WB Police SI Preliminary Exam Official Paper (Held On: 12 Oct, 2025) (Previous Year Paper)

Given:

Total amount = ₹9915

Ratio = 3:5:7

Formula used:

Individual's share = $\dfrac{\text{Individual's ratio}}{\text{Sum of ratios}} \times \text{Total amount}$

Calculation:

Sum of ratios = 3 + 5 + 7 = 15

C's share = $\dfrac{7}{15} \times 9915$

⇒ C's share = $\dfrac{7 \times 9915}{15}$ = 4627

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

The logic followed here is:

1st Row → (6 × 5) ÷ 10 = 30 ÷ 10 ⇒ 3

2nd Row → (2 × 8) ÷ 4 = 16 ÷ 4 ⇒ 4

3rd Row → (4 × 8) ÷ 8 = 32 ÷ 8 ⇒ 4

4th Row → (5 × 9) ÷ 3 = 45 ÷ 3 ⇒ 15

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Given:

48% of a number = 1248

Formula used:

If x% of a number is y, then the number = $\dfrac{y \times 100}{x}$

Calculation:

Let the number be N.

48% of N = 1248

⇒ N = $\dfrac{1248 \times 100}{48}$ = 2600

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

The correct answer is Narmada.

Key Points

• The Narmada River is one of the major rivers in India flowing westward and drains into the Arabian Sea, not the Bay of Bengal.
• It is often referred to as the "Life Line of Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat" due to its significant role in these states.
• The Narmada originates from the Amarkantak Plateau in Madhya Pradesh and travels approximately 1,312 kilometers.
• It flows through the states of Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Gujarat before draining into the Arabian Sea at the Gulf of Khambhat.
• Along its course, the Narmada River forms stunning features such as the Marble Rocks at Bhedaghat and various waterfalls like Dhuandhar Falls.

Additional Information

• Mahanadi:
• The Mahanadi River is a major east-flowing river in India that merges into the Bay of Bengal.
• It originates from Chhattisgarh and flows through Odisha before draining into the Bay of Bengal.
• The Hirakud Dam on the Mahanadi is one of the longest dams in the world.
• Krishna:
• The Krishna River is another prominent east-flowing river that merges into the Bay of Bengal.
• It originates from the Western Ghats at Mahabaleshwar in Maharashtra and flows through Karnataka, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh.
• The Krishna River is known for important dams like Nagarjuna Sagar and Srisailam.
• Godavari:
• The Godavari River is the second-longest river in India and flows eastward into the Bay of Bengal.
• It originates from Trimbakeshwar in Maharashtra and flows through Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, and Odisha.
• The river is often referred to as the "Dakshin Ganga" or the Ganges of the South.
• Main Theme: The question pertains to the geographical orientation of rivers in India, focusing on their drainage patterns and the seas they merge into. Major Indian rivers are categorized based on whether they flow eastward into the Bay of Bengal or westward into the Arabian Sea. Understanding this distinction is vital for geographical studies and competitive examinations.

Given:

$\dfrac{3}{5} \times \dfrac{8}{9} \times \dfrac{6}{7} \times 665 = ?$

Calculation:

$\dfrac{3}{5} \times \dfrac{8}{9} \times \dfrac{6}{7} \times 665 = ?$

⇒ $\dfrac{(3 \times 8 \times 6 \times 665)}{(5 \times 9 \times 7)}$

⇒ 304

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

The correct answer is study of fruits.

Key Points

• Pomology is a branch of botany that focuses specifically on the study of fruits and fruit-bearing plants.
• It involves research, cultivation, and management of fruit crops to enhance production, improve quality, and develop better varieties.
• Pomologists play a key role in understanding the growth cycles, pest management, soil requirements, and climatic conditions suitable for fruit crops.
• Pomology contributes significantly to the agricultural economy by improving yields and ensuring sustainable practices in fruit farming.
• This discipline is integral to horticulture and is widely studied in agricultural sciences globally.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Study of animal behaviours
• Animal behavior is studied in the field of ethology, which examines how animals interact with their environment, each other, and humans.
• It covers topics like mating rituals, foraging habits, defense mechanisms, and communication patterns.
• Ethology aids in understanding animal welfare, conservation efforts, and evolutionary biology.
• Option 2: Study of fossils
• The study of fossils is known as paleontology.
• Paleontology helps scientists understand the history of life on Earth, including extinct species and evolutionary changes.
• Fossils provide key evidence for dating geological formations and studying ancient ecosystems.
• This branch of science overlaps with geology, biology, and archaeology.
• Option 4: Study of teeth
• The study of teeth is termed as odontology.
• It is a branch of dentistry focusing on the anatomy, diseases, and treatment of teeth.
• Odontology is critical for oral health, forensic science (identifying individuals based on dental records), and understanding dietary habits of ancient populations.
• Main Theme
• The question highlights different fields of study that contribute to specialized knowledge and research.
• Pomology, ethology, paleontology, and odontology are distinct disciplines, each playing a crucial role in understanding various aspects of science, nature, and human life.

The correct answer is Football.

Key Points

• The Santosh Trophy is an annual Indian football tournament, which is contested by states and government institutions.
• It was first held in 1941 and is named after Maharaja Sir Manmatha Nath Roy Chowdhary of Santosh, a region in modern-day Bangladesh.
• The tournament is organized by the All India Football Federation (AIFF), the governing body for football in India.
• It serves as a platform for discovering and promoting talented players who can represent the national team in international football competitions.
• The teams competing in the Santosh Trophy are state teams and services teams such as Railways and Services.

Additional Information

• Tennis
• Tennis is a racket sport that can be played individually against a single opponent or between two teams of two players each (doubles).
• Major international tournaments include the Grand Slam events: Australian Open, French Open, Wimbledon, and US Open.
• Famous Indian tennis players include Leander Paes, Mahesh Bhupathi, and Sania Mirza.
• Cricket
• Cricket is a bat-and-ball game played between two teams of eleven players each on a field with a 22-yard pitch in the center.
• It is highly popular in countries such as India, Australia, England, and Pakistan.
• Major tournaments include the ICC Cricket World Cup, ICC T20 World Cup, and the Indian Premier League (IPL).
• Famous trophies in cricket include the Ranji Trophy and Vijay Hazare Trophy in India.
• Badminton
• Badminton is a racket sport played using rackets to hit a shuttlecock across a net.
• It is played in singles (one player per side) or doubles (two players per side).
• Prominent tournaments include the All England Open Badminton Championships and the Olympics.
• Indian players such as P.V. Sindhu, Saina Nehwal, and Kidambi Srikanth have brought international glory to the sport.

The correct answer is Bone Marrow.

Key Points

• Bone marrow is the primary site of red blood cell (RBC) production, a process known as erythropoiesis.
• The process begins with hematopoietic stem cells, which differentiate into erythrocytes (red blood cells).
• Bone marrow is found in the medullary cavities of long bones and the spongy bone tissue of flat bones like the pelvis, sternum, and ribs.
• RBC production is regulated by the hormone erythropoietin, which is secreted by the kidneys in response to low oxygen levels in the blood.
• Bone marrow produces millions of red blood cells daily to ensure the body has an adequate supply of oxygen-carrying cells.
• Diseases affecting the bone marrow, such as aplastic anemia or leukemia, can disrupt RBC production, leading to severe health complications.

Additional Information

• Lymph Nodes:
• Lymph nodes are small, bean-shaped structures that are part of the lymphatic system.
• Their primary function is to filter lymph fluid and house white blood cells like lymphocytes, which play a crucial role in the immune system.
• Lymph nodes do not produce red blood cells but are involved in immune surveillance and response.
• Heart:
• The heart is a muscular organ responsible for pumping blood throughout the body via the circulatory system.
• It does not produce red blood cells; instead, it ensures that RBCs circulate to deliver oxygen to tissues and remove carbon dioxide.
• Liver:
• The liver plays a supportive role in the lifecycle of red blood cells, including the breakdown of old RBCs and the recycling of their components.
• It produces substances like iron and bilirubin that are vital for the body but does not directly produce red blood cells.
• Main Theme:
• Red blood cells are critical for transporting oxygen from the lungs to tissues and organs and removing carbon dioxide from the body.
• The production of RBCs primarily occurs in the bone marrow, which is a vital hematopoietic tissue.
• Understanding the roles of different organs like lymph nodes, liver, and heart helps clarify their distinct functions in the human body.

Given:

Profit after selling trousers at ₹863 = Loss after selling trousers at ₹631

Let the cost price (C.P.) of the trousers = ₹x

Formula used:

Profit = Selling Price (S.P.) - Cost Price (C.P.)

Loss = Cost Price (C.P.) - Selling Price (S.P.)

Given: Profit = Loss

Calculations:

Profit = Loss

⇒ (863 - x) = (x - 631)

⇒ 863 - x = x - 631

⇒ 863 + 631 = 2x

⇒ 1494 = 2x

⇒ x = 1494 / 2 = 747

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

The correct answer is Visakhapatnam.

Key Points

• Visakhapatnam Port is the deepest natural harbor in India and serves as a major deep-water, all-weather port.
• It is located on the eastern coast of India in Andhra Pradesh, along the Bay of Bengal, and is strategically significant for trade.
• The port is equipped to handle large vessels and is operational throughout the year, regardless of weather conditions.
• Established in 1933, Visakhapatnam Port is one of the oldest and busiest ports in India, handling cargo like iron ore, coal, and petroleum products.
• It is a crucial maritime gateway for trade in India and contributes significantly to the economic development of the region.

Additional Information

• Paradeep Port:
• Located in Odisha, Paradeep is one of the major ports on the eastern coast of India.
• It primarily handles bulk cargo, including iron ore, coal, and fertilizers.
• Although it is an all-weather port, it is not as deep as Visakhapatnam and has limitations in handling very large vessels.
• Kandla Port:
• Kandla Port, now known as Deendayal Port, is situated in Gujarat on the western coast of India.
• It is a major port that handles imports and exports, especially petroleum products, grains, and salt.
• Being a shallow draft port, it is not suitable for deep-water vessels and is not classified as a deep-water port.
• Marmugao Port:
• Located in Goa, Marmugao Port is one of the oldest ports in India and is primarily known for exporting iron ore.
• It is not classified as a deep-water port, and its cargo-handling capabilities are limited compared to Visakhapatnam.
• The port is significant for Goa's economy but does not match the scale and depth of Visakhapatnam Port.
• Deep-Water Ports in India:
• Deep-water ports are crucial for handling large vessels and facilitating international trade efficiently.
• India has several deep-water ports, including Visakhapatnam, Chennai, and Cochin, among others.
• These ports contribute significantly to India's maritime trade and economic growth.

The correct answer is 8 binary digits.

Key Points

• A byte is the fundamental unit of digital data storage and is composed of 8 binary digits (bits).
• Each binary digit (bit) represents a value of either 0 or 1, making a byte capable of representing 256 unique values (2^8).
• The concept of a byte being 8 bits is universally accepted and is a standard in most computer systems and storage devices.
• Bytes are used to measure memory and storage capacity, with common units like Kilobytes (KB), Megabytes (MB), Gigabytes (GB), etc., being multiples of bytes.
• In modern computing, the term "byte" is critical for defining data size, transfer rates, and file sizes, forming the foundation of digital communication and storage systems.

Additional Information

• Option 1: 2 binary digits
• 2 binary digits, also called 2 bits, can represent only 4 unique values (2^2).
• While 2 binary digits are used in some specific cases (e.g., binary flags, small encodings), they do not constitute a byte.
• Option 2: 2 decimal digits
• Decimal digits represent values in the base-10 number system, commonly used by humans for calculations and counting.
• A byte is not defined in terms of decimal digits but rather in terms of binary digits.
• Option 4: 8 decimal digits
• 8 decimal digits refer to a sequence of numbers in the base-10 system, such as "12345678."
• While 8 decimal digits can represent larger numbers, they do not define the concept of a byte, which is based on binary representation.
• Relevance of the Term "Byte"
• The term "byte" was first used in early computer systems to standardize data grouping in memory and processing.
• Bytes are crucial in digital communication, as data is transmitted in byte-sized chunks in networks, file systems, and storage devices.
• Understanding the concept of a byte and its binary nature is fundamental for studying computer architecture and digital systems.

Given: While the group photo of a family was taken

1. The father was found to be sitting to the left of the son and right to the grandfather.

2) Mother was sitting to the right of her daughter but left to the grandfather.

Thus, Grandfather was occupying the central place.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

(I) Some doctors are learned people → Follow (As authors are learned people and some doctors are authors. As some part of doctors is common with authors which whole comes in learned people, therefore it is true.)

(II) Some learned people are doctors → Follow (As authors are learned people and some doctors are authors. As some part of doctors is common with authors which whole comes in learned people, therefore it is true.)

∴ Here, Both (I) and (II) follow.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The correct answer is The Governor.

Key Points

• The Constitution of India does not provide any specific provision for the impeachment of the Governor. Unlike the President and other constitutional functionaries, the Governor is appointed by the President and serves at the pleasure of the President.
• The Governor can be removed by the President of India at any time, without any formal process or impeachment procedure.
• The Governor is the constitutional head of a state in India and performs duties as per the advice of the state council of ministers.
• The absence of an impeachment process for the Governor highlights the unitary nature of the Indian Constitution in certain aspects, as the central government exercises significant control over state governance through the office of the Governor.
• Article 156 of the Indian Constitution states that the Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the President, underscoring the lack of a formal impeachment process.

Additional Information

• The Vice-President
• The Vice-President of India can be removed from office through an impeachment process, as provided in Article 67(b) of the Constitution.
• The process requires a resolution passed by a majority of the total membership of the Rajya Sabha and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
• The Vice-President serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
• The Chief Justice of a High Court
• There is no direct provision for the impeachment of the Chief Justice of a High Court, but they can be removed as a part of the judiciary under the process applicable to judges of High Courts.
• According to Article 217, a judge of a High Court, including the Chief Justice, can be removed by the President on the grounds of proved misbehavior or incapacity, following a resolution passed by Parliament.
• The Chief Justice of India
• The Chief Justice of India can also be removed via the impeachment process applicable to Supreme Court judges.
• The procedure for removal is outlined in Article 124(4) and involves a detailed process of inquiry, resolution by both Houses of Parliament, and Presidential assent.
• The grounds for removal include proved misbehavior or incapacity.
• Main Theme: Removal Processes in the Indian Constitution
• The Constitution of India provides different mechanisms for the removal of constitutional functionaries based on their roles, responsibilities, and independence.
• While formal impeachment processes apply to the President, Vice-President, and judiciary, the Governor's removal is discretionary and rests with the President of India.

Given:

1) In a joint family, there are father, mother, three married sons and one unmarried daughter. 

2) Of the sons, two have two daughters each and one has a son.

∴ Here, there are 9 female members.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Decoding signs:

So checking each option one by one:

Option 1) 12 ÷ 5 - 4 x 5 + 4 = 22 ⇒ 12 - 5 ÷ 4 + 5 × 4 = 22

⇒ 12 - 5 ÷ 4 + 5 × 4 = 22

⇒ 12 - 1.25 + 5 × 4 = 22

⇒ 12 + 20 - 1.25 = 22

⇒ 32 - 1.25 = 22

⇒ 30.75 ≠ 22 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 2) 12 × 5 + 4 - 5 ÷ 4 = 20 ⇒ 12 + 5 × 4 ÷ 5 - 4 = 20

⇒ 12 + 5 × 4 ÷ 5 - 4 = 20

⇒ 12 + 5 × 0.8 - 4 = 20

⇒ 12 + 4 - 4 = 20

⇒ 16 - 4 = 20

⇒ 12 ≠ 20 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 3) 12 + 5 - 4 × 5 ÷ 4 = 16 ⇒ 12 × 5 ÷ 4 + 5 - 4 = 16

⇒ 12 × 5 ÷ 4 + 5 - 4 = 16

⇒ 12 × 1.25 + 5 - 4 = 16

⇒ 15 + 5 - 4 = 16

⇒ 20 - 4 = 16

⇒ 16 = 16 (LHS = RHS)

Option 4) 12 ÷ 5 + 4 - 5 × 4 = 18 ⇒ 12 - 5 × 4 ÷ 5 + 4 = 18

⇒ 12 - 5 × 4 ÷ 5 + 4 = 18

⇒ 12 - 5 × 0.8 + 4 = 18

⇒ 12 + 4 - 4 = 18

⇒ 16 - 4 = 18

⇒ 12 ≠ 18 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Given:

Speed from home to town = 50 km/hr

Speed for return journey = 45 km/hr

Return journey took 1 hour longer

Find distance each way

Formula used:

Time = Distance / Speed

Difference in time = 1 hour ⇒ (Distance/45) - (Distance/50) = 1

Calculations:

Let distance = D km

⇒ D/45 - D/50 = 1

⇒ (50D - 45D) / (45 × 50) = 1

⇒ 5D / 2250 = 1

⇒ 5D = 2250

⇒ D = 450 km

Answer: 450 km each way

Given:

Number = 3333

Formula used:

To find the least number to be added to make it a perfect square:

Find the smallest perfect square greater than the given number. Subtract the given number from this perfect square.

Calculation:

Find the square root of 3333:

⇒ √3333 ≈ 57.75

The next whole number greater than 57.75 is 58.

Find the square of 58:

⇒ 58 × 58 = 3364

Find the difference between 3364 and 3333:

⇒ 3364 - 3333 = 31

∴ The least number to be added to 3333 to make it a perfect square is 31.

The correct answer is option (3).

According to the given information:

Position of the tree from the left side = 7th

Position of the tree from the right side = 14th

Total trees = (Position from the left) + (Position from the right) - 1

Total trees = 7 + 14 - 1 = 20

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Alternate MethodIn a row of trees, a tree is 7th from left end and 14th from the right end.

Total number of trees = 6 (right side) + 1 (Given Tree) +  13 (Left side)

Total trees = 20

Given:

Rohan walks a distance of 3 kms towards North, then turns to his left and walks for 2 kms.

He again turns left and walks 3 kms.

At this point he turns to his left and walks for 3 kms.

Thus, Rohan is 1 km far from the starting point.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct answer is 332 m/sec.

Key Points

• The velocity of sound in air under normal conditions (at 0°C and 1 atmospheric pressure) is approximately 332 meters per second (m/s).
• Sound travels faster in denser mediums, and the speed of sound in air increases with the rise in temperature.
• The speed of sound in air is determined using the formula: v = √(γRT/M), where γ is the adiabatic index, R is the universal gas constant, T is the temperature in Kelvin, and M is the molar mass of air.
• At 20°C, the velocity of sound in air increases to approximately 343 m/s.
• The velocity of sound depends on the medium through which it travels and is influenced by the temperature, pressure, and density of the medium.

Additional Information

• 3320 m/sec:
• This option is incorrect as it represents the speed of sound in a solid medium, such as steel, where sound travels much faster than in air due to the higher density and elastic properties of solids.
• The speed of sound in steel is approximately 5000-6000 m/s, depending on its properties.
• 30 m/sec:
• This option is incorrect. A speed of 30 m/s is much slower and does not represent the speed of sound in any common medium.
• It could represent the speed of an object or motion in everyday scenarios, but not sound propagation.
• 320 m/sec:
• This option is close to the correct value but slightly lower. It might be considered an approximation of the speed of sound in air at slightly lower temperatures.
• However, the standard value for the speed of sound at 0°C is precisely 332 m/s.
• Velocity of Sound in Different Mediums:
• The speed of sound varies in different mediums: it is slowest in gases, faster in liquids, and fastest in solids due to differences in density and elasticity.
• For example:
• In water: ~1482 m/s
• In steel: ~5000-6000 m/s
• In air: ~332 m/s at 0°C
• Sound cannot travel in a vacuum because it requires a medium (solid, liquid, or gas) for propagation.

Given:

Average age of father and son = 22 years

Ratio of their ages = 19:3

Formula used:

Average = (Sum of Ages) ÷ 2

Sum of Ages = Total Ratio × Age per unit

Calculation:

Sum of Ages = 22 × 2 = 44

Ratio sum = 19 + 3 = 22

Age per unit = Total Age ÷ Ratio sum

⇒ Age per unit = 44 ÷ 22 = 2

Father's age = 19 × Age per unit

⇒ Father's age = 19 × 2 = 38 years

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Given:

Product of two consecutive prime numbers = 3127

Find the greater prime number.

Formula used:

If two consecutive primes are p and next prime q, then p × q = given number

Calculations:

Check approximate square root of 3127 to estimate the primes: √3127 ≈ 55.9

Consecutive primes around 55: 53 and 59

Check product: 53 × 59 = 3127

Greater number = 59

Answer: 59

The correct answer is Venus.

Key Points

• Venus is the hottest planet in the solar system due to its thick atmosphere composed mainly of carbon dioxide (CO₂), which traps heat through a runaway greenhouse effect.
• The average surface temperature of Venus is approximately 465°C (869°F), making it hotter than Mercury despite being farther from the Sun.
• The dense atmosphere of Venus contains clouds of sulfuric acid, which further contribute to its heat retention and extreme conditions.
• Unlike Mercury, Venus retains its heat because its atmosphere prevents the escape of thermal radiation into space.
• Venus has a slow rotation period of 243 Earth days, which does not significantly affect its surface temperature due to the uniform heat distribution across the planet.

Additional Information

• Mercury:
• Mercury is the closest planet to the Sun, but it is not the hottest due to its lack of a significant atmosphere to trap heat.
• Its surface temperature varies widely, ranging from -173°C (-280°F) at night to 427°C (800°F) during the day.
• Mercury has a thin exosphere composed mainly of oxygen, sodium, hydrogen, helium, and potassium.
• Mars:
• Mars is a cold planet with an average surface temperature of about -60°C (-80°F) due to its thin atmosphere primarily composed of carbon dioxide.
• The planet experiences temperature extremes, with daytime highs reaching 20°C (68°F) and nighttime lows dropping to -125°C (-195°F).
• Mars is known for its reddish appearance caused by iron oxide (rust) on its surface.
• Saturn:
• Saturn is a gas giant with an average temperature of -178°C (-288°F) due to its great distance from the Sun.
• The planet is composed mostly of hydrogen and helium, and it lacks a solid surface.
• Saturn is famous for its extensive ring system, which is primarily composed of ice particles and rocky debris.
• Main Topic - Hottest Planet:
• The title "hottest planet" refers to the planet with the highest average surface temperature in the solar system.
• Venus holds this title due to its runaway greenhouse effect, despite being the second planet from the Sun.
• Understanding the atmospheric composition and heat retention mechanisms of planets helps scientists study climate systems and planetary evolution.

The correct answer is Brahmaputra.

Key Points

• The Brahmaputra river originates from the Angsi Glacier in Tibet, outside Indian Territory, and flows through Tibet, India, and Bangladesh.
• It is known as the Yarlung Tsangpo in Tibet before entering India.
• The Brahmaputra is one of the largest rivers globally, and its basin covers parts of Tibet, Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, and Bangladesh.
• In India, it enters through Arunachal Pradesh and is called the Dihang before merging with other tributaries to form the Brahmaputra.
• The river plays a vital role in irrigation, transportation, and maintaining biodiversity in the northeastern region of India.

Additional Information

• Mahanadi:
• The Mahanadi river originates from the Sihawa hills in Chhattisgarh, India.
• It flows through Chhattisgarh and Odisha before draining into the Bay of Bengal.
• Known as the "Gift of Odisha," the Mahanadi is crucial for irrigation and hydroelectric power in its basin.
• Chenab:
• The Chenab river originates from the confluence of the Chandra and Bhaga rivers near Tandi in Himachal Pradesh, India.
• It flows through Jammu and Kashmir in India before entering Pakistan.
• The river is known for its potential in hydroelectric projects and irrigation purposes.
• Ravi:
• The Ravi river originates near the Kullu hills in Himachal Pradesh, India.
• It flows through Himachal Pradesh and Punjab before entering Pakistan.
• Ravi is one of the five rivers of Punjab and is significant for irrigation and agriculture in the region.
• Theme of the Question:
• India is home to several major rivers, many of which originate within its territory. However, some rivers like Brahmaputra begin outside Indian boundaries but significantly impact the country's geography, economy, and ecology.
• Understanding the origin and course of rivers is crucial for managing water resources, agriculture, and biodiversity.

The correct answer is James Augustus Hicky.

Key Points

• James Augustus Hicky is credited with publishing the first newspaper in India, named “Hicky’s Bengal Gazette”, also known as the “Calcutta General Advertiser”.
• Hicky’s Bengal Gazette was first published in 1780 during British rule in India, making it the first English-language newspaper in the country.
• This newspaper was a weekly publication and served as a significant medium for expressing public opinion and addressing socio-political issues of that era.
• Hicky’s Bengal Gazette was known for its critical stance against British authorities, including Governor-General Warren Hastings, which eventually led to its suppression.
• Despite its short lifespan, the newspaper laid the foundation for the growth of journalism in India and is regarded as a milestone in Indian media history.

Additional Information

• Harish Chandra Mukherjee
• He was a prominent journalist and social reformer in India during British rule.
• He is best known for editing the newspaper “Hindoo Patriot”, which played a crucial role in exposing atrocities during the Indigo Rebellion in Bengal.
• His efforts highlighted the plight of indigo farmers and contributed to the socio-political awakening of the Indian masses.
• Deen Bandhu Mitra
• Deen Bandhu Mitra was a renowned playwright and social reformer in 19th-century Bengal.
• He is widely recognized for his play “Nil Darpan”, which depicted the exploitation of indigo farmers by British planters.
• Though not directly linked to newspaper publishing, his works significantly impacted Indian journalism and social reform movements.
• Hem Chandra Kar
• Hem Chandra Kar was a noted figure in Bengali literature and social reform during the British colonial period.
• While he made contributions to literature and education, there is no record of his involvement in publishing India’s first newspaper.

The correct answer is Reita Faria.

Key Points

• Reita Faria was the first Indian woman to win the Miss World title in 1966, marking a historic moment for India on the global stage of beauty pageants.
• She became the first Asian woman to be crowned Miss World, paving the way for future Indian beauty queens.
• Unlike many other pageant winners, Reita chose to pursue a career in medicine instead of continuing in the entertainment or modeling industry.
• She completed her medical studies and became a doctor, showcasing her commitment to education and professional development.
• Her achievement not only brought global recognition to India but also inspired a generation of women to participate in international beauty contests.

Additional Information

• Lara Dutta
• Lara Dutta won the Miss Universe title in 2000, becoming the second Indian woman to win this prestigious title after Sushmita Sen.
• She later pursued a successful career in Bollywood, starring in several notable films.
• Lara is also known for her advocacy work and entrepreneurial ventures.
• Sushmita Sen
• Sushmita Sen was crowned Miss Universe in 1994, becoming the first Indian woman to achieve this honor.
• She went on to have a successful acting career and is a prominent figure in Indian cinema.
• Sushmita is admired for her philanthropic efforts and for being a role model for single mothers in India.
• Aishwarya Rai
• Aishwarya Rai won the Miss World title in 1994, the same year Sushmita Sen won Miss Universe, bringing double glory to India.
• She is widely regarded as one of the most beautiful women in the world and is a global icon.
• Aishwarya has had a highly successful career in Bollywood and Hollywood and is also known for her humanitarian work.
• Miss World Pageant
• The Miss World pageant is one of the oldest and most prestigious international beauty contests, founded in 1951 in the United Kingdom.
• It focuses on beauty with a purpose, emphasizing social and humanitarian causes supported by the contestants.
• India has won the Miss World title multiple times, with winners like Reita Faria, Aishwarya Rai, Priyanka Chopra, and Manushi Chhillar.

The correct answer is Antonio Guterres.

Key Points

• Antonio Guterres has been the Secretary-General of the United Nations since January 1, 2017, succeeding Ban Ki-moon.
• During his tenure, several global events and crises unfolded, including 'Operation Sindoor,' which was initiated during his leadership.
• 'Operation Sindoor' was a significant international event involving peacekeeping and humanitarian efforts under the aegis of the United Nations.
• Antonio Guterres has focused on addressing global challenges such as climate change, inequality, and conflict resolution during his term.
• As Secretary-General, he has played a pivotal role in coordinating international responses to various crises, including peacekeeping operations worldwide.

Additional Information

• U Thant
• U Thant was the third Secretary-General of the United Nations, serving from 1961 to 1971.
• He played a crucial role during the Cuban Missile Crisis and the Congo Crisis.
• U Thant was the first non-European Secretary-General and emphasized decolonization and global peace.
• Trygve Lie
• Trygve Lie was the first Secretary-General of the United Nations, serving from 1946 to 1952.
• He was instrumental in establishing the United Nations in its formative years after World War II.
• His tenure included critical efforts in post-war reconstruction and conflict resolution.
• Dag Hammarskjöld
• Dag Hammarskjöld was the second Secretary-General of the United Nations, serving from 1953 until his death in 1961.
• He is widely regarded for his role in strengthening the UN's peacekeeping capabilities.
• Hammarskjöld was posthumously awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 1961 for his contributions to global peace.
• Main Theme: United Nations Secretary-General
• The Secretary-General is the head of the United Nations Secretariat and the chief administrative officer of the organization.
• The role includes addressing global challenges, mediating conflicts, and promoting international cooperation.
• The Secretary-General is appointed by the General Assembly on the recommendation of the Security Council.

The number of rectangle in the given figure are shown below:

Thus, as marked there are a total of 21 rectangles.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

16 : 56 → 16 × 4 - 8 = 64 - 8 ⇒ 56

Similarly, 

32 : ? → 32 × 4 - 8 = 128 - 8 ⇒ 120

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988.

Key Points

• The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988, reduced the voting age for elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies in India from 21 years to 18 years.
• This amendment was introduced to provide greater representation to the youth in the democratic process and to encourage their participation in electoral politics.
• The primary objective of this amendment was to align with the principle of universal adult suffrage by lowering the minimum age for voting.
• The amendment modified Article 326 of the Indian Constitution, which deals with elections to the House of the People and State Legislative Assemblies on the basis of adult suffrage.
• It was passed by the Rajiv Gandhi-led government and symbolized a significant step toward inclusivity in Indian democracy.

Additional Information

• 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976
• Known as the "Mini Constitution," it brought significant changes to the Indian Constitution during the Emergency period (1975-77).
• It gave primacy to the Directive Principles of State Policy over Fundamental Rights and introduced fundamental duties under Part IVA (Article 51A).
• It also extended the tenure of the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies from 5 years to 6 years, though this was later reversed by the 44th Amendment Act.
• 34th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1974
• This amendment added 20 land reform laws of various states to the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution.
• The Ninth Schedule protects legislation from being challenged in courts on the grounds of violation of Fundamental Rights.
• 24th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1971
• This amendment affirmed the Parliament's power to amend any part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights.
• It was passed to counter the Supreme Court's judgment in the Golaknath case (1967), which limited Parliament's amending power.

The correct answer is France.

Key Points

• The Statue of Liberty was gifted to the United States by France as a symbol of friendship between the two nations and to celebrate the centennial of American independence.
• It was designed by French sculptor Frédéric Auguste Bartholdi, with the internal structure engineered by Gustave Eiffel, who is also known for designing the Eiffel Tower.
• The statue was completed in France in 1884, disassembled, and shipped to the United States in 1885 aboard the French frigate "Isère."
• It was reassembled and officially dedicated on October 28, 1886, on Liberty Island in New York Harbor.
• The Statue of Liberty is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and serves as a global symbol of freedom and democracy.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Poland
• Poland has contributed significantly to global history, particularly during World War II and the Cold War era, but it did not gift the Statue of Liberty to the United States.
• Poland is known for its cultural heritage, including the Wieliczka Salt Mine and its historical cities like Kraków and Warsaw.
• Option 2: Ukraine
• Ukraine is a country in Eastern Europe known for its rich history and cultural sites, such as the Kyiv Pechersk Lavra and Lviv’s historic center.
• Ukraine has no connection to the Statue of Liberty but is renowned for its independence struggle and contributions to science and art.
• Option 4: Japan
• Japan is known for its technological advancements, cultural heritage, and iconic landmarks like Mount Fuji and Tokyo Tower.
• Japan has no historical link to the Statue of Liberty but has been a close ally of the United States, especially post-World War II.
• Main Theme: Statue of Liberty
• The Statue of Liberty, officially titled "Liberty Enlightening the World," stands 305 feet tall and represents Libertas, the Roman goddess of freedom.
• The torch and tablet symbolize enlightenment and law, respectively, and the broken chains at the statue's feet signify freedom from oppression.
• It is one of the most recognizable landmarks in the world and a popular tourist destination.

The correct answer is Igneous Rocks.

Key Points

• Igneous rocks are the oldest type of rocks on Earth, formed directly from the solidification of molten magma or lava.
• They originate from deep within the Earth’s crust or mantle and are formed through processes such as volcanic activity and cooling of magma.
• Examples of igneous rocks include granite, basalt, and obsidian, which are formed either beneath the Earth's surface (plutonic) or above it (volcanic).
• These rocks are referred to as "primary rocks" because they are the first solid material formed on Earth, providing the basis for the formation of sedimentary and metamorphic rocks.
• Igneous rocks are classified into two categories: intrusive (plutonic) and extrusive (volcanic), depending on where the magma cools and solidifies.

Additional Information

• Plutonic Rocks:
• Plutonic rocks are a type of igneous rock that form deep beneath the Earth's surface due to the slow cooling of magma.
• Examples include granite and diorite. These rocks are coarse-grained due to the prolonged cooling process, allowing larger crystals to form.
• While plutonic rocks are ancient, they are a subset of igneous rocks and are not the oldest type overall.
• Sedimentary Rocks:
• Sedimentary rocks are formed from the accumulation and compaction of mineral and organic particles over time.
• These rocks are secondary and derive from pre-existing rocks (igneous, metamorphic, or sedimentary) that undergo weathering, erosion, deposition, and lithification.
• Examples include sandstone, shale, and limestone.
• They are not as ancient as igneous rocks because their formation depends on the existence of other rocks.
• Metamorphic Rocks:
• Metamorphic rocks are formed when existing rocks (igneous, sedimentary, or other metamorphic rocks) undergo changes due to intense heat, pressure, or chemical activity.
• Examples include marble (from limestone) and schist (from shale).
• Metamorphic rocks are not the most ancient type because their formation requires pre-existing rocks to undergo transformation.

Given: Five girls M, N, O, P and Q are standing in a row. 

1. P is on the right of Q.

2. N is on the left of Q but is on the right of M.

3. P is on the left of O. 

Thus, M is standing on the extreme left.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Answer: Stock Exchange.

Key Points

• The terms 'Bull' and 'Bear' are commonly used in the stock market.
• A 'bull' market is one in which prices are rising or expected to rise, while a 'bear' market is one in which prices are falling or expected to fall.

Given:

Difference between Compound Interest (CI) and Simple Interest (SI) for 2 years = ₹122

Rate of Interest (r) = 5% p.a.

Time (t) = 2 years

Formula used:

CI - SI = P × $\frac{r^2}{100^2}$

Calculation:

122 = P × $\frac{5^2}{100^2}$

⇒ 122 = P × $\frac{25}{10000}$

⇒ P = $\frac{122 × 10000}{25}$

⇒ P = ₹48,800

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

The correct answer is Anaemia.

Key Points

• Vitamin B12 is a water-soluble vitamin that plays a crucial role in red blood cell formation, DNA synthesis, and neurological functioning.
• A deficiency of Vitamin B12 can lead to pernicious anaemia, which is characterized by a reduction in the number of healthy red blood cells in the body.
• Pernicious anaemia results from impaired absorption of Vitamin B12 due to the lack of intrinsic factor, a protein secreted by stomach cells.
• Symptoms of Vitamin B12 deficiency-induced anaemia include fatigue, weakness, shortness of breath, pale skin, and neurological issues such as tingling sensations or numbness.
• Vitamin B12 is obtained from dietary sources like meat, fish, eggs, and dairy products. For vegans or those with absorption issues, supplementation or fortified foods may be necessary to prevent anaemia.

Additional Information

• Night Blindness:
• Night blindness is primarily caused by a deficiency of Vitamin A, not Vitamin B12.
• Vitamin A is essential for vision as it helps form rhodopsin, a pigment required for low-light and night vision.
• Sources of Vitamin A include carrots, sweet potatoes, spinach, and liver.
• Rickets:
• Rickets is a condition caused by a deficiency of Vitamin D, leading to softening and weakening of bones in children.
• Vitamin D aids in calcium and phosphorus absorption, which are critical for healthy bone development.
• Sources of Vitamin D include sunlight exposure, fortified foods, and supplements.
• Goitre:
• Goitre is the abnormal enlargement of the thyroid gland, typically caused by iodine deficiency.
• Iodine is a key component of thyroid hormones, which regulate metabolism and growth.
• Foods rich in iodine include iodized salt, seafood, and dairy products.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed is:

MEKLF is coded as 91782

And,

LLLJK as S8867

Similarly,

IGHED is coded as

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given:

Fractions: 5/7, 7/9, 9/11, 11/13, 13/17

Arrange in ascending order and find the second one.

Formula used:

Compare fractions using cross multiplication or approximate decimal values.

Calculations:

5/7 ≈ 0.714

7/9 ≈ 0.778

9/11 ≈ 0.818

11/13 ≈ 0.846

13/17 ≈ 0.765

Ascending order: 5/7 (0.714), 13/17 (0.765), 7/9 (0.778), 9/11 (0.818), 11/13 (0.846)

Second fraction = 13/17

Answer: 13/17

The correct answer is Kumaragupta.

Key Points

• Nalanda University, one of the oldest centers of learning in the world, was established during the reign of Kumaragupta I (415–455 CE) of the Gupta Dynasty.
• Kumaragupta I is credited for founding Nalanda University as a Buddhist center of education and a renowned hub for knowledge dissemination.
• The university attracted scholars and students from all over India and abroad, including China, Korea, Japan, and Central Asia.
• It housed thousands of students and teachers who studied subjects like astronomy, mathematics, logic, medicine, and various branches of Buddhism.
• Nalanda University flourished under subsequent rulers, with the Gupta dynasty providing initial patronage for its development and expansion.

Additional Information

• Kanishka:
• Kanishka, a Kushan emperor, was a prominent patron of Buddhism, but he is not associated with Nalanda University.
• He is best known for convening the Fourth Buddhist Council in Kashmir and for promoting Mahayana Buddhism.
• Kanishka’s reign marked significant cultural and religious developments, including the spread of Buddhism to Central and East Asia.
• Ashoka:
• Ashoka, the Mauryan emperor, was an ardent supporter of Buddhism and played a crucial role in its propagation.
• He established numerous stupas and monasteries and sent missionaries to spread Buddhism across Asia.
• However, Nalanda University was founded much later, during the Gupta period, and is not linked to Ashoka.
• Chandragupta Vikramaditya:
• Chandragupta Vikramaditya, also known as Chandragupta II, was a Gupta emperor famous for his military conquests and cultural achievements.
• Although he contributed to the prosperity of the Gupta Empire, Nalanda University was established during the reign of his successor, Kumaragupta I.
• Chandragupta Vikramaditya is known for promoting arts, sciences, and literature during the "Golden Age" of India.
• Theme of Nalanda University:
• Nalanda University was an ancient center of learning and excellence in various disciplines, including Buddhist studies.
• It was renowned for its massive library known as "Dharmaganja," which housed millions of manuscripts.
• The university was destroyed during the invasion of Bakhtiyar Khilji in the 12th century CE, marking the decline of Buddhist education in India.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹7055

Rate (R) = 15% per annum

Time (T) = 6 years

Formula used:

Simple Interest (SI) = $\frac{P × R × T}{100}$

Calculation:

SI = $\frac{7055 × 15 × 6}{100}$

⇒ SI = ₹6349.5

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

The correct answer is Baking Soda.

Key Points

• Baking soda, chemically known as sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO₃), is a white crystalline powder commonly used in baking as a leavening agent.
• When combined with an acid, such as vinegar or lemon juice, baking soda releases carbon dioxide gas, causing dough or batter to rise.
• Baking soda is also widely used for cleaning, deodorizing, and neutralizing acids due to its mild alkaline properties.
• It is an essential ingredient in various household applications, such as removing odors, cleaning surfaces, and even in certain medicinal uses like relieving heartburn.
• Commercially, baking soda is affordable, non-toxic, and an environmentally friendly alternative to many chemical cleaners.

Additional Information

• Bleaching Powder:
• Bleaching powder, chemically known as calcium hypochlorite (Ca(OCl)₂), is a white powder commonly used as a disinfectant and bleaching agent.
• It is often used to purify water, disinfect surfaces, and in the textile industry for bleaching fabrics.
• Unlike baking soda, it has strong oxidizing properties and is not suitable for cooking or food-related applications.
• Soda Ash:
• Soda ash, or sodium carbonate (Na₂CO₃), is a white, water-soluble powder used in manufacturing glass, detergents, and paper.
• It is also used for softening water and as a pH regulator in various industrial processes.
• Soda ash is chemically different from baking soda and is not used in household cooking or cleaning.
• Washing Soda:
• Washing soda, also known as sodium carbonate decahydrate (Na₂CO₃·10H₂O), is a chemical compound commonly used in laundry detergents.
• It helps in removing stains and grease from clothes by softening water and increasing detergent efficiency.
• Washing soda is caustic and should not be ingested or used for food-related purposes.

The correct order of words in a logical and meaningful order:

3. Chapter → A collection of paragraphs forming a major section of a text.
4. Paragraph → Paragraphs are structured blocks of sentences that focus on a single idea or topic.
5. Sentence → Sentences are complete thoughts formed by one or more phrases.
6. Phrase → Phrases are the meaningful group of words, often part of a sentence.
7. Words → Words are formed by combining letters.

The correct order is '3, 5, 1, 4, 2'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed is:

SAFE: SECURE → Safe is synonym of secure.

Similarly,

PROTECT: ? → Protect is synonym of guard.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given:

A is 50% larger than C.

B is 25% larger than C.

Formula used:

Percentage difference between A and B = $\dfrac{A-B}{B}\times100$

Calculations:

Let C = 100 

⇒ A = 100 + 50 = 150

⇒ B = 100 + 25 = 125

Percentage difference = $\dfrac{150-125}{125}\times100$

⇒ $\dfrac{25}{125}\times100$ = 20%

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

The correct answer is elected by the two houses of Parliament.

Key Points

• The Chairman of Rajya Sabha in India is the Vice President of India.
• The Vice President is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both the Lok Sabha (Lower House) and Rajya Sabha (Upper House).
• This election is conducted in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.
• The Vice President serves as the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha and presides over its proceedings.
• The Vice President does not participate in the deliberations of the Rajya Sabha except in the case of a tie, where he/she has the casting vote.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Elected by Parliament and legislatures of the states jointly
• This option is incorrect because the Vice President, who serves as the Chairman of Rajya Sabha, is elected solely by the members of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha). Legislatures of the states do not participate in this election.
• However, the President of India is elected by an electoral college that includes members of Parliament and members of the Legislative Assemblies of States and Union Territories.
• Option 2: Elected by the members of Rajya Sabha
• This option is incorrect as the election of the Vice President is not limited to Rajya Sabha members alone.
• Instead, the electoral college includes both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha members.
• Option 3: Nominated by the President
• This option is incorrect because the Vice President is not nominated by the President but elected through a democratic process.
• In India, nomination by the President is applicable to certain members of Rajya Sabha for contributions in fields like literature, science, art, and social service.
• Topic Overview: Role and Importance of the Chairman of Rajya Sabha
• The Chairman of Rajya Sabha plays a critical role in maintaining decorum and order in the House.
• He/she ensures smooth functioning of the proceedings and adherence to parliamentary rules and procedures.
• In the absence of the Vice President, the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides over the sessions.

The correct answer is Damascus.

Key Points

• Damascus, the capital of Syria, is widely considered the world’s oldest continuously inhabited city.
• Historical records suggest that Damascus has been inhabited since at least the 2nd millennium BCE.
• It is strategically located on the crossroads of trade routes, which contributed to its long-standing prominence as a cultural and economic center.
• Damascus has been under the control of various civilizations, including the Arameans, Greeks, Romans, Byzantines, and Arabs, shaping its rich cultural heritage.
• The city is renowned for historic landmarks such as the Umayyad Mosque, one of the oldest and largest mosques in the world.

Additional Information

• Oslo:
• Oslo is the capital city of Norway, established in the year 1040 AD.
• It is known for its rich Viking heritage and modern urban infrastructure.
• The city is a hub for maritime industries and home to several museums, including the Viking Ship Museum and Munch Museum.
• Accra:
• Accra is the capital city of Ghana, situated along the Gulf of Guinea.
• It is a relatively modern city that became Ghana’s capital in 1877 during British colonial rule.
• The city is known for its vibrant culture, bustling markets, and historical sites such as Jamestown Lighthouse and Kwame Nkrumah Mausoleum.
• Canberra:
• Canberra is the capital city of Australia, officially established as the capital in 1913.
• It was purpose-built as the capital city and is known for its well-planned urban layout.
• Canberra is home to Australia’s Parliament House, the Australian War Memorial, and numerous national institutions.
• Main Theme:
• Capital cities often serve as political, cultural, and economic hubs of their respective countries.
• They are historically significant and may have been chosen due to strategic, economic, or cultural reasons.
• While Damascus is the oldest continuously inhabited capital city, other capitals like Oslo, Accra, and Canberra represent more modern developments.

Given:

First discount = 10%

Second discount = 20%

Formula used:

Effective discount formula: $\text{Effective Discount} = a + b - \frac{a \cdot b}{100}$

Where, a = first discount, b = second discount

Calculation:

⇒ Effective Discount = 10 + 20 - $\frac{10 \cdot 20}{100}$

⇒ Effective Discount = 30 - $\frac{200}{100}$ = 28%

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

The correct answer is Silver Bromide.

Key Points

• Silver Bromide (AgBr) is a light-sensitive compound extensively used in photographic films and papers due to its ability to capture images by reacting to light.
• When exposed to light, silver bromide undergoes a photochemical reaction that causes it to decompose into metallic silver, creating the photographic image.
• This compound belongs to the category of silver halides, which are widely recognized for their applications in the photographic industry.
• Silver bromide crystals are suspended in a gel-like emulsion and coated onto photographic films or papers, enabling the formation of a latent image that can later be developed chemically.
• Despite advancements in digital photography, silver bromide continues to be used in specialized fields like analog photography and medical imaging due to its superior image quality.

Additional Information

• Sodium Chloride (NaCl):
• Sodium chloride, commonly known as table salt, is primarily used in food seasoning and preservation rather than photography.
• It is also utilized in industrial processes like chlorine production and water softening.
• Although not directly linked to photography, sodium chloride is chemically significant as it forms ionic bonds and is a basic example of a crystalline solid.
• Aluminium Hydroxide (Al(OH)₃):
• Aluminium hydroxide is widely used as an antacid to neutralize stomach acid and relieve indigestion.
• It is also utilized in the production of aluminum-based compounds and as a flame retardant in polymers.
• This compound does not play any role in photography or image formation.
• Potassium Nitrate (KNO₃):
• Potassium nitrate is commonly known as saltpeter and is used in fertilizers, explosives, and food preservation.
• Its application in photography is negligible, although it has historical significance in gunpowder production.
• It is primarily used for its oxidizing properties in chemical reactions.

Given:

A, B and C enter into partnership

B invests double the amount after 6 months

C invests thrice the amount invested by A after 8 months

Total profit = Rs. 45,000

Find C's share

Formula used:

Profit share ∝ Investment × Time

Share of partner = (Individual's investment × time) / Total investment × time × Total profit

Calculations:

Let A's investment = x

B's investment = 2x for 6 months = 2x × 6 = 12x

C's investment = 3x for 4 months = 3x × 4 = 12x

A's investment for 12 months = x × 12 = 12x

Total investment × time = 12x + 12x + 12x = 36x

Share of C = 12x / 36x × 45,000 = 1/3 × 45,000 = 15,000

Answer: 15,000 Rs

The correct answer is New York.

Key Points

• The headquarters of the United Nations (UN) is located in New York City, USA.
• It is situated on international territory along the East River in Manhattan and was officially opened on October 24, 1949.
• The UN headquarters serves as the primary location for important meetings of the General Assembly, Security Council, and other UN bodies.
• The site for the headquarters was purchased with a donation of $8.5 million from John D. Rockefeller Jr., a notable philanthropist.
• The headquarters is often referred to as an international zone, which means it is not governed by U.S. law but by the UN’s own regulations.

Additional Information

• Washington DC
• Washington DC is the capital city of the United States and serves as the political, administrative, and cultural hub of the country.
• It houses major governmental institutions such as the White House, the US Capitol, and the Supreme Court.
• It is not the headquarters of the United Nations but plays a significant role in global diplomacy and international relations.
• Geneva
• Geneva, Switzerland, is home to several international organizations, including the World Health Organization (WHO), the World Trade Organization (WTO), and the International Labour Organization (ILO).
• It is also an important location for the United Nations, hosting the United Nations Office at Geneva (UNOG), the second-largest office of the UN after New York.
• However, Geneva is not the primary headquarters of the United Nations.
• Paris
• Paris, France, is the headquarters of the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO).
• UNESCO focuses on promoting international cooperation in education, science, culture, and communication.
• While it is an important UN agency, Paris is not the headquarters of the United Nations.
• United Nations Overview
• The United Nations was established on October 24, 1945, after World War II to promote international peace, security, and cooperation.
• It currently has 193 member states, making it one of the largest international organizations in the world.
• The UN operates through six main organs, including the General Assembly, Security Council, and International Court of Justice.

Given:

-[(√324 - √256) × -4.5] = ?

Formula used:

√a = square root of a

Calculations:

√324 = 18, √256 = 16

⇒ (√324 - √256) = 18 - 16 = 2

⇒ 2 × -4.5 = -9

⇒ -[-9] = 9

Answer: 9

The correct answer is Nagaland.

Key Points

• Nagaland is one of the 28 states of India and not a Union Territory.
• It is located in Northeast India and shares borders with Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, and Myanmar.
• Established as a state on 1st December 1963, Nagaland is known for its rich cultural heritage and ethnic diversity.
• The capital of Nagaland is Kohima, while Dimapur is the largest city in the state.
• Nagaland is governed by its own legislative assembly and state government, unlike Union Territories which are mostly governed by the Central Government.

Additional Information

• Lakshadweep:
• Lakshadweep is a Union Territory of India, consisting of 36 islands located in the Arabian Sea.
• The name "Lakshadweep" means "one hundred thousand islands" in Sanskrit.
• Kavaratti serves as the capital of Lakshadweep, and the territory is known for its coral reefs and pristine beaches.
• It is directly administered by the Central Government through a Lieutenant Governor.
• Puducherry:
• Puducherry is a Union Territory in Southern India, consisting of four districts: Puducherry, Karaikal, Mahe, and Yanam.
• It was formerly a French colony and retains a unique blend of Indian and French culture.
• Puducherry enjoys partial statehood, with an elected legislative assembly and a Chief Minister.
• The Union Territory is under the administrative control of the Central Government through the Lieutenant Governor.
• Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu:
• This Union Territory was formed by merging Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu on 26 January 2020.
• It is located in Western India and consists of coastal areas along the Arabian Sea.
• Silvassa is the capital of Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu.
• The territory is administered by the Central Government through a Lieutenant Governor.

The correct answer is Sukumar Sen.

Key Points

• Sukumar Sen was the first Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India, appointed in March 1950.
• He presided over the first general elections of India held between 1951-52 under the Constitution of India.
• Sukumar Sen was widely regarded for his organizational and administrative skills during the challenging task of conducting elections in a newly independent nation.
• Under his leadership, India’s first elections were conducted smoothly, with over 176 million registered voters.
• His tenure as Chief Election Commissioner lasted from 1950 to 1958, during which he laid the foundation of India’s electoral process.
• Sukumar Sen was an Indian civil servant from the Indian Civil Services (ICS) and played a pivotal role in establishing free and fair elections in India.

Additional Information

• M. S. Gill:
• M. S. Gill served as the Chief Election Commissioner of India from 1996 to 2001.
• He played a key role in introducing reforms such as the use of electronic voting machines (EVMs) in elections.
• He also worked to enhance transparency and efficiency in the electoral process.
• Mrs. V. S. Rama Devi:
• Mrs. V. S. Rama Devi served as the Chief Election Commissioner of India for a brief tenure in 1990.
• She was the first woman Chief Election Commissioner of India.
• Her contributions were significant in ensuring gender representation and inclusion in electoral systems.
• T. N. Seshan:
• T. N. Seshan served as the Chief Election Commissioner of India from 1990 to 1996.
• He is renowned for bringing stringent reforms to curb malpractices in elections.
• He focused on improving voter awareness, enforcing the Model Code of Conduct, and enhancing the autonomy of the Election Commission.
• Chief Election Commissioner of India:
• The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) heads the Election Commission, which is responsible for conducting free and fair elections in India.
• The CEC is appointed by the President of India and serves a term of 6 years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier.
• The Election Commission ensures democratic processes for the election of Members of Parliament, state legislatures, and the offices of the President and Vice-President.

The correct answer is MS-DOS.

Key Points

• MS-DOS (Microsoft Disk Operating System) is a single-user operating system designed primarily for personal computers.
• It does not support multiple users working simultaneously or multi-tasking capabilities that are characteristic of multi-user operating systems.
• MS-DOS operates using a command-line interface where users input commands for file management and software execution.
• It was widely used during the early stages of personal computer development but became obsolete with the advent of graphical user interface (GUI)-based operating systems like Windows.
• Due to its single-user architecture, MS-DOS is not suitable for environments requiring concurrent access or multi-user features.

Additional Information

• Windows 2000:
• Windows 2000 is a multi-user operating system developed by Microsoft, primarily designed for professional and business environments.
• It provides advanced features like multi-tasking, support for multiple users, and enhanced security protocols for networked systems.
• It was widely used in enterprise settings due to its ability to manage server-client architecture and provide remote access features.
• UNIX:
• UNIX is a multi-user, multi-tasking operating system developed for servers, mainframes, and workstations.
• It is known for its stability, scalability, and ability to support multiple users simultaneously.
• UNIX forms the foundation for many modern operating systems like Linux and macOS.
• It is widely used in enterprise and academic environments for its robust performance and security features.
• Windows XP:
• Windows XP is a multi-user operating system designed for both personal and professional use.
• It supports multi-tasking and allows different users to have separate accounts on the same machine.
• Windows XP introduced significant improvements in user interface design and system stability compared to earlier versions of Windows.
• It was a popular choice for home and office users during its time.
• Concept of Multi-user Operating Systems:
• Multi-user operating systems allow multiple users to access and use a computer system simultaneously.
• Such systems provide resource allocation, security, and management features to ensure efficient performance.
• Examples include UNIX, Linux, and modern versions of Windows (like Windows Server editions).

The correct answer is Kalinga Award.

Key Points

• The Kalinga Award is an international award established by UNESCO in 1951.
• It is given to individuals who have made significant contributions to the popularization of science and technology in society.
• It aims to foster public understanding of the importance and role of science in daily life.
• The award consists of a monetary prize, a certificate, and a UNESCO Albert Einstein silver medal.
• The award was instituted by Biju Patnaik, the former Chief Minister of Odisha, India, and is funded by the Kalinga Foundation Trust.

Additional Information

• Kalidas Samman:
• It is a prestigious arts award presented annually by the Madhya Pradesh government in India.
• The award recognizes exceptional achievements in the fields of classical music, classical dance, theatre, and visual arts.
• It is named after the classical Sanskrit poet and dramatist Kalidasa, regarded as one of the greatest Indian literary figures.
• Magsaysay Award:
• It is an annual award established in 1957 by the trustees of the Rockefeller Brothers Fund based in the Philippines.
• The award recognizes outstanding contributions in government service, public service, community leadership, journalism, literature, and creative arts.
• It is often referred to as Asia’s Nobel Prize.
• Booker Prize:
• The Booker Prize, formerly known as the Man Booker Prize, is a prestigious literary prize awarded annually for the best original novel written in the English language.
• It was first awarded in 1969 and is open to authors from around the world.
• The Booker Prize aims to promote the finest fiction written in English and has a significant impact on the sales and recognition of the winning books.
• Main Theme:
• The Kalinga Award emphasizes the importance of science communication and its role in making science accessible and comprehensible to the general public.
• Such awards encourage individuals to engage in public outreach and education in the fields of science and technology, bridging the gap between the scientific community and society.

Given:

Tap 1 empties the tank in 30 minutes.

Tap 2 empties the tank in 45 minutes.

Formula used:

If two taps work simultaneously, their combined rate of emptying = Sum of their rates.

Time required to empty the tank = 1 / (Combined rate).

Calculation:

Rate of Tap 1 = 1/30 tank/min.

Rate of Tap 2 = 1/45 tank/min.

Combined rate = (1/30) + (1/45)

⇒ Combined rate = $\dfrac{3+2}{90} = \dfrac{5}{90} = \dfrac{1}{18}$ tank/min.

Time required = 1 / (Combined rate)

⇒ Time required = 1 / (1/18) = 18 minutes.

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Given:

Numerator increased by 200%.

Denominator increased by 120%.

Resultant fraction = $\dfrac{4}{11}$.

Formula used:

Let the original fraction be $\dfrac{x}{y}$.

Numerator after increase = x + 200% of x = x + 2x = 3x.

Denominator after increase = y + 120% of y = y + 1.2y = 2.2y.

Resultant fraction = $\dfrac{3x}{2.2y} = \dfrac{4}{11}$

⇒ $\dfrac{x}{y} = \dfrac{4 \times 2.2}{3 \times 11}$

⇒ $\dfrac{x}{y} = \dfrac{4}{15}$

∴ The original fraction is $\dfrac{4}{15}$.

The correct answer is Halley's.

Key Points

• The comet that appears roughly every 76 years is Halley's Comet (1P/Halley), a famous short-period comet known for its regular, predictable visits to the inner solar system, last seen in 1986 and expected again in 2061.
• Periodicity: It orbits the Sun every 75 to 76 years.
• Discovery: Named after English astronomer Edmond Halley, who first predicted its return in 1705.
• Composition: A "dirty snowball" of ice, dust, and rock.
• History: Observed for millennia, with the first recorded sighting by Chinese astronomers in 240 BC.
• Next Appearance: After 1986, it's due back in 2061.

The logic followed is:

PARENT is written as BDFGJK

And,

CHILDREN is written as MOXQUFGJ

Similarly,

REPRINT is written as

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given:

A can complete work in 12 days

A + B together can complete work in 8 days

Find days B alone can complete the work

Formula used:

Work = Rate × Time

Rate of B = (Rate of A + B) - Rate of A

Time = Total work / Rate

Calculations:

Let total work = LCM of 12 and 8 = 24 units

Rate of A = 24 / 12 = 2 units/day

Rate of A + B = 24 / 8 = 3 units/day

Rate of B = 3 - 2 = 1 unit/day

Time for B alone = 24 / 1 = 24 days

Answer: 24 days

The correct answer is Nitrogen.

Key Points

• Nitrogen constitutes approximately 78% of the Earth's atmosphere, making it the most abundant gas.
• It is a chemically inert gas under standard conditions and plays a crucial role in maintaining atmospheric stability.
• Nitrogen is essential for living organisms as it is a fundamental component of amino acids, proteins, and nucleic acids like DNA and RNA.
• The nitrogen cycle ensures the conversion of atmospheric nitrogen into usable forms (like nitrates and ammonia) for plants and animals.
• Despite its abundance, nitrogen cannot be directly used by most organisms and requires fixation by bacteria or industrial processes.

Additional Information

• Oxygen:
• Oxygen makes up about 21% of the Earth's atmosphere.
• It is essential for respiration in most living organisms and is a key component in combustion processes.
• Oxygen is also involved in the formation of the ozone layer, which protects the Earth from harmful UV radiation.
• Carbon Dioxide:
• Carbon dioxide constitutes only 0.04% of the Earth's atmosphere.
• It is a crucial greenhouse gas that helps regulate Earth's temperature and is vital for photosynthesis in plants.
• Human activities, such as burning fossil fuels, have increased CO2 levels, contributing to climate change.
• Hydrogen:
• Hydrogen is the most abundant element in the universe but is present in trace amounts in the Earth's atmosphere (less than 0.01%).
• It is a highly flammable gas and a potential source of clean energy in the form of hydrogen fuel.
• Hydrogen forms water (H2O) when combined with oxygen and is a key component of many organic compounds.

The correct answer is Pattabhi Sitharamayya.

Key Points

• In 1939, Subhash Chandra Bose defeated Pattabhi Sitharamayya to be elected as the President of the Indian National Congress.
• Pattabhi Sitharamayya was the official candidate supported by Mahatma Gandhi and the Congress Working Committee.
• Subhash Chandra Bose’s victory highlighted the ideological divide within the Congress Party between the Gandhian faction and Bose’s supporters who sought more aggressive methods for achieving independence.
• After being elected, Bose faced opposition from the Gandhian faction and ultimately resigned in 1939, leading to the formation of the All India Forward Bloc.
• This election is considered a turning point in the history of the Indian National Congress as it revealed growing differences within the party regarding strategies for independence.

Additional Information

• Jawaharlal Nehru:
• Jawaharlal Nehru was a key leader in the Indian freedom struggle and the first Prime Minister of independent India.
• He played a significant role in shaping modern India through his vision of secularism, socialism, and industrialization.
• While Nehru was a prominent Congress leader, he did not contest the 1939 presidential election against Subhash Chandra Bose.
• V. B. Patel (Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel):
• Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was a senior Congress leader and a close associate of Mahatma Gandhi.
• He is best known for his role in unifying India post-independence as the first Deputy Prime Minister and Home Minister.
• Patel was not involved in the 1939 Congress presidential election.
• Maulana Abul Kalam Azad:
• Maulana Abul Kalam Azad was a prominent freedom fighter, scholar, and the first Education Minister of independent India.
• He was a staunch supporter of Hindu-Muslim unity and opposed the partition of India.
• Azad did not participate in the 1939 Congress presidential election, although he was a significant leader in the party.
• Main Theme: Subhash Chandra Bose’s Leadership:
• Subhash Chandra Bose was a charismatic leader and staunch nationalist who sought complete independence from British rule.
• His approach involved mobilizing mass support and forging alliances, including his leadership of the Indian National Army (INA).
• Bose’s election as Congress President in 1939 marked a temporary shift in leadership and ideology within the Congress Party.
• After resigning, Bose continued his struggle for independence through revolutionary methods, earning him the title “Netaji.”

The correct answer is Water.

Key Points

• Water exhibits a unique property called anomalous expansion, where it contracts on heating from 0ºC to 4ºC instead of expanding.
• At 4ºC, water reaches its maximum density (1 g/cm³), and any further heating beyond this point results in expansion.
• The contraction occurs due to the orientation of hydrogen bonds among water molecules, which rearrange themselves to occupy less volume as the temperature rises up to 4ºC.
• Water's anomalous expansion is critical for aquatic life, as it prevents water bodies from freezing entirely during winter, ensuring survival of organisms.
• This property is used in various scientific applications, including cryogenics and the study of thermal properties in natural systems.

Additional Information

• Mercury:
• Mercury is a dense, metallic liquid that expands uniformly when heated.
• It is commonly used in thermometers and barometers due to its predictable thermal expansion properties.
• Unlike water, mercury does not exhibit anomalous expansion and instead follows the typical behavior of liquids, expanding as temperature increases.
• Air:
• Air is a mixture of gases that expands when heated, following the principles of the Ideal Gas Law (PV=nRT).
• When air is heated, its molecules move faster, increasing the volume if the pressure is constant.
• Air does not exhibit anomalous expansion and behaves predictably under temperature changes.
• Copper:
• Copper is a metal that expands when heated due to the increase in kinetic energy of its atoms.
• It is widely used in applications like electrical wiring and thermal systems, where its thermal expansion is accounted for.
• Unlike water, copper does not contract when heated and follows the general behavior of solids, expanding as temperature increases.
• Key Concept:
• Water's anomalous expansion is an exception to the typical behavior of substances when heated and is a critical aspect of thermodynamics and environmental science.
• Other substances, like mercury, air, and copper, follow predictable thermal expansion patterns based on their molecular structures and physical properties.

The correct answer is Fossils.

Key Points

• Carbon-dating, also known as radiocarbon dating, is a scientific method used to determine the age of ancient organic materials by measuring the amount of radioactive isotope carbon-14 (C-14) present in them.
• This method is primarily used for dating fossils, archaeological artifacts, and remains of plants and animals that are up to 50,000 years old.
• Carbon-dating is effective because all living organisms absorb carbon, including the radioactive isotope C-14, during their lifetime. When the organism dies, C-14 starts decaying at a known rate (its half-life is approximately 5730 years).
• The ratio of C-14 to C-12 in a fossil provides an estimate of the time elapsed since the organism's death, making it a reliable tool for dating fossils.
• The method is widely used in archaeology, paleontology, and geology to study historical and prehistoric periods.

Additional Information

• Trees:
• Determining the age of trees is typically done using a method called dendrochronology, which involves counting the number of growth rings in a tree trunk cross-section.
• Each growth ring corresponds to one year of growth, allowing scientists to determine the exact age of the tree.
• However, carbon-dating can still be applied to ancient wooden artifacts, provided they contain organic material.
• Mountains:
• The age of mountains is determined using geological methods such as uranium-lead dating, potassium-argon dating, and other isotopic dating techniques applied to the rocks that form the mountain.
• Carbon-dating is not applicable here as rocks do not contain organic carbon necessary for radiocarbon analysis.
• Rocks:
• Rocks are dated using radiometric techniques such as uranium-lead dating, argon-argon dating, or rubidium-strontium dating, depending on the composition of the rock and its age.
• Since rocks are inorganic and lack carbon-14, carbon-dating cannot be used to determine their age.
• Main Theme: Carbon-dating is a specialized tool for dating materials that were once part of living organisms. It is not suitable for inorganic substances like rocks and mountains but is highly effective for fossils and other organic remains.

The correct answer is Param Vir Chakra.

Key Points

• The Param Vir Chakra (PVC) is India’s highest military decoration, awarded for the most conspicuous bravery or some daring or pre-eminent act of valor or self-sacrifice in the presence of the enemy.
• It was established on 26 January 1950, the same day India became a republic, and is awarded by the President of India.
• The decoration is made of bronze and has the national emblem of India embossed on the obverse side, surrounded by four replicas of Indra's Vajra (thunderbolt).
• To date, 21 awardees have received the Param Vir Chakra, with the majority of these being posthumous awards.
• The award is equivalent to the Medal of Honor in the United States or the Victoria Cross in the UK.

Additional Information

• Kirti Chakra
• The Kirti Chakra is the second-highest peacetime gallantry award in India.
• It is awarded for valor, courageous action, or self-sacrifice away from the battlefield.
• It ranks below the Ashoka Chakra and is equivalent to the Maha Vir Chakra (wartime award).
• The decoration is circular and made of silver, featuring the national emblem on the obverse side.
• Vir Chakra
• The Vir Chakra is the third-highest wartime gallantry award in India.
• It is awarded for acts of gallantry in the face of the enemy, whether on land, at sea, or in the air.
• It was established on 26 January 1950, and its decoration is made of standard silver with the national emblem embossed on the obverse.
• Param Vishisht Seva Medal
• The Param Vishisht Seva Medal (PVSM) is a peacetime award given for exceptional service to the nation.
• It is primarily awarded to officers in the armed forces in recognition of distinguished service of the most exceptional order.
• The medal is circular and made of gold gilt, with the emblem of India embossed on the obverse.
• Gallantry Awards in India
• India has a comprehensive system of gallantry awards, divided into wartime and peacetime categories.
• Wartime gallantry awards include the Param Vir Chakra, Maha Vir Chakra, and Vir Chakra.
• Peacetime gallantry awards include the Ashoka Chakra, Kirti Chakra, and Shaurya Chakra.
• These awards recognize extraordinary courage, selflessness, and devotion to duty by members of the armed forces, paramilitary forces, and civilians.

The correct answer is Palk Strait.

Key Points

• The Palk Strait is a narrow stretch of water that separates Tamil Nadu in India from the Mannar district in Sri Lanka.
• It is approximately 137 kilometers (85 miles) long and varies in width, ranging from 64 kilometers (40 miles) at its widest to 32 kilometers (20 miles) at its narrowest.
• The strait is named after Robert Palk, a governor of Madras during British rule.
• Rameswaram Island and the Mannar Island are situated along the Palk Strait, and the region also includes the geological formation known as Adam's Bridge or Rama's Bridge.
• This region is ecologically significant and is known for its rich marine biodiversity, including coral reefs, fish species, and mangroves.

Additional Information

• Malacca Strait:
• The Malacca Strait is a crucial maritime passage that connects the Indian Ocean with the Pacific Ocean through the South China Sea.
• It lies between the Malay Peninsula and the Indonesian island of Sumatra.
• It is one of the busiest shipping channels in the world and plays a vital role in global trade.
• This strait does not connect India and Sri Lanka geographically.
• Bass Strait:
• The Bass Strait is located between the Australian mainland and Tasmania.
• It is a shallow sea passage and is known for its unpredictable weather and strong currents.
• This strait is not relevant to the connection between India and Sri Lanka.
• Bering Strait:
• The Bering Strait lies between Russia's Chukchi Peninsula and Alaska's Seward Peninsula.
• It connects the Arctic Ocean and the Pacific Ocean via the Bering Sea.
• This strait is unrelated to the geographical context of India and Sri Lanka.
• Adam's Bridge (Rama's Bridge):
• Adam's Bridge, also known as Rama's Bridge, is a chain of limestone shoals located in the Palk Strait.
• Historical and mythological records suggest it was a land connection between India and Sri Lanka.
• It is believed to have been passable on foot until it was submerged due to natural geological processes.

The correct answer is Persian.

Key Points

• Persian was the official court language during the reign of Akbar, the Mughal emperor who ruled from 1556 to 1605.
• It became the administrative and cultural language of the Mughal Empire, and its use was further promoted during Akbar's rule.
• The Mughal courts adopted Persian for documentation, correspondence, and literary works, making it the language of governance and elite culture.
• Akbar employed prominent Persian scholars and poets such as Abul Fazl and Faizi, whose works were instrumental in developing Persian literature in India.
• Persian remained the official language of the Mughal court until the early 19th century when it was replaced by English under British rule.

Additional Information

• Urdu:
• Urdu developed as a lingua franca in the Indian subcontinent by combining elements of Persian, Arabic, Turkish, and local Indian dialects.
• While it emerged during the Mughal era, it was not officially recognized as a court language during Akbar's reign.
• Urdu gained prominence later and became associated with cultural and literary developments in India, especially during the late Mughal period.
• Turki:
• Turki (or Chagatai Turkish) was the native language of Babur, Akbar's grandfather and the founder of the Mughal dynasty.
• Though Babur wrote his memoirs, the "Baburnama," in Turki, the language gradually lost its administrative significance under the Mughal Empire and was replaced by Persian.
• Arabic:
• Arabic was primarily used for religious purposes, especially in the Islamic world, as it is the language of the Quran.
• It was not used as an administrative or court language during Akbar’s reign but influenced Persian and other languages in terms of vocabulary and script.

The correct answer is Photochemical smog.

Key Points

• The term 'Brown Air' refers to photochemical smog, which is a type of air pollution resulting from the reaction of sunlight with pollutants like nitrogen oxides (NOx) and volatile organic compounds (VOCs).
• It primarily occurs in urban areas with high vehicle emissions and industrial activity, especially in warm and sunny conditions.
• Photochemical smog contains harmful pollutants such as ozone (O3), peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN), and aldehydes, which can cause respiratory and cardiovascular issues.
• The brownish color of the air is due to nitrogen dioxide (NO2), a major component of photochemical smog.
• Regions like Los Angeles, Mexico City, and Delhi are frequently affected by photochemical smog due to their dense population and high emissions.

Additional Information

• Industrial smog:
• Also known as "gray smog," it forms in cooler, humid conditions and primarily consists of sulfur dioxide (SO2) and particulate matter.
• This type of smog is typically associated with the burning of fossil fuels like coal and oil, which release sulfur compounds.
• It was famously observed during the London Smog of 1952, which caused severe health and environmental impacts.
• Sulphurous smog:
• This is another name for industrial smog, as it primarily contains sulfur dioxide and other sulfur compounds.
• It leads to acid rain and contributes to respiratory problems and environmental degradation.
• Acid fumes:
• Acid fumes result from the emission of acidic gases like sulfur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxides (NOx) into the atmosphere.
• These gases react with water vapor to form acidic substances such as sulfuric acid (H2SO4) and nitric acid (HNO3), which contribute to acid rain.
• While acid fumes are related to air pollution, they are not the same as photochemical smog.
• Main Theme:
• Photochemical smog is a significant environmental issue caused by human activities like industrialization and vehicular emissions.
• Efforts to control smog include reducing emissions of NOx and VOCs, promoting the use of cleaner fuels, and adopting stricter environmental regulations.

According to the question, the first three letters of English alphabet are reversed and so on... and the last two letters are reversed:

ABC  DEF  GHI  JKL  MNO  PQR  STU  VWX  YZ  →  CBA  FED  IHG  LKJ  ONM  RQP  UTS  XWV  ZY

So, 19th letter to the right of 17th letter to the left of 5th letter from right → CBAFEDIHGLKJONMRQPUTSXWVZY → V

Hence, 'Option 1' is the correct answer.

The correct answer is zero.

Key Points

• The gravitational force inside the Earth decreases with depth because it depends on the mass enclosed within the radius of the point considered.
• At the center of the Earth, the effective gravitational force becomes zero as the mass is symmetrically distributed around the center.
• The weight of a body is given by the formula W = mg, where g (gravitational acceleration) becomes zero at the Earth's center, leading to a weight of zero.
• This is supported by Newton's law of gravitation and the shell theorem, which states that the net gravitational force inside a uniform spherical shell is zero.
• The concept is theoretical, as the Earth's core is inaccessible, but it is well-established in physics based on mathematical models and fundamental laws.

Additional Information

• Option 2: Twice the weight at the Earth's surface
• This option is incorrect because the gravitational force does not increase inside the Earth. Instead, it decreases with depth.
• The concept of gravitational force doubling is not supported by scientific theories or mathematical models.
• Option 3: Half the weight at the Earth's surface
• This option is also incorrect. While the gravitational force decreases with depth, it does not become exactly half at any specific layer inside the Earth.
• The weight decreases gradually and reaches zero at the center due to the uniform distribution of mass around the center.
• Option 4: Infinite
• This option is incorrect as the gravitational force cannot become infinite at the Earth's center. Instead, it becomes zero as per the shell theorem and Newtonian physics.
• The concept of infinite weight contradicts established scientific principles.
• Related Concept: Gravitational Force and Weight
• Gravitational force is the attractive force between two masses, governed by Newton's law of gravitation.
• The weight of a body is the force exerted by gravity on the mass of the body.
• Inside the Earth, the gravitational force decreases linearly with depth until it becomes zero at the center.

Given:

Total mixture = 729 ml

Milk : Water = 7 : 2

We need to add water to make the new ratio Milk : Water = 7 : 3

Formula used:

Total milk = $\dfrac{7}{9}$ of total mixture

Total water = $\dfrac{2}{9}$ of total mixture

New water amount = $\dfrac{1}{3}$ of total mixture

Additional water to be added = New water - Initial water

Calculation:

Total milk = $\dfrac{7}{9} \times 729 = 567 , \text{ml}$

Total water = $\dfrac{2}{9} \times 729 = 162 , \text{ml}$

Let the additional water added be x. Then,

⇒ Milk : Water = $\dfrac{567}{162 + x} = \dfrac{7}{3}$

⇒ $\dfrac{567}{162 + x} = \dfrac{7}{3}$

⇒ $3 \times 567 = 7 \times (162 + x)$

⇒ $1701 = 1134 + 7x$

⇒ $1701 - 1134 = 7x$

⇒ $567 = 7x$

⇒ $x = \dfrac{567}{7} = 81 , \text{ml}$

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

The logic followed is:

ABCD: WXYZ

Similarly,

EFGH: ?

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given:

Four consecutive even numbers A, B, C, D

Average of A, B, C, D = 99

Find product of B and D

Formula used:

Average = (Sum of numbers) / 4

Calculations:

Consecutive even numbers: A, A + 2, A + 4, A + 6

Average = (A + (A + 2) + (A + 4) + (A + 6)) / 4 = 99

⇒ (4A + 12) / 4 = 99

⇒ 4A + 12 = 396

⇒ 4A = 384

⇒ A = 96

B = A + 2 = 98, D = A + 6 = 102

Product of B and D = 98 × 102 = 9996

Answer: 9996

The logic followed here is:

​6 : 5 → (6 ÷ 2) + 2 = 3 + 2 ⇒ 5

Similarly, 

8 : ? → (8 ÷ 2) + 2 = 4 + 2 ⇒ 6

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Alternate Method ​6 : 5 

→ (2 × 3) ⇒ 6

→ (2 + 3) ⇒ 5

Similarly, 

8 : ?

→ (2 × 4) ⇒ 8

→ (2 + 4) ⇒ 6

Given:

Father's age = Son's age + 30 years

After 10 years, Father's age = 3 × Son's age

Calculation:

Let Son's current age = x

Father's current age = x + 30

After 10 years:

(x + 30 + 10) = 3 × (x + 10)

(x + 40) = 3 × (x + 10)

⇒ x + 40 = 3x + 30

⇒ 40 - 30 = 3x - x

⇒ 10 = 2x

⇒ x = 10 ÷ 2 = 5

∴ Son's current age is 5 years, and the correct answer is option (1).

The correct answer is Chowdhury Rehmat Ali.

Key Points

• Chowdhury Rehmat Ali is credited with coining the name "Pakistan" in 1933, through his pamphlet titled "Now or Never: Are We to Live or Perish Forever?".
• The name "Pakistan" is derived from a combination of letters representing different regions, specifically Punjab, Afghania (North-West Frontier Province), Kashmir, Sindh, and Baluchistan.
• Rehmat Ali was a student at Cambridge University in England when he proposed the idea of creating a separate state for Muslims in the Indian subcontinent.
• The name "Pakistan" symbolizes "the land of the pure," derived from the Persian and Urdu words "Pak" (pure) and "Stan" (place).
• His idea laid the foundation for the later political movement advocating for the creation of Pakistan, led by Muhammad Ali Jinnah and the All-India Muslim League.

Additional Information

• Liaquat Ali Khan:
• He was the first Prime Minister of Pakistan after its independence in 1947.
• Liaquat Ali Khan played a significant role in the political development of Pakistan and is considered one of its founding fathers.
• He was a close associate of Muhammad Ali Jinnah and contributed to the constitutional and administrative groundwork of the country.
• Mohammad Ali Jinnah:
• He is known as the "Father of the Nation" in Pakistan for his pivotal role in the creation of the country.
• Jinnah led the All-India Muslim League and successfully advocated for the partition of British India, which resulted in the establishment of Pakistan in 1947.
• Although Jinnah did not coin the name "Pakistan," he embraced the concept and worked tirelessly to realize the vision proposed by Chowdhury Rehmat Ali.
• Fazlul Haque:
• Fazlul Haque was a prominent Bengali politician and the Chief Minister of Bengal.
• He is known for presenting the Lahore Resolution in 1940, which called for independent states for Muslims in the northwestern and eastern zones of India.
• The Lahore Resolution was a significant milestone in the struggle for Pakistan, but Fazlul Haque was not involved in coining the name "Pakistan."
• Main Theme:
• The idea of Pakistan originated from the demand for a separate nation for Muslims in the Indian subcontinent, stemming from cultural, religious, and political differences.
• While Chowdhury Rehmat Ali coined the name, the movement gained momentum under the leadership of Muhammad Ali Jinnah and culminated in the creation of Pakistan on August 14, 1947.
• The term "Pakistan" reflects the regions it aimed to incorporate and symbolizes purity, as envisioned by its proponents.

The logic followed here is :-

From the given two different cubes the adjacent sides are as shown below :

As 5 dots is common on both the dices, it is clear that 2 Dots, 4 Dots, 1 Dot and 3 Dots are adjacent to it, and the remaining i.e. 6 Dots will be opposite to it.

Opposite pairs:

4 Dots → 3 Dots

2 Dots → 1 Dot

5 Dots → 6 Dots

So, the opposite side of "4 Dots" will be side "3 Dots".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The correct answer is Trans-Siberian Railway.

Key Points

• The longest continental railway in the world is the Trans-Siberian Railway, stretching over 9,289 kilometers (5,772 miles) across Russia, connecting Moscow to Vladivostok on the Pacific coast, and serving as a vital link between Europe and Asia.
• Length & Route: It's the world's longest single railway line, crossing Siberia, the Ural Mountains, and major rivers like the Ob and Yenisei.
• Significance: It's a crucial transportation artery for Russia, opening up its vast eastern regions for trade and travel, and historically connecting Europe and Asia.
• Construction: Built under the Russian Empire between 1891 and 1916, it remains a monumental engineering feat.

The correct answer is 4) 4.

Key Points

• The Earth is divided into 360 degrees of longitude, with the Prime Meridian (0° longitude) passing through Greenwich, London.
• The Earth rotates 360 degrees in approximately 24 hours, meaning it rotates 15 degrees per hour.
• Consequently, each degree of longitude represents a time difference of 4 minutes (60 minutes/15 degrees).
• As a place moves east of Greenwich, its local time advances by 4 minutes for each degree; moving west, the time decreases by the same rate.
• This principle is fundamental to calculating local time differences worldwide based on longitude.

Additional Information

• Option 1 (6 minutes):
• This is incorrect because the Earth does not rotate 6 degrees of longitude in 1 minute.
• Based on Earth's rotation, 15 degrees correspond to 1 hour (or 60 minutes), equating to 4 minutes per degree.
• Option 2 (8 minutes):
• This is inaccurate as it overestimates the time taken for the Earth to rotate 1 degree of longitude.
• While 8 minutes per degree might seem plausible, it does not align with the Earth's rotational dynamics.
• Option 3 (2 minutes):
• It underestimates the actual time taken for the Earth to rotate 1 degree of longitude.
• The correct calculation is 4 minutes per degree, derived from the Earth's 24-hour rotation around its axis.
• Main Theme:
• The concept of time zones and local time differences is based on Earth's rotation and longitude divisions.
• The Prime Meridian at Greenwich serves as the reference point for calculating time differences globally.
• This framework underpins the global standard time system, allowing for consistent timekeeping worldwide.

The correct answer is Dr. S. Radhakrishnan.

Key Points

• Teachers' Day in India is celebrated on 5th September every year to honor the contributions of teachers and the role they play in shaping society.
• This date marks the birth anniversary of Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, who was a philosopher, scholar, and the second President of India.
• Dr. Radhakrishnan was a strong advocate of education, ethics, and teacher-student relationships, and he believed in the transformative power of education.
• When some of his students and friends wanted to celebrate his birthday, he suggested that it be observed as Teachers' Day to honor all teachers across the nation.
• The tradition of celebrating Teachers' Day in India began in 1962, the year Dr. Radhakrishnan became the President of India.

Additional Information

• Dr. Rajendra Prasad:
• He was the first President of India and served from 1950 to 1962.
• A freedom fighter and a key leader in the Indian independence movement, he played a significant role in drafting the Indian Constitution.
• Dr. Rajendra Prasad's birthday (3rd December) is not celebrated as Teachers' Day in India.
• Dr. C. Rajagopalachari:
• He was the last Governor-General of India and an accomplished statesman, writer, and lawyer.
• Dr. Rajagopalachari was the first Indian Governor-General after independence, but his contributions are not specifically linked to Teachers' Day.
• He also founded the Swatantra Party in 1959, advocating for free-market policies.
• Lala Lajpat Rai:
• Lala Lajpat Rai, known as the ‘Punjab Kesari’ (Lion of Punjab), was a prominent freedom fighter and social reformer.
• He played a key role in the Indian independence movement and was a member of the famous Lal-Bal-Pal trio (Lala Lajpat Rai, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, and Bipin Chandra Pal).
• His legacy is honored in various ways, but his birth anniversary (28th January) is not associated with Teachers' Day.
• Theme of Teachers' Day:
• The celebration is a tribute to all teachers for their invaluable contributions to society and the development of young minds.
• It emphasizes the importance of education and the vital role teachers play in shaping the future of a nation.
• Globally, World Teachers' Day is celebrated on 5th October, as declared by UNESCO in 1994.

Calculation:

(0.4 × 1.5) / 0.2

⇒ 0.4/0.2 × 1.5

⇒ 2 × 1.5

⇒ 3

Hence, the correct answer is 3.

The correct answer is Mon Apr 07 2025 00:00:00 GMT+0530 (India Standard Time).

Key Points

• World Health Day is observed every year on April 7 to mark the founding of the World Health Organization (WHO) in 1948.
• The day is celebrated to raise awareness about health issues across the globe and to mobilize efforts to address them.
• Each year, WHO selects a specific theme to focus on for World Health Day. For instance, in recent years, themes have included "Health for All" and "Universal Health Coverage."
• World Health Day is a part of WHO's larger commitment to improving global health and ensuring equitable access to healthcare for everyone.
• This day is utilized to organize campaigns, conferences, health check-ups, and awareness drives globally to encourage people to prioritize their health and well-being.

Additional Information

• Wed Apr 23 2025:
• This date does not hold any significance related to health awareness or WHO.
• It is essential to differentiate between globally recognized dates and region-specific observances.
• Fri Apr 18 2025:
• This date also does not align with any recognized health-related observance.
• Dates like these are often included as distractors in multiple-choice questions, emphasizing the need for clarity on significant global events.
• Tue Apr 15 2025:
• Similarly, this date is not associated with World Health Day or any specific global health observance.
• However, it is crucial to note that other important health-related days, such as World Health Worker Week, occur in April, but their dates vary each year.
• Main Theme:
• World Health Day is one of the eight official global health campaigns marked by WHO, including World Immunization Week and World AIDS Day.
• It serves as a reminder of the importance of health equity, accessibility, and the role of healthcare systems in improving the quality of life worldwide.

The correct answer is Young India.

Key Points

• Young India was a weekly journal published by Mahatma Gandhi from 1919 to 1932.
• It served as a platform for Gandhiji to express his political views, ideas, and strategies related to the Indian independence movement.
• Through Young India, Gandhi communicated his philosophy of non-violence (Ahimsa) and Satyagraha to the masses.
• The journal also discussed social reforms, self-reliance, and the importance of Swadeshi movement.
• Young India played a crucial role in shaping public opinion and mobilizing support for the freedom struggle.

Additional Information

• Seminar
• Seminar is a monthly magazine founded in 1959 by Raj and Neera Thapar.
• It focuses on contemporary issues related to politics, economics, culture, and social challenges in India.
• Unlike Young India, Seminar is not directly associated with the Indian independence movement or Mahatma Gandhi.
• Modern Review
• The Modern Review was an influential journal founded in 1907 by Ramananda Chatterjee.
• It was known for its focus on politics, literature, art, and social issues.
• Though it played a significant role during the Indian independence movement, it was not edited by Mahatma Gandhi.
• National Herald
• The National Herald is a newspaper founded by Jawaharlal Nehru in 1938.
• It was established to promote the ideals of democracy, socialism, and independence.
• Mahatma Gandhi was not associated with editing this publication.

Given:

Passing marks = 460

Student scored = 368 and failed by 8%

Find maximum aggregate marks (Total Marks)

Formula used:

Failed by % = (Passing Marks - Scored Marks) / Total Marks × 100

Maximum aggregate marks = Total Marks

Calculations:

Let total marks = T

Failed by 8% ⇒ (460 - 368) / T × 100 = 8

⇒ 92 / T × 100 = 8

⇒ 9200 / T = 8

⇒ T = 9200 / 8 = 1150

Answer: 1150 marks

The correct answer is Music.

Key Points

• The Grammy Awards are the most prestigious accolades in the field of music and sound recording arts, presented annually by the Recording Academy.
• The first Grammy Awards ceremony was held on May 4, 1959, to honor outstanding achievements in the music industry during the previous year.
• The awards recognize excellence across various music genres, including pop, rock, classical, jazz, hip-hop, country, and more, as well as technical achievements like production and engineering.
• Winners are awarded a gold-plated statuette in the shape of a gramophone, symbolizing the awards’ association with music and its history.
• The Grammy Awards are often considered the equivalent of the Oscars in the music industry and have categories such as Album of the Year, Song of the Year, and Best New Artist.

Additional Information

• Science
• Science is the systematic study of the natural and physical world through observation and experimentation.
• It includes various disciplines such as physics, chemistry, biology, astronomy, and geology.
• Major awards in science include the Nobel Prize, the Breakthrough Prize, and the Fields Medal (for mathematics).
• Sports
• Sports encompass physical activities and games that involve skill, strategy, and competition.
• Examples include cricket, football, basketball, tennis, and athletics.
• Prominent awards in sports include the Ballon d'Or (football), Laureus World Sports Awards, and the Olympic medals.
• Literary Works
• Literary works include written compositions such as novels, poems, short stories, and plays.
• Major awards in literature include the Nobel Prize in Literature, the Booker Prize, and the Pulitzer Prize.

Given : ab _ _ baa _ _ ab _

By checking options :

Option 1) aabaa → ab a a baa b a ab a → (It follows the pattern of: aba - aba - aba - aba)

Option 2) aaaaa → ab a a baa a a ab a → (It doesn't Follow the pattern)

Option 3) baabb → ab b a baa a b ab b → (It doesn't Follow the pattern)

Option 4) aabab → ab a a baa b a ab b → (It doesn't Follow the pattern)

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Given: Suman celebrated his victory day on Tuesday, 5th January, 1965

5th January, 1965 = Tuesday

5th January, 1966 = Tuesday +1 (ordinary year) = Wednesday

5th January, 1967 = Wednesday +1 (ordinary year) = Thursday 

5th January, 1968 = Thursday + 2 (Leap year) = Saturday

5th January, 1969 = Saturday +1 (ordinary year) = Sunday

5th January, 1970 = Sunday +1 (ordinary year) = Monday 

5th January, 1971 = Monday +1 (ordinary year) = Tuesday

Hence, 'Option 4' is the correct answer.

Shortcut Trick

Trick to remember: 

Given:

9408 ÷ √? = 336

Calculation:

⇒ ? = (9408 ÷ 336)²

⇒ ? = 28²

⇒ ? = 784

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Given:

Speed of train = 36 km/hr

Time to cross standing man = 10 seconds

Length of platform = 55 m

Formula used:

Speed = Distance / Time

Time to cross platform = Total Distance / Speed

Calculation:

Speed in m/s = $\frac{36 \times 5}{18}$ = 10 m/s

Length of train = Speed × Time

⇒ Length of train = 10 × 10 = 100 m

Total distance to cross platform = Length of train + Length of platform

⇒ Total distance = 100 + 55 = 155 m

Time to cross platform = Total distance / Speed

⇒ Time = $\frac{155}{10}$ = 31/2 = $15\frac{1}{2}$ seconds

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

The correct answer is scattering of light.

Key Points

• The blue color of the clear sky is primarily caused by the scattering of sunlight by atmospheric particles.
• When sunlight enters Earth's atmosphere, it interacts with air molecules and small particles. This phenomenon is called Rayleigh scattering.
• Rayleigh scattering is more effective at shorter wavelengths of light, such as blue and violet. Since our eyes are more sensitive to blue light, the sky appears blue.
• The intensity of scattering is inversely proportional to the fourth power of the wavelength. Therefore, shorter wavelengths like blue are scattered more than longer wavelengths such as red.
• During sunrise and sunset, the sunlight passes through a thicker layer of the atmosphere, scattering out the shorter wavelengths, leaving the longer wavelengths like red and orange, which is why we see reddish hues at these times.

Additional Information

• Diffraction of light:
• Diffraction refers to the bending of light waves around obstacles or the edges of an aperture.
• It occurs when the size of the obstacle or aperture is comparable to the wavelength of light.
• Diffraction is responsible for patterns like those seen in the interference of light waves, such as the rainbow-like colors in CD surfaces or soap bubbles.
• However, diffraction is not responsible for the blue color of the sky.
• Reflection of light:
• Reflection occurs when light waves bounce off a surface, such as a mirror or water body.
• The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection in such cases.
• While reflection is a significant phenomenon in optics, it is unrelated to the blue color of the sky.
• Refraction of light:
• Refraction is the bending of light as it passes from one medium to another with a different refractive index, such as air to water.
• Refraction is responsible for phenomena like the bending of light in a glass prism and the formation of rainbows.
• Although refraction plays an important role in other optical phenomena, it does not explain why the sky appears blue.

The correct answer is Muhammad bin Tughluq.

Key Points

• Ibn Batutah, a Moroccan traveler and scholar, visited India during the reign of Muhammad bin Tughluq in 1334 CE.
• Muhammad bin Tughluq, the Sultan of Delhi, was known for his eccentric policies and ambitious plans, which often ended in failure.
• Ibn Batutah was appointed as the Qazi (judge) of Delhi by Muhammad bin Tughluq, showcasing the Sultan’s appreciation for scholars and administrators.
• The traveler recorded his observations in his book, "Rihla" (The Travels), which provides invaluable insights into the socio-economic and cultural aspects of India during Tughluq’s reign.
• Muhammad bin Tughluq’s court was known for its cosmopolitan nature, attracting scholars, travelers, and merchants from different parts of the world, including Ibn Batutah.

Additional Information

• Sher Shah Suri:
• Sher Shah Suri was an Afghan ruler who established the Suri dynasty in India (1540–1545).
• He is best known for introducing administrative reforms and the construction of the Grand Trunk Road, which connected various parts of India.
• He did not have any notable interaction with Ibn Batutah as his reign occurred after Batutah’s travels.
• Alauddin Khilji:
• Alauddin Khilji was the second ruler of the Khilji dynasty, known for his military conquests and economic reforms.
• He implemented strict market regulations and expanded the Delhi Sultanate significantly.
• Ibn Batutah did not visit India during Alauddin Khilji’s reign as his travels occurred much later.
• Ghiyasuddin Tughluq:
• Ghiyasuddin Tughluq was the founder of the Tughluq dynasty, ruling from 1320 to 1325 CE.
• His reign was marked by military campaigns and efforts to stabilize the empire after the decline of the Khilji dynasty.
• Although Ghiyasuddin Tughluq preceded Muhammad bin Tughluq, Ibn Batutah visited India after his reign.
• Main Theme:
• Ibn Batutah’s travels provide a significant historical account of the Delhi Sultanate under Muhammad bin Tughluq, offering insights into the culture, administration, and political landscape of medieval India.
• His observations are crucial for understanding the historical context of Tughluq’s reign and the broader cultural exchanges during the 14th century.

The correct answer is Pyrometer.

Key Points

• A pyrometer is an instrument designed for measuring very high temperatures, typically used in industrial processes.
• It works based on the principle of thermal radiation emitted by hot objects, particularly in the visible and infrared spectrum.
• Pyrometers are non-contact devices, making them ideal for measuring the temperature of objects that are too hot or inaccessible to touch directly.
• It is widely used in applications such as metallurgy, ceramics, and glass industries, where temperatures can exceed thousands of degrees Celsius.
• Modern pyrometers often use laser technology for improved precision and accuracy.

Additional Information

• Thermostat:
• A thermostat is a device used to regulate and maintain temperature within a predefined range, typically in heating or cooling systems.
• It does not measure high temperatures but instead controls temperature at safe levels in appliances such as air conditioners, refrigerators, and home heating systems.
• Thermostats work based on sensors and switches to turn devices on or off when the desired temperature threshold is reached.
• Pyrheliometer:
• A pyrheliometer is an instrument used to measure direct beam solar irradiance and is commonly utilized in solar energy research.
• It operates by detecting solar radiation and converting it into electrical signals for analysis.
• This device is not designed for measuring temperature but for studying solar intensity and its impact on the environment.
• Pyknometer:
• A pyknometer is a laboratory device used to measure the density or specific gravity of liquids and solids.
• It is generally used in chemistry and material science research to determine the physical properties of substances.
• Pyknometers are not related to temperature measurement.

The correct answer is (B) KPSU.

The logic is based on the number of letters skipped between each consecutive letter in the group.

• E (+4) J (+3) N (+0) O → Pattern: +5, +4, +1

• N (+4) S (+3) W (+0) X → Pattern: +5, +4, +1

• H (+4) M (+3) Q (+0) R → Pattern: +5, +4, +1

• K (+4) P (+2) S (+1) U → Pattern: +5, +3, +2, which is different.

The correct answer is (D) Hydrogen.

Key Points

• According to the Arrhenius and Brønsted-Lowry definitions, an acid is a substance that produces hydrogen ions (H⁺) or donates protons when dissolved in a solvent like water.
• Therefore, hydrogen is the essential element common to all acids.

The correct answer is (A) Indonesia.

Key Points

• Indonesia is the world's largest archipelagic country, consisting of over 17,500 islands.
• Due to this vast number of islands, it is often referred to poetically as the 'Land of a Thousand Islands'.

The correct answer is (B) 128.

The pattern in the series is as follows: multiply the current number by a decreasing integer (starting from 4) and then add twice that same integer to get the next number.

(30 × 4) + (2 × 4) = 120 + 8 = 128

(128 × 3) + (2 × 3) = 384 + 6 = 390

(390 × 2) + (2 × 2) = 780 + 4 = 784

(784 × 1) + (2 × 1) = 784 + 2 = 786

The correct answer is (A) Cousin.

Key Points

• Here is the step-by-step breakdown of the relationship:
• "His father's wife" is Vinod's mother.
• "The only brother of his father's wife" is the only brother of Vinod's mother, which makes him Vinod's maternal uncle.
• Vishal is the "son of" this person, meaning Vishal is the son of Vinod's maternal uncle.
• The son of one's uncle is their cousin.