UPSSSC PET Official Paper (Held On: 29 Oct, 2023 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

लेखक के अनुसार "आत्मनिर्भरता और आत्मबल" सर्वांगीण सफलता प्राप्ति का महामंत्र है। 

Key Points

• गद्यांश के अनुसार- जब व्यक्ति स्वावलंबी होगा, उसमें आत्मनिर्भरता होगी, तो ऐसा कोई कार्य नहीं जिसे वह न कर सके। स्वावलंबी मनुष्य के सामने कोई भी कार्य आ जाए, वह अपने दृढ़ विश्वास से, अपने आत्मबल से उसे अवश्य ही पूर्ण कर लेगा।
• अत: गद्यांश का अध्‍ययन करने से हमें पता चल रहा है क‍ि आत्मनिर्भरता और आत्मबल सर्वांगीण सफलता प्राप्ति का महामंत्र है।
• आत्मनिर्भरता का अर्थ- अपने ऊपर निर्भर रहना
• आत्मबल का अर्थ- आत्मशक्ति

'स्वार्थमय' तथा 'अस्थिर' शब्दों के विलोम रूप क्रमशः "निःस्वार्थ - गतिहीन" है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

• स्वार्थमय का व‍िलोम**- निःस्वार्थ**
• अस्थिर का व‍िलोम- गतिहीन

“सफलता”, “कार्य” और “आत्मनिर्भरता” शब्दों के लिंग क्रमशः "स्त्रीलिंग, पुल्लिंग और स्त्रीलिंग" है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

Additional Information

हिंदी में दो प्रकार के लिंग है। 

जीवन की सफलता की पहली सीढ़ी "आत्मनिर्भर बनना" है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

• जीवन की सफलता की पहली सीढ़ी "आत्मनिर्भर बनना" है।
• आत्मनिर्भर का अर्थ- आत्मावलंबी
• गद्यांश के अनुसार- स्वावलंबन (आत्मावलंबी) जीवन की सफलता की पहली सीढ़ी है।

सही उत्तर व‍िकल्‍प (2) "शिक्षकों के चरित्र के गुण-दोष सहज ही बच्चे में आ जाते हैं।" अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

• शैशव के शिक्षकों का बच्चे पर शिक्षकों के चरित्र के गुण-दोष सहज ही बच्चे में आ जाते हैं का असर पड़ता है।
• गद्यांश के अनुसार- हमारे बाल्यकाल के संस्कार ही जीवन का ध्येय निर्धारित करते हैं, अतः यदि शैशव में हमारी संतान ऐसे व्यक्तियों की छाया में ज्ञान प्राप्त करेगी, जिनमें चरित्र तथा सिद्धांत की विशेषता नहीं है, जिनमें संस्कारजनित अनेक दोष हैं, तो फिर उनके चरित्र पर भी उसी की छाप पड़ेगी और भविष्य में उनके ध्येय भी उसी के अनुसार स्वार्थमय तथा अस्थिर होंगे।

देह-व्याधि के निराकरण के बारे में संघमित्र का विचार था, "क‍ि संघमित्र देह व्याधि से मुक्ति भगवान की शरण से मानते थे।" 

Key Points

• संघमित्र देह व्याधि से मुक्ति भगवान की शरण से मानते थे। यह देह-व्‍याध‍ि के न‍िराकरण के बारे में संघम‍ित्र का व‍िचार था।
• गद्यांश के अनुसार- तुम देह की व्याधियों को दूर करके कष्टों से छुटकारा नहीं दिलाते, बल्कि कष्टों के लिए अधिक सुयोग जुटाते हो। देह व्याधि से मुक्ति तो भगवान की शरण में है। वैद्यराज ने कहा- मैं तो देह को भगवान के समीप जीते ही बने रहने का माध्यम मानता हूँ।
• अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं।

आत्मा का मृत्यु पर विजय ही मोक्ष है ऐसा "मृत्‍युंजय का" मानना है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

• मृत्युंजय का मानना है क‍ि, आत्‍मा का मृत्‍यु पर विजय ही मोक्ष है।
• गद्यांश के अनुसार- संघमित्र हँसकर कहते देह द्वारा मृत्यु पर विजय मोक्ष नहीं है। देह तो अपने आप में व्याधि है।

व्याधि और सुयोग शब्दों में क्रमशः प्रयुक्त उपसर्ग- "व‍ि और सु" है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

• व्‍याध‍ि में व‍ि उपसर्ग और याध‍ि मूल शब्‍द है।
• सुयोग में सु उपसर्ग और योग मूल शब्‍द है।
• व्‍याध‍ि का अर्थ- बीमारी
• सुयोग का अर्थ- उपयुक्त तथा अनुकूल समय​

Additional Information

सही उत्तर व‍िकल्‍प (4) "मित्र होते हुए भी उन दोनों के जीवन सिद्धांत विपरीत थे।"

Key Points

• गद्यांश के अनुसार- दोनों ही दो विपरीत तटों के समान थे, फिर भी उनके मध्य बहने वाली स्नेह-सरिता उन्हें अभिन्न बनाए रखती थी।
• अत: गद्यांश का अध्‍ययन करने से ज्ञात हो रहा है, क‍ि मित्र होते हुए भी उन दोनों के जीवन सिद्धांत विपरीत थे।
• अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं।

जीवन की संपन्नता और दीर्घायुष्य में "मृत्युंजय का" विश्वास था। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

• जीवन की संपन्नता और दीर्घायुष्य "मृत्युंजय का" विश्वास था।
• गद्यांश के अनुसार- प्रथम का जीवन की संपन्नता और दीर्घायुष्य में विश्वास था तो द्वितीय का जीवन के निराकरण और निर्वाण में।

Concept used:

Average = (Sum of observations)/(Number of observations)

Calculation:

Total users of Alpha = 400 + 500 + 650 + 800 + 700 + 600 + 400 + 500 + 350 + 750

⇒ 5650

The average users of Alpha = 5650/10 = 565

Total users of Gamma = 450 + 400 + 450 + 600 + 400 + 450 + 500 + 600 + 650 + 800

⇒ 5300

The average users of Gamma = 5300/10 = 530

The average users of Alpha and Gamma = (565 + 530)/2 = 547.5

∴ The average number of users of Alpha and Gamma across all ten cities together is 547.5.

Calculation:

Total users of Alpha, Beta, and Gamma in city B = 500 + 600 + 400 = 1500

Total users of Alpha, Beta, and Gamma in city H = 500 + 800 + 600 = 1900

Difference = 1900 - 1500 = 400

Total users of city B = 100 × 400/1900 = 21.05%

∴ Option (2) is the correct answer.

Calculation:

Total users of Beta in all cities = 500 + 600 + 500 + 700 + 650 + 350 + 750 + 800 + 450 + 650

⇒ 5950

Total users of Gamma in all cities  = 450 + 400 + 450 + 600 + 400 + 450 +500 + 600 + 650 + 800

⇒ 5300

Total users of Beta and Gamma = 5950 + 5300 = 11250

∴ The total number of users of Beta and Gamma across all ten cities together is 11250.

Calculation:

Total users of Alpha and Beta in city A = 400 + 500 = 900

Total users of Beta and Gamma in city E = 650 + 400 = 1050

Required % = 100 × 900/1050 = 85.71%

∴ Option (1) is the correct answer.

Calculation:

Total users of Alpha, Beta, and Gamma in city D = 800 + 700 + 600 = 2100

Total users of Beta and Gamma in city I = 450 + 650 = 1100

The respective ratio = 2100 : 1100 = 21 : 11

∴ Option (1) is the correct answer.

Calculation:

The percentage of students in Std. 6 and Std. 9

Std. 6: 25%

Std. 9: 18%

Total: 25% + 18% = 43%

The percentage of students in Std. 10

Std. 10: 15%

The difference between the two percentages = 43% - 15% = 28%

Percentage increase = 28/15 x 100% = 186.66% ≈ 187%

∴ Option (3) is the correct answer.

Given:

The total number of boys in Std. 8 is "x"

The total number of boys in Std. 9 is “x + 40"

The total number of girls in Std. 8 and Std. 9 together is 120

Calculation:

Total students in std. 8 are = 2200 × 12/100 = 264

So, total girls in std. 8 are = (264 - x)

Total students in std. 9 are = 2200 × 18/100 = 396

So, total girls in std. 9 are = 396 - (x + 40)

According to the question,

(264 - x) + 396 - (x + 40) = 120

⇒ 264 - x + 356 - x = 120

⇒ 2x = 500

⇒ x = 250

∴ The value of x is 250.

Calculation:

Total percentages of students in Std. 7 and 8 are = 30 + 12 = 42%

Total percentages of students in Std. 8 and 10 are = 18 + 15 = 33%

Net difference = 42 - 33 = 9% of total students

The difference of students between the respective standards = 2200 × 9/100 = 198

∴ Option (3) is the correct answer.

Given:

In Std. 6, the ratio of boys to girls is 6 ∶ 5

The total number of girls in Std. 6 is 50 less than that of the total number of girls in Std. 7

Calculation:

Total students in Std. 6 = 2200 × 25/100 = 550

Total boys in Std. 6 = 550 × 6/(6 + 5) = 300

Total girls in Std. 6 = 550 × 5/(6 + 5) = 250

According to the question,

Total girls in Std. 7 = 250 + 50 = 300

Total students in Std. 7 are = 2200 × 30/100 = 660

So, total boys in Std. 7 are = 660 - 300 = 360

The ratio of the total number of boys in Std. 6 to Std. 7 = 300 : 360 = 5 : 6

∴ The ratio of the total number of boys in Std. 6 to Std. 7 is 5 : 6.

Given:

In 2024, the total number of students in Std. 10 is decreased by 20%

Calculation:

In 2023, total students in Std. 6 and Std. 7 are = 2200 × (25 + 30)/100 = 1210

In 2023, students in Std. 10 are = 2200 × 15/100 = 330

In 2024, students in Std. 10 are = 330 × (100 - 20)/100 = 264

The total number of students in Std. 6 and 7 together in 2023 = (1210 - 264)

⇒ 946 more than the total students in Std. 10 in 2024

∴ Option (2) is the correct answer.

Calculation:

For year 2016 - 17,

Fiscal deficit increases by = 71350 - 68800 = 2550 from the previous year

For year 2015-16, is starting year so the increment can't be calculated

For year 2017-18, 

Fiscal deficit increases by = 77845 - 71350 = 6495 from the previous year

For year 2018-19,

Fiscal deficit increases by = 99050 - 77845 = 21205 from the previous year (maximum)

∴ Option (4) is the correct answer.

Calculation:

Total Fiscal deficit over the years = 68800 + 71350 + 77845 + 99050 + 114850 + 80065

⇒ 511960

Total Market borrowings over the years = 31440 + 44200 + 31110 + 43500 + 75030 + 68570

⇒ 293850

Average total Market borrowings = 293850/6 = 48975

Required percentage = 100 × 48975/511960 = 9.566 ≈ 9.57%

∴ Option (1) is the correct answer.

Calculation:

The average budget deficit from the 2015-16 to 2019-20 is:

⇒ (1075 + 10925 + 24315 + 1025 + 4345)/5 = Rs. 8337

∴ Option (2) is the correct answer.

Calculation:

For the year 2017-18,

Required % = 100 × 41660 / 77845 = 53.5%

For the year 2015-16,

Required % = 100 × 43940 / 68800 = 63.8%

For the year 2018-19,

Required % = 100 × 67360 / 99050 = 68%

For the year 2020-21,

Required % = 100 × 32750 / 80065 = 40.9%

∴ Option (3) is the correct answer.

Calculation:

 

∴ For 3 years, the ratio of fiscal deficit to market borrowing is more than 2.

Given:

The discount % and profit % of the Suit is the same

Concept used:

Selling Price, SP = CP × (100 + P)/100

Marked Price, MP = SP × 100/(100 - D)

Calculation:

The CP of the suit = Rs. 2400, and SP = Rs. 2840

Let, the profit and discount both are a%.

According to the question,

SP = CP × (100 + P)/100

2400 × (100 + a)/100 = 2840

⇒ 24a = 2840 - 2400

⇒ a = 440/24 = $\dfrac{55}{3}$%

So, the MP of the suit = MP = SP × 100/(100 - D)

⇒ 2840 × 100/(100 - 55/3)

⇒ 2840 × 300/245 = 3477.55 ≈ 3478

∴ The approximate marked price is Rs. 3478.

Given:

The ratio of discount % and profit % of the T-shirt is 7 ∶ 5.

Formula used:

Selling Price, SP = MP × (100 - D)/100

Selling Price, SP = CP × (100 + P)/100

Calculation:

The MP of the T-shirt = Rs. 2875

Discount is 14%, So the profit = 5 × 14/7 = 10%

The SP of the T-shirt = 2875 × (100 - 14)/100 = Rs. 2472.5

The CP of the T-shirt  = 2472.5 × 100/(100 + 10)

⇒ 2247.7 ≈ Rs. 2248

∴ The approximate cost price of the T-shirt is Rs. 2248

Given:

The ratio of the Cost Price of the Jeans and Saree is 4 ∶ 5

Formula used:

Selling price (SP) = CP × (100 +P)/100

Discount % = 100 × (MP - SP)/MP

Calculation:

The cost price of Jeans = Rs. 2500

The cost price of saree = 2500 × 5/4 = Rs. 3125

The SP of saree = 3125 × (100 + 20)/100 = Rs. 3750

Discounted amount = 3800 - 3750 = Rs. 50

Discount percentage = 100 × 50/3800 ≈ 1.32%

∴ The correct answer is option 3.

Given:

The Marked Price of the Jeans is ₹420 more than the Cost Price of the Shirt 

The difference between the Marked Price and the Selling Price of Shirt is ₹ 750

Formula used:

Selling price (SP) = CP × (100 +P)/100

Marked Price (MP) = SP + Discount amount

Calculation:

The MP of jeans = Rs. 3000

So, the CP of shirt = 3000 - 420 = Rs. 2580

The SP of the shirt = 2580 × (100 + 30)/100 = Rs. 3354

The MP of the shirt = 3354 + 750 = Rs. 4104

The discount % on the shirt = 100 × 750/4104 = 18.27%

∴ The correct answer is option 4

Calculation:

The CP of Suit = Rs. 2400

The MP of Jeans = Rs. 3000

Required % = (3000 - 2400)/3000 × 100

⇒ 600/3000 × 100 = 20%

∴ Option (2) is the correct answer.

The correct answer is option- 4 i - c, ii - a, iii - d, iv - b.

Key Points

• The Scindia dynasty is most closely associated with Gwalior. The Sindhias initially expanded their influence in areas around Ujjain, but Gwalior became their stronghold later. Hence, there might be confusion due to the absence of Gwalior as an option.
• The Holkar dynasty established their capital in Indore, which remains a major city in Madhya Pradesh today.
• The Gaekwads ruled over the Gujarat region, with Baroda (Vadodara) as their capital.
• The Bhonsle dynasty, also known as the Nagpur Bhonsles, had Nagpur as their capital city. This region is located in present-day Maharashtra.

The correct answer is Vaishali

Key Points

• The first woman to be ordained into the Sangha was Mahaprajapati Gautami, who was the aunt of Gautama Buddha.
• It was the first  Buddhist sites where women were ordained into the Sangha for the first time
• She led a group of 500 Sakya women and was accorded the status of the first bhikkhuni after accepting the Eight Garudhammas.
• I could not find any information on which Buddhist site this event took place.
• However, it is worth noting that the Bhikuni Sangha started in a particular historical setting which was not very easy.

Additional Information

• Buddhist Second Biddhist Council
• Vaishali is a significant destination in the Buddhist pilgrimage circuit of India. It was the site of the Second Buddhist Council, held seventy years after the death of Lord Buddha
• The Buddha first visited Vaishali in the fifth year after his Enlightenment, and spent the rainy season there.
• The Buddhist Theravadin Commentaries give detailed descriptions of the circumstances of this visit.
• It was during his last visit here that the Buddha announced that he would die in three months’ time, before leaving for Kushinagar .
• The Bhikuni Sangha started in a particular historical setting which was not very easy.
• However, it is worth noting that the first woman to be ordained into the Sangha was Mahaprajapati Gautami, who was the aunt of Gautama Buddha.
• She led a group of 500 Sakya women and was accorded the status of the first bhikkhuni after accepting the Eight Garudhammas.

The correct answer is Upanishad

Key Points

• Upanishad
• “Upa” means nearby and “sada” means sit.
• Upanishad means to learn.
• It deals with philosophy, metaphysics, spirituality, etc.
• They are also known as “Vedanta” meaning the end of the Vedas”
• for they denote the last phase of the Vedic period and reveal the ultimate aim of the Vedas.
• They are 108 in number.
• Upanishads mainly describe the Atma, Parmatma, and Salvation.
• The earliest Upanishads are “Brihadaranyaka” and “Chanddogya” written in prose.
• Their philosophy is actually the realization of “Brahman”.
• The ultimate reality of the universe.
• The recognition that the individual soul is identical with that and attainment of salvation in this recognition.
• Knowledge can be a medium to attain Salvation.

   

Important Points

The correct answer is Khanwa

Key Points

• In the Battle of Khanwa, Babur defeated the Rana Sanga in 1527.
• The battle was fought on 16 March 1527.
• The Battle of Khanwa was a decisive battle that helps the establishment of Mughal rule in India.
• Babur assumes the title of Ghazi after the victory of this battle.
• Khanwa is located 60km west of Agra.

Additional Information

• Babur was the founder of the Mughal Empire.
• He was the first Emperor of the Mughal dynasty who ruled between 1526 to 1530.
• He defeated Ibrahim Lodhi in the first battle of Panipat in 1526.
• He defeated Mahmud Lodi in the battle of Ghaghra in 1529. Babur died in 1530 in Agra.
• He was first buried in Agra, later his mortal remains were moved to Kabul and reburied in Bagh-e Babur in Kabul.
• Autobiography of Babur: Baburnama.
• Some Important Battle Fought by Babur

The correct answer is The Council Act of the 1909

Key Points

• ​Indian Council Act of 1909 AD or Morley-Minto Reforms:
• The act was named after the Secretary of State for India John Morley and the Viceroy of India Minto.
• A separate electorate was introduced for Muslims.
• Lord Minto came to be known as the father of the Communal Electorate.
• Non-officials are to be elected indirectly.
• Thus, the election was introduced.
• For the first time, one Indian was to be on Viceroy’s executive council.
• Satyendra Prasad Sinha was the first Indian to join the council as a Law member.
• Annulment of Partition In 1911 AD, the government announced the annulment of the partition of Bengal.​​

Additional Information

• The Wavell Plan​
• On 14 June, Wavell ordered the release of all Congress Working Committee members and proposed talks to set up a new Executive Council which would be entirely Indian except for the Viceroy himself and the Commander-in-Chief.
• 'Caste Hindus' and Muslims would have equal representation, the Executive would work within the existing constitution (i.e., it would not be responsible to the Central Assembly), but the door would be kept open for discussions on a new Constitution once the War had been finally won.
• But the Conference really broke down due to Jinnah's intransigent demands that the League had an absolute right to choose all the Muslim members and that there should be a kind of communal veto in the Executive, with decisions opposed by Muslims needing a two-thirds majority. Hence option 1 is correct.
• The Congress objected to the plan as - an attempt to reduce it to a Caste Hindu‘ Party and insisted on its right to include members from all communities.
• The Congress’ Shimla delegation was headed by Maulana Azad o Wavell dissolved the conference and thus gave the League a virtual veto which strengthened the League’s position.​

The correct answer is ​Jawaharlal Nehru

Key Points

• The first Kisan March in Pratapgarh District of Uttar Pradesh was organized by​ Jawaharlal Nehru in 1920.
• The march was held to protest against the high taxes imposed on farmers by the British colonial government.
• Jawaharlal Nehru, who was one of the prominent leaders of the Indian National Congress, led the first Kisan March in Uttar Pradesh's Pratapgarh District in 1920.
• He met Mahatma Gandhi for the first time in 1916 and was deeply inspired by him.
• The Kisan Sabha was formally created by Baba Ramchandra on October 17, 1920, with help from other peasant leaders like Jhinguri Singh, for the welfare of farmers.

Additional Information

• Mahatma Gandhi:
• Full Name: Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi
• Role: Indian lawyer, anti-colonial nationalist, and political ethicist
• Achievements:
• Led the successful campaign for India’s independence from British rule using nonviolent resistance.
• Inspired civil rights movements worldwide.
• Known as the “Father of the Nation” in India..
• Motilal Nehru
• Role: Indian lawyer, activist, and politician
• Significance:
• Served as Congress President twice.
• Father of Jawaharlal Nehru, India’s first Prime Minister.
• Played a crucial role in India’s struggle for independence and political integration**.**
• Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel:
• Full Name: Vallabhbhai Jhaverbhai Patel
• Role: Indian independence nationalist, barrister, and statesman
• Achievements:
• First Deputy Prime Minister and Home Minister of India after independence.
• Integral in integrating over 500 princely states into the Indian Union.
• Often called “Sardar” (meaning “Chief” in Hindi, Urdu, Bengali, and Persian)

The correct answer is Asa Ahir

Key Points

• Asirgarh Fort is an Indian fortress (qila) situated in Burhanpur, in the Indian state of Madhya Pradesh.
• It is situated in the Satpura range about 20 kilometres (12 mi) north of Burhanpur.
• Because the fortress commands a pass through the Satpuras connecting the valleys of the Narmada and Tapti rivers, one of the most important routes from northern India to the Deccan, it was known as the "key to the Deccan".
• During the Mughal Era, it was considered that the Deccan started here while the empire from Asirgarh to Delhi was considered Hindustan.
• The Asirgarh fort is said to have been built by a king named Asa Ahir in the early 15th century.He was murdered by Nasir Khan of Khandesh.

The correct answer is Rajasthan

Key Points

• Motilal Tejawat (1885-1963) was the leader of the Eki Movement that was agitated in the 1920s.​​​
• He was born in Colliery village, Udaipur, Rajasthan
• His source of inspiration was the Bijolia Movement.
• Tejawat started touring Adivasi areas to advocate social reform.
• He announced to the Agra newspaper, 'Sainik*'* his intention to proceed to the Adivasi areas of Mewar.

Additional Information 

• Moti Lal Tejawat who is known as the Maseeha of Tribals.
• He was the leader of Eki Movement that took place in the present-day border areas of Rajasthan and Gujarat and was against the oppression of Thakurs and their henchmen.
• The Eki movement aimed at a united opposition to all types of exploitation of Bhils by the States and Jagirdars.
• Moti Lal Tejawat met Vijay Singh Pathik and other leaders to chalk out a programme for redressal of the grievances of the Bhils.
• By this time the Bijolia peasant movement had also reached to its climax which inspired Tejawat and in 1921, he gave a call for the non-cooperation movement to the Bhils along with the call of the no-rent campaign at Matrakundia, Chittorgarh.

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• The number of mines that reported mineral production (excluding minor minerals, fuel minerals, and atomic minerals) in India was 1319 in 2021–22, as against 1375 in the previous year.
• Out of 1319 reporting mines, 263 were located in Madhya Pradesh, followed by Gujarat (147), Karnataka (132), Odisha (128), Chhattisgarh (114), Andhra Pradesh (108), Rajasthan (90), Tamil Nadu (88), Maharashtra (73), Jharkhand (45), and Telangana (39).
• These 11 states together accounted for 93% of the total number of mines in the country in 2021–22.

The correct answer is Ghadar Party

Key Points

Mandi conspiracy:

• Lala Hardayal established Ghadar Party in San Francisco (U.S.A).
• Mandi conspiracy took place under the leadership of the Ghadar party in 1914-15. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• Some members of the Ghadar Party came from the USA and spread out in 'Mandi' and Suket princely states to recruit the workers.
• Miyan Jawahar and the Queen of Mandi Khairgarhi came under their influence.
• They planned to murder the superintendent and the Wajir of Mandi, loot the treasury, and blasting the Beas Bridge in December 1914 & January 1915
• This movement was put down.
• Queen Khairgarhi was banished.
• Bhai Hirda Ram was hanged to death for the Lahore conspiracy case.
• Surjan Singh and Nidhan Singh Chugha were hanged for a false case of Nagchala robbery.
• Hardev of Mandi became a member of the Gadar Party and became popular by the name Swami Krishnanand.

Additional Information

• Indian National Army
• ​The Indian National Army(INA) was founded by Mohan Singh and Indian prisoners of war captured by Japan during the Malayan campaign and at Singapore in 1942.
• The armed force was formed to free India from British rule by allying with Japan.
• It was disbanded in December 1942 after differences between the INA leadership and the Japanese military over its role in Japan's war in Asia.
• Hindustan Socialist Republican Association
• ​The Hindustan Republican Association was set up in 1923 and renamed as Hindustan Socialist Republican Association in 1928.
• The organization conducted many robberies and raids in an attempt to raise funds to acquire arms and ammunition.
• HSRA planned the shooting of J. P. Saunders, a British Policeman at Lahore in 1928 to avenge the killing of Lala Lajpat Rai.
• Bhagat Singh, Rajguru, and Sukhdev were hanged for the attempt to kill Saunders in 1931.
• After 1931, most leaders of the party had been killed or imprisoned.
• Abhinav Bharat Secret Society
• ​It was founded by V D Savarkar and his brother Ganesh Damodar Savarkar in 1904
• The society believed in the armed rebellion which carried out a few assassinations of British officials.

The correct answer is The Muslim League

Key Points

• The Muslim League Council declared 16th August 1946 as the ‘Direct Action Day’ in order to keep their demand for a separate Muslim country after the Britishers left the Indian subcontinent.
• Their main objective was to claim a different country with a Muslim-majority population.
• This day also known as the Great Calcutta Killings, was a day of Widespread Communal Riots between the Hindus and the Muslims in the city of Calcutta in the Bengal province of British India.
• Mohammad Ali Jinnah initiated this Action Day.
• The purpose of Direct Action Day was when the Cabinet Mission plan of 1946 Failed a way between the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League for a united India as the League wanted a separate land for the Muslim population.

Additional InformationSwaraj Party

• Swaraj Party was formed on  1 January 1923.
• Chittaranjan Das, Narasimha Chintaman Kelkar and Motilal Nehru formed the Congress-Khilafat Swarajaya Party with Das as the president and Nehru as one of the secretaries.

The Indian National Army

• The Indian National Army(INA) was founded by Mohan Singh and Indian prisoners of war captured by Japan during the Malayan campaign and at Singapore in 1942.
• The armed force was formed to free India from British rule by allying with Japan.
• It was disbanded in December 1942 after differences between the INA leadership and the Japanese military over its role in Japan's war in Asia.

The Indian National Congress

• The Indian National Congress was formed in 1885 by Allan Octavian Hume, a retired British civil servant.
• Other founding members include Dadabhai Naoroji and Dinshaw Wacha.
• The first session was held in Bombay under the presidency of Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee in 1885.
• The first session was attended by 72 delegates from across the country.

The correct answer is Kenya

In News

• Invasive water hyacinth threatens fishers’ livelihoods on popular Kenyan lake - Turkana.

Key Points

• Lake Turkana is the largest permanent desert lake in the world, located in the Kenyan Rift Valley, with its far northern end crossing into Ethiopia.
• It has a surface area of 6,405 km² and is the world’s largest alkaline lake.
• The lake is also known as the Jade Sea due to its green colour, which is a result of abundant algae.
• The lake is surrounded by arid and barren land in East Africa.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Sir H.G. Champion

Key Points

• The forest types of India were classified for the first time in 1936 by Sir HG Champion.
• He compiled his monumental work ‘Preliminary Survey of Forest Type of India and Burma’ and classified India’s forests into 16 major types and about 221 sub-type groups. Later, he published ‘A Revised Survey of the Forest type of India’ in 1968.
• The detailed classification of forest types in India is based on climate, physiognomy, species composition, phenology, topography, soil factors, altitude, aspect, and biotic factors
• The forests have been classified into six major groups, ranging from tropical to alpine.
• These major groups have been further classified into 16 sub-groups based on temperature and moisture regimes, and more than 200 group categories

Additional Information

Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest:

• Tropical Deciduous Forests, also known as 'monsoon forests', are of two types - Moist Deciduous Forests and Dry Deciduous Forests.
• The Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest is found in areas where rainfall is between 100 and 200 cm, the average annual temperature is around 27ºC, and the annual relative humidity is between 60-75%.
• These forests are mostly found in the northeastern states along the Himalayan foothills, the eastern slopes of the Western Ghats, and the Indian states of Chhattisgarh, Orissa, Bihar, Jharkhand, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu.
• The main species included in these types of forests are - Shisham, Teak, Sal, Sandalwood, Mahua, etc.
• These forests also contain open grass patches.

Montane Wet Temperate Forest:

• These forests are found at an altitude of 1000-2000 meters and are characterized by oak trees and chestnut trees.
• These forests are found in some areas of states like Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Assam, West Bengal, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, and Nagaland.

Sub-tropical Dry Evergreen Forest:

• The forests are found at an altitude of about 1000 meters in the Bhabar, the Shiwaliks, and the western Himalayas.
• Low scrubs with small evergreen stunted trees and shrubs are found in these forests.

Tropical Wet Evergreen Forest:

• These forests are found in places where the annual rainfall exceeds 250 cm, the average annual humidity exceeds 77, and the annual temperature is about 25°-27°C.
• The main species included in these forests are - Jamun, bamboo, mahogany, white cedar, etc.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

• The Kameng River flows through Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.
• The Baitarani River primarily flows through Odisha.
• The Girna River is a tributary of the Tapi River, which mainly flows through Maharashtra.
• The Hasdeo River is a tributary of the Mahanadi River, flowing through Chhattisgarh.
• Hence, the correct match will be i - d, ii - a, iii - b, iv - c.

The correct answer is Tripura 

Key Points

• Chabimura is located in the Gomati district of Tripura a state in northeastern India.
• The site is situated on the bank of the Gomati River at Haakwchak or Haakchak, Amarpur subdivision, 82 km away from the main city and capital Agartala, 30 km away from Udaipur, and 7.5 km away from Amarpur.
• The panels of rock carvings on the steep mountain wall depict images of Shiva, Vishnu, Kartika, Mahisasura Mardini Durga, and other gods and goddesses, and date back to the 15th-16th centuries AD.

Additional InformationTripura State

• In the 14th Amendment, there was the creation of Legislative Assemblies for Himachal Pradesh, Goa, Manipur and, Tripura.
• The 49th Amendment recognized Tripura as a Tribal-State.
• Capital of Tripura is Agartala.
• Chief Minister of Tripura is Shri Indrasena Reddy Nallu (As on October 2023)
• The Governor of the state is Indrasena Reddy
• Tripura shares boundaries with Bangladesh.

The correct answer is Third

Key Points

• The Third Five-Year Plan is also known as Gadgil Yojna which is named after Dhananjay Ramchandra Gadgil, a social scientist and the first critic of Indian planning.
• The third five-year plan which was made for the duration of 1961 to 1966 was targeted to make the economy independent and to reach the self-active position to take off but it was not able to achieve its growth target of 5.6% due to the Indo-China war.
• In the third five year plan period, many primary schools were established in rural areas, state electricity boards & state secondary education boards were formed, states were made accountable for secondary & higher education and to fetch democracy to the grass-root level, Panchayat elections were initiated & the states were given more expansion responsibilities.
• The Third five-year was plan focused initially on agriculture enhancement in the production of wheat, but the succinct Sino-Indian War in the year 1962 exposed flaws in the economy, and the spotlight was shifted towards the Defence industry.

The correct answer is Act 61.

Key Points

• NABARD was founded on July 12, 1982, in accordance with the recommendations of the B.Sivaramman Committee, by Act 61, 1981 of Parliament.
• The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is the supreme authority in India for regulating both the top cooperative banks and regional rural banks generally.
• The Ministry of Finance, Government of India, is in charge of it.
• "Matters relating to policy, planning, and operations in the field of credit for agricultural and other economic activities in rural areas of India" have been given to the bank.
• It is one of the top organizations, offering Rs. 14080 crore (100% share).
• 30 billion rupees are the authorized share capital.
• State cooperative banks, district cooperative central banks, and regional rural banks are all under the control of NABARD, which also performs statutory inspections of these institutions.

Additional Information

• About NABARD:
• Full-Form: National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
• Establishment Year: 12 July 1982
• Headquarters: Mumbai
• Chairman: Govinda Rajulu Chintala
• Purpose: Agriculture Development, Rural Development, Credit Planning, Refinance, Supervision of Regional Rural Banks, Supervision of Apex Cooperative Banks

The correct answer is The Kelkar Task Force 

Key Points

• The idea of a nationwide GST in India was first proposed by the Kelkar Task Force on Indirect taxes in 2000.
• The objective was to replace the prevailing complex and fragmented tax structure with a unified system that would simplify compliance, reduce tax cascading, and promote economic integration.

Additional Information

Kelkar Task Force Committee:

• The impetus to direct tax reforms in India came with the recommendations of the Task Force on Direct & Indirect Taxes under the chairmanship of Vijay Kelkar in 2002.
• The main recommendations of this task force related to the direct taxes related to increasing the income tax exemption limit, rationalization of exemptions, abolition of long-term capital gains tax, abolition of wealth tax etc
• Recommendations
• The taxpayer services should be extended both in quality and quantity and taxpayers should get easy access through the internet and email.
• PAN (Permanent Account Number) should be expanded and it should cover all citizens..
• Government should establish a Tax Information Network to modernize, simplify and rationalize tax collection, particularly TDS and TCS.
• Abolish the requirement of a Tax Clearance Certificate on leaving the country.
• Empower CBDT with appropriate administrative and financial powers.
• Increase in exemption limit to Rs.1 lakh for the general categories of taxpayers and the further exemption for senior citizens and widows.
• Rationalize income tax slabs, and eliminate surcharge on personal income tax.
• Reduce the Corporate tax to 30% for domestic companies and 35% for foreign companies.
• The listed companies should be exempted from tax on dividends and capital gains.
• Abolish Minimum Alternate Tax.
• Abolition of wealth tax.

The correct answer is The European Union (then EEC)

Key Points

• Phase I (1970-1980) of the milk revolution of India was financed by the sale of skimmed milk powder and butter oil gifted by the European Economic Community (EEC) through the World Food Programme.
• The National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) planned the program and negotiated the details of EEC assistance.

Additional Information

• The European Union
• The European Union (EU) is a political and economic union of 27 member states that are located primarily in Europe.
• The union has a total area of 4,233,255 km² and an estimated total population of over  448 million
• The EU was created by the Maastricht Treaty, which entered into force on November 1, 1993.
• The EU aims to ensure peace, encourage free trade, and tailor policies to work toward the benefit of its members.
• Nineteen of the countries share the euro as their official currency.
• The United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF)
• ​created by the United Nations General Assembly on December 11, 1946. I
• Originally known as the United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund
• UNICEF focuses on improving the health, nutrition, education, and general welfare of children.
• The World Health Organisation (WHO)
• ​The World Health Organization (WHO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations responsible for international public health.
• It is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, and has six regional offices and 150 field offices worldwide
• The WHO observes World Health Day every year on April 7 to mark its foundation day.

The correct answer is 28th January, 1950

Key Points

• The Supreme Court of India was inaugurated on 28 January 1950.
• It replaced both the Federal Court of India and the Judicial Committee of the Privy Council which were then at the apex of the Indian court system.
• The first proceedings and inauguration, however, took place on 28 January 1950 at 9:45 am, when the judges took their seats.
• It is thus regarded as the official date of establishment.
• The Supreme Court initially had its seat at the Chamber of Princes in the parliament building where the previous Federal Court of India sat from 1937 to 1950.
• The first Chief Justice of India was H. J. Kania.
• In 1958, the Supreme Court moved to its present premises.
• Originally, the Constitution of India envisaged a supreme court with a chief justice and seven judges; leaving it to the parliament to increase this number.
• In its formative years, the Supreme Court met from 10 to noon and then 2 to 4 in the afternoon for 28 days a month.
• Cases involving the Interpretation of the Constitution are heard by at least a 5-judge bench as provided under Article 145(3).​

The correct answer is Nagaur

Key Points

• Rajasthan was the first state to establish a Panchayati Raj system in 1959.
• The name of the district is Nagaur.
• The date was 2nd October, as it is the birthday of Mahatma Gandhi.
• The Panchayati Raj system was the vision of Mahatma Gandhi and it is included in the directive principle of the state policy of the Indian constitution.
• Panchayat Raj system means rural local self-government.
• This system in India was constitutionalised through the 73rd Amendment Act of 1992.
• This is a three-tier system-
• Gram panchayat at the village level
• Panchayat Samiti at the block level
• Zila Parishad at the district level
• The Panchayat Samiti is the executive body.
• The Zila Parishad should be the advisory, coordinating and supervisory body.

The correct answer is Vijaya Bank

Key Points

• Nationalisation of banks
• Indira Gandhi's government nationalized the 14 biggest commercial lenders on 20 July 1969.
• RBI Governor at that time was LK Jha who was the 8th governor of the bank.
• The tenure for which he served in the RBI was from 01 July 1967 to 03 May 1970.
• It started with the nationalization of 14 major lenders that accounted for 85 percent of bank deposits in the country at that time. Six more banks were later nationalized in 1980.
• The ICICI Bank is Private sector Bank, not a Nationalised Bank
• ICICI Bank was established in 1994 by ICICI Limited, an Indian financial institution, and was its wholly-owned subsidiary.

Additional Information

• On 19th July 1969, a major process of nationalization was carried out and 14 major commercial banks in India were nationalized.
• The following banks were nationalized in 1969

1. Allahabad Bank
2. Bank of Baroda
3. Bank of India
4. Bank of Maharashtra
5. Canara Bank
6. Central Bank of India
7. Dena Bank
8. Indian Bank
9. Indian Overseas Bank
10. Punjab National Bank
11. Syndicate Bank
12. UCO Bank
13. Union Bank of India
14. United Bank of India

The correct answer is Power of impeachment

Key Points

• The Rajya Sabha and the Vidhan Parishad are two different legislative bodies in India.
• The Rajya Sabha is the upper house of the Indian Parliament, while the Vidhan Parishad is the upper house of the state legislature.
• The Rajya Sabha has 250 members, of which 238 are elected by the legislative assemblies of the states and union territories, while the remaining 12 are nominated by the President of India.
• The members of the Vidhan Parishad are indirectly elected by an electoral college consisting of members of the Legislative Assembly and local bodies.
• The Vidhan Parishad is not vested with the power of impeachment, unlike the Rajya Sabha.

The following table summarizes the differences between the Rajya Sabha and the Vidhan Parishad:

The correct is the Cinchona tree

Key Points

• Malaria has long been treated with plant-based medicine.
• Quinine, which comes from the bark of a cinchona tree, was first isolated as an antimalarial compound in the 1800s, though there is evidence that bark extracts have been used to treat malaria since the 1600s.
• The cinchona tree is native to Peru.

Additional Information

• Malaria:
• Caused by a parasite that commonly infects a certain type of mosquito which feeds on humans.
• Spread: Female Anopheles mosquitoes deposit parasite sporozoites into the skin of a human host.
• World Malaria Day 2020 is being celebrated by the World Health Organisation (WHO) on April 25 with the theme ‘Zero malaria starts with me’.

The correct answer is Atmospheric refraction of star light

Key Points

• The twinkling of stars is caused by the atmospheric refraction of stars' light.
• As light from a star races through the atmosphere, it bounces and bumps through different layers, bending the light before you see it.
• Since the hot and cold layers of air keep moving, the bending of the light changes too.
• This causes the star's appearance to twinkle.
• The long distance of stars and fluctuation in the density of air, therefore, is the reason behind the twinkling of stars.

Additional Information

• Scattering of light
• Scattering of light can be defined as the process in which light gets dispersed all around the surroundings due to small tiny particles.
• This process is responsible for naturally occurring phenomena like halos, the Tyndall effect, and the blue as well as the red colour of the sky.
• Total internal reflection
• The total internal reflection is defined as the phenomenon in which light rays travel from a more optically denser medium to a less optically denser medium.
• Dispersion of light 
• Dispersion of light is the phenomenon of splitting a beam of white light into its constituent colours on passing through a prism.
• The band of seven colours so obtained is called the (visible) spectrum.

The correct is Ireland

Key Points

• Directive Principles of State Policy
• Articles 36-51 under Part-IV of the Indian Constitution deal with Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).
• They are borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland, which had copied it from the Spanish Constitution.
• It refers to the ideals that the State should keep in mind while formulating policies and enacting laws. e.g. the Government should try to ensure equal pay for equal work for men and women etc.
• Non-justiciable nature on recommendations of Tej Bahadur Committee Report
• Positive Connotation – Establishes social and economic democracy.
• Promote the concept of a Welfare State and Inclusive Growth.
• Precursors of Panchayat Raj Institution (Art. 40- Village Panchayat)
• Fundamental in governance and apply in policy makings – Art. 37
• Novel features and Soul of the constitution – B.R Ambedkar
• DPSP is the Conscience of the constitution – Granville Austin
• Constitutional instructions to – Legislature, executive, and administration of the state.
• Enabling in nature – Enables government for a comprehensive program of social and economic justice, unlike FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS.
• Non-justiciable, Non-self-executory, non-enforceable by a court of law.
• The government can implement provisions of DPSP by legislative actions.

Additional Information

• Significance of DPSP
• Helps courts as Guiding Light in determining and examining the constitutional validity of acts/rules/regulations.
• Symbolizes the idea of a welfare state and amplifies social and economic justice as entailed in the Preamble.
• They impose a moral obligation on the state authorities for their application, however, public opinion is the real force behind them.
• Serves as moral precepts for – Legislature, executive, and administration of state
• The Directives are the life-giving provisions of the Constitution. They constitute the stuff of the Constitution and its philosophy of social justice. – L. M Singhvi.
• Directives lay down that the goal of Indian polity is ‘economic democracy’ as distinguished from ‘political democracy’ (Fundamental rights) – R. Ambedkar

The correct answer is 104th Amendment Act, 2019

Key Points

• In January 2020, the Anglo-Indian reserved seats in the Parliament and State Legislatures of India were abolished by the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019
• Om Birla is the 17th and current speaker of Lok Sabh

Additional Information 

• The Rajya Sabha should consist of not more than 250 members - 238 members representing the States and Union Territories, and 12 members nominated by the President. Each member is elected for a term of six years.
• Jagdeep Dhankar is the current Chairman of Rajya Sabha and the present Vice-President of India.
• The 104th Constitutional Amendment Act ceased the reservation of seats for Anglo-Indians in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative assemblies and extended reservations for SCs and STs for up to ten years.

Important Points

• Under Article 331 of the Constitution of India can members of the Anglo-Indian community be nominated to the Lok Sabha by the President.
• Article 342 covers The Scheduled Tribes in India.
• Article 330 deals with the reservation of seats of SCs and STs in Parliament.
• Article 326 was amended in 1988 by the 61st Amendment Act, 1988. It lowered the voting age from 21 years to 18 years.

The correct answer is Forests

Key Points

• Forest:
• Forests are ‘biodiversity hot spots'.
• Forests are ecological as well as socio-economic resources.
• Forest is a complex ecosystem consisting mainly of trees that support myriad forms of life.
• Approximately 1/3rd of the earth’s total land area is covered by forests.
• Deforestation refers to the loss of tree cover.
• In this case, the land is permanently converted from forest to non-forest uses such as agricultural pasture, desert, and human settlement.
• In a FAQ/UNEP study, it was found that about 7.3 million hectares of rich tropical forests every year and about 14 hectares of closed forest every minute are lost.
• In India surveys conducted found a forest cover of about 21.7%only instead of 33% considered desirable according to “National Forest Policy”.

Additional Information 

• ​​Water:
• Water is a basic necessity for all terrestrial forms of life.
• Water occupies a very large area of the Earth’s surface and is also found underground.
• All cellular processes take place in a water medium.
• The availability of water decides not only the number of individuals of each species that can survive in a particular area, but also decides the diversity of life there.
• Air:
• The movement of air from one region to the other creates winds.
• Rainfall patterns are decided by the prevailing wind patterns.
• The wind is an inexhaustible source of energy.
• Sunlight:
• The Sun’s heat and light energy can be felt by us every day.
• Solar energy trapped from the sun can be used in solar cells to produce electricity

Given:

Average age of Dev and Dinesh 4 years ago = 20 years

Average age of Dev, Dinesh, and Chintan today = 25 years

Formula used:

Average Age = Sum of Ages / Number of People

Calculation:

For Dev and Dinesh 4 years ago,

⇒ (Dev + Dinesh)/2 = 20

⇒ Dev + Dinesh = 40

Today, their total age = 40 + 4 × 2 = 48 →(1)

For Dev, Dinesh, and Chintan today,

⇒ (Dev + Dinesh + Chintan)/3 = 25

⇒ Dev + Dinesh + Chintan = 25 × 3 = 75

⇒ 48 + Chintan = 75 [From Eqn (1)]

⇒ Chintan = 75 - 48 = 27

Age of Chintan after 7 years = 27 + 7 = 34 years

∴ The age of Chintan after 7 years will be 34 years.

Given:

$\dfrac{2.4×0.72× 4.5}{0.18× 0.06× 0.9}× 3$

Calculation:

$\dfrac{2.4×0.72× 4.5}{0.18× 0.06× 0.9}× 3$

⇒ 40 × 4 × 5 × 3 = 2400

∴ Option (3) is the correct answer.

Given:

The square of 11 is 121.

We need to find which option does not express 121 as a sum of odd numbers.

Calculation:

Calculate the sum of odd numbers for each option:

1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 13 + 17 + 23 + 25 + 27 = 121

1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 9 + 11 + 13 + 15 + 17 + 19 + 21 = 121

1 + 5 + 7 + 9 + 11 + 13 + 15 + 17 + 21 + 23 = 122

3 + 7 + 9 + 11 + 13 + 15 + 17 + 19 + 27 = 121

Option 3 sums up to 122, not 121.

∴ Option (3) is the correct answer.

The correct answer is Anodizing

Key Points

• The process of forming a thick oxide layer of Aluminium is known as Anodizing.
• The process is called anodizing because the part to be treated forms the anode of an electrolytic cell.
• Anodizing is an electrochemical process that converts the metal surface into a decorative, durable, corrosion-resistant, anodic oxide finish.
• The anodic oxide structure originates from the aluminium substrate and is composed entirely of aluminium oxide.

Additional Information 

The correct is Metamorphosis

Key Points

Metamorphosis process: 

• The transformation of the larva into an adult through drastic changes is called metamorphosis.
• It is a biological process that involves sudden and abrupt changes in the body structure of the animal by cell growth and differentiation.
• It is generally observed in amphibians and insects. Examples: frogs and butterflies.

Additional Information

• Complete metamorphosis is seen in butterflies.
• Complete metamorphosis consists of a very active, ravenously eating larval stage and an inactive pupa stage while incomplete metamorphosis has a nymph, which very closely resembles the adult
• Examples of insects showing Complete metamorphosis -  wasps, ants, butterflies, and fleas
• Examples of insects showing Incomplete metamorphosis -  termites, praying mantis, and cockroaches

Given:

$\dfrac{9^{-3}×3^5×(5^{-2})^3}{{(3^{-3})^4}×5^4}$

Calculation:

$\dfrac{9^{-2}×3^5×(5^{-2})^3}{{(3^{-3})^4}×5^4}$

⇒ $\dfrac{(3^2)^{-2}×3^5×5^{-6}}{{3^{-12}}×5^4}$

⇒ $\dfrac{(3)^{-4}×3^5×5^{-6}}{{3^{-12}}×5^4}$

⇒ 3^{{- 4 + 5 - (-12)}} × 5^{{- 6 - 4}}

⇒ 3¹³ × 5^-10 = $\dfrac{3^{13}}{5^{10}}$

∴ Option (2) is the correct answer.

Given:

Preliminary exam score: 85% out of 1200 marks

Main exam score: 70% out of 800 marks

Formula used:

Total marks obtained = (Percentage score in exam × Maximum marks of that exam) / 100

Combined percentage = (Total marks obtained in both exams / Total maximum marks of both exams) × 100

Calculation:

For Preliminary exam:

⇒ Marks obtained = (85 × 1200) / 100 = 1020

For Main exam:

⇒ Marks obtained = (70 × 800) / 100 = 560

Total marks obtained in both exams = 1020 + 560 = 1580

Total maximum marks of both exams = 1200 + 800 = 2000

Combined percentage = (1580 / 2000) × 100 = 79%

∴ Option (1) is the correct answer.

लोकोक्ति का सही अर्थ "बड़े-बड़े खर्चों पर ध्यान न देना, छोटे  में कंजूसी दिखाना" है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

Important Pointsकुछ महत्त्वपूर्ण लोकोक्ति- 

"रात उसका प्राण - पखेरू उड़ गया।" यह वाक्‍य अशुद्ध है। 

Key Points

• अशुद्ध वाक्‍य- रात उसका प्राण - पखेरू उड़ गया।
• यहाँ, प्राण - पखेर शब्द का प्रयोग अशुद्ध है। प्राण और पखेरू दोनों ही शब्दों का अर्थ "जीवन" है। इसलिए, "प्राण - पखेरू" शब्द का प्रयोग अनावश्यक है।
• शुद्ध वाक्‍य- रात उसका प्राण न‍िकल गया।
• ​अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍पों में द‍िए गए सभी वाक्‍य शुद्ध हैं।

Important Points

'द्विवेदी युग' के प्रवर्तक "आचार्य महावीर प्रसाद" है। 

Key Points आचार्य महावीर प्रसाद-

• जन्म- 1864 - 1938 ई.
• हिंदी साहित्य का दूसरा युग 'द्विवेदी युग' (1900–1920) के नाम से जाना जाता है।
• उन्होंने सत्रह वर्ष तक हिन्दी की प्रसिद्ध पत्रिका सरस्वती का सम्पादन किया।
• हिन्दी नवजागरण में उनकी महान भूमिका रही।
• यह द्विवेदी युग के प्रमुख आलोचक थे।
• आलोचना ग्रंथ -
• नैषधीयचरित चर्चा
• हिंदी कालिदास की समालोचना
• कालिदास की निरंकुशता
• आलोचनांजलि
• समालोचना समुच्चय
• साहित्यालाप

Important Points हजारी प्रसाद द्विवेदी-

• जन्म- 1907 - 1979 ई.
• आलोचना ग्रंथ -
• सूर साहित्य (1930)
• हिंदी साहित्य की भूमिका (1940)
• कबीर (1942)
• हिंदी साहित्य का आदिकाल(1952)
• सहज साधना (1963)
• कालिदास की लालित्य योजना (1965)
• मध्यकालीन बोध का स्वरूप (1970) आदि।

सूर्यकांत त्रिपाठी

• जन्म- 1897 - 1961 ई.
• काव्यसंग्रह
• अनामिका (1923)
• परिमल (1930)
• गीतिका (1936)
• तुलसीदास (1939)
• कुकुरमुत्ता (1942)
• अणिमा (1943)
• बेला (1946)

जयशंकर प्रसाद

• जन्म - 1889 -1937 ई.
• काव्‍य - प्रेम-पथिक(1909), ऑंसू(1925), लहर(1935)
• उपन्‍यास - कंकाल(1929), तितली(1934), इरावती(1938)
• नाटक - उर्वशी(1909), सज्‍जन(1910), राज्‍यश्री(1915)

'कंदर्प', 'पंचशर' और 'पुष्पधन्वा' यह सभी "कामदेव" के पर्यायवाची शब्‍द है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

• कामदेव के अन्‍य पर्यायवाची शब्‍द- मन्मथ, मनोज, काम, मार, कंदर्प, अनंग, मनसिज, रतिनाथ, मीनकेतू, रतिपति, मदन आदि।

अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प- 

"श्रद्धानंद = श्रद्ध + आनंद" संधि-व‍िच्‍छेद का असंगत युग्‍म है। 

Key Points

• श्रद्धानंद का उच‍ित संधि-व‍िच्‍छेद- श्रद्धा + आनंद है।
• श्रद्धानंद में दीर्घ संधि है।

Important Points

The correct answer is 'Connoisseur'.

Key Points

• The correct word is Connoisseur.
• Connoisseur means one who understands the details, technique, or principles of an art and is competent to act as a critical judge. (विशेषज्ञ)
• ​Example- "It looks the same and only the connoisseur would tell the difference in taste."
• Out of the given options connoisseur is the correct word.
• Hence connoisseur is the correct answer.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

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Additional Information

• Option 1 is inappropriate.
• Option 2 is inappropriate.
• Option 3 is inappropriate.

The correct answer is 'Fanatic'.

Key Points

• Rabid refers to having or proceeding from an extreme or fanatical support of or belief in something. (पागल)
• ​Example- "the team has some rabid fans"
• Fanatic refers to a person who is extremely enthusiastic about and devoted to some interest or activity.(कट्टर व्‍यक्ति (विशेषतः धर्म या राजनीति के विषय में))
• ​Example- He was quite rigid, almost like a religious fanatic.
• ​Hence the correct word is 'fanatic'.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Additional Information

• Moderate refers to being, having, using, etc. neither too much nor too little of something. (मध्‍यम स्‍तर का (न बहुत अधिक न बहुत कम))
• Conservative refers to not liking change; traditional. (परिवर्तन का विरोधी; पारंपरिक, रूढ़िवादी)
• Traditional refers to based on a way of thinking, behaving, or doing something that has been used by the people in a particular group, family, society, etc.for a long time. (परंपरागत, पारंपरिक)

The correct answer is 'Having no integrity'.

Key Points

• "A man of straw" refers to someone who appears to be powerful or influential but is actually weak or lacking in substance, particularly in terms of integrity or moral strength.
• This idiom suggests that the person is easily blown away or destroyed, just like a scarecrow made of straw.
• It implies that the individual is not reliable or trustworthy and may be easily manipulated or controlled by others.
• So, the correct interpretation is that a "man of straw" lacks integrity rather than being influential, a puppet, or struggling in vain.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Additional Information

• Influential refers to having power or influence. (प्रभावशाली, असरदार)
• Puppet refers to a person or an organization that is controlled by somebody else. (दूसरों की इच्‍छानुसार काम करने वाला व्‍यकि्त या संस्‍था)
• Struggling in vain means exerting effort or making an attempt to achieve something, but ultimately failing to succeed. (व्यर्थ मेहनत करना)

The correct answer is 'No. It has existed since long'.

Key Points

• Here the correct answer is  'No. It has existed since long'.
• The paragraph states that the self-portrait is not a new concept.
• It mentions that painters and photographers have always used themselves as subjects, indicating that self-portraiture has been practiced for a long time.
• Hence this is the correct answer.

Therefore the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Additional Information

• Option 1 is inappropriate.
• Option 3 is inappropriate.

The correct answer is 'Twitter'.

Key Points

• The correct answer is 'Twitter'.
• In the provided passage, the social networking platforms mentioned for sharing selfies are Instagram, Snapchat, and Facebook.
• However, Twitter is not mentioned.
• Hence the correct answer is 'Twitter'.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Additional Information

• Option 1 is inappropriate.
• Option 2 is inappropriate.
• Option 4 is inappropriate.

By using the symbols in the table given below we can draw the following family tree

1. Barkha and Chandresh are siblings.

2. Manish has two children and he is son of Suresh, who is father-in-law of Hansa.

3. Hansa has only one son.

4. Chandresh is not son-in-law of Suresh.

According to the tree diagram, Barkha is Grand Daughter of Suresh.

Hence, 'Grand Daughter' is the correct answer.

Least possible Venn diagram,

Conclusions:

I. Some trains are flowers → False (There is no direct relation between trains and flowers)

II. Some trains are jungles →  False (There is no direct relation between trains and Jungles)

III. Some flowers are trains → False (There is no direct relation between trains and flowers)

IV. No road is flower → True (As given all flowers are jungles and no road is jungle. so, no road is flower)

Hence, the correct answer is "Only IV follows".

The logic followed here is,

Sum of digits of numbers = 11

(1): 4025 → 4 + 0 + 2 + 5 = 11

(2): 7211 → 7 + 2 + 1 + 1 = 11

(3): 5061 → 5 + 0 + 6 + 1 = 12

(4): 6023 → 6 + 0 + 2 + 3 = 11

Hence, 5061 is odd from given numbers.

We shall find the day on 1st April, 2001.

1st April, 2001 = (2000 years + Period from 1.1.2001 to 1.4.2001)

Odd days in 1600 years = 0

Odd days in 400 years = 0

Jan. Feb. March April

(31 + 28 + 31 + 1) = 91 days 0 odd days.

Total number of odd days = (0 + 0 + 0) = 0

On 1st April, 2001 it was Sunday.

In April, 2001 Wednesday falls on 4th, 11th, 18th and 25th.

Hence, the correct answer is 4th, 11th, 18th, 25th.

The increase in budgetary allocation for building a better railway network and the drop in the number of passengers opting for air travel could be related, but the cause-and-effect relationship is not clear from the information provided.

One possible explanation could be that the increase in budgetary allocation for the railway network has led to the improvement of railway infrastructure, making train travel a more attractive and convenient option compared to air travel, which might have contributed to the drop in the number of passengers choosing air travel.

However, it's also possible that both statements are independent effects of a common cause, such as a change in economic conditions or travel preferences. 

Hence, If both the statements A and B are effects of some common cause.

The correct answer is New Delhi

In News

• The first Permanent Aadhaar Enrolment Centre (PAEC) for the Indian Army was inaugurated in New Delhi

Key Points

• The first Permanent Aadhaar Enrolment Centre (PAEC) for the Indian Army was inaugurated in New Delhi on July 25, 2023.
• The PAEC will facilitate Aadhaar-related services (enrolment and updation) for tri-services personnel (Defence and civil) and their dependents through their Field Post Offices (FPO) in 48 identified locations in the country.
• All Command HQs, Corps HQs, and selected FPOs are identified for the establishment of PAEC services.
• The PAEC was inaugurated by Alok Sharma, Director General of Postal Services, and Lt Gen Rajinder Dewan, Quartermaster General for the army.

The correct answer is Oriya

Key Points

• The “SaNGRAH Safe Food for Nations: Global Food Regulatory Authorities Handbook” is a comprehensive database of Food Regulatory Authorities from 76 countries worldwide.
• It is available in English, Hindi, Gujarati, Marathi, Tamil, Telugu, and Malayalam.
• Oriya (now known as Odia) is not one of the languages in which SaNGRAH is available.
• The handbook includes details about regulatory agencies, their functions, regulations, and contact information.

The correct answer is Ministry of Home Affairs

In News

• The Union Ministry of Home Affairs has launched a “Scheme for Expansion and Modernization of Fire Services in the States”

Key Points

• Ministry of Home Affairs launches "Scheme for Expansion and Modernization of Fire Services in the States."
• Drawn from the Preparedness and Capacity Building Funding Window under NDRF, totalling Rs. 5,000 crore.
• Expected to lead to better fire prevention, mitigation, and management, ultimately saving lives and property.
• An amount of Rs. 500 crore, out of the total outlay, has been kept for incentivizing the States based on their legal and infrastructure-based reforms.
• A letter in this regard has been sent to the Chief Secretaries and Heads of Fire Services of all States.
• The objective of the scheme is to expand and modernize Fire Services in the States with a view that activities for strengthening fire services at the state level through preparedness and the capacity-building component of the NDRF will be ensured.
• State Governments seeking funds for projects must contribute a certain percentage of the total cost.
• Typically, states contribute 25% of the total project cost, with exceptions for North-Eastern and Himalayan states, which contribute 10%.

Additional Information

• Ministry of Family and Health Affairs:
• Focuses on family welfare, maternal and child health, and disease control.
• Implements policies for healthcare services, including immunization and reproductive health.
• Ministry of Urban Development:
• Deals with urban planning, infrastructure, and housing in cities.
• Implements programs like Smart Cities Mission and AMRUT for urban development.
• Ministry of Defence:
• Responsible for India's defence and armed forces.
• Formulates defence policies, procures equipment, and ensures national security.

The correct answer is 6th

In News

• The Ministry of Women and Child Development celebrates the 6th Rashtriya Poshan Maah 2023 from 1st to 30th September 2023.

Key Points

• The Ministry of Women and Child Development celebrates the 6th Rashtriya Poshan Maah 2023 from 1st to 30th September 2023.
• This year, the objective is to trigger Poshan Maah through Gram Panchayats as Poshan Panchayats with a key focus on Suposhit Bharat, Sakshar Bharat, Sashakt Bharat,”
• At the Panchayat level, awareness activities were conducted by local functionaries under the guidance of the concerned District Panchayati Raj Officers and CDPOs.
• Poshan Panchayat Committees will work closely with **field-level workers (FLWs)**to support problem-solving and enabling service delivery.
• Awareness drives on Anganwadi Services and good health practices will also be organised.
• Further, the land will also be identified for Nutri-Gardens or Poshan Vatikas at or near Anganwadi Centres (AWCs).
• Special focus was given to the importance of rainwater conservation among women at Anganwadi centres and on traditional foods in tribal areas for healthy mothers and children.
• Under the State–level activities, ‘Amma ki Rasoi’ or Grandmother’s Kitchen of traditional nutritious recipes will be organised.
• Extensive efforts will be made to link traditional foods with local festivals during the month.
• In States/UTs, various departments will carry out thematic activities and spread the message of the importance of holistic nutrition throughout the month to ensure a healthier future for women and children.

 Additional Information 

• POSHAN Abhiyaan is the Government of India’s flagship programme to improve nutritional outcomes for children under 6 years of age, pregnant women and lactating mothers.
• Launched by the Prime Minister in 2018, POSHAN (Prime Minister’s Overarching Scheme for Holistic Nutrition) Abhiyaan aims to address the challenge of malnutrition in a mission mode.
• Focusing on the aims of POSHAN Abhiyaan, Mission Poshan 2.0 (Saksham Anganwadi and Poshan 2.0) has been launched in 2021, as an integrated nutrition support program to strengthen nutritional content, delivery, outreach and outcomes with focus on developing practices that nurture health, wellness and immunity to disease and malnutrition.

The correct answer is Rebuilding trust and reigniting global solidarity.

In News

• The theme of the 78th United Nations General Assembly for the year 2023 is “Rebuilding trust and reigniting global solidarity

Key Points

• The theme of the 78th United Nations General Assembly for the year 2023 is “Rebuilding trust and reigniting global solidarity: Accelerating action on the 2030 Agenda and its Sustainable Development Goals towards peace, prosperity, progress and sustainability for all”.
• The session began on September 5, 2023, and will continue until September 27, 2024.
• The theme reflects the need to address the challenges facing the world today, such as climate change, poverty, inequality, and conflict, and to work together to achieve the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).

Additional Information

United Nations General Assembly

• The General Assembly is the main deliberative, policymaking and representative organ of the UN.
• All 193 Member States of the UN are represented in the General Assembly, making it the only UN body with universal representation.
• Each year, in September, the full UN membership meets in the General Assembly Hall in New York for the annual General Assembly session, and general debate, which many heads of state attend and address.
• Decisions on important questions, such as those on peace and security, admission of new members, and budgetary matters, require a two-thirds majority of the General Assembly.
• The United Nations General Assembly may grant non-member states, international organizations, and other entities Permanent Observer Status.
• Decisions on other questions are by a simple majority.
• General Assembly decided that observer status would be confined to States and intergovernmental organizations whose activities cover matters of interest to the Assembly.
• The President of the General Assembly is elected each year by the assembly to serve a one-year term of office.
• Permanent Observers may participate in the sessions and workings of the General Assembly and maintain missions at the UN Headquarters.

The Correct answer is Jan Jan Sakshar

In News

• Jan Jan Sakshar, is the slogan of the Understanding Lifelong Learning for All in Society (ULLAS) initiative launched by the Union Education Minister, Shri Dharmendra Pradhan, on July 29, 2023.

Key Points

• The tagline for the Nav Bharat Saksharata Karyakram launched during the celebration of the 3rd anniversary of National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 is “ULLAS: Understanding of Lifelong Learning for All in Society”.
• The initiative aims to promote lifelong learning and adult education in India.
• “Jan Jan Sakshar” is the slogan of the Understanding Lifelong Learning for All in Society (ULLAS) initiative launched by the Union Education Minister, Shri Dharmendra Pradhan, on July 29, 2023, during the celebration of the 3rd anniversary of National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 in New Delhi.
• The initiative aims to promote lifelong learning and adult education in India.

Additional Information

• National Education Policy (NEP) 2020:
• NEP 2020 is a comprehensive framework for the development of education in India.
• Introduced in 2020 by the Government of India.
• Replaces the National Policy on Education, 1986, and the Program of Action, 1992.
• To provide equitable access to quality education for all.
• To promote multidisciplinary education and holistic development.
• Introduction of Early Childhood Care and Education (ECCE).
• Transformation of the existing 10+2 structure into a new 5+3+3+4 curricular structure.

The correct answer is Indian Women's Blind Cricket Team 

In NewsThe Indian women’s Blind cricket team won the gold medal at the IBSA World Games

Key Points

• The Indian women’s Blind cricket team won the gold medal at the IBSA World Games held in Birmingham, UK.
• India restricted Australia to 114/8 in 20 overs.
• India chased down the revised target of 42 in 3.3 overs, winning by nine wickets.
• The Indian captain, Sushma Patel, led the team to victory.

Additional Information

• International Blind Sports Federation (IBSA):
• The IBSA World Games was first held in 2001.
• Multi-sport competition for athletes with visual impairments.
• Typically held every four years.
• The event includes sports tailored for visually impaired athletes, such as athletics, goalball, judo, powerlifting, swimming, and more.
• Raises awareness about visual impairment and advocates for accessibility in sports.

The correct answer is United Kingdom

In News

• Jim Skea was elected as the Chair of the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) for its seventh assessment cycle on July 26, 2023, at the 59th Session of the IPCC held in Nairobi, Kenya.

Key Points

• Jim Skea was elected as the Chair of the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) for its seventh assessment cycle on July 26, 2023, at the 59th Session of the IPCC held in Nairobi, Kenya.
• He is a British academic and a Professor of Sustainable Energy at Imperial College London.
• Skea has been involved with the IPCC since its inception in the 1990s and has served as a member of the Bureau since 2008.
• He was a co-author of the IPCC 2018 Special Report on Global Warming of 1.5 °C.
• Jim Skea belongs to the United Kingdom.​

Additional Information

• Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change(IPCC):
• Founded in 1988.
• Established to assess scientific information related to climate change.
• Joint body of the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) and the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
• Covers various disciplines including meteorology, climatology, ecology, economics, and social sciences.
• Conducts assessments in regular cycles, typically every 5-7 years.

The correct answer is U.S.A.

In News

• On July 10, 2023, the European Commission adopted its adequacy decision on the EU-U.S.A

Key Points

• The European Commission adopted its adequacy decision on the EU-U.S.A
• Data Privacy Framework, thereby concluding that the United States ensures an adequate level of protection for personal data that are transferred from the European Union to companies in the U.S. that participate in the Framework.
• Therefore, personal data can flow freely from the EU to companies in the United States that participate in the Data Privacy Framework.

Additional Information

• European Commission
• Central institution of the European Union (EU).
• Comprised of one commissioner per EU member state.
• Functions:
• Proposes legislation.
• Ensures implementation of EU laws.
• Manages EU policies and programs.
• Represent the EU in international negotiations.
• Expected to act independently from national governments.
• Accountable to the European Parliament, which can dismiss it through a vote of no confidence.
• Shapes EU policies across various areas such as trade, competition, and environment.
• Alongside the European Parliament, the Council of the EU, and European Council, forms the core of the EU's institutional structure.

The correct answer is 26th

In News 

• Indian Pavilion inaugurated the 26th Edition of  World Mining Congress 2023, Australia in June 2023.

Key Points 

• Amrit Lal Meena, Secretary, Ministry of Coal inaugurated the India pavilion having NLC India Ltd (NLCIL), Coal India Limited (CIL) and NMDC at the World Mining Congress (WMC) 2023 in Brisbane, Australia.
• The India pavilion at WMC showcases the country’s technological prowess in the mining, and energy sectors and its commitment to sustainable development practices.
• The event, being held in Brisbane, Australia, has brought together industry leaders, experts and organizations from around the world to share knowledge and advancements in the mining and power generation sector.

Additional Information 

• World Mining Congress 2023:
• The World Mining Congress 2023 presently underway from June 26-29, in Australia, provides the right platform for global industry leaders, experts and organizations to exchange ideas, foster innovations, and envision the future of mining.
• Participation by Indian PSEs and the visit by Coal Secretary and other officials from the Ministry reflect India’s commitment to staying at the forefront of technological advancements and responsible mining practices.

The correct answer is 14th December.

Key Points

• The National Energy Conservation Day is celebrated every year on  December 14  in India.
• The day is organized by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) under the Ministry of Power to present India's achievements in cost-efficient energy production and resource conservation.
• The event also aims to discuss future plans for holistic development towards mitigating climate change.
• The Bureau of Energy Efficiency has been leading the celebrations of National Energy Conservation Day annually since 1991.
• As part of its awareness campaign, awards are distributed annually on this day in 56 sub-sectors of the country to recognize achievements in energy efficiency.
• The National Energy Conservation Awards Program commends the efforts of the industry, institutions, and establishments ranging from power plants to hotels to shopping malls.
• Prizes are also awarded by the BEE to winners of the National Painting Competition centered on the theme of energy conservation.

The correct answer is 8.

In News

The National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) is a government document that includes 8 ambitious goals set for the country to achieve.

Key Points

The eight missions under the NAPCC are:

• National Solar Mission:
• This initiative started in 2010 to promote the use of solar power.
• National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency:
• The initiative was undertaken to promote the market for energy efficiency by fostering innovative policies and effective market instruments.
• National Mission on Sustainable Habitat:
• Approved by the Prime Minister in 2011, it aims to make cities sustainable through improvements in energy efficiency in buildings, management of solid waste, and shift to public transport.
• National Water Mission:
• The mission was put in place to ensure integrated water resource management helping to conserve water, minimize wastage, and ensure more equitable distribution both across and within states.
• National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem:
• A multi-pronged, cross-cutting mission across various sectors, NMSHE got a nod from the Union Cabinet in 2014. Aimed at protecting the Himalayas, it has mapped institutes and civil society organizations working on the Himalayan ecology for ease of coordination between governmental and non-governmental agencies.
• National Mission for a Green India:
• The mission aims to increase forest cover and improve quality of forest cover in the country.
• National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture:
• The mission aims to promote sustainable agriculture through the conservation of soil and water, and promoting integrated nutrient management.
• National Mission on Strategic Knowledge for Climate Change:
• The mission aims to create a knowledge base for climate change-related issues and to develop a sustainable and climate-resilient society.

The correct answer is Jamsetji Nusserwanji Tata

Key Points

• The Indian Institute of Science (IISc) was established in 1909 with the support of the Mysore State, whose rulers shared the founder’s commitment towards education and research.
• The founder of IISc was Jamsetji Nusserwanji Tata, a successful industrialist who strongly believed in the role of scientific research and higher education in social and economic transformation.
• Tata’s dream of establishing a world-class university in India using his wealth became a reality with the support of the Mysore State and the colonial government of India.
• After overcoming several hurdles, including those resulting from Tata’s untimely death in the summer of 1904, IISc finally came into existence on 27 May 1909 in Bangalore following a vesting order and resolution passed by the government of India to establish the Institute.

The correct answer is Himachal Pradesh

Key Points

• Pangi Valley is located in the Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh.
• It is a remote and poorly developed tribal area, as well as one of the most remote areas in Himachal Pradesh state.
• The valley is divided into the Saichu, Hudan Bhatori, Anch Chaloli, and Sural Bhatori valleys, which are inhabited at elevations of 7,000 feet (2,100 m) to 11,000 feet (3,400 m) above sea level.
• The valley is bordered by Padder, Jammu and Kashmir in the north, Lahaul and Spiti in the west, and Chamba in the southeast.
• The Sach Pass at an elevation of 4,414 meters is the only route connecting Pangi with the district headquarters of Chamba.

Additional InformationHimachal Pradesh 

• The state of Himachal Pradesh was formed in the year 1971.
• It was established as the 19th state with Shimla as its capital.
• In 1950, it was created after a merger of 30 princely states and in 1956 it was declared a union territory.

The correct answer is Polo

Key Points

• The Pat Williamson Ground is a polo ground located in Kolkata, West Bengal.
• It is the oldest registered polo ground in the world and is home to the Calcutta Polo Club, which was established in 1862 and is considered to be the world’s oldest polo club.
• The club provides advanced professional training in polo to aspiring professionals and amateurs.
• Members can keep their own horses in the club stables or can book or use any of the horses available in the club.
• Apart from training, the club organizes various polo tournaments, which are mostly held in December in the Pat Williamson Ground, popularly known as Polo Grounds in Kolkata.
• The club runs the oldest and first-ever Polo Trophy, the Ezra Cup (1880), besides other old ones such as the Carmichael Cup (1910) and the Stewarts Cup (1932).

The correct is Dadra & Nagar Haveli

Key Points

• Satmalia Deer Sanctuary is located in the UT of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu.
• The sanctuary is situated near Khanvel village on Silvassa-Khanvel road, 12 km south of the nearest city and district headquarters Silvassa.
• The sanctuary is home to many species of antelope, including sambhar and chital deer, and blackbucks, as well as a wide variety of birds, including the flameback woodpecker, peacocks, and thrushes.
• The machan (watchtower) near the water hole provides an incredible panoramic view of the sanctuary and Madhuban Dam.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• The electoral college for the election of the President of India consists of elected members of the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and state legislative assemblies.
• Elected members of legislative councils are not part of the electoral college.

Additional Information

• Elected members of the Lok Sabha are part of the electoral college.
• The elected members of Rajya Sabha are part of the electoral college.
• The elected members of the Legislative Assembly of each state are part of the electoral college.
• Elected members of legislative councils are not part of the electoral college because they are the upper houses of state legislatures, and they are not directly elected by the public.
• He is nominated by the Governor.

The correct answer is International Maritime Organisation.

Key Points

• The headquarters of the International Maritime Organization is located in London, United Kingdom.
• This organization promotes international cooperation in the areas of maritime security, environment and trade.

Additional Information

• The headquarters of the World Intellectual Property Organization is located in Geneva, Switzerland.
• The headquarters of the International Atomic Energy Agency is located in Vienna, Austria.
• The headquarters of the Food and Agriculture Organization is located in Rome, Italy.

The correct answer is Moroni.

Key Points

• It is located on the southwestern coast of the island of Grande Comore, also known as Ngazidja, the largest of the three main islands of the Comoros archipelago.
• Moroni is the most populous city in the country, with an estimated population of over 60,000 people.

Additional Information

• Nicosia is the capital of the Republic of Cyprus.
• Harare is a capital of Zimbabwe. It is the largest city in the country, with a population of over 1.8 million people.
• Harare is located in the northeastern part of Zimbabwe, in the Mashonaland region.
• Accra is the capital of Ghana.
• It is located on the southern coast of Ghana, on the Gulf of Guinea.

The correct answer is Sri Yaskacarya.

Key Points 

• Sri Yaskacarya was an ancient Indian grammarian and linguist who lived in the 7th-5th centuries BCE.
• He is the author of the Nirukta, a technical treatise on etymology, lexical category, and the semantics of Sanskrit words.
• The Nirukta is the oldest Indian work on etymology, philology, and semantics, and it has had a profound influence on the development of these disciplines in India.

Additional Information

• Maharshi Patanjali was a grammarian and philosopher who lived in the 2nd century BCE.
• He is best known for his magnum opus, the Mahabhashya, a commentary on the Ashtadhyayi, the seminal work on Sanskrit grammar by Panini.
• Kalidasa was a Sanskrit poet and playwright who lived in the 4th-5th centuries CE.
• He is considered one of the greatest poets and playwrights in Sanskrit literature.
• His works include the plays Abhijñanashakuntalam, Vikramorvashiyam, and Raghuvamsham, and the epic poems Kumarasambhavam and Raghuvamsham.