Official Paper

IBPS PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 5 November 2023) (Previous Year Paper)

155 questions · 180 minutes · with answers · free

Reasoning & Computer Aptitude (45 questions)

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

A certain number of persons are sitting in a row. Some of them are facing north and some of them are facing south. Each of them is from a different cities. The person from Prague sits third to the right of Q who is facing south. Six persons sit between H and the person who is from Prague. H and the person from Prague are facing opposite directions. M sits second to the left of H. The person from Alexandria sits second to the right of M and facing the opposite direction to M. M sits sixth to the left of the one from Istanbul. T is an immediate neighbor of the one who sits fourth to the right of the one who is from Alexandria and D. The one who is from Istanbul sits third to the right of the one who is from Prague. The one who sits fourth to the left of W sits at one of the extreme ends. The number of people sitting to the right of W is thrice the number of people sitting to the left of W. Immediate neighbors of T are facing the same direction but opposite to T. The one who sits fourth to the left of D sits second to the left of the one who is seventh from one end. The number of persons sitting between D and the one from Damascus is thrice the number of people sitting between W and the one from Damascus. Q is sitting at an extreme end. W and the one from Damascus are facing opposite directions to D.

The same number of persons are sitting to the left of W as to the right of ___.

((a))
the one who is sitting second to the right of H.
((b))
the one who belong to Prague
((c))
the one who belong to Istanbul.
((d))
The one who is sitting second to the left of H
((e))
the one who belongs to Damascus.

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

The one who is sitting second to the left of H

1) Q is sitting at an extreme end. The person from Prague sits third to the right of Q who is facing south. Six persons sit between H and the person who is from Prague. H and the person from Prague are facing opposite directions. M sits second to the left of H.

The one who is from Istanbul sits third to the right of the one who is from Prague. M sits sixth to the left of the one from Istanbul. The person from Alexandria sits second to the right of M and faces the opposite direction to M.

Case 2 does not satisfy the given conditions. That is why, Case 2 is eliminated.

3) T is an immediate neighbor of the one who sits fourth to the right of the one who is from Alexandria and D. Immediate neighbors of T are facing the same direction but opposite to T.

4)The one who sits fourth to the left of D sits second to the left of the one who is seventh from one end. The number of people sitting to the right of W is thrice the number of people sitting to the left of W.

5) The number of persons sitting between D and the one from Damascus is thrice the number of people sitting between W and the one from Damascus.

Hence the final arrangement:

Hence, The same number of persons are sitting to the left of W as to the right of the one who is sitting second to the left of H.

Who is sitting fourth to the right of the person who is sitting second to the right of M?

((a))
the one who belong to Alexandria
((b))
the one who is sitting immediately right of the one who belong to Prague.
((c))
the person who is sitting exactly in the middle of H and D.
((d))
the person who is second to the right of the person who belongs to Istanbul.
((e))
the one who is sitting second to the left of D.

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

the one who is sitting second to the left of D.

The one who is from Istanbul sits third to the right of the one who is from Prague. M sits sixth to the left of the one from Istanbul. The person from Alexandria sits second to the right of M and faces the opposite direction to M.

Case 2 does not satisfy the given conditions. That is why, Case 2 is eliminated.

3) T is an immediate neighbor of the one who sits fourth to the right of the one who is from Alexandria and D. Immediate neighbors of T are facing the same direction but opposite to T.

5) The number of persons sitting between D and the one from Damascus is thrice the number of people sitting between W and the one from Damascus.

Hence the final arrangement:

Hence, the one who is sitting second to the left of D is sitting fourth to the right of the person who is sitting second to the right of M.

Which of the following pair is sitting second to the right of each other?

((a))
T and the one who is from Prague
((b))
Q and the one who is from Alexandria
((c))
The one who is from Istanbul and W
((d))
H and D
((e))
The one who is from Prague and Damascus

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

The one who is from Istanbul and W

The one who is from Istanbul sits third to the right of the one who is from Prague. M sits sixth to the left of the one from Istanbul. The person from Alexandria sits second to the right of M and faces the opposite direction to M.

Case 2 does not satisfy the given conditions. That is why, Case 2 is eliminated.

3) T is an immediate neighbor of the one who sits fourth to the right of the one who is from Alexandria and D. Immediate neighbors of T are facing the same direction but opposite to T.

5) The number of persons sitting between D and the one from Damascus is thrice the number of people sitting between W and the one from Damascus.

Hence the final arrangement:

Hence, the one who is from Istanbul and W are sitting second to the right of each other.

How many persons are sitting between D and Q?

((a))
One
((b))
Seven
((c))
Five
((d))
Ten
((e))
Eight

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Seven

The one who is from Istanbul sits third to the right of the one who is from Prague. M sits sixth to the left of the one from Istanbul. The person from Alexandria sits second to the right of M and faces the opposite direction to M.

Case 2 does not satisfy the given conditions. That is why, Case 2 is eliminated.

3) T is an immediate neighbor of the one who sits fourth to the right of the one who is from Alexandria and D. Immediate neighbors of T are facing the same direction but opposite to T.

5) The number of persons sitting between D and the one from Damascus is thrice the number of people sitting between W and the one from Damascus.

Hence the final arrangement:

Hence, Seven persons are sitting between D and Q.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given question.

Eight people are sitting in two parallel rows. Four persons are sitting in each row. P, Q, R, and S are sitting in row 1 and they are facing south. A, B, C, and D are sitting in row 2 and they are facing north. All the persons are equidistant and facing each other in the opposite row.

Statement I: A is sitting second from one end of the row. Q is not sitting adjacent to R. B is not sitting adjacent to A. The one who is facing A sits immediately right of P. One person sits between P and R.

Statement II: Q is sitting at one of the extreme ends. S is sitting second to the right of the one facing B. S is not sitting at any extreme end.

Statement III: C and D are not sitting adjacent to each other. S and P are sitting adjacent to each other. P is not facing A. A is sitting second from one of the ends. One person sits between the one who is facing C and R. C is not sitting to the left of D.

Who is sitting immediately left of the person who is facing Q?

((a))
The data in Statement III is alone is sufficient to answer the question
((b))
The data in both the Statements I and III together is sufficient to answer the question
((c))
The data in Statement I is alone is sufficient to answer the question
((d))
The data in both Statements I and II together is sufficient to answer the question
((e))
The data in Statement II is alone is sufficient to answer the question

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

The data in both the Statements I and III together is sufficient to answer the question

Statement I:1) A is sitting second from one end of the row. B is not sitting adjacent to A. The one who is facing A sits immediately right of P. One person sits between P and R.

2) Q is not sitting adjacent to R. This condition cannot be satisfied in Case 2, So, Case 2 is eliminated.

Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the given question.

Statement II: 1) Q is sitting at one of the extreme ends. S is sitting second to the right of the one facing B. S is not sitting at any extreme end.

Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the given question.

Statement III: 1) A is sitting second from one of the ends.

C and D are not sitting adjacent to each other. S and P are sitting adjacent to each other. P is not facing A. One person sits between the one who is facing C and R. C is not sitting to the left of D. No further placing can be done with this information.

Statement III is not alone sufficient to answer the question.

By considering both Statements I and III we get:

By considering the combination of Statements I and II, Statements II and III we will not get the answer to the given question.

C is sitting immediately left of the person who is facing Q. Hence, Statements I and III both are sufficient to answer the given question.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given question.

Six persons A, B, C, D, E, and F were born in six different months January, March, April, May, June, and July.

Statement I: Two persons were born between B and E. As many persons were born before E was the same as persons born after D. B was born in a month of 30 days. A was born one month before F.

Statement II: Two persons were born between B and E. As many persons were born before C was the same as persons born after F. D was immediately born before C. C was born before F. C was born in March.

Statement III: F was born after May. Three persons are born between F and D. One person was born between B and D. C was born before F.

Who was born in March?

((a))
The data given in Statement III is sufficient to answer the question.
((b))
The data given in Statement I alone and Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
((c))
The data given in both statement I and II is not sufficient to answer the question.
((d))
The data given in Either Statement I or Statement II is sufficient to answer the question.
((e))
The data given in both Statement I and Statement III is not sufficient to answer the question

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

The data given in Either Statement I or Statement II is sufficient to answer the question.

Statement I: Two persons were born between B and E. As many persons were born before E was the same as persons born after D. B was born in a month of 30 days. A was born one month before F.

Month	Persons
January(31 days)	D
March(31 days)	C
April(30 days)	B
May(31 days)	A
June(30 days)	F
July(31 days)	E

Hence, C is born in March.

Statement II: Two persons were born between B and E. As many persons were born before C was the same as persons born after F. D was immediately born before C. C was born before F. C was born in March.

Month	Persons
January(31 days)	D
March(31 days)	C
April(30 days)	B
May(31 days)	A
June(30 days)	F
July(31 days)	E

Hence, C is born in March.

Statement III: F was born after May. Three persons are born between F and D. One person was born between B and D. C was born before F.

Month	Persons	Persons
January(31 days)	D
March(31 days)		D
April(30 days)	B
May(31 days)		B
June(30 days)	F
July(31 days)		F

Hence, The data given in Either Statement I or Statement II is sufficient to answer the question.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Eight persons B, D, M, N, P, R, S, and Y are related to each other born in 1952, 1956, 1962, 1981, 1984, 1987, 2014, and 2017 not necessarily in the same order. Age is calculated from 2023. M's spouse has a niece who is N. The difference between N and N's mother's age is a multiple of 10. The difference between B and B's mother-in-law's age is a multiple of five. M's uncle's age was prime but he was not the eldest. The difference between D and D's son is a prime number less than twenty. The difference between B and B's spouse's age is double the difference between the M and S age. B has a sibling only. M has a son. M's uncle is not D but M's uncle's age is a prime number. S is not married to B. M has a father. There is an equal number of males and females. D has no siblings. P is the grandmother of M's only son. P is the grandmother of Y. M's father has no sibling of his own and M's mother has no sister.

Which of the following age is a perfect square?

((a))
the one who is born immediately after M.
((b))
Y
((c))
the one who is born immediately after P
((d))
R
((e))
the one who is born immediately after S.

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

the one who is born immediately after S.

1) M's spouse has a niece who is N. M has a father. M's father has no sibling of his own and M's mother has no sister. P is the grandmother of M's only son. P is the grandmother of Y. S is not married to B. There is an equal number of males and females. D has no siblings. M's uncle is not D. M has a son. B has a sibling only.

The difference between N and N's mother's age is a multiple of 10. The difference between B and B's mother-in-law's age is a multiple of five. The difference between B and B's spouse's age is double the difference between the M and S age.

The positions of S and R cannot be predicted now. So, we have assumed two cases.

|N's Mother-N| = 10x, |P-B|=5y, |B-M| = 2|M-S|

Consider case 1, where S is the uncle of M. So, S must be older than M. Assume the age of S to be 60 years and M age to be 40 years. Then |B-M|= 2(20) = 40 years. Then the age of B would be 0 or 80 years which is not possible. So, Case 1 is eliminated.

According to Case2,|S-N|=10x, |P-B|=5y, |B-M| = 2|M-S|.M's uncle's age was prime but he was not the eldest. As S is the mother of N that is why N is younger than S.

		Case 1	Case2	Case 3	Case 4	Case 6
Years	Age	Person	Person	Person	Person	Person
1952	71	S
1956	67	R	R	R
1962	61	N			R	R
1981	42
1984	39		S		S
1987	36			S		S
2014	09		N		N
2017	06			N		N

Consider this condition, |B-M| = 2|M-S| try by putting M at every vacant position. Only Case 2 will satisfy the given condition .So, Case 1, Case 3, Case 4, and Case 5 are eliminated.

Years	Age	Person
1952	71
1956	67	R
1962	61
1981	42	M
1984	39	S
1987	36	B
2014	09	N
2017	06

5) The difference between D and D's son(M) is a prime number less than twenty.

Years	Age	Person
1952	71
1956	67	R
1962	61	D
1981	42	M
1984	39	S
1987	36	B
2014	09	N
2017	06

6) The difference between B and B's mother-in-law's(P) age is a multiple of five.

The final arrangement is:

Years	Age	Person
1952	71	P
1956	67	R
1962	61	D
1981	42	M
1984	39	S
1987	36	B
2014	09	N
2017	06	Y

B is born immediately after S and is 36 years old. Hence, the one who is born immediately after S age is a perfect Square.

In which of the year D is born?

((a))
1956
((b))
1981
((c))
1962
((d))
1952
((e))
1984

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

1962

The difference between N and N's mother's age is a multiple of 10. The difference between B and B's mother-in-law's age is a multiple of five. The difference between B and B's spouse's age is double the difference between the M and S age.

The positions of S and R cannot be predicted now. So, we have assumed two cases.

|N's Mother-N| = 10x, |P-B|=5y, |B-M| = 2|M-S|

Consider case 1, where S is the uncle of M. So, S must be older than M. Assume the age of S to be 60 years and M age to be 40 years. Then |B-M|= 2(20) = 40 years. Then the age of B would be 0 or 80 years which is not possible. So, Case 1 is eliminated.

According to Case2,|S-N|=10x, |P-B|=5y, |B-M| = 2|M-S|.M's uncle's age was prime but he was not the eldest. As S is the mother of N that is why N is younger than S.

		Case 1	Case2	Case 3	Case 4	Case 6
Years	Age	Person	Person	Person	Person	Person
1952	71	S
1956	67	R	R	R
1962	61	N			R	R
1981	42
1984	39		S		S
1987	36			S		S
2014	09		N		N
2017	06			N		N

Consider this condition, |B-M| = 2|M-S| try by putting M at every vacant position. Only Case 2 will satisfy the given condition .So, Case 1, Case 3, Case 4, and Case 5 are eliminated.

Years	Age	Person
1952	71
1956	67	R
1962	61
1981	42	M
1984	39	S
1987	36	B
2014	09	N
2017	06

5) The difference between D and D's son(M) is a prime number less than twenty.

Years	Age	Person
1952	71
1956	67	R
1962	61	D
1981	42	M
1984	39	S
1987	36	B
2014	09	N
2017	06

6) The difference between B and B's mother-in-law's(P) age is a multiple of five.

The final arrangement is:

Years	Age	Person
1952	71	P
1956	67	R
1962	61	D
1981	42	M
1984	39	S
1987	36	B
2014	09	N
2017	06	Y

Hence, D is born in 1962.

How is S related to N?

((a))
Mother
((b))
Father
((c))
Sister
((d))
Daughter
((e))
Brother-in-law

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Mother

The difference between N and N's mother's age is a multiple of 10. The difference between B and B's mother-in-law's age is a multiple of five. The difference between B and B's spouse's age is double the difference between the M and S age.

The positions of S and R cannot be predicted now. So, we have assumed two cases.

|N's Mother-N| = 10x, |P-B|=5y, |B-M| = 2|M-S|

Consider case 1, where S is the uncle of M. So, S must be older than M. Assume the age of S to be 60 years and M age to be 40 years. Then |B-M|= 2(20) = 40 years. Then the age of B would be 0 or 80 years which is not possible. So, Case 1 is eliminated.

According to Case2,|S-N|=10x, |P-B|=5y, |B-M| = 2|M-S|.M's uncle's age was prime but he was not the eldest. As S is the mother of N that is why N is younger than S.

		Case 1	Case2	Case 3	Case 4	Case 6
Years	Age	Person	Person	Person	Person	Person
1952	71	S
1956	67	R	R	R
1962	61	N			R	R
1981	42
1984	39		S		S
1987	36			S		S
2014	09		N		N
2017	06			N		N

Consider this condition, |B-M| = 2|M-S| try by putting M at every vacant position. Only Case 2 will satisfy the given condition .So, Case 1, Case 3, Case 4, and Case 5 are eliminated.

Years	Age	Person
1952	71
1956	67	R
1962	61
1981	42	M
1984	39	S
1987	36	B
2014	09	N
2017	06

5) The difference between D and D's son(M) is a prime number less than twenty.

Years	Age	Person
1952	71
1956	67	R
1962	61	D
1981	42	M
1984	39	S
1987	36	B
2014	09	N
2017	06

6) The difference between B and B's mother-in-law's(P) age is a multiple of five.

The final arrangement is:

Years	Age	Person
1952	71	P
1956	67	R
1962	61	D
1981	42	M
1984	39	S
1987	36	B
2014	09	N
2017	06	Y

Hence, S is the mother of N.

What is the sum of the age of M and S?

((a))
60 years
((b))
81 years
((c))
90 years
((d))
52 years
((e))
50 years

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

81 years

The difference between N and N's mother's age is a multiple of 10. The difference between B and B's mother-in-law's age is a multiple of five. The difference between B and B's spouse's age is double the difference between the M and S age.

The positions of S and R cannot be predicted now. So, we have assumed two cases.

|N's Mother-N| = 10x, |P-B|=5y, |B-M| = 2|M-S|

Consider case 1, where S is the uncle of M. So, S must be older than M. Assume the age of S to be 60 years and M age to be 40 years. Then |B-M|= 2(20) = 40 years. Then the age of B would be 0 or 80 years which is not possible. So, Case 1 is eliminated.

According to Case2,|S-N|=10x, |P-B|=5y, |B-M| = 2|M-S|.M's uncle's age was prime but he was not the eldest. As S is the mother of N that is why N is younger than S.

		Case 1	Case2	Case 3	Case 4	Case 6
Years	Age	Person	Person	Person	Person	Person
1952	71	S
1956	67	R	R	R
1962	61	N			R	R
1981	42
1984	39		S		S
1987	36			S		S
2014	09		N		N
2017	06			N		N

Consider this condition, |B-M| = 2|M-S| try by putting M at every vacant position. Only Case 2 will satisfy the given condition .So, Case 1, Case 3, Case 4, and Case 5 are eliminated.

Years	Age	Person
1952	71
1956	67	R
1962	61
1981	42	M
1984	39	S
1987	36	B
2014	09	N
2017	06

5) The difference between D and D's son(M) is a prime number less than twenty.

Years	Age	Person
1952	71
1956	67	R
1962	61	D
1981	42	M
1984	39	S
1987	36	B
2014	09	N
2017	06

6) The difference between B and B's mother-in-law's(P) age is a multiple of five.

The final arrangement is:

Years	Age	Person
1952	71	P
1956	67	R
1962	61	D
1981	42	M
1984	39	S
1987	36	B
2014	09	N
2017	06	Y

Hence, the sum of the age of M and S is 81 years.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given question.

Eight persons A, B, C, D, M, N, O, and P are sitting on a circular table but not necessarily in the same order. Five of them are facing the center and the rest are facing away from the center. Consecutive Alphabetical persons are not sitting next to each other. O sits second to the right of B. C sits third to the right of O. Three persons sit between C and D. D sits second to the left of A. M is facing away from the center. P sits immediately right of N. P and A are facing opposite directions to each other. Immediate neighbors of P are facing the same direction. The one who sits second to the left of P is facing away from the center.

Which of the following statements is/are true?

I. A is sitting second to the right of D.

II. N and P are immediate neighbors.

III. Two persons are sitting between B and C when counted to the right of B.

((a))
Both I and II
((b))
Both II and III
((c))
Only II
((d))
Both I and III
((e))
Only III

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Only II

1) O sits second to the right of B. C sits third to the right of O. Three persons sit between C and D.

2) D sits second to the left of A. M is facing away from the center.

3) P sits immediately right of N. P and A are facing opposite directions to each other. Immediate neighbors of P are facing the same direction. The one who sits second to the left of P is facing away from the center.

Case 2, is eliminated as more than three persons are facing outside.

The final arrangement is:

A is sitting second to the left of D. Two persons are sitting between B and C when counted from the left of B.

Hence, Only II statement(N and P are immediate neighbors.) is true.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

There are ten trains P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, and Y which are at the base station. Four platforms P1, P2, P3, and P4 where the first train can reach at 5 AM, 6 AM, 7 AM, and 8 AM respectively. Platform P1 is the nearest Platform and Platform P4 is the farthest. There must be a gap of one hour between the two trains reaching a particular station. The speed of the trains is considered to be the same. At most three trains can have a platform as its destination.

Train R and S started from the base station and reached the nearest platform in a gap of 1 hour. R started its journey earlier than S. R reached the destination at 6 AM. Train P stopped its journey at a platform which is two more than Train S. Train X reached the last platform. Train W's destination is not the same as the destination of R, T and Y. Destinations of U and V are the same. The destination of U and V is not the same as the destination of S and X. Train Q's destination is the same as the destination of Y. There is only one more train at the platform where Train X reached its destination. Train T's final destination is not P1 and P4. Train Q's destination is ahead of Train T's destination.

Which of the following platforms have more than two trains?

((a))
P1 and P4
((b))
P2 and P3
((c))
P1 and P2
((d))
P3 and P4
((e))
P2 and P4

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

P2 and P3

1) Train R and S started from the base station and reached the nearest platform in a gap of 1 hour. R started its journey earlier than S. R reached the destination at 6 AM. Train P stopped its journey at a platform which is two more than Train S.

Case 1	Case 2
P1	P2	P3	P4	P1	P2	P3	P4
R(6 AM), S(7AM)		P		R(6 AM), S(7AM)		P

2) Train X reached the last platform. The Destinations of U and V are the same. The destination of U and V is not the same as the destination of S and X.

Case 1	Case 2
P1	P2	P3	P4	P1	P2	P3	P4
R(6 AM), S(7AM)	U, V	P	X	R(6 AM), S(7AM)		P ,U, V	X

3) Train Q's destination is the same as the destination of Y. There is only one more train at the platform where Train X reached its destination.

Case 1	Case 2
P1	P2	P3	P4	P1	P2	P3	P4
R(6 AM), S(7AM)	U, V	Q, Y, P	X	R(6 AM), S(7AM)	Q, Y	P, U, V	X

4) Train T's final destination is not P1 and P4. Train W's destination is not the same as the destination of R, T, and Y.

Case 1	Case 2
P1	P2	P3	P4	P1	P2	P3	P4
R(6 AM), S(7AM)	U, V, T	Q, Y, P	X, W	R(6 AM), S(7AM)	Q, Y, T	P, U, V	X, W

5) Train Q's destination is ahead of Train T's destination.

Hence, the final arrangement is:

P1	P2	P3	P4
R(6 AM), S(7AM)	U, V, T	Q, Y, P	X, W

Hence, Platform P2 and P3 have more than two trains.

Which of the following statements is/are false?

I. Train Q's destination is P4.

II. Train T and Train U's destinations are the same.

III. Train S's destination is ahead of Train U's destination

((a))
Only I and II
((b))
Only II and III
((c))
All I, II and III
((d))
Only II
((e))
Only I and III

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Only I and III

Case 1	Case 2
P1	P2	P3	P4	P1	P2	P3	P4
R(6 AM), S(7AM)		P		R(6 AM), S(7AM)		P

2) Train X reached the last platform. The Destinations of U and V are the same. The destination of U and V is not the same as the destination of S and X.

Case 1	Case 2
P1	P2	P3	P4	P1	P2	P3	P4
R(6 AM), S(7AM)	U, V	P	X	R(6 AM), S(7AM)		P ,U, V	X

3) Train Q's destination is the same as the destination of Y. There is only one more train at the platform where Train X reached its destination.

Case 1	Case 2
P1	P2	P3	P4	P1	P2	P3	P4
R(6 AM), S(7AM)	U, V	Q, Y, P	X	R(6 AM), S(7AM)	Q, Y	P, U, V	X

4) Train T's final destination is not P1 and P4. Train W's destination is not the same as the destination of R, T, and Y.

Case 1	Case 2
P1	P2	P3	P4	P1	P2	P3	P4
R(6 AM), S(7AM)	U, V, T	Q, Y, P	X, W	R(6 AM), S(7AM)	Q, Y, T	P, U, V	X, W

5) Train Q's destination is ahead of Train T's destination.

Hence, the final arrangement is:

P1	P2	P3	P4
R(6 AM), S(7AM)	U, V, T	Q, Y, P	X, W

Train Q's destination is P3. Train U's destination is ahead of Train S's destination. Hence, Only I and III statements are false.

Which of the following trains have destination as P3?

((a))
Train P, Train Q, Train Y.
((b))
Train U and Train R
((c))
Train P, Train W
((d))
Train X and Train S
((e))
Train W and Train U

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Train P, Train Q, Train Y.

Case 1	Case 2
P1	P2	P3	P4	P1	P2	P3	P4
R(6 AM), S(7AM)		P		R(6 AM), S(7AM)		P

2) Train X reached the last platform. The Destinations of U and V are the same. The destination of U and V is not the same as the destination of S and X.

Case 1	Case 2
P1	P2	P3	P4	P1	P2	P3	P4
R(6 AM), S(7AM)	U, V	P	X	R(6 AM), S(7AM)		P ,U, V	X

3) Train Q's destination is the same as the destination of Y. There is only one more train at the platform where Train X reached its destination.

Case 1	Case 2
P1	P2	P3	P4	P1	P2	P3	P4
R(6 AM), S(7AM)	U, V	Q, Y, P	X	R(6 AM), S(7AM)	Q, Y	P, U, V	X

4) Train T's final destination is not P1 and P4. Train W's destination is not the same as the destination of R, T, and Y.

Case 1	Case 2
P1	P2	P3	P4	P1	P2	P3	P4
R(6 AM), S(7AM)	U, V, T	Q, Y, P	X, W	R(6 AM), S(7AM)	Q, Y, T	P, U, V	X, W

5) Train Q's destination is ahead of Train T's destination.

Hence, the final arrangement is:

P1	P2	P3	P4
R(6 AM), S(7AM)	U, V, T	Q, Y, P	X, W

Hence, Train P, Train Q, Train Y have a destination as P3.

At what time Train S reached the platform P1?

((a))
9AM
((b))
8AM
((c))
7AM
((d))
10 AM
((e))
12 AM

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

7AM

Case 1	Case 2
P1	P2	P3	P4	P1	P2	P3	P4
R(6 AM), S(7AM)		P		R(6 AM), S(7AM)		P

Train X reached the last platform. The Destinations of U and V are the same. The destination of U and V is not the same as the destination of S and X.

Case 1	Case 2
P1	P2	P3	P4	P1	P2	P3	P4
R(6 AM), S(7AM)	U, V	P	X	R(6 AM), S(7AM)		P ,U, V	X

3) Train Q's destination is the same as the destination of Y. There is only one more train at the platform where Train X reached its destination.

Case 1	Case 2
P1	P2	P3	P4	P1	P2	P3	P4
R(6 AM), S(7AM)	U, V	Q, Y, P	X	R(6 AM), S(7AM)	Q, Y	P, U, V	X

4) Train T's final destination is not P1 and P4. Train W's destination is not the same as the destination of R, T, and Y.

Case 1	Case 2
P1	P2	P3	P4	P1	P2	P3	P4
R(6 AM), S(7AM)	U, V, T	Q, Y, P	X, W	R(6 AM), S(7AM)	Q, Y, T	P, U, V	X, W

5) Train Q's destination is ahead of Train T's destination.

Hence, the final arrangement is:

P1	P2	P3	P4
R(6 AM), S(7AM)	U, V, T	Q, Y, P	X, W

Hence, Train S reached the platform P1 at 7 AM.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

A certain number of boxes are kept in two stacks (Stack 1 and Stack 2) one above the other such that Stack 1 is in west of Stack 2. The bottommost box is numbered as 1 and the box just above it is numbered as 2 and so on. Both stacks have different numbers of boxes. The sum of the total number of boxes kept in both stacks is Thirteen. At most eight boxes are kept in each stack. Out of these thirteen boxes, six boxes are of different Colours (Red, Pink, Blue, Cyan, Aqua, and Lime). The remaining boxes are White.

Note: If it is given that a box is kept one/two/three boxes above/below another box then both the boxes are kept in the same stack unless stated otherwise. If it is given that a box is kept adjacent to another box, then the position (box number) of both boxes must be the same unless stated otherwise. Each of the stacks has a box (no stack is vacant).

P is not kept in Stack 2. K is kept three boxes above J which is kept in the same stack as G. F which is a White box is kept adjacent to G which is an even-numbered box. E and G are kept in different stacks. T which is the pink box is kept adjacent to K which is a White box. Blue box is kept two boxes above the Lime box which is kept in the same stack as the T. Cyan box and Lime box are not kept in the same stack. M is kept two boxes above L but not in the same stack. P is kept in one box below N but not in the same stack. H which is a White box is kept adjacent to the blue box. The Aqua box is kept one box above the cyan box but not in the same stack. C is kept three boxes above D which is an even prime numbered box. E which is a red color box kept two boxes above C. G is not the topmost box.

Which of the following statements is false?

I. Box L is in Stack 2.

II. Box D is of Lime color.

III. Box F and Box G are adjacent to each other.

((a))
Only I
((b))
Both I and II
((c))
Both II and III
((d))
Only II
((e))
Only III

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Only II

Stack: Stack 1 and Stack 2

Color: Red, Pink, Blue, Cyan, Aqua, Lime, and White.

C is kept three boxes above D which is an even prime numbered box. E which is a red color box kept two boxes above C. G is not the topmost box. F which is a White box is kept adjacent to G which is an even-numbered box. E and G are kept in different stacks.

Only even prime number is 2. So, D will be placed in the Box number 2. In Case 1, Stack 1 has at least seven persons and most could be eight persons. In stack 2, there could be six persons at maximum and five persons at minimum. As we are not sure till now about the exact number of stacks in Case 1 we have taken the maximum possible stacks. In Case 2, we have proceeded in the same manner.

	Case 1	Case 2
Box No.	Stack 1	Stack 2	Stack1	Stack 2
	Person	Color	Person	Color	Person	Color	Person	Color
8
7	E	Red	E	Red
6
5	C						C
4	F	White	G		G		F	White
3
2	D						D
1

2) K is kept three boxes above J which is kept in the same stack as G. T which is the pink box is kept adjacent to K which is a White box.

	Case 1	Case 2
Box No.	Stack 1	Stack 2	Stack1	Stack 2
	Person	Color	Person	Color	Person	Color	Person	Color
7	E	Red			E	Red
6	T	Pink	K	White	K	White	T	Pink
5	C						C
4	F	White	G		G		F	White
3			J		J
2	D						D
1

3) P is kept in one box below N but not in the same stack.

	Case 1	Case 2
Box No.	Stack 1	Stack 2	Stack1	Stack 2
	Person	Color	Person	Color	Person	Color	Person	Color
7	E	Red			E	Red
6	T	Pink	K	White	K	White	T	Pink
5	C						C
4	F	White	G		G		F	White
3			J		J		N
2	D		N		P		D
1	P

4) H which is a White box is kept adjacent to the blue box. The Blue box is kept two boxes above the Lime box which is kept in the same stack as the T.

	Case 1	Case 2
Box No.	Stack 1	Stack 2	Stack1	Stack 2
	Person	Color	Person	Color	Person	Color	Person	Color
7	E	Red			E	Red
6	T	Pink	K	White	K	White	T	Pink
5	C	Blue	H	White	H	White	C	Blue
4	F	White	G		G		F	White
3		Lime	J		J		N	Lime
2	D		N		P		D
1	P

5) M is kept two boxes above L but not in the same stack. In Case 2, the given condition does not hold which is why Case 2 is eliminated.

6) The Aqua box is kept one box above the cyan box but not in the same stack. The Cyan box and Lime box are not kept in the same stack.

Box No.	Stack 1	Stack 2
	Person	Color	Person	Color
7	E	Red
6	T	Pink	K	White
5	C	Blue	H	White
4	F	White	G
3	M	Lime	J
2	D	Aqua	N
1	P		L	Cyan

7) Out of these thirteen boxes, six boxes are of different Colours (Red, Pink, Blue, Cyan, Aqua, and Lime). The remaining boxes are White.

The final arrangement is:

Box No.	Stack 1	Stack 2
	Person	Color	Person	Color
7	E	Red
6	T	Pink	K	White
5	C	Blue	H	White
4	F	White	G	White
3	M	Lime	J	White
2	D	Aqua	N	White
1	P	White	L	Cyan

Box D is of Aqua color. Hence, Only II ( Box D is of Lime color.) is false statement.

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which among the following one does not belong to the group?

((a))
Box H
((b))
Box L
((c))
Box J
((d))
Box G
((e))
Box K

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Box L

Stack: Stack 1 and Stack 2

Color: Red, Pink, Blue, Cyan, Aqua, Lime, and White.

C is kept three boxes above D which is an even prime numbered box. E which is a red color box kept two boxes above C. G is not the topmost box. F which is a White box is kept adjacent to G which is an even-numbered box. E and G are kept in different stacks.

	Case 1	Case 2
Box No.	Stack 1	Stack 2	Stack1	Stack 2
	Person	Color	Person	Color	Person	Color	Person	Color
8
7	E	Red	E	Red
6
5	C						C
4	F	White	G		G		F	White
3
2	D						D
1

2) K is kept three boxes above J which is kept in the same stack as G. T which is the pink box is kept adjacent to K which is a White box.

	Case 1	Case 2
Box No.	Stack 1	Stack 2	Stack1	Stack 2
	Person	Color	Person	Color	Person	Color	Person	Color
7	E	Red			E	Red
6	T	Pink	K	White	K	White	T	Pink
5	C						C
4	F	White	G		G		F	White
3			J		J
2	D						D
1

3) P is kept in one box below N but not in the same stack.

	Case 1	Case 2
Box No.	Stack 1	Stack 2	Stack1	Stack 2
	Person	Color	Person	Color	Person	Color	Person	Color
7	E	Red			E	Red
6	T	Pink	K	White	K	White	T	Pink
5	C						C
4	F	White	G		G		F	White
3			J		J		N
2	D		N		P		D
1	P

4) H which is a White box is kept adjacent to the blue box. The Blue box is kept two boxes above the Lime box which is kept in the same stack as the T.

	Case 1	Case 2
Box No.	Stack 1	Stack 2	Stack1	Stack 2
	Person	Color	Person	Color	Person	Color	Person	Color
7	E	Red			E	Red
6	T	Pink	K	White	K	White	T	Pink
5	C	Blue	H	White	H	White	C	Blue
4	F	White	G		G		F	White
3		Lime	J		J		N	Lime
2	D		N		P		D
1	P

5) M is kept two boxes above L but not in the same stack. In Case 2, the given condition does not hold which is why Case 2 is eliminated.

6) The Aqua box is kept one box above the cyan box but not in the same stack. The Cyan box and Lime box are not kept in the same stack.

Box No.	Stack 1	Stack 2
	Person	Color	Person	Color
7	E	Red
6	T	Pink	K	White
5	C	Blue	H	White
4	F	White	G
3	M	Lime	J
2	D	Aqua	N
1	P		L	Cyan

7) Out of these thirteen boxes, six boxes are of different Colours (Red, Pink, Blue, Cyan, Aqua, and Lime). The remaining boxes are White.

The final arrangement is:

Box No.	Stack 1	Stack 2
	Person	Color	Person	Color
7	E	Red
6	T	Pink	K	White
5	C	Blue	H	White
4	F	White	G	White
3	M	Lime	J	White
2	D	Aqua	N	White
1	P	White	L	Cyan

Box H, J, G, and K are White except Box L. Hence, Box L does not belong to the group.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Eight employees of a company need to be divided into four groups. Four groups A, B, C, and D need to be formed based on the employee's Experience, Salary, Qualification, and Interest. Each group has two members only.

Persons	Experience(years)	Salary(Rs./Month)	Qualification	Interest
Nitin	2	35,000	M.Sc Mathematics	Mathematics
Geeta	1	20,000	Diploma in Designing	Design
Kushal	1	25,000	B.Sc General Science	Science
Anju	3	40,000	B.Sc Chemistry	Chemistry
Piyush	5	70,000	B.Sc Computer Science	Java
Harsh	1	30,000	M.Sc Computer Science	C++
Meena	4	50,000	B.A English	English
Tia	4	65,000	Diploma in Machine Learning	Python

Condition 1: Meena is not in groups A and D. The one with B.Sc Chemistry and Harsh do not work in the same group.

Condition 2: Group D has a member with three years of experience. Group A has a member who knows Design.

Condition 3: Group B Members' cumulative salary is Rs.1,05,000. Group A has at least one member with four years of experience.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

I. Meena and Anju belong to the same group.

II. Group A has members with an interest in Design and Python

III. Group C has members who have experience of two years.

((a))
Only II
((b))
Only I
((c))
Only III
((d))
Only II and III
((e))
Only I and III

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Only II

1) Meena is not in groups A and D. Group D has a member with three years of experience. Group A has a member who knows Design.

	Case 1	Case 2
Group	Employees	Employees
A	Geeta(1)	Geeta(1)
B	Meena(4)
C		Meena(4)
D	Anju(3)	Anju(3)

2) Group B Members' cumulative salary is Rs.1,05,000. Group A has at least one member with four years of experience.

	Case 2(a)	Case 2(b)
Group	Employees	Employees
A	Geeta(1)	Geeta(1)
B	Piyush(5), Nitin(2)	Tia(4) , Anju(3)
C	Meena(4)	Meena(4)
D	Anju(3)	Anju(3)

3) The one with B.Sc Chemistry and Harsh do not work in the same group.

Group	Employees
A	Geeta(1), Tia(4)
B	Piyush(5), Nitin(2)
C	Meena(4), Harsh(1)
D	Anju(3), Kushal(1)

Hence, Only II statement is correct.

What are the topic of Interest of the members who belong to Group C?

((a))
Design and Science
((b))
English and Chemistry
((c))
C++ and English
((d))
Mathematics and Python
((e))
Python and Java

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

C++ and English

1) Meena is not in groups A and D. Group D has a member with three years of experience. Group A has a member who knows Design.

	Case 1	Case 2
Group	Employees	Employees
A	Geeta(1)	Geeta(1)
B	Meena(4)
C		Meena(4)
D	Anju(3)	Anju(3)

2) Group B Members' cumulative salary is Rs.1,05,000. Group A has at least one member with four years of experience.

	Case 2(a)	Case 2(b)
Group	Employees	Employees
A	Geeta(1)	Geeta(1)
B	Piyush(5), Nitin(2)	Tia(4) , Anju(3)
C	Meena(4)	Meena(4)
D	Anju(3)	Anju(3)

3) The one with B.Sc Chemistry and Harsh do not work in the same group.

Group	Employees
A	Geeta(1), Tia(4)
B	Piyush(5), Nitin(2)
C	Meena(4), Harsh(1)
D	Anju(3), Kushal(1)

Hence, the topic of Interest of the members who belong to Group C are C++ and English.

If the member of Group A with one year of experience is interchanged with the member of B having five years of experience then the members of Group B are?

((a))
Tia and Piyush
((b))
Meena and Harsh
((c))
Anju and Nitin
((d))
Geeta and Tia
((e))
Nitin and Geeta

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Nitin and Geeta

1) Meena is not in groups A and D. Group D has a member with three years of experience. Group A has a member who knows Design.

	Case 1	Case 2
Group	Employees	Employees
A	Geeta(1)	Geeta(1)
B	Meena(4)
C		Meena(4)
D	Anju(3)	Anju(3)

2) Group B Members' cumulative salary is Rs.1,05,000. Group A has at least one member with four years of experience.

	Case 2(a)	Case 2(b)
Group	Employees	Employees
A	Geeta(1)	Geeta(1)
B	Piyush(5), Nitin(2)	Tia(4) , Anju(3)
C	Meena(4)	Meena(4)
D	Anju(3)	Anju(3)

3) The one with B.Sc Chemistry and Harsh do not work in the same group.

Group	Employees
A	Geeta(1), Tia(4)
B	Piyush(5), Nitin(2)
C	Meena(4), Harsh(1)
D	Anju(3), Kushal(1)

Hence, Nitin and Geeta are the members of Group B after the rearrangement.

What is the difference in the monthly salary of members of Group D?

((a))
25000
((b))
15000
((c))
20000
((d))
30000
((e))
10000

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

15000

1) Meena is not in groups A and D. Group D has a member with three years of experience. Group A has a member who knows Design.

	Case 1	Case 2
Group	Employees	Employees
A	Geeta(1)	Geeta(1)
B	Meena(4)
C		Meena(4)
D	Anju(3)	Anju(3)

2) Group B Members' cumulative salary is Rs.1,05,000. Group A has at least one member with four years of experience.

	Case 2(a)	Case 2(b)
Group	Employees	Employees
A	Geeta(1)	Geeta(1)
B	Piyush(5), Nitin(2)	Tia(4) , Anju(3)
C	Meena(4)	Meena(4)
D	Anju(3)	Anju(3)

3) The one with B.Sc Chemistry and Harsh do not work in the same group.

Group	Employees
A	Geeta(1), Tia(4)
B	Piyush(5), Nitin(2)
C	Meena(4), Harsh(1)
D	Anju(3), Kushal(1)

The difference in the monthly salary of members of Group D is Rs.15000.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Ten people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, and J sit at two rectangular tables X and Y. Three of them like horror novels, three like thriller novels and the remaining like romance novels. Four people sit at table X and the remaining sit at table Y. The person sitting in the middle faces outside the center and the person sitting in the corner faces inside the center. People sitting at Table X sit in the middle of the table and at Table Y four persons sit in the middle and four sit in the corner. Two seats are vacant in Table Y.

D sits at table X. J does not sit at table Y. G sits immediately left of J and neither of them like thrillers. The one who likes romance does not sit in the middle of table Y. D likes romance and sits opposite G. E likes romance and sits at table Y. Both the immediate neighbors of E like thrillers. A sits immediately left of the one who likes thrillers. F sits third to the right of A. C sits at table X. B does not like thrillers and romance. Two persons sit between D and the one who likes thrillers. I sit 2nd to the right of a vacant seat. Both the vacant seats are not adjacent to each other. One of the persons who likes horror sits the immediate right of the one who likes romance.

After the arrangement:

I. J and H change their novels.

II. F and G change their novels.

III. D changes his novel with the one who sits immediately left of A.

IV. B and E change their place but not the novels.

Note: The final arrangement is obtained after the I, II, III, and IV changes are done.

Which of the following statements is/are false?

I. G likes Horror novels.

II. E, F, and J are sitting on the table Y.

III. A and I are immediate neighbors.

((a))
Only II
((b))
Only I
((c))
Only III
((d))
Only I and III
((e))
Only II and III

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Only II

1) D sits at table X. J does not sit at table Y. G sits immediately left of J and neither of them like thrillers. D likes romance and sits opposite G. E likes romance and sits at table Y. The one who likes romance does not sit in the middle of table Y. Both the immediate neighbors of E like thrillers.

2) C sits at table X. Two persons sit between D and the one who likes thrillers. A sits immediately left of the one who likes thrillers. F sits third to the right of A.

G and J do not like Thriller novels. So, two persons sit between D and the one who likes thrillers from the left of D.

3) I sit 2nd to the right of a vacant seat. Both the vacant seats are not adjacent to each other. B does not like thrillers and romance.

As per the given conditions, B likes Horror.

4) One of the persons who likes horror sits the immediate right of the one who likes romance.

5) Three of them like horror novels, three like thriller novels and the remaining like romance novels. That means out of ten people four persons like romance novels. Also, The one who likes romance does not sit in the middle of table Y. So, A likes romance novels. The only possibility is that F likes horror novels as per the recent arrangement.

The final arrangement is:

After the arrangement, these changes are done.

J and H change their novels. F and G change their novels. D changes his novel with the one who sits immediately left of A. B and E change their place but not the novels.

After the rearrangement:

J is sitting on Table X. Hence, Only II ( E, F, and J are sitting on the table Y.) is false statement.

The person who is sitting third to the right of person who is sitting immediately right of F likes ____ novels.

((a))
Thriller
((b))
Either Horror or Romance
((c))
Horror
((d))
Romance
((e))
Either Thriller or Horror

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Horror

2) C sits at table X. Two persons sit between D and the one who likes thrillers. A sits immediately left of the one who likes thrillers. F sits third to the right of A.

G and J do not like Thriller novels. So, two persons sit between D and the one who likes thrillers from the left of D.

3) I sit 2nd to the right of a vacant seat. Both the vacant seats are not adjacent to each other. B does not like thrillers and romance.

As per the given conditions, B likes Horror.

4) One of the persons who likes horror sits the immediate right of the one who likes romance.

The final arrangement is:

After the arrangement, these changes are done.

J and H change their novels. F and G change their novels. D changes his novel with the one who sits immediately left of A. B and E change their place but not the novels.

After the rearrangement:

Hence, The person who is sitting third to the right of person who is sitting immediately right of F likes Horror novels.

Who are the immediate neighbors of J?

((a))
E and H
((b))
G and D
((c))
A and B
((d))
C and F
((e))
A and F

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

G and D

2) C sits at table X. Two persons sit between D and the one who likes thrillers. A sits immediately left of the one who likes thrillers. F sits third to the right of A.

G and J do not like Thriller novels. So, two persons sit between D and the one who likes thrillers from the left of D.

3) I sit 2nd to the right of a vacant seat. Both the vacant seats are not adjacent to each other. B does not like thrillers and romance.

As per the given conditions, B likes Horror.

4) One of the persons who likes horror sits the immediate right of the one who likes romance.

The final arrangement is:

After the arrangement, these changes are done.

J and H change their novels. F and G change their novels. D changes his novel with the one who sits immediately left of A. B and E change their place but not the novels.

After the rearrangement:

Hence, G and D are the immediate neighbors of J.

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which among the following one does not belong to the group?

((a))
E
((b))
F
((c))
H
((d))
I
((e))
A

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

2) C sits at table X. Two persons sit between D and the one who likes thrillers. A sits immediately left of the one who likes thrillers. F sits third to the right of A.

G and J do not like Thriller novels. So, two persons sit between D and the one who likes thrillers from the left of D.

3) I sit 2nd to the right of a vacant seat. Both the vacant seats are not adjacent to each other. B does not like thrillers and romance.

As per the given conditions, B likes Horror.

4) One of the persons who likes horror sits the immediate right of the one who likes romance.

The final arrangement is:

After the arrangement, these changes are done.

J and H change their novels. F and G change their novels. D changes his novel with the one who sits immediately left of A. B and E change their place but not the novels.

After the rearrangement:

All the persons except I are the neighbors of Vacant seat. Hence, I does not belong to the group.

Which of the following group of people have horror novel only?

((a))
G, D, F
((b))
H, I, J
((c))
A, B, E
((d))
J, E, F
((e))
G, H, B

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

G, H, B

2) C sits at table X. Two persons sit between D and the one who likes thrillers. A sits immediately left of the one who likes thrillers. F sits third to the right of A.

G and J do not like Thriller novels. So, two persons sit between D and the one who likes thrillers from the left of D.

3) I sit 2nd to the right of a vacant seat. Both the vacant seats are not adjacent to each other. B does not like thrillers and romance.

As per the given conditions, B likes Horror.

4) One of the persons who like horror sits the immediate right of the one who likes romance.

The final arrangement is:

After the arrangement, these changes are done.

J and H change their novels. F and G change their novels. D changes his novel with the one who sits immediately left of A. B and E change their place but not the novels.

After the rearrangement:

Hence, G, H, and B are the groups of people who have horror novels only.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Twelve persons K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V live in a five-storeyed building such that the ground floor is numbered 1, above it is floor 2 then the top floor is numbered 5. Each of the floors has four flats in it Flat A, Flat B, Flat C, and Flat D. Floor 2 of Flat A is immediately above Floor 1 of Flat A and immediately below Floor 3 of Flat A and so on. In the same way, Floor 2 of Flat B is immediately above Floor 1 of Flat B and immediately below Floor 3 of Flat B. Flat A is in the west of Flat B, Flat B is in the west of Flat C, and Flat C is to the west of Flat D. Eight flats are vacant.

Note: Minimum two and not more than three people live on a floor.

M lives in flat B on an even number floor. There is a gap of two floors between R and M. No one lives to the west of R. There are two flats between the flats of L and P on the same floor. L lives to the west of P. O lives immediately above the flat of P. One person lives between R and K on the same floor. One vacant flat is just above and one is just below the flat of T. S lives to the west of N but not to the adjacent of N. N lives on an even floor and lives immediately above U's flat. L does not live on the same floor as M and T. Q is sitting just in between two vacant flats on the same floor. N and T do not live on the same floor. T does not live in flat B. T lives on the adjacent floor of K.

Four among the five of the following are same in a manner. Which of the following is odd one out?

((a))
O
((b))
M
((c))
K
((d))
P
((e))
U

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

M lives in flat B on an even number floor. There is a gap of two floors between R and M. No one lives to the west of R. One person lives between R and K on the same floor. T does not live in flat B. T lives on the adjacent floor of K. One vacant flat is just above and one is just below the flat of T.

	Case 1	Case 2	Case 3	Case 4
	Flat	Flat	Flat	Flat
Floors	A	B	C	D	A	B	C	D	A	B	C	D	A	B	C	D
5	R		K	vacant	R		vacant	K
4				T			T				M			M
3				vacant			vacant					vacant			vacant
2		M				M						T			T
1									R		K	vacant	R		vacant	K

There are two flats between the flats of L and P on the same floor. L lives to the west of P. O lives immediately above the flat of P. L does not live on the same floor as M and T.
S lives to the west of N but not adjacent to N. N lives on an even floor and lives immediately above U's flat. N and T do not live on the same floor.

Case 1, Case 3, and Case 4 are eliminated as they are not able to satisfy the conditions 2 and 3 together.

	Flat
Floors	A	B	C	D
5	R			K
4			T	O
3	L			P
2	S	M		N
1				U

4) Q is sitting just in between two vacant flats on the same floor. A Minimum of two and not more than three people live on a floor.

The final arrangement is:

	Flat
Floors	A	B	C	D
5	R	V		K
4			T	O
3	L			P
2	S	M		N
1		Q		U

All except M are living in the Flat D. Hence, M is the odd one out.

Which of the following statements is/are true?

I. R lives on the floor 4.

II. L lives on the flat A and Floor 3.

III. K and V lives on the same flat.

((a))
Only I
((b))
Only III
((c))
Both I and III
((d))
Both I and II
((e))
Only II

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Only II

M lives in flat B on an even number floor. There is a gap of two floors between R and M. No one lives to the west of R. One person lives between R and K on the same floor. T does not live in flat B. T lives on the adjacent floor of K. One vacant flat is just above and one is just below the flat of T.

	Case 1	Case 2	Case 3	Case 4
	Flat	Flat	Flat	Flat
Floors	A	B	C	D	A	B	C	D	A	B	C	D	A	B	C	D
5	R		K	vacant	R		vacant	K
4				T			T				M			M
3				vacant			vacant					vacant			vacant
2		M				M						T			T
1									R		K	vacant	R		vacant	K

There are two flats between the flats of L and P on the same floor. L lives to the west of P. O lives immediately above the flat of P. L does not live on the same floor as M and T.
S lives to the west of N but not adjacent to N. N lives on an even floor and lives immediately above U's flat. N and T do not live on the same floor.

Case 1, Case 3, and Case 4 are eliminated as they are not able to satisfy the conditions 2 and 3 together.

	Flat
Floors	A	B	C	D
5	R			K
4			T	O
3	L			P
2	S	M		N
1				U

4) Q is sitting just in between two vacant flats on the same floor. A Minimum of two and not more than three people live on a floor.

The final arrangement is:

	Flat
Floors	A	B	C	D
5	R	V		K
4			T	O
3	L			P
2	S	M		N
1		Q		U

R lives on the floor 5 and K and V lives on the different flat. Hence, Only II statement is true.

Who else is living in the same floor as M?

((a))
S and P
((b))
K and O
((c))
S and N
((d))
M and Q
((e))
T and K

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

S and N

M lives in flat B on an even number floor. There is a gap of two floors between R and M. No one lives to the west of R. One person lives between R and K on the same floor. T does not live in flat B. T lives on the adjacent floor of K. One vacant flat is just above and one is just below the flat of T.

	Case 1	Case 2	Case 3	Case 4
	Flat	Flat	Flat	Flat
Floors	A	B	C	D	A	B	C	D	A	B	C	D	A	B	C	D
5	R		K	vacant	R		vacant	K
4				T			T				M			M
3				vacant			vacant					vacant			vacant
2		M				M						T			T
1									R		K	vacant	R		vacant	K

There are two flats between the flats of L and P on the same floor. L lives to the west of P. O lives immediately above the flat of P. L does not live on the same floor as M and T.
S lives to the west of N but not adjacent to N. N lives on an even floor and lives immediately above U's flat. N and T do not live on the same floor.

Case 1, Case 3, and Case 4 are eliminated as they are not able to satisfy the conditions 2 and 3 together.

	Flat
Floors	A	B	C	D
5	R			K
4			T	O
3	L			P
2	S	M		N
1				U

4) Q is sitting just in between two vacant flats on the same floor. A Minimum of two and not more than three people live on a floor.

The final arrangement is:

	Flat
Floors	A	B	C	D
5	R	V		K
4			T	O
3	L			P
2	S	M		N
1		Q		U

Hence, S and N are living in the same floor as M.

How many persons are living in the Flat D?

((a))
Two
((b))
Three
((c))
One
((d))
Five
((e))
Four

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Five

M lives in flat B on an even number floor. There is a gap of two floors between R and M. No one lives to the west of R. One person lives between R and K on the same floor. T does not live in flat B. T lives on the adjacent floor of K. One vacant flat is just above and one is just below the flat of T.

	Case 1	Case 2	Case 3	Case 4
	Flat	Flat	Flat	Flat
Floors	A	B	C	D	A	B	C	D	A	B	C	D	A	B	C	D
5	R		K	vacant	R		vacant	K
4				T			T				M			M
3				vacant			vacant					vacant			vacant
2		M				M						T			T
1									R		K	vacant	R		vacant	K

There are two flats between the flats of L and P on the same floor. L lives to the west of P. O lives immediately above the flat of P. L does not live on the same floor as M and T.
S lives to the west of N but not adjacent to N. N lives on an even floor and lives immediately above U's flat. N and T do not live on the same floor.

Case 1, Case 3, and Case 4 are eliminated as they are not able to satisfy the conditions 2 and 3 together.

	Flat
Floors	A	B	C	D
5	R			K
4			T	O
3	L			P
2	S	M		N
1				U

4) Q is sitting just in between two vacant flats on the same floor. A Minimum of two and not more than three people live on a floor.

The final arrangement is:

	Flat
Floors	A	B	C	D
5	R	V		K
4			T	O
3	L			P
2	S	M		N
1		Q		U

Hence, Five persons are living in the Flat D.

In which of the floor and Flat Q live?

((a))
Floor 1 and Flat B
((b))
Floor 3 and Flat C
((c))
Floor 5 and Flat A
((d))
Floor 2 and Flat D
((e))
Floor 4 and Flat A

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Floor 1 and Flat B

M lives in flat B on an even number floor. There is a gap of two floors between R and M. No one lives to the west of R. One person lives between R and K on the same floor. T does not live in flat B. T lives on the adjacent floor of K. One vacant flat is just above and one is just below the flat of T.

	Case 1	Case 2	Case 3	Case 4
	Flat	Flat	Flat	Flat
Floors	A	B	C	D	A	B	C	D	A	B	C	D	A	B	C	D
5	R		K	vacant	R		vacant	K
4				T			T				M			M
3				vacant			vacant					vacant			vacant
2		M				M						T			T
1									R		K	vacant	R		vacant	K

There are two flats between the flats of L and P on the same floor. L lives to the west of P. O lives immediately above the flat of P. L does not live on the same floor as M and T.
S lives to the west of N but not adjacent to N. N lives on an even floor and lives immediately above U's flat. N and T do not live on the same floor.

Case 1, Case 3, and Case 4 are eliminated as they are not able to satisfy the conditions 2 and 3 together.

	Flat
Floors	A	B	C	D
5	R			K
4			T	O
3	L			P
2	S	M		N
1				U

4) Q is sitting just in between two vacant flats on the same floor. A Minimum of two and not more than three people live on a floor.

The final arrangement is:

	Flat
Floors	A	B	C	D
5	R	V		K
4			T	O
3	L			P
2	S	M		N
1		Q		U

Hence, Q lives on Floor 1 and Flat B.

Directions: In the question given below, a passage is given followed by five statements. Read the information and answer the question that follows.

The popularity of physical newspapers is decreasing nowadays because people prefer digital newspapers more. So, there is a demand to ban physical newspapers.

I. People nowadays prefer to download e-newspaper and magazines as they are handy and can be easily available anytime.

II. Even today, a few people prefer physical newspapers because they are not tech-friendly and cannot operate the internet.

III. Some Newspaper agencies have also started their online e-magazines and e-newspaper at affordable prices and monthly subscriptions.

IV. Some printing presses are unable to continue their printing press due to the loss incurred by them.

V. Digital newspapers contain unlimited content with various new features for their readers.

Which of the following will weaken the above statement?

((a))
Only II
((b))
Only III
((c))
Only I
((d))
Only IV
((e))
Only V

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Only II

Statement I: Downloading the e-newspaper and magazines shows the willingness of people to prefer digital newspapers over physical newspapers. This statement strengthens the given passage.

Statement II: If people are not comfortable using the internet then they will not prefer digital newspapers over physical newspapers. So, this statement weakens the given passage.

Statement III: As Newspaper agencies are also showing interest in online e-magazine and e-newspaper it reflects the interest of consumers which is shifting towards digital newspapers.

Statement IV: As printing presses are shutting their business this will lead to an increase in the popularity and need of digital newspapers. So, this statement strengthens the given passage.

Statement V: As digital newspapers contain a lot of features that help consumers then naturally there will be a decrease in the demand for physical newspapers. So, this statement strengthens the given passage.

Hence, Statement II(Even today, a few people prefer physical newspapers because they are not tech-friendly and cannot operate the internet.) weakens the given passage.

Directions: In the question given below, a passage is given followed by five statements. Read the information and answer the question that follows.

Sportec, a sports manufacturing company, provides jerseys and sponsorship of other equipment to the National Football Team of Country X. They renew their contracts every two years and this year the contract will be ending in two months. Xpact another sports manufacturing company from country X, is hopeful for seeking a contract when Sportec's contract ends.

I. Six months ago, there was a change in the upper management body of the governing country X's football institution, and they might be interested in changing the terms and conditions of the contract with Sportec.

II. This year, there have been reports that Sportec encountered huge losses and they have been struggling in the sports market of country X.

III. Sportec, which belongs to country X has conflicted with the two neighboring countries of country Z.

IV Xpact is providing many new features to the National Team that are not being provided by Sportec.

V. Xpact is the only company other than Sportec that manufactures jerseys and other equipment related to football.

Which among the following, If true will allow the team to not renew their contract with the company Sportec and help Xpact to get the contract?

((a))
Only IV
((b))
Only IV and II
((c))
Only II and III
((d))
Only I
((e))
Only V

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Only IV

Statement I: If the upper management is considering changing the conditions of the contract with Sportec this means they are willing to continue with Sportec with changes in a few conditions. This will not help the company Xpact to get the contract.

Statement II: Loss incurred by company Sportec could be because of any reason (poor management, fraud, high pricing of products). This has nothing to do with the contract of Sportec with the National Football Team. So, this will not help the company Xpact to get the contract.

Statement III: Sportec 's with the neighboring countries is not a point of concern for the National Football Team. It does not affect the interest of the National Football Team. So, this will not lead Xpact to get the contract.

Statement IV: If Xpact is providing many new features to the National Football Team then the team could consider Xpact over Sportec to have new features. This condition is in the favour of the company Xpact.

Statement V: As Xpact and Sportec are providing the same product does not lead to the conclusion that the National Football Team will provide them with the contract. So, this condition will not lead to Xpact having the contract.

Hence, If Statement IV is true this will allow the team to not renew their contract with the company Sportec and help Xpact to get the contract

Directions: In the question given below, a passage is given followed by four statements. Read the information and answer the question that follows.

A company called Abeba is a multinational IT company, that has branches in fifteen countries around the world and has its headquarters in country H, where it has twenty branches. Therefore, the company hires freshers from engineering colleges and universities throughout the country. Recently the company has let go of many of the freshers of the company and also many have left the company due to the work not being done properly which is making the company's performance weak in the market.

I. There has to be a mandatory two years experience required from other software companies so that they will be eligible to join the company.

II. The company can take in freshers but there has to be strictness required to be held for the freshers so that only the best can be recruited.

III. There is no need to take in any freshers from country H.

IV. The freshers should be paid less as they are completely new as compared to the ones who are already in this industry.

What could be the course of action?

((a))
Only II
((b))
Only III and II
((c))
Only I , II and III
((d))
Only IV
((e))
Only III

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Only II

Course of Action I: Here the main problem is freshers are not able to perform well in the company. The Company cannot be dependent on candidates with experience from other software companies. Having two years of experience from another company does not mean they will perform well. So, this cannot be the course of action.

Course of Action II: Being strict when recruiting freshers can lead to better employees at work. So, this course of action can improve the company's performance.

Course of Action III: We cannot blame a country employee for the bad performance of the company. So, this cannot be the course of action.

Course of Action IV: Paying less to the freshers can further demotivate them. Also, the goal of the company is to improve the performance of the company which has no relation to the pay of freshers. So, this cannot be the course of action.

Hence, Only II is the course of action to improve the company's performance.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

There is a matrix that contains four rows (I, II, III, and IV) from top to bottom and four columns (I, II, III, and IV) from left to right. Word will be formed when we go left to right in a row and top to bottom in the column.

Conditions:

No letters are repeated more than twice.
If a column/row has one letter then the entire column/row should not have that letter. For example: If row I and column I has x letters then that letter should not repeat in entire row I or column I.
Alphabets are coded as A1, B2, C3, D4, E5, F1, G2, H3, ...Z1
Place values of column and row are added to get the cell value of a particular row or column.
A Meaningful letter has to be formed in each column.

Column I: I, II, and IV positions contain V, A, and T respectively.

Column II: III and IV positions contain H and O respectively.

Column III: II position contains R.

Column IV: I, III, and IV positions contain N, T, and S respectively.

What is the sum of the place values of (I, IV) and ( III, I)?

((a))
Six
((b))
Eight
((c))
Nine
((d))
Two
((e))
Five

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Eight

Column I: I, II, and IV positions contain V, A, and T respectively.

Column II: III and IV positions contain H and O respectively.

Column III: II position contains R.

Column IV: I, III, and IV positions contain N, T, and S respectively.

	I	II	III	IV
I	V			N
II	A		R
III		H		T
IV	T	O		S

In (Row III, Column I) the only alphabet that can form the meaningful word of column I is S.
In (Row III, Column III) the possibilities are I, O, and U for Row III meaningful words.

	I	II	III	IV
I	V			N
II	A		R
III	S	H	I,O, U	T
IV	T	O		S

In (Row II, Column IV) the possibilities are E, O, and U for meaningful words of Column IV.
In ( Row IV, Column III) the possibilities are E, N, P, and W for meaningful words of Row IV.

	I	II	III	IV
I	V			N
II	A		R	E, O, U
III	S	H	I, O, U	T
IV	T	O	E, N, P, W	S

In Column II, the meaningful word could be ECHO. Then the meaningful word in Row II will be ACRE. In Row I, the meaningful word will be VEIN.

	I	II	III	IV
I	V	E	I	N
II	A	C	R	E
III	S	H	I, O, U	T
IV	T	O	E, N, P, W	S

In Column III, the meaningful word could be IRON.

	I	II	III	IV
I	V	E	I	N
II	A	C	R	E
III	S	H	O	T
IV	T	O	N	S

Alphabets are coded as A1, B2, C3, D4, E5, F1, G2, H3, ...Z1

1	2	3	4	5
A	B	C	D	E
F	G	H	I	J
K	L	M	N	O
P	Q	R	S	T
U	V	W	X	Y
Z

The final arrangement is:

	I	II	III	IV
I	V(2)	E(5)	I(4)	N(4)
II	A(1)	C(3)	R(3)	E(5)
III	S(4)	H(3)	O(5)	T(5)
IV	T(5)	O(5)	N(4)	S(4)

Hence, the sum of the place values of (I, IV) and ( III, I) is eight.

What is the alphabet at (Row III, Column III)?

((a))
I
((b))
U
((c))
O
((d))
Y
((e))
T

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Column I: I, II, and IV positions contain V, A, and T respectively.

Column II: III and IV positions contain H and O respectively.

Column III: II position contains R.

Column IV: I, III, and IV positions contain N, T, and S respectively.

	I	II	III	IV
I	V			N
II	A		R
III		H		T
IV	T	O		S

In (Row III, Column I) the only alphabet that can form the meaningful word of column I is S.
In (Row III, Column III) the possibilities are I, O, and U for Row III meaningful words.

	I	II	III	IV
I	V			N
II	A		R
III	S	H	I,O, U	T
IV	T	O		S

In (Row II, Column IV) the possibilities are E, O, and U for meaningful words of Column IV.
In ( Row IV, Column III) the possibilities are E, N, P, and W for meaningful words of Row IV.

	I	II	III	IV
I	V			N
II	A		R	E, O, U
III	S	H	I, O, U	T
IV	T	O	E, N, P, W	S

In Column II, the meaningful word could be ECHO. Then the meaningful word in Row II will be ACRE. In Row I, the meaningful word will be VEIN.

	I	II	III	IV
I	V	E	I	N
II	A	C	R	E
III	S	H	I, O, U	T
IV	T	O	E, N, P, W	S

In Column III, the meaningful word could be IRON.

	I	II	III	IV
I	V	E	I	N
II	A	C	R	E
III	S	H	O	T
IV	T	O	N	S

Alphabets are coded as A1, B2, C3, D4, E5, F1, G2, H3, ...Z1

1	2	3	4	5
A	B	C	D	E
F	G	H	I	J
K	L	M	N	O
P	Q	R	S	T
U	V	W	X	Y
Z

The final arrangement is:

	I	II	III	IV
I	V(2)	E(5)	I(4)	N(4)
II	A(1)	C(3)	R(3)	E(5)
III	S(4)	H(3)	O(5)	T(5)
IV	T(5)	O(5)	N(4)	S(4)

Hence, the alphabet at (Row III, Column III) is O.

What is the sum of positional value of the letter in (III, III) and that in (I, III), where the brackets represent(row, column)?

((a))
9
((b))
6
((c))
11
((d))
8
((e))
10

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Column I: I, II, and IV positions contain V, A, and T respectively.

Column II: III and IV positions contain H and O respectively.

Column III: II position contains R.

Column IV: I, III, and IV positions contain N, T, and S respectively.

	I	II	III	IV
I	V			N
II	A		R
III		H		T
IV	T	O		S

In (Row III, Column I) the only alphabet that can form the meaningful word of column I is S.
In (Row III, Column III) the possibilities are I, O, and U for Row III meaningful words.

	I	II	III	IV
I	V			N
II	A		R
III	S	H	I,O, U	T
IV	T	O		S

In (Row II, Column IV) the possibilities are E, O, and U for meaningful words of Column IV.
In ( Row IV, Column III) the possibilities are E, N, P, and W for meaningful words of Row IV.

	I	II	III	IV
I	V			N
II	A		R	E, O, U
III	S	H	I, O, U	T
IV	T	O	E, N, P, W	S

In Column II, the meaningful word could be ECHO. Then the meaningful word in Row II will be ACRE. In Row I, the meaningful word will be VEIN.

	I	II	III	IV
I	V	E	I	N
II	A	C	R	E
III	S	H	I, O, U	T
IV	T	O	E, N, P, W	S

In Column III, the meaningful word could be IRON.

	I	II	III	IV
I	V	E	I	N
II	A	C	R	E
III	S	H	O	T
IV	T	O	N	S

Alphabets are coded as A1, B2, C3, D4, E5, F1, G2, H3, ...Z1

1	2	3	4	5
A	B	C	D	E
F	G	H	I	J
K	L	M	N	O
P	Q	R	S	T
U	V	W	X	Y
Z

The final arrangement is:

	I	II	III	IV
I	V(2)	E(5)	I(4)	N(4)
II	A(1)	C(3)	R(3)	E(5)
III	S(4)	H(3)	O(5)	T(5)
IV	T(5)	O(5)	N(4)	S(4)

Hence, the sum of positional value of the letter in (III, III) and that in (I, III), where the brackets represent(row, column) is 9.

What is the difference between the value of column I and of row II?

((a))
Eight
((b))
Two
((c))
Six
((d))
Zero
((e))
Five

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Zero

Column I: I, II, and IV positions contain V, A, and T respectively.

Column II: III and IV positions contain H and O respectively.

Column III: II position contains R.

Column IV: I, III, and IV positions contain N, T, and S respectively.

	I	II	III	IV
I	V			N
II	A		R
III		H		T
IV	T	O		S

In (Row III, Column I) the only alphabet that can form the meaningful word of column I is S.
In (Row III, Column III) the possibilities are I, O, and U for Row III meaningful words.

	I	II	III	IV
I	V			N
II	A		R
III	S	H	I,O, U	T
IV	T	O		S

In (Row II, Column IV) the possibilities are E, O, and U for meaningful words of Column IV.
In ( Row IV, Column III) the possibilities are E, N, P, and W for meaningful words of Row IV.

	I	II	III	IV
I	V			N
II	A		R	E, O, U
III	S	H	I, O, U	T
IV	T	O	E, N, P, W	S

In Column II, the meaningful word could be ECHO. Then the meaningful word in Row II will be ACRE. In Row I, the meaningful word will be VEIN.

	I	II	III	IV
I	V	E	I	N
II	A	C	R	E
III	S	H	I, O, U	T
IV	T	O	E, N, P, W	S

In Column III, the meaningful word could be IRON.

	I	II	III	IV
I	V	E	I	N
II	A	C	R	E
III	S	H	O	T
IV	T	O	N	S

Alphabets are coded as A1, B2, C3, D4, E5, F1, G2, H3, ...Z1

1	2	3	4	5
A	B	C	D	E
F	G	H	I	J
K	L	M	N	O
P	Q	R	S	T
U	V	W	X	Y
Z

The final arrangement is:

	I	II	III	IV
I	V(2)	E(5)	I(4)	N(4)
II	A(1)	C(3)	R(3)	E(5)
III	S(4)	H(3)	O(5)	T(5)
IV	T(5)	O(5)	N(4)	S(4)

Value of column I=2+1+4+5 =12 and Value of Row II= 1+3+3+5 =12.

Hence, The Difference between the value of column I and of row II is Zero.

Directions: In the question given below, a passage is given followed by five statements. Read the information and answer the question that follows.

There is a much-anticipated planning of three parks across three major locations in the city mainly focused on younger children's physical and mental development, bearing the slogan 'Learn and Play' through games and exercise. There will also be a nominal fee charged for every adult who makes entry into the park.

I. The children will be mostly accompanied by their guardians in the parks.

II. Two out of three localities are situated near high schools and one of these locations is situated near a college, where students will frequently enter the park.

III. Eight out of ten rides in these parks are made for adults and not for children's use.

IV. The parks are divided into three sections, each section will be charged accordingly.

V. Few activities in the park are near the electricity station which supplies electricity to the park, therefore the park has to be opened at 6 AM for the children.

Which of the following if true will most weaken the planning committee's plan of building these children's parks?

((a))
Only I
((b))
Only II
((c))
Only III
((d))
Only IV
((e))
Only V

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Only III

Statement I: As guardians will accompany the children this will lead to an increase in the revenue and as it is already mentioned nominal charges will be there it will not affect the guardians. This will not lead the planning committee to drop the plan of building parks.

Statement II: As parks are near the high schools and colleges this will not affect the safety of children. This statement will not weaken the planning committee plan.

Statement III: If maximum rides are for adults then this will not help in the mental and physical development of children. This statement weakens the planning committee's plan to build a children's park.

Statement IV: As it is already mentioned the charges will be nominal. So, this will not affect the committee's plan to have a children's park. This statement will not weaken the planning committee plan.

Statement V: To have some activities near the electricity station will not lead to any harm to children as all the necessary precautions will be taken for the safeguard of children. This statement does not weaken the planning committee's decision.

Hence, Only III (Eight out of ten rides in these parks are made for adults and not for children's use.) will most weaken the planning committee's plan of building these children's parks.

Directions: In the question given below, a passage is given followed by five statements. Read the information and answer the question that follows.

University X allows admissions for both men and women. They are allowed to fill out the detailed application form. A recent report given by some agencies has revealed that the admission process at University X is gender biased.

I. The technical course offers more seats for men than women.

II. The technical skills required vary from course to course in the university.

III. Last year more seats were allotted to women as compared to men.

IV. Many courses offered in the university allow only men to enroll in it.

V. There is no female faculty for the ongoing courses at the university.

Which of the following statements strengthens the report?

((a))
Only I
((b))
Only II
((c))
Only III
((d))
Only IV
((e))
Only V

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Only IV

Statement I: As more technical courses are offered to men than women. So, this could be the statement that strengthens the report.

Statement II: The requirement of the different courses does not reflect any bias in the admission process based on gender. The comparison here is based on skills. So, this statement does not strengthen the report.

Statement III: Here we are talking about the admission process not the allotment of seats as allotment is done after the admission process. So, this statement does not strengthen the report.

Statement IV: As a lot of courses are offered to only men this is clear discrimination. So, this could strengthen the report.

Statement V: As here the topic is all about the admission process of students and not about faculty. So, this statement does not strengthen the report.

Statement IV is better than Statement I as Statement IV provides a clear picture that there is discrimination in the admission process.

Hence, the Only IV (Many courses offered in the university allow only men to enroll in it.) statement strengthens the report.

Directions: In the question given below, a passage is given followed by five statements. Read the information and answer the question that follows.

To encourage Higher education from Government Institutions, the Government is setting up all the Public Sector Institutions with the basic as well as advanced amenities at par with the Private Institutions.

Which of the following most weakens the decision of the Government?

I. Many people are interested in joining the Private Institutions due to a lack of trust in Public Institutions.

II. Private Institutions are better equipped than Public Institutions.

III. Public Institutions have a limited number of faculties as compared to the vast number of faculties in Private Institutions.

IV. Private institutions provide guaranteed jobs to the students after the course ends.

V. Private Institutions are run by a franchise and if they incur any sort of loss, they can be shut down anytime.

((a))
Only I
((b))
Only II
((c))
Only III
((d))
Only IV
((e))
Only V

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Only I

Statement I: Lack of trust is the biggest issue among people when they look at Public institutions. If there is a lack of trust then no matter what government do people will not join Public institutions.

Statement II: Private institutions are better than Public institutions which is why the government is trying to improve the government institutions facility. This is the reason for the government's decision. So, this does not weaken the government's decision.

Statement III: This provides the reason for the government's decision. So, this does not weaken the government's decision.

Statement IV: The efficiency of private institutions does not change the case that there is a need for improvement in government institutions. So, this statement does not weaken the government's decision.

Statement V: The point here is to improve the efficiency of government institutions and not to discuss the problems that could be faced by private institutions. This statement does not weaken the government's decision.

Hence, Only I most weakens the decision of the Government.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

When a word and a number rearrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input: 7289 CLAY 2854 POUR 5941 ABLE 6217 FLIP 9723 ONUS

Step I: 49398 ABLE 4963 ONUS 251050 CLAY 36326 FLIP 81832 POUR

Step II: 48399 BAKF 4639 PMVR 2155 BKBX 26633 EKJO 28813 OPVQ

Step III: 1221 BKF 1012 PMVR 211 KX 146 KJ 184 PVQ

Step IV: 429 BFK 134 MPRV 119 KX 22 JK 2 PQV

Step V: 432 130 117 20 5

Step V is the last step for the above input. Find out the appropriate steps for the following input.

Input: 8345 UNIT 4972 DROP 3186 EVEN 5294 SOUP 1376 PLAY

Which is the right most word set in Step IV?

((a))
NMY
((b))
POU
((c))
MYT
((d))
TYN
((e))
PRV

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

PRV

Input: 8345 UNIT 4972 DROP 3186 EVEN 5294 SOUP 1376 PLAY

Step I: Numbers: The square of the first digit is done. One is added to the second digit and third digit. One is subtracted from the fourth digit. (operations are performed from left to right.

Word: Vowels are placed in the alphabetical order and then consonants are placed according to the alphabetical order. ( operations are performed according to the first alphabet of given words)

64454 EVEN 161081 UNIT 9295 DROP 253103 PLAY 1485 SOUP

Step II: Numbers: First even numbers are placed in numerical order and then odd numbers are placed in ascending order (operations are performed from left to right.). Zero is eliminated in this step.

Word: The succeding alphabet is considered in Vowels and Preceding alphabets are considered in consonants.

44465 FUFM 68111 VMJS 2599 CQPO 21335 OKBX 4815 RPVO

Step III: Numbers: Add all the even digits separately and Add all the odd digits separately.

Word: Eliminate vowels and repeated alphabets.

185 M 143 VMJS 223 CQP 212 KBX 126 RPV

Step IV: Number: Subtract the sum of even digits from the square of the sum of odd digits.

|52-18|=7, |32-14|= 5, |232-2|=527, |122-2|=142, |62-12|=24

Word: Place the alphabet in alphabetical order from left to right within the word.

7 M 5 JMSV 527 CPQ 142 BKX 24 PRV

Step V: If the number of alphabets is odd then add the number to the number preceding it otherwise subtract it.

The final arrangement is:

8 1 530 145 27

Hence, the rightmost word set in Step IV is PRV.

What is the difference between the greatest and second smallest digit in Step V?

((a))
324
((b))
522
((c))
342
((d))
203
((e))
213

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

522

Input: 8345 UNIT 4972 DROP 3186 EVEN 5294 SOUP 1376 PLAY

Step I: Numbers: The square of the first digit is done. One is added to the second digit and third digit. One is subtracted from the fourth digit. (operations are performed from left to right.

Word: Vowels are placed in the alphabetical order and then consonants are placed according to the alphabetical order. ( operations are performed according to the first alphabet of given words)

64454 EVEN 161081 UNIT 9295 DROP 253103 PLAY 1485 SOUP

Step II: Numbers: First even numbers are placed in numerical order and then odd numbers are placed in ascending order (operations are performed from left to right.). Zero is eliminated in this step.

Word: The succeding alphabet is considered in Vowels and Preceding alphabets are considered in consonants.

44465 FUFM 68111 VMJS 2599 CQPO 21335 OKBX 4815 RPVO

Step III: Numbers: Add all the even digits separately and Add all the odd digits separately.

Word: Eliminate vowels and repeated alphabets.

185 M 143 VMJS 223 CQP 212 KBX 126 RPV

Step IV: Number: Subtract the sum of even digits from the square of the sum of odd digits.

|52-18|=7, |32-14|= 5, |182-7|=527, |122-2|=142, |62-12|=24

Word: Place the alphabet in alphabetical order from left to right within the word.

7 M 5 JMSV 527 CPQ 142 BKX 24 PRV

Step V: If the number of alphabets is odd then add the number to the number preceding it otherwise subtract it.

The final arrangement is:

8 1 530 145 27

Hence, the difference between the greatest and second smallest digit in Step V is 522.

What is the difference between third largest number obtained in Step III and the fourth smallest number obtained in the same step?

((a))
32
((b))
65
((c))
27
((d))
47
((e))
94

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Input: 8345 UNIT 4972 DROP 3186 EVEN 5294 SOUP 1376 PLAY

Step I: Numbers: The square of the first digit is done. One is added to the second digit and third digit. One is subtracted from the fourth digit. (operations are performed from left to right.

Word: Vowels are placed in the alphabetical order and then consonants are placed according to the alphabetical order. ( operations are performed according to the first alphabet of given words)

64454 EVEN 161081 UNIT 9295 DROP 253103 PLAY 1485 SOUP

Step II: Numbers: First even numbers are placed in numerical order and then odd numbers are placed in ascending order (operations are performed from left to right.). Zero is eliminated in this step.

Word: The succeding alphabet is considered in Vowels and Preceding alphabets are considered in consonants.

44465 FUFM 68111 VMJS 2599 CQPO 21335 OKBX 4815 RPVO

Step III: Numbers: Add all the even digits separately and Add all the odd digits separately.

Word: Eliminate vowels and repeated alphabets.

185 M 143 VMJS 223 CQP 212 KBX 126 RPV

Step IV: Number: Subtract the sum of even digits from the square of the sum of odd digits.

|52-18|=7, |32-14|= 5, |182-7|=527, |122-2|=142, |62-12|=24

Word: Place the alphabet in alphabetical order from left to right within the word.

7 M 5 JMSV 527 CPQ 142 BKX 24 PRV

Step V: If the number of alphabets is odd then add the number to the number preceding it otherwise subtract it.

The final arrangement is:

8 1 530 145 27

Hence, the difference between the third largest number obtained in Step III and the fourth smallest number obtained in the same step is 27.

In Step II, What number is immediately left of 'FUFM'?

((a))
44465
((b))
46383
((c))
33567
((d))
22657
((e))
45273

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

44465

Input: 8345 UNIT 4972 DROP 3186 EVEN 5294 SOUP 1376 PLAY

Step I: Numbers: The square of the first digit is done. One is added to the second digit and third digit. One is subtracted from the fourth digit. (operations are performed from left to right.

Word: Vowels are placed in the alphabetical order and then consonants are placed according to the alphabetical order. ( operations are performed according to the first alphabet of given words)

64454 EVEN 161081 UNIT 9295 DROP 253103 PLAY 1485 SOUP

Step II: Numbers: First even numbers are placed in numerical order and then odd numbers are placed in ascending order (operations are performed from left to right.). Zero is eliminated in this step.

Word: The succeding alphabet is considered in Vowels and Preceding alphabets are considered in consonants.

44465 FUFM 68111 VMJS 2599 CQPO 21335 OKBX 4815 RPVO

Step III: Numbers: Add all the even digits separately and Add all the odd digits separately.

Word: Eliminate vowels and repeated alphabets.

185 M 143 VMJS 223 CQP 212 KBX 126 RPV

Step IV: Number: Subtract the sum of even digits from the square of the sum of odd digits.

|5²-18|=7, |3²-14|= 5, |18²-7|=527, |12²-2|=142, |6²-12|=24

Word: Place the alphabet in alphabetical order from left to right within the word.

7 M 5 JMSV 527 CPQ 142 BKX 24 PRV

Step V: If the number of alphabets is odd then add the number to the number preceding it otherwise subtract it.

The final arrangement is:

8 1 530 145 27

Hence, the number immediately left of 'FUFM' is 44465.

General Awareness (40 questions)

The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) has launched a Psyche Aircraft for the Psyche Mission for the exploration of a unique metal-rich asteroid orbiting the sun between _______ and _______.

((a))
Earth; Mars
((b))
Mars; Jupiter
((c))
Mercury; Venus
((d))
Jupiter; Saturn
((e))
Venus; Earth

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Mars; Jupiter

The correct answer is Mars; Jupiter.

Key Points

The objective of Psyche is to explore an asteroid also named 'Psyche' with more metal than rock or ice.
Launch Date of Psyche is Targeted for October 13, 2023, aboard a SpaceX Falcon Heavy rocket.
Asteroid Psyche is located in the main asteroid belt between Mars and Jupiter.
The composition of the Psyche may be part of a planetesimal’s iron-rich core or a different iron-rich body.
Size and Shape of Irregular and potato-like, measuring 173 miles wide and powered by solar electric propulsion.
Mission Goal is to Orbit the asteroid, take pictures, map the surface, and determine its composition.

Which of the following person to head panel formed on 'One Nation, One Election'?

((a))
Ram Nath Kovind
((b))
Ranjan Gogoi
((c))
Pratibha Devisingh Patil
((d))
Yashwant Sinha
((e))
Amit Shah

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Ram Nath Kovind

The Correct Answer is Ram Nath Kovind.

In News

Centre Forms Panel On 'One Nation, One Election', Ex President To Head It.

Key Points

One nation, one election means holding the Lok Sabha and state assembly polls simultaneously across the country, like it was in the first few rounds of elections in India.
This will be examined by a new committee headed by former President Ram Nath Kovind.
The move comes a day after the Centre announced a special session of the parliament from September 18 to 22, without revealing the agenda.

What is India's 42nd UNESCO World Heritage Site?

((a))
Sanchi Stupa
((b))
Vishwanath Temple
((c))
Sacred Ensembles of Hoysalas
((d))
Victoria Memorial
((e))
Gateway of India

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Sacred Ensembles of Hoysalas

The correct answer is Sacred Ensembles of Hoysalas.

Key Points

The Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysala, the famed Hoysala temples of Belur, Halebid and Somanathapur in Karnataka have been added to the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) World Heritage list.
This inclusion marks the 42nd UNESCO World Heritage Site in India.
Built during the time of the Hoysala kingdom, the temples with exquisite sculptures and stone carvings on its entire facade are important examples of the distinct Hoysala-style architecture.
According to the UNESCO description, the temple complexes “represent a significant stage in the historical development of Hindu temple architecture.”

In October 2023, IMF raises India’s 2023 GDP growth forecast to?

((a))
6.3%
((b))
6.1%
((c))
6.5%
((d))
6.7%
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

6.3%

The Correct Answer is 6.3%.

In News

IMF raises India’s 2023 GDP growth forecast to 6.3%.

Key Points

The International Monetary Fund (IMF) revised India’s GDP growth forecast to 6.3% for 2023.

India's 1st state-of-the-art 3D-Printed post office opens In ___________

((a))
Mumbai
((b))
Jaipur
((c))
Lucknow
((d))
Bengaluru
((e))
Patna

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Bengaluru

The Correct Answer is Bengaluru.

In News

India's 1st state-of-the-art 3D-Printed post office opens In Bengaluru.

Key Points

India's first 3D-printed post office building has been inaugurated in Bengaluru.
The building was constructed using 3D-concrete printing technology.
The construction was carried out by Larsen & Toubro Limited with technical guidance from IIT Madras.
The entire construction activity was completed in just 45 days, compared to 6-8 months for conventional methods.

Which of the following has recently launched a new consumer-facing application 'Pincode 'which will be integrated into India's Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) framework?

((a))
PhonePe
((b))
Razorpay
((c))
Paytm
((d))
Cashfree Payments
((e))
Mobikwik

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

PhonePe

The correct answer is PhonePe.

In News

PhonePe, on 4 April 2023, launched a new consumer-facing application 'Pincode' which will be integrated into India's Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) framework.

Key Points

Pincode is launching in six major categories, including grocery, food, pharma, electronics, home decor, and fashion.
Customers can search for stores by browsing categories and can have multiple carts at the same time.
Pincode, which will focus on hyperlocal commerce, is currently live only in Bengaluru and available on the Google Play Store and the App Store.
PhonePe already has an e-commerce platform, called Switch, on its app, which offers services including food delivery, grocery shopping, travel, hotel booking, retail fashion and healthcare.

Additional Information

Open Network for Digital Commerce, abbreviated ONDC, is a private non-profit Section 8 company established by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) of Government of India to develop open e-commerce.
It was incorporated on 31 December 2021 with initial investment from Quality Council of India and Protean eGov Technologies Limited (formerly NSDL e-Governance Infrastructure Limited).
ONDC was launched to enable small merchants and local stores across India to access processes and technologies typically deployed by large e-commerce platforms like Amazon and Walmart.

The RBI asked banks to maintain an Incremental Cash Reserve Ratio (ICRR) of what percent on the increase in their deposits between May 19 and July 28, 2023?

((a))
6%
((b))
13.5%
((c))
10%
((d))
12%
((e))
15%

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

10%

The correct answer is 10%.

In News

RBI to discontinue I-CRR in a phased manner.

Key Points

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has decided to discontinue the Incremental Cash Reserve Ratio (I-CRR), which it prescribed as a temporary measure last month to impound Banks’ surplus liquidity, in three stages.
By doing so, the central bank is ensuring that there is no liquidity tightness during the upcoming festival season.
Prescribed last month to drain out the banking system’s surplus liquidity, which arose due to the return of ₹2,000 banknotes to the banking system, RBI’s surplus transfer to the government, and a pick-up in government spending and capital inflows, the I-CRR sucked out a little over ₹1-lakh crore.
RBI asked Scheduled Banks shall maintain an Incremental Cash Reserve Ratio (I-CRR) of 10% on the increase in their Net Demand & Time Liabilities (NDTL) or deposits between May 19, 2023 and July 28, 2023.
88% of Rs 2000 banknotes in circulation as of May 19, 2023, have been returned.

Additional Information

RBI
Established in - 1935
HQ - Mumbai
Governor - Shaktikanta Das
Deputy Governor - S. Janakiraman, T Rabi Sankar, M.D. Patra, M. Rajeshwar Rao

What does "O" stand for in GLOF?

((a))
Output
((b))
Offer
((c))
Ordinance
((d))
Outburst
((e))
Open

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Outburst

The correct answer is Outburst.

Key Points

GLOF stands for Glacial Lake Outburst Flood.
They occur when water suddenly releases from a lake controlled by a glacier.
The release is often caused by the breaking of natural ice or earth dams.
This leads to a rapid flood downstream, sometimes with little warning.
They can cause widespread destruction in affected areas.
Factors like climate change are increasing the frequency of GLOFs.

What is the amount of viability gap funding approved by the Cabinet for the development of Battery Energy Storage System?

((a))
Rs 3,760 crores.
((b))
Rs 3,670 crores.
((c))
Rs 3,780 crores.
((d))
Rs 3,790 crores.
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Rs 3,760 crores.

The correct answer is Rs 3,760 crores.

In News

Cabinet approves Rs 3,760 crores Viability Gap funding for development of **Battery Energy Storage System.**

Key Points

The Cabinet has approved a viability gap funding of Rs 3,760 crores for the development of Battery Energy Storage System.
The Battery Energy Storage System is a crucial component of India’s energy transition plan, which aims to achieve a renewable energy capacity of 450 GW by 2030.
The Viability Gap Funding Scheme is a public-private partnership model that provides financial support to infrastructure projects that are economically justified but not financially viable.
The project will be implemented by the National Thermal Power Corporation Limited (NTPC), which will invite bids from developers and investors to set up grid-scale battery storage projects across India.
The project aims to establish 10 GigaWatt-hours (GWh) of cumulative annual manufacturing capacity of advanced chemistry cell batteries in India by 2025.

Which of the following person received the Spinoza Prize 2023 in the field of climate change?

((a))
Ignas Snellen
((b))
Prof. Dr Joyeeta Gupta
((c))
Toby Kiers
((d))
Only (2) and (3)
((e))
All of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Prof. Dr Joyeeta Gupta

The Correct Answer is Prof. Dr Joyeeta Gupta.

In News

Prof. Dr Joyeeta Gupta and Toby Kiers received the Spinoza Prize in the field of climate change and fungal research respectively.

Key Points

Indian-origin professor Dr Joyeeta Gupta has received the Spinoza Prize, the highest distinction in Dutch science for her work in the field of climate change at a ceremony in the Netherlands.
Toby Kiers received the Spinoza Prize for groundbreaking fungal research.
Prof. Toby Kiers Is the Youngest Recipient to Ever Receive the NWO Spinoza Prize.
The prize was presented to her by the Netherlands' Minister for Education, Science, and Culture, Robert Dijkgraaf at The Hague.
The Dutch Research Council (NWO) prize is worth 1.5 million euros which Gupta intends to spend on scientific research and activities related to knowledge utilisation.

SBI Funds Management Limited received the RBI's approval to acquire up to a 9.99% paid-up share capital in which bank?

((a))
Indian Bank
((b))
IndusInd Bank
((c))
Yes Bank
((d))
HDFC Bank
((e))
ICICI Bank

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

IndusInd Bank

The correct answer is IndusInd Bank.

In News

SBI Mutual Fund Gets RBI Nod For Stake Buy In IndusInd Bank.

Key Points

SBI Mutual Fund has received the Reserve Bank of India's approval to acquire up to a 9.99% stake in private lender IndusInd Bank Ltd.
The approval is subject to compliance with central bank rules as well as foreign exchange and capital market regulations.
As per RBI guidance, SBI MF will acquire the shareholding in IndusInd Bank within a period of one year, i.e., by Oct. 10, 2024.
SBI MF must ensure that the aggregate holding in the bank does not exceed 9.99% of the paid-up share capital or voting rights of the bank at all times
IndusInd Bank
Founded in - 1994
HQ - Pune
MD & CEO - Sumant Kathpalia

Additional Information

YES Bank
Founded in - 2004
HQ - Mumbai
CEO - Prashant Kumar
ICICI Bank
Establishment year - 1994
HQ - Mumbai
MD & CEO - Sandeep Bakshi
HDFC Bank
Establishment year - 1994
HQ - Mumbai
MD & CEO - Sashidhar Jagdishan
Indian Bank
Founded in - 1907
HQ - Madras
MD & CEO - Shanti Lal Jain

________ recently launched Aadhaar-based enrolment for social security schemes.

((a))
SBI
((b))
Yes Bank
((c))
Bank of Baroda
((d))
Axis Bank
((e))
HDFC

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

SBI

The correct answer is SBI.

Key Points

SBI recently launched Aadhaar-based enrolment for social security schemes.
The State Bank of India introduced a new facility that allows customers to enroll in social security schemes by using their Aadhaar card.
Customers can now use their Aadhaar card, a unique identification number in India, for a straightforward enrolment process in these schemes.
This service is facilitated through a feature called Customer Service Points (CSPs), aimed at enhancing customer convenience.
The focus is on making it easier for customers to access social security schemes, ensuring wider reach and participation.
Dinesh Khara, the Chairman of SBI, officially unveiled this new feature, emphasizing its importance in simplifying the enrolment process

Who was Valery Polyakov, who passed away in September 2022?

((a))
Russian Scientist
((b))
Russian Cosmonaut
((c))
Russian Actor
((d))
Russian Former President
((e))
Russian Chess Grandmaster

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Russian Cosmonaut

The correct answer is Russian Cosmonaut.

Key Points

Valery Polyakov, who held the record for achieving the longest single stay in space, has passed away at the age of 80.
Valeri Vladimirovich Polyakov was a Soviet and Russian cosmonaut.
He is the record holder for the longest single stay in space, staying aboard the Mir space station for more than 14 months (437 days 18 hours) during one trip.
His combined space experience was more than 22 months.

Additional Information

Russian Space Corporation
The State Space Corporation Roscosmos is a state corporation of the Russian Federation responsible for space flights, cosmonautics programs, and aerospace research.
Originating from the Soviet space program founded in the 1950s, Roscosmos emerged following the dissolution of the Soviet Union in 1991.
It initially began as the Russian Space Agency, which was established on 25 February 1992.
Roscosmos is headquartered in Moscow, with its main Mission Control Center in the nearby city of Korolyov, and the Yuri Gagarin Cosmonaut Training Center located in Star City in Moscow Oblast. I

Name the non-profit organisation that has recently signed a new cooperation agreement with the International Olympic Committee (IOC) & Olympic Museum to promote the Olympic Values Education Programme (OVEP) in India.

((a))
Infosys Foundation
((b))
Reliance Foundation
((c))
Akshaya Patra Foundation
((d))
Paani Foundation
((e))
Smile Foundation

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Reliance Foundation

The correct answer is Reliance Foundation.

In News

India has great excitement for the Olympics, says IOC president Thomas Bach.

Key Points

The International Olympic Committee (IOC) President Thomas Bach is looking forward to the opening ceremony of the 141st session as it will showcase the excitement India has for the Olympics.
The IOC with the Olympic Museum aligned with Reliance Foundation to build on the success of the Olympic Values Education Programme (OVEP) in India and signed a new cooperation agreement.
The new cooperation was agreed upon by IOC President Thomas Bach and Nita Ambani, IOC Member in India and Reliance Foundation Founder Chairperson, during a visit to the Reliance Foundation Young Champs football academy in Mumbai.
During the ceremony, President Bach and Mrs Ambani exchanged pennants representing OVEP and Reliance Foundation and joined students in leaving their handprints on a new Olympic Values Pledge Wall, marking a commitment to be a positive role model both in sports and in day-to-day life.
Reliance Foundation
It is an Indian non-profit organization that was founded in 2010 by Mukesh Ambani.
It is wholly owned by Reliance Industries Ltd and is one of the largest non-profit foundations in the country.

Additional Information

International Olympic Committee
It is a non-governmental sports organization based in Lausanne, Switzerland.
it is constituted in the form of an association under the Swiss Civil Code.
Founded in 1894 by Pierre e Coubertin and Demetrios Vikelas.

Who has expanded its partnership with Standard Bank Group (SBG) to centralize its custody and securities settlement operations in over 15 markets?

((a))
Tata Consultancy Services
((b))
Infosys
((c))
IBM
((d))
Wipro
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Tata Consultancy Services

The correct answer is Tata Consultancy Services.

In News

TCS expands its partnership with Africa’s Standard Bank Group to centralize security settlements.

Key Points

Tata Consultancy Services (TCS) announced the extension of its partnership with Standard Bank Group (SBG), Africa’s largest custodian bank, to centralize and standardize its custody and securities settlement operations in over 15 markets, signalling starting of recovery of IT deal wins and renewals amidst macroeconomic uncertainties.
TCS has been working with SBG for over 25 years now.
Through this extended partnership, SBG sought to upgrade its existing platform using next-generation technologies and streamlining its custody and settlement processes to “build greater resilience in its operations by having all its critical business operations running in the cloud by 2026”.
In the new integrated custody platform, SBG will be able to accelerate the pace of innovation and offer its customers consistent, reliable, efficient, and high-performance services.
Tata Consultancy Services
Founded in - 1968
HQ - Mumbai
CEO - K Krithivasan

Additional Information

IBM
Founded in - 1911
HQ - New York, US
CEO - Arvind Krishna
Wipro
Founded in - 1945
HQ - Bangalore
CEO - Thierry Delaporte
Infosys
Founded in - 1981
HQ - Pune
CEO - Salil Parekh

What is India's rank in Crude Oil Refining?

((a))
1
((b))
2
((c))
3
((d))
4
((e))
5

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

The correct answer is 4.

Key Points

India is the world’s fourth-largest refiner.
Between 2014-2023, India added a total of 38.9 mTPA of refining capacity, of which 39 percent was greenfield and the remaining 61 percent was brownfield.
During 2010-14, it added 29.7 mTPA capacity through brownfield expansion.
As per the Centre for High Technology (CHT), a technical wing of MoPNG, the refining capacity of Indian refineries is projected to increase by about 56 mtpa by 2028.

Who has introduced Card Verification Code (CVC)-free online transactions for customers who have tokenized their debit and credit cards on merchant platforms?

((a))
Visa
((b))
Mastercard
((c))
RuPay
((d))
American Express
((e))
1, 2 and 3

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is 1, 2 & 3.

In News

RuPay, Mastercard, and VISA enable CVC-free Payments for tokenized cards in India.

Key Points

RuPay, Mastercard, and VISA enabled CVC-free online transactions for customers who have tokenized their debit and credit cards on merchant platforms.
It aims to reduce the checkout time and make virtual transactions hassle-free and more secure.
According to RBI's tokenization guidelines, merchants who adopt tokenized will collect CVC only once, which is tokenizing the card. From the second transaction onwards cardholders will be required to select their tokenized card from the checkout page, confirm the OTP, and complete the transaction without keying in CVC.
Several e-commerce players like Cashfree Payments and Zomato have already adopted CVC-less payments.
By eliminating the need for CVC, merchants can expect benefits like higher authorization rates, reduced checkout abandonment, and enhanced customer payment experience.

Additional Information

Mastercard
Founded in - 1966
HQ - New York, US
CEO - Michael Miebach
RuPay
Founded in - 2012
HQ - Mumbai, Maharashtra
CEO - Dilip Asbe
VISA
Founded in - 1958
HQ - California, US
CEO - Ryan Mclnerney
American Express
Founded in - 1850
HQ - New York, US
CEO - Stephen Squire
Discover
Founded in - 1985
HQ - Illinois, US
CEO - Owen John B

Which of the following country restarted ferry services connecting Nagapattinam from India to Kankesanthurai after 40 years?

((a))
Thailand
((b))
Bangladesh
((c))
Maldives
((d))
Sri Lanka
((e))
Pakistan

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Sri Lanka

The Correct Answer is Sri Lanka.

In News

India-Sri Lanka ferry service restarted after 40 yrs.

Key Points

The historic sea route between India and Sri Lanka has been revived with the launch of a passenger ferry service connecting Nagapattinam (India) and Kankesanthurai (Sri Lanka), approx. 110 Km distance, with the aim of strengthening bilateral relations, promoting tourism, and boosting local trade.
Named ‘Cheriyapani,’ the service rekindles maritime links dating back to the early 1900s.
Previously, Indo-Ceylon Express or Boat Mail used to run between Chennai and Colombo but was halted in 1982 due to the Sri Lankan civil war.

Which of the following is NOT the sport added in the Los Angeles Olympics 2028?

((a))
Baseball
((b))
Cricket
((c))
Lacrosse
((d))
Billiards
((e))
Squash

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Billiards

The correct option is Billiards.

Key Points

The Olympic Games will have a whole new look at Los Angeles 2028 after five sports were approved to be added.
Baseball/softball, cricket, flag football, lacrosse, and squash were proposed by the LA28 Organizing Committee for only that edition of the Games and have been given official signoff by the IOC Session in Mumbai, India.
While baseball/softball, cricket, and lacrosse will be making a return to the Olympic program, LA28 will mark the debut of flag football and squash as Olympic sports.

The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) recently came out with new guidelines to enhance safety in transportation of dangerous, hazardous goods posing threat to public safety, properties and environment. BIS works under the aegis of which of the following ministries?

((a))
Ministry of Commerce and Industry
((b))
NITI Aayog
((c))
Ministry of Home Affairs
((d))
Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution
((e))
Ministry of Science and Technology

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution

The correct answer is Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution.

In News

The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) has come out with new guidelines to enhance safety in transportation of dangerous, hazardous goods posing threat to public safety, properties and environment.

Key Points

The guidelines provide in detail precautions to be taken for packaging, handling and transportation of such hazardous goods.
The guidelines are meant for all stakeholders including vehicle owners, transport agencies, contractors, consignors, consignees, operators and drivers.
The new guidelines are expected to set a new benchmark for the safe handling and transportation of hazardous materials across the country.
With the aim of standardizing the transportation practices, the BIS guidelines will help ensure that hazardous goods are transported in a safe and secure manner, reducing the risk of accidents and potential harm to people and the environment.
The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is the National Standards Body of India under Department of Consumer affairs, Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution.
It is established by the Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 2016 which came into effect on 12 October 2017.

Additional Information

The dangerous goods referred in the standard include explosives, gases, flammable liquids, flammable solids, oxidizing substances and organic peroxides, poisonous and infectious substances, radioactive substances, corrosive substances and other miscellaneous dangerous substances.
BIS has provided guidelines on classification, packaging, labelling and marking, handling, documentation, role of stakeholders, training, transportation, emergency action and provisions for segregation.

Nobel Prizes are distributed annually at

((a))
Geneva
((b))
New York
((c))
Manila
((d))
Stockholm
((e))
Oslo

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Stockholm

The correct answer is Stockholm.

Important Points

Nobel Prize:

It is given to only living scientists and can be shared by a maximum of three persons in each category: Chemistry, Physics, Physiology or Medicine, Literature, Economics, and for the work towards World Peace.
It aims at motivating the younger generation to seek careers in science and technology.
All efforts are made to project the lifetime achievements of a Nobel laureate who has dedicated to revealing the verifiable truth as the hero of a narrow field of specialization (Upadhye, 2004).
The Nobel Prize is the best known and prestigious scientific prize in the world.
Its founder is Alfred Nobel.
the Nobel Prizes in Physics, Chemistry, Physiology or Medicine and Literature are awarded in Stockholm, Sweden. So, option 4 is correct.
The Nobel Peace Prize is awarded in Oslo, Norway.

Which bank has recently partnered with Social Worth Technologies Private Limited (Fibe) to launch India's first-ever numberless credit card?

((a))
Axis Bank
((b))
ICICI Bank
((c))
HDFC Bank
((d))
Indusind Bank
((e))
YES Bank

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Axis Bank

The correct answer is Axis Bank.

In News

This bank launches India’s first numberless credit card with no CVV, expiry date, or annual fee.

Key Points

Fibe, India’s leading Fintech and Axis Bank, one of the largest private sector banks in India, partnered to launch India’s first-ever numberless credit card for tech-savvy Gen Zs.
It aims to foster inclusivity and enhance accessibility for the diverse and growing consumer segment.
With a numberless credit card, customers get an added level of security as there is no card number, expiry date, or CVV printed on the card plastic.
This reduces the risk of identity theft or unauthorised access to customers' card details ensuring absolute security and privacy.
The card is powered by RuPay, which allows the customer to link this credit card to UPI.
The card is accepted across all offline stores in addition to all digital platforms.
It also offers the tap-and-pay feature for added convenience.
Axis Bank
Establishment year - 1993
HQ - Mumbai
MD & CEO - Amitabh Chaudhry

Additional Information

HDFC Bank
Establishment year - 1994
HQ - Mumbai
MD & CEO - Sashidhar Jagdishan
ICICI Bank
Establishment year - 1994
HQ - Mumbai
MD & CEO - Sandeep Bakshi
IndusInd Bank
Founded in - 1994
HQ - Pune
MD & CEO - Sumant Kathpalia
YES Bank
Founded in - 2004
HQ - Mumbai
CEO - Prashant Kumar

Consider the following regarding the Global Biofuels Alliance:

1. This Alliance will be aimed at facilitating cooperation and intensifying the use of sustainable biofuels, including in the transportation sector. 2. It will place emphasis on strengthening markets, facilitating global biofuels trade, developing concrete policy lesson-sharing, and providing technical support for national biofuels programs worldwide. 3. The GBA has been in the works for some time now and is a key initiative and priority under India’s G20 presidency.

Which of the above statements is/are correct here?

((a))
1 and 2 only
((b))
2 and 3 only
((c))
1 and 3 only
((d))
3 only
((e))
All of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

All of the above

The correct answer is All of the above.

In News

The Indian Express: PM formally launches Global Biofuels Alliance; 19 countries, 12 global bodies agree to join.

Key Points

The Global Biofuels Alliance (GBA):

It was formally launched recently by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in the presence of leaders of a number of partner countries on the sidelines of the G20 Summit in New Delhi. Hence statement 3 is correct.
The GBA has been in the works for some time now and is a key initiative and priority under India’s G20 presidency.
The alliance is aimed at facilitating international cooperation and intensifying the use of sustainable biofuels, along with facilitating global biofuels trade and technical support for national biofuel programmes. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The GBA, the effort for which was spearheaded by India, the United States, and Brazil, has been launched with nine initiating members–India, the US, Brazil, Argentina, Bangladesh, Italy, Mauritius, South Africa, and the United Arab Emirates–while Canada and Singapore are observer countries.
In all, 19 countries and 12 international organizations have already agreed to join the GBA.
Seven of the 19 countries are from the G20, four are among the G20 invitee countries, while eight are neither G20 members nor invitees.
The World Bank, Asian Development Bank, World Economic Forum, International Energy Agency, International Energy Forum, International Renewable Energy Agency, and International Civil Aviation Organization are among the organizations that have agreed to join the alliance.
Modi launched the GBA in the presence of leaders from the US, Brazil, the UAE, Singapore, Italy, Argentina, Bangladesh, and Mauritius.
“GBA will support worldwide development and deployment of sustainable biofuels by offering capacity-building exercises across the value chain, technical support for national programs and promoting policy lessons-sharing.
It will place emphasis on strengthening markets, facilitating global biofuels trade, developing concrete policy lesson-sharing, and providing technical support for national biofuels programs worldwide. Hence statement 2 is correct.
It will facilitate mobilizing a virtual marketplace to assist industries, countries, ecosystem players and key stakeholders in mapping demand and supply, as well as connecting technology providers to end users.
It will also facilitate development, adoption and implementation of internationally recognized standards, codes, sustainability principles and regulations to incentivize biofuels adoption and trade,” the government said in a release on Saturday.
After initial hiccups, India has tasted success in its ethanol-petrol blending programme in the past few years.
India achieved the target of 10 per cent ethanol blending in petrol in June last year, months ahead of the targetted timeline of November 2022.
The success in the ethanol blending programme prompted the government to advance the deadline for pan-India E20–petrol with 20 per cent ethanol–rollout to 2025-26 from 2030.
According to the government, the country is well on track to meet the revised E20 petrol timeline. India is also looking at blending diesel with suitable biofuels and natural gas with biogas.

Who has signed a MoU with Tata Power Solar Systems Limited to provide financing for Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) to set up solar rooftops?

((a))
State Bank of India
((b))
ICICI Bank
((c))
Axis Bank
((d))
Small Industries Development Bank of India
((e))
HDFC Bank

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Small Industries Development Bank of India

The correct answer is Small Industries Development Bank of India.

In News

Tata Power Solar and SIDBI collaborate to support MSME solar initiatives.

Key Points

Tata Power Solar Systems Ltd has signed an MoU with the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI).
The partnership aims to provide easier financing options to Micro, Small, and medium Enterprises who are keen on adopting solar energy solutions.
Tata Power Solar offers solar energy solutions from installation to operational maintenance and has so far provided 11.5 GWp ground-mounted solar capacity, over 1.7 GWp rooftop-mounted solar capacity systems, and more than 1 lakh solar water pumps.
The initiative has set up an online application process for MSMEs to avail the scheme benefits of the scheme.
It facilitate the ‘ease of opting’ renewable energy in the MSME sector and powers its quest to become more efficient and globally competitive.”
Small Industries Development Bank of India
SIDBI is the Financial Institution engaged in the promotion, financing & development of MSMEs.
Established on April 2, 1990.
Chairman - Sivasubramanian Ramann

Additional Information

HDFC Bank
Establishment year - 1994
HQ - Mumbai
MD & CEO - Sashidhar Jagdishan
Axis Bank
Establishment year - 1993
HQ - Mumbai
MD & CEO - Amitabh Chaudhry
ICICI Bank
Establishment year - 1994
HQ - Mumbai
MD & CEO - Sandeep Bakshi
SBI
Establishment year - 1955
HQ - Mumbai
Chairman - Dinesh Kumar Khara

Which of the following method securities are not issued directly to the public but through stock brokers, who in turn, resell them to the investing public in the primary market?

((a))
Offer through Prospectus
((b))
Offer for sale
((c))
Private placement
((d))
Rights Issue
((e))
e-IPOs

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Offer for sale

The correct answer is option 2, i.e. **Offer for sale.**

The term capital market refers to facilities and institutional arrangements through which long-term funds, both debt and equity are raised and invested.
The capital market consists of development banks, commercial banks, and stock exchanges.
The Capital Market can be divided into two parts:
Primary Market
Secondary Market
The primary market is also known as the new issues market.
It deals with new securities being issued for the first time.
The essential function of a primary market is to facilitate the transfer of investible funds from savers to entrepreneurs seeking to establish new

enterprises or to expand existing ones through the issue of securities for the first time.

There are various methods of floating new issues in the primary market :
| Private Placement | - Private placement is the allotment of securities by a company to institutional investors and some selected individuals. - It helps to raise capital more quickly than a public issue. - Access to the primary market can be expensive on account of various mandatory and nonmandatory expenses. - Some companies, therefore, cannot afford a public issue and choose to use private placement. | | --- | --- | | Offer through prospectus | - Offer through prospectus is the most popular method of raising funds by public companies in the primary market. - This involves inviting subscriptions from the public through the issue of prospectus. - A prospectus makes a direct appeal to investors to raise capital, through an advertisement in newspapers and magazines. - The issues may be underwritten and also are required to be listed on at least one stock exchange | | Offer for Sale | - Under this method, securities are not issued directly to the public but are offered for sale through intermediaries like issuing houses or stockbrokers. - In this case, a company sells securities enbloc at an agreed price to brokers who, in turn, resell them to the investing public. | | Rights Issue | - This is a privilege given to existing shareholders to subscribe to a new issue of shares according to the terms and conditions of the company. - The shareholders are offered the ‘right’ to buy new shares in proportion to the number of shares they already possess | | e-IPOs | - A company proposing to issue capital to the public through the on-line system of the stock exchange has to enter into an agreement with the stock exchange. This is called an Initial Public Offer (IPO). - SEBI registered brokers have to be appointed for the purpose of accepting applications and placing orders with the company. - The issuer company should also appoint a registrar to the issue having electronic connectivity with the exchange. |

Which company has recently acquired India's first Airbus A350-900 aircraft through a finance lease transaction with HSBC via the Gujarat International Finance Tec-City ?

((a))
Air India
((b))
IndiGo
((c))
Go First
((d))
Vistara
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Air India

The correct answer is Air India.

In News

Air India acquired the first aircraft through IFSC.

Key Points

Air India has achieved a significant milestone by acquiring India’s first Airbus A350-900 aircraft through its leasing unit based in Gujarat International Finance Tec-City (GIFT)-IFSC in Gandhinagar.
The transaction was made possible through a finance lease provided by HSBC announced by Air India.
It is the airline's first financing transaction from its record-setting orders for 470 aircraft.
Air India is the country's first scheduled carrier to have acquired an aircraft from an entity registered in Gujarat International Finance Tec-City (GIFT City).
Air India’s first A350-900 is also the first widebody aircraft to have been leased through India’s first International Financial Services Centre (IFSC).
Air India
Air India is the flag carrier of India.
Headquartered in New Delhi.
fully-ownedIt is a fully owned subsidiary of Tata Sons.

Additional Information

IndiGo
It is an Indian low-cost airline.
Headquartered in Gurgaon, Haryana, India.
It is the largest airline in India by passengers carried and fleet size, with a 63.4% domestic market share as of July 2023.
Go First
It was an Indian ultra-low-cost airline based in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
It was owned by the Indian business conglomerate, Wadia Group.
It commenced operations on 4 November 2005 and operated a fleet of Airbus A 320 aircraft in an all-economy configuration.
Vistara
It is an Indian full-service airline, based in Gurugram.
The airline serves 34 destinations with a fleet of Airbus A320neo, Airbus A 321neo, and Boeing 787-9 aircraft.

Who has been appointed as the 11th fund manager authorised to manage retirement savings within the National Pension System by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)?

((a))
LIC Pension Fund Managers
((b))
DSP Pension Fund Managers
((c))
Kotak Pension Fund Managers
((d))
HDFC Pension Fund Managers
((e))
SBI Pension Fund Managers

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

DSP Pension Fund Managers

The correct answer is DSP Pension Fund Managers.

In News

PFRDA picks the 11th fund manager for NPS.

Key Points

The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) is in the process of appointing DSP Pension Fund Managers as the 11th fund manager permitted to manage retirement savings under the National Pension System (NPS) and is looking to tap Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) to enhance its reach to citizens across the country.
NPS is mandatory for central and state government employees who joined the service after 2004, who account for a bulk of the Rs 10.22 lakh crore assets under its watch.
Currently, about 31 lakh people have joined the NPS on a voluntary basis, but that number is growing at about 25% a year.
DSP Pension Fund Managers
It was incorporated on 26 Nov 2012.
It is classified as a Non-govt company and is registered at Registrar of Companies, Mumbai.

Additional Information

Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)
Founded in - 2003
HQ - New Delhi
Chairperson - Deepak Mohanty

'Longpi Hampai pottery', is indigenously related to which of the following?

((a))
Mizoram
((b))
Meghalaya
((c))
Manipur
((d))
Assam
((e))
Nagaland

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Manipur

The Manipur-based indigenous "Longpi Hampai pottery" has started gaining prominence in the international markets owing to its intricate designs and technology used to produce them. The ancient art has originated from two Longpi villages in Manipur namely Longpi Khullen and Longpi Kajui near Ukhrul district. It is practised by Tangkhul community residing in the hill district of Manipur.

The RBI-DPI comprises 5 broad parameters that enable the measurement of the deepening and penetration of digital payments in the country over different time periods. Which of the parameters is not included in DPI??

((a))
Payment Enablers
((b))
Payment Infrastructure – Demand-side factors
((c))
Payment Infrastructure – Supply-side factors
((d))
Payment Performance
((e))
Retailer Centricity

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Retailer Centricity

The Correct answer is Retailer Centricity.

Key Points

Digital Payment Index (DPI):

Reserve Bank of India has constructed a composite Digital Payments Index (DPI) to capture the extent of digitization of payments across the country.
The RBI-DPI comprises 5 broad parameters that enable the measurement of the deepening and penetration of digital payments in the country over different time periods.
Payment Enablers (weight 25%)
Payment Infrastructure – Demand-side factors (10%)
Payment Infrastructure – Supply-side factors (15%)
Payment Performance (45%)
Consumer Centricity (5%)

Additional Information

Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

The Reserve Bank of India was established on April 1, 1935, in accordance with the provisions of the Reserve Bank of India Act 1934.
Since its Nationalisation in 1949, the Reserve Bank is fully owned by the Government of India.
AIM: To regulate the issue of Banknotes and keeping of reserves with a view to securing monetary stability in India and generally to operate the currency and credit system of the country to its advantage; to have a modern monetary policy framework to meet the challenge of an increasingly complex economy, to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth.
It is known as Banker's Bank.
The concept of financial inclusion was first introduced in India in 2005 by the Reserve Bank of India.
It has the power to provide and cancel the license to other commercials, and scheduled banks.
Headquarters: Mumbai.
Governor: Sanjay Malhotra

Which ministry launched Enhanced Access and Service Excellence-EASE 5.0 for state-run lenders?

((a))
Ministry of Labour & Employment
((b))
Ministry of Law and Justice
((c))
Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME)
((d))
Ministry of Mines
((e))
Ministry of Finance

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Ministry of Finance

The correct answer is 'Ministry of Finance'

Key Points

Finance and Corporate Affairs Minister Nirmala Sitharaman, on Wednesday, launched the fifth edition of Enhanced Access and Service Excellence-EASE 5.0, which spells out the common reforms agenda for public sector banks (PSBs) under the EASENext program.
It will entail strategic initiatives beyond EASE 5.0. The initiatives will be across diverse themes business growth, profitability, risk, customer service, operations, and capability building.
The launch event was attended virtually by Managing Directors CEOs and other senior executives of PSBs.
Under EASE 5.0, PSBs will continue to invest in new-age capabilities and deepen the ongoing reforms to respond to evolving customer needs, changing competition, and the technology environment. EASE 5.0 will focus on digital customer experience, and integrated and inclusive banking, with an emphasis on supporting small businesses and agriculture. Simultaneously, all PSBs will also create a bank-specific three-year strategic roadmap.

On the occasion of the 2nd edition of NPS Diwas observed on October 1, 2023, which pension management company has launched a first-of-its-kind 'National Pension System (NPS) Preference Index'?

((a))
HDFC Pension Management
((b))
SBI Pension Fund Management
((c))
Aditya Birla Sun Life Pension Management
((d))
ICICI Prudential Pension Fund Management
((e))
Kotak Mahindra Pension Fund Management

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

HDFC Pension Management

The correct answer is HDFC Pension Management.

In News

HDFC Pension Management Company launched a first-of-its-kind 'National Pension System (NPS) Preference Index.

Key Points

HDFC Pension Management Company has launched a first-of-its-kind National Pension System Preference Index on the occasion of the 2nd edition of NPS Diwas which was observed on 1st October 2023.
HDFC Pension also released the NPS Preference Index Study which is the industry's first Spotlight on NPS.
HDFC Pension commissioned an independent market research specialist, Ipsos for conducting the survey for the NPS Preference Index.
NPS Preference Index improves with increasing income level of the consumers. North region has the highest NPS preference index (57) compared to other regions.
HDFC Pension Management
It is a subsidiary of HDFC Life Insurance Company Ltd.
It is one of the Pension Fund Managers appointed by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority in India to manage funds for the National Pension System.

Additional Information

NPS Preference Index 2023
It is also a kind of index which can be tracked and links consumer behavior and their contribution towards NPS and the concept of retirement.
The aim of the survey is to access consumers' views on retirement and their awareness, interest, and contemplation of the NPS. This resulted in the framing NPS Preference Index, which can be tracked over time.

Which company that has been recently named as the official sponsor of the Indian Contingent for the 19th Asian Games 2022?

((a))
OPPO
((b))
MRF
((c))
Paytm
((d))
PUMA
((e))
Amul

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Amul

The correct answer is Amul.

In News

Amul Named Official Sponsor for India at Hangzhou Asian Games.

Key Points

Amul is named as the official sponsor of the Indian Contingent for the 19th Asian Games 2022 to be held in Hangzhou, China from September 23 to October 8, 2023.
Amul has partnered with Indian sportspersons through the Indian Olympic Association since the London 2012 Olympics for all Indian contingents to the Olympics, Commonwealth Games and Asian Games and we are pleased to further strengthen our decade-long relationship.
The India contingent will field 634 athletes at the Asian Games 2022 in Hangzhou across 38 different sports with the largest contingent of 65 in athletics.
Amul
Founded in - 1946
HQ - Gujarat
MD - RS Sodhi

Additional Information

OPPO
Founded in - 2004
HQ - China
President - Alfa Wang
MRF
Founded in - 1946
HQ - Chennai
Chairman - K.M. Mammen
Paytm
Founded in - 2010
HQ - Noida
CEO - Vijay Shekhar Sharma
PUMA
Founded in - 1948
HQ - Germany
CEO - Arne Fruendt

Which of the following commissions set-up by the President of India decides the distribution of tax incomes between the Central and State Governments?

((a))
Central Law Commission
((b))
Pay Commission for Government Employees
((c))
Administrative Reforms Commission
((d))
Planning Commission
((e))
Finance Commission

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Finance Commission

The Finance Commission came into existence in 1951. It was established under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution by the President of India. It was formed to define the financial relations between the centre and the state. The Finance Commission Act of 1951 states the terms of qualification, appointment and disqualification, the term, eligibility and powers of the Finance Commission

___ was established in the Year: 2000, as an Independent Authority, to Regulate and Develop the Insurance Industry.

((a))
Reserve Bank of India (R.B.I.)
((b))
Securities and Exchange Board of India (S.E.B.I.)
((c))
Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (I.R.D.A.)
((d))
Association of Mutual Funds in India (A.M.F.I.)
((e))
Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (P.F.R.D.A.)

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (I.R.D.A.)

The correct answer is Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (I.R.D.A.).

Key Points

Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (I.R.D.A.) was established in the Year: 2000, as an Independent Authority, to Regulate and Develop the Insurance Industry.
It is a statutory body formed under an Act of Parliament, i.e., the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 1999 (IRDA Act, 1999) for overall supervision and development of the Insurance sector in India.
The key objectives of the IRDAI include-
protecting the interest of policyholders
speedy and orderly growth of the insurance industry
speedy settlement of genuine claims
effective grievance redressal mechanism
promoting fairness, transparency, and orderly conduct in financial markets dealing with insurance, and prudential regulation while ensuring the financial security of the Insurance market.

Additional Information

The Reserve Bank of India (R.B.I.) is India's central bank that is under the ownership of the Ministry of Finance, Government of India, and is responsible for the regulation of the Indian banking system.
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (S.E.B.I.) is a regulatory body under the ownership of the Ministry of Finance, Government of India, responsible for the securities and commodity market in India.
The Association of Mutual Funds in India (A.M.F.I.) is responsible for developing the Indian Mutual Fund Industry on professional, healthy, and ethical lines.
The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (P.F.R.D.A.) is the regulatory body under the ownership of the Ministry of Finance, Government of India, responsible for the overall supervision and regulation of pensions in India.

Which of the following pairs are the top two stock broker companies in India?

((a))
Zerodha, Groww
((b))
Groww, Angel One
((c))
Angel One, Upstox
((d))
Zerodha, Upstox
((e))
Groww, Upstox

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Zerodha, Groww

The correct answer is Zerodha, Groww.

Key Points

Companies	Market Share (Approx)
Zerodha	18.3%
Groww	14.1%
Angel One	11.8%
Upstox	11.6%

Name the bank that has recently partnered with OneCard to launch mobile-first VISA Signature metal co-branded credit cards.

((a))
Punjab National Bank
((b))
Canara Bank
((c))
Bank of India
((d))
Indian Bank
((e))
Bank of Baroda

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Indian Bank

The correct answer is Indian Bank.

In News

Indian Bank partners with OneCard to launch mobile-first, premium credit cards.

Key Points

Indian Bank, a public sector bank in India, has announced its partnership with OneCard to introduce state-of-the-art, mobile-first, contactless, metal co-branded credit cards.
This partnership will empower users with full digital control over their credit card interactions — from real-time transaction tracking, spending management, EMI conversion, reward redemption, repayments, and monthly budget planning to credit limit adjustments and seamless payments, all in-app, Indian Bank.
Backed by an intuitive mobile app, this partnership will empower users with complete digital control over their credit card interactions — ranging from real-time transaction tracking, spending management, EMI conversion, reward redemption, repayments, monthly budget planning to credit limit adjustments, and seamless payments, all in-app.
The card follows the principles of simplicity, transparency, and giving consumers back power by enabling cardholders to monitor/track all of their credit card interactions via the feature-rich app.
Indian Bank
Founded in - 1907
HQ - Madras
MD & CEO - Shanti Lal Jain

Additional Information

Bank of Baroda
Establishment year - 1908
HQ - Vadodara
MD & CEO - Debadutta Chand
Punjab National Bank
Establishment year - 1894
HQ - New Delhi
MD & CEO - Atul Kumar Goel
Canara Bank
Establishment year - 1906
HQ - Karnataka
MD & CEO - K. Satyanarayana Raju
Bank of India
Founded in - 1906
HQ - Mumbai
CEO - Rajneesh Karnatak

Meta has partnered with which company for its latest AI model called LLAMA-2?

((a))
Google
((b))
Amazon
((c))
Microsoft
((d))
Facebook
((e))
AWS

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Microsoft

The correct answer is Microsoft.

In News

Meta partners with Microsoft for its latest AI model Llama-2

Key Points

Meta has announced the release of the commercial version of its open-source AI model Llama.
The AI model and its new version of Llama 2 will be distributed by Microsoft through its Azure cloud service and will run on the Windows operating system.
Llama can turn out to be a great alternative for pricy proprietary models sold by OpenAI like ChatGPT and Google Bard.
The broad availability and free accessibility of the advanced Llama model pose a significant challenge to the existing dominance in the emerging market for generative AI software.
Moreover, the new version of Llama has undergone training on 40% more data than its predecessor, incorporating over 1 million human annotations to enhance the quality of its outputs, as stated by Zuckerberg.

In May 2023, The gross GST revenue collected in the month of April, 2023 is ₹ 1,87,035 crore. What is the increment compared to April 2022 ?

((a))
20%
((b))
12%
((c))
18%
((d))
19%
((e))
25%

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

12%

The correct answer is 12%.

In News

India achieves highest ever GST revenue collection of over one lakh 87 thousand crore rupees in April 2023.

Key Points

The gross Goods and Services Tax (GST) revenue collected in April this year is the highest ever at over one lakh 87 thousand crore rupees.
Out of the total revenue, Central Goods and Services Tax (CGST) is 38 thousand 440 crore rupees, State Goods and Services tax (SGST) is 47 thousand 412 crore rupees, Integrated Goods and Services Tax (IGST) is 89 thousand 158 crore rupees, and cess is over 12 thousand crore rupees.
The Finance Ministry reported that the revenues for the month of April this year are 12 per cent higher than the GST revenues in the same month last year.
The increase in GST revenue collection could be attributed to the resumption of economic activities and higher compliance by taxpayers.
The GST Council, in its recent meeting, decided to waive the late fee for delayed filing of GST returns for the period of August 2017 to April 2021, which could further boost the compliance rate and revenue collection.

Additional Information

GST:
It is a value-added tax levied on most goods and services consumed in India.
It was introduced on July 1, 2017, replacing multiple indirect taxes, such as excise duty, service tax, and value-added tax, among others.
GST is governed by the GST Council, which is chaired by the Union Finance Minister and includes the finance ministers of all the states and union territories of India.
There are four types of GST rates: 5%, 12%, 18%, and 28%, depending on the type of goods or services being taxed. Some goods and services are exempt from GST, while others are taxed at a special rate.
GST is a destination-based tax, which means that the tax revenue is collected by the state where the goods or services are consumed, rather than where they are produced.

Which of the following schemes is/are related to the Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT)?

((a))
PMFBY
((b))
PM KISAN
((c))
NFSM
((d))
APY
((e))
All of the Above

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

All of the Above

The correct answer is All of the Above.

Key Points

PMFBY (Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana)
Insurance for Farmers: It offers insurance against crop failure.
Affordable Premiums: Farmers pay a very low premium for coverage.
Risk Mitigation: Aims to lessen the financial burden due to adverse weather or crop loss.
PM-KISAN (Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi)
Income Support Scheme: Direct cash transfer to farmers' bank accounts.
Fixed Amount: Eligible farmers receive ₹6,000 annually in three equal installments.
Aid for Small Farmers: Specifically targets small and marginal farmers.
NFSM (National Food Security Mission)
Increase Food Production: Aims to enhance the production of rice, wheat, pulses, and coarse cereals.
Improve Crop Yields: Focuses on high-yield agricultural practices and technology.
Address Food Security: Targets food security and self-sufficiency in staple foods.
APY (Atal Pension Yojana)
Pension Scheme: Provides a fixed pension for the unorganized sector workers.
Government Contribution: Government co-contributes to the subscriber's pension fund.
Guaranteed Pension: Offers a guaranteed pension of ₹1,000 to ₹5,000 per month after the age of 60.

What is the name of Israel's air defense system?

((a))
S 400 Defense System
((b))
Iron Dome
((c))
Air defense Dome
((d))
Kavach
((e))
Blanket Protector

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Iron Dome

The correct answer is Iron Dome

Key Points

Iron Dome is a short-range, ground-to-air, air defense system.
It is used for countering rockets, artillery & mortars (C-RAM) as well as aircraft, helicopters, and unmanned aerial vehicles.
It has been developed jointly by the Rafael Advanced Defense Systems and Israel Aerospace Industries.
The Iron Dome was deployed and became operational in 2011 in Israel.
The Iron Dome has three main systems that work together to provide a shield over the area where it is deployed, handling multiple threats.
It has detection and tracking radar to spot any incoming threats.
A battle management and weapon control system (BMC).
A missile firing unit.

Additional Information

In the recent conflict between Israel and Palestine, Iron Dome is being used by Isreal to counter the incoming rockets.
These rockets are being fired by Hamas which is a Palestinian militant group that rules Gaza.
Iron Dome has defended the Israeli Airspace from a barrage of rockets propelled by Hamas and Palestinian security forces.

English Language (35 questions)

Read the sentence carefully. You are given three descriptive words marked as A, B, and C. Determine which sequence of letters (A, B, C) correctly completes the sentence to convey a coherent and logical meaning. More than one sequence might be correct. Choose the option that correctly identifies all valid sequences.

The CEO's foresight regarding the company’s trajectory was audacious(A), delineated by pioneering(B) methodologies to circumvent market unpredictability and endorsed(C) by the entire organizational hierarchy.

((a))
ACB
((b))
CBA
((c))
CAB
((d))
Both 1 & 3
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

None of these

Correct Answer is Option 5.

Key Points

None of the options provide a sequence that correctly describes the intended meaning without semantic or grammatical errors**. Ideally, the sentence would start with describing the CEO's vision as "audacious," followed by mentioning how it is implemented ("pioneering methodologies"), and then finally noting that it is widely "endorsed."**

Additional Information

Audacious (साहसिक): Bold and innovative, often surprising or shocking due to its daring nature.
Example: His audacious plan to enter the untested market paid off beyond expectations.
Pioneering (अग्रणी): Being the first to use or apply new methods, especially in a groundbreaking way.
Example: The company's pioneering approach to using AI in manufacturing set industry standards.
Endorsed (समर्थित): Officially supported or approved, often by an authority or a significant part of an organization.
Example: The new policy, widely endorsed by the staff, aimed at improving work-life balance.

The legislative amendments were contentious(A), acclaimed(B) by the populace for their lucidity, and scrutinized(C) by diverse interest groups.

((a))
ABC
((b))
CAB
((c))
BCA
((d))
Both 1 & 3
((e))
All of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Both 1 & 3

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

Option 1: ABC
The amendments are first described as causing debate ("contentious"), but despite this, they are well-received ("acclaimed") for their clarity, and finally, they are thoroughly examined ("scrutinized") by various groups.
Reformed Sentence: The legislative amendments were contentious, acclaimed by the populace for their lucidity, and scrutinized by diverse interest groups.
Option 3: BCA
This sequence makes sense because the amendments could be praised, then examined by the public for their clarity, and finally be contentious among various groups.
Reformed Sentence: The legislative amendments were acclaimed, scrutinized by the populace for their lucidity, and contentious by diverse interest groups.
Hence, the correct options are 1 and 3.

Therefore, the correct answer is Both 1 & 3.

Additional Information

Contentious (विवादास्पद): Likely to cause disagreement or argument, often used to describe debates where opinions are strongly divided.
Example: The proposed zoning changes were contentious, with community members split in their support.
Acclaimed (प्रशंसित): Praised enthusiastically and publicly, highlighting acceptance or approval by a broad audience.
Example: The novel was critically acclaimed for its innovative narrative structure and depth of character development.
Scrutinized (जांचा गया): Examined carefully and thoroughly, often in a critical way, to ensure all aspects are considered.
Example: The data from the clinical trials was scrutinized by independent experts before publication.

The historical narrative was enriched(A) in its depiction of events, grounded (B) by a rich variety of sources, and comprehensive(C) in the author's personal insights.

((a))
ABC
((b))
ACB
((c))
BCA
((d))
Both 2 & 3
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

ABC

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

Option 1: ABC
Enriched" suggests that the depiction of events was made more detailed and valuable. "Grounded" indicates that these enrichments are well-supported by a variety of sources, adding credibility. "Comprehensive" describes the depth and thoroughness provided by the author's insights, giving a full and detailed perspective.
Reformed Sentence: The historical narrative was enriched in its depiction of events, grounded by a rich variety of sources, and comprehensive in the author's personal insights.

Additional Information

Enriched (समृद्ध किया गया): Adds value or interest to the narrative, making the depiction more engaging and informative.
Example: The documentary was enriched with first-hand accounts and archival footage, making it much more engaging for viewers.
Grounded (आधारित): Bases the narrative on solid foundations, ensuring it is supported by credible or varied sources.
Example: The biographer grounded his work in a vast array of previously unpublished letters and diaries.
Comprehensive (व्यापक): Indicates thoroughness and depth in the author’s insights, covering all relevant aspects.
Example: Her comprehensive analysis of the political context provided deep insights into the legislative changes.

The chef’s approach to traditional recipes is innovative(A), as seen in his meticulous(B) approach to ingredient selection and exemplified(C) in his cooking techniques.

((a))
CAB
((b))
BAC
((c))
ABC
((d))
Both 1 & 2
((e))
Both 2 & 3

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Both 2 & 3

The correct answer is Option 5.

Key Points

Option 2: BAC

This sequence portrays the chef as being very precise and detailed (meticulous) initially, applying creativity (innovative) in choosing ingredients, which is clearly demonstrated (exemplified) in how he cooks.
Reformed Sentence: The chef’s approach to traditional recipes is meticulous, as seen in his innovative approach to ingredient selection and exemplified in his cooking techniques.

Option 3: ABC

Here, the sentence begins by highlighting the chef's creativity and novelty (innovative) in his approach, supported by his careful and thorough method (meticulous) in selecting ingredients, and his techniques serve as a showcase (exemplified) of these qualities.

Reformed Sentence: The chef’s approach to traditional recipes is innovative, as seen in his meticulous approach to ingredient selection and exemplified in his cooking techniques.

Additional Information

Innovative (अभिनव): Characterized by new ideas, creative thoughts, or new imaginations in form of device or method.
Example: The chef’s innovative use of rare herbs brings a unique twist to traditional recipes.
Meticulous (सचेत और व्यवस्थित): Showing great attention to detail; very careful and precise.
Example: His meticulous nature is evident in how carefully he selects ingredients, ensuring the highest quality and freshness.
Exemplified (उदाहरण स्वरूप): To show or illustrate by example.
Example: His skill in blending flavours is exemplified by the complex taste profiles of his signature dishes.

The research highlighted the subtle(A) effects of climate change, which are often underscored(B) by rapid shifts in weather patterns and corroborated(C) by extensive scientific studies.

((a))
ABC
((b))
BAC
((c))
CBA
((d))
Both 1 & 3
((e))
Both 2 & 3

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Both 1 & 3

The correct answer is Both 1 & 3.

Key Points

Option 1: ABC

This sequence fits well because "subtle" describes the type of effects that are not immediately obvious, "underscored" means these subtle effects are emphasized by observable changes like rapid shifts in weather, and "corroborated" indicates these observations are supported by extensive research, providing a robust argument
Reformed Sentence: The research highlighted the subtle effects of climate change, which are often underscored by rapid shifts in weather patterns and corroborated by extensive scientific studies.

Option 3: CBA

In this sequence, "corroborated" serves as an excellent starting point, emphasizing that the findings are well-supported. The effects being "underscored by rapid shifts" suggests they are clearly highlighted by these changes, and ending with "subtle" implies that despite being evident and supported, these effects might still require careful observation to be fully appreciated. The term "subtle" works effectively as a concluding descriptor, enhancing the narrative that while the effects are proven and emphasized, their nuances might still be understated.
Reformed Sentence: The research highlighted the corroborated effects of climate change, which are often underscored by rapid shifts in weather patterns and subtle according to extensive scientific studies.
Correct Answer: 4) Both 1 & 3

Additional Information

Subtle: Refers to the less obvious, minor effects of climate change that are significant but not immediately apparent**.(सूक्ष्म)**
Example: Subtle changes like slight increases in average temperatures may not be dramatic but have long-term impacts.
Underscored: Highlights or emphasizes these subtle effects, making them more noticeable through related, often more visible changes like rapid shifts in weather patterns.(जोर दिया)
Example: Extreme weather events like sudden heavy rains and flooding underscore the ongoing, subtle changes in climate.
Corroborated: Supported or confirmed by additional evidence or data, especially through scientific research. (पुष्टि की)
Example: Scientific studies corroborate the subtle effects of climate change, providing data that verify changes in climate patterns.

Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

In the digital era, data privacy has become a cornerstone of consumer trust and business ethics. However, not all companies adhere to the sanctity of personal information. One glaring example emerged when a tech giant was accused of massive data breaches, affecting millions of users. This breach not only exposed sensitive personal information but also undermined public trust in digital enterprises.

This company, known for its extensive digital footprint, failed to secure its databases properly, leading to unauthorized access by cybercriminals. Personal details such as social security numbers, email addresses, and financial information were compromised, leaving consumers vulnerable to identity theft and fraud. The breach was not just a failure of technology but a stark revelation of the company’s lax approach to data security and regulatory ________.

Amidst the turmoil, an opponent company, CyberShield Inc., stepped into the spotlight, offering a stark contrast in the handling of data security. CyberShield Inc., a firm specializing in cybersecurity solutions, quickly addressed the pressing concerns raised by the breach. Recognizing the urgency to restore public confidence, they launched a new suite of privacy protection tools designed to safeguard user data effectively.

CyberShield’s response was swift and robust. They introduced an advanced real-time monitoring system that utilized artificial intelligence to detect potential breaches before they could inflict harm. Moreover, their new encryption protocols ensured that data, even if intercepted, would remain indecipherable to unauthorized parties. CyberShield also initiated widespread public awareness campaigns, educating consumers on safeguarding their digital footprints against such vulnerabilities.

Their proactive approach not only provided a blueprint for effective data management but also positioned CyberShield as a leader in the cybersecurity field. The company’s dedication to upholding data privacy contrasted sharply with the negligent practices of its competitor. By prioritizing user safety, CyberShield not only captured a significant market share but also established new industry standards for data protection.

This incident serves as a critical lesson for all digital enterprises: in the age of cyber threats, the protection of consumer data is not just a regulatory requirement but a fundamental component of customer trust and business integrity. Companies that fail to understand this risk not only legal repercussions but also irreversible damage to their reputation and consumer trust. In contrast, those who lead the way in cybersecurity measures set themselves apart in an increasingly competitive and privacy-conscious market.

What is implied about the impact of the data breach on consumers?

((a))
Consumers were indifferent to the breach of their personal data.
((b))
There was a significant shift in consumer trust away from companies that failed to protect data.
((c))
Consumers filed lawsuits against CyberShield Inc. for failing to protect their data.
((d))
The data breach had no real impact on consumer behavior or attitudes.
((e))
Consumers' financial information was unaffected by the breach.

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

There was a significant shift in consumer trust away from companies that failed to protect data.

The correct answer is option B.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's consider the implications of the data breach as described in the passage:
"The breach was not just a failure of technology but a stark revelation of the company’s lax approach to data security and regulatory compliance."
This sentence suggests that the breach significantly exposed the company's inadequacies in protecting user data, likely leading to a loss of trust among consumers. Such breaches typically result in consumers becoming wary of the affected company and similar organizations that may not demonstrate strong data protection practices.
Moreover, the passage mentions that "personal details such as social security numbers, email addresses, and financial information were compromised," highlighting the severe implications for consumers, thereby supporting the notion that trust would be significantly shifted away from the company.
Therefore, the correct answer is "There was a significant shift in consumer trust away from companies that failed to protect data."

How might the tech industry respond to the increasing occurrences of data breaches, as suggested by the passage?

((a))
There will likely be a decline in the use of digital platforms due to security concerns.
((b))
New regulations could push companies to adopt stricter security measures.
((c))
Companies might shift their focus from innovation to data protection.
((d))
Businesses are expected to downplay the importance of data security to maintain customer loyalty.
((e))
Most companies will ignore the need for change and continue with existing security protocols.

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

New regulations could push companies to adopt stricter security measures.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's have a look at the key points from the passage:
The incident of data breaches and the impact on consumer trust
The passage discusses how data breaches undermine public trust and highlight the necessity for stringent data security measures.
The proactive measures taken by CyberShield Inc.
CyberShield introduced advanced monitoring and encryption protocols to prevent such breaches.
The emphasis on regulatory adherence
The passage stresses the importance of companies adhering to regulations to protect consumer data.
Given these points, it is clear that the passage suggests that new regulations could push companies to adopt stricter security measures.

Therefore, the correct answer is "New regulations could push companies to adopt stricter security measures."

What is the likely effect of CyberShield Inc.'s proactive measures on its industry reputation?

((a))
CyberShield Inc. is recognized as taking advantage of the situation for marketing purposes.
((b))
The industry views CyberShield Inc.'s actions as standard and not particularly innovative.
((c))
CyberShield Inc. sets a new standard in the industry for how to handle data breaches effectively.
((d))
CyberShield's initiatives are seen as superficial and unlikely to provide real security improvements.
((e))
The company is criticized for not collaborating with other industry leaders to address the issue.

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

CyberShield Inc. sets a new standard in the industry for how to handle data breaches effectively.

The correct answer is option B.

Key Points

The passage describes CyberShield Inc.'s proactive measures in response to a data breach by another tech giant, highlighting their advanced real-time monitoring system, encryption protocols, and public awareness campaigns. The passage emphasizes that CyberShield's actions positioned them as a leader in the cybersecurity field and set new industry standards for data protection.
Based on this information, the most likely effect of CyberShield Inc.'s proactive measures on its industry reputation is:
3) CyberShield Inc. sets a new standard in the industry for how to handle data breaches effectively.

What likely influenced CyberShield Inc.'s decision to launch new privacy protection tools following the data breach incident?

((a))
A direct request from affected consumers.
((b))
Market research indicating a need for enhanced security products.
((c))
Competitive pressures from other tech companies.
((d))
The urgency to restore public confidence and trust in digital privacy.
((e))
Financial incentives offered by cybersecurity insurance providers.

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

The urgency to restore public confidence and trust in digital privacy.

The correct answer is option D.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's refer to the following information from the passage:
"CyberShield Inc., a firm specializing in cybersecurity solutions, quickly addressed the pressing concerns raised by the breach."
This indicates that CyberShield Inc. launched new privacy protection tools in direct response to the breach to address public concerns and restore confidence.
The urgency to restore public confidence and trust in digital privacy following a breach likely drove CyberShield to act swiftly, making option D the most plausible motivation.
Therefore, the correct answer is "The urgency to restore public confidence and trust in digital privacy."

Fill in the blank:

The breach was not just a failure of technology but a stark revelation of the company’s lax approach to data security and regulatory _______.

((a))
implementation
((b))
compliance
((c))
legislation
((d))
enforcement
((e))
protocol

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

compliance

The correct answer is Option B, 'compliance'.

Key Points

"Compliance" is the correct choice because it refers to the action or fact of complying with a wish or command. In the context of the passage, it accurately reflects the company's adherence to regulations concerning data security.
The passage discusses a breach that was not just a failure of technology but also revealed the company's lackadaisical approach to following rules and standards set for data protection and security.
Thus, "compliance" precisely captures the concept of the company failing to meet the required standards, making it the most suitable word to complete the sentence.

Additional Information

A) implementation
Incorrect Use: "Implementation" refers to the process of putting a decision or plan into effect. In the context provided, the focus is on adherence to rules rather than the execution of a strategy or policy, thus making "implementation" less appropriate.
C) legislation
Incorrect Use: "Legislation" typically refers to laws considered collectively. The context here is about the company's adherence to already established laws, not about the laws themselves, which makes "legislation" inappropriate for this sentence.
D) enforcement
Incorrect Use: "Enforcement" is about the act of compelling observance of or compliance with a law, rule, or obligation. It is more relevant to the actions taken by authorities rather than how a company adheres to these standards internally, thus "enforcement" does not fit the context.
E) protocol
Incorrect Use: "Protocol" refers to the official procedure or system of rules governing affairs. While related to compliance, "protocol" is more specific to the procedures followed rather than the broader concept of regulatory compliance, which is needed here.

Directions: The given question has three blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the combination of words that would fit in the blanks correctly.

Critics ________ Russia will use the ________ project to expand its ________ in Europe.

A. infrastructure

B. assume

C. fear

D. boundary

E. influence

((a))
BAD
((b))
EDA
((c))
DEC
((d))
CAE
((e))
ECA

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

CAE

The correct answer is 'CAE'

Key Points

Let's see the meanings of the given words-
infrastructure (NOUN)- the basic systems and services, such as transport and power supplies, that a country or organization uses in order to work effectively
assume(VERB)- to accept something to be true without question or proof
fear(VERB)- to be worried or frightened
boundary(NOUN)- a real or imagined line that marks the edge or limit of something
influence(NOUN)- the power to have an effect on people or things
In the first blank, we need a verb because there is a noun.
In the second blank, we need a noun because there is a definite article.
In the third blank, we need a noun for the possessive case(its).

So the correct sentence is → Critics fear Russia will use the infrastructure project to expand its influence in Europe.

Directions: The given question has three blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the combination of words that would fit in the blanks correctly.

A pandemic, an _________ crisis of historic proportions and a _________ endless upwards surge in the price of houses — it _________ an unlikely combination.

A. global

B. seemingly

C. look

D. economic

E. seems

((a))
ADC
((b))
ABE
((c))
DBE
((d))
DBC
((e))
ACE

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

DBE

The correct answer is 'DBE'

Key Points

Let's see the meanings of the given words-
global(adjective)- relating to the whole world
seemingly(adverb)- appearing to be something
look(verb)- to appear or seem
economic(adjective)- relating to trade, industry and money
seem(verb)- give the impression or sensation of being something or having a particular quality.
In the first blank, we need a noun that has a vowel sound because there is an indefinite article(an)
In the second blank, we need an adverb to modify the adjective(endless).
In the third blank, we need a verb used in the singular form because the pronoun is singular.

So the correct sentence is → A pandemic, an economic crisis of historic proportions and a seemingly endless upwards surge in the price of houses — it seems an unlikely combination.

Directions: The given question has three blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the combination of words that would fit in the blanks correctly.

The volume of _________ investment, particularly in the form of international _________ flows from major corporations, hedge _________ and other financial market actors.

A. large

B. institutional

C. capital

D. investment

E. funds

((a))
BCE
((b))
ADE
((c))
BDA
((d))
CDE
((e))
ABD

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

BCE

The correct answer is 'BCE'

Key Points

Let's see the meanings of the given words-
large(adjective)- big in size or amount
institutional(adjective)- relating to an institution
capital(noun)- money and possessions, especially a large amount of money
investment(noun)- the act of putting money
funds(noun)- money needed or available to spend on something
In the first blank, 'of' is a preposition and after the preposition, we write a noun/pronoun/gerund but here the prepositional object has been already mentioned so we need an adjective hence the correct answer is 'institutional'
In the second blank, we need a noun because there is already an adjective is used and after the blank, we have a verb.
In the third blank, we need a noun because hedge is a transitive verb hence according to the meaning the correct answer is 'funds.'

So the correct sentence is → The volume of institutional investment, particularly in the form of international capital flows from major corporations, hedge funds and other financial market actors.

Directions: The given question has three blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the combination of words that would fit in the blanks correctly.

The European Commission on Thursday _________ a plan to provide digital _________ for the EU’s 450 million residents to _________ their identity documents.

A. store

B. shrouded

C. bring

D. unveiled

E. wallets

((a))
DEC
((b))
BAC
((c))
BEC
((d))
BED
((e))
DEA

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

DEA

The correct answer is 'DEA'

Key Points

Let's see the meanings of the given words-
store(VERB)- to put or keep things in a special place
shroud(VERB)- to hide something by covering or surrounding it
bring(VERB)- to take or carry someone or something to a place
unveil(VERB)- If you unveil something new, you show it or make it known for the first time
wallet(NOUN)- a case for carrying paper or money
In the first blank, we need a verb because we have nouns on both sides.
In the second blank, we need a noun because there is already an adjective is used
In the third blank, we need a verb because, in this situation, we use a verb after preposition 'to'.

So the correct sentence is → The European Commission on Thursday unveiled a plan to provide digital wallets for the EU’s 450 million residents to store their identity documents.

100

Directions: The given question has three blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the combination of words that would fit in the blanks correctly.

Belgium has a ________ ID card that has a mobile app equivalent that is used to ________ taxes, carry out bank transfers or request ________ documents from local authorities.

A. mandatory

B. pay

C. key

D. amazing

E. all

((a))
DBA
((b))
ABE
((c))
ABC
((d))
ABD
((e))
DBC

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

ABC

The correct answer is 'ABC'

Key Points

Let's see the meanings of the given words-
mandatory(ADJECTIVE)- describes something which must be done, or which is demanded by law
pay(VERB)- to give something
key(ADJECTIVE)- very important
amazing(ADJECTIVE)- extremely surprising
all(DETERMINER)- the complete amount
In the first blank, we need a noun that has a consonant sound because there is an indefinite article(a)
In the second blank, we need a verb because, in this situation, we use a verb after preposition 'to'.
In the third blank, we need an adjective for the noun(documents).

So the correct sentence is → Belgium has a mandatory ID card that has a mobile app equivalent that is used to pay taxes, carry out bank transfers or request key documents from local authorities.

101

Direction: In this question, a paragraph with a blank space indicated by (______) is given. The blank space stands for a sentence which fits contextually but presently hidden. From the given alternatives, find the sentence which is/are perfect to fit in terms of grammar as well as the context in the blank space of the paragraph.

Infrastructure is a tricky business. When it comes to public infrastructure projects, the benefits are long-term but the costs are short-term. (______). So an elected leader gets all the flak from those who oppose this white elephant/blot on the landscape but none of the praise for the reduced traffic jams or cheaper power that ensue.

((a))
Private investors are happy to own infrastructure projects once they are up and running and delivering reliable yields, they are less keen on financing Greenfield projects with all the risks that go with them.
((b))
The politician that authorises the project is rarely the same one that opens it.
((c))
Infrastructure can have positive externalities that are not captured by investors but will benefit society (the building of the internet or America's interstate highway system, for example).
((d))
Far too many projects get build and the overall returns are disappointing.
((e))
All the given options fit.

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

The politician that authorises the project is rarely the same one that opens it.

The correct answer is 'The politician that authorises the project is rarely the same one that opens it.'

Key Points

The given passage is talking about the building of public infrastructure.
The word 'flak' means 'criticism'. The lines immediately following the blank are referring to an elected person that receives all the criticism for some reason.
Therefore, we need a sentence that is talking about the politician or an elected person.
All the options get eliminated except option 2 because only sentence 2 is talking about the politician.
It means that the politician who approves the project is rarely the same person who starts it, which is why elected officials face so much criticism.
Therefore, according to the given explanation, option 2 is the correct answer.

102

Direction: In this question, a paragraph with a blank space indicated by (______) is given. The blank space stands for a sentence that fits contextually but presently hidden. From the given alternatives, find the sentence which is/are perfect to fit in terms of grammar as well as the context in the blank space of the paragraph.

(____). By 2023 more than 4.5 million are expected every year- about the same as the country's resident population. Tourism has overtaken dairy produce as the biggest export, helped by a large number of visitors from China. They are seen to experience the natural beauty promised by the country's "100% pure New Zealand" advertising campaign and shown off in the film adaptations of "The Lord of the Rings" and 'The Hobbit", which were shot in New Zealand's breathtaking wilderness.

((a))
In 2016 New Zealand hosted 3.5 million tourists from overseas.
((b))
Tourists already contribute around NZ $1.1 billion through the country's 15 percent sales tax.
((c))
It would be difficult to prevent tourists from sneaking around the toll booths.
((d))
Many New Zealanders foresee a huge influx of foreigners who have been seeking to four national parks.
((e))
All the given options fit.

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

In 2016 New Zealand hosted 3.5 million tourists from overseas.

The correct answer is 'In 2016 New Zealand hosted 3.5 million tourists from overseas.'

Key Points

The given paragraph is talking about the large number of tourists who visit New Zealand.
The lines immediately following the blank mean that by 2023 it is expected that more than 4.5 million tourists (roughly the same as the population in the region) visit New Zealand.
According to the given explanation, sentence 1 will be the introductory sentence as it means that in 2016, New Zealand welcomed 3.5 million international visitors.
Therefore, option 1 is the correct answer.

Complete Paragraph: In 2016 New Zealand hosted 3.5 million tourists from overseas. By 2023 more than 4.5 million are expected every year- about the same as the country's resident population. Tourism has overtaken dairy produce as the biggest export, helped by a large number of visitors from China. They are seen to experience the natural beauty promised by the country's "100% pure New Zealand" advertising campaign and shown off in the film adaptations of "The Lord of the Rings" and 'The Hobbit", which were shot in New Zealand's breathtaking wilderness.

Additional Information

Let us learn some important words from the given paragraph:
resident: a person who lives somewhere permanently or on a long-term basis.
overtaken: become greater or more successful than.
breathtaking: astonishing or awe-inspiring in quality, so as to take one's breath away.
wilderness: a region uncultivated and uninhabited by human beings.

103

(______). Rising prosperity in the region means the cost of manual work, outsourced to the region is rising. Labour shortages loom. Certain jobs require craft skills which are becoming rarer. From the first sketch of a completely new pair of trainers to making and testing prototypes, ordering materials, sending samples back and forth, rebooting a factory, working up production, and eventually shipping the finished goods to the shops can take the industry as long as 18 months.

((a))
Currently, trainers (shoes) are made mostly by hand in giant factories, often in Asian countries, with people assembling components or shaping, bonding and sewing materials.
((b))
In Asia wealth is rising
((c))
Many people now have the wherewithal to avoid tasks that are thought of as manual and monstrous.
((d))
The company will use robots and novel production techniques such as 3D printing to reinvent its manufacturing process.
((e))
All the given options fit.

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

In Asia wealth is rising

The correct answer is 'In Asia wealth is rising'.

Key Points

From the lines, 'Rising prosperity in the region', it can be understood that the introductory sentence is talking about rising wealth in a particular region.
According to the above explanation, sentence 2 fits correctly in the given paragraph.
It means that Asia's wealth is increasing, and as the country's prosperity grows, the cost of manual labour exported to the region also grows.
Therefore, option 2 is the correct answer.

Complete Paragraph: In Asia wealth is rising. Rising prosperity in the region means the cost of manual work, outsourced to the region is rising. Labour shortages loom. Certain jobs require craft skills which are becoming rarer. From the first sketch of a completely new pair of trainers to making and testing prototypes, ordering materials, sending samples back and forth, rebooting a factory, working up production, and eventually shipping the finished goods to the shops can take the industry as long as 18 months.

Additional Information

Let us learn some important words/phrases from the given paragraph:
outsourced: obtain (goods or a service) by contract from an outside supplier.
loom: appear as a vague form, especially one that is large or threatening.
prototypes: the first, original, or typical form of something; an archetype; models
back and forth: moving in one direction and then the opposite and so making no progress in either. (backward and forward)
rebooting: to make a change in (something) in order to establish a new beginning:
eventually: in the end

104

Direction: In this question, a paragraph with a blank space indicated by (______) is given. The blank space stands for a sentence which fits contextually but presently hidden. From the given alternatives, find the sentence which is/are perfect to fit in terms of grammar as well as the context in the blank space of the paragraph.

Work smarter, not harder: It is one of the more irritating things a book can tell you. But at the macroeconomic level, it is important. Growth can come from having more labour (recruiting more workers, or making existing employees work for longer hours), more capital, or by using that labour and capital more effectively- something known as total factor productivity (TFP). This can come from the kind of brilliant innovations devised by Thomas Edison. (______)

((a))
This shows that at the global level, total factor productivity fell last year, was flat the two years before, and has barely budged since 2007.
((b))
It could also come from the less-heralded but equally important improvements such as the adoption of the moving conveyor belt to speed up assembly work.
((c))
Whatever the reason, economic growth did not rebound until productivity perked up
((d))
A recovery has been underway for a while.
((e))
Others might counter that the full benefits of new technology are not reflected in the data

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Whatever the reason, economic growth did not rebound until productivity perked up

The correct answer is 'Whatever the reason, economic growth did not rebound until productivity perked up'.

Key Points

The given paragraph emphasizes that only by using all the resources like labour, capital, work, etc. more effectively, growth will be attained. Overall, the passage discusses increasing productivity in order to achieve growth.
The word 'rebound' means 'to recover or increase in amount or value' and the phrase 'perk up' means 'to improve'.
Sentence 3 fits correctly in the paragraph as it means that the economic growth did not improve until productivity increased.
Therefore, from the given explanation, option 3 is the correct answer.

Complete Paragraph: Work smarter, not harder: It is one of the more irritating things a book can tell you. But at the macroeconomic level, it is important. Growth can come from having more labour (recruiting more workers, or making existing employees work for longer hours), more capital, or by using that labour and capital more effectively- something known as total factor productivity (TFP). This can come from the kind of brilliant innovations devised by Thomas Edison. Whatever the reason, economic growth did not rebound until productivity perked up.

105

Directions: Read the following sentence to determine if there is any grammatical or contextual error within it. If there is an error, it will be in one part of the sentence. Identify the part in which the error exists and mark it as your answer. Please consider the part in bold as grammatically correct. If there is no error, select E, i.e., 'No error' as your answer. Please ignore punctuation errors.

The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) / recommends QR codes on food products for ensure (A) / accessibility for visually impaired individuals, (B) / promoting informed consumer choices (C) / and addressing rising non-communicable diseases. (D) No error (E)

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

Part A of the sentence, i.e., 'recommends QR codes on food products for ensure' is erroneous.
The preposition "for" before the verb "ensure" should be replaced with "to" to make the sentence error-free.
The correct construction should be either "to ensure" or "for ensuring."
This follows the grammar rule that suggests using "to + verb first form" or "for + verb-ing."
Hence, the correct answer is A.
The correct sentence would be: "The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) recommends QR codes on food products to ensure accessibility for visually impaired individuals, promoting informed consumer choices and addressing rising non-communicable diseases."

Additional Information

Let's understand some important vocabulary given in the question:
Recommend - to suggest or advise something as the best course of action (सिफारिश करना)
For Example -
The doctor will recommend a specific treatment plan for your condition.
Ensure - to make certain that something will happen or be the case (सुनिश्चित करना)
For Example -
Double-check the locks to ensure the security of your home.
Accessibility - the quality of being easy to reach, use, or understand; the extent to which something can be accessed (अभिगम्यता)
For Example -
The new ramp at the entrance improved the accessibility of the building for people with disabilities.
Promoting - the act of supporting or encouraging the growth, development, or popularity of something (बढ़ाव देना)
For Example -
The company is actively promoting its new product through advertising and marketing campaigns.
Non-communicable - not capable of being transmitted from one person to another, typically used in the context of diseases that cannot be spread through direct contact (गैर-संवादनशील)
For Example -
Heart disease and diabetes are examples of non-communicable health conditions that are often related to lifestyle and genetics.

106

Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman expressed concerns (A) / about fuel, food security, and supply chain disruptions, (B) / emphasizing the need to prevent / essential supplies from becoming (C) / instruments of war and disruption. (D) No error (E)

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

The correct answer is option 5.

Key Points

The given sentence is error-free.
This sentence uses the past tense. It talks about Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman expressing concerns regarding fuel, food security, and supply chain disruptions, emphasizing the importance of preventing essential supplies from being used for war and disruption.
Let's understand some important vocabulary given in the question:
Concerns - feelings of anxiety, worry, or unease about something, often related to potential problems or issues (चिंताएँ)
For Example -
The environmental concerns about pollution have led to increased awareness of the need for sustainable practices.
Disruption - the act of interrupting or causing disorder in a process, system, or event, often resulting in a negative impact (विघटन)
For Example -
The strike by the workers caused a significant disruption in the company's production schedule.
Emphasize - to give special importance or attention to something, typically to highlight its significance (जोर देना)
For Example -
The teacher emphasized the importance of proper research in academic writing.
Prevent - to stop something from happening or avoid it altogether (रोकना)
For Example -
Regular exercise and a healthy diet can help prevent many health problems.
Essential - absolutely necessary or extremely important; fundamental (आवश्यक)
For Example -
Clean drinking water is essential for human survival.

107

If daily salt intake is reduced (A) / by five to eight grams, / the risk of cardiovascular disease can be lowered, (B) / and this reduction can help preventing (C) / obesity and high blood pressure. (D) No error (E)

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

Part C of the sentence, i.e., 'and this reduction can help preventing' is erroneous.
Here, the word "preventing" should be replaced with "prevent" to make the sentence error-free.
In this context, "help" should be followed by the base form of the verb "prevent."
Hence, the correct answer is C.
The correct sentence would be: "If daily salt intake is reduced by five to eight grams, the risk of cardiovascular disease can be lowered, and this reduction can help prevent obesity and high blood pressure."

Additional Information

Let's understand some important vocabulary given in the question:
Intake - the process of taking in something, typically referring to the consumption or absorption of substances such as food, liquid, or information (ग्रहण करना)
For Example -
Her daily intake of fruits and vegetables is essential for maintaining good health.
Reduction - the act of making something smaller or less in amount, size, or degree (कमी)
For Example -
The reduction in energy consumption has led to significant cost savings for the company.
Prevent - to stop something from happening or to avoid it from occurring (रोकना)
For Example -
Vaccinations can help prevent the spread of contagious diseases.
Obesity - a medical condition characterized by an excessive accumulation of body fat, often leading to health problems (मोटापा)
For Example -
Obesity is associated with an increased risk of heart disease and diabetes.

108

These companies exploit celebrity endorsements (A) / for seemingly harmless products like elaichi / to indirectly promote tobacco and nicotine items, (B) / capitalizing on legal loopholes and lucrative revenue, (C) / and casting ethical concerns beside. (D) No error (E)

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

Part D of the sentence, i.e., 'and casting ethical concerns beside' is erroneous.
The word "beside" in part D should be replaced with "aside" to make the sentence error-free because "aside" means to set something apart or put it to the side, while "beside" means next to.
In the context of the sentence, the correct term is "aside" to indicate that ethical concerns are being set aside or ignored.
Hence, the correct answer is D.
The correct sentence would be: "These companies exploit celebrity endorsements for seemingly harmless products like elaichi to indirectly promote tobacco and nicotine items, capitalizing on legal loopholes and lucrative revenue, and casting ethical concerns aside."

Additional Information

Let's understand some important vocabulary given in the question:
Exploit - to take advantage of a situation, often unfairly or unethically, for personal gain (शोषण करना)
For Example -
Some companies exploit cheap labour in developing countries to maximize their profits.
Endorsement - the act of publicly expressing support or approval for something, typically a product, service, or person (समर्थन)
For Example -
The celebrity's endorsement of the new fashion line boosted its popularity.
Promote - to support, encourage, or advance the growth or development of something (बढ़ावा देना)
For Example -
The company decided to promote their employees based on their performance.
Capitalizing - making the most of an opportunity, often for financial gain (लाभ उठाना)
For Example -
The entrepreneur was excellent at capitalizing on emerging trends in the market.
Loopholes - small gaps or weaknesses in rules, regulations, or systems that can be exploited or used to an advantage (कमियां)
For Example -
Some individuals try to find loopholes in tax laws to reduce their tax liability.
Revenue - income generated by a company or an individual, typically from sales of goods or services, investments, or other sources of earnings (आय)
For Example -
The company's revenue increased significantly after launching its new product.
Ethical - relating to principles of morality and what is considered right or wrong behaviour, often based on values, norms, and standards of conduct (नैतिक)
For Example -
Engaging in fair and honest business practices is not only legal but also ethical.
Lucrative - producing a lot of profit or financial gain, often describing a business or opportunity that is highly profitable (लाभकारी)
For Example -
Investing in the real estate market can be lucrative if you make informed decisions and choose the right properties.

109

The shift towards the gig economy (A) / and short-term contracts poses an unique (B) / challenge for India, where a growing youth population (C) / seeks dignified work / and social security amid rapid economic growth. (D) No error (E)

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

Part B of the sentence, i.e., 'and short-term contracts poses an unique' is erroneous.
The article "an" before "unique" in part B of the sentence should be replaced with the article "a" to make the sentence error-free because "unique" begins with a consonant sound, so "a" is the appropriate indefinite article to use. "An" is used before words that start with vowel sounds.
Hence, the correct answer is B.
The correct sentence would be: "The shift towards the gig economy and short-term contracts poses a unique challenge for India, where a growing youth population seeks dignified work and social security amid rapid economic growth."

Additional Information

Let's understand the use of articles "a," "an," and "the"

"A" and "An" (Indefinite Articles):

"A" is used before words that begin with consonant sounds.
"An" is used before words that begin with vowel sounds.
For Example:
I saw a cat in the garden.
(Here, "a" is used before "cat," a word starting with a consonant sound)
She ate an apple for a snack.
(Here, "an" is used before "apple," a word starting with a vowel sound)

"The" (Definite Article):

"The" is used to specify a particular or known thing or person.
For Example:
The book on the table is mine.
(Here, "the" is used to refer to a specific book on the table, which the speaker and listener both know about.)

110

Film critics often faces pressure to (A) / write positive reviews or risk losing / access to exclusive screenings, (B) / talent interactions, and merchandise due to (C) / the influence of marketing and social media fandom. (D) No error (E)

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

Part A of the sentence, i.e., 'Film critics often faces pressure to' is erroneous.
The word "faces" should be replaced with "face" to agree with the subject "film critics" (plural) and make the sentence error-free.
The subject "film critics" is plural, so the verb should also be plural, which is "face."
Hence, the correct answer is A.
The correct sentence would be: "Film critics often face pressure to write positive reviews or risk losing access to exclusive screenings, talent interactions, and merchandise due to the influence of marketing and social media fandom."

Additional Information

Let's understand some important vocabulary given in the question:
Critics - individuals who evaluate and provide feedback on various forms of art, media, or other creative works, often offering opinions, analysis, and reviews (निन्दक)
For Example:
The movie received mixed reviews from critics, with some praising the acting and others criticizing the plot.
Reviews - assessments or evaluations of a product, service, performance, or other aspects, typically shared by consumers or experts (समीक्षा)
For Example:
Before making a purchase, I always read online reviews to get an idea of the product's quality.
Exclusive - limited to a specific group, individual, or audience; not widely available or accessible (विशेष)
For Example:
The club offers exclusive membership benefits, including access to private events and discounts.
Merchandise - products, goods, or items that are bought and sold, often associated with a particular brand, organization, or event
For Example:
The concert featured a wide range of merchandise, including T-shirts, posters, and albums.
Influence - the capacity or power to affect or shape the thoughts, actions, or decisions of others (प्रभाव)
For Example:
Her speeches have the potential to influence public opinion and inspire change.
Fandom - a passionate and dedicated community of fans who are enthusiastic about a particular person, brand, or work of fiction (प्रशंसक समुदाय)
For Example:
The Harry Potter fandom is known for its deep appreciation of the books and movies, often organizing fan events and discussions.

Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

In recent years, minimalism has emerged as a guiding philosophy, advocating for a simplified and intentional approach to life. Sudha Murty, a prominent writer and philanthropist, recently addressed a gathering dominated by children and young adults, urging them to embrace a minimalist lifestyle. This concept, gaining traction, especially in developed nations, aims to unburden individuals from unnecessary baggage, fostering a more peaceful and contented existence. At its core, minimalism encourages making intelligent choices about what to keep and what to eliminate, with decluttering serving as its cornerstone. Bedrooms, often the most cluttered spaces in many homes, can significantly impact occupants' well-being and sleep habits. Advocates of minimalism suggest opting for minimalist bedrooms with streamlined wardrobes, creating environments conducive to focus and relaxation. Toys, too, occupy considerable space in modern households. Minimalism suggests decluttering by either eliminating unused items or donating them to orphanages, promoting a more purposeful use of living space. The philosophy extends beyond physical possessions, calling for a modification of lifestyle, a shift in mindset, and a reduction in unnecessary comforts. It emphasizes satisfying needs over succumbing to greed, prompting individuals to scrutinize each purchase for its absolute necessity.

Minimalism provides tangible benefits, including a more economical use of money and resources, decluttered living spaces, reduced waste generation, and a lower environmental impact. Fewer possessions translate to fewer distractions and increased happiness within the home. The philosophy encourages the use of convertible or multipurpose furniture, promoting a more efficient and versatile use of space. The kitchen, often prone to becoming a dumping ground for unnecessary items, is another target for minimalism. Advocates recommend buying only essential, locally sourced food items to minimise carbon emissions from transportation. Emphasizing nutrient-dense, environmentally friendly food choices, the philosophy suggests a mindful approach to consumption. In the digital age, minimalism extends to academics, researchers, and readers, urging them to replace printed books with digital versions. This not only saves space but also reduces the pressure on forests by decreasing paper consumption. The philosophy encourages the purchase of durable, reusable products, discouraging reliance on single-use items. It even suggests carrying reusable utensils during travel to minimise pollution from disposable items.

Consumerism, deeply entrenched in modern society, often leads to impulsive and unnecessary purchases. Minimalist living advises individuals to ________ spending, avoid falling into the consumerist trap set by supermarkets and shopping malls, and focus on intentional, essential purchases. The philosophy advocates for a holistic approach, encouraging individuals to declutter not only their physical spaces but also their thoughts, memories, and practices. In conclusion, minimalism is more than a trend; it is a way of life that promises dividends when embraced intentionally. Sudha Murty's call for a minimalist lifestyle resonates with the growing desire for simplicity and purpose in an increasingly complex world. By deliberately simplifying and decluttering various aspects of life, individuals can experience the tangible benefits of minimalism, leading to a more fulfilling and mindful existence.

111

Which of the following words is similar in meaning to "conducive" in the context of the passage?

((a))
haphazard
((b))
propitious
((c))
irrelevant
((d))
tenacious
((e))
superficial

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

propitious

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's first understand the meaning of the highlighted word "conducive" in the context of the passage:
Conducive - making a certain situation or outcome likely or possible; favourable (अनुकूल)
For Example:
A quiet and peaceful environment is conducive to studying.
Now, let's consider the options:
Haphazard - lacking any obvious principle of organization; random (अनियमित)
For Example:
The haphazard arrangement of items made it difficult to find what we needed.
Propitious - giving or indicating a good chance of success; favourable (अनुकूल)
For Example:
The propitious weather conditions favoured a successful outdoor event.
Irrelevant - not connected with or relevant to something (अनयोग्य)
For Example:
The speaker's comments were irrelevant to the topic under discussion.
Tenacious - tending to keep a firm hold of something; clinging or adhering closely (दृढ़)
For Example:
The tenacious climber reached the summit despite the challenging conditions.
Superficial - existing or occurring at or on the surface; not deep or profound (सतही)
For Example:
Her analysis was superficial and did not address the underlying issues.
So, after understanding the meaning of the highlighted word "conducive" and all the words given as options, we can conclude that the word "propitious" is the most similar in meaning to the word "conducive" in the context of the passage, as both words convey a sense of favorability or likelihood of success.
Therefore, the correct answer is "Propitious."

112

Which of the following words is opposite in meaning to "impulsive" in the context of the passage?

((a))
extravagant
((b))
inanimate
((c))
deliberate
((d))
spontaneous
((e))
compulsive

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

deliberate

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's first understand the meaning of the highlighted word "impulsive" in the context of the passage:
Impulsive - acting or done without forethought; acting on sudden urges or desires (अविवेकी)
For Example -
Her impulsive decision to buy the expensive dress without considering her budget led to financial problems.
Now, let's consider the options:
Extravagant - exceeding what is reasonable or appropriate; excessive (अत्यधिक)
For Example -
His extravagant spending on luxury items left him with little savings.
Inanimate - lacking the qualities of living things; not animated (अजीव)
For Example -
The inanimate objects in the room gave it a cold and lifeless atmosphere.
Deliberate - done consciously and intentionally; careful and unhurried (सोच-समझकर)
For Example -
After deliberate consideration, he chose the most suitable option.
Spontaneous - performed or occurring as a result of a sudden inner impulse or inclination (स्वतंत्र)
For Example -
Their spontaneous decision to go on a road trip turned out to be a memorable adventure.
Compulsive - resulting from or relating to an irresistible urge, especially one that is against one's conscious wishes (अनिवार्य)
For Example -
Her compulsive need to check her phone every few minutes was a challenge during meetings.
So, after understanding the meaning of the highlighted word and the meanings of all the words given as options, we can conclude that the word that is opposite in meaning to "impulsive" in the context of the passage is "deliberate." Impulsive actions are done without careful thought, while deliberate actions are conscious and intentional.
Therefore, the correct answer is "deliberate."

113

Which of the following words should fill in the blank taken from the passage?

Minimalist living advises individuals to ________ spending, avoid falling into the consumerist trap set by supermarkets and shopping malls, and focus on intentional, essential purchases.

((a))
ponder
((b))
amplify
((c))
elaborate
((d))
curtail
((e))
meander

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

curtail

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's first examine the sentence with the blank from the passage:

"Minimalist living advises individuals to ________ spending, avoid falling into the consumerist trap set by supermarkets and shopping malls, and focus on intentional, essential purchases."

The sentence suggests that minimalist living recommends a specific approach to spending, aiming to avoid impulsive and unnecessary purchases influenced by consumerism.
The word to fill the blank should convey the idea of reducing or restricting spending deliberately and mindfully.
Now, let's explore the meanings of the provided options:
Ponder - to think about carefully; consider (विचार करना)
For Example -
Before making a significant purchase, it's essential to ponder its necessity and long-term value.
Amplify - to make larger, more significant, or more intense (बढ़ाना)
For Example -
The marketing campaign aimed to amplify the brand's visibility through various channels.
Elaborate - involving many careful details; thorough and complicated in design (विस्तार से कहना)
For Example -
The architect presented an elaborate plan for the renovation, including intricate design elements.
Curtail - to reduce the extent or quantity of; restrict (कम करना)
For Example -
To save energy, the company decided to curtail its operating hours during non-peak times.
Meander - to move slowly in no particular direction or with no clear purpose (भटकना)
For Example -
The river meandered through the valley, creating a picturesque landscape.
So, considering the context of the sentence, the word that aligns best with the idea of advising individuals to restrict or reduce spending intentionally and focus on essential purchases is "curtail." It accurately captures the notion of restricting spending to avoid unnecessary purchases influenced by consumerism.
Therefore, the correct answer is "Curtail."

114

What is the primary goal of minimalism, as mentioned in the passage?

((a))
To encourage impulsive purchases and consumerism.
((b))
To foster a more complex and cluttered existence.
((c))
To emphasize unnecessary comforts and indulgence.
((d))
To promote a simplified and intentional approach to life.
((e))
To discourage individuals from scrutinizing their purchases.

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

To promote a simplified and intentional approach to life.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's refer to the following information from the first paragraph of the passage about the primary goal of minimalism:
"In recent years, minimalism has emerged as a guiding philosophy, advocating for a simplified and intentional approach to life."
From this part of the passage, it is evident that the primary goal of minimalism is to promote a simplified and intentional approach to life. The philosophy encourages individuals to make intelligent choices about what to keep and what to eliminate, emphasizing a decluttered and purposeful existence.
Therefore, the correct answer is "To promote a simplified and intentional approach to life."

115

Which of the following sentences are TRUE/FALSE according to the passage?

A. Sudha Murty advocates for a minimalist lifestyle, addressing the importance of intentional living.

B. Bedrooms and kitchens are suggested spaces for minimalist approaches, promoting focus and eco-friendly habits.

C. Minimalism, gaining traction in developed nations, aims to unburden individuals for a contented existence.

((a))
Only B is true
((b))
Both A and B are false
((c))
Only A is true
((d))
All A, B, and C are false
((e))
All A, B, and C are true

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

All A, B, and C are true

The correct answer is option 5.

Key Points

To address the given question, let's examine each sentence given in the question:

Sentence A: Sudha Murty advocates for a minimalist lifestyle, addressing the importance of intentional living.
This sentence is true. The passage explicitly mentions Sudha Murty addressing a gathering dominated by children and young adults, urging them to embrace a minimalist lifestyle. She emphasizes the importance of intentional living.
Sentence B: Bedrooms and kitchens are suggested spaces for minimalist approaches, promoting focus and eco-friendly habits.
This sentence is true. The passage indicates that minimalism suggests creating minimalist bedrooms with streamlined wardrobes to promote focus and relaxation. It also recommends a minimalist approach in the kitchen by buying only essential, locally sourced food items to minimize environmental impact.
Sentence C: Minimalism, gaining traction in developed nations, aims to unburden individuals for a contented existence.
This sentence is true. The passage mentions that minimalism has gained traction, especially in developed nations, and aims to unburden individuals from unnecessary baggage for a more peaceful and contented existence.
So, out of the given sentences, all sentences A, B, and C are true based on the passage.
Therefore, the correct answer is "All A, B, and C are true."

116

In the context of the passage, what is suggested to minimize carbon emissions in the kitchen?

((a))
Buying only essential, locally sourced food items.
((b))
Maintaining a diverse range of international food choices.
((c))
Supporting local farmers by purchasing a variety of items.
((d))
Using eco-friendly disposable utensils during travel.
((e))
Emphasizing quantity and variety in food choices.

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Buying only essential, locally sourced food items.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's refer to the following information from the second paragraph of the passage regarding minimizing carbon emissions in the kitchen:
"Advocates recommend buying only essential, locally sourced food items to minimize carbon emissions from transportation. Emphasizing nutrient-dense, environmentally friendly food choices, the philosophy suggests a mindful approach to consumption."
From this part of the passage, it is evident that the passage suggests minimizing carbon emissions in the kitchen by buying only essential, locally sourced food items. The philosophy encourages a mindful approach to consumption, emphasizing nutrient-dense and environmentally friendly food choices to reduce the carbon footprint associated with transportation.
Therefore, the correct answer is "Buying only essential, locally sourced food items."

117

According to the passage, what are some of the tangible benefits of minimalism mentioned?

((a))
Accumulating more possessions for a luxurious lifestyle.
((b))
More economical use of money and resources.
((c))
Promoting focus and heightened happiness within the home.
((d))
Enhancing environmental sustainability by generating minimal waste.
((e))
Fostering intentional and purposeful purchases.

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

More economical use of money and resources.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's refer to the following information from the second paragraph of the passage regarding the tangible benefits of minimalism:
"Minimalism provides tangible benefits, including a more economical use of money and resources, decluttered living spaces, reduced waste generation, and a lower environmental impact."
From this part of the passage, it is evident that the tangible benefits of minimalism include a more economical use of money and resources, along with decluttered living spaces, reduced waste generation, and a lower environmental impact. The philosophy advocates for intentional and purposeful purchases, emphasizing quality over quantity and promoting a mindful approach to consumption.
Therefore, the correct answer is "More economical use of money and resources."

118

Which of the following best describes the summary of the given passage?

((a))
Sudha Murty promotes minimalism to create clutter-free bedrooms and encourages mindful food choices, extending it to academics and travel utensils.
((b))
Minimalism, a guiding philosophy, emphasizes intentional living, decluttering physical spaces, and reducing waste, with Sudha Murty advocating its benefits for a fulfilling existence.
((c))
The passage discusses the popularity of minimalism, focusing on bedroom decluttering, toy management, and the use of digital resources, with a call for intentional living.
((d))
Sudha Murty's minimalist lifestyle suggestion involves converting to digital books, reducing kitchen waste, and advocating reusable travel utensils for a mindful existence.
((e))
The philosophy of minimalism, highlighted by Sudha Murty, mainly focuses on converting to digital books, reducing kitchen waste, and advocating reusable travel utensils for a mindful existence.

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Minimalism, a guiding philosophy, emphasizes intentional living, decluttering physical spaces, and reducing waste, with Sudha Murty advocating its benefits for a fulfilling existence.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

To answer this question, first, read the passage carefully and understand what the passage is about.

The passage discusses the philosophy of minimalism, highlighting its emergence as a guiding principle in recent years. Sudha Murty, a prominent figure, advocates for a minimalist lifestyle, emphasizing intentional living and decluttering as its core principles. The philosophy extends beyond physical possessions, encompassing lifestyle modifications, mindset shifts, and a reduction in unnecessary comforts. Minimalism is portrayed as more than just a trend, offering tangible benefits such as the economical use of resources, decluttered living spaces, and reduced environmental impact.

Now, let's analyze the options:
Option 1: "Sudha Murty promotes minimalism to create clutter-free bedrooms and encourages mindful food choices, extending it to academics and travel utensils."
This option is incorrect, as it focuses on specific aspects mentioned in the passage but doesn't capture the broader essence of minimalism and its benefits.
Option 2: "Minimalism, a guiding philosophy, emphasizes intentional living, decluttering physical spaces, and reducing waste, with Sudha Murty advocating its benefits for a fulfilling existence."
This option is correct, as it accurately summarizes the main points of the passage, highlighting the guiding philosophy of minimalism, intentional living, and Sudha Murty's advocacy.
Option 3: "The passage discusses the popularity of minimalism, focusing on bedroom decluttering, toy management, and the use of digital resources, with a call for intentional living."
This option is incorrect, as it narrows down the focus to specific details and doesn't capture the broader message of minimalism and its benefits.
Option 4: "Sudha Murty's minimalist lifestyle suggestion involves converting to digital books, reducing kitchen waste, and advocating reusable travel utensils for a mindful existence."
This option is partially correct, as it mentions specific suggestions by Sudha Murty, but it doesn't encompass the broader philosophy of minimalism as discussed in the passage.
Option 5: "The philosophy of minimalism, highlighted by Sudha Murty, mainly focuses on converting to digital books, reducing kitchen waste, and advocating reusable travel utensils for a mindful existence."
This option is similar to option 4 and is partially correct, but it still doesn't fully capture the comprehensive nature of minimalism discussed in the passage.
So, the most fitting statement summarizing the essence of the passage is option 2, emphasizing the guiding philosophy of minimalism, intentional living, decluttering physical spaces, and reducing waste, with Sudha Murty advocating its benefits for a fulfilling existence.
Therefore, the correct answer is "Minimalism, a guiding philosophy, emphasizes intentional living, decluttering physical spaces, and reducing waste, with Sudha Murty advocating its benefits for a fulfilling existence."

119

Directions: In the following sentence, a blank is given. Choose the pair of words from the options provided that best completes the sentence, making it grammatically correct and contextually meaningful. Note that both words in the selected pair should be capable of filling the blank appropriately.

Doctors, facing time constraints and limited resources, choose antibiotics over ________ examinations in overcrowded outpatient units.

((a))
rigorous, superficial
((b))
comprehensive, thorough
((c))
irrelevant, perfunctory
((d))
extraneous, irrelevant
((e))
exhaustive, superficial

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

comprehensive, thorough

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's first understand the given sentence:

Doctors, facing time constraints and limited resources, choose antibiotics over ________ examinations in overcrowded outpatient units.

This sentence highlights that doctors, due to time and resource constraints, opt for antibiotics over comprehensive examinations in crowded outpatient units.
The word that should fill in the blank is likely to indicate thorough patient assessments.
Now, let's understand the meanings of the words given as options:
Rigorous (adjective) - thorough and accurate; demanding strict attention to standards and procedures (कठोर)
For Example -
The research study underwent rigorous scrutiny by experts before publication.
Superficial (adjective) - shallow or lacking in depth; concerned only with what is apparent or obvious (सतही)
For Example -
Her analysis of the complex issue was criticized for being superficial and overlooking key factors.
Comprehensive (adjective) - complete and thorough; covering all or nearly all elements or aspects (व्यापक)
For Example -
The comprehensive report on the market trends provided valuable insights for investors.
Thorough (adjective) - detailed and exhaustive; complete in every respect (विस्तृत)
For Example -
The detective conducted a thorough investigation to unravel the mystery.
Irrelevant (adjective) - not connected or applicable to the matter at hand; unrelated or immaterial (अनुपयुक्त)
For Example -
The speaker's comments were deemed irrelevant to the main topic of the discussion.
Perfunctory (adjective) - carried out with minimal effort or enthusiasm; done in a routine and mechanical way (स्वाभाविक)
For Example -
His perfunctory response to the important question raised concerns about his commitment.
Extraneous (adjective) - unrelated or irrelevant to the subject being dealt with; unnecessary or superfluous (अनावश्यक)
For Example -
The professor urged students to avoid including extraneous information in their research papers.
Exhaustive (adjective) - thorough and comprehensive; covering all possible details or aspects (पूर्ण)
For Example -
The exhaustive list of references in the bibliography demonstrated the depth of the research.
So, after understanding the given sentence and the meanings of the given words, we can conclude that the pair of words that best completes the sentence is "comprehensive, thorough" (option 2). This choice fits the context well, as it conveys the idea that doctors, due to time and resource constraints, choose antibiotics over comprehensive examinations in overcrowded outpatient units. This choice aligns with the need for a comprehensive/thorough assessment of patients.
The complete sentence would be: "Doctors, facing time constraints and limited resources, choose antibiotics over comprehensive/thorough examinations in overcrowded outpatient units."
Therefore, the correct answer is "comprehensive, thorough."

120

In restaurants, AI could create ________ meals based on diners' tastes, overcoming the limitations of standardized menus.

((a))
standardized, customized
((b))
customized, uniform
((c))
generic, individualized
((d))
personalized, tailored
((e))
specialized, common

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

personalized, tailored

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's first understand the given sentence:

In restaurants, AI could create ________ meals based on diners' tastes, overcoming the limitations of standardized menus.

This sentence highlights how AI could conjure customized meals reflecting diners' preferences, surpassing the confines of standardized menus for a more tailored culinary experience.
The word that should fill in the blank is likely to indicate customized meals tailored to individual preferences.
Now, let's understand the meanings of the words given as options:
Standardized (adjective) - Conforming to a set of standards or a common specification, making things consistent and uniform (मानकीकृत)
For Example -
The company implemented standardized testing procedures to ensure product quality.
Customized (adjective) - Tailored or modified according to specific requirements or individual preferences (अनुकूलित)
For Example -
The software allows users to create customized settings based on their unique needs.
Uniform (adjective) - Unchanging and consistent, lacking variations or differences (समान)
For Example -
The company enforces a uniform dress code to maintain a professional image.
Generic (adjective) - General, not specific to any particular individual or group; lacking distinctive features (सामान्य)
For Example -
The store offers generic products that cater to a wide range of customers.
Individualized (adjective) - Tailored or designed for a specific individual, considering unique characteristics or preferences (व्यक्तिगत)
For Example -
The training program provides individualized coaching to address each employee's needs.
Personalized (adjective) - Customized or tailored to an individual's personal preferences or characteristics (व्यक्तिगत)
For Example -
Many online services offer personalized recommendations based on user preferences.
Tailored (adjective) - Customized or adjusted to fit specific requirements or individual needs (विशेष रूप से बनाया गया)
For Example -
The designer tailored the dress to perfection, ensuring it complemented her client's unique style.
Specialized (adjective) - Designed or developed for a specific purpose or field of expertise (विशेषज्ञ)
For Example -
The hospital has specialized equipment for conducting advanced medical procedures.
Common (adjective) - Shared by or applicable to a group of people; not unique or individualized (सामान्य)
For Example -
The common goal of the team is to achieve success in the upcoming project.
So, after understanding the given sentence and the meanings of the given words, we can conclude that the pair of words that best completes the sentence is "personalized, tailored" (Option 4). This choice conveys the idea that AI could create meals customized to individual preferences, and the use of both words fits well in the context of overcoming the limitations of standardized menus in restaurants.
The complete sentence would be: "In restaurants, AI could create personalized/tailored meals based on diners' tastes, overcoming the limitations of standardized menus."
Therefore, the correct answer is "personalized, tailored."

Data Analysis & Interpretation (35 questions)

A survey of certain restaurants was conducted in four restaurants A, B, C and D on 16th November 2019 was collected. It was found that while making a transaction customers used either Debit card or Cash. Out of those making transactions using debit cards some of them (in percentage) getting 10% cash back, while those making transactions using some of them (in percentage) getting 2% cashback.

121

In Restaurant D the number of people getting 2% cashback for using cash is 450. Find the total number of people who didn't get cashback while using debit cards and cash.

((a))
3300
((b))
3450
((c))
3150
((d))
3240
((e))
3670

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

3150

General solution:

Restaurant A:

Number of persons visiting restaurants = 100a

Number of persons using debit cards = 100a × (50/100) = 50a

Number of persons getting 10% cashback out of total people using debit card = 50a × (50/100) = 25a

Number of persons using cash = (100a - 50a) = 50a

Number of persons getting 2% cashback out of total persons using cash = 50a × (30/100) = 15a

Restaurant B:

Number of persons visiting restaurants = 100b

Number of persons using debit cards = 100b × (40/100) = 40b

Number of persons getting 10% cashback out of total people using debit card = 40b × (30/100) = 12b

Number of persons using cash = (100b - 40b) = 60b

Number of persons getting 2% cashback out of total persons using cash = 60b × (60/100) = 36b

Restaurant C:

Number of persons visiting restaurants = 100c

Number of persons using debit cards = 100c × (60/100) = 60c

Number of persons getting 10% cashback out of total people using debit card = 60c × (40/100) = 24c

Number of persons using cash = (100c - 60c) = 40c

Number of persons getting 2% cashback out of total persons using cash = 40c × (50/100) = 20c

Restaurant D:

Number of persons visiting restaurants = 100d

Number of persons using debit cards = 100d × (70/100) = 70d

Number of persons getting 10% cashback out of total people using debit card = 70d × (40/100) = 28d

Number of persons using cash = (100d - 70d) = 30d

Number of persons getting 2% cashback out of total persons using cash = 30d × (30/100) = 9d

Name of Restaurants	Total persons visiting restaurants	Number of persons using debit card	Number of persons getting 10% cashback out of total people using debit card	Number of persons using cash	Number of persons getting 2% cashback out of total people using cash
A	100a	50a	25a	50a	15a
B	100b	40b	12b	60b	36b
C	100c	60c	24c	40c	20c
D	100d	70d	28d	30d	9d

Solution:

Number of people getting 2% cashback for using cash = 9d = 450

d = 50

Number of persons not getting cashback while using debit cards = (70d - 28d) = 42d

Number of persons not getting cashback while using cash = (30d - 9d) = 21d

Required sum = (42 + 21) × d = 63 × 50 = 3150

122

In Restaurant C on the given day Rs. 200 per person has been made as the cashback while making transactions through debit card and the number of people visiting the restaurant has been 800. What would have been the amount returned by the restaurant as cashback to the people who made transactions using a debit card?

((a))
Rs.41600
((b))
Rs. 32400
((c))
Rs.38400
((d))
Rs. 25600
((e))
Rs.42600

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Rs.38400

General solution:

Restaurant A:

Number of persons visiting restaurants = 100a

Number of persons using debit cards = 100a × (50/100) = 50a

Number of persons getting 10% cashback out of total people using debit card = 50a × (50/100) = 25a

Number of persons using cash = (100a - 50a) = 50a

Number of persons getting 2% cashback out of total persons using cash = 50a × (30/100) = 15a

Restaurant B:

Number of persons visiting restaurants = 100b

Number of persons using debit cards = 100b × (40/100) = 40b

Number of persons getting 10% cashback out of total people using debit card = 40b × (30/100) = 12b

Number of persons using cash = (100b - 40b) = 60b

Number of persons getting 2% cashback out of total persons using cash = 60b × (60/100) = 36b

Restaurant C:

Number of persons visiting restaurants = 100c

Number of persons using debit cards = 100c × (60/100) = 60c

Number of persons getting 10% cashback out of total people using debit card = 60c × (40/100) = 24c

Number of persons using cash = (100c - 60c) = 40c

Number of persons getting 2% cashback out of total persons using cash = 40c × (50/100) = 20c

Restaurant D:

Number of persons visiting restaurants = 100d

Number of persons using debit cards = 100d × (70/100) = 70d

Number of persons getting 10% cashback out of total people using debit card = 70d × (40/100) = 28d

Number of persons using cash = (100d - 70d) = 30d

Number of persons getting 2% cashback out of total persons using cash = 30d × (30/100) = 9d

Name of Restaurants	Total persons visiting restaurants	Number of persons using debit card	Number of persons getting 10% cashback out of total people using debit card	Number of persons using cash	Number of persons getting 2% cashback out of total people using cash
A	100a	50a	25a	50a	15a
B	100b	40b	12b	60b	36b
C	100c	60c	24c	40c	20c
D	100d	70d	28d	30d	9d

Solution:

Number of people visiting the restaurant C = 800

800 = 100c

c = 8

Number of people getting cash back for using debit card = 24 × 8 = 192

Total amount received by restaurant as cash back = 192 × 200 = 38400

123

On November 20, 210 people in restaurant A used debit cards and didn't get cashback. On 20th November, what is the difference between the number of people who visited restaurant A and the number of people who paid through cash and didn't get 2% cashback?

(Note: Consider the data for 20th November = 16th November)

((a))
426
((b))
436
((c))
476
((d))
546
((e))
666

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

546

General solution:

Restaurant A:

Number of persons visiting restaurants = 100a

Number of persons using debit cards = 100a × (50/100) = 50a

Number of persons getting 10% cashback out of total people using debit card = 50a × (50/100) = 25a

Number of persons using cash = (100a - 50a) = 50a

Number of persons getting 2% cashback out of total persons using cash = 50a × (30/100) = 15a

Restaurant B:

Number of persons visiting restaurants = 100b

Number of persons using debit cards = 100b × (40/100) = 40b

Number of persons getting 10% cashback out of total people using debit card = 40b × (30/100) = 12b

Number of persons using cash = (100b - 40b) = 60b

Number of persons getting 2% cashback out of total persons using cash = 60b × (60/100) = 36b

Restaurant C:

Number of persons visiting restaurants = 100c

Number of persons using debit cards = 100c × (60/100) = 60c

Number of persons getting 10% cashback out of total people using debit card = 60c × (40/100) = 24c

Number of persons using cash = (100c - 60c) = 40c

Number of persons getting 2% cashback out of total persons using cash = 40c × (50/100) = 20c

Restaurant D:

Number of persons visiting restaurants = 100d

Number of persons using debit cards = 100d × (70/100) = 70d

Number of persons getting 10% cashback out of total people using debit card = 70d × (40/100) = 28d

Number of persons using cash = (100d - 70d) = 30d

Number of persons getting 2% cashback out of total persons using cash = 30d × (30/100) = 9d

Name of Restaurants	Total persons visiting restaurants	Number of persons using debit card	Number of persons getting 10% cashback out of total people using debit card	Number of persons using cash	Number of persons getting 2% cashback out of total people using cash
A	100a	50a	25a	50a	15a
B	100b	40b	12b	60b	36b
C	100c	60c	24c	40c	20c
D	100d	70d	28d	30d	9d

Solution:

Number of persons used debit cards and didn’t get cashback in restaurant A = (50a - 25a) = 25a = 210

5a = 42 ..............(i)

Number of people who visited restaurant A = 100a

Number of people who paid through cash and didn't get 2% cashback = (50a - 15a) = 35a

Difference between the number of people who visited restaurant A and the number of people who paid through cash and didn't get 2% cashback = 100a - 35a = 65a

Using (i)

5a = 42

Multiply by 13 on both sides

13 × 5a = 13 × 42

65a = 546

124

On the given day If 1200 customers visited restaurant A. How many people used cash and get 2% cashback?

((a))
200
((b))
190
((c))
210
((d))
180
((e))
120

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

180

General solution:

Restaurant A:

Number of persons visiting restaurants = 100a

Number of persons using debit cards = 100a × (50/100) = 50a

Number of persons getting 10% cashback out of total people using debit card = 50a × (50/100) = 25a

Number of persons using cash = (100a - 50a) = 50a

Number of persons getting 2% cashback out of total persons using cash = 50a × (30/100) = 15a

Restaurant B:

Number of persons visiting restaurants = 100b

Number of persons using debit cards = 100b × (40/100) = 40b

Number of persons getting 10% cashback out of total people using debit card = 40b × (30/100) = 12b

Number of persons using cash = (100b - 40b) = 60b

Number of persons getting 2% cashback out of total persons using cash = 60b × (60/100) = 36b

Restaurant C:

Number of persons visiting restaurants = 100c

Number of persons using debit cards = 100c × (60/100) = 60c

Number of persons getting 10% cashback out of total people using debit card = 60c × (40/100) = 24c

Number of persons using cash = (100c - 60c) = 40c

Number of persons getting 2% cashback out of total persons using cash = 40c × (50/100) = 20c

Restaurant D:

Number of persons visiting restaurants = 100d

Number of persons using debit cards = 100d × (70/100) = 70d

Number of persons getting 10% cashback out of total people using debit card = 70d × (40/100) = 28d

Number of persons using cash = (100d - 70d) = 30d

Number of persons getting 2% cashback out of total persons using cash = 30d × (30/100) = 9d

Name of Restaurants	Total persons visiting restaurants	Number of persons using debit card	Number of persons getting 10% cashback out of total people using debit card	Number of persons using cash	Number of persons getting 2% cashback out of total people using cash
A	100a	50a	25a	50a	15a
B	100b	40b	12b	60b	36b
C	100c	60c	24c	40c	20c
D	100d	70d	28d	30d	9d

Solution:

100a = 1200

a = 12

Number of persons using cash and getting 2% cashback= 12 × 15 = 180

125

If the total number of people visiting restaurant B was 2400 , what would be the difference between the number of people who used debit cards and did not get cashback and those who used cash and got cashback of 2% in restaurant B.

((a))
128
((b))
157
((c))
192
((d))
140
((e))
143

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

192

General solution:

Restaurant A:

Number of persons visiting restaurants = 100a

Number of persons using debit cards = 100a × (50/100) = 50a

Number of persons getting 10% cashback out of total people using debit card = 50a × (50/100) = 25a

Number of persons using cash = (100a - 50a) = 50a

Number of persons getting 2% cashback out of total persons using cash = 50a × (30/100) = 15a

Restaurant B:

Number of persons visiting restaurants = 100b

Number of persons using debit cards = 100b × (40/100) = 40b

Number of persons getting 10% cashback out of total people using debit card = 40b × (30/100) = 12b

Number of persons using cash = (100b - 40b) = 60b

Number of persons getting 2% cashback out of total persons using cash = 60b × (60/100) = 36b

Restaurant C:

Number of persons visiting restaurants = 100c

Number of persons using debit cards = 100c × (60/100) = 60c

Number of persons getting 10% cashback out of total people using debit card = 60c × (40/100) = 24c

Number of persons using cash = (100c - 60c) = 40c

Number of persons getting 2% cashback out of total persons using cash = 40c × (50/100) = 20c

Restaurant D:

Number of persons visiting restaurants = 100d

Number of persons using debit cards = 100d × (70/100) = 70d

Number of persons getting 10% cashback out of total people using debit card = 70d × (40/100) = 28d

Number of persons using cash = (100d - 70d) = 30d

Number of persons getting 2% cashback out of total persons using cash = 30d × (30/100) = 9d

Name of Restaurants	Total persons visiting restaurants	Number of persons using debit card	Number of persons getting 10% cashback out of total people using debit card	Number of persons using cash	Number of persons getting 2% cashback out of total people using cash
A	100a	50a	25a	50a	15a
B	100b	40b	12b	60b	36b
C	100c	60c	24c	40c	20c
D	100d	70d	28d	30d	9d

Solution:

Number of people visiting restaurant B

100b = 2400

b = 24

Number of people who used debit cards and not get cashback = (40b - 12b) = 28b

Number of people who used cash and get 2% cashback = 36b

36b - 28b = 8b

= 8 × 24 = 192

A cube of side P is placed inside a sphere of radius R in such a way that all the vertices of cube touch the sphere. Volume of a cone of radius √3R and height H is 11(11/14) unit².

126

Find the correct relation between P and H.

((a))
P⁴ = √(H² - 25)
((b))
P² + H² = 50
((c))
P2 = 0.4H
((d))
25/P⁴ = H²
((e))
P²H² = 75

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

25/P⁴ = H²

Shortcut Trick

Diagonal of cube = Diameter of sphere ⇒ √3P = 2R ⇒ 3P² = 4R².

Volume of cone = (1/3)πr²h = (1/3) × (22/7) × (√3R)² × H = 165/14.

Substituting 3R² from the cube relation: (1/3) × (22/7) × (9P²/4) × H = 165/14.

Solving for H gives H = 5/P². Squaring both sides: H² = 25/P⁴.

∴ The correct answer is 25/P⁴ = H².

Alternate Method

Given: Side of cube = P, Radius of sphere = R, Radius of cone = √3R, Height of cone = H, Volume of cone = 11(11/14) = 165/14 units³.

Formula Used: Diagonal of cube = √3 × side; Volume of cone = (1/3)πr²h.

⇒ For a cube inside a sphere: Body diagonal = Diameter

⇒ √3P = 2R

⇒ Squaring: 3P² = 4R² ⇒ R² = 3P²/4

⇒ Volume of cone = (1/3) × (22/7) × (√3R)² × H = 165/14

⇒ (1/3) × (22/7) × 3R² × H = 165/14

⇒ (22/7) × (3P²/4) × H = 165/14

⇒ (11/7) × (3P²/2) × H = 165/14

⇒ 33P²H / 14 = 165/14

⇒ 33P²H = 165 ⇒ P²H = 5

⇒ H = 5/P²

⇒ H² = 25/P⁴

∴ The correct answer is 25/P⁴ = H².

Additional Information

Cube in Sphere Inscription

When a cube is inscribed in a sphere, the diagonal of the cube (√3 × side) is equal to the diameter of the sphere (2R).

Sphere in Cube Inscription

When a sphere is inscribed in a cube, the diameter of the sphere is equal to the side of the cube (2R = P).

Cone Mensuration

Volume = (1/3)πr²h and Curved Surface Area = πrl, where l = √(r² + h²).

127

Find the ratio between the total surface area of the sphere to the lateral surface area of the cube.

((a))
44/21
((b))
33/14
((c))
66/7
((d))
22/21
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

33/14

Shortcut Trick

For a cube inscribed in a sphere, the body diagonal of the cube equals the diameter of the sphere: √3P = 2R.

Squaring gives 3P² = 4R² ⇒ R²/P² = 3/4.

Total Surface Area (TSA) of sphere = 4πR² and Lateral Surface Area (LSA) of cube = 4P².

Required Ratio = (4πR²) / (4P²) = π × (R²/P²) = 22/7 × 3/4 = 33/14.

∴ The correct answer is 33/14.

Alternate Method

Given: Side of cube = P, Radius of sphere = R, Cube is inside the sphere touching all vertices.

Formula Used: Diameter of sphere = √3 × side of cube; TSA of sphere = 4πR²; LSA of cube = 4P².

⇒ Inscribed condition: 2R = √3P

⇒ Squaring both sides: 4R² = 3P²

⇒ R² = (3/4)P²

⇒ TSA of Sphere = 4 × (22/7) × R² = 4 × (22/7) × (3/4)P²

⇒ TSA of Sphere = (66/7)P²

⇒ LSA of Cube = 4P²

⇒ Ratio = (66/7)P² / 4P² = 66 / (7 × 4) = 66 / 28

⇒ Ratio = 33/14

∴ The correct answer is 33/14.

Additional Information

Inscribed Cube Geometry

When a cube is inscribed in a sphere, the diameter of the sphere is equal to the body diagonal of the cube (√3 × side).

Surface Area Formulas

Total Surface Area of sphere = 4πr². Lateral Surface Area of cube = 4 × side². Total Surface Area of cube = 6 × side².

Cone Volume formula

Volume of a cone = (1/3)πr²h. This was used in the passage to establish the relation between P and H.

128

√(x + 45 - mn)⁴= 5x + Q

One root of the above equation is -10.

Where 'm' and 'n' are the roots of equation: y² - 11y + 30 = 0

Quantity I: Q^4/5

Quantity II: Q/2²

((a))
Quantity I > Quantity Il
((b))
Quantity | ≥ Quantity Il
((c))
Quantity | < Quantity Il
((d))
Quantity I ≤ Quantity Il
((e))
Quantity | = Quantity Il or relation cannot be determined.

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Quantity I > Quantity Il

Shortcut Trick Roots of y2 − 11y + 30 = 0 are 5 and 6 ⇒ mn = 30. Equation: (x + 45 − 30)2 = 5x + Q ⇒ (x + 15)2 = 5x + Q. Put x = −10: (−10 + 15)2 = 5(−10) + Q ⇒ 25 = −50 + Q ⇒ Q = 75. Quantity I = 754/5 ≈ 31.5; Quantity II = 75/4 = 18.75. ∴ The correct answer is Quantity I > Quantity II. Alternate Method Given: Equation √(x + 45 − mn)4 = 5x + Q, root x = −10, and y2 − 11y + 30 = 0. Step 1: Find m and n. ⇒ y2 − 5y − 6y + 30 = 0 ⇒ y(y − 5) − 6(y − 5) = 0 ⇒ y = 5, 6. Thus, mn = 5 × 6 = 30. Step 2: Solve for Q. ⇒ √(x + 45 − 30)4 = 5x + Q ⇒ (x + 15)2 = 5x + Q Substitute root x = −10: ⇒ (−10 + 15)2 = 5(−10) + Q ⇒ 52 = −50 + Q ⇒ 25 + 50 = Q ⇒ Q = 75. Step 3: Compare Quantities. ⇒ Quantity I: Q4/5 = 750.8. Since 320.8 = (25)0.8 = 24 = 16 and 2430.8 = (35)0.8 = 34 = 81, 750.8 is roughly 31.5. ⇒ Quantity II: Q/22 = 75/4 = 18.75. ⇒ 31.5 > 18.75. ∴ The correct answer is Quantity I > Quantity II. Additional Information Roots of Quadratic Equation For ay2 + by + c = 0, the sum of roots is −b/a and the product of roots is c/a. Properties of Radicals The expression √(A)4 simplifies to A4/2 = A2, assuming the result is real. Comparison of Exponents If x > 1, then xa > xb if a > b. For values like 750.8, estimation using nearby powers of 5 or known bases is effective.

DIrections: The pie chart given below shows the percentage distribution of the total number of questions attempted by 4 students A, B, C and D.

Total number of questions attempted by all the students = 800

In an exam there are three subjects: English, History and Math papers are 120, 60 and 100 respectively. A student can attempt a maximum of 240 questions.

129

Find the value of (x - y)

Statement (I)

Among all the given four students, the number of questions attempted by B is highest and that attempted by D is lowest. The difference between the number of questions attempted by A and D is 20.

Statement (II)

The number of questions attempted by B is > 220 and that attempted by D is < 190. The value of x and y are distinct positive integer

Which of the above statements are enough to answer the question?

((a))
I only
((b))
Both I and II
((c))
Either I or II
((d))
II only
((e))
Neither of the two

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

I only

Solution:

Statement I:

Number of questions attempted by B = x > 25

Number of questions attempted by D = y < 24

Difference between number of questions attempted by A and D is 20

So D attempted less than A

Number of questions attempted by A = (25/100) × 800 = 200

Number of questions attempted by D = 200 - 20 = 180

So the value of y = 180/800 × 100 = 22.5%

x = (100 - (25 + 22.5 + 24)) = 28.5

So, x - y = 28.5 - 22.5 = 6

Statement II:

The number of questions attempted by B is > 220 and that attempted by D is < 190

Statement II is alone not sufficient to answer the question

Statement I is enough to answer the question

130

Find the total number of questions attempted by D in the test.

Statement (I)

If the number of questions attempted by D is the highest and the number of questions B attempts is the second highest.

Statement (II)

The difference between the total number of questions attempted by B and D is neither 2 nor 6.

((a))
I only
((b))
II only
((c))
Both I and II
((d))
Neither I or II
((e))
Either I or II

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Both I and II

Solution:

From statement I:

Number of questions attempted by D = a

Percentage of Number of questions attempted by both B and D = (100 - (25 + 24)) = 51%

Number of questions attempted by both B and D = 51/100 × (800) = 408

Number of questions attempted by B, b = 408 - a

(a + b) = 408

From statement II:

Difference between number of questions attempted by B and D is neither 2 nor 6

Number of questions attempted by A = 800 × (25/100) = 200

Number of question attempted by C = 800 × (24/200) = 192

Remaining questions attempted by B and D = 51/100 × (800) = 408

From both the statement 1 and 2

D attempts highest number of questions and B attempts second highest number of questions

If D attempts 206 and B attempts 202

Both the statements are necessary to answer the questions.

131

If the number of questions attempted by D in the test is 160 and the number of questions attempted by E is 52 more than the number of questions attempted by B. If the number of questions attempted in history , Math and English are in the ratio 7: 6: 2 respectively by E. Find the difference between the number of questions attempted by E in history and English.

((a))
170
((b))
180
((c))
150
((d))
100
((e))
120

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

100

Solution:

Number of questions attempted by D in the test = 160

Value of y = (160/100) × 100 = 20%

To find the value of x

x = (100 - (24 + 25 + 20)) = 31%

Total number of questions attempted by B = 31/100 × 800 = 248

Number of questions attempted by E = (248 + 52) = 300

Number of history questions attempted by E = 300/15 × 7 = 140

Number of English questions attempted by E = 300/15 × 2 = 40

Required difference = (140 - 40) = 100

132

In the question, two quantities (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both quantities to establish the correct relation between Quantity (I) and Quantity (II) and choose the correct option.

Quantity I: $\frac{(2a^3 + 2b^3)(a - b)}{(6a^2 - 7ab + 2b^2 + 5ab - 4a^2)(a^2 - b^2)}$

Quantity II: Value of p² + q² if q < -1 < p.

((a))
Quantity I > Quantity lI
((b))
Quantity I ≥ Quantity lI
((c))
Quantity I < Quantity lI
((d))
Quantity I ≤ Quantity lI
((e))
Quantity I = Quantity Il or relation cannot be determined

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Quantity I < Quantity lI

Shortcut Trick For Quantity I, simplify the denominator: (6a2 − 4a2 − 7ab + 5ab + 2b2) = 2a2 − 2ab + 2b2. The numerator contains 2(a3 + b3) = 2(a + b)(a2 − ab + b2). After canceling like terms, Quantity I = 1. For Quantity II, given q < −1, then q2 > 1. Since p2 is always non-negative, p2 + q2 must be greater than 1. Comparing both: Quantity I = 1 and Quantity II > 1. ∴ The correct answer is Quantity I < Quantity II. Alternate Method Quantity I: ⇒ Numerator = 2(a3 + b3)(a − b) = 2(a + b)(a2 − ab + b2)(a − b) ⇒ Denominator = (2a2 − 2ab + 2b2)(a2 − b2) = 2(a2 − ab + b2)(a + b)(a − b) ⇒ Quantity I = [2(a + b)(a2 − ab + b2)(a − b)] ÷ [2(a2 − ab + b2)(a + b)(a − b)] = 1 Quantity II: ⇒ Given q < −1 and p > −1. ⇒ If q < −1, then q2 > 1 (e.g., if q = −2, q2 = 4). ⇒ Since p2 ≥ 0 for any real number p. ⇒ p2 + q2 > 1. ⇒ Comparing Quantity I (1) and Quantity II (>1), we get Quantity I < Quantity II. ∴ The correct answer is Quantity I < Quantity II. Additional Information Sum of Cubes Formula The algebraic identity for the sum of two cubes is a3 + b3 = (a + b)(a2 − ab + b2). Inequalities and Squares For any real number x, x2 ≥ 0. If |x| > 1, then x2 > 1. Difference of Squares The expression a2 − b2 can be factored as (a − b)(a + b).

Below given are series I such that logic followed in series ll is same as the logic followed in series I.

Series I: 60, 120, 24, 48, 9.6, 19.2

Series II: 100, W, X, Y, Z, 32

133

If an equation has (W/X) and (Y/10) as its roots, then find that equation.

((a))
x² - 19/2x + 45/2 = 0
((b))
x2 - 87/4x + 3 = 0
((c))
x2 - 32/5x + 8/25 = 0
((d))
x2 - 23/2x + 45/2 = 0
((e))
x2 - 13x + 40 = 0

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

x2 - 13x + 40 = 0

General Solution:

Series I: 60, 120, 24, 48, 9.6, 19.2

60 × 2 = 120

120 ÷ 5 = 24

24 × 2 = 48

48 ÷ 5 = 9.6

9.6 × 2 = 19.2

Series II follows the same logic.

Series II: 100, W, X, Y, Z, 32

100 × 2 = 200 (W)

200 ÷ 5 = 40 (X)

40 × 2 = 80 (Y)

80 ÷ 5 = 16 (Z)

16 × 2 = 32

Solution:

Equation has (W/X) and (Y/10) as its roots

W/X = 200/40 = 5

Y/10 = 80/10 = 8

General form of equation = x² - (Sum of roots)x + (product of roots) = 0

Sum of roots = 5 + 8 = 13

Product of roots = 5 × 8 = 40

Equation is:

x² - 13x + 40 = 0

∴ Option 5 is the correct answer.

134

If a series Ill is formed that follows the same logic as that in series I and first term of series Ill is (W - X), find the third term of the series Ill.

((a))
64
((b))
60
((c))
56
((d))
48
((e))
36

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

General Solution:

Series I: 60, 120, 24, 48, 9.6, 19.2

60 × 2 = 120

120 ÷ 5 = 24

24 × 2 = 48

48 ÷ 5 = 9.6

9.6 × 2 = 19.2

Series II follows the same logic.

Series II: 100, W, X, Y, Z, 32

100 × 2 = 200 (W)

200 ÷ 5 = 40 (X)

40 × 2 = 80 (Y)

80 ÷ 5 = 16 (Z)

16 × 2 = 32

Solution:

Series III follows same logic as series I.

First term of series III = W - X = 200 - 40 = 160

160 × 2 = 320

320 ÷ 5 = 64

64 × 2 = 128

128 ÷ 5 = 25.6

25.6 × 2 = 51.2

Series III = 160, 320, 64, 128, 25.6, 51.2

Third term of series III = 64

∴ Option 1 is the correct answer.

135

Find the difference between the value of (W + Z) and (X + Y).

((a))
84
((b))
108
((c))
120
((d))
96
((e))
72

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

General Solution:

Series I: 60, 120, 24, 48, 9.6, 19.2

60 × 2 = 120

120 ÷ 5 = 24

24 × 2 = 48

48 ÷ 5 = 9.6

9.6 × 2 = 19.2

Series II follows the same logic.

Series II: 100, W, X, Y, Z, 32

100 × 2 = 200 (W)

200 ÷ 5 = 40 (X)

40 × 2 = 80 (Y)

80 ÷ 5 = 16 (Z)

16 × 2 = 32

Solution:

(W + Z) = 200 + 16 = 216

X + Y = 40 + 80 = 120

∴ Required difference = 216 - 120 = 96

∴ Option 4 is the correct answer.

136

A 4 digit odd number X whose unit digit is not 5 when divided by a prime number gives resultant as a three digit number Y whose tens place is 0. Sum of digits of X is 8 while that of Y is 5. Which of the following is correct about X and Y

I. X + Y = 1624

Il. Product of digits of X is equal to its sum of digits

III. Difference between the thousandth place of X and Y is 3.

((a))
Only I
((b))
Only I and Il
((c))
All I, II, III
((d))
Only Il and III
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Only I and Il

Shortcut Trick

For Y (three-digit) with tens digit 0 and sum of digits 5: Possible values are 104, 203, 302, 401, 500.

Since X is odd and its unit digit is not 5, and X = Y × Prime: Trying Y = 203 with Prime = 7 ⇒ X = 1421.

Check Sum of digits of X: 1+4+2+1 = 8 (Satisfied). Product of digits: 1×4×2×1 = 8 (Satisfied).

Verify statements: I. 1421 + 203 = 1624 (True). II. Product (8) = Sum (8) (True). III. 1 (X thousandth) − 0 (Y has no thousandth) ≠ 3 (False).

∴ The correct answer is Only I and II.

Alternate Method

Given: X is a 4-digit odd number (unit ≠ 5), Sum(X) = 8. Y is a 3-digit number (tens digit 0), Sum(Y) = 5. X = Y × P (P is prime).

⇒ Possible Y values (abc where b=0 and a+c=5): 104, 203, 302, 401, 500.

⇒ If Y = 203, and we take Prime P = 7: X = 203 × 7 = 1421.

⇒ Verify X = 1421: It is odd, unit digit (1) is not 5. Sum of digits = 1+4+2+1 = 8.

⇒ Statement I: X + Y = 1421 + 203 = 1624. (Correct)

⇒ Statement II: Product of digits of X = 1 × 4 × 2 × 1 = 8. Sum = 8. (Correct)

⇒ Statement III: Thousandth place of X is 1. Y is a 3-digit number, so its thousandth place is 0. Difference = 1. (Incorrect)

∴ The correct answer is Only I and II.

Additional Information

Prime Number Properties

A prime number has exactly two factors: 1 and itself. Small primes include 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, etc. In division problems, primes are often used as unique multipliers.

Place Value and Sum of Digits

For a number N = d_n...d₁d₀, the sum of digits is Σd_i. The thousandth place is the digit at the 10³ position.

Divisibility of Odd Numbers

An odd number is never divisible by 2. If an odd number does not end in 5, it is not divisible by 5. Thus, prime factors must be ≥ 3 and ≠ 5.

Directions: The below table shows the four points based on starting/ Ending and distance in km between three points.

End/ Start	A	B	C	D	Vehicle available at point	Speed (km/hr)
A	0	120	X	260	Taxi	40
B	180	0	X	200	Auto	25
C	140	240	0	X	Electric Bike	30
D	320	X	420	0	Cycle	12

Note:

(i) 'X' means there is no direct route between two points, in order to reach a point which is directly reachable, the vehicle to go to a reachable point (counting the two points not directly reachable) and then to the desired point.

(ii) If the start point is P and end point is Q, it means the distance while travelling from point P towards point Q is given.

(iii) The distance covered while travelling from point P towards point Q may be different from the distance covered while travelling from point Q towards point P because of the different routes taken.

(iv) Any distance can be covered only on the points and not by any vehicle that has come from some other point.

137

Total money spent on points A to B and from points B to D is Rs. 3440. If the fare per km of a taxi is 20% more than that of an auto, what will be the fare from points A to D?

((a))
Rs.3460
((b))
Rs.3110
((c))
Rs.3120
((d))
Rs.3780
((e))
Rs.3240

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Rs.3120

Solution:

Money spent by taxi = 6x

Money spent by auto = 5x

120 × 6x + 200 × 5x = 3440

720x + 1000x = 3440

x = 2

Total money spent to travel A to D = 260 × 6 × 2 = Rs. 3120

138

Find the difference between the distance covered by the person from D to B (via point A) and another person from D to B (via point C).

((a))
250
((b))
240
((c))
220
((d))
210
((e))
260

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

220

Solution:

Distance covered by the person from D to B = (320 + 120) = 440

Distance covered by the person from D to B (via point C) = (420 + 240) = 660

Required difference = (660 - 440) = 220

139

If a person wants to travel from A to C then find the minimum time required to travel this distance.

((a))
40 hours
((b))
41.5 hours
((c))
32 hours
((d))
45 hours
((e))
31 hours

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

41.5 hours

Solution:

If we want to travel from A to C

We cannot go directly, so we have to travel from A to D by taxi and from D to C by bicycle.

Time taken by taxi to cover a distance of 260 km = 260/40 = 6.5

Time taken to cover a distance of 420 km by bicycle = 420/12 = 35

Minimum time required = 41.5 hours.

140

Find sum of the minimum possible time taken to cover distance from A to D and maximum possible time to reach D from A.

((a))
43/2 hours
((b))
35/2 hours
((c))
37/2 hours
((d))
41/2 hours
((e))
45/2 hours

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

35/2 hours

Solution:

Minimum possible distance from A to D = 260/40 = 13/2

Maximum possible distance from A to B to D = (120/40 + 200/25) =11

Required sum = (13/2 + 11) = (35/2) hours

Directions: The table graph given below shows the data about products sold by five shops on three different days of a week.

Shops	Mon: Tue	Tue	Wed % out of total products sold on three days
A	—-	12.5m	x%
B	7: m	—---	—--
C	4: 5	10m	20%
D	—---	—---	(x - 5)%
E	3: 4	15m	30%

Note:

1.Difference between total products sold on all three days by C and E is 120.

Total products sold by D on all three days is 120.

141

If the average number of products sold by shop B on all three days is 200 and .If shop B sold 20% of the products sold on Tuesday out of all the three days then find the number of products sold by shop B on Wednesday.

((a))
425
((b))
575
((c))
375
((d))
365
((e))
275

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

375

General Solution:

Total products sold by shop E on Monday and Tuesday = (3x + 4x) = 7x

30% out of products sold by shop E on Wednesday so total products sold on all three days = 7x/(100 - 30) × 100 = 10x

Number of products sold in shop E on Tuesday = 15m

Total products sold by shop E on all the three days = 15m × (10x/4x) = 75m/2

Total products sold by shop C on Monday and Tuesday = (4y + 5y) = 9y

20% out of products sold by shop C on Wednesday so total products sold on all three days = 9y/80 × 100 = 11.25y

Number of products sold in shop C on Tuesday = 10m

Total products sold by shop E on all the three days = 10m × 11.25y/5y = 22.5m

According to note:

37.5m - 22.5m = 120

15m = 120

m = 8

Number of products sold by Shop A on Tuesday = 12.5 × 8 = 100

Ratio between number of products sold by shop B Monday to Tuesday are in the ratio = 7: 8

Number of products sold by Shop C on Tuesday = 10 × 8 = 80

Number of products sold by Shop C on Monday = 80/5 × 4 = 64

Number of products sold by shop C on Wednesday = 144/80 × 20 = 36

Number of products sold by shop E on Tuesday = 15 × 8 = 120

Number of products sold by shop E on Monday = 120/4× 3 = 90

Total products sold by shop E on Wednesday = 210/70 × 30 = 90

Solution:

Average number of products sold by shop B on all three days = 200

Total products sold by shop B on all three days = 600

Number of products sold by shop B on Tuesday = 600 × (20/100) = 120

Number of products sold by shop B on Monday = 120/8 × 7 = 105

Number of products sold by shop B on Wednesday = (600 - (120 + 105)) = 375

142

If shop A number of products sold on Monday is 60% more than it sold on Tuesday and number of products sold by shop A on Monday and Wednesday is in the ratio of 8:7, then find the number of products sold by D on Tuesday , If D sold a total of 360 products on all three days and 40% of the total products sold by it was on Monday.

((a))
106
((b))
108
((c))
112
((d))
116
((e))
118

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

108

General Solution:

Total products sold by shop E on Monday and Tuesday = (3x + 4x) = 7x

30% out of products sold by shop E on Wednesday so total products sold on all three days = 7x/(100 - 30) × 100 = 10x

Number of products sold in shop E on Tuesday = 15m

Total products sold by shop E on all the three days = 15m × (10x/4x) = 75m/2

Total products sold by shop C on Monday and Tuesday = (4y + 5y) = 9y

20% out of products sold by shop C on Wednesday so total products sold on all three days = 9y/80 × 100 = 11.25y

Number of products sold in shop C on Tuesday = 10m

Total products sold by shop E on all the three days = 10m × 11.25y/5y = 22.5m

According to note:

37.5m - 22.5m = 120

15m = 120

m = 8

Number of products sold by Shop A on Tuesday = 12.5 × 8 = 100

Ratio between number of products sold by shop B Monday to Tuesday are in the ratio = 7: 8

Number of products sold by Shop C on Tuesday = 10 × 8 = 80

Number of products sold by Shop C on Monday = 80/5 × 4 = 64

Number of products sold by shop C on Wednesday = 144/80 × 20 = 36

Number of products sold by shop E on Tuesday = 15 × 8 = 120

Number of products sold by shop E on Monday = 120/4× 3 = 90

Total products sold by shop E on Wednesday = 210/70 × 30 = 90

Solution:

Number of products sold on Monday in shop A = 8x

Number of products sold on Tuesday in Shop A = 5x

Number of products sold on Wednesday in Shop A = 7x

Number of products sold in Shop A on Tuesday = 100

Number of products sold in Shop A on Monday = 160

Number of Products sold in Shop A on Wednesday = 140

Value of x = 140/(140 +160 + 100) × 100 = 35%

Number of products sold in Shop D on Wednesday = (35 - 5)/100 × 360 = 108

Number of products sold in shop D on Monday = 360 × (40/100) = 144

Number of products sold in shop D on Tuesday = (360 - (144 + 108)) = 108

143

Find the ratio of the total number of products sold by E on Tuesday and the total number of products sold by C on Wednesday.

((a))
8: 5
((b))
10: 3
((c))
11: 2
((d))
7: 4
((e))
11: 5

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

10: 3

General Solution:

Total products sold by shop E on Monday and Tuesday = (3x + 4x) = 7x

30% out of products sold by shop E on Wednesday so total products sold on all three days = 7x/(100 - 30) × 100 = 10x

Number of products sold in shop E on Tuesday = 15m

Total products sold by shop E on all the three days = 15m × (10x/4x) = 75m/2

Total products sold by shop C on Monday and Tuesday = (4y + 5y) = 9y

20% out of products sold by shop C on Wednesday so total products sold on all three days = 9y/80 × 100 = 11.25y

Number of products sold in shop C on Tuesday = 10m

Total products sold by shop E on all the three days = 10m × 11.25y/5y = 22.5m

According to note:

37.5m - 22.5m = 120

15m = 120

m = 8

Number of products sold by Shop A on Tuesday = 12.5 × 8 = 100

Ratio between number of products sold by shop B Monday to Tuesday are in the ratio = 7: 8

Number of products sold by Shop C on Tuesday = 10 × 8 = 80

Number of products sold by Shop C on Monday = 80/5 × 4 = 64

Number of products sold by shop C on Wednesday = 144/80 × 20 = 36

Number of products sold by shop E on Tuesday = 15 × 8 = 120

Number of products sold by shop E on Monday = 120/4× 3 = 90

Total products sold by shop E on Wednesday = 210/70 × 30 = 90

Solution:

Total number of products sold by E on Tuesday = 120

Total number of products sold by C on Wednesday = 36

Required ratio = 10: 3

144

If percentage of products sold by shop D on Monday and Tuesday out of total is 40% and 20% respectively.If (x - 20) % of products sold by the shop B on Wednesday out of total sold in all days .If number of products sold by shop B on Tuesday is 80. Find the number of products sold by B on Wednesday.

((a))
95
((b))
50
((c))
75
((d))
90
((e))
100

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

General Solution:

Total products sold by shop E on Monday and Tuesday = (3x + 4x) = 7x

30% out of products sold by shop E on Wednesday so total products sold on all three days = 7x/(100 - 30) × 100 = 10x

Number of products sold in shop E on Tuesday = 15m

Total products sold by shop E on all the three days = 15m × (10x/4x) = 75m/2

Total products sold by shop C on Monday and Tuesday = (4y + 5y) = 9y

20% out of products sold by shop C on Wednesday so total products sold on all three days = 9y/80 × 100 = 11.25y

Number of products sold in shop C on Tuesday = 10m

Total products sold by shop E on all the three days = 10m × 11.25y/5y = 22.5m

According to note:

37.5m - 22.5m = 120

15m = 120

m = 8

Number of products sold by Shop A on Tuesday = 12.5 × 8 = 100

Ratio between number of products sold by shop B Monday to Tuesday are in the ratio = 7: 8

Number of products sold by Shop C on Tuesday = 10 × 8 = 80

Number of products sold by Shop C on Monday = 80/5 × 4 = 64

Number of products sold by shop C on Wednesday = 144/80 × 20 = 36

Number of products sold by shop E on Tuesday = 15 × 8 = 120

Number of products sold by shop E on Monday = 120/4× 3 = 90

Total products sold by shop E on Wednesday = 210/70 × 30 = 90

Solution:

Number of products sold by shop D on Monday = 40%

Number of products sold by shop D on Tuesday = 20%

Number of products sold by shop D on Wednesday = (100 - (40 + 20)) = 40%

So the value of x = (40 + 5) = 45%

Percentage of products sold by shop B on Wednesday = (45 - 20) = 25%

Number of products sold by shop B on Tuesday = 80

Number of products sold by shop B on Monday = 70

Number of products sold by shop B on Wednesday = 150/75 × 25 = 50

145

In shop A two types of products P and Q sold on Tuesday for Rs. 150 and Rs. 120 respectively. If the total amount generated is Rs. 13650. Find the difference between the value of P and Q.

((a))
15
((b))
10
((c))
12
((d))
9
((e))
14

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

General Solution:

Total products sold by shop E on Monday and Tuesday = (3x + 4x) = 7x

30% out of products sold by shop E on Wednesday so total products sold on all three days = 7x/(100 - 30) × 100 = 10x

Number of products sold in shop E on Tuesday = 15m

Total products sold by shop E on all the three days = 15m × (10x/4x) = 75m/2

Total products sold by shop C on Monday and Tuesday = (4y + 5y) = 9y

20% out of products sold by shop C on Wednesday so total products sold on all three days = 9y/80 × 100 = 11.25y

Number of products sold in shop C on Tuesday = 10m

Total products sold by shop E on all the three days = 10m × 11.25y/5y = 22.5m

According to note:

37.5m - 22.5m = 120

15m = 120

m = 8

Number of products sold by Shop A on Tuesday = 12.5 × 8 = 100

Ratio between number of products sold by shop B Monday to Tuesday are in the ratio = 7: 8

Number of products sold by Shop C on Tuesday = 10 × 8 = 80

Number of products sold by Shop C on Monday = 80/5 × 4 = 64

Number of products sold by shop C on Wednesday = 144/80 × 20 = 36

Number of products sold by shop E on Tuesday = 15 × 8 = 120

Number of products sold by shop E on Monday = 120/4× 3 = 90

Total products sold by shop E on Wednesday = 210/70 × 30 = 90

Solution:

Number of products sold on Tuesday by P and Q in shop A = 100

Number of P products sold on Tuesday in shop A = x

Number of Q products sold on Tuesday in shop A = (100 - x)

x × 150 + (100 - x) × 120 = 13650

150x + 12000 - 120x = 13650

30x = 1650

x = 55

Number of P products sold on tuesday in shop A = 55

Number of Q products sold on tuesday in shop A (100 - 55) = 45

(55 - 45) = 10

146

$\sqrt[n]{A}$ , 29, B, C, 437, (B + 687), 1294/ $\sqrt[n]{A}$

Note:

'n' is a positive integer.
Difference between 29 and value of B is X, which has 3 factors excluding X itself and those are 5, A, and 13.

Find the value of B + C.

((a))
424
((b))
320
((c))
314
((d))
402
((e))
356

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

314

Solution:

$\sqrt[n]{A}$ , 29, B, C, 437, (B + 687), 1294/ $\sqrt[n]{A}$

X, which has 3 factors excluding X itself and those are 5, A, and 13

Possible factors of X = A, 5, 13 and X

Possible vale of A = 1 since 1 is the factor of all digits.

So, value of X = 1 × 5 × 13 = 65

Difference between 29 and value of B is X.

Case I: 29 - B = X ⇒ B = 29 - X

= B = 29 - 65 = - 36

Value of B comes in negative so this case in not valid.

Case II: B - 29 = X ⇒ B = 29 + X

= B = 29 + 65 = 94

Series becomes

1, 29, 94, C, 437, (94 + 687), 1294

1, 29, 94, C, 437, 781, 1294

The logic follows is:

29 - 1 = 28 (3³ + 1)

94 - 29 = 65 (4³ + 1)

C - 94 = 126 (5³ + 1) ⇒ C = 126 + 94 = 220

437 - 220 = 217 (6³ + 1)

781 - 437 = 344 (7³ + 1)

1294 - 781 = 513 (8³ + 1)

So, value of B = 94 and vale of C = 220

Value of B + C = 220 + 94 = 314

∴ Option 3 is the correct answer.

A: (x - 2)² = (-3x²) + 2² + 25x - P

B. (10y² - 3²y + 2/3)(3) + 10y = 0

One factor of first equation is 5.

147

Find the value of 7P ÷ 21 × 0.2P - 89.

((a))
P + 3
((b))
2P - 3
((c))
P + 1
((d))
2P + 1
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

P + 1

Solution:

A: (x - 2)2 = (-3x2) + 22 + 25x - P

One factor of first equation is 5.

Put x = 5

(5 - 2)2 = (-3 × 52) + 22 + 25 × 5 - P

3² = -75 + 4 + 125 - P

P = 54 - 9

P = 45

7P ÷ 21 × 0.2P - 89 = 7 × 45 ÷ 21 × 0.2 × 45 - 89

= 7 × 15/7 × 9 - 89

= 15 × 9 -89

= 135 - 89

= 46

= P + 1

∴ Option 3 is the correct answer.

148

What are the two roots of the equation numbered as B?

((a))
2/5. 1/2
((b))
1/5, 1/9
((c))
2/5, 2/9
((d))
1/6, 2/5
((e))
1/3, 3/5

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

1/6, 2/5

Solution:

B. (10y2 - 32y + 2/3)(3) + 10y = 0

(10y2 - 9y + 2/3)(3) + 10y = 0

(30y2 - 27y + 2) + 10y = 0

30y2 - 17y + 2 = 0

30y2 - 12y - 5y + 2 = 0

6y(5y - 2) - (5y - 2) = 0

(5y - 2)(6y - 1) = 0

y = 1/6 and 2/5

∴ Option 4 is the correct answer.

149

What will be value when smaller root of first equation is multiplied by the largest single digit prime number.

((a))
15(3/4)
((b))
13(3/4)
((c))
15(3/7)
((d))
15(3/5)
((e))
15(3/8)

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

15(3/4)

Solution:

A: (x - 2)2 = (-3x2) + 22 + 25x - P

x² + 4 - 4x = -3x2 + 4 + 25x - 45

4x2 - 29x + 45 = 0

One of the root is 5( let say α = 5)

Sum of roots (α + β) = -b/a

α + β = 29/4

5 + β = 29/4

β = 29/4 - 5 = 9/4

Largest single digit prime number = 7

When smaller root of first equation is multiplied by the largest single digit prime number we get

9/4 × 7 = 63/4

= 15(3/4)

∴ Option 1 is the correct answer.

150

There are two bags A and B having balls of colours red, blue, green and yellow. They have 3 and 4 coloured balls (not necessarily in same order). Only one of the bags has yellow colour balls. In bag A difference between red and blue colour balls is 6. In both bags, the number of green balls is half of red colour balls. The difference between red and blue balls of bag B is 5. The yellow balls are 3 more than number of green balls in the bag containing yellow balls. Average number of balls in bag A and B are 48 & 37 respectively.

Quantity | : Find the difference between blue balls of A & red balls of bag B.

Quantity lI : Difference between yellow balls of bag containing it and number of green balls in bag B.

((a))
Quantity | > Quantity lI
((b))
Quantity | < Quantity lI
((c))
Quantity | ≥ Quantity lI
((d))
Quantity | ≤ Quantity lI
((e))
Quantity | = Quantity lI or relationship cannot be established

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Quantity | = Quantity lI or relationship cannot be established

Shortcut Trick

Bag A Total = 48, Bag B Total = 37. Bag A has 3 colors (R, B, G) and Bag B has 4 (R, B, G, Y).

In Bag A: R + B + R/2 = 48 ⇒ 1.5R + B = 48. With |R − B| = 6, testing R = 18, 1.5(18) + (18+6) = 27 + 24 = 51 (X); testing R = 21.6 (not integer). Testing |R − B| = 6 where B = R − 6 ⇒ 1.5R + R − 6 = 48 ⇒ 2.5R = 54 (X). Try Bag B with 4 colors: R + B + R/2 + (R/2 + 3) = 37 ⇒ 2R + B = 34. With |R − B| = 5, if B = R + 5 ⇒ 3R = 29 (X), if B = R − 5 ⇒ 3R = 39 ⇒ R = 13 (X, R must be even). Re-evaluating Bag A with 4 colors and Bag B with 3.

Bag A (4 colors): 2R + B = 45. If B = R − 6 ⇒ 3R = 51 ⇒ R = 17 (X, R must be even). If B = R + 6 ⇒ 3R = 39 (X).

Due to inconsistent integer constraints (R must be even for G = R/2), no unique solution exists.

∴ The correct answer is Quantity I = Quantity II or relationship cannot be established.

Alternate Method

Given: Average balls A = 48, B = 37. Total A = 48, Total B = 37. Green (G) = Red (R) / 2. One bag has Yellow (Y) = G + 3.

Case 1: Bag B has 4 colors (R, B, G, Y) and Bag A has 3 (R, B, G).

⇒ Bag A: R_A + B_A + R_A/2 = 48 ⇒ 1.5R_A + B_A = 48. If B_A = R_A + 6 ⇒ 2.5R_A = 42 (R_A = 16.8). If B_A = R_A − 6 ⇒ 2.5R_A = 54 (R_A = 21.6).

Case 2: Bag A has 4 colors (R, B, G, Y) and Bag B has 3 (R, B, G).

⇒ Bag A: R_A + B_A + R_A/2 + (R_A/2 + 3) = 48 ⇒ 2R_A + B_A = 45. If B_A = R_A + 6 ⇒ 3R_A = 39 (R_A = 13, not even). If B_A = R_A − 6 ⇒ 3R_A = 51 (R_A = 17, not even).

⇒ Since G = R/2, R must be an even integer for the number of balls to be realistic. No set of integers satisfies all conditions simultaneously.

⇒ Because no definite values can be calculated for blue balls of A, red balls of B, or yellow balls, the relationship cannot be established.

∴ The correct answer is Quantity I = Quantity II or relationship cannot be established.

Additional Information

Data Sufficiency in Equations

When the number of variables exceeds the number of independent linear equations, a unique solution cannot be determined unless integer constraints or bounds are applied.

Integer Constraints

In problems involving physical objects like balls or people, the values must be non-negative integers. Parity (even/odd) is a common check for fractional coefficients like R/2.

Comparison of Quantities

If data is inconsistent or insufficient to find a single numerical value for the quantities, the standard choice is 'Relationship cannot be established'.

There are four cities A, B, C, and D which are located at different places such that city B is the east of city A, city C is to the south of city B, and city D is to the west of city C and south of city A. Distance between cities B and C is (20p + 100) km and distance between cities C and D is (p² + 100) km. Total distance from city A to city D (via cities B and C) is 2700 km.

Train Y takes a total 25 hours to cover the distance between A and D (via B and C).

Table given below shows the time taken by three trains X, Y, and Z to cross a pole and a platform P1.

Trains	Time taken (seconds) to cross pole	Time taken (seconds) to cross platform P1
X	10	p
Y	—	q
Z	—	(p + 6)

Note: Average of time taken X, Y, Z to cross platform P1 (400m long ) is 30 seconds.

151

If train X starts from city A at 9:00 AM and train Y starts from city B at 11:00 AM towards each other. The distance between both the trains becomes_________ km at 1:00 PM. Which of the following values will fill the blank?

((a))
426 km
((b))
416 km
((c))
456 km
((d))
496 km
((e))
446 km

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

496 km

General solution:

Since C is in the South of B and D is in the South of A, so distance between CD = distance between AB.

Distance between the point A to D via (B and C)

(P² + 100) + (20p + 100) + (p² + 100) = 2700

2p² + 300 + 20p = 2700

2p² + 20p - 2400 = 0

p² + 10p - 1200 = 0

p² + 40p - 30p - 1200 = 0

p( p + 40) - 30 (p + 40) =0

(p + 40) (p - 30) = 0

p = 30

Average time taken by the three trains of platform P1 (400m) long = 30 seconds

Speed of the train Y = 2700/25 = 108 kmph = 108 × 5/18 = 30m/s

(p + q + p + 6)/3 = 30

2p + q = (90 - 6)

q = 84 - 60

q = 24

Train X:

Length of the train = speed of the train (xs) × time taken to cross the pole

Length of train be x

x = xs × 10 ..............(i)

Also, (x + 400) = xs × 30 ..........(ii)

From eq(i) and (ii), we get

x/10 = (x + 400)/30

30x = (10x + 4000)

20x = 4000

x = 20 m/s

Length of the train = 20 × 10 = 200m

Train Y:

Speed of the train 30m/s

y + 400 = (30 × 24)

y + 400 = 720

y = 320 m

Time taken by train to cross the platform (T)

320 = 30 × T

T = (32/3) sec.

Train z:

Time taken by platform to cross (p + 6) seconds = 30 + 6 = 36 seconds

Time taken by train z to cross pole = t seconds

Length of platform = Zs

(Zs)/t = (Zs + 400)/36

Solution:

Distance between A and B = (p² + 100) = (30² + 100) = 1000 km

Train X starts from city A at 9.00 AM and train Y starts from city B at 11.00 AM

1Train X starts 9.00 AM and travels 4 hours and travel = 4 × 72 = 288 km

Train Y starts 11.00 AM and travels 2 hours = 2 × 108 = 216 km

Required distance = (1000 - (216 + 288)) = 496 km

152

Find the time taken by train Z to cross the pole if the speed of train X is 20% more than the speed of train Z?

((a))
15 secs
((b))
16 secs
((c))
12 secs
((d))
13 secs
((e))
10 secs

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

12 secs

General solution:

Since C is in the South of B and D is in the South of A, so distance between CD = distance between AB.

Distance between the point A to D via (B and C)

(P² + 100) + (20p + 100) + (p² + 100) = 2700

2p² + 300 + 20p = 2700

2p² + 20p - 2400 = 0

p² + 10p - 1200 = 0

p² + 40p - 30p - 1200 = 0

p( p + 40) - 30 (p + 40) =0

(p + 40) (p - 30) = 0

p = 30

Average time taken by the three trains of platform P1 (400m) long = 30 seconds

Speed of the train Y = 2700/25 = 108 kmph = 108 × 5/18 = 30m/s

(p + q + p + 6)/3 = 30

2p + q = (90 - 6)

q = 84 - 60

q = 24

Train X:

Length of the train = speed of the train (x_s) × time taken to cross the pole

Length of train be x

x = x_s × 10 ..............(i)

Also, (x + 400) = x_s × 30 ..........(ii)

From eq(i) and (ii), we get

x/10 = (x + 400)/30

30x = (10x + 4000)

20x = 4000

x = 20 m/s

Length of the train = 20 × 10 = 200m

Train Y:

Speed of the train 30m/s

y + 400 = (30 × 24)

y + 400 = 720

y = 320 m

Time taken by train to cross the platform (T)

320 = 30 × T

T = (32/3) sec.

Train z:

Time taken by platform to cross (p + 6) seconds = 30 + 6 = 36 seconds

Time taken by train z to cross pole = t seconds

Length of platform = Zs

(Zs)/t = (Zs + 400)/36

Solution:

Speed of train X = 20 m/s

Speed of train Z = (100/6) m/s

(Z + 400) = speed of train (Zs) × 36

(Z + 400) = 100/6 × (36)

Z + 400 = 600

Z = 200

200 = (100/6) × t

12 secs = t

Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.

In the following question, two missing number series I and II are given.

Series I: 808, 520, 352, 232, A, 160

Series II: 500, 260, 140, 100, B, 88

153

Find the average of value of B, B + 12, and B + 36.

((a))
106
((b))
107
((c))
104
((d))
108
((e))
112

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

106

General Solution:

Series I: 808, 520, 352, 232, A, 160

808 - 520 = 288 (172 - 1)

520 - 352 = 168 (132 - 1)

352 - 232 = 120 (112 -1)

232 - 48 (72 - 1) = 184 (A)

184 - 160 = 24 (52 - 1)

Series II: 500, 260, 140, 100, B, 88

500 260 140 100 B = 90 88

240 120 40 10 2

÷ 2 ÷ 3 ÷ 4 ÷ 5

Solution:

B = 90

B + 12 = 102

B + 36 = 126

Average = (90 + 102 + 126)/3

= 318/3

= 106

∴ Option 1 is the correct answer.

154

Which of the following statements) given below is/are correct?

I: A is divisible by 21.

Il: Average of A and 200 is 192.

Ill: A is a prime number.

((a))
Only I and Ill
((b))
All I, II, and III
((c))
Only I
((d))
Only I and lI
((e))
Only Il

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Only Il

General Solution:

Series I: 808, 520, 352, 232, A, 160

808 - 520 = 288 (17² - 1)

520 - 352 = 168 (13² - 1)

352 - 232 = 120 (11² -1)

232 - 48 (7² - 1) = 184 (A)

184 - 160 = 24 (5² - 1)

Series II: 500, 260, 140, 100, B, 88

500 260 140 100 B = 90 88

240 120 40 10 2

÷ 2 ÷ 3 ÷ 4 ÷ 5

Solution:

A = 184

I: A is divisible by 21

184 not divisible by 21.

Statement I is incorrect.

Il: Average of A and 200 is 192.

(184 + 200)/2 = 384/2 = 192

Statement II is correct.

Ill: A is a prime number.

A = 184 is not a prime number it is even number.

Statement III is incorrect.

∴ Option 5 is the correct answer.

155

If you multiply a three-digit number by X, the result is 2634. The tens digit of this three-digit numeral equals half the value of 'X'. Which statement about this number is correct?

I: Unit digit is 9.

II: Sum of its digits is 16.

Ill: Is a prime number.

((a))
Only I and lI
((b))
Only I and Ill
((c))
All I, II, and III
((d))
Only Il
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

All I, II, and III

Shortcut Trick

Factorize 2634: 2634 = 2 × 3 × 439.

Possible 3-digit number × X = 439 × 6 or 878 × 3 or 2634 × 1.

Case 1: Number = 439, X = 6. Tens digit of 439 is 3. Half of X (6) is 3. Matches!

Check Statements: I. Unit digit 9 (Yes), II. Sum (4+3+9=16) (Yes), III. 439 is Prime (Yes).

∴ The correct answer is All I, II, and III.

Alternate Method

Given: Result = 2634, Three-digit number N, Multiplier X, Tens digit of N = X/2.

⇒ Prime Factorization of 2634 = 2 × 3 × 439.

⇒ Since N is a 3-digit number and 439 is a prime factor, N must be 439 or a multiple.

⇒ If N = 439, then X = 2634 ÷ 439 = 6.

⇒ Verify condition: Tens digit of 439 is 3. X/2 = 6/2 = 3. Condition satisfied.

⇒ Statement I: Unit digit of 439 is 9 (Correct).

⇒ Statement II: Sum of digits = 4 + 3 + 9 = 16 (Correct).

⇒ Statement III: 439 is not divisible by 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19 (√439 ≈ 20.9) (Correct).

∴ The correct answer is All I, II, and III.

Additional Information

Prime Number Verification

To check if N is prime, test divisibility by primes up to √N. For 439, √439 is approx 20.95, so check primes up to 19.

Divisibility Rule of 3

A number is divisible by 3 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 3. Sum of digits of 2634 is 2+6+3+4 = 15, which is divisible by 3.

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