Official Paper

Kolkata Police Constable 2012 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)

60 questions · 90 minutes · with answers · free

Full Test (60 questions)

1

Which of the fraction is the least?

  1. ((a))

    242524 \over25

  2. ((b))

    101110 \over11

  3. ((c))

    9910099 \over 100

  4. ((d))

    686968 \over 69

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

101110 \over11

Concept:

When the difference between the numerator and denominator are same

  • If the numerator is the smallest, the fraction will be the smallest.
  • If the numerator is the greatest, the fraction will be the greatest.

Calculation:

The difference between the numerator and denominator is 1.

The least fraction is 10/11

2

Shown here are equations given to Seema, Anees, Asha and Tessy with their answers:

Seema : 4 × 1 + 8 ÷ 2 = 8

Anees : 6 + 4 ÷ 2 - 1 = 4

Asha : 9 + 3 × 2 - 4 ÷ 2 = 10

Tessy : 27 ÷ 3 - 2 × 3 = 21

Who has got the correct answer?

  1. ((a))

    Seema

  2. ((b))

    Anees

  3. ((c))

    Asha

  4. ((d))

    Tessy

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Seema

Seema : 4 × 1 + 8 ÷ 2 = 8

⇒ 4 + 4 = 8

⇒ 8 = 8

Anees : 6 + 4 ÷ 2 - 1 = 4

6 + 2 - 1 = 4

⇒ 8 - 1 = 4

⇒ 7 ≠ 4

Asha : 9 + 3 × 2 - 4 ÷ 2 = 10

9 + 6 - 2 = 10

⇒ 15 - 2 = 10

⇒ 13 ≠ 10

Tessy : 27 ÷ 3 - 2 × 3 = 21

⇒ 9 - 6 = 21

⇒ 3 ≠ 21

Hence, 'Seema' is the correct answer.

3

If A = 3/4 ÷ 5/6

B = 3 ÷ [(4 ÷ 5) ÷ 6]

C = [3 ÷ (4 ÷ 5)] ÷ 6 and

D = 3 ÷ 4(5 ÷ 6)

Then

  1. ((a))

    A and B are equal

  2. ((b))

    A and C are equal

  3. ((c))

    A and D are equal

  4. ((d))

    All are equal

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A and D are equal

Calculation:

A = 3/4 ÷ 5/6

⇒ A = 34×65\frac {3}{4} × \frac {6}{5} = 1820\frac {18}{20} = 910\frac {9}{10}

B = 3 ÷ [(4 ÷ 5) ÷ 6]

⇒ B = 3 ÷ [(4/5) ÷ 6]

⇒ B = 3 ÷ (4/30)

⇒ B = 3 ÷ (2/15)

⇒ B = 3 × (15/2)

⇒ B = 45/2

C = [3 ÷ (4 ÷ 5)] ÷ 6 

⇒ C = [3 ÷ (4/5)] ÷ 6 

⇒ C = [3 × (5/4)] ÷ 6 

⇒ C = (15/4) ÷ 6 

⇒ C = 15/24

⇒ C = 5/8

D = 3 ÷ 4(5 ÷ 6)

⇒ D = 3 ÷ 4(5/6)

⇒ D = 3 ÷ (10/3)

⇒ D = 3 × (3/10)

⇒ D = 9/10

∴ A and D are equal

4

Malala Yousufzai is a name which recently came into news. She is a

  1. ((a))

    Pakistani Women Rights Activist shot by Pakistani Taliban

  2. ((b))

    External Affairs Minister of Bangladesh

  3. ((c))

    New Women Judge appointed to Madras High Court

  4. ((d))

    Eminent Urdu writer who received this year's Sahithya Academy Award

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pakistani Women Rights Activist shot by Pakistani Taliban

The correct answer is Pakistani Women Rights Activists shot by the Pakistani Taliban.

Key Points

  • Malala Yousafzai received the Nobel Peace Prize in recognition of her efforts to uphold every child's right to an education.
  • She was born in Pakistan's Swat Valley.
  • The Taliban quickly began threatening her life.
  • She is a Pakistani Women's Rights Activist.
  • A Taliban gunman shot Malala in the head in 2012 while she was riding a school bus.
  • She managed to live, but a fatwa was issued against her.
  • She was forced to flee to England and live there in exile.

Additional Information

  • Girls' schools were destroyed after the Islamic Taliban movement seized power in the region of her living in 2008.
  • Malala kept a journal of the incidents, and BBC Urdu published it in 2009.
  • She denounced the terrorist government of the Taliban in her diary.
  • Malala became well-known worldwide thanks to an American documentary movie.
5

Who has been appointed as the Chief Economic Advisor (CEA) in the Ministry of Finance?

  1. ((a))

    Kaushik Basu

  2. ((b))

    Raghuram G. Rajan

  3. ((c))

    Vijoy L. Kelkar

  4. ((d))

    Indra Rangarajan

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Raghuram G. Rajan

The correct answer is Raghuram G. Rajan.

Key Points

  • Raghuram Govind Rajan is one of the Indian economists.
  • He holds a professorship in finance at the University of Chicago Booth School of Business as the Katherine Dusak Miller Distinguished Service Professor.
  • He was the International Monetary Fund's chief economist and director of research.
  • Raghuram G. Rajan has been appointed as the **Chief Economic Advisor (CEA) in the Ministry of Finance.**​

Additional Information

  • He served as the Reserve Bank of India's 23rd governor.
  • He was working at the RBI when he was appointed vice chairman of the Bank for International Settlements in 2015.
  • Rajan was awarded the first Fischer Black Prize in 2003.
  • This award is granted by the American Finance Association every two years to the financial economist under the age of 40 who has made the greatest contribution to the theory and practice of finance.
6

Which one of the following pair is correctly matched?

  1. ((a))

    Dipika Kumari - Badminton

  2. ((b))

    Krishna Poonia - Archery

  3. ((c))

    Vijender Singh - Athletics

  4. ((d))

    Gaganjeet Bhullar - Golf

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Gaganjeet Bhullar - Golf

The correct answer is Gaganjeet Bhullar - Golf.

Key Points

Gaganjeet Singh Bhullar 

  • He is an Indian professional golfer who competes on the European Tour.
  • In 2013, he received the Arjuna Award.
  • Hence the fourth pair is correct.

 

Additional Information

Krishna Poonia 

  • She is an Indian discus thrower who has won international gold medals
  • She is a track and field competitor, and a two-time Olympian.
  • She is a recipient of the Padma Shri and Arjuna Awards.
  • Hence the second pair is wrong.

Vijender Singh Beniwal

  • He is a politician and professional boxer from India.
  • He became the first boxer from India to win an Olympic medal when competing as an amateur.
  • He took home the bronze medal at the 2008 Beijing Games.
  • Hence the third pair is wrong.

Archer Deepika Kumari

  • She was born in India on June 13, 1994.
  • She competes in the sport of archery and is presently rated No. 2 in the world.
  • In the women's individual recurve competition at the 2010 Commonwealth Games, she took home a gold medal.
  • Hence the first pair is wrong.
7

Consider the following statements:

  1. Sachin Tendulkar is the first Indian Sports person to be conferred with the membership of the 'Order of Australia'.
  2. Former Attorney General Soli Sorabjee was the first Indian to be made an Honorary Member of the 'Order of Australia'.

Of these

  1. ((a))

    1 is correct but 2 is wrong

  2. ((b))

    1 is wrong but 2 is correct

  3. ((c))

    Both are correct

  4. ((d))

    Both are wrong

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Both are correct

The correct answer is Both are correct.

Key Points

  • Prime Minister Julia Gillard announced the Australian government's choice to award Sachin Tendulkar with the Order of Australia during her trip to India last month.
  • Tendulkar is only the Indian sportsperson from India to receive the honour.
  • So the first statement is correct.
  • He is the second person who took the honour after former attorney general Soli Sorabjee.
  • The membership is rarely conferred to non-Australians.
  • So the second statement is correct.

Additional Information

  • Australians who have excelled in service or achievement are honoured with the Order of Australia.
  • There are four award levels.
  • On the recommendation of the Australian Government, Elizabeth II, Queen of Australia, created it on February 14th, 1975.
8

The Instrument converting mechanical energy into electrical energy is called

  1. ((a))

    Dynamo

  2. ((b))

    Transformer

  3. ((c))

    Electrometer

  4. ((d))

    Motor

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Dynamo

The correct answer is Dynamo.

Key Points

Dynamo converts mechanical energy into electrical energy. 

  • Its work is based on Faraday’s law of Induction.
  • The stator provides a magnetic field and armature (rotating windings) turns in a magnetic field. This magnetic field produces an electromotive force that pushes electrons thus generating current.
  • Earlier Dynamos were equipped with permanent magnets for magnetic field generation but later replaced by electromagnets.
  • They were the first generators to supply power to the industries.

Additional Information

  • Transformer – a passive electrical device in which electromagnetic induction is used to transfer electrical energy in between circuits. It is used to maintain voltage between circuits.
  • Motor – reverse working of a Dynamo as converts electrical energy into mechanical energy. The interaction between the magnetic field and current generates force in form of torque.
  • Electrometer- It is an electrical instrument for measuring electric charge or electrical potential difference.

 

(Dynamo)

 

9

A liquid drop is spherical in shape due to

  1. ((a))

    Atmospheric pressure

  2. ((b))

    Surface tension

  3. ((c))

    Viscosity

  4. ((d))

    Weight

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Surface tension

The Correct answer is Surface tension.

Key Points

  • Surface tension is a force per unit length (or surface energy per unit area) acting in the plane of the interface between the plane of the liquid and any other substance.
  • It also is the extra energy that the molecules at the interface have as compared to molecules in the interior.
  • One consequence of surface tension is that free liquid drops and bubbles are spherical if the effects of gravity can be neglected.
  • You must have seen this especially clearly in small drops just formed in a high-speed spray or jet, and in soap bubbles blown by most of us in childhood.
  • A liquid-air interface has energy, so for a given volume, the surface with minimum energy is the one ​with the least area.
  • The sphere has this property. So liquid drops would be spherical.

 

Additional Information

Atmospheric Pressure

  • Atmospheric pressure is the pressure at any point on the surface of the earth due to the weight of the column of air above that point.
  • Air is an extremely compressible gas having its own weight.
  • The pressure exerted by air due to its weight is called atmospheric pressure on the Earth’s surface.

Viscosity

  • The viscosity of liquids decreases with temperature.
  • This is because in a liquid the molecules possess more energy at higher temperatures.
  • They can oppose the large cohesive intermolecular forces more strongly. As a result, the energized liquid molecules can move more freely.

Weight: 

  • The weight(w) of an object is the force of gravity on the object and may be defined as the mass(m) times the acceleration of gravity(g).
  • Weight is a force, and the SI unit of weight is Newton.
  • Weight (W) = m × g (Where m is mass and g is the acceleration due to gravity).
10

When a gas is compressed suddenly then its temperature

  1. ((a))

    Rises

  2. ((b))

    Decreases

  3. ((c))

    Remains unchanged

  4. ((d))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Rises

The correct answer is option 1) i.e.Raises.

Key Points

  • An adiabatic process is where no heat is exchanged between the system and surroundings. This causes the compression of the gas.
  • There will be a change in the volume due to internal work done on the gas. So the work done is negative.
  • The first law of thermodynamics states that energy can neither be created nor destroyed.(ΔU = Q - W)
  • Energy can only be transferred or changed from one form to another.
  • ​For a system at thermodynamic equilibrium, the change in internal energy is equal to the difference in heat transfer of the system and work done on it.
  • Where ​ΔU is the change in internal energy, Q is the heat exchanged in the system and W is the work done during the thermodynamic process.
11

Computer Programme consists of

  1. ((a))

    Instructions and Data

  2. ((b))

    Low level language

  3. ((c))

    Instruction data and Low level language

  4. ((d))

    Data

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Instruction data and Low level language

The correct answer is Instruction data and Low-level language.

Key Points

  • A low-level programming language is one that offers little to no abstraction from the architecture of a computer's instruction set—commands or functions.
  • These are structurally comparable to processor instructions in the language map.
  • Typically, either machine code or assembly language is meant.
  • Data in the form of coded instructions to manage the operation of a computer or other machine is referred to as a program.
  • A computer programme is made up of a series of instructions that are executed in a predetermined order.
  • In general, the main memory is where programmes are kept.
  • One instruction at a time is carried out by a computer.
12

Where is the Central Rice Research Institute located?

  1. ((a))

    Bhubaneswar

  2. ((b))

    Kolkata

  3. ((c))

    Bangalore

  4. ((d))

    Cuttack

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Cuttack

The correct answer is Cuttack. 

Key Points 

  • The Central Rice Research Institute is located in Cuttack, Odisha.
  • The institute not only played a key role in ushering the country of an ear of green revolution heading to self-sufficiency in food grain supply in about 25 years from its inception but also brought glory to the nation by providing research support in rice to become the second-largest exporter of rice in the world in the recent years.
  • The CRRI is one of the Institutes of the ICAR under the Division of Crop Sciences.
  • The Institute has two research stations-
  1. Central Rainfed Upland Rice Research Station (CRURRS), Hazaribagh, in Jharkhand,
  2. Regional Rainfed Lowland Rice Research Station (RRLRRS), Gerua, in Assam.
  • These research stations were established to tackle the problems of rainfed uplands, and flood-prone rainfed lowlands, respectively.

Additional Information

  • The outbreak of devastating epiphytotic brown spot disease of rice (Helminthosporium spp)in the then Bengal province in 1942 resulted in a serious shortage of rice.
  • Added to this, the failure of the civil administration to cope with such a disastrous situation culminated in what was called the Great Bengal Famine of 1943.
  • With this background, the Central Government, in the year 1944, decided to intensify research on all aspects of the rice crops.
  • In the following year, the Government decided to establish a Central Institute for Rice Research and this culminated in the establishment of the Central Rice Research Institute (CRRI) on April 23, 1946, at Bidyadharpur, Cuttack, Odisha with experimental farmland of 60 hectares provided by the Government of Odisha.
13

Which of the following fraction is the largest?

  1. ((a))

    15/19

  2. ((b))

    29/33

  3. ((c))

    13/17

  4. ((d))

    3/7

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

29/33

Concept:

When the difference between the numerator and denominator are same  

  • If the numerator is the smallest, the fraction will be the smallest.
  • If the numerator is the greatest, the fraction will be the greatest.

Calculation:

The difference between the numerator and denominator is 4.

The largest fraction is 29/33

14

Indian Standard Time is ahead of Greenwich Mean Time by

  1. ((a))

    2 and 1/2 hours

  2. ((b))

    3 and 1/2 hours

  3. ((c))

    7 and 1/2 hours

  4. ((d))

    5 and 1/2 hours

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

5 and 1/2 hours

The correct answer is 5 and 1/2 hours

  • Indian Standard Time (IST) is 5 hours 30 minutes ahead of Greenwich Mean Time (GMT).

Key Points  

  • In India, the longitude of 82.5° E is treated as the Standard Meridian. The local time at the meridian is taken as the Standard Time for the whole country. It is known as the Indian Standard Time (IST).
  • The Prime Meridian is a 0° and is known as the Greenwich line as it passes through Greenwich near London, where the British Royal Observatory is located.
  • Longitudes have one very important function i.e. they determine Local Time in relation to Greenwich Mean Time (GMT).
  • Local Time is the time reckoned by the noon-sun at a given place and Standard Time is the Local Time of the Standard Meridian of a country.

Additional Information  

Comparison between Latitude and Longitude
LatitudeLongitude
Latitude is the angular distance of a point north or south of the equator as measured in degrees.Longitude is the angular distance along the equator measured in degrees.
All latitudes are parallel to the equator.All meridians of longitude converge at the poles.
The distance between the two latitudes is approximately 111 km.The distance between two longitudes is maximum at the equator (111.3 km) and minimum at the poles (0 km).
The 0° latitudes are referred to as the equator and the 90° are the poles.There are 360° of longitude, 180° each in the east and west of the Prime Meridian.
15

Which one of the following is highest living tree?

  1. ((a))

    Eucalyptus

  2. ((b))

    Palm tree

  3. ((c))

    Sequea

  4. ((d))

    Tree Fern

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Sequea

The correct answer is -Sequea.

Key Points

  • Sequea
  • It is a genus of coniferous plants
  • It contains the tallest plant in the world, called redwood.
  • It grows very slowly.
  • It can reach heights above 115 meters.
  • As they slow slowly, they can live for 3000 years if all growth conditions are met.
  • They grow in the North American continent.
  • They produce several seeds but are difficult to germinate due to the high competition of the redwood plants.

Additional Information

  • Palm tree
  • Palms are evergreen plants that produce flowers all year round.
  • They are angiosperms belonging to the family Arecaceae.
  • There are around 2,600 palm species.
  • The quindio wax palm (Ceroxylon quindiuense) is the tallest palm species, reaching up to 60 meters in height.
  • Some types of toxic palms are hazardous to both people and animals.
  • Even palm trees may live a century.
  • The oldest palm tree is 150 years old and is located in Los Angeles.
  • Eucalyptus
  • It is the genus that contains the tallest flowering flower.
  • Eucalyptus is the name of a genus that has 700 different species.
  • Some species grow as tall as over 60 meters in just a few years.
  • Other species, like Eucalyptus vernicosa only grow 2-3 meters.
  • Most of the species are native to Australia. But, grown in Asia, America, and South America as well.
  • These plants grow very fast and very tall.
  • These trees' leaves have an intense aroma and are used in making oil.
  • Tree Fern
  • Arborescent ferns, often known as tree ferns, are known for their tree-like appearance.
  • They have a stem that raises the fronds above the ground, making the trees.
  • Most tree ferns belong to the "core tree ferns" family, Cyatheaceae.
  • It is the third known group of ferns to have produced tree-like structures.
  • They are able to grow trunks as small as one meter and as tall as two to three meters.
16

Which one of the following is not caused by Bacteria?

  1. ((a))

    Typhoid

  2. ((b))

    Influenza

  3. ((c))

    Diptheria

  4. ((d))

    Cholera

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Influenza

The Correct answer is Influenza is a bacterial disease

Key Points

  • Typhoid is caused by the pathogenic bacteria Salmonella typhi.
  • It is spread through contaminated food and water.
  • It generally enters the small intestine and then migrates or moves to other organs through blood.
  • The symptoms include: Constant high fever (39oC to 40oC), Stomach pain, Constipation, Loss of appetite, Weakness, Intestinal perforation, and death may occur in severe cases.
  • Diphtheria is caused by bacteria called Corynebacterium.
  • Cholera is caused by the bacteria Vibro Cholera.
  • Influenza is caused by the influenza virus.

Additional Information 

  • Mary Mallon, called Typhoid mary, was a cook and a typhoid carrier who continued to spread the disease for several years through food prepared by her.
  • Typhoid fever is confirmed by the Widal test.
  • In this test bacteria causing typhoid is mixed with a serum containing specific antibodies obtained from an infected individual.
  • Note: The test is named after its inventor, Georges-Fernand Widal.
17

Blood is formed in the human adult in the

  1. ((a))

    heart

  2. ((b))

    spleen

  3. ((c))

    red bone marrow

  4. ((d))

    yellow bone marrow

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

red bone marrow

The correct answer is -Red bone marrow.

Key Points

  • Red Bone Marrow
  • The pelvis, the scapula, the skull, and the sternum are some flat bones containing red bone marrow.
  • Red bone marrow contains stem cells that differentiate into red and white blood cells and platelets.
  • Hence, it is responsible for making the blood in the human body.
  • Stem cells are not blood cells but cells utilized to generate new ones.
  • Hematopoietic stem cells are the stem cells found in the red bone marrow.
  • Hematopoiesis is the process through which new blood cells are produced.

Additional Information

  • Yellow Bone marrow
  • They are present in long bones like the femur.
  • A layer of red bone marrow often covers the yellow bone marrow.
  • It is mainly composed of a high-fat content, which gives it a yellow hue.
  • Yellow bone marrow contains stem cells as well.
  • These stem cells differentiate into bone, cartilage, and fat cells.
  • Heart
  • It is a muscular organ.
  • It is enclosed in the ribcage, titled a little towards the left side.
  • It pumps oxygenated blood to every organ in the body.
  • It is essential for maintaining a circulatory system in the body.
  • Spleen
  • It is a small organ located below the lungs on the left side of the body.
  • It has a shape similar to a kidney.
  • It is responsible for removing all the dead red blood cells.
  • It helps in maintaining a sound and working immune system.
18

In which organ does the formation of urea always take place?

  1. ((a))

    Kidney

  2. ((b))

    Liver

  3. ((c))

    Spleen 

  4. ((d))

    Thymus

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Liver

The correct answer is -Liver.

Key Points

  • Liver
  • The liver is responsible for converting ammonia to urea.
  • It synthesizes urea to eliminate ammonia from the human body.
  • The extra amino acids from protein digestion are transported to the liver from the small intestine and follow the following steps
  • It begins with transamination, a procedure performed on the amino acids, releasing ammonia.
  • As ammonia is very hazardous to the body, it cannot accumulate.
  • In a process known as the ornithine cycle, liver cells combine carbon dioxide and ammonia to generate the less harmful chemical urea.
  • The urea and water are then delivered to the kidneys through the bloodstream.
  • The kidneys filter blood, and water-soluble urea is expelled in the urine.

Additional Information

  • Kidney
  • It is the organ that filters the blood.
  • It removes toxic substances from the blood.
  • It uses the glomerulus to purify the blood and collect excretory products.
  • The excretory products are collected in the collecting ducts
  • Collecting ducts pour all the toxins into the urethra.
  • Spleen
  • It is an organ similar to the kidney.
  • It removes all the dead cells from the body.
  • It even contributes to activating the immune system upon infection.
  • It stores iron and blood in case of hemorrhage in the body.
  • Thymus
  • It is an organ present behind the sternum.
  • It helps immune cells mature.
  • It helps explicitly naive T-cells to mature.
19

Find out the odd word

  1. ((a))

    Cabin

  2. ((b))

    Compartment

  3. ((c))

    Cargo

  4. ((d))

    Berth

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Compartment

The description is as follows:

OptionDescription
1.CabinA private room or compartment on a ship.
2.CompartmentA separate section or part of a structure or container.
3.CargoGoods carried on a ship, aircraft, or motor vehicle.
4.BerthA ship's allotted place at a wharf or dock.

Clearly, all options except 'Compartment' are related to Ship.

Hence, ‘Compartment’ is the odd one out.

20

Select the plural form of "Leaf"

  1. ((a))

    Leafs

  2. ((b))

    Leaves

  3. ((c))

    Leafings

  4. ((d))

    Leafing

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Leaves

The correct answer is 'Leaves'.

Key Points 

  • 'Leaf' means a flattened structure of a higher plant, typically green and blade-like, that is attached to a stem directly or via a stalk. 
  • Example:- Many of the trees had lost their leaves.
  • ​The plural form of "leaf" is leaves.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

21

Select the plural form of "Staff"

  1. ((a))

    Staffs

  2. ((b))

    Staf

  3. ((c))

    Staff

  4. ((d))

    Staives

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Staffs

The correct answer is 'staffs'.

Key Points

  • Staff means all the people employed by a particular organization.
  • Synonyms are employees, workers, workforce, personnel, hands, etc.
  • Example:- The Polish General and his staff.
  • ​The plural form of "Staff" (countable and uncountable) is staffs.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

22

Find out the odd word

  1. ((a))

    Relation

  2. ((b))

    Related

  3. ((c))

    Relate

  4. ((d))

    Relatively

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Relatively

The description is as follows:

Relation, Related and Relate have common root word 'Relate', while Relatively means to a great extent or to a large degree.

Hence, ‘Relatively’ is the odd one out.

23

Find out the error

Bread and butter (1) / are (2) / our usual (3) / breakfast (4)

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    3

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

2

The correct answer is '2'.

Key Points

  • There is an error in part (2).
  • 'are' should be replaced by 'is'.
  • 'Bread and butter' are taken together for breakfast.
  • When two single nouns present one thing or idea hence, a singular verb will be used. i.e. 'is'.
  • The correct sentence will be - Bread and butter is our usual breakfast.

​Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.

24

Fill in the blank with the correct word:

The burglar managed to get away with a huge ________.

  1. ((a))

    haul

  2. ((b))

    hall

  3. ((c))

    hail

  4. ((d))

    all

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

haul

The correct answer is 'haul'.

Key Points 

  • Let's see the meaning of the given words:
  • haul: (of a vehicle) pull (an attached trailer or carriage) behind it.
  • hall: the room or space just inside the front entrance of a house or flat.
  • hail: a large number of things hurled forcefully through the air.
  • all: used to refer to the whole quantity or extent of a particular group or thing.
  • The blank needs a noun for the adjective 'huge'.
  • The sentence tells us that the burglar managed to get away with something huge.
  • As per the context of the sentence, 'haul' is the proper choice.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

25

Fill in the blank with the correct word:

Our soldiers ________ the enemies attempt.

  1. ((a))

    foiled

  2. ((b))

    piled

  3. ((c))

    boiled

  4. ((d))

    filed

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

foiled

The correct answer is 'foiled'.

Key Points 

  • Let's see the meaning of the given words:
  • foiled: prevent (something considered wrong or undesirable) from succeeding.
  • piled: place (things) one on top of the other.
  • boiled: (of food) cooked in boiling water or stock.
  • filed: place (a document) in a cabinet, box, or folder in a particular order.
  • The blank needs an adjective for the noun 'enemies attempt'.
  • As per the context of the sentence, 'foiled' is the proper choice.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

26

Fill in the blank with the correct word:

My father always wears ________ shirts.

  1. ((a))

    loose

  2. ((b))

    lose

  3. ((c))

    loos

  4. ((d))

    luz

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

loose

The correct answer is 'loose'.

Key Points

  • Let's see the meaning of the given words:
  • loose: not firmly or tightly fixed in place; detached or able to be detached.
  • lose: cause (someone) to fail to gain or retain (something).
  • loos: (plural of 'loo') a toilet.
  • The blank needs an adjective for the noun 'shirt'.
  • As per the context of the sentence, 'loose' is the proper choice.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

27

Select the correct option.

Chennai Fort ________ in 16th Century.

  1. ((a))

    is built

  2. ((b))

    was built

  3. ((c))

    has built

  4. ((d))

    had built

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

was built

The correct answer is 'was built'.

Key Points

  • Chennai fort is the proper noun.
  • The sentence explains the completion time of the fort (past point of time).
  • Therefore, simple past tense will be used.
  • The past and past participle form of 'build' is 'built'.
  • 'was built' will be the proper choice for the blank.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

Important Points

  • Whenever a point of time in the past is mentioned in the sentence (i.e. yesterday, 10 days ago, etc.), we always use “Simple Past” tense.
  • Examples:-
  • I have gone to the market yesterday to purchase a car. [Incorrect]
  • I went to the market yesterday to purchase a car. [Correct]
28

Choose the correct 'synonym' for the underlined word from the option given:

The party ended in a great fiasco.

  1. ((a))

    disorder

  2. ((b))

    gaiety

  3. ((c))

    entertainment

  4. ((d))

    rejoicing

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

disorder

The correct answer is 'disorder'.

Key Points

  • The underlined word 'fiasco' means a complete failure, especially a ludicrous or humiliating one.
  • Synonyms are failure, disaster, catastrophe, debacle, shambles, etc.
  • Example:- His plans turned into a fiasco.
  • ​'disorder' means a state of confusion.
  • Synonyms are mess, disarray, disorganization, etc.
  • ​Hence**,** the correct 'synonym' for the underlined word from the option given is 'disorder'.

​Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Additional Information

  • gaiety: the state or quality of being light-hearted or cheerful.
  • entertainment: the action of providing or being provided with amusement or enjoyment.
  • rejoicing: great joy; jubilation.
29

The weight of a body is

  1. ((a))

    the same everywhere on the surface of the earth

  2. ((b))

    maximum at the poles

  3. ((c))

    maximum at the equator

  4. ((d))

    more on the hills than in the plains

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

maximum at the poles

The correct answer is maximum at the poles.

Key Points

Weight of the body (W)

  • The Weight of the body depends on the Acceleration due to gravity.
  • Because the radius of the earth is minimum at the poles, so the G gravity is high at the poles.
  • It is defined as the force acting on a body due to gravity.
  • The weight of a body is calculated by the formula (W = mg)
  • W is the weight of the body, m is the mass of the body, and g is the gravitational acceleration.

Additional Information

Weight of the body (W): 

  • W = mg
  • The gravitational force between a body of mass m and the earth of mass M and radius R calculated by the relation.
  • F = mg which is the weight of the body.
  • The gravitational force between a body and the earth is known as the weight of the body.
30

Radioactivity was discovered by

  1. ((a))

    Peierre Curie

  2. ((b))

    Madam Curie

  3. ((c))

    Ruther Ford

  4. ((d))

    Henri Becquerel

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Henri Becquerel

The correct answer is Henri Becquerel.

Key Points

Henry Becquerel in 1896 discovered radioactivity proving that uranium emitted radiation without an external source of energy such as the Sun.

Radioactivity

  • The Phenomenon of spontaneous emission of radiation from radioactive substances is called Radioactivity.
  • It is actually a property of atoms and Nuclei. Therefore on the nano-level also it is not affected by chemical or physical changes.
  • Radioactivity, basically, is a nuclear phenomenon in which an unstable nucleus undergoes a decay is called radioactive decay.
  • Three types of Radioactive decay:
  1. α decay in which Helium nucleus He24 is emitted.
  2. β decay in which electrons or positrons are emitted.
  3. γ decay in which high energy photons are emitted.

Additional Information

  • Marie Curie, who together with her husband Pierre, actually coined the term radioactivity and began investigating the phenomenon recently discovered by Becquerel.
  • Ernest Rutherford did many experiments studying the properties of radioactive decay, named these alpha, beta, and gamma particles, and classified them by their ability to penetrate matter.
  • Enrico Fermi's works were on the artificial radioactivity produced by neutrons, and on nuclear reactions brought about by slow neutrons.

Radioactivity was discovered by Henery Becquerel.

31

Hydrogen Bomb is based on the principle of

  1. ((a))

    Nuclear explosion

  2. ((b))

    Nuclear fusion

  3. ((c))

    Nuclear fission 

  4. ((d))

    Slow reaction

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Nuclear fusion

The correct answer is nuclear fusion.

Key Points

  • A Hydrogen bomb derives its energy through the fusion of atoms.
  • A Hydrogen bomb is a highly powerful atomic weapon.
  • The energy released in a Hydrogen bomb is several magnitudes higher than an Atom bomb.
  • An Atom bomb derives its energy from fission.

Additional Information

  • Nuclear fusion and nuclear fission are different types of reactions that release energy.
  • In fission, an atom is split into two or smaller, lighter atoms.
  • Fusion, in contrast, occurs when two or more atoms fuse, creating a larger, heavier atom.
  • Hydrogen bombs use the fusion of hydrogen atoms, hence their name.
  • It is easier to make Hydrogen bombs in small sizes, so it is easier to place them in missiles.
32

Unit of the intensity of sound is

  1. ((a))

    Farad

  2. ((b))

    Decibel

  3. ((c))

    Ohm

  4. ((d))

    Pascal

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Decibel

The correct answer is Decibels.

Key Points 

  • The intensity of sound is measured in units called Decibels.
  • The sound is all around us and can be measured to protect and inform us, as some sounds are not safe. In fact, loud noise can actually damage our hearing. So, the intensity of a sound is measured using decibels.
  • As the human ear is incredibly sensitive, you can hear everything from your fingertip brushing lightly over your skin to a loud thunderclap. As far as power is concerned, the sound of the thunderclap is approximately 1,000,000,000,000 times more powerful than the smallest audible sound.
  • Decibel is the unit of sound. Its symbol is dB.
  • On the decibel scale, 0 dB is the smallest audible sound.
  • Humans can hear from 10 dB - 120 dB.
  • A sound 10 times more powerful is 10 dB.
  • A sound 100 times more powerful than near total silence is 20 dB.
  • A sound 1,000 times more powerful than near total silence is 30 dB
33

Why do rain-bearing cloud look black?

  1. ((a))

    all light is scattered by rain

  2. ((b))

    they reflect the sunlight back into the atmosphere

  3. ((c))

    the large number of water droplets in them absorb all the sunlight

  4. ((d))

    there is a lot of dust condensed on the water vapour in these clouds

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

all light is scattered by rain

The correct answer is all light is scattered by Rain.

Key Points

  • The air around you is full of water in its gaseous form, called water vapour.
  • When the air near the ground warms, it starts to rise, taking the water vapour along with it.
  • The air starts to cool as it rises higher into the sky, causing the water vapour to condense onto atmospheric dust from volcanoes, car exhaust, and other sources.
  • The resulting water droplets and ice crystals coalesce, or join together, to form clouds.
  • Unlike atmospheric particles that scatter more blue light than other colours (making the sky blue), the tiny cloud particles equally scatter all colours of light, which together make up white light.
  • Rain-bearing clouds look black because all light is scattered by them. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
  • However, rain clouds are grey instead of white because of their thickness, or height.
  • That is, a cloud gets thicker and denser as it gathers more water droplets and ice crystals — the thicker it gets, the more light it scatters, resulting in less light penetrating all the way through it.
  • The particles on the underside of the rain cloud don't have a lot of light to scatter to your eyes, so the base appears grey as you look on from the ground below.
  • This effect becomes more pronounced the larger the water droplets get such as right before they're large enough to fall from the sky as rain or snow because they become more efficient at absorbing light, rather than scattering it.
34

In mountain because the atmospheric pressure is low, the boiling point of water

  1. ((a))

    decreases

  2. ((b))

    increases

  3. ((c))

    may increase or decrease

  4. ((d))

    remains the same

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

decreases

The correct option is decreases.

 Key Points

  • Atmospheric pressure affects the boiling point of water.
  • The boiling point increases as atmospheric pressure increases; on the other hand, the boiling point decreases when atmospheric pressure decreases with elevation.
  • When pressure is applied to the water's surface, the molecules of the liquid are typically held in place.
  • The number of gas molecules in the air decreases with height, making the air less dense than air closer to sea level.

Additional Information

Boiling Point:

  • The temperature at which a liquid's vapor pressure equals the pressure of the gas above it is known as the boiling point of the liquid.
  • The temperature at which a liquid's vapor pressure equals one atmosphere is considered the liquid's typical boiling point (760 torrs).

Atmospheric Pressure:

  • It is the force that the air above a surface applies to it while gravity pulls the surface toward Earth.
  • A barometer is frequently used to measure atmospheric pressure.

Vapor Pressure:

  • Vapour pressure rises with temperature and is a measurement of a substance's propensity to transform into a gaseous or vapor state.
35

Look at this series: 8, 43, 11, 41, _, 39, 17, ........

What number should fill in the blank?

  1. ((a))

    8

  2. ((b))

    14

  3. ((c))

    43

  4. ((d))

    44

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

14

The logic followed here is:

Hence, '14' is the correct answer.

36

What comes next in this series?

FAG, GAF, HAI, IAH, ______

  1. ((a))

    JAK

  2. ((b))

    GAK

  3. ((c))

    JAI

  4. ((d))

    HAK

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

JAK

The logic followed here is:

Hence, 'JAK' is the correct answer.

37

Bats can fly in the dark without hitting anything because

  1. ((a))

    they are flying mammals

  2. ((b))

    their night vision is good

  3. ((c))

    they are guided by ultrasonic waves produced by them

  4. ((d))

    of no scientific reason

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

they are guided by ultrasonic waves produced by them

The correct option is they are guided by ultrasonic waves produced by them.

Key Points

  • They emit ultrasonic waves that serve as their navigational aid.
  • Bats can fly in the dark because of the ultrasonic vibrations they create to guide them.
  • The echo produced by bats is very similar to that of SONAR, which also uses ultrasonic sounds to create an echo.
  • In order to find food and avoid obstacles, they employ echolocation.
  • They possess the capacity to produce and hear sounds that are inaudible to humans.
  • When sound waves hit something and then return to the bat, the bat can determine the size and proximity of the object.

Additional Information

Ultrasonic Waves:

  • Higher frequency sound waves than the upper audible range of human hearing are referred to as ultrasound.
  • The only physical difference between ultrasound and "regular" sound is that humans cannot hear it.
  • This limit varies from person to person and in healthy young adults is around 20 kilohertz.
  • Their wavelengths are smaller.
  • They are unable to move through a vacuum.
  • In the medium, ultrasonic waves move at the speed of sound.

SONAR:

  • The "SONAR" ("sound navigation ranging") refers to a technique for using sound waves to locate and measure the size and location of submerged objects.
  • Sonar equipment detects sound waves emitted by or reflected from the item and analyses them to determine what information is contained therein.
38

One horse power is equal to 

  1. ((a))

    746 watts

  2. ((b))

    744 watts

  3. ((c))

    745 watts

  4. ((d))

    747 watts

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

746 watts

The correct answer is 746 watts.

Key Points

  • Horsepower is the unit of measurement of power.
  • It was first used by James Watt.
  • 1 hp is approximately equal to 746 watts or 0.746 kW.
  • To convert from horsepower to watts, multiply by 746.

Additional Information

  • In 1784, James Watt introduced the first steam engine to the public.
  • To measure the power of the unit he invented and created, Watt coined the term "horsepower", which he had previously developed.
  • In 1960, the official SI unit of power was established in watts.
39

Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

  1. ((a))

    Kakrapara - Gujarat

  2. ((b))

    Hirakud - Orissa

  3. ((c))

    Mettur - Tamilnadu

  4. ((d))

    Tungabhadhra - Maharashtra

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Tungabhadhra - Maharashtra

The correct answer is Tungabhadhra - Maharashtra.

Key Points

  • The majority of the Tungabhadra River's course is in the Indian state of Karnataka.
  • It then passes through the border states of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh before coming together with the Krishna River.
  • It doesn't have any link with the Maharashtra state.

Additional Information

  • In Gujarat, close to the Surat, and Tapi rivers, Kakrapar is present.
  • The Kakrapar Atomic Power Station is an Indian nuclear power plant present here.
  • In the Sambalpur district of Odisha, the Hirakud Dam is present.
  • The "Pride of Odisha," is situated close to Hirakud village across the Mahanadi River.
  • One of the earliest significant multipurpose river valley projects to be undertaken in India since its independence.
  • It is one of the longest earthen dams in the entire world.
  • In the Salem district of the Indian state of Tamil Nadu is the industrial and tourism town of Mettur.
  • The Mettur Dam, the biggest dam in south India, is the reason it is most well-known.
  • Mettur is also well-known for producing aluminium, chemicals, and power.
40

What is the important function of Parliament?

  1. ((a))

    Governing

  2. ((b))

    Law-making

  3. ((c))

    Collecting taxes

  4. ((d))

    Criticising Government

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Law-making

The correct answer is Law-making.

Key Points

  • Making laws for the government of the nation is the parliament's main function.
  • It has the only authority to enact legislation on the topics included in the Union List as well as any remaining topics (that is, subjects not listed in any of the three lists).
  • In terms of the concurrent list, the Parliament has overriding authority.
  • This means that, in the event of a conflict between two pieces of legislation, the law of the Parliament takes precedence.

Additional Information

  • Governing and collecting taxes are also the other functions of Parliament.
  • The government will not criticize itself, that is the duty of the opposition party.
41

Which State Legislative Assembly has the maximum strength?

  1. ((a))

    Andhra Pradesh

  2. ((b))

    West Bengal

  3. ((c))

    Uttar Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Maharastra

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Uttar Pradesh

The Correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.

Key Points

State Legislative Assembly

  • The Legislative Assembly consists of not more than 500 members and not less than 60.
  • The biggest state Uttar Pradesh has 403 members in its Assembly.
  • The legislative assembly is the lower house of the state legislature in the different states and two union territories, Delhi and Pondicherry.
  • Members of a Legislative assembly are the direct representative of the people of the state as they are directly elected.
  • The term of the legislative assembly is five years.
  • The maximum size of the legislative assembly is not more than 500 and not less than 60.
  • In the states of Goa, Mizoram, and Sikkim the members of the legislative assembly can be less than 60.

Additional Information

StateNumber of seats in Legislative assembly
Uttar Pradesh403
Maharashtra288
Bihar243
Tamil Nadu234
Madhya Pradesh230
West Bengal294
Rajasthan200
Tamil Nadu234
Karnataka224
Andhra Pradesh175
Kerala140
Telangana119
42

The Fundamental Rights of the Indian Constitution are enshrined in

  1. ((a))

    Part III

  2. ((b))

    Part IV

  3. ((c))

    Preamble

  4. ((d))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Part III

The correct answer is Part III

Key Points

  • Articles 12-35 of the Indian Constitution deal with Fundamental Rights.
  • These are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution.
  • Fundamental rights are the basic human rights enshrined in the Constitution of India which are guaranteed to all citizens.
  • They are applied without discrimination on the basis of race, religion, gender, etc.
  • Significantly, fundamental rights are enforceable by the courts, subject to certain conditions.

Additional Information

Part IV :

  • Part IV of the Constitution of India (Article 36–51) contains the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).
  • These principles aim at ensuring socio-economic justice to the people and establishing India as a Welfare State.
  • The DPSP is not enforceable by law; it is non-justiciable.

Part V :

  • Part IV of the Constitution deals with the Union.
  • It has 5 Chapters under the Union.
  • It defines the President, Council of Ministers, and Prime Ministers and their functions and Powers.

Part IV-A :

  • Part IV-A of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Duties. As of now, there are 11 Fundamental duties.
  • Originally, the Constitution of India did not contain these duties. Fundamental duties were added by the 42nd and 86th Constitutional Amendment acts.
  • Citizens are morally obligated by the Constitution to perform these duties.
  • However, like the Directive Principles, these are non-justifiable, without any legal sanction in case of their violation or non-compliance.

Preamble

  • The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the Objectives Resolution.
  • It was drafted and moved by Pandit Nehru, and adopted by the Constituent Assembly.
  • It has been amended by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976), which added three new words-socialist, secular, and integrity.
  • The Preamble of the Indian Constitution was inspired by U.S. Constitution​
  • LIC of India, case 1995 in this case supreme court held at the preamble is an integral part of the constitution
  • The Preamble is neither a source of power to the legislature nor a prohibition upon the powers of the legislature.
  • It is non-justiciable, that is, its provisions are not enforceable in courts of law.
43

The Constitution of India came into force on

  1. ((a))

    January 29, 1948

  2. ((b))

    January 26, 1950

  3. ((c))

    January 26, 1952

  4. ((d))

    January 26, 1954

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

January 26, 1950

The correct answer is 26 January 1950.

Key Points 

  • The Indian Constitution, which was approved by the Constituent Assembly on November 26, 1949, and took effect on January 26, 1950, governs the Republic.
  • The Constitution establishes a parliamentary system of government with certain unitary characteristics and a federal framework.
  • The President is the official head of the Union's Executive under the Constitution.
  • According to Article 79 of the Indian Constitution, the President and the two Houses known as the Rajya Sabha and the House of the People make up the Council of the Parliament of the Union (Lok Sabha).

Additional Information 

  • The document outlines the framework that delineates the core political code, as well as the fundamental rights, guiding principles, and responsibilities of people.
  • It also spells out the organisation, methods, powers, and duties of governmental institutions.
  • It is the world's longest-written national constitution. It confers constitutional supremacy (as opposed to parliamentary supremacy, given that a constituent assembly rather than Parliament produced it), and its preamble contains a proclamation that it was ratified by the people.
  • The 42nd amendment act, passed in 1976 during the Emergency, added the phrases "secular" and "socialist" to the preamble.
44

3 × 105 + 4 × 103 + 7 × 102 + 5 is equal to?

  1. ((a))

    3004705

  2. ((b))

    3475 × 1010

  3. ((c))

    304705

  4. ((d))

    347500

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

304705

Calculation:

⇒ 3 × 105 + 4 × 103 + 7 × 102 + 5

⇒ 3,00,000 + 4,000 + 700 + 5

⇒ 3,04,705

45

Sum of two numbers is 32. If one of them is -36, then the other number is

  1. ((a))

    -4

  2. ((b))

    4

  3. ((c))

    -68

  4. ((d))

    68

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

68

Calculation:

Let the other number be "a"

⇒ -36 + a = 32

⇒ a = 32 + 36

⇒ a = 68

∴ The other number is 68

46

210 - 1 is divisible by

  1. ((a))

    2

  2. ((b))

    3

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    10

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

3

Given:

210 - 1

Concept:

Divisibility rule of 3: A number is completely divisible by 3 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 3.

Calculation:

210 - 1

⇒ 1024 - 1

⇒ 1023

Now, Sum of all the digits = 1 + 0 + 2 + 3 = 6 (Divisible by 3)

∴ 210 - 1 is divisible by 3

47

A car goes one kilometer at 30 km per hour and then goes another one kilometer at 40 km per hour. The average speed (in km/hour) of the car for two km is

  1. ((a))

    35

  2. ((b))

    3427\frac {2}{7}

  3. ((c))

    3337\frac {3}{7}

  4. ((d))

    3327\frac {2}{7}

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

3427\frac {2}{7}

Given:

s1 = 30 km/h

s2 = 40 km/h

Concept:

When distances are equal,

Average speed = 2 × s1 × s2 / (s1 + s2)

Calculation:

Average speed = 2 × 30 × 40 / (30 + 40)

⇒ 2400 / 70

⇒ 240 / 7

⇒ 3427\frac {2}{7}

∴ The average speed (in km/hour) of the car for two km is  3427\frac {2}{7} km/hr

48

4 - (2 - 9)0 + 32 + 1 + 3 is equal to

  1. ((a))

    17

  2. ((b))

    16

  3. ((c))

    15

  4. ((d))

    12

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

16

Calculation:

4 - (2 - 9)0 + 32 + 1 + 3

⇒ 4 - 1 + 9 + 1 + 3

⇒ 17 - 1

⇒ 16

∴ 4 - (2 - 9)0 + 32 + 1 + 3 is equal to 16

49

A car battery contains an electrolyte of

  1. ((a))

    Potassium Hydroxide

  2. ((b))

    Nitric Acid

  3. ((c))

    Sulphuric Acid

  4. ((d))

    Lactic Acid

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Sulphuric Acid

The correct option is Sulphuric Acid.

Key Points

  • The sulfuric acid electrolyte is utilized in battery technology.
  • About 30 to 50 percent sulfuric acid and 29% of a mole fraction of water make up car batteries.
  • A standard lead-acid automobile battery has lead plates in between plates made of various materials.
  • Both types of plates are submerged in an electrolyte solution that is around one-third sulfuric acid and two-thirds water.

Additional Information

Sulfuric Acid:

  • Strong and hygroscopic sulfuric acid (H2SO4) has oxidizing and hygroscopic characteristics.
  • The mineral acid sulfuric acid has the chemical formula H2SO4.
  • Other names for sulfuric acid include Mattling acid and Oil of Vitriol.
  • It is corrosive and has a strong acidic tendency.

Nitric Acid:

  • Nitric acid (HNO3) is an odorless liquid that gives out yellow or red odors.
  • Nitric acid exposure can irritate the eyes, skin, and mucous membranes.
  • Ammonium nitrate, a crucial component of fertilizers, is created using nitric acid.
  • Additionally, it is used to oxidize metals and to make explosives like trinitrotoluene (TNT) and nitroglycerin.

Potassium hydroxide:

  • Potassium hydroxide, sometimes known as caustic potash, is an inorganic chemical with the formula KOH.
  • KOH is a typical strong basic, along with sodium hydroxide.
  • It has numerous industrial and specialized uses, the majority of which make use of its caustic properties and acid reactivity.
  • A disinfectant used to clean surfaces, hands, and skin is potassium hydroxide.
50

Who was the first Indian Governor-General of Free India?

  1. ((a))

    Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

  2. ((b))

    C. Rajagopalachari

  3. ((c))

    Lord Louis Mountbatten

  4. ((d))

    Jawaharlal Nehru

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

C. Rajagopalachari

The correct answer is Rajagopalachari.

Key Points

  • C Rajagopalachari was an Indian politician, freedom fighter and member of the Constituent Assembly from Madras.
  • He was a senior leader of the Indian National Congress.
  • He was the first and last Indian Governor-General of free India.
  • C. Rajagopalachari succeeded Lord Mountbatten as governor-general of India from 1948 to 1950.
  • After C.Rajagopalachari, the title of the governor was abolished and was replaced by the President of India.
  • He was known for the formulation of the proposal to solve the political deadlock between the All India Muslim League and the Indian National Congress in 1944, popularly known as Rajagopalachari's formula.
  • He was one of the first recipients of the Bharat Ratna along with Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan and C. V. Raman, in 1954.
  • He was the recipient of the Sahitya Akademi Award for the Tamil language for his work retelling of the Ramayana – Chakravarti Thirumagan.
  • He founded the Swatantra Party in 1959.

Additional Information

​Jawaharlal Nehru:

  • Jawaharlal Nehru was the first Prime Minister of India.
  • He is the Prime Minister who has had the longest term in office.
  • He served as the prime minister of India from 15th August 1947 to 1964.
  • He was the Prime Minister of India during the Indo-China war in 1962.
  • He served as the first chairman of the planning commission of India.
  • He was honoured with the Bharat Ratna in 1955.
  • The name Panchayati raj was given by Jawaharlal Nehru.
  • National Herald is a newspaper started by Jawaharlal Nehru.
  • Shantivan is the cremation ground of Jawaharlal Nehru.

Vallabhbhai Patel:​

  • He served as the First Deputy Prime Minister of India.
  • He was an Indian barrister and a senior leader of the Indian National Congress who played a leading role in the country's struggle for independence and guided its integration into a united, independent nation.
  • He was one of the conservative members of the Indian National Congress.
  • In India and elsewhere, he was often called Sardar, meaning "chief" in Hindi, Urdu, and Persian.
  • He acted as Home Minister during the political integration of India and the Indo-Pakistani War of 1947.

Lord Louis Mountbatten

  • Lord Louis Mountbatten who was famously known as the last Viceroy of British India was appointed in March of 1947.
  • Lord Mountbatten proposed a plan in May 1947 which declared India province into independent successor states with the power to choose whether to join the constituent assembly or not.
  • He came up with another plan called the June 3 Plan. This plan was the last plan for Indian independence. It is also called the Mountbatten Plan.

He was primarily appointed to oversee the British withdrawal from Indian soil.

  • He remained Interim Viceroy of India till June of 1948.
  • Later on, he returned to the Royal Navy where he was appointed as the first Sea Lord.
51

Maximum amount of Coffee producing State of India is

  1. ((a))

    Tamilnadu

  2. ((b))

    Andhra Pradesh

  3. ((c))

    Kerala

  4. ((d))

    Karnataka

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Karnataka

The correct answer is ​Karnataka.

Key Points 

The largest coffee-producing state in India is Karnataka. 

  • ​Karnataka is the largest coffee-producing state in India for the past 10 years.
  • The first plant of coffee was planted at Baba Budan Hills in Karnataka.
  • It contributed about 70% of the total coffee production in India during 2019-20.
  • The total production was around 203,445 MT coffee production.
  • Kodagu, Chikkamagaluru and Hassan districts are the largest producers of coffee.
  • Robusta and Arabica are the two types of coffee found in India.
  • Climatic conditions for the growth of coffee:
  • It requires a hot and humid climate with temperatures varying between 15°C and 28 °C and rainfall from 150 to 250 cm.
  • There should be no frost, snowfall and high temperatures above 30°C and strong sunshine.
  • It is generally grown under shady trees.

Additional Information

  • The Malabar area of Kerala produces Arabica and Robusta espresso beans. Kerala represents 21% approx of coffee creation in India.
  • Tamil Nadu is next on this rundown, which created 18.235 Metric Tons of coffee in the last monetary year.
  • Ethiopian Highland is considered the Motherland of Coffee.
  • Brazil is the largest coffee-producing country in the world.
  • Santos Port in Brazil is also known as the Coffee Port of the world.
52

The agent which is oxidized in Photosynthesis is 

  1. ((a))

    Carbon dioxide

  2. ((b))

    Chlorophyll

  3. ((c))

    Sun light

  4. ((d))

    Water

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Water

The correct answer is -Water.

Key Points

  • Water in Photosynthesis
  • It is essential for the normal functioning of the photosynthesis process.
  • It is required to produce the electron necessary for electron production.
  • Oxidation of oxygen in water splitting
  • Water is decomposed into H+ and O2 from H2O.
  • The oxidation state of Oxygen in H2O is -2
  • The oxidation state of oxygen in O2 is 0.
  • As the oxidation of the oxygen is increasing thus water is oxidized to O2.

Additional Information

  • Sunlight
  • It is the energy source for photosynthesis.
  • It helps the plant break the water molecule to release electrons for the photosystem.
  • The sunlight energy is absorbed by the chlorophyll in the plant cell.
  • Chlorophyll
  • As chlorophyll absorbs the energy of the sunlight.
  • It actually absorbs the electron released during the splitting of water.
  • As it takes the electron, it means that it has been reduced and not oxidized.
  • Carbon dioxide
  • In this compound, the central atom is carbon.
  • It has an oxidation state of +4.
  • Upon its incorporation in the TCA cycle, it is reduced to +2.
  • Hence, the carbon in the carbon dioxide is reduced.
53

Booker prize is awarded in the field of

  1. ((a))

    Literature

  2. ((b))

    Medicine

  3. ((c))

    Science

  4. ((d))

    Social Service

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Literature

The correct answer is Literature.

Key Points

  • The Booker Prize, formerly known as the Booker Prize for Fiction and the Man Booker Prize.
  • It is a literary prize awarded each year for the best novel written in English and published in the United Kingdom or Ireland.
  • Man Booker prize is a 'Man Group' sponsored prize given in the field of literature from 1969.
  • It is the highest literary award given to the authors of British, Irish, and Commonwealth countries.
  • The winner receives £50,000 as well as the £2,500 awarded to each of the six shortlisted.
54

Who was the first batsman to reach 10000 runs in Test Cricket?

  1. ((a))

    Sachin Tendulkar

  2. ((b))

    Allan Border

  3. ((c))

    Sunil Gawaskar

  4. ((d))

    Rahul Dravid

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Sunil Gawaskar

The correct answer is 'Sunil Gavaskar'.

Key Points 

  • Sunil Gavaskar was the first batsman to score 10,000 runs in international test cricket.
  • He achieved the milestone against Pakistan in 1987.
  • Sunil Gavaskar scored 10,122 runs in 125 Tests for India.
  • He is the only Indian batsman to play 100 consecutive Test matches,
  • He also holds the record for the highest number of runs (774) scored in a series by a debutant cricketer.

Hence, the correct answer is Sunil Gavaskar.

Additional Information

55

Which mineral or crop is called Black Diamond?

  1. ((a))

    Iron

  2. ((b))

    Coal

  3. ((c))

    Coffee

  4. ((d))

    Tea

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Coal

The correct answer is Coal.

Key Points

Coal

  • Coal is one of the important minerals which is mainly used in the generation of thermal power and smelting of iron ore.
  • Coal occurs in rock sequences mainly of two geological ages, namely Gondwana and tertiary deposits.
  • Coal is an important mineral source for Power industries, so that is the reason to call it as Black Diamond.

Additional InformationCoal in India

  • Around 98 per cent of India's coal reserves and 99% of total coal production are from Gondwana fields.
  • Coking, as well as non-coking coal and bituminous coal, are obtained from Gondwana coal fields.
  • Gondwana coal is free from moisture, but it contains Sulphur.
  • Anthracite is generally not found in the Gondwana coal fields.
  • The Damuda series (i.e. Lower Gondwana) possesses the best-worked coalfields accounting for 80 per cent of the total coal production in India.
  • Gondwana coal occurs in the valleys of certain rivers viz., the Damodar (Jharkhand-West Bengal); the Mahanadi (Chhattisgarh-Odisha); the Son (Madhya Pradesh Jharkhand); the Godavari and the Wardha (Maharashtra-Andhra Pradesh).
  • Tertiary coal generally has a low carbon and a high percentage of moisture and Sulphur.
  • Lignite deposits occur in the tertiary sediments in the extra-peninsular region, particularly in Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Gujarat & Rajasthan and also in Jammu & Kashmir.

Important Points

  • The United States has the largest proven recoverable reserves of coal.
  • China is the top producer and top consumer of coal.
  • In India, Jharkhand has the largest reserve while Odisha is the top producer.
56

Ramkrishna Paramhansa was associated with

  1. ((a))

    Kalighat

  2. ((b))

    Tarapith

  3. ((c))

    Bakreswar

  4. ((d))

    Dakshineswar

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Dakshineswar

The correct answer is Dakshineswar.

Key Points

  • Ramakrishna Paramhansa began his spiritual path as a priest at the Dakshineshwar Kali Temple,
  • This temple had erected by Rani Rashmoni.
  • Ramakrishna had experienced spiritual ecstasies since he was a small child.
  • A Hindu navaratna temple called Dakshineswar Kali Temple is located in Dakshineswar, Kolkata, West Bengal.
  • It is situated near the Hooghly River's eastern bank.
  • Bhavatarini is the temple's presiding goddess.

Additional Information

  • On February 18, 1836, Sri Ramakrishna was born in the village of Kamarpukur, which is located about 60 miles northwest of Kolkata.
  • Kshudiram Chattopadhyaya and Chandramani Devi, his parents, were not wealthy but were incredibly pious and virtue-filled.
  • The locals adored Ramakrishna when he was younger; he went by the moniker Gadadhar.
  • He had a great aversion to formal schooling and worldly affairs since a young age.
  • He was a gifted young man, though, and he was able to sing and paint well.
  • He enjoyed listening to and serving holy men and enjoyed their teachings.
57

The biggest planet of the Solar system is

  1. ((a))

    Saturn

  2. ((b))

    Jupiter

  3. ((c))

    Earth

  4. ((d))

    Mars

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Jupiter

Correct Answer is Jupiter 

Key Points Solar System

  • The sequence of planets according to their distance from the sun is Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune.
  • Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars are called terrestrial planets, and Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune are called gaseous planets.

Jupiter

  • It is the largest planet in our Solar System.
  • There are 79 natural satellites of Jupiter.
  • The spacecraft which visited Jupiter is Juno.
  • Jupiter is also known as the winter planet as its average temperature is very low (–148°C).
  • It is the third brightest natural object in the night sky after Moon and Venus.​
  • Ganymede, a satellite of Jupiter is the largest satellite in the Solar System.

Thus, Jupiter is the biggest planet of the solar system.

Additional InformationEarth

  • The Earth is 23½° tilted on its axis and, thus, makes a 66½° angle.
  • It takes 23 hours 56 minutes and 4.091 seconds to rotate on its axis.
  • Earth is known as the “watery planet” or the “blue planet”.
  • It has a ‘Goldilock Zone’.

Mars

  • The iron-rich red soil and pink sky of Mars give it the name, “Red Planet”.
  • Phobos and Demos are two satellites of Mars.

Saturn

  • Saturn has bright concentric rings which are made up of ice and ice-covered dust particles which revolve around it.
  • Titan is the largest satellite of Saturn.
58

Brahmo Samaj was founded by

  1. ((a))

    Raja Rammohan Roy

  2. ((b))

    Iswarchandra Vidyasagar

  3. ((c))

    Swami Vivekananda

  4. ((d))

    Rabindra Nath Tagore

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Raja Rammohan Roy

The Brahmo Samaj was founded by Raja Rammohan Roy.

Key Points

Brahmo Samaj

  • It was founded in Calcutta in 1828 by Ram Mohan Roy as Brahmo Sabha.
  • The Brahmo Samaj was a monotheistic sect of Hinduism
  • The samaj was dedicated to the "worship and adoration of the Eternal, the Unsearchable, the Immutable Being, who is the Author and Preserver of the Universe".
  • The Samaj was open to all without distinction of colour, creed, caste, nation, or religion.
  • It denounced polytheism, image worship, and the caste system.
  • It also discarded meaningless Hindu rituals.
  • Raja Rammohun Roy is also called the father of the Indian renaissance.

Additional Information

59

Dry ice is

  1. ((a))

    Carbon monoxide

  2. ((b))

    Carbon with solid ice

  3. ((c))

    Solid carbon dioxide

  4. ((d))

    Sulphur Trioxide

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Solid carbon dioxide

The correct answer is solid carbon dioxide.

Key Points

  • Dry Ice is the common name for solid carbon dioxide.
  • It is used primarily as a cooling agent, but is also used in fog machines at theatres for dramatic effects.
  • When dry ice is heated then it changes directly into a gas.
  • Dry ice is solid Carbon dioxide.
  • It skips the melting process and sublimates directly into carbon dioxide gas when it reaches room temperature and pressure and expands.
  • Dry Ice is manufactured by compressing and cooling gaseous CO2 under high pressure to initially produce liquid CO2.
  • It is often used as an alternative to refrigeration for foodstuffs and medical supplies.
60

Fountain Pen was invented by

  1. ((a))

    C. V. Raman

  2. ((b))

    Louise E. Waterman

  3. ((c))

    Vannevar Bush

  4. ((d))

    Alexzender Graham Bell

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Louise E. Waterman

The correct option is Lewis E. Waterman.

Key Points

  • Lewis E. Waterman used capillary action to create the contemporary fountain pen in 1884.
  • Three grooved pieces were added to the feed by Waterman, along with a hole in the nib.

Fountain Pen: 

  • A fountain pen is a writing tool that applies water-based ink on paper using a metal nib.
  • Its inbuilt ink reservoir, which eliminates the need to continually dip the pen in an inkwell during use, sets it apart from preceding dip pens.

Additional Information

Alexzender Graham Bell:

  • The invention of the first usable telephone is attributed to Scottish-born inventor, scientist, and engineer Alexander Graham Bell.
  • Bell received patents for the telephone, telegraph, photophone, aerial vehicles, and hydroplanes, among many other innovations.

C. V. Raman:

  • C. V. Raman found in 1928 that a portion of the light scattered by a liquid when a beam of colored light entered it was of a different color.
  • Raman demonstrated that the type of sample used determined the nature of the scattered light.

Vannevar Bush:

  • Vannevar Bush was an American electrical engineer and administrator.
  • He developed the Differential Analyzer and oversaw the government's mobilization of scientific research during World War II.

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