Previous Year Paper

UPSSSC PET Official Paper (Held on: 16 October 2022 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

100 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

Full Test (100 questions)

1

Which among the following Act laid down the conditions for the nationalization of Banks?

  1. ((a))

    Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Act, 1970

  2. ((b))

    Reserve Bank of India (Transfer to Public Ownership) Act

  3. ((c))

    Banking Regulation Act

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Act, 1970

The correct answer is option1.

Key Points

  • Nationalisation of banks was implemented under the Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Act of 1970.
  • The ordinance came into force on 19 July 1969,
  • To serve better the needs of development of the economy in conformity with national policy objectives.​

Additional Information

  • It was on July 19, 1969, when then prime minister Indira Gandhi announced the nationalisation of 14 commercial Indian banks with deposits of over Rs 50 crores.
  • On 24 Sep 1969, National Institute of Bank Management (NIBM) was set up.
  • Reserve Bank of India -
  • It was established on 1st April, 1935 in accordance with the provisions of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
  • The central office of the Reserve Bank was initially located in Kolkata.
  • Which was permanently shifted to Mumbai in 1937.
2

Which among the following was the primary outcome of the liberalization and privatization initiatives under the New Economic Policy (NEP) in 1991?

  1. ((a))

    Fiscal policy reforms

  2. ((b))

    Monetary policy reforms

  3. ((c))

    Globalisation

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Globalisation

The correct answer is Globalisation.

 The primary outcome of the liberalization and privatization initiatives under the New Economic Policy (NEP) in 1991 was Globalization.

Key Points

  • India's New Economic Policy (NEP) -

  • It was signed on July 24, 1991 by the then Union Finance Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh and Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao started it.

  • The main objective of this policy was to globalize the Indian economy.

  • So that the Indian economy can take advantage of the opportunities available in the global economy.

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Additional Information

  • At present, there are only 5 sectors in the country (related to security, strategic and environmental concerns) in which the private sector will need to get a license to enter.
  • To capitalize on the benefits of liberalization and globalization -
  • The number of industries reserved for the public sector has been reduced.
  • During the year 2014 -Private investment in rail infrastructure has also been allowed.
  • At present, only 2 industrial areas are reserved for the public sector and all other sectors have been opened to the private sector.
  • The areas reserved for the public sector are -
  • Nuclear Energy
  • railway operations
3

Who among the following is known as the father of the green revolution in India?

  1. ((a))

    Dr. Arun Krishnan

  2. ((b))

    M.S. Swaminathan

  3. ((c))

    Verghese Kurien

  4. ((d))

    Sam Pitroda

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

M.S. Swaminathan

The correct answer is M.S. Swaminathan.

Key Points

  • M S  Swaminathan is the Father of the Green Revolution in India.
  • He developed high-yielding wheat hybrids in 1966 by mixing seeds from Mexico with domestic varieties from Punjab.

Additional Information

  • ​Dr. Verghese Kurien -
  • He was the founding chairman of the 'National Dairy Development Board' from 1965 to 1998.
  • He was the father of the Indian White Revolution.
  • Which helped India to emerge as the largest milk producer in the world.
  • Sam Pitroda -
  • He is an Indian inventor and telecommunication engineer.
  • He was born in Titlagarh in the eastern Indian state of Odisha.
  • He is popularly known as the Father of India's Computer and IT Revolution.
4

DPSP (Directive Principles of State Policy) for the Indian Constitution was inspired by which among the following Constitutions?

  1. ((a))

    USA

  2. ((b))

    France

  3. ((c))

    Ireland

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Ireland

The correct answer is Ireland.

Key Points

  • Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) -
  • It is described in Articles 36 to 51 in Part 4 of the Indian Constitution.
  • DPSPs are taken from the Constitution of Ireland (1937).

Additional Information

  • Amendment in DPSP, 42nd Constitutional Amendment, 1976 -
  • Some changes were made in Part IV of the Constitution by adding new instructions to it -
  • Article 39A - To provide free legal aid to the poor.
  • Article 43A - Participation of workers in the management of industries.
  • Article 48A - To protect and improve the environment.
5

Article 19 of the Indian Constitution includes which rights?

  1. ((a))

    Right to constitutional remedies

  2. ((b))

    Right to freedom of speech and expression

  3. ((c))

    Right against exploitation

  4. ((d))

    Right to freedom of religion.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Right to freedom of speech and expression

The correct answer is Option 2

Key Points

  • Article 19(1)(a) -
  • Freedom of speech and expression,
  • to every citizen by speech, writing, painting, drawing, or in any other manner,
  • Provides the right to freely express one's views and beliefs.

Additional Information

  • Right against exploitation (Article 23-24) -
  • In order to protect the weaker sections of society,
  • Indian citizens have been guaranteed the right against exploitation through Article 23 and Article 24 of the Constitution.
  • The Right to Constitutional Remedies is included in Article 32 of the Indian Constitution.
  • In Articles 25 to 28 -
  • The right to freedom of religion is guaranteed under the Constitution.
  • Every Indian citizen has the right to peacefully practice, profess, propogate their religion.
  • This protection is given to every religion that is originated in India or outside whose followers are living in India like Jainism, Hinduism, Buddhism, Sikhism, Islam, Christianity, Judaism etc.
6

In a parliamentary system. to whom the executive is responsible?

  1. ((a))

    The legislature

  2. ((b))

    The people

  3. ((c))

    The judiciary

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

The legislature

The correct answer is The legislature.

Key Points

  • In a parliamentary system, the executive is responsible to the elected legislature.

Additional Information

  • ​Parliamentary System -
  • The parliamentary system of government is responsible to the legislature.
  • In this system, the head of the state and the head of the government are separate persons.
  • The executive is the main ruler.
  • India has a parliamentary system of government.
  • The parliamentary government system is also called a cabinet system of government or a responsible system of government.
  • Presidential System -
  • In this system, often the head of the state is also the head of the government (executive).
  • More importantly, in the presidential system, the executive does not derive its democratic legitimacy from the legislature.
  • In this system, the President is the ruler.
7

Which among the following is not a salient feature of the Indian Constitution?

  1. ((a))

    Written and Detailed Constitution.

  2. ((b))

    Two-tier Government

  3. ((c))

    Single Citizenship

  4. ((d))

    Universal Adult Franchise

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Two-tier Government

The correct answer is Two-tier Government.

Key Points

  • The Indian Constitution is a beautiful amalgamation of both a federal system and a unitary system.
  • The Indian Constitution is called a federal constitution on the basis that it is a written constitution.
  • It provides for a supreme and independent judiciary.
  • And in this, there is a clear division of powers between the center and the states.

Additional Information

  • ​The main features of the Indian Constitution are as follows -
  • Written and framed the constitution,
  • Wide and Broad,
  • Combination of the flexible and rigid constitutions,
  • Establishment of a fully sovereign state,
  • Establishment of a republican system of government,
  • Establishment of the federal government,
  • Unitary though federal,
  • Establishment of a secular state,
  • Establishment of a socialist state,
  • Establishment of parliamentary government,
  • Fundamental rights system.
8

One horsepower is equal to approximately how many watts?

  1. ((a))

    746 watts

  2. ((b))

    748 watts

  3. ((c))

    756 watts

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

746 watts

The correct answer is 746 watts.

Key Points

  • Horse Power -
  • It is a unit of power.
  • It is commonly used in automobiles to calculate their engine power.
  • 1 metric horsepower is equal to 745.7 watts or approximately 746 watts.

Additional Information

  • ​Horsepower is the unit of measurement of power.
  • It is a non-SI unit.
  • The term 'horsepower' was first used by Scottish engineer James Watt.
  • He compared the power from steam engines with the pulling power of horse (horses).
  • Later the term horsepower was also used to refer to other piston engines and to power turbines, electric motors, and other machines.
  • At present, the SI unit called Watt is used to measure power.
9

Which of the following is not a chemical reaction?

  1. ((a))

    Burning of coal

  2. ((b))

    Digestion of food

  3. ((c))

    Burning of paper

  4. ((d))

    Conversion of water into steam

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Conversion of water into steam

The correct answer is Conversion of water into steam.

Key Points

  • The conversion of water into steam is a physical change.
  • In this process the state of matter (water) changes without change in its composition.

Additional Information

  • Physical Change -
  • It includes all those changes in which there is no change in the chemical nature or chemical identity of the substance.
  • For example, the conversion of water into vapour.
  • Chemical Reaction -
  • In this, one or more substances are changed by interacting with each other.
  • And substances with one or more different chemical properties are formed.
  • A chemical reaction occurs without any measurable mass change.
  • This is called the law of conservation of mass.
10

Pyorrhoea is a disease of which of the following?

  1. ((a))

    Nose

  2. ((b))

    Gums

  3. ((c))

    Heart

  4. ((d))

    Lungs

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Gums

The correct answer is Gums.

Key Points

  • Pyorrhea occurs due to lack of calcium in the body, bad gums and lack of cleanliness of teeth and mouth.
  • In this disease the gums become flabby and bad and blood comes from them.
  • Pyorrhea is also believed to be the cause of bad breath.

Additional Information

  • ​In fact, there are 700 types of bacteria in the mouth.
  • Their number is in crores.
  • These bacteria damage the teeth and gums if the mouth, teeth and tongue are not cleaned on time.
  • Pyorrhea causes damage to the jaw bone that supports the teeth.
  • This disease can be overcome by proper cleaning of the mouth, teeth and tongue.
11

Phloem is a tissue found in which among the following?

  1. ((a))

    Plants

  2. ((b))

    Mammals

  3. ((c))

    Reproductive organs of animals

  4. ((d))

    Insects

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Plants

The correct answer is Plants.

Key Points

  • Phloem is a complex and living tissue.
  • It is found in the root, stem and leaves of the plant.

Additional Information

  • ​Two types of complex permanent tissues are found in plants -
  • Xylem or Xylem and Phloem.
  • Phloem -
  • This is the vascular tissue.
  • It is also called bast.
  • It is a complex permanent tissue.
  • This convection is found inside the vandal.
  • Its main function is to transport organic food made by leaves to other parts of plants.
  • Xylem -
  • It is such a complex permanent tissue that is found inside the vascular bundle.
  • It plays a major role in the convection of water.
  • The process of sorption takes place from within the xylem.
12

How many tiers are there in the Panchayati Raj System of India?

  1. ((a))

    One tier

  2. ((b))

    Three tiers

  3. ((c))

    Two tiers

  4. ((d))

    Four tiers

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Three tiers

The correct answer is Three tiers.

Key Points

  • In the three-tier Panchayati Raj system -
  • These include Gram Panchayat (at the village level), Panchayat Samiti (at the intermediate level) and Zilla Parishad (at the district level).

Additional Information

  • ​For the first time in modern India, the Panchayati Raj system was introduced by the then Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru.
  • This Panchayati Raj system was implemented on 2 October 1959 in Bagdhari village of Nagaur district of Rajasthan.
  • Lord Ripon is considered the father of local self-government in India during the British rule in India.
  • In the year 1882, he proposed local self-government.
13

Which of the following fractions is the largest?

  1. ((a))

    1316\frac{13}{16}

  2. ((b))

    78\frac{7}{8}

  3. ((c))

    3140\frac{31}{40}

  4. ((d))

    6380\frac{63}{80}

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

78\frac{7}{8}

Given:

The following fractions are given.

Concept used:

Convert the fractions into decimal form and then tally the result.

Calculations:

Checking option(1),

1316\dfrac{13}{16} = 0.8125

Checking option(2),

78\dfrac{7}{8} = 0.875

Checking option(3),

3140\dfrac{31}{40} = 0.775

Checking option(4),

6380\dfrac{63}{80} = 0.7875

From the above calculation, it is clear that 78\dfrac{7}{8} or 0.875 is the largest.

∴ The answer is 78\dfrac{7}{8}.

14

(6.73)3(4.38)3(6.73)2+6.73×4.38+(4.38)2\frac{(6.73)^3-(4.38)^3}{(6.73)^2+6.73 \times 4.38+(4.38)^2} = ?

  1. ((a))

    2.35

  2. ((b))

    4.35

  3. ((c))

    3.35

  4. ((d))

    5.35

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2.35

Given:

(6.73)3(4.38)3(6.73)2+6.73×4.38+(4.38)2\dfrac{(6.73)^3-(4.38)^3}{(6.73)^2+6.73 \times 4.38+(4.38)^2}

Formula used:

a3 - b3 = (a - b)(a2 + ab + b2)

Calculations:

(6.73)3(4.38)3(6.73)2+6.73×4.38+(4.38)2\dfrac{(6.73)^3-(4.38)^3}{(6.73)^2+6.73 \times 4.38+(4.38)^2}

⇒ (6.734.38)(6.732+6.73×4.38+4.382)6.732+6.73×4.38+4.382\dfrac{(6.73 - 4.38)(6.73^2 + 6.73 × 4.38 + 4.38^2)}{6.73^2 + 6.73 × 4.38 + 4.38^2}

⇒ 6.73 - 4.38 = 2.35

∴ The answer is 2.35.

15

What percent of 19 is 7.6?

  1. ((a))

    40 percent

  2. ((b))

    48 percent

  3. ((c))

    60 percent

  4. ((d))

    35 percent

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

40 percent

Given:

Percent of 19 is 7.6

Calculations:

Percent of 19 is 7.6

⇒ 7.619\dfrac{7.6}{19} × 100

⇒​ 76019\dfrac{760}{19} = 40% 

∴ The answer is 40%

16

The average of all prime numbers between 60 to 80 is:

  1. ((a))

    70.2

  2. ((b))

    72.2

  3. ((c))

    71.2

  4. ((d))

    73.2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

70.2

Given:

The average of all the prime numbers between 60 and 80

Formula used:

Average = Sum of observation / Number of observations

Concept used:

A counting number is called a prime number when it is exactly divisible by only one and itself.

Calculations:

Prime numbers between 60 and 80 = 61, 67, 71, 73, 79

Required average = 61+67+71+73+795\dfrac{61 + 67 + 71 + 73 + 79}{5}

⇒ 3515\dfrac{351}{5} = 70.2   

∴ The answer is 70.2

17

12.04091.2544\sqrt{12.0409}-\sqrt{1.2544} =?

  1. ((a))

    2.35

  2. ((b))

    2.25

  3. ((c))

    1.35

  4. ((d))

    1.25

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2.35

Given:

12.04091.2544\sqrt{12.0409}-\sqrt{1.2544}

Calculations:

12.04091.2544\sqrt{12.0409}-\sqrt{1.2544}

⇒ 3.47 - 1.12 = 2.35

∴ The answer is 2.35

18

Which of the following acid is used in car batteries?

  1. ((a))

    Acetic acid

  2. ((b))

    Hydrochloric acid

  3. ((c))

    Sulphuric acid

  4. ((d))

    Nitric acid

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Sulphuric acid

The correct answer is Sulphuric acid.

Key Points

  • Battery acid is sulfuric acid.
  • It has been diluted with water to achieve a 37% concentration level.
  • Car or automotive battery acid in water is 30-50% sulfuric acid (H2SO4).

Additional Information

  • ​Acetic acid -
  • It is also known as 'ethanoic acid'.
  • It has the chemical formula of CH3COOH.
  • It is a byproduct of fermentation, and gives vinegar its characteristic odor.
  • Vinegar is about 4-6% acetic acid in water.​
  • Hydrochloric acid -
  • It is also known as muriatic acid.
  • It is an aqueous solution of hydrogen chloride.
  • It is a colorless solution with a distinctive pungent smell. ​
  • Nitric acid -
  • It is a common laboratory reagent.
  • It is an important industrial chemical for the manufacture of fertilizers and explosives.
  • It is toxic and can cause severe burns.​
19

'श्वेत' और 'स्वेद' का अर्थ है:

  1. ((a))

    स्वच्छ और पसीना

  2. ((b))

    सफ़ेद और पसीना

  3. ((c))

    हल्का और पसीना

  4. ((d))

    निजी और सफ़ेद

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

सफ़ेद और पसीना

'श्वेत' और 'स्वेद' का अर्थ है:सफ़ेद और पसीना​।

Key Points

  • श्र्वेत का अर्थ – सफ़ेद, उजला, धवल, निष्कलंक, गोरा, गौर, निर्मल, स्वच्छ।
  • स्वेद का अर्थ – पसीना, वाष्प, भाप, गरमी, ताप।
  • अन्य विकल्प निरर्थक हैं।

Additional Information

  • श्रुतिसमभिन्नार्थक वे शब्द, जो उच्चारण की दृष्टि से असमान होते हुए भी समान होने का भ्रम पैदा करते हैं, युग्म शब्द अथवा 'श्रुतिसमभिन्नार्थक' शब्द कहलाते हैं।
  • श्रुतिसमभिन्नार्थक का अर्थ ही है- सुनने में समान, परन्तु भिन्न अर्थवाले।
  • जैसे :-
  • अथक- अकथ – अथक - बिना थके हुए, अकथ - जो कहा न जाय।
  • अभय-उभय -  अभय - निर्भय, उभय - दोनों।
20

'खाक में मिलना' - मुहावरे का अर्थ है:

  1. ((a))

    सब कुछ नष्ट हो जाना।

  2. ((b))

    बेचैन या परेशान होना।

  3. ((c))

    दबी हुई बात फिर से उभरना।

  4. ((d))

    अकड़ में रहना।

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

सब कुछ नष्ट हो जाना।

खाक में मिलना - मुहावरे का सही अर्थ - 'सब कुछ नष्ट हो जाना' है।

Key Points

  • वाक्य प्रयोग – उसने तिनके-तिनके कर के घर बनाया था पर बाढ़ आने पर उसका सब कुछ खाक में मिल गया।
  • अन्य विकल्प यहां उपयुक्त प्रतीत नहीं होते।

Additional Information

  • ऐसे सुगठित शब्द समूह जिनसे लक्षणाजन्य और कभी कभी व्यंजनाजन्य कुछ विशिष्ट अर्थ निकलता है मुहावरा कहलाते हैं। ये शब्द समूह कई बार व्यंग्यात्मक भी हो सकते है।
  • मुहावरे किसी भाषा को जीवंत, रंगीन और सरस बना देती है। इनके प्रयोग से भाषा प्रभावशाली, गतिशील और रोचक बन जाती है।
  • जैसे – अक्ल पर पत्थर पड़ना।
  • अर्थ – बुद्धि से काम न लेना।
21

'अनिल' का पर्यायवाची शब्द है:

  1. ((a))

    पवन

  2. ((b))

    चक्रवात

  3. ((c))

    अनल

  4. ((d))

    पावस

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

पवन

दिए गए विकल्पों में से विकल्प 1 'पवन' सही उत्तर है।

Key Points

  • 'अनिल' का पर्यायवाची शब्द है: पवन
  • 'अनिल' के पर्यायवाची शब्द - पवन, वायु, समीर, वात, मरुत, पवमान, बयार, हवा
  • अन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण –
शब्दपर्यायवाची
चक्रवातझंझा , तीव्रगति , तूफान , आंधी
अनलपावक, दहन, ज्वलन, धूमकेतु, कृशानु, हुताशन, वैश्वानर, शुचि, ज्वाला, आग, अग्नि
पावसवृष्टि, मेह, वर्षा

Additional Information

  • पर्यायवाची शब्द उन्हें कहते हैं, जब भिन्न-भिन्न शब्दों का अर्थ समान हो, अर्थात एक ही शब्द के स्थान पर समान अर्थ वाले अलग अलग शब्द प्रयोग किये जा सके।
  • जैसे- सूर्य, दिनकर, दिवाकर, रवि, भास्कर, भानु, दिनेश- इन सभी शब्दों का अर्थ है 'सूरज'।
  • इस प्रकार ये सभी शब्द 'सूरज' के पर्यायवाची शब्द कहलायेंगे।
22

'गुम' का विलोम शब्द है:

  1. ((a))

    प्रकट

  2. ((b))

    जानना

  3. ((c))

    निष्ठ

  4. ((d))

    गूढ़

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

प्रकट

दिए गए विकल्पों में से विकल्प 'प्रकट' सही उत्तर है।

Key Points

  • 'गुम' का विलोम शब्द है: 'प्रकट'
  • गुम का अर्थ - छिपा हुआ, गुप्त।
  • प्रकट का अर्थ - जाहिर, स्पष्ट।
  • अन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण –
शब्दअर्थ
जाननासूचना पाना, परिचय होना
निष्ठविश्वास करनेवाला
गूढ़छिपा हुआ, गुप्त

Additional Information

  • किसी शब्द का विलोम शब्द उस शब्द के अर्थ से उल्टा या विपरीत अर्थ वाला होता है।
  • इन शब्दों को विलोम शब्द या विपरीतार्थक शब्द या विरुद्धार्थी शब्द कहते है।
  • जैसे- हार- जीत, आय- व्यय, आजादी- गुलामी, नवीन- प्राचीन आदि।
23

"सद्भावना" का संधि-विच्छेद क्या होगा?

  1. ((a))

    सम् + भावना

  2. ((b))

    सत् + भावना

  3. ((c))

    स + द्भावना

  4. ((d))

    इनमें से कोई नहीं

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

सत् + भावना

दिए गए विकल्पों में से विकल्प 2 'सत् + भावना' सही उत्तर है।

Key Points

  • सद्भावना का संधि-विच्छेद = 'सत् + भावना'
  • इस संधि को बनाने का नियम: (त् + भ = द्भ)
  • इस संधि में व्यंजन संधि है।
  • अन्य विकल्प निरर्थक हैं।

Additional Information

  • व्यंजन तथा व्यंजन या स्वर के मेल से जो विकार (परिवर्तन) उत्पन्न होता है उसे व्यंजन संधि कहते हैं अर्थात् शब्दों या शब्दांशों के मिलने से नया शब्द बनने पर पहले शब्द के आखिरी और दूसरे शब्द के प्रथम वर्णों में होने वाले परिवर्तन को संधि कहते हैं। यदि प्रथम पद के अंत में “त्” के बाद तालव्य “श” आ जाये तो ‘त्’ को ‘च्’ में बदल देते हैं और तालव्य ‘ श्’ को ‘ छ’ में बदल जाता है।
  • व्यंजन संधि के उदाहरण :-
  • वाक् + ईश = वागीश
  • दिक् + गज = दिग्गज

Read the passage carefully and answer the corresponding questions: 

For the past week Elizabeth would come home from work and discover that her apartment smelled like cigarette smoke. She did not know where the smell was coming from. Elizabeth didn't smoke. No one else had the key to her apartment to smoke inside while she was at work. The smell of smoke especially bothered her because she had asthma. One day Elizabeth stayed home from work because she was expecting a package. When she woke up that morning, the apartment smelled fine. At one in the afternoon, Elizabeth went into the kitchen to make a sandwich for lunch. That was when she noticed the smell of cigarette smoke. She called the building's superintendent. By the time he arrived at Elizabeth's apartment, the whole place smelled like cigarette smoke. The superintendent told Elizabeth that he was pretty sure the smoke was coming up through the vents from her new downstair's neighbour. The new neighbour was a smoker. The. superintendent told Elizabeth that there was nothing to be done. The building was really old and the vents couldn't be sealed. It was also perfectly legal for the downstair's neighbour to smoke in his apartment. He suggested that Elizabeth should buy an air filter and sec if that would help. Elizabeth bought an air filter but didn't find it to be enough. Her asthma was getting worse. Her clothes and furniture were beginning to smell like cigarette smoke too. Elizabeth decided to was going to ask him not to smoke in his apartment. Elizabeth knocked on the door. When he opened the door, a huge wave of. cigarette smoke came out. Elizabeth began coughing violently. The neighbour gave Elizabeth a disgusted look. "Are you trying to get me sick ?" the neighbour asked her. Elizabeth couldn't believe what he was saying. "No, but you are ?" she said.

24

Elizabeth's new neighbour lived _____.

  1. ((a))

    besides her house

  2. ((b))

    upstairs

  3. ((c))

    downstairs

  4. ((d))

    next to her

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

downstairs

Here the correct answer is Downstairs.

Key Points

  • Let's look at the twelfth sentence of the passage:-
  • The superintendent told Elizabeth that he was pretty sure the smoke was coming up through the vents from her new downstair's neighbour.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 3.
25

Elizabeth was suffering from ______.

  1. ((a))

    Pneumonia  

  2. ((b))

    Asthma

  3. ((c))

    Bronchiti

  4. ((d))

    Cardiovascular disease

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Asthma

Here the correct answer is Asthma.

Key Points

  • Let's look at the fifth line of the passage:
  • The smell of smoke especially bothered her because she had asthma.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 2.
26

Direction: Choose the correct antonym: "Mourn"

  1. ((a))

    Joy

  2. ((b))

    Vitalize

  3. ((c))

    Motivate

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Joy

The correct answer is 'Joy.'

Key Points  

  • Let us see the meaning of Mourn:
  • Mourn: to feel and show great sadness, especially because somebody has died. (दुख या शोक मनाना (विशेषतः किसी की मृत्‍यु पर))
  • Let us see the meanings of the given options:
  • Joy: a feeling of great happiness. (हर्ष, ख़ुशी, आह्लाद, आनंद)
  • Vitalize: give strength and energy to. (शक्ति और ऊर्जा देना)
  • Motivate: to cause somebody to act in a particular way. (विशेष प्रकार से कुछ करने का कारण बनना, प्रेरित करना)
  • From the meanings of the given words, we can say that the antonym for the given word is "Joy."
  • Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.
27

Direction: Give one word substitute for the following: "one who sells articles at public sales"

  1. ((a))

    Auctionor

  2. ((b))

    Juggler

  3. ((c))

    Shopkeeper

  4. ((d))

    Auctioneer

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Auctioneer

The correct answer is- 'Auctioneer.'

Key Points

  • Let us see the meanings of the given words:
  • Auctionor: Incorrect spelling
  • Juggler: a person who juggles to entertain people. (लोगों का मनोरंजन करने वाला बाज़ीगर)
  • Shopkeeper: a person who owns or manages a small shop. (छोटी दुकान का मालिक या प्रबंधक; दुकानदार)
  • Auctioneer: a person who organizes the selling at an auction. (नीलामकर्ता)
  • Therefore, one who sells articles at public sales is called an 'Auctioneer​.'
  • Option 4 is the correct answer.
28

Direction: Choose the correct synonym : "Exile"

  1. ((a))

    Banishment

  2. ((b))

    Expose

  3. ((c))

    Mystery

  4. ((d))

    Proof

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Banishment

The correct answer is 'Banishment​.'

Key Points

  • Let us see the meaning of Exile:
  • Exile: the state of being forced to live outside your own country (especially for political reasons). (देशनिकाला, निर्वासन (विशेषतः राजनीतिक आधार पर); स्‍वदेश छोड़कर अन्‍यत्र रहने की बाध्यता)
  • Let us see the meanings of the given options:
  • Banishment: the punishment of being sent away from a country or other place. (किसी देश या अन्य स्थान से दूर भेजे जाने की सजा)
  • Expose: to show something that is usually hidden; to tell something that has been kept secret. (प्रायः गुप्‍त रहने वाली वस्‍तु को बाहर लाना; रहस्‍य खोल देना, भंडा फोड़ देना)
  • Mystery: a thing that you cannot understand or explain. (जो न समझ में आए न समझाया जा सके, समझने या समझाने से परे, रहस्‍य, भेद की बात)
  • Proof: information, documents, etc. which show that something is true. (किसी बात को सत्‍य सिद्घ करने वाली जानकारी, दस्‍तावेज़ आदि; प्रमाण, सबूत)
  • From the meanings of the given words, we can say that the synonym for the given word is "Banishment."
  • Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.
29

Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements.

Statements:

I. Police authority has recently increased vigil during the morning hours in the city.

II. There has been a considerable reduction in the incidents of petty crimes in the city.

  1. ((a))

    Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.

  2. ((b))

    Both the statements I and II are independent causes.

  3. ((c))

    Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.

  4. ((d))

    Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.

Statements:

I. Police authority has recently increased vigil during the morning hours in the city.

II. There has been a considerable reduction in the incidents of petty crimes in the city.

→ Here, with the increased vigilance, the crimes in the city have been reduced. Thus, the reduction in crimes is an effect of the increased vigil during the morning hours in the city.

Thus, Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.

Hence, the correct answer is "1".

30

Find the odd one out:

3, 13, 17, 23, 33, 67

  1. ((a))

    13

  2. ((b))

    23

  3. ((c))

    17

  4. ((d))

    33

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

33

Given : 3, 13, 17, 23, 33, 67

The logic follows here is:

All the given numbers are prime numbers except '33'.

Thus, '33' is an odd term.

Hence, the correct answer is "33".

31

Find the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock at 6 ∶ 10

  1. ((a))

    138°

  2. ((b))

    125°

  3. ((c))

    115°

  4. ((d))

    180° 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

125°

The logic follows here is:

The angle between the hour hand and the minute hand can be calculated as:

FORMULA :

Angle = | (60H - 11M) / 2 |

Where M = Minutes and H = Hours

Here, the angle formula is in mod value therefore two angles are calculated from it.

One is the main angle and another is the reflex angle which can be calculated by subtracting the main angle from 360°.

Depending on the options we need to choose accordingly.

Calculation :

Given time: 6 : 10

By using the above formula:

Angle = | (60H - 11M) / 2 |

Here, H = 6 and M = 10

Therefore, 

Angle = | (60 × 6 - 11 × 10) / 2 |

= | (360 - 110) / 2 |

= | (250)/2 |

= | 125 |

= 125°

The reflex angle can be calculated as;

= 360° - 125° = 235°

Thus,  the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock at 6 :10 is '125°'.

Hence, the correct answer is "125°".

32

If A is coded as 26, B is coded as 25, C is coded as 24 .... and Z is coded as 1, then find the code for MOBILE.

  1. ((a))

    152214181252

  2. ((b))

    122518152214

  3. ((c))

    181522141225

  4. ((d))

    141225181522

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

141225181522

As per the given information:

  • If A is coded as 26, B is coded as 25, C is coded as 24 .... and Z is coded as 1, then the new arrangement will be:
ABCDEFGHIJKLM
26252423222120191817161514
12345678910111213
ZYXWVUTSRQPON
  • Now, the code for MOBILE will be:
MOBILE
141225181522

Thus, the code for MOBILE is '141225181522'.

Hence, the correct answer is "141225181522".

33

A new species of Damsel fly named The Anamalai Reed-tail has been discovered in which state?

  1. ((a))

    Kerala

  2. ((b))

    Assam

  3. ((c))

    Tamil Nadu

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kerala

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

  • A new species of Damselfly has been discovered inThrissur, Kerala.
  • It is from the Western Ghats of Peechi Wildlife Sanctuary.
  • The species is scientifically Protosticta anamalaica.
  • It has been named The Anamalai Reed-tail.

Additional Information

  • ​This remarkable discovery has been made by Dr Kalesh Sadasivan, Vinayan P Nair and Dr Abraham Samuel.
  • The species was first spotted during the A 4-day butterfly survey of the Peechi Wildlife Division.
  • It is led by the Kerala Forest Department and Travancore Nature History Society (TNHS) Thiruvananthapuram.
  • The genus Protosticta Sels, 1885 consists of slender built damselflies commonly known as Reed-tails.
34

Gopi said to Vivek, "That person is the father of the only brother of my mother."

What would Gopi call him?

  1. ((a))

    Uncle

  2. ((b))

    Father

  3. ((c))

    Maternal Grandfather

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Maternal Grandfather

By using the following symbols in the table given below, we can draw the following family tree:

Statement: Gopi said to Vivek, "That person is the father of the only brother of my mother."

→ Here, the person is the father of the only brother of Gopi's mother, i.e. the person is the father of Gopi's mother also, so gopi will call him 'Maternal Grandfather'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Maternal Grandfather".

35

INS Tarkash conducted a Maritime Partnership Exercise with _________ Navy ships Almazz (PC 411) and Nimer (PC 413) in the Red Sea.

  1. ((a))

    Oman

  2. ((b))

    Japan

  3. ((c))

    Sudan

  4. ((d))

    France

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Sudan

The correct answer is Sudan.

Key Points

  • INS Tarkash also conducted a partnership exercise in the Red Sea near Sudan's Naval Base on 07 July 2022.
  • Naval ships Almaz (PC 411) and Nimer (PC 413) participated in the exercise in maritime partnership.

Additional Information

  • JIMEX 22 -​ 
  • This is Japan-India maritime exercise (6th edition).
  • The navies of both the countries have been conducting maritime exercises in the Bay of Bengal since September 11.
  • The aim of this exercise is to promote reciprocity between the navies of the two countries.
  • Naseem-Al-Bahr -
  • It is a bilateral naval exercise between the Indian Navy and the Royal Navy of Oman.
  • It being conducted since 1993.
36

'Jagriti' is a mascot related to which among the following fields?

  1. ((a))

    Income Tax

  2. ((b))

    Consumer Awareness

  3. ((c))

    Climate Change

  4. ((d))

    Crypto Currency

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Consumer Awareness

The correct answer is Consumer Awareness.

Key Points

  • Mascot "Jagriti" -
  • It was launched by the Department of Consumer Affairs.
  • It has been launched to empower consumers and create awareness about their rights.
  • It will be projected as an empowered consumer.
  • Which will spread awareness about consumer rights and solve the problems of consumers.

Additional Information

  • This will help in increasing the awareness among consumers like -
  • Provisions of the Consumer Protection Act 2019
  • Hallmarking
  • National Consumer Helpline Toll-Free Number 1915
  • Provisions of Weights and Measures Act
  • Decisions of Central Consumer Protection Authority
  • Testimonials by Consumers on Grievance Redressal
37

Write the new name of Aurangabad located in Maharashtra.

  1. ((a))

    Sambhaji Nagar

  2. ((b))

    Dhule

  3. ((c))

    Dharashiv

  4. ((d))

    Satara

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Sambhaji Nagar

The correct answer is Sambhaji Nagar.

Key Points

  • Aurangabad city in Maharashtra has been renamed as 'Sambhaji Nagar'.

Key Points

  • Aurangabad -
  • It is an industrial center of the state of Maharastra.
  • It is formerly a famous Mughal city.
  • It was named after Aurangzeb.
  • Dhule -
  • This city is located in the Dhule district of Maharashtra state, India.
  • This city was planned by Bharat Ratna Mokshagundam Visvesvaraya.
  • Dharashiv -
  • ​It is a confluence of 7 caves located in the Balaghat mountains of Maharashtra state, India.
  • Satara -
  • It is a town in the Satara district in the Indian state of Maharashtra.
38

Which country's All-Party Parliamentary Group on Indian Traditional Sciences conferred the Ayurveda Ratna award?

  1. ((a))

    UK

  2. ((b))

    UAE.

  3. ((c))

    China

  4. ((d))

    Russia

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

UK

The correct answer is the UK.

Key Points

  • All India Institute of Ayurveda (AIIA) Director Tanuja Nasri has been conferred with the 'Ayurveda Ratna Award' by the UK Parliament.
  • Provided by UK All Party Parliamentary Group on Indian Traditional Science (ITSappg).
  • It presented this award in recognition of his contribution to promoting the development of Ayurveda in India and abroad.

Additional Information

  • ​All India Institute of Ayurveda -
  • It is a research institute based in Delhi.
  • It is India's public ayurvedic medical and research institute.
  • It was established in 2016.
  • It is being made on the lines of Delhi AIIMS for treatment with Ayurvedic medicine.
39

Tata Power Solar started, India's largest Floating Solar Power Project in which state?

  1. ((a))

    Assam

  2. ((b))

    Bihar

  3. ((c))

    Kerala

  4. ((d))

    Odisha

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Kerala

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

  • Tata Power Solar Systems Limited has commissioned India's largest floating solar power project in Kerala.
  • The new project, located in Kayamkulam, Kerala, is spread over a 350-acre water body, backwater area.
  • It has the highest installed capacity of 101.6 MW.

Additional Information

  • This is India's first and largest floating solar project.
  • The project has been set up in a watershed of 350 acres at Kayamkulam.
  • ​Tata Power Solar -
  • It is a Tata group company.
  • The company is a wholly-owned subsidiary of Tata Power.
  • It is one of the leading solar panels and other solar energy product manufacturers in India.
40

Between which countries the 21-day joint exercise Vajra Prahar 2022 concluded in Himachal Pradesh?

  1. ((a))

    India and Russia

  2. ((b))

    India and France

  3. ((c))

    India and United Kingdom

  4. ((d))

    India and United States of America

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

India and United States of America

The correct answer is India and the United States of America.

Key Points

  • A joint exercise between India-US Special Forces was organized in Bakloh, Himachal Pradesh.
  • The 13th edition of this joint special forces exercise Vajra Prahar- 2022 concluded on August 28, 2022.
  • This annual exercise is conducted alternately in India and the US.

Additional Information

  • ​The 12th edition of India-Russia joint military exercise INDRA-2021 was held in Volgograd, Russia from 1 to 13 August 2021.
  • India and France conduct three biennial training exercises -
  • Exercise Garuda with Indian Air Force,
  • Exercise Varuna with the Indian Navy and
  • Exercise Shakti with the Indian Army.
  • A joint military exercise 'Ajay Warrior' will be held between India and England.
  • This is the sixth edition (2021) of this joint military exercise held in Chaubatia.
41

In July 2022 which of the following company announced a long-term partnership with the Indian Olympic Association (IOA) to elevate the performances of Indian athletes?

  1. ((a))

    Reliance Industries Limited

  2. ((b))

    Wipro

  3. ((c))

    Tata Enterprise

  4. ((d))

    ONGC

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Reliance Industries Limited

The correct answer is Reliance Industries Limited.

Key Points

  • Reliance announced a long-term partnership with the Indian Olympic Association (IOA).
  • Reliance has done this to support Indian sportspersons in major multi-sport events including Commonwealth Games, Asian Games, and Olympics.

Additional Information

  • Nita Ambani is the director of Reliance Industries Limited and a member of the International Olympic Committee.
  • Wipro -
  • It is the third-largest IT company in India.
  • Its headquarter is in Bangalore.
  • It was founded by Azim Premji in 1966.
  • ONGC -
  • It started on 23 June 1993.
  • It is an Indian public-sector petroleum company.
  • It produces about 30% of India's total crude oil requirement.
  • The total equity stake of the Government of India in this company is 74.14%.
42

In July 2022, Coffee Board signed an MoU with whom to develop climate-resistant varieties of coffee crops.

  1. ((a))

    TNAU

  2. ((b))

    ISRO

  3. ((c))

    DRDO

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

ISRO

The correct answer is ISRO.

Key Points

  • A Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) was signed between the Coffee Board and the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO).
  • It was signed in relation to the breeding of climate-resilient varieties and assessing the carbon sequestration capacity in coffee.
  • The headquarter of ISRO is in Bangalore.

Additional Information

  • Defense Research and Development Organization (DRDO) -
  • It is the country's leading organization for research related to the defense of India.
  • The organization works as a subsidiary unit of the Indian Ministry of Defence.
  • Its headquarter is located near Rashtrapati Bhavan, Delhi.​
  • The Central Coffee Research Institute (CCRI) is located in the Chikmagalur district of Karnataka.
43

Which among the following countries shares the longest international boundary with India?

  1. ((a))

    Bangladesh

  2. ((b))

    Bhutan

  3. ((c))

    Nepal

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bangladesh

The correct answer is Bangladesh.

Key Points

  • India has the longest international border with Bangladesh.
  • Its length is about 4096.7 km.
  • Its boundary shares 5 Indian districts.

Additional Information

  • ​The borders of 17 states of India meet with neighboring countries.
  • Radcliffe Line India and Pakistan, and
  • McMahon Line to India and China, and
  • Durand Line separates India and Afghanistan.
  • | Neighboring Countries | Boundary Line Length (in km) | Names of Indian states bordering | | --- | --- | --- | | China | 3,488 | Leh, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh | | Pakistan | 3,323 | Jammu & Kashmir, Leh, Punjab, Rajasthan, Gujarat | | Nepal | 1751 | Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Sikkim, Bihar | | Myanmar | 1643 | Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram |
44

Which among the following is the capital of Israel?

  1. ((a))

    Jerusalem

  2. ((b))

    Baghdad

  3. ((c))

    Dublin

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Jerusalem

The correct answer is Jerusalem.

Key Points

  • Jerusalem is the capital of Israel.
  • The main language here is Hebrew, which is written from right to left.
  • The 'Israeli shekel' is the currency of Israel.

Additional Information

  • Baghdad -
  • It is a major city in the world and the capital of Iraq.
  • The 'Iraqi dinar' is the currency of Iraq.
  • It is situated on the banks of the Tigris River.
  • Dublin -
  • It is the capital and largest city of Ireland, located in the eastern part of the island.
  • The Euro is the currency of Ireland.
45

The objective of the 'Dak Karmayogi' portal is:

  1. ((a))

    Grievance Redressal

  2. ((b))

    Enhance the competencies of about 4 lakh Gramin Dak Sevak

  3. ((c))

    Awarding Best Performers

  4. ((d))

    Participation of Public

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Enhance the competencies of about 4 lakh Gramin Dak Sevak

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

  • E-learning portal Dak Karmayogi -
  • Communications Minister Ashwini Vaishnav launched this portal of the Department of Posts on 28 June 2022 in New Delhi.
  • This portal will enhance the efficiency of about four lakh Gramin Dak Sevaks and departmental employees.

Additional Information

  • ​This portal has been developed 'in-house' under 'Mission Karmayogi'.
  • Which was envisaged by the Prime Minister with a view to bringing efficiency in the bureaucracy with 'Minimum Government' and 'Maximum Governance.
  • This portal will enable trainees to have access to uniform standardized training material and online mode.
  • So that they can effectively deliver multiple G2C (Government to Citizen) services for customer satisfaction.
46

Which of the following states has the Legislative Council?

  1. ((a))

    Jharkhand

  2. ((b))

    Karnataka

  3. ((c))

    Odisha

  4. ((d))

    Gujarat

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Karnataka

The correct answer is 'Karnataka'.

Key Points

  • At present, 6 states out of 28 states of India have the Legislative Council. These 6 states are -
  • Andhra Pradesh
  • Telangana
  • Karnataka
  • Maharashtra
  • Uttar Pradesh
  • Bihar
  • Jharkhand, Odisha, and Gujarat have a unicameral legislature. These states have a Legislative Assembly only.

Hence, the correct answer is Karnataka.

Additional Information

  • Legislative Assembly
  • The State Legislative Assembly is a legislative body in the states and union territories of India.
  • In the 28 states and 3 union territories with a unicameral state legislature, it is the sole legislative body.
  • In 6 states, it is the lower house of their bicameral state legislatures.
  • Each Member of the Legislative Assembly (MLA) is directly elected to serve 5-year terms.
  • A State Legislative Assembly may be dissolved in a state of emergency, by the Governor at the request of the Chief Minister, or if a motion of no confidence is passed against the ruling majority party or coalition.
  • Legislative Council
  • The second and upper house of the state legislature is the Legislative Council.
  • It is a permanent house. Therefore, the Governor cannot dissolve it.
  • According to Article 171(3), the members of the Legislative Council are indirectly elected.
  • Each member remains a member of the Legislative Council for 6 years.

Hint

  • Trick to remember Indian States with Bicameral Legislature (Legislative Council) -
  • KUMBAT
  • K - Karnataka
  • U - Uttar Pradesh
  • M - Maharashtra
  • B - Bihar
  • A - Andhra Pradesh
  • T - Telangana
47

Which day is celebrated as Indian Air Force Day?

  1. ((a))

    8 February

  2. ((b))

    8 September

  3. ((c))

    8 October

  4. ((d))

    8 November

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

8 October

The correct answer is '8 October'.

Key PointsIndian Air Force Day

  • The Air Force was established on October 8, 1932, in undivided India under colonial rule.
  • Therefore, Indian Air Force Day is celebrated every year on 8 October.
  • On this day a program is organized at Hindon Air Force Station in Ghaziabad.
  • In this program, many veterans including army officers are involved and powerful aircraft are displayed in the sky.
  • A parade of male and female pilots is held in Hindon on this day.
  • In this ceremony, the Chief of the Air Staff felicitates the military personnel with medals.

Hence, the correct answer is 8 October.

Additional Information Indian Air Force

  • The Indian Air Force is the fourth largest air force in the world.
  • The Hindon Air Force Station located in Ghaziabad, Uttar Pradesh is the largest in Asia.
  • Since the inception of the Indian Air Force, it has been following the path of its motto 'Nabh: Sprisham Deeptam'. It means 'To touch the sky with pride.' This motto of the Air Force has been taken from the 11th chapter of the Bhagavad Gita.
  • The colors of the Indian Air Force are blue, sky blue, and white.

Important Points Let's have a look at other options:

DateDay
8 FebruarySafer Internet Day
8 SeptemberInternational Literacy Day
8 NovemberWorld Radiography Day
48

Which among the following is also known as Scotland of India?

  1. ((a))

    Coorg

  2. ((b))

    Srinagar

  3. ((c))

    Mussoorie

  4. ((d))

    ​Darjeeling

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Coorg

The correct answer is 'Coorg'.

Key Points

  • The 'Coorg' of India is called the 'Scotland of India'.
  • Coorg is a hill station in Karnataka. The Coorg region is in the hills of the Western Ghats in Karnataka.
  • Not only is this a fun place to visit, but this place is also known for the cultivation of coffee. Of the coffee produced in India, the largest quantity comes from Coorg.
  • Coorg is also known as Kodagu. Its original name is Kodaimalenadu. It means - the dense forest formed directly on the mountain.
  • Coorg has many old temples, waterfalls, and beautiful mountain views.
  • Omkareshwar Temple and Tal Kaveri are famous places here. The Kaveri river originates from the Tal Kaveri place itself.
  • A variety of adventure sports are available here such as trekking, mountaineering, and river rafting.

Hence, the correct answer is Coorg.

Important PointsLet's have a look at other options:

PlacesKnown as
Srinagarparadise on earth
MussoorieQueen of Hills
​DarjeelingLand of the thunderbolt
49

________ art is the traditional art of stenciling from Mathura.

  1. ((a))

    Kajari

  2. ((b))

    Miniature art

  3. ((c))

    Sanjhi

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Sanjhi

The correct answer is 'Sanjhi'.

Key Points

  • Sanjhi art is the famous traditional art of stenciling from Krishna's Hometown - Mathura, Uttar Pradesh.
  • It is a unique combination of Rangoli and painting.
  • The art flourished in the 16th and 17th centuries when the walls and floors of temples were painted and decorated with common motifs.
  • The word Sanjhi is derived from the Hindi word sandhya, which is associated with evening art.
  • The art depicts Indian mythological stories in many forms, with the main focus being on Krishna's pastimes.

Hence, the correct answer is Sanjhi.

Additional InformationLet's have a look at other options:

  • Kajari
  • Kajari is a famous folk song of Eastern Uttar Pradesh.
  • The origin of Kajari is believed to be in the Mirzapur district situated on the banks of the Ganges in eastern Uttar Pradesh.
  • This is the folk song of the rainy season.
  • In Kajari songs, description of the rainy season and description of the pastimes of Radha-Krishna is mostly found.
  • It has also developed into a form of semi-classical singing.
  • Miniature art
  • Miniature art is handmade paintings that are quite colorful but small in size.
  • One of the outstanding features of these paintings is the intricate brushwork that contributes to their distinctive identity of these paintings.
  • The colors used in the paintings are derived from various natural sources such as vegetables, indigo, precious stones, gold, and silver.
  • Various schools of miniature painting in India include:
  • Pala School
  • Rajasthan School
  • Jaina School
  • Bengali School
  • Mughal School
  • Orissa School
  • Pahari School
  • Deccan School
50

Which among the following is the 29th state of India created in 2014?

  1. ((a))

    Telangana

  2. ((b))

    Jharkhand

  3. ((c))

    Uttarakhand

  4. ((d))

    Sikkim

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Telangana

The correct answer is 'Telangana'.

Key PointsTelangana:

  • Telangana became the 29th state of India formed in 2014.
  • Telangana was formed after reorganizing Andhra Pradesh state.
  • Hyderabad is the capital of Telangana.
  • Telangana is bordered by the states of: 
  • Maharashtra to the north.
  • Chhattisgarh and Odisha to the northeast.
  • Andhra Pradesh to the southeast and south.
  • Karnataka to the west.

Hence, the correct answer is Telangana.

Additional Information

  • Srikrishna Committee headed by former chief justice B. N. Srikrishna was set up by the center to look into the need for a separate state of Telangana from Andhra Pradesh, and which had accorded the highest priority to a non-separation of the state.
  • Lok Sabha passed the Telangana bill on 18th February 2014.
  • Rajya Sabha passed the Telangana bill on 20th February 2014.
  • Telangana bill received the President's assent on 1st March 2014.
  • Telangana was formed as the 29th state of India on 2nd June 2014.

Important PointsLet's have a look at other options:

StateDate of formation
Jharkhand (28th)15 November 2000
Uttarakhand (27th)9 November 2000
Sikkim (22nd)16 May 1975
51

Who among the following persons wrote the famous book "The Story of My Experiments with Truth"?

  1. ((a))

    Maharshi Dayanand Saraswati

  2. ((b))

    Jawaharlal Nehru

  3. ((c))

    Mahatma Gandhi

  4. ((d))

    Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Mahatma Gandhi

The correct answer is 'Mahatma Gandhi'.

Key PointsThe Story of My Experiments with Truth:

  • The Story of My Experiments with Truth is a famous book written by Mahatma Gandhi.
  • It is an Autobiography and is the longest book written by Mahatma Gandhi with 181 chapters and nearly 600 pages long.
  • In this book, Gandhiji has given a personal and spiritual description of his life till 1920.
  • Along with this, he has also described some of the main historical events related to his life in this book.
  • Mahatma Gandhi explores the development of his beliefs about politics, religion, morality, and diet in the book.
  • In addition, Mahatma Gandhi explores the principles of his life in this book. And he has also described his tough determination and self-confidence.

Hence, the correct answer is Mahatma Gandhi.

Important PointsLet's have a look at other options:

NameBook
Maharshi Dayanand SaraswatiSatyarth Prakash
Jawaharlal NehruThe Discovery Of India
Sardar Vallabhbhai PatelBharat Vibhajan: Introduction of the Two-Nation Theory
52

Greenhouse gases in the atmosphere absorb most of the Earth's emitted _____, which heats the lower atmosphere.

  1. ((a))

    Ultraviolet radiation

  2. ((b))

    Infrared radiation

  3. ((c))

    Visible light

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Infrared radiation

The correct answer is Infrared radiation.

Key Points

  • Green House Effect
  • The greenhouse effect is caused due to Infrared rays.
  • The rest of the infrared radiation, the thick red arrow, is absorbed by the greenhouse gases and clouds in the atmosphere and then re-emitted in all directions as shown by the collection of orange arrows.
  • This ability to absorb and re-emit infrared radiation is a critical requirement for greenhouse gases.
  • The greenhouse effect is the process where infrared radiation from the Sun is absorbed by water vapor and certain gases in the atmosphere, thus increasing the temperature on the Earth.
  • If the concentration of greenhouse gases increases, then more infrared radiation will be absorbed and emitted back toward Earth's surface, creating an enhanced or amplified greenhouse effect.
  • It occurs due to the increase in greenhouse gases.
  • The major greenhouse gases are
  • Water Vapour - causes about 36% - 70% of the greenhouse effect
  • Carbon dioxide (CO2) causes 9 - 26%
  • Methane (CH4) causes 4 - 9% and ozone (O3)

Additional Information

  • Ultraviolet (UV) radiation
  • It is a form of non-ionizing radiation that is emitted by the sun and artificial sources, such as tanning beds.
  • Cosmic rays
  • They are atom fragments that rain down on the Earth from outside of the solar system.
  • Microwaves
  • They are a portion or "band" found at the higher frequency end of the radio spectrum, but they are commonly distinguished from radio waves because of the technologies used to access them.
53

Volleyball is a national game of which among the following countries?

  1. ((a))

    Indonesia

  2. ((b))

    Nepal

  3. ((c))

    Argentina

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Nepal

The correct answer is 'Nepal'.

Key PointsLet's have a look at all options:

CountryNational Game
IndonesiaBadminton
NepalVolleyball
ArgentinaPato

Hence, the correct answer is Nepal.

​निम्नलिखित अनुच्छेद को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर पूछे गये प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए ।

मादक पदार्थों के प्रयोग की लत आज के युवाओं में तेज़ी से फैल रही है। कई बार फैशन की खातिर दोस्तों के उकसावे पर लिए गए ये मादक पदार्थ अकसर जानलेवा होते हैं। स्कूल-कॉलेजों या पास-पड़ोस में गलत संगति के दोस्तों के साथ ही गुटखा, सिगरेट, शराब, गाँजा, भाँग, अफीम और धूम्रपान सहित चरस, स्मैक, कोकीन, ब्राउन शुगर जैसे घातक मादक पदार्थों के सेवन की ओर अपने आप कदम बढ़ जाते हैं । पहले उन्हें मादक पदार्थ फ्री में उपलब्ध कराकर इसका लती बनाया जाता है और फिर लती बनने पर वे इसके लिए चोरी से लेकर अपराध तक करने को तैयार हो जाते हैं। माँ-बाप द्वारा दिया गया जेब खर्च कम पड़ने लगता है। नशे के लिए उपयोग में लाई जाने वाली सूइयाँ एच.आई.वी. का कारण भी बनती हैं, जो अंततः एड्स का रूप धारण कर लेती हैं। कई बार तो बच्चे घर के ही सदस्यों से नशे की आदत सीखते हैं। उन्हें लगता है कि जो बड़े कर रहे हैं, वह ठीक है और फिर वे भी घर में ही चोरी आरंभ कर देते हैं। चिकित्सकीय आधार पर देखें तो अफीम, हेरोइन, चरस, कोकीन तथा स्मैक जैसे मादक पदार्थ से व्यक्ति वास्तव में अपना मानसिक संतुलन खो बैठता है एवं पागल तथा सुमावस्था में हो जाता है। ये ऐसे उत्तेजना लाने वाले पदार्थ हैं, जिनकी लत के प्रभाव में व्यक्ति अपराध तक कर बैठता है। ऐसे युवा उच्छृंखल, हिंसक, अनुशासनहीन, झगड़ालू, स्वास्थ्य के प्रति लापरवाह और शारीरिक एवं मानसिक रूप से कमजोर होते है। मामला सिर्फ स्वास्थ्य से नहीं अपितु अपराध से भी जुड़ा हुआ है। कहा भी गया है कि जीवन अनमोल है। नशे के सेवन से यह अनमोल जीवन समय से पहले ही मौत का शिकार हो जाता है। भारत के अनेक राज्यों में युवा वर्ग में इन नशीली वस्तुओं का प्रयोग बढ़ता जा रहा है। कॉलेज ही नही स्कूलों तक ये बीमारी पहुँच चुकी है। भारत के कई राज्यों में गाँजा व अफीम की खेती होती है और हेरोइन आदि का व्यापार खुले आम चल रहा है। कहाँ जा रही है हमारी युवा पीढ़ी?

54

आज की युवा पीढ़ी में मादक पदार्थों के प्रयोग की लत पड़ रही है। दिए गए कारणों में से इस लत का कौन सा कारण उचित नहीं लगता?

  1. ((a))

    यदा-कदा पान-सुपारी का सेवन।

  2. ((b))

    परिवार का धनी होना और बच्चों को अनियंत्रित जेब खर्च मिलना।

  3. ((c))

    स्कूल कॉलेज के आसपास मादक पदार्थों की उपलब्धता ।

  4. ((d))

    नशा करने वाले साथियों की संगति।

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

यदा-कदा पान-सुपारी का सेवन।

दिए गए विकल्पों में से विकल्प 2, परिवार का धनी होना और बच्चों को अनियंत्रित जेब खर्च मिलना।'। सही उत्तर है, क्योंकि यह युवा पीढ़ी में मादक पदार्थों  के प्रयोग का कारण नहीं है।

Key Points

  • परिवार का धनी होना और बच्चों को अनियंत्रित जेब खर्च मिलने से इंसान को मादक पदार्थों  इसकी लत नहीं लगती।
  • शेष समस्त विकल्प मादक पदार्थों की लत के लिए जिम्मेदार हैं।
  • नोट:-  आयोग ने इसका उत्तर 1, माना है, परन्तु गद्यांश के अनुसार इसका सही उत्तर विकल्प 2, ही है|

Additional Information

  • आधुनिक जीवनशैली में बुरी लतों के कारण व्यक्ति हर ढलते दिन के साथ कमजोर हो रहा है।
  • इससे व्यक्ति की सेहत पर भी बुरा असर पड़ रहा है नशे की लत युवाओं को पथभ्रष्ट कर रही है।
  • नशा न केवल व्यक्ति का शारीरिक व मानसिक नुकसान करता है बल्कि उसके परिवार को भी पतन की ओर धकेल देता है।
  • समाज में अपराध की मुख्य वजह नशा ही माना गया है।

​निम्नलिखित अनुच्छेद को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर पूछे गये प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए ।

मादक पदार्थों के प्रयोग की लत आज के युवाओं में तेज़ी से फैल रही है। कई बार फैशन की खातिर दोस्तों के उकसावे पर लिए गए ये मादक पदार्थ अकसर जानलेवा होते हैं। स्कूल-कॉलेजों या पास-पड़ोस में गलत संगति के दोस्तों के साथ ही गुटखा, सिगरेट, शराब, गाँजा, भाँग, अफीम और धूम्रपान सहित चरस, स्मैक, कोकीन, ब्राउन शुगर जैसे घातक मादक पदार्थों के सेवन की ओर अपने आप कदम बढ़ जाते हैं । पहले उन्हें मादक पदार्थ फ्री में उपलब्ध कराकर इसका लती बनाया जाता है और फिर लती बनने पर वे इसके लिए चोरी से लेकर अपराध तक करने को तैयार हो जाते हैं। माँ-बाप द्वारा दिया गया जेब खर्च कम पड़ने लगता है। नशे के लिए उपयोग में लाई जाने वाली सूइयाँ एच.आई.वी. का कारण भी बनती हैं, जो अंततः एड्स का रूप धारण कर लेती हैं। कई बार तो बच्चे घर के ही सदस्यों से नशे की आदत सीखते हैं। उन्हें लगता है कि जो बड़े कर रहे हैं, वह ठीक है और फिर वे भी घर में ही चोरी आरंभ कर देते हैं। चिकित्सकीय आधार पर देखें तो अफीम, हेरोइन, चरस, कोकीन तथा स्मैक जैसे मादक पदार्थ से व्यक्ति वास्तव में अपना मानसिक संतुलन खो बैठता है एवं पागल तथा सुमावस्था में हो जाता है। ये ऐसे उत्तेजना लाने वाले पदार्थ हैं, जिनकी लत के प्रभाव में व्यक्ति अपराध तक कर बैठता है। ऐसे युवा उच्छृंखल, हिंसक, अनुशासनहीन, झगड़ालू, स्वास्थ्य के प्रति लापरवाह और शारीरिक एवं मानसिक रूप से कमजोर होते है। मामला सिर्फ स्वास्थ्य से नहीं अपितु अपराध से भी जुड़ा हुआ है। कहा भी गया है कि जीवन अनमोल है। नशे के सेवन से यह अनमोल जीवन समय से पहले ही मौत का शिकार हो जाता है। भारत के अनेक राज्यों में युवा वर्ग में इन नशीली वस्तुओं का प्रयोग बढ़ता जा रहा है। कॉलेज ही नही स्कूलों तक ये बीमारी पहुँच चुकी है। भारत के कई राज्यों में गाँजा व अफीम की खेती होती है और हेरोइन आदि का व्यापार खुले आम चल रहा है। कहाँ जा रही है हमारी युवा पीढ़ी?

55

मादक पदार्थों का सेवन करने वाले युवाओं को किस बीमारी का खतरा होता है?

  1. शारीरिक अक्षमता
  2. पागलपन और सुषुप्ति 
  3. एच.आई.बी. और एड्स
  4. मानसिक असंतुलन
  1. ((a))

    1-2-3

  2. ((b))

    इनमें से कोई नहीं

  3. ((c))

    2-3-4

  4. ((d))

    यह सभी

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

यह सभी

दिए गए विकल्पों में से विकल्प 4 'यह सभी' सही उत्तर है।

Key Points

  • मादक पदार्थों का सेवन करने वाले युवाओं को उपर्युक्त वर्णित सभी बीमारियों का खतरा होता है।
  • अतः विकल्प चार सभी विकल्प सही हैं।

Additional Information

  • विशेषज्ञों के अनुसार, कैंसर जैसी भयंकर बीमारी का बड़ा कारण मादक पदार्थ का सेवन है। मादक पदार्थ के सेवन से गैर-संक्रामक रोगों का खतरा बढ़ता है।
  • मादक पदार्थों के सेवन करने वाले को क्षय रोग, हृदय रोग, शारीरिक अक्षमता, एच.आई.बी., एड्स व पागलपन आदि बीमारियां उत्पन्न हो रही हैं।
  • आज वर्तमान समय में जिस प्रकार युवा पीढ़ी मादक पदार्थाें का सेवन कर रही है वह दिन दूर नहीं जब पतन की ओर अग्रसर होगी।
56

​आपकी दृष्टि में माद्रक द्रव्यों का सेवन करने वाले बच्चों के लिए सबसे ज्यादा कौन दोषी है?

  1. ((a))

    राज्य पुलिस

  2. ((b))

    बच्चों के माँ-बाप

  3. ((c))

    बच्चों के मित्र

  4. ((d))

    राज्य सरकार

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

बच्चों के माँ-बाप

दिए गए विकल्पों में से विकल्प 2 ‘बच्चों के माँ-बाप' सही उत्तर है।

Key Points

  • माद्रक द्रव्यों का सेवन करने वाले बच्चों के लिए, बच्चों के माँ-बाप सबसे ज्यादा दोषी हैं।
  • अन्य विकल्प निरर्थक हैं।

Additional Information

  • जहाँ एक ओर बच्चों के मित्रोंके बहुत करीब माने जाते हैं परन्तु वो भी नासमझ होते हैं और एक ही आयु वर्ग के होने के कारण उनकी सोच भी बहुत हद तक एक ही होती है।
  • राज्य पुलिस और राज्य सरकार राज्य के लिए जिम्मेदार हैं, वह ऐसी गतिविधियों को रोक सकते हैं परन्तु हर युवा को नहीं।
  • बच्चों के माता पिता ही बच्चों को ऐसी बुरी लतों से बचा सकते हैं क्यूंकि वो समझदार होते हैं और बच्चों पर उनका हक़ भी होता है। वे बच्चों को ऐसी आदतों का नफ़ा नुक्सान अच्छे से समझा सकते हैं।
57

भारत के अनेक राज्यों में युवा वर्ग में इन नशीली वस्तुओं का प्रयोग बढ़ता जा रहा है। इसके पीछे सबसे प्रबल कारण कौन सा है?

  1. ((a))

    राज्य सरकारें अपने राज्य में नशीली वस्तुओं के उत्पादन और प्रयोग को रोकने में समर्थ नहीं है और इसी कारण से नशे की प्रवृत्ति बढ़ र��ी है।

  2. ((b))

    ऊँची फीस वसूलने वाले शहर के अच्छे अच्छे 'स्कूल और कॉलेज बच्चों के आचरण एवं नैतिकता पर बिलकुल ध्यान नहीं देते।

  3. ((c))

    माँ-बाप बच्चों पर ध्यान नहीं देते कि उनके बच्चे क्या कर रहे है, किन लोगों के साथ रहते है और किन लोगों के साथ उनका उठना-बैठना है।

  4. ((d))

    स्कूलों और कॉलेजों के आस-पास स्मैक सप्लाई होती है और पुलिस कुछ नहीं करती। इसी कारण ये प्रवृत्ति बढ़ रही है।

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

माँ-बाप बच्चों पर ध्यान नहीं देते कि उनके बच्चे क्या कर रहे है, किन लोगों के साथ रहते है और किन लोगों के साथ उनका उठना-बैठना है।

दिए गए विकल्पों में से विकल्प 3 सही उत्तर है।

Key Points

  • माँ-बाप बच्चों पर ध्यान नहीं देते कि उनके बच्चे क्या कर रहे है, किन लोगों के साथ रहते है और किन लोगों के साथ उनका उठना-बैठना है।
  • यह विकल्प भारत के अनेक राज्यों में युवा वर्ग में इन नशीली वस्तुओं का प्रयोग बढ़ने का कारण है।
  • अन्य सभी विकल्प भी नशे की प्रवृत्ति को बढ़ावा देने में उत्तरदायी हैं परन्तु पारिवारिक स्थिती सबसे अधिक जिम्मेदार हैं।

Additional Information

  • राज्य सरकारें अपने राज्य में नशीली वस्तुओं के उत्पादन और प्रयोग को रोकने में समर्थ नहीं है और इसी कारण से नशे की प्रवृत्ति बढ़ रही है।
  • शिक्षा संस्थानों में आचरण और नैतिकता का पाठ पीछे छूटता जा रहा है। इन्ही के आस-पास स्मैक सप्लाई होती है और पुलिस कुछ नहीं करती।
  • ये सभी कारण जिम्मेदार हो सकते हैं परन्तु यदि परिवार से संस्कार अच्छे मिले हो, परिवार के लोगो का बराबर बच्चे के साथ उसके कामों में, उसके दोस्तों के साथ मेल जोल हो तो युवा इस गलत प्रवृत्ति की ओर अग्रसर नहीं होगा।
58

​मादक द्रव्यों की लत पड़ने के बाद युवकों में कौन सी प्रवृत्ति प्रमुखता से दिखाई देती है?

(i) अनुशासनहीनता और हिंसा में शामिल होना।

(ii) स्वास्थ्य के प्रति सजगता।

(iii) मानसिक संतुलन खो देना।

(iv) चोरी करने की आदत।

  1. ((a))

    (i), (ii), (iii)

  2. ((b))

    यह सभी

  3. ((c))

    (i), (iii), (iv)

  4. ((d))

    इनमें से कोई भी नहीं

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(i), (iii), (iv)

दिए गए विकल्पों में से विकल्प 3 "(i), (iii), (iv)" सही उत्तर है।

Key Points

  • मादक द्रव्यों की लत पड़ने के बाद युवकों में अनुशासनहीनता और हिंसा में शामिल होना, मानसिक संतुलन खो देना, और चोरी करने की आदत यह प्रवृत्तियां प्रमुखता से दिखायी देती हैं।
  • स्वास्थ्य के प्रति सजगता नहीं बल्कि और लापरवाही आ जाती है।

Additional Information

  • अनुशासनहीनता, चोरी, मानसिक असंतुलन के साथ साथ युवा अपने स्वास्थ्य के प्रति भी लापरवाह हो जाते हैं।
  • इससे युवाओं में अनेकानेक शारीरिक समस्याएं जन्म लेती हैं, अनेकों तरह के रोगों से वे ग्रस्त हो जाते हैं।

निम्नलिखित अनुच्छेद को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर पूछे गये प्रश्नोंके उत्तर दीजिए ।

लोग नियमित बचत करते रहने के बावजूद अपने वित्तीय लक्ष्यों को पूरा करने के लिए संघर्ष करते रह जाते हैं। अपने जीवन के वित्तीय लक्ष्यों को पूरा करने के लिए यह जानना जरूरी है कि हम उन लक्ष्यों को पूरा करने के लिए कितनी बचत कर रहे है और उसे कहाँ निवेश कर रहे है, जिससे कि हम अपने निर्धारित उद्देश्य के अनुसार पैसा जोड़ सकें। साधारण भाषा में समझा जाए तो बचत और निवेश में अंतर इतना ही है कि जो राशि आप अपनी नियमित आय से, बचत कर अलग रख लेते हैं, वह बचत है और यदि आप अपनी उस बचत को कुछ रिटर्न प्राप्त करने के लिए ऐसा कुछ खरीदते हैं जो कि भविष्य में आपकी सम्पत्ति बन सके, वह निवेश है। बचत अल्पकालिक लक्ष्यों के लिए है। बैंक और पोस्ट ऑफिस के बचत खातों या अन्य किसी जगह का सीमित समय तक रखा गया पैसा बचत होता है, जो सुरक्षित होता है और आवश्यकता पड़ने पर आसानी से निकाला जा सकता है। गृहिणियों द्वारा बचाकर किचन में चावल के मर्तबान में रखा पैसा या साड़ियों की परतों के बीच छिपाकर रखा गया पैसा भी बचत की श्रेणी मे ही आएगा। बचत में रखा पैसा जब चाहिए हो तब सहजता से उपलब्ध होता है। अकसर यह बचत अल्पकालीन लक्ष्यों या आपातकालीन जरूरतो के लिए ही होता है। बचत में रखा गया आपका पैसा निवेश के मुक़ाबले अधिक सुरक्षित रहता है। इसमें बहुत कम या ना के बराबर जोखिम होता है। बचत में आपको रिटर्न बहुत कम मिलता है क्योंकि सभी बचत योजनाओं में ब्याज की दर कम होती है। इसमें आपको बहुत ही कम रिटर्न मिलता है जिससे मुद्रास्फीति भी कवर नहीं हो पाती है। दीर्घकालिक आर्थिक लक्ष्यों के लिए निवेश किया जाता है । मुख्य बचत और निवेश में अंतर यही है कि निवेश में आप उच्च रिटर्न प्राप्त कर सकते है। निवेश में ऊँचे रिटर्न की संभावना के साथ रिस्क भी रहता है। निवेश से आप लंबे समय तक मुद्रास्फीति को पछाड़ कर अपने धन में वृद्धि कर सकते है। म्युचूअल फंड और एस. आई. पी. आदि निवेश के प्रारंभिक तरीके हैं। जमीन, सोना, कमोडिटीज या शेयर आदि में निवेश करने के लिए अधिक धन और अनुशासन की आवश्यकता होती है और रिस्क भी ज्यादा रहता है, परन्तु सही तरीके से किया गया निवेश सम्पदा में कई गुनी वृद्धि कर सकता है। निवेश किया गया पैसा एकदम से उपलब्ध नहीं रहता है और इसे बेचकर दुबारा पैसा बनाने में समय भी लग सकता है। उन लक्ष्यों को प्राप्त करने के लिए समय सीमा निर्धारित करनी चाहिए। कोई सपना ऐसा नहीं होता जो पूरा ना किया जा सके।

59

​रमेश में पाँच हजार रुपए के शेयर खरीदे। इस आधार पर निम्नलिखित में से कौन से विकल्प सही है?

  1. रमेश ने जोखिम रहित निवेश किया है।
  2. रमेश की यह बचत जोखिम वाली है ।
  3. शेयर खरीदना बचत है।
  4. शेयर खरीदना निवेश है।
  1. ((a))

    4

  2. ((b))

    2, 4

  3. ((c))

    1, 4

  4. ((d))

    1, 2, 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

2, 4

दिए गए विकल्पों में से विकल्प 2, '2, 4' सही उत्तर है।

Key Points

  • रमेश ने पाँच हजार रुपए के शेयर खरीदे। इस आधार पर यह कहा जा सकता है कि –
  • रमेश की यह बचत जोखिम वाली है।
  • शेयर खरीदना निवेश है।
  • अन्य विकल्प निरर्थक हैं।

Additional Information

  • दीर्घकालिक आर्थिक लक्ष्यों के लिए निवेश किया जाता है।
  • निवेश से आप लंबे समय तक मुद्रास्फीति को पछाड़ कर अपने धन में वृद्धि कर सकते है।
  • म्युचूअल फंड और एस. आई. पी. आदि निवेश के प्रारंभिक तरीके हैं।
  • जमीन, सोना, कमोडिटीज या शेयर आदि में निवेश करने के लिए अधिक धन और अनुशासन की आवश्यकता होती है और रिस्क भी ज्यादा रहता है, परन्तु सही तरीके से किया गया निवेश सम्पदा में कई गुनी वृद्धि कर सकता है।
60

अनुच्छेद के आधार पर बताइए कि दीर्घकालीन लक्ष्यों को पाने के लिए, निवेश के विषय में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा तथ्य अशुद्ध है?

  1. दीर्घकालीन लक्ष्यों की प्राप्ति लघु बचत द्वारा ही संभव हो सकती है।
  2. दीर्घकालीन लक्ष्यों की प्राप्ति दीर्घकालीन अच्छे निवेश द्वारा ही संभव हो सकती है।
  3. दीर्घकालीन लक्ष्यों की प्राप्ति संभव़ नहीं है, क्योंकि दीर्घकालीन निवेश में धन हानि का जोखिम (खतरा) होता है। 
  4. बचत निवेश की तुलना में ज्यादा अच्छी है, क्योंकि निवेश में जोखिम शामिल है जो गाँठ के पैसे को भी ले जाएगा।
  1. ((a))

    1, 3, 4

  2. ((b))

    1, 2, 3

  3. ((c))

    1, 2, 4

  4. ((d))

    सभी अशुद्ध है।

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

1, 3, 4

दिए गए विकल्पों में से विकल्प 1, '1, 3, 4' अशुद्ध है।

Key Points

  • दीर्घकालीन लक्ष्यों की प्राप्ति दीर्घकालीन अच्छे निवेश द्वारा ही संभव हो सकती है। यही एक उपर्युक्त कथन सत्य है दीघकालीन निवेश के बारे में।
  • शेष सभी कथन अशुद्ध हैं।

Additional Information

  • दीर्घकालिक आर्थिक लक्ष्यों के लिए निवेश किया जाता है���
  • निवेश का मुख्य उद्देश्य भविष्य की आय अर्जित करना है।
  • साथ ही, निवेश अप्रत्याशित और आकस्मिक खर्चों को पूरा करने और किसी भी आपात स्थिति में सहायता करने में मदद करता है।
  • मुख्य बचत और निवेश में अंतर यही है कि निवेश में आप उच्च रिटर्न प्राप्त कर सकते है।
  • निवेश में ऊँचे रिटर्न की संभावना के साथ रिस्क भी रहता है। निवेश से आप लंबे समय तक मुद्रास्फीति को पछाड़ कर अपने धन में वृद्धि कर सकते है।
61

निम्नलिखित में से बताइए कि कौन सा विकल्प निवेश का उदाहरण नहीं है?

  1. ((a))

    म्युचूअल फंड और एस.आई.पी.

  2. ((b))

    कमोडिटीज और शेयर की खरीद-बेच

  3. ((c))

    जमीन या सोना खरीदना

  4. ((d))

    सेविंग बैंक खाते में रखा धन

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

सेविंग बैंक खाते में रखा धन

दिए गए विकल्पों में से विकल्प 4, सेविंग बैंक खाते में रखा धन निवेश का उदाहरण नहीं है।

Key Points

  • सेविंग बैंक खाते में रखा धन निवेश का उदाहरण नहीं है। वह बचत है।
  • शेष सभी विकल्प निवेश के उदाहरण हैं।

Additional Information

  • बचत खाते (सेविंग्स बैंक खाते), खुदरा वित्तीय संस्थाओं द्वारा बनाये रखे जाने वाले खातों को कहते हैं जो ब्याज तो प्रदान करते हैं लेकिन जिन्हें सीधे तौर पर धन के रूप में (उदाहरण के लिए, एक चेक लिखकर) इस्तेमाल नहीं किया जा सकता है।
  • इन खातों में ग्राहक अपने अतिरिक्त धन के कुछ हिस्से को अलग रखने के साथ-साथ थोड़ा ब्याज भी कमा सकते हैं।
  • निवेश या विनियोग (investment) का सामान्य आशय ऐसे व्ययों से है जो उत्पादन क्षमता में वृद्धि लायें।
  • निवेश के उदाहरण हैं- किसी बैंक में पूंजी जमा करना, या परिसंपत्ति खरीदने जैसे कार्य जो भविष्य में लाभ पाने की दृष्टि से किये जाते हैं।
62

अनुच्छेद के आधार पर बताइए कि निम्नलिखित में निवेश की कौन सी सही विशेषताएँ हैं?

(i) निवेश से दीर्घकालिक आर्थिक लक्ष्य प्राप्त किए जा सकते हैं।

(ii) निवेश अल्पावधि में धनार्जन का तरीका होता है।

(iii) गृहिणियों द्वारा परिवार के खर्चों से बचाई गई राशि अच्छा निवेश है।

(iv) निवेश में ऊँचे रिटर्न की सम्भावना के साथ रिस्क भी रहता है।

  1. ((a))

    (i) और (iv)

  2. ((b))

    (i) और (iii)

  3. ((c))

    (ii) और (iii)

  4. ((d))

    (ii) और (iv)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(i) और (iv)

दिए गए विकल्पों में से विकल्प 1, ‘(i) और (iv)’ सही उत्तर है।

Key Points

  • निवेश की सही विशेषताएँ हैं –
  • निवेश से दीर्घकालिक आर्थिक लक्ष्य प्राप्त किए जा सकते हैं।
  • निवेश में ऊँचे रिटर्न की सम्भावना के साथ रिस्क भी रहता है।
  • अन्य कथन निवेश के सम्बन्ध में गलत हैं।

Additional Information

  • दीर्घकालिक आर्थिक लक्ष्यों के लिए निवेश किया जाता है।
  • मुख्य बचत और निवेश में अंतर यही है कि निवेश में आप उच्च रिटर्न प्राप्त कर सकते है।
  • निवेश में ऊँचे रिटर्न की संभावना के साथ रिस्क भी रहता है।

निम्नलिखित अनुच्छेद को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर पूछे गये प्रश्नोंके उत्तर दीजिए ।

लोग नियमित बचत करते रहने के बावजूद अपने वित्तीय लक्ष्यों को पूरा करने के लिए संघर्ष करते रह जाते हैं। अपने जीवन के वित्तीय लक्ष्यों को पूरा करने के लिए यह जानना जरूरी है कि हम उन लक्ष्यों को पूरा करने के लिए कितनी बचत कर रहे है और उसे कहाँ निवेश कर रहे है, जिससे कि हम अपने निर्धारित उद्देश्य के अनुसार पैसा जोड़ सकें। साधारण भाषा में समझा जाए तो बचत और निवेश में अंतर इतना ही है कि जो राशि आप अपनी नियमित आय से, बचत कर अलग रख लेते हैं, वह बचत है और यदि आप अपनी उस बचत को कुछ रिटर्न प्राप्त करने के लिए ऐसा कुछ खरीदते हैं जो कि भविष्य में आपकी सम्पत्ति बन सके, वह निवेश है। बचत अल्पकालिक लक्ष्यों के लिए है। बैंक और पोस्ट ऑफिस के बचत खातों या अन्य किसी जगह का सीमित समय तक रखा गया पैसा बचत होता है, जो सुरक्षित होता है और आवश्यकता पड़ने पर आसानी से निकाला जा सकता है। गृहिणियों द्वारा बचाकर किचन में चावल के मर्तबान में रखा पैसा या साड़ियों की परतों के बीच छिपाकर रखा गया पैसा भी बचत की श्रेणी मे ही आएगा। बचत में रखा पैसा जब चाहिए हो तब सहजता से उपलब्ध होता है। अकसर यह बचत अल्पकालीन लक्ष्यों या आपातकालीन जरूरतो के लिए ही होता है। बचत में रखा गया आपका पैसा निवेश के मुक़ाबले अधिक सुरक्षित रहता है। इसमें बहुत कम या ना के बराबर जोखिम होता है। बचत में आपको रिटर्न बहुत कम मिलता है क्योंकि सभी बचत योजनाओं में ब्याज की दर कम होती है। इसमें आपको बहुत ही कम रिटर्न मिलता है जिससे मुद्रास्फीति भी कवर नहीं हो पाती है। दीर्घकालिक आर्थिक लक्ष्यों के लिए निवेश किया जाता है । मुख्य बचत और निवेश में अंतर यही है कि निवेश में आप उच्च रिटर्न प्राप्त कर सकते है। निवेश में ऊँचे रिटर्न की संभावना के साथ रिस्क भी रहता है। निवेश से आप लंबे समय तक मुद्रास्फीति को पछाड़ कर अपने धन में वृद्धि कर सकते है। म्युचूअल फंड और एस. आई. पी. आदि निवेश के प्रारंभिक तरीके हैं। जमीन, सोन��, कमोडिटीज या शेयर आदि में निवेश करने के लिए अधिक धन और अनुशासन की आवश्यकता होती है और रिस्क भी ज्यादा रहता है, परन्तु सही तरीके से किया गया निवेश सम्पदा में कई गुनी वृद्धि कर सकता है। निवेश किया गया पैसा एकदम से उपलब्ध नहीं रहता है और इसे बेचकर दुबारा पैसा बनाने में समय भी लग सकता है। उन लक्ष्यों को प्राप्त करने के लिए समय सीमा निर्धारित करनी चाहिए। कोई सपना ऐसा नहीं होता जो पूरा ना किया जा सके।

63

निम्नलिखित में से बताइए कि कौन सा विकल्प निवेश का उदाहरण है?

  1. ((a))

    पोस्ट ऑफिस में पाँच वर्ष की अवधि तक के लिए रखा गया धन।

  2. ((b))

    बच्चों के पिग्गी बॉक्स में रखा पैसा।

  3. ((c))

    सेविंग बैंक खाते में रखा धन।

  4. ((d))

    सोने के गहने खरीदना ।

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

सोने के गहने खरीदना ।

दिए गए विकल्पों में से विकल्प 4, 'सोने के गहने खरीदना' सही उत्तर है।

Key Points

  • सोने के गहने खरीदना, निवेश का उदाहरण है।
  • शेष सभी विकल्प बचत के उदाहरण हैं।

Additional Information

  • बचत और निवेश में अंतर इतना ही है कि जो राशि आप अपनी नियमित आय से, बचत कर अलग रख लेते हैं, वह बचत है और यदि आप अपनी उस बचत को कुछ रिटर्न प्राप्त करने के लिए ऐसा कुछ खरीदते हैं जो कि भविष्य में आपकी सम्पत्ति बन सके, वह निवेश है।
  • बचत अल्पकालिक लक्ष्यों के लिए है। बैंक और पोस्ट ऑफिस के बचत खातों या अन्य किसी जगह का सीमित समय तक रखा गया पैसा बचत होता है, जो सुरक्षित होता है और आवश्यकता पड़ने पर आसानी से निकाला जा सकता है।
  • दीर्घकालिक आर्थिक लक्ष्यों के लिए निवेश किया जाता है । निवेश में ऊँचे रिटर्न की संभावना के साथ रिस्क भी रहता है।
  • जमीन, सोना, कमोडिटीज, शेयर, म्युचूअल फंड और एस. आई. पी. आदि निवेश के प्रारंभिक तरीके हैं।

Study the following line graph which gives the number of students who joined the school and left the school in the beginning of each year during six years, from 2011 to 2016. Initial strength of school in 2010 is 3000.

64

In which year, the percentage rise/fall in the number of students who left the school compared to the previous year is maximum?

  1. ((a))

    2011

  2. ((b))

    2013

  3. ((c))

    2012

  4. ((d))

    2014

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2012

Given:

The number of students who joined the school and left the school over the years given.

Calculations:

In the year 2011 - 2012,

The required percentage = 500300300\dfrac{500 - 300}{300} × 100

⇒ 200300\dfrac{200}{300} × 100 = 66.6% (rise)

In the year 2012 - 2013,

The required percentage = 450500500\dfrac{450 -500}{500} × 100

⇒ 50500-\dfrac{50}{500} × 100 = -10% (fall)

In the year 2013 - 2014,

The required percentage = 400450450\dfrac{400 - 450}{450} × 100

⇒ 50450-\dfrac{50}{450} × 100 = -11.1% (fall)

In the year 2014 - 2015,

The required percentage = 500400400\dfrac{500 - 400}{400} × 100

⇒ 100400\dfrac{100}{400} × 100 = 25% (rise)

In the year 2015 - 2016,

The required percentage = 500500500\dfrac{500 - 500}{500} × 100

⇒ 0500\dfrac{0}{500} × 100 = 0%

From the above calculation, in the year 2012, the percentage rise/fall is maximum.

∴ The answer is 2012

65

The strength of school increased/decreased from 2012 to 2013 by approximately what percent?

  1. ((a))

    1.1%

  2. ((b))

    2.1%

  3. ((c))

    1.7%

  4. ((d))

    2.3%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1.7%

Given:

The number of students joined and left school over the years given.

Calculations:

Initial strength in the year 2010 = 3000

In the year 2011, the number of students joined school = 400, and left school = 300

So, the number of students in 2011 will be = 3000 + 400 - 300 = 3100

In the year 2012, the number of students joined school = 350, and left school = 500

So, number of students in 2012 will be = 3100 + 350 - 500 = 2950

In the year 2013, the number of students joined school = 500 and left school = 450

So, the number of students in 2013 will be = 2950 + 500 - 450 = 3000

So, from 2012 -2013,

The required percentage = {(3000-2950)/2950} × 100

⇒ (50/2950) × 100

⇒ 1.69% ~ 1.7% (increased)

∴ The answer is 1.7%

66

The number of students studying in the school during 2014 was:

  1. ((a))

    2750

  2. ((b))

    3050

  3. ((c))

    2850

  4. ((d))

    3150

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

3150

Given:

The number of students joined and left the school over the years given.

Calculations:

Initial strength in the year 2010 = 3000

In the year 2011, the number of students joined school = 400 and left school = 300

So, the  number of students in 2011 will be = 3000 + 400 - 300 = 3100

In the year 2012, the number of students joined school = 350 and left school = 500

So, the number of students in 2012 will be = 3100 + 350 - 500 = 2950

In the year 2013, the number of students joined school = 500 and left school = 450

So, the number of students in 2013 will be = 2950 + 500 - 450 = 3000

In the year 2014, the number of students joined = 550, and left = 400

So, the number of students in 2014 = 3000 + 550 - 400 = 3150

∴ The answer is 3150

67

The ratio of the least number of students who joined the school to the maximum number of students who left school in any of the years during the given period is:

  1. ((a))

    7 ∶ 10

  2. ((b))

    5 ∶ 8

  3. ((c))

    7 ∶ 9

  4. ((d))

    5 ∶ 7

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

7 ∶ 10

Given:

The number of students joined the school and left the school over the years is given.

Calculations:

The least number of students joined the school is in the year 2012 = 350.

The maximum number of students left the school in the same year = 500

According to the question,

The required ratio is = 350 : 500

⇒ 35 : 50

⇒ 7 : 10

∴ The answer is 7 : 10

68

The number of students studying in the school in 2013 was what percent of the number of students studying in the school in 2016?

  1. ((a))

    87%

  2. ((b))

    90.50%

  3. ((c))

    89.12%

  4. ((d))

    93.75%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

93.75%

Given:

The number of students joined and left the school over the years given.

Calculations:

Initial strength in year 2010 = 3000

In the year 2011, the number of students joined school = 400 and left school = 300

So, the number of students in 2011 will be = 3000 + 400 - 300 = 3100

In the year 2012, the number of students joined school = 350 and left school = 500

So, the number of students in 2012 will be = 3100 + 350 - 500 = 2950

In the year 2013, the number of students joined school = 500 and left school = 450

So, the number of students in 2013 will be = 2950 + 500 - 450 = 3000

In the year 2014, the number of students joined = 550, and left = 400

So, the number of students in 2014 = 3000 + 550 - 400 = 3150

In the year 2015, the number of students joined = 450 and left = 500

So, the number of students in 2015 will be = 3150 + 450 - 500 = 3100

In the year 2016, the number of students joined = 600 and left = 500

So, number of students in 2016 will be = 3100 + 600 - 500 = 3200

∴ Required percentage = 30003200\dfrac{3000}{3200} × 100

⇒ 300032\dfrac{3000}{32} = 93.75%

∴ The answer is 93.75%

Study the bar graph and answer the questions based on it:

69

The average production of 2005 and 2006 was exactly equal to the average production of which of the following pairs of years?

  1. ((a))

    2006 and 2007

  2. ((b))

    2004 and 2007

  3. ((c))

    2004 and 2005

  4. ((d))

    2002 and 2007

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

2002 and 2007

Given:

Production of mobile by the company over the years.

Formula used:

Average × number of observations = sum of observation

Calculations:

Production of mobile in 2005 = 70 and in 2006 = 55

Required average = 70+552\dfrac{70 + 55}{2}

⇒ 1252\dfrac{125}{2} = 62.5

Checking option(1),

The average production of 2006 and 2007 = 80+552\dfrac{80 + 55}{2} = 67.5 (Not the same)

The average production of 2004 and 2006 = 50+552\dfrac{50 + 55}{2} = 52.5 (Not the same)

The average production of 2004 and 2005 = 50+702\dfrac{50 + 70}{2} = 60 (Not the same)

The average production of 2002 and 2007 =  45+802\dfrac{45 + 80}{2} = 62.5 (Same)

Hence, same as the given one, after dividing the summation by 2 we can obtain the same average.

∴ The correct answer is 2002 and 2007.

70

What was the approximate percentage decline in the production of mobile from 2003 to 2004?

  1. ((a))

    21%

  2. ((b))

    27%

  3. ((c))

    23%

  4. ((d))

    29%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

23%

Given:

Production of mobile in a company over the years.

Calculations:

Production of mobile in 2003 and 2004 is 65 and 50

Required percentage decline = 655065\dfrac{65 - 50}{65} × 100

⇒ 150065\dfrac{1500}{65} = 23.07% ~ 23%

∴ The answer is 23%

71

In which year the percentage increase in production as compared to the previous year was the maximum?

  1. ((a))

    2002

  2. ((b))

    2005

  3. ((c))

    2003

  4. ((d))

    2007

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2002

Given:

Production of mobile in the company over the years.

Calculations:

Percentage increase in 2002 (production is 45) compared to the previous year 2001 (production is 30) = 453030\dfrac{45 - 30}{30} × 100

⇒ 150030\dfrac{1500}{30} = 50%

Percentage increase in 2003 (production is 65) compared to the previous year 2002 (production is 45) = 654545\dfrac{65 - 45}{45} × 100

⇒ 200045\dfrac{2000}{45} = 44.4%

Percentage increase in 2005 (production is 70) compared to the previous year 2004 (production is 50) = 705050\dfrac{70 - 50}{50} × 100

⇒ 200050\dfrac{2000}{50} = 40%

Percentage increase in 2007 (production is 80) compared to the previous year 2006 (production is 55) = 805555\dfrac{80 - 55}{55} × 100

⇒ 250055\dfrac{2500}{55} = 45.45%

From the above calculation, in the year 2002, the percentage increase is maximum

∴ The answer is 2002

72

In how many of the given years was the production of mobiles more than the average production of the given years?

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    3

  3. ((c))

    2

  4. ((d))

    4

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

4

Given:

Production of mobile in the company over the years.

Formula used:

Average = Sum of observation / Number of observations

Calculations:

YearsProduction(in Lakhs)
200130
200245
200365
200450
200570
200655
200780
200885

 

Required average = 30+45+65+50+70+55+80+858\dfrac{30 + 45 + 65 + 50 + 70 + 55 + 80 + 85}{8}

4808\dfrac{480}{8} = 60

So, in the years 2003, 2005, 2007, and 2008 the production is more than the average value.

∴ The answer is 4.

Study the bar graph and answer the questions based on it:

73

What was the percentage increase in the production of mobiles in 2008 as compared to 2001?

  1. ((a))

    166.67%

  2. ((b))

    195%

  3. ((c))

    183.33%

  4. ((d))

    200%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

183.33%

Given:

Production of mobile in a company over the years.

Calculations:

Production of mobile in 2001 is 30 and in 2008 is 85

Required percentage increase = 853030\dfrac{85 - 30}{30} × 100

⇒ 550030\dfrac{5500}{30} = 183.33%

∴ The answer is 183.33%.

There are five companies and we have been given the number of employees working in different companies. In the table we have also been given the percentage of male and female employees in account and research domain.

CompanyEmployeesAccountResearch
MaleFemaleMaleFemale
A450121497
B70019101112
C550281447
D60031068
E350121837
74

If 60% of the employees of company E in account department have MBA degree and 40% or the employees of the same company in the research department have MBA degree, then how many employees have MBA degree in company E?

  1. ((a))

    92

  2. ((b))

    77

  3. ((c))

    106

  4. ((d))

    66

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

77

Given:

The number of employees working in different companies.

Calculations:

The total percentage of employees of Company E in the accounts department is 12% + 18% = 30%

Number of total employees of Company E in the accounts department = 350 × 30%

⇒ 350 × 30100\frac{30}{100} = 105

So, now, 60% of the total number of employees of Company E in the accounts department = 105 × 60100\frac{60}{100} = 63 is having MBA degree

The total percentage of employees of Company E in the research department is 3% + 7% = 10%

Number of employees of Company E in the research department = 350 × 10%

⇒ 350 × 10100\frac{10}{100} = 35

So, now, 40% of the total number of employees of Company E in the research department = 40100\frac{40}{100} × 35 = 14 is having MBA degree

So, The total number of employees having MBA degree is 63 + 14 = 77

∴ The answer is 77

75

The total number of account employees of company A is approximately what percent more than the total number of research employees of Company E?

  1. ((a))

    231.21%

  2. ((b))

    234.29%

  3. ((c))

    238.54%

  4. ((d))

    228.67%

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

234.29%

Given:

Number of employees working in different companies

Calculations:

Total percentage of employees(male and female) of accounts department of company A is 12% + 14% = 26%

So, the number of Total employees in the accounts department of company A is 450 × 26%

⇒ 450 × 26100\dfrac{26}{100} = 117

The total percentage of employees (male and female) of the research department of Company E is 3% place 7 % = 10%

So, the number of total employees in the Research department of Company E is 350 × 10%

⇒ 350 × 10100\dfrac{10}{100} = 35

Required percentage = 1173535\dfrac{117 - 35}{35} × 100

⇒ 82×10035\dfrac{82 \times100}{35} = 234.29%

∴ The answer is 234.29%

76

What is the ratio of the male employees in account department of company A and C together to the female employees of research department in company B and D together?

  1. ((a))

    208 ∶ 115

  2. ((b))

    27 ∶ 187

  3. ((c))

    43 ∶ 188

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

None of these

Given:

The number of employees working in different companies.

Calculations:

Number of male employees in the accounts department of company A = 450 × 12%

⇒ 450 × 12100\dfrac{12}{100} = 54

Number of male employees in the accounts department of company C = 550 × 28%

⇒ 550 × 28100\dfrac{28}{100} = 154

Number of female employees in the research department of company B = 700 × 12%

⇒ 700 × 12100\dfrac{12}{100} = 84

Number of female employees in research departments of company D = 600 × 8%

⇒ 600 × 8100\dfrac{8}{100} = 48

The required ratio is (54 + 154) : (84 + 48)

⇒ 208 : 132 = 52 : 33

∴ The answer is None of these

77

What is the difference between the number of female employees of the account department in all companies together (excluding company D) and the male employees of the research department in all companies together (excluding company A and E)?

  1. ((a))

    128

  2. ((b))

    142

  3. ((c))

    138

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

138

Given:

Number of employees working in different companies

Calculations:

Number of female employees in the accounts department of company A = 450 × 14%

⇒ 450 × 14100\dfrac{14}{100} = 63

Number of female employees in the accounts department of company B = 700 × 10%

⇒ 700 × 10100\dfrac{10}{100} = 70

Number of female employees in the accounts department of company C = 550 × 14%

⇒ 550 × 14100\dfrac{14}{100} = 77

Number of female employees in the accounts department of company E = 350 × 18%

⇒ 350 × 18100\dfrac{18}{100} = 63

Number of male employees in the research department of company B = 700 × 11%

⇒ 700 × 11100\dfrac{11}{100} = 77

Number of male employees in the research department of company C = 550 × 4%

⇒ 550 × 4100\dfrac{4}{100} = 22

Number of male employees in the research department of company D = 600 × 6%

⇒ 600 × 6100\dfrac{6}{100} = 36

So, The required difference is (63 + 70 + 77 + 63) - (77 + 22 + 36)

⇒ 273 - 135 = 138

∴ The answer is 138

78

What is the ratio of the number of female employees of company B in account department to the number of male employees of company C in research department?

  1. ((a))

    5 ∶ 2

  2. ((b))

    13 ∶ 4

  3. ((c))

    35 ∶ 11

  4. ((d))

    4 ∶ 13

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

35 ∶ 11

Given:

Number of employees working in different companies

Calculations:

The number of female employees of company B in the accounts department is 700 × 10%

=> 700 × 10100\dfrac{10}{100} = 70

The number of males of Company C in the research department is 550 × 4%

=> 550 × 4100\dfrac{4}{100} = 22

So, The required ratio is 70 : 22 = 35 : 11

∴ The answer is 35 : 11.

The following table gives the percentage distribution of population of five states A, B, C, D and E on the basis of poverty line and also on the basis of sex.

Statepercentage of Population Below the poverty lineProportional of Males and Female
Below poverty lineAbove poverty line
M/FM/F
A305 ∶ 66 ∶ 7
B203 ∶ 54 ∶ 5
C251 ∶ 22 ∶ 3
D202 ∶ 34 ∶ 3
E155 ∶ 33∶ 2
79

What will be the number of females above the poverty line in the state D, if it is known that the population of state D is 7 million?

  1. ((a))

    2.4 million

  2. ((b))

    3 million

  3. ((c))

    1.3 million

  4. ((d))

    3.6 million

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2.4 million

Given:

Percentage distribution of population of five states on the basis of poverty line and also on the basis of sex.

Calculations:

In state D, percentage of population above the poverty line is (100 - 20)% = 80%

So, The total population above poverty line is 80% of 7000000

⇒ 7000000 × 80100\dfrac{80}{100} = 5600000

Number of females above poverty line is 37\dfrac{3}{7} × 5600000

⇒ 3 × 800000

⇒ 2400000 = 2.4 million

∴ The answer is 2.4 million

80

If the male population above poverty line for state C is 1.5 million, then the total population of state C is:

  1. ((a))

    4.5 million

  2. ((b))

    5.25 million

  3. ((c))

    5 million

  4. ((d))

    5.75 million

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

5 million

Given:

Percentage distribution of population of five states on the basis of poverty line and also on the basis of sex

Calculations:

Male population above poverty line for state C is 1.5 million and Ratio of male and female above poverty line is 2 : 3

So, if male (2x) represents 1500000

Total polpulation (2x + 3x = 5x) will represent 5×15000002\dfrac{5 × 1500000}{2} = 3750000

Percentage above poverty line (100 - 25)% = 75% represents 3750000

So, The total population 100% will represent 3750000×10075\dfrac{3750000 × 100}{75}

⇒ 1250000 × 4 = 5000000 = 5 million

∴ The answer is 5 million

81

If the population of males below poverty line for state B is 2.4 million and that for state E is 6 million, then the total populations of states B and E are in the ratio:

  1. ((a))

    2 ∶ 3

  2. ((b))

    1 ∶ 2

  3. ((c))

    3 ∶ 5

  4. ((d))

    1 ∶ 4

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

1 ∶ 2

Given:

Percentage distribution of the population of five states on the basis of the poverty line and also on the basis of sex

Calculations:

Male population below the poverty line for state B is 2.4 million and the Ratio of males and females above the poverty line is 3 : 5

So, if male (3x) represents 2400000

Total population below poverty line (3x + 5x = 8x) will represent 8×15000003\dfrac{8 × 1500000}{3} = 6400000

Percentage below poverty line 20% represents 6400000

So, the total population of state B, 100% will represent 6400000×10020\dfrac{6400000 × 100}{20} = 32000000

Male population below poverty line for state E is 6 million and Ratio of male and female above poverty line is 5 : 3

So, if male (5x) represents 6000000

Total population below poverty line (5x + 3x = 8x) will represent 8×60000005\dfrac{8 × 6000000}{5} = 9600000

Percentage below poverty line 15% represents 9600000

So, total population of state E, 100% will represent 9600000×10015\dfrac{9600000 × 100}{15} = 64000000

Required ratio is 32 : 64 = 1 : 2

∴ The answer is 1 : 2

82

If the total population of state C is 4 million, find the total number of females above poverty line in state C.

  1. ((a))

    1.2 million

  2. ((b))

    2 million

  3. ((c))

    1.8 million

  4. ((d))

    2.4 million

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

1.8 million

Given:

Percentage distribution of population of five states on the basis of poverty line and also on the basis of sex

Calculations:

In state C, percentage of population above the poverty line is (100 - 25)% = 75%

So, The total population above poverty line is 75% of 4000000

⇒ 4000000 × 75100\dfrac{75}{100} = 3000000

Number of females above poverty line is 35\dfrac{3}{5} × 3000000

⇒ 3 × 600000 = 1800000 = 1.8 million

∴ The answer is 1.8 million

83

What will be the approximate male population above poverty line for state A if the female above poverty line for state A is 1.8 million?

  1. ((a))

    2.1 million

  2. ((b))

    3.55 million

  3. ((c))

    2 .5 million

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

None of these

Given:

Percentage distribution of population of five states on the basis of poverty line and also on the basis of sex.

Calculations:

In state A, female above poverty line is 1.8 million and ratio of male and female above poverty line = 6 : 7

So, let female (7x) represents 1800000

Male (6x) will represent = 1800000×67\dfrac{1800000 × 6}{7}

⇒ 1.5 million (approx)

∴ The answer is None of these.

84

Gautam Buddha attained enlightenment on the bank of which river?

  1. ((a))

    Ganga

  2. ((b))

    Gandak

  3. ((c))

    Punpun

  4. ((d))

    Niranjana

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Niranjana

The correct answer is 'Niranjana'.

Key Points

  • Lord Buddha got enlightenment on the banks of the Niranjana River also known as Phalgu.
  • He got enlightenment under the peepal tree famously known as the Bodhi tree.
  • The place was Bodh Gaya in the Gaya district, in the state of Bihar.

Hence, the correct answer is Niranjana.

Additional InformationLet's have a look at other options:

  • Ganga
  • It is the longest river in India.
  • The origin of the Ganges is the southern ranges of the Himalayan Mountains.
  • Flowing through the vast plains of India, the Ganges joins the Bay of Bengal by dividing it into many branches.
  • The entire length of this river is about 2507 kilometers.
  • Gandak
  • The Gandak River is a major river originating in the Himalayas and flowing through Nepal and India. It is a significant tributary of the Ganga river.
  • Burhi Gandak is a smaller river that flows parallel to the Gandak river and is also a tributary of the Ganga. It originates in the West Champaran district of Bihar, India.
  • Punpun
  • Punpun is a tributary of the Ganges flowing in the Indian state of Bihar.
  • Originating from the hills of central Bihar, the river forms the eastern boundary of Patna.
85

Which of the following was the new capital during Harshvardhana's reign that shifted from Thanesar?

  1. ((a))

    Kannauj

  2. ((b))

    Pataliputra

  3. ((c))

    Magadha

  4. ((d))

    Kurukshetra

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kannauj

The correct answer is Kannauj.

Key Points

  • Harshavardhana was an Indian Emperor, who ruled over the northern parts of India from 606 A.D to 647 A.D.
  • His earliest capital was Thaneswar, present-day Haryana.
  • After his accession, King Harshavardhan united the two kingdoms of Thanesar and Kannauj.
  • He also shifted his capital from Thanesar to Kannauj.
  • Thus, in the 7th Century CE, the capital of Harshavardhana's Empire was Kannauj.
  • In general, there was prosperity within the empire.
  • Agriculture, industries and trade, both internal and external, were in a flourishing condition.
  • Cities like- Peshawar and Taxila in the North-West were, of course, destroyed by the invasions of the Hunas and Mathura and Pataliputra had lost their previous significance, but Prayag (Allahabad), Banaras and Kannauj were prosperous cities within the empire.
  • In the 7th century CE, the capital city, Kannauj was an extensive, prosperous and well-protected city. It had large buildings, beautiful gardens and swimming-pools. It was inhabited by the rich, cultured and highly learned people.
86

Which of the following army's strength was "Guerilla warfare"?

  1. ((a))

    Maratha

  2. ((b))

    British

  3. ((c))

    Mughal

  4. ((d))

    Nayaks

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Maratha

The correct answer is 'Maratha'.

Key Points

  • Guerrilla warfare is a type of irregular conflict in which small groups of combatants, such as paramilitary soldiers or armed citizens, utilize military strategies such as ambushes, raids, hit-and-run attacks, and mobility to battle a more powerful and immobile traditional force.
  • It was the major strength of the Maratha Army.
  • Marathas avoided direct battles with the Mughal armies that were equipped with deadly cannons and strong cavalry.
  • They developed the ability to plan and execute surprise lightning attacks at night.
  • They exhibited skills to change their tactics according to the battle situation without awaiting orders from a superior officer.

Hence, the correct answer is Maratha.

Additional InformationLet's have a look at other options:​​

  • British
  • There was British rule in the Indian subcontinent between 1858 and 1947.
  • During this period, Britain had direct control over India.
  • There was administration and princely states ruled by individual rulers, but the British Crown had paramountcy over them.​
  • Mughal
  • The Mughal Empire was the dominant power in the Indian subcontinent between the mid-16th century and the end of the 17th century.
  • Established in 1526, it nominally survived until 1857, when it was removed by the British Raj.​
  • Nayaks​
  • The Nayak Dynasty emerged in South India after the collapse of the Vijayanagar Empire.
  • The Nayaks, former military governors of the Vijayanagar emperors, declared their Independence in 1565, and ruling from the 16th through 18th centuries established their kingdoms.
  • Nayak's rule was noted for its administrative reforms, its artistic and the creation of a unique style of temple architecture.
87

______ technique was used for making bronze statue of Dancing Girl during Harappa Civilisation.

  1. ((a))

    Stone carving

  2. ((b))

    Ivory carving

  3. ((c))

    Wood carving

  4. ((d))

    Lost Wax casting

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Lost Wax casting

The correct answer is 'Lost Wax casting'.

Key Points

  • The bronze statue of a dancing girl from Mohenjo-Daro is a significant example of the prehistoric Harappan Civilisation.
  • It was made using the technique known as lost wax casting.
  • Wax is used to create a wax replica of the statue, which is then covered with a cast or mould.
  • When the mould is heated, the wax drains out.
  • The mould is then filled with molten bronze, which is then cooled.
  • The metal statue is gradually revealed once the cast has been carefully broken.

Hence, the correct answer is Lost Wax casting.

Additional Information Let's have a look at other options:

  • Stone carving
  • Stone carving is an activity where pieces of rough natural stone are carefully removed and moulded.
  • Stone carving is one of the processes which may be used by an artist when creating a sculpture.
  • Ivory carving
  • Ivory carving is the process of carving ivory, which is an animal tooth or tusk, usually with the help of sharp cutting instruments that are operated manually or mechanically.
  • Humans have ornamentally carved ivory since prehistoric times, it was usually a rare and expensive material used for luxury products.
  • Wood carving
  • ​Wood carving is a form of woodworking by means of a cutting tool (knife) in one hand or a chisel by two hands or with one hand on a chisel and one hand on a mallet, resulting in a wooden figure or image, or in the sculptural ornamentation of a wooden object.
  • The making of sculpture in wood has been extremely widely practised,
88

Write the name of the first activist who demanded complete independence (Poorna Swaraj).

  1. ((a))

    Maghfoor Ahmad Ajazi

  2. ((b))

    Bipin Chandra Pal

  3. ((c))

    Bal Gangadhar Tilak

  4. ((d))

    Hasrat Mohani

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Hasrat Mohani

The correct answer is 'Hasrat Mohani'.

Key PointsHasrat Mohani

  • Maulana Hasrat Mohani was the first congress activist to demand complete independence (Poorna Swaraj) from the British in the Ahmedabad session of congress in 1921.
  • Mohani was a noted poet of the Urdu language.
  • Famous works of Mohani are Kulliyat-e-Hasrat Mohani, Nukaat-e Sukhan, Mushahidaat-e-Zindaan, etc.

Hence, the correct answer is Hasrat Mohani.

Additional Information

  • The Purna Swaraj declaration was promulgated by the Indian National Congress on 19 December 1929 in its Lahore session under the presidentship of Jawaharlal Nehru.
  • In the Calcutta Session of Congress in 1906, Dadabhai Naoroji had placed Swaraj as a national demand.

Important PointsLet's have a look at other options:

  • Maghfoor Ahmad Ajazi
  • He joined the Non-Cooperation Movement in the year 1921.
  • He attended the All India Congress Committee (AICC) Session held at Ahmedabad (1921) and supported the 'Poorna Swaraj' motion demanded by Hasrat Mohani.
  • The motion was opposed by Mahatma Gandhi and failed.
  • ​​​Bipin Chandra Pal
  • ​Pal is known as the Father of Revolutionary Thoughts in India of India.
  • Pal became a major leader of the Indian National Congress.
  • At the Madras session of the Indian National Congress held in 1887, Bipin Chandra Pal made a strong plea for repeal of the Arms Act which was discriminatory in nature.
  • Bal Gangadhar Tilak
  • ​Tilak joined the Indian National Congress in 1890.
  • He opposed its moderate attitude, especially toward the fight for self-government.
  • He was one of the most-eminent radicals at the time.
89

Which of the following is considered as a major cause of the Swadeshi Movement?

  1. ((a))

    Funding for police and railways instead of women education.

  2. ((b))

    Calcutta Corporation Act of 1899.

  3. ((c))

    The decision to divide Bengal.

  4. ((d))

    Punjab Land Alienation Act of 1900.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The decision to divide Bengal.

The correct answer is 'The decision to divide Bengal'

Key Points

  • The Swadeshi movement was one of the most successful movements of the Pre-Gandhian era.
  • The Swadeshi movement was a self-sufficiency movement that was part of the Indian independence movement and contributed to the development of Indian nationalism.
  • The decision to divide Bengal in December 1903 is considered a major cause of the Swadeshi Movement.
  • The Swadeshi movement was formally started from Town Hall Calcutta on 7 August 1905 to curb foreign goods by relying on domestic production.

Hence, the correct answer is The decision to divide Bengal.

Additional Information

  • Calcutta Corporation Act of 1899
  • The act reduced the number of elected legislatures and increased the number of nominated officials to deprive Indians of self-governance.
  • 28 members of the Corporation resigned in protest and it, therefore, became a government department with the English and the Anglo-Indians as the majority in it.
  • Punjab Land Alienation Act of 1900
  • ​The Punjab Land Alienation Act of 1900 was a piece of legislation introduced by the British Raj to limit the transfer of land ownership in the Punjab Province.
  • It created an "agricultural tribes" category, the membership of which was almost compulsory to buy or sell land.
90

In which of the following languages British showed keenness in introducing in Indian society?

  1. ((a))

    Sanskrit

  2. ((b))

    Hindi

  3. ((c))

    English

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

English

The correct answer is 'English'.

Key Points

  • British showed keenness in introducing the English language into Indian society.
  • The vernacular languages were ignored.
  • British introduced English education not to educate India but to achieve its sadistic goals.
  • The motive behind the English introduction was to make the Indians, especially the sepoys ‘disloyal’ to their own language and culture.
  • Also, the expenses of running administration were becoming costly, so they wanted English-educated men in the lower levels to reduce their expenditures.

Hence, the correct answer is English.

Additional InformationLet's have a look at other options:

  • Sanskrit
  • Sanskrit is an ancient and classical language of India.
  • It belongs to the Indo-Aryan branch of the Indo-European languages.
  • Hindi
  • It ​is an Indo-Aryan language.
  • It is spoken chiefly in the Hindi Belt region encompassing parts of northern, central, eastern, and western India.
91

Which was an example of the ultimate authority of the British government in the provisions of the Government of India Act, 1935?

  1. ((a))

    Special powers for governor over provincial governments

  2. ((b))

    Abolition of diarchy as provincial level

  3. ((c))

    Establishment of federal bank

  4. ((d))

    Division of power

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Special powers for governor over provincial governments

The correct answer is 'Special powers for governor over provincial governments'.

Key Points

  • The Government of India Act, 1935 was passed by the British parliament with inputs from the discussions held at the Round Table Conference (1930-32).
  • Its provision included - Governor to have special powers regarding minorities, rights of civil servants, law and order, British business interests, partially excluded areas, princely states, etc.
  • Governor could take over and indefinitely run the administration.
  • Thus, special powers for governor over provincial governments were an example of the ultimate authority of the British government in the provisions of the Government of India Act, 1935.

Hence, the correct answer is Special powers for governors over provincial governments.

Additional Information The other main provisions of the Government of India Act, 1935 were as follows:

  • It provided for the division of powers through three lists: federal, provincial, and concurrent.
  • Provincial autonomy replaced dyarchy and provided for the adoption of dyarchy at the center. It, however, did not come into existence.
  • It provided for the establishment of a federal bank to control the currency and credit of the country.
92

Forward Bloc was founded by whom among the following?

  1. ((a))

    Mahatma Gandhi

  2. ((b))

    Subhas Chandra Bose

  3. ((c))

    Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Subhas Chandra Bose

The correct answer is 'Subhas Chandra Bose'.

Key Points

  • The Forward Bloc was founded by Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose in 1939.
  • It is a nationalist party with left-wing ideologies.
  • The Constitution and Programme of the Forward Bloc were ratified in the Bombay session.
  • Besides the main aim of the party of establishing equality and an impartial society, the other aims of the party were improving the conditions of the peasants, the welfare of the working class, and national unity.
  • The main aim of the Forward Bloc was to fight for the freedom of India.
  • Forward Bloc has its main operations in West Bengal.

Hence, the correct answer is Subhas Chandra Bose.

Important Points Let's have a look at other options:

NameKnown As
Mahatma GandhiFather of Nation
Sardar Vallabhbhai PatelIron Man of India
93

The main reason behind Mahatma Gandhi's decision to take up the Khilafat Issue was:

  1. ((a))

    To bring more unity among Hindus and Muslims.

  2. ((b))

    To bring more unity among Christians and Muslims.

  3. ((c))

    To bring more unity among Hindus and Christians.

  4. ((d))

    None or these

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To bring more unity among Hindus and Muslims.

The correct answer is To bring more unity among Hindus and Muslims.

Key Points

  • The Khilafat movement began in India as a way of protesting the dismemberment of the Ottoman Caliphate.
  • Gandhi's support to the movement was a strategy to counter the Divide-and-Rule policies of the colonial government and ensure communal harmony.
  • He wanted to bring Hindus and Muslims together in the fight against the British.

Thus, the correct answer is To bring more unity among Hindus and Muslims.

94

At which among the following places in India, one can find a wide difference in day and night temperatures?

  1. ((a))

    Thar Desert

  2. ((b))

    Kerala

  3. ((c))

    Andaman and Nicobar Islands

  4. ((d))

    Goa

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Thar Desert

The correct answer is 'Thar Desert'.

Key Points

  • The difference between the day and night temperatures is likely to be the highest in the Thar desert.
  • In the Thar Desert, the day temperature may rise to 50°C, and drop down to nearly 15°C the same night.
  • On the other hand, there is hardly any difference in day and night temperatures in the Andaman and Nicobar islands or Kerala.
  • The Great Indian Desert, well-known as the Thar Desert, is a large and arid region in the northwestern part of the Indian subcontinent.
  • It is the world's 17th-largest desert and the world's 9th-largest hot subtropical desert.
  • The Thar Desert lies between the Aravalli Hills in the northeast and stretches to Punjab and Haryana to the north, to the Rann of Kutch along the western coast, and the alluvial plains of the Indus River in the northwest.

Hence, the correct answer is the Thar Desert.

Additional Information

  • The main reason for the stark temperature change is that desert air is extremely dry.
  • In arid deserts like the Sahara and the Atacama Desert in Chile, the humidity - the amount of water vapor in the air — is practically zero, and unlike sand, water has a huge capacity to store heat.
  • Water vapor in the air traps heat close to the ground like a giant invisible blanket and stops it from dissipating into the atmosphere, according to World Atlas.
  • Air with high humidity also requires more energy to heat up, meaning it also takes more time for that energy to dissipate and for the surroundings to cool down.
  • Therefore, the lack of humidity in deserts allows these arid places to quickly heat up but also rapidly cool.
95

Into how many major time zones, is the world divided?

  1. ((a))

    12

  2. ((b))

    30

  3. ((c))

    24

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

24

The correct answer is '24'.

Key Points

  • The world has been divided into 24 major time zones of one hour each.
  • Each zone thus covers 15° of longitude.

Hence, the correct answer is 24.

Additional Information

  • The best means of measuring time is by the movement of the earth, the moon, and the planets.
  • The sun regularly rises and sets every day.
  • When the Prime Meridian of Greenwich has the sun at the highest point in the sky, all the places along this meridian will have mid-day or noon.
  • As the earth rotates from west to east, those places east of Greenwich will be ahead of Greenwich time and those to the west will be behind it.
96

Which of the following is not a component of population change?

  1. ((a))

    Morbidity

  2. ((b))

    Migration

  3. ((c))

    Death

  4. ((d))

    Birth

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Morbidity

The correct answer is 'Morbidity'.

Key Points

  • Birth Rate, Death Rate, and Migration are the three main components of population change.
  • The birth rate is the number of live births per 1,000 people per year.
  • Migration is the movement of people across regions and countries, while the mortality rate is the number of deaths per 1,000 people in a year.

Hence, the correct answer is Morbidity.

Additional Information Morbidity

  • Morbidity refers to the consequences and complications (other than death) that result from the disease.
  • Morbidity is the state of having a specific illness or condition.
  • While morbidity can refer to an acute condition, such as a respiratory infection, it often refers to a condition that’s chronic (long-lasting).
  • Some examples of common morbidities include:
  • Diabetes
  • High blood pressure (hypertension)
  • Heart disease
  • Obesity
97

Which among the following is the capital of Lakshadweep?

  1. ((a))

    Kavaratti

  2. ((b))

    Aizawl

  3. ((c))

    Silvassa

  4. ((d))

    Port Blair

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Kavaratti

The correct answer is 'Kavaratti'.

Key Points

  • Kavaratti is the capital of the Union Territory of Lakshadweep in India.
  • Kavaratti Island is located 360 km away from the Kerala state coast.
  • It has a lagoon area of ​​3.46 square miles.
  • Kavaratti has been selected as one of the hundred Indian cities to be developed as a smart city under Prime Minister Narendra Modi's flagship Smart Cities Mission.

Hence, the correct answer is Kavaratti.

Important Points

CapitalState / UT
AizawlMizoram
SilvassaDadra & Nagar Haveli
Port BlairAndaman & Nicobar Islands
98

With the objective of "Growth with Stability", which among the following Five Year Plans was launched?

  1. ((a))

    4th Five Year Plan

  2. ((b))

    6th Five Year Plan

  3. ((c))

    3rd Five Year Plan

  4. ((d))

    5th Five Year Plan

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

4th Five Year Plan

The correct answer is '4th Five Year Plan'.

Key Points 4th Five-Year Plan

  • The tenure of this plan lasted from 1969 to 1974.
  • It was launched with the objective of Economic growth with stability.
  • Under the Fourth Five-Year Plan, Prime Minister **Indira Gandhi'**s government nationalized 14 major Indian banks and the Green Revolution improved agriculture.
  • During the 1971 election, Indira Gandhi gave the slogan 'Garibi Hatao'.
  • In the fourth five-year plan, the growth target rate was kept at 5.7%, and in reality, only 3.3% could be achieved.

Hence, the correct answer is the 4th Five Year Plan.

Important Points Let's have a look at other options:

Five Year PlanTenureFocused on
3rd1961-1966Agriculture and Industry.
5th1974-1978Poverty Alleviation.
6th1980-1985Employment Generation
99

Which among the following consists of businesses owned by individuals or a group of individuals?

  1. ((a))

    Public Sector

  2. ((b))

    State-owned enterprise

  3. ((c))

    Private Sector

  4. ((d))

    None of these

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Private Sector

The correct answer is 'Private Sector'.

Key Points

Private Sector

  • Any organization, which is not in the public sector, can be considered part of the private sector.
  • The private sector consists of businesses owned by individuals or a group of individuals,
  • The private sector can be further divided into
  • (a) the private corporate sector which includes
  • (i) mixed capital companies and
  • (ii) the co-operative sector; and
  • (b) the domestic sector.
  • In terms of the number of owners involved, the private sector can be sub-divided into two categories -
  • Sole proprietorship
  • The management control of sole proprietorship firms is in the hands of one person and their main objective is to maximize profit.
  • Collective ownership
  • Collectively-owned private firms can be further divided into three parts:
  • Partnership
  • Mixed capital company and
  • Co-operative
  • In India, over the years, there has been a considerable expansion of goods and services in which the private sector has taken the initiative and is also playing a major role.

Hence, the correct answer is Private Sector.

Additional Information

 Let's have a look at other options:

  • Public Sector
  • Any organization which is owned and controlled by the government is called a public sector unit.
  • Public sector units are divided into "departmental undertakings" (or departments), "corporations", and "companies" on the basis of the freedom and autonomy given to them to create and function.
  • On the basis of ownership under government, public sector organizations can be classified into Central Public Sector Undertakings, State Public Sector Undertakings, and Local Public Sector Undertakings.
  • State-owned enterprise
  • A government may establish a state-owned enterprise (SOE) as a legal person to engage in business operations on the government's behalf.
  • It might be held entirely or in part by a government and is often designated to take part in particular business endeavors.
100

Name the forest which is known as the "lungs of the planet earth".

  1. ((a))

    Taiga forest

  2. ((b))

    Tundra forest

  3. ((c))

    Amazon rain forest

  4. ((d))

    Rain forest of North-East

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Amazon rain forest

The correct answer is 'Amazon rain forest'.

Key PointsAmazon rain forest

  • The Amazon rainforest in South America is the widest and most varied tropical rainforest on Earth.
  • It is the world’s largest tropical rainforest.
  • The rainforest grows in the tropical basin of the Amazon River.
  • This basin is a total of 2,700,000 sq mi and 2,100,000 sq mi of it is covered by greenery.
  • It represents over half of the planet's rain forests and is home to more than 40000 species of plants, 3000 species of fishes, 1300 species of birds, mammals, amphibians, reptiles, and more than 125000 invertebrates.
  • Amazon rainforest is popularly called the 'lungs of the planet earth' because its vegetation continuously recycles carbon dioxide into oxygen.

Hence, the correct answer is Amazon rain forest.

Additional Information Let's have a look at other options:

  • Taiga forest
  • Taiga forest is present in the broad belt of the Northern hemisphere.
  • It represents the largest terrestrial biome.
  • Tundra forest
  • Tundra forest is a biome where tree growth is hindered by low temperatures and short growing seasons.
  • Tundra is found in cold, frozen landscapes or on high-latitude landmasses.
  • Tundra is also found at the tops of very high mountains.
  • Rainforest of North-East 
  • Rain forests of North-East India are tropical forests with a natural reservoir of genetic diversity.

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