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Nainital Bank Clerk (Held on 25 August 2019) Memory Based Paper (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 145 minutes · with answers · free

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Reasoning (40 questions)

1

Directions: In the following question assuming the given statements to be True, find which of the conclusion among given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.

Statements: M ≥ U; U > T; R = T; V ≥ R

Conclusions:

I. R < M

II. V = U

  1. ((a))

    If, only I is true

  2. ((b))

    If, only II is true

  3. ((c))

    If either I or II is true

  4. ((d))

    If, neither I nor II is true

  5. ((e))

    If, Both I and II are true

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

If, only I is true

Given statements: M ≥ U; U > T; R = T; V ≥ R

On combining: M ≥ U > T = R ≤ V

Conclusions: 

I. R < M → True (as M ≥ U > T = R → thus clearly R < M)

II. V = U → False (as U > T = R ≤ V → Relationship between V and U cannot be determined)

Therefore, only conclusion I is true.

2

Directions: In the following question assuming the given statements to be True, find which of the conclusion among given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.

Statements: A > B ≥ C; C ≥ D

Conclusions: 

 I. A > C

 II.A = C

  1. ((a))

    Only I is True

  2. ((b))

    Only II is True

  3. ((c))

    Both I and II are True

  4. ((d))

    Nither I nor II are True

  5. ((e))

    Either I or II true

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only I is True

Given statements: A > B ≥ C ; C ≥ D

Conclusions:

I. A > C → True ( as A > B & B ≥ C)

II.A = C → False ( as A > B ≥ C ) Because B ≥ C ≥ D A cannot equal to C

Hence, only conclusion I is True

3

Directions: In the following question assuming the given statements to be True, find which of the conclusion among given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.

Statements: 1 < 2 < 4 ; 4 < 5 < 6 ≥ 7

Conclusions:

I. 2 > 7

II. 6 > 1

  1. ((a))

    Only I is True

  2. ((b))

    Only II is True

  3. ((c))

    Both I and II are True

  4. ((d))

    Either I or II is True

  5. ((e))

    Neither I nor II is True

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Only II is True

Given Statements : 1 < 2 < 4 ; 4 < 5 < 6 ≥ 7

 On Combining : 1 < 2 < 4 < 5 < 6 ≥ 7

Conclusions : 

 I. 2 > 7 → False ( As 2 < 4 < 5 < 6 ≥ 7 → thus clear relation can not be determined between 2 and 7 ) 

II. 6 > 1 → True ( As 1 < 2 < 4 < 5 < 6 → thus clear relation can be determined between 6 and 1 )

Therefore only II is true.

Important Points

When Series breaks we can not determine the definite relation, So it will be False.

4

Directions: In the following question assuming the given condition to be true, find which of the following conclusions among the given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.

Statements: P > Q ≥ R; S ≤ R = T > A; L = A > B

Conclusions:

I. Q = T

II. P > L

  1. ((a))

    Only II is true

  2. ((b))

    Only I is true

  3. ((c))

    Both I and II are true

  4. ((d))

    Either I or II is true

  5. ((e))

    None is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Only II is true

Given statements: - P > Q ≥ R; S ≤ R = T > A; L = A > B

Combined statement: P > Q ≥ R = T > A = L > B; S ≤ R

(I) Q = T – False (It is possible but not definitely true since, P > Q ≥ R = T > A = L which implies Q ≥ T is definitely true i.e; either Q > T or Q = T is true)

(II) P > L – True (Since P > Q ≥ R = T > A = L, implies P > L)

Hence, the correct answer is only conclusion II is true.

5

Directions: In the following question assuming the given statements to be True, find which of the conclusion among given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.

Statements: 

W ≥ X > Y = Z; W < T = U

Conclusions:

I. U > X 

II. T > Y

  1. ((a))

    Only II is True

  2. ((b))

    Only I is True

  3. ((c))

    Both I and II are True

  4. ((d))

    None is True

  5. ((e))

    Either I or II is True

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Both I and II are True

Given Statements: W ≥ X > Y = Z; W < T = U

On combining: U = T > W ≥ X > Y = Z

Conclusions:

I. U > X → True (as U = T > W ≥ X → U > X)

II. T > Y → True (as T > W ≥ X > Y → T > Y)

Therefore, both conclusion I and II are True.

Directions: Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.

There are 8 friends Shalu, Annu, Neha, Komal, Preeti, Gunjan, Chinu and Radha. They all are going for a party and sitting in a circular table facing inside but not necessarily in the same order.

Only one people sit between Radha and Preeti. Neha is immediate left of Preeti. Chinu is 3rd to the right of Komal. Only one person sit between Radha and Chinu. Gunjan is immediate left of Chinu. Annu is immediate right of Chinu and immediate left of Radha.

6

Who is sitting 3rd to the right of Shalu?

  1. ((a))

    Neha

  2. ((b))

    Gunjan

  3. ((c))

    Annu

  4. ((d))

    Radha

  5. ((e))

    Komal

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Annu

Eight People - Shalu, Annu, Neha, Komal, Preeti, Gunjan, Chinu and Radha. All are facing inside.

  1. Only 1 person sit between Radha and Preeti.

  2. Neha is immediate left of Preeti.

  1. Only one person sit between Radha and Chinu.

  2. Gunjan is immediate left of Chinu.

  1. Chinu is 3rd to the right of Komal.

  1. Annu is immediate right of Chinu and immediate left of Radha. 

( Case II is eliminated because Komal is sitting immediate left of Radha) 

  1. There is only one place left so Shalu is sitting Between Komal and Gunjan.

Final Solution: 

Hence, Annu is 3rd to the Right of Shalu.

7

How many persons are sitting between Annu and Komal?

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

  5. ((e))

    5

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

3

Eight People - Shalu, Annu, Neha, Komal, Preeti, Gunjan, Chinu and Radha. All are facing inside.

  1. Only 1 person sit between Radha and Preeti.

  2. Neha is immediate left of Preeti.

  1. Only one person sit between Radha and Chinu.

  2. Gunjan is immediate left of Chinu.

  1. Chinu is 3rd to the right of Komal.

  1. Annu is the immediate right of Chinu and the immediate left of Radha. 

( Case II is eliminated because Komal is sitting immediate left of Radha) 

  1. There is only one place left so Shalu is sitting Between Komal and Gunjan.

Final Solution: 

Hence, 3 persons are sitting between Annu and Komal.

8

Where Gunjan is sitting with respect to Radha?

  1. ((a))

    Third to the left 

  2. ((b))

    Third to the right 

  3. ((c))

    Second to the left 

  4. ((d))

    Second to the right 

  5. ((e))

    Fourth to the right

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Third to the left 

Eight People - Shalu, Annu, Neha, Komal, Preeti, Gunjan, Chinu and Radha. All are facing inside.

  1. Only 1 person sit between Radha and Preeti.

  2. Neha is immediate left of Preeti.

  1. Only one person sit between Radha and Chinu.

  2. Gunjan is immediate left of Chinu.

  1. Chinu is 3rd to the right of Komal.

  1. Annu is the immediate right of Chinu and the immediate left of Radha. 

( Case II is eliminated because Komal is sitting immediate left of Radha) 

  1. There is only one place left so Shalu is sitting Between Komal and Gunjan.

Final Solution: 

Hence, Gunjan is sitting to the left of Radha.

9

Who is sitting fourth to right of Neha?

  1. ((a))

    Shalu

  2. ((b))

    Annu

  3. ((c))

    Gunjan

  4. ((d))

    Chinu

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Gunjan

Eight People - Shalu, Annu, Neha, Komal, Preeti, Gunjan, Chinu and Radha. All are facing inside.

  1. Only 1 person sit between Radha and Preeti.

  2. Neha is immediate left of Preeti.

  1. Only one person sit between Radha and Chinu.

  2. Gunjan is immediate left of Chinu.

  1. Chinu is 3rd to the right of Komal.

  1. Annu is the immediate right of Chinu and the immediate left of Radha. 

( Case II is eliminated because Komal is sitting immediate left of Radha) 

  1. There is only one place left so Shalu is sitting Between Komal and Gunjan.

Final Solution: 

Hence, Gunjan is sitting fourth to the right of Neha.

10

How many persons are sitting between Chinu and Shalu when counting from left of Chinu?

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    3

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    2

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1

Eight People - Shalu, Annu, Neha, Komal, Preeti, Gunjan, Chinu and Radha. All are facing inside.

  1. Only 1 person sit between Radha and Preeti.

  2. Neha is immediate left of Preeti.

  1. Only one person sit between Radha and Chinu.

  2. Gunjan is immediate left of Chinu.

  1. Chinu is 3rd to the right of Komal.

  1. Annu is the immediate right of Chinu and the immediate left of Radha. 

( Case II is eliminated because Komal is sitting immediate left of Radha) 

  1. There is only one place left so Shalu is sitting Between Komal and Gunjan.

Final Solution: 

Hence, 1 person is sitting between Chinu and Shalu.

Direction: Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Among the six-person P, Q, R, S, T, and U each have different weights. U is heavier than 3 persons, T is lighter than P. Q is lighter than only R. T is not the lightest. P is lighter than Q. The second heaviest is 65 kg and the second lightest person is 33 kg.

11

After arranging the person in ascending order of their weight find the person who comes immediately after T?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    U

  3. ((c))

    Q

  4. ((d))

    P

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

P

(i) T is lighter than P → P > T.

(ii) Q is lighter than only R → R > Q.

(iii) T is not the lightest, U is heavier than 3 persons.

According to given data, the order of persons from heaviest to lightest is:

R > Q > U > P > T > Sand Weight of Q = 65 kg, Weight of T = 33 kg

If the people are arranged in ascending of their weight, then the order becomes:

S, T, P, U, Q, R

Clearly, P comes immediately after T.

12

After arranging the person in ascending order of their weight find the person in fourth position?

  1. ((a))

    U

  2. ((b))

    T

  3. ((c))

    P

  4. ((d))

    Q

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

U

(i) T is lighter than P → P > T.

(ii) Q is lighter than only R → R > Q.

(iii) T is not the lightest, U is heavier than 3 persons.

According to given data, the order of persons from heaviest to lightest is:

R > Q > U > P > T > Sand Weight of Q = 65 kg, Weight of T = 33 kg

If the people are arranged in ascending of their weight, then the order becomes:

S, T, P, U, Q, R

Clearly, U is in fourth position after arrangement.

13

After arranging the person in ascending order of their weight from left to right, Persons whose weight is 65 kg is at which position with respect to T?

  1. ((a))

    Third to the right 

  2. ((b))

    Fourth to the right

  3. ((c))

    Second to the left

  4. ((d))

    Immediate left

  5. ((e))

    Immediate right

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Third to the right 

(i) T is lighter than P → P > T.

(ii) Q is lighter than only R → R > Q.

(iii) T is not the lightest, U is heavier than 3 persons.

According to given data, the order of persons from heaviest to lightest is:

R > Q > U > P > T > Sand Weight of Q = 65 kg, Weight of T = 33 kg

If the people are arranged in ascending of their weight, then the order becomes:

S, T, P, U, Q, R

Hence, Q is third to the right of T.

Directions: Study the following information and answer the given questions.

Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting in a linear row facing north.Two persons sit between F and  A, F sits one of the extreme ends. B sits immediately right of A. One person sits between B and F. Three persons are sitting between A and C.Two persons are sitting between D and G. G is to the right of D. E sits immediately right of C and  immediately left of H.

14

Who sits between D and B?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    C

  3. ((c))

    E

  4. ((d))

    F

  5. ((e))

    G

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting in a linear row facing north.

  1. Two persons sit between F and  A, F sits one of the extreme ends.

  1. B sits immediately right of A.
  2. One person sits between B and F.

(Case II eliminated)

  1. Three persons are sitting between A and C.
  2. Two persons are sitting between D and G.
  3. G is to the right of D.

  1. E sits immediately right of C and immediately left of H.

Hence, A sits between D and B.

15

How many persons sit to the right of H?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Two

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    Four

  5. ((e))

    Five

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Five

Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting in a linear row facing north.

  1. Two persons sit between F and  A, F sits one of the extreme ends.

  1. B sits immediately right of A.
  2. One person sits between B and F.

(Case II eliminated)

  1. Three persons are sitting between A and C.
  2. Two persons are sitting between D and G.
  3. G is to the right of D.

  1. E sits immediately right of C and immediately left of H.

Hence, Five persons sits to the right of H.

16

How many persons sit to the right of F?

  1. ((a))

    No one

  2. ((b))

    One

  3. ((c))

    Two

  4. ((d))

    Three

  5. ((e))

    Four

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

No one

Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting in a linear row facing north.

  1. Two persons sit between F and  A, F sits one of the extreme ends.

  1. B sits immediately right of A.
  2. One person sits between B and F.

(Case II eliminated)

  1. Three persons are sitting between A and C.
  2. Two persons are sitting between D and G.
  3. G is to the right of D.

  1. E sits immediately right of C and immediately left of H.

Hence, No one sits to the right of F.

17

Who sits between E and D?

  1. ((a))

    H

  2. ((b))

    C

  3. ((c))

    A

  4. ((d))

    B

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

H

Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting in a linear row facing north.

  1. Two persons sits between F and  A, F sits one of the extreme ends.

  1. B sits immediately right of A.
  2. One person sits between B and F.

(Case II eliminated)

  1. Three persons are sitting between A and C.
  2. Two persons are sitting between D and G.
  3. G is to the right of D.

  1. E sits immediately right of C and immediately left of H.

Hence,  H sits between E and D.

18

How many persons sit between E and B?

  1. ((a))

    One

  2. ((b))

    Two

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    Four

  5. ((e))

    Five

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Three

Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting in a linear row facing north.

  1. Two persons sit between F and  A, F sits one of the extreme ends.

  1. B sits immediately right of A.
  2. One person sits between B and F.

(Case II eliminated)

  1. Three persons are sitting between A and C.
  2. Two persons are sitting between D and G.
  3. G is to the right of D.

  1. E sits immediately right of C and immediately left of H.

Hence, Three persons sits between E and B.

Directions: Study the information given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Sheela started from her office towards the North and covered a distance of 50 m and then turned to her right and walked 20 m to the market. Then she again turned to her right and walked 25 m and finally, she again turned to her right and walked 30 m to reach her home.

19

Total distance covered by sheela from office to reach her home ?

  1. ((a))

    100

  2. ((b))

    125

  3. ((c))

    115

  4. ((d))

    90

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

125

We have drawn the figure according to the information given in the question,

 

From the figure total distance covered by Sheela is (50 + 20 + 25 + 30) = 125 m.

Hence, Sheela covered a 125 m distance to reach her home.

20

In which direction market is from her office ?

  1. ((a))

    North

  2. ((b))

    South

  3. ((c))

    East

  4. ((d))

    North-East

  5. ((e))

    North-West

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

North-East

We have drawn the figure according to the information given in the question,

 

Hence, From the figure, it is clear that the market is in the North-East direction from her office.

21

In which direction is her Home to the Market?

  1. ((a))

    South

  2. ((b))

    West

  3. ((c))

    South-West

  4. ((d))

    North-West

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

South-West

We have drawn the figure according to the information given in the question,

 

Hence, from the figure, it is clear that the Home of Sheela is in South-West direction to the Market.

22

What is the shortest distance between Sheela's office and her home?

  1. ((a))

    25

  2. ((b))

    10

  3. ((c))

    35

  4. ((d))

    (\sqrt{725})

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

(\sqrt{725})

We have drawn the figure according to the information given in the question,

 

 

from the figure, the shortest distance between Sheela's office and home is the root of ( 252 + 102 )

(\sqrt{625 + 100}) = (\sqrt{725})

Hence, the shortest distance between Sheela's office to her home is (\sqrt{725})

Direction: Read the following information carefully to answer the question that follows

Seven persons P, Q, R, S, T, U and V attended marriage in seven days from Sunday to Saturday but not in the same order. One person attended marriage only for one day.

Q attends the marriage after T. Number of persons attends the marriage between S and T is one less than the number of persons attends between S and Q. Only one person attends marriage between P and R, but R does not attend the marriage on Sunday. Number of persons attend marriage before S is equal to the number of persons attend marriage after V. Q attends marriage immediately before U. P attends marriage before Wednesday, but P does not attend on Sunday. U attends marriage after S.

23

Who attends the marriage on Sunday?

  1. ((a))

    R

  2. ((b))

    V

  3. ((c))

    T

  4. ((d))

    Q

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

T

Seven persons: P, Q, R, S, T, U and V

Days: Sunday to Saturday

  1. P attends marriage before Wednesday, but P does not attend on Sunday, which means P attends either on Monday or Tuesday.
  2. Only one person attends marriage between P and R.
  3. Q attends marriage immediately before U.
  4. Q attends the marriage after T. (So Q does not attend on Sunday)
CASE 1CASE 2CASE  3
DayPersonDayPersonDayPerson
SundaySundaySunday
MondayMondayPMondayP
TuesdayPTuesdayTuesday
WednesdayWednesdayRWednesdayR
ThursdayRThursdayQThursday
FridayQFridayUFridayQ
SaturdayUSaturdaySaturdayU

 

  1. Number of persons attend marriage before S is equal to the number of persons attend marriage after V.
  2. Number of persons attends between S and T is one less than the number of persons attends between S and Q.  (This eliminates case 1 and case 2 as this is not possible in case 1 and case 2)

So, the final arrangement is as follows.

CASE  3
DayPerson
SundayT
MondayP
TuesdayS
WednesdayR
ThursdayV
FridayQ
SaturdayU
<br>

Hence, T attends the marriage on Sunday.

24

How many persons attend marriage between Q and S?

  1. ((a))

    Two

  2. ((b))

    Three

  3. ((c))

    Four

  4. ((d))

    Five

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Two

Seven persons: P, Q, R, S, T, U and V

Days: Sunday to Saturday

  1. P attends marriage before Wednesday, but P does not attend on Sunday, which means P attends either on Monday or Tuesday.
  2. Only one person attends marriage between P and R.
  3. Q attends marriage immediately before U.
  4. Q attends the marriage after T. (So Q does not attend on Sunday)
CASE 1CASE 2CASE  3
DayPersonDayPersonDayPerson
SundaySundaySunday
MondayMondayPMondayP
TuesdayPTuesdayTuesday
WednesdayWednesdayRWednesdayR
ThursdayRThursdayQThursday
FridayQFridayUFridayQ
SaturdayUSaturdaySaturdayU

 

  1. Number of persons attend marriage before S is equal to the number of persons attend marriage after V.
  2. Number of persons attends between S and T is one less than the number of persons attends between S and Q.  (This eliminates case 1 and case 2 as this is not possible in case 1 and case 2)

So, the final arrangement is as follows.

CASE  3
DayPerson
SundayT
MondayP
TuesdayS
WednesdayR
ThursdayV
FridayQ
SaturdayU
<br>

Hence, only two persons attend the marriage between Q and S.

25

Who attends the marriage immediately before R?

  1. ((a))

    T

  2. ((b))

    V

  3. ((c))

    Q

  4. ((d))

    S

  5. ((e))

    U

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

S

Seven persons: P, Q, R, S, T, U and V

Days: Sunday to Saturday

  1. P attends marriage before Wednesday, but P does not attend on Sunday, which means P attends either on Monday or Tuesday.
  2. Only one person attends marriage between P and R.
  3. Q attends marriage immediately before U.
  4. Q attends the marriage after T. (So Q does not attend on Sunday)
CASE 1CASE 2CASE  3
DayPersonDayPersonDayPerson
SundaySundaySunday
MondayMondayPMondayP
TuesdayPTuesdayTuesday
WednesdayWednesdayRWednesdayR
ThursdayRThursdayQThursday
FridayQFridayUFridayQ
SaturdayUSaturdaySaturdayU

 

  1. Number of persons attend marriage before S is equal to the number of persons attend marriage after V.
  2. Number of persons attends between S and T is one less than the number of persons attends between S and Q.  (This eliminates case 1 and case 2 as this is not possible in case 1 and case 2)

So, the final arrangement is as follows.

CASE  3
DayPerson
SundayT
MondayP
TuesdayS
WednesdayR
ThursdayV
FridayQ
SaturdayU
<br>

Hence, S attends the marriage immediately before R.

26

Which of the following statement is true?

  1. ((a))

    V attends the marriage on Monday

  2. ((b))

    R attends the marriage immediately before U

  3. ((c))

    U attends the marriage on Thursday

  4. ((d))

    P attends the marriage before T

  5. ((e))

    Only one person attends the marriage between P and R

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Only one person attends the marriage between P and R

Seven persons: P, Q, R, S, T, U and V

Days: Sunday to Saturday

  1. P attends marriage before Wednesday, but P does not attend on Sunday, which means P attends either on Monday or Tuesday.
  2. Only one person attends marriage between P and R.
  3. Q attends marriage immediately before U.
  4. Q attends the marriage after T. (So Q does not attend on Sunday)
CASE 1CASE 2CASE  3
DayPersonDayPersonDayPerson
SundaySundaySunday
MondayMondayPMondayP
TuesdayPTuesdayTuesday
WednesdayWednesdayRWednesdayR
ThursdayRThursdayQThursday
FridayQFridayUFridayQ
SaturdayUSaturdaySaturdayU

 

  1. Number of persons attend marriage before S is equal to the number of persons attend marriage after V.
  2. Number of persons attends between S and T is one less than the number of persons attends between S and Q.  (This eliminates case 1 and case 2 as this is not possible in case 1 and case 2)

So, the final arrangement is as follows.

CASE  3
DayPerson
SundayT
MondayP
TuesdayS
WednesdayR
ThursdayV
FridayQ
SaturdayU
<br>
  1. V attends the marriage on Monday –False (As V attends the marriage on Thursday)
  2. R attends the marriage immediately before U–False (As R attends the marriage 3 days before U)
  3. U attends the marriage on Thursday–False (As U attends the marriage on Saturday)
  4. P attends the marriage before T–False (As P attends the marriage immediately after T)
  5. Only one person attends the marriage between P and R - True

Hence, the statement “only one person attends the marriage between P and R” is true.

27

Number of persons, who attend the marriage before R is one more than the number of persons attend the marriage after whom?

  1. ((a))

    T

  2. ((b))

    S

  3. ((c))

    V

  4. ((d))

    U

  5. ((e))

    Q

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

V

Seven persons: P, Q, R, S, T, U and V

Days: Sunday to Saturday

  1. P attends marriage before Wednesday, but P does not attend on Sunday, which means P attends either on Monday or Tuesday.
  2. Only one person attends marriage between P and R.
  3. Q attends marriage immediately before U.
  4. Q attends the marriage after T. (So Q does not attend on Sunday)
CASE 1CASE 2CASE  3
DayPersonDayPersonDayPerson
SundaySundaySunday
MondayMondayPMondayP
TuesdayPTuesdayTuesday
WednesdayWednesdayRWednesdayR
ThursdayRThursdayQThursday
FridayQFridayUFridayQ
SaturdayUSaturdaySaturdayU

 

  1. Number of persons attend marriage before S is equal to the number of persons attend marriage after V.
  2. Number of persons attends between S and T is one less than the number of persons attends between S and Q.  (This eliminates case 1 and case 2 as this is not possible in case 1 and case 2)

So, the final arrangement is as follows.

CASE  3
DayPerson
SundayT
MondayP
TuesdayS
WednesdayR
ThursdayV
FridayQ
SaturdayU
<br>

Three persons attend the marriage before R which is one more than the number of persons attend after V.

Hence, number of persons, who attend the marriage before R is one more than the number of persons attend the marriage after V.

28

In each of the questions below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

All juice is tea.

Only a few tea is coffee.

Some coffee is drink.

Conclusions:

I. All coffee can be tea

II. Some drink is juice.

  1. ((a))

    None follows

  2. ((b))

    Only I follows

  3. ((c))

    Only II follows

  4. ((d))

    Either I or II follows

  5. ((e))

    Both I and II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Only I follows

The least possible diagram will be as follows:

Conclusions:

I. All coffee can be tea: True (As given Only a few tea is coffee, all coffee can be tea but all tea can never be coffee.)

II. Some drink is juice: False (No direct relation between drink and juice, so it is possible but not definite)

Hence, Only I follow is the correct answer.

29

Direction: In the question below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

Some Ice is Milk.

All Ice is Tea.

Only a few Tea is Coffee.

Conclusions:

I. All Tea can be Coffee.

II. All coffee can be Tea.

  1. ((a))

    Only I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only II follows

  3. ((c))

    Both I and II follows

  4. ((d))

    Either I or II follows

  5. ((e))

    Neither I nor II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Only II follows

The least possible Venn Diagram will be as follows:

Conclusions:

I. All Tea can be Coffee → False (As Only a few Tea is Coffee, some tea is coffee and some tea is not coffee so All tea can be coffee will be false)

II. All coffee can be Tea → True (As Only a few Tea is Coffee, some tea is coffee and some tea is not coffee. The relation of some not is only from the tea side so there is a possibility that all coffee can be tea, so it is true)

The diagram of possibility will be as follows:

Hence, only II follows.

Note:

  1. 'Can be' means a possibility.
  2. 'Only a few' means a relation of Some and Some Not of the first element with the second element.
30

Directions: In the question given below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

No plant is a bird.

Some birds are cats.

Only cats are dogs.

Conclusions:

I. No dog is a plant.

II. All cats being birds is a possibility.

  1. ((a))

    Both conclusions follow.

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows.

  3. ((c))

    Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.

  4. ((d))

    Only conclusion I follows.

  5. ((e))

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Only conclusion I follows.

The least possible Venn Diagram for the given data is:

Confusion Points Only keyword denotes that Dog will have a positive relation only with Cat. So, here 'Only Cat are Dog' means that all Dog will be Cat and only Cat will be related to Dog other than this no one has a relationship with the Dog. 

Conclusions:

I. No dog is a plant → True (as only cats can be plants.)

II. All cats being birds is a possibility → False (if all cats are birds then in that case some dogs would be birds which is not possible.)

Hence, "only conclusion I follows."

31

Directions: In the question below are given three statements followed by three conclusions I, II, and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

Some shoes are leather.

All leather are brown.

Some brown are black.

Conclusions:

I. No shoes are black.

II. Some shoes are brown.

  1. ((a))

    Only I follows

  2. ((b))

    Either I or II follows

  3. ((c))

    Only II follows

  4. ((d))

    Both I and II follow

  5. ((e))

    None follow

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Only II follows

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as follows,Conclusions:

I. No shoes are black → false (it is possible but not definite.)

II. Some shoes are brown → true (it is definite.)

Hence, only conclusion II follows.

32

Direction: In the question below, there are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding the commonly known facts.

Statements:

At least some bullet are pistol.

Every bullet are revolver.

Some revolver are wire.

Conclusions:

I. Some bullet are wire.

II. At least some revolver are pistol.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion I follows

  2. ((b))

    Only conclusion II follows

  3. ((c))

    Both I and II follow

  4. ((d))

    Neither I nor II follows

  5. ((e))

    Either I or II follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Only conclusion II follows

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as follows,

Conclusion:

I. Some bullet are wire → False (It is possible but not definite)

II. At least some revolver are pistol → True (as some pistol are bullet and all bullet are revolver)

Hence, only conclusion II follows.

Directions: These questions are based on the following information.

There are seven members A through G in a family of three generation. There is no single parent in the family. G’s only daughter’s grandmother is F, who is married to C. E is the son-in-law of D, who is the only brother-in-law of A, who is the aunt of B. C is not the mother of A.

33

How is A’s father related to D?

  1. ((a))

    Brother

  2. ((b))

    Brother-in-law

  3. ((c))

    Father

  4. ((d))

    Father-in-law

  5. ((e))

    Uncle

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Father-in-law

From the given information,

<br> <br>

  1. G’s only daughter’s grandmother is F, who is married to C (F is married to C)

  2. E is the son-in-law of D and D is the only brother-in-law of A.

  3. A is the aunt of B.

Hence, A’s father C is the father-in-law of D.

34

Who is father of B?

  1. ((a))

    C

  2. ((b))

    G

  3. ((c))

    A

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

D

From the given information,

<br> <br>

  1. G’s only daughter’s grandmother is F, who is married to C (F is married to C)

  2. E is the son-in-law of D and D is the only brother-in-law of A.

  3. A is the aunt of B.

Hence, D is the father of B.

35

How is A related to G?

  1. ((a))

    Aunt

  2. ((b))

    Sister

  3. ((c))

    Mother

  4. ((d))

    Daughter

  5. ((e))

    Mother-in-law

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Sister

From the given information,

  1. G’s only daughter’s grandmother is F, who is married to C (F is married to C)

  2. E is the son-in-law of D and D is the only brother-in-law of A.

  3. A is the aunt of B.

Hence, A is the sister of G.

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

10 people Naman, Rishabh, Amisha, Nidhi, Ruchi, Rishi, Ankita, Kanak, Ruchika, and Ayushi are sitting in two parallel rows, containing 5 people in each row. People sitting in Row 1st facing south direction. People sitting in Row 2nd facing north direction. Ankita, Nidhi, Naman, Kanak, and Ruchika are sitting in row 1st and Rishi, Ruchi, Amisha, Rishabh, Ayushi are sitting in row 2nd, but not necessarily in the same order.

Naman is sitting third to the right of Ruchika. Nidhi sits opposite the person who sits second to the right of Ruchi. Neither Amisha nor Nidhi sit on the extreme ends of the row. Ruchika faces Rishi. Amisha sits second to the left of Rishi, and also Ayushi is an immediate left of Rishi. Ankita is not an immediate neighbor of Naman and does not face Ayushi.

36

Who is sitting opposite to Amisha?

  1. ((a))

    Ankita

  2. ((b))

    Naman

  3. ((c))

    Nidhi

  4. ((d))

    Kanak

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Kanak

10 people: Naman, Rishabh, Amisha, Nidhi, Ruchi, Rishi, Ankita, Kanak, Ruchika, and Ayushi.

In Row 1: Ankita, Nidhi, Naman, Kanak, and Ruchika (Facing South)

In Row 2: Rishi, Ruchi, Amisha, Rishabh, Ayushi (Facing North)

1. Naman is sitting third to the right of Ruchika. Ruchika faces Rishi, on combining these two sentences we get 2 possible cases for the position of Naman and Ruchika.

Case 1: When Ruchika sits second from the left end of the row.

Case 2: When Ruchika sits on the extreme end from the left end of the row.

2. Nidhi sits opposite to the person who sits second to the right of Ruchi. Neither Amisha nor Nidhi sit on the extreme ends of the row. 

Case 1: When Ruchi sits at the extreme end of the row from the left end.

Case 2: When Ruchi sits at the extreme end of the row from the left end.

Case 2a: When Ruchi sits second from the left end of the row.

3.  Amisha sits second to the left of Rishi, and also Ayushi is an immediate neighbor of Rishi.

 

 

4. Ankita is not an immediate neighbor of Naman, and does not face Ayushi, from this line our Case 2 and Case 2a gets eliminated, as no other place for Ankita is left to sit in these cases except to the positions on the immediate left or right of Naman.

So, Ankita will sit on the extreme end of the row from the right end facing Rishabh.

Now, only one place is left for the position of Kanak which is to the immediate left of Naman.

The final arrangement:

 Kanak is sitting opposite to Amisha.

37

Who is sitting opposite to the person who is sitting second to the left of Ayushi?

  1. ((a))

    Kanak

  2. ((b))

    Naman

  3. ((c))

    Ruchika

  4. ((d))

    Ankita

  5. ((e))

    Nidhi

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Naman

10 people: Naman, Rishabh, Amisha, Nidhi, Ruchi, Rishi, Ankita, Kanak, Ruchika, and Ayushi.

In Row 1: Ankita, Nidhi, Naman, Kanak, and Ruchika (Facing South)

In Row 2:  Rishi, Ruchi, Amisha, Rishabh, Ayushi (Facing North)

1. Naman is sitting third to the right of Ruchika. Ruchika faces Rishi, on combining these two sentences we get 2 possible cases for the position of Naman and Ruchika.

Case 1: When Ruchika sits second from the left end of the row.

Case 2: When Ruchika sits on the extreme end from the left end of the row.

2. Nidhi sits opposite to the person who sits second to the right of Ruchi. Neither Amisha nor Nidhi sit on the extreme ends of the row. 

Case 1: When Ruchi sits at the extreme end of the row from the left end.

Case 2: When Ruchi sits at the extreme end of the row from the left end.

Case 2a: When Ruchi sits second from the left end of the row.

3.  Amisha sits second to the left of Rishi, and also Ayushi is an immediate neighbor of Rishi.

 

 

4. Ankita is not an immediate neighbor of Naman, and does not face Ayushi, from this line our Case 2 and Case 2a gets eliminated, as no other place for Ankita is left to sit in these cases except to the positions on the immediate left or right of Naman.

So, Ankita will sit on the extreme end of the row from the right end facing Rishabh.

Now, only one place is left for the position of Kanak which is to the immediate left of Naman.

The final arrangement:

Ruchi sits second to the left of Ayushi.

Naman sits opposite to Ruchi.

 Naman is sitting opposite to the person who is sitting second to the left of Ayushi.

38

How many people sit between Rishabh and the person who is facing Naman?

  1. ((a))

    Two

  2. ((b))

    One

  3. ((c))

    Three

  4. ((d))

    Four

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Three

10 people: Naman, Rishabh, Amisha, Nidhi, Ruchi, Rishi, Ankita, Kanak, Ruchika, and Ayushi.

In Row 1: Ankita, Nidhi, Naman, Kanak, and Ruchika (Facing South)

In Row 2: Rishi, Ruchi, Amisha, Rishabh, Ayushi (Facing North)

1. Naman is sitting third to the right of Ruchika. Ruchika faces Rishi, on combining these two sentences we get 2 possible cases for the position of Naman and Ruchika.

Case 1: When Ruchika sits second from the left end of the row.

Case 2: When Ruchika sits on the extreme end from the left end of the row.

2. Nidhi sits opposite to the person who sits second to the right of Ruchi. Neither Amisha nor Nidhi sit on the extreme ends of the row. 

Case 1: When Ruchi sits at the extreme end of the row from the left end.

Case 2: When Ruchi sits at the extreme end of the row from the left end.

Case 2a: When Ruchi sits second from the left end of the row.

3.  Amisha sits second to the left of Rishi, and also Ayushi is an immediate neighbor of Rishi.

 

 

4. Ankita is not an immediate neighbor of Naman, and does not face Ayushi, from this line our Case 2 and Case 2a gets eliminated, as no other place for Ankita is left to sit in these cases except to the positions on the immediate left or right of Naman.

So, Ankita will sit on the extreme end of the row from the right end facing Rishabh.

Now, only one place is left for the position of Kanak which is to the immediate left of Naman.

The final arrangement:

Ruchi is facing Naman.

Three people sit between Rishabh and the person facing Naman.

39

Four of the five are alike in a certain way. Which of the following does not belong to the group?

  1. ((a))

    Rishabh

  2. ((b))

    Ankita

  3. ((c))

    Ruchi

  4. ((d))

    Naman

  5. ((e))

    Ruchika

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Ruchika

10 people: Naman, Rishabh, Amisha, Nidhi, Ruchi, Rishi, Ankita, Kanak, Ruchika, and Ayushi.

In Row 1: Ankita, Nidhi, Naman, Kanak, and Ruchika (Facing South)

In Row 2:  Rishi, Ruchi, Amisha, Rishabh, Ayushi (Facing North)

1. Naman is sitting third to the right of Ruchika. Ruchika faces Rishi, on combining these two sentences we get 2 possible cases for the position of Naman and Ruchika.

Case 1: When Ruchika sits second from the left end of the row.

Case 2: When Ruchika sits on the extreme end from the left end of the row.

2. Nidhi sits opposite to the person who sits second to the right of Ruchi. Neither Amisha nor Nidhi sit on the extreme ends of the row. 

Case 1: When Ruchi sits at the extreme end of the row from the left end.

Case 2: When Ruchi sits at the extreme end of the row from the left end.

Case 2a: When Ruchi sits second from the left end of the row.

3.  Amisha sits second to the left of Rishi, and also Ayushi is the immediate left of Rishi.

 

 

4. Ankita is not an immediate neighbor of Naman, and does not face Ayushi, from this line our Case 2 and Case 2a gets eliminated, as no other place for Ankita is left to sit in these cases except to the positions on the immediate left or right of Naman.

So, Ankita will sit on the extreme end of the row from the right end facing Rishabh.

Now, only one place is left for the position of Kanak which is to the immediate left of Naman.

The final arrangement:

Let's check each option:

Rishabh: Sits at the extreme end.

Ankita: Sit at the extreme end.

Ruchi: Sit at the extreme end.

Naman: Sit at the extreme end.

Ruchika: Sit at the second left position from the left end.

Ruchika does not belong to that group.

40

If Amisha and Ruchika interchange their position, then who sits second to the right of Amisha?

  1. ((a))

    Ayushi

  2. ((b))

    Rishi

  3. ((c))

    Kanak

  4. ((d))

    Naman

  5. ((e))

    Nidhi

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Kanak

10 people: Naman, Rishabh, Amisha, Nidhi, Ruchi, Rishi, Ankita, Kanak, Ruchika, and Ayushi.

In Row 1: Ankita, Nidhi, Naman, Kanak, and Ruchika (Facing South)

In Row 2:  Rishi, Ruchi, Amisha, Rishabh, Ayushi (Facing North)

1. Naman is sitting third to the right of Ruchika. Ruchika faces Rishi, on combining these two sentences we get 2 possible cases for the position of Naman and Ruchika.

Case 1: When Ruchika sits second from the left end of the row.

Case 2: When Ruchika sits on the extreme end from the left end of the row.

2. Nidhi sits opposite to the person who sits second to the right of Ruchi. Neither Amisha nor Nidhi sit on the extreme ends of the row. 

Case 1: When Ruchi sits at the extreme end of the row from the left end.

Case 2: When Ruchi sits at the extreme end of the row from the left end.

Case 2a: When Ruchi sits second from the left end of the row.

3.  Amisha sits second to the left of Rishi, and also Ayushi is the immediate left of Rishi.

 

 

4. Ankita is not an immediate neighbor of Naman, and does not face Ayushi, from this line our Case 2 and Case 2a gets eliminated, as no other place for Ankita is left to sit in these cases except to the positions on the immediate left or right of Naman.

So, Ankita will sit on the extreme end of the row from the right end facing Rishabh.

Now, only one place is left for the position of Kanak which is to the immediate left of Naman.

The final arrangement:

If Amisha and Ruchika interchange their position:

Kanak will sit second to the right of Amisha.

Kanak will sit second to the right of Amisha, when Amisha and Ruchika interchange their position.

English Language (40 questions)

Read the passage carefully and select the best answer to each question out of the given five alternatives.

The electrification of vehicles has started gaining momentum and has opened new mobility avenues for India to tap into. India is all set to position itself as one of the leading marketplaces for Electric Vehicles (EVs).

The current outlook for EVs is optimistic as the sector has seen the evolution of several trends that are defining the growth of EVs. EV adoption can be seen across different vehicle segments as well as different business segments. Favourable plans and policies have been developed by the government like National Electric Mobility Mission Plan (NEMMP), Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of (Hybrid) and Electric Vehicles (FAME) Scheme to drive the transition towards the EV ambition of India

The EV ecosystem comprises key elements on the demand side, supply side and facilitators/enablers. The development of all the ecosystem elements needs to be balanced to promote EV uptake. The demand side is supported by various fiscal and non-fiscal incentives provided to the users to increase the uptake. Facilitators or the enabler side is being planned by emergence of multiple business models, development of charging infrastructure, adopting a suitable charging standard, amendment of building byelaws, etc.

But the supply side is yet to be evolved completely. It can be observed that the major components are not localised, i.e. either manufactured or assembled in India.

In order to unlock India’s potential in the electric mobility domain, it is critical for India to become self-reliant and augment the capacity in manufacturing critical components over a period of time. The impetus should also focus on domestic manufacturing of batteries and its components in the long-term, for which India currently depends on other countries, including China.

There are several major challenges to domestic battery production. Firstly, battery technology is currently evolving at a rapid pace with new chemistries gaining popularity. The associated R&D is technology intensive. The other challenges include unavailability of raw materials.  It is a harsh reality that the basic components, i.e., lithium cells that go into the manufacturing of li-ion batteries, are not yet produced in India. Hence, ensuring a reliable supply not just of the raw materials but also of the processed functional materials used in the anode and cathode, poses a challenge. Moreover, the technologies for making these batteries are also not available in India. The existing tax regime also poses a roadblock to the EV adoption in India. A battery is one of the key raw material for EVs but the capacity of Indian manufacturers is limited.

The batteries contribute the largest to the EV cost. Also, the potential for localisation of chassis, bodies and BMS are high while localisation of specialized components such as batteries and motors could be limited. The import of finished product should be discouraged while at the same time manufacturing of the finished product be encouraged by altering the tax regime. Moreover, in order to facilitate the localisation in India, the phasing of the investments may begin with assembling and then gradually move to manufacturing. Thus, the phased focus on the sector will help in import substitution of key auto components and improve its export share, meeting global demand giving a shift towards electric mobility and making India ‘Atmanirbhar’. Some of the key components that may be planned as part of the phasing strategy includes the following.

Achieving indigenisation across key components looks challenging, however, investment, innovation, research and development (R&D) across the right technologies will be the key. Innovations in battery manufacturing and setting up giga factories in the country will also be crucial. Indigenisation of EV components and battery pack assembly has a probability to produce a higher output value addition for the Indian auto industry in case of an EV transition. Policy interventions to enhance the competitiveness of EVs in India across various segments should be identified. One such government initiative which is pushing the localization of EVs includes Phased Manufacturing Plan (PMP). It identifies a graded duty structure to encourage indigenous manufacturing. The recently approved production-linked incentive (PLI) scheme for the automobile and battery manufacturing sectors could also enable the right ecosystem for indigenisation and value creation in the EV sector. OEMs should focus on R&D for providing a better value proposition and reduction in cost of the EV technology.

41

Find the relation between the statements given below.

Statement I: India is all set to position itself as one of the leading marketplaces for Electric Vehicles.

Statement II: Government has developed plans and policies to drive the transition towards the EV ambition of India.

  1. ((a))

    Statement (I) is the cause and Statement (II) is the effect

  2. ((b))

    Statement (II) is the cause and Statement (I) is the effect

  3. ((c))

    Both the Statement (I) and Statement (II) are independent causes

  4. ((d))

    Both the statements (I) and (II) are effects of independent causes

  5. ((e))

    Both the statements (I) and (II) are effects of some common cause

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Statement (II) is the cause and Statement (I) is the effect

The correct answer is Statement (II) is the cause and Statement (I) is the effect.

Key Points

The following lines are mentioned in the passage:

" Favourable plans and policies have been developed by the government like National Electric Mobility Mission Plan (NEMMP), Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of (Hybrid) and Electric Vehicles (FAME) Scheme to drive the transition towards the EV ambition of India."

"India is all set to position itself as one of the leading marketplaces for Electric Vehicles (EVs)."

  • According to the passage, the government has developed certain plans and policies to drive the transition towards the EV ambition of India. As a result of this, India is all set to position itself as one of the leading marketplaces for Electric Vehicles (EVs).
  • Hence, Statement (II) is the cause and Statement (I) is the effect.
  • Therefore, option 2) is the answer.

Additional Information

  • Favourable: in one's favour or beneficial
42

Which of the following is a false statement according to the passage?

  1. ((a))

    The demand side of the electric vehicle ecosystem is enhanced by various fiscal and non-fiscal incentives.

  2. ((b))

    Tax regime should be altered to evolve the manufacturing of electric vehicle ecosystem.

  3. ((c))

    India depends on other countries for the manufacturing of batteries and its components.

  4. ((d))

    The setting up of giga factories in the country will be important.

  5. ((e))

    The enabler side is not going to be planned.

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

The enabler side is not going to be planned.

The correct answer is The enabler side is not going to be planned.

Key Points

  • Option 1) is true. According to the passage, "The demand side is supported by various fiscal and non-fiscal incentives provided to the users to increase the uptake."
  • Option 2) is true. According to the passage, "The import of finished product should be discouraged while at the same time manufacturing of the finished product be encouraged by altering the tax regime."
  • Option 3) is true. According to the passage, "The impetus should also focus on domestic manufacturing of batteries and its components in the long-term, for which India currently depends on other countries, including China."
  • Option 4) is true. According to the passage, "Innovations in battery manufacturing and setting up giga factories in the country will also be crucial."
  • Option 5) is a false statement. According to the passage, "Facilitators or the enabler side is being planned by emergence of multiple business models, development of charging infrastructure, adopting a suitable charging standard, amendment of building byelaws, etc."
  • Hence, option 5) is the answer.

Additional Information

  • Impetus: motivation or stimulus
  • Amendment: change or modification
43

What can be inferred from the sentence given below?

"Moreover, in order to facilitate the localisation in India, the phasing of the investments may begin with assembling and then gradually move to manufacturing.”

  1. ((a))

    The process of localisation can become easier if the phasing of the investments begins with assembling and then moves to manufacturing.

  2. ((b))

    Achieving indigenization across key components of EV looks challenging and for this reason its demand gets affected.

  3. ((c))

    The existing tax regime also poses a roadblock to the EV adoption in India.

  4. ((d))

    Localization is not possible in India.

  5. ((e))

    The phasing of the investments may begin to move to manufacturing.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The process of localisation can become easier if the phasing of the investments begins with assembling and then moves to manufacturing.

The correct answer is 'The process of localisation can become easier if the phasing of the investments begins with assembling and then moves to manufacturing.'

Key Points

  • From the given sentence we can infer that it is talking about the localisation of a product in India and and it is also mentioned that this process can be eased if the phasing of the investments begins with assembling and then moves to manufacturing.
  • Hence, option 1) is the answer.

Additional Information

  • Assembling: bringing together
44

Which scheme has been approved recently for the automobile and battery manufacturing sectors?

  1. ((a))

    National Electric Mobility Mission Plan 

  2. ((b))

    FAME scheme

  3. ((c))

     Production-linked incentive

  4. ((d))

    PMP scheme

  5. ((e))

    Atmanirbhar scheme

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

 Production-linked incentive

The correct answer is Production-linked incentive.

Key Points

The following is mentioned in the passage: 

"The recently approved production-linked incentive (PLI) scheme for the automobile and battery manufacturing sectors could also enable the right ecosystem for indigenisation and value creation in the EV sector."

  • According to the passage, it is the production-linked incentive scheme which has been recently approved for the automobile and battery manufacturing sectors.
  • Hence, option 3) is the answer.
<br>

Additional Information

  • Indigenisation: the process of bring something under the control of the people native to a place.
45

Which component is used for the production of li-ion batteries?

  1. ((a))

    Anode

  2. ((b))

    Cathode

  3. ((c))

    Lithium cells

  4. ((d))

    Strategic component

  5. ((e))

    Tax regime

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Lithium cells

The correct answer is Lithium cells.

Key Points

The following is mentioned in the passage:

"It is a harsh reality that the basic components, i.e. lithium cells that go into the manufacturing of li-ion batteries, are not yet produced in India."

  • Lithium cells are used for the production of li-ion batteries.
  • Hence, option 3) is the answer.
46

What is the current situation of battery technology?

  1. ((a))

    It is growing slowly

  2. ((b))

    Evolving at a rapid pace 

  3. ((c))

    Already evolved

  4. ((d))

    It does not exist

  5. ((e))

    Either manufactured or assembled

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Evolving at a rapid pace 

The correct answer is Evolving at a rapid pace.

Key Points

The following is mentioned in the passage:

"Firstly, battery technology is currently evolving at a rapid pace with new chemistries gaining popularity."

  • The current situation of battery technology is that it is evolving at a rapid pace.
  • Hence, option 2) is the answer.

Additional Information

  • Evolving: developing
47

Why is the current outlook for the EVs optimistic?

  1. ((a))

    Because it is managing the facilitator or enabler

  2. ((b))

    Because it is combination of supply-push and demand-pull measures

  3. ((c))

    Because the sector has seen the evolution of several trends that are defining the growth of EVs

  4. ((d))

    Because it is a combination of key factors

  5. ((e))

    Because it is a strategic combination of investments, infrastructure and technology

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Because the sector has seen the evolution of several trends that are defining the growth of EVs

The correct answer is Because the sector has seen the evolution of several trends that are defining the growth of EVs.

Key Points

The following is mentioned in the passage:

"The current outlook for EVs is optimistic as the sector has seen the evolution of several trends that are defining the growth of EVs."

  • According to the passage, the current outlook for the EVs is optimistic because the sector has seen the evolution of several trends that are defining the growth of EVs.
  • Hence, option 3) is the answer.

Additional Information

  • Evolution: development
48

What can be the impact of the indigenisation of EV components and battery pack assembly?

  1. ((a))

    It may make the process challenging

  2. ((b))

    Raw materials will be unavailable

  3. ((c))

    This will contribute the largest to the EV cost. 

  4. ((d))

    The phasing of the investments may begin

  5. ((e))

    It may produce a higher output value addition for the Indian auto industry in case of an EV transition

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

It may produce a higher output value addition for the Indian auto industry in case of an EV transition

The correct answer is It may produce a higher output value addition for the Indian auto industry in case of an EV transition.

Key Points

The following is mentioned in the passage:

"Indigenisation of EV components and battery pack assembly has a probability to produce a higher output value addition for the Indian auto industry in case of an EV transition."

  • According to the passage, the indigenisation of EV components and battery pack assembly may produce a higer output value addition for the Indian auto industry in case of ab EV transition.
  • Hence, option 5) is the answer.

Additional Information

  • Probability: likelihood
49

Choose the synonym of the word 'Favourable'.

  1. ((a))

    Critical

  2. ((b))

    Possessive

  3. ((c))

    Impractical

  4. ((d))

    Convenient

  5. ((e))

    Magnificent

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Convenient

The correct answer is Convenient.

Key Points

  • The meaning of 'Favourable' is 'beneficial'.
  • The meaning of the word 'Convenient' is 'favourable or advantageous'.
  • Hence, the word 'Convenient' is the synonym of the word 'Favourable'.
  • Therefore, option 4) is the answer.
<br>

Additional Information

The meaning of the other given words:

WordsMeaning
CriticalGrave or serious
PossessiveControlling
ImpracticalNot sensible
MagnificentExcellent
50

Choose the antonym of the word 'Harsh'.

  1. ((a))

    Dulcet

  2. ((b))

    Rasping

  3. ((c))

    Extensive

  4. ((d))

    Prolonged

  5. ((e))

    Enlargement

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dulcet

The correct answer is 'Dulcet'.

Key Points

  • The meaning of 'Harsh' is 'cruel or unpleasantly rough'.
  • The meaning of the word 'Dulcet' is 'sweet and soothing'.
  • Hence, the word 'Dulcet' is the antonym of the word 'Harsh'.
  • Therefore, option 1) is the answer.
<br>

Additional Information

The meaning of the other given words:

WordsMeaning
RaspingUnpleasant
ExtensiveWide-ranging
ProlongedLengthy
EnlargementIncrease in size
51

Directions: The sentence given below has a blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the word that best suits the blank in order to make a meaningful sentence. 

Samuel's ________ pink dress at the gala was grabbing everyone's attention and was the talk for the town for weeks.

  1. ((a))

    Unpretentious

  2. ((b))

    Morose

  3. ((c))

    Redundant

  4. ((d))

    Flamboyant

  5. ((e))

    Ubiquitous

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Flamboyant

The correct answer is Flamboyant

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the answer:
  • Flamboyant: tending to attract attention because of their exuberance, confidence, and stylishness
  • The sentence talks about a person's pink dress at an event that was very eye-catching and was talked about by everyone.
  • For an outfit to be the center of attention in a way that it is talked about for days, usually means that it is extremely grand.
<br>

Hence, the correct answer is Flamboyant

Additional Information

Let's look at the meanings of the other words:

WordMeaning
Unpretentiouspleasantly simple and functional; modest
Morosesullen and ill-tempered
Redundantnot or no longer needed or useful
Ubiquitouspresent, appearing or found everywhere
52

Directions: The sentence given below has a blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the word that best suits the blank in order to make a meaningful sentence. 

The actors were left ________ after having seen the unexpectedly realistic, horrifying set-up for the movie.

  1. ((a))

    Euphoric

  2. ((b))

    Seething

  3. ((c))

    Melancholic

  4. ((d))

    Flabbergasted

  5. ((e))

    Nonchalant

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Flabbergasted

The correct answer is Flabbergasted

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the answer:
  • Flabbergasted: greatly surprised or astonished
  • The sentence talks about how a group of actors were left feeling a certain way because of the way the set of their movie was realistic and very scary.
  • An appearance of something scary or horrifying (especially when it is unexpected) is likely to leave a person surprised and astonished.
<br>

Thus, the correct answer is Flabbergasted. 

Additional Information

Let's look at the meaning of the other words:

WordMeaning
Euphoriccharacterized by or feeling intense excitement and happiness
Seethingfilled with or characterized by intense but unexpressed anger
Melancholicfeeling or expressing pensive sadness
Nonchalant(of a person or manner) feeling or appearing casually calm and relaxed
53

Fill in the blank with the appropriate word.

His _______ reply suggested a lack of interest in the topic

  1. ((a))

    Impressionable

  2. ((b))

    Ostensible

  3. ((c))

    Resplendent

  4. ((d))

    Chaotic

  5. ((e))

    Laconic

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Laconic

The correct answer is Laconic

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the answer:
  • Laconic: using or involving the use of a minimum of words
  • The sentence talks about someone's reply showing their disinterest in the topic at hand.
  • In general, it can be assumed that if a person is interested in a topic and is excited by it, they would talk a lot about it.
<br>

Thus, the correct answer is Laconic. 

Additional Information

Let's look at the meaning of the other words:

WordMeaning
Impressionableeasily influenced because of a lack of critical ability
Ostensiblestated or appearing to be true, but not necessarily so
Resplendentattractive and impressive through being richly colorful
Chaoticin a state of complete confusion and disorder
54

Direction: The sentence given below has a blank space and five words are given in the options. Click on the word which you consider the most APPROPRIATE to fit the blank.

He was described as a __________ reader who adored classics like “Crime and Punishment” and the Harry Potter series.

  1. ((a))

    Veracious

  2. ((b))

    Vociferous

  3. ((c))

    Voracious

  4. ((d))

    Copious

  5. ((e))

    Discordant

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Voracious

The correct answer is voracious.

Key Points

Let us look at the meaning of the correct word:

  • Voracious- engaging in an activity with great eagerness or enthusiasm
  • The word voracious fits here perfectly as it describes the individuals’ enthusiasm for reading.
  • Therefore, the only word that can make the sentence contextually and grammatically correct is voracious.
<br>

The sentence is: He was described as a voracious reader who adored classics like “Crime and Punishment” and the Harry Potter series.

Additional Information

Let us look at the meanings of the other options:

  • Veracious: speaking or representing the truth
  • Vociferous: expressing or characterized by vehement opinions; loud and forceful
  • Copious: abundant in supply or quantity
  • Discordant: disagreeing or incongruous
55

Direction: The sentence given below has a blank space and five words are given in the options. Click on the word which you consider the most APPROPRIATE to fit the blank.

The heartache of knowing that a great deal of this misery could have been avoided is __________ to our own genocide.

  1. ((a))

    Tantamount

  2. ((b))

    Paramount

  3. ((c))

    Contentious

  4. ((d))

    Perfunctory

  5. ((e))

    Disparate

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Tantamount

The correct answer is tantamount.

Key Points

Let us look at the meaning of the correct word:

  • Tantamount- equivalent in seriousness to; virtually the same as
  • The word tantamount fits perfectly as it draws an equivalent comparison between ‘the misery that could be avoided and genocide’.
  • Therefore, the only word that can make the sentence contextually and grammatically correct is tantamount.
<br>

The sentence is: The heartache of knowing that a great deal of this misery could have been avoided is tantamount to our own genocide.

Additional Information

Let us look at the meanings of the other options:

  • Paramount: more important than anything else; supreme
  • Contentious: causing or likely to cause an argument; controversial
  • Perfunctory: (of an action) carried out without real interest, feeling, or effort
  • Disparate: being not of the same kind
  • Genocide: the deliberate killing of a large number of people from a particular nation or ethnic group with the aim of destroying that nation or group; elimination

Directions: Given sentences are not in their exact position. Rearrange them to make a coherent paragraph and then answer the questions given below.

A. It can even make exercise more fun and productive.

B. Plus, hearing others laugh, even for no apparent reason, can often trigger genuine laughter.

C. To add simulated laughter into your own life, search for laugh yoga or laugh therapy groups. Or you can start simply by laughing at other people’s jokes, even if you don’t find them funny.

D. A Georgia State University study found that incorporating bouts of simulated laughter into an exercise program helped improve older adults’ mental health as well as their aerobic endurance.

E. Believe it or not, it’s possible to laugh without experiencing a funny event—and simulated laughter can be just as beneficial as the real thing

56

Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

C

The correct answer is C.

Key Points

From the above lines, we observe that

  • The para talks about simulated laughter, laughing without experiencing a funny event.
  • Statement C is talking about incorporating simulated laughter into our life style after explaining its importance in the previous statements.
  • Hence, the correct sequence is EADBC.
  • Hence, the fifth statement is C.

Hence, the correct answer is C*.*

Additional Information

Following tips may be useful while solving para jumbles:

  • The first step is to identify the purpose of the paragraph or the extract.
  • Look for the Keywords / Indicators.
  • Form Mandatory Pairs.
  • Use Time Sequencing.
  • Take the help of Nouns, Pronouns, and Antecedents.
57

Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

E

The correct answer is E.

Key Points

From the above lines, we observe that

  • The para talks about simulated laughter, laughing without experiencing a funny event.
  • All statements except E talks about the importance of simulated laughter.
  • Statement E introduces the idea of simulated laughter.
  • Thus E is a generalized statement whereas others are particular statements.
  • Hence, logically statement E takes precedence over other statements to be the introducing statement
  • Hence, the correct sequence is EADBC.
  • Hence, the first statement is E.

Hence, the correct answer is E*.*

Additional Information

Following tips may be useful while solving para jumbles:

  • The first step is to identify the purpose of the paragraph or the extract.
  • Look for the Keywords / Indicators.
  • Form Mandatory Pairs.
  • Use Time Sequencing.
  • Take the help of Nouns, Pronouns, and Antecedents.
58

Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

D

The correct answer is D.

Key Points

From the above lines, we observe that

  • The para talks about simulated laughter, laughing without experiencing a funny event.
  • Statement D talks about a study made by a Georgia State University followed by the importance of simulated laughter.
  • As statement D talks bout mental health and aerobic endurance, it will come right after statement A.
  • Statement A is talking about making the exercise better.
  • Hence, the correct sequence is EADBC.
  • Hence, the third statement is D.

Hence, the correct answer is D*.*

Additional Information

Following tips may be useful while solving para jumbles:

  • The first step is to identify the purpose of the paragraph or the extract.
  • Look for the Keywords / Indicators.
  • Form Mandatory Pairs.
  • Use Time Sequencing.
  • Take the help of Nouns, Pronouns, and Antecedents.
59

Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

The correct answer is A.

Key Points

From the above lines, we observe that

  • The para talks about simulated laughter, laughing without experiencing a funny event.
  • Statement A talks about how simulated laughter can make your daily exercise more fun and productive.
  • Thus A is a particular statement that will be coming after the introducing statement.
  • Hence, the correct sequence is EADBC.
  • Hence, the second statement is A.

Hence, the correct answer is A*.*

Additional Information

Following tips may be useful while solving para jumbles:

  • The first step is to identify the purpose of the paragraph or the extract.
  • Look for the Keywords / Indicators.
  • Form Mandatory Pairs.
  • Use Time Sequencing.
  • Take the help of Nouns, Pronouns, and Antecedents.
60

Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement?

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    E

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

B

The correct answer is B.

Key Points

From the above lines, we observe that

  • The para talks about simulated laughter, laughing without experiencing a funny event.
  • As statement D is talking about the study and benefits of simulated laughter.
  • Statement B is a complementary statement with is supporting the previous statement D.
  • Hence, the correct sequence is EADBC.
  • Hence, the fourth statement is B.

Hence, the correct answer is B*.*

Additional Information

Following tips may be useful while solving para jumbles:

  • The first step is to identify the purpose of the paragraph or the extract.
  • Look for the Keywords / Indicators.
  • Form Mandatory Pairs.
  • Use Time Sequencing.
  • Take the help of Nouns, Pronouns, and Antecedents.
61

In the following question, four words are given in bold, of which one word is misspelled. Find the misspelled word.

Codependancy(A) does not refer to all caring behaviour(B) or feelings, but only those that are excessive(C) to an unhealthy(D) degree.

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    No error

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

The correct answer is A.

Key Points

  • The wrongly spelled word is codependancy.
  • There should be e in place of a in this word, and hence the correctly spelled word is codependency.

Hence, the correct choice is option A.

Additional Information

  • Let's learn the meanings of the words given in the options:
WordMeaningExample
Codependencyexcessive emotional or psychological reliance on a partner, typically one who requires support on account of an illness or addiction.The tie that binds most of us together in this trap is called co-dependency.
Behaviourthe way that someone behaves.He was notorious for his violent and threatening behavior.
Excessivetoo much or too manyThe directive will prevent employees from working excessive hours.
Unhealthynot good for your healthThe consequences of an unhealthy lifestyle include a higher risk of diabetes, heart diseases, stroke, and cancer.
62

In the following question, four words are given in bold, of which one word is misspelled. Find the misspelled word.

According to the second official quoted above, authourities(A) are focusing(B) on initial hitches(C) of rolling out the drive to the first of the general population(D).

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    No error

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A

The correct answer is A.

Key Points

  • The wrongly spelled word is authourities.
  • There should not be any u after o in this word, and hence the correctly spelled word is authorities.

Hence, the correct choice is option A.

Additional Information

  • Let's learn the meanings of the words given in the options:

 

WordMeaningExample
Authorities(Plural) a person or organization having power or control in a particular, typically political or administrative, sphere.The boss is not popular, but his authority is unquestioned.
Focusing(Present Participle form of the verb) to concentrate attention or effort.Lately, I am focusing on my acting skills.
Hitches(Plural) a usually unforeseen difficulty or obstacleThe plan went off without a hitch.
Populationthe total of individuals occupying an area or making up a wholeThe city has experienced an increase in population.
63

In the following question, four words are given in bold, of which one word is misspelled. Find the misspelled word.

The rebound(A) in global carbon emisions(B) toward the end of last year is a stark warning that not enough is being done to accelerate(C) clean energy transitions(D) worldwide.

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    No error

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

B

The correct answer is B.

Key Points

  • The wrongly spelled word is emisions.
  • There should be an additional s in this word, and hence the correctly spelled word is emissions.

Hence, the correct choice is option B.

Additional Information

  • Let's learn the meanings of the words given in the options:

 

WordMeaningExample
Reboundrecover in value, amount, or strength after a previous decrease or decline.She rebounded quickly from the loss.
Emissions(Plural) the production and discharge of something, especially gas or radiation.Bioluminescence is the emission of light from living organisms.
Accelerateincrease in amount or extent.They use special chemicals to accelerate the growth of crops.
Transitions(Plural) the process or a period of changing from one state or condition to another.Retirement is a big transition.
64

In the following sentence, four words or phrases have been printed in bold. One bold part in the sentence is not acceptable in Standard English. Pick up that part and mark its number. If there are no errors in the bold parts, mark (5) i.e. No error as the answer.

Every instance/(A) of fire brings to the fore/(B) the problem of adopting/(C) an incremental/(D) approach to safety.

  1. ((a))

    A

  2. ((b))

    B

  3. ((c))

    C

  4. ((d))

    D

  5. ((e))

    No error

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

No error

The correct answer is 'No error'

Key Points

  • In the given sentence, all the words are correctly spelled.
  • Let's see the meanings of the given words-
  • Instance- an example or single occurrence of something.
  • Fore- situated or placed in front.
  • Adopting- choose to take or follow.
  • incremental- an increase or addition, especially one of a series on a fixed scale.
  • Hence, all the words are correctly placed so the correct answer is Option 5.
65

In the following sentence, four words or phrases have been printed in bold. One bold part in the sentence is not acceptable in Standard English. Pick up that part and mark its number. If there are no errors in the bold parts, mark (5) i.e. No error as the answer.

The striktest/(A) lockdown declared last year caused untold misery/(B) to the livelihoods of a large number/(C) of workers, particularly in unorganized sectors./(D)

  1. ((a))

    striktest

  2. ((b))

    misery

  3. ((c))

    number

  4. ((d))

    sectors

  5. ((e))

    No error

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

striktest

The erroneous spelling is 'striktest'

Key Points

  • In part A of the sentence, the usage of 'spelling is incorrect' the correct spelling should be 'strictest'
  • 'strict' is an adjective that means following rules or beliefs exactly.
<br>

So the correct sentence is- The strictest lockdown declared last year caused untold misery to the livelihoods of a large number of workers, particularly in unorganized sectors.

Fill in the blanks with appropriate words.

Sleep disorders are conditions that result in changes in the way that you sleep. They can affect your overall health, safety and quality of life. Sleep (1) can affect your ability to drive safely and increase your risk of other health problems. Some of the signs and symptoms of sleep disorders include excessive daytime (2), irregular breathing or increased movement during sleep. Other signs and symptoms include an irregular sleep and wake cycle and difficulty falling asleep. There are many different types of sleep disorders. They're often grouped into (3) that explain why they happen or how they affect you. Sleep disorders can also be grouped according to behaviours, problems with your natural sleep-wake cycles, breathing problems, difficulty sleeping or how sleepy you feel during the day. Symptoms of sleep disorders include being very sleepy during the daytime and having trouble falling asleep at night. Some people may fall asleep at (4) times, such as while driving. Other symptoms include breathing in an unusual pattern or feeling an uncomfortable (5) to move while you are trying to fall asleep. Unusual or bothersome movements or experiences during sleep are also possible. Having an (6) sleep and wake cycle is another symptom of sleep disorders.

66

What should come in place of (6)?

  1. ((a))

    Irregular

  2. ((b))

    Defined

  3. ((c))

    Sarcastic

  4. ((d))

    Sophomore

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Irregular

The correct answer is Irregular.

Key Points

Irregular: contrary to the rules or to that which is normal or established

Key Points

The explanations of the other words:

  • Defined: having a definite outline or specification; precisely marked or stated
  • Sarcastic: marked by or given to using irony in order to mock or convey contempt
  • Sophomore: a second-year university or high-school student.

Hint

Here, the entire passage is about sleep disorders and sleep irregularities. From the context itself, we can infer that the word would be 'irregular' or 'disjointed' or 'disrupted' or any synonym or near-synonym. Also, we realize from common sense that a regular and healthy sleeping routine is good for health and a symptom of a disorder would be something 'irregular'

67

What should come in place of (5)?

  1. ((a))

    Hatred

  2. ((b))

    Agony

  3. ((c))

    Urge

  4. ((d))

    Force

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Urge

The correct answer is Urge.

Key Points

Urge: a very strong desire

Additional Information

The explanations of the other words:

  • Hatred: extreme dislike or disgust
  • Agony: intense pain of mind or body
  • Force: strength or energy as an attribute of physical action or movement

Hint

We can infer from common sense that moving while trying to fall asleep would delay the onset of sleep. The word before the blank also makes it clear that the blank would contain a word similar in meaning to a 'wish' or 'desire'.

68

What should come in place of (4)?

  1. ((a))

    Actual

  2. ((b))

    Inappropriate

  3. ((c))

    Everyday

  4. ((d))

    Right

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Inappropriate

The correct answer is Inappropriate.

Key Points

Inappropriate: not suitable or proper in the circumstances

Additional Information

The explanations of the other words:

  • Actual: existing in fact; real
  • Everyday: commonplace
  • Right: correct

​

Hint

If we look at the last part of the sentence- 'such as while driving', we can easily deduce that the word is 'improper' or 'inappropriate' or any other synonym.

69

What should come in place of (3)?

  1. ((a))

    Columns

  2. ((b))

    Rows

  3. ((c))

    Matrices

  4. ((d))

    Categories

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Categories

The correct answer is Categories.

Key Points

Categories: classes or divisions of people or things regarded as having particular shared characteristics

Additional Information

The explanations of the other words:

  • Columns: a vertical division of a page or text
  • Rows: a horizontal line of entries in a table
  • Matrices: rectangular arrays of quantities or expressions in rows and columns that is treated as a single entity and manipulated according to particular rules

Hint

Since we are talking about 'grouping' things together, you can easily infer that the best-fit answer would be the most general term- 'categories'.

Matrices, rows and columns are specific devices used for achieving specialized goals.

70

What should come in place of (2)?

  1. ((a))

    Drowsiness

  2. ((b))

    Helpnessness

  3. ((c))

    Kindness

  4. ((d))

    Hopelessness

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Drowsiness

The correct answer is Drowsiness.

Key Points

Drowsiness: being in a state between sleeping and being awake; feeling abnormally sleepy or tired, especially during the day

Additional Information

The explanations of the other words:

  • Helplessness: inability to defend oneself or to act effectively
  • Kindness: the quality of being friendly, generous, and considerate
  • Hopelessness: a feeling or state of despair; lack of hope

​

Hint

As soon as you read the words 'excessive' and 'daytime', you can infer that the blank contains a word like 'sleepiness' or 'drowsiness'.

71

What should come in place of (1)?

  1. ((a))

    Evaporation

  2. ((b))

    Activation

  3. ((c))

    Deprivation

  4. ((d))

    Excursion

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Deprivation

The correct answer is Deprivation.

Key Points

Deprivation: the state of being kept from possessing, enjoying, or using something

In the context of the passage, it means the lack of quality sleeping time. 

Additional Information

The explanations of the other words*:*

  • Evaporation: the process by which an element or compound transitions from its liquid state to its gaseous state below the temperature at which it boils
  • Activation: the action or process of making something active or operative
  • Excursion: a short journey or trip, especially one taken as a leisure activity
72

Directions: In the following question, the word at the top is used in five different ways. Choose the option in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.

CONCEPT

  1. ((a))

    Interesting, but hardly a new concept.

  2. ((b))

    You go in with a concept or an idea and you bounce it around.

  3. ((c))

    The concept of airline class creep began a few years ago.

  4. ((d))

    I was told that in order to get concept payments I would have to answer some questions.

  5. ((e))

    Experts pooled their talents to concept the new car

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

I was told that in order to get concept payments I would have to answer some questions.

The correct answer is '4' i.e. this sentence is incorrect.

Key Points

  • The meaning of the given word 'Concept' is- an idea or abstract principle or directly conceived or intuited object of thought.
  • In sentence 4, the usage of 'concept' in the sentence is contextually incorrect Instead of it we can use 'benefit' this can make the sentence contextually correct.
  • So the correct answer is- Option 4.
73

Given below is a word, followed by three sentences which consist of that word. Identify the sentence(s) which best express(es) the meaning of the word. Choose option 5 ‘None of the above’ if the word is not suitable in any of the sentences.

AMIABLE

A. I've only met Jane once but she seems amiable enough.

B. An open amiable is better than a hollow friend.

C. They divorced in a pleasant and amiable manner.

  1. ((a))

    Only A

  2. ((b))

    Only B

  3. ((c))

    Both B and C

  4. ((d))

    Both A and C

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Both A and C

The correct answer is '​Both A and C'.

Key Points

  • The meaning of the word 'Amiable' is 'having or displaying a friendly and pleasant manner'. It is an adjective.
  • Sentence A has correctly used the given word. Here, the person says that he met Jane only once but she was friendly.
  • In sentence B, the word 'amiable' is incorrectly used. The sentence compares someone to a hollow friend. So the words which mean 'enemy/ foe' must be the correct word.
  • Sentence C has correctly used the given word. Here, 'friendly is already mentioned. The couple divorced in a pleasant and friendly manner. 

Additional Information

  • Synonyms of 'Amiable' are: Friendly, Warm, Amicable.
  • Antonyms of 'Amiable' are: Unfriendly, Disagreeable.
74

Given below is a word, followed by three sentences which consist of that word. Identify the sentence(s) which best express(es) the meaning of the word. Choose option 5 ‘None of these’ if the word is not suitable in any of the sentences. 

 

ALLUSION

 

A. There are lots of literary echoes and allusions in the novel, but they don't do anything for the tired texture of the prose.

B. He made some allusion to the years they lived apart.

C. The video game is designed to give the allusion that you are in control of an airplane.

  1. ((a))

    Both A and C

  2. ((b))

    Both A and B

  3. ((c))

    Only B

  4. ((d))

    Both B and C

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Both A and B

The correct answer is option 2), i.e., Both A and B

Key Points 

The meaning of 'Allusion' is ' the act of making an indirect reference to something'. It is a noun.

Its synonyms are – ‘reference to, citation of, implication, insinuation, etc ‘

  • In sentence A, it has been used correctly as ‘allusions in the novel’ means references in the novel that properly fits the context of the sentence.
  • In sentence B, it has been used correctly as ‘ allusion to the years’ means reference to the years they lived apart, which makes sense in the context of the sentence.
  • In sentence C, the ‘allusion that you are in control of an airplane’ is erroneous as the meaning that is conveyed by the sentence is that the video games create a simulation that gives a false impression of the real world. So, the correct word here should be ‘illusion’ which means ‘a deceptive appearance or impression or an instance or misinterpreted perception of a sensory experience’

Additional Information

  • Literary – concerning the writing, study, or content of literature, especially of the kind valued for quality of form
  • Echoes –  the repetition in the structure and content of one speaker's utterance by another.
  • Prose - written or spoken language in its ordinary form, without metrical structure.

Hence, both A and B best express the meaning of the word.

75

Select the most appropriate option, out of the five options given, which in your view, should be grammatically and structurally correct. Please note that the meaning and the context of the sentence must not change.​

  1. ((a))

    Neither Jasmine nor her sister heard the deafened crash.

  2. ((b))

    Neither Jasmine nor her sister heard an deafening crash.

  3. ((c))

    Neither Jasmine nor her sister hear the deafening crash.

  4. ((d))

    Neither Jasmine but her sister heard the deafening crash.

  5. ((e))

    Neither Jasmine nor her sister heard the deafening crash.

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Neither Jasmine nor her sister heard the deafening crash.

‘Neither’ allows us to make a negative statement about two people or things at the same time. It goes before singular countable nouns. The coordinating correlative conjunctions that go together are neither...nor.

'Deafening’ is an adjective which is used to describe a noise so loud which makes it impossible to hear anything else. In this sentence, deafening describes the crash.

Hence the correct answer is option 5.

76

Given below is a sentence that may or may not be grammatically viable. Choose the most suitable alternative that reflects the grammatically correct sentence. If the highlighted sentence does not require any corrections, choose option 5 i.e., no correction required as your answer choice.

Explaining how stress in the financial sector has lead to a slowdown in the economy, the Niti Aayog vice-chairman said the entire episode started with indiscriminate lending during 2009-14 leading rise in non-performing assets (NPAs) post 2014.

  1. ((a))

    Explaining how stress in the financial sector has lead to a slowdown in the economy, the Niti Aayog vice-chairman said the entire episode started for indiscriminate lending during 2009-14 leading rise in non-performing assets (NPAs) post 2014.

  2. ((b))

    Explaining how stress in the financial sector has leading to a slowdown in the economy, the Niti Aayog vice-chairman said the entire episode started with indiscriminate lending during 2009-14 leading rise in non-performing assets (NPAs) post 2014.

  3. ((c))

    Explaining how stress in the financial sector has led to a slowdown in the economy, the Niti Aayog vice-chairman said the entire episode started with indiscriminate lending during 2009-14 leading rise on non-performing assets (NPAs) post 2014.

  4. ((d))

    Explaining how stress in the financial sector had led to a slowdown in the economy, the Niti Aayog vice-chairman said the entire episode started with indiscriminate lending during 2009-14 leading rise in non-performing assets (NPAs) post 2014.

  5. ((e))

    No correction required

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Explaining how stress in the financial sector had led to a slowdown in the economy, the Niti Aayog vice-chairman said the entire episode started with indiscriminate lending during 2009-14 leading rise in non-performing assets (NPAs) post 2014.

The correct answer is option 4. 

Key Points

  • The correct structure is had + V3 (verb in past participle).
  • Examples: had danced, had eaten, had forgotten, etc.
  • So, we should use had led (led is the past participle form of lead). This eliminates options 1 and 2.
  • The more appropriate phrase is rise in and not rise on. 
  • Examples: The rise in consumption, rise in profits, etc.

**Correct sentence: "**Explaining how stress in the financial sector had led to a slowdown in the economy, the Niti Aayog vice-chairman said the entire episode started with indiscriminate lending during 2009-14 leading rise in non-performing assets (NPAs) post-2014." 

77

Given below is a sentence that may or may not be grammatically viable. Choose the most suitable alternative that reflects the grammatically correct sentence. If the highlighted sentence does not require any corrections, choose option 5 i.e., no correction required as your answer choice.

The government needs to take steps that eliminates apprehension from the minds of private sector players and encourage them to step up investments

  1. ((a))

    The government needs to take steps that eliminates apprehension for the minds of private sector players and encourage them to step up investments

  2. ((b))

    The government needs to take steps that eliminate apprehension from the minds of private sector players and encourage them to step up investments

  3. ((c))

    The government needs to take steps that eliminates apprehension from the minds of private sector players and encourages them to step up investments

  4. ((d))

    The government needs to take steps that eliminates apprehension for the minds of private sector players and encourages them to step up investments

  5. ((e))

    No correction required

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The government needs to take steps that eliminate apprehension from the minds of private sector players and encourage them to step up investments

The correct answer is option 2. 

Key Points

  • We eliminate (remove) something from something. The correct preposition is from and not for. So, we can eliminate options 1 and 4.
  • Also, the subject is steps which is plural in nature. So, the verb should be in its plural form.
  • We need to use eliminate and encourage and not eliminates/encourages.

**Correct sentence: "**The government needs to take steps that eliminate apprehension from the minds of private sector players and encourage them to step up investments." 

78

Given below is a sentence that may or may not be grammatically viable. Choose the most suitable alternative that reflects the grammatically correct sentence. If the highlighted sentence does not require any corrections, choose option 5 i.e., no correction required as your answer choice.

In the current situation, there can be an increase in government expenditure but it has to be direct towards an increase in investment expenditure.

  1. ((a))

    In the current situation, there can be increase in government expenditure but it has to be directed towards an increase in investment expenditure.

  2. ((b))

    In the current situation, there can be an increase in government expenditure but it has to be directed towards an increase in investment expenditure.

  3. ((c))

    In the current situation, there can be increase in government expenditure but it has to be direct towards an increase in investment expenditure.

  4. ((d))

    In the current situation, there can be an increase on government expenditure but it has to be directed towards an increase in investment expenditure.

  5. ((e))

    No correction required

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

In the current situation, there can be an increase in government expenditure but it has to be directed towards an increase in investment expenditure.

The correct answer is option 2. 

Key Points

  • The word increase in the given sentence is used as a noun, meaning a rise in size or amount.
  • So, article ‘an’ has to be used before it. This eliminates options 1 and 3.
  • Also, the correct structure is has to be + V3 (verb in past participle form).
  • Examples: has to be completed, has to be done etc.
  • So, the verb direct should be replaced with directed.

**Correct Sentence: "**In the current situation, there can be an increase in government expenditure but it has to be directed towards an increase in investment expenditure." 

79

Given below is a sentence that may or may not be grammatically viable. Choose the most suitable alternative that reflects the grammatically correct sentence. If the highlighted sentence does not require any corrections, choose option 5 i.e., no correction required as your answer choice.

Since 1997, financial regulators have put on place safeguards to prohibit a repeat of the crisis that engulfed Thailand, Korea, Indonesia and several other Asian nations and had long-lasting repercussions.

  1. ((a))

    Since 1997, financial regulators have put in place safeguards to prohibit a repeat of the crisis that engulfed Thailand, Korea, Indonesia and several other Asian nations and had long-lasting repercussions. 

  2. ((b))

    Since 1997, financial regulators has put in place safeguards to prohibit a repeat of the crisis that engulfed Thailand, Korea, Indonesia and several other Asian nations and had long-lasting repercussions.

  3. ((c))

    For 1997, financial regulators have put in place safeguards to prohibit a repeat of the crisis that engulfed Thailand, Korea, Indonesia and several other Asian nations and had long-lasting repercussions. 

  4. ((d))

    For 1997, financial regulators have put on place safeguards to prohibit a repeat of the crisis that engulfed Thailand, Korea, Indonesia and several other Asian nations and had long-lasting repercussions. 

    ×

    duplicate options found. English Question 1 options 3,4

  5. ((e))

    No correction required

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Since 1997, financial regulators have put in place safeguards to prohibit a repeat of the crisis that engulfed Thailand, Korea, Indonesia and several other Asian nations and had long-lasting repercussions. 

The correct answer is option 1.

For and since is used when we talk about time. For is used when we refer to a duration / period of time. Since is used when we talk about the precise moment and point out the instant.

Examples : Suhani was here for 5 days, She was here since Tuesday.

Here, we are specifically talking about a particular year – 1997. So, since will be more appropriate. This eliminates options 3 and 4.

The subject financial regulators is plural in nature. So, we need to use have and not had.

The correct phrase to be used in the first part of the sentence is put in place which means to keep something in the appropriate position.

Correct Sentence:  Since 1997, financial regulators have put in place safeguards to prohibit a repeat of the crisis that engulfed Thailand, Korea, Indonesia and several other Asian nations and had long-lasting repercussions.

80

Given below is a sentence that may or may not be grammatically viable. Choose the most suitable alternative that reflects the grammatically correct sentence. If the highlighted sentence does not require any corrections, choose option 5 i.e., no correction required as your answer choice. 

Although the Centre is scheduled to bring an Act on the subject by the end of this year, it has not made more progress.

  1. ((a))

    Although the Centre is scheduled to bring an Act in the subject by the end of this year, it has not made much progress.

  2. ((b))

    Although the Centre is scheduled to bring a Act on the subject by the end of this year, it has not made much progress.

  3. ((c))

    Although the Centre is scheduled to bring an Act on the subject by the end of this year, it has not made almost progress.

  4. ((d))

    Although the Centre is scheduled to bring an Act on the subject by the end of this year, it has not made much progress.

  5. ((e))

    No correction required.

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Although the Centre is scheduled to bring an Act on the subject by the end of this year, it has not made much progress.

The correct answer is option 4.

Explanation:

  • Here, we are referring to the fact that the progress made is negligible.
  • So, the phrase it has not made much progress should be used to highlight the same.
  • Also, the article an is used before vowel sounds (a, e, i, o, u). So, we should use an  (and not a) before the word Act. We can, thus, eliminate option 2.
  • The word almost means nearly and not exactly. It does not fit into the context and hence, we can eliminate option 3.

Correct answer: "Although the Centre is scheduled to bring an Act on the subject by the end of this year, it has not made much progress." 

General Awareness (40 questions)

81

Who amongst the following is the current foreign secretary of India?

  1. ((a))

    S. Jaishankar

  2. ((b))

    Pradeep Kumar Sinha

  3. ((c))

    Vijay Gokhale

  4. ((d))

    Ajit Doval

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Vijay Gokhale

Vijay Keshav Gokhale is an Indian diplomat and the current Foreign Secretary of India. Gokhale was previously the Indian ambassador to China. He recently visited Bangladesh to meet his Bangladeshi counterpart Mohammad Shahidul Haque in Dhaka and discuss ways to deepen bilateral ties.

82

Shikha Sharma retired on 31 December 2018.She was the Managing Director and CEO of which bank?

  1. ((a))

    SBI

  2. ((b))

    PNB

  3. ((c))

    YES

  4. ((d))

    Axis

  5. ((e))

    Dena

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Axis

  • Axis Bank's Managing Director and CEO Shikha Sharma retired on 31 December 2018.
  • Amitabh Chaudhry was appointed as the new Managing Director and CEO of the bank with effect from 1 January 2019.
  • He will hold the post for three years.
  • He is the former MD and CEO of HDFC Standard Life Insurance Company.
83

Corporation Bank is headquartered in

  1. ((a))

    Bengaluru

  2. ((b))

    Chennai

  3. ((c))

    Hyderabad

  4. ((d))

    Mangalore

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Mangalore

Corporation Bank is a public sector banking company headquartered in Mangalore, India. The bank has pan-India presence with approximately 8,000 functional units comprising 2200 branches. The bank was founded in 1906.

84

The RBI has constituted a 6-member committee to review the entire gamut of ATM charges and fees. Who will chair the committee?

  1. ((a))

    Sanjeev Prakash

  2. ((b))

    Dipin Guram

  3. ((c))

    VG Kannan

  4. ((d))

    Rahul Sinha

  5. ((e))

    Ritesh Kumar

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

VG Kannan

  • The RBI has constituted a 6-member committee to review the entire gamut of ATM charges and fees.
  • Chief Executive of Indian Banks’ Association VG Kannan will chair the committee.
  • The committee will review existing patterns of costs, charges and interchange fees for ATM transactions.
  • It is to submit its report within two months from the date of its first meeting.
85

Who has been appointed as the governor of Uttar Pradesh in July 2019?

  1. ((a))

    Anandiben Patel

  2. ((b))

    Jagdeep Dhankhar

  3. ((c))

    Ramesh Bais

  4. ((d))

    Lal Ji Tandon

  5. ((e))

    Phagu Chauhan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Anandiben Patel

  • President Ram Nath Kovind has appointed new governours for the states of UP, West Bengal, Tripura, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar and Nagaland.
  • Anandiben Patel will serve as Governor of Uttar Pradesh, Jagdeep Dhankhar as Governor of West Bengal, Ramesh Bais as Governor of Tripura, Lal Ji Tandon as Governor of Madhya Pradesh, Phagu Chauhan as Governor of Bihar and R. N. Ravi as Governor of Nagaland.

Additional Information

  • Madhya Pradesh: 
  • Number of Districts - 52.
  • Lok Sabha seats - 29.
  • Rajya Sabha seats - 11.

Dams - Bansagar Dam (Sone river), Bheemgarh dam (Wainganga river), Gandhi Sagar Dam (Chambal River), Indira Sagar Dam (Narmada River) and Omkareshwar Dam (Narmada River).

  • Registered GI: Chanderi Fabric, Leather Toys of Indore, Bell Metal Ware of Datia and Tikamgarh, Ratlami Sev.
  • Governor: Mangubhai C. Patel (2022)
86

When is the National Unity Day - Rashtriya Ekta Diwas observed?

  1. ((a))

    28 October

  2. ((b))

    29 October

  3. ((c))

    ​30 October

  4. ((d))

    31 October

  5. ((e))

    1 November

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

31 October

  • National Unity Day - Rashtriya Ekta Diwas - was observed across the country 31 October, on the occasion of the 144th birth anniversary of the Iron Man of India, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
  • Since 2014, October 31st is observed as the National Unity Day and people from all walks of life participate in the 'Run For Unity'.
  • PM Narendra Modi paid floral tribute to Sardar Patel at the 'Statue of Unity'.
87

The 2022 Commonwealth Games will be held in which city?

  1. ((a))

    Glasgow

  2. ((b))

    Birmingham

  3. ((c))

    Durban

  4. ((d))

    Victoria

  5. ((e))

    Edmonton

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Birmingham

The central English city of Birmingham will host the Commonwealth Games in 2022. The 2022 Commonwealth Games were originally given to Durban in 2015, but the South African city was stripped of the event this year because of financial difficulties. The multisports event was last in Britain in 2014 when it was held in Glasgow.

88

The Reserve Bank of India had set up an expert committee to review the current framework for the Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSME sector). Who among the following was the head of the committee?

  1. ((a))

    Shaktikanta Das 

  2. ((b))

    UK Sinha 

  3. ((c))

    Sudha Balakrishnan

  4. ((d))

    Urjit Patel 

  5. ((e))

    Mahesh Kumar Jain 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

UK Sinha 

  • The Reserve Bank of India had set up an eight member expert committee to review the current framework for the Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSME sector) under the leadership of UK Sinha, former SEBI chairman.
  • Its mandate was to suggest long-term solutions for the economic and financial sustainability of MSMEs.
  • The committee has recommended doing away with collateral security for loans up to Rs 20 lakh extended to units in this sector.
  • The current ceiling for a collateral free loan for MSMEs is Rs 10 lakh  and these are disbursed under the Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY).
  • Nitin Gadkari-Minister of MSME
  • Shaktikanta Das-Governor of RBI
  • Sudha Balakrishnan-First Chief Financial Officer of RBI
  • Mahesh Kumar Jain-Deputy Governor of RBI
89

World Economic Forum (WEF) is headquartered in _______.

  1. ((a))

    Switzerland

  2. ((b))

    USA

  3. ((c))

    UK

  4. ((d))

    Germany

  5. ((e))

    Russia

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Switzerland

The World Economic Forum (WEF) is a Swiss nonprofit foundation, based in Cologny, Geneva.

90

In a recent deal, a large stake of which one of the following e-commerce companies was acquired by Walmart, an American multinational retailer?

  1. ((a))

    ShopClues

  2. ((b))

    Flipkart

  3. ((c))

    Yepme

  4. ((d))

    Snapdeal

  5. ((e))

    Google

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Flipkart

The correct answer is option 2, i.e. Flipkart.

US-based Walmart completed its $16-billion acquisition of India's largest e-commerce firm Flipkart on Aug 18, 2018, despite protests from traders across the country over fears that the deal would drive several small retailers out of business.

Approval Authority- Competition Commission of India (CCI)
Flipkart’s CEO- Kalyan Krishnamurthy
Existing investors in Flipkart- Tencent Holdings Ltd - Tiger Global Management
91

Karnataka State government on August 16, 2017 launched 'Indira Canteen' in _______.

  1. ((a))

    Mysore

  2. ((b))

    Bengaluru

  3. ((c))

    Mangalore

  4. ((d))

    Bellary

  5. ((e))

    Tumkur

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Bengaluru

Congress vice-president Rahul Gandhi launched 'Indira Canteen' in Bengaluru with the vision of providing good quality of food to the poor at a cheap price. Breakfast would be served at Rs. 5 and lunch and dinner at Rs. 10 in the canteen. 101 canteens will be opened in the initial phase. More will be opened in 97 wards from October 2 to mark Mahatma Gandhi’s 150th birthday.

92

EMI stands for ________.

  1. ((a))

    Equity Monthly Instalment

  2. ((b))

    Equal Monthly Instalment

  3. ((c))

    Equally Monthly Instalment

  4. ((d))

    Equated Monthly Installment

  5. ((e))

    Easy Monthly Instalment

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Equated Monthly Installment

EMI stands for Equated Monthly Installment which is a fixed payment amount made by a borrower to a lender monthly. EMI is used to pay off both interest and principal monthly so that load will be paid over a specified number of years.

93

Who will become the new CM of Madhya Pradesh?

  1. ((a))

    Kamal Nath

  2. ((b))

    Shivraj Singh Chouhan

  3. ((c))

    Malini Gaud

  4. ((d))

    Kailash Vijayvargiya

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kamal Nath

  • Congress party has chosen MP statue unit president Kamal Nath as the Chief Minister of Madhya Pradesh.
  • He will replace outgoing Chief Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan.
  • A one-line resolution has been passed at the Congress Legislature Party (CLP) meeting in Bhopal to choose the Madhya Pradesh Chief Minister.
94

BHIM (Bharat Interface for Money) app was developed by ________.

  1. ((a))

    Nidhi company

  2. ((b))

    India Infoline

  3. ((c))

    StockHolding Corporation of India

  4. ((d))

    Central Registry of Securitisation Asset Reconstruction and Security Interest

  5. ((e))

    National Payments Corporation of India

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

National Payments Corporation of India

BHIM app was developed by the ​​National Payments Corporation of India(NPCI). It was launched by PM Narendra Modi at a Digi Dhan programme at Talkatora Stadium in New Delhi on 30 December 2016. It has been named after BR Ambedkar and is intended to facilitate e-payments directly through banks and as part of the demonetisation drive towards cashless transactions. On March 17  Niti Aayog CEO Amitabh Kant announced the app had recorded recorded 18 million downloads since its launch.

95

What is the full form of UPI?

  1. ((a))

    Unified Processing Invention

  2. ((b))

    Ultra Payment Interface

  3. ((c))

    Use Payments Instantly

  4. ((d))

    Unified Payments Interface

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Unified Payments Interface

  • Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is a cashless transaction system in which money can be instantly sent to users without knowing their bank account details.
  • It also does not require any credit or debit card.
96

Who built the Sanchi Stupa?

  1. ((a))

    Ashoka

  2. ((b))

    Chanakaya

  3. ((c))

    Bindusara

  4. ((d))

    Chandragupta

  5. ((e))

    Dayanand

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Ashoka

The correct answer is Ashoka.

Key Points

  • Sanchi Stupa is a Buddhist complex built by Ashoka.
  • It is situated in the Raisen District of Madhya Pradesh.
  • It is considered the oldest stone structure in India.
  • It was designed by the Mauryan emperor Ashoka within the 3rd century BCE.
  • It is also the UNESCO World Heritage site.
  • Sanchi Stupa motif is a feature that can be seen in the new Rs. 200 note.

Important Points

  • Ashoka was an Indian emperor of the Maurya Dynasty.
  • Ashoka was also known as Devanam Priyadasi.
  • Ashoka invaded Kalinga in 261 B.C, In Kalinga War.
  • Ashoka was the first king in Indian history who has left his records engraved on stones.

Additional Information

  • Chanakya was a royal advisor who assisted the first Mauryan emperor Chandragupta in his rise to power.
  • Chandragupta Maurya was the founder of the Maurya Empire in ancient India.
  • Bindusara was the second Mauryan emperor of India and the father of its most famous ruler Ashoka.
97

Where was the 34th Asean summit held with the theme Advancing Partnership for Sustainability?

  1. ((a))

    Kuala Lumpur

  2. ((b))

    Bangkok

  3. ((c))

    Phnom Penh

  4. ((d))

    Hanoi

  5. ((e))

    Singapore

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Bangkok

  • The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (Asean) called for avoiding 'a zero-sum game' in the Indo-Pacific region amid rising tensions between the US and China.
  • The document is significant as it seems to seek a distance between China and other powers who have unveiled Indo-Pacific strategies.
  • 34th Asean summit in Bangkok had the theme Advancing Partnership for Sustainability.
98

Which of following institution US and Israel left in 2018?

  1. ((a))

    UN Labour Commission

  2. ((b))

    UNESCO

  3. ((c))

    UN High commissioner for Refugees

  4. ((d))

    World Health Organisation

  5. ((e))

    International Court of Justice

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

UNESCO

  • The US and Israel had quit the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO) with the close of 2018.
  • The countries had announced their decisions in 2017 of withdrawing from the agency, accusing it of bias against Israel.
  • Israel joined the agency in 1949.
  • UNESCO is best known for its work to preserve heritage, including maintaining a list of World Heritage sites.
99

When is the International World Water Day held annually?

  1. ((a))

    20 March

  2. ((b))

    21 March

  3. ((c))

    22 March

  4. ((d))

    23 March

  5. ((e))

    24 March

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

22 March

  • International World Water Day is held annually on 22 March.
  • It focuses attention on the importance of freshwater and advocating for the sustainable management of freshwater resources.
  • The theme for World Water Day 2019 is ‘Leaving no one behind,’ which is the central promise of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development.
100

Which city is scheduled to host the Summer Olympic Games 2024?

  1. ((a))

    Paris

  2. ((b))

    Tokyo

  3. ((c))

    Los Angles

  4. ((d))

    Beijing

  5. ((e))

    Delhi

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Paris

The correct answer is Paris.

Key Points

  • The 2024 Summer Olympics is a forthcoming international multi-sport event that is scheduled to take place from 26 July to 11 August 2024 in Paris, France.
  • Paris will become the second city to host the Olympics three times, after London (1908, 1948, and 2012).
  • The Olympic edition of 1900 and 1924 was hosted by Paris.
  • The 2024 Games will mark the third time Paris has staged the Olympics, coming exactly 100 years after they last hosted the Games.

Additional Information

  • The Motto of 2024 Paris Games is Made for Sharing.
  • 2022 Winter Olympics will be held in Beijing.
  • The official Mascot of the 2022 Winter Olympics Games is Bing Dwen Dwen.
  • 2020 Summer Olympics rescheduled to 2021 will be held in Tokyo, Japan.
  • The official Mascot of the 2020 Summer Olympics Games is Miraitowa.
101

Where is the headquarters of the Asian Development Bank (ADB) located?

  1. ((a))

    Manila, Philippines

  2. ((b))

    Beijing, China

  3. ((c))

    Jakarta, Indonesia

  4. ((d))

    Shanghai, China

  5. ((e))

    Geneva, Switzerland

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Manila, Philippines

  • The Asian Development Bank (ADB) is headquartered in Manila, the capital city of the Philippines.
  • It was conceived in the early 1960s as a financial institution that foster economic growth and cooperation in one of the poorest regions in the world.
  • It assists its partners and members by providing loans, technical assistance, grants, and equity investments to promote social and economic development.
  • ADB has 68 members of which, 49 are from the Asia and Pacific region.
102

Cash reserve ratio is the __________deposit to be held by banks with Reserve Bank of India

  1. ((a))

    Voluntary

  2. ((b))

    Mandatory

  3. ((c))

    Optional

  4. ((d))

    As decided by the chairman and managing director

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Mandatory

  • Cash reserve ratio (CRR) is the mandatory deposit to be held by banks with Reserve Bank of India.
  • It is calculated daily on the basis of the bank’s net demand and time liabilities with the objective to ensure the liquidity and solvency of the banks.
  • The current rate of CRR is 4%.
103

Headquarters of Indian bank is situated in _______city.

  1. ((a))

    Chennai

  2. ((b))

    Delhi

  3. ((c))

    Mumbai

  4. ((d))

    Kolkata

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Chennai

Indian Bank is an Indian state-owned financial services company established in 1907 and headquartered in Chennai, India.

104

Who has been appointed as the new Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) by ​President Ram Nath Kovind on 26 November 2018?

  1. ((a))

    Sukumar Sen

  2. ((b))

    Harishankar Brahma

  3. ((c))

    Sunil Arora

  4. ((d))

    Rajiv Mehrishi

  5. ((e))

    K. K. Venugopal

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Sunil Arora

  • President Ram Nath Kovind appointed Sunil Arora as the new Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) on 26 November 2018.
  • He will take charge on 2 December 2018.
  • He was a 1980-batch IAS officer of the Rajasthan cadre.
  • Sunil Arora, who is an Election Commissioner (EC) currently, was appointed to the Election Commission in September 2017.
105

With which country did India hold high-level talks in July 2019 to elevate bilateral cooperation in the field of space, including assistance in India's 'Gaganyaan' mission?

  1. ((a))

    Japan

  2. ((b))

    Russia

  3. ((c))

    China

  4. ((d))

    Indonesia

  5. ((e))

    Germany

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Russia

  • India and Russia held high-level talks to elevate bilateral cooperation in the field of space, including assistance in India's 'Gaganyaan' mission.
  • NSA Ajit Doval and Dmitry Rogozin, Director-General of Russia's space agency ROSCOSMOS, led the two sides in the meeting held on 11 July 2019.
  • India shares robust cooperation with Russia in strategic areas of defence, nuclear and space.
106

In which year was the Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) formed ?

  1. ((a))

    1948

  2. ((b))

    1957

  3. ((c))

    1938

  4. ((d))

    1933

  5. ((e))

    1956

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

1956

The KVIC was formed in 1956. It is an apex organisation under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises, with regard to khadi and village industries within India, which seeks to - "plan, promote, facilitate, organise and assist in the establishment and development of khadi and village industries in the rural areas in coordination with other agencies engaged in rural development wherever necessary."

107

Payments Banks were formed on the recommendations of

  1. ((a))

    Narsimhan Committee

  2. ((b))

    Nagrajan Committee

  3. ((c))

    Nachiket Mor Committee

  4. ((d))

    Subramaniam Committee

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Nachiket Mor Committee

The correct answer is option 3 i.e Nachiket Mor Committee

Payment Banks:

  • They are like normal banks but operating in a small area without any credit risk.
  • They are formed on the recommendation of the Nachiket Mor Committee.
  • They are formed to increase financial inclusion by providing small savings accounts

payments/remittance services to migrant labor workforce, low-income households, small businesses, other unorganized sector entities, and other users.

  • The minimum paid-up equity capital for payments banks shall be Rs. 100 crore.
  • The payments bank should have a leverage ratio of not less than 3 percent, i.e., its outside liabilities should not exceed 33.33 times its net worth (paid-up capital and reserves).
  • The promoter's minimum initial contribution to the paid-up equity capital of such payments bank shall at least be 40 percent for the first five years from the commencement of its business.
  • In August 2015, the Reserve Bank of India gave "in-principle" licenses to eleven entities to launch payments banks
  • Bharti Airtel launched India's first payments bank named Airtel payment bank in March 2017

Feature of Payment Banks:

  • Acceptance of demand deposits: Payments banks are restricted to hold a maximum balance of Rs.100,000 per individual customer. However, in August 2019, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) increased the limit to Rs. 2 lakh to encourage more savings and deposits.
  • Issuance of ATM/debit cards. They cannot issue credit cards.
  • Payments and remittance services through various channels.
  • It is required to invest a minimum 75 percent of its "demand deposit balances" in Statutory Liquidity Ratio(SLR) eligible Government securities/treasury bills with maturity up to one year

List of Active Payment Banks:

Name of the Payment BankHeadquarter
Airtel Payment BankNew Delhi
India Post Payment BankNew Delhi
Fino Payment BankMumbai
Jio Payment BankMumbai
Paytm Payment BankNoida
NSDL Paytm BankMumbai
108

Which of the following is a queen of the Indian financial system?

  1. ((a))

    SEBI

  2. ((b))

    RBI

  3. ((c))

    Finance Ministry

  4. ((d))

    BSE

  5. ((e))

    IDBI

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

RBI

The correct answer is RBI.

Key Points

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is India's central bank and regulatory body under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Finance, Government of India. It is responsible for the issue and supply of the Indian rupee and the regulation of the Indian banking system. It also manages the country's main payment systems and works to promote its economic development.
  • Bharatiya Reserve Bank Note Mudran is one of the specialized divisions of RBI through which it mints Indian banknotes and coins.
  • Until the Monetary Policy Committee was established in 2016, it also had full control over monetary policy in India.
  • It commenced its operations on 1 April 1935 in accordance with the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
  • The original share capital was divided into shares of 100 each fully paid.
  • Following India's independence on 15 August 1947, the RBI was nationalized on 1 January 1949.[9]
  • The overall direction of the RBI lies with the 21-member central board of directors, composed of: the governor; four deputy governors; two finance ministry representatives (usually the Economic Affairs Secretary and the Financial Services Secretary); ten government-nominated directors; and four directors who represent local boards for Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, and Delhi. Each of these local boards consists of five members who represent regional interests and the interests of co-operative and indigenous banks.
  • It is a member bank of the Asian Clearing Union. The bank is also active in promoting financial inclusion policy and is a leading member of the Alliance for Financial Inclusion (AFI).
  • The bank is often referred to by the name 'Mint Street'.
109

Who among the following has been appointed as the Prime Minister of the United Kingdom?

  1. ((a))

    Priti Patel 

  2. ((b))

    Boris Johnson 

  3. ((c))

    Kyriakos Mitsotakis

  4. ((d))

    David Malpass 

  5. ((e))

    Kristalina Georgieva

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Boris Johnson 

Priti PatelFirst Indian origin home secretary of the United Kingdom
Boris JohnsonPM of UK (Conservative Party)
Kyriakos MitsotakisPM of Greece (New Democracy Political party)
David MalpassPresident of the World Bank group
Kristalina GeorgievaCEO of the World Bank group
110

Who has been appointed as the Chairman of the Competition Commission of India?

  1. ((a))

    Devender Kumar Sikri

  2. ((b))

    Rohit Barua

  3. ((c))

    Nilanjan Ghosh

  4. ((d))

    Devyani Singh

  5. ((e))

    Roopesh Narula

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Devender Kumar Sikri

Devender Kumar Sikri, a former Gujarat cadre Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officer, was appointed as chairman of fair-trade regulator Competition Commission of India (CCI). Sikri, a seasoned bureaucrat, has held various positions in Centre as well as in his cadre state Gujarat.

111

What is the maximum eligible age for joining APY(Atal Pension Yojana)?

  1. ((a))

    40 years

  2. ((b))

    45 years

  3. ((c))

    50 years

  4. ((d))

    55 years

  5. ((e))

    60 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

40 years

The correct answer is 40 years.

  • Atal Pension Yojana (APY) addresses the old age income security of the working poor and the longevity risks among the workers in unorganised sector. It encourages the workers in unorganised sector to voluntarily save for their retirement. The Government had launched the scheme with effect from 1st June, 2015. The scheme replaces the Swavalamban Yojana / NPS Lite scheme.

Benefits of APY

  • Fixed pension for the subscribers ranging between Rs.1000 to Rs. 5000, if s/he joins and contributes between the age of 18 years and 40 years. The contribution levels would vary and would be low if subscriber joins early and increase if s/he joins late.
  • The same pension is payable to Spouse after death of Subscriber.
  • Return of indicative pension wealth to nominees after death of spouse.
  • Contributions to the Atal Pension Yojana (APY) is eligible for tax benefits similar to the National Pension System (NPS). The tax benefits include the additional deduction of Rs 50,000 under section 80CCD(1).

Eligibility for APY

  • Atal Pension Yojana (APY) is open to all bank account holders who are not members of any statutory social security scheme.
  • Any individual who is eligible to receive benefits under the APY will have to furnish proof of possession of Aadhaar number or undergo enrolment under Aadhaar authentication. An APY subscriber will have to get the Aadhaar number recorded in his or her APY pension account and also in his/ her savings account where the periodic pension contribution instalments are debited and government co-contribution is to be credited.

Age of joining and contribution period

  • The minimum age of joining APY is 18 years and maximum age is 40 years. Therefore, minimum period of contribution by the subscriber under APY would be 20 years or more.

Focus of APY

  • Mainly targeted at unorganised sector workers.
  • Enrollment and Subscriber Payment
  • All bank account holders under the eligible category may join APY with auto-debit facility to accounts, leading to reduction in contribution collection charges.

Funding of APY

  • The government would provide a fixed pension guarantee for the subscribers;
  • Under the APY, the Central Government’s co-contribution of 50% of the subscriber’s contribution upto Rs. 1000 per annum, was available to each eligible subscriber, for a period of 5 years, i.e. from 2015-16 to 2019-20, who join APY before 31st March, 2016 and who is not a beneficiary of any social security scheme and is not an income tax payer.
  • The government would also reimburse the promotional and development activities including incentive to the contribution collection agencies to encourage people to join the APY.
112

The Reserve Bank of India is responsible for managing the currency in India. This function of RBI is defined in ________. 

  1. ((a))

    Currency and Banknote Act 2001

  2. ((b))

    Reserve Bank of India Act 1934

  3. ((c))

    Coinage Act 2011

  4. ((d))

    Banking Regulation Act 1949

  5. ((e))

    None of the above 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Reserve Bank of India Act 1934

  • According to the RBI Act 1934, the central bank is responsible for management of currency in the country.
  • The Reserve Bank of India co-ordinates with the government regarding the design of these notes and also the security features of such notes.
  • RBI also decides on the quantity of the notes to be printed as per the demand.
  • Section 22 of the RBI Act gives the bank the authority to issue currency notes.
113

Decrease in liability results in 

  1. ((a))

    Debit 

  2. ((b))

    Credit 

  3. ((c))

    No effect 

  4. ((d))

    Both debit and credit 

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Debit 

The correct answer is debit. 

Important Points

Rules for debit and credit : 

AccountIncreaseDecrease
AssetDebitCredit
LiabilityCreditDebit
Income/RevenueCreditDebit
ExpenseDebitCredit
Equity/CapitalCreditDebit
114

Under the RBI norms, an account is classified as a non performing asset (NPA) if it is not serviced for ___________.

  1. ((a))

    30 days

  2. ((b))

    60 days

  3. ((c))

    90 days

  4. ((d))

    1 year

  5. ((e))

    5 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

90 days

The correct answer is 90 days.

  • A non-performing asset (NPA) refers to a classification for loans or advances that are in default or in arrears on scheduled payments of principal or interest.
  • Under the RBI norms, an account is classified as a non-performing asset (NPA) if it is not serviced for 90 days.
  • Banks are required to classify NPAs further into Substandard, Doubtful and Loss assets.
  • Substandard assets: Asset which has remained NPA for a period less than or equal to 12 months.
  • Doubtful assets: An asset would be classified as doubtful if it has remained in the substandard category for a period of 12 months.
  • Loss assets: As per RBI, “Loss asset is considered uncollectable and of such little value that its continuance as a bankable asset is not warranted, although there may be some salvage or recovery value.”
115

Which of the following is the first National Park of India?

  1. ((a))

    Corbett National Park

  2. ((b))

    Sunderbans National Park

  3. ((c))

    Kanha National Park

  4. ((d))

    Nanda Devi National Park

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Corbett National Park

The correct answer is Corbett National Park.

Key Points

  • Jim Corbett National Park, which is a part of the larger Corbett Tiger Reserve, a Project Tiger Reserve lies in the Nainital district of Uttarakhand.
  • It was established in the year 1936 as Hailey National Park, Corbett has the glory of being India's oldest and most prestigious National Park.
  • It is also being honored as the place where Project Tiger was first launched in 1973.
  • It is among the few tiger reserves in India that allow overnight stays in the lap of the National Park.
  • Sheltering a healthy population of tigers and rare species like Otters and the endemic fish-eating crocodile, the national park is one of the most sought-after destinations for wildlife buffs.

Important Points

  • In 1972, a comprehensive Wildlife Act was enacted, which provides the main legal framework for the conservation and protection of wildlife in India.
  • The two main objectives of the Act are
  • To provide protection to the endangered species listed in the schedule of the Act.
  • To provide legal support to the conservation areas of the country classified as National parks, sanctuaries, and closed areas.
  • This Act has been comprehensively amended in 1991, making punishments more stringent, and has also made provisions for the protection of specified plant species and conservation of endangered species of wild animals.
  • There are 103 National parks and 535 wildlife sanctuaries in the country.
116

When was the World Organization 'UNESCO' established?

  1. ((a))

    1919

  2. ((b))

    1945

  3. ((c))

    1948

  4. ((d))

    1950

  5. ((e))

    1940

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1945

Option 2 is correct, i.e. 1945.

  • UNESCO is an abbreviation of United Nations Education, Scientific, and Cultural Organization.
  • It was established on 16 November 1945.
  • There are 193 member countries and 11 associate countries.
  • The purpose of the formation of UNESCO is to promote collaboration among nations through education, science, and culture.
  • The headquarters of UNESCO is in Paris, France, and the current President is Audrey Azoulay.

Extra facts:

OrganizationFoundation YearPresidentHeadquarters
International Labour Organization (ILO)1919Guy RyderGeneva, Switzerland
United Nations Education, Scientific, and Cultural Organization (UNESCO)1945Audrey AzoulayParis, France
World Health Organization (WHO)1948Tedros AdhanomGeneva, Switzerland
World Meteorological Organization (WMO)1950Gerhard AdrianGeneva, Switzerland
117

What is the relation between repo rate and reverse repo rate?

  1. ((a))

    Reverse repo rate is more than Repo rate

  2. ((b))

    Reverse repo rate is less than repo rate

  3. ((c))

    Both are equal

  4. ((d))

    There is no relation between the two

  5. ((e))

    Reverse repo is half of Repo rate

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Reverse repo rate is less than repo rate

Repo rate is the rate at which RBI lends money to commercial banks in the event of any shortfall of funds. Reverse Repo rate is the rate at which RBI borrows money from commercial banks within the country.

118

MCLR Stands for:

  1. ((a))

    Maximum cost of funds based lending rate

  2. ((b))

    Marginal cost of funds based lending rate

  3. ((c))

    Minimum cost of funds based lending rate

  4. ((d))

    Material cost of funds based lending rate

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Marginal cost of funds based lending rate

The Correct Answer is Marginal cost of funds based lending rate

  • The MCLR stand for the marginal cost of funds based lending rate.
  • The MCLR was introduced by RBI on April 1, 2016.
  • It is the current rate-setting method for lending money by commercial banks.
  • MCLR is set by the banks on the basis of the structure and methodology followed. To summarise, borrowers can benefit from this change.
  • MCLR is an improved version of the base rate. It is a risk-based approach to determine the final lending rate for borrowers. It considers unique factors like the marginal cost of funds instead of the overall cost of funds. The marginal cost takes into account the repo rate, which did not form part of the base rate.
  • When calculating the MCLR, banks are required to incorporate all kinds of interest rates which they incur in mobilizing the funds. Earlier, the loan tenure was not taken into account when determining the base rate. In the case of MCLR, the banks are now required to include a tenor premium. This will allow banks to charge a higher rate of interest for loans with long-term horizons.
119

Which state celebrates its Phool Sankranti festival popularly known as the ‘Phool Dei’ festival to welcome the season of spring?

  1. ((a))

    Uttarakhand

  2. ((b))

    Madhya Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Uttar Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Punjab

  5. ((e))

    Haryana

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Uttarakhand

  • Uttarakhand celebrates its Phool Sankranti festival popularly known as the ‘Phool Dei’ festival to welcome the season of spring.
  • This Pahari festival is celebrated with pomp and show during Makar Sankranti in the Kumaon and Garhwal regions of Uttarakhand.
  • Phool Dei is celebrated on the first day of Chaitra or in mid-March (according to Gregorian calendar).
120

Which year marks the Golden Jubilee edition of International Film Festival of India?

  1. ((a))

    2019

  2. ((b))

    2020

  3. ((c))

    2018

  4. ((d))

    2021

  5. ((e))

    2022

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2019

  • Year 2019 marks the Golden Jubilee edition of International Film Festival of India which will be organised from 20th-28th November 2019.
  • International Film Festival of India (IFFI) started way back in 1952, is an 'A' grade film festival accredited to the International Federation of Film Producers' Associations (FIAPF) and is one of the oldest and most prestigious festivals in Asia.

Computer Knowledge (40 questions)

121

The first page that you normally view at a website is its

  1. ((a))

    Home Page

  2. ((b))

    Master Page

  3. ((c))

    First Page

  4. ((d))

    Banner Page

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Home Page

The Correct answer is Home Page.

Key Points

  • A home page also refers to the first page that appears upon opening a web browser, sometimes called the start page, although the home page of a website can be used as a start page.
  • A home page on a website serves as a launching pad to other products and services.
<br>

Additional Information

  • An identification page printed at the beginning of a print job by many print spoolers. It serves as a title page and separator between print jobs.
  • The Banner page is the first page of a print job used as a separator of print jobs and used to identify the originator of the print job request.
  • A Master Page is a nonprinting page that you can use as the template for the rest of the pages in your document.
  • Master pages can contain text and graphic elements that will appear on all pages of a publication (i.e. headers, footers, page numbers, etc.).
122

Which generation of computers use microprocessors as switching devices?

  1. ((a))

    First

  2. ((b))

    Second

  3. ((c))

    Third

  4. ((d))

    Fourth

  5. ((e))

    Fifth

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Fourth

The correct answer is Fourth

Key Points

  • Computer generations refer to technological developments in computing over the years which fundamentally altered the way computers operate. The first generation of computers operated on vacuum tubes, second-generation computers on transistors and diodes, third-generation computers on integrated circuits, and the fourth generation on microprocessors.

Additional Information

  • A microprocessor is a component that performs the instructions and tasks involved in computer processing. In a computer system, the microprocessor is the central unit that executes and manages the logical instructions passed to it.
  • A microprocessor may also be called a processor or central processing unit, but it is actually more advanced in terms of architectural design and is built over a silicon microchip.
  • A microprocessor is the most important unit within a computer system and is responsible for processing the unique set of instructions and processes. A microprocessor is designed to execute logical and computational tasks with typical operations such as addition/subtraction, interprocess and device communication, input/output management, etc. A microprocessor is composed of integrated circuits that hold thousands of transistors; exactly how many depends on its relative computing power.
  • Microprocessors are generally classified according to the number of instructions they can process within a given time, their clock speed measured in megahertz, and the number of bits used per instruction.
123

A _______ module is a device that converts spoken words into information that the computer can recognize and process.

  1. ((a))

    Microphone

  2. ((b))

    Voice recognition

  3. ((c))

    Optical Scanner 

  4. ((d))

    Video Graphic adapter

  5. ((e))

    Scanner

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Voice recognition

The correct answer is Voice recognition.

  • A voice recognition module is a device that converts spoken words into information that the computer can recognize and process.
  • Alternatively referred to as speech recognition, voice recognition is a computer software program or hardware device with the ability to decode the human voice.
  • Voice recognition is commonly used to operate a device, perform commands, or write without having to use a keyboard, mouse, or press any buttons.
  • Today, this is done on a computer with ASR (automatic speech recognition) software programs.

Additional Information

DeviceUse
MicrophoneSometimes abbreviated as a mic, a microphone is a hardware peripheral and input device originally invented by Emile Berliner in 1877. A microphone allows computer users to input audio into their computers.
Optical ScannerWhen referring to hardware, a scanner or optical scanner is a hardware input device that optically "reads" an image and converts it into a digital signal.
Video Graphic adapterShort for Video Graphics Adapter or Video Graphics Array, VGA is a popular display standard developed by IBM and introduced in 1987. VGA provides 640 x 480 resolution color display screens with a refresh rate of 60 Hz and 16 colors displayed at a time.
124

Which of the following option correctly describes use of firewall?

  1. ((a))

    Preventing unauthorized access

  2. ((b))

    Data sharing between different servers

  3. ((c))

    Fast web browsing

  4. ((d))

    Preventing computer hardware from any damage

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Preventing unauthorized access

The correct answer is Preventing unauthorized access.

Key Points

  • A firewall is a kind of security-conscious type of hardware or software that stays between the computer and our network with a primary task: preventing malicious software from reaching us.
  • In other words, we can say that the firewall works like a security guard between the Internet and our local area network (LAN). All network traffic passing through the LAN must face the firewall, which restricts unauthorized access to the network.

Additional Information 

  • Following are the types of Firewalls -
  1. Packet-filtering firewall: It checks every packet that passes the firewall and examines the packet as per the set of rules that the user sets up. If the packet gets to pass the test, it’s allowed to go through. If the packet fails to pass the test then it is rejected. Packet filters are the most inexpensive variety of firewalls. That is why packet-filtering firewalls are used very commonly.
  2. Stateful packet inspection (SPI): It is installed in accordance with simple packet filtering. A firewall having Stateful packet checking looks at packets in clusters instead of doing individually. It maintains the record of all those packets have crossed through the firewall and can create patterns that indicate unauthorized entry.
  3. Deep packet inspection (DPI): It is the actual data of the packets is checked so viruses, spam, and other harmful content can be restricted. DPI also enables practices, such as data mining, eavesdropping, and content censorship, which make its way through a controversial subject.
125

The time interval to process and respond to inputs is very small in the case of _________ operating system.

  1. ((a))

    Distributed

  2. ((b))

    Batch

  3. ((c))

    Multi tasking

  4. ((d))

    Real Time

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Real Time

The correct answer is option 4, i.e. Real Time.

  • Real Time
  • ​A real-time operating system (RTOS) is an operating system (OS) intended to serve real-time applications that process data as it comes in, typically without buffer delays.
  • The time interval required to process and respond to inputs is very small and measured in tenths of seconds or shorter increments of time.
  • Distributed
  • A distributed operating system is a software over a collection of independent, networked, communicating, and physically separate computational nodes.
  • They handle jobs which are serviced by multiple CPUs.
  • Batch
  • This type of operating system does not interact with the computer directly.
  • There is an operator which takes similar jobs having same requirement and group them into batches.
  • Multi tasking
  • ​Multitasking operating system provides the interface for executing the multiple program tasks by single user at a same time on the one computer system.
  • In a multitasking operating system, more than one task is executed at the same time.
126

Which of the following Input device is used to convert hard copy to soft copy?

  1. ((a))

    Light pen

  2. ((b))

    Track Ball

  3. ((c))

    Scanner

  4. ((d))

    Digitizer

  5. ((e))

    Microphone

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Scanner

The correct answer is option 3, i.e. Scanner.

  • Scanner is an input device, which works more like a photocopy machine. It is used when some information is available on paper and it is to be transferred to the hard disk of the computer for further manipulation.
  • Scanner captures images from the source which are then converted into a digital form that can be stored on the disk. These images can be edited before they are printed.
  • Digitizer is an input device which converts analog information into digital form.
  • Microphone is an input device to input sound that is then stored in a digital form.
  • Track ball is an input device that is mostly used in notebook or laptop computer, instead of a mouse. This is a ball which is half inserted and by moving fingers on the ball, the pointer can be moved.
  • Light pen is a pointing device similar to a pen. It is used to select a displayed menu item or draw pictures on the monitor screen. It consists of a photocell and an optical system placed in a small tube.
127

The elemental language of computers comprising a long sequence of binary zeros and ones (bits) is called _______

  1. ((a))

    Machine language

  2. ((b))

    Algorithm

  3. ((c))

    Flow chart

  4. ((d))

    High level Language

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Machine language

The correct answer is Machine Language.

  • A machine language is a low-level programming language used to directly control a computer's Central Processing Unit.
  • It comprises of a long sequence of binary zeroes and ones (bits). It is the only language a computer is capable of understanding.
  • High-level languages such as Swift and C++ must be compiled into machine language before the code is run on a computer.
  • Machine language is normally displayed in the hexadecimal form so that it is a little bit easier to read.

 

TermMeaning
AlgorithmAn algorithm is a procedure or formula for solving a problem, based on conducting a sequence of specified actions.
Flow ChartA flow chart is simply a graphical representation of steps in sequential order and is widely used in presenting the flow of algorithms, workflow, or processes.
High-Level LanguageIt is a programming language with strong abstraction from the details of the computer.
128

Digitiser is a computer ______ device used to capture handwritten signatures and data or images from taped papers.

  1. ((a))

    laser printer

  2. ((b))

    input

  3. ((c))

    impact printer

  4. ((d))

    output

  5. ((e))

    Scanner

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

input

The Correct Answer is Option 2 i.e Input.

  • Digitizer is a computer input device that receives analog information, such used to capture handwritten signatures and data or images from taped papers and records it digitally thereby converting it to digital format.
  • An input device sends information to a computer system for processing, and the device reproduces or displays the results of that processing is an output device.
  • Input devices include Keyboard, Mouse, Scanner, Microphone, Digital Cameras, Barcode reader, digitizer, Webcam, etc.
  • Few examples of output devices include Printers, Projector, Plotters, monitors, Speakers, Head Phone, etc.
129

Which of the following is a malicious software that, on execution, runs its own code and modifies other computer programs?

  1. ((a))

    Virus

  2. ((b))

    Spam

  3. ((c))

    Spyware

  4. ((d))

    Adware

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Virus

Virus

A computer virus is a type of computer program that, when executed, replicates itself by modifying other computer programs and inserting its own code

Important Point:

  • Spam is any kind of unwanted, unsolicited digital communication, often an email, that gets sent out in bulk. Spam is a huge waste of time and resources.
  • Spyware is unwanted software that infiltrates your computing device, stealing your internet usage data and sensitive information. Spyware is classified as a type of malware.
  • Adware, or advertising supported software, is software that displays unwanted advertisements on user computer
130

Information stored in RAM is considered volatile, which means it is

  1. ((a))

    Stored there permanently

  2. ((b))

    Not held permanently, only temporary

  3. ((c))

    Stored when the electricity is shut off

  4. ((d))

    Stored permanently in the CPU device

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Not held permanently, only temporary

The correct answer is Not held permanently, only temporary

  • The full form of RAM is Random Access Memory. The information stored in this type of memory is lost when the power supply to the PC or laptop is switched off. The information stored in RAM can be checked with the help of BIOS. It is generally known as the main memory or temporary memory or cache memory or volatile memory of the computer system.
  • Two main types of RAM are:
  1. Static RAM: Static RAM is the full form of SRAM. In this type of RAM, data is stored using the state of a six transistor memory cell. Static RAM is mostly used as a cache memory for the processor (CPU).
  2. Dynamic RAM: DRAM stands for Dynamic Random Access Memory. It is a type of RAM which allows you to stores each bit of data in a separate capacitor within a specific integrated circuit. Dynamic RAM is a standard computer memory of the many modern desktop computers. This type of RAM is a volatile memory that needs to be refreshed with voltage regularly. Else it loses the information stored on it.
131

To copy a cell, you would drag the cell border while simultaneously holding down the Ctrl key when?

  1. ((a))

    You have one or more cells to copy

  2. ((b))

    Only some of the cells are visible in the window

  3. ((c))

    You don't want to refer to absolute references

  4. ((d))

    The distance between cells is short and they are both visible in the window

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

You have one or more cells to copy

To copy a cell, you would drag the cell border while simultaneously holding down the Ctrl key when you have one or more cells to copy.

132

The button that displays the window over the entire screen is?

  1. ((a))

    Scroll box down size

  2. ((b))

    Restore down

  3. ((c))

    Minimize

  4. ((d))

    Maximize

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Maximize

The maximize button is used to fit the view to the whole screen present before the user.

133

The purpose of the primary key in a database is to:

  1. ((a))

    Unlock the database

  2. ((b))

    Provide a map of the data

  3. ((c))

    Uniquely identify a record

  4. ((d))

    Establish constraints on database operations.

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Uniquely identify a record

The correct answer is Uniquely identify a record

  • There is always one primary key in a table for each record which is used to uniquely identify that record.
  • KEYS in DBMS is an attribute or set of attributes that help you to identify a row(tuple) in a relation(table). They allow you to find the relation between two tables. Keys help you uniquely identify a row in a table by a combination of one or more columns in that table. The Key is also helpful for finding a unique record or row from the table. The database key is also helpful for finding a unique record or row from the table.
  • There are mainly seven different types of Keys in DBMS and each key has its different functionality:
  1. Super Key -  A super key is a group of single or multiple keys that identifies rows in a table.
  2. Primary Key -  is a column or group of columns in a table that uniquely identify every row in that table.
  3. Candidate Key -  is a set of attributes that uniquely identify tuples in a table. Candidate Key is a super key with no repeated attributes.
  4. Alternate Key -  is a column or group of columns in a table that uniquely identify every row in that table.
  5. Foreign Key -  is a column that creates a relationship between two tables. The purpose of Foreign keys is to maintain data integrity and allow navigation between two different instances of an entity.
  6. Compound Key -  has two or more attributes that allow you to uniquely recognize a specific record. It is possible that each column may not be unique by itself within the database.
  7. Composite Key -  An artificial key which aims to uniquely identify each record is called a surrogate key. These kinds of keys are unique because they are created when you don't have any natural primary key.
  8. Surrogate Key -  An artificial key which aims to uniquely identify each record is called a surrogate key. These kinds of keys are unique because they are created when you don't have any natural primary key.
134

Microsoft Excel is used for:

  1. ((a))

    Writing letter

  2. ((b))

    Multimedia presentation

  3. ((c))

    Spread sheet

  4. ((d))

    All of the above

  5. ((e))

    Both 1 and 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Spread sheet

The correct answer is Spreadsheet.

  • Microsoft Excel is an electronic spreadsheet program.
  • The files created in Microsoft Excel is known as a workbook.
  • A spreadsheet is a computer application used for organization, analysis, and storage of data in tabular form.
  • The first electronic spreadsheet on mainframe and the time-sharing computer was LANPAR developed in the year 1969.

Important Points

  • A spreadsheet consists of a table of cells arranged into rows and columns.
  • The total number of rows in a worksheet of Excel 2007 is 1048576.
  • The total number of columns in a worksheet of Excel 2007 is 16384.
135

Which Number system Contains 16 digit?

  1. ((a))

    Hexadecimal 

  2. ((b))

    Binary

  3. ((c))

    Decimal

  4. ((d))

    Octal

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Hexadecimal 

The correct answer is Hexadecimal.

Key Points

  • The hexadecimal Number system Contains 16 digits.
  • The base of this number system is 16.
  • It comprises 0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,A,B,C,D,E,F.

Additional Information

  • About Binary number system:
  • There are only 2 digits in the Binary system, which are 0 and 1.
  • The base of this number system is 2.
  • This number system is used by all digital computers to convert the data input from decimal to its binary equivalent.
  • About Decimal number system:
  • It contains 10 digits.
  • It comprises 0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9.
  • The base of this number is 10.
  • About Octal number system:
  • It contains 8 digits.
  • The base of this number is 8.
136

Compatibility, with regard to computers, refers to ?

  1. ((a))

    The software doing the right job for the user

  2. ((b))

    It being versatile enough to handle the job

  3. ((c))

    The software being able to run on the computer

  4. ((d))

    Software running with only other previously installed software

  5. ((e))

    None

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The software being able to run on the computer

Compatibility, with regard to computers, refers to the software being able to run on the computer .

137

Which of the following can be used for establishing a connection as well as a switching device?

  1. ((a))

    RS-232 C port

  2. ((b))

    Concentrator

  3. ((c))

    Multiplexer

  4. ((d))

    Communication processor

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Multiplexer

A multiplexer is used to establish connection directed towards different output lines. It has 2n lines for input which means it can direct output to n different lines. So it can be used as a connector as well as a switching device.

138

What is the full form of ISDN?

  1. ((a))

    Input Service Digital Network

  2. ((b))

    Integrated Services Digital Network

  3. ((c))

    Integrated Switch Digital Network

  4. ((d))

    Input Switch Digital Network 

  5. ((e))

    Integrated Swipe Digital Network

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Integrated Services Digital Network

The correct answer is Integrated Services Digital Network.

Key Points

  • ISDN- Integrated Services Digital Network
  • It is a circuit-switched telephone network system that transmits both data and voice over a digital line.
  • It was designed to move outdated landline technology to digital.
  • These digital lines are commonly telephone lines and exchanges established by the government.
  • Before ISDN, it was not possible for ordinary telephone lines to provide fast transmission over a single line.

Additional Information

  • ISDN was formally standardized in 1988 and gained some significant popularity in the 1990s as a faster (128 Kbps) alternative to the 56 Kbps dial-up connection for internet access.
  • However, as soon as telecom companies switched from analog to digital infrastructures, modern long-distance networking and broadband internet technologies eventually made it an obsolete technology.
139

CAD stands for _______.

  1. ((a))

    Common Aided Design

  2. ((b))

    Computer Aided Design

  3. ((c))

    Complex Aided Design

  4. ((d))

    Communication Aided Design

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Computer Aided Design

The correct answer is CAD Computer Aided Design

Key Points

  • CAD or Computer Aided Design is a software used in the computer systems by engineers, architects, drafters, artists and others to create, analyze, optimize and modify a design or even create 2D and 3D technical illustrations.

​

Additional Information

  • CAD/CAM applications are used to both design a product and program manufacturing processes, specifically, CNC machining. CAM software uses the models and assemblies created in CAD software, like Fusion 360, to generate toolpaths that drive machine tools to turn designs into physical parts.
140

With the help of which option, An administrator or another user can access someone else's computer remotely?

  1. ((a))

    Administrator

  2. ((b))

    Web server

  3. ((c))

    Web application

  4. ((d))

    HTTP

  5. ((e))

    TELNET

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

TELNET

Administrator or another user can access someone else's computer remotely using Telnet. It provided access to a command-line interface (usually, of an operating system) on a remote host. 

141

Kernel is the core part of __________.

  1. ((a))

    Linux Operating System

  2. ((b))

    Pytorch Software

  3. ((c))

    Microsoft Dotnet 

  4. ((d))

    Java

  5. ((e))

    Windows

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Linux Operating System

The correct answer is Linux Operating System.

Additional Information

  • A Kernel a core component and central module of the Linux Operating system.
  • It is the first program after bootloader which is loaded and controls everything in the OS. It acts as an interface between application and hardware.
  • It is responsible for memory management,disk management and process and task management.
142

Which of the given options best describes the truthfulness of the following statements?

(i) Ctrl + Y is used to perform "undo" operation in MS-Word.

(ii) Ctrl + Z is used to perform "redo" operation in MS-Word.

iii) Ctr l+ E  is used to Center the text

  1. ((a))

    (i) False, (ii) True  (iii) False

  2. ((b))

    (i) True, (ii) True  iii) False

  3. ((c))

    (i) False, (ii) False  iii) True

  4. ((d))

    (i) True, (ii) False  iii) False

  5. ((e))

    (i) True, (ii) False  iii) True

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(i) False, (ii) False  iii) True

The correct answer is (i) False, (ii) False, iii) True

Key Points

  • Ctrl + Y is used to perform a "redo" operation in MS-Word.
  • Ctrl + Z is used to perform an "undo" operation in MS-Word.
  • Undo means to cancel or reverse the effects or results of (a previous action or measure).
  • Redo means to do (something) again or differently.
  • Center the text - Ctrl+E.

Additional Information

Important Shortcut keys used in MS Word:

  • Cut the selected content to the Clipboard - Ctrl+X
  • Copy the selected content to the Clipboard - Ctrl+C
  • Paste the contents of the Clipboard -Ctrl+V
  • Increase the font size by 1 point.- Ctrl+]
  • Align the text to the left - Ctrl+L.
143

________ is the full form of Wi-Fi.

  1. ((a))

    Wireless focus

  2. ((b))

    Wireless fidelity

  3. ((c))

    Wired Fidelity

  4. ((d))

    Wired focus

  5. ((e))

    None of the abovve

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Wireless fidelity

The correct answer is option 2 i.e Wireless fidelity.

Additional Information

  • Wireless fidelity is the full form of Wi-Fi.
  • Wi-Fi is a wireless local area network.
  • It was introduced in 1997.
  • It allows an electronic device to exchange data wirelessly using radio waves.
  • Wi-Fi provides services in private homes, businesses, as well as in public spaces.
  • Wi-Fi positioning systems use the positions of Wi-Fi hotspots to identify a device's location.
144

What happens when the user Presses CTRL+9 in Excel?

  1. ((a))

    Prints 9

  2. ((b))

    Prints

  3. ((c))

    Prints 9 followed by spaces

  4. ((d))

    Inserts 9 cells at the current location

  5. ((e))

    Hides the current row

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

Hides the current row

When the user presses CTRL+9 it hides the current row in Microsoft excels.

145

Which protocol does Ping use?

  1. ((a))

    TCP

  2. ((b))

    ARP

  3. ((c))

    ICMP

  4. ((d))

    BootP

  5. ((e))

    None of these 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

ICMP

The Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) is a supporting protocol in the Internet protocol suite. It is used by network devices, like routers, to send error messages and operational information indicating, for example, that a requested service is not available or that a host or router could not be reached. ICMP differs from transport protocols such as TCP and UDP in that it is not typically used to exchange data between systems, nor is it regularly employed by end-user network applications (with the exception of some diagnostic tools like ping and traceroute).

146

___ usually real technology buffs which modify computer hardware or software in a way that alters the creator's original content?

  1. ((a))

    Crackers

  2. ((b))

    Hackers

  3. ((c))

    Virus

  4. ((d))

    Software engineer

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Hackers

Hackers are usually real technology buffs which modify computer hardware or software in a way that alters the creator's original content.

147

What is XML stands for?

  1. ((a))

    Example Markup Language

  2. ((b))

    Extensible Markup Language

  3. ((c))

    X Markup Language

  4. ((d))

    Extra Modern Link

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Extensible Markup Language

The correct answer is Extensible Markup Language.

Key Points

  • XML stands for Extensible Markup Language. It is a text-based markup language derived from Standard Generalized Markup Language (SGML). 
  • XML tags identify the data and are used to store and organize the data, rather than specifying how to display it like HTML tags, which are used to display the data.
  • It is a meta markup language for text documents/data. It allows to define languages to represent text. It is designed to describe data not to display data. XML tags are not predefined.
  • An XML document is well formed it satisfies rule specified by the W3C.
  • XML tags are case sensitive.
  • A well-formed XML have a proper starting and closing tag.
  • An XML documented validated against a DTD is both “Well-Formed” and “valid”.
  • Purpose of DTD is to define the structure and legal elements and attributed of a XML document.
  • XML does not require DTD.
  • XML carries the data; it does not represent it.
  • XML can be used for offloading and reloading of databases.
148

How many “workbook views” are available in MS Excel 2007?

  1. ((a))

    4

  2. ((b))

    3

  3. ((c))

    6

  4. ((d))

    5

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4

The Correct Answer is 4.

Important Points

Excel offers 4 different workbook views.

  • Normal view: This is the default Excel view and the one usually used.
  • Page Layout view: This view is used to fine-tune a worksheet before printing,
  • Page Break Preview view: This view shows where the page breaks will occur if the worksheet is printed.
  • Full-Screen view: The worksheet stays in the view it was already in, but toolbars are hidden so that the worksheet fills the entire screen.
149

_________ is a method of storing data on two or more hard drives that work in combination to do the job of a large dive.

  1. ((a))

    DAID

  2. ((b))

    RAID

  3. ((c))

    Shadowing 

  4. ((d))

    Casting

  5. ((e))

    Mini SD

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

RAID

RAID (redundant array of independent disks) is a data storage virtualization technology that combines multiple physical disk drive components into a single logical unit for the purposes of data redundancy, performance improvement, or both.

150

A microprocessor is the brain of the computer and is also called a(n) ______

  1. ((a))

    Microchip

  2. ((b))

    Macrochip

  3. ((c))

    Microprocessor

  4. ((d))

    Calculator

  5. ((e))

    Software

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Microchip

The correct answer is Microchip

Key Points

  • The computer's CPU (Central Processing Unit) manufactured on a single IC (Integrated Circuit) is called a microprocessor. It is also known as a Microchip.
  • A digital computer with a single microprocessor that works as a CPU is called a microcomputer.
  • It is based on the register, a programmable, clock-controlled, multipurpose electronic circuit that gets binary instructions from a storage device called memory, gets binary data as input, and executes data as per the instructions, and delivers results as output.
  • The microprocessor holds millions of small components like diodes, registers, and transistors that work together.

  • A microchip is a generic term for tiny electronic circuits built into tiny and sealed boxes with metallic pins.
  • The electronic circuit can be both analog and digital. A microprocessor is a generic term for a special kind of digital electronic circuit that is embedded into a microchip.
  • Hence, a microprocessor which is the brain of the computer can also be called a microchip.
151

What represents the status of resources allocated to a process?

  1. ((a))

    Process control

  2. ((b))

    ALU

  3. ((c))

    Register unit

  4. ((d))

    Process description

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Process description

Process description is meant for conveying different type of information related to a particular process. When certain resources have been allotted to a process, the process description also tells the user that which resources have been allotted to a process.

152

A hybrid computer

  1. ((a))

    Resembles digital computer

  2. ((b))

    Resembles analogue computer

  3. ((c))

    Resembles both a digital and analogue computer

  4. ((d))

    It is a supercomputer

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Resembles both a digital and analogue computer

  • A computer system consisting of a combination of analog and digital computer systems.
  • The digital component normally serves as the controller and provides logical and numerical operations, while the analog component often serves as a solver of differential equations and other mathematically complex equations.
153

FTP is better than HTTP because ________.

  1. ((a))

    It uses separate channels for data transmission and flow control

  2. ((b))

    It transfer data from the web server

  3. ((c))

    It copies files from client to server

  4. ((d))

    It access remote location server

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

It uses separate channels for data transmission and flow control

FTP is better than HTTP as it has built in flow control. The control channel and data channels are independent of each other, the separate TCP connections.

FTP is a two way systems as files are transferred back & forth between file server & workstation. Whereas http is a one way system as files are transported only from the web server onto the workstation’s browser.

154

A _______ is a large-scale electronic repository of data that is time-variant.

  1. ((a))

    Data warehouse

  2. ((b))

    Data mine

  3. ((c))

    Knowledge-based system

  4. ((d))

    Decision support system

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Data warehouse

The correct answer is Data warehouse

Important Points

  • A data warehouse is basically a non-volatile collection of information. This is used to help the management reach out to certain significant decisions that are subjective or it can also be used to analyze a certain field.
  • In other words, data warehousing is the electronic storage of a large amount of information by a business or organization. Data warehousing is a vital component of business intelligence that employs analytical techniques on business data.
  • The concept of data warehousing was introduced in 1988 by IBM researchers Barry Devlin and Paul Murphy. The need to warehouse data evolved as computer systems became more complex and handled increasing amounts of data. A key book on data warehousing is W. H. Inmon's "Building the Data Warehouse," which was first published in 1990 and has been reprinted several times since.

Additional Information

  • Data warehouses use a different design from standard operational databases. The latter is optimized to maintain strict accuracy of data at the moment by rapidly updating real-time data. Data warehouses, by contrast, are designed to give a long-range view of data over time. They trade off transaction volume and instead specialize in data aggregation.
  • Disadvantages: Data warehouses are expensive to scale, and do not excel at handling raw, unstructured, or complex data. However, data warehouses are still an important tool in the big data era.
155

What is the size of an IP address ?

  1. ((a))

    4 Bit

  2. ((b))

    32 Byte

  3. ((c))

    6 Byte

  4. ((d))

    4 Byte

  5. ((e))

    16 Bit

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

4 Byte

The correct answer is "4 Byte".

Key Points

  • The size of an IP address is 32 bit or 4 Byte.
  • IP address contains 4 octets where each octet is separated by .(dot).
  • IP Address is either four-byte (IPv4) or Sixteen-byte (IPv6) addresses.
  • A device attached with IP Address can retrieve by RARP protocol.
  • IP Address operates in the network layer.
  • IP Address identifies the connection of the device on the network.
  • IP Address modifies with the time and environment.
  • IP Addresses can be found by a third party.

Additional Information

Let's take an example-

10.1.2.3 (a decimal form of IP address)

Binary Equivalent of the above number will be-

00001010.00000001.00000010.00000011

here, we can see 4 Octet separated by Dot Operator.

With this 32 bit IP address, we can actually generate 2^32 IP Addresses.

Which is Approximately more than 4 Billion Addresses.

156

Three or more devices share a link in ______________ connection.

  1. ((a))

    Uni-point

  2. ((b))

    Multipoint

  3. ((c))

    Point to point

  4. ((d))

    Network

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Multipoint

The correct answer is Multipoint.

  • A multipoint connection is a link between three or more devices. It is also known as Multi-drop configuration.
  • The networks having multipoint configuration are called Broadcast Networks. In broadcast network, a message or a packet sent by any machine is received by all other machines in a network.
  • The packet contains an address field that specifies the receiver.
  • Upon receiving a packet, every machine checks the address field of the packet.
  • If the transmitted packet is for that particular machine, it processes it; otherwise, it just ignores the packet.
  • A point-to-point connection refers to a communications connection between two communication endpoints or nodes. An example is a telephone call, in which one telephone is connected with one other, and what is said by one caller can only be heard by the other.
  • A network consists of two or more computers that are linked in order to share resources (such as printers and CDs), exchange files, or allow electronic communications.
157

In a relational database, _______ is a data structure that organizes the information about a single topic into rows and columns.

  1. ((a))

    Block

  2. ((b))

    Record

  3. ((c))

    Tuple

  4. ((d))

    Table

  5. ((e))

    Command line interface

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Table

A relational database is a collection of data items organized as a set of formally - described tables from which data can be accessed or reassembled in many different ways without having to reorganize the database tables.

     Database terminology

  • hierarchical model: represents data as a hierarchical tree structure
  • instance: a record within a table
  • network model: represents data as record types
  • relation: another term for table
  • relational model: represents data as relations or tables
  • set type: a limited type of one to many relationships
158

Algorithm and Flow Chart help us

  1. ((a))

    know the memory capacity.

  2. ((b))

    Identify the base of a number system

  3. ((c))

    Direct the output to a printer.

  4. ((d))

    Specify the problem completely and clearly.

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Specify the problem completely and clearly.

An algorithm is an unambiguous specification of how to solve a class of problems. A flowchart is a type of diagram that represents an algorithm, workflow or process, showing the steps as boxes of various kinds, and their order by connecting them with arrows. This diagrammatic representation illustrates a solution model to a given problem.

159

Name the algorithm used to encrypt and decrypt messages to secure communications among computer systems?

  1. ((a))

    Cipher

  2. ((b))

    Decipher

  3. ((c))

    Sniper

  4. ((d))

    Both 1 and 2

  5. ((e))

    All of them.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Cipher

The correct answer is Cipher.

Key Points

  • Cipher is an algorithm for performing encryption or decryption—a series of well-defined steps that can be followed as a procedure.
  • A cipher suite uses one algorithm for encryption, another algorithm for message authentication, and another for key exchange.
  • This process, embedded in protocols and written in software that runs on operating systems and networked computer systems, involves public and private key generation for data encryption or decryption, digital signing and verification for message authentication, and key exchange.
  • Cipher is an algorithm for performing encryption or decryption—a series of well-defined steps that can be followed as a procedure.
  • Ciphers used two important types of transformation:
  • Transposition ciphers, which keep all the original bits of data in a byte but mix their order.
  • Substitution ciphers, which replace specific data sequences with other specific data sequences
160

The process of transferring files from a computer on the internet to your computer is called _____

  1. ((a))

    Downloading

  2. ((b))

    Uploading

  3. ((c))

    FTP

  4. ((d))

    JPEG

  5. ((e))

    Downsizing

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Downloading

The correct answer is Downloading

Important Points

  • 'Downloading' is essentially retrieving data – music, text, images, or other information – from a source on the internet and save it to your computer. It usually involves a process as simple as clicking on a link and following instructions.

Key Points

  • Sometimes abbreviated as DL, D/L, or DLing, download is a term used to describe copying data from one computer to another, either over a network or modem. For example, each time you visit a web page on the Internet, you download the information on the page, including any pictures, to your computer. The term download is often associated with pictures, songs, videos, and programs.
  • Many new computer users inappropriately refer to copying files on their computer as downloading. When copying a file from your computer to another drive or folder on the same computer, you're copying that file and not downloading the file. If you're copying a file from a different computer to your computer, you're downloading the file.
  • Uploading is the process of putting web pages, images, and files onto a web server.

Quantitative Aptitude (40 questions)

161

What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

40% of 820 + 60% of 390 – 511 = 49 + ?

  1. ((a))

    8

  2. ((b))

    1

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    2

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

2

Given

40% of 820 + 60% of 390 – 511 = 49 + ?

Concept Used 

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculation 

40% of 820 + 60% of 390 – 511 = 49 + ?

⇒ 4 × 82 + 6 × 39 - 511 - 49 = ? 

⇒ ? = 328 + 234 - 560 

⇒ ? = 2 

∴ The required answer is 2

 

Alternative method:

We can also solve it by fraction method

As we know fraction value of 40% = 2/5

And, 60% = 3/5

40% of 820 + 60% of 390 – 511 = 49 + ?

⇒ 2/5 × 820 + 3/5 × 390 – 511 – 49 = ?

⇒ ? = 328 + 234 - 560 

⇒ ? = 2 

∴ The required answer is 2

162

What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

215 + 369 – 60% of 900 + 5 = ?2

  1. ((a))

    8

  2. ((b))

    7

  3. ((c))

    6

  4. ((d))

    9

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

7

Given 

215 + 369 – 60% of 900 + 5 = ?2

Concept Used 

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculation

215 + 369 – 60% of 900 + 5 = ?2

⇒ √(215 + 369 - 540 + 5) = ?

⇒ ? = √(589 - 540) = 7

∴ The required answer is 7

163

What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

? = 40% of 320 + 43 ÷ 16 × 108 ÷ 8

  1. ((a))

    176

  2. ((b))

    172

  3. ((c))

    168

  4. ((d))

    166

  5. ((e))

    182

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

182

Concept used:

Calculation:

? = 40% of 320 + 43 ÷ 16 × 108 ÷ 8

⇒ ? = 128 + 64 ÷ 16 × 108 ÷ 8 

⇒ ? = 128 + 4 × (27/2)

⇒ ? = 128 + 54 = 182 

∴ The required answer is 182

164

What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

17 × 18 ÷ √324 × 11 + 48 – 10 = ?2

  1. ((a))

    12

  2. ((b))

    14

  3. ((c))

    15

  4. ((d))

    13

  5. ((e))

    18

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

15

Given 

17 × 18 ÷ √324 × 11 + 48 – 10 = ?2

Concept used 

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculation 

17 × 18 ÷ √324 × 11 + 48 – 10 = ?2

⇒ 17 × 18 ÷ 18 × 11 + 48 - 10 = ?2

⇒? = √(17 × 1 × 11 + 38)

⇒ ? = √(187 + 38) = 15   

∴ The required answer is 15

165

What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

50 × 42 ÷ 12 + 92 – 60 = ?2

  1. ((a))

    18

  2. ((b))

    17

  3. ((c))

    14

  4. ((d))

    12

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

14

Calculation 

Using BODMAS 

50 × 42 ÷ 12 + 92 – 60 = ?2

⇒ 50 × 7 ÷ 2 + 92 – 60 = ?2

⇒ 25 × 7 + 81 - 60 = ?2

⇒ 175 + 21 = ?2

⇒ ? = √196 = 14 

∴ The correct answer is 14

166

What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

60% of 90 + 12.5% × 64 – 39 + 16 = ?

  1. ((a))

    35

  2. ((b))

    39

  3. ((c))

    38

  4. ((d))

    41

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

39

Calculation 

Using BODMAS Rule 

60% of 90 + 12.5% × 64 – 39 + 16 = ?

⇒ 54 + 8 - 39 + 16 = ?

⇒ 39 = ? 

∴ The correct answer is 39

167

What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

20 + 39 – 78 + (17 × 3) – 15 = ?

  1. ((a))

    16

  2. ((b))

    21

  3. ((c))

    18

  4. ((d))

    23

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

None of these

Given:

20 + 39 – 78 + (17 × 3) – 15 = ?

Concept used:

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculation:

20 + 39 – 78 + (17 × 3) – 15 = ?

⇒ 59 – 78 + 51 – 15 = ?

⇒ ? = 17 

? = 17

∴ The value of ? is 17

168

What should come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

​27 ÷ 3 × 5 + 51 ÷ 17 = ? ÷ 8

  1. ((a))

    6

  2. ((b))

    8

  3. ((c))

    64

  4. ((d))

    384

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

384

Given:

​27 ÷ 3 × 5 + 51 ÷ 17 = ? ÷ 8

Concept Used:

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculation:

​​27 ÷ 3 × 5 + 51 ÷ 17 = ? ÷ 8

⇒ (​​27 ÷ 3 × 5) + (51/17) = ?/ 8

⇒ (9 × 5) + (51/17) = ?/ 8

⇒ 45 + 3 = ?/8

⇒ 48 = ?/8

⇒ ? = 48 × 8

⇒ ? = 384

∴ The value of ‘?’ Is 384.

169

What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

78 + 85 – (13 × 8) + (81 ÷ 3) = ?

  1. ((a))

    84

  2. ((b))

    86

  3. ((c))

    92

  4. ((d))

    96

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

86

Given:

78 + 85 – (13 × 8) + (81 ÷ 3) = ?

Concept used:

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculation:

78 + 85 – (13 × 8) + (81 ÷ 3) = ?

⇒ 163 - 104 + 27 = ?

⇒ ? = 190 - 104 

? = 86

∴ The value of ? is 86

170

What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question? 

(40 + 24) ÷ 8 × 18 – ? = 126

  1. ((a))

    17

  2. ((b))

    19

  3. ((c))

    21

  4. ((d))

    18

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

18

Given:

(40 + 24) ÷ 8 × 18 – ? = 126

Concept used:

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculation:

(40 + 24) ÷ 8 × 18 – ? = 126

⇒ (64) ÷ 8 × 18 – ? = 126

⇒ ? = 8 × 18 - 126

? = 18

∴ The value of ? is 18

171

The ratio between the upstream speed of boat and the speed of current is 7 : 1. If the boat can cover 70 km upstream in 5 hours, then find the distance it can cover running downstream in 5 hours

  1. ((a))

    75 km

  2. ((b))

    85 km

  3. ((c))

    80 km

  4. ((d))

    95 km

  5. ((e))

    90 km

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

90 km

Given:

Ratio of upstream speed and speed of current = 7 : 1

Distance covered upstream in 5 hours = 70 km

Concept used:

Speed of Boat = Upstream speed + Speed of current

Downstream speed = Speed of boat + Speed of current

Calculation:

Upstream speed = (70/5) km/hr

⇒ 14 km/hr

Let the upstream speed and speed of current be 7x and x respectively

Now, 7x = 14 km/hr

⇒ x = 2 km/hr

Speed of boat = (14 + 2) km/hr

⇒ 16 km/hr

Downstream speed = (16 + 2) km/hr

⇒ 18 km/hr

Distance covered downstream in 5 hours = (18 × 5) km

⇒ 90 km

∴ Distance covered by boat downstream in 5 hours is 90 km

172

A person invested a sum of Rs. 8000 at the rate of 12.5% annually at simple interest for 3 years after getting interest from an amount, he again invested total amount including simple interest at the rate of 20% compounded annually for the same years. Find the total amount.

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 19,800

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 19008

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 18900

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 18009

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Rs. 19008

Shortcut Trick

Simple Interest for 3 years at 12.5% → 3 × 12.5% = 37.5%.

New Principal (P2) = 8000 + 37.5% of 8000 = 8000 + 3000 = ₹11,000.

Compound Interest for 3 years at 20% → Multiplying factor = (1.2)3 = 1.728.

Final Amount = 11,000 × 1.728 = ₹19,008.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 19008.

Alternate Method

Given: Initial Principal = Rs. 8000, SI Rate = 12.5%, Time = 3 years, CI Rate = 20%.

Formula Used: SI = (P × R × T)/100 | AmountCI = P(1 + R/100)T

⇒ Simple Interest = (8000 × 12.5 × 3) / 100

⇒ Simple Interest = 80 × 37.5 = Rs. 3000

⇒ Total Amount after SI (New Principal) = 8000 + 3000 = Rs. 11,000

⇒ Final Amount (Compound Interest) = 11000 × (1 + 20/100)3

⇒ Final Amount = 11000 × (1.2)3

⇒ Final Amount = 11000 × 1.728 = Rs. 19008

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 19008.

Additional Information

Simple Interest vs Compound Interest

Simple Interest is calculated only on the Principal, while Compound Interest is calculated on the Principal plus the accumulated interest of previous periods.

Effective Rate for 3 years CI

For a rate of 20%, the effective CI rate for 3 years is calculated as 3r.3r2r3 or using the formula (x+y+xy/100), which results in 72.8%.

Fractional Conversion

12.5% = 1/8 and 20% = 1/5. These fractions often simplify multiplication and division in interest-based problems.

173

The average weight of males and females in the town is 52 kg. The ratio of the number of males and females is 4 : 3. If the average weight of females is 48 kg then find the average weight of males.

  1. ((a))

    55 kg

  2. ((b))

    40 kg

  3. ((c))

    50 kg

  4. ((d))

    60 kg

  5. ((e))

    None of the above/More than one of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

55 kg

 

Let the average weight of males be x kg

By the alligation method,

Now, 4/(x - 52) = 4/3

⇒ x - 52 = 3

⇒ x = 55

∴ The average weight of males will be 55 kg.

 

Alternate Method

Given:

The average weight of males and females in the town = 52 kg

The ratio of the number of males and females = 4 : 3

The average weight of females = 48 kg

Formula Used:

Average = (Sum of all observations)/(Number of observation)

Calculation:

Let the number of males and female be 4x and 3x respectively.

The average weight of females = 48 kg

⇒ (Sum of the weight of females)/(Total number of females) = 48

⇒ Sum of the weight of females = 48 × (3x)

⇒ Sum of the weight of females = 144x kg

Again, Let the sum of the weight of males be y kg

Now, The average weight of males and females in the town = 52 kg

⇒ (144x + y)/(4x + 3x) = 52

⇒ 144x + y = 52 × 7x

⇒ y = 364x - 144x

⇒ y = 220x

The sum of the weight of males = 220x kg

The average weight of males = (220x)/(4x)

⇒ 55 kg

∴ The average weight of males will be 55 kg.

174

Ratio of milk and water in a mixture of 50 litres is 4 : 1. 10 litres of the mixture is taken out from the mixture and then 3 litres of milk and 5 litres of water is added to it. Find the final ratio between milk and water.

  1. ((a))

    33 : 14

  2. ((b))

    36 : 13

  3. ((c))

    34 : 9

  4. ((d))

    35 : 13

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

35 : 13

Shortcut Trick

Remaining Mixture = 50 − 10 = 40 litres.

Ratio 4 : 1 ⇒ Total 5 units = 40 litres ⇒ 1 unit = 8 litres.

Milk = 4 × 8 = 32 litres; Water = 1 × 8 = 8 litres.

Final Milk = 32 + 3 = 35 litres; Final Water = 8 + 5 = 13 litres.

Final Ratio = 35 : 13.

∴ The correct answer is 35 : 13.

Alternate Method

Given: Total mixture = 50 litres, Ratio M:W = 4 : 1.

Formula: Quantity = Total × (Ratio Part / Total Parts).

⇒ Quantity of Milk removed = 10 × (4 / 5) = 8 litres.

⇒ Quantity of Water removed = 10 × (1 / 5) = 2 litres.

⇒ Initial Milk = 50 × (4 / 5) = 40 litres.

⇒ Initial Water = 50 × (1 / 5) = 10 litres.

⇒ New Milk = (40 − 8) + 3 = 35 litres.

⇒ New Water = (10 − 2) + 5 = 13 litres.

⇒ Final Ratio = 35 : 13.

∴ The correct answer is 35 : 13.

Additional Information

Mixture Withdrawal Property

When a portion of a mixture is removed, the ratio of components in the removed part and the remaining part stays the same as the original ratio.

Alligation Rule

Used to find the proportion in which two or more ingredients at a given price/concentration are mixed to produce a mixture of a desired price/concentration.

Replacement Formula

If x units are removed from V volume and replaced with water n times: Final Pure Liquid = Initial Liquid × (1 − x/V)n.

175

30 men take 25 days to dig a pond. If the pond would have been dug in 15 days, then what is the number of men to be employed?

  1. ((a))

    45

  2. ((b))

    60

  3. ((c))

    50

  4. ((d))

    57

  5. ((e))

    none of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

50

Shortcut Trick

Apply the Chain Rule formula: M1D1 = M2D2

30 men × 25 days = M2 men × 15 days

⇒ M2 = (30 × 25) ÷ 15 = 2 × 25 = 50 men

∴ The correct answer is 50 men.

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial men (M1) = 30

Initial days (D1) = 25

Required days (D2) = 15

Formula Used:

Total Work = Men × Days

PersonDaysTotal WorkEfficiency
Initial Group25750 units30 units/day
New Group1550 units/day

Calculations:

⇒ Total work to dig the pond = 30 × 25 = 750 units

⇒ Number of men required to finish 750 units in 15 days = Total Work ÷ Days

⇒ Required men = 750 ÷ 15

⇒ Required men = 50

∴ The correct answer is 50 men.

Additional Information

Work and Men Relationship

Men and days are inversely proportional. If work is constant, M1 ÷ M2 = D2 ÷ D1.

General Man-Day Formula

For varying work, use (M1 × D1 × H1) ÷ W1 = (M2 × D2 × H2) ÷ W2, where H is hours and W is work.

176

What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series?

6, 5, 9, 26, ?, 514

  1. ((a))

    129

  2. ((b))

    77

  3. ((c))

    102

  4. ((d))

    103

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

103

Calculation:

The series follows the following pattern:

⇒ 6 × 1 – 1 = 5

⇒ 5 × 2 – 1 = 9

⇒ 9 × 3 – 1 = 26

⇒ 26 × 4 – 1 = 103

⇒ 103 × 5 – 1 = 514

∴ The value of ? is 103

177

What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series?

3, 24, 96, ?, 192, 96

  1. ((a))

    190

  2. ((b))

    196

  3. ((c))

    194

  4. ((d))

    180

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

None of these

Calculation:

The series follows following pattern:

⇒ 3 × 8 = 24

⇒ 24 × 4 = 96

⇒ 96 × 2 = 192

⇒ 192 × 1 = 192

⇒ 192 × 0.5 = 96

∴ The value of ? is None of these

178

What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series?

8, 20, 36, 56, 80, ?

  1. ((a))

    105

  2. ((b))

    110

  3. ((c))

    108

  4. ((d))

    112

  5. ((e))

    115

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

108

Calculation:

The series follows the following pattern:

⇒ 8 + 12 = 20

⇒ 20 + 16 = 36

⇒ 36 + 20 = 56

⇒ 56 + 24 = 80

⇒ 80 + 28 = 108

∴ The value of ? is 108

179

What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series?

4, 8, 35, 51, 176, ?

  1. ((a))

    210

  2. ((b))

    212

  3. ((c))

    206

  4. ((d))

    225

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

212

Calculation:

The series follows following pattern:

⇒ 4 + 22 = 8

⇒ 8 + 33 = 35

⇒ 35 + 42 = 51

⇒ 51 + 53 = 176

⇒ 176 + 62 = 212

∴ The value of ? is 212

180

What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series?

1005, 1000, 985, 960, 925, ?

  1. ((a))

    890

  2. ((b))

    885

  3. ((c))

    880

  4. ((d))

    895

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

880

Calculation:

The series follows the following pattern:

⇒ 1005 – 5 = 1000

⇒ 1000 – 15 = 985

⇒ 985 – 25 = 960

⇒ 960 – 35 = 925

⇒ 925 – 45 = 880

∴ The value of ? is 880

Directions: Study the table given below and answer the questions carefully.

The table shows the number of employees in various departments in 5 different companies.

Mittal GroupTata GroupBirla GroupReliance GroupInfosys Group
IT department20035027070120
Management175200150340180
H.R5030253520
Finance3005012010075
181

What percentage of total employees are in the management department for all companies?

  1. ((a))

    42.63%

  2. ((b))

    36.53%

  3. ((c))

    38.73%

  4. ((d))

    39.33%

  5. ((e))

    66.63%

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

36.53%

Calculation:

Number of employees in management = 175 + 200 + 150 + 340 + 180

⇒ 1045

Total employees in 5 companies = 175 + 200 + 150 + 340 + 180 + 200 + 350 + 270 + 70 + 120 + 50 + 30 + 25 + 35 + 20 + 300 + 50 + 120 + 100 + 75 = 2860

∴ Required Percentage = 1045 / 2860 × 100

⇒ 36.53%

36.53% of total employees are in management department for all companies.

182

What is the ratio of employees of the IT department, management, and finance between the Birla group and Reliance group?

  1. ((a))

    18 : 13

  2. ((b))

    15 : 17

  3. ((c))

    18 : 17

  4. ((d))

    19 : 17

  5. ((e))

    10 : 13

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

18 : 17

Calculation:

Number of employees in Birla group in the required departments = 270 + 150 + 120

⇒ 540

Number of employees in Reliance group in the required departments = 70 + 340 + 100

⇒ 510

∴ Required Ratio = 540 : 510

⇒ 18 : 17

The ratio of employees in the IT department, management, and finance between the Birla group and Reliance group is 18 : 17.

183

What is the average number of employees from the IT department hired by all the companies taken together?

  1. ((a))

    252

  2. ((b))

    202

  3. ((c))

    102

  4. ((d))

    402

  5. ((e))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

202

Calculation:

Total number of employees in IT department = 200 + 350 + 270 + 70 + 120

⇒ 1010

∴ Required Average = 1010 / 5

⇒ 202

The average number of employees from the IT department hired by all the companies taken together is 202.

184

What is the percentage of H.R employees in Infosys Group?

  1. ((a))

    30.45%

  2. ((b))

    6.06%

  3. ((c))

    10.12%

  4. ((d))

    5.06%

  5. ((e))

    4.10%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

5.06%

Calculation:

Total number of employees in Infosys Group = 120 + 180 + 20 + 75

⇒ 395

Total H.R in Infosys = 20

∴ Required Percentage = 20 / 395 × 100

⇒ 5.06%

H.R employees is 5.06% in Infosys Group.

185

What is the percentage of IT and management employees in Birla Group as compared to Management and H.R employees in Reliance Group?

  1. ((a))

    115%

  2. ((b))

    112%

  3. ((c))

    102%

  4. ((d))

    96%

  5. ((e))

    100%

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

112%

Calculation:

IT and management employees in Birla Group = 270 + 150

⇒ 420

Management and H.R employees in Reliance Group = 340 + 35

⇒ 375

∴ Required Percentage = 420 / 375 × 100

⇒ 112%

The percentage of IT and management employees in Birla Group as compared to Management and H.R employees in the Reliance Group is 112%.

186

A milkman, in 50 liters mixture of milk and water keeps the ratio of milk and water in 3 : 2. One day he decided this ratio is to be 2 : 3, then find quantity of water to be further added in the mixture.

  1. ((a))

    25 litres

  2. ((b))

    30 litres

  3. ((c))

    40 litres

  4. ((d))

    41 litres

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

25 litres

Given:

Amount of mixture of milk and water is 50 liters

Actual ratio of milk and water is 3 : 2

Ratio required of milk and water is 2 : 3

Calculation:

In actual ratio

Quantity of milk in the mixture,

⇒ (50 × 3)/5 liters = 30 liters

Quantity of water in the mixture, 

⇒ (50 – 30) liters = 20 liters

According to question new ratio = 2:3

Let the quantity of water added in the mixture be x liters

Then,

Milk : water = 30 : (20 + x)

⇒ 2/3 = 30/(20 + x)

⇒ 90 = 40 + 2x

⇒ 50 = 2x

⇒ x = 25 liters

∴ The quantity of water to be added in the mixture is 25 liters.

187

A dealer marks an article 50% above the cost price and sells it to a customer allowing two successive discounts of 20% and 15% on the marked price. if he gains Rs. 400 on the deal then the cost price of the article is? 

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 25,000

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 30,000

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 20,000

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 15,000

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Rs. 20,000

Given:

Marked Price = 50% above the Cost Price

Profit = Rs. 400

Successive Discounts = 20% and 15%

Formula Used:

Net Discount = Discount1 + Discount2 – [(Discount1 × Discount2)/100]

Calculation:

Let the CP be Rs. 100

Then, MP = [(100 + 50)/100] × 100 = Rs. 150

Hence, Net Discount = 20 + 15 – [(20 × 15)/100] = 32%

⇒ 32% of 150 = 32/100 × 150 = 48

⇒ SP = 150 – 48 = 102 

⇒ Profit = 102 – 100 = Rs.2 

According to the given question,

2 ratio = 400

∴ C.P = 100 ratio = 20000

∴ C.P of the article is Rs. 20,000 

Alternate MethodLet the CP be 100

MP = 150

SP = 150 - (20% × 150)

⇒ 120

Final SP = 120 - (15% × 120)

⇒ 102

Net gain = 2%

Actual CP = 400/2%

⇒ 20000

188

In an election, there were only two candidates. 6% of the voters in an election did not cast their votes. The winner obtains 58% of the total voting list and defeated the other candidate by 440 votes. What was the total number of voters in this election?

  1. ((a))

    180

  2. ((b))

    2000

  3. ((c))

    1800

  4. ((d))

    200

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

2000

Given 

Votes that not casted in election = 6%

Winner obtained = 58% of the total voters

Winner defeated the looser by = 440 votes

Formula used

Looser obtained votes = casted votes in election – votes obtained by winner

Calculation

Let the total number of voters = 100 units

Casted vote in election = 100 – 6 = 94 units

Winner gets = 58% of total votes = 58 units

So, votes got by loser = 94 units – 58 units = 36 units

According to question,

Winner got extra votes than the loser = 440

⇒ (58 – 36) units = 440

⇒ 22 units = 440

⇒ 1 unit = 20

⇒ 100 units = 20 × 100 = 2000

∴ Total number of voters was 2000 in the election.

189

A, B and C started a business. A and B invested in the ratio of 3 ∶ 7 and C invested Rs. 8,000 the same amount as the difference between the investment of A and B. What is the amount invested by B?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 10,000

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 6,000

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 12,000

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 14,000

  5. ((e))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Rs. 14,000

Given:

The ratio of the amount invested by A and B = 3 ∶ 7

Amount invested by C = Difference between the amount invested by A and B = Rs. 8,000

Calculation:

Let the amount invested by A and B be 3x and 7x respectively.

Amount invested by C = Difference between the amount invested by A and B

8000 = 7x - 3x

⇒ x = 8000/4

⇒ x = 2000

The amount invested by B = 7x

⇒ 7 × 2000

⇒ Rs. 14,000

∴ The amount invested by B is Rs. 14,000.

190

The speed of a 100 m long train is 30 km/h. There is a man standing right next to the railway line. How much time will the train take to cross this man, provided the speed of the train increases by 50%?

  1. ((a))

    6 seconds

  2. ((b))

    8 seconds

  3. ((c))

    10 seconds

  4. ((d))

    12 seconds

  5. ((e))

    14 seconds

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

8 seconds

8 seconds

Given:

The length of the train = 100 metres

The speed of the train = 30 km/h

Formula and Concept Used:

Time taken by the train of length (l) meters to pass or pole or a standing man or a post is equal to the time taken by the train to cover (l) meters.

Conversion of speed from km/h to m/s = velocity in km/h × ( (5/18) )

Calculation:

When the speed of the train increases by 50%, the speed of the train now becomes 

(150/100) × 30 = 45 km/h

We can convert this speed from km/h into m/s as follows: - 

45 × (5/18) = 12.5 m/s

Thus, the time taken by the train to cross the man will be: -

100 / 12.5 = 8 seconds.

191

In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I. 4x2 + 12x + 9 = 0

II. 2y2 + 3y + 1 = 0

  1. ((a))

    x < y

  2. ((b))

    x > y

  3. ((c))

    x ≤ y

  4. ((d))

    x ≥ y

  5. ((e))

    x = y or the relation between x and y can't be established.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

x < y

Calculation:

I. 4x2 + 12x + 9 = 0

⇒ 4x2 + 6x + 6x + 9 = 0

⇒ 2x(2x + 3) + 3(2x + 3) = 0

⇒ (2x + 3) (2x + 3) = 0

⇒ x = -3/2, -3/2

II. 2y2 + 3y + 1

⇒ 2y2 + 2y + 1y + 1 = 0

⇒ 2y(y + 1) + 1 (y + 1) = 0

⇒ (2y + 1) (y + 1) = 0

⇒ y = -1/2 , -1

Comparison between X and Y (via tabulation):

Value of xValue of yRelation
-3/2-1/2x < y
-3/2-1x < y
-3/2-1/2x < y
-3/2-1x < y
<br>

∴ x < y

192

In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I. x2 – 19x + 90 = 0

II. 2y2 – 11y – 63 = 0

  1. ((a))

    x > y`

  2. ((b))

    x < y

  3. ((c))

    x ≥ y

  4. ((d))

    x ≤ y

  5. ((e))

    x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be established

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

x ≥ y

Calculation:

I. x2 – 19x + 90 = 0

⇒ x2 – 10x – 9x + 90 = 0

⇒ x(x – 10) – 9(x – 10) = 0

⇒ (x – 9) (x – 10) = 0

⇒ x = 9, 10

II. 2y2 – 11y – 63 = 0

⇒ 2y2 – 18y + 7y – 63 = 0

⇒ 2y(y – 9) + 7(y – 9) = 0

⇒ (2y + 7) (y – 9) = 0

⇒ y = -7/2, 9

Comparison between X and Y (via tabulation):

Value of xValue of yRelation
9-7/2x > y
99x = y
10-7/2x > y
109x > y

 

∴ x ≥ y

193

In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I. x2 + 11x + 28 = 0

II. y2 + 14y + 24 = 0

  1. ((a))

    x > y

  2. ((b))

    x < y

  3. ((c))

    x ≥ y

  4. ((d))

    x ≤ y

  5. ((e))

    x = y or relation between x and y can not be established.

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

x = y or relation between x and y can not be established.

Given:

I. x2 + 11x + 28 = 0

II. y2 + 14y + 24 = 0

Calculation:

From I,

x2 + 11x + 28 = 0

⇒ x2 + 7x + 4x + 28 = 0

⇒ x(x + 7) + 4(x + 7) = 0

⇒ (x + 7)(x + 4) = 0

Taking,

⇒ (x + 7) = 0 or (x + 4) = 0

⇒ x = -7 or -4

From II,

y2 + 14y + 24 = 0

⇒ y2 + 12y + 2y + 24 = 0

⇒ y(y + 12) + 2(y + 12) = 0

⇒ (y + 12)(y + 2) = 0

Taking,

⇒ (y + 12) = 0 or (y + 2) = 0

⇒ y = -12 or -2

Comparison between x and y (via Tabulation):

Value of xValue of yRelation
-7-12x > y
-7-2x < y
-4-12x > y
-4-2x < y

 

∴ x = y or relation between x and y can not be established.

194

In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I. x2 - 8x + 15 = 0

II. y2 - 9y + 14 = 0

  1. ((a))

    x > y

  2. ((b))

    x < y

  3. ((c))

    x ≥ y

  4. ((d))

    x ≤ y

  5. ((e))

    x = y or relation between x and y can not be established.

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

x = y or relation between x and y can not be established.

Given: 

I. x2 - 8x + 15 = 0

II. y2 - 9y + 14 = 0

Calculation:

From I,

x2 - 8x + 15 = 0

⇒ x2 - 5x - 3x + 15 = 0

⇒ x(x - 5) - 3(x - 5) = 0

⇒ (x - 5)(x - 3) = 0

Taking,

⇒ (x - 5) = 0 or (x - 3) = 0

⇒ x = 5 or 3

From II,

y2 - 9y + 14 = 0

⇒ y2 - 7y - 2y + 14 = 0

⇒ y(y - 7) - 2(y - 7) = 0

⇒ (y - 7)(y - 2) = 0

Taking,

⇒ (y - 7) = 0 or (y - 2) = 0

⇒ y = 7 or 2

Comparison between x and y (via Tabulation):

Value of xValue of yRelation
57x < y
52x > y
37x < y
32x > y

 

∴ x = y or relation between x and y can not be established.

195

In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I. x2 - 22x + 105 = 0

II. y2 - 6y - 247 = 0

  1. ((a))

    x > y

  2. ((b))

    x < y

  3. ((c))

    x ≥ y

  4. ((d))

    x ≤ y

  5. ((e))

    x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be established.

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be established.

Given:

x2 - 22x + 105 = 0

y2 - 6y - 247 = 0

Calculation:

From I,

x2 - 22x + 105 = 0

⇒ x2 - 15x - 7x + 105 = 0

⇒ x(x - 15) - 7(x - 15) = 0

⇒ (x - 7)(x - 15) = 0

⇒ x = 7, 15

From II,

y2 - 6y - 247 = 0

⇒ y2 - 19y + 13y - 247 = 0

⇒ y(y - 19) + 13(y - 19) = 0

⇒ (y + 13)(y - 19) = 0

⇒ y = -13, 19

Comparison between x and y (via Tabulation):

Value of xValue of yRelation
7-13x > y
719x < y
15-13x > y
1519x < y

 

∴ The relationship between x and y cannot be established.

Directions: Study the following bar graph carefully to answer the following questions.

The bar graph shows the total population of 6 different villages A, B, C, D, E and F in 2010.

196

What is the average population of villages A, C, E and F together?

  1. ((a))

    16250

  2. ((b))

    15000

  3. ((c))

    16000

  4. ((d))

    15625

  5. ((e))

    16500

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

16250

Given:

The population of village A = 14000

The population of village C = 16000

The population of village E = 15000

The population of village F = 20000

Formula Used:

Average = (Sum of observations)/(Number of observations)

Calculation:

Sum of population of villages A, C, E and F together = 14000 + 16000 + 15000 + 20000

⇒ 65000

Required average = 65000/4

⇒ 16250

∴ The average population of villages A, C, E and F together will be 16250.

197

The ratio of male and female in village D is 5 : 3. Then what will be the difference between the number of males and females in village D?

  1. ((a))

    3500

  2. ((b))

    3000

  3. ((c))

    3100

  4. ((d))

    4000

  5. ((e))

    4500

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

3000

Given:

The population of village D = 12000

The ratio of male and female in village D = 5 : 3

Calculation:

Let the number of male and female in village D be 5x and 3x respectively.

According to the question,

5x + 3x = 12000

⇒ 8x = 12000

⇒ x = 1500

The number of male in village D = 5 × 1500

⇒ 7500

The number of female in village D = 3 × 1500

⇒ 4500

The required difference = 7500 - 4500

⇒ 3000

∴ The difference between the number of males and females in village D will be 3000.

198

What will be the ratio between the population of villages B and C together and Villages D and E together?

  1. ((a))

    2 : 3

  2. ((b))

    3 : 4

  3. ((c))

    28 : 27

  4. ((d))

    27 : 28

  5. ((e))

    3 : 5

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

28 : 27

Given:

The population of village B = 12000

The population of village C = 16000

The population of village E = 15000

The population of village D = 12000

Calculation:

The population of villages B and C together = 12000 + 16000

⇒ 28000

The population of villages D and E together = 12000 + 15000

⇒ 27000

The required ratio = 28000/27000

⇒ 28 : 27

∴ The ratio between the population of villages B and C together and Villages D and E together will be 28 : 27.

199

The population of village E is what percent more than that of village B?

  1. ((a))

    30%

  2. ((b))

    40%

  3. ((c))

    20%

  4. ((d))

    25%

  5. ((e))

    35%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

25%

Given:

The population of village B = 12000

The population of village E = 15000

Formula Used:

Percentage Increase = {(Increase in value)/(Base value)} × 100

Calculation:

Increase in population = 15000 - 12000

⇒ 3000

Percentage Increase = {(Increase in population)/(Base value)} × 100

⇒ (3000/12000) × 100

⇒ 25%

∴ The population of village E is 25% more than that of village B.

200

The population of village B is what percent of the population of village C?

  1. ((a))

    100%

  2. ((b))

    125%

  3. ((c))

    65%

  4. ((d))

    50%

  5. ((e))

    75%

Show Answer
Answer: ((e))

75%

Given:

The population of village B = 12000

The population of village C = 16000

Calculation:

Required percentage = (12000/16000) × 100

⇒ (3/4) × 100

⇒ 75%

∴ The population of village B is 75% of the population of village C.

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