Minister of India

  4. ((d))

    Fifteen percent of the total number of members of the House of People

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Fifteen percent of the total number of members of the House of People

The correct answer is Fifteen percent of the total number of members of the House of People.

Key Points

  • 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003:
  • Made the following provisions to limit the size of Council of Ministers, to debar defectors from holding public offices, and to strengthen the anti-defection law:
  • The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the CentralCouncil of Ministers, shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the LokSabha. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
  • A member of either house of Parliament belonging to any political party who is disqualified on the ground of defection shall also be disqualified to be appointed as a minister.
  • The total number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a state shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly of that state. But, the number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, in a state shall not be less than 12.
  • Article 74 of the Constitution deals with the status of the council of ministers while Article 75 deals with the appointment, tenure, responsibility, qualification, oath, and salaries and allowances of the ministers.
  • The COM consists of three categories of ministers, namely, cabinet ministers, ministers of state, and deputy ministers. At the top of all these ministers stands the Prime Minister.

Additional Information

  • Articles spanning from 74 to 78 in Part V broadly deal with the Central Council of Minister.
ARTICLESDESCRIPTION
74Council of Ministers to aid and advise President
75Other provisions as to Ministers
77Conduct of business of the Government of India
78Duties of the Prime Minister as respects the furnishing of information to the President, etc.
88Rights of Ministers concerning the Houses.
21

Which is the first Ramsar Site in Bihar?

  1. ((a))

    Kaimur Range

  2. ((b))

    Kharagpur Lake

  3. ((c))

    Kanwar Lake

  4. ((d))

    Rajgir Hill

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Kanwar Lake

The correct answer is Kanwar Lake.

Key Points

  • Kanwar lake or Kabartal Lake is situated in the Begusarai district of Bihar.
  • It is Asia’s largest oxbow lake.
  • It is a residual oxbow lake, formed due to the curving of the Gandak river
  • It has been declared as a Ramsar site in November 2020 and become the first Ramsar site in Bihar.
  • Kanwar Lake Bird sanctuary is home to 60 migratory birds that come from Central Asia in winter and recorded around 106 species of resident birds.

Important Points 

  • The Ramsar Convention is an international treaty for the conservation and wise use of wetlands.
  • The treaty was signed on 2 Feb 1971 in the city of Ramsar in Iran on the Caspian Sea, hence got the name Ramsar Convention.
  • India has now 93 Ramsar sites.
22

Where is the Gulf of Mannar located?

  1. ((a))

    South of kanyakumari

  2. ((b))

    West of Kerala

  3. ((c))

    East of Tamil Nadu

  4. ((d))

    West of Gujarat

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

East of Tamil Nadu

Designated as a Biosphere Reserve, the Gulf of Mannar is one of the biologically richest coastal regions in all of the mainland of India.

  • It is the first Marine Biosphere Reserve in South and southeast Asia.
  • In India, the Gulf of Mannar region in Tamil Nadu is one of the four major coral reef areas and the others are the Gulf of Kutch in Gujarat, Lakshadweep, and Andaman and Nicobar islands.
  • The Gulf of Mannar, running down south from Rameswaram to Kanyakumari in Tamil Nadu, India is situated between Longitudes 78008 E to 79030 E and along Latitudes from 8035 N to 9025 N.

Thus, we can conclude that the Gulf of Mannar is located in the East of Tamil Nadu.

23

Who is known as the 'Napoleon of India'?

  1. ((a))

    Skandagupta

  2. ((b))

    Samudragupta

  3. ((c))

    Kumaragupta

  4. ((d))

    Chandragupta

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Samudragupta

The correct answer is Samudragupta.

Key Points

  • Samudragupta:
  • He ruled from 335 AD to 380 AD.
  • Samudragupta was the greatest king of the Gupta dynasty.
  • The most detailed and authentic record of Samudragupta's reign is preserved in the Prayaga Prasasti/Allahabad pillar inscription, composed by his court poet Harisena.
  • Samudragupta’s military campaigns justify the description of him as the Napoleon of India by V.A. Smith. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
  • He assumed titles such as Kaviraja Param Bhagavat Ashvamedhaparakrama Vikram Sarva-rajochchhetta only Gupta ruler had the title of Sarva-raj-ochchhetta.

Additional Information

  • Skandagupta repulsed the ferocious Hunas’ attacks twice.
  • The heroic deed entitled him the title Vikramaditya (Bhitari Stone Inscription).
  • He was the last important ruler of the Gupta dynasty.
  • Chandragupta II was the son of Samudra Gupta and grandson of Chandragupta I.
  • He assumed the title of Vikramaditya.
  • Chandragupta I:
  • He was the first Gupta ruler to assume the title of Maharajadhiraja.
24

Who among the following is a celebrated singer of Chhath Puja songs, who recently passed away? 

  1. ((a))

    Vishaka Hari 

  2. ((b))

    Anima Choudhury 

  3. ((c))

    Ila Arun 

  4. ((d))

    Sharda Sinha

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Sharda Sinha

The correct answer is Sharda Sinha.

Key Points

  • Sharda Sinha (1 October 1952) was an Indian Maithili-language folk-singer.
  • She also sings in Bhojpuri and Magahi languages.
  • She is known for her Maithili version of the Chhath Puja-themed song "Ho Dinanath".
  • Sinha was awarded Padma Bhushan, India's third-highest civilian award, on the eve of Republic Day, 2018.
  • In 2015, she received the Padma Shri award for her contribution to music.

Additional Information

  • Chief Minister of Bihar - Nitish Kumar
  • Governor of Bihar -  Arif Mohammed Khan
  • Folk Dance of Bihar - Jat-Jatin
  • State Bird of Bihar - House sparrow
25

According to Article 112 of the Constitution of India, the Union Budget of a year is called ________.

  1. ((a))

    Fiscal Budget

  2. ((b))

    Assessment Statement

  3. ((c))

    Annual Financial Statement

  4. ((d))

    Annual Budget Statement

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Annual Financial Statement

The correct answer is Annual Financial Statement.

Key Points

  • In terms of Article 112 (1) of the Constitution of India, a statement of estimated receipts and expenditures of the Government of India is presented to the Parliament every year.
  • Article 112(2) provides that the estimate of expenditure embodied in this annual financial Budget shall show separately.
  • The annual Financial Statement shows the receipts and payments of the Government under the three parts in which Government accounts are kept: (i) Consolidated Fund, (ii) Contingency Fund, and (iii) Public Account.
  • Annual reports typically include financial statements, such as balance sheets, income statements, and cash flow statements. In addition, there will often be graphs or charts included, helping break down the financials into easily readable information.

Additional Information

  • The level of government spending or the amount of money the government spends is called the Fiscal Budget.
  • Assessment Statement means the statement provided by the Validation/Verification Body in accordance with the VCS Program Rules in respect of the Methodology Element.
  • The annual Financial Statement distinguishes the expenditure on the revenue account from the expenditure on other accounts, as mandated in the Constitution.
26

Chief Justice of the Supreme Court is appointed by the:

  1. ((a))

    Speaker of the Lok Sabha

  2. ((b))

    Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

  3. ((c))

    Prime Minister

  4. ((d))

    ​President

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

​President

Option 4 is correct, i.e. ​President.

Under Article 124 of the Indian Constitution, the judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President under his hand and seal.

  • The chief justice is appointed by the president after consultation with such judges of the Supreme Court and high courts as he deems necessary.
  • The other judges are appointed by the President after consultation with the chief justice and such other judges of the Supreme Court and the high courts as he deems necessary.
  • The consultation with the Chief justice is obligatory in the case of appointment of a judge other than Chief justice.
  • A person to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court should have the following qualifications:
  • He should be a citizen of India.
  • He should have been a judge of a High Court (or high courts in succession) for five years; or
  • He should have been an advocate of a High Court (or High Courts in succession) for ten years; or
  • He should be a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the president.
27

Which of the following is known as the Sorrow of Bihar?

  1. ((a))

    Ghaghra

  2. ((b))

    Kosi

  3. ((c))

    Mahananda

  4. ((d))

    Kamla

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Kosi

The correct answer is Kosi.

  • Kosi is known as the ‘sorrow of Bihar’.
  • Kosi is also known as 'Saptakoshi' for its seven upper tributaries.
  • It enters the Territory of India near Hanuman Nagar in Nepal and joins the Ganga River near Kursela in the Kathihar district.
  • Ghaghra: It is also known as Saryu. It originates in Nepal.
  • Kamla: Kamla barrage has been constructed on this river.
  • Mahananda: The Mahananda River originates from the Paglajhora Falls located in the Mahaldiram Hills of the Darjeeling district, West Bengal, India. Mahananda joins Ganga at Nawabganj in Bangladesh.
28

Mircha' rice of Bihar's which district has been awarded the GI tag?

  1. ((a))

    Rohtas

  2. ((b))

    Bhagalpur

  3. ((c))

    East Champaran

  4. ((d))

    West Champaran

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

West Champaran

The correct answer is West Champaran

In News

  • ​Bihar's famous Marcha rice has been given a GI tag by the government.

Key Points

  • Bihar's famous Marcha rice (which looks like black pepper) has been given a GI tag by the government.
  • This rice is famous for its aromatic taste and for making fragrant Chuda.
  • According to the GI tag magazine of GI Registry Chennai, the application for GI tag was given by Marcha paddy producer progressive Samuhat village, Singasani, District- West Champaran (Bihar), which has been approved.

Additional InformationGeographical indication Tag 

  • A geographical indication or GI is a sign used on products that have a specific geographical origin and possess qualities or a reputation that are due to that origin.
  • Geographical Indications are part of the intellectual property rights that come under the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property.
  • In India, Geographical Indications registration is administered by the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act of 1999.
  • This tag is valid for a period of 10 years following which it can be renewed.
  • GI tags are covered under World Trade Organization.
29

Khilafat Committee was formed by Ali brothers in ________.

  1. ((a))

    Bombay in 1919

  2. ((b))

    Madras in 1920

  3. ((c))

    Kolkata in 1919

  4. ((d))

    Lucknow in 1919

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bombay in 1919

  • The Khilafat Committee, also known as the Indian Muslim movement (1919–24).
  • It was formed in Bombay in the Year 1919.
  • It was a pan-Islamist political protest campaign.
  • It was launched by Muslims of British India led by Shaukat Ali, Mohammad Ali Jauhar, Hakim Ajmal Khan, and Abul Kalam Azad.
  • It was also done to restore the caliph of the Ottoman Caliphate.
30

What is the population density of India as per the Census 2011 (in per square km)?

  1. ((a))

    382

  2. ((b))

    415

  3. ((c))

    402

  4. ((d))

    395

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

382

The correct answer is 382.

  • According to Census 2011, the population density of India is 382 (per square km).

Key Points

  • Population density is defined as the number of persons per square km.
  • It is 382 according to census 2011 whereas it was 325 in 2001 census.
  • The study of the population is called Demography.
  • Karl Marx is called the father of Demographic Studies.
  • The motto of the 2011 Census was "Our Census, Our future".
  • In India, the first Census was held in 1872 during the reign of Lord Mayo. but it was not a successful census.
  • After 9 years first successful census was held in 1881 during the reign of Lord Ripon. Since then at every ten years, Census is organized.

Additional Information

  • Most Densely Populated States: 2011
StateDensity (in per square km)
Bihar1106
West Bengal1030
Kerala859
  • Least Densely populated States: 2011
StateDensity (in per square km)
Arunachal Pradesh17
Mizoram52
Sikkim86
31

Which of the following is a variety of coffee beans, mainly produced in South India?

  1. ((a))

    Aizon

  2. ((b))

    Dubraj

  3. ((c))

    Kalabati

  4. ((d))

    Arabica

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Arabica

The correct answer is Arabica. 

Key Points

  1. The two main varieties of coffee viz., Arabica and Robusta are grown in India.
  2. Arabica is a mild coffee, but the beans being more aromatic, it has higher market value compared to Robusta beans.
  3. On the other hand, Robusta has more strength and is, therefore, used in making various blends.
  4. Arabica is grown in higher altitudes than Robusta.
  5. The cool and equable temperature, ranging between 15°C to 25°C, is suitable for Arabica while for Robusta, a hot and humid climate with temperatures ranging from 20°C to 30°C is suitable.

Important Points

  1. Indian coffee has created a niche for itself in the international market and the Indian Coffees are earning a high premium, particularly Indian Robusta which is highly preferred for its good blending quality.
  2. Arabica Coffee from India is also well received in the international market.
  3. Arabica is susceptible to pests & diseases such as White Stem Borer, leaf rust, etc., and requires more shade than Robusta.

Additional Information

  1. The harvest of Arabica takes place between November to January, while for Robusta it is December to February.
  2. In India, coffee is traditionally grown in the Western Ghats spread over Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu.
  3. Coffee cultivation is also being expanding rapidly in the nontraditional areas of Andhra Pradesh and Odisha as well as in the North-East states.
  4. Brazil is, quite simply, the largest coffee producer in the world.
  5. In 2016 it is thought that 2,595,000 metric tons of coffee beans were produced in Brazil alone.
32

The National Atmospheric Research Laboratory is located near

  1. ((a))

    Thiruvananthpuram

  2. ((b))

    Chandigarh

  3. ((c))

    Tirupati

  4. ((d))

    Bengaluru

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Tirupati

The correct answer is Tirupati.

  • The National Atmospheric Research Laboratory is located near Tirupati.
  • NARL is involved in technology development, observations, data archival, dissemination, assimilation, and modeling.
  • NARL is engaged in fundamental and applied research in the field of Atmospheric Sciences. The research institute was started in 1992 as National Mesosphere-Stratosphere Troposphere (MST) Radar Facility (NMRF).
  • The NMRF was then expanded into a research institute and renamed as National Atmospheric Research Laboratory on 22 September 2005.
  • National Atmospheric Research Laboratory's director is Dr. A.K. Patra.

Additional Information

City NameDetails
Thiruvananthpuram- Thiruvananthapuram is the capital of the Indian state of Kerala. - Thiruvananthapuram is a relatively modern region with trading traditions dating back to 1000 BCE. - The Corporation of Thiruvananthapuram or TMC oversees and manages the civic infrastructure of the city's 100 wards. - The Southern Air Command of the Indian Air Force is headquartered in the city.
Chandigarh- Chandigarh is a city, district, and union territory in India that serves as the joint capital of the two neighboring states of Punjab and Haryana. - Chandigarh, as a union territory, is not entitled to a state-level election: thus State Assembly elections are not held and it is directly controlled by the central government.
Tirupati- Tirupati is a city in Chittoor district of the Indian state of Andhra Pradesh. - The first temple at Tirumala Tirupati was built by King Thondaiman, Tamil ruler of the ancient Thondaimandalam. - In 1932, Tirupati Tirumala Venkateswara Temple was handed over to Tirumala Tirupati Devasthanams by the TTD Act of 1932.
Bengaluru- Bangalore, is the capital and the largest city of the Indian state of Karnataka. - The city's history dates back to around 890 CE, in a stone inscription found at the Nageshwara Temple in Begur, Bangalore. - The city was captured by the British East India Company after victory in the Fourth Anglo-Mysore War (1799). - Bangalore is widely regarded as the Silicon Valley of India.
33

The Bhakra Nangal Dam is built across the River

  1. ((a))

    Jhelum

  2. ((b))

    Chenab

  3. ((c))

    Ravi

  4. ((d))

    Sutlej

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Sutlej

The correct answer is Sutlej.

Bhakhra Nangal Dam:

  • It is a dam on the Sutlej River in Bilaspur, Himachal Pradesh.
  • It is 226 meters tall.
  • It is the largest dam in India.
  • It is a concrete gravity dam with an installed capacity of 1,325 MW.
  • It is a joint venture of three state governments - Rajasthan, Haryana, and Punjab.

Important Points

DamsRiverStateInteresting Fact
Bhakhra Nangal DamSutlejHimachal PradeshThe largest dam in India
Hirakund DamMahanadiOdishaThe longest dam in the world
Tehri DamBhagirathiUttarakhandThe highest dam in India
Chamera DamRaviHimachal Pradesh
Baglihar DamChenabJammu and Kashmir
Uri Hydroelectric DamJhelumJammu and Kashmir
34

Vishnupad Temple in Bihar was built by whom?

  1. ((a))

    Sawai Jai Singh

  2. ((b))

    Narasimhadeva I

  3. ((c))

    Rani Ahilyabai

  4. ((d))

    Siddharaja

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Rani Ahilyabai

The correct answer is ​Rani Ahilyabai.

Key Points

  • Vishnupad Temple was built by Rani Ahilyabai in 1787.
  • It is situated in Gaya, Bihar.
  • The temple is located on the bank of river Falgu River and has a footprint of Vishnu incised into a block of basalt.
  • People believe that in this place Lord Vishnu killed Gayasur by placing his foot on Gayasur’s chest.

Additional Information

MonumentBuilt byState
Jantar-MantarSawai Jai SinghDelhi
Sun TempleNarasimhadeva IOdisha
Dilwara Jain TempleSiddharajaRajasthan
35

The number of Lok Sabha seats in Bihar is

  1. ((a))

    40

  2. ((b))

    26

  3. ((c))

    28

  4. ((d))

    48

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

40

The correct answer is 40.

Key Points

  • 40 seats are allocated to Bihar in the Lok Sabha as per the state-wise list of the 17th Lok Sabha.
  • Speaker is the presiding officer in Lok Sabha. The present speaker is Om Birla.
  • To constitute the Lok Sabha, the whole country has been divided into 543 Parliamentary Constituencies, each one of which elects one member.
  • The members of the Lok Sabha are elected directly by the eligible voters.
  • Some seats are reserved in Lok Sabha for the members of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
  • As per the order issued by the Delimitation Commission in 2008, 412 are general, 84 seats are reserved for Scheduled Castes and 47 seats for the Scheduled Tribes.
  • Earlier it was 79 and 41 for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes respectively.

Additional Information

  • The additional information of the Bihar state are as follows:
Name of StateBihar (Feb 2022)
Number of
seats in Lok
Sabha
40
Number of
seats in
Legislative
Assembly
243
Number of
seats in
Legislative
Council
75
Capital of StatePatna
Area94,163 sq km
Population10.41 crore (2011
census)
Lowest Literacy
rate
61.8%
Highest Population
Density
1106
36

Himalayan peak Kanchenjunga is situated at

  1. ((a))

    Kashmir

  2. ((b))

    Nepal

  3. ((c))

    Sikkim

  4. ((d))

    Himachal Pradesh

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Sikkim

The correct answer is Sikkim.

Key Points

  • Kanchenjunga:
  • Kanchenjunga is the world’s third-highest mountain, with an elevation of 28,169 feet (8,586 meters).
  • It is situated in the eastern Himalayas on the border between Sikkim state, northeastern India, and eastern Nepal, 46 miles (74 km) north-northwest of Darjiling, Sikkim.
  • The mountain is part of the Great Himalaya Range.
  • The Kanchenjunga massif is in the form of a gigantic cross, the arms of which extend north, south, east, and west.
  • Kanchenjunga is composed of rocks of Neoproterozoic (late Precambrian) to Ordovician age (i.e., about 445 million to 1 billion years old).
  • The mountain and its glaciers receive heavy snow during the summer monsoon season and a lighter snowfall during the winter.
  • The individual summits connect to neighboring peaks by four main ridges, from which four glaciers flow, the Zemu (northeast), the Talung (southeast), the Yalung (southwest), and the Kanchenjunga (northwest).

All Peaks In India:

Additional Information

  • The first known map of Kanchenjunga was made by Rinzin Namgyal, one of the pandit (“learned”) explorers of the mid-19th century, who made a circuital sketch.
  • In 1848 and 1849 Sir Joseph Hooker, a botanist, was the first European to visit and describe the region.
  • In 1899 the explorer-mountaineer Douglas Freshfield traveled around the mountain.
  • In 1905 an Anglo-Swiss party attempted Freshfield’s suggested Yalung valley route, and four members perished in an avalanche.
  • Mountaineers later explored other faces of the massif.
  • A Bavarian expedition led by Paul Bauer in 1929 and 1931 vainly attempted to climb it from the Zemu side and in 1930 the German-Swiss climber Günter O.
  • Dyhrenfurth attempted it from the Kanchenjunga Glacier.
  • The greatest height reached during these explorations was 25,263 feet (7,700 meters) in 1931.
  • Fatal accidents on two of these expeditions gave the mountain a reputation for unusual danger and difficulty.
  • No one else attempted to climb it until 1954, when, partly because the Sikkimese objected, attention was again turned to the Yalung face, which is in Nepal.
37

World Environment Day is held on which day?

  1. ((a))

    22nd April

  2. ((b))

    8th May

  3. ((c))

    5th June

  4. ((d))

    11th June

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

5th June

The correct answer is 5th June.

  • World Environment Day is held on 5th June.

Key Points

  • The UN General Assembly designates 5 June as World Environment Day
  • It marks the first day of the Stockholm Conference on the Human Environment

Important Points

Important Days

DateImportant Day
2nd FebruaryWorld Wetland Day
28th FebruaryNational Science Day
3rd MarchWorld Wildlife Day
20th MarchWorld Sparrow Day
21st MarchWorld Forestry Day
22nd MarchWorld Water Day
23rd MarchWorld Meteorological Day
22nd AprilEarth Day
5th JuneWorld Environment Day
8th JuneWorld Oceans Day
17th JuneWorld Day to Combat Desertification & Drought
26th JulyInternational Mangrove Day
16th SeptemberWorld Ozone Day
38

When was the United Nations (U.N.O.) established?

  1. ((a))

    In 1942

  2. ((b))

    In 1943

  3. ((c))

    In 1944

  4. ((d))

    In 1945

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

In 1945

United Nations Organisation (UNO):

  • The United Nations is an international organization founded in 1945 after the Second World War by 51 countries.
  • The countries were committed to maintaining international peace and security, developing friendly relations among nations, and promoting social progress, better living standards, and human rights.
  • It was established with an aim of preventing future wars, succeeding the ineffective League of Nations.
  • On 25 April 1945, 50 governments met in San Francisco for a conference and started drafting the UN Charter, which was adopted on 25 June 1945 and took effect on 24 October 1945, when the UN began operations.
  • The UN is headquartered on international territory in New York City and has other main offices in Geneva, Nairobi, Vienna, and The Hague.

Hence, United Nations Organisation was established on 24 October 1945.

Additional Information

The main purpose of establishment:

  • To keep peace throughout the world;
  • To develop friendly relations among nations;
  • To help nations work together to improve the lives of poor people, to conquer hunger, disease, and illiteracy, and to encourage respect for each other’s rights and freedoms;
  • To be a center for harmonizing the actions of nations to achieve these goals
39

Which City is known as financial capital of India?

  1. ((a))

    New Delhi

  2. ((b))

    Surat 

  3. ((c))

    Bengaluru

  4. ((d))

    Mumbai 

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Mumbai 

The correct answer is Mumbai.

Key Points

  • Mumbai is the financial, commercial, and entertainment capital of India.
  • After the independence of India in 1947, the city was included in the Bombay State.
  • In 1960, after the Samyukta Maharashtra movement, a new state of Maharashtra was created with Bombay as the capital.
  • The name of the city was changed to Mumbai in 1996.

Additional Information

  • New Delhi is the capital of India and is a part of the National Capital Territory of Delhi.
  • New Delhi is the seat of all three branches of the Government of India, hosting the Rashtrapati Bhavan, Parliament House, and the Supreme Court of India.
  • Bengaluru (also called Bangalore) is the capital of India's southern Karnataka state.
  • Surat City is located on the Gujarat State.
  • Surat City is also called the Diamond City of India.
  • Surat City lies on the Banks of the River Tapi.
40

Which article in Indian Constitution deals with Abolition of Untouchability?

  1. ((a))

    Article 14

  2. ((b))

    Article 15

  3. ((c))

    Article 17

  4. ((d))

    Article 18

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Article 17

The correct answer is Article 17.

  • Article 17:
  • Article 17 abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form.
  • Indian Parliament passed an Untouchability (offenses) Act in 1955.
  • Article 17 was adopted by the constituent assembly with slogans of “Mahatma Gandhi ki Jai”
  • The term ‘untouchability’ is not defined in the Constitution or in the Act.

  • In Indian Constitution, the "Right to Equality" is from articles 14 to 18.
  • These articles are following:-
  • Article 14 - Equality before the law
  • Article 15 - Prohibition of discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth
  • Article 16 - Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
  • Article 17 - Abolition of the untouchability
  • Article 18 - Abolition of titles

 

 

ArticleDeals with
Article 14Equality before Law.
Article 19Freedom of Speech & Expression.
Article 21Right to Life and Personal Liberty.
Article 21aRight to Education.
Article 35aJammu & Kashmir legislature to define "permanent residents" of the state.
Article 44Uniform Civil code.
Article 51aFundamental Duties.
Article 112Annual Financial Statement (Budget)
Article 324Election Commission.
Article 343Official Languages.
Article 352National Emergency.
Article 368Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution.
Article 370Temporary provisions with respect to the state of Jammu and Kashmir(Revoked).
41

How many valence electrons are present in Sodium?

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    8

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1

  • The correct answer is Option1 i.e  1 valence electron.
  • Only 1 electron is present in the outermost (valence) shell of the Sodium atom.
  • Sodium belongs to Group 1 of the periodic table and is an alkali metal.
  • The atomic number of Sodium (Na) is 11 and its electronic configuration is 2, 8, 1.
  • 2 valence electrons are found in Group 2 elements.
  • 4 valence electrons are found in Group 14 elements.
  • 8 valence electrons are found in Group 18 elements (Noble gases).
42

Who discovered the vitamins in 1912?

  1. ((a))

    Casimir Funk

  2. ((b))

    McCollum

  3. ((c))

    John Watson

  4. ((d))

    Fredrick Miser

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Casimir Funk

The Correct Answer is Casimir Funk.

Explanation:

  • Vitamins are substances that our bodies need to develop and function normally.
  • They include vitamins A, C, D, E, and K, choline, and the B vitamins (thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, pantothenic acid, biotin, vitamin B6, vitamin B12, and folate/folic acid).
  • Humans take them through different sources such as food, vitamin capsules, etc.
  • Casimir Funk discovered the vitamins in 1912.
  • There are two types of Vitamins
  • Fat-soluble vitamins: These are dissolved in fat.
  • Water-soluble vitamins: These are dissolved in water.

Additional Information

  • Fat-soluble vitamins

NameScientific NameDeficiencies
Vitamin ARetinoids- Hyperkeratosis - Night blindness - Keratomalacia
Vitamin DCalciferol- Rickets - Osteomalacia
Vitamin ETocopherol- Heart problems - Hemolysis - Sterility
Vitamin KPhytomenadione- Haemorrhage - Non-clotting of Blood

 

  • Water-soluble vitamins
NameScientific NameDeficiencies
Vitamin CAscorbic acid- Swelling of Gums - Scurvy
Vitamin B1Thiamine- Beriberi
Vitamin B2Riboflavin- Ariboflavinosis
Vitamin B3Niacin- Pellagra
Vitamin B5Pantothenic acid- Paresthesia
Vitamin B6Pyridoxine- Anemia
Vitamin B7Biotin- Dermatitis - Enteritis
Vitamin B9Folic acid- Megaloblastic anemia
Vitamin B12Cobalamin- Megaloblastic anemia
43

The yellow color of egg yolk is due to the presence of

  1. ((a))

    Livetin

  2. ((b))

    Plhosphate

  3. ((c))

    Sodium

  4. ((d))

    Xanthophylls

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Xanthophylls

The correct answer is Xanthophylls.

  • The yellow color of egg yolk is due to the presence of Xanthophylls.
  • Hens raised on a vegetarian diet lay eggs with light coloured yolks.
  • Such hens are fed foods like corn, alfalfa, and beans, all of which are rich in a pigment called xanthophylls.
  • It is responsible for giving plants and animals the colour yellow.
  • Hence influencing the colour of the yolk.

Additional Information

  • Eggs are rich sources of selenium, vitamin D, B6, B12 and minerals such as zinc, iron and copper.
  • Eggshell is made almost entirely of calcium carbonate (CaCO3) crystals.
44

Sound and light waves both

  1. ((a))

    have similar wavelength

  2. ((b))

    obey the laws of reflection

  3. ((c))

    travel as longitudinal waves

  4. ((d))

    travel through vacuum

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

obey the laws of reflection

CONCEPT:

Sound: 

  • A sound is a form of energy that produces a sensation of hearing in our ears.
  • It is a kind of disturbance that travels through a medium due to repeated vibrations of the particles of the medium about their mean positions.
  • The disturbance being handed over from one particle to the next.

Light:

  • Light is a form of electromagnetic radiation that can be detected by the human eye.
  • When light falls on an object, some part of the light is reflected in our eyes and we are able to see.

EXPLANATION:

  • As we know that, the sound wave and lightwave travels with different velocity and have a different frequency, therefore the wavelength (λ = v/f) is different for both. Hence option 1 is incorrect.
  • Both sound and light waves follow the law of reflection i.e. the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection. Therefore option 2 is correct.
  • Sound waves are longitudinal waves and light waves are transverse waves. Therefore option 3 is incorrect.
  • As we know sound waves are longitudinal waves and travel through compression and rarefactions in the medium on the other hand light waves are transverse in nature and do not require medium to travel. Therefore option 4 is incorrect.
45

Which acid is present in the human stomach?

  1. ((a))

    Lactic acid

  2. ((b))

    Tartaric acid 

  3. ((c))

    Hydrochloric acid

  4. ((d))

    Uric Acid

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Hydrochloric acid

  • Also known as gastric acid, hydrochloric acid (HCl) is secreted by the chief cells of the stomach to maintain the stomach at a pH of 1-2(acidic).
  • It helps in the process of digestion as the low pH enables the degradation of proteins and enzymes.
  • Also, the acid acts as a barrier against microorganisms and therefore prevents infections.
46

Which one the following is the characteristic feature of gymnosperms?

  1. ((a))

    Cedar

  2. ((b))

    Inconspicuous unisexual flowers

  3. ((c))

    Simple plant

  4. ((d))

    Flowering showy plant

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cedar

The correct answer is Cedar.

Key Points

  • Gymnosperms are reffered as 'naked seeds'.
  • These are a diverse group of seed plants and are paraphyletic.
  • Paraphyletic groups are those in which not all members are descendants of a single common ancestor.
  • They are seed plants that have evolved cones to carry their reproductive structures.
  • Gymnosperm seeds are not enclosed in an ovary; rather, they are exposed on cones or modified leaves.
  • Conifers like the spruce, cedar and pine tree are gymnosperms and have seeds on cones.
  • Their characteristics include naked seeds, separate female and male gametes, pollination by wind, and tracheids (which transport water and solutes in the vascular system).
  • Gymnosperms have a vascular system (used for the transportation of water and nutrients) that includes roots, xylem, and phloem.
  • Gymnosperms produce both male and female cones, each making the gametes needed for fertilization
  • Ovules and seeds of gymnosperms develop on the scales of cones rather than in enclosed chambers called ovaries.
47

Which of the following is in monera group?

  1. ((a))

    Mushrooms

  2. ((b))

    Yeast

  3. ((c))

    Bacteria

  4. ((d))

    Moss

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Bacteria

The correct answer is Bacteria.

Key Points

  • The taxon Monera was first proposed as a phylum by Ernst Haeckel in 1866.
  • The biological and scientifically correct name for bacteria is Monera.
  • Monera is a kingdom that contains unicellular organisms with a prokaryotic cell organization, such as bacteria.
  • They are single-celled organisms with no true nuclear membrane.

Additional Information

MushroomsFungi
YeastFungi
MossPlantae
48

Pressure below atmospheric pressure is called as:

  1. ((a))

    water pressure

  2. ((b))

    absolute pressure

  3. ((c))

    gauge pressure

  4. ((d))

    vacuum pressure

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

vacuum pressure

Concept:

Fluid pressures

It can be measured with reference to any arbitrary datum.

The common datum is

  1. Absolute zero pressure
  2. Local atmospheric pressure

When absolute zero is used as a datum, the pressure difference is called absolute pressure.

When the pressure is above atmospheric pressure, it is called the gauge pressure.

When the pressure is below atmospheric pressure, it is called the vacuum pressure.

The relationship between the above pressures is given as,

Absolute pressure = Atmospheric pressure + Gauge pressure

Pabs = Patm + Pgauge

Vacuum pressure  = Atmospheric pressure – Absolute pressure

Pvacuum = Patm - Pabs

49

What are the products formed during photosynthesis?

  1. ((a))

    Glucose, Water and Oxygen

  2. ((b))

    Glucose and Oxygen

  3. ((c))

    Starch and Oxygen

  4. ((d))

    Starch, Water and Oxygen

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Glucose, Water and Oxygen

Explanation:

Photosynthesis is the process through which plants utilize sunlight to make food and it takes place inside the green part (chloroplasts) of the plant.

  • The correct equation to represent the overall process of photosynthesis is given as:

6CO2 + 12H2O Light\mathop \to \limits^{Light} C6 H12 O6 + 6H2O + 6O2

Where **CH12 O**represents glucoseH2O represents water.**O**represents Oxygen.

  • Photosynthesis takes place in the green leaves of plants, and it is the process through which green leafy plants synthesize their food.

Mistake PointsIn general, the equation wrote as -

6CO2 + 12H2O Light\mathop \to \limits^{Light} C6 H12 O6 + 6H2O

But the water produced is vaporized.

50

The blood platelets are also known as ______.

  1. ((a))

    thrombocytes

  2. ((b))

    leucocytes

  3. ((c))

    erythrocytes

  4. ((d))

    thrombin

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

thrombocytes

The Correct answer is Thrombocytes.

Key PointsBlood Platelets

  • Platelets also called thrombocytes, are cell fragments produced from megakaryocytes (special cells in the bone marrow).
  • Blood normally contains 200,000-300,000 platelets mm Cubic.
  • Platelets can release a variety of substances most of which are involved in the coagulation or clotting of blood.
  • A reduction in their number can lead to clotting disorders which will lead to excessive loss of blood from the body.
  • Blood is a special connective tissue consisting of a fluid matrix, plasma, and formed elements
  • Plasma is a straw-coloured, viscous fluid constituting nearly 55 per cent of the blood. 90-92 per cent of plasma is water and proteins contribute 6-8 per cent of it.
  • Fibrinogen, globulins and albumins are the major proteins
  • Erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets are collectively called formed elements and they constitute nearly 45 per cent of the blood

Additional Information 

  • Erythrocytes or red blood cells (RBC) are the most abundant of all the cells in the blood.  A healthy adult man has, on average, 5 million to 5.5 million RBCs mm–3 of blood.
  • Leucocytes are also known as white blood cells (WBC) as they are colourless due to the lack of haemoglobin. They are nucleated and are relatively lesser in number which averages 6000-8000 mm3 of blood.
51

The Xylem in plants is responsible for transporting - 

  1. ((a))

    Water

  2. ((b))

    Oxygen

  3. ((c))

    Amino Acid

  4. ((d))

    Food

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Water

The correct answer is Water.

Key Points

Xylem:

  • Water Transport: Xylem is responsible for the transport of water and dissolved minerals from the roots to other parts of the plant.
  • It forms a network of interconnected tubes that extend from the root system to the leaves.
  • Structure and Components: Xylem tissue is composed of several types of specialized cells.
  • The main conducting cells in xylem are called tracheary elements, which include tracheids and vessel elements. These cells have thick, lignified cell walls that provide structural support and prevent collapse under the tension created during water transport.
  • Unidirectional Flow: The movement of water through xylem occurs in a unidirectional manner, primarily driven by transpiration, which is the loss of water vapor through the stomata on the leaves.
  • This process creates a negative pressure or tension, pulling water upward from the roots to the upper parts of the plant.

Phloem:

  • Nutrient Transport: Phloem is responsible for the transport of organic nutrients, such as sugars, amino acids, and hormones, from the site of production (usually leaves) to other parts of the plant.
  • It allows the distribution of these nutrients to areas of growth, storage, or metabolic activity.
  • Structure and Components: Phloem tissue consists of several cell types, including sieve tube elements, companion cells, phloem fibers, and phloem parenchyma cells.
  • The main conducting cells are the sieve tube elements, which form sieve tubes. These cells lack nuclei and have perforated sieve plates that allow the movement of nutrients between adjacent cells.
  • Bidirectional Flow: The movement of nutrients through phloem can occur in both upward (from source to sink) and downward (from sink to source) directions.
  • This bidirectional flow is facilitated by pressure gradients and active transport mechanisms. Source tissues, such as mature leaves, produce sugars and load them into the phloem, while sink tissues, such as developing fruits or roots, consume the nutrients.
52

What happens when a chemical bond is formed?

  1. ((a))

    Energy is always released

  2. ((b))

    Energy is always absorbed

  3. ((c))

    Both 1 and 2

  4. ((d))

    Either 1 or 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Either 1 or 2

The correct option is Either 1 or 2.

  • Whether a reaction is endothermic or exothermic depends on the difference between the energy needed to break bonds and the energy released when new bonds form.
  • If more heat energy is released when making the bonds than was taken in when they broke, the reaction is exothermic.

Key Points

During a chemical reaction:

  • Bonds in the reactants are broken and
  • New bonds are made in the products

Important Points

  • Energy is absorbed to break bonds. Bond-breaking is an endothermic process.
  • Energy is released when new bonds form. Bond-making is an exothermic process.
  • It depends on the type of reaction that is forming the bonds.
  • If the reaction is exothermic energy is given out when new bonds are formed. If the reaction is endothermic energy is taken in when new bonds are formed.

The differences between types of reactions:

Type of reactionExplanation
EndothermicEnergy absorbed is more than the energy released
ExothermicEnergy released is more than the energy absorbed
53

Ultrasonic waves are used in sonar with greater advantage, because they:

  1. ((a))

    Can be easily produced

  2. ((b))

    Are electromagnetic waves

  3. ((c))

    Have short wavelength

  4. ((d))

    Have low frequency

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Have short wavelength

CONCEPT:

  • Ultrasonic waves are the sound waves with frequencies higher than the upper audible limit of human hearing.
  • They have a short wavelength.
  • SONAR: It a technique that uses sound propagation (usually underwater, as in submarine navigation) to navigate, communicate with or detect objects on or under the surface of the water
  • SONAR stands for ‘Sound Navigation and Ranging.’
  • SONAR is based on the principle of echo.
  • Sonar is often used as a measurement of acoustic location and echo characteristics of the target object in the water.

EXPLANATION:

  • The ultrasonic waves have short wavelengths and high frequencies.
  • Due to the short wavelengths, it will travel greater distances with less diffraction. But the ordinary sound can't travel long distances without diffraction.
  • Also, the ultrasonic waves can't be heard by humans so there will not be any effect of noise also. That's why Ultrasonic waves are used in sonar with greater advantage. So option 3 is correct.
54

Which of the following pair of compound name – formula is correct?

I. Calcium oxide – Ca2O

II. Aluminum Oxide – Al2O3

  1. ((a))

    Only I

  2. ((b))

    Both I and II

  3. ((c))

    Neither I nor II

  4. ((d))

    Only II

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Only II

The correct answer is Only II.

Key Points

  • Calcium oxide (CaO), commonly known as quicklime or burnt lime, is a widely used chemical compound.
  • It is a white, caustic, alkaline, crystalline solid at room temperature.
  • Formula: CaO
  • IUPAC ID: Oxocalcium
  • Molar mass: 56.0774 g/mol
  • Melting point: 2,572 °C
  • Density: 3.34 g/cm³​
  • Soluble in: Water, Glycerol.

Thus I is incorrect.

  • Aluminium oxide is a white odourless crystalline powder. It is water-insoluble.
  • Aluminium oxide has a chemical formula of Al2O3.
  • It is amphoteric in nature and is used in various chemical, industrial and commercial applications.
  • An oxide of aluminium occurs in nature as various minerals such as bauxite, corundum, etc.
  • It is used as an adsorbent, desiccating agent, and catalyst, and in the manufacture of dental cement and refractories.

Thus II is correct.

55

Working principle of washing machine is _________.

  1. ((a))

    Pressure power

  2. ((b))

    Dialysis

  3. ((c))

    Centrifugation

  4. ((d))

    Diffusion

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Centrifugation

The correct answer is Centrifugation.

Key Points 

  • Washing machine works on the principle called Centrifugation.
  • Centrifugation is a separation process which uses the action of centrifugal force to promote accelerated settling of particles in a solid-liquid mixture.
56

Which instrument is used to measure altitudes in aircraft?

  1. ((a))

    Actinometer

  2. ((b))

    Ceilometer

  3. ((c))

    Accelerometer

  4. ((d))

    Altimeter

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Altimeter

The correct answer is option 4, i.e Altimeter.

Key Points

  • An altimeter is an instrument used to measure altitudes in aircraft.
  • The altimeter was invented by Louis Paul Cailletet.
  • The measurement of altitude using altimeter is called altimetry.
  • Actinometer is the instrument used to measure the heating power of radiation.
  • Ceilometer is the instrument used to measure the aerosol concentration within the atmosphere.
  • The accelerometer is the instrument used to measure the acceleration forces.
InstrumentUse
AmmeterMeasures the strength of the electric current.
AnemometerMeasures wind speed.
BarometerMeasures atmospheric pressure.
BolometerMeasures heat radiations.
CrescographMeasures growth in plants.
CalorimeterMeasures heat in chemical reactions.
HydrometerMeasures the specific gravity of a liquid.
HygrometerMeasures atmospheric humidity.
LactometerMeasures the purity of milk.
ThermometerMeasures temperature.
57

Bauxite is the ore of

  1. ((a))

    Silver

  2. ((b))

    Mercury

  3. ((c))

    Iron

  4. ((d))

    Aluminium

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Aluminium

The correct answer is Aluminium.

Key Points

  • Bauxite is the ore of Aluminium.
  • Bauxite, rock largely composed of a mixture of hydrous aluminum oxides. Bauxite is the principal ore of aluminum.
  • Bauxites vary physically according to the origin and geologic history of their deposits.
  • Some deposits are soft, easily crushed, and structureless; some are hard, dense, and pisolitic, or pealike; still others are porous but strong or are stratified or largely pseudomorphic after their parent rock.

Additional Information

  • The laterite type is commonly pisolitic and mottled, with pisolites ranging in size from about 2.5 mm (0.10 inch) to 25 cm (10 inches) or more in diameter. Both pisolites and groundmass (matrix) may exhibit great colour variations.
  • Common colours are pink, cream, red, brown, yellow, and gray. Exposed surfaces of lateritic ore are rough, often lavalike, with a wormlike structure and variegated colours on vertical faces.
  • Such material tends to harden or reconsolidate on exposure to air. Although terra-rossa types are granular and earthy, they also may possess pisolitic structures.

Important Points

  • Ore of the mercury is called "cinnabar" which is a composition of mercury and sulfur (mercuric sulfide, HgS)
  • The most important ore mineral of silver is argentite (Ag2S, silver sulfide).
  • Silver is commonly extracted from ore by smelting or chemical leaching.
  • Iron ore is a mineral substance which, when heated in the presence of a reductant, will yield metallic iron (Fe).
  • It almost always consists of iron oxides, the primary forms of which are magnetite (Fe3O4) and hematite (Fe2O3).
  • Iron ore is the source of primary iron for the world's iron and steel industries.
58

Fat in body is stored in which tissue?

  1. ((a))

    Areolar tissue

  2. ((b))

    Epithelial tissue

  3. ((c))

    Adipose tissue

  4. ((d))

    Mascular tissue

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Adipose tissue

  • ​The cells in adipose tissues are filled with Fat Globules. Hence it stores fat.
  • These tissues are found beneath the skin, around the kidney & in the many internal organs.
  • These tissues act as an insulator against heat.
  • Areolar tissues lie in between skin and muscles, also around the blood vessels, nerve fibres & inside bone marrow.
  • Epithelial tissue is a simple tissue that forms continuous layers.
  • Muscular tissues are made up of long cells of muscle fibres.
  • Muscles have a particular type of protein, known as 'Contractile proteins' which is responsible for the contraction & relaxation of muscles.
59

Cloves are obtained from which of the following parts of the plant?

  1. ((a))

    Dried leaves

  2. ((b))

    Dried stems

  3. ((c))

    Dried seeds

  4. ((d))

    Dried flower buds

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Dried flower buds

The correct answer is Dried flower buds.

Key Points 

  • Cloves are obtained from Dried flower buds.
  • Cloves:
  • Cloves are aromatic dried flower buds of a tree.
  • Cloves are native to Indonesia and used as a spice in cuisines all over the world.
  • Cloves are now harvested primarily in Indonesia, Madagascar, Zanzibar, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka.
  • They are also grown in India under the name Lavang.
  • The aroma and antioxidant property of Clove is due to the presence of eugenol.
  • Medicinal Property of Clove is as follows:-
  • Clove can act as an antimicrobial agent, killing parasites and bacteria in the digestive tract.
  • Clove has analgesic properties.
  • It can help to relieve excessive gas bloating.

Additional Information

  • Dried leaves:
  • They also make a good addition to your compost pile.
  • Leaves are difficult to compost alone and will require extra nitrogen in the form of commercial fertilizer (any good manure can be added to the leaves), or materials high in nitrogen such as grass clippings.
  • Leaves prone to diseases like those of the apple scab, anthracnose, or those infected with leaf spots should be removed or destroyed to prevent over-wintering of the disease organisms in the debris and possible re-infection of new leaves.
  • Dried stems:
  • The underground dried stems lack green color because of their geophilous nature.
  • They can be identified as stems because of the presence of nodes, internodes, scale leaves, buds, and branches.
  • Dried seeds:
  • Dried seeds are just fresh seeds with the water removed.
  • Dehydration causes some nutrients to become more concentrated.
  • Dry seeds are a good source of various nutrients and contain a lot of medical properties.
60

The SI unit of current is:

  1. ((a))

    Ohm (Ω)

  2. ((b))

    Volt (V)

  3. ((c))

    Ampere (A)

  4. ((d))

    Joule (J)

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Ampere (A)

Key Points

  • Current: The rate of flow of electric charge is called current.
  • The SI unit of current is Ampere.
  • The name has been given after the famous  French physicist and mathematician André-Marie Ampère.
  • He is known for his work in Electromagnetism.
  • The current is a fundamental unit.
  • One ampere of current flows when one coulomb of charge flows through a wire in one second. Coulomb is the SI unit of electric charge.

So the correct option is Ampere (A). 

Additional Information

  • Ohm is the unit of resistance.
  • Volt is the unit of potential difference
  • Joule is the unit of energy and work.
61

What is the chemical name given of chalk?

  1. ((a))

    Calcium Sulphate

  2. ((b))

    Calcium Nitrate

  3. ((c))

    Calcium Carbonate

  4. ((d))

    Calcium Phosphide

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Calcium Carbonate

Calcium is a soft, white, porous, sedimentary carbonate rock, a form of limestone composed of the mineralcalcite. Calcite is an ionic salt called calcium carbonate or CaCO3. It forms under reasonably deep marine conditions from the gradual accumulation of minute calcite shells

62

Which of the following hormone  is helpful in ripening of natural fruit?

  1. ((a))

    Cytokinin

  2. ((b))

    Gibberellin

  3. ((c))

    Auxin

  4. ((d))

    Ethylene

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Ethylene

Ethylene is helpful in the ripening of natural fruit.

  • It is a gaseous compound naturally produced by the plants to promote ageing and maturity.
  • It is produced by manufacturers and used to ripen the fruits.
  • Chemicals such as calcium carbide are used to ripen the fruits in order to attain maturity faster in comparison to ethylene gas, as it may cause health issues.
63

Which of the following Vitamins are water soluble ?

  1. ((a))

    Vitamin B and Vitamin C

  2. ((b))

    Vitamin A and Vitamin B

  3. ((c))

    Vitamin C and Vitamin D

  4. ((d))

    Vitamin A and Vitamin K

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Vitamin B and Vitamin C

The correct answer is Vitamin B and Vitamin C.

Key Points

  • Vitamins are nutrients your body needs to develop and function properly.
  • There are 13 essential vitamins: A, D, E, and K, which are fat-soluble, and vitamins C and the B-complex group, which are water-soluble.
  • Each vitamin has a distinct role in keeping you healthy.

Important Points

Trick to remember fat-soluble vitamins- KEDA

  • K-Vitamin K
  • E- vitamin E
  • D-vitamin D
  • A-vitamin A
64

Which of the following is not a unicellular organism?

  1. ((a))

    Amoeba

  2. ((b))

    Paramecium

  3. ((c))

    Hydra

  4. ((d))

    Euglena

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Hydra

Concept:

  • On the basis of the number of cells, organisms can be divided into two types 1. Unicellular Organisms 2. Multicellular organisms
  1. Unicellular organisms are made up of a single cell only. Ex- Amoeba, Paramecium, Euglena, Yeast, etc.
  2. Multicellular organisms are made up of many cells. Ex- Hydra, animals, plants, etc.
  • Multicellular organisms exhibit different levels of body organization like cellular, tissue. organ & organ system level of body organisation

Explanation:

  • Hydra belongs to the phylum Coelenterata. It is a multicellular organism that exhibits tissue level of body organization.
  • Here the cells performing the same function are arranged into tissues
  • Hydra shows the polyp body form i.e. it is sessile and cylindrical

Important Points

Other important characters of Hydra are:

  1. Hydra reproduces by asexual and sexual methods. Asexual reproduction takes place either by budding or by fission.
  2. Digestion in hydra is extracellular i.e. it catches the prey by its tentacles and pushes it to the oral groove into the gastrovascular cavity then releases digestive enzymes to degrade the food into smaller absorbable forms
  3. Hydra does not have a circulatory system. The water they live in provides food and oxygen to their bodies.
65

Branch of biology which deal with the study of heredity is called:

  1. ((a))

    Cytology

  2. ((b))

    Evolution

  3. ((c))

    Genetics

  4. ((d))

    Physiology

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Genetics

The correct answer is Genetics.

  • Genetics is the study of heredity and the variation of inherited characteristics.
  • Cytology is the branches of biology and medicine concerned with the structure and function of plant and animal cells.
  • In biology, evolution is the change in the characteristics of a species over several generations and relies on the process of natural selection.
  • Physiology is the branch of biology that deals with the normal functions of living organisms and their parts.
66

Light year is 

  1. ((a))

    light emitted by sun in one year.

  2. ((b))

    time taken by light to travel from Sun to Earth.

  3. ((c))

    the distance travelled by light in free space in one year.

  4. ((d))

    time taken by earth to go once around the Sun.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

the distance travelled by light in free space in one year.

The correct answer is the distance travelled by light in free space in one year.

  • A light-year is a distance travelled by light in free space in one year.

Key Points

  • Concept-
  • As defined, a light-year is a distance travelled by light in free space in one year.
  • Hence, the speed of light = 3108m/s{3* 10^8} m/s
  • Time is 1 year or 365 days
  • Hence, by formula  Distance = Speed / time
  • We got that, one light-year = 9.461015metres{9.46* 10^{15}} metres

Hint

  • Note - A light-year is a unit of distance, not time.
  • And if we observe options, there is only option C which deals with 'distance', hence this question can be solved by common sense without having much technical knowledge about a light-year.
67

Which of the cell organelle helps in cell division and controls the activity & hereditary characters of the cell?

  1. ((a))

    Centrosomes

  2. ((b))

    Nucleus

  3. ((c))

    Cytoplasm

  4. ((d))

    Golgi apparatus

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Nucleus

The correct answer is Option**(2).i.e.​Nucleus**.

Key Points

  • ​Nucleus helps in cell division and controls the activity & hereditary characters of the cell.
  • Cell Organelles:
  • Cell Organelles define as the membrane-bound cellular components.
  • These cell organelles are present within the cells and are independent in their functions.
  • They coordinate with their structures & functions effectively for the normal functioning of the cell.

Additional Information

  • Types of Cell Organelles:
  • Cytoplasm:
  • It is a jelly-like substance, which consists of dissolved nutrients, water, and waste products of the cell.
  • The cytoplasm is responsible for the metabolic activities within a cell.
  • Golgi apparatus: 
  • It is basically a sac-like, membrane-bound cell organelle.
  • Golgi presents within the cytoplasm of the eukaryotic cells.
  • It is mainly involved in intracellular transport & secretion of the cells.
  • Nucleus: 
  • The largest, double membrane-bound cell organelles.
  • It contains all the genetic information of the cell.
  • The nucleus controls the activity of the cell & helps in cell division.
  • It also controls the hereditary characters.
68

Which instrument is used to measure very high temperature?

  1. ((a))

    Fathometer

  2. ((b))

    Manometer

  3. ((c))

    Salinometer

  4. ((d))

    Pyrometer

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Pyrometer

The correct answer is Pyrometer.

Key Points

  • Pyrometer, the device for measuring relatively high temperatures, such as are encountered in furnaces.
  • Most pyrometers work by measuring radiation from the body whose temperature is to be measured.
  • Radiation devices have the advantage of not having to touch the material being measured.
  • Radiation Pyrometers are used to measure the temperature of red hot metals up to 3000°C.

Additional Information

  • Important instruments:
Name of the instrumentInventorFunction/ Used for
SpeedometerJosip BelusicMeasuring the speed of the vehicle.
SpherometerRobert CauchoixMeasures curvature of spherical objects.
TelemeterC. MichalkeRecords physical happenings at a distant place.
TelescopeHans LippersheyMagnified view of distant objects.
ThermostatWarren JohnsonAutomatically regulates temperatures at a constant point.
TransformerOtto BlattyConverts high voltage to low voltage.
VernierPierre VernierMesures small sub-division of scale.
VoltmeterAndrew KayMeasure the electric potential difference between two points.
WavemeterPaul ZottoMeasure the wavelength of a radio wave.
ActionometerJohn HerschelHeating power of radiation.
69

______ is caused when a child’s growing bones fail to develop due to a lack of vitamin D.

  1. ((a))

    Night blindness

  2. ((b))

    Rickets

  3. ((c))

    Goitre

  4. ((d))

    Scurvy

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Rickets

The correct answer is Rickets.

Key Points

  • Vitamins
  • Vitamins are chemical compounds that are required in small amounts for growth and good health and are obtained from our food.
  • The vitamins are not synthesized in the body that's why they must be supplied through the diet.
  • Vitamin D
  • ​It increases calcium absorption from the gastrointestinal tract and helps to control calcium deposition in the bone.
  • Its sources are Cod liver oil, skin can synthesize vitamin D in the presence of sunlight.
  • Its deficiency is Rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults.

Additional Information

  • ​Vitamin C
  • Vitamin C is a water-soluble compound found in living organisms.​
  • It is an essential nutrient for various metabolism in our body and also serves as a reagent for the preparation of many materials in the pharmaceutical and food industry.
  • Its deficiency causes Scurvy.
  • Vitamin C also known as ascorbic acid is an essential nutrient in many multicellular organisms, especially in humans.
  • Ascorbic acid is a water-soluble vitamin and is found in variable quantities in fruits and vegetables and organ meats.
  • Vitamins, their chemical names, and deficiency disease
VitaminsChemical NameDeficiency Disease
Vitamin ARetinolNight Blindness
Vitamin B1ThiamineBeri-Beri
Vitamin B2RiboflavinAngular Stomatitis
Vitamin B3NiacinPellagra
Vitamin B5Pantothenic AcidParesthesia
Vitamin B6PyridoxineAnemia
Vitamin B7BiotinDermatitis
Vitamin B9Folic AcidMegaloblastic Anemia
Vitamin B12MethylcobalaminAnemia
Vitamin CAscorbic AcidScurvy
Vitamin DCholecalciferolRickets
Vitamin ETocopherolsLess Fertility
Vitamin KMenaquinonesNon-Clotting of Blood
  • Fat-Soluble Vitamins:​ Vitamins K, E, D, A.
  • Water Soluble Vitamins: Vitamins B, C.
70

How many carbon and hydrogen atoms are there in Propane, respectively? 

  1. ((a))

    2, 4 

  2. ((b))

    4, 7 

  3. ((c))

    2, 6 

  4. ((d))

    3, 8

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

3, 8

The Correct Answer is Option 4 i.e 3, 8.

Concept:

  • Alkanes are saturated open-chain hydrocarbons containing carbon-carbon single bonds.
  • Alkanes belong to the group of aliphatic hydrocarbons.
  • The general formula of alkanes is CnH2n+2, where n is the number of carbon atoms and 2n+2 is the number of hydrogen atoms.
  • Methane is the first member of the alkane family.
  • Alkenes, in organic chemistry, are unsaturated hydrocarbons that at least contain one carbon-carbon double bond.
  • They are more reactive than alkanes, burn with a sooty and smoky flame which is yellow in color.
  • This indicates incomplete combustion due to the presence of a carbon-carbon double bond.

Explanation:

  • Propane
  • Propane is a colourless, odourless gas with a chemical formula of C3H8 i.e 3 carbon and 8 hydrogen atoms.
  • The structure of propane is:

  • Propane is a three-carbon alkane gas.
  • Propane is primarily a byproduct of domestic natural gas processing.
  • It is shipped as a liquefied gas under its vapour pressure.
  • Propane is commonly used for space and water heating, for cooking, and as fuel for engine applications.
  • Ethylene is a chemical compound with the formula C2H4. It is the simplest alkene.
  • C4H7 is the molecular formulae of Butylidene.
  • Ethane is the second most simplest alkane after methane.
  • It has 2 carbon atoms and 6 hydrogen atoms with the molecular formula C2H6.
71

Select the correct verb form.

When _____ you planning to start the project?

  1. ((a))

    are

  2. ((b))

    is

  3. ((c))

    was

  4. ((d))

    were

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

are

The correct answer is Option (1) i.e., are.

Key Points

  • The question is inquiring about a plan, which is ongoing or future-oriented.
  • Therefore, the present continuous tense, "are planning" is used.
  • "Are" is the correct auxiliary verb to use with "you" in forming present continuous questions.

Therefore, the correct answer is- "When are you planning to start the project?"

Additional Information

  • "Is" and "was" do not align with the second-person pronoun "you."
  • "Will" would suggest a simple future inquiry without the ongoing aspect that "planning" conveys.
72

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Chicken-hearted

  1. ((a))

    Cowardly

  2. ((b))

    Generous

  3. ((c))

    Miserly

  4. ((d))

    Selfish

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cowardly

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. cowardly

The idiom 'chicken-hearted' refers to someone who is scared easily or is a coward

Thus, the correct answer is option 1.

73

Change from Assertive to Negative.

I was doubtful whether it was you.

  1. ((a))

    I am doubtful whether it was you.

  2. ((b))

    l am doubting if it was you.

  3. ((c))

    I am not sure that it was you.

  4. ((d))

    I was not sure that it was you.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

I was not sure that it was you.

The correct answer is Option (4) i.e. "I was not sure that it was you".

Key Points

  • An assertive sentence expresses a statement of fact or opinion.
  • A negative form negates the statement made in the assertive form.
  • Here 'doubtful' means "not sure" that fits contextually.
  • To transform an assertive sentence to its negative counterpart, negation such as "not" is often introduced.
  • The essence, meaning, and tense should remain consistent during transformation.

Therefore, the correct transformed sentence is - "I was not sure that it was you".

74

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

The boy will bring the coffee.

  1. ((a))

    The coffee will be brought by the boy.

  2. ((b))

    The coffee will have been brought by the boy.

  3. ((c))

    The coffee would have been brought by the boy.

  4. ((d))

    The coffee must have been brought by the boy.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The coffee will be brought by the boy.

The correct answer is 'The coffee will be brought by the boy.'

Key Points

  • The given sentence is an example of Active Voice. As per the given question, we have to change it to Passive Voice.
  • The process of transformation is as follows:
  • The subject of the given sentence is 'The boy'.
  • The object of the given sentence is 'the coffee'.
  • Since a modal verb has been used in the active voice, therefore, the passive voice will follow the given structure:-
  • Active Voice - Subject + modal verb*(will)* + V1 + Object.
  • Passive Voice - Object(Subjective form) modal verb*(will)* + be + V3 Subject (Objective form).
  • Here, 'will bring' is changed into 'will be brought' because in the 'active to passive' transformation third form of the verb is used.
  • Therefore, as per the above-mentioned points, we find that the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct Sentence: The coffee will be brought by the boy.

75

Direction: Choose the option that best punctuates the given sentence:

State owned Bank of India offers extra interest to long term investors

  1. ((a))

    State­-owned Bank of India offers extra interest to long term investors.

  2. ((b))

    State owned Bank of India offers extra interest to long­-term investors.

  3. ((c))

    State­-owned Bank of India offers extra interest to long­-term investors.

  4. ((d))

    State owned Bank of India offers extra interest to long term investors.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

State­-owned Bank of India offers extra interest to long­-term investors.

The correct answer is State­-owned Bank of India offers extra interest to long­-term investors.​

<br>

Key Points

  • We use a hyphen ( - ) to join two or more words to form compound adjectives that precede a noun.
  • The purpose of joining words to form a compound adjective is to differentiate the meaning from the adjectives used separately, such as up-to-date merchandise, copper-coated wire, fire-tested material, lump-sum payment, and well-stocked cupboard.
  • Example: He was proud of his well-stocked cupboards. (The adverb "well" describes "stocked" rather than "cupboards".)
  • In the given sentence, we must use a hyphen ( - ) between the words "state" and "owned" as "state" describes "owned" rather than "Bank of India."
  • Similarly, we must use a hyphen ( - ) between the words "long" and "term" as "long" describes "term" rather than "investors."
  • Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

Correct sentence: State­-owned Bank of India offers extra interest to long­-term investors.

76

Select the correct direct form of the given sentence.

She exclaimed with regret that she had acted very foolishly

  1. ((a))

    “Ah! Have I acted foolishly?” she said.

  2. ((b))

    “I have acted foolishly,” she said.

  3. ((c))

    “Alas! How foolishly I have acted,” she said.

  4. ((d))

    “Oh! I regret having acted foolishly,” she said.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

“Alas! How foolishly I have acted,” she said.

The correct answer is Option 3)

Key Points

  • The given sentence is an indirect speech that needs to be converted to direct speech.
  • In direct speech, the actual words of the speaker are quoted.
  • The sentence is an exclamatory sentence. So word like 'Alas' is perfect to express the grief or regret of the narrator.
  • Expressions of emotions like "exclaimed with regret" can be translated to words like "Alas!" in direct speech.
  • Example: She exclaimed with regret that she had acted very foolishly. becomes Alas! How foolishly I have acted,” she said.

Therefore the correct statement is “Alas! How foolishly I have acted,” she said.

<br>

Additional Information

  • Direct speech involves quoting the exact words spoken by the speaker.
  • Indirect speech involves reporting the words spoken by the speaker without quoting them exactly.
  • In direct speech, emotional expressions can be translated using appropriate interjections like "Alas!" for regret, "Oh!" for surprise, etc.
  • Example: “Oh! I regret having acted foolishly,” she said. can also be a correct transformation but does not capture the same level of regret as "Alas!".
77

Select the most appropriate meaning of the idiom below.

"Sit on the fence"

  1. ((a))

    to know why or how something happens or works

  2. ((b))

    to know the meaning of something that someone says

  3. ((c))

    the fact of not being easy to do or understand

  4. ((d))

    to delay making a decision

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

to delay making a decision

The correct answer is "to delay making a decision".

Key Points

  • The idiom "sit on the fence" is figuratively used to describe someone who does not want to choose or make a decision.
  • When used in conversation, it means that the person is being indecisive and is avoiding taking a side or making a commitment in a dispute or contest.
  • For Example - In the debate between friends, Sara sat on the fence, unwilling to choose a side.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 4".

78

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Resistance

  1. ((a))

    Tolerance

  2. ((b))

    Tenderness

  3. ((c))

    Awareness

  4. ((d))

    Reliance

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tolerance

The correct answer is: Option 1.

Key Points

  • The word "Resistance" means the refusal to accept or comply with something; the attempt to prevent something by action or argument. (प्रतिरोध)
  • Example: The resistance of the local community to the new policy was evident in the protest march.
  • "Tolerance" refers to the ability or willingness to tolerate the existence of opinions or behavior that one dislikes or disagrees with. (सहनशीलता)
  • Example: The teacher's tolerance for different viewpoints made her classroom a welcoming place for all students.
  • Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'Resistance' is 'Tolerance'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Tenderness (नम्रता): The quality of being gentle, kind, or affectionate.
  • Example: The tenderness in her voice soothed the crying child.
  • Awareness (जागरूकता): Knowledge or perception of a situation or fact.
  • Example: Public awareness of environmental issues has increased significantly in recent years.
  • Reliance (निर्भरता): Dependence on or trust in someone or something.
  • Example: His reliance on his friends for support was evident during difficult times.
79

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

They decided to / travel in train / instead of driving / to New Delhi.

  1. ((a))

    They decided to

  2. ((b))

    travel in train 

  3. ((c))

    to New Delhi 

  4. ((d))

    instead of driving

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

travel in train 

The correct answer is 'travel in train'.

Key Points

  • In the second part of the given sentence, the phrase 'travel in train' is incorrect.
  • The correct phrase should be 'travel by train' instead of 'travel in train'.
  • This is because the preposition 'by' is used when referring to a mode of transportation.
  • Example: They decided to travel by train instead of driving to New Delhi.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Correct sentence: They decided to travel by train instead of driving to New Delhi.

<br>

Additional Information

  • If the subjects are both singular and are connected by the words "not/but, not, or, nor, neither/nor, either/or, not only/but also, etc."" the verb is singular.
  • Example: Either Sita or Geeta is to blame for the accident.
  • If the subjects are both plurals and are connected by the words "not/but, not, or, nor, neither/nor, either/or, not only/but also, etc."" the verb is plural.
  • Example: Not only dogs but also cats are available at the shelter.
80

Select the appropriate synonym for the underlined word.

They have no reason to trust you.

  1. ((a))

    condemn

  2. ((b))

    dispute

  3. ((c))

    doubt

  4. ((d))

    believe

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

believe

The correct answer is: Believe

<br>

Key Points

  • Trust is a belief in the reliability, honesty, and integrity of someone or something. (ट्रस्ट विश्वास)
  • ExampleI trust my best friend with my secrets because I know she won't betray my confidence.
  • Marked option Believe means to accept something as true or real based on evidence, faith, or conviction. (भरोसा रखना)
  • ExampleI believe in the power of hard work; if you put in the effort, you can achieve your goals.
  • Therefore, the synonym for "trust" is "believe".
  • Trust often involves a deeper level of personal connection and reliability in interpersonal relationships, whereas belief can apply to a broader range of ideas and concepts.

Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

  • Condemn means to express strong disapproval of something. (निंदा करना)
  • Dispute means to argue or disagree with something. (विवाद)
  • Doubt means to have uncertainty or lack of confidence in something. (संदेह)
81

'इत्यादि' शब्द का सही संधि विच्छेद क्या है?

  1. ((a))

    इतीय+दी 

  2. ((b))

    इतिय+दी 

  3. ((c))

    इति+आदि 

  4. ((d))

    इती+आदि 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

इति+आदि 

विकल्प 3 "इति+आदि" सही है।

Key Points

  • 'इति+आदि' - इत्यादि शब्द का सही संधि विच्छेद है।
  • इ एवं आ वह दो स्वर हैं जिनसे मुख्यतः संधि करने पर शब्दों में परिवर्तन आ रहा है। जब शब्दों कि संधि हो रही है तो ये दोनों स्वर मिलकर या बना देते हैं।इति और आदि का इत्यादि बन जाता है।
  • इत्यादि (इ + आ = या ) में “यण स्वर संधि” संधि है।
  • अन्य विकल्प निरर्थक हैं।

Additional Information

  • यण संधि स्वर संधि का एक भेद अथवा प्रकार है। जब संधि करते समय इ, ई के साथ कोई अन्य स्वर हो तो 'य' बन जाता है, जब उ, ऊ के साथ कोई अन्य स्वर हो तो 'व्' बन जाता है , जब ऋ के साथ कोई अन्य स्वर हो तो 'र' बन जाता है।
  • यण संधि के उदाहरण - 
  • अधि + आय = अध्याय(इ + आ = या)।
82

'यथाशक्ति' का सही विग्रह क्या होगा?

  1. ((a))

    यथा जो शक्ति

  2. ((b))

    शक्ति के अनुसार

  3. ((c))

    जैसी शक्ति

  4. ((d))

    जितनी शक्ति

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

शक्ति के अनुसार

'यथाशक्ति' का सही विग्रह होगा- शक्ति के अनुसार

  • यथा+शक्ति= यथाशक्ति (पूर्वपद अव्यय)।

Key Points

  1. अव्ययीभाव समास- 'पहला पद प्रधान तथा अव्यय होता है'।

पहचान- पहला पद अनु, भर, प्रति, यथा, यावत आदि।

जैसे- अनुरूप, यथासंभव। 2. द्वंद्व समास- दोनों पद प्रधान होते है।

पहचान- योजक चिन्ह (-) का प्रयोग। तथा, मध्य में ”और”, “अथवा”, “या” लगते है।

जैसे- 'नदी-नाले' "नदी और नाले"। 3. तत्पुरुष समास- 'उत्तर पद प्रधान होता'।

पहचान- "कारक चिन्ह" का लोप हों जाना।

जैसे- 'यशप्राप्त' "यश को प्राप्त" (कर्म कारक विभक्ति "को" का लोप)। 4. द्विगु समास- 'उत्तर पद प्रधान होता'।

पहचान- पहला पद "संख्यावाचक" तथा इसमें "समूह या समाहार" का पता चलता है।

जैसे- 'सप्तसिंधु' शब्द में 'सात सिंधुओ के समूह' का ज्ञान हो रहा है। 5. ​कर्मधारय समास- 'उत्तर पद प्रधान होता'।

पहचान- 'दोनों पदों' के मध्य मे 'है जो' , 'के समान' आता हैं।

जैसे- 'नीलकंठ' "नीला है जो कंठ"। 6. बहुब्रीहि समास- 'अन्य पद प्रधान होता'।

पहचान- 'दोनों पद' मिलकर किसी "तीसरे पद" की ओर संकेत देते हैं।

जैसे- 'लंबोदर' "लंबा है उदर जिसका" अर्थात् "गणेश जी"।

Additional Informationसमास-  दो या दो से अधिक शब्दों से मिलकर बने नये सार्थक शब्द को समास कहते है।

समास भेद- 6 भेद होते हैं।

  1. अव्ययीभाव समास
  2. तत्पुरुष समास
  3. द्विगु समास
  4. द्वन्द्व समास
  5. कर्मधारय समास
  6. बहुव्रीहि समास​

Mistake Points

  1. 'यथाशक्ति' में अव्ययीभाव समास होगा क्योंकि, पहला पद प्रधान है।
  2. द्वंद समास में दोनों पद, द्विगु समास तथा तत्पुरुष समास में उत्तर पद प्रधान होता है।
83

निम्न में कौन सा शब्द स्त्रीलिंग है?

  1. ((a))

    मोर

  2. ((b))

    भवन

  3. ((c))

    भाषण

  4. ((d))

    भुजा

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

भुजा

स्त्रीलिंग शब्द है - 'भुजा'

  • पुल्लिंग शब्द है - 'मोर, भवन, भाषण'
  • वह संज्ञा शब्द जो हमें स्त्री जाति का बोध कराते हैं, वे शब्द स्त्रीलिंग संज्ञा शब्द कहलाते हैं। 
  • जैसे- घोड़ी, शेरनी, बकरी, रानी, लड़की, गाय, घड़ी, छड़ी, नारी आदि।

Key Points

  • मोर - मयूर (जैसे - मोर का पंख)।
  • जैसे- मोर बरसात में पंख फैलाकर नाचता है।
  • भवन - वास स्थान, घर, मकान।
  • जैसे - कोने पर एक तीन मंजिला भवन था।
  • भाषण - व्याख्यान/ अभिभाषण /कथन /बोली हुई बात।
  • जैसे- ​मुख्य अतिथि ने अनुशासन के महत्व पर भाषण दिया।
  • भुजा -  बाहु।
  • जैसे- ​इस चतुर्भुज की चारों भुजायें असमान हैं।

Additional Informationपुल्लिंग:-

  • वह संज्ञा शब्द जो हमें पुरुष जाति का बोध कराते हैं, वे पुल्लिंग शब्द कहलाते हैं। 
  • जैसे- घोड़ा, शेर, बकरा, राजा, लड़का, आदमी, कुत्ता, पेड़, सिंह, बैल, नर आदि।
84

निर्देश : निम्नलिखित में से शुद्ध वर्तनी वाले शब्द का चयन कीजिए -

  1. ((a))

    पुनुरुत्थान 

  2. ((b))

    पुनरुत्थान 

  3. ((c))

    पुनरोत्थान

  4. ((d))

    पुनरोथ्थान

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

पुनरुत्थान 

पुनरुत्थान सही शब्द है।

  • पुनरुत्थान का अर्थ - पतन के पश्चात फिर से उन्नति की ओर बढ़ना

अन्य विकल्पों में वर्तनी अशुद्धि है।

Important Pointsअशुद्ध शब्दों के लिए शुद्ध शब्द -

  • थीसिस - थीसीस
  • साधू - साधु
  • द्वन्द - द्वंद्व
  • क्योकी - क्योंकि
  • योगीवर - योगिवर
  • अक्षोहिणी - अक्षौहिणी
  • रीत्यानुसार - रीत्यनुसार
  • वाहिरंग - बहिरंग
  • राजागण - राजगण
  • विसमृत - विस्मृत
85

'रोपण' का विलोम शब्द निम्न में से कौन सा है?

  1. ((a))

    रोपना

  2. ((b))

    दोषारोपण

  3. ((c))

    उन्मूलन

  4. ((d))

    मूलन

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

उन्मूलन

उपर्युक्त विकल्पों में से विकल्प 3 ‘उन्मूलन’ सही उत्तर है। अन्य विकल्प इसके सही उत्तर नहीं हैं।

Key Points

  • 'रोपण' का सही विलोम शब्द 'उन्मूलन' है।
  • रोपण का अर्थ –  स्थापित करना, लगाना
  • उन्मूलन​ का अर्थ – जड़ से उखाड़ देना
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Additional Information

शब्दपरिभाषाउदाहरण
विलोम/विपरीतार्थकविपरीत (उल्टा) अर्थ बताने वाले शब्दों को विलोम शब्द कहते हैं।रात-दिन धरती-आकाश
86

महादेवी वर्मा की कृति है

  1. ((a))

    स्वर्णधूलि

  2. ((b))

    खंजन नयन

  3. ((c))

    गीतिका

  4. ((d))

    अतीत के चलचित्र

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

अतीत के चलचित्र

सही विकल्प हैं- अतीत के चलचित्र

  • उपरोक्त में से अतीत के चलचित्र महादेवी वर्मा की रचना है।
  • यह एक रेखाचित्र है, प्रकाशन वर्ष - 1941
  • अतीत के चलचित्र में महादेवी वर्मा ने अपने वास्तविक जीवन के  विभिन्न घटनाओं, पात्रों का वर्णन किया है।

Key Points

  • महादेवी वर्मा की महत्वपूर्ण रचनाएँ-
  • महादेवी वर्मा के आठ कविता संग्रह हैं- नीहार (1930), रश्मि (1932), नीरजा (1934), सांध्यगीत (1936), दीपशिखा (1942), सप्तपर्णा (अनूदित 1959), प्रथम आयाम (1974), और अग्निरेखा (1990)

Additional Information

  • महादेवी वर्मा के अन्य रेखाचित्र- स्मृति की रेखाएं (1983)

अन्य विकल्प-

  • स्वर्णधूलि (1947)  - सुमित्रानंदन पंत (काव्य कृति)
  • खंजन नयन (1981) - अमृतलाल नागर (उपन्यास)
  • गीतिका (1936) - सूर्यकान्त त्रिपाठी 'निराला' (गीत संकलन)

Important Pointsसुमित्रानंदन पंत (1900 ई.), प्रमुख रचनाएँ -

  • ग्रंथि’(1920)
  • वीणा’ (1927)
  • पल्लव’ (1928)
  • गुंजन’ (1932)
  • ‘युगान्त’ (1936)
  • युगवाणी’ (1939)
  • ग्राम्या’ (1940)
  • स्वर्ण किरण’ (1947)
  • स्वर्णधूलि’ (1947)
  • उत्त्रा’ (1949)
  • युगपथ’ (1948)
  • अतिमा’ (1955)

अमृतलाल नागर के प्रमुख उपन्यास -

  • महाकाल (1947)
  • सेठ बांकेलाल (1955)
  • बूँद और समुद्र (1956)
  • शतरंज के मोहरे (1959)
  • सुहाग के नुपूर (1960)
  • अमृत और विष (1966)
  • सात घूँघट वाला मुखड़ा (1968)
  • एकदा नैमिषारण्ये (1972)
  • मानस का हंस (1973)
  • बिखरे तिनके (1982)
  • अग्निगर्भा (1983)
  • करवट (1985)
  • पीढ़ियाँ (1990)

सूर्यकान्त त्रिपाठी 'निराला' की अन्य कविताएँ -

  • परिमल
  • अनामिका
  • गीतिका
  • कुकुरमुत्ता
  • आदिमा
  • बेला
  • नये पत्त्ते
  • अर्चना
  • आराधना
  • तुलसीदास
  • जन्मभूमि।
87

'श्रम विभाजन और जाति प्रथा' के लेखक कौन हैं?

  1. ((a))

    डॉ. राम मनोहर लोहिया

  2. ((b))

    बाबासाहेब भीमराव अम्बेडकर

  3. ((c))

    महात्मा गाँधी

  4. ((d))

    डाॅ. सम्पूर्णानंद

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

बाबासाहेब भीमराव अम्बेडकर

श्रम विभाजन और जाति प्रथा के लेखक "बाबासाहेब भीमराव अम्बेडकर' हैं।

Key Pointsअन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण:

बाबासाहेब भीमराव अम्बेडकर द्वारा लिखित पुस्तकें:

पुस्तक का नामप्रकाशन वर्ष
जाति और जाति प्रथा1916
भारतीय संविधान: निर्माण, संचालन और मुद्दे1948
आपत्तिजनक भाषण1937
आम्बेडकर की प्रेरक कविताएं1939
महाराष्ट्रीय गणतंत्र: निर्माण और विकास1959

 

डॉ. राम मनोहर लोहिया की कुछ पुस्तकें और उनके प्रकाशन वर्ष:

पुस्तक का नामप्रकाशन वर्ष
गुमान के जिद्दी1929
मेरी आवाज़ सुनो1965
रसिद्धि या मरण1960
देश की स्वाभिमान यात्रा1946
हिंदी चेतना1947

महात्मा गांधी की कुछ पुस्तकें और उनके प्रकाशन वर्ष:

पुस्तक का नामप्रकाशन वर्ष
हिंद स्वराज या माय सत्याग्रह (Hind Swaraj)1909
भ्रष्टाचार की समस्या (The Problem of Corruption)1925
ग्राम उदय (Village Swaraj)1946
भारतीय आदर्श (Indian Ideals)1921
मेरे सत्य के प्रयोग (My Experiments with Truth)1927
88

निम्नलिखित में से 'हिन्द स्वराज्य' के लेखक हैं -

  1. ((a))

    महात्मा गांधी

  2. ((b))

    जमनालाल बजाज

  3. ((c))

    महादेव देसाई

  4. ((d))

    काशीनाथ त्रिवेदी

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

महात्मा गांधी

'हिन्द स्वराज्य' के लेखक महात्मा गांधी हैं।

Key Pointsमहात्मा गांधी-

  • **जन्म-**1869-1948ई.
  • मोहनदास करमचन्द गांधी भारतीय स्वतन्त्रता आन्दोलन के एक प्रमुख राजनैतिक एवं आध्यात्मिक नेता थे।
  • प्रमुख रचनाएँ-
  • हिन्द स्वराज
  • दक्षिण अफ्रीका के सत्याग्रह का इतिहास
  • सत्य के प्रयोग
  • गीता माता आदि।

Important Points'हिन्द स्वराज्य'-

  • **प्रकाशन वर्ष-**1909ई.
  • **रचनाकार-**महात्मा गाँधी
  • यह मूल रूप से गुजराती भाषा में लिखी गयी है।
  • विषय-
  • हिन्द स्वराज में महात्मा गांधी ने जो भी कहा है वह अंग्रेजो के प्रति द्वेष होने के कारण नहीं, बल्कि उनकी सभ्यता के प्रतिवाद में कहा है।
  • गांधीजी का स्वराज दरअसल एक वैकल्पिक सभ्यता का शास्त्र या ब्लू प्रिंट है वह राज्य की सत्ता प्राप्त करने का कोई राजनैतिक एजेंडा या मेनिफेस्टो नहीं है।

Additional Informationजमनालाल बजाज-

  • **जन्म-**1889-1942ई.
  • जमनालाल बजाज भारत के एक उद्योगपति, मानवशास्त्री एवं स्वतंत्रता संग्राम सेनानी थे।
  • वे महात्मा गांधी के अनुयायी थे तथा उनके बहुत करीबी व्यक्ति थे। गांधीजी ने उन्हें अपने पुत्र की तरह माना।
  • आज भी उनके संचालित ट्रस्ट समाजसेवा के कामों में जुटा है।

महादेव देसाई-

  • **जन्म-**1892-1942ई.
  • महादेव देसाईं भारत के स्वतंत्रता संग्राम के सेनानी एवं राष्ट्रवादी लेखक थे।
  • वे लम्बे समय तक गांधीजी के निजी सचिव रहे।
89

'अनुकरणीय' शब्द में कौन सा प्रत्यय लगा है?

  1. ((a))

    नीय

  2. ((b))

    गीय

  3. ((c))

    अनु

  4. ((d))

    ईय

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

ईय

इसका सही उत्तर ‘ईय’ है। अन्य विकल्प इसके अनुचित उत्तर हैं।

Key Pointsस्पष्टीकरण:

  • अनुकरणीय’ शब्द में उचित प्रत्यय ‘ईय’ है।
  • अनुकरण+ ईय=अनुकरणीय’।
  • अनुकरणीय शब्द गुणवाचक तद्धित प्रत्यय का उदाहरण है।

गुणवाचक तद्धित प्रत्यय-

  • गुण का बोध कराने वाले प्रत्यय गुणवाचक तद्धित प्रत्यय कहलाते हैं।
  • संज्ञा के अन्त में आ, इत, ई, ईय, ईला, वान इन प्रत्ययों को लगाकर गुणवाचक संज्ञाएँ बनायी जाती हैं।
  • जैसे- ठंडा, क्रोधित, भारी, रमणीय, अनुकरणीय आदि।

Additional Informationविशेष:

शब्दपरिभाषाउदाहरण
उपसर्गउपसर्ग उस अक्षर या अक्षर समूह को कहते हैं जो किसी शब्द के पहले जुड़कर उसके अर्थ में परिवर्तन लाता है।जैसे - प्र, सु, अति, अधि, अनु, नि प्र + हार = प्रहार
प्रत्ययप्रत्यय वे शब्द हैं जो दूसरे शब्दों के अन्त में जुड़कर, अपनी प्रकृति के अनुसार, शब्द के अर्थ में परिवर्तन कर देते हैं।जैसे - ता, औना, अन, अत श्रो + ता = श्रोता
90

नौ रसों में किस को रस-राज कहा गया है -

  1. ((a))

    वीर रस को

  2. ((b))

    हास्य रस को

  3. ((c))

    शृंगार रस क़ो

  4. ((d))

    रौद्र रस क़ो

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

शृंगार रस क़ो

दिए गए विकल्पों में से सही उत्तर विकल्प 3 'शृंगार रस को' है। अन्य विकल्प इसके अनुचित उत्तर हैं। 

 

Key Points

  • नौ रसों में से 'शृंगार रस को' रसराज कहा गया है।
  • नायक और नायिका के मन में संस्कार रूप में स्थित रति या प्रेम जब रस की अवस्था को पहुँचकर आस्वादन के योग्य हो जाता है तो वह '​शृंगार रस' कहलाता है।
  • शृंगार रस के सुखद एवं दुखद दोनों प्रकार की अनुभूतियां होती है इसी कारण इसके दो रूप संयोग श्रृंगार एवं वियोग श्रृंगार माने गए हैं।

अन्य विकल्प: 

रसपरिभाषाउदाहरण
वीर रसअत्यन्त कठिन कार्य करने के उत्साह से इस रस की उत्पत्ति होती है। वीर रस के चार प्रकार हैं - युद्धवीर, दानवीर, दयावीर और धर्रमवीर।बुंदेले हरबोलों के मुंह हमने सुनी कहानी थी, खूब लड़ी मर्दानी वह तो झाँसी वाली रानी थी।
हास्य रसइसका स्थायी भाव हास होता है इसके अंतर्गत वेशभूषा, वाणी आदि कि विकृति को देखकर मन में जो विनोद का भाव उत्पन्न होता है उससे हास की उत्पत्ति होती है इसे ही हास्य रस कहते हैं।सीरा पर गंगा हसै, भुजानि में भुजंगा हसै,
हास ही को दंगा भयो, नंगा के विवाह में।
रौद्र रसविरोधी पक्ष द्वारा किसी व्यक्ति, देश, समाज या धर्म का अपमान या अपकार करने से उसकी प्रतिक्रिया में जो क्रोध उत्पन्न होता है, वह विभाव, अनुभाव और संचारी भावों में परिपुष्ट होकर आस्वाद्य हो जाता है और तब रौद्र रस उत्पन्न होता है।माखे लखन कुटिल भयीं भौंहें। रद-पट फरकत नयन रिसौहैं।। कहि न सकत रघुबीर डर, लगे वचन जनु बान। नाइ राम-पद-कमल-जुग, बोले गिरा प्रमान।

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Additional Information

  • रस का शाब्दिक अर्थ है 'आनन्द'।
  • काव्य को पढ़ने या सुनने से जिस आनन्द की अनुभूति होती है, उसे रस कहा जाता है।
91

Find the value of sin 75°.

  1. ((a))

    3 + 12\frac{\sqrt{3~}+~1}{2}

  2. ((b))

    \(\frac{\sqrt{6}+\sqrt{2}}{4}\)

  3. ((c))

    \(\frac{\sqrt{6~}-\sqrt{2}}{4}\)

  4. ((d))

    3  122\frac{\sqrt{3}~-~1}{2\sqrt{2}}

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

\(\frac{\sqrt{6}+\sqrt{2}}{4}\)

As we know,

sin (A + B) = sin A cosB + cos A sinB 

Hence, sin 75° = sin (45° + 30°) = sin 45 cos 30 + cos 45 sin30

⇒ (1/√2) × (√3/2) + (1/√2) × (1/2)

⇒ [√3/2√2] + [1/2√2]

⇒ (√3 + 1)/2√2

⇒ (√6 + √2)/4

92

The radius of the circular base of a cone is 14 cm. Its slant height is 15 cm. Find its curved surface area. 

  1. ((a))

    600 sq.cm

  2. ((b))

    500 sq.cm

  3. ((c))

    660 sq.cm

  4. ((d))

    220 sq.cm

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

660 sq.cm

Given:

Radius(r) = 14 cm and slant height(l) = 15 cm

Formula used:

Curved surface area of cone = π × radius × slant height

Calculations:

Curved surface area of cone = 22/77  × 14 × 15 (where, π = 22/7)

= 22 × 30

= 660 sq.cm.

∴ The answer is 660 sq.cm.

93

If the angles of a triangle are in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3, then find the value of largest angle.

A.30° 

B. 60° 

C. 90° 

D. 120°

  1. ((a))

    B

  2. ((b))

    A

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

C

Given:

Ratio of angles of triangles = 1 : 2 : 3

Formula Used:

Sum of angles of triangle = 180° 

Calculation:

Let the angles of triangles be x, 2x and 3x respectively 

⇒ x + 2x + 3x = 180° 

⇒ 6x = 180° 

⇒ x = 30° 

⇒ 3x = 90° 

∴ Largest angle of triangle is 90°

94

How is 95\frac{9}{5} expressed as a percentage?

  1. ((a))

    180%

  2. ((b))

    170%

  3. ((c))

    150%

  4. ((d))

    160%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

180%

Given:

Fraction = 95\dfrac{9}{5}

Concept used:

To convert a fraction to a percentage, multiply it by 100.

Calculation:

95\dfrac{9}{5} in percentage = 95\dfrac{9}{5} x 100 

⇒ 9005\dfrac{900}{5} = 180%

∴ The correct answer is 180%.

95

If the average of 10 numbers is 40 and the average of six of them is 28, then the average of the remaining four numbers is:

  1. ((a))

    52

  2. ((b))

    54

  3. ((c))

    56

  4. ((d))

    58

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

58

Given:

Average of 10 numbers = 40

Average of 6 of them = 28

Calculation:

Sum of 10 number = 10 × 40 = 400

Sum of 6 numbers = 6 × 28 = 168

∴ Sum of remaining 4 numbers = 400 - 168 

⇒ 232

Average = 232/4 = 58

Hence, the correct answer is 58.

96

A dealer sold a camera for 20% profit on the selling price. Find the selling price if the cost price is Rs. 28,800.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 18,000

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 36,000

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 54,000

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 72,000

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Rs. 36,000

Correct Answer Rs. 36,000

Given: 

Profit% = 20% on selling price

Cost price = Rs. 28,800

Formula used:

Selling price = Cost price × (Assumed selling price/Assumed cost price)

Calculation:

Let's assume that the selling price is Rs. 100

Profit% = 20% on selling price

Profit = 20% 0f Rs. 100

⇒ Rs. 20

Cost price = 100 - 20 = Rs. 80

Selling price = Rs. 28,800 × 100/80

⇒ Rs. 36,000

∴ The selling price is Rs. 36,000.

Alternate Method

20% = 1/5

As the profit is calculated on the Selling Price

∴ Selling Price = 5 units, Profit = 1 unit and CP = 4 units

CP = 4 units = 28800 (Given)

1 unit = 7200

5 units = 7200 × 5 = 36000

∴ The selling price is Rs. 36,000.

97

If 0.45 : x : : 3 : 8, then x is equal to:

  1. ((a))

    1.3

  2. ((b))

    1.2

  3. ((c))

    1.4

  4. ((d))

    2.2

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1.2

Formula Used:

If a : b :: c : d

Then by 4th proportional formula

a/b = c/d

Calculation:

According to the question

0.45/x = 3/8

⇒ x = (0.45 × 8)/3 = 1.2

∴ The value of x is 1.2.

98

At what rate of simple interest will a sum of money double itself in 18 years?

  1. ((a))

    \(5\frac{5}{9}{\rm{% }}\)

  2. ((b))

    \(5\frac{2}{3}{\rm{% }}\)

  3. ((c))

    \(5\frac{5}{2}{\rm{% }}\)

  4. ((d))

    5%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

\(5\frac{5}{9}{\rm{% }}\)

Let the principal amount be Rs. x.

Simple interest will a sum of money double itself in 18 years. So, the interest will also be Rs. x

Simple interest = P × t × r/100

[Where, P = principal amount, t = duration, r = interest rate]

x = x × 18 × r/100

r=10018=559\Rightarrow r = \frac{{100}}{{18}} = 5\frac{5}{9}

99

40 will be present on which term of the sequence 7, 10, 13, 16, ________?

  1. ((a))

    14

  2. ((b))

    12

  3. ((c))

    22

  4. ((d))

    15

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

12

Given: 

an = 40 

a = 3

Concept used: 

Arithmetic Progression

an = a + (n - 1)d, 

where a = first term, 

d = common difference, 

n = number of terms

Calculation:

⇒ an = 7 + (n - 1)3

⇒ 40 = 7 + (n - 1)3

Solving for n,

⇒ 40 - 7 = 3n - 3

⇒ 33 + 3 = 3n

⇒ n = 36/3

⇒ n = 12

∴ The term that has a value of 40 is the 12th term in the sequence.

100

The number π is

  1. ((a))

    a fraction

  2. ((b))

    a recurring decimal 

  3. ((c))

    a rational number

  4. ((d))

    an irrational number

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

an irrational number

The number π (pi) is an irrational number. Irrational numbers are numbers that cannot be expressed as a simple fraction (ratio) of two integers, and they have decimal representations that neither terminate nor repeat in a pattern.

π is a fundamental mathematical constant representing the ratio of a circle's circumference to its diameter.

Its decimal representation begins with 3.14159 and goes on infinitely without repeating a specific sequence.

This non-repeating, non-terminating nature classifies it as an irrational number.

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